TEST BANK for Criminalistics An Introduction to Forensic Science 13th Edition by Richard Saferstein, by ACADEMIAMILL

Test Bank for

Criminalistics An Introduction to Forensic Science 13th Edition Richard Saferstein

Tiffany Roy

Chapter 1 Introduction

Chapter 1 Multiple Choice 1) Forensic science is the application of science to: A) Crime scene reconstruction. B) Civil laws. C) Criminal laws. D) Both criminal and civil laws. Answer: D Page Ref: 03 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 2) The fictional character of Sherlock Holmes was created by: A) Dalton. B) Doyle. C) Darwin. D) Denton. Answer: B Page Ref: 05 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 3) Who is known as the “father of forensic toxicology”? A) Orfila B) Locard C) Osborn D) Lattes Answer: A Page Ref: 05 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 4) Who developed the system known as anthropometry? A) Bertillon B) Goddard C) Gross D) Galton Answer: A 154 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 05 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 5) Who undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints as a method of personal identification? A) Gross B) Lattes C) Goddard D) Galton Answer: D Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 6) Who devised a technique for determining the blood group of a dried bloodstain, which he applied to criminal investigations? A) Lattes B) Gross C) Locard D) Bertillon Answer: A Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 7) Who established the comparison microscope as the indispensable tool of the modern firearms examiner? A) Goddard B) Lattes C) Gross D) Osborn Answer: A Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 8) Who wrote the first treatise describing the application of science to the field of criminal investigation? A) Locard B) Osborn C) Lattes D) Gross Answer: D Page Ref: 07 155 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 9) Who established the first workable crime laboratory? A) Galton B) Bertillon C) Locard D) Osborn Answer: C Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 10) The exchange of evidence principle was theorized by: A) Gross. B) Locard. C) Galton. D) Osborn. Answer: B Page Ref: 08 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 11) The oldest forensic laboratory in the United States is that of the: A) N.Y.C. Police Department. B) FBI. C) Los Angeles Police Department. D) Secret Service. Answer: C Page Ref: 08 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 12) Which of the following can be rightfully cited as an explanation for the rapid growth of crime labs during the last 40 years? A) Supreme Court decisions in the 1960s B) Staggering increase in crime rates in the United States C) Advent of DNA profiling D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 9-10 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic

13) Which entity maintains the largest crime laboratory in the world? A) FBI B) Royal Canadian Mounted Police C) Scotland Yard D) ATF Answer: A Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 14) Which would NOT be included in the work of the biology unit of a crime lab? A) Blood typing B) Comparison of hairs C) DNA profiling D) Fingerprint analysis Answer: D Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 15) Which unit is responsible for the examination of body fluids and organs for the presence of drugs and poisons? A) Toxicology unit B) Physical science unit C) Evidence collection unit D) Biology unit Answer: A Page Ref: 13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 16) The concept of “general acceptance” of scientific evidence relates to the: A) First Amendment. B) Exclusionary rule. C) Frye standard. D) Miranda warnings. Answer: C Page Ref: 16

Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate 17) In the case of Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceutical, Inc., the U.S. Supreme Court advocated that a “gatekeeper” determine the admissibility and reliability of scientific evidence. This gatekeeper is the: A) Expert witness. B) Prosecutor. C) Jury. D) Trial judge. Answer: D Page Ref: 17 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate 18) Which of the following is NOT true? An expert witness must be able to demonstrate: A) Skill in a trade or profession that is of interest to the court. B) Significant experience in a relevant field. C) A formal degree in forensic science. D) Education in his/her area of expertise. Answer: C Page Ref: 18 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 19) The final evaluator of forensic evidence is the: A) Police. B) Jury. C) Accused. D) Prosecutor. Answer: B Page Ref: 20 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Basic 20) What is the LEAST important consideration in the gathering of evidence at a crime scene? A) Adequate preservation of samples B) Competent collection of materials

C) Guilt of the suspect(s) D) Proper recognition of the evidence Answer: C Page Ref: 21 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate 21) Bite marks would be LEAST likely to be found in cases involving: A) Murder. B) Child abuse. C) Arson. D) Sexual abuse. Answer: C Page Ref: 22 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 22) Forensic odontology refers to the study of: A) Drugs. B) Pollen. C) Teeth. D) Bones. Answer: C Page Ref: 22 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 23) Which of the following services are typically provided to law enforcement by crime laboratories? A) Pathology B) Criminalistics C) Odontology D) Psychology Answer: B Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic

24) The case of Coppolino v. State highlights issues dealing with: A) Search and seizure. B) The admissibility of the polygraph. C) The evidential value of confessions. D) The acceptability of new scientific tests. Answer: D Page Ref: 18 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate 25) The scientific method requires that scientific evidence be validated by: A) Formulating pertinent questions. B) Formulating hypotheticals. C) Performing experiments. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 16 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 26) The eleven sections of The American Academy of Forensic Science include all of the following EXCEPT: A) General. B) Arson/Explosives. C) Jurisprudence. D) Criminalistics. Answer: B Page Ref: 03 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 27) The tendency of the public to believe that every crime scene will yield forensic evidence and their unrealistic expectations that a prosecutor’s case should always be bolstered and supported by forensic evidence is known as: A) Jurisprudence. B) Locard’s Principle. C) The Scientific Method. D) The CSI Effect. Answer: D Page Ref: 04 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 160 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) What is the most significant problem facing the forensic DNA community? A) Contamination of DNA samples by evidence collectors B) Backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples C) Lack of recent advancements in DNA technology D) Absence of computerized DNA databases Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 29) Which unit applies principles and techniques of chemistry, physics, and geology to the identification and comparison of crime scene evidence? A) Forensic geology B) Physical science C) Toxicology D) Biology Answer: B Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 30) Which specialized area of forensic science examines the relationship between human behavior and legal proceedings? A) Forensic jury selection B) Jurisprudence C) Forensic psychiatry D) Forensic odontology Answer: C Page Ref: 22 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 31) A crime scene which involved the collapse of a structure would be analyzed by specialists in the area of: A) Forensic computer and digital analysis. B) Forensic error analysis. C) Criminalistics. D) Forensic engineering. Answer: D Page Ref: 23 161 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 32) What factor(s) do(es) the court usually take into consideration as sufficient grounds for qualification as an expert witness? A) Experience B) Training C) Education D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 18 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Basic 33) Specially trained personnel called ________ are employed by some crime laboratories on 24hour call to retrieve evidence and have all the proper tools and supplies for proper collection and packaging of evidence at their disposal. A) Evidence officers B) Forensic detectives C) Evidence technicians D) Forensic pathologists Answer: C Page Ref: 21 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 34) In Kumho Tire Co., Ltd. v. Carmichael, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the “gatekeeping” role of a trial judge: A) Was restricted to scientific testimony. B) Applied only to cases involving capital crimes. C) Was subject to appeal by a higher court. D) Applied to all expert testimony. Answer: D Page Ref: 18 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate

35) Which judicial case set forth the most current guidelines for determining the admissibility of scientific examinations in the federal courts? A) Frye v. United States B) Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals C) Coppolino v. State of Florida D) Kumho Tire Co., Ltd. v. Carmichael Answer: B Page Ref: 17 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate 36) The dramatization of forensic science on television has led to a phenomenon known as the: A) NCIS effect. B) NYPD effect. C) CSI effect. D) LAPD effect. Answer: C Page Ref: 04 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Basic 37) The necessity for the forensic scientist to appear in court comes from the U.S. Supreme Court case? A) Melendez-Diaz v. Massachusetts B) Crawford v. Washington C) Coppolino v. State D) Frye v. United States Answer: A Page Ref: 20 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Basic 38) The lay witness provides testimony that relies on: A) Scientific education. B) Personal opinions. C) Personal knowledge. D) Scientific experience. Answer: C Page Ref: 19 163 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 1 True/False 1) One of the earliest crime laboratories was founded by Albert Osborn. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 08 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 2) The case of Frye v. United States deals with the legal issue of general acceptance of scientific principles. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 16 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 3) The administration of a polygraph examination does not normally lie within the expertise of the forensic scientist. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 4) The effectiveness of an expert’s testimony does not usually depend on the educational background of the expert. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 18 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic

5) Forensic science is the application of science to criminal laws only. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 03 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 6) Locard’s exchange principle states that whenever two objects come into contact with one another, there is an exchange of materials between them. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 08 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 7) In 1972, New York began creating an integrated network of state-operated forensic laboratories consisting of regional and satellite facilities. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 08 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 8) The increase in U.S. crime rates since the 1960s did not have any effect on the growth of crime laboratories. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 9) The federal government has no single law enforcement or investigative agency that has unlimited jurisdiction throughout the country. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 10

Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 10) Differences in local laws have no effect on the variation of total services offered by crime labs in different communities. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 11 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 11) The physical science unit would perform soil and mineral analysis. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 12) The comparison of hairs and fibers would be performed in the biology unit. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 13) Examining garments and other objects in order to detect firearms discharge residues would be performed in the biology unit. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 14) Providing expert testimony is not one of the main functions of a forensic scientist. A) True B) False 166 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 14 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Basic 15) Frye v. United States established the “general acceptance” rule. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 16 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Intermediate 16) An expert witness gives testimony on events or observations that arise from personal knowledge. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 19 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 17) A lay witness’s testimony cannot usually contain the personal opinions of the witness. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 19 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 18) Forensic anthropologists can use dental records such as X-rays, dental casts, and a photograph of a person’s smile to compare a set of dental remains and a suspected victim. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 22

Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 19) The physical science unit is responsible for examining burned or charred documents. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 20) The toxicology unit determines the amount of alcoholic consumption of individuals. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 21) Karl Landsteiner and Leone Lattes are associated with the area of blood typing. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 22) Dr. Walter C. McCrone made significant contributions to forensic science using the microscope. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 23) The increase in crime rates in the U.S. has led to an increase in the number of crime laboratories. A) True B) False Answer: A 168 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 24) All illicit drug seizures must be sent to a forensic laboratory for confirmatory analysis. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 25) It is the responsibility of the forensic investigator to determine innocence or guilt. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 20 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 26) The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives is a state-run agency. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 27) Forensic odontologists look at bones to identify victims. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 22 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 28) The American Academy of Forensic Sciences is the largest forensic science organization in the world. A) True B) False Answer: A 169 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 03 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 29) Sir Arthur Conan Doyle’s Sherlock Holmes had a large influence on popularizing scientific crime-detection methods. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 05 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 30) The United States has no national system of forensic laboratories. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 31) The firearms unit may also analyze tool marks. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 32) Physical evidence is subject to bias. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 14 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 33) One major problem in forensic DNA laboratories is the backlog of unanalyzed DNA samples. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 34) Regional laboratories have decreased the accessibility of many local law enforcement agencies to a crime laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 11 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 35) A voiceprint transforms a visual graphic display into speech. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 36) The five basic services a crime lab can provide are the physical science unit, the biology unit, the firearms unit, the document examination unit, and the photography unit. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 12-13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 1 Fill in the Blank 1) The “father of forensic toxicology” is considered to be ________. Answer: Orfila Page Ref: 05 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate

2) ________ undertook the first definitive study of fingerprints and developed a methodology of classifying them for filing. Answer: Galton Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate 3) ________ was the first to use a comparison microscope to analyze bullets to determine whether they were fired from the same gun. Answer: Goddard Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Difficult 4) The fee-for-service concept has encouraged the creation of a number of ________ laboratories. Answer: Private Page Ref: 9 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Difficult 5) The ________ unit performs DNA profiling of dried bloodstains and other body fluids. Answer: Biology Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 6) The ________ unit examines body fluids and organs to determine the presence or absence of drugs and poisons. Answer: Toxicology Page Ref: 13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 7) The ________ case assigned the trial judge the task of ensuring that an expert’s testimony rests on a reliable foundation and is relevant to the task at hand. Answer: Daubert Page Ref: 17-18 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Difficult

8) The ________ witness evaluates evidence that the court lacks the expertise to do. Answer: Expert Page Ref: 18 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 9) A ________ witness must give testimony on events or observations that arise from personal knowledge. Answer: Lay Page Ref: 19 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate 10) A forensic ________ can compare bite marks left on a victim to the tooth structure of suspects. Answer: Odontologist Page Ref: 22 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Basic 11) The ________ unit helps prepare photographic exhibits for courtroom presentation. Answer: Photography Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 12) Forensic science is the application of science to the ________. Answer: Law Page Ref: 03 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 13) Fingerprinting replaced ________ as a method of personal identification. Answer: Anthropometry Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Intermediate

14) The ________ analysis unit analyzes telephoned threats and audio-recorded messages. Answer: Voiceprint Page Ref: 13 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 15) Collecting evidence from a cell phone is an example of forensic ________ and digital analysis. Answer: Computer Page Ref: 23 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 16) The document examination unit studies the handwriting and ________ on questioned documents to ascertain authenticity and/or source. Answer: Typewriting Page Ref: 12 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Basic 17) ________ was the first to use a comparison microscope to analyze bullets to determine whether they were fired from the same gun. Answer: Goddard Page Ref: 07 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Difficult

Chapter 1 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) When two objects come into contact with each other, a cross-transfer of materials occurs B) Application of science to the law C) A process that uses strict guidelines to ensure careful and systematic collection, organization, and analysis of information D) An individual whom the court determines to possess a particular skill or knowledge in a trade or profession that is not expected of the average layperson and that will aid a court in determining the truth of a matter at trial E) Public belief that every crime scene will yield forensic evidence F) A systematic procedure that involved taking a series of body measurements as a means of distinguishing one individual from another G) Lie detector 174 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

H) Describes the services of a crime laboratory I)

Visual graphic display of speech

Specialized area in which the relationship between human behavior and legal proceedings is examined

1) Expert witness Page Ref: 18 Level: Basic 2) Locard’s exchange principle Page Ref: 8 Level: Basic 3) Scientific Method Page Ref: 16 Level: Basic 4) Forensic science Page Ref: 3 Level: Basic 5) Anthropometry Page Ref: 4 Level: Basic 6) Voiceprint Page Ref: 13 Level: Basic 7) Polygraph Page Ref: 13 Level: Basic 8) Criminalistics Page Ref: 4 Level: Basic 9) CSI Effect Page Ref: 4 Level: Basic 10) Forensic psychiatry Page Ref: 22 Level: Basic Answers: 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) F 6) G 7) I 8) H 9) E 10) J

Chapter 1 Essay 1) List the underlying reasons for the rapid growth of crime laboratories in the United States since the late 1960s. Answer: • The increasing volume of physical evidence recovered from crime scenes as a result of rising crime rates • The need to perform chemical analyses on drugs, coupled with a significant increase in illicit drug seizures • Supreme Court decisions have enhanced the rights of the defendant. Decisions, such as those ensuring a defendant’s right to counsel and the right to remain silent, have encouraged police agencies to place a greater reliance on scientific investigative techniques. • A more recent impetus leading to the growth and maturation of crime laboratories has been the advent of DNA profiling. Since the early 1990s, this technology has progressed to the point at which traces of blood, semen, stains, hair, and saliva residues left behind on stamps, cups, bite marks, and so on, have made possible the individualization or nearindividualization of biological evidence. To meet the demands of DNA technology, crime labs have expanded staff, and, in many cases, modernized their physical laboratories. • Advances in scientific technology have provided forensic scientists with many new skills and techniques to extract meaningful information from physical evidence. Page Ref: 9-10 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 2) List the advantages of incorporating an evidence collection unit into the organizational structure of the crime laboratory. Answer (should include points such as): • Evidence technicians under the continuous direction of the crime laboratory are more likely to have received thorough training in the gathering of evidence at the crime site than have detectives. • Evidence technicians who are continuously exposed to the problems and techniques of the forensic scientist are better prepared to adopt new procedures or modify existing procedures to improve evidence collection. • Evidence technicians working out of the forensic laboratory will have at their disposal all the proper tools and supplies for proper collection and packaging of evidence for future scientific examination. Page Ref: 21 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate

3) List the three basic functions of a forensic scientist. Answer: • Provides analysis of physical evidence • Provides expert testimony • Furnishes training in recognizing, collecting, and preserving physical evidence at crime scenes Page Ref: 14-21 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic 4) Discuss the major outcomes of the trials Frye v. United States and Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals. Answer (should include points such as): • In Frye v. United States, the court ruled that in order for expert testimony to be admitted at trial, a questioned procedure, technique, or principle must be “generally accepted” by a meaningful segment of the relevant scientific community. • In Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, the U.S. Supreme Court charged the trial judge with ensuring that an expert’s testimony rests on a reliable foundation and is relevant to the case. Page Ref: 16-18 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Difficult 5) What is the main difference between the testimony given by an expert witness and that given by a lay witness? Answer: The ordinary or lay witness must give testimony that does not contain the personal opinions of the witness. The expert witness may express his or her personal opinion as to the significance of specific findings. Page Ref: 18-19 Objective: Explain the role and responsibilities of the expert witness and what specialized forensic services, aside from the crime laboratory, are generally available to law enforcement personnel. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 1 Critical Thinking 1) Describe the evidence to be collected and the specialists or crime laboratory units that would be needed to properly analyze the following crime scene and answer the given questions. On Monday, September 26, 2011, a small airplane believed to be transporting members of a Mexican drug cartel and a shipment of drugs and firearms of unknown type or size recorded a short “mayday” call at 8:05 A.M. before crashing into a farmhouse in Laredo, TX. Local police report that the abandoned farmhouse is frequented by homeless individuals, and there may have been several inside at the time of impact. Upon impact, the airplane’s nearly full gas tank caused a fire that incinerated those within the plane and those within the farmhouse. 177 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

The investigators need to deduce the following: a. How the airplane malfunctioned to cause the crash b. Who was on the airplane and in the farmhouse c. The contents of the airplane’s cargo Answer (should include points such as): All evidence should be collected by the crime scene unit or trained personnel. a. All available portions of the airplane should be collected and analyzed by a forensic engineer to acquire information about potential causes of the crash. The mayday signal should be recorded and analyzed by the voiceprint analysis unit to acquire information about potential causes of the crash. Samples of gasoline should be collected and analyzed by the physical science unit to acquire information about potential causes of the crash. b. Any discovered remains should be collected and analyzed by a forensic odontologist to acquire information about the identity of the victims. Tissue from discovered remains should be collected and analyzed by the biology unit for blood type or DNA to acquire information about the identity of the victims. c. All available portions of the cargo materials should be collected. Potential drug evidence should be analyzed by the physical science unit to acquire information about the contents of the airplane’s cargo. Potential firearms evidence should be analyzed by the firearms unit to acquire information about the contents of the airplane’s cargo. Page Ref: 3-23 Objective: Describe the organization and services of a typical comprehensive crime laboratory in the criminal justice system. Level: Intermediate 2) For each of the early forensic science methods listed below, denote the more recent technology or discipline which has taken its place for use in forensic science inquiry. a. Identification via anthropometry b. Firearms bullet and cartridge analysis via unassisted vision c. Identification via blood typing d. Poison identification via stomach content analysis e. Collections and analysis of evidence via untrained police officers Answer: a. Fingerprinting b. Comparison microscope c. DNA d. Toxicology e. Crime scene unit/evidence technicians and crime laboratories Page Ref: 3-23 Objective: Distinguish between forensic science and criminalistics. Level: Basic

3) Explain the reasons why it is important to consider the relevance of scientific evidence before allowing it to be introduced into a criminal case. Answer (should include points such as): It is important to consider the relevance of scientific evidence before allowing it to be introduced into a criminal case because physical evidence is accorded great weight during jury deliberations. In addition, failure to take proper safeguards when determining the relevance of evidence may unfairly prejudice a case against the accused. This is in direct conflict with the prosecution’s need to be objective and present information in an objective manner at trial. Page Ref: 3-23 Objective: Explain how physical evidence is analyzed and presented in the courtroom by the forensic scientist, and how admissibility of evidence is determined in the courtroom. Level: Basic

Chapter 2 The Crime Scene Chapter 2 Multiple Choice 1) After providing or obtaining medical assistance for the injured and effecting an arrest of suspects (if possible), the first officer arriving at a crime scene should immediately: A) Search for evidence. B) Secure the scene. C) Make a rough sketch of the scene. D) Take notes. Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 2) The first responding officer must make attempts at the crime scene to detain and question: A) Witnesses. B) Unauthorized personnel. C) Suspects. D) Both A and C Answer: D Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 3) Police barricades, and the strategic positioning of guards, will prohibit access to the crime scene for: A) Civilians only. B) Civilians and media personnel. C) All law enforcement personnel. D) All unauthorized personnel. Answer: D Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic

4) The conditions at a crime scene can be compromised by all of the following actions EXCEPT: A) Taking photographs at the crime scene. B) Adjusting the temperature of the crime scene. C) Eating food at the crime scene. D) Turning a faucet on at the crime scene. Answer: A Page Ref: 32-33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 5) The size and location of the crime scene, as well as the events that occurred there, will determine: A) The kind of evidence that will be missing. B) The kind of search pattern that is used to locate evidence. C) The amount of care that must be taken during the crime-scene search. D) The time at which the crime scene is searched. Answer: B Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 6) Which search pattern would be best suited for a crime scene where many investigators are available to search a large area? A) Spiral B) Grid C) Line D) Zone Answer: D Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 7) The purpose of the crime scene search is to locate: A) DNA-containing evidence. B) All physical evidence. C) Fingerprint evidence. D) Bloodstain patterns.

Answer: B Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 8) The most basic methods of crime scene recording do NOT include: A) Note-taking. B) Photographs. C) Narrated videotapes. D) Infrared analysis. Answer: D Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 9) If the crime scene includes a dead body, the photographer should: A) Determine the time of death. B) Attempt to identify the victim. C) Document all forensic personnel at the crime scene. D) Depict injuries and weapons at the scene. Answer: D Page Ref: 34 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 10) A rough sketch need NOT include a: A) Sketch of the suspect(s). B) Compass heading designating north. C) Date, location, and time of the incident. D) Location of all recovered physical evidence. Answer: A Page Ref: 38-40 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 11) CAD programs enhance the ability to: A) Take complete notes. B) Develop photographs. C) Edit video footage. D) Produce a finished crime-scene sketch. 182 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 40 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 12) Which statement about note-taking is NOT true? A) The individual who packaged and marked items of evidence should be recorded. B) Note-taking is done after all crime scene processing has been completed. C) Notes should include location of physical evidence recovered. D) Disposition of items after collection must be included. Answer: B Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 13) Which crime-scene search pattern would absolutely require more than one investigator? A) Spiral B) Line C) Grid D) Zone Answer: D Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 14) Physical evidence at a hit-and-run scene could include: A) Fiber and tissue. B) Glass fragments. C) Fabric impressions. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 15) The crime-scene notes must accurately record: A) The tasks assigned each investigator. B) Personnel arrivals and departures from the scene. C) Descriptions of evidence present at the crime scene. D) All of the above 183 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 16) The advantages of audio-recording crime scene notes include all of the following EXCEPT: A) The notes can be recorded at the crime laboratory instead of at the crime scene. B) The investigator’s hands are free to carry out other tasks while recording the notes. C) The recordings can be easily uploaded to a computer or copied to a disk to produce a hard copy. D) The notes are recording as the observations are made. Answer: A Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 17) In digital photography, light is recorded as a specific charge on millions of tiny: A) Silver halide grains. B) Charge coupled devices. C) Semi-conductors. D) Pixels. Answer: D Page Ref: 34 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 18) Digital crime-scene photographs require special measures to assure their admissibility in court due to: A) Their poor quality. B) The inability to manipulate the images. C) The ability to manipulate the images. D) All of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 34 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 19) Videos of the crime scene: A) Can be used in place of notes and photographs. B) Must be complemented by a hard copy of notes and separate still photographs. 184 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Are required in all jurisdictions. D) Are not admissible in court due to the poor image quality. Answer: B Page Ref: 37 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 20) Crime-scene sketches serve a unique purpose in permanently documenting the location of evidence: A) Processed at the crime scene. B) Containing drug evidence. C) Not documented in photographs. D) Collected and removed from the crime scene. Answer: D Page Ref: 38 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 21) From the choices below, select the one correct physical evidence collection procedure. A) Bloodstained garments should be packaged separately in paper bags. B) Items recovered from the scene of a murder should be sent along with the body to the medical examiner. C) All items collected from the same grid area should be packaged together. D) Manilla envelopes are ideal for storing evidence such as powders and fine particles. Answer: A Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 22) Investigators should collect possible carriers of trace evidence which may include: A) Vacuum sweepings. B) Clothing. C) Fingernail scrapings. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 23) Changes to evidence, such as contamination, can be prevented by handling evidence with: A) Latex gloves. B) Dry, bare hands. 185 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Disposable forceps. D) Both A and C Answer: D Page Ref: 44 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 24) Charred debris from an arson scene should be: A) Placed together with similar items in a paper bag. B) Placed in Ziploc® bags. C) Packaged in airtight metal paint cans. D) Aired out before packing in plastic wrap. Answer: C Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 25) A victim’s fingernail scrapings would be correctly packaged in: A) A druggist fold. B) A plastic Ziploc® bag. C) Sealed, airtight containers. D) Both B and C. Answer: A Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 26) The successful outcome of a criminal investigation is almost always directly related to: A) The manner in which the evidence is collected and preserved. B) The number of people employed in the crime lab. C) The volume of the physical evidence collected. D) Whether the crime is considered high-profile. Answer: A Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 27) A properly maintained chain of custody is NOT the responsibility of the: A) Crime-scene processor. B) Evidence clerk. C) Forensic technician. D) Trial judge. 186 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 47 Objective: Explain the concept of chain of custody. Level: Basic 28) Success in the recognition and collection of physical evidence is determined primarily by the: A) Notoriety of the case. B) Time available to the evidence collectors. C) Skill of personnel processing the crime scene. D) Type of evidence involved. Answer: C Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 29) The collection of standard reference samples at the crime scene is important because they: A) Permit comparisons to be made with the evidence. B) Are obtained only from suspects in cases of violent assault. C) Serve as a source of extra test material if required in the crime lab. D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 47-48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 30) The presence of blood and semen at crime scenes exposes investigators to: A) Hepatitis B. B) AIDS. C) Both A and B. D) Neither A nor B. Answer: C Page Ref: 48 Objective: Relate what steps are typically required to maintain appropriate health and safety standards at the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 31) The removal of any evidence from a person or from the scene of a crime must be done in conformity with the privileges of which amendment to the Constitution? A) Sixth B) Fourth C) Fifth D) First 187 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 32) The police are NOT required to obtain a search warrant if they are: A) Unable to locate a judge to issue a warrant. B) Certain their suspect is guilty. C) In the process of a legal arrest. D) Investigating the murder of a fellow officer. Answer: C Page Ref: 50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 33) Which U.S. Supreme Court decision dealt with the impropriety of the warrantless collection of physical evidence at a homicide scene? A) Mapp v. U.S. B) Frye v. U.S. C) People v. Wilkens D) Mincey v. Arizona Answer: D Page Ref: 50 Objective: Understand the implications of relevant U.S. Supreme Court decisions in conducting a crime scene investigation. Level: Intermediate 34) Which type of evidence must be packaged separately from other evidence? A) Biological stain evidence B) DNA-containing evidence C) Arson evidence D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 35) Which of the following items is likely to contain DNA evidence? A) A self-adhesive mailing stamp B) A bed sheet C) A blue rug fiber D) A glass fragment 188 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 46 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 36) The evidence collector must take extraordinary care to avoid potential contamination by transferring DNA onto objects of evidential value by: A) Reusing shoe covers. B) Packaging items containing potential DNA evidence in airtight bags. C) Wearing a face mask. D) Using the same pair of forceps to collect all evidence at the crime scene. Answer: C Page Ref: 47 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 37) The best way to guarantee that the evidence will withstand inquiries about what happened to it from the time of its finding to its presentation in court is to: A) Properly record the crime scene. B) Properly mark evidence for identification. C) Properly complete evidence submission forms. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 47 Objective: Explain the concept of chain of custody. Level: Basic 38) When biological samples of unknown origin are discovered at a crime scene, investigators should: A) Assume no pathogens are present and treat the samples as such. B) Allow only trained hazardous material teams to handle the evidence. C) Assume pathogens are present and treat the sample as such. D) Package them in plastic bags. Answer: C Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 39) “The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizure…” is provided for in the United States by the: A) Frye standard. B) Fourth Amendment. C) Declaration of Independence. D) Second Amendment. 189 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 40) Warrantless searches are permitted under law in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) The existence of emergency circumstances. B) The injury or death of a police officer or law enforcement employee. C) The consent of the parties involved. D) The need to prevent the immediate loss of evidence. Answer: B Page Ref: 50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 41) The manner of collecting and preserving physical evidence at a crime scene is determined by: A) The circumstances of the crime. B) The importance of the case. C) The number of evidence collectors present at the crime scene. D) The nature of the evidence. Answer: D Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 42) Physical evidence may be obtained from: A) The crime scene. B) The victim. C) The suspect. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 47Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 43) All of the following items may be placed in an airtight container EXCEPT: A) Charred debris recovered from a fire. B) Blood-stained clothing. C) Glass. D) Hairs and fibers. 190 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 45-46 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 44) The initial survey of the crime scene carried out by the lead investigator is called: A) The spiral search. B) The initial survey. C) The walk-through. D) The crime-scene search. Answer: C Page Ref: 32 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 45) Which crime scene search pattern does NOT require more than one investigator? A) Wheel B) Line C) Grid D) Zone Answer: B Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 46) What is a disadvantage to the spiral search pattern? A) Evidence could be missed. B) It requires several investigators. C) It does not work for outdoors scenes. D) It is dependent on the boundaries of the scene. Answer: A Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 47) The center of the crime scene, which is always included within the crime scene’s boundary, is: A) The area where the first responder entered the scene. B) The area where the witnesses were located. C) The area where the command center will be located. D) The area where the crime occurred. 191 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 48) Evidence commonly located during a vehicle search includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Questioned documents. B) Fibers. C) Paint evidence. D) Broken glass. Answer: A Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 49) To formulate a successful strategy for recovering relevant physical evidence at crime scenes, the investigator must ultimately rely on: A) Reference material. B) Experience. C) Training. D) The lead investigator. Answer: B Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 50) The search pattern in which one or two investigators start at the boundary at one end of the scene and walk straight across to the other side is: A) Line. B) Grid. C) Quadrant. D) Wheel. Answer: A Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate

51) The search pattern that employs two people performing line searches that originate from adjacent corners is: A) Line. B) Grid. C) Spiral. D) Wheel. Answer: B Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 52) Which search pattern employs several people moving from the boundary straight toward the center of the scene (inwarD) or from the center straight to the boundary (outward)? A) Quadrant B) Grid C) Spiral D) Wheel Answer: D Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 53) It is permissible for officers at the scene to: A) Eat. B) Drink. C) Smoke. D) None of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 32 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 54) Which search pattern is most reliant on the boundaries established? A) Line B) Spiral C) Wheel D) Quadrant Answer: A Page Ref: 41

Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 55) Officers should attempt to locate tool marks at the point of entry during the investigation of a: A) Homicide. B) Burglary. C) Hit and run. D) Assault. Answer: B Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 56) The location of an item of evidence on a crime scene sketch is shown by its distance from points of reference that: A) Are fixed or immovable. B) Are within ten feet of the item. C) Are located outside the boundaries of the crime scene. D) Can be transported to the crime laboratory. Answer: A Page Ref: 38 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 57) At an arson scene, collecting a substrate control would require the arson investigator to: A) Collect a sample from the center of a potential accelerant stain. B) Collect samples of surface material from areas far away from the fire’s origin. C) Collect a piece of the surface material near the fire’s origin that he or she believes was not exposed to the accelerant. D) Collect a sample of the vapors at the fire origin. Answer: C Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 58) Success in the recognition and collection of physical evidence is determined primarily | by the: A) Notoriety of the case. B) Time available to the evidence collectors. C) Skill of personnel processing the crime scene. D) Type of evidence involved. 194 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 2 True/False 1) The obligation to maintain the integrity of evidence belongs to the first police officer at the scene only. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 2) The relative evidential value of laboratory test results almost always depends on the way the evidence is collected and presented for examination. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 3) Blood-stained clothing should not be placed in an airtight container. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 4) The evidence collector is concerned with determining the natural variations that exist in physical evidence. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

5) The line and spiral search pattern methods can be performed effectively by one person. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 41 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 6) The first critical step in crime-scene investigation is securing and isolating the crime scene. A) True B) False Answer: AA Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 7) A rough sketch does not need to accurately depict the dimensions of the crime scene. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 38 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 8) The areas searched by crime scene investigators must include all probable points of entry and exit used by the criminal. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 9) The main objective in collecting and packaging physical evidence is to prevent any change in the evidence between the time it is removed from the crime scene and the time it is received by the crime laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 44 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 196 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) It is not necessary to package evidence in separate containers. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 11) Ordinary mailing envelopes should not be used as evidence containers. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 12) Bloodstained materials should be packaged in wrapping paper, manila envelopes, or paper bags. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 13) The chain of custody does not usually play a vital role in a court of law. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 47 Objective: Explain the concept of chain of custody. Level: Basic 14) A substrate control allows the criminalist to connect evidence found at the scene of a crime to the suspect and/or victim. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

15) It is important to include a brief description of the case history on an evidence submission form. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 49 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 16) A substrate control ensures that the surface on which a sample has been deposited does not interfere with the interpretation of laboratory tests. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 17) A warrantless search is never justified. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 50-51 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 18) The need to prevent the immediate loss or destruction of evidence is justification for a warrantless search. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 19) The victim’s clothing and fingernail scrapings are common items of evidence that are sent to the forensic laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 43 198 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 20) The manner of collecting and preserving physical evidence at a crime scene is determined by the nature of the evidence. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 21) Failure to protect a crime scene properly may result in the destruction or altering of evidence. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 22) The first priority of the first officer responding to a crime scene is securing the crime scene. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 23) Unauthorized personnel include friends and family of the victim. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 24) The officer charged with protecting the scene has the authority to exclude fellow officers. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 31 199 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 25) When possible, it is advisable to have two people supervising and coordinating the collection of evidence. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 26) The first responding officer should not make attempts at the crime scene to detain and question unauthorized personnel. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 27) It is permitted for officers at the scene to alter temperature conditions by adjusting windows, doors, or the heat or air-conditioning. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 28) The investigators should follow a direct path to the center of the scene. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 29) The main disadvantage of digital photography for recording crime scenes is that digital photographs can be easily manipulated by using computer software. A) True B) False 200 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 34 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 30) Sketching allows the investigator to combine notes and photography. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 38 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 31) Evidence may be moved only after investigators have documented its location and appearance in notes, sketches, and photographs. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 33-38 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 32) The investigator should not remove trace evidence from items at the crime scene; instead, he or she should send the entire object to the laboratory for processing. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 44 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 33) If evidence is adhering to an object in a precarious manner, the investigator should remove the evidence and package the item. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 44 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

34) Mobile crime laboratories are designed to carry out the functions of a chemical laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 35) Evidence cannot be shipped through the mail. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe the proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 2 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ evidence is any object that can establish that a crime has been committed or can link a crime and its victim or a crime and its perpetrator. Answer: Physical Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 2) The three methods of crime scene recording are photography, sketches, and ________. Answer: Notes Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 3) The most important prerequisite for photographing a crime scene is for the scene to be in a(n) ________ condition. Answer: Unaltered Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Difficult

4) A ________ sketch is a draft representation of all essential information and measurements at a crime scene. Answer: Rough Page Ref: 38 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 5) The integrity of evidence is best maintained when the item is kept in its ________ condition as found at the crime scene. Answer: Original Page Ref: 44 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Difficult 6) ________ materials should not be stored in airtight containers because this could encourage the growth of mold. Answer: Blood-stained Page Ref: 45 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 7) A(n) ________ control consists of uncontaminated surface material close to an area where physical evidence has been deposited. Answer: Substrate Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 8) The spread of AIDS and ________ have sensitized the law enforcement community to the potential health hazards that can exist at crime scenes. Answer: Hepatitis Page Ref: 49 Objective: Relate what steps are typically required to maintain appropriate health and safety standards at the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 9) Three basic types of protective clothing recommended for investigators are ________ gloves, shoe covers, and liquid-repellent coveralls. Answer: Latex Page Ref: 47 Objective: Relate what steps are typically required to maintain appropriate health and safety standards at the crime scene. Level: Difficult

10) The existence of emergency circumstances may justify a(n) ________ search. Answer: Warrantless Page Ref: 50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 11) Crime scene ________ must include a detailed written description of the scene with the location of items of physical evidence recovered. Answer: Notes Page Ref: 33 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 12) Medical workers should approach the body by a(n) ________ route to minimize the possibility of disturbing evidence. Answer: Indirect Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Difficult 13) An accurate ________ of everyone who enters or leaves the scene should be kept. Answer: Log Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 14) In the case of homicide, the investigator’s search will be centered on the ________ and any type of evidence left as a result of contact between the victim and the assailant. Answer: Weapon Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Difficult 15) Police ________ and the strategic positioning of guards will prohibit unauthorized access to the crime scene. Answer: Barricades Page Ref: 31 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Difficult 204 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) A(n) ________ sketch is constructed with care and concern for aesthetic appearance and must be drawn to scale. Answer: Finished Page Ref: 40 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 17) When a vehicle is involved in a crime, investigators should pay particular attention to signs of a(n) ________ of evidence between the car and the victim. Answer: Cross-transfer Page Ref: 42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Difficult 18) All items of evidence should be placed in ________ containers to prevent damage through contact and cross-contamination. Answer: Separate Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 19) ________ can occur by introducing foreign DNA through coughing or sneezing onto evidence during the collection procedure. Answer: Contamination Page Ref: 47 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 20) The ________ of DNA can occur when items of evidence are incorrectly placed in contact with each other during packaging. Answer: Transfer Page Ref: 47 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 2 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) A swab of the inner portion of the cheek B) A draft representation of all essential information and measurements at a crime scene C) Search method in which the crime scene is divided into smaller sections and team members are assigned to search each section. Each of these sections can be subdivided into smaller sections for smaller teams to search thoroughly. 205 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) Search method that employs two people performing line searches that originate from adjacent corners and form perpendicular lines E) Search method in which the investigator moves in an inward spiral from the boundary to the center of the scene or in an outward spiral from the center to the boundary of a scene F) Search method employed by several people moving from the boundary straight toward the center of the scene (inwarD) or from the center straight to the boundary (outward) G) Search method used by one or two investigators by walking in straight lines across the crime scene H) A precise rendering of the crime scene, usually drawn to scale I)

A list of all people who came into possession of an item of evidence

Physical evidence whose origin is known, such as blood or hair from a suspect, that can be compared to crime scene evidence

K) The initial survey of the crime scene carried out by the lead investigator where he or she will gain an overview of the scene in order to formulate a plan for processing the scene L) Any object that can establish that a crime has or has not been committed or can link a crime and its victim or its perpetrator M) Uncontaminated surface material close to an area where physical evidence has been deposited 1) Physical evidence Page Ref: 31 Level: Intermediate 2) Grid search Page Ref: 41 Level: Intermediate 3) Line/strip search Page Ref: 41 Level: Intermediate 4) Rough sketch Page Ref: 38 Level: Intermediate 5) Quadrant/zone search Page Ref: 42 Level: Intermediate 6) Finished sketch Page Ref: 40 Level: Intermediate 7) Spiral search Page Ref: 41 Level: Intermediate 206 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Walk-through Page Ref: 32 Level: Intermediate 9) Wheel/ray search Page Ref: 41 Level: Intermediate 10) Chain of custody Page Ref: 47 Level: Intermediate 11) Standard/reference sample Page Ref: 47 Level: Intermediate 12) Buccal swab Page Ref: 48 Level: Intermediate 13) Substrate control Page Ref: 48 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) L 2) D 3) G 4) B 5) C 6) H 7) E 8) K 9) F 10) I 11) J 12) A 13) M

Chapter 2 Essay 1) List and describe the roles of the evidence collector at a crime scene. Answer (should include points such as): • Handling physical evidence in a way that minimizes damage or contamination • Determining and utilizing the proper packaging material for evidence • Maintaining the chain of custody by using proper labeling and documentation methods for collected evidence • Collecting substrate/reference control specimens at the crime scene Page Ref:43-48 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 2) In cooperation with the medical examiner or coroner, what type of evidence is to be retrieved from a deceased victim for examination in the crime laboratory? Answer (should include points such as): • Clothing • Fingernail scrapings • Head and pubic hairs 207 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

• Vaginal, anal, and oral swabs • Bullets • Hand swabs for gunshot residues Page Ref: 43 Objective: Describe proper techniques for packaging common types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 3) Why is it important to include a brief description of the case history on an evidence submission form? Answer: Providing a case history allows the examiner to analyze specimens in a logical sequence and make the proper comparisons, and it also facilitates the search for trace quantities of evidence. Page Ref: 48 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Difficult 4) List two possible consequences of failure to protect a crime scene properly. Answer (should include points such as): Failure to protect a crime scene properly may result in the destruction or altering of evidence, or hinder the search for the perpetrator by misleading investigators about the facts of the incident. Page Ref: 31-32 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 5) What issues could arise if an investigator did not fulfill his or her obligation to handle, collect, and package crime scene evidence in a way that prevents changing or contaminating these items? Answer (should include points such as): Incorrectly handling, collecting, and packaging evidence could cause pieces of the evidence to be lost, damaged, or contaminated. When the evidence is analyzed, it could be misinterpreted or be unable to analyze at all. This is particularly pertinent when handling and packaging evidence from suspects, victims, and the scene separately. Transferring any evidence between these items could lead to incorrect conclusions about the events surrounding the crime. Page Ref: 43-47 Objective: Explain the concept of chain of custody. Level: Difficult 6) What types of protective clothing and equipment should an investigator wear when handling potentially infectious material? Answer (should include points such as): Gloves (preferably doubled), shoe covers, goggles, and disposable or washable clothing, face 208 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

shields, particle masks or respirators. Page Ref: 50 Objective: Relate what steps are typically required to maintain appropriate health and safety standards at the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 7) In your own words, summarize the outcome of the cases of Mincey v. Arizona and Michigan v. Tyler. Answer: In this case, the Court dealt with the legality of a four-day search at a homicide scene. Without a warrant, police recovered evidence over a four-day search. The Court upheld Mincey’s appeal that his apartment was searched without a warrant and without his consent. In Michigan v. Tyler, a business establishment leased by Loren Tyler and a business partner was destroyed by fire. Police searched the scene and recovered evidence on four separate occasions, up to 25 days after the fire. The Supreme Court held that the evidence seized on subsequent reentries to the scene was inadmissible since no warrant was obtained. Page Ref: 50-51 Objective: Understand the implications of relevant U.S. Supreme Court decisions in conducting a crime scene investigation. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 2 Critical Thinking 1) State which crime scene search pattern(s) would be best utilized for the following crime scene areas. a. b. c. d.

One investigator must search a small classroom at a community college. Five investigators must search a large cornfield. Two investigators must search a walled-in little league baseball field. One investigator must search a small muddy backyard, specifically looking for footprint evidence. Answer: a. Line b. Quadrant/Zone c. Grid d. Spiral Page Ref: 41-42 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic 2) Discuss what information, specifically about timing, is provided by the state of the following searched crime scenes. a. A young woman is found dead near the front door of her home. She had not reported to work at 8 am. The morning newspaper is on the kitchen table next to a clean, empty plate. The decedent is found wearing pajamas and messy hair. Burned toast is found in the toaster. 209 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

b. A backpack and empty lunchbox belonging to a missing child is found on a couch in a mobile home owned by a 47-year-old single man with no family in the area. The backpack contains blank homework assigned to the child that day in school. The search reveals action movie posters, three video game systems, 25 video games, and drawers filled with candy bars. Answer (should include points such as): a. The state of the scene suggests the young woman was killed in the morning hours before 8 am when the decedent was preparing for work. This is suggested by the pajamas, the day’s paper having been brought in, and breakfast (or a portion of it) having been prepared. b. The backpack and empty lunchbox suggest the objects were placed there after the child left school, as the lunch within the lunchbox had been eaten and homework was present but not worked on. The presence of objects which would appeal to children are out of place in the man’s mobile home, and should lead to further investigation. Page Ref: 31-51 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Intermediate 3) If no crime scene analysis is carried out with the death investigation, what types of evidence may never be located and recovered? Answer (should include points such as): a. Shoe and tire impressions b. Blood stains from victim(s) and perpetrator(s) c. Perimortem/postmortem body position d. Firearms or weapons e. Fingerprint evidence f. Evidence of substance use or abuse g. Temperature and atmosphere of crime scene h. Sexual assault evidence i. Hair and fiber evidence Page Ref: 31-50 Objective: Describe the various measures taken while securing, recording, and searching the crime scene. Level: Basic

Chapter 3 Physical Evidence Chapter 3 Multiple Choice 1) Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to a determination of common origin (single source). Which type of evidence CANNOT yield such results? A) Random striations on tools B) Fingerprints C) Wear patterns on tires D) Single-layer paints Answer: D Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 2) The likelihood of finding class physical evidence is ________ the likelihood of finding physical evidence with individual characteristics. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than Answer: C Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 3) Physical evidence is considered to have ________ as/than that of eyewitness (testimonial) evidence. A) The same value B) Greater value C) Less value Answer: B Page Ref: 68 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Basic 4) The corroborative use of physical evidence means that it can be used to: A) Provide a lead to give the investigation direction. B) Establish a definite identity. C) Support other investigative findings. D) Rule out a particular suspect. 211 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 68 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 5) Physical evidence can be used to exonerate or exclude a person from suspicion if: A) It is collected in accordance with the Fourth Amendment. B) The standard reference sample (control) from the person does not share characteristics with evidence at the crime scene. C) It does not have a well-documented chain of custody. D) Evidence taken from suspect is obtained voluntarily. Answer: B Page Ref: 69 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Intermediate 6) Forensic databases are maintained for all of the following EXCEPT: A) Fingerprints B) Dental impressions. C) DNA. D) Automotive paint. Answer: B Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 7) The Combined DNA Index System (CODIS) became fully operational in what year? A) 1998 B) 1991 C) 1978 D) 1999 Answer: A Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 8) A component of the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network is called: A) PDQ. B) CODIS. C) IBIS. D) Both A and B Answer: C Page Ref: 73 212 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 9) When a forensic analyst determines the chemical composition of preparations that may contain illicit drugs such as heroin, cocaine, or barbiturates, this is an example of: A) Individualization. B) Identification. C) Classification. D) Comparison. Answer: B Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 10) The examination of a paint chip found on a hit-and-run victim’s garment side-by-side with paint removed from a vehicle suspected of being involved in the incident is an example of: A) Comparison. B) Identification. C) Classification. D) Individualization. Answer: A Page Ref: 64 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Intermediate 11) Evidence having class characteristics can: A) Exonerate an innocent suspect. B) Link a person to a crime with a high degree of certainty. C) Always be fitted together in the manner of a jigsaw puzzle. D) Have no evidential value. Answer: A Page Ref: 66-67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 12) If the laboratory can piece broken glass from a window or headlight together, then the evidence has ________ characteristics. A) Identification B) Comparative C) Individual D) Class

Answer: C Page Ref: 65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 13) A comparison analysis subjects a suspect specimen and a control specimen to the same tests and examinations for the ultimate purpose of determining: A) Whether or not they have a common origin. B) If they are identical in chemical composition. C) If the same person handled them. D) If they are alike in molecular structure. Answer: A Page Ref: 64-65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 14) Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of: A) Identification. B) Comparison. C) Class characterization. D) Individualization. Answer: A Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 15) The computerized database used to store DNA information is: A) AFIS. B) CODIS. C) NIBIN. D) Drugfire. Answer: B Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Basic 16) To calculate the overall frequency of occurrence of a blood type in a population, the ________ can be applied by using a series of blood factors that occur independently of each other. A) Exchange principle B) Multiplication table 214 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Tangent method D) Product rule Answer: D Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 17) The value of class physical evidence lies in its ability to: A) State with certainty the identity of the perpetrator. B) Corroborate events with data in a manner nearly without bias. C) Determine the probability of the occurrence of an event. D) Determine the quality of forensic analyses carried out on the evidence. Answer: B Page Ref: 68 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 18) Which of the following is a national fingerprint and criminal history system maintained by the FBI and launched in 1999? A) NIBIN B) PDQ C) IAFIS D) SICAR Answer: C Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Basic 19) Paint chips, random glass fragments, and synthetic fibers all exhibit: A) Individual characteristics. B) Class characteristics. C) Identification characteristics. D) Comparison characteristics. Answer: B Page Ref: 66-67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate

20) Which database contains chemical and color information pertaining to original automotive paints? A) PDQ B) NIBIN C) SICAR D) IAFIS Answer: A Page Ref: 73 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Basic 21) Which database includes more than 300 manufacturers of shoes with more than 8,000 different sole patterns? A) PDQ B) SICAR C) IAFIS D) CODIS Answer: B Page Ref: 74 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Basic 22) Which source of CODIS contains DNA profiles from unsolved crime scene evidence? A) Offender index B) National index C) Forensic index D) DNA index Answer: C Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Basic 23) The PDQ is maintained by the: A) FBI. B) RCMP. C) ATF. D) National DNA Database. Answer: B Page Ref: 73 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate

24) The “jigsaw fit” of known and questioned fragments is important for court presentation primarily because: A) It is a quick way of demonstrating how the object broke. B) Courts and juries are too nonscientific to understand it any other way. C) Instrumental analysis is too complicated to explain to nontechnical juries. D) This method will definitely demonstrate common origin when a match is made. Answer: D Page Ref: 65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 25) Who ultimately determines the significance of physical evidence in a trial? A) The judge B) The expert witness C) The Supreme Court D) The jury Answer: D Page Ref: 69 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 26) Multiplying together the frequencies of independently occurring factors is called the: A) Multiplication rule. B) Frequency rule. C) Product rule. D) Factor rule. Answer: C Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 27) A computerized archive of information relating to a specific type of physical evidence is a(n): A) Evidence database. B) Information database. C) Comparison database. D) Forensic database. Answer: D Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 217 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 3 True/False 1) Evidence having class characteristics can exonerate an innocent suspect. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 2) Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of comparison. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 3) The “jigsaw fit” of known and questioned fragments demonstrates common origin when a match is made. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 4) The jury ultimately determines the significance of physical evidence in a trial. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 69 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 5) Identification is the process of determining a substance’s physical or chemical identity. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 6) To permit a positive identification, testing procedures must be sufficient to exclude all other substances. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 7) Class characteristics are properties of evidence that can be attributed to a common source with an extremely high degree of certainty. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 8) Paint and fibers are examples of class characteristics. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 9) The greatest weakness of class evidence is that examiners cannot assign exact or even approximate probability values to the comparison of most class evidence. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 219 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Eyewitness testimony and confessions are not as susceptible to dispute, human error, or bias as class evidence. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 68 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 11) Juries often accord scientific evidence lesser weight than other evidence. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 69 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Intermediate 12) CODIS is maintained by the FBI and thus does not enable local crime laboratories to electronically exchange and compare DNA profiles. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 13) It is a duty of the forensic scientist to draw a conclusion about the origins of the specimens. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 14) As the number of objects linking an individual to a crime scene increases, so does the likelihood of that individual’s involvement with the crime. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 76 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 220 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Class evidence is not unique and therefore not useful to forensic scientists. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 66 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 16) Most items of physical evidence retrieved at crime scenes can be linked definitively to a single person or object. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 66 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 17) The value of class physical evidence lies in its ability to corroborate events with data in a manner that is, as nearly as possible, free of human error and bias. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 68 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 18) Bloodstains only have class characteristics. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 19) Identification requires that the number and type of tests needed to identify a substance be sufficient to exclude all other substances. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 64 221 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 3 Fill in the Blank 1) If the laboratory can piece broken glass from a window or headlight together, then the evidence has ________ characteristics. Answer: Individual Page Ref: 65 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Intermediate 2) A single-layer paint chip can normally be expected to have ________ characteristics. Answer: Class Page Ref: 67 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Difficult 3) The computerized database used to store DNA information is ________. Answer: CODIS Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 4) Blood, hair, and fingerprints are some types of ________ evidence that are commonly found at crime scenes. Answer: Physical Page Ref: 63 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Basic 5) The two methods used by forensic scientists when examining physical evidence are identification and ________. Answer: Comparison Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 6) The first step in ________ is determining which properties from the suspect and the standard/reference specimen to compare. Answer: Comparison Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult 222 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The value of ________ evidence lies in its ability to corroborate events with data that are, as nearly as possible, free of human error and bias. Answer: Class Page Ref: 68 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult 8) IAFIS is maintained by the ________. Answer: FBI Page Ref: 71 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 9) The French scientist ________ mathematically determined the probability of two individuals having the same fingerprints. Answer: Balthazard Page Ref: 65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult 10) The only commercially available computer database system is ________. Answer: SICAR Page Ref: 74 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 11) The process of identification requires the adoption of testing procedures that give characteristic results for specific ________ materials. Answer: Standard Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult 12) The product rule is used to determine the frequency of occurrence of ________ profiles, typically determined from blood and other biological materials. Answer: DNA Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult

13) The purpose of ________ is to determine the physical or chemical identity of a substance. Answer: Identification Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 14) Class characteristics are properties of evidence that can be associated only with a group and never with a single ________. Answer: Source Page Ref: 67 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Intermediate 15) The ________ rule can be used to show the likelihood of two pieces of evidence containing the exact same set of characteristics. Answer: Product Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic

Chapter 3 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) Database containing shoe prints B) Properties of evidence that can be attributed to a common source with an extremely high degree of certainty C) The process of determining a substance’s physical or chemical identity D) The process for developing DNA profiles from a buccal swab in 90 minutes or less E) Properties of evidence that can be associated only with a group and never with a single source F) The process of ascertaining whether two or more objects have a common origin G) Database containing fingerprints H) Database containing ballistics information I)

Database containing DNA profiles

Formula for determining how frequently a certain combination of characteristics occurs in a population.

2) Comparison Page Ref: 64 Level: Basic 3) Identification Page Ref: 64 Level: Basic 4) Individual characteristics Page Ref: 65 Level: Basic 5) Product rule Page Ref: 67 Level: Basic 6) AFIS Page Ref: 71 Level: Basic 7) CODIS Page Ref: 71 Level: Basic 8) Rapid DNA Page Ref: 72 Level: Basic 9) NIBIN Page Ref: 73 Level: Basic 10) SICAR Page Ref: 74 Level: Basic Answers: 1) E 2) F 3) C 4) B 5) J 6) G 7) I 8) D 9) H 10) A

Chapter 3 Essay 1) Name three forensic databases and describe the type of information stored in each.

Answer (should include points such as): • Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System (IAFIS), a national fingerprint and criminal history system maintained by the FBI; • The Combined DNA Index System (CODIS), which stores DNA profiles; • The National Integrated Ballistics Information Network (NIBIN) contains records of markings made by firearms on bullets and cartridge casings recovered from crime scenes; 225 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

• The International Forensic Automotive Paint Data Query (PDQ) database, which contains chemical and color information pertaining to original automotive paints; and • SICAR (shoeprint image capture and retrieval) contains a comprehensive shoe sole database that includes more than three hundred manufacturers of shoes with more than eight thousand different sole patterns. Page Ref: 71-74 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Intermediate 2) List some of the advantages of class physical evidence. Answer (should include points such as): • Provides corroboration of events based on objective scientific data. • Often, the chances or odds of encountering two indistinguishable items of class physical evidence that actually originated from different sources are slight. • When dealing with more than one type of class evidence, their collective presence may lead to an extremely high certainty that they originated from the same source. • Physical evidence, individual or class, is accorded great weight in the courtroom. • Class evidence may also serve to exonerate a person from a crime. Page Ref: 66-67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult 3) Explain the difference between identification and comparison Answer: Identification is the process of determining a substance’s physical or chemical identity. Drug analysis, species determination, and explosive residue analysis are typical examples of this undertaking in a forensic setting. Comparison is the process of ascertaining whether two or more objects have a common origin. Page Ref: 64-65 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic 4) Provide five examples of physical evidence that may be recovered at a crime scene. Answer (should include points such as): Blood, semen, and saliva, documents, drugs, explosives, fibers, fingerprints, firearms and ammunition, glass, hair, impressions, organs and physiological fluids, paint, petroleum products, plastic bags, plastic, rubber, and other polymers, powder residues, serial numbers, soil and minerals, tool marks, vehicle lights, wood and other vegetative matter. Page Ref: 63-64 Objective: Review the common types of physical evidence encountered at crime scenes. Level: Basic

Chapter 3 Critical Thinking 1) What are three reasons why it is not possible to define a simple analytical scheme that can be applied to all types of evidence? Answer (should include points such as): It is not possible to define a simple analytical scheme that can be applied to all types of evidence because (1) each type of evidence obviously requires different tests; (2) each test has a different degree of specificity; and (3) the practitioner has little or no control over the quality and quantity of the specimens received. Page Ref: 64 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Difficult 2) Indicate whether the types of evidence listed below likely display individual or class characteristics. a. A well-developed and collected latent fingerprint b. Random striations on a discharged bullet c. Single-layer paint chip d. A footwear impression with irregular and random wear patterns e. Bloodstain with no DNA-containing cells f. An artificial fiber g. Irregular edges of a broken knife fitted together Answer: a. Individual b. Individual c. Class d. Individual e. Class f. Class g. Individual Page Ref: 65-67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Basic

3) Use the product rule to determine the frequency of occurrence of an individual in the population exhibiting a blood sample with the following factors included: Blood Factor

Frequency in the General Population

16%

Rh +

59%

PGM 2+ 1–

Hp 2-1

Answer: Frequency = (0.16 x 0.59 x 0.07 x 0.03) x 100% = 0.0198% Page Ref: 67 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate 4) Explain how compatibility of forensic databases and a common depository for entries assists forensic investigations. Answer (should include points such as): If the software and databases are compatible among federal, state, and local agencies, matches within the database can be made between these agencies. This yields additional information that may include the identity of a perpetrator or victim or link individuals or crime scenes. Page Ref: 71-74 Objective: Explain the function of national databases available to forensic scientists. Level: Basic 5) List five examples of each of the following types of physical evidence: biological materials, impressions, and manufactured items. Answer (should include points such as): Biological materials include blood, saliva, semen, DNA, hair, organs, and physiological fluids. Impressions include tire markings, shoe prints, depressions in soft soils, all other forms of tracks, glove and other fabric impressions, tool marks, and bite marks. Manufactured items include firearms, ammunition, fibers, paint, glass, petroleum products, plastic bags, rubber, polymers, and vehicle headlights. Page Ref: 63 Objective: Summarize the significance of physical evidence and the steps involved in its analysis. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 4 Crime Scene Reconstruction: Blood Stain Pattern Analysis Chapter 4 Multiple Choice 1) The amount of spatter from a blood droplet falling on a hard, non-porous surface is ________ that of a drop of blood of equal size, falling from the same distance, onto a softer, porous surface. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than Answer: B Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 2) The pointed end of a bloodstain always faces: A) Opposite its direction of travel. B) Toward the direction from which the force came. C) Its direction of travel. D) Toward the position of the blood source. Answer: C Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 3) A blood droplet deposited at an angle of impact of about 90º (directly vertical to the surface) will: A) Show acute elongation. B) Feature a tail showing the directionality. C) Be elliptical in shape. D) Be approximately circular in shape. Answer: D Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation Level: Intermediate 4) The most common type of bloodstain pattern found at a crime scene is: A) Cast-off spatter. B) Void spatter. C) Impact spatter. D) Arterial spray. Answer: C 229 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 5) The velocity classification of an impact spatter pattern: A) Cannot illuminate the specific events that produced the pattern. B) Can determine the kind of action that produced the pattern. C) Is never used for descriptive purposes. D) Can only be determined by a trained bloodstain pattern analyst. Answer: A Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 6) The intersection of straight lines through the long axis of several individual bloodstains in an impact spatter pattern illustrates the ________ of the pattern. A) Area of origin B) Void pattern C) Area of convergence D) Velocity classification Answer: C Page Ref: 87 Objective: Discuss the methods to determine the area of convergence and area of origin for impact spatter patterns. Level: Intermediate 7) At the crime scene, the string method is used to find the ________ of an impact spatter pattern. A) Area of origin B) Void pattern C) Area of convergence D) Velocity classification Answer: A Page Ref: 87 Objective: Discuss the methods to determine the area of convergence and area of origin for impact spatter patterns. Level: Intermediate 8) The deposition of backward spatter produced by a gunshot wound is determined by: A) The location of the injury. B) The size of the wound created. C) The distance between the victim and the muzzle. D) All of the above 230 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 87 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 9) If a murder victim’s blood is found in the muzzle of a firearm: A) No conclusion can be made. B) It can be concluded that the firearm is the murder weapon. C) It can be concluded that the firearm was present during injury to the victim. D) It can be concluded that the owner of the firearm is the perpetrator. Answer: C Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 10) Which weapon would create cast-off patterns consisting of small droplets in a linear pattern? A) Baseball bat B) Knife C) Wooden plank D) All of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 11) The pressure of the pumping of oxygenated blood out of an injury causes bright red-colored blood to spurt out and form a(n): A) Void pattern. B) Expirated pattern. C) Projected pattern. D) Both B and C Answer: C Page Ref: 89 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 12) The removal of an object or surface that was located between the origin of blood and the target surface during the bloodstain deposition leaves behind: A) Expirated blood. B) A void. 231 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Blowback spatter. D) An unidentifiable pattern. Answer: B Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 13) When an object with blood on it touches one that does not have blood on it, this produces a(n): A) Flow. B) Indistinguishable pattern. C) Contact pattern. D) Trail pattern. Answer: C Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 14) Widely spaced bloody shoeprints with satellite spatter between the shoeprints were likely deposited by an individual who was: A) Standing in place. B) Walking slowly. C) Running. D) Carrying a bloody weapon. Answer: C Page Ref: 91 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 15) The direction of a ________ may show movements of objects or bodies while the pattern was still forming or after the blood has dried. A) Flow pattern B) Cast-off pattern C) Bloodstain tail D) Trail pattern Answer: A Page Ref: 92 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 232 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) The approximate drying time of a pool of blood can be used to estimate timing of events at a crime scene and is dependent upon: A) The clotting ability of the blood. B) The blood type of the blood. C) The environmental condition of the scene. D) The method of deposition. Answer: C Page Ref: 92 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 17) The dried perimeter of a bloodstain may be used to interpret: A) The kind of force that produced the bloodstain. B) The time that elapsed between deposition of the stain and alteration of the stain. C) The source of the bloodstain. D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 92 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 18) A trail pattern leading away from the victim at a stabbing scene was most likely created by: A) A victim’s arterial wound. B) Blood dripping from the murder weapon. C) Postmortem movement of the victim. D) Blood expelled from a respiratory injury. Answer: B Page Ref: 92 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 19) In the grid method of bloodstain documentation, a grid of squares of known dimensions is created over an entire pattern in order to: A) Show the relative sizes of bloodstains in photographs. B) Prevent contamination of the bloodstains. C) Collect bloodstains for delivery to the laboratory. D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 94 Objective: Describe the methods for documenting bloodstain patterns at a crime scene. Level: Basic 233 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Proper location and documentation of bloodstain patterns at the crime scene is the responsibility of: A) A bloodstain analysis specialist. B) The lead investigator. C) Criminalists and specialists. D) All crime-scene personnel. Answer: D Page Ref: 94 Objective: Describe the methods for documenting bloodstain patterns at a crime scene. Level: Basic 21) Which of the following is of paramount importance in the interpretation of bloodstain patterns? A) The direction of impact B) The surface texture C) The angle of impact D) The amount of blood Answer: B Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 22) When an object blocks the deposition of blood spatter onto a target surface or object, the result is a: A) Transfer pattern. B) Flow pattern. C) Void pattern. D) Cast-off pattern. Answer: C Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 23) What is created when an object with blood on it touches one that does not have blood on it? A) Flow pattern B) Void pattern C) Cast-off pattern D) Transfer pattern Answer: D Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 234 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Rough surfaces usually result in stains with: A) Forward spatter. B) Back spatter. C) Blow-back spatter. D) Satellite spatter. Answer: D Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 25) Drops propelled from a blunt surface will be larger and the pattern will be: A) Narrow. B) Wide. C) Linear. D) Thin. Answer: B Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 26) The presence of a cast-off pattern shows that there were more than ________ blow(s) delivered: A) One B) Two C) Five D) The cast-off pattern cannot tell how many blows were delivered. Answer: A Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 27) Setting up a rectangular border of rulers around the patterns and then placing a small ruler next to each stain describes the: A) String method. B) Stake method. C) Grid method. D) Perimeter ruler method. Answer: D Page Ref: 94 Objective: Describe the methods for documenting bloodstain patterns at a crime scene. Level: Basic

28) Setting up squares of known dimension over the entire pattern describes the: A) String method. B) Stake method. C) Grid method. D) Perimeter ruler method. Answer: C Page Ref: 94 Objective: Describe the methods for documenting bloodstain patterns at a crime scene. Level: Basic 29) Crime scene reconstructions have the best chance of accuracy if: A) Investigators exclude all testimonial evidence. B) Investigators use proper documentation and collection methods for all types of evidence. C) Investigators process all evidence at the crime laboratory. D) Investigators trust their first instincts and test their first theories. Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Intermediate 30) Crime-scene reconstruction requires piecing together: A) Accounts given by witnesses and suspects. B) Input from the medical examiner. C) The story told by evidence recovered at the crime scene. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Basic 31) Crime-scene reconstruction involves the efforts of all EXCEPT the: A) Trial judge. B) Medical examiner. C) Police. D) Criminalist. Answer: A Page Ref: 81-82 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Intermediate

32) The ________ of a bloodstain pattern in a three-dimensional space illustrates the position of the victim or suspect when the stain-producing event took place. A) Void B) Area of convergence C) Directionality D) Area of origin Answer: D Page Ref: 87 Objective: Discuss the methods to determine the area of convergence and area of origin for impact spatter patterns. Level: Basic 33) ________ transfer patterns are produced when the object makes contact with the surface and the object is removed without any movement. A) Void B) Contact C) Simple D) Flow Answer: C Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 34) By counting and pairing the patterns of a(n) ________ pattern, an investigator can estimate the minimum number of blows inflicted upon a victim. A) Impact B) Arterial spray C) Void D) Cast-off Answer: D Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 35) A blood stain that impacts a surface at a low angle will have a ________ tail than one that impacts at a higher angle. A) Longer B) Shorter C) Wider D) Narrower Answer: A Page Ref: 84 237 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 36) In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, what happens to the diameter of the resulting blood droplets? A) Increases B) Stays the same C) Decreases D) The diameter is unaffected by force and velocity Answer: C Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 37) What information can an investigator gain from the location of the area of origin of a bloodstain pattern? A) Position of weapons at a crime scene B) Position of person from which pattern originated C) Type of force used D) Identity of the suspect Answer: B Page Ref: 87 Objective: Discuss the methods to determine the area of convergence and area of origin for impact spatter patterns. Level: Intermediate 38) What can be concluded if a flow found on an object or body does not appear consistent with the direction of gravity? A) The object or body was within 5 feet of the blood source. B) The object or body was moved after the blood had dried. C) The object or body was not moved. D) The object or body was at a lower temperature than the blood. Answer: B Page Ref: 91 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 39) The process of crime-scene reconstruction may enlist the expertise of all of the following EXCEPT: A) A trained criminalist. B) A criminal personality profiler. C) A medical examiner. D) A forensic anthropologist. 238 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Intermediate 40) Physical evidence that can be used to aid in a crime-scene reconstruction includes: A) Blood spatters. B) Gunshot residues. C) Glass fragments. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Basic

Chapter 4 True/False 1) The pointed end of a bloodstain always faces its direction of travel. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 2) A bloodstain that impacts a surface at a low angle with have a shorter tail than one that impacts at a higher angle. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 3) Forward spatter is more likely to be deposited on the object or person creating the impact. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 239 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Back spatter consists of the blood projected backward from the source. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 5) In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, the diameter of the resulting blood droplets increases. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 6) The location of injury, the size of the wound created, the distance between the victim and the muzzle of the weapon all affect the amount of backward spatter that occurs. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 87 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 7) The sizes of the drops in a cast-off pattern are not related to the size of the point from which they were propelled. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 8) Drops propelled from a small or pointed surface will be smaller and the pattern more linear. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 240 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Expirated blood is expelled from the mouth or nose from an external injury. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 89 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 10) A flow pattern is created when an object blocks the deposition of blood spatter onto a target surface or object. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 91 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 11) Voids may help investigators establish the body position of the victim or assailant at the time of the incident. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 12) The first transfer pattern will be lighter in color while subsequent transfers will be increasingly dark and heavy. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 13) The flow pattern on an object or body can help determine if the body was moved after the blood had dried. A) True B) False Answer: A 241 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 91 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 14) Pools of blood are not reliable to use in reconstruction or determining the amount of time that has elapsed since the blood was deposited. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 92 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 15) The tails of the drops in a trail pattern point in the direction that the person was moving. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 93 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 16) Void spatter is the most common type of bloodstain pattern found at a crime scene. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 17) The less blood on an object, the smaller the stains produced. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 18) During crime-scene reconstruction, no evidence or data should ever be excluded. A) True B) False Answer: A 242 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Basic

Chapter 4 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ spatter is projected outward and away from the source. Answer: Forward Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 2) In general, as both the force and velocity of impact increase, the diameter of the resulting blood droplets ________. Answer: Decreases Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Difficult 3) The location of injury, the size of the wound created, the distance between the victim and the muzzle of the weapon all affect the amount of ________ spatter that occurs. Answer: Backward Page Ref: 87 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Difficult 4) The ________ effect occurs when back spatter strikes the gunman and enters the gun muzzle. Answer: Drawback Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 5) Drops propelled from a large or blunt surface will be ________ and the pattern wider. Answer: Larger Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Difficult 6) The presence of bubbles of oxygen in the drops can differentiate ________ blood from other types of bloodstains. Answer: Expirated Page Ref: 89 243 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 7) Expirated blood may be lighter in color as a result of dilution by ________. Answer: Saliva Page Ref: 89 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 8) Simple ________ patterns are produced when the object makes contact with the surface and is removed without any movement of the object. Answer: Transfer Page Ref: 90 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 9) A(n) ________ pattern is a pattern made by drops or large amounts of blood flowing by the pull of gravity. Answer: Flow Page Ref: 91 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 10) More circular stains are found where the person was moving slowly enough to not form ________. Answer: Tails Page Ref: 93 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 11) In general, as the force of the impact on the source of blood increases, the velocity of the blood droplets emanating from the source ________. Answer: Increases Page Ref: 84 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Difficult 12) Drops propelled from a pointed surface will be smaller and the pattern more ________. Answer: Linear Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Intermediate 244 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Cast-off patterns can show the ________ number of blows. Answer: Minimum Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Difficult 14) Typically the blood expelled from impact wounds is not as bright red as the blood expelled from a(n) ________. Answer: Artery Page Ref: 89 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 15) Often, reconstruction requires the involvement of a medical examiner and at least one ________. Answer: Criminalist Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Difficult 16) Crime-scene ________ is the method used to support a likely sequence of events at a crime scene by observing and evaluating physical evidence and statements made by individuals involved with the incident. Answer: Reconstruction Page Ref: 81 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Basic

Chapter 4 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) The process by which the edges of a stain will dry to the surface in a specific period of time (dependent upon environmental and surface conditions) and will remain apparent even after the rest of the bloodstain has been disturbed from its original position B) A bloodstain pattern formed by the movement of small or large amounts of blood due to gravity’s pull C) A bloodstain pattern produced when an object makes forceful contact with a source of blood, projecting droplets of blood outward from the source D) Blood directed back towards the source of the force that caused the spatter E) An area within a deposited spatter pattern that is clear of spatter, caused by an object or person blocking the area at the time of the pattern’s deposition 245 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

F) Small droplets of blood that are distributed around the perimeter of a drop or pool of blood that were produced as a result of the blood impacting the target surface G) Blood which travels away from the source in the same direction as the force which caused the spatter H) The area on a two-dimensional plane where lines traced through the long axis of several individual bloodstains meet. This approximates the two-dimensional place where the bloodstains were projected from. I)

A characteristic bloodstain pattern containing spurts that results from blood exiting under pressure from an arterial injury

The acute angle formed between the path of a blood drop and the surface which it contacts

K) A pattern of bloodstains formed by the dripping of blood off a moving surface or person in a recognizable pathway separate from other patterns L) Blood that is expelled out of the nose, mouth, or respiratory system as a result of air pressure and/or air flow M) The location in three-dimensional space that blood that produced a bloodstain originated from. N) A bloodstain pattern created when a surface that carries wet blood comes in contact with a second surface. Recognizable imprints of all or a portion of the original surface or the direction of movement may be observed. O) A bloodstain pattern that is created when blood is flung from a blood-bearing object in motion onto a surface 1) Angle of impact Page Ref: 83 Level: Intermediate 2) Area of convergence Page Ref: 87 Level: Intermediate 3) Area of origin Page Ref: 87 Level: Intermediate 4) Projected Pattern Page Ref: 89 Level: Intermediate 5) Back spatter Page Ref: 84 Level: Intermediate 6) Cast-off Page Ref: 88 Level: Intermediate 246 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Expirated blood pattern Page Ref: 89 Level: Intermediate 8) Flow pattern Page Ref: 91 Level: Intermediate 9) Forward spatter Page Ref: 84 Level: Intermediate 10) Impact spatter Page Ref: 84 Level: Intermediate 11) Satellite spatter Page Ref: 83 Level: Intermediate 12) Pools Page Ref: 92 Level: Intermediate 13) Drip trail pattern Page Ref: 92Level: Intermediate 14) Transfer pattern Page Ref: 90 Level: Intermediate 15) Void Page Ref: 90 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) J 2) H 3) M 4) I 5) D 6) O 7) L 8) B 9) G 10) C 11) F 12) A 13) K 14) N 15) E

Chapter 4 Essay 1) Define the terms area of convergence and area of origin and explain what each reveals to an investigator. Answer: The area of convergence is the point on a two-dimensional plane from which the drops originated. It tells the investigator approximately where the source of blood (typically the victim) was located at the time of impact. The area of origin of a bloodstain pattern is the point in a three-dimensional space from which the drops of an impact spatter pattern originated. This can show the position of the victim or suspect in space when the stain-producing event took place. Page Ref: 87 247 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Discuss the methods to determine the area of convergence and area of origin for impact spatter patterns. Level: Basic 2) What determines the size of blood drops in a cast-off pattern? Explain. Answer: The sizes of the drops in a cast-off pattern are determined by the size of the point from which they were propelled. Drops propelled from a small or pointed surface will be smaller and the pattern more linear; drops propelled from a large or blunt surface will be larger and the pattern wider. Page Ref: 88 Objective: Describe the general features of bloodstain formation. Level: Difficult 3) Name and describe two methods for documenting bloodstain patterns. Answer (should include points such as): • The grid method involves setting up a grid of squares of known dimensions over the entire pattern using string and stakes. All overall, medium-range, and close-up photographs are taken with and without the grid. • The perimeter ruler method involves setting up a rectangular border of rulers around the pattern and then placing a small ruler next to each stain. In this method, the large rulers show scale in the overall and medium range photos, while the small rulers show scale in the close-up photographs. Page Ref: 94 Objective: Describe the methods for documenting bloodstain patterns at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 4) Name two major limitations of crime-scene reconstruction. Answer (should include points such as): The biggest limitation associated with reconstruction is that investigators can only use what is left behind to theorize what occurred in the past. The information available to make these theories is often much less than needed to create a full timeline of events. Also, reconstruction relies on information from many tests and other sources that may take quite a bit of time. This means the reconstructing team may not receive all relevant information for days, weeks, months, or sometimes years after the incident. Page Ref: 81-82 Objective: Summarize the principles of crime-scene reconstruction and the personnel involved in reconstruction. Level: Difficult 5) If the distribution and pattern of bloodstains at a crime scene are not properly documented and analyzed, what potential information could be missed? Answer (should include points such as): • The direction from which blood originated • The angle at which a blood droplet struck a surface • The location or position of a victim at the time a bloody wound was inflicted 248 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

• The movement of a bleeding individual at the crime scene • The minimum number of blows that struck a bleeding victim • The approximate location of an individual delivering blows that produced a bloodstain pattern • The type of weapon used to inflict wounds • The movement of objects or persons after bleeding events Page Ref: 83 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 4 Critical Thinking 1) What conclusion can be deduced if fine droplets of the victim’s blood are found inside the muzzle of a firearm at an outdoor crime scene, where the victim suffered several gunshot wounds? Answer (should include points such as): The drawback effect occurs when back spatter strikes the gunman and enters the gun muzzle. Fine impact spatter from a gunshot also travels a relatively short distance before falling from gravity. Blood within the muzzle of a gun helps an investigator place this suspect handgun in relatively close proximity to the inflicted gunshot wound. Page Ref: 87 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Basic 2) An investigator is faced with clustered and irregularly colored bloodstain patterns at a crime scene that he believes could have originated from an arterial or oral injury. What characteristics of projected and expirated blood patterns can assist the investigator in differentiating these patterns from other pattern types and each other? Answer (should include points such as): Projected patterns appear as a series of divided spurts, altering with movement and pressure from the injured artery. These patterns may also show smaller droplets and flow patterns. All blood from an artery will at first appear a brighter red color than other patterns due to its oxygenated nature. The presence of bubbles of oxygen in the drops can differentiate expirated blood from other types of bloodstains. Expirated blood also may be lighter (more pink) in color as a result of dilution by saliva. Page Ref: 89 Objective: Describe how various blood pattern types are created and which features of each pattern can be used to aid in reconstructing events at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 5 Death Investigation Chapter 5 Multiple Choice 1) What can be used in identifying a deceased individual? A) Fingerprinting B) Dental examination C) Facial reconstruction D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Intermediate 2) The death of an individual suffering from chronic alcoholism is ruled: A) Natural. B) Accidental. C) Suicide. D) Undetermined. Answer: A Page Ref: 112 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Intermediate 3) The largest percentage of accidental deaths is due to: A) Drug overdoses. B) Drowning. C) Fire. D) Traffic accidents. Answer: D Page Ref: 111 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Basic 4) Characteristic markings on the skin caused from the discharge of a firearm is known as: A) Staining. B) Stippling. C) Tattooing. D) Both B and C

Answer: D Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 5) Partially digested or dissolved pills can be seen in the: A) Large intestine. B) Stomach. C) Small intestine. D) Esophagus. Answer: B Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Basic 6) The best place to take a blood sample in order to avoid contamination is the: A) Inferior vena cava. B) Superior vena cava. C) Heart. D) Femoral vein. Answer: A Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 7) A sharp force injury will most likely come from a: A) Hammer. B) Baseball bat. C) Glass piece. D) Cinder block. Answer: C Page Ref: 108 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 8) A body that displays a cherry-red discoloration might lead a pathologist to suspect poisoning by: A) Cyanic acid. B) Arsenic. C) Pesticides. D) Carbon monoxide. Answer: D Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 251 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Defense wounds are most typically seen on the: A) Hands. B) Face. C) Shins. D) Back. Answer: A Page Ref: 108 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 10) Death at a fire scene is most often attributed to: A) Carbon dioxide. B) Carbon monoxide. C) Nitrogen. D) Hydrogen. Answer: B Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Basic 11) Pulmonary edema is frequently found in victims that chronically abuse: A) Marijuana. B) Amphetamines. C) Heroin. D) Alcohol. Answer: B Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 12) Beginning an hour after death, the body will lose heat at an approximate rate of: A) 0 — 0.5°F per hour. B) 0.5 — 1°F per hour. C) 1 — 1.5°F per hour. D) 1.5 — 2°F per hour. Answer: C Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 13) Lividity can be expected to be fixed after ________ hours. A) 2 B) 4 C) 16 D) 24 252 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 14) A pathologist would expect rigor mortis to disappear after ________ hours. A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 48 Answer: C Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 15) Time of death can be approximated by analyzing the vitreous humor and the levels of: A) Potassium. B) Calcium. C) Sodium. D) Magnesium. Answer: A Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 16) Adipocere typically takes about ________ weeks to develop. A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 12 Answer: D Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 17) What must a medical examiner possess? A) Elected position B) Medical degree C) Board certification D) Both B and C Answer: B Page Ref: 103 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Intermediate 253 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which should be performed first at a death scene? A) Secure the scene B) Photographs C) Sketch D) Collect evidence Answer: A Page Ref: 115 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Basic 19) What does hemoglobin transport in the blood? A) Hydrogen B) Nitrogen C) Carbon monoxide D) Oxygen Answer: D Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 20) Which factors can help to determine if a victim was alive during a fire? A) Levels of carbon monoxide in the body B) Extent of burns on the body C) Soot in the larynx and trachea D) Both A and C Answer: D Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 21) Hanging cases will typically display: A) Fracture of the hyoid bone. B) Fracture of the thyroid cartilage. C) Abundance of large petechiae on the eyelids. D) Blue appearance of the face. Answer: D Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 22) Which is commonly fractured in strangulation cases? A) Hyoid bone B) Thyroid cartilage C) Thymus cartilage D) Nothing is typically fractured in strangulation cases. 254 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 23) Common drugs tested for during a death investigation do NOT include: A) Alcohol. B) Cocaine. C) LSD. D) Morphine/Heroin. Answer: C Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 24) Types of autopsies include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Criminal. B) External. C) Clinical. D) Medicolegal. Answer: A Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Intermediate 25) Negative photographs are: A) Photographs that have not yet been developed. B) Photographs that did not develop properly. C) Photographs of uninjured parts of the body. D) Photographs of injured parts of the body. Answer: C Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 26) What part of the victim’s body is often bagged in order to prevent loss of trace evidence? A) Hands B) Feet C) Head D) No part is bagged Answer: A Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Basic 255 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Death intentionally caused by another person is typically ruled a(n): A) Accident. B) Suicide. C) Homicide. D) Natural. Answer: C Page Ref: 111 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Basic 28) Toxicological specimens are taken at which stage of the death investigation? A) Death scene B) Internal examination C) External examination D) Anytime Answer: B Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 29) Homicide, suicide, accident, natural, and undetermined are all categories of: A) Manner of death. B) Cause of death. C) Mechanism of death. D) Method of death. Answer: A Page Ref: 110 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Basic 30) Putrefaction and autolysis are two types of ________ processes. A) Rigor mortis B) Decomposition C) Livor mortis D) Algor mortis Answer: B Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 31) Evidence of tampering with the position of a body after death can be obtained by evaluating the: A) Rigor mortis. B) Algor mortis. 256 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Livor mortis. D) Both B and C Answer: C Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Intermediate 32) Rigor mortis refers to the: A) Temperature of death. B) Stiffness of death. C) Color of death. D) Time of death. Answer: B Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 33) A corpse was discovered in an apartment last November. It was that of a 50-year-old male who died of a heart attack. At the time of discovery, the body temperature was determined to be 89°F. What is the most probable post mortem interval? A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 7 hours D) 4 hours Answer: C Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 34) The rate of cooling of a dead body can be influenced by all EXCEPT the: A) Weather conditions. B) Location. C) Size of body. D) Gender of victim. Answer: D Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 35) According to forensic entomologists, which “witness” is the first to arrive at the crime scene? A) Carrion beetle B) Mite C) Spider D) Blowfly 257 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 36) Which of the following techniques can be used to estimate the time of death? A) Rigor mortis B) Eye fluid potassium levels C) Livor mortis D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 113-114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 37) What part of a decedent’s body resists rapid decomposition and is used by forensic anthropologists to provide information about the decedent? A) Teeth B) Bones C) Soft tissue D) Cartilage Answer: B Page Ref: 115 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 38) A forensic anthropologist may help to create a(n) ________ to help with the identification of the victim. A) Autopsy chart B) Dental profile C) Fingerprint chart D) Facial reconstruction Answer: D Page Ref: 119 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 39) To determine the gender of skeletal remains, a forensic anthropologist can examine all of the following areas of the skeleton EXCEPT the: A) Tibia. B) Pelvis. C) Sacrum. D) Cranium. Answer: A Page Ref: 115-117 258 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 40) The stage of fusion of various bones within a skeleton can be used to estimate the ________ of the decedent. A) Sex B) Race C) Occupation D) Age Answer: D Page Ref: 117 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 41) As the post mortem interval increases, the concentration of potassium in the vitreous humor of the eye: A) Increases. B) Decreases. C) Remains the same. D) Varies based on gender. Answer: A Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 42) Which is NOT a manner of death? A) Natural B) Drowning C) Homicide D) Suicide Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Basic 43) The collection of evidence from a “tomb” site by a forensic anthropologist must include: A) A careful recovery of all visible remains. B) A thorough documentation of the site and all evidence. C) A search of the surrounding area for related evidence. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 115 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 259 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) Estimations of the postmortem interval (PMI) using entomological evidence must take into account: A) The geographical location of the decedent’s body. B) Weather conditions. C) The location’s climate over time. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 45) Insect evidence should be collected: A) At the scene by a forensic entomologist or trained investigator. B) During the autopsy by the medical examiner. C) Upon the finding of the decedent by the first responding officer. D) At the crime laboratory by forensic analysts. Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 46) If a cause of death cannot be found through simple observation of the victim, a(n) ________ is typically carried out. A) Autopsy B) Crime-scene investigation C) Drug screening D) Anthropological profile Answer: A Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Basic

Chapter 5 True/False 1) It is not feasible for a medical examiner to respond to every death scene in person. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 103 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Basic

2) A pathologist must examine a body’s wounds to determine if the death was a homicide and if the assailant had intent to kill. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 111 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Intermediate 3) Chronic drug use is typically considered suicide by the medical examiner. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 112 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Intermediate 4) Photographs should be taken both of areas with injuries and areas without injuries. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 104-105 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 5) The primary role of the medical examiner is to determine the cause and manner of death. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Basic 6) The two types of autopsies are a clinical autopsy and a hospital autopsy. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 7) X-rays are most commonly performed in gunshot wound cases and stab wound cases. A) True B) False Answer: A 261 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 8) The external examination involves classifying the injuries and examining the organs. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Basic 9) It is best to collect blood at distant areas of the body to obtain the most accurate drug levels. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 10) General testing for poisons is a routine procedure carried out by the pathologist. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 11) Another name for a bruise is a contusion. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Basic 12) High levels of carbon monoxide are needed to cause a victim to become disoriented. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate

13) Carbon monoxide levels continue to rise in the body even after death. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 14) The pathologist typically does not perform a drug analysis unless a drug overdose is suspected. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 15) The onset of livor mortis begins immediately after death. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 16) A body decomposing on a summer day will typically show increased progression of rigor mortis. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 17) Autolysis is carried out by microorganisms such as bacteria. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 18) Decomposition typically occurs on the face before the abdomen. A) True B) False 263 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 19) The forensic pathologist is also aided by the skills of specialists including forensic anthropologists, forensic entomologists, and forensic odontologists. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 103 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation; Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Basic 20) For gunshot victims, the cause of death can be listed as a gunshot wound. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 110 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 21) Skeletal bones are resistant to rapid decomposition. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 115 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 22) Forensic entomology is often used to help estimate the time of death. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Basic 23) The known sequence of arrival of different insect groups cannot help to determine the postmortem interval. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 121 264 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 24) Rigor mortis occurs within 12 hours of death and disappears within 24 hours. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 25) Livor mortis occurs when blood settles in parts of the body closest to the ground. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 26) After death, the body does not cool at a predictable rate. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 27) The concentration of sodium in the eye fluids can help determine time of death. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 28) The postmortem interval can be affected by various environmental conditions. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic

29) The age of a skeleton can be determined by various factors, including the shape of the pelvis and sacrum, the size of the cranium, and the protrusion of the brow bone and mastoid process. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 117-119 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 5 Fill in the Blank 1) Disease and environmental abuse fall under the ________ category of manner of death. Answer: Natural Page Ref: 112 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Basic 2) The goal of a(n) ________ autopsy is to determine the cause and manner of death. Answer: Forensic Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Difficult 3) Hemorrhages in the eyelids are known as ________. Answer: Petechiae Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 4) Types of injuries that are classified during the external autopsy include contusions, lacerations, and ________. Answer: Abrasions Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Difficult 5) The range of ________ involves the distance between the gun and the victim and can help in distinguishing between homicide and suicide. Answer: Fire Page Ref: 106 Objective: List various categories associated with the manner of death. Level: Intermediate

6) ________ specimens include samples of blood, stomach contents, bile, and urine. Answer: Toxicological Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 7) A distinct smell of burnt almonds may accompany a death by ________ toxicity. Answer: Cyanide Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Basic 8) Tearing and crushing of the tissues is known as a ________ force type of injury. Answer: Blunt Page Ref: 107-108 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Basic 9) A cut produces an injury that is longer than it is ________. Answer: Deep Page Ref: 108 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Intermediate 10) A contusion can sometimes exhibit the ________ of the weapon used. Answer: Pattern Page Ref: 108 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Difficult 11) Petechiae are caused by the escaping of blood into the tissue as a result of ________ bursting. Answer: Capillaries Page Ref: 109 Objective: Describe common causes of death. Level: Difficult 12) A(n) ________ in its broadest definition is simply the examination of a body after death. Answer: Autopsy Page Ref: 104 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Basic

13) During decomposition, the body may experience ________ where the skin begins to blister with gas and peel. Answer: Slippage Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Difficult 14) Forensic ________ is concerned primarily with the identification and examination of human skeletal remains. Answer: Anthropology Page Ref: 115 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Basic 15) The study of insects and their relation to a criminal investigation is known as forensic ________. Answer: Entomology Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Basic 16) By determining the most developed stage of fly found on the body, entomologists can approximate the postmortem ________. Answer: Interval Page Ref: 121 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Intermediate 17) The process by which the body temperature cools after death is known as ________ mortis. Answer: Algor Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 18) Rigor mortis, eye fluid potassium levels, livor mortis, and insect infestation can be used to estimate the ________ of death. Answer: Time Page Ref: 113-114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 19) The stiffening of muscles after death is known as ________ mortis. Answer: Rigor Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 268 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) The settling of blood in the parts of the body closest to the ground is known as ________ mortis. Answer: Livor Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Basic 21) Livor mortis continues for up to ________ hours after death. Answer: 12 Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Difficult 22) Time of death can be estimated by measuring the concentration of ________ in the victim’s eye fluids. Answer: Potassium Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 23) The ________ of a skeleton can be determined by observing the shape of the pelvis and sacrum, the size of the cranium, and the protrusion of the brow bone and mastoid process. Answer: Sex Page Ref: 115-116 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Difficult

Chapter 5 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) The redistribution of drugs in the blood after death B) A postmortem process in which the body attempts to equalize with the environmental temperature C) Self-digestion by the cell’s own enzymes D) The formation of a waxy substance during decomposition E) A variety of conditions that interfere with the intake of oxygen F) When skin begins to blister and peel G) The fluid within the eye H) A postmortem chemical change that causes the muscles to become rigid I)

Decomposition carried out by microorganisms

The process of the blood settling to parts of the body nearest the ground once the heart stops pumping

1) Postmortem redistribution Page Ref: 107 Level: Basic 2) Rigor mortis Page Ref: 113 Level: Basic 3) Autolysis Page Ref: 114 Level: Basic 4) Algor mortis Page Ref: 113 Level: Basic 5) Asphyxia Page Ref: 109 Level: Basic 6) Adipocere Page Ref: 114 Level: Basic 7) Livor mortis Page Ref: 113 Level: Basic 8) Putrefaction Page Ref: 114 Level: Basic 9) Slippage Page Ref: 114 Level: Basic 10) Vitreous humor Page Ref: 114 Level: Basic Answers: 1) A 2) H 3) C 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) J 8) I 9) F 10) G

Chapter 5 Essay 1) Describe the various victim characteristics that can be determined by a forensic anthropologist. Answer (should include points such as): • The sex of the decedent can be determined by the size and shape of various skeletal features, especially those in the pelvis and skull or cranium. 270 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

• The method for determining the age of a decedent varies depending on the victim’s growth stage. In some cases, the length of certain bones can be compared to a known growth curve. In other cases, the fusion of certain bones can help determine an age range. • The possible racial ancestry of the decedent can be assessed by the appearance of various cranial features on the skeletal remains. • The height of the victim when alive can be estimated by measuring the long bones of the skeleton, especially in the lower limbs. • A forensic anthropologist may also create facial reconstructions to help identify skeletal remains. Facial reconstruction uses the victim’s actual cranium and takes into account the estimated age, ancestry, and gender. Page Ref: 115-118 Objective: Discuss the role of the forensic anthropologist in death investigation. Level: Difficult 2) Explain how the presence of certain insects can help a forensic entomologist estimate the time of death. Answer (should include points such as): • Within 24 hours, blowflies will infest the body and lay eggs that will hatch into fly larvae. Forensic entomologists can approximate how long a body has been left exposed by examining the stage of development of the fly larvae. • Newly emerged flies indicate that an entire blowfly cycle has been completed on the decomposing body. Likewise, empty pupal cases indicate that a fly has completed its entire life cycle on the body. • Flies known as cheese skippers are primarily found on human corpses in the later stages of decomposition long after the blowflies have left the corpse. • Information about the arrival of other species of insects may also help determine the PMI. Necrophilous insects arrive first, followed by predator insects, omnivore insects, and finally indigenous insects. Page Ref: 121-122 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic entomologist in death investigation. Level: Difficult 3) Explain the difference between autolysis and putrefaction. What are these processes dependent on? Answer (should include points such as): • Autolysis is fundamentally self-digestion by the cell’s own enzymes and varies from organ to organ depending on the mechanism of death, the enzyme content of the respective organs, the position of the body, and environmental factors. • Putrefaction is decomposition carried out by microorganisms, such as bacteria. The rate of putrefaction is dependent upon mechanism of death, factors allowing bacteria to spread from the bowel, presence or absence of infection, environmental temperatures and humidity, degree of obesity, extent of clothing, etc. Page Ref: 114 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 271 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Briefly describe the processes of algor mortis, livor mortis, and rigor mortis. Answer (should include points such as): • During algor mortis, the body undergoes a process in which it will continually attempt to equalize with the environmental temperature. At average ambient temperatures of 70-72° F the body loses heat at a rate of approximately of 1.0 to 1.5°F per hour until the body reaches the ambient or room temperature. • Livor mortis occurs when the human heart stops pumping and blood begins to settle in the parts of the body closest to the ground. The skin appears bluish-purple in color in these areas. The onset of this condition begins immediately and continues for up to sixteen hours after death under average conditions, at which point all lividity is fixed. During rigor mortis, a chemical change occurs in the muscles, causing them to become rigid. This rigidity subsides as time goes on and disappears at about 36 hours under average conditions. Page Ref: 113 Objective: Describe chemical and physical changes helpful for estimating time of death. Level: Intermediate 5) What is postmortem redistribution and how do forensic pathologists avoid it? Answer (should include points such as): Postmortem redistribution occurs when drugs redistribute or reenter the blood after death and thus may complicate the interpretation of post-mortem drug blood levels. For this reason, it is best to collect blood at distant areas of the body. The ideal location to retrieve the blood is internally from the inferior vena cava. Where postmortem redistribution of drugs may have occurred, blood should also be collected at autopsy from the superior venous system directly above the heart. Page Ref: 107 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate 6) In cooperation with the medical examiner or coroner, what type of evidence is to be retrieved from a deceased victim for examination in the crime laboratory? Answer (should include points such as): • Clothing • Fingernail scrapings or clippings • Combings from head and pubic areas • Swabs of suspect areas containing DNA arising from touch or saliva • Vaginal, anal, and oral swabs • Bullets • Hand swabs for gunshot residues • Buccal swab for DNA typing Page Ref: 105 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Basic 272 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) If no scene analysis is carried out with the death investigation, what types of evidence may never be located and recovered? Answer (should include points such as): • Shoe and tire impressions • Blood stains from victim(s) and perpetrator(s) • Perimortem/postmortem body position • Firearms or weapons • Fingerprint evidence • Evidence of substance use or abuse • Temperature and atmosphere of crime scene • Sexual assault evidence • Hair and fiber evidence Page Ref: 103-104 Objective: Describe the role of a forensic pathologist. Level: Basic 8) What is the difference between the cause of death and the manner of death? Give three examples of potential causes of death, and three examples of potential manners of death. Answer (should include points such as): • Cause of death identifies the injury or disease that led to the chain of events resulting in death. Examples include: blunt-force injury, sharp-force injury, asphyxia, gunshot wounds, and substance abuse. • Manner of death is a determination made by a forensic pathologist of the cause of death. Five broad categories are homicide, suicide, accidental, natural, and undetermined. Page Ref: 107-111 Objective: Describe common causes of death; List various categories associated with the manner of death Level: Intermediate

Chapter 5 Critical Thinking 1) What conclusions about the position of a victim and an attacker can be drawn from the presence of defensive wounds on the forearms and hands of the victim? How about defensive wounds on the legs and feet? Answer (should include points such as): • Defensive wounds on the arms and hands suggest both the victim and attacker were at approximately the same level, whether that be standing, sitting, or lying down. The defensive wounds were inflicted when the victim attempted to use his or her arms and hands to protect the face or torso. • Defensive wounds on the legs and feet suggest the victim was lying or sitting and attempted to use the feet and legs to kick at the attacker or raised to protect the torso. Page Ref: 108 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Difficult 273 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Explain the importance of the forensic pathologist or medical examiner making proper classifications of a victim’s wounds during the autopsy. Answer (should include points such as): Incorrectly classifying wounds can yield to incorrect conclusions about the events leading to death. The false leads created from these conclusions can hinder the death investigation by misidentifying the type of weapon used, the force used, and likely symptoms and precipitating events. Page Ref: 106 Objective: Describe autopsy. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 6 Fingerprints Chapter 6 Multiple Choice 1) Sir Francis Galton, in writing his textbook on fingerprints, built on the groundbreaking work in this area done by: A) Henry. B) Bertillon. C) Vucetich. D) Faulds. Answer: D Page Ref: 129 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Basic 2) The fingerprint classification system used in most English speaking countries was devised by: A) Henry. B) Vucetich. C) Herschel. D) Faulds. Answer: A Page Ref: 129 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Intermediate 3) Will West was the man who: A) Had a virtual “double” with a similar name. B) Devised the fingerprint classification system used in Spanish-speaking countries. C) Mutilated his fingerprints with acid. D) Invented Superglue. Answer: A Page Ref: 130 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Intermediate 4) Under which circumstances have two people been found to have identical fingerprints? A) Identical twins B) Conjoined twins C) Fraternal twins D) None to date

Answer: D Page Ref: 130 Objective: Summarize the three fundamental principles of fingerprints. Level: Basic 5) It is estimated that there are as many as ________ ridge characteristics in an average complete fingerprint. A) 50 B) 100 C) 150 D) 200 Answer: C Page Ref: 131 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 6) The most commonly encountered ridge characteristics (used by AFIS) are the: A) Ridge ending and island. B) Ridge crossing and short ridge. C) Bifurcation and ridge ending. D) Bifurcation and trifurcation. Answer: C Page Ref: 136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 7) What is the minimum number of ridge characteristics necessary before two fingerprints can be identified as the same? A) 10 B) 12 C) 16 D) No minimum exists Answer: D Page Ref: 131-132 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 8) Fingerprints are formed: A) During fetal development. B) By the time a child is two years old. C) During first six months after birth. D) At birth. Answer: A Page Ref: 132 276 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Intermediate 9) The friction skin ridges: A) Have no useful purpose other than identification. B) Provide a firmer grip. C) Resist slippage. D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 132 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Intermediate 10) The pores of the sweat glands are located in the: A) Skin ridges. B) Friction grooves. C) Dermis. D) Dermal papillae. Answer: A Page Ref: 132 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Intermediate 11) Prints that are not readily visible are commonly referred to as: A) Latent. B) Open. C) Plastic. D) Patent. Answer: A Page Ref: 132 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Basic 12) To permanently alter the fingerprint and produce scars, one must damage the: A) Minutiae. B) Ridges. C) Epidermis. D) Dermal papillae. Answer: D Page Ref: 133 Objective: Summarize the three fundamental principles of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate

13) Which person listed below attempted to destroy his fingerprints with corrosive acid? A) John Gotti B) Carlo Gambino C) William West D) John Dillinger Answer: D Page Ref: 133 Objective: Summarize the three fundamental principles of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 14) The most common ridge pattern is the: A) Loop. B) Whorl. C) Accidental. D) Arch. Answer: A Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 15) The number of deltas found in an arch pattern is ________ the number of deltas found in a loop pattern. A) Greater than B) Less than C) The same as Answer: B Page Ref: 133-134 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 16) In the Primary Classification System, a finger is assigned numerical value if its pattern is a(n): A) Loop. B) Ulnar loop. C) Arch. D) Whorl. Answer: D Page Ref: 135 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate

17) Approximately what percentage of the population falls into the 1/1 Primary Classification category? A) 30% B) 20% C) 25% D) 10% Answer: C Page Ref: 136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 18) In the Primary Classification scheme, the left index finger has a potential value of: A) 16. B) 8. C) 4. D) 2. Answer: D Page Ref: 136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 19) The value of ridge patterns in determining the uniqueness of a fingerprint is ________ the value of type and position of ridge characteristics in determining the uniqueness of a fingerprint. A) Greater than B) The same as C) Less than Answer: C Page Ref: 132 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 20) AFIS is a(n): A) Computerized system for storing and retrieving fingerprint records. B) Method used to determine age of a latent print. C) Computer system programmed to analyze hair. D) Assay technique used to identify drugs. Answer: A Page Ref: 136 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Basic

21) The FBI’s IAFIS became fully operational in: A) 1977. B) 1989. C) 1991. D) 1999. Answer: D Page Ref: 136 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Intermediate 22) The AFIS search algorithm determines the degree of ________ between the location and relationship of the minutiae between the questioned fingerprint and those in the database. A) Orientation B) Correlation C) Minutiae D) Difference Answer: B Page Ref: 136-137 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Difficult 23) Livescan images of fingerprints: A) Have eliminated the need for inked prints on paper cards. B) Are sent to the AFIS database electronically. C) Are captured when the subject’s fingers and palms are placed onto a glass platen. D) All of the above. Answer: D Page Ref: 137 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Basic 24) A primary classification of 9/3 means that there are: A) Whorls on the left index and right ring fingers. B) Deltas on fingers #9 and #3. C) Whorls on the left and right middle fingers. D) Loops on the right thumb and left ring finger. Answer: A Page Ref: 135-136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Difficult 25) Prints impressed in a bar of soap are referred to as: A) Latent. B) Hidden. 280 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Plastic. D) Dusted. Answer: C Page Ref: 139 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Basic 26) Investigators can use ________ to detect latent fingerprints without use of chemicals or powder treatments. A) RUVIS B) AFIS C) GRIM 3 D) GC/MS Answer: A Page Ref: 140 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic 27) Which is NOT considered a porous surface? A) Tile B) Cloth C) Paper D) Cardboard Answer: A Page Ref: 140 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 28) Sublimation occurs with the use of: A) Iodine fuming. B) Cyanoacrylate. C) Laser-print detection. D) Silver nitrate. Answer: A Page Ref: 141 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic 29) Ninhydrin is used on a latent print to detect: A) Fatty acids. B) Riboflavin. C) Protein material. D) Salt. 281 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 141 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic 30) Physical developer contains: A) Iodine. B) Silver nitrate. C) Ninhydrin. D) Acrylate. Answer: B Page Ref: 141 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic 31) In which order should chemical treatments to visualize latent prints be performed? 1. Ninhydrin 2. Iodine fuming 3. Physical developer A) 1, 3, 2 B) 2, 1, 3 C) 3, 1, 2 D) 1, 2, 3 Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 32) Superglue fuming is NOT suitable for use on: A) Cardboard. B) Metal. C) Leather. D) Plastic bags. Answer: A Page Ref: 142 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 33) Which chemical treatment produces a white-appearing latent print? A) Ninhydrin B) Iodine fuming C) Superglue fuming D) Physical developer

Answer: C Page Ref: 142 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic 34) Which substance is a substitute for Ninhydrin? A) DFO B) RAY C) MRM 10 D) RAM Answer: A Page Ref: 144 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 35) Currently, which of the following, in conjunction with chemically induced fluorescence, is most often used to visualize latent prints? A) High-intensity light sources B) IR light C) UV light D) Laser illumination Answer: A Page Ref: 144 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 36) Dusting to visualize a latent print on finished leather and rough plastic is best done with a: A) Fiberglass brush. B) Magna brush. C) Camel’s hair brush. D) All of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 141 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 37) After successfully visualizing a latent print on an object, an investigator should next: A) Classify the print. B) Lift the print with adhesive tape. C) Compare it to the suspect’s prints. D) Take a photograph of the print. Answer: D Page Ref: 145 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 283 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Which of the following is NOT true about digital imaging? A) Once the image is produced, it can be manipulated and enlarged. B) It produces an image composed of pixels. C) It is a process in which a picture is converted into a digital file. D) It does not allow for the simultaneous comparison of two prints. Answer: D Page Ref: 146 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic 39) Which of the following types of fingerprints are most likely to be found impressed in soft wax? A) Visible B) Plastic C) Latent D) Hidden Answer: B Page Ref: 139 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 40) The first systematic system of individual classification and identification was introduced by: A) Francis Galton. B) Richard Henry. C) William Herschel. D) Alphonse Bertillon. Answer: D Page Ref: 129 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Basic 41) The fingerprint pattern accounting for only 5% of all known patterns is the: A) Arch. B) Radial loop. C) Ulnar loop. D) Whorl. Answer: A Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic

42) A fingerprint pattern having no delta is a(n): A) Arch. B) Loop. C) Plain whorl. D) Central pocket loop. Answer: A Page Ref: 134 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic 43) Protein residues are best developed into fingerprint impressions with: A) Iodine. B) Ninhydrin. C) Physical developer. D) Dusting powder. Answer: B Page Ref: 141 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 44) Which statement is true of a partial fingerprint? A) It must show at least a little of all ten fingers. B) Any print is sufficient for identification as long as there is enough to identify its basic pattern. C) Any print can identify a criminal if it shows an adequate number of ridge characteristics. D) At least 75% of the pattern must be present for identification. Answer: C Page Ref: 131 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 45) Which of the following is NOT a ridge characteristic of a fingerprint? A) Enclosure B) Bifurcation C) Island D) Core Answer: D Page Ref: 130 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic 46) A chemical method used for developing prints on nonporous surfaces is: A) Physical developer. B) Ninhydrin. 285 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Fuming with cyanoacrylate. D) DFO. Answer: C Page Ref: 142 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 47) Chemical methods for developing latent fingerprints must be used in the following sequence: A) Iodine, physical developer, ninhydrin. B) Iodine, ninhydrin, physical developer. C) Ninhydrin, iodine, physical developer. D) Ninhydrin, physical developer, iodine. Answer: B Page Ref: 142 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 48) A chemical method used for developing prints on nonporous surfaces is: A) Physical developer. B) Ninhydrin. C) Applying the dye rhodamine 6G after fuming with cyanoacrylate. D) DFO. Answer: C Page Ref: 144 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 49) A point-by-point comparison of a fingerprint’s ________ must be demonstrated in order to prove identity. A) Minutiae B) Pattern C) Protein composition D) Classification Answer: A Page Ref: 130 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 50) If an imaginary line drawn between the two deltas of a whorl pattern touches any of the spiral ridges, the pattern is classified as a(n): A) Central pocket whorl. B) Central pocket loop whorl. C) Accidental whorl. D) Plain whorl. 286 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 51) Computerized fingerprint search systems match prints by comparing the position of ________ and ________. A) Loops; arches B) Minutiae; ridge characteristics C) Bifurcations; ridge endings D) Ridges; furrows Answer: C Page Ref: 136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 52) The image produced from a digital file is composed of numerous square electronic dots called: A) Bytes. B) Cubic millimeters. C) Screen elements. D) Pixels. Answer: D Page Ref: 146 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Basic 53) Which step of the ACE-V process requires the examiner to identify any distortions associated with the friction ridges? A) Analysis B) Comparison C) Evaluation D) Verification Answer: A Page Ref: 135 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Basic

Chapter 6 True/False 1) Ridge characteristics are ridge endings, bifurcations, enclosures, and other ridge details which must match in two fingerprints to establish their common origin. A) True B) False Answer: A 287 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 130 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic 2) The shape of the boundary formed from dermal papillae determines the fingerprint pattern. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 132 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 3) A latent fingerprint is a fingerprint made by the deposit of oils and/or perspiration that is visible to the naked eye. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 132 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 4) It is possible to obscure one’s fingerprints by scarring. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 133 Objective: Summarize the three fundamental principles of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 5) Loops are the most common type of fingerprint patterns. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic 6) Loops include ridge patterns that are generally rounded or circular and have two deltas. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 288 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) A loop must have at least one delta. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 8) A plain arch is the simplest of all fingerprint patterns. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 134 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 9) The primary classification is the first step in classifying fingerprints under the FBI system. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 135 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 10) When using AFIS, the computer makes the final verification of the print’s identity. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 136 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Intermediate 11) The three kinds of crime scene fingerprints are visible prints, invisible prints, and latent prints. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 139 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Basic

12) Soft and porous surfaces are preferably developed by applying fingerprint powder or treating with Superglue. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 140 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 13) RUVIS detects prints by using chemical treatments. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 140 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 14) The perspiration in fingerprints contains a variety of components that fluoresce when illuminated by laser light. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 140 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 15) After the latent print has been visualized, a photograph must be taken before any further attempts at preservation. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 145 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 16) Digital imaging is a process through which a picture is converted into pixels. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 146 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Basic

17) Digital imaging is still effective in enhancing latent fingerprints even if details of the print do not exist on the original images. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 146 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Intermediate 18) The comparison step of the ACE-V process requires the comparison of the known and unknown print at two different levels. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 135 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 19) A final conclusion made using the ACE-V process is either the individualization or elimination of a print. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 135 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Difficult 20) The ACE-V process requires an independent examination by a second examiner. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 135 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 6 Fill in the Blank 1) Fingerprints are a reproduction of ________ skin ridges found on the palm side of the fingers and thumbs. Answer: Friction Page Ref: 132 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate

2) The identity, number, and relative location of ridge characteristics impart ________ to a fingerprint. Answer: Individuality Page Ref: 130 Objective: Summarize the three fundamental principles of fingerprints. Level: Difficult 3) Ridge characteristics are also known as ________. Answer: Minutiae Page Ref: 130 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic 4) Dermal papillae are cells that form a ________ between the outer skin, or epidermis, and the inner skin, or the dermis. Answer: Boundary Page Ref: 132 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Difficult 5) ________ fingerprints are formed when a finger touches a surface and transfers perspiration, along with oils, onto the surface. Answer: Latent Page Ref: 132 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 6) The three types of fingerprint patterns are loops, whorls, and ________. Answer: Arches Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Basic 7) ________ include ridge patterns that are generally rounded or circular and have two deltas. Answer: Whorls Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 8) A loop must have at least one ________. Answer: Delta Page Ref: 133 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate

9) A plain ________, formed by ridges entering from one side of the print and exiting on the opposite side, is the simplest of all fingerprint patterns. Answer: Arch Page Ref: 134 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Difficult 10) The presence or absence of the ________ pattern is the basis for determination of the primary classification. Answer: Whorl Page Ref: 135 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Difficult 11) The three kinds of crime scene fingerprints are visible prints, latent prints, and ________ prints. Answer: Plastic Page Ref: 139 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 12) Four common chemical methods for visualizing latent prints are SuperGlue fuming, ninhydrin, physical developer, and ________ fuming. Answer: Iodine Page Ref: 141 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Difficult 13) The analysis, comparison, evaluation, and verification of a fingerprint is known as ________. Answer: ACE-V Page Ref: 135 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate 14) Level ________ of the comparison step in the ACE-V process can individualize a print. Answer: Two Page Ref: 135 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Difficult

Chapter 6 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) A class of fingerprints characterized by ridge lines that enter the print from one side and flow out the other side 293 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

B) An inkless device that captures digital images of fingerprints and palm prints and electronically transmits them to an AFIS C) A square electronic dot that is used to compose a digital image D) A fingerprint impressed in a soft surface E) A class of fingerprints characterized by ridge lines that enter from one side of the pattern and curve around to exit from the same side of the pattern F) A system of identification of individuals by measurement of parts of the body, developed by Alphonse Bertillon G) A process through which a picture is converted into pixels H) A technique for visualizing latent fingerprints by exposing them to iodine vapors I)

Ridge endings, bifurcations, enclosures, and other ridge details which must match in two fingerprints to establish their common origin

A chemical reagent used to develop latent fingerprints on porous materials by reacting with amino acids in perspiration

K) A class of fingerprints that includes ridge patterns that are generally rounded or circular and have two deltas L) A physical change from the solid directly into the gaseous state M) A fingerprint made by the deposit of oils and/or perspiration; it is invisible to the naked eye N) A silver nitrate—based reagent formulated to develop latent fingerprints on porous surfaces O) To emit visible light when exposed to light of a shorter wavelength P) A technique for visualizing latent fingerprints on nonporous surfaces by exposing them to cyanoacrylate vapors Q) A fingerprint made when the finger deposits a visible material such as ink, dirt, or blood onto a surface R) A verbal description of a perpetrator’s physical characteristics and dress provided by an eyewitness 1) Anthropometry Page Ref: 129 Level: Intermediate 2) Arch Page Ref: 134 Level: Intermediate 3) Digital imaging Page Ref: 145 Level: Intermediate 4) Fluoresce Page Ref: 143 Level: Intermediate 294 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Iodine fuming Page Ref: 141 Level: Intermediate 6) Latent fingerprint Page Ref: 132 Level: Intermediate 7) Livescan Page Ref: 137 Level: Intermediate 8) Loop Page Ref: 133 Level: Intermediate 9) Ninhydrin Page Ref: 141 Level: Intermediate 10) Physical developer Page Ref: 141 Level: Intermediate 11) Pixel Page Ref: 146 Level: Intermediate 12) Plastic print Page Ref: 139 Level: Intermediate 13) Portrait parlé Page Ref: 129 Level: Intermediate 14) Ridge characteristics Page Ref: 130 Level: Intermediate 15) Sublimation Page Ref: 141 Level: Intermediate 16) Superglue fuming Page Ref: 142 Level: Intermediate

17) Visible print Page Ref: 139 Level: Intermediate 18) Whorl Page Ref: 133 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) F 2) A 3) G 4) O 5) H 6) M 7) B 8) E 9) J 10) N 11) C 12) D 13) R 14) I 15) L 16) P 17) Q 18) K

Chapter 6 Essay 1) Name two main drawbacks to using AFIS. Answer (should include points such as): One drawback to using AFIS is that sometimes a latent print does not make a hit in AFIS because of the poor quality of the file print. The second drawback is that state AFIS systems often do not communicate with each other directly, and thus states frequently cannot share fingerprint information with one another. Page Ref: 136-138 Objective: Describe the concept of an automated fingerprint identification system (AFIS). Level: Intermediate 2) Describe the basic process used to “lift” a fingerprint. When should this procedure be used? Answer (should include points such as): To “lift” a fingerprint, powder is applied to the print, and the surface containing the print is covered with the adhesive side of the tape. When the tape is pulled up, the powder is transferred to the tape. Then the tape is placed on a properly labeled card that provides a good background contrast with the powder. This procedure is used when fingerprints are found on large or immovable objects. Page Ref: 145 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint. Level: Difficult 3) Give three reasons why alternate light sources have replaced lasers for visualizing latent prints. Answer (should include points such as): First, using an alternate light source, light can be passed through several filters, giving the user more flexibility in selecting the wavelength of light to be aimed at the latent print. Second, alternate light sources are commercially available at costs significantly below those of laser illuminators. Third, alternate light sources are portable and can be readily taken to any crime scene. Page Ref: 144 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Basic 296 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) What is digital imaging? How is it useful for analyzing fingerprints? Answer (should include points such as): Digital imaging is a process through which a picture is converted into a series of square electronic dots known as pixels. By using digital imaging, fingerprints can be enhanced for the most accurate and comprehensive analysis. Page Ref: 145-146 Objective: Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Basic 5) Why is it pointless to try to obscure or obliterate one’s fingerprints by scarring or otherwise damaging the skin? Answer (should include points such as): The wound would have to penetrate 1 to 2 millimeters beneath the skin’s surface. In addition, the presence of permanent scars caused by the effort to obliterate one’s fingerprints merely provides new characteristics for identification. Page Ref: 133 Objective: Summarize the three fundamental principles of fingerprints. Level: Intermediate 6) Compare and contrast anthropometry and fingerprinting as means of identification. Why do we use fingerprints today instead of anthropometry? Answer (should include points such as): Anthropometry is a system of identification of individuals by measurement of parts of the body. This means of identification was introduced in 1883 and was the most accurate method of identification for two decades. Fingerprints also have identification power, but unlike anthropometry, no two fingerprints are alike between any two individuals. Page Ref: 129 Objective: Recount the development of fingerprinting as a means of identification. Level: Intermediate 7) What is primary classification of fingerprints and why is it important? Observe your fingerprints, and write out what pattern is shown on each finger. Calculate the primary classification your fingerprints fall into. Answer (should include points such as): The primary classification divides all fingerprint cards in the world into 1,024 groups. Calculations will vary based on the student. Page Ref: 135-136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Difficult 8) What is the difference between a visible, plastic, and latent fingerprint? What are three techniques that could be used to develop latent fingerprints? Answer (should include points such as): Visible prints are made when the finger deposits a visible material such as ink, dirt, or blood onto a surface. Plastic prints are fingerprints impressed in a soft surface. Latent prints are 297 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

made by the deposit of oils and/or perspiration and are invisible to the naked eye. Some methods used to develop latent fingerprints include fingerprint powders, iodine fuming, ninhydrin, physical developer, and superglue fuming. Page Ref: 139-142 Objective: Describe visible, plastic, and latent fingerprints and the techniques for developing latent fingerprints. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 6 Critical Thinking 1) Using the description given below of the types of fingerprint patterns on each finger of a suspect, give the primary classification of the individual. Finger

Right Hand

Left Hand

Thumb

Whorl

Index

Loop

Middle

Loop

Ring

Loop

Whorl

Little

Arch

Loop

Answer: 5/18 Page Ref: 135-136 Objective: Explain the primary classification system of fingerprints. Level: Difficult 2) Discuss how fingerprints on the following surfaces should best be visualized, documented, and preserved. a. Latent fingerprint on a silver-colored butter knife b. Visible fingerprint (black) on the white wall of a house c. Latent fingerprint on a large manila envelope Answer (should include points such as): a. Item should be collected from the scene, packaged, and transported to the crime laboratory. The latent fingerprint should be visualized with gray fingerprint powder or cyanoacrylate fuming with rhodamine dye. The fingerprint is then photographed with the appropriate methods. The knife with the visualized fingerprint should then be secured for storage. Digital imaging software can adjust brightness and contrast if necessary. b. The visible fingerprint should be photographed to create a 1:1 image. The wall cannot be removed and transported so the photograph will be the document and record of the fingerprint.

c. Item should be collected from the scene, packaged, and transported to the crime laboratory. At the laboratory, the latent fingerprint should be visualized with ninhydrin. The fingerprint is then photographed with the appropriate methods. The envelope with the visualized fingerprint should then be secured for storage. Digital imaging software can remove the background color or any writing obscuring the fingerprint if necessary. Page Ref: 140-142 Objective: Describe the proper procedures for preserving a developed latent fingerprint; Discuss the tools involved in fingerprint analysis and enhancement. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 7 Forensic Biometrics Chapter 7 Multiple Choice 1) When Apple introduced the iPhone 5s in 2013, what breakthrough technology did this model contain? A) Video recording B) Extended battery life C) Retinal scanning option D) Touch ID Answer: D Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 2) What is the most commonly used type of behavioral biometrics? A) A person’s gait or walk B) Handwriting C) Speech D) Keyboard typing Answer: B Page Ref: 154 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 3) Modern techniques of facial recognition can be attributed largely to the work of which researcher(s)? A) Alphonse Bertillon B) Matthew Turk C) Alex Pentland D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 160 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate 4) Which new feature has been implemented with the NGI? A) Voice recognition B) Gang affiliation C) Sex offender registry status D) New Tenprint system

Answer: D Page Ref: 162 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 5) Which of the following facial recognition biometric techniques is NOT among the most widely accepted today? A) PCA B) CCT C) LDA D) EBGM Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 6) What function of biometrics would law enforcement be implementing if they wanted to look for a person accused of sexual assault in a large crowd at a sports stadium? A) Biometric matching or verification B) Biometric identification C) Physiological biometrics D) Behavioral biometrics Answer: A Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate 7) When using biometrics, if the sensor does not find a positive match to a human within its database, what happens? A) An alarm is generated B) Law enforcement is notified C) It locks the attempted user out D) The system captures the new biometric data Answer: C Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 8) Who was the first researcher who attempted to identify someone using the iris? A) Matthew Turk B) Alex Pentland C) John Daugman D) J. H. Doggart

Answer: D Page Ref: 156 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 9) Which facial recognition technique uses thousands of stored images of faces and places them over the face in question? A) PCA B) LDA C) CCTV D) EBGM Answer: A Page Ref: 161 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate 10) Which facial recognition database would most likely contain the photos of criminals? A) FACE B) NPPS C) IPS D) MorphoTrust Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 11) Which of the following features would NOT serve as a variable for analysis in biometric facial recognition? A) Cheekbones B) Neck C) Chin D) Widow’s peak Answer: B Page Ref: 160 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 12) Which facial recognition technique uses a sequence of graphs to map the nonlinear relationships of features on the face? A) CCTV B) EBGM C) LDA D) PCA 302 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 13) Which of the following is not considered a behavioral biometric? A) Handwriting B) Keystroke patterns C) Gait recognition D) Facial scan Answer: D Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 14) Of the various forms of behavioral biometrics, which is the LEAST accurate? A) Voice recognition B) Keyboard dynamics C) Gait recognition D) Handwriting Answer: C Page Ref: 155 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate 15) Which process captures a person’s biometric data and stores it in a database for later use? A) Enrollment B) Initiation C) Extraction D) Collection Answer: A Page Ref: 155 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Basic 16) The first documented attempt to identify someone using the iris was conducted in what decade? A) 1940s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1970s Answer: B Page Ref: 156 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 303 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) How long does it take IrisCode to generate a match? A) 2-3 seconds B) 20-30 seconds C) 2-3 minutes D) 4+ minutes Answer: A Page Ref: 159 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 18) What does the FBI’s acronym NPPS stand for? A) Nationwide Palm Print System B) National Palm Print Survey C) National Palm Print System D) Nationwide Palm Print Survey Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 19) What is the primary disadvantage of Principal Component Analysis? A) A full frontal face image is needed to be a viable sample. B) The image must be taken at a distance of no further than three feet away. C) It is not compatible with most facial recognition software. D) It is less precise and accurate than other analyses. Answer: A Page Ref: 161 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 20) Which module is responsible for finding patterns in the traits extracted by the sensor using mathematical equations? A) Feature extraction B) Template generation C) Data preprocessing D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 156 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate

21) Which of the following systems is highly beneficial for law enforcement safety in that it allows for officers to fingerprint individuals they come into contact with quickly to detect whether or not they pose a potential threat? A) MorphoTrak B) IPS C) NPPS D) RISC Answer: D Page Ref: 164 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Intermediate 22) Which scanners are largely outdated and considered to be too intrusive to be practical in realworld applications? A) Iris B) Retina C) Pupil D) Cornea Answer: B Page Ref: 157 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 23) Which of the following is one of the key advantages to EBGM? A) A full facial image is required B) Its extreme precision and accuracy C) It works even with blurry or grainy images D) Relatively inexpensive compared to other analyses Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 24) Which of the following would NOT be considered a physiological biometric? A) Fingerprint B) Handprint C) Iris D) Voice Answer: D Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 305 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Applicants that are being entered into an iris-based biometric system need how many photographs taken of their eye? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: B Page Ref: 158 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 26) The FBI has an internal unit called FACE. What does FACE stand for? A) Facial Analysis, Comparison, and Extrapolation B) First Analyze, Comparison, and Evaluation C) Facial Analysis, Comparison, and Evaluation D) First Analyze, Comparison, and Extrapolation Answer: C Page Ref: 163 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 27) Which of the following technologies is replacing retina biometrics because it is an all-around better technology and is functional for both law enforcement and business security? A) Iris biometrics B) Pupil biometrics C) Sclera biometrics D) Cornea biometrics Answer: A Page Ref: 157 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 28) The NIR wavelength band is located within how many nanometers of the electromagnetic spectrum? A) 100-300 B) 400-500 C) 700-900 D) 1000-1100 Answer: C Page Ref: 158 306 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic

Chapter 7 True/False 1) There are three main functions of biometrics. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 2) Linear discriminant analysis is considered a model-based facial recognition. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 161 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 3) The military has been using biometrics for an extended period of time to keep sensitive information secure and to prevent espionage and theft in regards to valuable military assets. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 4) NGI provides a positive or negative identification of the suspect. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 162 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Intermediate 5) Before Touch ID, data was not significantly more vulnerable to password attacks, even when a phone had been stolen or breached. A) True B) False

Answer: B Page Ref: 153 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 6) The first process that each biometric system must perform is known as the enrollment process. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 155 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Basic 7) The combination of a mobile device and a fingerprint scanner has become a reality for law enforcement agencies. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 164 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate 8) One of the problems with facial recognition biometrics is that software has a difficult time analyzing and identifying faces from grainy and low-resolution photographs. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 152 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 9) Popular equipment includes NIR (near infrareD) cameras or SLR (single lens reflex) cameras to gather data from a human face. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 155 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate

10) A significant advantage of automated facial recognition, as compared to other different of biometrics, is that it requires subjects to participate. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 159 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Difficult 11) The iris is responsible for obtaining a clear picture of what a person is actually seeing. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 157 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Intermediate 12) Like iris biometrics, facial recognition scans are intrusive and cannot gain data in a way that is comfortable and hygienic for its users. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 160 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 13) Iris biometrics may be used after a battle on the deceased to identify if any of the dead are high-ranking insurgents or wanted for acts of terrorism. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 159 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 14) The Interstate Photo System (IPS) has a criminal database containing millions of side-facing mugshot photos of individuals with tenprints on file. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 162 309 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Difficult 15) One of the key advantages of retina scans is that the user can stand a good distance away from the camera and still produce a viable image. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 159 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 16) One of the benefits of facial recognition biometrics is that instead of having to rely on citizens identifying and reporting suspects that they may or may not come in contact with, a camera and computer system can accomplish the entire process without human intervention. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 159 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 17) Prisons and correctional institutions are not using iris-based systems yet to track inmates and efficiently record data that will be shared with members of other various law enforcement communities; however, this technology is predicted to be implemented in the very near future. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 159 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 18) An iris scan user can stand a good distance away from the camera and still procure a viable image. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 159 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 310 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Biometric systems use different algorithms and steps to accomplish what each is designed to do. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 155 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 20) Iris-based biometric systems have one of the easiest enrollment processes that are available today. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 158 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic

Chapter 7 Fill in the Blank 1) The ________ generation module is responsible for saving all of the raw data produced by feature extraction and putting it into a simple and easy-to-read format for the system. Answer: Template Page Ref: 156 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Basic 2) Early researchers in facial recognition used ________ to automate facial recognition in an attempt to identify and authenticate individuals from a series of faces. Answer: Eigenfaces Page Ref: 160 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 3) The data ________ module serves the function of normalizing any corrupt or inaccurate data. Answer: Preprocessing Page Ref: 156 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Intermediate 4) There are ________ main functions of biometrics. Answer: Two Page Ref: 153 311 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 5) For a retina scan, the feature extraction module may use equations that judge the distance between ________ fibers in the eye. Answer: Muscle Page Ref: 156 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 6) The ________ controls the amount of light that enters the eye. Answer: Pupil Page Ref: 156 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 7) The library of ________ can be superimposed over raw facial images when searching for a facial identification. Answer: Eigenfaces Page Ref: 160 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 8) The FBI’s internal unit ________ contains civil photos from state and federal government databases, such as visa applicant photos and selected states’ driver’s license photos. Answer: FACE Page Ref: 163 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 9) A 2D Gabor wavelet filters the iris into multiple partitions known as ________. Answer: Phasors Page Ref: 158 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 10) NPPS contains a database of millions of ________ prints. Answer: Palm Page Ref: 163 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Basic 312 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A facial recognition system can be easily tricked by a ________ picture. Answer: 2D Page Ref: 160 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate 12) One of the main problems with retina biometrics is that viable images can be affected by ________. Answer: Disease Page Ref: 157 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 13) The FBI has contracted the help of ________ to implement and maintain all facial recognition biometric systems. Answer: MorphoTrust Page Ref: 163 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Basic 14) The human iris will go physically ________ for the life of the user. Answer: Unchanged Page Ref: 156 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 15) When using IrisCode, a single iris can be stored using only ________ bytes of data. Answer: 256 Page Ref: 158 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 16) The only disadvantage that PCA poses is that a full ________ face image is needed to be a viable sample. Answer: Frontal Page Ref: 161 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate

17) The ________ has a criminal database containing millions of front-facing mugshot photos of individuals with tenprints on file. Answer: IPS Page Ref: 162 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic 18) The ________ system compares a suspect encountered by law enforcement against a repository of sex offenders, wanted persons, suspected terrorists, and other high-risk individuals. Answer: RISC Page Ref: 164 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Basic 19) The ________ process captures a person’s biometric data and stores it in a database for later use. Answer: Enrollment Page Ref: 155 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Basic 20) To be enrolled in IPS, all face photos must include a ________ submission of the individual. Answer: Tenprint Page Ref: 162 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Intermediate 21) A computer system that captures and analyzes complex data extracted from an image of an iris and compares it to results in a database is known as ________. Answer: IrisCode Page Ref: 157 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Basic

Chapter 7 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) An internal unit of the FBI that provides face recognition capabilities among other features to support active FBI investigations B) A form of biometrics that focuses on identifying humans through their unique physiological traits such as fingerprints, hands, iris, retina, and facial scans C) A biometric system that can distinguish between subjects by analyzing a biometric trait of one person and comparing it against an existing database of enrolled traits 314 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

D) A technique that creates matrices of human faces and uses complex mathematical equations to generate templates for individual features that are digitally stored E) Biometric systems popular with law enforcement that are capable of identifying someone out of a crowd by scanning select biometric characteristics into a database F) The process of capturing a person’s biometric data and storing it in a database for later use G) A technique used in the reconstruction and analysis of a human face through which thousands of stored images of faces are used and placed over the face in question H) A model-based facial recognition program that uses a sequence of graphs to map the nonlinear relationships of features on the face I)

An appearance-based technique in which an individual’s face is placed on a vector and lines from one feature to another are analyzed

This module is responsible for finding patterns in the traits extracted by the biometric sensor using mathematical equations

K) A database maintained by the FBI that allows for officers to fingerprint individuals they come in contact with and quickly detect whether or not they pose a threat L) Responsible for saving all of the raw data produced by feature extraction and putting it into a simple and easy to read format for the system M) A database maintained by the FBI that contains millions of palm prints to be used in criminal investigations and processes N) A form of biometrics that focuses on identifying humans through unique behavioral or mental patterns they exhibit, such as handwriting, keystrokes, or gait recognition O) A criminal database containing millions of front-facing mugshot photos of individuals with tenprints on file P) A process to analyze and store information on a human iris that uses the extracted data from a human iris and processes it through a quantitation stage that produces a binary iris code for later comparison 1) Physiological biometrics Page Ref: 153 Level: Intermediate 2) Extraction process Page Ref: 156 Level: Intermediate 3) Principal Component Analysis (PCA) Page Ref: 161 Level: Intermediate 4) Eigenfaces Page Ref: 160 Level: Intermediate

5) Biometric identification Page Ref: 153 Level: Intermediate 6) Elastic Bunch Graph Matching (EBGM) Page Ref: 161 Level: Intermediate 7) Facial Analysis, Comparison, and Evaluation (FACE) Page Ref: 163 Level: Intermediate 8) National Palm Print System (NPPS) Page Ref: 163 Level: Intermediate 9) Interstate Photo System (IPS) Page Ref: 163 Level: Intermediate 10) Repository of Special Concern (RISC) Page Ref: 164 Level: Intermediate 11) Behavioral biometrics Page Ref: 153 Level: Intermediate 12) IrisCodes Page Ref: 158 Level: Intermediate 13) Template generation Page Ref: 156 Level: Intermediate 14) Biometric matching or verification Page Ref: 153 Level: Intermediate 15) Enrollment process Page Ref: 155 Level: Intermediate 16) Linear Discriminant Analysis (LDA) Page Ref: 161 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) B 2) J 3) G 4) D 5) C 6) H 7) A 8) M 9) O 10) K 11) N 12) P 13) L 14) E 15) F 16) I 316 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 7 Essay 1) What is the difference between physiological biometrics and behavioral biometrics? What are some examples of each type of forensic biometrics? Answer (should include points such as): • Physiological biometrics are a form of forensic biometrics that focus on identifying humans through their unique physiological traits. Examples of physiological biometrics include fingerprints, hand, iris, retina, and facial scans. • Behavioral biometrics are a form of forensic biometrics that focus on identifying humans based on their unique behavioral or mental patterns they exhibit. Examples of behavioral biometrics include handwriting, voice, keystroke, and gait recognition. Page Ref: 153-155 Objective: List and define the various categories of biometrics. Level: Basic 2) Explain why the FBI’s Repository of Individuals of Special Concerns (RISC) particularly beneficial for law enforcement.

Answer (should include points such as): RISC is particularly beneficial for law enforcement because it allows officers to capture fingerprints in real time whenever they come into contact with an individual and quickly assess whether or not they pose a threat. The fingerprints of the individual in question are collected and quickly compared to a repository of sex offenders, wanted persons, suspected terrorists, and other high-risk individuals. By increasing the officer’s knowledge of a suspect’s background right away, this may ideally reduce the danger posed to law enforcement. Page Ref: 164 Objective: Explain the scope of the FBI’s Next Generation Identification System. Level: Basic 3) Briefly explain how an iris biometric system works. Answer (should include points such as): An iris biometric system uses a high-quality digital camera and illuminates the eyeball using near infrared (NIR) wavelengths, which are located within the 700-900 nm range of the electromagnetic spectrum, along with visible light. Examination of the eye with NIR lighting provides detailed results inclusive of capturing subtle craters and nuances associated with the iris. Once the iris has been properly located, the computer system begins mapping and extracting data from the iris. A 2D Gabor wavelet filters the iris into multiple partitions known as phasors which map the orientation and spatial frequency of features found in the iris, as well as the location of where they can be found. The goal of this algorithm is to create a unique template of the iris known as the IrisCode, which is then compared against a database of users. Page Ref: 158 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate

4) What is the difference between the enrollment process and the extraction process as it relates to biometric data? Answer (should include points such as): The enrollment process is the first process that each biometric system must perform. This process involves capturing a person’s biometric data and storing it in a database for future use. The enrollment process works by collecting data through a sensor and sending it to a data acquisition model. Popular equipment inherent with the enrollment process includes near infrared cameras or digital wavelength cameras. The extraction process begins once the information completes its initial run through a data preprocessing module. The feature extraction module is where most of the heavy lifting of the system occurs. This module is responsible for finding patterns in the traits extracted by the biometric sensor by using mathematical equations. Every system uses different equations and algorithms to judge unique characteristics. Page Ref: 155-156 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Intermediate 5) Briefly explain how biometric facial recognition works. Answer (should include points such as): Because the human face can change dramatically over time and can be manipulated or disguised, facial recognition poses many complex problems and hurdles that are absent in many other biometric options. Researchers must then create software that analyzes multiple variables such as cheekbones, mouth edges, chin, ridges between the eyebrows, the contour of the jawline, distance between the eyes, widow’s peak, in addition to numerous other data points. Biometric facial recognition begins with the acquisition of a clear image of the candidate to be processed. Ideally this occurs through cooperation of the individual in question (identification) or alternatively through surveillance such as CCTV cameras (matching/verification). Once the data is obtained, the system normalizes the pictures and makes them uniform for comparison. The normalizing process may include changes in light levels, face cropping, and size adjustments. A template is then generated and stored in the computer’s database for further analysis and comparison. Page Ref: 159-161 Objective: Describe how facial data is captured, verified, and identified in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 7 Critical Thinking 1) Explain the collection steps in gathering biometric data. Answer (should include points such as): The first step includes the enrollment process, in which a person’s biometric data is captured and stored for later use. The data preprocessing module collects and enhances only what is needed for each individual system. It also serves the function of normalizing any corrupt or inaccurate data. One the information completes it run through a data preprocessing module, feature extraction begins. This module is responsible for finding patterns in the traits extracted by the sensor using mathematical equations. After select features have been 318 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

collected, a template is generated of relevant information and is stored in a database. The template generation module is responsible for saving all of the raw data produced by feature extraction and putting it into a simple and easy-to-read format for the system. This module compares a user to the rest of the data and makes each individual biometric file smaller, which makes it time efficient. The template generation module saves all files to the database, and it is encrypted to meet the needs of the end user. Page Ref: 155-156 Objective: Distinguish the enrollment process from the extraction process. Level: Intermediate 2) Discuss why iris biometrics are preferred over retina biometrics. Answer (should include points such as): Viable images can be affected by disease with retina biometrics, whereas with iris biometrics, this does not occur, as illness will not affect the physiological elements of muscle fibers in the iris. Iris biometrics are also an all-around better technology which is fundamental for both law enforcement and business security. Retina scanners are considered too intrusive to be practical in real-world applications and are considered to be outdated. Iris systems can also be installed relatively easily and can be used without human intervention. Page Ref: 157-158 Objective: Explain how iris details are captured and characterized in a forensic biometric system. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 8 The Microscope Chapter 8 Multiple Choice 1) A compound microscope is equipped with two objective lenses (10x and 45x) and has a 10x ocular lens. The highest magnification attainable with this instrument is: A) 65x B) 100x C) 650x D) 450x Answer: D Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 2) In order to examine an opaque object with a compound microscope, one must: A) Use transmitted illumination. B) Light the object from beneath the stage. C) Use reflected illumination. D) Stain the object before viewing it. Answer: C Page Ref: 170 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 3) A parfocal microscope: A) Eliminates the need to stain the specimen to be viewed. B) Has two ocular lenses. C) Requires a polarized light source. D) Allows for ease of focusing when switching from low to high power. Answer: D Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Basic 4) As the magnification of the compound microscope is increased, the field of view: A) Decreases. B) Remains the same. C) Increases. D) Becomes more focused. Answer: A Page Ref: 172 320 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 5) As the magnifying power of the compound microscope increases, the depth of focus: A) Remains the same. B) Decreases. C) Increases. D) Becomes less focused. Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 6) A comparison microscope designed to examine bullets and fibers is equipped with: A) Vertical illumination. B) Transmitted illumination. C) Oblique illumination. D) Both A and B. Answer: D Page Ref: 172 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 7) The condenser of a compound microscope is located: A) At the base. B) Within the body tube. C) Beneath the stage. D) Between the coarse and fine adjustments. Answer: C Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Basic 8) When using a compound microscope, the areas above and below the depth of focus are best viewed by adjusting the: A) Eyepiece lens. B) Fine or coarse adjustment. C) Intensity of the illumination. D) Numerical aperture. Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 9) Which microscope has the largest potential working distance? A) Stereoscopic B) Comparison 321 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Polarizing D) Compound Answer: A Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Intermediate 10) Which microscope provides a right-side-up image? A) Comparison B) Stereoscopic C) Compound D) Polarizing Answer: B Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Difficult 11) In the design of a polarizing microscope, the polarizer is placed between the: A) Specimen and the analyzer. B) Analyzer and the eyepiece. C) Light source and the sample stage. D) Sample stage and the analyzer. Answer: C Page Ref: 175 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Basic 12) Normally with a polarizing microscope, the polarizer and analyzer are set: A) Parallel to each other. B) So that maximum plane polarized light can reach the eyepiece. C) Perpendicular to each other. D) So that they are in constant motion. Answer: C Page Ref: 175 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Difficult 13) Which microscope is best suited to the study of birefringent minerals and fibers? A) Stereoscopic B) Microspectrophotometer C) Polarizing D) Comparison Answer: C Page Ref: 176 322 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Intermediate 14) Which microscope plots an absorption spectrum of the item under examination? A) Polarizing B) Comparison C) Stereoscopic D) Microspectrophotometer Answer: D Page Ref: 177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Basic 15) A microscope with which light source, when linked to a spectrophotometer, will provide a “fingerprint” spectrum of the object being viewed? A) Visible B) Plane polarized C) IR (infrareD) D) UV (ultraviolet) Answer: C Page Ref: 177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Basic 16) ________ are used to focus the SEM (scanning electron microscope). A) Analyzers B) Lenses C) Polarizers D) Electromagnets Answer: D Page Ref: 177 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Intermediate 17) The image produced by an SEM is initially displayed on: A) An X-ray analyzer. B) Photographic paper. C) An X-ray film. D) A cathode ray tube. Answer: D Page Ref: 178 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Intermediate 323 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which microscope provides the highest resolution and greatest depth of focus? A) SEM B) Comparison C) Compound D) Stereoscopic Answer: A Page Ref: 178 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Basic 19) Which microscope can be linked to an X-ray analyzer? A) SEM B) Microspectrophotometer C) Stereoscopic D) Polarizing Answer: A Page Ref: 179 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Basic 20) Which microscope is most likely to be used as a tool for determining whether or not a suspect has recently fired a gun? A) Comparison B) Polarizing C) SEM D) Stereoscopic Answer: C Page Ref: 181 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Basic 21) When the SEM’s primary electron beam bombards a specimen, it causes the emission of: A) Electrons from elements of the upper layer of the specimen. B) X-rays from the target. C) Gamma rays from the target. D) Both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 177-179 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Difficult 22) A microscope uses a combination of ________ to magnify an image. A) Stages B) Mirrors 324 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Lenses D) Confocals Answer: C Page Ref: 169 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 23) A type of image that cannot be viewed directly is called a(n) ________ image. A) Real B) Imaginary C) Reflected D) Virtual Answer: D Page Ref: 169 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 24) A transparent specimen is viewed through a microscope using ________ light while an opaque object requires ________ illumination. A) Transmitted; stereoscopic B) Confocal; transmitted C) Vertical; horizontal D) Transmitted; vertical Answer: D Page Ref: 170 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Intermediate 25) The size of the specimen area that can be seen is known as the: A) Depth of field. B) Field of view. C) Stage size. D) Objective. Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. . Level: Basic 26) Crystals that are ________ produce two planes of polarized light, each perpendicular to the other. A) Amorphous B) Solid C) Birefringent D) Colored Answer: C 325 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 176 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Intermediate 27) If crystals of unknown origin are viewed under a polarizing microscope and appear dark, what can be concluded about the crystals? A) The crystals are not heroin crystals. B) The crystals are colorless. C) The crystals are polarizing. D) The crystals are non-polarizing. Answer: D Page Ref: 175-176 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Difficult 28) What instrument can be used to view a single fiber found at a crime scene and identify its generic class? A) Infrared microspectrophotometer B) Stereoscopic microscope C) Polarizing microscope D) Both A and C Answer: D Page Ref: 176-177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence; Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Intermediate 29) The major advantages of the SEM image include all of the following EXCEPT: A) High magnification. B) High reproducibility. C) High resolution. D) Great depth of focus. Answer: B Page Ref: 178 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Intermediate 30) Components of a compound microscope include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Expander. B) Stage. C) Coarse adjustment. D) Condenser. Answer: A Page Ref: 170-172 326 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Basic 31) An objective lens with a numerical aperture of 1.50 can separate details at half the distance of a lens with a numerical aperture of: A) 0.65. B) 3.00. C) 30.00. D) 0.75. Answer: D Page Ref: 172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Intermediate 32) An object with the letter “L” is viewed under low power of a compound microscope. The image would appear as: A)

Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Difficult 33) The magnification power of a microscope equals the magnifying power of the: A) Eyepiece lens. B) Objective lens. C) Objective lens multiplied by two. D) Objective lens multiplied by the eyepiece lens. Answer: D Page Ref: 172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 327 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) The microscope examination of a bullet requires: A) Transmitted light. B) Reflected light. C) Condensed light. D) All of the above. Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 35) Which of these is NOT part of the optical system of a compound microscope? A) Abbé condenser B) Objective lens C) Eyepiece lens D) Body tube Answer: D Page Ref: 170-172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Basic 36) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) If the polarizer and analyzer of a polarizing microscope are placed parallel to each other, no light will penetrate. B) Light confined to a single plane of vibration is said to be polarized. C) Many crystals are birefringent. D) The lens nearest the specimen is called the objective lens. Answer: A Page Ref: 175 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Difficult 37) What is the most important tool of the firearms examiner? A) Compound microscope B) Comparison microscope C) Stereoscopic microscope D) Polarizing microscope Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate

38) Which of the following is FALSE? A) The scanning electron microscope (SEM) produces an image by aiming a beam of electrons onto a specimen. B) The major attraction of the SEM is its high magnification and depth of field. C) The SEM produces an image that is stereoscopic in appearance. D) Microwaves are generated when the electron beam of the SEM strikes a target. Answer: D Page Ref: 178 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Difficult 39) Palynology is the study of: A) Fish. B) Insects. C) Birds. D) Spores. Answer: D Page Ref: 179 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Basic 40) Which type of pollen is rarely deposited on objects EXCEPT by direct contact with the plant? A) Anemophilous B) Exine C) Entomophilous D) Gametophyte Answer: C Page Ref: 181 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Intermediate 41) The pattern of the pollen grain surface is called: A) Sculpturing. B) Apertures. C) Exine. D) Pollen rain. Answer: A Page Ref: 182 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Basic 329 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8 True/False 1) The magnification power of a microscope equals the magnifying power of the objective lens multiplied by two. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 169 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 2) The microscopic examination of a bullet requires reflected light. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 172 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 3) The body tube is part of the optical system of a compound microscope. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 170 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 4) If the polarizer and analyzer of a polarizing microscope are placed parallel to each other, no light will penetrate. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 175 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Intermediate 5) The scanning electron microscope produces an image by aiming a beam of electrons onto a specimen. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Basic

6) A virtual image can be seen directly with the naked eye. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 169 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 7) A compound microscope produces greater magnification because it uses two lenses to enlarge the object being viewed instead of just one. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 172 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate 8) A forensic scientist would use vertical illumination when studying opaque specimens. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 170 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Intermediate 9) As magnifying power increases, the microscope’s field of view also increases. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Intermediate 10) As magnifying power increases, the microscope’s depth of focus decreases. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Intermediate 11) The stereoscopic microscope has a narrow field of view. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 174 331 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Basic 12) An IR spectrum is unique for every chemical substance. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Basic 13) The SEM produces an image that is stereoscopic in appearance. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 179 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Intermediate 14) Many crystals are birefringent. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 176 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Basic 15) The lens nearest the specimen is called the ocular lens. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 169 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Basic 16) Transmitted illumination can be used only with specimens that are transparent. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 170 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Intermediate

17) Bullets fired through the same barrel display comparable markings, called striations, caused by the rifling of the barrel. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 18) The stereoscopic microscope forms an inverted and reversed image. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Intermediate 19) The stereoscopic microscope is the most frequently used microscope in the crime laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Difficult 20) The infrared microspectrophotometer is used to analyze fibers and paints. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 21) Pollen and spores can be used to provide links between a crime scene and a person or object. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 179 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Basic

22) The pollen of entomophilous plants is dispersed by wind. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 181 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Difficult 23) It is not possible to identify a geographical origin by the type and percentages of airborne pollen grains. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 181 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Basic

Chapter 8 Fill in the Blank 1) The most important tool of the firearms examiner is the ________ microscope. Answer: Comparison Page Ref: 172 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 2) The major attraction of the ________ is its high magnification and depth of field. Answer: SEM Page Ref: 179 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Basic 3) A(n) ________ image is an image formed when light rays converge on a surface. Answer: Real Page Ref: 169 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 4) ________ illumination is illumination of a specimen from above. Answer: Vertical Page Ref: 174 Objective: Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Difficult 334 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) ________ aperture measures the ability of an objective lens to resolve details into separate images instead of one blurred image. Answer: Numerical Page Ref: 172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Basic 6) The ________ microscope presents a three-dimensional image of an object. Answer: Stereoscopic Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Basic 7) The ________ allows the forensic scientist to view a particle under a microscope while at the same time obtaining its absorption spectrum. Answer: Microspectrophotometer Page Ref: 177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 8) A ________ uses a stream of electrons to create an image of the specimen being studied. Answer: SEM Page Ref: 177 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Basic 9) The ________ lens magnifies the real, enlarged image created by the objective lens, producing a greatly enlarged virtual image of the object. Answer: Eyepiece Page Ref: 169 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Intermediate 10) With opaque specimens, the light source must be placed ________ the specimen and reflected off the specimen’s surface and into the lens. Answer: Above Page Ref: 170 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope. Level: Intermediate 11) A ________ microscope is used to make side-by-side comparisons of specimens. Answer: Comparison Page Ref: 172 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 335 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) If the ________ on two bullets viewed through a comparison microscope are alike, the examiner can conclude that both bullets traveled through the same barrel. Answer: Striations Page Ref: 174 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Intermediate 13) Light confined to a single plane of vibration is said to be ________. Answer: Polarized Page Ref: 175 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Difficult 14) Pollen grains are the single-celled male ________ of seed-bearing plants. Answer: Gametophytes Page Ref: 181 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Basic 15) Unique shapes, aperture type, and surface ________ are typically used to identify spore samples. Answer: Ornamentation Page Ref: 182 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Intermediate 16) The pollen expert’s first task is to calculate the pollen ________ for the crime scene. Answer: Rain Page Ref: 182 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 8 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) Size of the specimen area being observed B) Provides a simultaneous view of two specimens C) Space between the specimen and objective lens D) Illumination required to view a transparent object E) Illumination of a specimen from above F) The thickness of a specimen in focus 336 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

G) Eyepiece multiplied by objective lens H) The image seen through a compound microscope I)

The lower lens of a microscope positioned directly over the specimen

Presents a distinctive three-dimensional image

K) Used to examine birefringent materials L) Image formed by the actual convergence of light rays on a screen 1) Magnification Page Ref: 169 Level: Intermediate 2) Working distance Page Ref: 174 Level: Intermediate 3) Polarizing microscope Page Ref: 175 Level: Intermediate 4) Depth of focus Page Ref: 172 Level: Intermediate 5) Field of view Page Ref: 172 Level: Intermediate 6) Real image Page Ref: 169 Level: Intermediate 7) Stereoscopic microscope Page Ref: 174 Level: Intermediate 8) Transmitted illumination Page Ref: 170 Level: Intermediate 9) Vertical illumination Page Ref: 170 Level: Intermediate 10) Comparison microscope Page Ref: 172 Level: Intermediate 337 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Objective lens Page Ref: 169 Level: Intermediate 12) Virtual image Page Ref: 169 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) G 2) C 3) K 4) F 5) A 6) L 7) J 8) D 9) E 10) B 11) I 12) H

Chapter 8 Essay 1) Briefly describe how a comparison microscope works and what it is used for. Answer (should include points such as): The comparison microscope is two compound microscopes connected by a bridge that uses mirrors and lenses to combine the images from two objective lenses into a single image. A viewer looking through the eyepiece sees a circular field divided into two equal halves by a fine line. The specimen mounted under the left-hand objective lens appears in the left half of the field, and the specimen under the right-hand objective lens appears in the right half. A comparison microscope is used to make side-by-side comparison of specimens. Page Ref: 172-173 Objective: Describe the features of a comparison microscope. Level: Basic 2) What happens to a light beam that passes through a polarizing crystal? What happens when plane-polarized light passes through a second polarizing crystal set perpendicular to the first crystal? Answer (should include points such as): A beam of light passing through a polarizing crystal emerges vibrating in only one plane. When plane-polarized light passes through a second polarizing crystal set perpendicular to the first crystal, the light is blocked by the second crystal. Page Ref: 175 Objective: Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Difficult 3) How can a scanning electron microscope be used to identify the elements present in a specimen? Answer (should include points such as): When the electron beam of the scanning electron microscope strikes a specimen, it creates Xrays that can be sorted by an X-ray analyzer. Because each element emits X-rays of characteristic energy values, the analyzer can identify the elements present in the specimen based on the energy values of the X-rays emitted by the specimen. Page Ref: 177-179 Objective: Describe a scanning electron microscope. Level: Intermediate 338 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Imagine you are placing a slide on a compound microscope for examination. Describe each part of the microscope you would handle and adjust to complete this process. Answer (should include points such as): Place the slide on the stage and turn on the illuminator. Look through the eyepiece lens and select an objective lens. Adjust the coarse and fine adjustment to bring the specimen into focus. Page Ref: 170-172 Objective: Outline the basics of a microscope; Identify the different parts of a compound microscope. Level: Basic 5) Discuss some advantages and disadvantages of using a stereoscopic microscope. What is an example of evidence you may examine using a stereoscopic microscope? Answer (should include points such as): A stereoscopic microscope has a lower magnification power (10X-125X) and presents a three-dimensional image of an object that is right-side-up. It is versatile and very frequently used. It also has a large working distance and is useful for examining paint, soil, gunpowder residues, and marijuana. Page Ref: 175 Objective: Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope. Level: Basic 6) Which two instruments are combined to make a microspectrophotometer? Describe the utility of using this device to produce an IR spectrum of evidence such as fibers or paints. Answer (should include points such as): A microspectrophotometer links a microscope to a spectrophotometer. The IR spectrum this instrument can create acts as a fingerprint for the evidence as it is unique for each chemical substance. Therefore, obtaining such a spectrum from either a fiber or a paint chip allows the analyst to better identify and compare the type of chemicals from which these materials are manufactured. Page Ref: 176-177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 7) What are the two categories of pollen-producing plants? Which type of pollen is useful for identifying a geographical origin? Which type is deposited on clothing or objects only by direct contact with the plant? Answer: Pollen-producing plants are either anemophilous (their pollen is dispersed by winD) or entomophilous (their pollen is carried and dispersed by insects or small animals). Anemophilous pollen may be useful for identification of a geographical location, and entomophilous pollen is rarely deposited except by direct contact. Page Ref: 181 Objective: Discuss how forensic palynology is used to link a crime scene and a person or object. Level: Intermediate 339 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 8 Critical Thinking 1) Indicate what type of microscope (compound, comparison, stereoscopic, or polarizing light) should be used to analyze each of the following items of evidence: a. b. c. d. e.

fired bullets a synthetic fiber soil minerals paint chips a shed head hair

Answer: a. comparison microscope b. polarizing light microscope c. polarizing light microscope d. stereoscopic microscope e. compound microscope Page Ref: 172-176 Objective: Describe the features of a compound microscope.; Describe the features and utility of a stereoscopic microscope.; Discuss how a polarizing microscope is designed to characterize polarized light. Level: Basic 2) Describe the best process to analyze and attempt to identify the chemical components of fiber and paint evidence. Answer (should include points such as): The infrared microspectrophotometer is used to analyze fibers and paints. The specimen is placed on the stage and subjected to infrared illumination. Each layer of paint should be analyzed as well as multiple fiber samples. The resulting spectra can be compared to known spectra to positively identify the chemical constituents. Page Ref: 176-177 Objective: Discuss how a microspectrophotometer can be used to examine trace physical evidence. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 9 Firearms, Tool Marks, and Other Impressions Chapter 9 Multiple Choice 1) The barrel of a shotgun: A) Is indistinguishable from that of a rifle. B) Is smooth without the grooves and lands found in rifles. C) Is generally shorter than that of a rifle. D) Is wider at the end to concentrate the shot. Answer: B Page Ref: 190 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Intermediate 2) The reason grooves are rifled into the bore of a gun is so that a: A) Bullet will be made to spin and have a true and accurate course on leaving the barrel. B) Bullet moving through will have unique striations. C) Manufacturer can put its unique mark on its product. D) Bullet will be reduced in size before it exits the gun. Answer: A Page Ref: 191 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Intermediate 3) The comparison of two bullets is possible with the comparison microscope. Such a study is made difficult by the fact that: A) Lands and grooves are subject to wear and tear, so markings are susceptible to continuing change. B) Often evidence bullets are distorted on impact and only small areas are found with intact markings. C) The presence of grit and rust can, to some degree, alter the markings on bullets fired through the same barrel. D) All of the above. Answer: D Page Ref: 193 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Difficult 4) Generally, the gauge of a shotgun is ________ to the diameter of its barrel. A) Directly related B) Not related C) Indirectly related D) None of the above 341 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Intermediate 5) Distinctive markings of shells and cartridges can be made by the: A) Extractor and ejector mechanism. B) Firing pin. C) Breechface mark. D) All of the above. Answer: D Page Ref: 197 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Basic 6) What is NIBIN? A) Trade groups of firearms manufacturers B) Safety education courses for firearm use C) A database for firearm evidence D) Lists of licensed gun dealers Answer: C Page Ref: 199 Objective: Discuss the various search systems developed for the FBI and ATF. Level: Basic 7) Generally speaking, the amount of gunpowder particles found around a bullet hole is ________ to the distance from which the weapon was fired. A) Indirectly related B) Not related C) Directly related D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 201 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Intermediate 8) Gunpowder residue patterns can be detected by: A) The Griess Test. B) IR photograph. C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B Answer: C Page Ref: 203 342 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Basic 9) Chokes are sometimes found on shotguns where they function to constrict the end of the barrel. The speed and distance traveled by pellets fired from a narrow choke is ________ the speed and distance traveled by pellets fired from a shotgun with a wide choke. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 203 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Intermediate 10) The “dermal nitrate test” has fallen into disfavor because of its lack of specificity. Which of the following common materials does NOT give a misleading positive reaction to this test? A) Tobacco B) Chocolate C) Urine D) Cosmetics Answer: B Page Ref: 204 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 11) The likelihood of detecting gunshot residue on swabs taken from living subjects more than six hours after a firing has occurred is ________ the likelihood of detecting gunshot residue within two hours of a firing. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 205-206 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Basic 12) Which technique of detecting gunshot residue holds the most promise for the immediate future? A) Infrared spectroscopy B) SEM primer residue detection 343 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Neutron activation analysis D) Dermal nitrate test Answer: B Page Ref: 206 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 13) When an etching agent is applied to a metal surface in order to restore a removed serial number, the stamped area will dissolve at ________ the unstamped area. A) A greater rate than B) The same rate as C) A slower rate than D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 207 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Intermediate 14) To prevent the disturbance of latent fingerprints on a firearm, the weapon should be lifted by: A) Inserting a pencil into the barrel B) Using disposable forceps C) The outside of the barrel or the trigger D) The edge of the trigger guard or by the checkered portion of the grip Answer: D Page Ref: 208 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Difficult 15) When a gun is recovered from an underwater location, it should be: A) Transported to the crime lab in a container with enough of the same water necessary to keep it submerged. B) Placed in an airtight plastic bag. C) Cleaned and dried. D) Submitted to the crime lab in a paper bag. Answer: A Page Ref: 209 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Basic

16) Discharged evidence bullets must be carefully handled to avoid damage to the: A) Manufacturer’s imprint. B) Caliber markings. C) Striation markings. D) Ejection pattern. Answer: C Page Ref: 209 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Intermediate 17) Tools and tool marks are often found at burglary scenes and can be useful evidence. Proper evidence collection by the field investigator would include: A) Reporting whether a tool found at the crime scene fit into the tool marks. B) Making test marks with the suspected tool onto a soft metal surface at the crime scene. C) Taking a photograph and cast of the marks if necessary. D) Packing of tool and tool mark evidence together so that the crime lab personnel know they are thought to be a matched set. Answer: C Page Ref: 209-210 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Difficult 18) Two-dimensional imprints found at a crime scene can be lifted using: A) Photographic paper. B) A silicone casting medium. C) A scanning electron lifter. D) An electrostatic lifting device. Answer: D Page Ref: 213 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Intermediate 19) Shoe and tire marks impressed into soft earth can be best preserved by: A) Photographing and casting with dental stone. B) Photographing and then use of the electrostatic lifting technique. C) Casting with dental stone and then attempting the electrostatic lift technique. D) Both A and B Answer: A Page Ref: 214

Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Intermediate 20) Which is NOT a class characteristic of a suspect’s sneaker? A) Wear marks B) Brand C) Color D) Size Answer: A Page Ref: 216 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Basic 21) Which of the following is NOT expected to show any evidential marks or impressions? A) A fired bullet B) A cartridge casing fired from a handgun C) A cartridge casing fired from a shotgun D) A shotgun pellet Answer: D Page Ref: 196 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Difficult 22) What are two elements detected on the hands of an individual who has recently fired a weapon? A) Zinc and copper B) Antimony and barium C) Barium and nitrates D) Antimony and iron Answer: B Page Ref: 204 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 23) Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be considered by the examining tool mark technician? A) The direction of the tool movement as it passes over the surface B) The side or portion of the tool making the impression C) The brand name of the tool D) The angle at which the tool was held

Answer: C Page Ref: 209-210 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Basic 24) Which of the following results is NOT possible from a laboratory examination of firearm evidence? A) Determining that two or more cartridge cases were fired from the same weapon B) Determining how far from the victim the weapon was held C) Restoring serial numbers ground off the gun D) Identifying a bullet as having been combined with a particular shell prior to being discharged Answer: D Page Ref: 193-207 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Difficult 25) Which of the following statements is true? A) A bullet can be individualized to a weapon by the number and twist of its lands and grooves. B) The comparison microscope is an indispensable tool of the firearm examiner. C) The diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm is its gauge. D) Carbonaceous smoke or soot deposited around a bullet hole is normally indicative of a discharge 12 to 18 feet or less from the target. Answer: B Page Ref: 194 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 26) The presence of gunpowder residues on a garment whose color conceals the existence of the residue is best revealed by: A) Infrared photography. B) Ultraviolet photography. C) Color photography. D) Infrared spectrophotometry. Answer: A Page Ref: 203 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate

27) Which of the following rifling methods is no longer in use? A) The button method B) The hook cutter method C) The mandrel method D) The broach cutter method Answer: B Page Ref: 191 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Intermediate 28) What makes the final determination about whether or not two bullets were fired by the same gun? A) IBIS B) A comparison microscope C) NIBIN D) A trained firearms examiner Answer: D Page Ref: 200 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Basic 29) What is the automated shoe print identification system? A) SICAR B) NIBIN C) ATF D) IBIS Answer: A Page Ref: 216 Objective: Discuss the various search systems developed for the FBI and ATF. Level: Intermediate 30) Dust imprints found at a crime scene can be lifted using: A) Photographic paper. B) A silicone casting medium. C) A scanning electron lifter. D) An electrostatic lifting device. Answer: D Page Ref: 213 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Intermediate

31) A technique applicable for determining whether or not an individual has recently fired a weapon is: A) Neutron activation analysis. B) Atomic absorption analysis. C) The scanning electron microscope. D) All of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 206 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Difficult 32) Objects bearing tool marks should either be submitted intact to the crime lab or a ________ should be taken of the tool mark. A) Digital photograph B) Film photograph C) Black and white photograph D) Cast Answer: D Page Ref: 210 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Intermediate 33) A wear pattern, cut, gouge, or other damage pattern can impart ________ characteristics to a shoe. A) Class B) Wear C) Individual D) Generic Answer: C Page Ref: 216 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Basic 34) An imprint may be lifted from a surface at a crime scene using: A) Plaster of paris. B) Luminol. C) Imido black dye. D) An electrostatic lifting device. Answer: D Page Ref: 213 349 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Difficult 35) The distribution of gunpowder particles and other discharge residues around a bullet hole permits: A) Determination of the distance from which the gun was fired. B) Determination of the kind of firearm used. C) Estimation of the angle of bullet impact. D) Estimation of the height of the shooter. Answer: A Page Ref: 201 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Difficult

Chapter 9 True/False 1) Caliber is a measure of the diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 191 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Basic 2) The hook cutter rifling method is still used today. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 191 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Difficult 3) The number of lands and grooves and the width and direction of twist are individual characteristics of a rifled barrel. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 193 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Intermediate 4) Unlike handguns, a shotgun is not rifled. A) True B) False 350 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Intermediate 5) Shotgun shells are not impressed with any characteristic markings that can be used to compare two shotgun shells to determine if they were fired from the same weapon. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 196 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Intermediate 6) The parts of a firearm that leave impressions on a cartridge case that constitute class characteristics of that weapon are the firing pin, the breechface mark, the ejector, and the extractor. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 197 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Intermediate 7) NIBIN is the National Integrated Ballistics Information Network, a unified firearms search system that incorporates both DRUGFIRE and IBIS technologies. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 198-199 Objective: Discuss the various search systems developed for the FBI and ATF. Level: Basic 8) NIBIN makes the final determination about whether or not two bullets were fired by the same gun. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 200 Objective: Discuss the various search systems developed for the FBI and ATF. Level: Intermediate 9) A distance determination can be estimated by measuring the spread of the discharged shot. A) True B) False 351 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 201 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Intermediate 10) As the distance to the target of a shotgun blast decreases, the pellets separate and spread out. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 203 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Difficult 11) Shortly after a weapon is fired, residues are most likely to be deposited on the thumb web and the back of the firing hand of a shooter. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 204 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 12) The SEM approach for primer residue detection is its enhanced specificity over hand swabbing. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 206 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Basic 13) If the zone of strain has been removed, or if the area has been impressed with a different strain pattern, the serial number usually can be restored. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 207 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Intermediate

14) It is acceptable to pick up a firearm by inserting an object into its barrel. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 208 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Basic 15) A weapon recovered from underwater should be transported to the laboratory in a receptacle containing enough of the same water in which it was found to keep it submerged. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 209 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Basic 16) When removal of the original tool mark is impractical, the criminalist photographs the marked area to scale and makes a cast of the mark. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 210 Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Basic 17) Two procedures used to preserve impressions that cannot be submitted to the laboratory are lifting and casting. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 213-214 Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 18) Distance determination is usually based on the distribution of powder patterns or the spread of a shot pattern. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 201 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Basic 19) A compound microscope permits the user to view two separate specimens side-by-side. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 194 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 20) Blood enhancement chemicals have been found to negatively impact STR DNA typing; therefore footwear impressions made with blood are not typically analyzed. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 215 Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Basic

Chapter 9 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ refers to the spiral grooves impressed in the bore of a firearm barrel. Answer: Rifling Page Ref: 191 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Basic 2) ________ are the cut or low-lying portions between the lands in a rifled bore. Answer: Grooves Page Ref: 191 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Basic 3) ________ are markings impressed into the metal of a barrel. Answer: Striations Page Ref: 193 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases. Level: Basic 354 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The ________ microscope is the firearms examiner’s most important tool because it allows two bullets to be observed and compared simultaneously. Answer: Comparison Page Ref: 192 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 5) The higher a shotgun’s gauge, the ________ the diameter of its barrel. Answer: Smaller Page Ref: 196 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Difficult 6) DRUGFIRE was developed by the ________. Answer: FBI Page Ref: 198 Objective: Discuss the various search systems developed for the FBI and ATF. Level: Difficult 7) Bullet wipe consists of a mixture of carbon, dirt, lubricant, primer residue, and ________. Answer: Lead Page Ref: 202 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Difficult 8) Barrel length, caliber, type of ammunition, the type of weapon fired, and the condition of the weapon are all factors that influence the amount of ________ residue deposited on a target. Answer: Gunpowder Page Ref: 201-203 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Intermediate 9) The ________ the choke, the narrower the spread pattern of the pellets and the faster and farther the pellets will travel. Answer: Greater Page Ref: 203 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Difficult 10) The Griess test is used to determine the presence of ________. Answer: Nitrites Page Ref: 203

Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 11) Discernible random nicks and breaks that the tool has acquired through wear and use typically impart ________ characteristics to tool marks. Answer: Individual Page Ref: 209 Objective: Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Basic 12) Before any impression is moved or otherwise handled, it must be ________ to show all the observable details of the impression. Answer: Photographed Page Ref: 210 Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 13) Two procedures used to preserve impressions that cannot be submitted to the laboratory are lifting and ________. Answer: Casting Page Ref: 214 Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 14) Distance determination is the process of determining the distance between the ________ and a target. Answer: Firearm Page Ref: 201 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Basic 15) Protection of class and individual markings on ________ and cartridge cases is the primary concern of the field investigator when recovering bullets and cartridge casings. Answer: Bullets Page Ref: 209 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases.; Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Difficult

Chapter 9 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) The cut or low-lying portions between the lands in a rifled bore B) An interior constriction placed at or near the muzzle end of a shotgun’s barrel to control shot dispersion C) A discipline mainly concerned with determining whether a bullet or cartridge was fired by a particular weapon D) A chemical test used to develop patterns of gunpowder residues around bullet holes E) The rear part of a firearm barrel F) The mechanism in a firearm that throws the cartridge or fired case from the firearm G) The mechanism in a firearm by which a cartridge or fired case is withdrawn from the chamber H) The spiral grooves formed in the bore of a firearm barrel that impart spin to the projectile when it is fired I)

The diameter of the bore of a rifled firearm, usually expressed in hundredths of an inch or millimeters

Size designation of a shotgun, originally the number of lead balls with the same diameter as the barrel that would make a pound. The only exception is the .410 shotgun, in which bore size is 0.41 inch.

K) The raised portion between the grooves in a rifled bore L) The interior of a firearm barrel M) The process of determining the distance between the firearm and a target, usually based on the distribution of powder patterns or the spread of a shot pattern 1) Bore Page Ref: 191 Level: Basic 2) Breechface mark Page Ref: 197 Level: Basic 3) Caliber Page Ref: 191 Level: Basic 4) Choke Page Ref: 203 Level: Basic 5) Distance Determination Page Ref: 201 Level: Basic 357 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Ejector Page Ref: 197 Level: Basic 7) Extractor Page Ref: 197 Level: Basic 8) Firearms Identification Page Ref: 189 Level: Basic 9) Gauge Page Ref: 196 Level: Basic 10) Griess Test Page Ref: 203 Level: Basic 11) Grooves Page Ref: 191 Level: Basic 12) Lands Page Ref: 191 Level: Basic 13) Rifling Page Ref: 191 Level: Basic Answers: 1) L 2) E 3) I 4) B 5) M 6) F 7) G 8) C 9) J 10) D 11) A 12) K 13) H

Chapter 9 Essay 1) How are striations useful for comparing bullets? Answer (should include points such as): • No two rifled barrels have identical striations. • As the bullet passes through the barrel, its surface is impressed with striations from the lands and grooves of the barrel. • A firearms examiner can compare the striations on a bullet recovered at a crime scene to those made on bullets test fired from a suspect gun. • If the markings match, this indicates that the recovered bullet was fired by the suspect weapon. Page Ref: 193 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Basic 358 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Name three factors that can prevent a firearms examiner from obtaining a perfect match of striation markings around the periphery of two bullets. Answer (should include points such as): • The presence of grit and rust can alter the markings on bullets fired through the same barrel. • Bullets may become so mutilated and distorted on impact as to yield only a small area with intact markings. • Striation markings on a barrel are not permanent structures; they are subject to continuing alteration through wear as succeeding bullets traverse the length of the barrel. Page Ref: 194-196 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Intermediate 3) Briefly describe the sequence of events that occur from the time the trigger of a firearm is pulled to the time the bullet is fired. Answer (should include points such as): Pulling a trigger releases the weapon’s firing pin, causing it to strike the primer, which in turn ignites the powder. The expanding gases generated by the burning gunpowder propel the bullet forward through the barrel. Page Ref: 197 Objective: Discuss the types of firearms and the techniques for rifling a barrel. Level: Difficult 4) Briefly describe how a firearms examiner makes a distance determination for a handgun or rifle shot. Answer (should include points such as): The precise distance from which a handgun or rifle is fired is determined by carefully comparing the powder residue pattern on the victim’s clothing or skin to test patterns made by firing the suspect weapon at varying distances from a target. By comparing the test and evidence patterns, the examiner may find enough similarity in shape and density on which to judge the distance from which the shot was fired. Page Ref: 201 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Intermediate 5) What is SICAR and how is it useful in comparing impressions? Answer (should include points such as): SICAR is Shoeprint Image Capture and Retrieval, an automated shoe print identification system developed in England that incorporates multiple databases to search known and unknown footwear files for comparison against footwear specimens. Using the system, an impression from a crime scene can be compared to a reference database to find out what type of shoe caused the imprint. That same impression can also be searched in the suspect and crime databases to reveal whether that shoe print matches the shoes of a person who has been in custody or the shoe prints left behind at another crime scene.

Page Ref: 216 Objective: Discuss the various search systems developed for the FBI and ATF. Level: Basic 6) Name and briefly describe two popular approaches for collecting gunshot residue from a suspect’s hands. What is the logical next step in analysis for these collected samples? Answer (should include points such as): The most popular approach to collecting gunshot residues from a shooter’s hands involves applying adhesive tape or adhesive to the hand’s surface to remove any adhering residue particles. Another approach is to remove any residues present by swabbing both the firing and non-firing hands with cotton that has been moistened with 5 percent nitric acid. The front and back of each hand are separately swabbed. All four swabs, along with a moistened control, are then forwarded to the crime laboratory for analysis. The most specific analysis method for these collected samples is SEM coupled with an X-ray analyzer to determine elemental components of the residue. Page Ref: 204 Objective: Identify the laboratory tests for determining whether an individual has fired a weapon. Level: Intermediate 7) Name one possible class characteristic and one possible individual characteristic that on a bullet, a tool mark, and a footwear impression. Answer (should include points such as): • Bullet: Class – brand of weapon, number of lands and grooves, widths of lands and grooves, direction of twist, caliber. Individual – striations. • Tool Mark: Class – size, shape. Individual – discernible random nicks and breaks the tool has acquired through use and wear, microscopic irregularities. • Footwear impression: Class – brand, size, shape, design. Individual – wear, cuts, gouges, other damage. Page Ref: 196; 209; 216 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases.; Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Intermediate 8) What chemicals are used to restore an obliterated serial number? What do these chemicals do to reveal the obliterated number? Answer (should include points such as): A mix of hydrochloric acid, copper chloride, and water is generally used to restore serial numbers. These chemicals dissolve the strained area of the metal faster than the unaltered metal, thus revealing the etched pattern in the form of the original numbers. Page Ref: 207-208 Objective: Discuss the procedures for collecting and preserving firearms evidence and restoring serial numbers. Level: Basic 360 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) What two methods are used to preserve shoe and tire marks impressed into soft earth? Why is it important to conduct both procedures on the impression? Answer (should include points such as): Shoe and tire marks impressed into soft earth at a crime scene are best preserved by photography and casting. The photograph shows the impression exactly as it was found, and the case can show the individualizing characteristics with more detail and allow the impression to be taken back from the scene and into the crime lab for comparison. Page Ref: 214-216 Objective: Discuss the preservation, lifting, casting, and comparison of impressions left at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 9 Critical Thinking 1) Discuss five factors that influence the amount of gunpowder residue deposited on a target. Answer (should include points such as): Five factors that influence the amount of gunpowder residue deposited on a target are barrel length, caliber, choke, type of ammunition, the type of weapon fired, the condition of the weapon, and the distance the weapon was fired from the target. Page Ref: 201-203 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Difficult 2) For each of the impressions listed below, determine which characteristics are class characteristics and which are individual characteristics. a. Screwdriver pry mark: 0.5 inch wide, filings of stainless steel imbedded in mark, rounded edges, center half-circle groove, 3 wide striations near one edge, 7 narrow striations near one edge b. Two-dimensional footwear impression: Nike brand, 11 inches long, wear pattern on back outside edge, 4 inches wide at arch, gouge at back heel, “Nike Air” imprinted on arch c. Recovered bullet: .22 caliber, deep striation in one land, left-handed twist, 13 fine striations in one groove, 5 grooves around periphery, 79% lead composition Answer: a. Class: 0.5 inch wide, filings of stainless steel imbedded in mark, rounded edges, center half-circle groove Individual: 3 wide striations near one edge, 7 narrow striations near one edge b. Class: Nike brand, 11 inches long, 4 inches wide at arch, “Nike Air” imprinted on arch Individual: wear pattern on back outside edge, gouge at back heel c. Class: .22 caliber, left-handed twist, 5 grooves around periphery, 79% lead composition Individual: deep striation in one land, 13 fine striations in one groove

Page Ref: 196, 216 Objective: Recognize the class and individual characteristics of bullets and cartridge cases; Explain the forensic significance of class and individual characteristics to the comparison of tool mark, footwear, and tire impressions. Level: Basic 3) From each of the following descriptions of bullet holes, estimate the distance from the shooter to the target. a. A few widely scattered gunpowder particles with no soot around the entrance hole b. A dark ring around the bullet hole, but no soot or gunpowder particles c. A halo of soot surrounding the entrance hole along with scattered specks of powder grains d. Scorch marks and melted fibers surrounding the entrance hole Answer: a. 18-36 inches b. more than 36 inches c. 12-18 inches or less d. 1 inch or less Page Ref: 201-202 Objective: Explain the procedure for determining how far a weapon was fired from a target. Level: Difficult

Chapter 10 Matter, Light, and Glass Examination Chapter 10 Multiple Choice 1) The basic metric unit for volume is the: A) Centimeter. B) Liter. C) Milliliter. D) Gram. Answer: B Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 2) The weight 264.45 grams can be correctly expressed as: A) 26,445 decigrams. B) 0.26445 kilograms. C) 26.445 centigrams. D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 3) One milliliter of a liquid is ________ 1cc of the same liquid. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 4) Eight inches is approximately ________ centimeters. A) 17 B) 10 C) 8 D) 20 Answer: D Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 363 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The heat intensity (hotness) of water at 100°C is ________ the heat intensity of water at 212°F. A) Greater than B) The same as C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 231 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 6) Which of the following is an element? A) Wood B) Water C) Aluminum D) Air Answer: C Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 7) The physical state that has both shape and volume is a: A) Solid. B) Liquid. C) Gas. D) Vapor. Answer: A Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 8) The freezing point of water in degrees Fahrenheit is ________ the freezing point of water in degrees Celsius. A) Less than B) The same as C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 231 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate

9) The effect of gravity on the weight of an object is ________ the effect of gravity on the mass of the same object. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 231 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 10) The periodic table is a: A) Forensic text table of contents. B) Forensic newsletter issued periodically. C) Special laboratory surface for multiphase experiments. D) Chart listing all the known elements by name and symbol. Answer: D Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 11) Sublimation is defined as a change of state from: A) Gas to liquid. B) Liquid to solid. C) Solid to liquid. D) Solid to gas. Answer: D Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 12) Which physical state has volume but no specific shape? A) Gas B) Liquid C) Solid D) No such state exists Answer: B Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic

13) The attraction between the molecules of a gas is ________ the attraction between the molecules of a liquid. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than D) Unrelated to Answer: C Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Difficult 14) The density of liquids is ________ the density of gases. A) Less than B) The same as C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Difficult 15) If an object is immersed in a liquid of greater density, it will: A) Be suspended in the liquid indefinitely. B) Float. C) Sink. D) Be suspended for a known period of time before sinking. Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate 16) The density of water at 60°F is ________ the density of water at 28°F. A) Less than B) Greater than C) The same as D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate 366 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) Which is NOT an intensive property of matter? A) Density B) Refractive index C) Weight D) Temperature Answer: C Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 18) The refractive index of a substance varies with: A) Its temperature. B) The wavelength of the light passing through it. C) The color of the light passing through it. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 19) Crystalline solids, with the exception of ________ crystals, exhibit ________, or the property of refracting a beam of light into two different ray components. A) Amorphous, refraction B) Calcite, refractive index C) Glass, optical properties D) Cubic, double refraction Answer: D Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Intermediate 20) The process of a glass prism separating sunlight into component colors is called: A) Refraction. B) Birefringence. C) Sublimation. D) Dispersion. Answer: D Page Ref: 235 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Basic

21) What is the main ingredient in ordinary glass? A) Lime (CaO) B) Soda (NaCO) C) Sand D) Metal oxides Answer: C Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 22) Pyrex glass: A) Is put through an annealing process. B) Has been tempered. C) Is made with the addition of boron oxide. D) Is laminated. Answer: C Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 23) Tempered glass is used in: A) Windshields in cars manufactured in the United States. B) Crystal stemware. C) The side and rear windows of cars manufactured in the United States. D) Both B and C Answer: C Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Difficult 24) Flotation is a method used by scientists to determine the ________ of a particle of glass. A) Density B) Refractive index C) Mass D) Weight Answer: A Page Ref: 238 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Basic 25) A hot-stage microscope or the GRIM 3 is used to determine the ________ of glass fragments. A) Refractive index B) Relative density 368 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Metallic oxide content D) Temperature Answer: A Page Ref: 242 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 26) The change in refractive index for tempered glass upon annealing is ________ when compared to non-tempered glass. A) Greater B) The same as C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 241 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 27) When a bullet penetrates a panel of glass, it leaves a crater-shaped hole that: A) Is wider on the exit side. B) Is wider on the entrance side. C) Forms randomly, hence the direction of impact cannot be determined by its appearance. D) Either A or C Answer: A Page Ref: 243 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 28) Which is a true statement about the fracturing of glass? A) Radial cracks appear first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force. B) Radial cracks appear first, starting on the same side as the destructive force. C) Concentric fractures form first, starting on the side opposite the destructive force. D) Concentric fractures form first, on the same side as the destructive force. Answer: A Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Difficult 29) A piece of glass is immersed in a liquid. It proceeds to float on the liquid’s surface. This shows that the density of the glass is ________ the density of the liquid. A) More than B) Less than 369 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Equal to D) Not comparable to Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 30) The two most important physical properties of glass for forensic comparisons are: A) Color and density. B) Weight and density. C) Refractive index and density. D) Refractive index and weight. Answer: C Page Ref: 228 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Basic 31) The fracture pattern of glass usually has: A) Radial lines. B) Concentric lines. C) Radial and concentric lines. D) Directional lines. Answer: C Page Ref: 243 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 32) If glass cannot be physically pieced together, then the control and question glass are best compared by their: A) Color and density. B) Weight and density. C) Refractive index and density. D) Refractive index and weight. Answer: C Page Ref: 238 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 33) Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are: A) Perpendicular to the side on which the force was applied. B) Parallel to the side on which the force was applied. C) Parallel to the side opposite the side on which the force was applied. D) Perpendicular to the side of the glass facing outdoors. 370 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 34) The smallest particle of an element that can exist and still retain its identity as that element is the: A) Compound. B) Element. C) Photon. D) Atom. Answer: D Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 35) ________ is the visual effect caused by an object’s absorption of certain portions of the visible light spectrum and transmission or reflection of others. A) Dispersion B) Color C) Density D) Refractive index Answer: B Page Ref: 235 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Basic 36) To explain the events that occur after radiation is absorbed by a substance, light must be characterized as: A) A wave of constant frequency. B) A wave of variable frequency. C) A wave consisting of non-discrete particles. D) A stream of discrete particles. Answer: D Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Basic 37) The refractive index of a medium is determined by the ratio of: A) Velocity of light in a vacuum to velocity of light in a medium. B) Density of light in the medium to density of light in a vacuum. C) Frequency of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium. D) Velocity of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium. 371 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 38) A(n) ________ property describes the behavior of a substance without reference to any other substance while a(n) ________ property describes the behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance. A) Optical; birefringent B) Physical; biological C) Chemical; biological D) Physical; chemical Answer: D Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 39)

In reference to the diagram above, what is the correct sequence of impacts? A) A first B) B first C) A and B simultaneously D) Sequence is impossible to determine Answer: A Page Ref: 245 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 40) Which color of the visible spectrum has the highest frequency and the shortest wavelength? A) Red B) Green C) Violet D) Yellow 372 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 235 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Basic 41) The photons of which source have the LEAST amount of energy? A) Microwaves B) Gamma rays C) Infrared rays D) Radio waves Answer: D Page Ref: 236 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Difficult 42) Which of the following has higher frequencies and higher energy values in the electromagnetic spectrum? A) Visible light B) Radio waves C) Ultraviolet radiation D) X-rays Answer: D Page Ref: 236 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 10 True/False 1) The basic metric unit of volume is the ounce. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 2) Water boils at 100 degrees Celsius. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic

3) The boiling point of a substance is a physical property. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 4) The two most important physical properties of glass for forensic comparisons are refractive index and density. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 238 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 5) The larger opening of crater-shaped hole in glass made a projectile’s penetration indicates the entrance side of the glass. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 243 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 6) Refractive index measures the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in air. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 7) A physical property is the behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 374 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) The English system is used in the United States. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 229 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 9) The Fahrenheit scale uses a melting point of 32 degrees and a boiling point of 212 degrees. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 10) Weight is a constant property of matter that reflects the amount of material present. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 11) The weight of an object can vary from one location to another while mass remains the same regardless of location. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 231 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 12) The atoms in a crystalline solid have a regular arrangement while the atoms in an amorphous solid have no regular order. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 234 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Difficult 13) Each color component of light refracts at a different angle as it emerges from a prism. A) True B) False 375 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 235 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Intermediate 14) Examples of intensive properties include density and refractive index. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 15) Most glass fragments can by physically reassembled or fitted together by the criminalist. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 238 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 16) The general chemical composition of various window glasses has so far been found to be relatively uniform among various manufacturers and therefore offers no basis for identifying individual samples. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 238 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 17) The 3R rules states that Radial cracks form a Right angle on the Reverse side of the force. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate

18) It is frequently possible to determine the sequence of impacts in glass by observing the existing fracture lines and their points of termination. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 19) When tempered glass breaks, it does not shatter. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 20) Tempered glass is used in the windshields of U.S.-built cars. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 21) The only way to individualize glass fragments at a crime scene to a single source is to assemble the fragments and physically fit them together like a jigsaw puzzle. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 238 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 22) Glass fragments removed from a single sheet of plate glass have a uniform density and refractive index value. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 240 377 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate 23) A fracture always terminates at an existing line of fracture. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 24) X-rays have higher frequencies and higher energy values in the electromagnetic spectrum. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 236 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Intermediate 25) An atom is a pure substance composed of two or more elements. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 26) A gas has neither a specific shape nor a specific volume. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 27) When a substance undergoes a change of state from liquid to gas, the attractive forces between the molecules increase in strength. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 378 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Sublimation causes the attractive forces between molecules to decrease in strength. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 29) The more material one has, the less radiation it will absorb. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Intermediate 30) Different phases are distinguished from one another by definite visible boundaries. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 10 Fill in the Blank 1) One inch is equivalent to ________ centimeters. Answer: 2.54 Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 2) ________ is defined as weight per unit volume. Answer: Density Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 3) A piece of glass that is floating on the liquid’s surface shows that the density of the glass is ________ than the density of the liquid. Answer: Less Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate 379 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) If glass cannot be physically pieced together, then the control and question glass are best compared by their refractive index and ________. Answer: Density Page Ref: 238 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Difficult 5) The fracture pattern of glass usually has radial and ________ lines. Answer: Concentric Page Ref: 243 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Basic 6) Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are ________ to the side on which the force was applied. Answer: Parallel Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Difficult 7) The basic unit of length in the metric system is the ________. Answer: Meter Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 8) The most convenient reference point of ice is the ________ point. Answer: Melting Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Difficult 9) As the temperature of a liquid or gas increases, its density ________. Answer: Decreases Page Ref: 230 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Difficult

10) ________ is the bending of a light wave as it passes from one medium to another. Answer: Refraction Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 11) ________ solids have only one refractive index. Answer: Amorphous Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate 12) A(n) ________ property is a property that is not dependent on the size of an object. Answer: Intensive Page Ref: 230 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Intermediate 13) The ________ line is a bright halo observed near the border of a particle that is immersed in a liquid with a different refractive index. Answer: Becke Page Ref: 239 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate 14) ________ index measures the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in any given substance. Answer: Refractive Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Basic 15) The main ingredient in ordinary glass is ________. Answer: Sand Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Difficult 16) ________ glass is used commonly in bottles and windows. Answer: Soda-lime Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Difficult 381 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) ________ glass is glass made stronger by introducing stress through rapid heating and cooling of the glass surfaces. Answer: Tempered Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 18) ________ glass is created by sandwiching one layer of plastic between two pieces of ordinary window glass. Answer: Laminated Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 19) ________ consists of slowly heating and then cooling a piece of glass. Answer: Annealing Page Ref: 241 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Difficult 20) Radial cracks form a Right angle on the Reverse side of the force is known as the ________ rule. Answer: 3R Page Ref: 244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Difficult 21) The smallest unit of a(n) ________ is an atom. Answer: Element Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 22) ________ is a physical change from the solid state directly into the gaseous state. Answer: Sublimation Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic 23) The color of an opaque object is determined by which component color(s) of light it ________. Answer: Reflects Page Ref: 235 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Difficult 382 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) The three states of matter are solid, liquid, and ________. Answer: Gas Page Ref: 228 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Basic

Chapter 10 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) The separation of light into its component wavelengths B) A constant property of matter that reflects the amount of material present C) The behavior of a substance without alteration of the substance’s composition through a chemical reaction D) A difference in the two indices of a refraction exhibited by most crystalline materials E) The bending of a light wave as it passes from one medium to another F) A property of matter that depends on both the mass of a substance and the effects of gravity on the mass G) A physical property of matter that is equivalent to the mass per unit volume of a substance H) Glass that is strengthened by introducing stress through rapid heating and cooling of the glass surfaces I)

A crack in a glass that forms a rough circle around the point of impact

A crack in a glass that extends outward like the spoke of a wheel from the point at which the glass was struck

K) The behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance L) A property that is not dependent on the size of the object M) A bright halo that is observed near the border of a particle immersed in a liquid of a different refractive index N) Two sheets of ordinary glass bonded together with a plastic film 1) Physical property Page Ref: 225 Level: Intermediate 2) Chemical property Page Ref: 225 Level: Intermediate 3) Weight Page Ref: 230 Level: Intermediate

4) Mass Page Ref: 230 Level: Intermediate 5) Density Page Ref: 230 Level: Intermediate 6) Intensive property Page Ref: 230 Level: Intermediate 7) Refraction Page Ref: 234 Level: Intermediate 8) Birefringence Page Ref: 235 Level: Intermediate 9) Dispersion Page Ref: 235 Level: Intermediate 10) Tempered glass Page Ref: 237 Level: Intermediate 11) Laminated glass Page Ref: 237 Level: Intermediate 12) Radial fracture Page Ref: 243 13) Concentric fracture Page Ref: 243 Level: Intermediate 14) Becke line Page Ref: 239 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) C 2) K 3) F 4) B 5) G 6) L 7) E 8) D 9) A 10) H 11) N 12) J 13) I 14) M

Chapter 10 Essay 1) A storefront window is broken and a robbery committed. A suspect is later found running from the scene. Examination of his shoes reveals glass particles embedded in a heel. Describe the proper collection and preservation of glass evidence for laboratory examination. Answer (should include points such as): • The entire shoe should be submitted for laboratory examination. The evidence collector should avoid removing glass evidence from the shoe unless there is a distinct possibility that the glass will be lost in transit. • Shoes are to be packaged in a box or paper bag and sent to the laboratory. • A control piece of glass from the broken window is to be submitted for laboratory examination. Normally a square-inch piece of glass will suffice. • A pillbox, druggist fold, or vials are convenient containers for small glass fragments. • All packages are to be properly labeled for identification. Minimal information should contain the evidence collector’s name or initials, the date, and sampling location. All items collected are to be described in the evidence collector’s field notes. Page Ref: 245 Objective: Describe the proper collection of glass evidence. Level: Intermediate 2) Describe the process of floatation and explain what it is used for. Answer (should include points such as): Flotation is a process used to compare the densities of glass samples. In flotation, a standard/reference glass particle is immersed in a liquid. The composition of the liquid is carefully adjusted until the glass remains suspended in the liquid. Glass chips of approximately the same size and shape as the standard/reference are then added to the liquid for comparison. If both the unknown and the standard/reference particles remain suspended in the liquid, their densities are equal to each other and to that of the liquid. Particles of different densities either sink or float, depending on whether they are more or less dense than the liquid, respectively. Page Ref: 238-239 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Basic 3) What physical properties are used most often to characterize glass particles? What is the main drawback of using these properties to characterize glass? Answer (should include points such as): The physical properties of density and refractive index are used most successfully for characterizing glass particles. The main drawback of using these properties to characterize glass is that they are class characteristics, and as such will not provide the sole criteria for individualizing glass to a common source. Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Intermediate 385 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) What two models do scientists use to explain the nature of light? Under what conditions does each model best describe the behavior of light? Answer (should include points such as): • The first model describes light as a continuous wave. When light is moving through space, its behavior can best be described as that of a continuous wave. • The second model describes light at a stream of discrete energy particles. This best describes the behavior of light when light is absorbed by a substance. Page Ref: 235-236 Objective: Explain the nature of light as a wave and as a particle. Level: Intermediate 5) A criminalist is attempting to find the side of a glass pane from which a shattering force originated. How can that be determined when examining a fragment from a radial crack? A concentric crack? Answer (should include points such as): In examining the stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact, the perpendicular end is always found opposite the side from which the force of impact was applied. For a concentric fracture, the perpendicular end always faces the surface on which the force originated. Page Ref: 243-244 Objective: Explain how glass fractures reveal information related to the force and direction of an impact. Level: Intermediate 6) What is a physical property? What is a chemical property? Name one physical and chemical property of water. Answer (should include points such as): A physical property is the behavior of a substance without alteration of the substance’s composition through a chemical reaction. A chemical property is the behavior of a substance when it reacts or combines with another substance. Examples include: Physical – density of 1g/mL, boiling point of 212°F, melting point of 32°F, clear color, etc. Chemical – combines with carbon to form carbonic acid, water combines with oxygen to produce hydrogen peroxide, etc. Page Ref: 225 Objective: Discuss the composition of matter. Level: Difficult 7) What is refraction? How does the refractive index of a medium affect what the viewer observes when looking at the medium? Answer (should include points such as): Refraction is the bending of a light wave as it passes from one medium to another. Refractive index is a measure of the amount of refraction that is produced by a given medium when compared to the refraction in a vacuum. Based on the refractive index of a medium, a viewer may observe an object at one location, but it may not be the true location of the object.

Page Ref: 234 Objective: Explain how density and refractive index of glass is measured and utilized for forensic characterization. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 10 Critical Thinking 1) At the scene of a vehicle vandalism, fragments of soda-lime glass, tempered glass, and laminated glass are found inside the vehicle. From where could these types of glass originated? Answer (should include points such as): Soda-lime glass is used commonly in bottles and windows. Tempered glass is glass made stronger by introducing stress through rapid heating and cooling of the glass surfaces. When tempered glass breaks, it does not shatter but rather fragments or “dices” into small squares with little splintering. It is used in the side and rear windows of U.S.-built cars. Laminated glass is created by sandwiching one layer of plastic between two pieces of ordinary window glass. It is used in the windshields of U.S.-built cars. Page Ref: 237 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Basic 2) Using the floatation method, three pieces of soda-lime glass are placed in three separate cylinders containing a solution with a density of 1.67 g/mL. Glass fragment (A) floats, glass fragment (B) is suspended in the middle of the solution, and glass fragment (C) sinks. What can the criminalist deduce from these results? Glass fragment (A) has a density less than 1.67 g/mL, glass fragment (B) has a density of approximately 1.67 g/mL, and glass fragment (C) has a density greater than 1.67 g/mL. Page Ref: 230; 238-239 Objective: Explain forensic methods for comparing glass fragments. Level: Basic

Chapter 11 Hairs and Fibers Chapter 11 Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT a layer of the hair shaft? A) Cuticle B) Cortex C) Medulla D) Follicle Answer: D Page Ref: 251 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 2) Which part of the hair shaft is most resistant to chemical decomposition? A) Cortex B) Medulla C) Follicle D) Cuticle Answer: D Page Ref: 251 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 3) Which feature of hair is MOST important in making a species identification? A) Follicle shape B) Scale pattern C) Bulb size D) Shaft length Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 4) The number of hair scales pointing towards the tip of the hair is ________ the number of hair scales pointing towards the hair follicle. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above

Answer: C Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 5) A cast of a hair surface can be made using: A) An SEM. B) Clear nail polish. C) Softened vinyl. D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 6) Pigment granules that impart hair with color are found in the: A) Cortex. B) Medulla. C) Cuticle. D) Both A and B Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 7) The central canal running through many hairs is known as the: A) Shaft. B) Medulla. C) Cuticle. D) Cortex. Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 8) The medullary index of human hair is ________ the medullary index for most other animals. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 389 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Medullae may be classified as being: A) Interrupted or absent. B) Fragmented. C) Continuous. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 253 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 10) Which race is most likely to have head hair with continuous medullae? A) Negroid B) Caucasian C) Mongoloid D) Native American Answer: C Page Ref: 253 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 11) Beard hairs are coarse and normally ________ in cross-section. A) Ribbon-like B) Oval C) Triangular D) Round Answer: C Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 12) A human hair in cross-section appeared flat in shape. The racial origin was most likely: A) Caucasian. B) Negroid. C) Indian. D) Mongoloid. Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate

13) In determining whether a hair sample originated from a male or a female, the MOST important consideration is: A) Whether the hair is bleached. B) The results of DNA analysis performed on the root structure. C) Whether the hair was dyed. D) The length of the hair. Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Basic 14) The presence of sheath cells on hair that has been pulled quickly from the head is ________ the presence of sheath cells on hairs that have been removed slowly from the scalp. A) The same as B) Less likely than C) More likely than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 15) Nuclear DNA typing can be most successfully accomplished on hairs that have been removed during which stage of growth? A) Telogenic B) Mutagenic C) Catagenic D) Anagenic Answer: D Page Ref: 259 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Difficult 16) Which type of crime is LEAST likely to be solved with the use of fiber evidence? A) Breaking and entering B) Sexual assault C) Bombing D) Hit-and-run Answer: C Page Ref: 260 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Basic

17) Mohair and cashmere are hairs from: A) A goat. B) A llama. C) A sheep. D) A camel. Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 18) By far the most prevalent plant fiber is: A) Linen. B) Silk. C) Kapok. D) Cotton. Answer: D Page Ref: 261 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Basic 19) A fiber whose microscopic appearance includes being ribbon-like in shape (flat) with twists at irregular intervals is: A) Polyester. B) Cotton. C) Kapok. D) Linen. Answer: B Page Ref: 261 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Difficult 20) What was the first man-made fiber? A) Nylon B) Polyester C) Acetate D) Rayon Answer: D Page Ref: 261 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate 21) Which is NOT a synthetic fiber? A) Rayon B) Polyester 392 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Acrylic D) All of the above are synthetic Answer: D Page Ref: 262-264 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate 22) Which is made of natural polymers? A) Plastic B) Nylon C) Starch D) Paint Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Basic 23) When collecting fiber evidence, great care should be taken to: A) Avoid cross-contamination of evidence. B) Shake off all garments to be sent for examination before neatly folding them. C) Send as much potential evidence as possible to the crime lab to ensure that nothing is missed. D) Package all items from each individual together in one bag to avoid later confusion. Answer: A Page Ref: 271 Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation of forensic fiber evidence. Level: Intermediate 24) If a hair does not have a follicular tag, an expert witness is on best scientific footing when stating that: A) The hair in question comes from a 21-year-old. B) His/her examination reveals that the hair is that of a male. C) The given hair comes from a specific person. D) A suspect hair comes from a particular animal species. Answer: D Page Ref: 256 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 25) Which step in the examination of fibers would logically be taken first? A) Examination of dye composition using visible light microspectrophotometer B) Make a cross-sectional view of the fibers C) Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers D) Infrared spectrophotometry 393 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 26) Which would involve determining the refractive index of the fibers? A) Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers B) Infrared spectrophotometry C) Study of the birefringence of the fibers D) TLC study of dyes in fibers Answer: C Page Ref: 268 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 27) Which would produce “fingerprints” of the fibers? A) Examination of dye composition using a visible light microspectrophotometer B) Make a cross-sectional view of the fibers C) Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers D) Infrared spectrophotometry Answer: D Page Ref: 267 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 28) What is the rate of human hair growth per month? A) 1 inch B) 1 mL C) 1 cm D) 1 dm Answer: C Page Ref: 256 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 29) The visible light microspectrophotometer is a convenient tool with which to compare the color of fibers because: A) Very small samples can be compared. B) Fibers can be studied right on a microscope slide. C) Fibers are not destroyed. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 267 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Basic 394 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Generally, the parallel refractive index of a fiber is ________ the perpendicular refractive index of the same fiber. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 269 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 31) It is a virtual certainty that two fabrics share a common origin if their fibers: A) Can be fitted together at their torn edges. B) Have the same striations. C) Have the same color. D) Appear identical in cross-section. Answer: A Page Ref: 265 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 32) Before the 20th century, all fibers were: A) Natural. B) Regenerated. C) Synthetic. D) Derived. Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate 33) A regenerated fiber can be derived from: A) Polyester. B) Cellulose. C) Rayon. D) Acetate. Answer: B Page Ref: 265 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate

34) Which of the following properties should NOT be examined when comparing two synthetic fibers? A) Presence or absence of delustering particles B) Diameter C) Lengthwise striations D) Medullary index Answer: D Page Ref: 252 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate 35) The monomers involved in the synthesis of proteins are: A) Sugars. B) Amino acids. C) Fatty acids. D) Starches. Answer: B Page Ref: 265 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 36) Cellulose is the basic component of: A) Sugar. B) Starch. C) Wood. D) Wool. Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 37) The portion of the hair containing its scales is: A) The cortex. B) The cuticle. C) The medulla. D) The root. Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 38) A human head hair is best characterized by: A) The absence of a cortex. B) Its scale pattern. 396 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) A medulla that is more than 1/2 the overall diameter of the hair shaft. D) A medulla that is absent or is less than 1/3 the overall diameter of the hair shaft. Answer: D Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 39) Which statement is true? A) The racial origin of hair can always be identified. B) Hair can be individualized through its trace elemental composition. C) Hair is routinely examined to determine sex. D) Two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics. Answer: D Page Ref: 256 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Basic 40) Rayon is classified as a: A) Natural fiber. B) Synthetic fiber. C) Plant fiber. D) Regenerated fiber. Answer: D Page Ref: 265 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Basic 41) Which of the following properties should be examined when comparing two fibers? A) Color B) Diameter C) Birefringence D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 265; 268 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Basic 42) The cortex of hair derives its major forensic importance from the fact that it contains: A) Scales. B) Pigments. C) Medullae. D) DNA.

Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 43) Forcibly removed hairs are most likely to provide useful DNA evidence because they bear: A) Catagenic roots. B) Telogenic roots. C) Follicular tissue. D) Mitochondria. Answer: C Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 44) A criminalist is more likely to obtain DNA from hairs in the: A) Anagenic stage. B) Catagenic stage. C) Telogenic stage. D) Terminal stage. Answer: A Page Ref: 259 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 45) Hair can best be characterized as originating from an animal by examining: A) The medulla. B) The cuticle. C) Both the medulla and cuticle. D) Its color. Answer: C Page Ref: 252-253 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 46) The layers of the hair shaft are the ________, the ________, and the ________. A) Cuticle; root; medulla B) Cortex; mitochondria; pigment C) Pigment; cortex; pigment D) Cuticle; cortex; medulla Answer: D Page Ref: 251 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 398 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) The stages of hair growth include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Anagenic. B) Catagenic. C) Telogenic. D) Analgesic. Answer: D Page Ref: 254 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 48) In making hair evaluations, it is best to view the hairs using a(n) ________ microscope. A) Scanning electron B) Comparison C) Stereoscopic D) Polarizing Answer: B Page Ref: 256 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 49) Microscopic hair comparisons must be regarded by police and courts as: A) Conclusive. B) Individualizing. C) Useless. D) Presumptive. Answer: D Page Ref: 257 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 50) For standard/reference hair sampling from a victim, the collection of a minimum of ________ full-length head hairs and ________ full-length pubic hairs is recommended. A) 25; 25 B) 100; 100 C) 20; 20 D) 5; 16 Answer: A Page Ref: 260 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 51) Synthetic fibers display ________ because they are crystalline. A) High density B) Infrared reflectance 399 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Dispersive properties D) Birefringence Answer: D Page Ref: 268 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Difficult 52) A hair sample was examined and its medulla appeared to have a pattern described as resembling a string of pearls. It was most likely from a: A) Rabbit. B) Deer. C) Cat. D) Mouse. Answer: C Page Ref: 253 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Difficult 53) In what stage can a hair most readily be removed from the scalp? A) Anagenic B) Catagenic C) Telogenic D) Analgesic Answer: C Page Ref: 255 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 54) Which of the following questions CANNOT be answered with a microscopic examination of hair? A) Whether a hair came from a 25-year-old or an infant B) Whether a hair is from a man or a woman C) Whether a hair is from a scalp or a beard D) Whether the hair is consistent with Mongoloid or Negroid hair Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Difficult 55) Which of the following is NOT an example of a natural polymer? A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Sugar D) Proteins 400 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 265 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 11 True/False 1) Much of a hair’s resistance and stability is attributed to the cuticle. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 2) The scale pattern of the cortex is an important feature for characterizing animal hair. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 3) The cortex derives its major forensic importance from the fact that it gives hair its color. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 4) Most animals have medullae that are either continuous or interrupted. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 253 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 5) Members of the Negroid race usually have head hairs with continuous medullae. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 401 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) A criminalist is most likely to collect DNA from hairs in the catagen stage. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 7) Hair tends to exhibit variable morphological characteristics, not only from one person to another but also within a single individual. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 256 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Basic 8) A microscopic examination can tell whether a hair is from a man or a woman. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 9) A microscopic examination can tell whether a hair is from a scalp or a beard. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 10) Forcibly removed hairs are most likely to provide useful DNA evidence. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 11) It is not necessary for questioned and standard/reference hairs to come from the same area of the body. A) True B) False 402 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 260 Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation of forensic hair evidence. Level: Basic 12) The entire hair is collected because a hair may show variation in color and other morphological features over its entire length. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 260 Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation of forensic hair evidence. Level: Basic 13) The cuticle is formed by overlapping scales that always point away from the tip end of each hair. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 14) The scale pattern is not a useful characteristic for individualizing a human hair. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 15) Finding white cotton fibers at a crime scene is nearly meaningless due to its wide use. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 16) Manufactured fibers have increasingly replaced natural fibers in garments and fabrics. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 261 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Basic 403 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) It is common to obtain a physical match for fibers. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 265 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 18) The criminalist typically has many fibers available for analysis. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 265 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Intermediate 19) It is not possible to link a fiber strand definitively to a single garment. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 271 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Basic

Chapter 11 Fill in the Blank 1) Hair is an appendage of the skin that grows out of an organ known as the hair ________. Answer: Follicle Page Ref: 251 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 2) One feature that makes hair a good subject for establishing individual identity is its resistance to chemical ________. Answer: Decomposition Page Ref: 251 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Difficult 3) The scale pattern of the cuticle is an important feature for characterizing ________ hair. Answer: Animal Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 404 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The ________ is embedded with pigment granules that give hair its color. Answer: Cortex Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 5) Human head hairs rarely show continuous ________. Answer: Medullation Page Ref: 253 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 6) The three phases of hair growth are the anagen, catagen, and ________ phases. Answer: Telogen Page Ref: 254 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 7) Some hairs in the anagen phase have a ________ tag containing DNA that may be analyzed in order to individualize the hair. Answer: Follicular Page Ref: 255 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 8) Forcibly removed hairs often bear follicular tags that are rich sources of ________ DNA. Answer: Nuclear Page Ref: 258 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate 9) Forensic hair comparisons generally involve either ________ hair or pubic hair. Answer: Head Page Ref: 260 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Basic 10) A criminalist first compares the color and ________ of fiber evidence. Answer: Diameter Page Ref: 265 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Difficult 11) The three basic cuticle patterns are coronal, spinous, and ________. Answer: Imbricate Page Ref: 252 405 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 12) The ________ is the main body of the hair shaft. Answer: Cortex Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 13) Collecting ________ full-length hairs from all areas of the scalp normally ensures a representative sampling. Answer: 25 Page Ref: 260 Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation of forensic hair evidence. Level: Difficult 14) Fibers are classified as being natural or ________. Answer: Manufactured Page Ref: 261 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Basic 15) Fibers manufactured from natural raw materials are ________ fibers. Answer: Regenerated Page Ref: 265 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 11 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) Fibers derived from either natural or synthetic polymers B) A transition stage between the anagen and telogen phases of hair growth C) Two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds D) A cellular column running through the center of the hair E) DNA that is present in the nucleus of a cell and that is inherited from both parents F) The scale structure covering the exterior of the hair G) The final growth phase in which hair naturally falls out of the skin H) DNA present in small structures outside the nucleus of a cell.. This form of DNA is inherited maternally (from the mother). I)

A substance composed of a large number of atoms that are usually arranged in repeating units

The main body of the hair shaft

L) The basic unit of structure from which a polymer is constructed M) A molecule with a high molecular mass N) The initial growth phase during which the hair follicle actively produces hair O) A translucent piece of tissue surrounding the hair’s shaft near the root that contains the richest source of DNA associated with hair 1) Anagen phase Page Ref: 253 Level: Intermediate 2) Catagen phase Page Ref: 254 Level: Intermediate 3) Cortex Page Ref: 251 Level: Intermediate 4) Cuticle Page Ref: 251 Level: Intermediate 5) Follicular tag Page Ref: 255 Level: Intermediate 6) Macromolecule Page Ref: 265 Level: Intermediate 7) Manufactured fibers Page Ref: 261 Level: Intermediate 8) Medulla Page Ref: 251 Level: Intermediate 9) Mitochondrial DNA Page Ref: 259 Level: Intermediate 10) Molecule Page Ref: 265 Level: Intermediate

11) Monomer Page Ref: 265 Level: Intermediate 12) Natural fibers Page Ref: 261 Level: Intermediate 13) Nuclear DNA Page Ref: 258 Level: Intermediate 14) Polymer Page Ref: 265 Level: Intermediate 15) Telogen phase Page Ref: 254 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) N 2) B 3) J 4) F 5) O 6) M 7) A 8) D 9) H 10) C 11) L 12) K 13) E 14) I 15) G

Chapter 11 Essay 1) Name and briefly define the three layers of the hair shaft. Answer (should include points such as): The three layers of the hair shaft are the cuticle, cortex, and medulla. The cuticle is the scale structure covering the exterior of the hair. The cortex is the main body of the hair shaft which contains the pigment granules giving the hair its color. The medulla is a column running through the center of the hair. Page Ref: 251-252 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Basic 2) In comparing hairs, what aspects of the hair is the criminalist particularly interested in matching? Name at least one other important feature that the criminalist might compare. Answer (should include points such as): In comparing hair, the criminalist is particularly interested in matching the color, length, and diameter. Other important features he or she might compare include the presence or absence of a medulla and the distribution, shape, and color intensity of the pigment granules in the cortex. Page Ref: 256 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate

3) Describe three analytical techniques for comparing the color of two fibers. Answer (should include points such as): The colors of two fibers are first visually compared with a comparison microscope. Confirmation of a color comparison can then be made by comparing the fibers’ spectral patterns with a microspectrophotometer. Page Ref: 267 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Difficult 4) Name the three phases of hair growth. A criminalist is more likely to collect DNA from hairs in which stage of growth? Why? Answer (should include points such as): The three phases of hair growth are the anagen, catagen, and telogen phases. A criminalist is most likely to collect DNA from hairs in the anagen stage because, when pulled from the root, some hairs in the anagen phase have a follicular tag containing DNA that may be analyzed in order to individualize the hair. Page Ref: 253-255 Objective: Discuss the morphology of hair, including the three phases of hair growth. Level: Intermediate 5) Why must questioned hairs and standard/reference hairs being compared come from the same area of the body? Answer (should include points such as): Questioned and standard/reference hairs must come from the same area of the body because hair from different parts of the body varies significantly in its physical characteristics. Page Ref: 260 Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation of forensic hair evidence. Level: Basic 6) Describe the process of comparing two fibers via microscopic and analytical methods. What morphological characteristics should a criminalist compare in these steps? Answer (should include points such as): A criminalist first microscopically compares the color and diameter of the fibers. Other morphological features that may aid in the comparison are lengthwise striations (lined markings) on the surface of some fibers and the pitting of the fiber’s surface with delustering particles added in the manufacturing process to reduce shine. The cross-sectional shape of a fiber may also help characterize the fiber. Confirmation of a color comparison can then be made by comparing the fibers’ spectral patterns with a microspectrophotometer. A physical characteristic that is frequently used to identify fibers is an infrared absorption spectrum. Page Ref: 265-267 Objective: List the properties of fibers that are most useful for forensic comparisons. Level: Difficult

7) Name two natural fibers and two manufactured fibers. If all four of these fibers were found at a crime scene, what would be the proper procedure for their collection and preservation? Answer (should include points such as): Natural: wool, mohair, cashmere, cotton, etc. Manufactured: rayon, nylon, polyester, acrylic, spandex, etc. All fibers/articles of clothing should be packaged separately. Scrupulous care must be taken to prevent articles of clothing from different people or from different locations from coming into contact. If removing a fiber from an object, use clean forceps and place in a small sheet of paper. Fold the paper, label it, and place inside a container. Page Ref: 261-264; 271 Objective: Identify the different types of fibers.; Describe the proper collection and preservation of forensic fiber evidence. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 11 Critical Thinking 1) What two features make hair a good subject for establishing individual identity? To which layer of the hair shaft are much of these features attributed? Answer (should include points such as): Two features that make hair a good subject for establishing individual identity are its resistance to chemical decomposition and its ability to retain structural features over a long period of time. Much of this resistance and stability is attributed to the cuticle. Page Ref: 252 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Basic 2) During a microscopic comparison of two hairs, a trace analyst compares the medullae of the hairs to determine species of origin and, if possible, human origin of the hairs. What is the difference between the medullae of human and animal hairs? Name one exception to this among humans that may help in these determinations. Answer (should include points such as): Most animals have medullae that are either continuous or interrupted. Human head hairs generally exhibit no medullae or have fragmented ones; they rarely show continuous medullation. One exception is the Mongoloid race, whose members usually have head hairs with continuous medullae. Page Ref: 253-254 Objective: Discuss the considerations and questions concerning forensic hair examinations. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 12 Drugs Chapter 12 Multiple Choice 1) What is the percentage of evidence evaluated in the crime lab that is drug-related? A) 25% B) 75% C) 60% D) 35% Answer: B Page Ref: 283 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 2) The pattern and intensity of dependency on a drug does NOT depend on the: A) Cost of the drug. B) Individual’s rate of metabolism. C) Dose and route of administration. D) Frequency of administration. Answer: A Page Ref: 283 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Basic 3) Use of which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to lead to psychological dependence? A) Codeine B) Alcohol C) Heroin D) Cocaine Answer: A Page Ref: 284 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Intermediate 4) Which physical symptom is part of abstinence syndrome? A) Body chills B) Stomach cramps and vomiting C) Convulsions D) All of the above 411 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 284 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Intermediate 5) The use of which drug will NOT lead to physical dependence? A) Barbiturates B) Heroin C) Cocaine D) Alcohol Answer: C Page Ref: 285 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Intermediate 6) Most narcotics are: A) Physically addicting. B) Obtained from opium. C) Depressants to the central nervous system. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 7) Which is NOT derived from opium? A) Morphine B) Marijuana C) Heroin D) Codeine Answer: B Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 8) Which substance is NOT normally used as a diluent of heroin? A) Procaine B) Starch C) Glucose D) Quinine

Answer: C Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 9) What is NOT true about codeine? A) It is stronger than morphine. B) It is prepared synthetically from morphine. C) It is present in opium. D) It is a component in over-the-counter cough medicine. Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 10) Which is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States today? A) Marijuana B) Heroin C) Cocaine D) Alcohol Answer: A Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 11) Which drug is often incorrectly classified as a narcotic? A) Heroin B) Morphine C) Marijuana D) Codeine Answer: C Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 12) Which part of cannabis contains the LEAST amount of THC? A) Seeds B) Flower C) Leaf D) Resin Answer: A Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 413 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) What is the most potent form of marijuana? A) Hashish B) Loose vegetation C) Sinsemilla D) Flowers Answer: C Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 14) Marijuana has potential use in which medical application? A) Lessening of nausea caused by anticancer drugs B) Useful as a muscle relaxant C) Reduction of excessive eye pressure in glaucoma D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 289 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 15) The administration of which drug eliminates an addict’s desire for heroin? A) Methadone B) Morphine C) OxyContin D) Codeine Answer: A Page Ref: 287 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 16) Which is NOT an effect of marijuana use? A) Dryness of the mouth B) Increased heart rate C) Reddening of the eyes D) Decrease in appetite for sweets Answer: D Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 17) Which hallucinogen can be synthesized by a simple chemical process and is often manufactured in clandestine laboratories? A) Marijuana B) Mescaline 414 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) PCP D) LSD Answer: C Page Ref: 289 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 18) Which is the most widely used and abused drug? A) Alcohol B) Cocaine C) Heroin D) Marijuana Answer: A Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 19) A low dose of alcohol will NOT inhibit: A) Confidence. B) Concentration. C) Judgment. D) Memory. Answer: A Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 20) Which barbiturate is absorbed more slowly than the others? A) Phenobarbital B) Secobarbital C) Pentobarbital D) Amobarbital Answer: A Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 21) Barbiturates act to: A) Produce sleep. B) Create a feeling of well-being. C) Promote relaxation. D) All of the above

Answer: D Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 22) Which is true of the use of mild tranquilizers? A) They impair high-thinking faculties. B) They induce sleep. C) They do not produce dependency. D) They reduce tension. Answer: D Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 23) The sniffing of volatile solvents can cause: A) Drowsiness and stupor. B) Slurred speech and double vision. C) Feelings of exhilaration and euphoria. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 293 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 24) Methamphetamine is a: A) Depressant. B) Hallucinogen. C) Stimulant. D) Tranquilizer. Answer: C Page Ref: 293 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 25) Cocaine is a(n): A) Stimulant. B) Opiate. C) Depressant. D) Hallucinogen. Answer: A Page Ref: 293 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 416 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) Most often, cocaine is: A) Snorted. B) Smoked. C) Injected. D) Swallowed. Answer: A Page Ref: 294 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 27) The most difficult drug addiction to overcome is that of: A) Nicotine. B) Alcohol. C) Crack cocaine. D) Heroin. Answer: C Page Ref: 294 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 28) What is true about the “club drug” Rohypnol? A) It is enhanced when combined with alcohol. B) It results in loss of memory of what happened in the hours after ingestion. C) It is odorless, colorless, and tasteless. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 295 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 29) MDMA (Ecstasy) does NOT cause: A) Increased heart rate and blood pressure. B) Increased inhibition. C) Confusion, anxiety, and paranoia. D) Hallucinogenic and amphetamine-like effects. Answer: B Page Ref: 295-296 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 30) What is NOT true of the use of anabolic steroids? A) They can greatly enhance strength and general athletic performance. B) They can cause unpredictable effects on mood and personality.

C) They can produce infertility and diminished sex drive in males. D) They can cause masculinizing effects in females. Answer: A Page Ref: 296 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 31) The Controlled Substance Act established five schedules of classification for substances based on the drugs: A) Medical value. B) Potential for physical dependence. C) Potential for psychological dependence. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 297 Objective: Explain the classification of drugs under the Controlled Substances Act. Level: Intermediate 32) The Marquis reagent was used on drug evidence and it turned purple. The drug being tested could be: A) Heroin. B) Cocaine. C) Methadone. D) A or B Answer: A Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 33) The Dillie-Koppanyi reagent is useful in screening for: A) Amphetamines. B) Barbiturates. C) Marijuana. D) Opiates Answer: B Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Basic

34) Duquenois-Levine solutions were used on a sample and the chloroform layer turned purple. This suggests that the tested substance is: A) Marijuana. B) Cocaine. C) Valium. D) Heroin. Answer: A Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 35) The Van Urk reagent was used to test a sample and it turned bluish-purple. This indicates the presence of: A) LSD. B) MDMA. C) GHB. D) PCP. Answer: A Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 36) The Scott test can indicate the presence of: A) Marijuana. B) Cocaine. C) Codeine. D) Librium. Answer: B Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Basic 37) The specificity of microcrystalline tests is ________ the specificity of color tests. A) Less than B) The same as C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 301

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 38) Which type of test would the drug analyst logically use first? A) Gas chromatography B) Microcrystalline C) TLC D) Color Answer: D Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 39) The ability to make a positive identification of a drug using UV spectrophotometry is ________ the ability to make a positive identification using IR spectrophotometry. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 310 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 40) Which technique allows for both separation and specific identification of a questioned mixture of substances? A) GC/MS B) GC C) UV spectrophotometry D) IR spectrophotometry Answer: A Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 41) Which absorption spectrum is equivalent to a “fingerprint” of a substance and can be used for identification purposes? A) Visible B) IR C) UV D) X-ray 420 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 42) Gas chromatography suffers a big drawback in that it does not produce specific identification. This problem is overcome by connecting the GC to a: A) GRIM 3. B) MS. C) HPLC. D) TLC. Answer: B Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Basic 43) Marijuana is considered to be a: A) Depressant. B) Stimulant. C) Narcotic. D) Hallucinogen. Answer: D Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 44) Drugs deemed to have the highest potential for abuse and having a current medical use are listed in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: B Page Ref: 297 Objective: Explain the classification of drugs under the Controlled Substances Act. Level: Basic 45) There is a significant likelihood that continued use of ________ will result in a high degree of psychological dependence. A) Cocaine B) Heroin C) Marijuana D) All of the above 421 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 285 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Intermediate 46) Regular use of the following drug may lead to physical dependency: A) LSD. B) Marijuana. C) Aspirin. D) Ethyl alcohol. Answer: D Page Ref: 285 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Intermediate 47) Which of the following is NOT a stimulant? A) Caffeine B) Amphetamine C) Cocaine D) Ethyl alcohol Answer: D Page Ref: 293 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 48) Heroin is a chemical derivative of: A) Morphine B) Barbituric acid C) Codeine D) Methadone Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 49) Which of the following is synthetically produced and does not occur naturally? A) Cocaine B) Amphetamine C) Morphine D) Opium Answer: B Page Ref: 293 422 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 50) Which of the following is NOT a depressant? A) Librium B) Valium C) Methaqualone D) All of the above are depressants Answer: D Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 51) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Hashish is a concentrated preparation of marijuana. B) The active ingredient of marijuana is tetrahydrocannabinol. C) Prior to 1970 marijuana was classified as a narcotic drug. D) Marijuana is synthesized from the Cannabis sinsemilla plant. Answer: D Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 52) Which of the following is considered to be a hallucinogen? A) Phencyclidine (PCP) B) Mescaline C) Psilocybin D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 289 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 53) The tranquilizers Valium and Librium are classified in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: D Page Ref: 298 Objective: Explain the classification of drugs under the Controlled Substances Act. Level: Intermediate

54) Which of the following are considered to be “club drugs”? A) Ketamine B) MDMA C) Rohypnol D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 294 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 55) The reagent used for the field test of heroin is: A) Marquis. B) Duquenois-Levine. C) Scott reagent. D) Van Urk. Answer: A Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 56) What is the most common diluent of heroin? A) Mannitol B) Quinine C) Procaine D) Starch Answer: B Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 57) A police officer performs a field test on a white powder, obtaining a purple color. What drug is most likely present? A) Cocaine B) Heroin C) LSD D) Methadone Answer: B Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate

58) “Designer” drugs are: A) High-end products of the major pharmaceutical companies. B) Often abused by the wealthy. C) Very often used in the fashion industry. D) Chemically related to controlled substances. Answer: D Page Ref: 298 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 59) A compound can tentatively be identified by gas chromatography from its: A) Carrier gas. B) Rf value. C) Partition coefficient. D) Retention time. Answer: D Page Ref: 304 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis; Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 60) The most satisfactory way of simultaneously separating and tentatively identifying drugs is by: A) Ultraviolet spectrophotometry B) Infrared spectrophotometry C) Emission spectroscopy D) Chromatography Answer: D Page Ref: 302 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis; Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Basic 61) Which of the following analytical technique is considered to be a specific test in a drug identification scheme? A) Color test B) Microcrystalline test C) Thin-layer chromatography D) Infrared spectrophotometry Answer: D Page Ref: 310 425 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis; Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 62) Chromatography is NOT used to: A) Aid in analysis of illicit drug preparations. B) Separate molecules in a mixture. C) Determine colors of a compound. D) Tentatively identify molecules. Answer: C Page Ref: 302 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate 63) TLC uses ________ as its moving phase. A) A carrier gas B) Silica gel C) A thin film D) Liquid Answer: D Page Ref: 305 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate 64) Thin-layer chromatography was performed and four spots were visualized on the glass slide. The substance with which Rf value was least soluble in the stationary phase? A) Rf value .7 B) Rf value .2 C) Rf value .5 D) Rf value 8.5 Answer: B Page Ref: 307 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Difficult

Chapter 12 True/False 1) Increasing caseloads associated with drug evidence have provided the major justification for expanding forensic laboratory services. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 283 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 2) A drug user’s expectations do not play a role in drug dependence. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 283 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Basic 3) Psychological dependence is the physiological need for a drug that has been brought about by its regular use. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 283 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Basic 4) Physical dependence develops only when the drug user uses a drug on a regular schedule. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 284 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Intermediate 5) Drugs prepared from opium include morphine, heroin, and codeine. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 6) Methadone is used to treat chronic pain, and OxyContin is used to eliminate an addict’s desire for heroin while producing minimal side effects. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 287 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 7) Sedatives are drugs that cause marked alteration in thought processes, perceptions, and moods. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 287 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 8) Resin has higher concentrations of THC than the flowers of the Cannabis plant. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 9) Marijuana is the most widely abused drug in the United States. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 292 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 10) Gas chromatography cannot be considered an absolute means of identification. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 304 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate 428 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Hashish is a concentrated resin secreted by the Cannabis plant. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 12) Marijuana is synthesized from the Cannabis sativa plant. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 13) Drugs deemed to have the highest potential for abuse and having a current medical use are listed in Schedule I of the Controlled Substances Act. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 297 Objective: Explain the classification of drugs under the Controlled Substances Act. Level: Intermediate 14) Cocaine is classified as a narcotic under current federal law. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 293 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 15) Heroin is typically snorted by addicts. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 16) The two most commonly abused illegal stimulants are amphetamines and cocaine. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 293 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 17) The most popular club drug is LSD. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 294 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 18) A compound can tentatively be identified by gas chromatography from its retention time. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 304 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate 19) The distribution of a substance between a mobile and stationary phase describes spectrophotometry. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 302 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Basic 20) The recorder of a spectrophotometer measures the refractive index of light. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 311 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Intermediate 21) Many chemical substances have similar mass spectra fragmentation. A) True B) False 430 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 22) Gas chromatography cannot produce a specific identification of a chemical substance. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 302 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate 23) A mass spectrometer can detect materials weighing only one millionth of a gram. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 315 Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 24) The UV spectra of different substances are not similar and therefore the technique can usually always provide a definite result. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 310 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Intermediate 25) The IR spectrum for each substance is unique. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Basic 26) The most important drawback of gas chromatography is that a forensic chemist cannot identify an unknown substance based solely on the results of gas chromatography. A) True B) False 431 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 313 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 12 Fill in the Blank 1) A ________ may be defined as a natural or synthetic substance that is used to produce physiological or psychological effects in humans or other animals. Answer: Drug Page Ref: 283 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 2) ________ dependence is the conditioned use of a drug caused by underlying emotional needs. Answer: Psychological Page Ref: 283 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Basic 3) The pharmacological definition of a ________ is a substance that relieves pain and produces sleep. Answer: Narcotic Page Ref: 285 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 4) The source of most narcotic analgesics is ________. Answer: Opium Page Ref: 286 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Difficult 5) Methadone and OxyContin are two ________ opiates. Answer: Synthetic Page Ref: 287 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Difficult 6) Commonly used ________ include marijuana, LSD, PCP, and MDMA (Ecstasy). Answer: Hallucinogens Page Ref: 287 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic 432 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The active ingredient in marijuana is ________. Answer: Tetrahydrocannabinol Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 8) Potential medical uses of marijuana include reduction of eye pressure in ________, lessening of nausea caused by anticancer drugs, and as a muscle relaxant. Answer: Glaucoma Page Ref: 289 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Difficult 9) Angel dust is a mixture of ________ with other drugs such as LSD or amphetamines. Answer: PCP Page Ref: 290 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Difficult 10) The two phases in a forensic scientist’s analytical scheme are screening and ________. Answer: Confirmation Page Ref: 300 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Basic 11) Two types of empirical tests are color tests and ________ tests. Answer: Microcrystalline Page Ref: 301 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 12) ________ can separate unknown mixtures into their components. Answer: Chromatography Page Ref: 302 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 13) ________ drugs are substances that are chemically related to some controlled drugs and are pharmacologically potent. Answer: Designer Page Ref: 298 Objective: Explain the classification of drugs under the Controlled Substances Act. Level: Difficult 433 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) The last step in a thin-layer chromatographic analysis is ________. Answer: Visualization Page Ref: 308 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Difficult 15) In mass spectrometry, a chemical substance enters a chamber where it decomposes into numerous smaller ________ by high-energy electrons. Answer: Fragments Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Difficult 16) In chromatography, the distribution of a gas between the liquid and gas phases is determined by the ________ of the gas in the liquid. Answer: Solubility Page Ref: 303 Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Difficult 17) The study of the absorption of light by chemical substances, or ________, is the basic tool used to characterize and identify organic materials. Answer: Spectrophotometry Page Ref: 310 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Basic 18) One function of a(n) ________ is to disperse light into its different wavelengths. Answer: Monochromator Page Ref: 310 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Intermediate 19) ________ law states that the quantity of light absorbed at any frequency is directly proportional to the concentration of material absorbing it. Answer: Beer’s Page Ref: 310 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 12 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) Synthetic compounds, chemically related to the male sex hormone testosterone, that are used to promote muscle growth B) Any of several analytical techniques for separating mixtures into their components by attraction to a stationary phase while being propelled by a moving phase C) A substance that slows down the functions of the central nervous system D) A substance that induces changes in normal thought processes, perceptions, and moods E) An analytical method for identifying a substance by its selective absorption of different wavelengths of light F) A single test that specifically identifies a substance G) Invisible long frequencies of light beyond violet in the visible spectrum H) Colored light ranging from red to violet in the electromagnetic spectrum I)

A preliminary test used to reduce the number of possible identities of an unknown substance

A test that identifies a specific substance based on the color and shape of crystals formed when the substance is mixed with specific reagents

K) A substance that speeds up the activity of the central nervous system L) A substance that lessens or eliminates pain M) Invisible short frequencies of light before red in the visible spectrum N) The conditioned use of a drug caused by underlying emotional needs O) Physiological need for a drug brought about by its regular use and characterized by withdrawal sickness when administration of the drug is abruptly stopped P) Drug that induces sleep and depresses vital body functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing rate 1) Anabolic steroids Page Ref: 296 Level: Intermediate 2) Analgesic Page Ref: 286 Level: Intermediate 3) Confirmation Page Ref: 300 Level: Intermediate 4) Depressant Page Ref: 292 Level: Intermediate

5) Hallucinogen Page Ref: 287 Level: Intermediate 6) Microcrystalline test Page Ref: 301 Level: Intermediate 7) Narcotic Page Ref: 285 Level: Intermediate 8) Physical dependence Page Ref: 283 Level: Intermediate 9) Psychological dependence Page Ref: 283 Level: Intermediate 10) Screening test Page Ref: 300 Level: Intermediate 11) Stimulant Page Ref: 293 Level: Intermediate 12) Spectrophotometry Page Ref: 310 Level: Intermediate 13) Chromatography Page Ref: 302 Level: Intermediate 14) Infrared Page Ref: 310 Level: Intermediate 15) Ultraviolet Page Ref: 310 Level: Intermediate 16) Visible light Page Ref: 310 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) A 2) L 3) F 4) C 5) D 6) J 7) P 8) N 9) O 10) I 11) K 12) E 13) B 14) M 15) G 16) H 436 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 12 Essay 1) What is the difference between a screening test and a confirmation test? Answer (should include points such as): A screening test is used to reduce the possible number of substances in an unknown sample to a small and manageable number. A confirmation test is used to identify the presence of a specific substance in an unknown sample. Page Ref: 300 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Basic 2) What is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States? Under what class of drugs is it listed and what are its short-term physical and psychological effects at low to moderate doses? Answer (should include points such as): Marijuana is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States today. It is classified as a hallucinogen. At low doses the user may experience an increased sense of well-being; initial restlessness and hilarity followed by a state of relaxation; alteration of sensory perceptions; a more vivid sense of touch, sight, smell, taste, and sound; feelings of hunger; and subtle changes in thought formation and expression. Page Ref: 288-289 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 3) Describe how a microcrystalline test works. Name two advantages of microcrystalline tests. Answer (should include points such as): In a microcrystalline test, a drop of a chemical reagent added to a small quantity of drug on a microscopic slide produces crystals that are highly characteristic of the drug. Two advantages of these tests are that they are rapid and they often do not require the isolation of a drug from its diluents. Page Ref: 301-302 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Difficult 4) Briefly describe the basic chromatographic process. Be sure to explain how motion is important to the process. Answer (should include points such as): In one form of chromatography, a questioned mixture is dissolved in liquid so that some of its molecules enter the surrounding air as gas molecules, while others remain in the liquid. During this process, the air containing the gas molecules is forced to move continuously in one direction over the liquid. If one component of the mixture has a greater percentage of its molecules in the moving (gas) phase than other components, those molecules travel over the liquid at a faster pace. When the moving phase has advanced a reasonable distance, the molecules of the different components are completely separated from one another. This allows the scientist to identify the various components in the mixture. 437 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 302-304 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Difficult 5) What three chromatographic processes are most applicable for solving analytical problems typically encountered in the crime laboratory? What is the main advantage of each? Answer (should include points such as): • Gas chromatography is widely used because of its ability to resolve a highly complex mixture into its components, usually within minutes. • The main advantage of HPLC is that the entire process takes place at room temperature and so it can be used to analyze sensitive materials that may be destroyed at the high temperatures experienced during gas chromatography. • TLC is inexpensive and allows numerous samples to be analyzed simultaneously on one thin-layer plate. Page Ref: 302-309 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Basic 6) Briefly describe the basic process of spectrophotometry. Answer (should include points such as): A beam of radiation is passed through a tube containing an unknown sample dissolved in a solution. A detector then compares the intensity of radiation passing through the solution to the intensity of a similar beam of radiation that does not pass through the solution. A signal from the detector is then fed into a recorder that produces an absorption spectrum that characterizes the sample being tested. Page Ref: 310 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Intermediate 7) Consider the drugs morphine and marijuana. Describe the likelihood of psychological and physical dependence of each. Under what schedule of the Controlled Substances Act do they each fall, and why? Answer: Morphine: • High psychological dependence • Causes physical dependence • In schedule II due to its currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions, and potential for severe psychological and physical dependence Marijuana: • Low psychological dependence • Does not cause physical dependence 438 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

• In Schedule I because of the high potential for abuse, no current accepted medical use, and/or lack of accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision Page Ref: 285; 297 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society.; Explain the classification of drugs under the Controlled Substances Act. Level: Difficult 8) Summarize the ideal methods involved in the proper collection of drug evidence. Answer (should include points such as): Use common sense. The original packaging drugs are contained in is typically sufficient to prevent loss and cross-contamination. Specimens suspected of containing volatile solvents must be packaged in an airtight container. All packages must be marked with sufficient information. Page Ref: 299 Objective: Describe the proper collection and preservation of drug evidence. Level: Basic 9) In your own words, describe the steps that take place inside a mass spectrometer when a compound enters the instrument. Answer (should include points such as): The material enters a high-vacuum chamber where a beam of high-energy electrons is aimed at the sample molecules. The electrons collide with the molecules, causing them to lose electrons and to acquire a positive charge. These positively charged molecules are unstable and almost instantaneously decompose into numerous smaller fragments. These fragments then pass through an electric or magnetic field, where they are separated according to their masses. Page Ref: 313 Objective: Describe the concept and utility of mass spectrometry for identification analysis. Level: Intermediate 10) Synthetic opiates may be encountered as drug evidence. Depending on their use, they may be considered illicit. What are the most common synthetic opiates and what therapeutic purposes can each be used for? What illicit purposes can each be used for? Answer (should include points such as): Methadone and OxyContin are the most common synthetic opiates. OxyContin is used to treat chronic pain, while methadone is used to eliminate an addict’s desire for heroin while producing minimal side effects. Both are analgesic narcotics with effects similar to those of heroin and can be abused to produce a similar “high.” OxyContin has a time-release formula that the manufacturer initially believed would reduce the risk of abuse and addiction. This has not turned out to be the case. Page Ref: 286-287 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate

11) Arrange the following parts or products of the Cannabis plant in order of THC content, from highest to lowest concentration of THC: flowers, leaves, resin, seeds, stem. Answer: resin, flowers, leaves, stem, seeds Page Ref: 288 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Basic

Chapter 12 Critical Thinking 1) Many factors affect the intensity of drug dependence in any given individual. For each item of information about a drug abuser’s life given below, indicate whether the factor would likely yield a high (+) or low (–) level of dependence. a. daily, scheduled use of small to moderate amounts of a drug b. occasional use of large amounts of a drug c. user’s expectation of significant effects of a drug d. use of drug by direct injection into the user’s bloodstream e. user’s intense need to escape from reality of his or her life and circumstances f. frequent use of drug by user’s family or friends g. use of drug with no potential for negative symptoms following withdrawal Answer: a. + b. – c. + d. + e. + f. + g. — Page Ref: 283-284 Objective: Explain psychological and physical dependency on drugs and its impact on society. Level: Basic 2) A newly synthesized drug, called MET, is identified by the DEA. What drug schedule should this drug be classified under, given the following established characteristics? • High potential for abuse • A potential medical use requiring severe restrictions • A potential for severe psychological or physical dependence Answer: Schedule II Page Ref: 297 Objective: Classify the commonly abused drugs. Level: Intermediate 3) An unknown white powder was located at a crime scene. Describe an analytical scheme, in proper order, to identify the drug or drugs which may be present in the powder. For each step, note whether it is a screening or confirmatory test and why it should be used. Answer (should include points such as): a. Chromatography, a screening test, can be used to separate the unknown mixtures into its components. This is particularly useful for analyzing drug specimens because drugs may be diluted with practically any material in order to increase the quantity of product available to prospective customers.

b. Various color tests, microcrystalline tests, or UV-Vis spectrophotometry can be used as screening tests to presumptively identify which drug or drugs may be present in the powder. This can narrow the scope of substances to be searched for and possibly confirmed in later testing. c. IR spectrophotometry or GC/MS analysis are both confirmatory tests with sensitivity and specificity sufficient enough to identify drugs in the powder. GC/MS is most preferred because: (1) it can resolve a highly complex mixture into its components within a brief time period; (2) it is extremely sensitive; and (3) it can yield quantitative results. Connection of the GC/MS unit to a computer further facilitates the comparison of spectra for identification purposes. Page Ref: 300-316 Objective: Describe the laboratory tests normally used to perform a routine drug identification analysis. Level: Difficult 4) The forensic chemist received a white powder that must be identified. What are the preferred analytical methods for identification of the powder’s organic components? Answer (should include points such as): IR spectrophotometry or GC/MS analysis are both confirmatory tests with sensitivity and specificity sufficient enough to identify drugs in the powder. GC/MS is most preferred because: (1) it can resolve a highly complex mixture into its components within a brief time period; (2) it is extremely sensitive; and (3) it can yield quantitative results. Connecting the GC/MS unit to a computer further facilitates the comparison of spectra for identification purposes. Page Ref: 313-316 Objective: Describe the utility of ultraviolet and infrared spectrophotometry for the identification of drugs. Level: Difficult 5) Multiple chemical components of a mixture are separated via thin-layer chromatography using silica gel as the stationary phase and ethanol and acetic acid as the mobile phase. What does the distance travelled by each component tell the analyst about their chemical identity? Answer (should include points such as): Thin-layer chromatography is analogous to a race between chemical compounds because at the start, all of the participating substances are mixed together, but as the process progresses, the materials that prefer the moving phase slowly pull ahead of the substances that prefer to remain in the stationary phase. Finally, at the end of the race, all the participants are separated, each moving up the plate at different distances. Page Ref: 305-309 Objective: Discuss the process of chromatography as well as the difference between thinlayer chromatography and gas chromatography. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 13 Forensic Toxicology Chapter 13 Multiple Choice 1) In Western countries, what is/are the most heavily abused drug(s)? A) Tranquilizers B) Alcohol C) Barbiturates D) Amphetamines Answer: B Page Ref: 323 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 2) Which is NOT a factor in determining the rate at which alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream? A) The alcoholic content of the beverage B) The presence or absence of food in the stomach C) The amount consumed D) All of the above are factors Answer: D Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 3) If blood is not available, which of the following can the medical examiner NOT use in order to determine the body’s alcohol content to a reasonable degree of accuracy? A) Urine B) Cerebrospinal fluid C) Vitreous humor D) Brain tissue Answer: A Page Ref: 327 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Intermediate 4) The amount of alcohol absorbed through the stomach walls is ________ the amount of alcohol absorbed through the walls of the small intestine. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above 442 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 5) There is a(n) ________ relationship between the amount of alcohol in the blood and that in the alveolar breath. A) Variable B) Indirect C) Direct D) Undetermined Answer: C Page Ref: 324 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Basic 6) During the period of absorption, the concentration of alcohol in arterial blood is ________ the concentration of alcohol in venous blood. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 326 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 7) A breath test reflects the alcohol concentration in the: A) Aorta. B) Left ventricle. C) Pulmonary vein. D) Pulmonary artery. Answer: D Page Ref: 327 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Intermediate 8) Field sobriety tests do NOT include: A) Walk and turn. B) Horizontal gaze nystagmus. C) Performance of sit-ups. D) One leg stand. 443 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 330 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 9) To analyze blood for alcohol, forensic labs normally use: A) TLC. B) GM/MS. C) LC. D) GC. Answer: D Page Ref: 332 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Basic 10) Of the following, which country has the lowest blood alcohol concentration in determining legal impairment level? A) Japan B) Sweden C) France D) United States Answer: B Page Ref: 334 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Intermediate 11) The federal government set the maximum allowable blood alcohol concentration for commercial truck and bus drivers at: A) 0.08%. B) 0.02%. C) 0.05%. D) 0.04%. Answer: D Page Ref: 334 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 12) After a blood sample is collected for alcohol testing, a(n) ________ is added to stop the blood from clotting. A) Monochromator B) Anticoagulant C) Preservative D) Fuel cell

Answer: B Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Basic 13) Blood samples taken for alcohol testing must be taken only with the driver’s consent according to: A) The Fifth Amendment. B) Schmerber v. California. C) The Frye standard. D) Missouri v. McNeely. Answer: D Page Ref: 335-336 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Intermediate 14) Upon entering the bloodstream, heroin is almost immediately metabolized into: A) Morphine. B) Procaine. C) Opium. D) Cocaine. Answer: A Page Ref: 336 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 15) The toxicologist’s capabilities are NOT directly dependent on the input from the: A) Medical examiner. B) Police. C) Case prosecutor. D) Attending physician. Answer: C Page Ref: 337 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 16) A substance with a pH of 8 is likely to be: A) Water B) Neutral C) Acidic D) Basic

Answer: D Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 17) Of the following, which is an acid drug? A) Aspirin B) Cocaine C) Methadone D) PCP Answer: A Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 18) Which is NOT a widely used screening tool in the toxicology lab? A) Immunoassay B) TLC C) GC-MS D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 19) Analyzing segments of hair for drug content may define the timeline for drug use, dating it back over a period of: A) Days. B) Weeks. C) Years. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 20) The Reinsch test would NOT be used to detect: A) Bismuth. B) Copper. C) Mercury. D) Arsenic. 446 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 21) Carbon monoxide is toxic because it: A) Activates killer white blood cells. B) Destroys red blood cells. C) Causes platelets to clump. D) Combines with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin. Answer: D Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 22) The presence of high levels of carbon monoxide in the blood of a victim found at the scene of a suspicious fire is proof that the victim: A) Died elsewhere and was brought to the fire scene after death. B) Died after the fire started. C) Died before the fire started. D) Was the arsonist. Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 23) The rate of alcohol absorption on a full stomach is ________ the rate of absorption on an empty stomach. A) The same as B) Less than C) Greater than D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate

24) The concentration of alcohol in an exhaled breath is in direct proportion to that of the blood of the same individual. The ratio of this relationship is closest to: A) 1:10. B) 1:1,000. C) 1:100. D) 1:2,000. Answer: D Page Ref: 326 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Intermediate 25) The DRE program incorporates standardized methods for examining suspects to determine: A) Whether they are transporting any illegal substances. B) Whether they are involved in the buying or selling of drugs. C) Whether they are under the influence of one or more drugs. D) Whether they have ever taken one or more drugs. Answer: C Page Ref: 343 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Basic 26) Alcohol is eliminated from the body chemically unchanged in: A) Urine. B) Breath. C) Perspiration. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 27) Alcohol is oxidized in the body primarily in: A) The stomach. B) The small intestine. C) The liver. D) The lungs. Answer: C Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 448 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) The blood alcohol concentration level for being presumed to be legally “under the influence” in most states is: A) 0.04 percent. B) 0.05 percent. C) 0.08 percent. D) 0.10 percent. Answer: C Page Ref: 334 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 29) A breath test may be used to analyze: A) Ethyl alcohol. B) Marijuana. C) Barbiturates. D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 327 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 30) Blood is drawn from a living suspect involved in an automobile accident. If the specimen is kept unrefrigerated and at a moderately warm temperature, the alcohol concentration can be expected to: A) Remain unchanged. B) Increase with time. C) Decrease with time. D) Either increase or decrease with time. Answer: C Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Intermediate 31) The elimination or “burn off” rate of alcohol averages ________ percent w/v per hour. A) 0.10 B) 0.15 C) 0.015 D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 327 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 449 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following drugs is NOT found in blood or urine? A) Morphine B) Heroin C) Amphetamine D) Methadone Answer: B Page Ref: 336 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 33) Carbon monoxide combines with what component of blood? A) Carboxyhemoglobin B) Hemoglobin C) Oxyhemoglobin D) White blood cells Answer: B Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 34) In the case of Schmerber v. California, blood was categorized as being: A) Direct evidence. B) Indirect evidence. C) Testimonial evidence. D) Nontestimonial evidence. Answer: D Page Ref: 335 Objective: Explain how the “implied consent” law recommended by the NHTSA addressed the constitutional issues raised against blood-alcohol laws. Level: Intermediate 35) In forensic toxicology, all positive drug findings must be confirmed by a specific chemical test. The confirmation test of choice is: A) Ultraviolet spectrophotometry. B) Gas chromatography. C) Infrared spectrophotometry. D) Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry. Answer: D Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 450 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) A neutral substance will have a pH closest to: A) 0 B) 14 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: D Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 37) Field sobriety tests that can be employed to ascertain the degree of an individual’s alcohol impairment normally do NOT include the following: A) Portable, roadside breath tester. B) Horizontal gaze nystagmus. C) Gas chromatography. D) Walk and turn. Answer: C Page Ref: 330 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Basic 38) For the purpose of extracting the drug out of body tissues, an amphetamine is classified as an: A) Acid drug. B) Basic drug. C) Neutral drug. D) All of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 39) About 95-98 percent of alcohol is oxidized to what two substances? A) Carbon dioxide and dehydrogenase B) Water and acetic acid C) Acetaldehyde and acetic acid D) Water and carbon dioxide Answer: D Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 451 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) Which of the following is NOT classified as a heavy metal? A) Lead B) Arsenic C) Mercury D) Thallium Answer: A Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 41) A drug recognition expert (DRE) can: A) Identify street drugs by their appearance. B) Help a drug user acknowledge his/her habit and suggest ways to become drug-free. C) Determine whether a person has taken one or more drugs. D) Advise the toxicologist as to which drug may be impairing an individual. Answer: D Page Ref: 343 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Intermediate 42) Which analytical technique is widely used for directly measuring the amount of alcohol present in the blood? A) Gas chromatography B) Thin-layer chromatography C) Infrared spectrophotometry D) Ultraviolet spectrophotometry Answer: A Page Ref: 332 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Basic 43) Some breath-testing devices for alcohol use ________ light to measure the quantity of alcohol trapped in a chamber. A) Visible B) Ultraviolet C) Infrared D) Colored Answer: C Page Ref: 328 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Intermediate 452 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Alcohol is broken down in the liver by oxidation. B) Alcohol can be considered a brain depressant. C) Alcohol is distributed nearly evenly throughout water portions of the body by blood. D) The mass spectrometer measures the absorption of light by alcohol. Answer: D Page Ref: 340 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 45) The drug recognition expert evaluation process can suggest the presence of how many broad categories of drugs? A) Nine B) Seven C) Four D) Ten Answer: B Page Ref: 343 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 13 True/False 1) Alcohol is the most widely abused drug in Western countries. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 323 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 2) Alcohol tends to be distributed throughout the watery parts of the body. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate

3) The quantity and type of food present in the stomach at the time of drinking does not affect the rate at which alcohol is absorbed. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Basic 4) The amount of alcohol exhaled in the breath is in indirect proportion to the concentration of alcohol in the blood. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Intermediate 5) For a longer total time required for complete absorption, the peak blood-alcohol concentration will be lower. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 6) Most alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream through the walls of the stomach. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 7) When the blood enters the lungs, it contains very little oxygen and a great deal of carbon dioxide. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 325 454 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 8) The most widespread method for rapidly determining alcohol intoxication is breath testing. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 327 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Basic 9) Field sobriety tests include psychophysical tests and a breath test. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 330 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Basic 10) Liquid chromatography is the most widely used approach for determining alcohol levels in blood. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 332 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Intermediate 11) An alcoholic disinfectant should be applied to a subject’s skin before drawing blood. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Intermediate 12) An airtight container best ensures the preservation of blood samples. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Basic 455 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) An anticoagulant should be added to inhibit the growth of microorganisms capable of destroying alcohol. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Intermediate 14) Failure to keep the blood refrigerated or to add a preservative may result in a substantial decline in alcohol concentration. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Basic 15) The implied-consent law allows the operator of a motor vehicle on a public highway to refuse a test for alcohol intoxication. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 334 Objective: Explain how the “implied consent” law recommended by the NHTSA addressed the constitutional issues raised against blood-alcohol laws. Level: Intermediate 16) Few substances enter and completely leave the body in the same chemical state. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 336 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 17) A screening test gives quick insight into the likelihood that a specimen contains a drug substance while a confirmation test identifies a specific drug. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 456 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) The three most widely used screening tests are thin-layer chromatography (TLC), gas chromatography (GC), and liquid chromatography (LC). A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 340 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 19) Lead is not classified as a heavy metal. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate 20) The concentration of a drug present in urine is a poor indicator of how extensively an individual’s behavior or state is influenced by the drug. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 343 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 13 Fill in the Blank 1) A ________ is an individual whose job is to detect and identify drugs and poisons in body fluids, tissues, and organs. Answer: Toxicologist Page Ref: 323 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 2) ________ is the transformation of a chemical in the body to other chemicals to facilitate its elimination from the body. Answer: Metabolism Page Ref: 323

Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Basic 3) The three stages which occur after a chemical enters the body are absorption, distribution, and ________. Answer: Elimination Page Ref: 323 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Basic 4) About 95-98 percent of alcohol is oxidized to water and ________. Answer: carbon dioxide Page Ref: 324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Difficult 5) Alcohol that is not oxidized is expelled ________ in breath, perspiration, and urine. Answer: Unchanged Page Ref: 324 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Difficult 6) Arteries carry blood ________ from the heart while veins carry blood toward the heart. Answer: Away Page Ref: 325 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Intermediate 7) Breath testing is based on the observation that there is a fixed ratio between the concentration of alcohol in alveolar breath and the concentration of alcohol in the ________. Answer: Blood Page Ref: 325 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Intermediate 8) A fuel cell detector converts alcohol in alveolar breath into ________ acid. Answer: Acetic Page Ref: 331 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Difficult

9) A(n) ________ detector is a device attached to a breath tester to ensure that the breath sample being measured is alveolar or deep-lung breath. Answer: Slope Page Ref: 328 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Difficult 10) A(n) ________ should be added to the blood sample to prevent clotting. Answer: Anticoagulant Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Basic 11) The current legal measure of drunk driving in the United States is a blood-alcohol concentration of ________ percent weight/volume. Answer: 0.08 Page Ref: 334 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 12) Blood and ________ should be collected from any suspected drug user. Answer: Urine Page Ref: 337 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Intermediate 13) Alcohol, marijuana, and ________ account for 90 percent or more of the drugs encountered in a typical toxicology laboratory. Answer: Cocaine Page Ref: 338 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Intermediate 14) Carbon monoxide in the bloodstream combines with ________, reducing the amount of hemoglobin left to carry oxygen. Answer: Hemoglobin Page Ref: 341 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 13 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) Small sacs in the lungs through whose walls air and other vapors are exchanged between the breath and the blood B) Substance that stops the growth of microorganisms in blood C) A blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart D) A compound capable of accepting a hydrogen ion (H+) E) An individual charged with the responsibility of detecting and identifying the presence of drugs and poisons in body fluids, tissues, and organs F) A compound capable of donating a hydrogen ion (H+) to another compound G) A blood vessel that transports blood toward the heart H) A symbol used to express the basicity or acidity of a substance. A value of 7 is neutral; lower values are acidic; higher values basic. I)

Elimination of alcohol from the body in an unchanged state; typically in breath and urine

The combination of oxygen with other substances to produce new products

K) A tiny blood vessel that receives blood from arteries and carries it to veins and across whose walls exchange of materials between the blood and the tissues takes place L) The transformation of a chemical in the body to other chemicals for the purpose of facilitating its elimination from the body M) A substance that prevents the of clotting of the blood N) A detector in which a chemical reaction involving alcohol produces electricity O) The passage of alcohol across the wall of the stomach and small intestine into the bloodstream 1) Absorption Page Ref: 324 Level: Basic 2) Acid Page Ref: 339 Level: Basic 3) Alveoli Page Ref: 327 Level: Basic 4) Anticoagulant Page Ref: 333 Level: Basic

5) Artery Page Ref: 327 Level: Basic 6) Base Page Ref: 338 Level: Basic 7) Capillary Page Ref: 327 Level: Basic 8) Excretion Page Ref: 324 Level: Basic 9) Fuel cell detector Page Ref: 328 Level: Basic 10) Metabolism Page Ref: 323 Level: Basic 11) Oxidation Page Ref: 324 Level: Basic 12) pH Page Ref: 339 Level: Basic 13) Preservative Page Ref: 333 Level: Basic 14) Toxicologist Page Ref: 336 Level: Basic 15) Vein Page Ref: 327 Level: Basic Answers: 1) O 2) F 3) A 4) M 5) C 6) D 7) K 8) I 9) N 10) L 11) J 12) H 13) B 14) E 15) G

Chapter 13 Essay 1) List and describe the three stages of alcohol’s fate in the human body. Answer (should include points such as): The three stages are absorption, distribution, and elimination. • During absorption, a chemical substance enters the bloodstream. • During distribution, the blood carries the substance to all watery parts of the body. During elimination, the substance is excreted from the body. Alcohol is secreted from the body unchanged in breath, perspiration, and urine. Page Ref: 323-324 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Basic 2) What are alveoli and what role do they play in circulation? Answer (should include points such as): Alveoli are small sacs in the lungs through whose walls air and other gases are exchanged between the breath and the blood. At the surface of the alveolar sacs, blood flowing through the capillaries comes in contact with fresh oxygenated air in the sacs. Oxygen passes through the walls of the alveoli into the blood while carbon dioxide is discharged from the blood into the air. Page Ref: 325 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Intermediate 3) What is mouth alcohol and how does it affect the accuracy of a breath test? Name three potential sources of mouth alcohol. Answer (should include points such as): Mouth alcohol is alcohol present in a breath-test subject’s mouth. The presence of mouth alcohol can cause the alcohol concentration detected in exhaled breath to be higher than the actual concentration in the blood. Potential sources of mouth alcohol include regurgitation, belching, recent intake of an alcoholic beverage, and recent gargling of an alcohol-containing mouthwash. Page Ref: 328 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Difficult 4) Name and describe two divided-attention tasks administered during a field sobriety text. Answer (should include points such as): Walk and turn and the one-leg stand are divided-attention tasks. Walk and turn requires the suspect to maintain balance while standing heel-to-toe and at the same time listening to and comprehending the test instructions. During the walking stage, the suspect must walk a straight line, touching heel-to-toe for nine steps, then turn around on the line and repeat the process.

The one-leg stand requires the suspect to maintain balance while standing with heels together listening to the instructions. During the balancing stage, the suspect must stand on one foot while holding the other foot several inches off the ground for 30 seconds; simultaneously, the suspect must count out loud during the 30-second time period. Page Ref: 332 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Basic 5) When collecting postmortem blood samples for alcohol determination, why is it best to collect a number of blood samples from different body sites? Answer (should include points such as): It is best to collect a number of blood samples from different body sites because alcohol may be generated in a deceased individual as a result of bacterial action. Blood-alcohol levels attributed solely to alcohol consumption should result in nearly similar results for all blood samples collected from the same person. Page Ref: 333 Objective: Discuss the process involved in the analysis of blood for alcohol. Level: Difficult 6) What are acids and bases? How are they used to extract and categorize drugs? Answer (should include points such as): An acid is a compound capable of donating a hydrogen ion (H+) to another compound. A base is a compound capable of accepting a hydrogen ion (H+). By controlling the acidity or basicity of a water solution into which blood, urine, or tissues are dissolved, a toxicologist can control the type of drug that will be recovered. Acid drugs are easily extracted from an acidified water solution with organic solvents, while basic drugs are readily removed from a basic water solution with organic solvents. Page Ref: 338-339 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Basic 7) Explain the DRE program. Answer (should include points such as): The DRE, or drug recognition experts, program is a series of clinical and psychophysical examinations used by trained police officers to identify and differentiate between types of drug impairment. It incorporates standardized methods for examining suspects to determine what category of drug may be impairing performance. Strengths include: the toxicologist can often determine that a suspect has a particular drug in his or her body, the DRE can supply credible evidence that the suspect was impaired at a specific time, and the DRE can confirm that the nature of the impairment was consistent with a particular family of drugs. However, the DRE program usually cannot determine which specific drug was ingested. Page Ref: 343-345 Objective: Explain how to coordinate the drug recognition expert program with a forensic toxicology result. Level: Intermediate 463 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Explain the facts behind why a breath test for alcohol is an accurate representation of the alcohol content of the blood. Answer (should include points such as): A breath tester measures the alcohol content of alveolar breath. Alcohol is expelled, unchanged, in the breath of a person who has been drinking. A breath test measures the alcohol concentration in the pulmonary artery by measuring its concentration in alveolar breath. The ratio of alcohol in the blood to alcohol in alveolar breath is 2,100 to 1 at a mouth temperature of 34°C. Page Ref: 327-328 Objective: Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Basic 9) What organization recommended an “implied consent” law, and what does that law entail? Answer: The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHSTA) recommended an “implied consent” law to prevent a person’s refusal to take a test for alcohol intoxication on the constitutional grounds of self-incrimination. By 1973, all states complied with this recommendation. Page Ref: 334 Objective: Explain how the “implied consent” law recommended by the NHTSA addressed the constitutional issues raised against blood-alcohol laws. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 13 Critical Thinking 1) List and describe the functions of the three types of blood vessels in the circulatory system and the roles they play in metabolism of alcohol. The three types of blood vessels are arteries, veins, and capillaries. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, delivering oxygen to organs and distributing absorbed alcohol. Veins carry deoxygenated blood toward the heart and to the lungs where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged and alcohol is eliminated via the breath. Capillaries connect the arteries with the veins, taking up, distributing, and transferring alcohol. Page Ref: 325-326 Objective: Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion; Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs. Level: Intermediate 2) Following field sobriety testing, a driver is transported to the police station for an official breath alcohol test. Explain what safeguards and instrumental parameters must be in place before, during, and after the breath test to ensure its accuracy. Answer (should include points such as): • Before: Mouth alcohol could be present in a breath-test subject’s mouth. The presence of mouth alcohol can cause the alcohol concentration detected in exhaled breath to be higher than the actual concentration in the blood. Potential sources of mouth alcohol include regurgitation, belching, recent intake of an alcoholic beverage, and recent gargling of an alcohol-containing mouthwash. To avoid this possibility, the operator must not allow the 464 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

subject to take any foreign material into his or her mouth for at least fifteen minutes before the breath test. Also, if regurgitation or belching occur, the operator must wait fifteen to twenty minutes before testing. The instrument must also be properly calibrated and equipped with internal standard alcohol solutions. • During: The key to the accuracy of a breath-testing device is to ensure that the unit captures the alcohol in the alveolar breath (deep-lung breath) of the subject. This is typically accomplished by programming the unit to accept approximately 1.5 liters of breath from the subject. Also, the subject must blow for a minimum time with a minimum breath flow rate. Two separate tests are recommended. • After: Consecutive measurements must be taken. A slope detector is a device attached to a breath tester to ensure that the breath sample being measured is alveolar or deep-lung breath. As the subject blows into the instrument, the slope detector continuously monitors breath-alcohol concentration. The instrument accepts a breath sample only when consecutive measurements fall within a predetermined rate of change. Page Ref: 328 Objective: Describe the process by which alcohol is excreted in the breath via the lungs; Discuss the methods used to determine alcohol intoxication. Level: Difficult 3) What steps should be employed by a toxicologist in an analytical scheme to look for barbituates in a urine sample? What chemicals or instrumentation should be used at each step? Answer (should include points such as): The first task of a forensic toxicologist when establishing an analytical scheme to detect and identify drugs is to remove and isolate drugs and other toxic agents from the biological materials submitted as evidence. Screening and confirmation tests are then used to identify the isolated drug or drugs. • First, by controlling the acidity or basicity of a water solution into which blood, urine, or tissues are dissolved, a toxicologist can control the type of drug that will be recovered. Barbituates are acidic drugs. Acidic drugs are easily extracted from an acidified water solution with an organic solvent such as chloroform. • Second, a screening test gives quick insight into the likelihood that a specimen contains a drug substance. It allows a toxicologist to examine a large number of specimens within a short period of time for a wide range of drugs. The three most widely used screening tests are thin-layer chromatography (TLC), gas chromatography (GC), and immunoassay. • Third, a confirmation test identifies a specific drug or drugs. Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry is generally accepted as the confirmation test of choice. Page Ref: 338-340 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. Level: Difficult

4) A toxicologist is asked to draw conclusions about a subject’s drug-induced behavior. What factors aside from blood concentration levels can have an effect on the toxicologist’s findings? Answer: Factors in addition to blood concentration levels that must be considered before drawing conclusions about a subject’s drug-induced behavior include age, physical condition, the tolerance of the drug user, and the additive or synergistic effects caused by the interaction of two or more drugs. Page Ref: 342-343 Objective: Describe the role of the forensic toxicologist and the techniques they use to identify substances. ; Explain how alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream, transported throughout the body, and eliminated by oxidation and excretion. Level: Basic

Chapter 14 Metals, Paint, and Soil Chapter 14 Multiple Choice 1) What type of evidence would be expected to have trace elements? A) Glass and metal objects B) Paint and bullet fragments C) Soil and gun primer particles D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 351 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 2) In a simple emission spectrograph, excitation of the specimen under investigation is accomplished with a(n): A) Electrical arc. B) Inductive magnetic field. C) Hot plasma torch. D) Activated prism. Answer: A Page Ref: 357 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 3) The nucleus of an atom contains: A) Neutrons. B) Neutrons and electrons. C) Protons and electrons. D) Protons and neutrons. Answer: D Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 4) An element is selective in the frequency of light it will absorb. This selectivity is due to its: A) Number of neutrons. B) Proton cloud. C) Atomic mass. D) Electron energy levels. 467 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 357 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 5) Atoms having the same atomic number but different atomic masses are called: A) Isobars. B) Isotopes. C) Isotherms. D) Isomers. Answer: B Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 6) Which type of radiation is NOT given off by radioactive decay? A) X rays B) Gamma rays C) Beta particles D) Alpha particles Answer: A Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 7) Neutron activation analysis involves bombarding specimens with neutrons and then measuring the resultant: A) X rays. B) Gamma rays. C) Beta particles. D) Alpha particles. Answer: B Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 8) Which of the following is a non-destructive technique for identifying and quantifying trace elements in a test sample? A) Carbon arc emission spectrometry B) ICP emission spectrometry 468 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Neutron activation analysis D) Infrared spectrophotometry Answer: C Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 9) A “fingerprint” of an element is obtained by the technique of: A) Infrared spectrophotometry. B) Ultraviolet spectrophotometry. C) Gas chromatography. D) Emission spectroscopy. Answer: D Page Ref: 355 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 10) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Protons and neutron comprise the nucleus of an atom. B) The proton has a charge of +1. C) The neutron has no electrical charge. D) The electron and proton have the same mass. Answer: D Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Difficult 11) The atoms of hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium all have the same number of protons, but differ in the number of neutrons they possess. These substances are: A) Elements. B) Compounds. C) Molecules. D) Isotopes. Answer: D Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 12) In neutron activation analysis, an element is identified by measuring the energy of emitting: A) Protons. B) Electrons. 469 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Neutrons. D) Gamma rays. Answer: D Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 13) Gamma rays are: A) Electrons. B) Protons. C) Neutrons. D) Electromagnetic radiation. Answer: D Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 14) Which of the following statements is correct? A) All atoms of an element have the same atomic mass number. B) All atoms of an element have the same number of protons. C) All atoms of an electron have the same number of neutrons. D) All atoms of an element have an equal number of neutrons and electrons. Answer: B Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Difficult 15) The emission spectrograph is used to determine the: A) Mass of a substance. B) Weight of a substance. C) Crystalline structure of a substance. D) Elemental composition of a substance. Answer: D Page Ref: 356 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 16) Radioactivity is composed of: A) Alpha particles. B) Beta particles. 470 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Gamma rays. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 17) Paint as physical evidence is most frequently encountered in: A) Burglary. B) A hit-and-run. C) Car theft. D) Both A and B Answer: B Page Ref: 363 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 18) After examining small paint chips from an auto accident scene and using the PDQ database, the crime lab worker can determine the ________ of the vehicle. A) Model B) Make C) Year D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 367 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 19) What is NOT part of the composition of paint? A) Solvent B) Adhesive C) Pigment D) Binder Answer: B Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic 20) Which coating helps resist UV radiation and acid rain? A) Electrocoat primer B) Primer surface C) Basecoat D) Clearcoat 471 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 21) Which coating provides resistance to corrosion? A) Electrocoat primer B) Primer surface C) Basecoat D) Clearcoat Answer: A Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic 22) Which coat represents the “eye appeal”? A) Electrocoat primer B) Primer surface C) Basecoat D) Clearcoat Answer: C Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic 23) Which property imparts paint with its most distinctive forensic characteristics? A) Color-layer sequence B) Color C) Gloss D) Texture Answer: A Page Ref: 364 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 24) Paint binders can be chemically analyzed using: A) TLC. B) IR spectrophotometry. C) Pyrolysis GC. D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 365 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 472 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Paint chips may be individualized to a single source by examining their: A) Infrared spectra. B) Ultraviolet spectra. C) Color and layer structure. D) Pyrograms. E) Their relative size. Answer: C Page Ref: 365 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 26) The polymeric makeup of paint binders can readily be compared by: A) Emission spectroscopy. B) Thin-layer chromatography. C) Microscopy. D) Pyrolysis gas chromatography. Answer: D Page Ref: 365 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 27) Automobile finishes typically contain which layers? A) Colorcoat B) An electrocoat primer, colorcoat, and clearcoat C) Clearcoat D) Electrocoat primer and colorcoat Answer: B Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 28) What is the logical first step in soil analysis? A) Examination for presence of debris under low-power magnification B) Comparison of dried soil sample for color and texture C) Use of the density-gradient tube technique D) Examination of minerals and rocks under high-power magnification Answer: B Page Ref: 369 Objective: Discuss the processes in the forensic analysis of soil. Level: Intermediate 29) Which would be LEAST useful in identifying a mineral crystal? A) Size B) Color 473 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Geometric shape D) Refractive index Answer: A Page Ref: 370 Objective: Discuss the processes in the forensic analysis of soil. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 14 True/False 1) The presence of trace elements is useful because they provide markers that may establish the source of a material. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 351 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 2) A continuous spectrum is most helpful in identifying a particular element because it serves as a unique “fingerprint” of an element. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 3) The concentration of the absorbing element is directly proportional to the quantity of the light absorbed. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 357 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 4) Mutilated bullets are often not suitable for traditional microscopic comparisons against an exemplar test-fired bullet. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 5) Neutrons carry no charge. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 6) An atom has a net zero electrical charge, which indicates that it contains the same number of protons and electrons. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 7) Emission spectroscopy measures the frequency of light emitted by an atom when one of its electrons moves to a higher orbital. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 357 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 8) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of protons in their respective nuclei. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 475 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Isotopes have different atomic mass numbers. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 10) Alpha particles are a form of radiation consisting of electrons. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 11) Gamma rays are a high-energy form of electromagnetic radiation. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 12) The major advantage of neutron activation analysis is that it provides a nondestructive method for identifying and quantitating trace elements. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 13) Neutron activation analysis is favored in crime laboratories because of its low cost and ease of use. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 359

Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Intermediate 14) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called the atomic mass number. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 15) All atoms of an element have the same number of neutrons. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 16) After the paint has been applied to a surface, the solvent evaporates. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 17) The variety of coatings applied to the body of an automobile adds significant diversity to automobile paint and contributes to the forensic significance of automobile paint comparisons. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 363 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic 18) Surface texture is the most important of the characteristics that a criminalist looks for when comparing paint chips. A) True B) False

Answer: B Page Ref: 365 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 19) It is not necessary that the collected paint from a vehicle involved in a hit-and-run accident be close to the area of the car suspected of being in contact with the victim. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 368 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 20) The investigator should not try to remove trace paint evidence found on a tool but package the tool for laboratory examination instead. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 369 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic 21) The minerals found in different soil samples cannot effectively be used to determine whether or not they have the same origin. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 369 Objective: Discuss the processes in the forensic analysis of soil. Level: Intermediate 22) Standard/reference soil samples should be collected at the site of the crime at various intervals within a 100-foot radius of the crime scene. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 372 Objective: Describe the proper collection of soil evidence. Level: Intermediate 23) The first step in a forensic soil comparison is analysis of the size of the particles. A) True B) False

Answer: B Page Ref: 369 Objective: Discuss the processes in the forensic analysis of soil. Level: Intermediate 24) If soil is found adhering to an object, the investigator should remove the soil particles from the object and send them to the laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 372 Objective: Describe the proper collection of soil evidence. Level: Basic

Chapter 14 Fill in the Blank 1) A ________ element is an element found in very small quantities. Answer: Trace Page Ref: 351 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 2) Elements selectively absorb and emit ________. Answer: Light Page Ref: 354 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 3) A(n) ________ spectrum shows a continuous band of colors all blending into one another. Answer: Continuous Page Ref: 354 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Difficult 4) A(n) ________ spectrum shows a series of lines separated by black areas in which each line represents a definite wavelength of frequency. Answer: Line Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Difficult

5) ICP emission spectrophotometry can be used to obtain an ________ profile of a questioned bullet fragment for comparison against an unfired bullet found in the possession of the suspect. Answer: Elemental Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Difficult 6) The three basic subatomic particles are the proton, electron, and ________. Answer: Neutron Page Ref: 355 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 7) An electron moves to a ________-energy orbital when it absorbs energy, such as heat or light. Answer: Higher Page Ref: 357 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 8) ________ are atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons in their respective nuclei. Answer: Isotopes Page Ref: 358 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 9) ________ is the emission of radiation that accompanies the spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei. Answer: Radioactivity Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 10) The three types of radiation are alpha particles, beta particles, and ________ rays. Answer: Gamma Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Basic 480 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Alpha particles are a type of radiation composed of ________ atoms minus their orbiting electrons. Answer: Helium Page Ref: 359 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 12) When an electron moves to a lower-energy orbital, it ________ energy. Answer: Emits Page Ref: 357 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 13) ________ as physical evidence is most frequently encountered in hit-and-run cases. Answer: Paint Page Ref: 363 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 14) Paint specimens are best compared side by side under a ________ microscope. Answer: Stereoscopic Page Ref: 364 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic 15) When comparing paint chips under a microscope, a criminalist looks for color, surface texture, and ________ layer sequence. Answer: Color Page Ref: 364 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 16) A thorough comparison of paint must include a chemical analysis of the paint’s pigments and ________ composition. Answer: Binder Page Ref: 364 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 17) Pyrolysis gas chromatography produces a pattern or ________ of the polymers that identifies the specific chemical makeup of the binder. Answer: Pyrogram Page Ref: 365 481 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Difficult 18) A(n) ________ is a naturally occurring crystalline solid that can be identified by its physical properties. Answer: Mineral Page Ref: 370 Objective: Discuss the processes in the forensic analysis of soil. Level: Intermediate 19) Soil is collected as ________ to preserve a record of the buildup of several layers of soil from different locations over time. Answer: Lumps Page Ref: 372 Objective: Describe the proper collection of soil evidence. Level: Difficult

Chapter 14 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) An atom differing from another atom of the same element in the number of neutrons in its nucleus B) A type of emission spectrum showing a series of lines separated by black areas C) A particle with no electrical charge that is one of the basic structures in the nucleus of an atom D) The state in which an atom absorbs energy and an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level E) A negatively charged particle that is one of the fundamental structural units of the atom F) Light emitted from a source and separated into its component colors or frequencies G) The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom H) The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom I)

The path of electrons as they move around the nuclei of atoms

A positively charged particle that is one of the basic structures in the nucleus of an atom

1) Atomic mass Page Ref: 358 Level: Basic 2) Atomic number Page Ref: 357 Level: Basic

3) Electron Page Ref: 355 Level: Basic 4) Emission spectrum Page Ref: 354 Level: Basic 5) Isotope Page Ref: 358 Level: Basic 6) Line spectrum Page Ref: 355 Level: Basic 7) Neutron Page Ref: 355 Level: Basic 8) Proton Page Ref: 355 Level: Basic 9) Electron Orbital Page Ref: 357 Level: Basic 10) Excited State Page Ref: 357 Level: Basic Answers: 1) H 2) G 3) E 4) F 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) J 9) I 10) D

Chapter 14 Essay 1) Explain how the analysis of trace elements was important to the investigation of the assassination of President John. F. Kennedy. Answer (should include points such as): Bullets recovered from Kennedy’s brain, the wrist of Governor John Connally, and the car in which both were riding at the time of the assassination were found to have almost identical concentrations of the trace elements silver and antimony. This supports the conclusion that the bullets that struck Kennedy and Connally were fired by the same shooter. Page Ref: 352-354 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Basic 483 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) How does a nuclear reactor generate radioactive elements? Answer (should include points such as): In a nuclear reactor, a source of neutrons bombards the atoms of an element to create radioactive isotopes of that element. When the nucleus of an atom captures a bombarding neutron, a new isotope is formed and the nucleus is now said to be activated. Many activated nuclei immediately begin to decompose and emit radioactivity. Page Ref: 359-361 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Difficult 3) Describe the process of neutron activation analysis. How does the process allow a forensic scientist to identify an isotope? Answer (should include points such as): In neutron activation analysis, a forensic scientist measures the gamma-ray radioactivity produced by a specimen that has been bombarded with neutrons. This allows the forensic scientist to identify the sample because the gamma rays of each element are associated with specific and unique energy values. Page Ref: 359-361 Objective: Describe the Emission Spectrum of Elements as it relates to the analysis of trace evidence. Level: Intermediate 4) A suspect has been found miles from the scene of a murder. Soil is found adhering to the suspect’s shoe. Describe the proper collection and preservation of soil evidence that will permit a thorough comparison of the soil on the shoe to soil at the crime scene. Answer (should include points such as): • Do not remove soil from the shoes. Each object that has soil on it is to be packaged in a leak-proof container. • Collect representative control soils at the crime scene and at various locations within a 100-foot radius of the scene. Package in solid containers or druggist folds. • Collect soil at all possible alibi locations the suspects may claim. • Collect approximately 1 to 2 tablespoons of soil, top layer only. • Label all specimens collected. The evidence collector’s name or initials, the date, and sampling location are to be shown. All items collected are to be described in the evidence collector’s field notes. Page Ref: 372 Objective: Describe the proper collection of soil evidence. Level: Difficult

5) Describe the proper collection and preservation of paint evidence from an automobile suspected of being involved in a hit-and-run incident. Paint that is foreign to the suspect automobile is observed on the hood. Answer (should include points such as): • Scrape the foreign paint as well as all underlying layers of paint off of the car’s surface using a clean knife or scalpel. The scraping must clearly show the layer structure of the paint. • Obtain a control paint sample from an adjacent undamaged area of the car. Again, all layers must be included. • Package each paint specimen separately in a proper container. A druggist fold or a vial makes an excellent container. • Label all specimen containers. The evidence collector’s name or initials, the date, and the sampling location are to be shown. All items collected are to be described in the evidence collector’s field notes. Page Ref: 368-369 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Intermediate 6) Describe how you would conduct a visual examination of soil. What distinguishing characteristics would you look for? Answer (should include points such as): Most soils can be differentiated by their gross appearance. A side-by-side visual comparison of the color and texture of soil specimens is easy to perform. Compare the moisture content of the soil as well. A microscope may be used to reveal the presence of plant and animal materials as well as artificial debris. Minerals and rocks may also be characterized. Page Ref: 369 Objective: Discuss the processes in the forensic analysis of soil. Level: Basic 7) Loose soil, soil adhering to a garment, and lumps of soil adhered to a car are found at a crime scene. How must the investigator collect and package each? Answer (should include points such as): Approximately a tablespoon or two of soil in each sample is all the laboratory needs for a thorough comparative analysis. All specimens collected should be packaged in individual containers, such as plastic vials. Each vial should be marked to indicate the location at which the sampling was made. Soil found on a suspect must be carefully preserved for analysis. If it is found adhering to an object, as in the case of soil on a shoe, the investigator must not remove it. Instead, each object should be individually wrapped in paper, with the soil intact, and transmitted to the laboratory. Similarly, loose soil adhering to garments should not be removed; these items should be carefully and individually wrapped in paper bags and sent to the laboratory for analysis. Care must be taken that particles that may accidentally fall off the garment during transportation will remain in the paper bag. When a lump of soil is found, it should be collected and preserved intact. Care is taken to remove the soil in clump form to preserve the order in which the particles of soil adhered to the car and to the other soil on the car. Undoubtedly, during the normal use of an automobile, soil will be picked up from numerous locations over a period of months and years. This layering effect may impart soil with greater variation, and hence greater evidential value, than that normally associated with loose soil. 485 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 372 Objective: Describe the proper collection of soil evidence. Level: Difficult

Chapter 14 Critical Thinking 1) Using knowledge about the operation of ICP emission spectrophotometry, determine whether it could or could not be utilized for the following analyses: a. b. c. d. e. f. g.

analysis of metals in wine to determine area of origin detection of arsenic in a food sample carbon dating of a tree pulp sample analysis of trace metals in soil samples to determine area of origin analysis of hydrocarbons in a fuel mixture used to propel a hot air balloon identification of polymer binders in an automobile paint sample authentication of a bronze age weapon by component metal analysis

Answer: a. could b. could c. could not d. could e. could not f. could not g. could Page Ref: 357-358 Objective: Describe the utility of trace elements for forensic comparison of various types of physical evidence. Level: Difficult 2) Why must paint collected from a vehicle involved in a hit-and-run accident be taken from the area of the car suspected of being in contact with the victim? Answer (should include points such as): The collected paint must be close to the area of the car suspected of being in contact with the victim because other portions of the car’s paint may have faded or been repainted. Page Ref: 368 Objective: Explain how paint is examined, collected, and preserved in the laboratory. Level: Basic

Chapter 15 Forensic Serology Chapter 15 Multiple Choice 1) Which blood components are directly pertinent to the forensic aspects of blood identification? A) Platelets B) Blood serum C) Red blood cells D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 377 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 2) In routine blood banking, which antigen(s) must be determined in testing for compatibility? A) A B) B C) D D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Basic 3) Type AB blood contains: A) Anti-A antibodies and B antigens. B) Anti-A antigens and anti-B antibodies. C) Both A and B antigens. D) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 4) The sensitivity of the Takayama and Teichmann crystal tests for the identification of bloodstains is ________ the sensitivity of the Kastle-Meyer color test for bloodstain identification. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than D) None of the above 487 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: C Page Ref: 385 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 5) To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or animal origin, the serologist will perform: A) A precipitin test. B) The luminol test. C) An analysis with Hemastix strips. D) RIA. Answer: A Page Ref: 385 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 6) Which type of cells are NOT contained in plasma? A) Phagocytes B) Leukocytes C) Erythrocytes D) Platelets Answer: A Page Ref: 377 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 7) The amount of acid phosphatase in seminal fluid is ________ the amount of acid phosphatase in blood. A) Greater than B) The same as C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 390 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Intermediate 8) PSA (p30) is a: A) Polymorphic enzyme found in red blood cells. B) Protein found in seminal plasma. C) Blood enzyme used to discriminate bloodstains. D) Protein specific to females. Answer: B Page Ref: 392 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Basic 488 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Evidence to substantiate that a rape occurred could include: A) Blood and semen. B) Hairs. C) Fibers. D) All of the above. Answer: D Page Ref: 392-393 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Basic 10) A gene pair made up of two similar alleles – for example, AA and BB – is said to be: A) Heterozygous. B) Monoclonal. C) Complementary. D) Homozygous. Answer: D Page Ref: 388 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Basic 11) Luminol can be used at crime scenes to: A) Detect traces of blood without compromising potential DNA typing. B) Make hair evidence fluoresce. C) Light up the crime scene with a high degree of illumination. D) Locate latent prints that otherwise would be overlooked. Answer: A Page Ref: 384 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Basic 12) Buccal cells are obtained from: A) Semen. B) The inside of the cheek. C) Urine. D) Blood. Answer: B Page Ref: 395 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Basic 13) The presence or absence of how many antigens determines an individual’s blood type in the A-B-O system? A) 0 B) 1 489 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) 2 D) 3 Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 14) An individual who is type O has: A) O antibodies. B) A antibodies. C) B antibodies. D) Neither A nor B antibodies. Answer: D Page Ref: 379 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 15) Where are antibodies found? A) In the red blood cells B) In the white blood cells C) In the solid portion of blood D) In the blood serum Answer: D Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 16) If blood is found to have both A and B antigens, it is typed as: A) A. B) B. C) AB. D) O. Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 17) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Semen is unequivocally identified by the presence of spermatozoa. B) The likelihood of finding seminal acid phosphatase in vaginal swabs decreases with time. C) Spermatozoa can be found in the vagina of a living female after 3 days. D) Semen will typically not contain the enzyme p30.

Answer: D Page Ref: 392 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Difficult 18) A stain can tentatively be identified as blood by: A) The benzidine test. B) The luminol test. C) The phenolphthalein test. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 381, 384 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 19) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Dried bloodstains may tentatively be identified as blood by a color test. B) All bloods contain the enzyme hemoglobin. C) A-B-O antigens are present in all human blood. D) The Kastle-Meyer test is used to determine whether blood is of human origin. Answer: D Page Ref: 381 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Difficult 20) EMIT is NOT a(n): A) Highly specific process to identify drugs in blood. B) Immunological assay technique that utilizes antibodies. C) Speedy test to detect methadone in urine. D) Screening test for suspected marijuana smoking. Answer: A Page Ref: 382 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 21) What is true about monoclonal antibodies? A) They are produced utilizing rapidly multiplying blood-cancer cells. B) They are produced by injecting a mouse with an antigen. C) They are expected to be medicine’s version of the “magic bullet.” D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 384 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 491 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) ________ transport oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and carry carbon dioxide back to the lungs. A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Alveoli D) Lymphocytes Answer: A Page Ref: 377 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Basic 23) The D antigen is also known as the ________ antigen. A) Monoclonal B) X C) AB D) Rh Answer: D Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Basic 24) The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody is known as: A) Radioimmunology. B) Clotting. C) Agglutination. D) Serology. Answer: C Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Basic 25) In which phenotype pairings can the genotypes of the individuals be directly known? A) Type AB and type O B) Type A and type B C) Type B and type O D) Type A and type AB Answer: A Page Ref: 389 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate

26) Paternity testing is done involving a woman with type AB blood who has accused a man with type B blood of fathering her child who has tested AB. What can be determined in this case? A) The male is definitely NOT the father of the child. B) The male could have fathered the child. C) The male definitely IS the father of the child. D) The child cannot belong to this mother. Answer: B Page Ref: 389 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate 27) What approximate percentage of the population is type B? A) 80 percent B) 41 percent C) 38 percent D) 15 percent Answer: D Page Ref: 381 Objective: Explain the application of serology in typing whole blood. Level: Intermediate 28) A precipitin test can be used to identify: A) Human blood. B) Dog blood. C) Cat blood. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 385 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 29) One parent is type AB; the other parent is type O. A possible genotype for an offspring is: A) AB B) OO C) AO D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 389 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate 30) When an animal is injected with an antigen, the animal will respond by producing: A) Polyclonal antibodies. B) Monoclonal antibodies. 493 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) Agglutinates. D) Both A and B Answer: A Page Ref: 383 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate 31) During the production of monoclonal antibodies, which step is NOT followed? A) Inject an animal with the antigen of interest. B) Remove the animal’s spleen cells. C) Fuse the spleen cells to malignant blood cells. D) All of the above are followed. Answer: D Page Ref: 384 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate 32) Acid-phosphatase is a major constituent of: A) Blood. B) Semen. C) Saliva. D) Perspiration. Answer: B Page Ref: 390 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Basic 33) The presence of ________ indicates that a stain is seminal in nature. A) PGM B) Peroxidase C) p30 D) DNA Answer: C Page Ref: 392 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Basic

Chapter 15 True/False 1) The blood factors belonging to the A-B-O system are the most important for properly matching a donor and recipient for a transfusion. A) True B) False Answer: A 494 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Basic 2) People with type O blood have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 3) The most common color test for bloodstains is Luminol. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 381 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 4) Microcrystalline tests are far less sensitive than color tests for blood identification. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 385 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 5) Gel diffusion takes advantage of the fact that antibodies and antigens move toward one another on a plate. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 386 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 6) Aspermia is an abnormally low sperm count. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 391 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Basic

7) The presence of prostate specific antigen (PSA) or p30 is useful for identifying a sample stain containing semen. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 392 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Basic 8) Non-motile sperm generally survive for up to four to six hours in the vaginal cavity of a living female. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 396 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Intermediate 9) Chromosomes are the basic units of heredity. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 387 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate 10) Most human cells contain 46 chromosomes, arranged in 23 mated pairs. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 387 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Basic 11) A heterozygous gene pair is made up of two different alleles while a homozygous gene pair is made up of two similar alleles. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 388 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Basic

12) When two different genes are inherited, the characteristic coded for by a recessive gene is expressed. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 388 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Basic 13) Biological evidence should be packaged in plastic or airtight containers. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 393 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Intermediate 14) One of the most frequent uses of the EMIT technique in forensic laboratories has been for screening the urine of suspected marijuana smokers. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 382 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 15) The reaction of luminol with blood results in the production of color rather than light. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 384 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 16) Information about when the victim last had consensual sex is not useful for evaluating the significance of findings during a possible rape examination. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 396 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Intermediate

17) Type O blood is the most common in the United States. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 381 Objective: Explain the application of serology in typing whole blood. Level: Basic 18) An antigen is a protein that destroys or inactivates a specific antibody. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 377 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 19) Polyclonal antibodies are more useful than monoclonal antibodies for the forensic scientist. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 384 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 20) Human bloodstains dried for years may still give a positive reaction for a precipitin test. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 386 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 15 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ is the fluid portion of the blood. Answer: Plasma Page Ref: 377 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Basic 2) A(n) ________ is a protein in the blood serum that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen. Answer: Antibody Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 498 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) When serum containing B antibodies is added to red blood cells carrying the B antigen, the blood ________. Answer: Agglutinates Page Ref: 378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Difficult 4) ________ is the study of antigen and serum antibody reactions. Answer: Serology Page Ref: 379 Objective: Explain the application of serology in typing whole blood. Level: Basic 5) The standard test used to determine whether blood is of human or animal origin is the ________ test. Answer: Precipitin Page Ref: 385 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 6) The best way to locate and characterize a ________ stain is to perform the acid phosphatase test. Answer: Seminal Page Ref: 390 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Intermediate 7) ________ is the absence of sperm, or sterility in males. Answer: Aspermia Page Ref: 391 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Basic 8) Type ________ blood is the least common. Answer: AB Page Ref: 381 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 9) One of the most frequent uses of EMIT in forensic laboratories has been for screening the urine of suspected ________ users. Answer: Marijuana Page Ref: 372 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Difficult

10) Monoclonal antibodies bind to ________ antibody site(s). Answer: One Page Ref: 384 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions. Level: Difficult 11) A(n) ________ is the particular combination of genes present in the cells of an individual. Answer: Genotype Page Ref: 389 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Basic 12) Two commonly used ________ tests for blood are the Kastle-Meyer test and the Hemastix test. Answer: Color Page Ref: 381 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Basic 13) The reaction of luminol with blood results in the production of ________ rather than color. Answer: Light Page Ref: 384 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate 14) Rape evidence should be packaged separately in ________ bags. Answer: Paper Page Ref: 393 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Difficult 15) Spermatozoa can be difficult to locate because they are bound tightly to ________ materials. Answer: Cloth Page Ref: 390 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Difficult

Chapter 15 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) A protein that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen B) An abnormally low sperm count C) The liquid that separates from the blood when a clot is formed D) The physical manifestation of a genetic trait such as shape, color, and blood type E) A structure in the cell nucleus composed of DNA, along which the genes are located 500 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

F) A substance that stimulates the body to produce antibodies against it G) The basic unit of heredity, consisting of a DNA segment located on a chromosome H) The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody I)

The male sex chromosome

An enzyme found in high concentration in semen

K) The female sex chromosome L) The fluid portion of unclotted blood M) Any of several alternative forms of a gene located at the same point on a particular pair of chromosomes N) The absence of sperm cells in semen O) The particular combination of genes present in the cells of an individual 1) Acid phosphatase Page Ref: 390 Level: Intermediate 2) Agglutination Page Ref: 378 Level: Intermediate 3) Allele Page Ref: 388 Level: Intermediate 4) Chromosome Page Ref: 387 Level: Intermediate 5) Gene Page Ref: 387 Level: Intermediate 6) Antibody Page Ref: 378 Level: Intermediate 7) Antigen Page Ref: 377 Level: Intermediate 8) Aspermia Page Ref: 391 Level: Intermediate

9) Oligospermia Page Ref: 391 Level: Intermediate 10) Plasma Page Ref: 377 Level: Intermediate 11) Serum Page Ref: 377 Level: Intermediate 12) Genotype Page Ref: 389 Level: Intermediate 13) Phenotype Page Ref: 389 Level: Intermediate 14) X chromosome Page Ref: 387 Level: Intermediate 15) Y chromosome Page Ref: 387 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) J 2) H 3) M 4) E 5) G 6) A 7) F 8) N 9) B 10) L 11) C 12) O 13) D 14) K 15) I

Chapter 15 Essay 1) The victim of a rape is found dead in her apartment. Describe the proper collection and preservation of the semen-stained clothing. Emphasize the proper collection of controls from the victim and suspect. Answer (should include points such as): 2) Each article of the victim’s clothing must be separately wrapped and placed in a wellventilated container, such as a paper bag. Other items suspected of containing semen must be packaged in a similar manner. Refrigerate the container or store it in a cool location out of direct sunlight until delivery to the laboratory. 3) The evidence collector must handle the clothing with a minimal amount of personal contact. All body fluids must be assumed to be infectious; hence, wearing disposable latex gloves while handling the evidence is required. Latex gloves will also significantly reduce the possibility that the evidence collector will contaminate the evidence. 4) Care must be taken so as not to fold an article of clothing through a suspect seminal stain or to allow the stain to rub against the surface of the packaging material. 502 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Have a physician or nurse collect a minimum of 20 cc. of blood from the victim and all suspects in a vacuum tube containing the anticoagulant EDTA. This blood will be used for DNA and possible toxicological testing. Alternatively, a buccal swab can be obtained from each individual for DNA typing. 6) Collect approximately 15-20 cut pubic hairs and 25 full-length cut head hairs from both the victim and the suspect(s). 7) Label all evidence containers. The evidence collector’s name or initials, the date, and the sampling locations are to be shown. All items collected are to be described in the evidence collector’s field notes. Page Ref: 393-396 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Difficult 2) What type of packaging should NOT be used for biological evidence? Why? What type of packaging should be used instead for articles containing biological evidence? Answer (should include points such as): Biological evidence should not be packaged in plastic or airtight containers, because accumulation of residual moisture could contribute to the growth of DNA-destroying bacteria and fungi. Articles containing biological evidence should be packaged separately in a paper bag or in a well-ventilated box. Page Ref: 396 Objective: Describe the collection and analysis of physical evidence in a rape investigation. Level: Intermediate 3) To determine the human or non-human origin of a blood sample, the forensic scientist needs antibodies for each species of interest. Briefly describe how antibodies capable of reacting are produced in animals. Answer (should include points such as): To produce antibodies capable of reacting with drugs, the analyst first combines a specific drug with a protein and injects this combination into an animal such as a rabbit. This drugprotein complex acts as an antigen, stimulating the animal to produce antibodies. The recovered blood serum of the animal now contains antibodies that are specific or nearly specific to the drug. Page Ref: 383-384 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Basic 4) What is the difference between an antibody and an antigen? What happens when an antibody reacts with its specific antigen? Answer (should include points such as): An antigen is a substance that stimulates the body to produce antibodies against it. An antibody is a protein that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen. Antibodies are found in the blood serum, and antigens are found on red blood cells. When an antibody reacts with its specific antigen, agglutination occurs, where the red blood cells clump together. Page Ref: 377-378 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen-antibody interactions. Level: Intermediate 503 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The most widespread application of serology is the typing of whole blood for its A-B-O identity. Why do these tests matter to the forensic scientist? Answer (should include points such as): The identification of natural antibodies present in blood offers another route to the determination of blood type. Based on the blood type of a sample, it may be useful information to exclude a suspect, or narrow down a pool of suspects. Page Ref: 380 Objective: Explain the application of serology in typing whole blood. Level: Basic 6) An individual’s father has a genotype of Tt at one locus. The mother has a genotype of TT. What are the possible genotypes for their child? Identify the likelihood of inheriting each specific genotype, and if each type is homozygous or heterozygous. Answer: Possible genotypes for the child are TT and Tt. TT is homozygous and Tt is heterozygous. There is a 50% chance the child will have a TT genotype, and a 50% chance of having a Tt genotype. Page Ref: 388 Objective: Discuss the principles of heredity. Level: Intermediate 7) A forensic scientist is examining a pair of underwear with a suspected seminal stain. What tests should she perform on the underwear? What does a positive reaction for each test indicate? Answer (should include points such as): The acid phosphatase test should be conducted first. This test identifies the presence of acid phosphatase, an enzyme that is secreted by the prostate gland into seminal fluid. Next, a microscopic examination would be conducted to identify spermatozoa. Lastly, the prostate specific antigen test should be conducted to identify the presence of PSA, a protein that is predominant in semen. Page Ref: 390-392 Objective: Summarize the laboratory tests necessary to characterize seminal stains. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 15 Critical Thinking 1) Three blood samples are exposed to the antiserums shown below with the given reactions. Based on these results, determine the ABO/Rh blood type of each sample.

Blood Sample 1

Blood Sample 2

Blood Sample 3

Anti-A

Agglutinates

No reaction

Anti-B

Agglutinates

No reaction

Agglutinates

Anti-D

No reaction

Agglutinates

Answer: Blood Sample 1 = O + Blood Sample 2 = AB – Blood Sample 3 = A – Page Ref: 380 Objective: Explain the nature of blood and the concept of antigen–antibody interactions.; Explain the application of serology in typing whole blood. Level: Intermediate 2) What three questions must the criminalist answer when examining dried blood? Which tests or analysis tools can be used to answer each question? Answer (should include points such as): The criminalist must answer the following questions when examining dried blood: (1) Is it blood? (2) From what species did the blood originate? (3) If the blood is human, how closely can it be associated with a particular individual? To answer (1), color testing, Hemastix, Luminol, Bluestar reagent, or microcrystalline tests may be used. To answer (2), precipitin testing in a test tube or via gel diffusion may be used. To answer (3), DNA profiling is used. Page Ref: 381 Objective: Describe forensic tests used to characterize a stain as blood. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 16 DNA: The Indispensable Forensic Science Tool Chapter 16 Multiple Choice 1) The technology of DNA typing had its beginnings in 1985 with the work of: A) Henry Lee. B) Francis Crick. C) James Watson. D) Alec Jeffreys. Answer: D Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate 2) DNA is a(n): A) Protein. B) Starch. C) Polymer. D) Enzyme. Answer: C Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 3) The molecular structure of DNA was deduced by: A) Gregor Mendel. B) Francis Crick. C) James Watson. D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate 4) Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide? A) Phosphorous-containing group B) Double helix C) Sugar D) Nitrogenous base Answer: B Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 506 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Which nitrogenous base is NOT found in DNA? A) Thymine B) Cytosine C) Uracil D) Adenine Answer: C Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 6) Which component of DNA forms the backbone of the molecule? A) Phosphate group B) Nitrogenous base C) Sugar D) Both A and C Answer: D Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 7) Which of the following depicts correct base-pairing in DNA? A) A-U B) G-A C) T-A D) C-T Answer: C Page Ref: 402 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 8) The building blocks of the DNA molecule are known as: A) Amino acids. B) Nucleotides. C) Polysaccharides. D) Hydrocarbons. Answer: B Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 9) In DNA replication, polymerases: A) Enable the strands to unwind from the helix. B) Help assemble the new DNA strands in proper base sequence. C) Separate the strands of the double helix. D) All of the above 507 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 10) PCR is a technique that: A) Provides a statistical analysis of the nitrogenous-base pairings. B) Can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA. C) Produces information regarding the sequence of nitrogenous bases. D) Virtually eliminates operator error from DNA analysis. Answer: B Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 11) The PCR technique requires the use of a thermal cycler to: A) Synthesize protein. B) Copy DNA. C) Make probes radioactive. D) Hydrolyze polymerase. Answer: B Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 12) In the PCR process, the first step is to heat the DNA strands. This is to permit the: A) DNA to coil very tightly in the helical shape. B) Process to take place without DNA degradation. C) Hybridization to take place. D) Double-stranded molecules to separate completely. Answer: D Page Ref: 406 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 13) Amplifying DNA using the Thermal Cycler takes approximately: A) 30 cycles. B) 4 cycles. C) 2 hours. D) 2 minutes. 508 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 405 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 14) What is an advantage of working with short DNA fragments? A) They are more stable and less likely to break apart. B) Their quantity can be greatly amplified by PCR technology. C) They are less subject to degradation due to adverse environmental conditions. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 407 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 15) STR analysis has replaced other DNA typing techniques because it: A) Is less subject to sample degradation. B) Requires a smaller sample size. C) Can be implemented using the PCR. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 16) The separation of STRs using capillary electrophoresis: A) Evolved from the flat-gel electrophoresis approach. B) Decreases analysis time. C) Is currently the preferred method. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 17) Which statement is NOT true? Few forensic labs do analysis of mtDNA because: A) Little mtDNA is present in a cell. B) The analysis procedure is very rigorous. C) It costs much more than nuclear DNA profiling. D) Such study takes a long time. Answer: A Page Ref: 417 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate 509 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Means to detect the amelogenin gene are included in commercial STR kits used in crime labs because the gene allows determination of: A) Ethnicity. B) Blood type. C) Gender. D) Eye color. Answer: C Page Ref: 413 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 19) The discriminating power of mtDNA is ________ the discriminating power of STR analysis. A) Greater than B) The same as C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 415 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate 20) CODIS is a national system of: A) Computers to track the movement of sex offenders released from prison. B) Shared databases of DNA typing information from convicted felons and crime-scene evidence. C) Vastly enhanced 911 emergency systems. D) Crime laboratory directors. Answer: B Page Ref: 403 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Basic 21) HV1 and HV2 are: A) Restriction enzymes. B) STR types. C) Types of viruses. D) Regions of mtDNA. Answer: D Page Ref: 417 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate

22) Y-STR markers are useful when multiple males are involved in a sexual assault. If three men are involved in such an attack the investigators would expect Y-STR analysis to show a maximum of: A) Eight peaks. B) Three peaks. C) Six peaks. D) Four peaks. Answer: C Page Ref: 414 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 23) How many different bases are associated with the makeup of DNA? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 24) Assume that two strands of DNA have been separated and that the base sequence on one strand is ATGC. What is the sequence of bases on the second strand? A) GCAT B) ACTC C) TGGC D) TACG Answer: D Page Ref: 402 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate 25) The concept of simultaneously extracting, amplifying, and detecting a combination of STRs is known as: A) PCR. B) THO1. C) Multiplexing. D) Electrophoresis. Answer: C Page Ref: 411 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate

26) Which statement is INCORRECT regarding Y-STRs? A) Female STRs will not yield a Y-STR profile. B) Y-STRs can be amplified by PCR. C) Y-STR types are typically shorter in length as compared to X-STRs. D) A typical Y-STR pattern has one band. Answer: C Page Ref: 413 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Difficult 27) Which statement about mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT? A) Mitochondrial DNA is located outside the cell’s nucleus. B) Mitochondrial DNA is constructed in a loop configuration. C) Many copies of mitochondrial DNA’s hypervariable regions are made by PCR. D) The number of repeat segments found in the hypervariable regions are used to type mitochondrial DNA. Answer: D Page Ref: 417 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Difficult 28) What are examples of polymers that contain repeating units known as nucleotides? A) Hemoglobin B) Starch C) Cellulose D) DNA Answer: D Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 29) The production of amino acid is coded by a sequence of how many bases on the DNA molecule? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: B Page Ref: 403 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Intermediate

30) Portions of the DNA molecule useful for DNA typing: A) Code for the production of proteins. B) Are useful for recombinant DNA. C) Are repeated many times. D) Are useful for the production of insulin. Answer: C Page Ref: 405 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Basic 31) The specific proteins produced by a cell are directly related to the: A) Sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of the cell. B) Number of mitochondria in the cell. C) Length of the chromosomes. D) Sequence of sugars and phosphates in the cell. Answer: A Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Intermediate 32) What is the number of nitrogenous bases needed to code for a specific amino acid? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Page Ref: 403 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Basic 33) Information from the Human Genome Project will: A) Help reveal the role and implications of evolution. B) Be useful for diagnosing and treating genetic diseases. C) Reveal the location of a gene on a particular chromosome. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Basic

34) The individuality of an organism is determined by the organism’s: A) DNA nucleotide sequence. B) Nitrogenous bases. C) Amino acids. D) Environment. Answer: A Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Intermediate 35) In which hereditary disease does abnormal hemoglobin differ from normal hemoglobin by only a single amino acid? A) Phenylketonuria B) Hemophilia C) Sickle-cell anemia D) Albinism Answer: C Page Ref: 403 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Intermediate 36) Which statement about tandem repeats is NOT true? A) More than 30% of the human genome is composed of these repeating units. B) Their origin is a mystery. C) It is thought that they may act as spacers between the coded regions of DNA. D) They are of no forensic interest. Answer: D Page Ref: 405 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Difficult 37) Which statement regarding STRs is true? A) Restriction enzymes are used to cut STRs from the DNA helix. B) There is little variation in the number of repeats from person to person. C) All humans have the same type of STRs. D) Typically a core repeat sequence would consist of 15-30 bases. Answer: C Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Difficult

Use this DNA STR pattern of evidence from a rape investigation to answer the following question(s). Semen Recovered Blood of Victim

from Victim

Blood taken from Suspect A

Blood taken from Suspect B

Blood taken from Suspect C

_________ _________ _________ _________ _________ _________ _________ _________ _________

38) The evidence suggests which suspect raped the victim? A) Suspect A B) Suspect B C) Suspect C D) The evidence shows that none of these suspects is a match. Answer: D Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 39) Note that suspect B has only one band in his lane. This is most likely an indication that: A) He is homozygous for the gene. B) He is trisomic for the trait. C) His DNA was contaminated during the collection process. D) He is heterozygous for the gene. Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 515 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) The rate at which large DNA fragments move through the electrophoretic gel is ________ the rate at which small DNA fragments move through the same apparatus. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 41) Each cycle of the DNA Thermal Cycler takes approximately: A) 30 seconds. B) 4 hours. C) 2 hours. D) 2 minutes. Answer: D Page Ref: 406 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 42) STRs normally consist of repeating sequences of: A) 13-17 bases. B) 18-2 bases. C) 3-7 bases. D) 8-12 bases. Answer: C Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 43) The amount of DNA material required for STR analysis is ________ the amount of DNA required for RFLP analysis. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate

44) DNA analysts are able to examine samples containing as few as ________ cells for an STR profile. A) 18 B) 36 C) 180 D) 800 Answer: A Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 45) ________ region(s) of mitochondrial DNA have been found to be highly variable in the human population for forensic determinations. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Page Ref: 417 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Basic 46) Small amounts of blood are best submitted to a crime laboratory: A) Immediately while still wet. B) In a druggists fold. C) After dried. D) After removal from surface of deposition and rehydration. Answer: C Page Ref: 419 Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Basic 47) How should blood-containing clothes from a victim be packaged? A) In an airtight metal container B) In an airtight clear plastic container C) In a metal paint can D) In breathable paper after blood has dried Answer: D Page Ref: 419 Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Basic 517 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) A typical STR DNA type emanating from a single individual shows a ________-band pattern. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 0 Answer: B Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 49) A conventional STR profile emanating from a mixture of DNA from male donors yields four peaks or bands for each locus present. How many peaks or bands would you normally expect for each locus if a Y-STR profile is performed on the same sample? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four Answer: B Page Ref: 413 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 50) Electrophoresis can be used in the crime lab to analyze: A) DNA. B) Proteins. C) dried blood. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Basic

Chapter 16 True/False 1) James Watson and Francis Crick are credited with discovering the structure of DNA. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate

2) The four bases on the DNA molecule are paired with A opposite T and G opposite C. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 402 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 3) Longer DNA strands are more stable and less subject to degradation than shorter strands. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 407 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate 4) A short tandem repeat (STR) is a region of a DNA molecule that contains short segments consisting of 50-100 repeating base pairs. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 5) The greater the number of STRs characterized, the smaller the frequency of occurrence of the analyzed sample in the general population. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 6) Mitochondrial DNA is found in the nucleus of each cell and is inherited from both parents. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 415 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate 7) Mitochondrial DNA analysis is significantly more sensitive than nuclear DNA profiling. A) True B) False 519 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate 8) Proteins are formed by linking a combination of nucleotides. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 9) PCR are regions of a chromosome that contain multiple copies of a core DNA sequence arranged in a repeating fashion. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 404 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 10) Tandem repeats are useful for forensic scientists because they provide a way to distinguish one individual from another through DNA typing. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 405 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Basic 11) STR analysis is the most successful and widely used DNA profiling procedure. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 12) The more STRs a forensic scientist can characterize, the greater is the likelihood that they originated from two different individuals. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 410 520 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 13) The X-STR gene can reveal the sex of the person who contributed a DNA sample. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 413 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Basic 14) Mitochondrial DNA is arranged in a circular loop of bases, while nuclear DNA is arranged in a continuous strand of bases. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 415 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate 15) Blood in soil must be stored in a clean glass or plastic container and immediately frozen. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 420 Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Intermediate 16) The synthesis of new DNA from existing DNA is known as hybridization. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Basic 17) Capillary electrophoresis is the preferred technology for characterization of STRs. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 521 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Collected swabs must NOT be packaged in a wet state. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 419 Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Intermediate 19) Buccal cells are derived from the inner cheek lining. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 420 Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Basic 20) Electrophoresis is widely used in the characterization of proteins and DNA in dried blood. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Basic

Chapter 16 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ is the molecule that carries the body’s genetic information. Answer: DNA Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 2) A ________ is a threadlike structure in the cell nucleus along which the genes are located. Answer: Chromosome Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 3) DNA is a large molecule called a polymer, created by linking a series of repeating units known as ________. Answer: Nucleotides Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Difficult 522 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The four bases associated with DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and ________. Answer: Thymine Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate 5) ________ repeats are regions of a chromosome that contain multiple copies of a core DNA sequence arranged in a repeating fashion. Answer: Tandem Page Ref: 405 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Difficult 6) The ________ gene is often used to determine the sex of a DNA contributor. Answer: Amelogenin Page Ref: 413 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Difficult 7) Decoding the human ________ can be useful for diagnosing and treating genetic diseases. Answer: Genome Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Intermediate 8) ________ is a technique for replicating or copying a portion of a DNA strand outside a living cell. Answer: PCR Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Basic 9) ________ is a technique that simultaneously detects more than one STR in a single DNA analysis. Answer: Multiplexing Page Ref: 411 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 10) ________ are male-specific and are useful for characterizing multiple-male DNA mixtures. Answer: Y-STRs Page Ref: 413 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Basic 523 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) ________ present in soil rapidly degrade DNA. Answer: Microbes Page Ref: 420 Objective: List and necessary procedures for proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Difficult 12) The sequence of ________ acids in a protein chain determines the shape and function of the protein. Answer: Amino Page Ref: 403 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Intermediate 13) The ________ is the fundamental unit of heredity. Answer: Gene Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic 14) DNA ________ are enzymes that assemble a new DNA strand in the proper base sequence determined by the original or parent DNA strand. Answer: Polymerases Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Difficult 15) ________ is the process of joining two complementary strands of DNA to form a doublestranded molecule. Answer: Hybridization Page Ref: 407 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Intermediate 16) ________ is a technique for the separation of molecules through their migration on a support medium while under the influence of an electrical potential. Answer: Electrophoresis Page Ref: 408 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 16 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) A technique for separating molecules through their migration on a support medium while under the influence of an electrical potential B) Different fragment lengths of base pairs that result from cutting a DNA molecule with restriction enzymes C) A genetic locus useful for determining gender D) Small structures outside the nucleus that supply energy to the cell E) Cells derived from the inner cheek lining F) The building blocks of proteins G) A technique that simultaneously detects more than one DNA marker in a single analysis H) An unstained object adjacent to an area on which biological material has been deposited I)

A technique for replicating or copying a portion of a DNA strand outside a living cell

A rod-like structure in the cell nucleus composed of DNA, along which the genes are located

K) A repeating unit of DNA consisting of one of four bases—adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine—attached to a phosphate—sugar group L) The process of joining two complementary strands of DNA to form a double-stranded molecule M) A region of a DNA molecule that contains short segments of three to seven repeating base pairs N) A short strand of DNA used to target a region of DNA for replication by PCR O) DNA from skin cells transferred onto the surface of an object by simple contact 1) Amelogenin gene Page Ref: 413 Level: Intermediate 2) Amino acids Page Ref: 403 Level: Intermediate 3) Buccal cells Page Ref: 420 Level: Intermediate 4) Chromosome Page Ref: 401 Level: Intermediate 5) Electrophoresis Page Ref: 406 Level: Intermediate 525 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Hybridization Page Ref: 407 Level: Intermediate 7) Mitochondria Page Ref: 415 Level: Intermediate 8) Multiplexing Page Ref: 411 Level: Intermediate 9) Nucleotide Page Ref: 401 Level: Intermediate 10) Polymerase Chain Reaction Page Ref: 404 Level: Intermediate 11) Primer Page Ref: 407 Level: Intermediate 12) Short tandem repeat (STR) Page Ref: 410 Level: Intermediate 13) Substrate control Page Ref: 419 Level: Intermediate 14) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLPs) Page Ref: 406 Level: Intermediate 15) Touch DNA Page Ref: 418 Level: Intermediate Answers: 1) C 2) F 3) E 4) J 5) A 6) L 7) D 8) G 9) K 10) I 11) N 12) M 13) H 14) B 15) O

Chapter 16 Essay 1) What is CODIS? How is CODIS useful to forensic scientists? Answer (should include points such as): CODIS (Combined DNA Index System) is a computer software program developed by the FBI that maintains local, state, and national databases of DNA profiles from convicted 526 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

offenders, unsolved crime scene evidence, and profiles of missing people. CODIS is useful to forensic scientists because it allows them to compare DNA types recovered from crime scene evidence to those of convicted sex offenders, other convicted criminals, missing persons, and unsolved crimes. Page Ref: 403 Objective: Explain how the amino acid sequence in a protein chain is determined by the structure of DNA. Level: Basic 2) Describe the process of DNA replication. What is the importance of DNA replication? Answer (should include points such as): DNA replication begins with the unwinding of the DNA strands in the double helix. Each strand is then exposed to a collection of free nucleotides. The double helix is re-created as the nucleotides are assembled in the proper order (A with T and G with C). The result is the emergence of two identical copies of DNA. DNA replication allows a cell to pass on its genetic identity when it divides. Page Ref: 404 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Difficult 3) List two advantages STRs have over restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs). Answer (should include points such as): The shorter DNA strands found in STRs are likely to be more stable and less subject to degradation brought about by adverse environmental conditions than the long RFLP strands. Another distinct advantage is that STRs can be amplified by PCR, thus overcoming the limited-sample-size problem often associated with crime scene evidence. Amplification of STRs by PCR allows forensic analysts to characterize small quantities of DNA. Page Ref: 410 Objective: Discuss STR analysis and the concept of electrophoresis. Level: Intermediate 4) Name two advantages and two disadvantages of mitochondrial DNA analysis compared to nuclear DNA analysis. Answer (should include points such as): Mitochondrial DNA is much more abundant in the body than is nuclear DNA, so it can be more readily recovered for analysis. In addition, a matching sample of a person’s mtDNA can be obtained from any maternally related relative. Also, mtDNA analysis is significantly more sensitive than nuclear DNA profiling. Disadvantages include the fact that individuals of the same maternal lineage are indistinguishable by mtDNA analysis, and, even under the best circumstances, mtDNA typing does not approach STR analysis in its discrimination power. Thus, mtDNA is best reserved for samples for which nuclear DNA typing is simply not possible.

Page Ref: 415-418 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate 5) List four ways to minimize contamination of biological evidence. Answer (should include points such as): 1) Change gloves before handling each new piece of evidence. 2) Collect a substrate control for possible subsequent laboratory examination. 3) Pick up small items of evidence such as cigarette butts and stamps with clean forceps. 4) Always package each item of evidence in its own well-ventilated container. Page Ref: 418-420 Objective: List the necessary procedures for the proper preservation of bloodstained evidence for laboratory DNA analysis. Level: Intermediate 6) What are the three components that make up a nucleotide? Which component consists of four different components, the order of which determines the genetic code of an individual? Answer (should include points such as): A nucleotide is composed of a sugar molecule, a phosphorous-containing group, and a nitrogen-containing molecule called a base. There are four types of bases associated with DNA: adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Page Ref: 401 Objective: Explain DNA and its structure. Level: Basic

Chapter 16 Critical Thinking 1) What are the advantages of using PCR in the analysis of DNA for forensic investigation? Answer (should include points such as): PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is a technique for replicating or copying a portion of a DNA strand outside a living cell. Three advantages of PCR are that (1) PCR can be used with short DNA strands, (2) shorter strands are more stable and less subject to degradation than longer strands, and (3) PCR can amplify minute quantities of DNA, thus overcoming the limited-sample-size problem often associated with crime scene evidence. Page Ref: 404-405 Objective: Explain the phenomenon of DNA replication and the impact of the PCR technique on duplicating DNA strands. Level: Difficult 2) List the differences between nuclear DNA and mitochondrial DNA. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mitochondrial DNA analysis in forensic investigations? Answer (should include points such as):

Nuclear DNA is found in the nucleus of each cell and is inherited from both parents. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), on the other hand, is found outside the nucleus of the cell and is inherited solely from the mother. One advantage of mtDNA analysis is that it is significantly more sensitive than nuclear DNA profiling. The disadvantages are that mtDNA analysis is more time consuming and more costly than nuclear DNA profiling. Also, mtDNA has far less discriminating power than do STRs. Page Ref: 415-418 Objective: Describe the difference between nuclear and mitochondrial DNA. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 17 Forensic Aspects of Fire and Explosion Investigation Chapter 17 Multiple Choice 1) Which substance has the highest ignition temperature? A) Turpentine B) Fuel oil #2 C) Benzene D) Kerosene Answer: C Page Ref: 435 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 2) Telltale signs of arson include: A) Separate points of origin. B) Trails of burn patterns. C) The presence of accelerant containers. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 440 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Intermediate 3) Factors that can contribute to abnormal observations at a fire scene include: A) Winds or drafts. B) Secondary fires due to collapsing floors or roof. C) Stairways or elevator shafts. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 441 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Basic 4) The likelihood that spontaneous combustion will occur in improperly ventilated containers of highly unsaturated oils is ________ the likelihood that such combustion will occur with hydrocarbon lubricating oils. A) Less than B) Greater than C) The same as 530 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 438 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 5) What is the rapid combination of oxygen with a fuel, which produces a noticeable release of energy? A) The flash point B) Explosion C) Ignition D) Combustion Answer: D Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 6) The minimum temperature at which a fuel will spontaneously ignite is called: A) A dangerous place to store flammable liquids. B) The ignition temperature. C) The heat of combustion. D) The flash point. Answer: B Page Ref: 435 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 7) What is the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel will produce enough vapor to burn? A) Ignition temperature B) Sublimation temperature C) Critical temperature D) Flash point Answer: D Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 8) What is the concentration at which a vapor-to-fuel mixture in the air is capable of burning? A) Flammable range B) Heat of combustion C) Lethal range D) Spontaneous concentration Answer: A Page Ref: 437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 531 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) When investigators search a fire scene, the first focus must be on: A) Finding the origin of the fire. B) Interviewing eyewitnesses. C) Taking photographs and making sketches. D) All of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 440 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Intermediate 10) Hydrocarbon accelerants can be detected by: A) A portable detector (sniffer). B) Trained dogs. C) Most people. D) Both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 442 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 11) Which instrumentation is considered the most sensitive and reliable for detecting and characterizing flammable residues? A) NAA B) IR C) GC D) TLC Answer: C Page Ref: 445 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 12) Arson investigators must work quickly to collect evidence at a fire scene because: A) Accelerant residues may quickly evaporate. B) Safety requirements may require that cleanup and salvage operations begin quickly. C) Accelerants in soil may rapidly degrade. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 440 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Basic 13) A fuel can only achieve combustion in: A) The solid state. B) The liquid state. 532 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) The gaseous state. D) A liquid-solid phase. Answer: C Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 14) What is the decomposition of organic matter by heat? A) Combustion B) Pyrolysis C) Ignition temperate D) Radiation Answer: B Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 15) Which of the following statements is true? A) All chemical reactions give off heat. B) Heat is required to change one element into another. C) A chemical equation shows the number of atoms lost during a chemical reaction. D) Oxidations are chemical reactions that produce new substances. Answer: D Page Ref: 433 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 16) Which chemical reaction is associated with a fire? A) Reduction B) Oxidation C) Precipitation D) None of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 433 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 17) Which is a natural heat-producing process that may give rise to a fire? A) Chain reaction B) Flash point C) Ignition point D) Spontaneous combustion

Answer: D Page Ref: 437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 18) The minimum temperature at which fuel vapor will ignite is known as: A) The glow temperature. B) The boiling point. C) The flash point. D) The ignition temperature. Answer: D Page Ref: 435 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 19) Gasoline residues are best characterized by: A) Ultraviolet analysis. B) Infrared spectrophotometry. C) Gas chromatography. D) Emission spectroscopy. Answer: C Page Ref: 444 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 20) Which of the following CANNOT be determined from a laboratory examination of evidence recovered from an arson? A) The presence of gasoline, kerosene, or turpentine in debris B) Origin of liquid gasolines C) The brand name of gasoline used to start the fire D) The ignition mechanism used by the arsonist Answer: C Page Ref: 445 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 21) The quantity of heat from a chemical reaction comes from: A) The breaking and formation of chemical bonds. B) The presence of oxygen in the reaction. C) The emission of radiation. D) The composition of the fuel-air mix. Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 534 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) Complex chromatographic accelerant patterns can be simplified by: A) Gas chromatography. B) Thin-layer chromatography. C) Mass spectrometry. D) Headspace analysis. Answer: C Page Ref: 447 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 23) Combustion occurring at the surface of a solid describes: A) Pyrolysis. B) Spontaneous combustion. C) Flash point. D) Glowing combustion. Answer: D Page Ref: 437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 24) Movement of heat through a solid object is caused by: A) Conduction. B) Radiation. C) Convection. D) Both A and C Answer: A Page Ref: 438 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Basic 25) Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat? A) Wood B) Plastic C) Paper D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 26) What is radiation? A) Movement of heat through a solid object B) Transfer of heat energy from a heated surface to a cooler surface C) Transfer of heat energy by movement of molecules within a liquid or gas D) None of the above 535 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Basic 27) Water being heated on a stove illustrates the concept of: A) Conduction. B) Radiation. C) Convection. D) All of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Basic 28) Heat energy can ignite distant objects through the transmission of: A) Electrons. B) Streamers. C) Electromagnetic energy. D) Oxidizing agents. Answer: C Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Basic 29) Materials that have electrons firmly attached to their molecules: A) Transfer heat by convection. B) Transfer heat by radiation. C) Are excellent conductors of heat. D) Are poor conductors of heat. Answer: D Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 30) All combustible fuels simultaneously igniting to engulf a structure in flames is known as: A) Pyrolysis. B) Spontaneous combustion. C) Combustion. D) Flashover. Answer: D Page Ref: 440 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 536 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) The transfer of heat energy by the movement of molecules within a liquid or gas is: A) Radiation. B) Oxidation. C) Convection. D) Conduction. Answer: C Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Basic 32) What is the major advantage of using the vapor concentration technique with gas chromatography? A) Low resolution of peaks associated with volatile residues B) Ability to determine relative concentration of solid residues C) Only non-volatile residues will be detected D) High sensitivity for detecting volatile residues Answer: D Page Ref: 447 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 33) A common classification system characterizes ignitable liquids based on their boiling point ranges and number of ________ molecules as light, medium, and heavy petroleum distillates. A) Carbon B) Hydrogen C) Petroleum D) Petrol Answer: A Page Ref: 444 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 34) What is NOT true about primary explosives? A) They will detonate violently. B) Lead azide and lead styphnate are examples. C) They are used in blasting caps. D) They are very stable. Answer: D Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate

35) Which is NOT a high explosive? A) Black powder B) Dynamite C) RDX D) TNT Answer: A Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 36) Most explosives can be recovered from debris for future study by being rinsed with: A) Water. B) Toluene. C) Kerosene. D) Acetone. Answer: D Page Ref: 457 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Intermediate 37) Which is a homemade explosive that has been used by terrorist organizations in the Middle East? A) PETN B) TNT C) TATP D) RDX Answer: C Page Ref: 452 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 38) Which is an explosive readily detonated by heat or shock? A) Dynamite B) Secondary explosive C) Primary explosive D) ANFO Answer: C Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic

39) Which is a chemical used to synthesize the explosive TATP? A) Aluminum B) Magnesium C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Potassium chlorate Answer: C Page Ref: 452 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 40) Which is the most widely used low explosive? A) Potassium chlorate and sugar B) Black powder C) Smokeless powder D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 41) Which is a device used to screen objects for the presence of explosive residues? A) X-ray diffraction B) Mass spectrometry C) Infrared spectrophotometry D) Ion mobility spectrometry Answer: D Page Ref: 455 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Intermediate 42) A procedure commonly used as a screening test for explosive residues is: A) Color spot tests. B) Thin-layer chromatography. C) Gas-chromatography-mass spectrometry. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 456-457 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Intermediate

43) Which is an initiating explosive often used in detonators? A) Lead azide B) PETN C) TNT D) Dynamite Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 44) Which are common chemical ingredients of black powder? A) Aluminum, potassium, nitrate, nitrocellulose B) Sulfur, carbon, nitrogen C) Carbon, nitrocellulose, potassium chlorate D) Potassium nitrate, charcoal, sulfur Answer: D Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 45) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Potassium chlorate can be mixed with sulfuric acid and sugar to create a low explosive. B) Chemicals that supply oxygen are known as oxidizing agents. C) Smokeless powder is a low explosive. D) Dynamite is an initiating high explosive. Answer: D Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 46) Which of the following is NOT a military explosive? A) RDX B) C-4 C) TNT D) Nitroglycerin Answer: D Page Ref: 452-453 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic 47) The speed in a low explosive is called the speed of: A) Detonation. B) Deflagration. C) Oxidation. D) Combustion. 540 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Basic 48) Single-base smokeless powder consists of: A) Nitrocellulose and nitroglycerine. B) Potassium chlorate and nitrocellulose. C) Nitrocellulose. D) Nitroglycerine. Answer: C Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic 49) Examples of secondary explosives do NOT include: A) TNT B) PETN C) RDX D) Lead azide Answer: D Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic 50) Which type(s) of screening and confirmation tests are used for analyzing evidence of explosives? A) TLC B) Color spot tests C) Gas chromatography/mass spectrometry D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 456-457 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 51) Many explosives must have their own source of: A) Fuel. B) Oxygen. C) Heat. D) Energy. Answer: B Page Ref: 448 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 541 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) A low explosive has a velocity of detonation less than: A) 150 meters per second. B) 500 meters per second. C) 1000 meters per second. D) 1500 meters per second. Answer: C Page Ref: 449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Basic 53) What is available in commercial form as fertilizer? A) Ammonium nitrate B) Triacetone triperoxide C) Diazodinitrophenol D) Potassium chlorate Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 54) What is often used as the explosive core in a detonating cord? A) TNT B) PETN C) RDX D) C-4 Answer: B Page Ref: 453 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 55) Explosives that decompose at relatively slow rates are classified as: A) Decomposing explosives. B) Low explosives. C) High explosives. D) Slow explosives. Answer: B Page Ref: 449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Basic 56) Which type of explosives detonate almost instantaneously to produce a smashing or shattering effect? A) Detonating explosives B) Low explosives 542 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) High explosives D) Instantaneous explosives Answer: C Page Ref: 451 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 57) High explosives can be classified as either ________ or ________ explosives. A) Civilian; military B) Initial; secondary C) Military grade; non-military grade D) Primary; secondary Answer: D Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic

Chapter 17 True/False 1) The quantity of heat from a chemical reaction comes from the presence of oxygen in the reaction. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 2) Molecules must absorb energy when their bonds are reformed and they liberate energy when their bonds break apart. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 3) Rusting is not accompanied by combustion. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 433 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 543 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Combustion is accompanied by the production of noticeable heat and light. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 5) Heat energy is liberated in an endothermic reaction and absorbed in an exothermic reaction. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 6) A fire will burn until either the oxygen or the fuel is exhausted. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 435 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 7) A fuel must be in its gaseous state to produce combustion when it reacts with oxygen. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 8) If the fuel concentration in the fuel-air mix is too low or too great, combustion does not occur. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 9) A fuel does not need to be present to initiate and sustain combustion. A) True B) False Answer: B 544 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 438 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 10) Arson investigators must work quickly to collect evidence at a fire scene because any accelerant residues may evaporate within a few days or even hours. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 440 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Basic 11) A search of the fire scene must focus on finding the fire’s point of origin. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 441 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Intermediate 12) Water does not interfere with laboratory methods used to detect and characterize flammable liquid residues. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 442 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Intermediate 13) Wood is a poor insulator. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 14) Paper is not good for spreading a fire or causing ignitions far from the initial heat source. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 545 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) The phenomenon of flashover is an example of radiation. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 440 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 16) The brand name of a gasoline sample cannot currently be determined by any technique. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 445 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Intermediate 17) A burning cigarette is an example of spontaneous combustion. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 18) The easiest way to recover accelerant residues from fire-scene debris is to heat the airtight container in which the sample is sent to the laboratory. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 444 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Basic 19) The most common igniter is an electrical sparking device. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 444 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Intermediate

20) Two to three quarts of ash and soot debris must be collected at the point of origin of a fire when arson is suspected. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 443 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Basic 21) Detonation is characterized by very rapid oxidation that produces heat, light, and a subsonic pressure wave. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Basic 22) Low explosives detonate relatively slowly (less than 1,000 meters per second), while high explosives detonate very rapidly (from 1,000 to 8,500 meters per second). A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 449-451 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Basic 23) The only ingredients required for a low explosive are fuel and a good oxidizing agent. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 450 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 24) Dynamite has largely replaced ammonium-nitrate-based explosives for industrial uses. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate

25) PETN is the most powerful and popular military explosive. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 453 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 26) The most obvious characteristic of a high or contained low explosive is the presence of a crater at the origin of the blast. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 454 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 27) Soil and other soft loose materials collected at the scene of an explosion are best stored in metal containers. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 455 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Intermediate 28) Bombs made of high explosives must be detonated by an initiating explosion. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 453 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 29) Plastic bags are suitable to store evidence suspected of containing explosive residues. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 455 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Basic

30) Black powder and smokeless powder do not have characteristic shapes and colors and are therefore difficult to locate in debris. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 450 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Intermediate 31) Black powder does not explode when unconfined. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 32) Nitroglycerin-based dynamite has virtually disappeared from the industrial explosives market. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 33) Military “dynamite” contains no nitroglycerin. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 17 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ is the combination of oxygen with other substances to produce new substances. Answer: Oxidation Page Ref: 433 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic

2) In a(n) ________ reaction, heat energy is liberated. Answer: Exothermic Page Ref: 434 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 3) Two factors that influence the ________ of reaction of a fire are the physical state of the fuel and the temperature. Answer: Speed Page Ref: 435 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Difficult 4) The ________ point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form a mixture with air that will support combustion. Answer: Flash Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 5) ________ is the chemical breakdown of solid organic matter by heat. Answer: Pyrolysis Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 6) ________ combustion is fire caused by a natural heat-producing process in the presence of sufficient air and fuel. Answer: Spontaneous Page Ref: 437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 7) ________ are trails of flammable material, such as gasoline or paper, spreading outward from a fire’s point of origin in order to cause the fire to move rapidly from one room to another. Answer: Streamers Page Ref: 441 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Difficult 8) ________ is vapor containing volatile residues recovered from debris at a fire scene. Answer: Headspace Page Ref: 444 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Difficult 550 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Metals, beams, nails, fasteners, and bolts are examples of good ________. Answer: Conductors Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Intermediate 10) In a fire scene the electromagnetic radiation moves in a(n) ________ line from one surface to another. Answer: Straight Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Difficult 11) Warm air expands, which causes it to become ________ dense. Answer: Less Page Ref: 439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Difficult 12) Most arsons are started with ________-based accelerants such as gasoline or kerosene. Answer: Petroleum Page Ref: 440 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Difficult 13) Typically, the rate of a chemical reaction ________ when the temperature is raised. Answer: Increases Page Ref: 436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Basic 14) The collection and preservation of arson evidence should include all ________ materials such as wood flooring, rags, rugs, and upholstery. Answer: Porous Page Ref: 443 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson. Level: Intermediate 15) ________ is characterized by extremely rapid oxidation that produces a supersonic shock wave. Answer: Detonation Page Ref: 449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Basic

16) The most widely used ________ explosives are black powder and smokeless powder. Answer: Low Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 17) A(n) ________ fuse consists of black powder wrapped in a fabric or plastic casing and is used to carry a flame at a uniform rate to an explosive charge. Answer: Safety Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 18) ________ is an explosive consisting of ammonium nitrate soaked in fuel oil. Answer: ANFO Page Ref: 451 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic 19) A(n) ________ is a device used to create an explosion needed to ignite a high explosive. Answer: Detonator Page Ref: 453 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Intermediate 20) Following microscopic examination, the recovered debris is thoroughly rinsed with ________. Answer: Acetone Page Ref: 457 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Difficult 21) The most obvious characteristic of a high or contained low explosive is the presence of a(n) ________ at the origin of the blast. Answer: Crater Page Ref: 454 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Difficult 22) The ingredients in black powder are potassium nitrate, carbon, and ________. Answer: Sulfur Page Ref: 450 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic 552 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) A primary explosive is easily detonated by heat, friction, or ________. Answer: Shock Page Ref: 451 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 24) Ammonium nitrate is a(n) ________ agent. Answer: Oxidizing Page Ref: 451 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Difficult

Chapter 17 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) The entire range of possible gas or vapor fuel concentrations in air that are capable of burning B) Any material used to start or sustain a fire C) The decomposition of solid organic matter by heat D) The minimum temperature at which a fuel spontaneously ignites E) A chemical transformation in which heat energy is liberated F) Any compound consisting of only carbon and hydrogen G) A chemical transformation in which heat is absorbed from the surroundings H) The combination of oxygen with other substances to produce new substances I)

The ability or potential of a system or material to do work

Combustion on the surface of a solid fuel in the absence of heat high enough to pyrolyze the fuel

K) Rapid combination of oxygen with another substance, accompanied by production of noticeable heat and light L) An offender’s pattern of operation M) A fire caused by a natural heat-producing process in the presence of sufficient air and fuel N) The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel produces enough vapor to burn O) The heat liberated during combustion 1) Accelerant Page Ref: 440 Level: Difficult 2) Combustion Page Ref: 434 Level: Difficult 553 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Flammable range Page Ref: 437 Level: Difficult 4) Flash point Page Ref: 436 Level: Difficult 5) Ignition temperature Page Ref: 435 Level: Difficult 6) Oxidation Page Ref: 433 Level: Difficult 7) Spontaneous combustion Page Ref: 437 Level: Difficult 8) Endothermic reaction Page Ref: 434 Level: Difficult 9) Exothermic reaction Page Ref: 434 Level: Difficult 10) Energy Page Ref: 434 Level: Difficult 11) Glowing combustion Page Ref: 437 Level: Difficult 12) Heat of combustion Page Ref: 434 Level: Difficult 13) Hydrocarbon Page Ref: 444 Level: Difficult 14) Modus operandi Page Ref: 433 Level: Difficult

15) Pyrolysis Page Ref: 436 Level: Difficult Answers: 1) B 2) K 3) A 4) N 5) D 6) H 7) M 8) G 9) E 10) I 11) J 12) O 13) F 14) L 15) C

Chapter 17 Essay 1) Explain the proper collection of evidence at the origin of a fire that is suspected of being initiated by gasoline. Describe the proper submission of controls for laboratory examination. Answer (should include points such as): • Nothing at the suspected origin of the fire may be touched or moved before notes, sketches, and photographs are taken. • All material suspected of containing flammable residues must be packaged in an airtight container, such as a clean paint can. • Collect two or three quarts of ash and soot debris at the fire’s origin. The collection must include all porous materials suspected of containing flammable residues. A portable hydrocarbon detector, as well as a sense of smell, can aid in the proper selection of suspect materials. • Similar but uncontaminated materials from another area of the structure must be collected to serve as controls. • Label all specimen containers. The evidence collector’s name or initials, the date, and the sampling location are to be shown. All items collected are to be described in the evidence collector’s field notes. Page Ref: 440-444 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of a suspected arson.; Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Difficult 2) List three common signs of arson at a fire scene. Answer (should include points such as): Common signs of arson at a fire scene include the presence of accelerants, the discovery of an ignition device, irregularly shaped burn patterns on the floor or ground, streamers, and separate and unconnected fires. Page Ref: 440-441 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Basic 3) Where will an investigator usually locate the probable point of origin of a fire? What factors can cause a fire to deviate from normal behavior? Answer (should include points such as): The probable origin of a fire will most likely be located closest to the lowest point that shows the most intense characteristics of burning. Factors that can cause a fire to deviate from 555 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

normal behavior include prevailing drafts and winds; secondary fires caused by collapsing floors and roofs; the physical arrangement of the burning structure; stairways and elevator shafts; holes in the floor, wall, or roof; and the effects of the firefighters in suppressing the fire. Page Ref: 441-442 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire. Level: Intermediate 4) What are the two classes of high explosives? What is the difference between the two classes? Answer: The two classes of high explosives are primary and secondary explosives. Primary explosives are ultrasensitive to heat, shock, or friction, and under normal conditions detonate violently instead of burning. Secondary explosives are relatively insensitive to heat, shock, or friction, and normally burn rather than detonate when ignited in small quantities in open air. Secondary explosives are usually detonated by primary explosives. Page Ref: 451 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion.; List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Basic 5) What is an oxidizing agent? Why is an oxidizing agent important to an explosion? Answer: An oxidizing agent is a chemical that supplies oxygen to a reaction. Oxidizing agents are important to explosions because detonation occurs so rapidly that oxygen in the air cannot participate in the reaction; thus, many explosives must have their own source of oxygen. Page Ref: 448-449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Intermediate 6) What produces the violent physical disruption of the surrounding environment released in an explosion? Explain how this creates shrapnel when a bomb explodes. Answer: The sudden buildup of expanding gas pressure at the origin of an explosion produces the violent physical disruption of the surrounding environment. In a bomb, the extremely high pressure caused by the expanding gases pushes on the walls of the bomb, stretching and finally shattering them. The pieces of the walls are shattered and thrown outward in all directions by the force of the explosion, creating shrapnel. Page Ref: 448-449 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that occur during an explosion. Level: Difficult 7) A bottle of gasoline sitting at room temperature does not spontaneously burst into flame, and yet gasoline is an excellent fire accelerant. Based on your knowledge of the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire, what needs to happen to that gasoline in order for it to burst into flame? Answer (should include points such as):

The gasoline needs to achieve a gaseous state to support a flaming fire. Thus the temperature needs to be high enough to vaporize the gasoline and to cross the energy barrier needed to produce combustion. There needs to be sufficient air (oxygen) and sufficient heat to sustain the fire. Page Ref: 434-437 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 8) What are the three mechanisms of heat transfer? What is the difference between them? Answers (should include points such as): Conduction is the movement of heat through the collision of electrons and atoms within a heated object. Radiation is the transfer of heat energy from a heated surface to a cooler surface by electromagnetic radiation. Convection is the transfer of heat energy by movement of molecules within a liquid or gas. Page Ref: 438-439 Objective: Explain the three mechanisms of heat transfer. Level: Basic 9) What is the main advantage of analyzing accelerant residues from a fire using the vapor concentration technique over the headspace technique? Answer: Using vapor concentration, a forensic analyst can increase the sensitivity of accelerant detection at least a hundredfold over the conventional headspace technique. Page Ref: 444-447 Objective: Describe laboratory procedures used to detect and identify hydrocarbon residues. Level: Basic

Chapter 17 Critical Thinking 1) A large container of gasoline is recovered from the walk-in freezer at a restaurant owned by an arson suspect. The gasoline temperature is found to be -10 degrees Fahrenheit. The suspect claims this gasoline would be too cold to have been used as an accelerant in the arson. Describe the difference between flash point and ignition temperature and use this information to explain whether the suspect’s claim is true or untrue. Answer (should include points such as): The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form a mixture with air that will support combustion. Once the flash point is reached, the fuel can be ignited by some outside source of temperature to start a fire. The ignition temperature of a fuel is always considerably higher than the flash point. The flash point of gasoline is -50 degrees Fahrenheit. Therefore, the sample gasoline at -10 degrees Fahrenheit is exposed to a high temperature igniting source, such as a match, it will ignite. Hence, the suspect’s claim is untrue. Page Ref: 435-436 Objective: Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate

2) At a fire scene, what characteristics should an investigator look for to identify the fire’s point of origin? What circumstances may affect these characteristics? Answer (should include points such as): Normally a fire tends to move upward, and thus the origin is most likely to be located closest to the lowest point that shows the most intense characteristics of burning. Sometimes, as the fire burns upward, a V-shaped pattern forms against a vertical wall. Because flammable liquids always flow to the lowest point, more severe burning found on the floor than on the ceiling may indicate the presence of an accelerant. If a flammable liquid was used, charring is expected to be more intense on the bottom of furniture, shelves, and other items than on the top. However, many factors can contribute to the deviation of a fire from normal behavior. Prevailing drafts and winds; secondary fires due to collapsed floors and roofs; the physical arrangement of the burning structure; the presence stairways and elevator shafts; holes in the floor, wall, or roof; and the effects of the firefighter in suppressing the fire–these are all factors that the fire investigator must consider before determining conclusive findings. Page Ref: 441 Objective: Recognize how to locate the fire’s origin along with telltale signs of an accelerant-initiated fire.; Explain the chemical reactions that initiate and sustain fire. Level: Intermediate 3) The following substances were found at the scenes of explosions. Indicate for each group of items if low, high, or a combination of explosives were used. If high explosives were used, indicate whether the components can be identified as primary or secondary explosives. a. Potassium nitrate, charcoal, sulfur b. PETN (pentaerythritoltetranitrate) c. Lead styphnate d. Ammonium nitrate and sodium nitrate gelled with guar gum e. Potassium chlorate mixed with sugar f. Triacetone triperoxide Answer: a. Low explosive (black powder) b. Secondary high explosive c. Primary high explosive d. Secondary high explosive (water gel) e. Low explosive (chlorate mixture) f. Secondary high explosive (liquid explosive) Page Ref: 450-453 Objective: List some common commercial, homemade, and military explosives. Level: Difficult

4) Criminalist Matt Hughes arrives at the scene of an explosion. He first carries out a search of the periphery of the crime scene, questions several witnesses, and then locates the crater caused by the blast. After finding the crater, he uses a sifter to separate the debris at the site for evidence. Any large pieces of detonators or foreign materials that did not fall through the mesh are collected and packaged in small paper bags. Large, jagged pieces found in the crater are wrapped in paper then placed in another paper bag. What mistakes, if any, did Matt make in collecting and storing this evidence? Answer (should include points such as): Matt should have located the crater first upon arrival. He should collect both debris and soil from the crater to be tested. All materials collected for examination by the laboratory must be placed in airtight sealed containers and labeled with all pertinent information. Soil and other soft loose materials are best stored in metal airtight containers such as clean paint cans. The large, sharp-edged objects are best packaged in metal containers. Page Ref: 453-455 Objective: Describe how to collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion and the procedures for analysis. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 18 Document Examination Chapter 18 Multiple Choice 1) Questioned documents include: A) Contracts and passports. B) Petitions and lottery tickets. C) Letters and checks. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 465 Objective: Define the term questioned document. Level: Basic 2) The possibility of recognizing known writing habits in samples produced when a writer is under the influence of drugs or alcohol is ________ the possibility of recognizing known writing habits produced when the writer of a sample is not under the influence of drugs or alcohol. A) Less than B) Greater than C) The same as Answer: A Page Ref: 468 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Intermediate 3) The ease with which a child’s handwriting can be individualized is ________ the ease with which one can individualize an adult’s handwriting. A) The same as B) Greater than C) Less than Answer: C Page Ref: 465 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Intermediate 4) The writing characteristics of a person may be altered by whether: A) The paper is ruled or unruled. B) Pencil, ballpoint, or fountain pen is used. C) The posture or stance of the author varies between writings. D) All of the above 560 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 468 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Basic 5) The ease with which one can find individual variations in a typewritten document is ________ the ease of finding such defects in documents produced by business and personal computers. A) Less than B) Greater than C) The same as Answer: B Page Ref: 465 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Intermediate 6) In dealing with fax machines, photocopiers, and computer printers, which class characteristics might be examined? A) Type of paper B) Chemical composition of toner C) Type of toner-to-paper fusing method D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic 7) Infrared luminescence is used to: A) Detect if two different inks were used in the writing of a document. B) Reveal writing that has been erased. C) Prepare ink for thin-layer chromatography. D) Both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 473 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Intermediate 8) A databank of ink dye patterns has been established by the U.S. Treasury Department using: A) TTI. B) TLC. 561 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) HPLC. D) NAA. Answer: B Page Ref: 478 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Intermediate 9) Document examiners frequently uncover the original writing of words that have been crossed out with the aid of: A) Color photography. B) Transmitted radiation. C) Infrared radiation. D) Side lighting. Answer: C Page Ref: 474 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Intermediate 11) When dictating to a person in order to obtain samples of handwriting, one should NOT: A) Use paper similar to that of the questioned document. B) Use a pen similar to that of the questioned document. C) Dictate the contents of the text at least three times. D) Allow the suspect to view the questioned document before dictating it. Answer: D Page Ref: 469 Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Intermediate 12) Inks on handwritten documents may be compared for their chemical composition by the technique of: A) Thin-layer chromatography. B) Infrared spectrophotometry. C) Ultraviolet spectrophotometry. D) None of the above Answer: A Page Ref: 478 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Intermediate

13) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) An inconclusive finding by a document examiner may be due to an insufficient number of known writings available for comparison. B) Any object that contains handwritten or typewritten markings whose source or authenticity is in doubt is a questioned document. C) Once adulthood is reached, an individual’s handwriting generally will not change with age. D) In the case of Gilbert v. California the court held that the taking of handwriting exemplars was not prohibited by the Fifth Amendment. Answer: C Page Ref: 469 Objective: Define the term questioned document. Level: Intermediate 14) Some inks, when exposed to blue-green light, absorb ________ radiation and emit light. A) Visible B) Polarized C) Ultraviolet D) Infrared Answer: D Page Ref: 473 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Intermediate 15) ________ writings are partially visible impressions appearing on a sheet of paper underneath the one on which the visible writing was done. A) Obliterated B) Indented C) Questioned D) Charred Answer: B Page Ref: 474 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Basic 16) In the case of ________, the Supreme Court held handwriting to be nontestimonial evidence not protected by Fifth Amendment privileges. A) Gilbert v. California B) Carmichael v. Kumho Tire Co. C) United States v. Mara D) United States Secret Service v. Mara Answer: A Page Ref: 469 563 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Intermediate 17) Defects that are reproduced by a photocopier onto a copied document may originate from defects in all of the following photocopier parts EXCEPT: A) Glass plate B) Feed tray C) Inner cover D) Mechanical portions Answer: B Page Ref: 470 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 18) Fax machines print a header known as the ________ at the top of each fax page, which may become a very important point of comparison. A) ELD B) HTTP C) TLC D) TTI Answer: D Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 19) What is the process by which the image is stored in memory by scanning and converting by computer into an array of digital intensity values called picture elements? A) Luminescence B) Adobe Photoshopping C) Digitizing D) Pixelizing Answer: C Page Ref: 474 Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Basic 20) When a suspect computer printer is not available, the examiner may need to analyze the document’s ________ to identify the make and model of the machine. A) Handwriting B) Individual characteristics C) TTI D) Class characteristics 564 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 21) When comparing sample writing to a suspect document, the age difference between the documents should be no more than: A) Six to twelve months. B) Twelve to eighteen months. C) Two to three years. D) Five to seven years. Answer: C Page Ref: 469 Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Intermediate 22) Which are important characteristics of a printer, photocopier, or fax machine? A) Printing technology B) Type of paper C) Type of toner or ink used D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 470-471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic 23) The TTI is a characteristic used to distinguish: A) Photocopiers. B) Fax machines. C) Computer printers. D) All of the above Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 24) Which is an example of an impact printer? A) Dot-matrix B) Ink-jet C) Laser D) All of the above 565 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: A Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic 25) Overwriting or crossing out writing is known as: A) Erasure. B) Alteration. C) Obliteration. D) Indentation. Answer: C Page Ref: 474 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Basic 26) The property exhibited by some dyes that emit infrared light when exposed to blue-green light is known as: A) Infrared luminescence. B) Thin-layer chromatography. C) Microspectrophotometry. D) Digitizing. Answer: A Page Ref: 473 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 18 True/False 1) Angularity, slope, and speed are examples of individual variations. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 465 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Intermediate 2) Margins, spacing, crowding, insertions, alignment, spelling, punctuation, phraseology, and grammar cannot impart individual variations. A) True B) False 566 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 466 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Basic 3) An adequate number of exemplars is critical for determining the outcome of a comparison. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 467 Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Basic 4) A TTI is a characteristic of a fax document. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 5) A TTI cannot be used to distinguish between a real and a fraudulently prepared fax document. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 6) The two general categories of printers are impact and nonimpact printers. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 466 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic

7) Nonimpact printers include thermal and dot-matrix printers. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 8) Examination of toner typically involves microscopic analysis followed by identification of the inorganic and organic components. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 472 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 9) Infrared luminescence can reveal writing that has been erased. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 473 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Intermediate 10) Indented writings are not readable under any typical examinations. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 475 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Intermediate 11) Two analytical techniques used to analyze writing inks are microspectrophotometry and thinlayer chromatography. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 476-477 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Intermediate 568 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) The most common features associated with a paper examination are general appearance, color, weight, and watermarks. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 479 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Basic 13) When comparing sample writing to a suspect document, the age difference between the documents should be no more than six to twelve months. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 469 Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Intermediate 14) No two specimens of writing prepared by one person are ever identical in every detail. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 465 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Basic 15) A questioned document would not include any markings or writing on doors, walls, or other objects. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 465 Objective: Define the term questioned document. Level: Basic

Chapter 18 Fill in the Blank 1) A(n) ________ document is any object that contains handwritten or typewritten markings whose source or authenticity is in doubt. Answer: Questioned Page Ref: 465 Objective: Define the term questioned document. Level: Basic 569 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) ________ are authentic samples of an individual’s writing used for comparison to suspect handwriting samples. Answer: Exemplars Page Ref: 468 Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Basic 3) Transitory defect marks originating from random debris on the glass platen are examples of points of comparison produced by a ________. Answer: Photocopier Page Ref: 470 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Difficult 4) Investigators can use a TTI to determine the model of ________ machine that produced the document. Answer: Fax Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Difficult 5) ________ printers include thermal and dot-matrix printers. Answer: Impact Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic 6) ________ printers include inkjet and laser printers. Answer: Nonimpact Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic 7) ________ luminescence can be used to detect alterations to a document made with ink differing from the original and can also reveal writing that has been erased. Answer: Infrared Page Ref: 473 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations. Level: Intermediate 570 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Applying an electrostatic charge to the surface of a polymer film that has been placed in contact with a questioned document can be used to read ________ writing. Answer: Indented Page Ref: 475 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Difficult 9) Two analytical techniques used to analyze writing inks are microspectrophotometry and ________ chromatography. Answer: Thin-layer Page Ref: 477 Objective: Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Intermediate 10) Deviations that are found between the repeated writings of an individual are known as _________ variations. Answer: Natural Page Ref: 468 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Basic

Chapter 18 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) Any document that has become darkened and brittle through exposure to fire or excessive heat B) The removal of writing, typewriting, or printing from a document, normally accomplished by either chemical means or an abrasive instrument C) A property exhibited by some dyes that emit infrared light when exposed to blue-green light D) Blotting out or smearing over writing or printing to make the original unreadable E) A header that fax machines print F) The process by which an image is stored in memory G) Any document about which some issue has been raised or that is the subject of an investigation H) An authentic sample used for comparison purposes, such as handwriting I)

Impressions left on paper positioned under a piece of paper that has been written on

Normal deviations found between repeated specimens of an individual’s handwriting

2) Erasure Page Ref: 472 Level: Basic 3) Exemplar Page Ref: 468 Level: Basic 4) Indented writings Page Ref: 474 Level: Basic 5) Infrared luminescence Page Ref: 473 Level: Basic 6) Natural variations Page Ref: 468 Level: Basic 7) Obliteration Page Ref: 474 Level: Basic 8) Questioned document Page Ref: 465 Level: Basic 9) TTI Page Ref: 471 Level: Basic 10) Digitizing Page Ref: 474 Level: Basic Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) H 4) I 5) C 6) J 7) D 8) G 9) E 10) F

Chapter 18 Essay 1) Describe two situations in which a document examiner may be prevented from coming to a positive conclusion about a questioned document. Answer (should include points such as): • When an insufficient number of known writings are made available for comparison • When the examiner receives questioned writings containing only a few words, all deliberately written so as to disguise the writer’s natural style Page Ref: 467 572 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: List some important guidelines for the collection of known writings for comparison to a questioned document. Level: Difficult 2) What are natural variations? How can they be useful for detecting forgeries? Answer: Natural variations are normal deviations found between repeated specimens of an individual’s handwriting. They are useful in detecting forgeries because no two specimens of writing prepared by one person are ever identical in every detail. Thus, a document forged by tracing an authentic sample of writing or a signature can often be detected even if the original and the tracing coincide exactly, because no one ever writes the same words or signs two signatures exactly alike. Page Ref: 468 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Basic 3) Name five important characteristics of a printer, photocopier, or fax machine that a document examiner must identify when analyzing a document in a situation where the suspect machine is not available. Answer (should include points such as): When the suspect machine is not available, it is important to identify the printing technology, the type of paper, the type of toner or ink used, the chemical composition of the toner, and the type of toner-to-paper fusing method used in producing the document. Page Ref: 470-471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Intermediate 4) List five objects that may be referred to as questioned documents if they were to be discovered at a crime scene. What makes a document a questioned document? Answer (should include points such as): A questioned document is any document about which some issue has been raised or that is the subject of an investigation. Examples of questioned documents could include letters, checks, driver’s licenses, contracts, wills, voter registrations, passports, petitions, money, notebooks, or lottery tickets. Questioned documents also include writings or other markings found on walls, windows, doors, or any other objects. Page Ref: 465 Objective: Define the term questioned document. Level: Basic

Chapter 18 Critical Thinking 1) A warranted search of a victim’s apartment yields three pages of exemplar handwriting samples written on ruled notebook paper with blue ballpoint pen. The investigators would like to compare the handwriting on these exemplars to a potential suicide note found with the dead victim written on unruled paper in pencil. Based on this information, which characteristics of the handwriting can be used to compare the exemplar documents and questioned document? Which characteristics cannot be used, and why? 573 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer (should include points such as): Individual variations may be expected in angularity, slope, speed, letter and word spacings, connections, writing skill, finger dexterity, crowding, insertions, spelling, punctuation, phraseology, and grammar. The investigator cannot use the characteristics of relative dimensions of letters, alignment, margins, and spacing between lines because these characteristics are affected by the ruled or unruled nature of the paper. Apparent pressure applied cannot be used because this characteristic is affected by the writing implement and paper used. Page Ref: 468-470 Objective: Explain the factors considered when comparing variations in handwriting and the challenges associated with it. Level: Difficult 2) A threatening letter is received by a company CEO via fax. What characteristics can be examined to gain information about the sending machine, the sending individual, and fraudulent source information? Answer (should include points such as): The sending fax machine will print a header known as the transmitting terminal identifier (TTI) at the top of each fax page. The header and the document’s text should have different type styles. TTIs can be fraudulently prepared and placed in the appropriate position on a fax copy. However, a microscopic examination of the TTI’s print quickly reveals significant characteristics that distinguish it from a genuine TTI. Information about the sending individual can be gained from analysis of the letter’s spelling, punctuation, phraseology, and grammar. Page Ref: 471 Objective: Recognize some of the class and individual characteristics of printers and photocopiers. Level: Basic 3) A small piece of paper from a hotel notepad is found in the pocket of a potential “hit man” as he attempted to kill his “mark.” The paper shows writing in various pen colors, some of which is obliterated and some of which was erased. The top corner of the paper also appears to possess intended writing. Discuss the methods investigators should employ to visualize the writing if possible. Answer (should include points such as): Infrared luminescence can be used to detect alterations to a document made with ink differing from the original. Infrared luminescence can also reveal writing that has been erased. Indented writings are often readable when the paper is studied under oblique or side lighting. A second method involves applying an electrostatic charge to the surface of a polymer film that has been placed in contact with a questioned document. Indented impressions on the document are revealed by applying a toner powder to the charged film. Page Ref: 472-475 Objective: List some of the techniques document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, and obliterations.; Summarize some of the other problems faced by document examiners. Level: Intermediate 574 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Chapter 19 Computer Forensics Chapter 19 Multiple Choice 1) Which of the following is NOT considered a hardware device? A) Monitor B) Hard disk drive C) Mouse D) Operating system Answer: D Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 2) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of software? A) Linux B) Firefox C) Excel D) Random Access Memory Answer: D Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 3) A motherboard: A) Is the main circuit board within a computer. B) Has a socket to accept RAM. C) Connects to every device used by the system. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 484 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 4) The term “bit” is short for: A) Tidbit. B) Byte. C) Binary digit. D) Database. Answer: C Page Ref: 488 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 575 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The primary form of data storage within a personal computer is: A) The CD-ROM. B) The hard disk drive. C) A zip drive. D) The recycle bin. Answer: B Page Ref: 485 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 6) A Network Interface Card (NIC) enables a personal computer to communicate with other computers via: A) A wired connection. B) A wireless connection. C) A satellite connection. D) Both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 487 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 7) The first thing a crime scene investigator should do when encountering computer forensic evidence is: A) Unplug every device from the CPU to preserve the hard disk drive. B) Procure a warrant to search. C) Remove the system to the laboratory for processing. D) Document the scene. Answer: B Page Ref: 489 Objective: Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 8) The ultimate goal of obtaining an image of a hard disk drive is to: A) Locate as much incriminating information as possible. B) Preserve the photographs and video stored on the drive. C) Give priority to the text files on the drive. D) Obtain information without altering the drive in any way. Answer: D Page Ref: 492 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate

9) One of the most common places to begin to look for evidential data is in: A) The spreadsheet files. B) A photograph editing program. C) A CAD package. D) The word processing or text-based document files. Answer: D Page Ref: 493 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 10) Which is the best definition of latent data? A) Anything readily available to the user, also known as visible data B) Data that are hidden from view C) An automatically saved copy of a file that was recently modified D) Data which are typically of little use to forensic investigators Answer: B Page Ref: 495 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Basic 11) Once a file is deleted by a user, it: A) Is obliterated from the system and cannot be recovered. B) Is retained until the disk space it occupies is allocated for another use. C) May be identified using forensic image acquisition software. D) Both B and C Answer: D Page Ref: 497 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 12) Evidentiary data may be recovered from which of the following? A) Slack space on the HDD B) Unallocated space on the HDD C) RAM swap files D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 495-498 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 13) One gigabyte can be expressed as: A) 1,000 bytes. B) 1,000 megabytes (MB). C) 1,000 kilobytes (KB). D) 8,000 bits. 577 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 485 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 14) A software algorithm used to create a “fingerprint” of a file or an entire HDD is called: A) MD5. B) ROM. C) RAM. D) MAC OS. Answer: A Page Ref: 492 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 15) Which of the following is NOT associated with the partitioning of a HDD? A) Quadrant B) Sector C) Track D) Cluster Answer: A Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Basic 16) A cluster is a group of ________ in multiples of ________. A) Partitions, two B) Disks, four C) Cylinders, three D) Sectors, two Answer: D Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 17) What keeps track of the location of files and folders on the HDD? A) The search engine B) The HDD itself C) The CPU D) The FAT Answer: D Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 578 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) When is it necessary to make a “fingerprint” of a HDD? A) In most cases B) Only sometimes C) Before and after imaging its contents D) Rarely Answer: C Page Ref: 492 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 19) Which of the following is NOT classified as software? A) Operating systems B) Word processors C) Web browsers D) Flash drives Answer: D Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 20) The boot (start-up) process for a computer is controlled by: A) The hard disk drive. B) ROM. C) RAM. D) USB thumb drives. Answer: B Page Ref: 484 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 21) The complex of wires located on the motherboard which serves to carry data from one hardware device to another is: A) RAM. B) ROM. C) System bus. D) Central processing unit. Answer: C Page Ref: 484 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 22) Sectors are typically how many bytes in size? A) 126 bytes B) 256 bytes 579 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

C) 512 bytes D) 1024 bytes Answer: C Page Ref: 488 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 23) One should not search for “visible” data in: A) Swap files. B) Temporary files. C) Unallocated space. D) Windows. Answer: C Page Ref: 493 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Intermediate 24) One should not look for “latent” data in: A) RAM slack. B) File slack. C) Unallocated space. D) Temporary files. Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Intermediate 25) Hard drive partitions are typically divided into: A) Sectors. B) Clusters. C) Tracks. D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 26) URL stands for: A) Uniform Replacement Listing. B) Unlimited Real-time Link. C) Uniform Resource Locator. D) User-Resource Link.

Answer: C Page Ref: 499 Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated. Level: Basic 27) Most web browsers use a(n) ________ to expedite and streamline browsing. A) Area network B) Cable modem C) Domain D) Caching system Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated. Level: Intermediate 28) Which of the following is/are potential sources for forensic evidence on a suspect’s personal computer? A) Internet “cookies” B) Internet history C) Cache D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated. Level: Basic 29) Unauthorized intrusion into a computer is called: A) Crashing. B) Whacking. C) Hacking. D) Spamming. Answer: C Page Ref: 503 Objective: Discuss the techniques used to investigate unauthorized computer intrusion. Level: Basic 30) Which source will NOT be useful to investigators seeking to determine a user’s Internet history? A) Cookies B) Cache C) Favorite sites D) Slack files 581 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated. Level: Intermediate 31) Files containing chat and instant messaging are most likely stored in: A) Swap files. B) RAM. C) ROM. D) Slack files. Answer: B Page Ref: 502 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 32) Which of the following carries data from one hardware device to another? A) System bus B) Central processing unit (CPU) C) Random-access memory (RAM) D) Network interface card (NIC) Answer: A Page Ref: 484 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 33) In which of the following places would a computer forensic investigator look for latent data? A) RAM slack B) File slack C) Unallocated space D) All of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 495 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Intermediate 34) Text messaging is also known as: A) SMS. B) MMS. C) GPS. D) RAM. Answer: A Page Ref: 504

Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate 35) The best way to handle a mobile device and preserve data is: A) Turn the mobile device off. B) Leave the mobile device on. C) Leave the mobile device on, but place it in a Faraday shield. D) None of the above Answer: C Page Ref: 505 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate 36) Which of the following is NOT a type of RAM? A) SSIM B) DDIM C) SD D) DAB Answer: D Page Ref: 485 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 37) If a file system defines a cluster as six sectors, how many bytes of information can be stored on each cluster? A) 24,576 B) 512 C) 3,072 D) 307.2 Answer: C Page Ref: 488 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 38) Which of the following actions taken at the crime scene involving a computer is incorrect? A) Upon arrival, sketching the overall layout as well as photographing it B) Photographing any running monitors C) Removing the plug from the back of the computer, not from the wall D) None of the above Answer: D Page Ref: 489-491 Objective: Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 583 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) The two types of slack space are ________ slack and ________ slack. A) File; RAM B) RAM; ROM C) Cluster; file D) IP; TTI Answer: A Page Ref: 496 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 40) A(n) ________ is placed on a hard disk drive by a website to track certain information about its visitors. A) Phish B) IP address C) E-mail D) Cookie Answer: D Page Ref: 499 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 41) A device that permits only requested traffic to enter a computer system is known as a(n): A) Central processing unit (CPU). B) Firewall. C) Cookie. D) Internet cache. Answer: B Page Ref: 503 Objective: Discuss the techniques used to investigate unauthorized computer intrusion. Level: Basic 42) Which type of data are readily available to a computer user? A) Swap B) Latent C) Visible D) Allocated Answer: C Page Ref: 493 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Basic

43) The ________ is a complex network of wires that carry data from one hardware device to another. A) Motherboard B) Central processing unit (CPU) C) Hard disk drive D) Operating system Answer: A Page Ref: 484 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 44) The definition of software is: A) Storage programs used to start the boot process. B) A set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task. C) A complex network of wires that carry data from one hardware device to another. D) A primary component of storage in the personal computer. Answer: B Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic

Chapter 19 True/False 1) Software comprises the physical components of the computer. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 2) The central processing unit is the main system board of a computer that delivers power, data, and instructions to the computer’s components. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 485 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 3) The central processing unit, or CPU, is the part of the computer that actually computes. A) True B) False

Answer: A Page Ref: 485 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 4) ROM stores software programs and instructions while the computer is turned on. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 485 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 5) RAM is not permanent; its contents are lost forever once power is taken away from the computer. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 485 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 6) The primary storage device on most computers is the hard disk drive (HDD). A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 485 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 7) Before an OS can be formatted, it must write to a HDD. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 8) A cluster is the smallest unit of data that a hard drive can address. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 586 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) A bit, or a binary digit, is the smallest unit of information on a computer. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 488 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 10) A FAT tracks the location of files and folders on the hard disk drive. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 488 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 11) The primary goal in obtaining data from a HDD is to do so without altering even one bit of data. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 492 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 12) Visible data exists in areas of the drive that are, generally speaking, unknown and inaccessible to most end users. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 493 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Intermediate 13) The two main types of evidentiary computer data are visible data and latent data. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 493; 495 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Basic 14) A computer forensic investigator would most likely look for latent data in temporary files. A) True B) False 587 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 495 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Intermediate 15) Swap space is empty space on a hard disk drive (HDD) created because of the way the HDD stores files. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 494 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 16) A domain manages traffic between computers on a network. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 503 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 17) An IP address typically takes the form ###.###.###.###, in which ### can be any number from 0 to 255. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 501 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Basic 18) Three places where a forensic computer examiner might look to determine what websites a computer user has visited recently are the Internet cache, cookies, and the Internet history. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 499 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 19) An IP address may lead to the identity of the person who was using a particular computer to access the Internet. A) True B) False Answer: A 588 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 501 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 20) Extracting data from a mobile device is more complicated than extracting data from a computer. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 505 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate 21) MMS, or Multimedia Message Service, is text messaging with attachments. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 504 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Basic 22) The call history for a mobile device is generally not able to be used in an investigation. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 504 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate 23) Often mobile devices contain the same Internet artifacts as a computer, such as cookies and browser history. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 504 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate 24) Mobile devices are often shut off to avoid the loss of data. A) True B) False 589 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Answer: B Page Ref: 505 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate 25) The operating systems of mobile devices are usually the same. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 505 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 19 Fill in the Blank 1) ________ comprises the physical components of the computer. Answer: Hardware Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 2) ________ is a set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task. Answer: Software Page Ref: 483 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 3) The ________ is the main chip within the computer. Answer: CPU Page Ref: 485 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Basic 4) ________ consists of programs that are used to start the computer’s boot process. Answer: Firmware Page Ref: 484 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Difficult 5) The computer’s ________ system is the bridge between the human user and the computer’s electronic components. Answer: Operating Page Ref: 488 590 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 6) Clusters are groups of ________. Answer: Sectors Page Ref: 488 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Intermediate 7) A Message Digest 5 (MD5)/Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) takes a ________ of a hard disk drive (HDD) before and after forensic imaging. Answer: Fingerprint Page Ref: 492 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Difficult 8) Investigators would want to copy blank or unused portions of the HDD to preserve ________ data. Answer: Latent Page Ref: 495 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Basic 9) ________ data includes all information that the operating system is presently aware of, and thus is readily accessible to the user. Answer: Visible Page Ref: 493 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Basic 10) ________ space is a file or defined space on the HDD to which data is written to free RAM for applications that are in use. Answer: Swap Page Ref: 494 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Difficult 11) ________ space is empty space on a hard disk drive (HDD) created because of the way the HDD stores files. Answer: Slack Page Ref: 495 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Difficult 12) A(n) ________ address is a unique address given to every computer connected to the Internet. Answer: IP address Page Ref: 501 591 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 13) Chat and instant messages typically are stored in ________. Answer: RAM Page Ref: 502 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Difficult 14) ________ is a slang term for an unauthorized computer or network intrusion. Answer: Hacking Page Ref: 503 Objective: Discuss the techniques used to investigate unauthorized computer intrusion. Level: Intermediate 15) A(n) ________ is a device that permits only requested traffic to enter a computer system. Answer: Firewall Page Ref: 503 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Intermediate 16) The travel history of a suspect can be documented using ________ and map data from a mobile device. Answer: GPS Page Ref: 504 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Basic 17) Extraction of data from a mobile device can be done on a physical level and a(n) ________ level. Answer: Logical Page Ref: 505 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Difficult

Chapter 19 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) A set of instructions compiled into a program that performs a particular task B) A group of sectors in multiples of two; typically the minimum space allocated to a file C) A standard method by which Internet sites are addressed D) All data that the operating system is presently aware of, and thus is readily accessible to the user 592 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

E) Files placed on a computer from a visited website that are used to track visits and usage of that site F) Hardware or software designed to protect against intrusions into a computer network G) Typically the main storage location within the computer, consisting of magnetic platters contained in a case H) The smallest unit of data addressable by a hard disk drive, generally consisting of 512 bytes I)

The main chip within the computer, also referred to as the brain of the computer. This microprocessor chip handles most of the operations (code and instructions) of the computer.

Portions of visited Web pages placed on the local hard disk drive to facilitate quicker retrieval once revisited

K) The main system board of a computer (and many other electronic devices) that delivers power, data, and instructions to the computer’s components L) Areas of files and disks that are typically not apparent to the computer user (and often not to the operating system), but contain data nonetheless 1) Central processing unit (CPU) Page Ref: 485 Level: Basic 2) Cluster Page Ref: 488 Level: Basic 3) Hard disk drive (HDD) Page Ref: 485 Level: Basic 4) Latent data Page Ref: 495 Level: Basic 5) Motherboard Page Ref: 484 Level: Basic 6) Sector Page Ref: 488 Level: Basic 7) Software Page Ref: 483 Level: Basic 8) Visible data Page Ref: 493 Level: Basic 593 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Cookies Page Ref: 499 Level: Basic 10) Firewall Page Ref: 503 Level: Basic 11) Internet cache Page Ref: 499 Level: Basic 12) Uniform resource locater (URL) Page Ref: 499 Level: Basic Answers: 1) I 2) B 3) G 4) L 5) K 6) H 7) A 8) D 9) E 10) F 11) J 12) C

Chapter 19 Essay 1) What aspects of a computer should be photographed close-up at an electronic crime scene? Answer (should include points such as): • The screen of any running computer monitor • All the connections to the main system unit, such as peripheral devices (keyboard, monitor, speakers, mouse, and so on) • Equipment serial numbers Page Ref: 489-491 Objective: Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene. Level: Basic 2) Name two situations in which an investigator would not immediately unplug a computer at an electronic crime scene. Answer (should include points such as): • If encryption is being used and pulling the plug will encrypt the data, rendering it unreadable without a password or key • If data exists in RAM that has not been saved to the HDD, and will thus be lost if power to the system is discontinued Page Ref: 490 Objective: Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 3) What is fragmentation? What effect does fragmentation have on a hard disk drive (HDD)? Answer (should include points such as): Fragmentation is a situation in which data for the same file is contained in noncontiguous clusters on the hard disk drive (HDD). Fragmentation can degrade the performance of a HDD, causing the read/write heads to have to traverse the platters to locate the data. 594 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 497 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer. Level: Difficult 4) What is the purpose of an Internet cache? Answer (should include points such as): An Internet cache stores portions of the Web pages a user visits on the local hard disk drive. This way, if the page is revisited, portions of it can be reconstructed more quickly from this saved data, rather than having to pull it yet again from the Internet and use precious bandwidth. Page Ref: 499 Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated. Level: Intermediate 5) What is hacking? Who most commonly engages in hacking, and for what purpose? Answer (should include points such as): Hacking is a slang term for an unauthorized computer or network intrusion. The individuals who most commonly engage in hacking are rogue or disgruntled employees with some knowledge of a computer network who are looking to cause damage. Page Ref: 503 Objective: Discuss the techniques used to investigate unauthorized computer intrusion. Level: Basic 6) What type of memory stores software programs and instructions while the computer is turned on? What special considerations must be taken to preserve this type of memory on a computer at a crime scene? Answer (should include points such as): Random-access memory (RAM) stores software programs and instructions while the computer is turned on. It is also referred to as volatile memory because it is not permanent; its contents are lost forever once power is taken away from the computer. Therefore, the investigator must not automatically unplug the computer at a crime scene before data from RAM is acquired. Page Ref: 502-503 Objective: Describe the hardware and software components of a computer.; Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive.; Describe the proper procedure for preserving computer evidence at a crime scene. Level: Intermediate 7) What are the three areas in which an investigator can find visible data on a computer? Answer: Visible data can be found in data/work product files, swap file data, and temporary files. Latent data can be found in slack space, unallocated space, swap file/swap space, and deleted files. Page Ref: 493-498 Objective: Explain the analysis of visible and latent data. Level: Basic 595 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) What does IP stand for in IP address? What function can an IP address serve in a forensic investigation? Answer (should include points such as): IP stands for Internet protocol. IP addresses provide the means by which data can be routed to the appropriate location, and they also provide the means by which most Internet investigations are conducted. Thus the IP address may lead to the identification of a real person. Page Ref: 501 Objective: Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Basic 9) List four mobile services that are offered on today’s mobile devices and explain their potential evidentiary value. Answer (should include points such as): • Short Message Services (SMS) – Text messaging. Can establish a link between two people who have messaged each other. • Multimedia Message Service (MMS) – A text with a video, sound file, or picture. Can implicate individuals in crimes. • Contact Lists and Call History – Information of individuals associated with the owner of the device, and a log of recent contacts and the length of contact. • Calendars, Appointments, and Tasks – May provide evidence of a suspect’s actions on a particular date. • Internet Access/Internet History/Internet Communication – Can link a suspect to a particular site or screen name, and can show past visited sites. • Digital Camera/Video – Camera roll can show past activity of owner, potentially incriminating activity. • E-Mail – Shows email communication between owner and individuals. • Global Positioning System (GPS) and Map Data – Can document the travel history of a suspect. Page Ref: 504 Objective: Describe the types of services offered by modern mobile devices, such as cell phones, and the potential investigative value they have. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 19 Critical Thinking 1) An investigator would like to take a forensic “image” of a suspect’s HDD. What is the primary goal in obtaining data from a HDD? What tools can the investigator use to achieve this goal? Answer (should include points such as): The primary goal in obtaining data from a HDD is to do so without altering even one bit of data. A Message Digest 5 (MD5)/Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) takes a “fingerprint” of a hard disk drive (HDD) before and after forensic imaging. A forensic computer examiner would run such an algorithm to demonstrate that the forensic image recovered is all-inclusive of the original contents and that nothing was altered in the process. 596 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 492 Objective: Explain how data is stored and retrieved from a hard disk drive. Level: Intermediate 2) List four places where a forensic computer examiner might look to determine what websites a computer user has visited recently. What kind of leads could this information provide to the investigator? Answer (should include points such as): Four places where a forensic computer examiner might look to determine what websites a computer user has visited recently are the Internet cache, cookies, the Internet history, and bookmarks. This information tells the investigator what kind of sites a user has visited and the timeline for these visitations. The investigator may learn what online news a person is interested in or what type of hobbies he or she has. He or she may also see child pornography or computer hacking sites recorded. Additionally, considered against other evidence in the computer data, the presence of a particular cookie may have corroborative value. Page Ref: 499-500 Objective: Relate various areas found on the computer where a user’s Internet activities can be investigated; Explain the role of IP in forensic investigation of Internet communications. Level: Difficult

Chapter 20 Mobile Device Forensics Chapter 20 Multiple Choice 1) What does 1G consist of? A) Analog networks B) Digital networks C) Broadband networks D) Native IP networks Answer: A Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Basic 2) What does 2G consist of? A) Analog networks B) Digital networks C) Broadband networks D) Native IP networks Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Basic 3) What does 3G consist of? A) Analog networks B) Digital networks C) Broadband networks D) Native IP networks Answer: C Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Basic 4) What does 4G consist of? A) Analog networks B) Digital networks C) Broadband networks D) Native IP networks Answer: D Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Basic 598 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) In 2001, mobile Broadband networks (3G) arrived on the scene in what country? A) North Korea B) China C) Japan D) India Answer: C Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Intermediate 6) The Smartphone was developed under which technology? A) Digital networks B) Broadband networks C) Native IP networks D) Analog networks Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Intermediate 7) Since the ________, the concepts of handoff and frequency reuse allowed users to move between cells without dropping calls. A) 1960s B) 1970s C) 1980s D) 1990s Answer: A Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Intermediate 8) What type of network devices started using operating systems? A) 1G B) 2G C) 3G D) 4G Answer: B Page Ref: 512 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Intermediate

9) Feature phones have divergent — based upon the phone — feature sets. These core features usually are: A) Phone and text. B) E-mail and camera. C) Applications and media. D) Both A and B Answer: D Page Ref: 512 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 10) Working on what type of surface increases the danger of static electricity? A) Metal tables B) Hardwood floors C) Carpet D) Lab desk Answer: C Page Ref: 515 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 11) It may not be possible to recover deleted file items from a mobile device, such as: A) E-mails. B) Text messages. C) Photos. D) All the above Answer: D Page Ref: 517 Objective: Explain the two procedures used to extract useful data from mobile devices. Level: Intermediate 12) How many types of chains of evidence are there? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 Answer: B Page Ref: 521 Objective: Explain how mobile devices fit into a digital investigation. Level: Intermediate

13) When working on electronic devices, what should you use to dissipate any static charge that might damage electronic chips? A) Rubber-soled shoes B) Prevention of physical contact C) Gloves D) Grounded anti-static wristband Answer: D Page Ref: 515 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Basic 14) What does SIM stand for? A) Subscriber Identity Module B) Source Information Memory C) Simple Identification Mount D) Subscriber Identification Memory Answer: A Page Ref: 516 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Basic 15) What would an investigator do with the SIM card to retain a perfect copy for evidentiary purposes? A) Take a picture B) Upload to a PC C) Clone the SIM D) Properly store in evidence Answer: C Page Ref: 516 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 16) What does the ICCID contain? A) IIN (issuer identification number) B) UPC (universal purchase code number) C) PID (phone identification number) D) IP address Answer: A Page Ref: 516 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 601 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

17) Because a mobile device is similar a computer and transmits wireless signals, what laws does an investigator need to follow? A) Radio laws B) First Amendment rights C) Computer laws D) Both A and C Answer: D Page Ref: 517 Objective: Explain the forensic challenges in examining mobile devices in comparison with personal computers. Level: Intermediate 18) What feature on a mobile device can help an investigator establish a timeline? A) GPS B) NFC C) Android Beam D) Bluetooth Answer: A Page Ref: 518 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 19) What is another name for a temporal chain of events? A) Cause and effect B) A timeline C) Crime assessment D) Crime log Answer: B Page Ref: 521 Objective: Explain the forensic challenges in examining mobile devices in comparison with personal computers. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 20 True/False 1) Mobile devices began as an outgrowth of ship-to-shore radios in World War I. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Basic 602 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) 2G appeared in the 1990s using two standards: GSM & CDMA. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Basic 3) Analog phones have divergent feature sets. The core features usually were phone, e-mail, text, and camera. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 4) 2G and 3G phones are closest in architecture and design to a PC. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 511 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 5) Just because an app is written for Apple’s iOS operating system does not mean that it runs equally well or behaves the same on the iPad and iPhone. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 512 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 6) From a forensic perspective it is a toss-up as to how much data you may be able to extract from a 2G device. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 512 Objective: Explain the two procedures used to extract useful data from mobile devices. Level: Intermediate 603 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) It may not be possible to recover deleted file items from a mobile device such as e-mails, texts, and photos. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 517 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 8) Physical extraction is a snapshot of the file system showing what the file system wants you to see. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 514 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 9) Logical extractions are useful only when the physical option is not available because of the device itself. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 514 Objective: Explain the two procedures used to extract useful data from mobile devices. Level: Intermediate 10) All mobile devices have architecture. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 513 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Basic 11) SD cards and SIM cards perform the same way. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 516 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 604 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Each SIM card has an international mobile subscriber identity number that associates the phone with the subscriber’s mobile network. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 516 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 13) All mobile devices use SIM cards. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 516 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Basic 14) An integrated circuit identification (ICCID) number is located on each SIM. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 516 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 15) Even though some mobile devices are really small computers with computer-like operating systems, they can usually be examined using typical computer forensic tools. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 514 Objective: Explain the forensic challenges in examining mobile devices in comparison with personal computers. Level: Intermediate 16) By cloning the SIM card, the investigator retains a perfect copy for evidentiary purposes. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 516

Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 17) Blackberry is the only mobile device that can be recovered directly. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 517 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 18) One interesting aspect of mobile device forensics is geolocation. Some devices and many apps report out the geographical location of the device. That can make it much easier to track the owner’s movements. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 513 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 19) A digital forensic investigation depends upon timelines for its success. When overlaid on the timelines of a physical crime, the timelines from mobile devices and computers provide an excellent yardstick by which to measure the play of events surrounding the crime itself. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 518 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 20) Causal chains of evidence describe the events of a crime in terms of cause and effect. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 521 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate

21) Some tools, such as Cellebrite’s UFED Touch, are quite clear about which devices support physical extraction. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 514 Objective: Explain how mobile devices fit into a digital investigation. Level: Intermediate 22) You can’t use a 1G phone to track a 15-year-old crime. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 512 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Basic 23) When a mobile device is set to use WiFi, it will recognize any WiFi network in its range but may not be able to join the network because of the security settings on the WiFi access point—the mobile device will see it and note that it exists. When that happens, the device takes note of the network and logs it. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 521 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 24) Users of mobile devices need to manually perform various forms of housekeeping from small simple tasks like doing routine checks of address books and contacts to larger tasks such as connecting to local WiFi connections, formatting storage, clearing out device memory, or forcing background programs to close. A) True B) False Answer: B Page Ref: 521 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate

25) The amount of information we can get from a mobile device varies greatly with the device in question. A) True B) False Answer: A Page Ref: 521 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 20 Fill in the Blank 1) Since the 1960s, the concepts of handoff and frequency reuse allowed users to move between ________ without dropping a call. Answer: Cells Page Ref: 511 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 2) In many ways mobile device forensics is similar to ________ forensics. Answer: Computer Page Ref: 512 Objective: Explain the forensic challenges in examining mobile devices in comparison with personal computers. Level: Basic 3) When ________ was launched in Japan in 2001, moving photos over the network, streaming video and television, video chat, and other advanced services now could be supported. Answer: 3G Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Intermediate 4) ________ phones have divergent (based upon the phone) feature sets. The core features are usually phone, e-mail, text, and camera. Answer: Feature Page Ref: 512 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”. Level: Intermediate 5) 3G and 4G mobile devices have the ability to download and install ________, the same as a PC or MAC. Answer: Applications Page Ref: 513 608 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Objective: Explain the forensic challenges in examining mobile devices in comparison with personal computers. Level: Basic 6) ________ devices were the first to use an operating system. Answer: 2G Page Ref: 512 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”.; Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 7) When working with mobile devices, ________ searching is probably the most useful source of information available to the investigator. Answer: Web Page Ref: 514 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate 8) ________ forensic images are bit-by-bit copies of the file system, including deleted data. Answer: Physical Page Ref: 514 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Difficult 9) Each SIM has an international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) number that associates the phone with the subscriber’s mobile ________. Answer: Network Page Ref: 516 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Intermediate 10) It often is desirable to ________ the SIM in much the same way one would take a physical image of the mobile device or a computer. Answer: Clone Page Ref: 516 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Basic 11) ________ crime assessment is a technique that can be used when faced with a physical crime (murder, rape, robbery, etc.) and there is a digital element to it—a computer, cell phone, or other mobile device. Answer: Hybrid 609 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Page Ref: 521 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Difficult 12) Tools such as ________ and MPE+ greatly simplify mobile forensic work. Answer: UFED Page Ref: 514 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate

Chapter 20 Matching Match the word in Column 1 to its definition in Column 2. Each answer can only be used once. A) A cellular network facility that allows users to send and receive text messages B) A software mechanism that defines the way files are named, stored, organized, and accessed C) A set of standards for second-generation cellular networks D) Assessment of the actual geographical location of a mobile device E) A custom-designed program that controls the components of mobile devices and facilitates how they function. F) A snapshot of the file system of a mobile device G) A storage expansion card for a mobile device H) The traditional method of modulating radio signals so that they can carry information I)

A term describing a wireless Local Area Network

A spread-spectrum technology for cellular networks

K) A duplicate of data located on a mobile device L) The smart card that is inserted into a mobile device that identifies the user account to the network, handles authentication, and provides storage for basic user data and network information M) The basic components of a mobile device N) A communication channel that can provide higher-speed data communication than a standard telephone circuit O) A system for determining position by comparing radio signals from several satellites 1) Analog Page Ref: 511 Level: Basic 2) Architecture Page Ref: 513 Level: Basic 610 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Broadband Page Ref: 511 Level: Basic 4) CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) Page Ref: 511 Level: Basic 5) File system Page Ref: 517 Level: Basic 6) Geolocation Page Ref: 513 Level: Basic 7) GPS (Global Positioning System) Page Ref: 513 Level: Basic 8) GSM (Global System for Mobile Communication) Page Ref: 511 Level: Basic 9) Logical extraction Page Ref: 514 Level: Basic 10) Operating system Page Ref: 512 Level: Basic 11) Physical extraction Page Ref: 514 Level: Basic 12) SIM card Page Ref: 516 Level: Basic 13) SD card Page Ref: 516 Level: Basic 14) SMS (Short Message Service) Page Ref: 518 Level: Basic

15) WiFi Page Ref: 511 Level: Basic Answers: 1) H 2) M 3) N 4) J 5) B 6) D 7) O 8) C 9) F 10) E 11) K 12) L 13) G 14) A 15) I

Chapter 20 Essay 1) What value can be gleaned from each generation of mobile device (1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G)? What are their strengths and weaknesses? Answer (should include points such as): Each represents a generation of mobile devices. In each new generation starting from 1G and going to the current generation (4G at the time of writing), new features, functionality, and network types (digital or analog) define the devices of that generation. Knowing the capabilities and limitations of each generation informs the analysis of the particular device. 1G was analog network similar to radios, and the main function was sending and receiving phone calls. 2G was the first digital network with feature phones that could send and receive SMS (text) messages, synchronize with email, and other features that would open the door for the next generation. 2G systems were circuit switched and 3G systems are packet switched. The advent of packet-switched mobile phone networks allowed virtually any kind of data to be accessed by the mobile device. 3G and 4G are mobile broadband networks allowing for a more data-intensive workload. Page Ref: 511 Objective: Identify the types of computing devices categorized as “mobile devices”.; Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Difficult 2) Describe the two different types of chain of evidence and how they can be used in the investigative process. Answer: Chain of evidence (as opposed to chain of custody) describes the events and concomitant evidence that make up the events of the crime. There are two types of chains of evidence. Temporal chains show events in the order in time in which they occurred. This is commonly called a timeline and is the easiest way for laypeople, such as triers of fact, to visualize a crime, especially a complicated one. Causal chains of evidence describe the events of a crime in terms of cause and effect. The links in the chain are the pieces of evidence, and they are tied together based upon how one link affects one or more other links. We could say that our first link causes the next link to occur, which in turn causes two other links (events) to happen, and so on, until the events of the crime fully describe the crime itself. In the temporal chain, a technique called hybrid crime assessment enters the picture. Page Ref: 520-521 Objective: Describe the types of evidence that can be found on mobile devices and how it is recovered. Level: Intermediate

3) Even though mobile devices are really small computers with computer-like OSs, they usually cannot be examined using typical computer forensic tools. Elaborate on some of the differences between examining a 4G smartphone and a computer. Answer (should include points such as): Each mobile device has its own quirks, and each device needs special connectors and special device drivers on the tool that is examining it to decipher what is on the device’s storage. Device storage also takes several forms. The nature of the architecture is different between mobile devices and computers. Mobile devices have special requirements such as multiple radios, size restrictions, and storage space. Another challenge is the chipset used to build the phone. Page Ref: 513-514 Objective: Explain the forensic challenges in examining mobile devices in comparison with personal computers. Level: Intermediate 4) Describe the process of using each generation of mobile device to create a timeline and correlate events on the device. Answer: The initial generation of devices contained little information to catalog events and provided as much information as landline telephones did, because these devices could only communicate via telephone calls and provide similar information to timeline events that landline telephones could provide. The second and third generations of mobile phones introduced several adventitious features such as text messages, on-device calendars, in-depth call logs, etc. These components could all be used to create a catalog of events in order to determine when or even where specific events have taken place. The current (4G) generation transformed this to an even further extent with the ability to synchronize and use social media networks such as Facebook and Twitter on individual devices. Combining this with additional downloadable software from application marketplaces can provide a nearly limitless collection of information that could be used to create an extremely detailed timeline of events. Page Ref: 512-513 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts. Level: Difficult

Chapter 20 Critical Thinking 1) If there is a GPS capability on a smartphone, how might the investigator use it in the investigation? Answer: GPS can locate the user’s activities, and, when used with a timeline, can place the user in the vicinity of a crime. Timelines are the meat and potatoes of digital forensic investigations. Because computers and mobile devices have a fairly accurate clock, examiners can match the activities on these devices to physical crime activities to do a precrime, peri-crime (during the crime event), and post-crime analysis of a suspect’s behavior. For example, with the Garmin Nuvi 40 GPS, the UFED provides a timeline, but since this is a GPS the timeline is associated with a specific location. In addition to the timeline graph, there are specific entries noting where the GPS was located at a particular latitude and longitude at a particular time. 613 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.

Following the track of locations using Google Maps and these coordinates is a straightforward way to track the progress of the GPS during some particular period of time. To make the tracking easier, the GPS provides a list of journeys, each with the coordinates of waypoints over the course of the trip. That can be correlated back to the timeline view for devices that have been used heavily, simplifying the tracking of the GPS on specific dates of interest. Additionally, the GPS provides a list of favorite destinations with their coordinates. Page Ref: 513 Objective: Explain the architecture of mobile devices that provides forensically valuable artifacts.; Explain how mobile devices fit into a digital investigation. Level: Intermediate 2) When should an examiner do a physical extraction versus a logical extraction, or both? Answer: Logical images are fairly fast for most devices, depending on how much memory the device has and how much of the memory is full. Physical images can take a very long time to make because on a large storage device, even if the storage is not full, the imager must look at the entire memory footprint, not just the part that has something saved to it. Based on what can be done for the particular device, the examiner should decide whether to obtain a physical or logical extraction or both. The logical extraction is fairly fast, and one may want to examine it for obvious evidence while the tool is making a physical image of the target. Page Ref: 514-515 Objective: Explain the two procedures used to extract useful data from mobile devices.

Level: Intermediate