TEST BANK for Dental Radiography Principles and Techniques 6th Edition Joen, Laura Jansen by ACADEMIAMILL

Chapter_01.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radiation is defined as a. a form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles. b. a beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and

record image shadows on a receptor. c. a high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube. d. a branch of medicine that deals with the use of x-rays. ANS: a

Radiation is a form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles. An x-ray is a beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on a receptor. X-radiation is a high-energy radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an x-ray tube. Radiology is a branch of medicine that deals with the use of x-rays. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 1 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 2. A radiograph is defined as a. a beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and

record image shadows on a receptor. b. an image or picture produced on a receptor by exposure to ionizing radiation. c. the art and science of making radiographs by the exposure of an image receptor to x-rays. d. a form of energy carried by waves or a stream of particles. ANS: b

An x-ray is a beam of energy that has the power to penetrate substances and record image shadows on a receptor. A radiograph is an image or picture produced on a receptor by exposure to ionizing radiation. Radiography is the art and science of making dental images by the exposure of a receptor to x-rays. Radiation is a form of energy carried by waves or streams of particles. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 1 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 3. Your patient asked you why dental images are important. Which of

the following is the correct response? a. An oral examination with dental images limits the practitioner to what

is seen clinically. b. All dental diseases and conditions produce clinical signs and symptoms. c. Dental images are not a necessary component of comprehensive patient care. d. Many dental diseases are typically discovered only through the use of dental images. ANS: d

An oral examination without dental images limits the practitioner to what is seen clinically. Many dental diseases and conditions produce no clinical signs and symptoms. Dental images are a necessary component of comprehensive patient care. Many dental diseases are typically discovered only through the use of dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 1 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General

4. The x-ray was discovered by a. Heinrich Geissler. b. Wilhelm Roentgen. c. Johann Hittorf. d. William Crookes. ANS: b

Heinrich Geissler built the first vacuum tube in 1838. Wilhelm Roentgen discovered the x-ray on November 8, 1895. Johann Hittorf observed in 1870 that discharges emitted from the negative electrode of a vacuum tube traveled in straight lines, produced heat, and resulted in a greenish fluorescence. William Crookes discovered in the late 1870s that cathode rays were streams of charged particles. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 1 | Page 2 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. Who exposed the first dental radiograph in the United States using a

live person? a. Otto Walkoff b. Wilhelm Roentgen c. Edmund Kells d. Weston Price ANS: c

Otto Walkoff was a German dentist who made the first dental radiograph. Wilhelm Roentgen was a Bavarian physicist who discovered the x-ray. Edmund Kells exposed the first dental radiograph in the United States using a live person. Price introduced the bisecting technique in 1904. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 3 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. Current fast radiographic film requires ____% less exposure time than

the initial exposure times used in 1920. a. 33 b. 98 c. 73 d. 2 ANS: b

Current radiographic film requires more than 33% less exposure time than times in 1920. Current fast radiographic film requires 98% less exposure time than the initial exposure times used in 1920, which, in turn, reduces the patient's exposure to radiation. Current radiographic film has reduced exposure time more than 73%. Current radiographic film requires less than 2% of the initial exposure times needed in 1920. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 3 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General

7. Who modified the paralleling technique with the introduction of the

long-cone technique? a. C. Edmund Kells b. Franklin W. McCormack c. F. Gordon Fitzgerald d. Howard Riley Raper ANS: c

C. Edmund Kells introduced the paralleling technique in 1896. Franklin W. McCormack reintroduced the paralleling technique in 1920. F. Gordon Fitzgerald modified the paralleling technique with the introduction of the long-cone technique in 1947. This is the technique currently used. Howard Riley Raper modified the bisecting technique and introduced the bite-wing technique in 1925. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 4 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. Which of the following is an advantage of digital imaging? a. Increased patient radiation exposure b. Increased patient comfort c. Increased speed for viewing images d. Increased chemical usage ANS: c

Patient exposure is reduced with digital imaging. Digital sensors are more sensitive to x-rays than film. Digital sensors are rigid and bulky, causing decreased patient comfort. The image from digital sensors is uploaded directly to the computer and monitor without the need for chemical processing. This allows for immediate interpretation and evaluation. The image from digital sensors is uploaded directly to the computer and monitor without the need for chemical processing. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 4 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2. Demonstrate basic knowledge of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. Which discovery was the precursor to the discovery of x-rays?

a. Beta particles b. Alpha particles c. Cathode rays d. Radioactive materials ANS: c

Beta particles are fast moving electrons emitted from the nucleus of radioactive atoms and are not associated with x-rays. Alpha particles are emitted from the nuclei of heavy metals and are not associated with x-rays. Wilhelm Roentgen was experimenting with cathode rays when he discovered x-rays. Radioactive materials are certain unstable atoms or elements that are in the process of spontaneous disintegration or decay. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 2 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. Which of the following would you place in the patient's mouth in

order to take dental x-rays? a. Image b. Image receptor c. Radiograph d. Dental radiograph ANS: b

An image is a picture or likeness of an object. An image receptor is the recording medium (film, phosphor plate, or digital sensor) that is placed in the patient's mouth to record the image produced by the x-rays. A radiograph is an image of two-dimensional representation of a three-dimensional object. A dental radiograph is the dental image produced on a recording medium. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 1

OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_02.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The fundamental unit of matter is the a. proton. b. neutron. c. electron. d. atom. ANS: d

A proton is a subatomic particle. A neutron is a subatomic particle. An electron is a subatomic particle. The fundamental unit of matter is the atom. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 7 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 2. The nucleus of an atom contains a. protons. b. neutrons. c. protons and neutrons. d. electrons. ANS: c

The nucleus of an atom contains neutrons as well as protons. The nucleus of an atom contains protons as well as neutrons. The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons. The nucleus of an atom does not contain electrons; it contains protons and neutrons. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 7 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation

MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 3. Which subatomic particle carries a negative electrical charge? a. A neutron b. A proton c. An electron d. A nucleon ANS: c

A neutron does not carry an electrical charge. A proton carries a positive electrical charge. An electron carries a negative electrical charge. A nucleon carries a positive (proton) or no (neutron) electrical charge. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 7 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 4. Which of the following elements is the simplest atom? a. Hydrogen (H #1) b. Helium (He #2) c. Nitrogen (N #7) d. Oxygen (O #8) ANS: a

Atomic numbers are assigned from simplest to most complex. Hydrogen is the simplest atom; with a single proton, it has an atomic number of 1. Helium has an atomic number of 2. Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7. Oxygen has an atomic number of 8. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 7 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1

Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 5. Which of the following statements is true of orbits or shells in the

atom? a. Protons travel around the nucleus in well-defined shells. b. An atom contains innumerable shells. c. The energy level within each shell is the same. d. The orbiting shell closest to the nucleus has the highest energy level. ANS: d

Electrons travel around the nucleus in well-defined shells. An atom contains a maximum of seven shells. Each of the maximum seven shells within an atom represents a different energy level. The orbiting shell closest to the nucleus has the highest energy level. The K shell is the orbiting shell closest to the nucleus. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 7 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 6. The binding energy or binding force of an electron is a. determined by the distance between the neutrons and protons within

the nucleus. b. determined by the distance between the orbiting electrons and the nucleus. c. weaker for electrons located in inner shells than in outer shells. d. determined by the atomic number. ANS: b

The binding energy or binding force of an electron is not determined by the distance between the neutrons and protons within the nucleus. The binding energy or binding force of an electron is determined by the distance between the nucleus and the orbiting electrons and is different

for each shell. The binding energy or binding force of an electron is stronger for electrons located in inner shells than for outer shells. The binding energy is not determined by the atomic number. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 7 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, N/A MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 7. Which of the following statements is true of ionization? a. An atom that gains an electron will have a negative charge. b. An atom that loses an electron will have a negative charge. c. An atom that loses an electron will have a positive charge. d. An atom that gains an electron has a negative charge, and an atom that

loses an electron has a positive charge. ANS: d

This answer is not the best answer. An atom that gains an electron has a negative charge; however, an atom that loses an electron has a positive charge. An atom that loses an electron will have a positive charge. An atom that loses an electron has a positive charge; however, an atom that gains an electron has a negative charge. An atom that gains an electron will have a negative charge, and an atom that loses an electron will have a positive charge. An atom that gains or loses an electron and becomes electrically unbalanced is known as an ion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 9 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, N/A MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 8. An ion pair results when a. a proton is removed from an atom.

b. an electron is removed from an atom. c. a neutron is removed from an atom. d. two atoms share a pair of electrons. ANS: b

An ion pair results when an electron is removed from an atom rather than a proton. When an electron is removed from an atom in the ionization process, an ion pair results. The atom becomes the positive ion, and the ejected electron becomes the negative ion. An ion pair results when an electron is removed from an atom rather than a neutron. A molecule occurs when two atoms share a pair of electrons. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 9 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 9. (1) Radiation is the emission and propagation of energy through space

or a substance in the form of waves or particles. (2) Radioactivity can be defined as the process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or decay, in an effort to attain a more balanced nuclear state. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Radiation is used in dentistry, not radioactivity. Radiation is the emission and propagation of energy through space or a substance in the form of waves or particles. Radioactivity can be defined as the process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or decay, in an effort to attain a more balanced nuclear state. Radioactivity can be defined as the process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or

decay, in an effort to attain a more balanced nuclear state. Radiation is the emission and propagation of energy through space or a substance in the form of waves or particles. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 9 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 10. The spontaneous emission of radiation from the disintegration of

unstable atomic nuclei is a. beta particle decay. b. radiation. c. radioactivity. d. alpha particle decay. ANS: c

Beta particles are fast-moving electrons emitted from the nucleus of radioactive atoms. Radiation is the emission and propagation of energy through space or a substance in the form of waves or particles. Radioactivity is the process by which certain unstable atoms or elements undergo spontaneous disintegration, or decay, in an effort to attain a more balanced nuclear state. Alpha particles are emitted from the nuclei of heavy metals and exist as two protons and neutrons, without electrons. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 9 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 11. Which of the following statements is true of ionizing radiation? a. It is radiation that is capable of producing ions by removing or adding

an electron to an atom. b. It is strictly an electromagnetic radiation and does not involve particles that have mass. c. It is strictly particulate radiation and cannot travel as waves. d. It can only travel at the speed of light. ANS: a

It is radiation that is capable of producing ions by removing or adding an electron to an atom. Ionizing radiation involves both particulate and electromagnetic radiation. There are two groups of ionizing radiation: particulate radiation and electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation, a type of ionizing radiation, travels at the speed of light. Particulate radiation travels at varying speeds. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 9 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 12. Cathode rays are derived from which of the following types of

particulate radiation? a. Electrons b. Alpha particles c. Protons d. Neutrons ANS: a

Cathode rays are derived from electrons. Alpha particles are emitted from the nuclei of heavy metals. Protons are accelerated particles with a mass of 1 and a charge of +1. Neutrons are accelerated particles with a mass of 1 and no electrical charge. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 9 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation

MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 13. Electromagnetic radiation a. is entirely human-made. b. includes x-rays and visible light. c. is a form of particulate radiation. d. has mass. ANS: b

Electromagnetic radiations are human-made or occur naturally. Electromagnetic radiations include x-rays and visible light. Electromagnetic radiations are not a form of particulate radiation. Electromagnetic radiations do not have mass.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 9 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 14. Which of the following forms of electromagnetic radiation are

capable of ionization? a. Radio waves b. Visible light c. Ultraviolet light d. X-rays ANS: d

Radio waves are not capable of ionization. Visible light is not capable of ionization. Ultraviolet light is not capable of ionization. Of the forms of electromagnetic radiation listed, only x-rays are capable of ionization. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 10 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation

MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 15. Photons are a. bundles of energy with mass and weight. b. bundles of energy that travel at the speed of sound. c. a component of the particle concept of electromagnetic radiation. d. a component of the wave concept of electromagnetic radiation. ANS: c

Photons are bundles of energy without mass or weight. Photons travel at the speed of light rather than sound. Photons are a component of the particle concept of electromagnetic radiation. Photons are not a component of the wave concept. The wave concept includes the properties of velocity, wavelength, and frequency. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 10 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 16. Which of the following statements is true of the wave concept of

electromagnetic radiation? a. Wavelength refers to the speed of the wave. b. Velocity refers to the number of wavelengths that pass a given point in

a certain amount of time. c. Frequency is defined as the distance between the crest of one wave and the crest of the next. d. Frequency and wavelength are inversely related. ANS: d

Wavelength is defined as the distance between the crest of one wave and the crest of the next. Velocity refers to the speed of the wave. Frequency refers to the number of wavelengths that pass a given point in a certain amount of time. Frequency and wavelength are inversely related: if the

frequency of the wave is high, the wavelength will be short, and if the frequency is low, the wavelength will be long. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 10 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 17. Which of the following forms of electromagnetic radiation has the

shortest wavelength? a. Radio wave b. Television wave c. Radar wave d. Dental x-ray wave ANS: d

A radio wave has a wavelength as long as 100 meters. A television wave has a wavelength of approximately 1 meter. A radar wave has a wavelength of 1/100 of a meter. The dental x-ray wave has a wavelength of 0.1 nanometer, or 0.00000000001 meter. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 10 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 18. Which of the following components of the x-ray machine would

have two indicator lights? a. X-ray tube b. X-ray tubehead c. The control panel d. The extension arm ANS: c

The x-ray tube is inside the tubehead; it does not have indicator lights. The x-ray tubehead contains the x-ray tube; it does not have indicator lights. The control panel has an indicator light for the on-off switch and an indicator light for the exposure button. The extension arm is used to position the tubehead; it does not have indicator lights. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 11 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 19. Heat is a byproduct of x-ray production. Which component of the

x-ray tubehead dissipates the heat created by the production of x-rays? a. Metal housing b. Insulating oil c. Aluminum discs d. Lead collimator ANS: b

The metal housing protects the x-ray tube and grounds the high-voltage components. Insulating oil absorbs heat created by the production of x-rays. Aluminum discs filter out nonpenetrating, longer-wavelength x-rays. The lead collimator restricts the size of the x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 11 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, N/A MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 20. Your patient had x-rays taken in her previous dental office. She

notices that the long metal tube at the end of the x-ray head is longer than it was at the other office. What explanation would you give for the purpose of the tube, or cone, attached to the x-ray head?

a. It surrounds the x-ray tube, protects the x-ray tube, and grounds the

high-voltage components. b. It seals the oil in the tubehead and acts as a filter to the x-ray beam. c. It filters out the nonpenetrating, longer-wavelength x-rays. d. It aims and shapes the x-ray beam. ANS: d

The metal housing surrounds and protects the x-ray tube and grounds the high-voltage components. The tubehead seals the oil in the tubehead and acts as a filter to the x-ray beam. Aluminum discs filter out the nonpenetrating, longer-wavelength x-rays. The position-indicating device aims and shapes the x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 11 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 21. Within the x-ray tube, electrons are generated by the a. tungsten filament in the cathode. b. tungsten filament in the anode. c. molybdenum cup. d. copper stem. ANS: a

Within the x-ray tube, electrons are generated by the tungsten filament in the cathode. The tungsten target is in the anode, not the tungsten filament. The molybdenum cup focuses the electrons into a narrow beam and directs the beam across the tube toward the tungsten target of the anode. The copper stem functions to dissipate heat away from the tungsten target. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 13

OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 22. The purpose of the anode is to a. produce electrons when heated. b. convert electrons into x-ray photons. c. absorb heat created by the production of x-rays. d. filter out nonpenetrating, longer-wavelength x-rays. ANS: b

The purpose of the cathode is to produce electrons when heated. The purpose of the anode is to convert electrons into x-ray photons. The purpose of insulating oil is to absorb heat created by the production of x-rays. The purpose of aluminum discs is to filter out nonpenetrating, longer-wavelength x-rays. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 13 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

23. In the dental x-ray tube, the number of electrons created is controlled

by a. alternating current. b. direct current. c. milliamperage. d. kilovoltage. ANS: c

Alternating current describes a current in which the electrons flow in two opposite directions. Direct current describes a current in which the

electrons flow in one direction through a conductor. Milliamperage in the dental x-ray tube controls the number of electrons created that will move through a conductor. Kilovoltage in the dental x-ray tube controls the electrical force or speed that moves electrons from a negative pole (cathode) to a positive one (anode). PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 14 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 24. Your x-ray machine runs off 110 volts. Theoretically what would

occur if there was no step-down transformer in the x-ray control panel? a. Too few electrons would be produced for the purpose of dental x-rays.

65,000 to 100,000 volts are required to heat the tungsten filament. b. Too few electrons would be produced for the purpose of dental x-rays. 50,000 to 75,000 volts are required to heat the tungsten filament. c. Too many electrons would be produced for the purpose of dental x-rays. Only 3 to 5 volts are required to heat the tungsten filament. d. There would be no interruption in function of the machine. ANS: c

The step-up transformer is used to increase the voltage to the 65,000 to 100,000 volts required. 65,000 to 100,000 volts are needed to activate the high-voltage circuit to accelerate the electrons to the anode. A step-down transformer is used to decrease the voltage from the incoming 110- or 220-line voltage to the 3 to 5 volts required. The step-up transformer is used to increase the voltage to the 65,000 to 100,000 volts required. Too many electrons would be produced for the purpose of dental x-rays. Only 3 to 5 volts are required to heat the tungsten filament. A step-down transformer is used to decrease the volts from 110 to 220 volts to the required 3 to 5 volts. Too many electrons would be produced for the purpose of dental x-rays. PTS: 1

DIF: Application REF: Page 14 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 25. Thermionic emission of electrons occurs at the a. tungsten filament in the anode. b. tungsten filament in the cathode. c. copper stem. d. molybdenum cup. ANS: b

Thermionic emission of electrons does not occur at the anode. Thermionic emission of electrons occurs at the tungsten filament in the cathode. The copper stem functions as a heat sink for the tungsten target. The molybdenum cup focuses the electrons into a narrow beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 14 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

26. Approximately what percentage of the kinetic energy of the electrons

is converted to x-rays at the anode? a. Less than 1% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100% ANS: a

Less than 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the anode. 25% is incorrect; less than 1% of the kinetic energy of the

electrons is converted to x-rays at the anode. 50% is incorrect; less than 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the anode. 100% is incorrect; less than 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the anode. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 15 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 27. The lead collimator a. carries away the heat produced during the production of x-rays. b. permits a small number of x-rays to exit from the x-ray tube. c. filters the longer-wavelength x-rays from the beam. d. restricts the size of the x-ray beam. ANS: d

The copper stem carries away the heat produced during the production of x-rays. The unleaded glass window portion of the tube permits a small number of x-rays to exit from the x-ray tube. The aluminum disc filters the longer-wavelength x-rays from the beam. The lead collimator restricts the size of the x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 11 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

28. Which of the following statements is true of characteristic radiation? a. It is also known as braking (bremsstrahlung) radiation. b. It only occurs at 70 kV and above.

c. It is the source of the majority of x-rays that are produced. d. The high-speed electron passes close to the nucleus or hits the nucleus

of the tungsten atom. ANS: b

General radiation is known as braking, or bremsstrahlung, radiation. Characteristic radiation is not the same as general radiation. Characteristic radiation occurs at 70 kV and above. General radiation is the source of the majority of the x-rays that are produced. The speeding electron passes close to the nucleus or hits the nucleus of the tungsten atom in general radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 15 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 29. Which form of the x-ray beam is most detrimental to the patient and

operator? a. Primary radiation b. Secondary radiation c. Scatter radiation d. Useful beam ANS: c

Primary radiation is the penetrating x-ray beam produced at the target of the anode. Secondary radiation is created when the primary beam interacts with matter. Scatter radiation is the most detrimental to the patient and operator. The useful beam is another term for primary radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 15 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and

hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 30. Which is the most common possibility when an x-ray photon

interacts with matter? a. No interaction b. Absorption or photoelectric effect c. Compton scatter d. Coherent scatter ANS: c

No interaction means the photon passed through matter without any interaction. Absorption (photoelectric effect) accounts for 30% of the interactions with matter from the dental x-ray beam. Compton scatter accounts for 62% of the interactions with matter that occur in diagnostic radiography. Coherent scatter accounts for only 8% of the interactions with matter from the dental x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 17 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 31. Which of the following four possibilities that can occur when an

x-ray photon interacts with matter is responsible for producing densities on a dental receptor that make dental radiography possible? a. No interaction b. Absorption or photoelectric effect c. Compton scatter d. Coherent scatter ANS: a

X-ray photons that pass through a patient without interaction are

responsible for producing the densities on a dental receptor that make dental radiography possible. Absorption or photoelectric effect is incorrect; x-ray photons that pass through a patient without interaction are responsible for producing densities on a dental receptor that make dental radiography possible. Compton scatter is incorrect; x-ray photons that pass through a patient without interaction are responsible for producing densities on a dental receptor that make dental radiography possible. Coherent scatter is incorrect; x-ray photons that pass through a patient without interaction are responsible for producing densities on a dental receptor that make dental radiography possible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 16 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

32. (1) X-ray photon production occurs as a result of both general and

characteristic radiation. (2) General radiation accounts for a small number of x-ray photons produced because it takes high kV to dislodge the electrons from the K shell. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

General radiation accounts for a small number of x-ray photons produced because it takes high kV to dislodge the electrons from the K shell. X-ray photon production occurs as a result of both general and characteristic radiation. X-ray photon production occurs as a result of both general and characteristic radiation; however, it is characteristic radiation that accounts for a small number of x-ray photons produced because it is through characteristic radiation that electrons are ejected

from the K shell, which results in the production of x-ray photons. X-ray photon production occurs as a result of both general and characteristic radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 15 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 33. Interaction with the x-ray photon as a result of the photoelectric

effect is harmful to the patient because ionization occurs. a. The statement is true. b. The statement is false. c. The first part of the statement is true, but the second part of the

statement is false. d. The first part of the statement is false, but the second part of the statement is true. ANS: a

An x-ray photon collides with a tightly bound, inner-shell electron and gives up all its energy to eject the electron from its orbit. Absorption is harmful to the patient because ionization occurs. Absorption, one of the types of interactions with the x-ray photon, occurs as a result of the photoelectric effect. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 16 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 34. Which would you adjust if you wanted to create a larger electron

cloud?

a. Milliamperage b. Kilovoltage c. Step-up transformer d. Step-down transformer ANS: a

Milliamperage controls the number of electrons produced in the electron cloud. Kilovoltage controls the speed or force with which the electron cloud is propelled to the anode. The step-up transformer increases the incoming voltage from 110 to 220 volts to 65,000 to 100,000 volts. The step-down transformer decreases the incoming voltage from 110 to 220 volts to 3 to 5 volts. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 14 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 35. Which would you adjust if you wanted to produce characteristic

radiation? a. Milliamperage b. Kilovoltage c. Step-up transformer d. Step-down transformer ANS: b

Milliamperage controls the number of electrons produced in the electron cloud; the number of electrons does not affect the production of characteristic radiation. The kilovoltage control would be adjusted. Kilovoltage controls the speed or force with which the electron cloud is propelled to the anode. Characteristic radiation occurs at 70 kV or higher. The step-up transformer increases the incoming voltage from 110 to 220 volts to 65,000 to 100,000 volts. The step-down transformer

decreases the incoming voltage from 110 to 220 volts to 3 to 5 volts. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 14 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 36. Which property of x-rays allows for the image on the receptor? a. Fluorescence b. Penetrating power c. Focusing capability d. Effect on living tissue ANS: b

X-rays have fluorescence capability, and they can cause substances to fluoresce. However, this is not a property that produces an image on a receptor. The penetrating power of the x-ray determines the x-ray's ability to penetrate matter. The amount of x-rays that pass through or are that are absorbed creates the image on the receptor. The focusing ability, which means an x-ray cannot be focused to a point, does not affect the production of an image on the receptor. X-rays cause biologic changes to living cells; this does not affect the production of an image on the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 10 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

Chapter_03.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. (1) All ionizing radiations cause damage to living tissues. (2)

Although very little radiation is used in dentistry, damage to the cells does occur. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The damaging biological effects of x-radiation were first documented shortly after the discovery of x-rays. All ionizing radiations are harmful and produce biologic changes in living tissue. The amount of radiation used in dental imaging is small, but biologic damage does occur. The amount of radiation used in dental imaging is small, but biologic damage does occur. All ionizing radiations are harmful and produce biologic changes in living tissue. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 21 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 2. What specific mechanism of radiation injury may result in the

formation of hydrogen peroxide when x-ray energy is absorbed by patients? a. An ejected high-speed electron may interact with other atoms within

absorbing tissues. b. Free radical formation created by the ionization of water may occur. c. Unequal charge distribution may result in negative electrical potential. d. Creation of a magnetic field may cause polarization.

ANS: b

This is an example of ionization; hydrogen peroxide may be formed as a result of free radical formation. Free radical formation created by the ionization of water may occur. Hydrogen peroxide may be formed as a result of the recombination of free radicals created by the ionization of water. Negative electrical potential is not the mechanism of radiation injury that may result in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Creation of a magnetic field is not the mechanism of radiation injury that may result in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 21 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

3. Which of the following statements is true regarding the direct theory

of radiation injury? a. It involves absorption of an x-ray photon by water within a cell. b. It involves the formation of toxins that damage the cell. c. It involves damage to the critical areas of a cell through direct contact

with the x-ray photon. d. It involves the formation of free radicals. ANS: c

The indirect theory of radiation injury involves absorption of an x-ray photon by water within a cell. The indirect theory of radiation injury involves the formation of toxins that damage cells. The direct theory of radiation injury involves a direct hit to and absorption of an x-ray photon within critical areas of a cell. The indirect theory of radiation injury involves the formation of free radicals. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 21 OBJ: 2

TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 4. The indirect theory proposes that a. toxins are created from the formation of free radicals. b. ionizing radiation strikes critical areas within cells. c. direct injuries occur more frequently than indirect injuries. d. changes occur to the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) of a cell. ANS: a

The indirect theory proposes that free radicals combine to form toxins. The direct theory proposes that ionizing radiation directly hits critical areas within cells. Indirect injuries occur more frequently than direct injuries. The direct theory proposes that the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) of a cell is damaged during radiation exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 21 | Page 22 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 5. According to the dose-response curve, when dose and damage are

plotted on a graph, a _____________________ relationship is seen. a. nonlinear, nonthreshold b. linear, nonthreshold c. nonlinear, threshold d. linear, threshold ANS: b

The relationship is linear rather than nonlinear. When dose and damage are plotted on a graph, a linear, nonthreshold relationship is seen. A linear relationship indicates that the response of the tissues is directly

proportional to the dose. A nonthreshold relationship indicates that a threshold dose level for damage does not exist. A nonthreshold relationship is seen rather than a threshold relationship. A nonlinear, nonthreshold rather than a linear, threshold relationship is seen.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 22 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 6. A nonthreshold dose-response curve suggests that a. radiation exposure below the threshold will not damage tissues. b. radiation exposure below the threshold is safe for living tissue. c. radiation exposure above the threshold amount causes some damage

to tissues. d. radiation exposure, no matter how small, causes damage to living tissue. ANS: d

Some biologic damage occurs no matter how small the dose. There is no threshold for a nonthreshold dose-response curve. Any radiation exposure causes some damage to tissues. A nonthreshold dose-response curve suggests that no matter how small the amount of radiation received, some biologic damage occurs. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 22 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 7. Stochastic biologic effects from radiation

a. are directly related to exposure and effect. b. occur as a result of exposure, but severity is not determined by dose. c. have a dose threshold. d. cause significant damage to cell or cell death. ANS: b

Nonstochastic biologic effects from radiation are directly related to exposure and effect. Stochastic biologic effects from radiation occur as a direct function of dose. Nonstochastic biologic effects from radiation have a dose threshold; stochastic biologic effects from radiation do not have a dose threshold. Nonstochastic biologic effects cause significant damage to a cell or cell death. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 23 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 8. Which of the following is an example of stochastic effects? a. Erythema b. Cancer c. Hair loss d. Radiation sickness ANS: b

Erythema is an example of a nonstochastic effect. Cancer is an example of a stochastic effect. Hair loss is an example of a nonstochastic effect. Radiation sickness is an example of a nonstochastic effect. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 23 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of

Radiologic Health 9. Your patient was out in the hot, bright sun yesterday. While in the sun

she began experiencing pain and noticed her skin had turned bright red. Shortly after arriving home, she began to experience chills, nausea, severe pain, and blistering. Why would your patient experience the symptoms so quickly? a. The latent period was decreased by the increased dose and dose rate. b. The latent period was increased by the increased dose and dose rate. c. The latent period was decreased by the increased area of tissue

irradiated and the number of sensitive cells. d. The latent period was not affected. ANS: a

The latent period is shortened or lengthened based on the total dose and rate of radiation. The less radiation received and the slower the dose rate, the longer the latent period. The more radiation received and the faster the dose rate, the shorter the latent period. The hot, bright sun was an increase in dose and dose rate. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 23 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 10. Cellular injuries following the latent period may include (1) cell

death, (2) cessation of mitotic activity, and/or (3) abnormal mitotic activity. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 3 d. 1 only ANS: a

Cellular injuries following the latent period may include cell death, cessation of mitotic activity, or abnormal mitotic activity. Abnormal mitotic activity is true as well as cell death and cessation of mitotic activity. Cessation of mitotic activity is true as well as cell death and abnormal mitotic activity. Cessation of mitotic activity and abnormal mitotic activity are true as well as cell death. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 23 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 11. ___________ refers to the total amount of radiation that is received

or absorbed. a. Total dose b. Dose rate c. Amount of tissue irradiated d. Cell sensitivity ANS: a

Total dose refers to the quantity of radiation received or the total amount of radiation energy absorbed. Dose rate is the rate at which exposure to radiation occurs and absorption takes place. Amount of tissue irradiated refers to the areas of the body exposed. Cell sensitivity refers to the susceptibility of the particular type of cell to radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 23 OBJ: 1 | 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 12. (1) More radiation damage takes place with high dose rates (2)

because a rapid delivery of radiation does not allow time for cellular damage to be repaired. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The dose rate is the rate at which exposure to radiation occurs an absorption takes place. More radiation damage takes place with high dose rates, because a rapid delivery of radiation does not allow time for cellular damage to be repaired. A rapid delivery of radiation does not allow time for cellular damage to be repaired. More radiation damage takes place with high dose rates. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 23 OBJ: 1 | 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 13. Which types of cells are more sensitive to radiation: (1) rapidly

dividing, (2) slowly dividing, (3) young, and/or (4) old? a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 ANS: a

Rapidly dividing, young cells are most sensitive to radiation. Old cells are less sensitive to radiation. Slowly dividing cells are less sensitive to radiation. Slowly dividing old cells are less sensitive to radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 23

OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 14. Which of the following is associated with long-term radiation

effects? a. Symptoms include diarrhea, hair loss, and hemorrhage. b. Small amounts of radiation absorbed over a long period c. Acute radiation syndrome d. The injury period in the sequence of radiation injury is seen within

minutes, days, or weeks of radiation exposure. ANS: b

Symptoms of short-term radiation effects include diarrhea, hair loss, and hemorrhage. Long-term radiation effects are associated with small amounts of radiation absorbed over a long period. Short-term radiation effects are associated with large amounts of radiation absorbed over a short time. Short-term radiation effects are associated with acute radiation syndrome. Clinical effects that are seen within minutes, days, or weeks of the radiation exposure are termed short-term effects. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 15. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of acute radiation

syndrome (ARS)? a. Genetic defects b. Birth abnormalities c. Hair loss d. Cancer

ANS: c

Genetic defects are considered a long-term effect of radiation exposure. Birth abnormalities are considered a long-term effect of radiation exposure. Hair loss is considered a short-term effect of radiation exposure and is a symptom of acute radiation syndrome (ARS). Cancer is considered a long-term effect of radiation exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 16. Which of the following statements is true of somatic effects of

irradiation? a. Changes are not transmitted to future generations. b. Changes are in the genetic cells of the individual. c. Mutations occur that affect the health of offspring. d. Damage cannot be repaired. ANS: a

Somatic effects are not transmitted to future generations. Changes in genetic cells of the individual are a genetic effect. Mutations that affect the health of offspring are a genetic effect. Genetic damage cannot be repaired. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

17. Which of the following cells would be the most sensitive to x-rays?

a. Nerve b. Bone c. Muscle d. Blood ANS: d

A nerve cell is more radioresistant than a blood cell. A bone cell is more radioresistant than a blood cell. A muscle cell is more radioresistant than a blood cell. Blood cells are more radiosensitive than bone, muscle, or nerve cells. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 24 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 18. Which of the following is the least sensitive to x-rays? a. Bone marrow b. Salivary glands c. Lymphoid tissue d. Intestines ANS: b

Bone marrow is considered to be radiosensitive. Salivary glands are considered to be radioresistant tissues. Lymphoid tissue is considered to be radiosensitive. Intestines are considered to be radiosensitive. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 24 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 19. Precautions should be taken during dental imaging procedures to

which of the following critical organs in the head and neck region? (1) skin, (2) thyroid gland, (3) lens of the eye, and (4) bone marrow a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 2, 4 ANS: a

Critical organs exposed during dental imaging procedures in the head and neck region include skin, thyroid gland, lens of the eye, and bone marrow. Skin, thyroid gland, and lens of the eye are true; however, bone marrow is also correct. Skin, thyroid gland, and bone marrow are true; however, lens of the eye is also correct. Thyroid gland and bone marrow are true; however, skin and lens of the eye are also correct. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 26 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 20. The traditional unit of dose is called a. the roentgen (R). b. the radiation absorbed dose (rad). c. the roentgen equivalent in man (rem). d. the gray (Gy). ANS: b

The roentgen is the traditional unit of exposure for x-rays; the traditional unit of dose is the rad. The traditional unit of dose is called the rad. The rem is the traditional unit of the dose equivalent; the traditional unit of dose is the rad. The gray is the SI unit equivalent to the rad; the traditional unit of dose is the rad. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 26 OBJ: 1 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 21. One gray is equivalent to ______ rad(s). a. 1 b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000 ANS: c

One gray is equivalent to 100 rads.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 OBJ: 1 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 22. The SI equivalent of the rem is a. the rad. b. the gray. c. the sievert. d. the roentgen. ANS: c

The rad is a traditional unit of radiation measurement. The gray is the SI equivalent of the radiation measurement. The SI equivalent of the rem is the sievert. The roentgen is the traditional unit of radiation measurement. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 OBJ: 7

daily activities. Which of these sources is human-made? a. Radon gas b. Atomic fallout c. Terrestrial radiation d. Radioactive potassium ANS: b

Radon gas is an example of natural background radiation. Naturally occurring background radiation includes radon gas, cosmic radiation, radioactive potassium, and terrestrial radiation; atomic fallout is a form of artificial radiation. Terrestrial radiation is an example of background radiation. Radioactive potassium is an example of background radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 27 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 24. Uranium is an example of __________ radiation. a. terrestrial b. cosmic c. artificial d. internal ANS: a

Uranium is an example of terrestrial radiation; cosmic radiation originates from the stars and sun. Uranium is a form of naturally occurring terrestrial background radiation. Computer screens, a

consumer product, are an example of artificial or human-made radiation. Water supplies containing radon that a person consumes are an example of internal radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 25. ________________ is/are the single largest contributor to artificial

radiation exposure (0.00053 Sv/year). a. Consumer products b. Medical radiation c. Fallout from atomic weapons d. The nuclear fuel cycle ANS: b

Consumer products contribute 0.00009 Sv/year, less than medical radiation. Medical radiation is the single largest contributor to artificial radiation exposure. Fallout from atomic weapons contributes <0.00001 Sv/year, less than medical radiation. The nuclear fuel cycle contributes <0.00001 Sv/year, less than medical radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 26. Which of the following statements is true of the average dose of

background radiation received by an individual in the United States? a. The average dose of background radiation a person living in the

United States receives each year is 6.2 mSv. b. Geographic areas at higher elevations are associated with increased amounts of cosmic radiation. c. Geographic areas that contain more radioactive materials are associated with increased amounts of cosmic radiation. d. A wood home has a higher natural radiation level than a brick home. ANS: b

The average dose of background radiation a person living in the United States receives each year is 3.1 mSv. Geographic areas at higher elevations are associated with increased amounts of cosmic radiation. Geographic areas that contain more radioactive materials are associated with increased amounts of terrestrial radiation. The type of home construction affects background radiation exposure; a brick home has a higher natural radiation level than a home made of wood. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 27. The potential risk of dental radiography inducing a fatal cancer in an

individual is about _________ the risk of a person developing cancer spontaneously. a. 1/10 b. 1/100 c. 1/1000 d. 1/1,000,000 ANS: c

The risk is less than 1/10. The risk is less than 1/100. The potential risk of dental radiography inducing a fatal cancer in an individual is about 1/1000 the risk of a person developing cancer spontaneously. The potential risk of dental imaging inducing a fatal cancer in an individual

has been estimated to be about 3 in 1 million.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 27 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 28. A 1 in 1 million risk of a fatal outcome is associated with which of

the following activities? a. Riding 10 miles on a bike b. Riding 300 miles in an auto c. Riding 1000 miles in an airplane d. All three of the above activities ANS: d

A 1 in 1 million risk of a fatal outcome is associated with riding 10 miles on a bike. A 1 in 1 million risk of a fatal outcome is associated with riding 300 miles in an auto. A 1 in 1 million risk of a fatal outcome is associated with riding 1000 miles in an airplane. A 1 in 1 million risk of a fatal outcome is associated with riding 10 miles on a bike, 300 miles in an auto, or 1000 miles in an airplane. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 29. Risk estimates suggest (1) that death is more likely to occur from

common activities than from dental imaging procedures and (2) that cancer is much more likely to be unrelated to dental imaging radiation exposure.

a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The risks from dental imaging are not significantly greater than the risks of other everyday activities in modern life. Risk estimates suggest that death is more likely to occur from common activities than from dental imaging procedures and that cancer is much more likely to be unrelated to radiation exposure. Cancer is much more likely to be unrelated to radiation exposure. Risk estimates suggest that death is more likely to occur from common activities. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 27 | Page 28 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 30. The use of F-speed film instead of D-speed film reduces the

absorbed dose by ____%. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 60 ANS: d

Use of F-speed film reduces the absorbed dose by more than 10%. F-speed film reduces the absorbed dose by more than 25%. Using F-speed film reduces the absorbed dose by more than 50%. The use of F-speed film instead of D-speed film reduces the absorbed dose by 60%. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 28 OBJ: 11

following explanations would you give to your patient to help calm her concerns? a. I will be using a digital sensor; this will reduce x-ray exposure by

30% over the use of conventional film. b. I am using this collimator attachment, which will decrease the x-ray dose you receive by 60% to 70%. c. I will be using the bisecting technique for receptor placement, which will reduce exposure. d. A sign of excessive radiation exposure to the skin is reddening or erythema. I would have to take more than 30 exposures using film, not digital, during a 14-day period to cause reddening. I will only be taking 20 digital x-rays. ANS: b

Use of digital radiographs rather than F-speed film will decrease patient exposure to radiation during dental imaging procedures by 50% to 90%. Rectangular collimation will decrease patient exposure to radiation during dental imaging procedures by 60% to 70%. The bisecting technique uses a shorter source-to-receptor distance, which will increase patient exposure to radiation. The paralleling technique, which uses a longer source-to-receptor distance, will reduce patient exposure to radiation during dental radiographic procedures. Erythema occurs after the absorption of 250 rads (2.5 Gy) in a 14-day period. That is equal to 500 dental films. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 28 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of

Radiologic Health 32. Which of the following combinations will result in the lowest

absorbed dose for the patient from a 20-film series of dental radiographs? a. Round collimation with digital sensor b. Rectangular collimation with digital sensor c. Round collimation with F-speed film d. Rectangular collimation with F-speed film ANS: b

Rectangular collimation will reduce the dose more than round collimation. The lowest absorbed dose for the patient from a 20-film series of dental radiographs will result from the use of rectangular collimation with a digital sensor. Rectangular collimation reduces the dose more than round collimation. The lowest absorbed dose for the patient from a 20-film series of dental radiographs will result from the use of rectangular collimation with F-speed film. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 28 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 33. Your patient is receiving radiation treatments for breast cancer. She

reports having a burning sore throat and great difficulty swallowing. Which stage of the radiation injury sequence is your patient in? a. Injury b. Recovery c. Latent d. Cumulative effects ANS: a

Signs and symptoms of radiation exposure occur during the injury

period. Repair of damaged tissues occurs during the recovery period. The latency period occurs between the radiation exposure and the onset of clinical signs. The unrepaired damage that accumulates as a result of repeated radiation exposure is known as cumulative effects. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 23 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 34. Your patient is concerned about being exposed to dental x-rays.

Which of the following could you tell your patient to alleviate her fears? a. We take x-rays once a year, it is safe, and that is all your insurance

will pay for. b. Your risk of getting cancer from dental x-rays is only 2 times greater than getting cancer spontaneously. c. The risks from dental imaging are not significantly greater than the risks of other everyday activities in modern life. d. Three fourths of the radiation exposure you will have throughout your life will come from background radiation. ANS: c

Dental images should be prescribed for a patient only when the benefit of disease detection outweighs the risk of biologic damage. The potential risk of dental imaging inducing a fatal cancer in an individual has been estimated to be approximately 3 in 1 million. The risk of a person developing cancer spontaneously is much higher, or 3300 in 1 million. The risks from dental imaging are not significantly greater than the risks of other everyday activities in modern life. One half of the radiation exposure you will have throughout your life will come from background radiation. In the United States, the average person is exposed to a total of 6.2 mSv of radiation per year (3.1 mSv from natural sources + 3.1 mSv from human-made sources = 6.2 mSv total). PTS: 1

DIF: Application REF: Page 28 OBJ: 10 | 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 35. Explain to your patient the steps, in order, in the formation of

hydrogen peroxide, a toxin that will cause damage to living tissues. 1. Free radicals combine 2. Free radical formation 3. Cellular dysfunction and biologic damage 4. X-ray photons are absorbed by water a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 4, 2, 1, 3 c. 2, 1, 4, 3 d. 2, 4, 1, 3 ANS: b

Free radicals form before they combine. X-ray photons are absorbed by water, free radical formation, free radicals combine, and cellular dysfunction and biologic damage. X-ray photons are absorbed by water to form free radicals. X-ray photons are absorbed by water before free radicals are formed. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 21 | Page 22 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 36. The bombing at Nagasaki and Hiroshima took place in 1945; an

increase in the incidence of cancer was noted in 1956. Which effects apply to the cancer incidence?

a. Short-term, somatic b. Long-term, somatic c. Short-term, genetic d. Long-term, genetic ANS: b

Examples of short-term effects are nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and hair loss. Short-term effects occur hours, days, weeks after a large dose exposure; somatic effects occur in non-reproductive cells (to the person exposed); genetic effects occur in future generations. Long-term effects occur years or decades after an exposure. Long-term effects are usually repetitive and in small doses; somatic effects occur in non-reproductive cells (to the person exposed); genetic effects occur in future generations. Cancer is an example of a long-term effect. Long-term effects occur years or decades after an exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 24 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.2. Demonstrate understanding of x-radiation biology MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology | NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

Chapter_04.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following should you do prior to taking x-rays to protect

your patient from radiation exposure? a. Proper film processing b. Proper prescribing of radiographs c. A lead apron d. A thyroid collar ANS: b

Proper film processing is an example of a patient protection technique used after x-ray exposure. Proper prescribing of radiographs is an example of a patient protection technique used before x-ray exposure. A lead apron is an example of a patient protection technique used during x-ray exposure. A thyroid collar is an example of a patient protection technique used during x-ray exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 31 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.3. Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 2. The "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs" state that a. dentulous adult recall patients at increased risk for caries should have

posterior bite-wing examinations at 12- to 24-month intervals. b. x-rays are not taken on patients who are pregnant unless absolutely necessary. c. edentulous adults should have posterior bite-wing examinations at 12to 36-month intervals. d. dentulous adult recall patients who are not at increased risk for caries should have posterior bite-wing examinations at 24- to 36-month intervals.

ANS: d

Dentulous adult recall patients at increased risk for caries should have posterior bite-wing examinations at 6- to 18-month intervals. The recommendations for prescribing radiographs do not need to be altered for pregnancy. Edentulous adults do not need bite-wing radiographs. The "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs" state that dentulous adult recall patients who are not at increased risk for caries should have posterior bite-wing examinations at 24- to 36-month intervals. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 31 | Page 32 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.A. Identify current ADA guidelines for frequency of exposure to radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 3. Inherent filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead a. includes filtration that takes place when the primary beam passes

through the glass window of the x-ray tube, the insulating oil, and the tubehead seal. b. includes the placement of aluminum discs in the path of the x-ray beam between the collimator and the tubehead seal. c. alone meets the standards regulated by state and federal law. d. is equivalent to approximately 5.0 mm of aluminum. ANS: a

Inherent filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead includes filtration that takes place when the primary beam passes through the glass window of the x-ray tube, the insulating oil, and the tubehead seal. Added filtration includes the placement of aluminum discs in the path of the x-ray beam between the collimator and the tubehead seal. Inherent filtration alone does not meet the standards regulated by state and federal law. Inherent filtration is equivalent to approximately 0.5 to 1.0 mm of aluminum. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 31 OBJ: 3

TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 4. Added filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead a. refers to the placement of tungsten discs in the path of the x-ray beam

between the collimator and the tubehead seal. b. filters out shorter-wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam. c. results in a lower-energy beam. d. results in a more penetrating useful beam. ANS: d

Added filtration refers to the placement of aluminum discs in the path of the x-ray beam between the collimator and the tubehead seal. Added filtration filters out longer wavelength x-rays from the x-ray beam. Added filtration results in a higher energy beam. Added filtration in the dental x-ray tubehead results in a more penetrating useful beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 31 | Page 34 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 5. State and federal laws require that dental x-ray machines operating

above 70 kVp have a minimum total (inherent plus added filtration) of ____ mm of aluminum filtration. a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 2.5 d. 5.0 ANS: c

Dental x-ray machines must have more than 1.5 mm of aluminum filtration. Dental x-ray machines must have more than 1.5 mm of aluminum filtration. State and federal laws require that dental x-ray

machines operating above 70 kVp have a minimum total (inherent plus added filtration) of 2.5 mm of aluminum filtration. Dental x-ray machines do not require 5.0 mm of aluminum filtration. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 34 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 6. The collimator ____________. a. is always round b. restricts the size and shape of the x-ray beam c. is a solid piece of aluminum d. is fitted within the copper stem beneath the molybdenum cup ANS: b

The collimator may have either a round or a rectangular opening. The collimator restricts the size and shape of the x-ray beam. The collimator is a lead plate; the filter is aluminum. The collimator is fitted directly over the opening of the machine housing where the x-ray beam exits the tubehead. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 34 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 7. A circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is

__________ inch(es) in diameter. a. <1 b. 1.25 c. 2.75 d. 5.0

ANS: c

The circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is more than 1.0 inch in diameter. The circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is more than 1.25 inches in diameter. The circular collimator produces a cone-shaped beam that is 2.75 inches in diameter. The circular collimator produces a con-shaped beam that is less than 5.00 inches in diameter. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 34 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 8. A rectangular collimator a. restricts the beam 3 times more than a circular collimator. b. restricts the beam less than a circular collimator. c. decreases patient exposure considerably. d. is considerably larger than a size 2 intraoral receptor. ANS: c

A rectangular collimator restricts the size of the x-ray beam more than a circular collimator, but not 3 times. A rectangular collimator restricts the beam more than a circular collimator. A rectangular collimator significantly reduces patient exposure. A rectangular collimator is slightly larger than a size 2 intraoral receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 34 | Page 35 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 9. Which of the following types of position-indicating devices (PIDs)

produce excess scatter radiation?

a. Rectangular b. Conical c. Round d. Square ANS: b

Rectangular PIDs do not produce excess scatter radiation. Conical PIDs produce excess scatter radiation. The conical PID is no longer used in dentistry. Round PIDs do not produce excess scatter radiation. PIDs are not square. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 34 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

10. Which type of PID would be most effective in reducing patient

exposure? a. Conical b. A 16-inch round PID c. An 8-inch rectangular PID d. A 16-inch rectangular PID ANS: d

A conical PID would be least effective in reducing patient exposure. A 16-inch round PID would not be as effective in reducing patient exposure as a 16-inch rectangular PID. An 8-inch rectangular PID would not be as effective as a 16-inch rectangular PID in reducing patient exposure. A 16-inch rectangular PID would be most effective in reducing patient exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 34 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety

MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 11. The thyroid collar a. is recommended for all intraoral exposures. b. is recommended for all extraoral exposures. c. is placed over the patient's chest and lap and extends to protect the

thyroid. d. is recommended for both intraoral and extraoral exposures. ANS: a

A thyroid collar is recommended for all intraoral exposures. The thyroid collar is not recommended for extraoral exposures. The lead apron is placed over the patient's chest and lap; the thyroid collar, if attached, extends to protect the thyroid. The lead apron with the thyroid collar is recommended for both intraoral and extraoral exposures. The lead apron without the thyroid collar is used for extraoral exposures. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 36 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.3. Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 12. The lead apron a. is recommended for intraoral exposures. b. is not recommended for extraoral exposures. c. is an option; use is not mandated by any state or federal law. d. is used to protect the thyroid gland. ANS: a

The lead apron is recommended for intraoral exposures (and extraoral films as well). The lead apron is recommended for extraoral exposures. The lead apron is not an option; many state laws mandate the use of a lead apron on all patients. The thyroid collar is used to protect the thyroid gland. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 36 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.3. Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 13. ____-speed film is currently the fastest intraoral film available. a. D b. E c. F d. G ANS: c

D-speed film (Ultra-Speed) is the oldest and slowest intraoral film available. E-speed film (Ekta-Speed) is faster than D-speed film but slower than F-speed film. F-speed film (InSight) is currently the fastest intraoral film available. G-speed film does not exist at this time. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 36 | Page 37 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.3. Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 14. On some dental x-ray machines, only the ____________ can be

altered; the other parameters are preset by the manufacturer. a. kilovoltage b. exposure time c. PID length d. milliamperage ANS: b

The kilovoltage is preset by the manufacturer. On some dental x-ray machines, only the exposure time can be altered. The PID length is determined by the manufacturer. The milliamperage is preset by the

manufacturer.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 37 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 15. Which of the following can you do after x-ray receptor exposure to

reduce(s) the amount of x-radiation your patient receives? a. Proper placement of the lead apron b. Proper image retrieval c. Proper instrument technique d. Selecting proper exposure settings ANS: c

Proper placement of the lead apron protects the patient during x-ray exposure. Proper image retrieval or receptor processing reduces the amount of x-radiation a patient would receive from retakes. Proper instrument technique reduces the amount of x-radiation a patient receives during x-ray exposure. Selecting proper exposure settings limits the amount of x-radiation a patient receives. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 37 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2. Demonstrate basic knowledge of digital radiography | CDA, RHS, I.B.3. Demonstrate basic knowledge of conventional film processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 16. The primary dictum of operator protection guidelines is that the

operator must a. remain in the room with the patient while the receptor is being

exposed. b. avoid the primary beam.

c. hold the receptor in the patient's mouth with their own finger. d. hold the tubehead during x-ray exposure. ANS: b

The operator must stand at least 6 feet away from the x-ray tubehead during x-ray exposure. The primary dictum of operator protection guidelines is that the operator must avoid the primary beam. The operator must never hold a receptor in place for a patient during x-ray exposure. The dental radiographer must never hold the tubehead during x-ray exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 37 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

17. In order to avoid the primary beam while taking dental images, you

should stand at a ____-degree to ____-degree angle to the beam. a. 0; 45 b. 45; 90 c. 90; 135 d. 135; 180 ANS: c

0-degree to 45-degree angle does not avoid the primary beam. 45-degrees to 90-degrees does not avoid the primary beam. To avoid the primary beam, the dental radiographer must be positioned at a 90-degree to 135-degree angle to the beam. 135-degrees to 180 degrees does not avoid the primary beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 37 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

18. Radiation monitoring can be used to protect the dental radiographer

and includes monitoring of a. equipment but not personnel. b. personnel but not equipment. c. both equipment and personnel. d. drywall for residual radiation ANS: c

Choice A is true, but choice b is also correct. Choice B is true, but choice c is also correct. Radiation monitoring can be used to protect the dental radiographer and includes monitoring of both equipment and personnel. Drywall is not monitored for residual radiation because residual radiation does not exist. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 38 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 19. A film badge a. is worn at waist level by the patient. b. is worn at waist level by the operator. c. is clipped to the shirt pocket of the operator. d. is clipped to the shirt pocket of the patient. ANS: b

A film badge is worn at waist level by the operator, not the patient. A film badge is worn close to the critical reproductive organs at waist level by the operator. A film badge is worn at waist level by the operator, not clipped to the shirt pocket of the operator. A film badge is worn at waist level by the operator, not clipped to the shirt pocket of the patient. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 38

OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 20. (1) Radiation legislation varies greatly from state to state. (2) For

example, in some states a dental radiographer must successfully complete a radiation safety examination before he or she may expose dental x-rays. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Continuing education hours dedicated to dental imaging may also be required. Radiation legislation varies greatly from state to state. For example, in some states a dental radiographer must successfully complete a radiation safety examination before he or she may expose dental x-rays. Radiation legislation varies greatly from state to state. In some states a dental radiographer must successfully complete a radiation safety examination before he or she may expose dental x-rays. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 38 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 21. According to the current recommendations of the National Council

on Radiation Protection and Measurements, the current MPD for occupationally exposed persons is ___________/year. a. 5.0 mSv b. 50 mSv c. 500 mSv

d. 5000 mSv ANS: b

The current MPD for occupationally exposed persons is 50 mSv/year, not 5.0 mSv/year. According to the current recommendations of the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements, the current MPD for occupationally exposed persons is 50 mSv/year. The current MPD for occupationally exposed persons is 50 mSv/year, not 500 mSv/year. The current MPD for occupationally exposed persons is 50 mSv/year, not 5000 mSv/year. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 38 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

22. According to the current recommendations of the National Council

on Radiation Protection and Measurements, the current MPD for an occupationally exposed pregnant women is the equivalent of a. 50 mSv/year. b. 0.05 Sv per month. c. 0.5 mSv/month. d. 0.01 mSv/month. ANS: c

It is recommended that dental radiographers not exceed a maximum dose of 50 mSv in any 1 year. For pregnant dental personnel, the radiation exposure limit is 0.5 mSv rather than 0.05 Sv per month during the pregnancy months. For pregnant dental personnel, the radiation exposure limit is 0.5 mSv per month during the pregnancy months. For nonoccupationally exposed persons (i.e., the general public), the current MPD is approximately 1 mSv/year (0.1 rem/year). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 38

OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 23. The acronym for the maximum dose equivalent that a body is

permitted to receive within a specific period is the a. MPD-maximum permissible dose b. MPD-maximum possible dose c. MAD-maximum accumulated dose d. MAD-maximum allowed dose ANS: a

"MPD-maximum permissible dose" is the acronym for the maximum dose equivalent that a body is permitted to receive within a specific period. The MPD is the dose of radiation that the body can endure with little or no injury. MPD is the acronym for maximum permissible dose, not maximum possible dose. The acronym for the permitted lifetime accumulated dose is MAD-maximum accumulated dose, now known as cumulative occupational dose. MAD is the acronym for maximum accumulated dose, not maximum allowed dose. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 38 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 24. The ALARA concept states that all radiation must be kept a. as long as readily achievable. b. as low as reasonably allowable. c. as low as reasonably achievable. d. as long as reliably achievable. ANS: c

The ALARA concept states that all radiation must be kept as low as

"reasonably" rather than "readily" achievable. The ALARA concept states that all radiation must be kept as low as reasonably "achievable" rather than "allowable". The ALARA concept states that all radiation must be kept as low as reasonably achievable. The ALARA concept states that all radiation must be kept as low as "reasonably" rather than "reliably" achievable. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 39 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.C.3. Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 25. You are in charge of monitoring the film badges. Film badges are

checked on a quarterly basis. Your co-worker is 4 months pregnant. The badge registered 5.0 Sv for the previous quarter. Based on the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP), what information should you give the dentist? a. The reading is well below the allowable limit. Nothing needs to be

done. b. The reading is at the allowable limit. Nothing needs to be done. c. The reading is at the allowable limit. She has reached her maximum dosage and cannot have any more exposure during the pregnancy. d. She has exceeded her maximum dosage and cannot have any more exposure during the pregnancy. ANS: d

The radiation exposure limit is 0.5 mSv per month during the pregnancy months, so the co-worker has already received more than 3 times the MPD (maximum permissible dose) for the previous quarter and the reading is far above the allowable limit. The radiation exposure limit is 0.5 mSv per month during the pregnancy months, so the reading is far above rather than at the allowable limit. The radiation exposure limit is 0.5 mSv per month during the pregnancy months, so the co-worker is already far above the allowable limit. The radiation exposure limit is 0.5

mSv per month during the pregnancy months. She should not have any more exposure and the reason for the exposure received should be identified. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 38 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 26. You are 36 years old. What is your cumulative occupational dose

recommended by the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)? a. 360 millirems b. 360 mSv c. 180 millirems d. 180 mSv ANS: b

The NCRP recommendation is according to mSv rather than millirems. The NCRP has recommended that an individual's cumulative occupational effective dose not exceed the worker's age multiplied by 10 mSv, so the correct answer is 36 x 10 mSv = 360 mSv. The NCRP recommendation is based upon mSv and not millirems. The recommendation by the NCRP is that the cumulative occupational dose not exceed the workers age multiplied by 10 mSv rather than 5 mSv. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 39 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.E.2. Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 27. Your patient is a 5-year-old boy who you have been seeing since he

was 3 years old. He is always eating candy and drinking cola beverages. Six months ago he had A, J, and T restored. One year ago he had B, I,

and L restored. His dental insurance has coverage for one set of four bite-wing images once per calendar year. Which of the following should you do regarding taking radiographs? a. Take bite-wing images today. b. Insurance covers bite-wings once a year, take the dental images in 6

months. c. Re-evaluate in 1 year for the need for dental images. d. Dental images are taken every 2 years. ANS: a

Based on the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs", children at risk for caries should have a bite-wing and/or occlusal radiographic examination at 6- to 12-month intervals. Based on the previous incidence of decay, dental images would be warranted. Insurance benefits do not dictate the need for care. Although the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs" for children at risk for caries suggest a bite-wing and/or occlusal radiographic examination at 6- to 12-month intervals, based on the two previous incidences of decay, dental images at the preceding 6 month appointments, a 6-month interval would be warranted. The "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs" for children at risk for caries is a bite-wing and/or occlusal radiographic examination at 6- to 12-month intervals. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Pages 31-33 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.A. Identify current ADA guidelines for frequency of exposure to radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health 28. Your next patient is a 35-year-old man who you have been seeing for

the past 10 years. The only treatment he has needed since coming to the dental practice has been his 6-month "prophys." He has no periodontal issues and is on a 6-month recall cycle. You last took four bite-wing images 1 year ago. Which of the following should you do?

a. Take bite-wings during this appointment. b. Take the images in 6 months. c. Take the images in 1 to 2 years. d. No images will be needed for 5 years. ANS: c

Based on the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs", adult recall patients at risk of decay should have bite-wing examinations every 12 to 18 months. Only if there were previous incidences of decay would dental images be warranted on a yearly basis. Based on the previous incidence of decay, dental images on a yearly interval would be warranted. Based on these guidelines, dental images will not need to be taken for 1 to 2 years. Based on the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs", adult recall patients with little risk of decay should have bite-wing examinations every 24 to 36 months. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Pages 31-33 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.A. Identify current ADA guidelines for frequency of exposure to radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.2 Principles of Radiologic Health

Chapter_05.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In dental radiography, the term ________ is used to describe the mean

energy or penetrating ability of the x-ray beam. a. quality b. quantity c. intensity d. wavelength ANS: a

Quality is used to describe the mean energy or penetrating ability of the x-ray beam. Quantity refers to the number of x-rays produced. Intensity is defined as the product of the quantity and quality per unit of area per time of exposure. Wavelength determines the energy and penetrating power of radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 2. Which of the following statements is true of wavelength in reference

to radiation? a. X-rays with shorter wavelength have less penetrating power. b. X-rays with longer wavelength have less penetrating power. c. X-rays with longer wavelength are less likely to be absorbed by

matter. d. Milliamperage controls the wavelength and energy of the x-ray beam. ANS: b

X-rays with shorter wavelengths have more penetrating power. X-rays with longer wavelength have less penetrating power. X-rays with longer

wavelength are more likely to be absorbed by matter. Kilovoltage controls the wavelength and energy of the x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 3. ______________ is a measurement of force that refers to the potential

difference between two electrical charges. a. Exposure time b. Wavelength c. Voltage d. Ampere ANS: c

Exposure time refers to the interval of time during which x-rays are produced. Wavelength can be defined as the distance between the crest of one wave and the crest of the next wave. Voltage is a measurement of force that refers to the potential difference between two electrical charges. Ampere is the unit of measure used to describe the number of electrons, or current, flowing through the cathode filament. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 4. When the kilovoltage is increased a. electrons move from the anode to the cathode with more speed. b. photons move from the anode to the cathode with more speed.

c. electrons move from the cathode to the anode with more speed. d. photons move from the cathode to the anode with more speed. ANS: c

Electrons do not move from the anode to the cathode. Photons are produced at the target in the anode. Electrons move from the cathode to the anode. When the voltage is increased, electrons move from the cathode to the anode with more speed, striking the target with greater energy and force. Photons do not move from the cathode to the anode. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 43 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 5. Which of the following statements is true of the use of voltage in

dental x-ray equipment? a. Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of 3 to 5 volts for the

production of x-rays. b. Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of less than 60 kilovolts for the production of x-rays. c. Dental x-ray equipment uses more than 70 kilovolts for the production of x-rays. d. Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of 60 to 70 kilovolts for the production of x-rays. ANS: d

The filament circuit requires 3 to 5 volts; however, an exposure requires the use of 60 to 70 kilovolts (kV). The use of less than 60 kV does not allow adequate penetration. Current dental x-ray equipment uses between 60 and 70 kV, or else a fixed setting of 70 kV. Dental x-ray equipment requires the use of 60 to 70 kV. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 6. When contrasted with the use of 70 kV for dental x-rays, the use of 60

kV produces a. more penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelength. b. less penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelength. c. more penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength. d. less penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength. ANS: b

The use of 60 kV produces less penetrating dental x-rays with a longer wavelength due to less energy. The use of 60 kV produces less penetrating dental x-rays with longer wavelengths than 70 kV. The use of 70 kV for dental x-rays produces more penetrating dental x-rays with shorter wavelength than the use of 60 kV. The use of 70 kV produces more penetrating dental x-rays with a shorter wavelength due to more energy. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 43 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 7. The kV represents a. the mean x-ray tube voltage. b. the mean filament voltage. c. the maximum or peak voltage of an alternating current.

d. the maximum or peak voltage of a direct current. ANS: c

The mean x-ray tube voltage would indicate the average voltage. The mean filament voltage would indicate the average voltage of the filament. The kV represents the maximum or peak x-ray tube voltage of an alternating current. In current dental x-ray units this fluctuation is so very small that the kilovoltage can be considered as a fixed value during exposure. The kV represents the maximum or peak x-ray tube voltage of an alternating current rather than a direct current. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 8. When kilovolt is increased, a a. lower energy x-ray beam with increased penetrating ability results. b. lower energy x-ray beam with decreased penetrating ability results. c. higher energy x-ray beam with increased penetrating ability results. d. higher energy x-ray beam with decreased penetrating ability results. ANS: c

Increasing the kilovoltage would result in an x-ray beam with higher energy and increased penetrating ability. Increasing the kilovoltage would result in an x-ray beam with higher energy and the electrons would strike the target with more force and energy, resulting in a more penetrating x-ray beam. A higher energy x-ray beam with increased penetrating ability results. When kilovolt peak is increased, a higher energy x-ray beam with increased penetrating ability results. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 OBJ: 2

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 9. (1) Density is the overall darkness or blackness of a dental image. (2)

When the kilovoltage is increased while other exposure factors remain constant, the resultant image exhibits a decreased density and appears lighter. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The first statement is true; however, when the kilovolt is increased while other exposure factors remain constant, the resultant image exhibits an increased density and appears darker. Both statements are true. Density is the overall darkness or blackness of a dental image, however, increased kilovoltage will create a darker image with increased density because the photons have more penetrating ability and more will pass through the object and reach the image receptor. The first statement is true; however, the second statement is false. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 43 | Page 44 OBJ: 1 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

10. When lower kilovoltage settings are used, an image with ____ will

result. a. high contrast

b. low contrast c. many shades of gray d. there is no change in contrast ANS: a

When low kilovoltage settings are used, an image with high contrast will result; an image with few shades of gray will result (high contrast). Higher kilovoltage settings will result in an image with many shades of gray (low contrast). Many shades of gray would be observed in images taken with higher kilovoltage settings, this may be observed with the use of a stepwedge. Kilovoltage settings produce changes in contrast which may be observed on dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 44 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 11. An image with "low" contrast a. is useful for the detection of periodontal or periapical disease and has

many shades of gray. b. is useful for the detection and progression of dental caries and has many shades of gray. c. is useful for the detection of periodontal or periapical disease and has many black and white areas. d. is useful for the detection and progression of dental caries and has many black and white areas. ANS: a

An image with low contrast has many shades of gray and is useful for the detection of periodontal or periapical disease. An image with high contrast has many black and white areas and is useful for the detection and progression of dental caries. An image with low contrast is useful

for the detection of periodontal or periapical disease, but it has many shades of gray. An image with high contrast is useful for the detection of dental caries. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 44 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 12. Exposure time is measured in a. kV. b. milliamperage. c. density. d. hundredths of a second. ANS: d

kV is a measure of voltage. Milliamperage is a measure of the number of electrons flowing through the cathode filament. Density is a measure of the darkness of the film. Exposure time is measured in hundredths of a second in newer units designed to be used with digital imaging. Older x-ray machines may use a unit of time known as an impulse. One impulse occurs every 1/60 of a second, the frequency of alternating current (AC). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 44 | Page 45 OBJ: 1 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 13. The quantity of the x-rays produced is controlled by

a. voltage. b. kilovoltage. c. kilovoltage peak. d. milliamperage. ANS: d

Voltage controls the maximum penetrating power of the electrons (quality). Kilovoltage is the term for 1000 volts as dental exposures require large amounts of voltage. Kilovoltage peak represents the maximum voltage available and is only found with alternating current machines. The quantity of the x-rays produced is controlled by milliamperage. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 45 OBJ: 1 | 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 14. Amperage regulates the _________ of electrons produced at the

cathode filament. a. quality b. quantity c. speed d. power ANS: b

The quality, or wavelength and energy of the x-ray beam is controlled by kilovoltage. Amperage regulates the quantity of electrons produced at the cathode filament. Voltage regulates the quality (speed or power) of electrons produced at the cathode filament. The quality (speed or power) of electrons produced at the cathode filament is regulated by the voltage. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 45

OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 15. In regard to increasing density a. an increase in either kV or mA will increase density. b. an increase in kV will increase density, but an increase in mA will not

increase density. c. an increase in mA will increase density, but an increase in kV will not increase density. d. neither an increase in kV nor an increase in mA will increase density. ANS: a

An increase in either kV or mA will increase density. An increase in mA will increase density because an increase in the number of electrons available to travel from the cathode to the anode results in an increased number of x-rays. An increase in kV will increase density because an increase in the energy of electrons available to travel from the cathode to the anode results in more penetrating dental x-rays with greater energy. Production of dental x-rays with more energy (quality) or more numbers (quantity) will increase density. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 43 | Page 44 | Page 46 OBJ: 3 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 16. Which of the following changes will increase x-ray beam intensity? a. Decreasing the kilovoltage b. Decreasing the milliamperage

c. Decreasing the exposure time d. Decreasing the source-to-film distance ANS: d

Decreasing the kilovoltage will decrease x-ray beam intensity. Decreasing the milliamperage will decrease x-ray beam intensity. Decreasing the exposure time will decrease x-ray beam intensity. Decreasing the source-to-film distance will increase x-ray beam intensity. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 46 | Page 47 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 17. According to the inverse square law, the intensity of radiation is

__________ proportional to the ______________ from the source of radiation. a. directly; distance b. directly; square of the distance c. inversely; distance d. inversely; square of the distance ANS: d

It is inversely proportional (which means that as one variable increases), rather than directly proportional to the square of the distance. It is inversely proportional (which means that as one variable increases), rather than directly proportional. The intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance rather than the distance from the source of radiation. When the source-to-receptor distance increases, the intensity of the beam is decreased and when the distance is doubled, the resultant beam is one fourth as intense. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 47 OBJ: 1 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 18. According to the inverse square law, if the length of the PID is

halved, the resultant beam is ___________ as intense. a. four times b. twice c. half d. one quarter ANS: a

According to the inverse square law, if the length of the PID is halved, the resultant beam is four times as intense. It is the inverse square law, so the resultant beam would be four times as intense when the target-receptor distance is halved. Halving the PID shortens the target-receptor distance, so the resultant beam is more not less intense. The resultant beam would be one quarter as intense if the length of the PID is doubled. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 47 | Page 48 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 19. Aluminum filters are used to remove _______-energy, ________

wavelength x-rays. a. low; longer b. high; longer

c. low; shorter d. high; shorter ANS: a

Aluminum filters are used to remove low-energy, longer wavelength x-rays and increase the mean penetrating capability of the x-ray beam while reducing the intensity. Aluminum filters are used to remove low-energy x-rays that do not have sufficient energy to penetrate tissue and expose the image receptor. Aluminum filters are used to remove longer wavelength x-rays that do not have sufficient energy to penetrate tissue and expose the image receptor. High-energy, shorter-wavelength x-rays have the capacity to create a useful image on the image receptor and are not removed by the aluminum filter. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 48 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 20. Aluminum filters a. remove more penetrating x-rays from the beam. b. decrease the mean penetrating ability of the x-ray beam. c. remove high-energy x-rays from the beam. d. reduce the intensity of the x-ray beam. ANS: d

Aluminum filters remove less penetrating x-rays from the beam. Aluminum filters increase the mean penetrating ability of the x-ray beam. Aluminum filters remove low-energy x-rays from the beam. Aluminum filters reduce the intensity of the x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 48 OBJ: 8

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 21. You have been using a dental x-ray machine that has an 8-inch PID.

Your new machine has a 16-inch PID. Given that all exposure factors remain the same, according to the inverse square law, the resultant beam would be ___________ as intense. a. four times b. twice c. half d. one quarter ANS: d

The resultant beam would be four times as intense if the length of the new PID was half the length of the previous one (4-inches). It is the inverse square law, so the beam would be twice as intense if the new PID was 6-inches long. It is the inverse square law, so the beam would be half as intense if the new PID was 12-inches long. According to the inverse square law, if the length of the PID is doubled, the resultant beam is one quarter as intense. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 47 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 22. (1) As kilovoltage, milliamperage, and time increase, x-ray beam

intensity decreases. (2) As distance and filtration increase, the intensity of the x-ray beam increases. a. Both statements are true.

b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

Both statements are false because just the opposite is true. Both statements are false because an increase in kilovoltage, milliamperage, and/or time will increase the intensity of the x-ray beam, and an increase in distance and/or filtration will decrease the intensity of the x-ray beam. The first statement is false because the intensity of x-ray beam increases as kilovoltage, milliamperage, and time increase. The second statement is false because the intensity of the x-ray beam decreases as distance and filtration increase. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 46 | Page 47 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

23. You have taken your first dental image on your patient. The contrast

is high and you are looking for periodontal disease. You are using a DC machine and you have control of your settings. You have a 60- to 70-kV range and a 6- to 8-mA range. You had the kV set at 60, the mA set at 7, and the exposure time set at 6/100 of a second. While leaving all other settings the same, which setting would you adjust to create better contrast for detecting periodontal disease? a. Increase kV to 70. b. Increase mA to 8. c. Decrease mA to 6. d. Increase time to 7/100. ANS: a

The only factor that affects contrast is kV. kV affects the penetrating

ability of the x-ray beam. A higher kV creates a lower contrast image (more shades of gray) while a lower kV creates a higher contrast image (more black and white). A low-contrast image is preferred for detecting periodontal and periapical diseases. A high-contrast image is preferred for detecting caries. Increasing mA affects density, not contrast. Decreasing mA affects density, not contrast. Increasing and decreasing time affect density, not contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 44 OBJ: 2 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 24. You are going to take dental images on your patient. He is larger

than average. What machine setting adjustment should you make prior to taking dental images? a. Increase kV. b. Increase mA. c. Increase exposure time. d. You don't need to make any adjustments. ANS: c

Although an increase in kV will increase density, it is recommended that the only setting you change is exposure time. Although an increase in mA will increase density, it is recommended that the only setting you change is exposure time. It is recommended that exposure time be increased when taking dental images on a patient who is larger than average. Failure to do so will result in an image that is too light and may require retakes or an adjustment of the enhancement software. A larger patient may require x-ray exposure time and a smaller patient may require less exposure time. PTS: 1 DIF: Application

REF: Page 44 | Page 45 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques | CDA, RHS, III.B. Apply the principles of radiation protection and hazards in the operation of radiographic equipment MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs | NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

Chapter_06.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following areas would appear the most radiopaque on a

dental image? a. Composite b. Amalgam c. Air space d. Enamel ANS: b

A composite can appear radiopaque or radiolucent on a dental image depending on the filler content. It is not as radiopaque as amalgam. Amalgam appears the most radiopaque on a dental image. An air space would appear the most radiolucent on a dental image. Enamel would appear radiopaque on a dental image. It is not as radiopaque as amalgam. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 50 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 2. Density is defined as a. a radiopaque image. b. a radiolucent image. c. the overall blackness or darkness of an image. d. the difference in degrees of blackness between adjacent areas on a

dental image. ANS: c

Radiopaque refers to that portion of a dental image that appears light or white. Radiolucent refers to that portion of a dental image that is dark or black. Density is defined as the overall blackness or darkness of a dental image. Contrast is the difference in degrees of blackness between

adjacent areas on a dental image.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 50 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 3. You are showing your patient a bite-wing image. Your patient points

to a portion of the tooth that is the most radiopaque and wants to know what it is. What portion of the tooth is your patient pointing to? a. The enamel b. The pulp c. The dentin d. The periodontal ligament space ANS: a

Radiopaque refers to that portion of a dental image that is white. The enamel is radiopaque and appears light on a dental image. Radiolucent refers to that portion of a dental image that is black. The pulp appears radiolucent or dark on a dental image. The dentin appears less radiopaque on a dental image than the enamel. Radiolucent refers to that portion of a dental image that is black, not gray. Radiolucent refers to that portion of a dental image that is black or dark. The periodontal ligament space appears radiolucent or dark on a dental radiograph. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 50 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 4. Radiolucent refers to that portion of a dental image that is a. black. b. white. c. contains the tooth. d. within the plastic base.

ANS: a

Radiolucent refers to that portion of a dental image that is black. Radiopaque refers to that portion of a dental image that is white. The pulp portion of the tooth is the most radiolucent part of the tooth. The entire dental image with both radiolucent and radiopaque areas is contained within the plastic base. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 50 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

5. If the milliamperage is increased, the receptor density ________, and

the image appears _________. a. increases; lighter b. increases; darker c. decreases; darker d. decreases; lighter ANS: b

The image would appear darker rather than lighter if the milliamperage is increased because more photons would be emitted from the tubehead to interact with the image receptor. If the milliamperage is increased, the receptor density increases, and the image appears darker. The receptor density increases rather than decreases if the milliamperage is increased because a greater number of photons would be released from the tubehead during exposure to interact with the image receptor. If the milliamperage is decreased, the receptor density decreases, and the image appears lighter because fewer photons would be available to interact with the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 52 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production

MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 6. If the operating kilovoltage is increased, the receptor density ____

because the average energy of the x-rays is raised. a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same d. is divided by two ANS: a

If the operating kilovoltage is increased, the receptor density increases because the average energy of the x-rays is raised. If kilovoltage is decreased, the density decreases and the image appears lighter because the average energy of the x-rays would be of reduced energy. Changing the kilovoltage influences the overall density of a dental image because it controls the force, or velocity, of the emerging x-rays. Raising the operating kilovoltage would increase the receptor density, and correct density allows the radiographer to view black areas, white areas, and gray areas. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Pages 50-52 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 7. You have to take retake a dental image on your patient because the

image is too light and is undiagnostic. Which of the following could you change to produce an image with increased density? a. Increasing the exposure time b. Increasing the subject thickness c. Decreasing the milliamperage d. Decreasing the operating kilovoltage ANS: a

Increasing the exposure time is the only choice that will result in an image with increased density. It is critical according to ALARA that one determines the reason why the image is too light. Increasing exposure time should not be utilized if the problem is due to cold, old, or depleted processing chemistry (see Chapter 17). Increasing the subject thickness will result in an image with reduced density. Decreasing the milliamperage will result in an image with in decreased density. Decreasing the operating kilovoltage will result in an image with decreased density. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 52 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 8. The teeth on your patient's images appear very radiopaque and the

periodontium and tissue appear very radiolucent. Your patient's dental image has a. high density. b. low density. c. low contrast. d. high contrast. ANS: d

A dental image that has a very dark overall appearance is said to have high density. A dental image that has a very light overall appearance is said to have low density. A dental image that has many shades of gray is said to have low contrast. A dental image that has very dark areas and very light areas is said to have high contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 52 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

9. A dental image that has ______________ is said to have high

contrast. a. a very dark overall appearance b. a very light overall appearance c. many shades of gray d. very dark areas and very light areas ANS: d

A dental image that has a very dark overall appearance is said to have high density. A dental image that has a very light overall appearance is said to have low density. A dental image that has many shades of gray is said to have low contrast. A dental image that has very dark areas and very light areas is said to have high contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 52 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 10. An increase in ___________ temperature will result in a film with

increased contrast. a. development b. water bath c. fixer d. room ANS: a

An increase in development temperature will result in a film with increased contrast. An increase in water bath temperature will not result in a film with increased contrast. An increase in fixer temperature will not result in a film with increased contrast. An increase in room temperature will not result in a film with increased contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 52

OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 11. The range of useful densities seen on a dental image is termed the a. film contrast. b. subject contrast. c. scale of contrast. d. kilovoltage peak. ANS: c

Film contrast refers to characteristics of the film that influence image contrast. Subject contrast refers to characteristics of the subject that influence image contrast. The range of useful densities seen on a dental image is termed the scale of contrast. Kilovoltage peak refers to the maximal kilovoltage potential. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 52 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 12. A stepwedge will reveal that images taken at a lower kV will have

__________ than images taken at a higher kV. a. more shades of gray b. higher contrast c. lower contrast d. both A and C ANS: b

A stepwedge will reveal that images taken at a higher kV will have more shades of gray than images taken at a lower kV. A stepwedge will reveal that images taken at a lower kV will have higher contrast than images taken at a higher kV. A stepwedge will reveal that images taken at a lower kV will have fewer shades of gray, meaning higher contrast, than images taken at a higher kV. Choices A and C are both false, images

taken at a higher kV will have more shades of gray and lower contrast than images taken at a lower kV. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 53 | Page 54 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 13. The typical stepwedge is constructed of a. aluminum. b. steel. c. wood. d. copper. ANS: a

The typical stepwedge is constructed of aluminum steps in 2-mm. increments. It may also be constructed with lead foil from old film packets. The stepwedge consists of uniform-layered thicknesses of an x-ray absorbing material, usually aluminum and not steel. Wood is not a suitable material for fabrication of a stepwedge. The stepwedge is usually constructed of aluminum and not copper. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 53 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 14. A stepwedge will reveal that images taken at a higher kV will have

_____________ versus images taken at a lower kV. a. long-scale contrast b. high contrast c. only two densities d. many areas of black and white

ANS: a

A stepwedge will reveal that images taken at a higher kV will have long-scale contrast, meaning many shades of gray, versus images taken at a lower kV. A lower kV range results in an image with a short-scale contrast, meaning many areas of black and white would be seen with a stepwedge, rather than shades of gray. A dental image that shows only two densities, areas of black and areas of white with a stepwedge, has a short contrast scale. Many areas of black and white are associated with the use of lower kV and a stepwedge rather than higher kV and a stepwedge. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 53 | Page 54 OBJ: 9 | 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

15. The geometric characteristic of _____________ refers to an image

that appears larger than the actual size of the object it represents. a. magnification b. distortion c. sharpness d. parallax ANS: a

Magnification refers to an image that appears larger than the actual size of the object it represents. Distortion is a variation in the true size and shape of the object. The geometric characteristic of sharpness refers to the capability of the receptor to reproduce the distinct outlines of an object. Parallax means that the size of an image on one side of a dental film emulsion is larger than the size of the image on the other side of a dental film emulsion. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 55 | Page 56 OBJ: 11

TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 16. Which of the following influencing factors would degrade

sharpness? 1. Smaller silver halide crystal size 2. Larger silver halide crystal size 3. Smaller focal spot 4. Larger focal spot a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 ANS: d

A smaller silver halide crystal size and a smaller focal spot would enhance film sharpness. A larger silver halide crystal size would degrade film sharpness. A smaller focal spot would enhance film sharpness. A larger silver halide crystal size and a larger focal spot would degrade sharpness. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 54 | Page 55 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 17. The primary factor that limits the size of the tungsten target is a. the cost of the materials. b. heat production. c. the limited kinetic energy of the electrons. d. the limited kinetic energy of the photons. ANS: b

Cost is not the primary factor that limits the size of the tungsten target. The primary factor that limits the size of the tungsten target is heat

production. The kinetic energy of the electrons is not the factor that limits the size of the tungsten target. The kinetic energy of photons is not the factor that limits the size of the tungsten target. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 55 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 18. Which of the following factors would improve image sharpness? a. Larger focal spot b. Larger crystal size in the film c. Smaller crystal size in the film d. Patient movement during x-ray exposure ANS: c

A larger focal spot would degrade image sharpness. Larger crystal size in the film would degrade image sharpness. Smaller crystal size in the film would improve image sharpness. Patient movement during x-ray exposure would degrade image sharpness. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 54 | Page 55 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 19. In order to use the paralleling technique when taking periapical

images on your patient, you will need to place the receptor approximately an inch from the teeth. Which of the following will you need to do to decrease image magnification? a. Increase target-receptor distance. b. Decrease target-receptor distance. c. Decrease source to object distance.

d. There is no change in magnification; therefore, no changes need to be

made. ANS: a

An increased target-receptor distance would result in decreased magnification of the dental image. A decreased target-receptor distance would result in increased magnification of the dental image. The source and the target are the same thing. Magnification does occur when the receptor is not against the tooth. In order to decrease the magnification, the target-receptor distance needs to be increased. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 56 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 20. A longer position-indicating device (PID) results in a. an increased target-receptor distance. b. a more divergent x-ray beam. c. more image magnification than when a shorter PID is used. d. an increased object-receptor distance. ANS: a

A longer PID results in an increased target-receptor distance. A longer PID results in a less divergent x-ray beam. A longer PID results in less image magnification than when a shorter PID is used. A longer PID results in a decreased object-receptor distance. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 56 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology 21. To minimize dimensional distortion, the object and receptor must be

_____________ one another. a. perpendicular to b. parallel to c. at a 45-degree angle to d. more than the length of the PID apart from ANS: b

The x-ray beam must be directed perpendicular to the tooth (object) and receptor and they must be parallel to each other. To minimize dimensional distortion, the object and receptor must be parallel to one another. To limit image distortion, position the receptor and the tooth parallel to each other, and direct the x-ray beam perpendicular to the receptor and the tooth. The tooth and the receptor should always be placed as close together as possible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 56 | Page 57 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.1. Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

22. You are taking dental images on your patient. You have directed the

position indicating device (PID) perpendicular to the tooth and the receptor. Which of the following would you minimize by doing this? a. Sharpness b. Grain size c. Focal spot size d. Dimensional distortion ANS: d

Sharpness is affected by focal spot size, film composition, and movement. Grain size of the crystals affects sharpness. The x-ray beam must be perpendicular to the tooth and receptor in order to minimize dimensional distortion. Focal spot size affects sharpness. The PID, which directs the x-ray beam, must be perpendicular to the tooth and

receptor in order to minimize dimensional distortion.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 56 | Page 57 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.2. Describe the characteristics of x-radiation MSC: NBDHE, 2.1 Principles of Radiophysics and Radiobiology

Chapter_07.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. _________________ regulate(s) the manufacture and installation of

dental x-ray equipment. a. The federal government b. State governments c. Local governments d. Municipal governments ANS: a

While state governments may regulate how dental x-ray equipment is used, the federal government regulates the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment. State and local governments regulate how dental equipment is used and dictate codes that pertain to the use of x-radiation, but they do not regulate the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment. Depending on state and local radiation safety codes, dental x-ray equipment must be registered, inspected and monitored periodically. Local governments do not regulate the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment. Municipal governments do not regulate the manufacture and installation of dental x-ray equipment. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 60 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. The position-indicating device (PID) is an extension of the a. tubehead. b. extension arm. c. control panel. d. exposure button.

ANS: a

The PID is an extension of the tubehead. The extension arm supports the x-ray tubehead. The control panel allows the dental radiographer to regulate the x-ray beam. The exposure button activates the machine to produce x-rays. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 60 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. The _____________ allow(s) for positioning of the tubehead. a. control devices b. extension arm c. control panel d. exposure button ANS: b

The control devices regulate the x-ray beam. The extension arm allows for positioning of the tubehead. The control panel allows the dental radiographer to regulate the x-ray beam. The exposure button activates the machine to produce x-rays. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Pages 60-62 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. You have your patient in the chair, you have placed the receptor in

your patient's mouth, and you have positioned the position-indicating device. Which of the following should you do next to take the x-rays? a. Turn on the on-off switch. b. Push the exposure button.

c. Turn on the exposure light. d. Adjust the control devices. ANS: b

The on-off switch turns the machine on and off; it should have been turned on before your patient was seated. The exposure button is depressed when you are ready to activate the machine to produce x-rays. The exposure light, which is illuminated during x-ray exposure, will automatically come on to indicate that the exposure button has been depressed. The control devices, which include the timer and kV and milliamperage selectors, are adjusted prior to exposing the patient to x-rays. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 61 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. During an exposure a. the exposure button is briefly depressed and then released to initiate

the exposure. b. the exposure button is firmly depressed until the preset exposure time is completed. c. the exposure light on the control panel is illuminated to signal the completion of the exposure. d. a beep sounds to signal initiation of the exposure. ANS: b

Briefly depressing the exposure button will result in inadequate exposure time and a light image. The exposure button is firmly depressed until the preset exposure time is completed. The exposure light on the control panel is illuminated for the duration of the exposure. The beep sounds to signal completion of the exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension

REF: Page 61 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, III.B.3. Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. Which of the following statements is true of the receptor holder? a. It is used to align an extraoral dental x-ray receptor. b. It requires the patient to stabilize the receptor in the mouth. c. It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique. d. It is required when using the intraoral bisecting technique. ANS: c

It is used to align an intraoral dental x-ray receptor. It does not require the patient to stabilize the receptor in the mouth. The receptor holder is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique. It is required when using the intraoral paralleling technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 62 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. A _____________ eliminates the need for the patient to stabilize the

receptor. a. PID (position-indicating device) b. receptor holder c. control panel d. beam alignment device ANS: b

The position-indicating device shapes and restricts the size of the x-ray beam. A receptor holder eliminates the need for the patient to stabilize the receptor. The control panel allows the dental radiographer to regulate the x-ray beam, is plugged into an electrical outlet, and appears as a

console or cabinet. A beam alignment device is used to help the dental radiographer position the PID in relation to the tooth and the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 62 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. Which of the following intraoral receptor holders is a disposable

Styrofoam bite-block? a. EEZEE-Grip b. Stabe bite-block c. EndoRay d. Uni-bite ANS: b

The EEZEE-Grip is a double-ended instrument that holds the receptor between two serrated plastic grips. The Stabe bite-block is a disposable Styrofoam bite-block. The EndoRay is used during root canal procedures. The Uni-bite is a plastic holder. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 62 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. Features of the Stabe bite-block include a. a double-ended instrument. b. a slot for receptor retention. c. a molded plastic that can be sterilized. d. a receptor that is held between two serrated plastic grips. ANS: b

An EEZEE-Grip is a double-ended instrument that holds the receptor

between two serrated plastic grips that can be locked in place. Features of the Stabe bite-block include that it is disposable and it has a slot for receptor retention. An EEZEE-Grip is a molded-plastic device that can be sterilized. An EEZEE-Grip holds the receptor between two serrated plastic grips. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 62 | Page 63 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. Which of the following is a beam alignment device? a. The Stabe bite-block b. The XCP bite-block c. The EEZEE-Grip d. An XCP ANS: d

The Stabe bite-block is a Styrofoam receptor holder. The XCP bite-block is a Styrofoam receptor holder. The EEZEE-Grip is a plastic receptor holder. An XCP is a beam alignment device. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Pages 62-64 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. A beam alignment device can be used to help the dental radiographer

position the PID in relation to the _____________ and the receptor. a. control panel b. extension arm c. collimator d. tooth

ANS: d

The control panel, which allows the dental radiographer to regulate the x-ray beam, is plugged into an electrical outlet and appears as a console or cabinet. The extension arm suspends the x-ray tubehead, houses the electrical wires, and allows for movement and positioning of the tubehead. A collimating device may be retrofitted onto the end of a standard PID to restrict the size of the x-ray beam and limit radiation exposure. A beam alignment device can be used to help the dental radiographer position the PID in relation to the tooth and receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 62 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. The Rinn XCP is a a. beam alignment device. b. Styrofoam bite-block. c. snap-on metal collimating device. d. Uni-bite. ANS: a

The Rinn XCP is a beam alignment device. A Styrofoam bite-block is a disposable receptor holder. A snap-on metal collimating device is used to restrict the size of the x-ray beam and limit radiation exposure. A Uni-bite is a type of receptor holder. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 62 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. You are on a mission trip, and your responsibility is to take

radiographs. You are using a handheld x-ray machine, an indirect digital sensor, and a receptor holder. Sterilization is not available. Which of the following receptor holders would you use? a. An EEZEE-Grip b. A Stabe bite-block c. A Snap-A-Ray d. A Uni-bite ANS: b

An EEZEE-Grip is a molded-plastic device that must be sterilized between patients, and is a double-ended instrument that holds the receptor between two serrated plastic grips that can be locked in place. A Stabe bite-block is a disposable Styrofoam bite-block with a backing plate and a slot for receptor retention. The EEZEE-Grip, originally called a Snap-A-Ray, requires sterilization between patients. A Uni-bite is not disposable and requires sterilization. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 62 | Page 63 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.a. Describe purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_08.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Digital imaging uses _________________ to produce an image. a. an x-ray processor b. radiographic film c. processing chemistry d. an electronic sensor and computerized imaging system ANS: d

Analog imaging using conventional dental x-ray film requires the use of an x-ray processor. Conventional radiographic film is used to create an analog rather than digital image. Processing chemistry is used with film-based radiography to create an analog rather than digital image. Digital imaging uses an electronic sensor and computerized imaging system to produce an image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 66 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. With digital imaging, the term ___________ is used to describe the

pictures that are produced. a. radiograph b. x-ray film c. image d. phosphor ANS: c

A dental radiograph is a photographic image produced on film by the passage of x-rays through teeth and related structures. The x-ray film used in dentistry has four basic components: (1) a film base, (2) an adhesive layer, (3) film emulsion, and (4) a protective layer. With digital imaging, the term image is used to describe the pictures that are

produced. Phosphors are minute fluorescent crystals used with an intensifying screen for extraoral film-based radiography. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 66 OBJ: 1 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. Your patient is concerned about the amount of x-ray exposure she has

had because she had x-rays taken quite often at her previous dental office. You explain to her that the images are necessary and you will be taking digital images which require exposure times that are ________ than that required for conventional film-based radiography. a. 10% to 20% less b. 20% to 50% less c. 50% to 90% less d. 70% to 100% less ANS: c

Digital dental imaging utilizes exposure times that the more than 10% to 20% less than required for film-based dental radiography. Exposure times for digital dental imaging are more than 20% to 50% less than they are for film-based dental radiography. Exposure times are 50% to 90% less than that required for conventional film-based dental radiography. Exposure times for digital dental imaging are less than they are for film-based dental radiography, however, they are not zero as there still is some exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 68 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. Most digital imaging systems use a ______________ as the

x-radiation source.

a. flat-bed scanner b. conventional dental x-ray unit c. commercial analog intraoral camera d. commercial digital intraoral camera ANS: b

A flat-bed scanner uses visible light to capture and create a computer file of an image, it does not involve x-radiation. Most digital imaging systems use a conventional dental x-ray unit as the x-radiation source. A commercial intraoral camera does not use x-radiation for the creation of an image. A commercial intraoral camera does not use x-radiation to create an image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 68 OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. In order to be used for digital imaging, the x-ray unit timer must be

adapted to allow exposures in a time frame of _______ of a second. a. 1/5 b. 1/10 c. 1/15 d. 1/100 ANS: d

An older dental x-ray units used impulses, which were based upon the frequency of alternating current which is 1/60th of a second, and digital units are capable of faster exposures so 1/5 of a second is too long of an exposure time. 1/10 of a second is too long of an exposure time for digital dental imaging. 1/15 of a second is too long of an exposure time for digital dental imaging. In order to be used for digital imaging, the x-ray unit timer must be adapted to allow exposures in a time frame of 1/100 of a second. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension

REF: Page 68 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. Digital sensors contain distinct units of programmable gray values

that are sensitive to x-rays called a. a field of view. b. pixels. c. phosphors. d. a grid. ANS: b

A field of view is the area that can be captured when performing imaging procedures. Digital sensors contain distinct units of programmable gray values that are sensitive to x-rays called pixels. Phosphors are minute crystals that cover intensifying screens and fluoresce, or emit visible light, when exposed to x-rays. A grid is used in extra-oral radiography, a device used to prevent scatter radiation from reaching the film during exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 69 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. How many shades of gray can the human eye distinguish? a. 16 b. 32 c. 64 d. 256 ANS: b

The human eye can distinguish more than 16 shades of gray. The human eye can appreciate 32 shades of gray. The human eye is unable to distinguish between 64 shades of gray. Digital imaging creates up to 256

shades of gray, which is a pixel's gray-scale resolution. The range of numbers for a pixel varies from 0 (black) to 255 (white). PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 70 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. (1) When you are preparing the sensor to use on your patient, it would

be best to cover the sensor with a finger cot and then put on the barrier sleeve. (2) When you are placing the digital sensor in your patient's mouth, you would use a different placement technique than you would normally use when placing a film. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

A rubber finger cot may be placed underneath the disposable barrier sleeve to further protect the sensor, however, the placement technique is the same. When preparing the sensor for use, a finger cot is recommended, in addition to the barrier sleeve, as an additional protective measure, and also the technique for sensor placement is the same at it is for film. When placing a digital sensor, a finger cot may be used for additional protection, but you would use the same placement technique that you normally use when placing a film. The opposite is correct, a finger cot may be used to protect the sensor, and the placement technique remains the same. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 73 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

9. Storage phosphor imaging a. is a form of direct digital imaging. b. is a wired digital imaging system. c. uses a sensor with a fiber optic cable. d. uses a reusable imaging plate. ANS: d

Storage phosphor imaging is a form of indirect digital imaging that also may be referred to as photo-stimulable phosphor imaging. Storage phosphor imaging is not a wired, digital imaging system, in this system a reusable imaging plate coated with phosphors known as a PSP plate is used. A fiber optic cable is not used with storage phosphor imaging, although it has been used for intraoral cameras and for handpieces. Storage phosphor imaging uses a reusable imaging plate. This PSP plate is similar to film in size, shape, and thickness. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 71 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. The images are cleared from the photo-stimulable phosphor (PSP)

imaging plates by a. being processed in an x-ray processing machine. b. a clearing step within the scanner. c. being exposed to viewbox light for several minutes. d. being placed in a microwave oven for 1 minute. ANS: b

Images are not cleared from storage phosphor imaging plates by being processed in an x-ray processing machine. The images are cleared from the storage phosphor imaging plates by the scanner once the images have been scanned. Previously they were exposed to a viewbox light for several minutes, however, currently manufacturers use technology that scans and retrieves the digital image, followed by a clearing step for

reuse of the PSP plate. The PSP plates are not cleared by placement in a microwave oven. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 72 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. Your patient has asked why you prefer digital imaging to film.

Which of the following reasons would you tell her? a. The sensors can be autoclaved and reused. b. The image appears almost instantaneously for both of us to view. c. The images appear in color instead of black and white. d. The initial setup costs were lower than it cost to set up film. ANS: b

The sensors cannot withstand heat sterilization and cannot be autoclaved. Advantages of digital imaging include: increased speed of image viewing, superior gray-scale resolution, reduced exposure to x-radiation, lower equipment and film cost, increased efficiency, enhancement of diagnostic images, effective patient education tool, and eco-friendly alternative. The images are still black and white, not color. High initial setup costs are a barrier to implementation. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 74 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. (1) A primary advantage to digital imaging is the superior gray-scale

resolution that results. (2) Digital imaging uses up to 32 shades of gray. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

ANS: c

A primary advantage to digital imaging is the superior gray-scale resolution that results, however, digital imaging uses more than 32 shades of gray. Digital imaging has a gray-scale resolution superior to conventional film and uses many more shades of gray than the 16 to 25 shades of gray differentiated by conventional film. Digital imaging has a superior gray-scale resolution to the 16 to 25 shades of gray differentiated on conventional film, and utilizes up to 256 shades of gray. The opposite is true, digital imaging has a superior gray-scale resolution and utilizes up to 256 shades of gray. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 73 | Page 74 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. Digital imaging manufacturers maintain a range of 6 to 22 line

pairs/millimeter (lp/mm) and the human eye can recognize about __ lp/mm. a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16 ANS: c

The human eye is able to recognize more than 2 lp/mm. The human eye can recognize more than 4 lp/mm. The human eye can recognize approximately 8 lp/mm. All current digital systems produce a diagnostically acceptable image with high definition. The human eye is not able to recognize 16 lp/mm. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 74 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

14. Digital sensors cannot be sterilized and a. should be disposed of between patients. b. are wiped off with a surface disinfectant (iodophor) between patients. c. require complete coverage with disposable plastic sleeves for each

patient. d. are placed in an immersion disinfectant for an appropriate amount of time between each patient. ANS: c

The expense of digital sensors makes the cost of disposing them prohibitive. Coverage with disposable plastic sleeves is thought to be a superior infection prevention method to wiping them off with a surface disinfectant. Digital sensors require complete coverage with disposable plastic barrier sleeves for each patient. Immersion disinfectants are not used to prevent cross-contamination of digital sensors between patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 75 OBJ: 3 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.c. Image receptors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. It is questionable whether digital images can be used as evidence in

lawsuits, because a. the images are inferior to film. b. digitized images cannot be transported across state lines. c. the original digital image can be enhanced. d. a "hard copy" of the image does not exist. ANS: c

Research has shown that digital imaging performs at least as well as, and at times better than traditional radiography. There are some issues with treatment recommendations made by a practitioner in one state regarding a patient in another state in which the doctor is not licensed, but there are no issues regarding transmission of digitized dental images. It is

questionable whether digital images can be used as evidence in lawsuits, because the original digital image can be enhanced. To address this concern, manufacturers have included a software warning feature that appears if the image displayed is not comparable with the original image. It is critical to have backup copies of all digital images, but original image is time and date stamped for reference. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 75 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. (1) Given that the human eye can resolve 8 to 10 lp/mm, a CCD

system is inadequate for diagnosis of dental disease. (2) The majority of research has shown that the traditional radiographs perform at least as well as digital images and, at times, even better. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

The opposite is true, the CCD sensor has a resolution closer to 10 lp/mm and the majority of research has shown that digital imaging performs at least as well as traditional film-based radiography. Given that the human eye can resolve 8 to 10 lp/mm, a CCD system is adequate for diagnosis of dental disease, and the majority of research has shown that digital images perform at least as well as traditional radiographs and, at times, even better. A CCD system is adequate for diagnosis of dental disease. Digital imaging performs at least as well as traditional radiography. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Pages 73-75 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

17. Advantages of the use of digital imaging include which of the

following? a. Sensors are more comfortable than film. b. There is an opportunity for an increase in interactive dialogue

between the patient and the radiographer. c. Digital imaging has a higher resolution than film. d. A better source of legal documentation than film. ANS: b

Sensors are less comfortable than film. The size of the digitized image makes it attractive as a patient education tool; there is an opportunity for an increase in interactive dialogue between the patient and the radiographer, and the use of visualization can increase the patient's understanding of the disease process. In addition, the size of the digitized image on the 15-inch or 17-inch computer screen (compared with a 2-inch piece of film) makes it attractive as a patient education tool. Digital imaging has a lower resolution than film. Because the original digital image can be enhanced, it is questionable whether digital images can be used as evidence in lawsuits. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Pages 73-75 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. With the feature of _______________, the gray-scale of the

diagnostic image is reversed so that radiolucent images appear white and radiopaque images appear black. a. pseudo-color alteration b. digital subtraction c. contrast d. image orientation ANS: b

Pseudo-color alteration allows for enhancement of the diagnostic image but does not reverse the gray-scale. With digital subtraction, the gray-scale is reversed so that radiolucent images (normally black) appear white and radiopaque images (normally white) appear black. Contrast is defined as the difference in the degrees of blackness between adjacent areas on a dental image but does not reverse the gray-scale. Digital images can be easily re-oriented with software but this does not involve reversal of the gray-scale. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 74 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. Which of the following would be a reason to switch from film-based

dental radiography to direct digital imaging? a. The digital network makes it more difficult to store images. b. The digital image cannot be incorporated into the electronic record. c. Images cannot be electronically transmitted to other dental

professionals. d. Digital images can be printed when needed. ANS: d

Image storage and communication are easier with digital networking. The digital image can be incorporated into the electronic record. Images can be electronically transmitted to other dental professionals. Digital images can be printed when needed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 74 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 20. A sensor with a fiber optic cable linked to the computer is placed

into the mouth of the patient and exposed to x-radiation. This is an

example of a. phosphor imaging. b. use of the CCD camera. c. direct digital imaging. d. indirect digital imaging. ANS: c

A reusable imaging plate coated with phosphors is used instead of a sensor with a fiber optic cable. In the scanning method, an existing radiograph is digitized using a CCD camera. The essential components of a direct digital imaging system include an x-ray machine, an intraoral sensor, and computer monitor. A sensor with a fiber optic cable linked to the computer is placed into the mouth of the patient and exposed to x-radiation. Indirect digital imaging includes scanning traditional radiographs and storing phosphor imaging. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 71 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.c. Image receptors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. How does the CMOS detector differ from the CCD detector? a. The CMOS detector is silicon-based and differs from the CCD

detector in the way that the pixels are read. b. The CMOS detector is currently manufactured by one company and claims 25% less resolution than the CCD detector. c. The CMOS detector is more expensive to produce than the CCD detector. d. The CMOS detector is less durable than the CCD detector. ANS: a

The CMOS detector is silicon based and differs from the CCD detector in the way that the pixels are read. The CMOS detector is currently manufactured by one company and claims 25% greater resolution than the CCD detector. The CMOS detector is less expensive to produce than

the CCD detector. The CMOS detector is more durable than the CCD detector. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 70 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.2.a. Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_09.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of

dental x-ray film and film placement? a. Intraoral film is placed outside the mouth during x-ray exposure. b. Intraoral film is placed inside the mouth during x-ray exposure. c. A periapical film is an extraoral film. d. A bite-wing film is an extraoral film. ANS: b

Extraoral film is placed outside the mouth during x-ray exposure. Intraoral film is placed inside the mouth during x-ray exposure and is used to examine the teeth and supporting structures. A periapical film is an intraoral film. A bite-wing film is an intraoral film. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. Which component of x-ray film has a suspension of millions of

microscopic silver halide crystals? a. Film base b. Adhesive layer c. Film emulsion d. Protective layer ANS: c

The film base provides a stable support for the emulsion. The adhesive layer serves to attach the emulsion to the base. The emulsion is a homogenous mixture of gelatin and silver halide crystals. The gelatin is used to suspend and evenly disperse millions of microscopic silver halide crystals. The halide crystals absorb radiation during x-ray

exposure. The protective layer is a thin, transparent coating placed over the emulsion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 78 | Page 79 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. The film base is a flexible piece of a. shellac. b. cardboard. c. acetate. d. polyester plastic. ANS: d

The film base is not made of shellac. Shellac may be used in dentistry during the construction of dentures. The film base is not made of cardboard. The paper film wrapper within the protective film packet is a protective sheet that covers the film and shields the film from light. The film base is not made of acetate. The film base is a flexible piece of polyester plastic 0.2 mm in thickness that is constructed to withstand heat, moisture, and chemical exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 78 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. The film base is transparent with a slight ________ tint used to

emphasize contrast and enhance image quality. a. amber b. red c. blue

d. green ANS: c

The film base does not have an amber tint. The film base does not have a red tint. The film base is transparent with a slight blue tint used to emphasize contrast and enhance image quality. The film base does not have a green tint. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 78 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. The film base is ____ mm thick. a. 0.02 b. 0.2 c. 2.0 d. 20 ANS: b

The film base is more than 0.02 mm thick. The film base is 0.2 mm thick. It needs to be transparent, yet thick enough to provide a stable support for the delicate emulsion. The film base would not be transparent or flexible if it was 2.0 mm thick. 20 millimeters is more than 3/4 of an inch thick, which is far too bulky to be placed intraorally for dental radiographic images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 78 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. The adhesive layer is added to the _________ before the __________

is (are) applied.

a. gelatin; halide crystals b. halide crystals; gelatin c. film base; film emulsion d. film emulsion; film base ANS: c

Gelatin and halide crystals are within the film emulsion, which is between the adhesive layer and the protective layer. Halide crystals and gelatin comprise the film emulsion, which is the layer sensitive to x-radiation. The adhesive layer is added to the film base before the emulsion is applied. The adhesive layer is not added to the film emulsion before the film base is applied. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 78 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. The film emulsion is a. attached to both sides of the film. b. attached to one side of the film. c. made of polyester plastic. d. opaque to block out the passage of light. ANS: a

The film emulsion is attached to both sides of the film to give the film greater sensitivity to x-radiation. Twice as much emulsion means twice the amount of silver halide crystals to absorb radiation during x-ray exposure. The film emulsion is not attached to only one side of the film. The film emulsion is not made of polyester plastic. It is a mixture of gelatin and silver halide crystals. The paper film wrapper within the film packet covers the film and shields the film from light. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 78

OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. The film emulsion is composed of a homogenous mixture of a. calcium tungstate and lead salt crystals. b. gelatin and barium salt crystals. c. gelatin and silver halide crystals d. primer and silver halide crystals. ANS: c

The film emulsion is not composed of calcium tungstate and lead salt crystals. The film emulsion does not contain barium salt crystals. The film emulsion is composed of a homogenous mixture of gelatin and silver halide crystals. The gelatin is used to suspend and evenly disperse the silver halide crystals over the film base. The film emulsion does not contain a primer. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 78 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. ___________ is the main component of the silver halide crystals in

dental x-ray film. a. Iodide b. Bromide c. Chloride d. Fluoride ANS: b

Iodide is not the main component of the silver halide crystals in dental x-ray film. It typically comprises 1% to 10% of the halide crystals found in the film emulsion. The halide in dental x-ray film is primarily silver

bromide. The typical emulsion is 80% to 99% silver bromide. Chloride is not found in the film emulsion of dental x-ray film. Fluoride is not present in dental x-ray film emulsion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 78 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. The latent image is stored by the ______________ in dental x-ray

film. a. gelatin b. film base c. adhesive layer d. silver halide crystals ANS: d

Gelatin absorbs the processing solution and allows the chemicals to react with the silver halide crystals. The film base provides for strength and a stable support for the delicate emulsion. The adhesive layer serves to attach the emulsion to the base. The latent image is stored by the silver halide crystals in dental x-ray film. A visible image results when the exposed film with a latent image is processed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. The silver halide crystals that are _______ energized will be

________ when the dental x-ray film is processed. 1. more; darker 2. more; lighter 3. less; darker

4. less; lighter a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 ANS: b

The silver halide crystals that are less energized will not be darker when the film is processed. The silver halide crystals that are more energized will be darker when the film is processed, and the silver halide crystals that are less energized will be lighter when the film is processed. The opposite is true, the silver halide crystals that are more energized will not be lighter and silver halide crystals that are less energized will not be darker. The silver halide crystals that are more energized will not be lighter when the film is processed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. The invisible pattern of stored energy on the exposed film is called

the a. variable density pattern. b. latent image. c. x-ray photon. d. emulsion. ANS: b

The manufacturer-placed embossed variable density pattern on the lead foil sheet is visible on a processed radiograph if the film packet is inadvertently positioned in the mouth backward and then exposed. The invisible pattern of stored energy on the exposed film is called the latent image. Photons are discrete bundles of energy with no mass or weight

that travel as waves at the speed of light and move through space in a straight line, "carrying the energy" of electromagnetic radiation. The film emulsion is a coating attached to both sides of the film base by the adhesive layer to give the film greater sensitivity to x-radiation.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. Latent image centers are aggregates of a. silver bromide crystals. b. bromine atoms. c. neutral silver atoms. d. gelatin. ANS: c

Silver bromide crystals comprise 80% to 90% of the crystals in a typical emulsion. These crystals absorb x-radiation during x-ray exposure and store the energy from the radiation to create a latent image. The silver bromide crystals exposed to x-ray photons are ionized, and the silver and bromine atoms are separated. Latent image centers are aggregates of neutral silver atoms. Collectively, the crystals with aggregates of silver at the latent image centers become the latent image on the film. Gelatin is used to suspend and evenly disperse silver halide crystals over the film base. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. During formation of the latent image, irregularities in the lattice

structure of the exposed crystal, known as _________________, attract

silver atoms. a. the protective layer b. the emulsion c. sensitivity specks d. the adhesive layer ANS: c

The protective layer is a thin, transparent coating placed over the emulsion. The film emulsion is a coating attached to both sides of the film base by the adhesive layer. During formation of the latent image, irregularities in the lattice structure of the exposed crystal, known as sensitivity specks, attract silver atoms. The adhesive layer is a thin layer of adhesive material that covers both sides of the film base. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 79 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. Which of the following types of dental x-ray film would you place

inside your patient's mouth? a. Intraoral film b. Extraoral film c. Duplicating film d. Screen film ANS: a

Intraoral film is placed inside the mouth. Extraoral film is placed outside the mouth. Duplicating film is used to copy radiographs; it is not used inside the mouth. Screen film is used for panoramic films, which are extraoral. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 79 OBJ: 5

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. Which of the following statements is true of a two-film packet? a. A two-film packet requires twice the amount of exposure to produce a

single radiograph. b. A two-film packet has a single emulsion, whereas a one-film packet has a double-emulsion. c. A two-film packet has a double-emulsion, whereas a one-film packet has a single emulsion. d. Intraoral x-ray film is a double-emulsion type of film regardless of whether the film packet contains one or two films. ANS: d

A two-film packet requires the same amount of exposure to produce the films as a one-film packet. A two-film packet contains two films that each have an emulsion on both sides of the film. Both a two-film packet and a one-film packet contain the same type of film, with a double-emulsion. Intraoral x-ray film is a double-emulsion type of film regardless of whether the film packet contains one or two films. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. A two-film packet requires ___________ exposure time as a

one-film packet. a. half the b. the same c. twice the d. four times the ANS: b

A two-film does not require half the exposure time as a one-film packet. A two-film packet requires the same exposure time as a one-film packet. A two-film packet does not require twice the exposure time as a one-film packet. A two-film packet does not require four times the exposure time as a one-film packet. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 18. When would you use a two-film packet when taking radiographs on

your patient? a. For maxillary radiographs where the bone is denser than in the

mandible. b. To prevent more photons from passing through the film into patient tissue. c. When a duplicate record of a radiographic examination is needed. d. Routinely for adults; however, a one-film packet should be used for children and adolescents. ANS: c

A longer exposure time is needed for maxillary radiographs where the bone is denser than the mandible. The lead foil sheet is used to reduce the number of photons that pass into patient tissue. A two-film packet may be used when a duplicate record of a radiographic examination is needed. Both a one-film packet or a two-film packet are suitable for use with children, adolescents, and adults. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 79 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

19. Why would you use the identification dot when taking radiographs? a. To determine film orientation b. To identify whether or not a film has been exposed c. To indicate the side of the film with an emulsion d. To identify whether the film is D-speed film or F-speed film ANS: a

The identification dot is used to determine film orientation. The identification dot is not used to determine whether or not a film has been exposed. The identification dot is not used to determine which side of the film has an emulsion as both sides have an emulsion. The identification dot is not used to determine the speed of the film. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 20. What is the purpose of the lead foil sheet found within the film

packet? a. To cover the film and shield the film from light b. To protect the film from moisture c. To shield the film from primary radiation emitted by the x-ray

tubehead d. To shield the film from secondary backscattered radiation ANS: d

The purpose of the paper film wrapper is to cover the film and shield the film from light. The purpose of the outer package wrapping is to protect the film from exposure to light and oral fluids. Primary radiation refers to the penetrating x-ray beam that is produced at the target of the anode and that exits the tubehead. This x-ray beam is often referred to as the primary beam, or useful beam. The purpose of the lead foil sheet found within the film packet is to shield the film from secondary backscattered

radiation that results in film fog.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 21. Where is the thin lead foil sheet positioned in the film packet? a. Behind the film and within the black paper film wrapper b. In front of the film and within the black paper film wrapper c. Behind the film and the black paper film wrapper d. In front of the film and the black paper film wrapper ANS: c

The lead foil sheet is not found within the black paper film wrapper. The thin lead foil sheet is not found in front of the film and is not located within the black paper wrapper. The thin lead foil sheet is a single piece of lead foil within the film packet that is located behind the film wrapped in protective paper. If the lead foil sheet is in front of the film, the image will be lighter than normal and the manufacturer-placed embossed pattern will be seen on the image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 | Page 80 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 22. The embossed pattern placed on the lead foil sheet by the

manufacturer will reveal a. whether or not the film has been exposed. b. if the film has been exposed to moisture. c. if the film packet is inadvertently positioned in the mouth backward

and then exposed.

d. if the film packet is inadvertently opened before the film is processed. ANS: c

The embossed pattern placed on the lead foil sheet by the manufacturer will not reveal whether or not the film has been exposed. The embossed pattern will not reveal if the film has been exposed to moisture. The embossed pattern will reveal if the film packet is inadvertently positioned in the mouth backward and then exposed. The embossed pattern will not reveal if the film packet is inadvertently opened before the film is processed. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 79 | Page 80 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

23. When you are placing the film packet in your patient's mouth, which

side of the film packet would you place toward the patient's teeth? a. The side with the flap that is used to open the dental film b. The solid white side c. The color-coded side d. The identification dot side ANS: b

The label side of the dental film packet has a flap used to open the dental film and is placed toward the tongue. The tube side of the dental film packet, which is placed toward the patient's teeth, is solid white. The label side of the dental film packet is color-coded and is placed toward the tongue. The identification dot is on the label side of the film and is placed toward the tongue. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Pages 79-82 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both

MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 24. The label side of the dental film packet a. is solid white. b. has a raised bump in one corner that corresponds to the identification

dot. c. should face the tubehead when placed in the mouth. d. is color-coded to distinguish between one-film and two-film packets and between film speeds. ANS: d

The tube side of the dental film packet is solid white. The tube side of the dental film packet has a raised bump in one corner that corresponds to the identification dot. The tube side of the dental film packet should face the tubehead when placed in the mouth. The label side of the dental film packet is color-coded to distinguish between one-film and two-film packets and between film speeds. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 80 | Page 81 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.iii. Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital image receptors, and the functions of both MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

25. Your dentist asks you to take radiographs on your patient in order to

check the interproximal surfaces of the posterior maxillary and mandibular teeth for decay. Which type of film would be the best to take the radiograph? a. Maxillary and mandibular periapical film b. Panoramic film c. Bite-wing film d. Occlusal film ANS: c

The maxillary periapical film would show the crown and roots of

maxillary teeth without showing mandibular teeth. The mandibular periapical film would show the crown and roots of mandibular teeth without showing maxillary teeth. Patient exposure to x-rays would be doubled. Panoramic radiographs would show both maxillary and mandibular teeth in the same film, but do not provide a clear image of the interproximal surfaces which is needed for the detection of decay. The bite-wing film is used to examine the crowns of both the maxillary and the mandibular teeth on one film. The bite-wing film is particularly useful in examining interproximal tooth surfaces. The occlusal film would show maxillary or mandibular teeth on one film. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Pages 81-83 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 26. The apex (tip) of the tooth roots may be seen on which type(s) of

intraoral film? a. Periapical films only b. Bite-wing films only c. Occlusal films only d. Both periapical and occlusal films ANS: d

The apex of the tooth roots may be seen on more than just periapical films. Bite-wing films do not allow for visualization of the apex of the tooth roots. The apex (tip) of the tooth roots may be seen on periapical and occlusal films. The apex of tooth roots may be seen on more than just occlusal films. Periapical films show the tip of the tooth root and surrounding structures as well as the crown. The occlusal film is used for examination of large areas of the maxilla or the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 82 | Page 83 OBJ: 6

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 27. Which type of intraoral film is best for visualizing interproximal

surfaces? a. Periapical b. Bite-wing c. Occlusal d. Periapical and occlusal ANS: b

Periapical film is used to examine anterior and posterior teeth. The bite-wing film is best for visualizing interproximal surfaces. The occlusal film is used for examination of large areas of the maxilla or the mandible. Periapical film is used to examine the crowns and roots of anterior and posterior teeth; the occlusal film is used for examination of large areas of the maxilla or the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 82 | Page 83 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 28. Which of the following types of dental x-ray film should you use

with a young pediatric patient if you need to get a radiograph of her maxillary teeth and maxilla? a. Periapical b. Bite-wing c. Occlusal d. Periapical and occlusal ANS: c

Periapical film is used to examine the crowns and roots of anterior and posterior teeth. The bite-wing film is best for visualizing interproximal

surfaces. It is used to examine the crowns of the maxillary and mandibular teeth in a single film. The occlusal film is best for examination of large areas of the maxilla or mandible. An occlusal film is often preferable to a periapical film for a young person because the patient can bite on the film like a wafer and avoid triggering the gag reflex. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 83 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 29. Which film size would you use to take posterior periapical

radiographs on your adult patient? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 ANS: c

A #0 size film is used for very small children. A #1 size film is used primarily to examine the anterior teeth in adults. A #2 size film is used for a standard adult posterior periapical and bite-wings film. It can also be used for anterior periapical film. A #4 size film is used to show large regions of the upper or lower jaw. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 83 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 30. You are taking bite-wing radiographs on a 3-year-old child. Which

size film should you use?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: a

A #0 size bite-wing film is used to examine posterior teeth in very small children. A #1 size film is used primarily to examine the anterior teeth in adults. A #2 size film is a standard adult periapical film. The #2 size film is also the standard film for adult bite-wing film. A #3 size film can be used for bite-wing film to examine posterior teeth in adults. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 83 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 31. Which size film should you use to take a bite-wing film on your

adult patient? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: c

Size #0 film is most frequently used to take bite-wing radiographs on a child. Size #1 film is the most frequently to take anterior periapical radiographs on an adult. Size #2 film is the most frequently used bite-wing film. It is also used for taking posterior periapical radiographs. Size #3 film is used for bite-wing radiographs, but it is not the most frequently used bite-wing film because it is difficult to open all the posterior tooth contacts with a single image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 83

OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 32. A fast film responds more quickly than a slow film, because a. the tubehead shutter opens wider. b. exposure times are longer for fast films. c. the silver halide crystals in the emulsion are larger. d. a different processing chemistry is used. ANS: c

The tubehead does not have a shutter. Exposure times are shorter for fast films. A fast film responds more quickly than a slow film, because the silver halide crystals in the emulsion are larger. The same processing chemistry is used for fast or slow film. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 83 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 33. Which of the following film speed is the fastest film currently

available? a. C-speed film b. D-speed film c. E-speed film d. F-speed film ANS: d

C-speed film is the slowest choice and is no longer available. D-speed film is slower than both E-speed film and F-speed film. E-speed film is slower than F-speed film. F-speed film is the fastest film currently available. F-speed film is a faster film than the D-speed film because the silver halide crystals in the emulsion are larger and the increased amount

of silver bromide in the emulsion.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 83 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 34. Which of the following types of film exhibits the bony and soft

tissue areas of the facial profile? a. Periapical b. Bite-wing c. Panoramic d. Cephalometric ANS: d

The periapical type of film exhibits the crown and root of the tooth. The bite-wing type of film exhibits the crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth. The panoramic type of film exhibits the entire skull and jaw in frontal and side views. The cephalometric type of film exhibits the bony and soft tissue areas of the facial profile. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 84 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 35. Your adolescent patient is scheduled for an orthodontic evaluation

and needs a single radiograph of his side facial profile that includes his skeletal structure, tissues, jaws, and teeth. Which one of the following radiographs should you take? a. Periapical b. Bite-wing c. Panoramic

d. Cephalometric ANS: c

The periapical type of film exhibits the crown and root of the tooth. The bite-wing type of film exhibits the crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth. The panoramic film shows a wide view of the upper and lower jaws on a single radiograph. The cephalometric type of film exhibits the bony and soft tissue areas of the facial profile. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 84 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 36. Screen film a. is sensitive to direct exposure to radiation. b. is sensitive to fluorescent light. c. requires more exposure time than nonscreen film. d. is not recommended for use in dentistry. ANS: b

Screen film is not sensitive to direct exposure to radiation. Screen film is sensitive to fluorescent light. Screen film requires less exposure than nonscreen film. Screen film is used for extraoral dental radiography. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 84 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 37. A screen that produces a green light must be paired with a

__________-sensitive screen film. a. red b. yellow

c. blue d. green ANS: d

There is not any type of screen film that is sensitive to red light. There is not any type of screen film that is sensitive to yellow light. Blue-sensitive screen film must be paired with screens that produce blue light. Some screen films are sensitive to blue light, whereas other are sensitive to green light. Green-sensitive screen film must be paired with screens that produce green light. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 85 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

38. (1) An intensifying screen is a device that transfers x-ray energy into

visible light; (2) the visible light, in turn, exposes the screen film. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

An intensifying screen is a device that transfers x-ray energy into visible light; the visible light, in turn, exposes the screen film. A screen film is placed between two special intensifying screens in a cassette. When the cassette is exposed to x-rays, the screens convert the x-ray energy into light, which, in turn, exposes the screen film. The screen film is sensitive to fluorescent light rather than to direct exposure to x-radiation. The intensifying screen transfers x-ray energy into visible light. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 84 | Page 85 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film

cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 39. An intensifying screen is a smooth plastic sheet coated with minute

fluorescent crystals known as a. nuclei of crystallization. b. germinal centers. c. sensitivity specks. d. phosphors. ANS: d

The fluorescent crystals found in an intensifying screen are not known as nuclei of crystallization. The fluorescent crystals found in an intensifying screen are not called germinal centers. Irregularities in the lattice structure of exposed silver halide crystals are known as sensitivity specks. An intensifying screen is a smooth plastic sheet coated with minute fluorescent crystals known as phosphors. When exposed to x-rays, the phosphors fluoresce and emit visible light in the blue or green spectrum. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 85 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 40. Rare earth screens a. have phosphors that emit blue light. b. have phosphors that emit green light. c. are less efficient than calcium tungstate intensifying screens. d. are slower than calcium tungstate intensifying screens. ANS: b

Calcium tungstate screen has phosphors that emit blue light. Rare earth screens have phosphors that emit green light. Rare earth screens are more efficient than calcium tungstate intensifying screens. Rare earth

screens are faster than calcium tungstate intensifying screens.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 85 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 41. Lack of contact between screen and film results in a. an overexposed film. b. an underexposed film. c. a light leak. d. a loss of image sharpness. ANS: d

Excessive exposure time, kVp, or milliamperage would result in an overexposed film. Insufficient exposure time, kVp, or milliamperage would result in an underexposed film. An opening in the screen would cause a light leak. Lack of contact between screen and film results in a loss of image sharpness. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 85 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 42. Duplicating film a. is exposed to x-rays. b. has emulsion on both sides. c. is used to make an identical copy of an intraoral or extraoral

radiograph. d. is the second film in a two-film intraoral film packet. ANS: c

Duplicating film is exposed to fluorescent light in a film duplicating

machine instead of x-rays. Duplicating film has an emulsion on one side and intraoral film has an emulsion on both sides. The emulsion side of the duplicating film appears dull, whereas the side without the emulsion appears shiny. Duplicating film is used to make an identical copy of an intraoral or extraoral radiograph film. Both films in a two-film intraoral film packet are identical. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 86 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1. Describe how to acquire radiographic images using various techniques MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 43. Film is best stored in an area that is a. hot. b. humid. c. cool and dry. d. exposed to radiation. ANS: c

Film is adversely affected by heat. Film is adversely affected by humidity. Film is best stored in an area that is cool and dry. The optimum temperature for film storage ranges from 50 degrees Fahrenheit to 70 degrees Fahrenheit, and the optimum relative humidity ranges from 30% to 50%. Films must be stored in areas that are adequately shielded from sources of radiation and should not be stored in areas where patients are exposed to radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 86 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

44. The optimum temperature for film storage ranges from ____ to ____

degrees Fahrenheit.

a. 30; 50 b. 50; 70 c. 70; 90 d. 90; 110 ANS: b

The optimum temperature for film storage is warmer than 30 to 50 degrees Fahrenheit. The optimum temperature for film storage ranges from 50 degrees to 70 degrees Fahrenheit. This is interesting because many practitioners keep film in the refrigerator, which is at about 40 degrees. The optimum temperature for film storage is cooler than 70 to 90 degrees Fahrenheit. 90 to 110 degrees Fahrenheit is much warmer than the optimum temperature for film storage. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 86 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 45. (1) Nonscreen film is sensitive to fluorescent light. (2) Screen film is

sensitive to the visible light emitted from the intensifying screen. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Nonscreen film is sensitive to x-rays rather than to fluorescent, visible light. Nonscreen film is not sensitive to fluorescent, visible light, however, screen film is sensitive to fluorescent, visible light from an intensifying screen. The reverse is true, meaning that screen film is sensitive to fluorescent, visible light and nonscreen film is sensitive to x-radiation. Screen film is sensitive to fluorescent, visible light that is emitted from the intensifying screen. X-rays strike the intensifying

screen which causes the screen to fluoresce and expose the screen film. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 84 | Page 85 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.i. Identify function and maintenance of film cassettes and intensifying screens MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

46. (1) A panoramic radiograph is an example of an intraoral film. (2)

An occlusal radiograph is an example of an extraoral film. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

The opposite is true, a panoramic radiograph is an extraoral film and an occlusal radiograph is an intraoral film An extraoral film is used to take radiographs outside of the patient's oral cavity. A panoramic radiograph is an example of an extraoral radiograph. An intraoral radiograph is used to take radiographs inside the patient's mouth. An occlusal radiograph is an example of an intraoral radiograph. A panoramic radiograph is an example of an extraoral film. An occlusal radiograph is an example of an intraoral film. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 79 | Page 84 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.2.a. Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_10.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The latent image is a. visible to the naked eye. b. the image on the radiographic film after processing. c. the image on the radiographic film before processing but after

exposure. d. the image on the radiographic film before exposure. ANS: c

The latent image is a pattern on energy on the exposed film that is not visible to the naked eye. The latent image remains invisible within the film emulsion until it undergoes chemical processing procedures. The latent image is the image on the radiographic film before processing but after exposure. During processing, a chemical reaction occurs, and the halide portion of the exposed, energized silver halide crystal is removed. There isn't any image on the radiographic film prior to exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 89 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. Which of the following statements is true about the development step

in film processing? a. The unexposed, unenergized halide crystals are removed from the

film. b. A subtraction reaction causes the black metallic silver to remain on the film. c. Development is the first step in processing film. d. The film emulsion is hardened during the development stage. ANS: c

During processing, a chemical reaction occurs, and the halide portion of

the exposed, energized silver halide crystal is removed, leaving a black metallic silver on the film. A reduction reaction causes the black metallic silver to remain on the film. In both automatic and manual processing, development is the first step in the film processing sequence. The film emulsion is softened during the development stage and hardened during the fixation stage for film processing. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 90 | Page 92 OBJ: 2 | 3 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. When the film exits the film processor, you notice that it appears

foggy and lacks detail. Which of the following could be a possible solution to prevent this from occurring with the next patient's film? a. Increase fixing time. b. Eliminate light leaks. c. Increase developer temperature. d. Decrease safelight distance. ANS: b

Fixing time does not affect film fog. Light leaks are a cause of film fog, all light leaks need to be eliminated. Additional causes of film fog are improper film storage, outdated film, contaminated processing solutions, and high developer temperatures. High developer temperature is a cause of film fog. Decreasing the safelight distance will increase risk of film fog. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 107 OBJ: 5 | 23 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. You have just taken your film from the water bath, and you notice

white spots on the radiographs. How can you prevent this from occurring in the future? a. Gently agitate fixer and developer with the film rack to disperse the

air bubbles when placing the film rack in the developer or fixer solution. b. Eliminate all light leaks. c. Increase fixation time. d. Prevent cross-contamination of chemicals. ANS: a

White spots on radiographs are caused from air bubbles that prevent the chemicals from contacting the film emulsion. To prevent this, gently agitate fixer and developer with the film rack when placing the film rack in the developer or fixer solution. White spots can also be the result of fixer contacting the film prior to development. Eliminating light leaks will prevent film fog and overexposed film, not white spots. Increasing the fixation time will prevent yellow-brown spots on the film; it will not cause white spots. Cross-contamination of chemicals will cause fogged film and black spots on the film, not white spots. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 105 OBJ: 21 | 23 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. All of your anterior radiographs have a single crescent shaped

radiolucent line toward the incisal edge of the radiograph. What is the most likely caused of this? a. Film processor gate is scratching the film b. Torn emulsion from the film rack c. Bad package of film d. Improper opening of the film packet ANS: d

Scratches on the film will be clear or radiopaque and will be of varying

shapes. Torn emulsion will appear clear or radiopaque and will not usually have a crescent shape. Bad or outdated film will generally cause a fogged appearance on the film. The error described is a fingernail artifact. It is caused by improperly opening the film packet and bending the film against the fingernail. It occurs most frequently while opening the size 0 and 1 film packets. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 105 OBJ: 22 | 23 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. You noticed that the top part of two of your radiographs is black when

you take them out of the manual processing tanks. Which of the following was the cause of this? a. Wash water is too cold. b. Fixer cut off. c. Developer is too hot. d. Developer cut off. ANS: b

The temperature of the wash water will not cause a black edge on the film. The portion of film that is not exposed to the fixer will be black. This occurs when the fixer levels are too low. Fixer cut off occurs most often to the film at the top of the film rack. Developer chemicals that are too hot will cause all film to be black. The portion of film that is not exposed to the developer will be white. This occurs when the developer levels are too low. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 104 OBJ: 21 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. When comparing current patient radiographs to radiographs taken

several years ago, you noticed that the radiographs taken several years ago have a yellow-brown appearance. You realize that you have seen the same type of spotting with other radiographs that were taken several years ago. What is the cause of this? a. Underdevelopment b. Insufficient water bath c. Deterioration of radiograph over time d. Overfixation ANS: b

Under development causes light films. Yellow-brown stains on the radiographs are caused by exhausted developer or fixer, insufficient fixing time, and insufficient rinsing time. A yellow-brown appearance is not associated with deterioration of radiographs over time. Overfixed films will have a silver appearance with reduced contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 102 OBJ: 22 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. You have just developed a set of bitewings. When they come out of

the automatic processor, the radiographs are clear. What is the cause of this error? a. Safelight was too close to the film. b. White light was left on while developing. c. Film was underdeveloped. d. Fixer and developer tanks were switched. ANS: d

Film fog will occur when the safe light is too close to the film. White light exposure will cause black film. Underdeveloped film will be light. A clear film error during processing occurs when the film is put in the fixer prior to development. PTS: 1

DIF: Application REF: Page 101 OBJ: 22 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. You noticed that the top quarter of one of your bitewings is black. The

other three bitewings that you put in the automatic processor were fine. What is the cause of this error? a. Safelight was turned off. b. White light was left on while developing. c. Darkroom door was opened before film was completely in automatic

processor. d. Developer cut off. ANS: c

There will not be any impact to the film if the safelight is turned off. White light exposure will overexpose the film and will result in black film. It would affect the entire film, not just one area of the film. If the darkroom door is opened before the film is completely in the automatic processor, the exposed portion of film will be black. The portion of film that is not exposed to the developer will be white. This occurs when the developer levels are too low. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 106 | Page 107 OBJ: 15 | 23 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. The overall appearance of your films is too dark. Which of the

following is the cause of this error? a. Film was in the developer too long. b. Film was in the fixer too long. c. The white light was left on while opening the film packets.

d. Film was left in the water bath too long. ANS: a

Overdeveloped film is a cause of dark film. Overdevelopment occurs from excess development time, high developer temperatures, and overconcentrated developer solution. Overdevelopment and light exposure are the two errors that cause overdeveloped film. Film that is exposed to light the entire time the film packets are opened will usually be black. Film that is exposed to low amounts of light may have varying degrees of exposure and could appear too dark. The water bath will not affect film density. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 100 OBJ: 22 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. All excess chemicals are removed from the film emulsion during a. development. b. rinsing. c. fixation. d. washing. ANS: d

The purpose of the developer is to reduce the exposed, energized silver halide crystals chemically to black metallic silver. The developer solution softens the film emulsion during this process. Rinsing is necessary to remove the developer from the film and stop the development process. Unexposed, unenergized silver halide crystals are removed from the emulsion during fixation. The fixer hardens the film emulsion during this process. A washing step is necessary to thoroughly remove all excess chemicals from the emulsion. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 93

OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. Concentrated powder and liquid film processing solutions are mixed

with _______ before use. a. ammonia b. vinegar c. tap water d. distilled water ANS: d

Neither concentrated powder nor concentrated liquid film processing solutions are mixed with ammonia before use. Concentrated powder and liquid film processing solutions are not mixed with vinegar prior to use. Tap water is not used with concentrated powder and liquid film processing solutions prior to use. Concentrated powder and liquid film processing solutions are mixed with distilled water before use. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 93 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. To maintain freshness, strength, and solution levels, film processing

solutions must be replenished a. hourly. b. daily. c. weekly. d. monthly. ANS: b

Film processing solutions do not need to be replenished on an hourly basis. To maintain freshness, film processing solutions must be replenished daily and changed every 3 to 4 weeks. Film processing

solutions must be replenished more often than weekly. Film processing solutions should be completely changed every 3 to 4 weeks; more frequent changing of solutions may be necessary when large numbers of films are processed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 7 | 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. Normal use of processing chemistry is defined as ____ intraoral

films per day. a. 18 b. 30 c. 50 d. 60 ANS: b

18 films is a single full set of adult dental x-ray films, and most offices process more than that per day. Normal use of processing chemistry is defined as 30 intraoral films per day. 50 intraoral films is defined as more than normal use of processing chemistry. The definition of normal use of processing chemistry is fewer than 60 films per day. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 93 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. The black shades and the distinct contrast of the radiographic image

are created by _______________ in the developer solution. a. sodium sulfite b. sodium carbonate c. hydroquinone d. elon

ANS: c

Sodium sulfite is the preservative in developer. Sodium carbonate activates the developing agents. Hydroquinone generates the black tones and the sharp contrast of the radiographic image. Elon generates the many shades of gray of the radiographic image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. Developer solution should be kept at ____ degrees Fahrenheit for

optimum developing conditions. a. 64 b. 68 c. 72 d. 76 ANS: b

Developer solution should be kept at a higher temperature than 64 degrees Fahrenheit. The optimal temperature for the developer solution is 68 degrees Fahrenheit. 72 degrees is warmer than the temperature at which developer solution should be kept for optimum developing conditions. The optimal temperature for developer solution is less than 76 degrees Fahrenheit. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 17. The chemical responsible for creating the gray shades on the

radiographs is a. hydroquinone.

b. sodium sulfite. c. elon. d. sodium carbonate. ANS: c

Hydroquinone generates the black tones seen on a dental radiograph. The antioxidant sodium sulfite is the preservative used in the developer solution. Elon generates the many shades of gray seen on a dental radiograph. Sodium carbonate generates the softening of the emulsion seen on a dental radiograph. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. Developer solution will not be effective below a. 60 degrees Fahrenheit. b. 63 degrees Fahrenheit. c. 65 degrees Fahrenheit. d. 75 degrees Fahrenheit. ANS: a

Hydroquinone, one of the agents in developer solution, is inactive below 60 degrees Fahrenheit and very active above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. The lower temperature limit for developer solution is less than 63 degrees Fahrenheit. The minimal temperature at which developer solution will be effective is less than 65 degrees Fahrenheit. 75 degrees is much warmer than the minimal temperature for developer solution, it is warmer than the recommended temperature. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

19. (1) Developer chemicals contain a preservative that prevents the

chemicals from oxidizing when exposed to air. (2) Sodium carbonate is the preservative used in developer solutions. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The preservative is not sodium carbonate. Developer chemicals contain a preservative. Developer chemicals contain a preservative that prevents the chemicals from oxidizing when exposed to air. Sodium sulfite is the preservative used in developer solutions. The reverse is true, developer chemicals contain a preservative but it is not sodium carbonate. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

20. From where will you retrieve your film when it exits the automatic

processor? a. Drying chamber b. Film feed slot c. Film recovery slot d. Roller film transport ANS: c

Wet film is dried with heated air in the drying chamber of the automatic processor. Film is inserted into the film feed slot to begin film processing. Once film has processed, it is dropped into and retrieved from the film recovery slot. The roller film transport is a system of rollers used to move the film rapidly through the developer, fixer, water, and drying compartments. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 92 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. The developer solution contains a preservative to prevent oxidation

when the chemicals come in contact with _______________. a. silver halide b. potassium bromide c. air d. moisture ANS: c

Silver halide crystals in dental x-ray film do not cause oxidation of the chemicals in developer solution. The restrainer used in developing solution is potassium bromide. The purpose of the restrainer is to control the developer and to prevent it from developing the exposed and unexposed silver halide crystals. The purpose of the preservative is to prevent the developer solution from oxidizing in the presence of air. The reducing agents hydroquinone and elon are not stable in the presence of oxygen and readily absorb oxygen from the air. The chemicals in developer solution are diluted with water, so moisture is not the cause of oxidation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 22. (1) Potassium bromide, an alkaline accelerator, activates the

developer solution and softens the gelatin in the film emulsion. (2) Sodium carbonate, the restrainer, prevents film fog by stopping the development of the silver halide crystals. a. Both statements are true.

b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

The reverse is true. It is sodium carbonate that is the accelerator and potassium bromide is the restrainer. Sodium carbonate, an alkaline accelerator, activates the developer solution and softens the gelatin in the film emulsion. Potassium bromide, the restrainer, prevents film fog by stopping the development of the silver halide crystals. Sodium carbonate activates the developer solution and softens the film emulsion. Potassium bromide stops the development of the silver halide crystals. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 93 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 23. (1) The developer chemicals should be checked and replenished if

needed on a daily basis. (2) The fixer chemicals should be checked and replenished if needed on a weekly basis. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The fixer chemicals should be checked and replenished on a daily basis. The developer chemicals should be checked and replenished on a daily basis. The fixer chemicals should be checked and replenished on a daily basis along with the developer chemicals. Both the developer and fixer chemicals should be checked and replenished if needed on a daily basis. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 92 OBJ: 7 | 14

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 24. (1) The radiolucent image on the film becomes more visible during

the development step when the developing agent, sodium thiosulfate or ammonium thiosulfate, removes the unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion. (2) Continued development of the crystals during the fixing step is prevented by the acidifier, acetic or sulfuric acid, in the fixer. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

The radiolucent image on the film becomes more visible during the fixation step when the fixing agent, sodium thiosulfate or ammonium thiosulfate, removes the unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion. Continued development of the crystals during the fixing step is prevented by the acidifier, acetic or sulfuric acid, in the fixer. The reverse is true, the radiolucent image on the film becomes more visible during the fixation step when the developing agent removes the unexposed, underdeveloped silver halide crystals from the film emulsion, and continued development is prevented by the acidifier in the fixer. The radiolucent image on the film becomes more visible during the fixation step. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

25. Acetic acid in the fixer solution acts as a preservative to prevent

chemical breakdown of the fixer solution. Potassium alum contracts and solidifies the gelatin in the film emulsion during the fixing process.

a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Sodium sulfate in the fixer solution acts as a preservative to prevent chemical deterioration of the fixer solution. Potassium alum shrinks and hardens the gelatin in the film emulsion during the fixing process. The reverse is true, sodium sulfate acts as a preservative and potassium alum contracts and solidifies the gelatin in the film emulsion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 93 | Page 94 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.a. Describe functions of processing solutions MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 26. The film that you just developed is dull gray and lacks contrast.

Which of the following should prevent this from occurring? a. Films should not touch during film processing. b. The safe light should be at least 4 feet away from the film. c. The developer and water bath should be the same temperature. d. The film should be rinsed thoroughly before drying. ANS: b

Film that is overlapped or touching during processing will have white or dark areas that resemble the edges of film. Film that is too close to the safelight will fog. Film should be at least 4 feet from a safelight. Other causes of film fog include light leaks, improper film storage, outdated film, concentrated processing solutions, and high developer temperature. Reticulation or cracking of the emulsion occurs from a sudden change in temperature between the developer and water bath. Film that is not rinsed properly after fixing will have yellow-brown stains that will appear over time. PTS: 1 DIF: Application

REF: Page 98 OBJ: 16 | 17 | 23 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 27. Safelighting is a ______-intensity light composed of ______

wavelengths of the visible light spectrum. a. low; long b. low; short c. high; long d. high; short ANS: a

Safelighting is a low-intensity light composed of long wavelengths in the red-orange portion of the visible light spectrum. Safelighting provides sufficient illumination in the darkroom to carry out processing activities safely without exposing or damaging the film. Shorter wavelengths of light have more intensity than long wavelengths of light. Safelighting is low intensity light. Safelighting is low intensity light composed of long wavelengths. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 98 OBJ: 16 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 28. Safelighting is in the ____________ portion of the visible light

spectrum. a. red-orange b. orange-yellow c. yellow-green d. green-blue ANS: a

Safelighting is in the red-orange portion of the visible light spectrum. The colors in a prism are ROYGBIV for red, orange, yellow, blue,

indigo, and violet with red at the lower wavelength end. Safelighting is not in the orange-yellow portion of the visible light spectrum. Safelighting is not in the yellow-green portion of the visible light spectrum. Safelighting is not in the green-blue portion of the visible light spectrum. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 98 OBJ: 16 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 29. Films that are exposed to safelight illumination for more than 2 or 3

minutes will appear a. lighter overall than they otherwise would appear. b. fogged. c. to have higher contrast than they otherwise would appear. d. unchanged. ANS: b

Films that are exposed to safelight illumination for more than 2 or 3 minutes will appear darker. Films that are unwrapped too close to the safelight or exposed to safelight illumination for more than 2 to 3 minutes appear fogged. Films exposed to safelight illumination for more than 2 or 3 minutes will have reduced contrast due to fogging. Unwrapped films must be processed immediately under safelight conditions to avoid changes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 98 OBJ: 16 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 30. Your radiograph has thin, diverging black lines on it. What is the

most likely cause of this? a. Humidity levels are too high, and you opened the packet too quickly.

b. Humidity levels are too low, and you opened the packet too quickly. c. The developer was drastically hotter than the water bath. d. The fixer was 10 degrees colder than the water bath. ANS: b

Thin diverging black lines are not the result of rapidly opening a film packet under conditions of high humidity. Static electricity may cause fine, black branching lines across the film when humidity levels are too low, and the film packet is opened too quickly. Drastic changes in temperature between the developer and the water bath cause reticulation or cracking of the film emulsion. Fixer solution that is colder than the water bath is not associated with the creation of thin, diverging black lines. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 106 OBJ: 22 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 31. Which of the following statements is true of manual processing

tanks? a. The developer is on the right, and the fixer is on the left. b. There are two master tanks and one insert tank. c. The two insert tanks fit in the master tank. d. Water is placed in the insert tank. ANS: c

The developer is put in the insert tank on the left. The fixer is put in the insert tank on the right. There are two insert tanks and only one master tank. The two insert tanks fit in the master tank. Water is placed in the master tank. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 94 | Page 95 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

32. The lid of the processing tank prevents which of the following from

occurring? a. Oxidation and evaporation of chemicals b. Imbibing water into chemicals c. Raising the humidity level in the room to levels that would negatively

affect processing d. Water contamination in the master tank ANS: a

In addition to protecting developing films from exposure to light, the light-tight lid of the processing tank protects the solutions from oxidation and evaporation. Water is not imbibed by the chemicals. The chemistry in the processing tank do not raise the humidity level in the darkroom to a level that would negatively affect processing. The master tank is filled with water, thus, it cannot be contaminated by water. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 94 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 33. (1) The temperatures of the developer and fixer solutions are

controlled by the mixing valve. (2) A thermometer is put inside the developer tank for manual processing. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The temperatures of the developer and fixer solutions are controlled by the mixing valve, which mixes the incoming hot and cold water to produce a water bath in the master tank that maintains an optimum temperature. A floating thermometer or one that is clipped to the side of

the developer tank may be used. The reverse is true, the mixing valve controls the temperature of the water bath in the master tank and the solutions in the insert tanks and a thermometer is used to measure the temperature of the developer tank. A floating thermometer may be put in the developer tank or one that is clipped to the side of the developer tank may be used. The mixing valve controls the temperatures of the developer and fixer solutions. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 94 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 34. Which of the following statements is true of automatic film

processors? a. All automatic film processors are capable of processing a number of

different sizes of x-ray film. b. All automatic film processors may be used in a room with white light. c. Only automatic film processors with daylight loaders may be used in a room with white light. d. Automatic processing takes more time than manual processing. ANS: c

Not all automatic film processors are capable of processing a number of different sizes of x-ray film, some are limited to certain sizes of x-ray film. Not all automatic film processors may be used in a room with white light. Only automatic film processors with daylight loaders may be used in a room with white light. Automatic processing takes less time than manual processing. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 91 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

35. A timer is used to indicate time intervals during which of the

following steps of manual processing? 1. Developer solution 2. Rinse water 3. Fixer solution 4. Wash water a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 4 d. 4 only ANS: a

A timer is used to indicate time intervals during developer solution, rinse water, fixer solution, and wash water steps of manual processing. Not leaving the films in developer solution for a sufficient length of time will result in light films, and, conversely, leaving the films in developer solution for an excessive amount of time will result in dark films. Films that are not rinsed sufficiently following development will continue processing and turn yellow-brown. Films that are not fixed sufficiently will continue to develop and will turn dark over time. Films that are fixed for an excessive amount of time will exhibit a silver cast and reduced contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 94 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 36. Film hangers are a device used to a. hold films during manual processing. b. mount films. c. view films. d. open film packets. ANS: a

Film hangers are a device used to hold films during processing. Film hangers are made of stainless steel and include an identification tab or label. Film hangers are available in various sizes and can hold up to 20 intraoral films. Films are mounted manually. Films are viewed on a viewbox. Packets are opened manually. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 96 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 37. The purpose of a stirring rod is to a. scrape bubbles from the surface of the films when they are in solution. b. mix the chemicals and equalize the temperature of the solutions. c. mix developer and fixer together in the master tank. d. recover the thermometer from the bottom of the master tank. ANS: b

Scraping the surface of the films will damage the emulsion. The purpose of a stirring rod is to mix the chemicals and equalize the temperature of the solutions. The developer and fixer are placed in the insert tanks and are never mixed. The thermometer is placed in the developer tank. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 95 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 38. Developer solution should be changed ________________ fixer

solution. a. twice as often as b. more often than c. less often than d. at the same time as

ANS: d

Developer solution should not be changed twice as often as fixer solution. Developer solution should not be changed more often than fixer solution. Developer solution should not be changed less often than fixer solution. Developer solution should be changed at the same time as fixer solution. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 95 | Page 96 OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 39. (1) The developer solution becomes depleted from evaporation and

the removal of small amounts of solution from the tank on the film hanger and films. (2) With time and use, the developer solution decreases in volume but increases in strength. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The developer solution decreases in volume and strength over time. The developer solution becomes depleted from evaporation and the removal of small amounts from the tank on the film hanger and films. With time and use, the developer solution decreases not only in volume but in strength as well. Evaporation and the removal of small amounts of developer solution lead to depletion and, with time, a decrease in volume and strength. The reverse is true, depletion leads to a reduction in volume and strength. This is the reason to use replenisher solution. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 95 OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

40. An exhausted developer produces a radiograph with a. reduced density and increased contrast. b. reduced density and reduced contrast. c. increased density and increased contrast. d. increased density and reduced contrast. ANS: b

Exhausted developer will lead to a reduction in contrast. An exhausted developer produces a radiograph with reduced density and reduced contrast. Exhausted developer will result in a radiograph with reduced density and contrast. Exhausted developer will result in a radiograph with reduced density as well as reduced contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 95 OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 41. Exhausted fixer produces a radiograph a. with adequate "clearing" of the film. b. with proper hardening of the film emulsion. c. that will turn a yellow-brown color because exhausted fixer does not

stop the chemical reaction. d. that will require longer exposure time to achieve comparable contrast and density. ANS: c

Exhausted fixer will not adequately clear a film. Exhausted fixer will not properly harden the film emulsion. Exhausted fixer produces a radiograph that will turn a yellow-brown color, transmit less light, and lose diagnostic quality. Exposure time should never be increased to compensate for depleted processor chemistry. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 96

OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 42. (1) The master and insert tanks must be cleaned with a solution of

hydrochloric acid and water each time the solutions are changed, (2) because deposits form on the inside walls of the insert tanks from an interaction between mineral salts in the water and carbonate in the processing solutions. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct. b. Both the statement and the reason are not correct. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct. d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct. ANS: a

A commercial stainless steel tank cleaner or a solution of hydrochloric acid and water can be used to remove the mineral salts and carbonate deposits. The master and insert tanks must be cleaned each time the solutions are changed. A solution of hydrochloric acid and water is the best choice for cleaning the master and insert tanks. Deposits form on the inside walls of the insert tanks from an interaction between mineral salts in the water and carbonate in the processing solutions. The interaction between the mineral salts in water and the carbonate in the processing solutions produces deposits on the inside walls of the insert tanks. To produce diagnostic radiographs, the processing tank must be kept clean. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 96 OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 43. The major advantage of automatic film processing versus manual

film processing is a. less processing time is required.

b. time is manually controlled. c. water temperature is manually controlled. d. more sophisticated equipment is used. ANS: a

The major advantage of automatic film processing versus manual film processing is less processing time is required. Time is automatically controlled. Water temperature is automatically controlled. More sophisticated equipment is not necessarily advantageous. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 90 | Page 91 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 44. Which of the following statements is true of automatic processing? a. Wrapped films are fed into the film feed slot. b. The processing chemicals may be used interchangeably between

automatic and manual film processing. c. Developer solution for automatic processing is heated to the same temperature as developer solution for manual processing. d. The film is transported directly from the developer solution into the fixer without a rinsing step. ANS: d

Unwrapped films are fed into the film feed slot. The developer and fixer solutions for automatic processing are different than those used for manual processing and may not be used interchangeably. Developer solution for automatic processing is heated to a higher temperature than developer solution for manual processing. In automatic processing, the film is transported directly from the developer solution into the fixer without a rinsing step. The fixer solution used in an automatic processor is a specially formulated, highly concentrated chemical solution that contains additional hardening agents. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 91 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 45. An extraoral cleaning film is used to a. wipe the rollers off when the processor is disassembled. b. clean residual gelatin or dirt from the rollers. c. disinfect the daylight loader of the automatic processor. d. clean the master tank of a manual processor. ANS: b

Cleaning pads and solutions are used to wipe the rollers off when the processor is disassembled. An extraoral cleaning film is typically run through the processor at the beginning of each day and used to clean residual gelatin or dirt from the rollers. Commercial disinfectant wipes and sprays may be used to disinfect the daylight loader. A commercial stainless steel tank cleaner or a solution of hydrochloric acid and water can be used to remove the mineral salts and carbonate deposits. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 92 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 46. Duplicating film a. is placed inside the patient's mouth. b. is the same as intraoral film. c. is gray on both sides of the film packet. d. requires the use of a film duplicator. ANS: d

Duplicating film is never placed inside the patient's mouth. Duplicating film is not the same as intraoral film. Duplicating film is white on both

sides of the film packet to differentiate it from intraoral film. Duplicating film requires the use of a film duplicator. A film duplicator provides a diffused light source that evenly exposes the special duplicating film. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 99 OBJ: 3 | 19 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.c. Identify optimum procedures for processing films MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 47. Underdeveloped films may result from a. excess development time. b. overconcentrated developer solution. c. high developer temperature. d. low developer temperature. ANS: d

An underdeveloped film may result from inadequate development time. An underdeveloped film may result from depleted or contaminated developer solution. An underdeveloped film may result from low developer temperature. To prevent this, check the temperature of the developer as well as the amount of time the film remains in the developer solution. Also, check to be certain the timer and thermometer are accurate. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 100 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 48. Overdeveloped films may result from a. inadequate development time. b. overconcentrated developer solution. c. low developer temperature.

d. depleted or contaminated developer solution. ANS: b

Overdeveloped films may result from overconcentrated developer solution or from excess development time. Overdeveloped films may result from overconcentrated developer solution. Replace the developer solution if it is overactive. Overdeveloped films may result from overconcentrated developer solution or from high developer temperature. Overdeveloped films may result from overconcentrated developer solution or from concentrated (overactive) developer solution. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 100 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 49. Reticulation means the film appears a. to have white spots. b. to have dark spots. c. cracked. d. as thin, black branching lines. ANS: c

White spots would be fixer spots. Dark spots would be developer spots. Reticulation means the film appears cracked. Static electricity would appear as thin, black branching lines. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 100 | Page 101 OBJ: 3 | 20 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 50. Insufficient fixation time or insufficient rinsing would lead to a. overdeveloped film.

b. reticulation of emulsion. c. yellow-brown films. d. fixer cutoff. ANS: c

An overdeveloped film appears dark due to excess development time, an inaccurate timer, or high developer temperature. Reticulation occurs when the film is subjected to a sudden temperature change between the developer solution and the water bath. Insufficient fixation time or insufficient rinsing would lead to yellow-brown films. The solution is to use adequate fixing time, which is generally twice the processing time, and rinse for a minimum of 20 minutes. Fixer cutoff results from a low level of fixer solution and appears as a straight black border on a film. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 102 OBJ: 3 | 20 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 51. Developer cutoff appears as a a. straight white border on the film. b. straight black border on the film. c. curved white border on the film. d. curved black border on the film. ANS: a

Developer cutoff appears as a straight white border on the film. Fixer cutoff appears as a straight black border on the film. Cone cutting creates a curved black rather than white border on the film. Cone cutting creates a curved black border on the film. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 103 | Page 104 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.3.b. Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors

MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_11.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radiographs are intended to be placed in a film holder in a. the order in which they were exposed. b. the order in which they were processed. c. anatomic order. d. the order prescribed by the American Dental Association (ADA)

nomenclature. ANS: c

Radiographs are not placed in the film holder in the order in which they were exposed. Radiographs are not placed in the film holder in the order in which they were processed. Radiographs are intended to be placed in a film holder in anatomic order. Anatomic order refers to how teeth are arranged within the dental arches. Radiographs are not placed in the film holder in the order prescribed by the ADA nomenclature. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 111 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

2. In dental radiography, film mounting is the placement of radiographs a. on a viewbox. b. in a supporting structure or holder. c. in the patient's mouth. d. in the processor. ANS: b

Radiographs are examined on a viewbox. Film mounting is the placement of radiographs in a supporting structure or holder. Radiographs are placed in the patient's mouth for exposure. Radiographs are placed in the processor for processing.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 111 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. A film mount may be made of

1. cardboard. 2. lead foil. 3. plastic. 4. vinyl. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 3, 4 ANS: c

They are not made of lead foil, which is a component of the film package. A film mount may be made of plastic. A film mount may be made of cardboard, plastic, or vinyl. A film mount may be made of cardboard. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. An opaque film mount is preferred because it a. increases the contrast of the radiograph. b. increases the density of the radiograph. c. decreases the density of the radiograph. d. masks the light around each radiograph. ANS: d

An opaque film mount does not change the contrast of the radiograph. Contrast is a property of the radiograph itself. An opaque film mount does not increase the density of the radiograph. Density is a property of the radiograph itself. An opaque film mount does not decrease the density of the radiograph. Density is a property of the radiography itself. A film mount may be opaque or clear. An opaque film mount is preferred because it masks the light around each radiograph. Subtle changes in density and contrast are easier to detect when extraneous light are eliminated. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. When viewing radiographs, it is easier to detect subtle changes in

density and contrast if a. the treatment room lights are left on. b. extraneous light is eliminated. c. the viewbox light is turned off. d. films are held up by the operator and viewed through ceiling lights. ANS: b

Treatment room lights are a source of extraneous light. When viewing radiographs, it is easier to detect subtle changes in density and contrast if extraneous light is eliminated. Backlighting, as from the viewbox, is preferred. Viewing films through ceiling lights is discouraged. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. You have taken nineteen films, and the film holder holds twenty

films. What should you do with the empty window frame? a. Cover the window with masking tape. b. Put an unexposed film in the window. c. Put black opaque paper in the window. d. Just leave the window empty. ANS: c

Masking tape would be difficult to place and remove and is not suggested. Using an unexposed film would eliminate extraneous light but would be wasteful. When all the windows of the film mount are not filled with radiographs, the text recommends placing black opaque paper in the unused frames. Not placing anything fails to eliminate extraneous light. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. According to the text, the size of the film mount should correspond to

the size of the a. patient chart. b. mailing envelopes. c. viewbox. d. processor. ANS: c

The patient chart can accommodate a wide variety of film mounts. It is important to purchase mailing envelopes that can hold the largest size of mount used in the dental office. According to the text, the size of the film mount should correspond to the size of the viewbox. It does not bear any correlation to the size or capacity of the processor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. Who among the following categories of dental professionals is

qualified to mount dental radiographs? 1. Dentist 2. Dental hygienist 3. Dental assistant a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 1 only ANS: a

The dentist, dental hygienist, and dental assistant are all qualified to mount dental radiographs. In most dental offices, mounting films is the responsibility of the dental radiographer. A dental assistant with knowledge of normal anatomic landmarks is qualified. In many offices, the dental hygienist and dental assistant mount most of the dental radiographs, but the dentist may do so on occasion. Any trained dental professional is qualified to mount dental radiographs. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

9. Your radiographs have just exited the processor. When should you

mount them? a. Immediately b. At the end of the day c. Tomorrow

d. Next week ANS: a

The dental radiographer should always mount films immediately after processing. Films should be mounting in an area designated for film mounting. This area should consist of a clean, dry, light-colored work surface in front of an illuminator or viewbox. Waiting until the end of the day increases the risk for loss or damage to the films. Waiting until tomorrow increases the risk for loss or damage to the films. Waiting until next week increases the chances for loss or damage to the films. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. Mounted radiographs increases a. chances of error in determining the patient's right and left sides. b. handling of individual films. c. chances of damage to the emulsion. d. accessibility for interpretation. ANS: d

They decrease the chances of error in determining the patient's right and left sides. They decrease the handling of individual films. They decrease chances of damage to the emulsion. Mounted radiographs increase accessibility for interpretation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 111 OBJ: 2 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. The film mount should be labeled _________ the films are mounted.

A(n) __________ can be used to label film mounts. a. before; special marking pencil b. after; special marking pencil c. before; ink pen d. after; standard graphite pencil ANS: a

The film mount should be labeled before the films are mounted. A special marking pencil designed to write on paper, plastic, or vinyl can be used to label film mounts. The film mount should be labeled before the films are mounted. Mounts can be reused, and it is difficult to erase mounts marked with an ink pen. The film mount should be labeled before the films are mounted. A special marking pencil can be used to label film mounts. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 112 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. It is desirable that radiographs be identified with each of the

following pieces of information, but it is critical that they be labeled with the a. patient's name and date of exposure. b. number of films. c. dentist's name. d. radiographer's name. ANS: a

It is desirable that radiographs be identified with each of the pieces of information, but it is critical that they are labeled with the patient's name and date of exposure. Any person who has worked in a dental office knows the frustration of trying to identify a loose film that has popped out of the film mount and is found on the counter or floor. Although the

number of films can be counted, the films are useless if the patient's name and the date of exposure cannot be determined. The dentist's name is useful if the radiographs are sent to a third party. The radiographer's name is important if any questions should arise about the exposure of the images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 112 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. In the labial mounting method, radiographs are placed in the film

mount with the __________ side of the identification dot facing the viewer. They are then viewed from the _________ aspect. a. depressed; labial b. depressed; lingual c. raised; labial d. raised; lingual ANS: c

In the labial mounting method, radiographs are placed in the film mount with the raised side of the identification dot facing the viewer. In the labial mounting method, radiographs are placed in the film mount with the raised side of the identification dot facing the viewer. They are then viewed from the labial aspect. Labial mounting is the preferred method of mounting dental radiographs and is recommended by the American Dental Association. With this method, the radiographs are viewed as if the viewer is looking directly at the patient; the patient's left side is on the viewer's right, and the patient's right side is on the viewer's left. In the labial mounting method, radiographs are viewed from the labial side. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 114 OBJ: 4 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate

techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. With the lingual mounting method, films are viewed from the

________ aspect. The lingual method _______ recommended by the American Dental Association (ADA). a. labial; is b. labial; is not c. lingual; is d. lingual; is not ANS: d

With the lingual mounting method, films are viewed from the lingual aspect. The labial rather than lingual method is recommended by the ADA. With the lingual mounting method, films are viewed from the lingual aspect. Films are viewed from the lingual aspect with the lingual mounting method. The lingual method is not recommended by the ADA. With the lingual mounting method, films are viewed from the lingual aspect. The lingual method is not recommended. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 114 OBJ: 4 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. Two indicators that will help you in determining which way to

mount bite-wing radiographs are (1) the curve of Spee curves _______________ toward the distal, and (2) mandibular molars have __________ distinct roots. a. upward; two b. upward; three c. downward; two d. downward; three ANS: a

Suggestions for mounting radiographs include mounting bite-wing radiographs with the curve of Spee directed upward toward the distal and remembering that most mandibular molars have two roots. The curve of the maxillary arch is rounded or convex, while the curve of the mandibular arch is caved in or concave. An easy way to keep maxillary and mandibular roots straight is to remember that if you can see bone between the roots it is a mandibular molar, and the palatal root fills that space on a maxillary molar. Most mandibular molars have two distinct roots, whereas maxillary molars have usually three distinct roots. The curve of Spee curves upward rather than downward toward the distal. The curve of Spee curves upward rather than downward and mandibular molars usually have two distinct roots. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 113 | Page 114 OBJ: 4 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.i. Identify anatomic landmarks that aid in mounting MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. Which one of the following is the only member of the dental team

who is legally allowed to interpret and diagnose radiographs? a. Dentist or dental hygienist b. Dentist or dental assistant c. Dentist, dental hygienist or dental assistant d. Dentist ANS: d

The dental hygienist is not legally allowed to interpret and diagnose radiographs. The dental assistant is not legally allowed to interpret and diagnose radiographs. The dental hygienist or dental assistant are not legally allowed to interpret and diagnose radiographs. Although all members of the dental team may interpret dental radiographs, it is the responsibility of the dentist to establish a final or definitive interpretation and diagnosis. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 117

OBJ: 2 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. (1) The text recommends that you choose a particular order for

viewing the mounted radiographs to prevent skipping a radiograph. (2) When viewing radiographs, you should look carefully at each film so that you only have to look at the set of radiographs once. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

Radiographs should be viewed as many times as necessary. The text recommends a specific order for viewing radiographs. The dental radiographer must have an established viewing sequence to prevent errors in interpretation. The sequence should be repeated as many times as necessary to evaluate all surfaces of teeth and supporting structures for evidence of disease and abnormalities. The text recommends a specific order for viewing radiographs. Radiographs should be viewed as many times as necessary. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 118 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 18. According to your text, when viewing radiographs in sequential

order, the third step in viewing radiographs should begin with the a. mandibular left side periapical films. b. mandibular right side periapical films. c. maxillary left side periapical films.

d. right molar bite-wings. ANS: a

When viewing radiographs, the mandibular left side is viewed in the third step. The third step reads "move down to the mandibular teeth on the left side (mandibular periapical films on the lower right side of the mount)". The mandibular right side is viewed in the fourth step. Step four reads "move horizontally across to the maxillary teeth on the left (maxillary periapical films on the upper right side of the mount)". The maxillary left is viewed in the second step. Step two reads "move horizontally across to the maxillary teeth on the left (maxillary periapical films on the upper right side of the mount)." The right molar bite-wings are viewed in the first step. The first step reads "begin with the maxillary teeth on the right side (maxillary periapical films on the upper left side of the film mount)." PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 118 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_12.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dental images are a(n) _______________ comprehensive patient

care. a. adjunct to b. necessary component of c. option for d. supplement to ANS: b

Dental images are more than an adjunct to comprehensive patient care, they are a necessary component. Images allow the dental professional to identify many conditions that may otherwise go undetected and to see many conditions that are not apparent clinically. An oral examination without dental images limits the dental practitioner's knowledge to what is seen clinically. Dental images are not an option for comprehensive patient care. Dental images are not a supplement to comprehensive patient care, they are essential for diagnostic purposes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 123 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. Which of the following would you need in order to perform efficient,

accurate dental imaging procedures on your patients? a. Sufficient knowledge b. Technical skills c. Sufficient knowledge and technical skills d. Neither sufficient knowledge nor technical skills ANS: c

Sufficient knowledge must be accompanied by technical skills.

Technical skills must be complemented with sufficient knowledge. The dental radiographer requires sufficient knowledge and technical skills to perform dental imaging procedures. The dental radiographer must have both sufficient background knowledge and technical skills to perform dental imaging procedures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 124 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. An oral examination limits the practitioner to knowledge of what is

seen clinically. Dental images allow the practitioner to see many conditions that are not apparent clinically. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

An oral examination without dental images limits the dental practitioner's knowledge to what is seen clinically, that is, teeth and soft tissues. With the use of dental images, the dental professional gains a great deal of information about teeth and supporting bone structures. An oral examination limits the practitioner to knowledge of what is seen clinically. Dental images allow the practitioner to see many conditions that are not apparent clinically. The practitioner can see many conditions with dental images that cannot be seen clinically. An oral examination limits the practitioner to what is seen clinically. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 123 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

4. Dental images enable the dental professional to see ___________

conditions that may otherwise go undetected. a. rare b. common c. occasional d. many ANS: d

Dental images are a component of the patient record and they enable the dental professional to see conditions on far more than rare occasions. Dental images enable the dental professional to see many conditions, whether they are common or not so common. Dental images convey much more information than occasional conditions, an image contains a vast amount of information, much more than a written record does. Dental images enable the dental professional to see many conditions that may otherwise go undetected. Many diseases and conditions produce no clinical signs or symptoms and are typically discovered only through the use of dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 123 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. According to the text, __________ is one of the most important uses

of dental images. a. habitual frequency of imaging b. detection of diseases c. maintaining a record of restorations that have been placed d. insurance verification ANS: b

Frequency of imaging should vary according to the "Recommendations

for Prescribing Dental Radiographs". According to the text, "One of the most important uses of dental images is for detection of diseases, lesions, and conditions of the teeth and bones that cannot be identified by clinical examination alone." Maintaining a record of restorations that have been placed is not one of the most important uses of dental images. Dental images should not be taken for insurance verification. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 123 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. Through the use of dental images, the dental radiographer can detect

________ that cannot be detected clinically. 1. diseases 2. lesions 3. conditions of teeth and bones a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 3 only ANS: a

Through the use of dental images, the dental radiographer can detect diseases, lesions, and conditions of teeth and bones that cannot be detected clinically. Dental images can detect conditions of teeth and bones as well as diseases and lesions. Dental images can detect diseases as well as lesions and conditions of teeth and bones. Dental images can detect diseases and lesions as well as conditions of teeth and bones. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 123 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

7. When dental images are properly prescribed, exposed, and processed,

the benefit of disease detection ____________ the risk of small doses of x-radiation. a. does not outweigh b. is considered equal c. slightly outweighs d. far outweighs ANS: d

It is incorrect to say that the benefit of disease detection does not outweigh the risk of small doses of x-radiation. It is not true that the benefit of disease detection is considered equal to the risk of small doses of x-radiation. It is not correct to assume that the benefit of disease detection slightly outweighs the risk of small doses of x-radiation. When dental images are properly prescribed, exposed, and processed, the benefit of disease detection far outweighs the risk of small doses of x-radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 123 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. A ______________ may be a dental radiographer.

1. dental hygienist 2. dental assistant 3. dentist a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 3 d. 3 only ANS: a

The dental radiographer is any person who positions, exposes, and processes dental x-ray image receptors. A dental hygienist, dental assistant, or dentist may be a dental radiographer. A dentist may be a dental radiographer as well as a dental hygienist or dental assistant. A dental assistant may be a dental radiographer as well as a dental hygienist or dentist. A dental hygienist or a dental assistant may be a dental radiographer as well as a dentist.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 124 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. Assigned responsibilities of dental auxiliaries in regard to dental

imaging may include a. diagnosing disease on dental images. b. prescribing dental images. c. education of patients about dental imaging. d. creating a treatment plan based on the findings of dental images. ANS: c

Only the dentist can diagnose disease from a dental image. Only the dentist can prescribe dental images. Auxiliaries can educate patients about dental imaging. Only the dentist can create a treatment plan based on the findings from the dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 124 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. When should you avoid taking retakes? a. Whenever it is convenient because the dose is so low

b. Only if the patient is uncomfortable with exposure c. Only if older (pre-1975) equipment is used d. At all times ANS: d

Retakes should not be taken whenever it is convenient. Retakes should always be minimized, not just if the patient is uncomfortable about it. Older equipment is likely to expose the patient to higher levels of radiation than newer equipment. Retakes resulting in unnecessary patient exposure to x-radiation must be avoided at all times. Whenever the dental radiographer performs imaging procedures on patients the lowest possible level of x-radiation must be used. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 124 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental

radiographer must always (Note: Though all are true, one is the most critical and encompasses the others.) a. maintain an adequate distance. b. have proper positioning. c. have proper shielding. d. avoid the primary beam. ANS: d

It is important to maintain an adequate distance, however, this is not the most important way to avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation. It is important to have proper positioning, but this is not the most critical way to avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation. It is important to have proper shielding, but this is not the primary way to avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation. To avoid occupational exposure to x-radiation, the dental radiographer must always avoid the primary beam, which means to avoid being in front of the PID.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 124 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. (1) You can use dental images to help educate your patient on his

dental caries and periodontal disease. (2) You can also use dental images to help your patient see a picture of common conditions that cannot be seen clinically. These include cysts, extra teeth, and retained roots. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, and the second statement is true. ANS: a

Dental images can be used to educate patients. Common diseases, lesions, and conditions found on dental images including the following: missing teeth, extra teeth, impacted teeth, dental caries, periodontal disease, tooth abnormalities, retained roots, cysts, and tumors. The reverse is true, dental images can be used for patient education and to help see conditions that cannot be seen clinically. Dental images may be used to help the patient see conditions that cannot be seen clinically. Dental images may be used to help educate the patient about dental caries and periodontal disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 124 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. (1) It is your responsibility to maintain competence in taking dental

images; taking continuing education courses is one example. (2) You should always do your best to properly position and expose receptors in

a manner that is accurate, time efficient, and comfortable for your patient. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, and the second statement is true. ANS: a

When the dental radiographer attains professional goals, the patient receives the highest quality care possible. Quality care benefits not only the patient but the profession of dentistry as well. It is your responsibility as a dental radiographer to maintain or improve professional competence by attending continuing education courses and lectures, studying professional books and journals, and reviewing and updating dental imaging techniques. The dental radiographer must be committed to performing his or her assigned duties in a time-efficient manner. To produce a diagnostic dental image, the radiographer must properly position and expose the receptor. The dental radiographer must be committed to producing high-quality, diagnostic dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 124 | Page 125 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_13.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following would be an example of the use of

interpersonal skills rather than technical skills with patients? a. Proper maintenance of processing equipment b. Discussing the rationale for use of dental images c. Correct receptor positioning d. Preventing light leaks in the darkroom ANS: b

Proper maintenance of processing equipment would be an example of the use of technical skills with patients. Discussing the rationale for use of dental images would be an example of the use of interpersonal skills rather than technical skills with patients. Correct receptor positioning would be an example of the use of technical skills with patients. Preventing light leaks in the darkroom would be an example of the use of technical skills with patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 127 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. Communication is defined in the text as a. having a conversation. b. establishing a connection. c. the process by which information is exchanged between two or more

persons. d. two or more persons in the same location or room. ANS: c

Communication is not defined in the text as having a conversation. Communication is not defined in the text as establishing a connection.

Communication is defined in the text as the process by which information is exchanged between two or more persons. Communication is not defined in the text as two or more persons in the same location or room.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 127 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. Good verbal communication skills for dental radiographers involve a. speaking in a rushed manner to convince the patient that the

radiographer is working hard. b. using words such as cut, drill, and scrape to put the procedure in the patient's language so that the patient may understand. c. a loud tone of voice so that the patient may hear clearly. d. a soft tone of voice. ANS: d

The dental radiographer should avoid speaking in a rushed or tense manner. Some words used in the dental setting (e.g., cut, drill, scrape, zap) are associated with negative images and must be avoided. A loud tone of voice is not appropriate and is often associated with fear, anger, or excitement. Good verbal communication skills for dental radiographers involve a soft tone of voice, as it is soothing and effective in conveying warmth and concern.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 127 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. Your patients will feel that you are indifferent to them if you do

which of the following nonverbal communication actions?

a. Use consistent verbal and nonverbal messages. b. Do not look them directly in the eyes. c. Lean slightly toward them. d. Have an attentive posture. ANS: b

When nonverbal messages are consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to relax and trust the dental professional. A lack of eye contact is often interpreted as indifference or lack of concern. Leaning slightly toward the patient, with relaxed, still hands, is a nonverbal cue associated with interest and warmth. An attentive posture is a nonverbal communication skill associated with interest and warmth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 128 | Page 129 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. If, while treating your patient, your nonverbal messages are consistent

with your verbal messages, your patient is more likely to a. relax. b. be distrustful. c. be apprehensive. d. be fearful. ANS: a

When nonverbal messages are consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to relax and be trustful. When nonverbal messages are not consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to be distrustful. When nonverbal messages are not consistent with verbal messages, the patient is more likely to respond with apprehension. The patient is more likely to be fearful when nonverbal messages are not consistent with verbal messages. PTS: 1

DIF: Application REF: Page 128 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. Which of the following is the best way to show your patient that you

are listening to him or her? a. Interrupt if the patient gets "off track." b. Correct the patient if he or she is wrong. c. Finish the patient's sentences to show that the radiographer is

following the patient's train of thought. d. Give the patient undivided attention. ANS: d

The dental radiographer should never interrupt the patient. The dental radiographer should never correct the patient. The dental radiographer should never finish the patient's sentences. When listening to a patient, the dental radiographer should give undivided attention to the patient. The dental radiographer should not look at a clock or watch, or distract the patient by fidgeting or playing with objects. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 129 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. The term facilitation means a. initiating. b. the act of making something easier. c. the act of continuing. d. construction of a facility. ANS: b

Facilitation is not defined by the text as meaning initiating. The term facilitation means the act of making something easier. Facilitation skills are interpersonal skills used to ease communication and develop a trusting relationship between the dental professional and the patient. Facilitation is not defined by the text as meaning the act of continuing. Facilitation does not mean construction of a facility. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 129 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. When a patient trusts the dental professional, the patient is a. less likely to provide information. b. less likely to cooperate during treatment. c. more likely to comply with prescribed treatment. d. less likely to return for further treatment. ANS: c

A patient who trusts the dental professional is more likely to provide information. When a patient trusts the dental professional, the patient is more likely to comply with prescribed treatment. A patient who trusts the dental professional is more likely to comply with prescribed treatment. A patient who trusts the dental professional is more likely to return for further treatment. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 129 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. Inviting a patient to ask questions a. wastes time.

b. discourages communication. c. enhances communication. d. intimidates the patient. ANS: c

Inviting a patient to ask questions is not a waste of time. Inviting a patient to ask questions does not discourage communication. Inviting a patient to ask questions enhances communication. The dental radiographer must be prepared to answer the patient's questions directly. Whenever a patient asks a question, the dental radiographer should respond with accurate information in a direct manner and use language that the patient can easily understand. Many patients may be hesitant to ask questions because they may be feeling intimidated by the dental professional or apprehensive about the visit. Inviting the patient to ask questions is likely to result in a patient who is less intimidated. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 130 OBJ: 3 | 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. The patient's first impression of the dental team most often involves

the a. dentist. b. dental hygienist. c. dental auxiliary. d. entrance to the building. ANS: c

The dentist is usually the last person on the dental team who the patient meets. The dental hygienist is usually not the first person on the dental team who meets the patient. The patient's first impression of the dental team most often involves the dental auxiliary, specifically the auxiliary's appearance and greeting. While the entrance to the building is important, the building is not part of the dental team.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 130 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_14.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Patient education is likely to result in decreased a. acceptance of prescribed treatment. b. fears of x-ray exposure. c. cooperation. d. motivation for regular dental visits. ANS: b

Patient education is likely to result in increased acceptance of prescribed treatment. Patient education is likely to result in decreased fears of x-ray exposure. To address such fears and misconceptions, the dental radiographer must be prepared to educate the patient about the value of dental images. Patient education is likely to result in increased cooperation. Patient education is likely to result in increased motivation for regular dental visits.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 133 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. A patient who is knowledgeable about the importance of dental

images is a. less likely to realize the benefit of dental images. b. less likely to follow prevention plans. c. more likely to accept prescribed treatment. d. less likely to cooperate. ANS: c

A patient who is knowledgeable about the importance of dental images is more likely to realize the benefit of dental images. A patient who is knowledgeable about the importance of dental images is more likely to

follow prevention plans. A patient who is knowledgeable about the importance of dental images is more likely to accept prescribed treatment. A patient who is knowledgeable about the importance of dental images is more likely to cooperate.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 133 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. Your patient really doesn't understand why images are necessary. You

need to take images because your patient has extensive restorations, and you suspect recurrent decay under several restorations. Which of the following educational methods should you use to help the patient gain the best understanding of why images are needed? a. An oral presentation b. Printed literature c. An oral presentation with printed literature d. A non-committal answer ANS: c

An oral presentation works well, but the patient will gain a better understanding of why images are needed through an oral presentation that includes printed literature. The patient will gain a better understanding of why images are needed through an oral presentation that includes printed literature. A combination of an oral presentation and printed literature is probably the most effective method of educating the dental patient about dental images. The use of both approaches can stimulate a question-and-answer type of discussion about dental images. Non-committal answers will increase patient apprehension and confusion. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 134 OBJ: 3

TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. Which of the following types of questions must be answered only by

the dentist? a. The need for dental images b. X-ray exposure c. Questions about diagnosis d. The safety of dental x-rays ANS: c

Questions about the need for dental images may be answered by auxiliaries. Questions about x-ray exposure may be answered by auxiliaries. Questions about diagnosis must be answered only by the dentist. Questions about the safety of dental x-rays may be answered by auxiliaries. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 134 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. To answer questions about the necessity of dental images, tell the

patient a. they are an option, not a necessity. b. there are many diseases and conditions that cannot be detected simply

by looking into the mouth. c. all diseases and conditions produce signs and symptoms that render dental images unnecessary. d. tooth decay, gum disease, cysts, and tumors all can be detected eventually simply by looking in the mouth. ANS: b

They are a necessity, not an option. To answer questions about the

necessity of dental images, tell the patient there are many diseases and conditions that cannot be detected simply by looking into the mouth. Without dental x-rays, these conditions may go unnoticed for a long time. As these conditions progress, extensive damage and pain may occur; these, in turn, may result in more extensive and costly treatment. Some oral diseases can even affect your general health or become life threatening. Many diseases and conditions produce no signs or symptoms, so dental images are necessary. Tooth decay, gum disease, cysts, and tumors all cannot be detected by looking in the mouth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 134 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. How frequently should you take dental images on your patients? a. Based on the patient's needs b. Every 6 months c. Every 12 months d. Every 24 months ANS: a

Guidelines published by the American Dental Association are used by the dentist to aid in prescribing the number, type, and frequency of dental images for each patient. For example, a patient with tooth decay or gum disease needs more frequent dental imaging than a patient without such diseases. Every 6 months is not correct because there is no set time interval between dental image examinations. Every 12 months is not correct because there is no set time interval between dental image examinations. Every 24 months is not correct because there is no set time interval between dental image examinations. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4

TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. Decisions about the number, type, and frequency of dental images are

determined by the _____________ based on the patient's individual needs. a. insurance company b. dental assistant c. dental hygienist d. dentist ANS: d

The insurance company does not determine the frequency of dental images for a patient. The dental assistant cannot diagnose the need for dental images. The dental hygienist cannot make diagnose the need for dental images. Decisions about the number, type, and frequency of dental images are determined by the dentist based on the patient's individual needs. Guidelines published by the American Dental Association are used by the dentist to aid in prescribing the number, type, and frequency of dental images for each patient. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 134 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. A patient with caries will require a. less frequent dental imaging examinations than a patient without such

disease. b. less frequent dental imaging examinations than a patient without such disease if pocket depth readings are regularly recorded. c. dental imaging examinations at regular intervals regardless of circumstances.

d. more frequent dental imaging examinations than a patient without

such disease. ANS: d

A patient with tooth decay requires more frequent dental imaging than a patient without such diseases. Pocket depth readings are associated with gum disease rather than tooth decay, so the patient will require more frequent dental imaging examinations, not less. No set interval exists between x-ray examinations. A patient with caries will require more frequent dental imaging examinations than a patient without such disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. The frequency for taking images on your pediatric patients should be

based on a. their age. b. the individual needs of the child. c. a 6-month interval for bite-wing images. d. a 12-month interval for bite-wing images. ANS: b

The interval between dental imaging examinations should be based on the individual needs of the child. Because every child's dental condition is different, the frequency of imaging examinations is different as well. The time interval between dental imaging examinations for children should be based on the individual needs of the child. A 6-month interval for bite-wing images is not correct because the time interval should be based upon the individual needs of the child. A 12-month interval for bite-wing images is not correct because the time interval should be based upon the individual needs of the child. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. Your new patient has asked if you could use the images from his

previous dentist. You should tell your patient that a. you can accept the image if they were taken recently and are of

acceptable quality. b. you can only accept them if you can have a digital copy. c. you can only accept them if they are originals. d. you cannot accept them. You will have to take a new set today. ANS: a

Images from a previous dentist may be used, provided they are recent and of acceptable diagnostic quality. It does not matter whether the images are film-based or digital. Duplicate images are acceptable provided that they are of diagnostic quality. Images from a previous dentist can be accepted provided they are recent and of acceptable diagnostic quality. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. Your patient is 6 months pregnant. According to the "Guidelines for

Prescribing Dental Radiographs," you should a. avoid taking images. b. minimize x-ray exposure to a single occlusal x-ray image. c. limit dental images to emergency care. d. not alter treatment; take needed images.

ANS: d

The Guidelines state that dental images "do not need to be altered because of pregnancy", but some dentists elect to postpone such x-ray procedures because of patient concerns. The Guidelines state that dental images "do not need to be altered because of pregnancy", so taking a single x-ray image when more are necessary is not correct. The Guidelines state that dental images "do not need to be altered because of pregnancy", so dental images should not be limited to emergency care. According to the "Guidelines for Prescribing Dental Radiographs," dental image procedures "do not need to be altered because of pregnancy." PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. Your patient is concerned about getting cancer from dental images.

You can relieve her fears because ___________ people have gotten cancer from dental x-rays. a. zero b. less than 50 c. between 50 and 100 d. more than 100 ANS: a

There are zero recorded cases of a patient developing cancer from diagnostic dental images. There are not even 50 recorded cases of a patient developing cancer from a diagnostic dental x-ray image, not a single recorded case of a patient developing cancer from diagnostic dental x-ray exposure exists. There are fewer than 100 or even 50 recorded cases of a patient developing cancer from a diagnostic dental x-ray, not a single recorded case even exists. There is not even a single recorded case of a patient developing cancer from diagnostic dental

x-rays.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 136 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. A panoramic radiograph can be substituted for a complete series of

dental images. A panoramic radiograph does not clearly reveal changes in teeth, such as tooth decay, or the details of the supporting bone. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

A panoramic radiograph cannot be substituted for a complete series of dental images. A panoramic radiograph does not clearly reveal changes in teeth, such as tooth decay, or the details of the supporting bone. The reverse is true, a panoramic radiograph cannot be substituted for a complete set of dental images and a panoramic radiograph does not clearly reveal changes in teeth. A complete series of dental images is required when information about the details of the teeth and surrounding bone are needed. The panoramic image is useful for showing the general condition of a patient's teeth and bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 136 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. Original dental images are the property of a. the dentist.

b. the patient. c. both patient and dentist. d. the government. ANS: a

Original dental images are the property of the dentist. Patients can have reasonable access to their dental images. For example, you can request a copy of your dental images or request that a copy be sent to a dentist of your choice. The patient does not own the original dental images. Original dental images are the property of the dentist and not the patient. The government does not own original dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 136 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. Digital imaging improves patient education because you can a. show the patient a prepared series of images illustrating typical

normal and abnormal conditions. b. show the patient his own periapical, bite-wing, or extraoral images on a computer monitor or television screen. c. show the patient his own periapical, bite-wing, or extraoral images on mounted images. d. have your patient watch canned presentations about his normal and abnormal conditions. ANS: b

Printed information can be used to show the patient a prepared series of images illustrating typical normal and abnormal conditions. Digital imaging can be used to show the patient his own periapical, bite-wing, or extraoral images on a computer monitor or television screen. The patient's images can be used to show the patient his own periapical, bite-wing, or extraoral images on a computer monitor or television screen. Video messages can be played in the patient reception area while

brochures can be either placed in the reception area or provided to patients before the imaging examination. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 133 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. If your patient refuses images, you will not be able to provide dental

care on your patient, because providing treatment without necessary images is considered negligence. a. Both the statement and the reason are true. b. Both the statement and the reason are false. c. The statement is true; the reason is false. d. The statement is false, the reason is true. ANS: a

The standard of care requires that the dentist decline to treat a patient who refuses necessary x-ray images. The dentist cannot treat a patient who refuses to have images. Treatment without necessary images is considered negligence. If you were to sign a paper stating that you refused dental x-ray images but released the dentist from any and all liability, you would be consenting to negligent care. You will not be able to provide dental care for a patient who refuses dental x-ray images. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. Your patient has heard a lot of stories and is apprehensive about

receiving x-rays. Which of the following could you tell your patient to calm her fears?

a. We will be using low amounts of radiation, which are safe and will

not cause you any harm. b. D speed film will be used because it is faster than F speed film. c. Fast film is used instead of a digital sensor because there is less radiation exposure with film. d. Images are prescribed on an individual basis. We will only take the images that are needed to provide a thorough oral assessment. This will limit your radiation exposure. ANS: d

Because no amount of radiation is considered safe, strict guidelines are followed to limit the amount of x-radiation a patient receives. When using film, radiation exposure can be limited by using F speed, the fastest film currently available. The use of sensors instead of film can reduce exposure time by 50% to 90% when compared to film-based imaging. Orders for images should be based on individual patients' needs to limit the amount of radiation exposure a patient receives. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 135 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.C.3.d. Address patient concerns about radiation, including informed consent or patient refusal of radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_15.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act

1. outlines requirements for the safe use of dental x-ray equipment. 2. establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment. 3. requires persons who take dental images to be properly trained and certified. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 3 ANS: a

The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act outlines requirements for the safe use of dental x-ray equipment, establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment, and requires persons who take dental images to be properly trained and certified. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act requires persons who take dental images to be properly trained and certified, as well as outlines requirements for the safe use of dental x-ray equipment and establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act outlines requirements for the safe use of dental x-ray equipment, as well as establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment, and requires persons who take dental images to be properly trained and certified. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment, as well as outlines requirements for the safe use of dental x-ray equipment, and requires persons who take dental images to be properly trained and certified. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 138 OBJ: 2

TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a ________

law. a. federal b. state c. county d. city ANS: a

The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a federal law. In addition to federal laws, state, county, and city laws may affect the use of dental x-ray equipment. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is not a state law. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is not a county law. The Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is not a city law. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 138 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing

dental images is termed a. a treatment alternative. b. disclosure. c. self-determination. d. behavior modification. ANS: b

Informing a patient about the particulars of exposing dental images involves more than discussion of treatment alternatives. The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental images is

termed disclosure. A competent dental professional must conduct the disclosure process. It is important to standardize the disclosure process so that patient receive enough information to make informed choices. The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental images is not self-determination, although deciding for oneself is part of informed consent. The process of informing the patient about the particulars of exposing dental images is not behavior modification. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 139 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. Informed consent a. must be in language that the patient can readily understand. b. does not require that patients have their questions answered before

x-ray exposure. c. is waived if the patient is a minor. d. does not require that patients receive enough information to make informed choices. ANS: a

Informed consent must be in language that the patient can readily understand. Informed consent requires that patients have their questions answered before x-ray exposure. Informed consent must be obtained from a legal guardian if the patient is a minor. Informed consent requires that patients receive enough information to make informed choices. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 139 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. If the patient is a minor, informed consent

a. is waived. b. may still be obtained from the patient. c. must be obtained from the parent. d. must be obtained from a legal guardian. ANS: d

Informed consent is not waived if the patient is a minor. Informed consent cannot be obtained from the patient if he or she is a minor. Informed consent is usually obtained from a parent, but technically it is the legal guardian who must give informed consent. If the patient is a minor, informed consent must be obtained from a legal guardian. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 139 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. Generally, there are ____ elements to informed consent. a. two b. three c. four d. six ANS: c

There are more than two elements to informed consent. There are more than three elements to informed consent. Generally, there are four elements to informed consent: the purpose of the procedure, benefits, risks, and the opportunity for the patient to ask questions. A written consent form including these four elements may be used in obtaining informed consent. There are fewer than six elements to informed consent. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 139 OBJ: 5

TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. If you take dental images on your patient before getting his informed

consent, your patient can legally claim a. conflict of interest. b. statute of limitations. c. malpractice or negligence. d. disclosure. ANS: c

The patient would not claim a conflict of interest. The patient would not claim the statute of limitations. If informed consent is not obtained from a patient before the exposure of dental images, a patient may legally claim malpractice or negligence. Negligence occurs when the diagnosis made or the dental treatment delivered falls below the standard of care. Disclosure is the process of informing the patient about the particulars of dental imaging. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 139 | Page 140 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. Which of the following constitutes a person who can provide legal

informed consent? a. An individual under the influence of drugs or alcohol b. An adult (over the age of 18) who is of sound mind c. An individual who under duress has consented to the treatment d. An individual who received an incomplete description of the proposed

treatment ANS: b

Lack of informed consent may be shown by consent from an individual

under the influence of drugs or alcohol or consent from an individual under duress. Informed consent may be given by an adult (over the age of 18) who is of sound mind. Lack of informed consent may be shown by consent from an individual under duress. Lack of informed consent may be shown by consent from an individual who received an incomplete description of the proposed treatment. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 139 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. The trend in dental negligence or malpractice actions has historically

been to sue the supervising dentist alone. However, cases exist in which the dentist and the dental auxiliary have both been sued for the actions of the dental auxiliary. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Even though dental auxiliaries work under the supervision of a licensed dentist, auxiliaries are also legally liable for their own actions. When a dental auxiliary performs procedures, legal accountability is presumed to lie with both the supervising dentist and the dental auxiliary. Historically the dentist has been held responsible for auxiliaries under the doctrine of "captain of the ship", however, it is becoming more common to see both the dentist and dental auxiliary being sued for the actions of the dental auxiliary. Cases exist in which the dentist and the dental auxiliary have both been sued for the actions of the dental auxiliary. The trend in dental negligence or malpractice actions has historically been to sue the supervising dentist alone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 139 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. The standard of care can be defined as the quality of care that is

provided by dental practitioners in _______ locality under _________________ conditions. a. any; similar or very different b. a similar; the same or similar c. any; the same or similar d. a similar; similar or very different ANS: b

The standard of care is not the quality of care in any locality under similar or very different conditions. The standard of care can be defined as the quality of care that is provided by dental practitioners in a similar locality under the same or similar conditions. This is an acknowledgement that a similar quality of care may not be possible in a different location under different conditions. The standard of care is not the quality of care in any locality. The standard of care is not the quality of care under very different conditions. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 139 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. Which of the following statements is true of the statute of

limitations? 1. It often begins when the patient discovers or should have discovered that an injury has occurred as a result of dental negligence. 2. It is the time period during which a patient may bring a malpractice action.

3. It may not begin until years after the dental negligence occurred. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3 c. 1, 2 d. 2, 3 ANS: a

Frequently, it is not until a patient seeks care from another dental professional that he or she becomes aware that previous dental treatment may have been negligent. The statute of limitations also includes the time period during which a patient may bring a malpractice action. The statute of limitations may not begin until years after the dental negligence occurred. The statute of limitations often begins when the patient discovers or should have discovered that an injury has occurred as a result of dental negligence. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 140 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. Which of the following statements is true of dental images and the

patient's dental record? a. Dental images may be discarded when outdated. b. It is advised to keep patient dental images in a file separate from

patient charts. c. The dental record must include documentation of the number and type of dental images exposed. d. Dental images are an optional rather than integral part of the dental record. ANS: c

Dental record and dental images should be retained indefinitely Because of varying state laws on the statute of limitations, it is not often possible

to know when to destroy or discard a patient record. It is not advised to keep patient dental images in a file separate from patient charts. The dental record must include documentation of the number and type of dental images exposed. Dental images are an integral part of the dental record. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 140 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. You have entered a wrong entry in the dental record. Which of the

following should you do? a. Erase the entry and write in the correct entry. b. Block out the original entry and write the correct entry next to the

original entry. c. Cover the original entry with white-out and write the new entry in over the White-out. d. Draw a single line through the incorrect entry, initial it, write in the correct entry. ANS: d

Entries made in the dental record should never be erased. Entries made in the dental record should never be blocked out. White-out should not be used because the original entry should still be readable. If an error is made, a clean line should be drawn through the error and initialed by the radiographer, and, the correct entry added to the record. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 140 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. It is appropriate for any dental professional to discuss a patient's care

with 1. another patient. 2. office staff members who are not involved in the treatment of the patient. 3. another dentist involved in the patient's care. 4. a physician with whom care is shared. a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 2 d. 3, 4 ANS: d

It is not appropriate to discuss patient care with another patient or office staff members who are not involved in the treatment of the patient. It is a violation of confidentiality to discuss a patient's care with another patient or office staff members who are not involved in the treatment of the patient. A patient's care should not be discussed with another patient or office staff members who are not involved in the treatment of the patient. It is appropriate for any dental professional to discuss a patient's care with another dentist involved in the patient's care or a physician with whom care is shared. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 140 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. Your patient wants her original set of radiographs. She claims they

are hers because she paid for them. Which of the following would be the best reply? a. Since you paid for them they belong to you. b. If your insurance company paid for them, they belong to the insurance

company. They will have to release them to you.

c. You will have to sign a waiver before I can release them to you. d. Legally they are the property of the dentist even though you or the

insurance company pays for them. ANS: d

Dental images are the property of the dentist, even though the patient may have paid for them. Dental images are the property of the dentist, even though the insurance company may have paid for them. A waiver does not change the fact that dental images are the property of the dentist. Legally, radiographs are the property of the dentist. The basis for this ownership of dental images is that the images are indispensable to the dentist as part of the patient's record. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 140 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. Your former patient has moved and would like his records including

the original radiographs sent to his new dentist. Which of the following should you do? a. Forward the original radiographs to the new dentist. b. Make a duplicate copy to send to the new dentist unless the patient

signs a release to send the originals. c. Copy the original films, send the original films, and keep the duplicate set. d. Keep the original films and send the new dentist a duplicate set. ANS: d

The original images should never be sent. The original images should be retained and should not be sent. Duplicates of the originals should be created and forwarded and the original dental films retained. It is generally not advisable to release a copy of the dental record, including dental images, directly to the patient. Instead, this information should be forwarded directly to the dentist who is assuming responsibility for the

patient's care.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 141 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. When a patient refuses dental images the dentist has deemed are

necessary for treatment planning, the dentist should refuse to treat the patient; however, the patient could sign a release form that would allow the dentist to continue with the patient's treatment. a. Both parts of the statement are true. b. Both parts of the statements are false. c. The first part of the statement is true; the second part of the statement

is false. d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part of the statement is true. ANS: c

No document can be signed to release the dentist from liability. If the patient signs a release or waiver that states that he or she is taking responsibility for any injury that may result, and then an injury does result from negligence, the patient's consent may be invalidated. Legally, the patient cannot consent to negligent care; such consent is invalid. When a patient refuses dental images the dentist has deemed are necessary for treatment planning, the dentist should refuse to treat the patient; the patient should not be given the option of signing a release form that would allow the dentist to continue with the patient's treatment. The dentist should refuse to treat a patient who has refused dental images that the dentist has deemed necessary for treatment planning. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 141 OBJ: 9

TOP: CDA, RHS, II.B.1. Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_16.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Infection control is critical in your dental operatory because

pathogens can be transmitted easily through which of the following 1. your patient to you. 2. you to your patient. 3. from one patient to another patient. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 2 ANS: a

The primary purpose of infection control procedures is to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases. Infectious diseases may be transmitted from the dental professional to a patient, as well as from the patient to the dental professional, and from one patient to another patient. Infectious diseases may be transmitted from a patient to the dental professional, as well as from the dental professional to a patient, and from one patient to another patient. Infectious diseases may be transmitted from one patient to another patient, as well as from a patient to the dental professional, and from the dental professional to a patient.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 143 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 2. Pathogens are a. any microorganisms. b. bacteria but not viruses. c. viruses but not bacteria.

d. microorganisms capable of causing disease. ANS: d

All microorganisms are not pathogens. Pathogens include bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis and viruses such as cytomegalovirus, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses, and herpes simplex viruses. Pathogens include both viruses and bacteria. Pathogens are microorganisms capable of causing disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 143 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 3. Which of the following viruses may be present in oral secretions?

1. Coronavirus (COVID-19) 2. Hepatitis B virus 3. Herpes simplex virus 4. Human immunodeficiency virus a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 4 ANS: a

All of these viruses may be present in oral secretions. Coronavirus (COVID-19) may be present in oral secretions. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be present in oral secretions. Coronavirus (COVID-19) and herpes simplex virus (HSV-1, HSV-2) may be present in oral secretions. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 143 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control

for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 4. Another term for infection control is __________, which means the

absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms. a. antiseptic b. antibiotic c. antiinfective d. asepsis ANS: d

Antiseptic is a substance the inhibits the growth of bacteria. This term is often used to describe handwashing or wound-cleansing procedures. Antibiotics are chemical substances produced by microorganisms that have the capacity, in dilute solutions, to destroy or suppress the growth or multiplication of organisms or prevent their action. Antiinfective agents are substances that act against or destroy infections. Asepsis is defined as the absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms. This term is often used to describe procedures that prevent infection. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 143 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 5. Antiseptic is a. the absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms. b. a substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria. c. the use of a chemical or physical procedure to inhibit or destroy

pathogens. d. the act of sterilizing. ANS: b

Asepsis is the absence of pathogens, or disease-causing microorganisms. Antiseptic is a substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria. Disinfection is the use of a chemical or physical procedure to inhibit or destroy pathogens. Sterilization is the act of sterilizing.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 143 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 6. (1) Highly resistant bacterial and mycotic (fungal) spores are not

killed during disinfection procedures; (2) however, highly resistant bacterial and mycotic spores are killed during sterilization. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Disinfection is the use of a chemical or physical procedure to inhibit or destroy pathogens. Sterilization is the use of a physical or chemical procedure to destroy all pathogens. Highly resistant bacterial and mycotic (fungal) spores are not killed during disinfection procedures; however, highly resistant bacterial and mycotic spores are killed during sterilization. Highly resistant bacterial and mycotic spores are killed during sterilization. Highly resistant bacterial and mycotic (fungal) spores are not killed during disinfection procedures. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 144 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control

7. Recommendations concerning gloves would fall under which of the

following categories of infection control practices that directly relate to dental imaging procedures? a. Personal protective equipment b. Hand hygiene and care of hands c. Sterilization and disinfection of instruments d. Cleaning and disinfection of dental unit and environmental surfaces ANS: a

Personal protective equipment includes hand hygiene, gloves, and masks and protective eyewear. Hand hygiene is a general term that applies to routine hand-washing, antiseptic hand-wash, and antiseptic hand-rub technique. Sterilization and disinfection of instruments applies to: critical instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue and bone and must be sterilized between each use, semicritical instruments that do not penetrate soft tissue and bone, and noncritical instruments that do not come in contact with mucous membranes. Cleaning and disinfection of dental unit and environmental surfaces applies to dental unit surfaces and countertops that may have been contaminated with blood or saliva. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 144 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 8. What is important for you to remember about your protective

clothing? a. Select clothing that prevents skin and mucous membrane exposure to

blood or other bodily fluids. b. You can re-wear your protective clothing a second day if it is not visibly soiled.

c. You can wear your protective clothing home. d. Disposable protective clothing is required. ANS: a

Protective clothing must prevent skin and mucous membrane exposure when contact with blood or other bodily fluids is anticipated. Protective clothing must be changed daily or changed more frequently if it is visibly soiled. Dental professionals must remove all protective garments before leaving the dental office. Disposable protective clothing is acceptable but not required. Garments should be laundered according to the manufacturer's instructions. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 144 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 9. Which of the following is true regarding your usage of disposable

medical gloves? a. You may rewash you gloves between patients until they show visible

damage. b. You can use nonsterile gloves for examinations and nonsurgical procedures. c. You do not need to wash your hands before gloving. d. You do not need to wash your hands between patients. ANS: b

Gloves should never be rewashed between patients or disinfected for reuse. Nonsterile gloves are recommended for examinations and nonsurgical procedures; sterile gloves are recommended for all surgical procedures. Hands must be washed before gloves are worn. Dental professionals must always wash their hands and reglove between patients.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 144 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 10. Under which of the following conditions must you wear your mask

and safety glasses? a. Only during surgical procedures b. Whenever the high-speed handpiece is used c. Whenever spatter and aerosolized sprays of blood and saliva are likely d. If desired ANS: c

A mask and safety glasses should be worn for more than just surgical procedures. A mask and safety glasses should be worn for more than just whenever the high-speed handpiece is used. The mask and safety glasses should be worn whenever spatter and aerosolized sprays of blood and saliva are likely. They must be changed between patients or during treatment if it becomes wet or moist. After treatment, face shields and protective eyewear must be washed with appropriate cleaning agents. A mask and safety glasses should be worn whenever spatter and aerosolized sprays of blood and saliva are likely, not only if desired. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 144 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 11. Critical instruments are defined as instruments

a. that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone. b. that contact but do not penetrate soft tissue. c. that contact but do not penetrate bone. d. or devices that do not come in contact with mucous membranes. ANS: a

Critical instruments are defined as instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue or bone. Semicritical instruments contact but do not penetrate soft tissue. Semicritical instruments contact but do not penetrate bone. Noncritical instruments are devices that do not come in contact with mucous membranes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 145 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 12. In dental imaging, no __________________ are used.

1. critical instruments 2. semicritical instruments 3. noncritical instruments a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 3 only d. 1 only ANS: d

Critical instruments are instruments that are used to penetrate soft tissue and bone. Noncritical instruments are instruments or devices that do not come in contact with mucous membranes. Noncritical instruments used in dental imaging include the position-indicating-device (OID), the dental x-ray tube-head, the exposure button, the x-ray control panel, the lead apron, and, with digital imaging, the computer keyboard/mouse. Semicritical instruments come into contact with mucous membranes.

Beam alignment devices are examples of semicritical instruments used in dental imaging. No critical instruments are used in dental imaging. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 145 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 13. Which of the following is considered to be a semicritical instrument? a. The exposure button b. The x-ray control panel c. The lead apron d. Beam alignment devices ANS: d

The exposure button is considered to be a noncritical instrument. The x-ray control panel is considered to be a noncritical instrument. The lead apron is considered to be a noncritical instrument. Beam alignment devices are considered to be semicritical instruments.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 145 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 14. Which of the following can be used for cleaning and disinfection of

the dental unit and environmental surfaces? a. Bleach-free disinfectant wipes b. EPA-registered chemical germicides that are labeled as hospital

disinfectants c. EPA-registered chlorine-containing compounds labeled as both

hospital disinfectants and tuberculocidals d. Dishwashing liquid and water ANS: c

Bleach-free disinfectants are not included in this category. EPA-registered chemical germicides that are labeled as hospital disinfectants are low-level disinfectants and are recommended for general housekeeping purposes, such as cleaning floors and walls. An intermediate-level disinfectant is recommended for cleaning and disinfection of the dental unit and environmental surfaces; EPA-registered chemical germicides labeled as both hospital disinfectants and tuberculocidals are classified as intermediate-level disinfectants. Intermediate-level disinfectants include phenolics, iodophors, and chlorine-containing compounds. Dishwashing liquid and water is not in this category. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 145 | Page 146 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 15. Which of the following should you do to prepare your treatment

room prior to taking a dental image? a. Wipe with a germicide. b. Follow manufacturer's instructions for infection control procedures. c. Sterilize critical instruments. d. Wipe with a low-level disinfectant. ANS: b

EPA-registered chemical germicides that are labeled only as hospital disinfectants are classified as low-level disinfectants and are recommended for general housekeeping purposes, such as cleaning floors and walls. Before dental receptors are exposed, the treatment area

must be prepared using aseptic technique. The dental professional must prepare the surfaces that are likely to be touched during the imaging procedure. All these surfaces should be covered with impervious, disposable materials. If disposable materials are not used, all contaminated areas must be disinfected with disinfecting products, following the manufacturer's instructions. No critical instruments are used when taking dental images. An intermediate-level disinfectant would be used to disinfect the operatory. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 148 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 16. Covering exposed surfaces with disposable materials ____________

adequate protection ____________ the need for surface cleaning and disinfection between patients. a. provides; while eliminating b. provides; but does not eliminate c. does not provide; but does eliminate d. neither provides; nor eliminates ANS: a

All these surfaces should be covered with impervious, disposable materials such as plastic wraps, plastic-backed paper, or aluminum foil. Covering exposed surfaces with disposable materials eliminates the need for surface cleaning and disinfection between patients. Covering exposed surfaces with disposable materials provides adequate protection. Covering exposed surfaces with disposable materials provides both adequate protection and eliminates the need for surface cleaning and disinfection between patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension

REF: Page 148 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.2. Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 17. Which of the following surfaces on the x-ray machine must be

covered or disinfected? 1. Control panel 2. Exposure button 3. Tubehead 4. Position-indicating device (PID) a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 2 only ANS: a

In addition to the x-ray machine itself, the dental chair and the work area should also be covered or disinfected. The PID must be covered or disinfected. The control panel must be covered or disinfected. The control panel, tubehead, and PID all must be covered or disinfected. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 148 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.2. Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 18. Commercially available plastic barrier envelopes a. seal the film itself within the film packet. b. minimize contamination after exposure of the film. c. are made of a material that blocks the passage of photons. d. are made of a material that blocks the passage of electrons.

ANS: b

Intraoral films may be inserted and sealed in plastic barrier envelopes. Commercially available barrier envelopes minimize contamination after exposure of the film. Commercially available plastic barrier envelopes are not made of a material that blocks the passage of photons. Commercially available plastic barrier envelopes are not made of a material that blocks the passage of electrons. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 149 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.2. Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 19. Preparation of supplies and equipment involves sterilizing which of

the following items? a. Film b. Beam alignment devices c. Lead apron d. PID ANS: b

Film is not sterilized, but it may be disinfected or placed in a plastic barrier envelope. Beam alignment devices are sterilized during the preparation of supplies and equipment. Beam alignment devices should never be placed on an uncovered countertop. The lead apron is not sterilized, but it is wiped with a disinfectant between patients. The PID is not sterilized, but it is covered or disinfected.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 149 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography

MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 20. After seating the patient, the radiographer must complete which of

the following procedures before washing the hands and putting on gloves? 1. Chair adjustment 2. Headrest adjustment 3. Placement of the lead apron a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 3 only ANS: a

The radiographer must complete the chair adjustment, headrest adjustment, and placement of the lead apron before washing the hands and putting on gloves. The lead apron with the thyroid collar must be placed on the patient and secured before any x-ray exposure. The chair must be positioned so that the patient is seated upright. The height of the chair should be adjusted to a comfortable working height for the dental radiographer. Both the chair adjustment and headrest adjustment must be completed before washing the hands and putting on gloves. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 149 | Page 150 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.1. Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 21. Which of the following items should be removed by the patient

during preparation for dental image procedures? 1. Eyeglasses 2. Dentures 3. Chewing gum

a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3 c. 1, 3 d. 2 only ANS: a

Miscellaneous objects may interfere with exposure and should be removed by the patient at this time. Eyeglasses may interfere with exposure and should be removed. Dentures may interfere with exposure and should be removed. Eyeglasses and chewing gum should be removed by the patient during preparation for dental image procedures. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 150 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 22. Preparation of the dental radiographer should include a. removing film-holding devices before hand washing. b. removing film-holding devices after hand washing but before placing

gloves. c. mandatory use of a surgical mask and protective eyewear. d. optional use of a surgical mask and protective eyewear. ANS: d

Film-holding devices must be removed from sterilized packages with gloved hands in the presence of the patient. Film-holding devices must be removed from sterilized packages with gloved hands in the presence of the patient. Preparation of the dental radiographer does not include mandatory use of a surgical mask and protective eyewear. Preparation of the dental radiographer should include optional use of a surgical mask and protective eyewear because no aerosolized contaminants are created. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 150 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 23. Exposed receptors should ________ dried and then placed in a

_________________ for transport to the darkroom for processing. a. not be; gloved hand b. be; gloved hand c. not be; disposable container d. be; disposable container ANS: d

Once dried, each receptor must be placed in a disposable container labeled with the patient's name. Each receptor must be placed in a disposable container labeled with the patient's name. Each receptor must be dried. Exposed receptors should be dried and then placed in a disposable container for transport to the darkroom for processing. This container is used to collect and transport the exposed film to the darkroom or PSP sensors to the scanning area and must not be touched by gloved hands. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 150 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 24. When handling film with barrier envelopes, the barrier envelopes are

opened with __________ hands and the films unwrapped with ______________ hands. a. gloved; gloved

b. gloved; nongloved c. nongloved; gloved d. nongloved; nongloved ANS: b

The films should be unwrapped with gloved hands. When handling film with barrier envelopes, the barrier envelopes are opened with gloved hands and the films unwrapped with nongloved hands. The barrier envelopes are opened with gloved hands because they are contaminated with saliva, and the films unwrapped with nongloved hands. The barrier envelopes are opened with gloved hands. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 151 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 25. When handling film with barrier envelopes, the films are unwrapped

with _________ hands, and when handling film without barrier envelopes, the films are unwrapped with _____________ hands. a. gloved; gloved b. gloved; nongloved c. nongloved; gloved d. nongloved; nongloved ANS: c

The films with barrier envelopes are unwrapped with nongloved hands. The films with barrier envelopes are unwrapped with nongloved hands and the films without barrier envelopes are unwrapped with gloved hands. When handling film with barrier envelopes, the films are unwrapped with nongloved hands, and when handling film without barrier envelopes, the films are unwrapped with gloved hands. The films without barrier envelopes are unwrapped with nongloved hands. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 151 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 26. (1) The contaminated barriers should be removed while the dental

radiographer is wearing gloves. (2) The barriers should be disposed of after the patient has left the room. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The disposal of all contaminated items should take place in front of the patient. The contaminated barriers should be removed while the dental radiographer is wearing gloves. Contaminated items must be discarded while the dental radiographer is still wearing gloves. Ideally, the disposal of all contaminated items should take place in the presence of the patient. The dental radiographer should be wearing gloves when removing contaminated barriers. It is best if the contaminated barriers are removed while the patient is in the room. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 151 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 27. (1) Contaminated film is placed in a disposable container that is

carried to the processor with gloved hands. (2) The film should be developed after the patient has been dismissed from the radiology area.

a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Contaminated film is placed in a disposable container that is carried to the processor only after removing gloves. The film should be developed after the patient has been dismissed from the radiology area. Contaminated film is placed in a disposable container that is carried to the processor only after removing gloves. The film should be developed after the patient has been dismissed from the radiology area. Only after removing gloves, washing hands, dismissing the patient, and cleaning the area should the dental radiographer carry the disposable container holding the contaminated films to the darkroom. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 151 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.2. Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 28. (1) Digital sensors can be disinfected, sterilized, placed in cold

sterilization, or be placed in barriers. (2) When using barriers, disinfect the sensor, cover both the sensor and the wire connection with a plastic barrier, and then cover with a finger cot to provide added protection. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

The sensors cannot be heat sterilized or placed in cold sterilization. The sensor can be covered with a plastic barrier and a finger to for added protection. Digital sensors can be disinfected and placed in barriers, but

they cannot be heat sterilized or placed in cold sterilization. The supplemental use of a finger cot covering the sensor provides added protection and is often recommended. Digital sensors can be disinfected or placed in barriers, however, they cannot be heat sterilized or placed in cold sterilization. Literature has reported that the plastic sheaths can tear or leak after several exposures. As a result, latex finger cots used in conjunction with the standard plastic sleeves more effectively prevent cross-contamination than does the plastic sheath alone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 150 | Page 151 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 29. There are three conditions that must be present for an infection to

occur. Which of the following conditions is a necessary component for an infection to occur? a. Small amounts of the infectious disease with low infectivity b. A host that is not vulnerable to infection c. A way for the infectious disease to enter the host d. An aseptic environment ANS: c

A small amount of the infectious disease with low infectivity is not one of the three conditions that must be present, rather a pathogen with sufficient infectivity is necessary. A host that is not vulnerable to infection is not one of the three conditions that must be present, it is a host that is vulnerable to infection. For an infection to occur by one of these routes of transmission, the following three conditions must be present: susceptible host, pathogen with sufficient infectivity and numbers to cause infection, and a portal through which the pathogen may enter the host. An aseptic environment is not one of the three conditions because asepsis is the absence of pathogens or

disease-causing micro-organisms.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 143 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.A.2. Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control 30. Which of the following should you do first when using a daylight

loader for film processing? a. Put on gloves. b. Place a new paper cup and gloves in the daylight loader compartment. c. Put the container with contaminated films next to the new paper cup

in the daylight loader. d. Close the daylight loader lid, and push hands through openings of daylight loader. ANS: b

Place the paper cup and the vinyl or nonpowdered gloves in the daylight loader compartment. Place the container with contaminated films next to the cup. Close the daylight loader lid, and push hands through the openings of the daylight loader. Put on gloves. Take one contaminated film out of the container. Open film packets. Allow the film to drop onto the processor film feed slot. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 151 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, IV.B.2. Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing following according to ADA, DCD, and OSHA guidelines MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General | NBDHE, 3.1 Infection Control

Chapter_17.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A calibration test for accurate kilovoltage and milliamperage readings

would most likely be performed to ensure that the dental ____________ is functioning properly. a. x-ray machine b. film c. film processing d. darkroom ANS: a

Some state and local regulatory agencies provide dental x-ray inspection services as part of their registration and licensing procedures. A qualified technician must calibrate dental x-ray equipment to ensure consistent x-ray machine performance and the production of diagnostic radiographs. Dental x-ray film is calibrated at the manufacturing plant. Quality control tests must be performed routinely to determine whether the conditions for film processing are acceptable. Processing equipment must be meticulously maintained and monitored daily. The thermometer and timer must be checked for accuracy. The temperature and level of the water bath, the developer, and the fixer solutions must be monitored when manual processing techniques are used. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 155 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

2. According to the test for dental x-ray film, if the processed film

appears clear with a slight blue tint, the film a. has expired. b. is fresh and has been properly stored and protected.

c. has been improperly stored. d. has been exposed to radiation. ANS: b

Film that has expired appears fogged. The film should not be used if it is fogged. If the processed film appears clear with a slight blue tint, the film is fresh and has been properly stored and protected. Film that has been improperly stored appears fogged. If the film is fogged, it should not be used. Film that has been exposed to radiation appears fogged. If the film is fogged, it should not be used. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 155 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.1. Evaluate film storage areas MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

3. During your monthly check of the panoramic cassette, you notice that

one of the intensifying screens is scratched. What should you do? a. Clean the screen with commercially available cleaner. b. Apply an antistatic solution. c. Replace the screen. d. Polish the screen before using it. ANS: c

Screens should be cleaned on a monthly basis with commercially available cleaners recommended by the screen manufacturer. Screens should be cleaned on a monthly basis and an antistatic solution should be applied to it following cleaning. Extraoral intensifying screens that appear visibly scratched should be replaced. Screens should be cleaned and then an antistatic solution should be applied on a monthly basis. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.2. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to improperly storing exposed and unexposed radiographic film MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

4. You are creating a cleaning log for the panoramic intensifying

screens. How frequently should the screens be cleaned? a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Yearly ANS: c

Extraoral intensifying screens do not need to be cleaned on a daily basis. Extraoral intensifying screens do not need to be cleaned on a weekly basis. Extraoral intensifying screens should be periodically examined for the presence of dirt and scratches and should be cleaned monthly. Extraoral intensifying screens should be cleaned more often than once a year. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.2. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to improperly storing exposed and unexposed radiographic film MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. A film-screen contact test is used to test the a. output of the x-ray machine. b. quality of intraoral films. c. cassette holder for extraoral films. d. freshness of extraoral film. ANS: c

An x-ray output test is used to test the output of the x-ray machine. A fresh film test is used to test the quality of intraoral film. A film-screen contact test is used to test the cassette holder for extraoral films. If the "wire mesh" image seen on the film exhibits a uniform density, good screen-film contact has taken place. A fresh film test is used to test the freshness of extraoral film.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. Where would you place the wire mesh if you were conducting a

film-screen test? a. On top of the loaded cassette b. On the side of the film closest to the tubehead within the loaded

cassette c. On the side of the film farthest from the tubehead within the loaded cassette d. Over the end of the PID ANS: a

To conduct a film-screen test, the wire mesh test object is placed on top of the loaded cassette. The wire mesh is not placed on the side of the film closest to the tubehead within the loaded cassette. The wire mesh is not placed on the side of the film farthest from the tubehead within the loaded cassette. The wire mesh is not placed over the end of the PID. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. Where is the best place for you to view the radiograph that you used

for the film screen contact test? a. Dimly lit room at a distance of 1 foot from the viewbox. b. Brightly lit room at a distance of 1 foot from the viewbox. c. Dimly lit room at a distance of 6 feet from the viewbox. d. Brightly lit room at a distance of 6 feet from the viewbox.

ANS: c

A distance of 1 foot is too close. A brightly lit room degrades contrast, and 1 foot is too close. The results of a film-screen contact test should be viewed in a dimly lit room at a distance of 6 feet. A brightly lit room degrades contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. To conduct the film-screen contact test, the position-indicating device

(PID) should have a ____-inch target-film distance. a. 6 b. 12 c. 40 d. 72 ANS: c

The PID should have more than a 6-inch target-film distance. The PID should have more than a 12-inch target-film distance. The PID should have a 40-inch target-film distance. The PID should have less than a 72-inch target-film distance. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. Which of the following statements is true of the evaluation of the

film-screen contact test? a. Areas of poor film-screen contact appear darker than good contact

areas.

b. Areas of poor film-screen contact appear lighter than good contact

areas. c. If the wire mesh image on the film exhibits varying densities, good film-screen contact has taken place. d. Both A and C. ANS: a

Areas of poor film-screen contact appear darker than good contact areas. Areas of poor film-screen contact do not appear lighter than good contact areas. If the wire mesh image on the film exhibits varying densities, poor film-screen contact has taken place. Both A and C is not a correct choice, because if the wire mesh image on the film exhibits a uniform density, good film-screen contact has taken place. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

10. The viewbox should emit a uniform and subdued light when it is

functioning properly. Permanently discolored Plexiglas surfaces and blackened fluorescent light bulbs must be replaced. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

A photographic light meter can be used to determine proper viewing brightness. The viewbox should emit a uniform and subdued light. It should be periodically examined for the presence of dirt on the Plexiglas surface and any discoloration. Permanently discolored Plexiglas surfaces and blackened fluorescent light bulbs must be replaced. The viewbox should emit a uniform and subdued light when it is functioning properly. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 156 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. You are performing a light leak test in the darkroom, which of the

following would you do? a. Use a flashlight to check for light leaks. b. Turn the overhead lights off, and turn the safelight on. c. Turn all darkroom lights off. d. Light a match within the darkroom to see if any light is visible from

the outside. ANS: c

A flashlight should not be used to check for light leaks. All lights, including the safelight should be turned off. All lights within the darkroom should be off. No visible light will be seen if the darkroom is light-tight. Do not light a match within the darkroom to see if any light is visible from the outside. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 156 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. In order to perform the safelighting test, you would use

___________. a. a wire mesh b. fogging c. a coin d. a stepwedge ANS: c

A wire mesh test is used during the screen-film contact test for the extraoral cassette. Fogging is part of the fresh film test. Safelighting can be checked with the coin test. A stepwedge is used for contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 157 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. To perform the coin test, the film and coin are exposed to a. the safelight. b. the darkroom ceiling or white light. c. the light with the darkroom door open. d. no light at all. ANS: a

The film and coin are exposed to the safelight. The film and coin are not exposed to white light. The film and coin are not exposed to light with the darkroom door open. The film and coin are not exposed to no light at all because this would not reveal a light source. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 157 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. To conduct the coin test, the film and coin are exposed for a. 10 seconds. b. 3 or 4 minutes. c. 15 minutes. d. an entire workday. ANS: b

The film and coin need to be exposed for more than 10 seconds in order

for the coin test to work. The film and coin are exposed for 3 or 4 minutes. A 15 minute exposure is too long a time to determine whether or not proper safelighting conditions are found. An entire workday is too long a time to determine whether or not proper safelighting conditions are found. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 157 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. If the image of the coin appears on the processed radiograph after the

coin test a. the safelight is safe to use with that type of film. b. the safelight is not safe to use with that type of film. c. conduct the test again with the darkroom door closed rather than open. d. conduct the test again with the safelight off rather than on. ANS: b

The safelight is not safe to use with that type of film. If the image of the coin and a fogged background appears on the processed radiograph after the coin test, it means the film is being exposed to light and the safelight is not safe to use. The darkroom door should have been closed to conduct the test the first time. The safelight should be on to conduct the test. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 157 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. To test the automatic film processor, ____________ in the automatic

processor.

a. unwrap one film, expose it to light, and then process the film b. unwrap one film, do not expose it to light, and then process the film c. unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process the

exposed film d. unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process both films ANS: d

Two films should be unwrapped and only one should be exposed to light. Two films should be unwrapped, but only one should be exposed to light. Unwrap two unexposed films, expose one to light, and then process both films in the automatic processor. If the unexposed film appears clear and dry, and if the film exposed to light appears black and dry, the automatic processor is functioning properly. If the unexposed film does not appear clear and dry, and if the exposed film does not appear completely black and dry, the processing solutions and dryer temperature must be checked. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 157 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. If the processor is functioning properly, the results of the automatic

processor test films will be that a. the unexposed film appears clear and dry, and the film exposed to

light appears black and dry. b. the unexposed film appears clear and wet, and the film exposed to light appears black and wet. c. the unexposed film appears black and dry, and the film exposed to light appears clear and dry. d. the unexposed film appears black and wet, and the film exposed to light appears clear and wet. ANS: a

If the processor is functioning properly the unexposed film will appear clear and dry and the film exposed to light will appear black and dry. Proceed with processing. Both films would be dry if the processor is functioning properly. The unexposed film would be clear and the exposed film would be black if the processor is functioning properly. The unexposed film would be clear and dry and the exposed film would be black and dry if the processor is functioning properly. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 157 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 18. A reference radiograph is used to evaluate a. the viewbox. b. darkroom lighting. c. safelighting. d. film density. ANS: d

A photographic light meter can be used to evaluate proper viewing brightness of the viewbox. The light leak test is used to evaluate darkroom lighting. The coin test is used to evaluate safelighting. A reference radiograph is processed under ideal conditions and then used to compare the film densities of radiographs that are processed daily. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 157 OBJ: 7 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 19. To create a reference radiograph, which of the following must be

fresh? 1. Film

2. Developer 3. Fixer a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 1 only ANS: a

The film, developer, and fixer must all be fresh. The fixer must be fresh as well as the film and the developer. The film must be fresh as well as the processing chemistry. The film and the fixer must be fresh as well as the developer. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Pages 157-159 OBJ: 7 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 20. Prior to using the developer each day, you compare the reference

radiograph to a test film that you develop to check to see if the developer chemicals are depleted. What are you comparing when you look at the two films? a. Milliamperage b. kV c. Color d. Density ANS: d

Milliamperage is a property of the tubehead and should be consistent for both films. kV is a property of the tubehead and should be consistent for both films. Radiographs are black and white, not color. A reference radiograph is compared with a test film that has been processed each day for matched density. PTS: 1

DIF: Application REF: Page 157 OBJ: 7 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 21. If the densities seen on the test film appear lighter than those seen on

the reference radiographs, the developer solution is (1) weak, (2) too concentrated, (3) cold, and/or (4) too warm. a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2 and 4 ANS: a

The developer solution is either weak or too cold. The developer solution must be too cold rather than too warm. The developer solution must be too weak rather than too concentrated. The developer solution must be too weak or too cold rather than too concentrated or too warm. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 158 OBJ: 7 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 22. The stepwedge technique for evaluating developer strength relies on

exposing one exposed stepwedge film a. each day. b. each week. c. every time 20 films have been processed. d. every time 40 films have been processed. ANS: a

One stepwedge film should be exposed each day. One stepwedge film

should be exposed more often than once each week. The frequency of the test is not based on every 20 films processed. The frequency of the test is not based on every 40 films processed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 158 OBJ: 7 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 23. When the stepwedge technique is used to evaluate developer

strength, and the density on the daily radiograph differs from that on the standard radiograph by more than __________ steps, the developer solution is depleted. a. two b. three c. five d. seven ANS: a

The developer solution is depleted if the density on the daily radiograph differs from that on the standard radiograph by more than two steps on the stepwedge. The developer solution is depleted if the daily radiograph differs by fewer than three steps on the stepwedge. Fewer than five steps on the stepwedge indicates the developer solution is depleted. The developer solution is depleted when the daily radiograph differs by fewer than seven steps on the stepwedge. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 158 OBJ: 7 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 24. The clearing test is used to monitor

a. developer strength. b. fixer strength. c. water bath temperature. d. processing speed. ANS: b

A reference radiograph, stepwedge radiograph, or normalizing device may be used to monitor developer strength. The clearing test is used to monitor fixer strength. A thermometer is used to monitor water bath temperature. A timer is used to monitor processing speed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 158 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

25. If the film clears in ____ minutes, the chemistry is of adequate

strength. a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 14 ANS: a

If the film clears in 2 minutes, the chemistry is of adequate strength. If the film is not completely clear after 2 minutes, reimmerse it in the fixer solution. If the film does not completely clear in 3 to 4 minutes, the fixer solution is depleted. The film must clear in fewer than 6 minutes is the fixer chemistry is of adequate strength. 8 minutes means the chemistry is not of adequate strength. 14 minutes means the chemistry is severely depleted and must be replaced immediately. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 158 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance

procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 26. How frequently should you monitor the digital imaging equipment in

your office? a. Weekly b. Monthly c. Yearly d. Based on manufacturer specifications ANS: d

Weekly monitoring is not frequently enough for some things. For example, it is recommended to perform a back-up of the digital data on the computer on a daily basis. Monthly monitoring is too infrequent for some things. Yearly monitoring is inadequate, because along with yearly tests for the calibration of the imaging equipment, the receptors also require periodic examination for scratching, bending, and general wear and tear. Monitoring should be performed based on manufacturer recommendations. Commercial kits are available that include a series of test objects, which can be used quickly and easily on an ongoing basis to check imaging performance, particularly those aspects that are subject to deterioration. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 159 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 27. (1) Quality assurance monitoring includes a detailed log of all tests

performed. (2) A monitoring schedule should be posted in the dental office. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

A record-keeping log of all quality control tests, including the specific test performed, the date performed, and the test results, should be carefully maintained and kept on file in the dental office. A written monitoring schedule detailing all quality control tests and the frequency of testing for all dental x-ray equipment, supplies, film processing and digital imaging should be posted in the office. A log of all tests performed should be kept and posted. A monitoring schedule should be posted to keep track of what has been done. A detailed log is part of quality assurance monitoring. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 160 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 28. Your dental office should monitor retakes in a retake log in order to

identify recurring problems and improve the quality of future images? a. Both statement and reason are true. b. Both statement and reason are false. c. The statement is true; the reason is false. d. The statement is false; the reason is true. ANS: a

The use of a retake log to record retakes aids in identifying recurring problems that require attention in order to correct the errors. Continuing education courses or individualized instruction are useful to upgrade and improve the competence of the dental radiographer. Operator errors that require retakes should be recorded. This will improve the quality of images in the future. A log will help identify recurring problems and improve quality in the future. Retakes should be monitored in a retake log. PTS: 1

DIF: Application REF: Page 160 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, II.A.5. Describe how to implement quality assurance procedures MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_18.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following images is used to evaluate the crown, roots,

and supporting bone of a tooth? a. Periapical b. Interproximal c. Occlusal d. Panoramic ANS: a

The periapical intraoral image examination is used to examine the entire tooth (crown and root) and supporting bone. The interproximal examination does not show the entire root. The occlusal examination is used to examine large areas of the maxilla or the mandible on one image. The panoramic examination is an extraoral image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 163 OBJ: 1 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. Bisecting and paralleling are two methods used for obtaining which of

the following dental images? a. Periapical examination b. Cephalometric c. Maxillary pediatric occlusal projection d. Panoramic ANS: a

The bisecting and paralleling methods are used for taking intraoral periapical images. The bisecting and paralleling methods are not used for extraoral cephalometric images. The paralleling technique is not used for the maxillary pediatric occlusal projection. A fixed 60 degree

positive vertical angulation is used. The bisecting and paralleling techniques are not used for the extraoral panoramic projection. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 163 OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. Which of the following is an extraoral image? a. Periapical b. Bitewing c. Maxillary lateral occlusal projection d. Maxillary pediatric occlusal projection ANS: c

A periapical image is an intraoral image. A bitewing is an intraoral interproximal image. A maxillary lateral occlusal projection is an extraoral image. Examples of common extraoral images include the panoramic image, the lateral jaw, lateral cephalometric, posteroanterior, Waters, submentovertex, reverse Towne, transcranial, tomographic projections and cone-beam computer tomography. A maxillary pediatric occlusal projection is an intraoral image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 165 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. Which technique examines the crowns of both maxillary and

mandibular teeth on a single image? a. Periapical paralleling technique b. Periapical bisecting technique c. Occlusal technique

d. Interproximal examination ANS: d

Periapical paralleling images show the terminal end of the tooth root and surrounding bone as well as the crown. Periapical bisecting images show the terminal end of the tooth root and surrounding bone as well as the crown. The occlusal technique is used to examine large areas of the maxilla or the mandible on one image. The interproximal examination examines the crowns of both maxillary and mandibular teeth on a single image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 163 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. The bite-wing receptor is used for the a. periapical paralleling technique. b. periapical bisecting technique. c. occlusal technique. d. interproximal examination. ANS: d

The periapical receptor is used for the periapical paralleling technique. The periapical receptor is used for the periapical bisecting technique. The occlusal receptor is used for the occlusal examination. The patient "occludes" or bites on the entire receptor. The bite-wing receptor is used in the interproximal examination. The bite-wing receptor has a "wing" or tab attached to it; the patient "bites" on the wing to stabilize the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 164 OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

6. CMS stands for a. complete mouth restorative series. b. complete mouth series. c. complete mouth restorative service. d. complete mouth service. ANS: b

CMS does not stand for complete mouth restorative series. CMS stands for complete mouth series. It is also known as the full mouth series (FMS or FMX) or the complete series. CMS does not stand for complete mouth restorative service. CMS does not stand for complete mouth service. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 164 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. The CMS is defined as a series of intraoral dental images that shows

all the a. dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws. b. edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws. c. dentulous or edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower

jaws. d. dentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws that can be verified clinically. ANS: c

The CMS shows more than just dentulous tooth-bearing areas. The CMS shows more than just edentulous tooth-bearing areas. The CMS is defined as a series of intraoral dental images that shows all the dentulous or edentulous tooth-bearing areas of the upper and lower jaws. The CMS shows more than just dentulous tooth-bearing areas that can be verified

clinically. One of the most important reasons for the CMS is to locate impacted or unerupted teeth that cannot be verified clinically. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 164 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. How many dental images would you take on your patient if you were

taking a CMS? a. 4 to 7 b. 7 to 14 c. 14 to 20 d. 19 to 21 ANS: c

More than 4 to 7 images are required for a CMS. A CMS includes more than 7 to 14 images. A total of 14 to 20 images may be included in the CMS. The number of images is dictated by the dental imaging technique used for exposure and the number of teeth present. A CMS usually includes fewer than 19 to 21 images. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 164 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. How many dental images would you take for a CMS on your

edentulous patient? a. 4 b. 7 c. 14 d. 18

ANS: c

A CMS on an edentulous patient requires more than 4 images. A CMS on an edentulous patient requires more than 7 images. In a patient without teeth, 14 images are usually sufficient to cover the edentulous areas. 18 is the typical number of images for a CMS for a dentulous patient. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 164 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

10. Which of the following is an extraoral technique for dental image

examination? a. Panoramic b. Interproximal c. Periapical d. Occlusal ANS: a

The panoramic image is an extraoral technique for dental image examination. The interproximal image is an intraoral technique for dental image examination. The periapical image is an intraoral technique for dental image examination. The occlusal image is an intraoral technique for dental image examination. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 165 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. Periapical images must show the entire crowns and roots of the teeth

being examined as well as ____ to ____ mm beyond the root apices.

a. 0.1; 0.5 b. 1.0; 2.0 c. 2.0; 3.0 d. 4.0; 5.0 ANS: c

Periapical images must show more than 0.1 to 0.5 mm beyond the root apices. Periapical images must show more than 1.0 to 2.0 mm beyond the root apices. Periapical images must show the entire crowns and roots of the teeth being examined as well as 2.0 to 3.0 mm beyond the root apices. Periapical images do not need to show more than 4.0 to 5.0 mm beyond the root apices. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 165 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. You have been asked to take an intraoral dental image of your

patient's mandible. Which type of image would you take? a. Periapical b. Bite-wing c. Occlusal d. Lateral jaw ANS: c

Periapical images show the entire crowns and roots of the teeth being examined. Bite-wing images show the entire crowns of both the maxillary and mandibular teeth being examined. Occlusal images show large areas of the maxilla or the mandible. Lateral jaw extraoral images show the posterior region of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 164 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle

techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. Your patient has no clinical sign of disease; how frequently should

you take a CMS on your patient? a. Every year b. Every other year c. Once every 3 to 5 years d. You should not take a CMS ANS: d

A CMS should not be taken every year. A CMS should not be taken every other year. A CMS should not be taken every 3 to 5 years. A CMS is only appropriate when a new adult patient presents with clinical evidence of generalized dental disease or a history of extensive dental treatment. Otherwise, a combination of bite-wings, selected periapical images, and/or a panoramic image should be prescribed on the basis of a patient's individual needs. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 165 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. Your new adult patient has no clinical sign of disease and no

restorations. Which of the following images should you take? a. Periapical images b. Bite-wing images c. CMS d. Occlusal images ANS: b

Periapical images are appropriate when a new adult patient presents with clinical evidence of localized areas of dental disease or restorations. Bite-wings are appropriate when a new adult patient presents with no

clinical evidence of generalized dental disease and no history of extensive dental treatment. A CMS is appropriate when a new adult patient presents with clinical evidence of generalized dental disease or a history of extensive dental treatment. Occlusal images are appropriate when a new adult patient presents with clinical signs of disease, and it is necessary to examine large areas of the maxilla or mandible. Occlusal images are usually used in conjunction with bite-wings and periapical images when the area of concern is larger than the area the periapical receptor can cover. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 165 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. When are bite-wings and periapical images prescribed? a. Every year b. Every other year c. According to a set schedule d. As needed, based on the patient's individual needs ANS: d

Bite-wings and periapical images should not be prescribed yearly. Every patient is different and must be evaluated for dental images on an individual basis. Dental x-ray images should not be prescribed every other year. Each patient must be evaluated on an individual basis for the frequency of dental images. Images should not be prescribed according to a set schedule. The dentist uses professional judgment to make decisions about the number, type, and frequency of dental images. Every patient's dental condition is different, and therefore every patient must be evaluated for dental images on an individual basis. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 165 OBJ: 7

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. Which of the following is used for an interproximal evaluation? a. Periapical image b. Bite-wing image c. Lateral jaw image d. Occlusal image ANS: b

Periapical images are used to evaluate the crowns, roots, and surrounding bone of specific teeth or a tooth. A bite-wing image is used for evaluation of interproximal areas. A lateral jaw image is used to evaluate the posterior region of the mandible. Occlusal images are used to evaluate large areas of the maxilla or mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 164 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_19.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Parallel is defined as a. cutting across or through. b. intersecting at or forming a right angle. c. moving or lying in the same plane, always separated by the same

distance and not intersecting. d. an angle of 90 degrees formed by two lines perpendicular to each other. ANS: c

Intersecting is defined as cutting across or through. Perpendicular is defined as intersecting at or forming a right angle. Parallel is defined as moving or lying in the same plane, always separated by the same distance and not intersecting. Right angle is defined as an angle of 90 degrees formed by two lines perpendicular to each other. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 167 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

2. According to the basic principles of the paralleling technique, the

receptor is placed in the mouth _________ to the long axis of the tooth being x-rayed, and the central ray of the x-ray beam is directed ____________ to the receptor and long axis of the tooth. a. parallel; perpendicular b. parallel; parallel c. perpendicular; parallel d. perpendicular; perpendicular ANS: a

The receptor is placed in the mouth parallel to the long axis of the tooth

being x-rayed, and the central ray of the x-ray beam is directed perpendicular to the receptor and long axis of the tooth. The central ray of the x-ray beam is directed perpendicular rather than parallel to the receptor and long axis of the tooth. The receptor is placed in the mouth parallel rather than perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth being x-rayed, and the central ray of the x-ray beam is directed perpendicular rather than parallel to the receptor and long axis of the tooth. The receptor is placed in the mouth parallel rather than perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth being x-rayed. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 167 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. To achieve parallelism between the receptor and the tooth, the

____________ distance must be increased to keep the receptor parallel with the long axis of the tooth. a. target-object b. object-receptor c. target-receptor d. operator-patient ANS: b

It is not the target-object distance that must be increased to keep the receptor parallel with the long axis of the tooth. The object-receptor distance must be increased to keep the receptor parallel with the long axis of the tooth. The target-receptor distance must be increased to compensate for image magnification. It is not the operator-patient distance that must be increased to keep the receptor parallel with the long axis of the tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 167 OBJ: 3

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. Image magnification occurs with the paralleling technique when the

______________ distance is increased. a. target-object b. object-receptor c. target-receptor d. operator-patient ANS: b

An increased target-object distance is not the cause of increased magnification with the paralleling technique. Because the image receptor is placed away from the tooth, an increased object-receptor distance results in increased image magnification. An increased target-receptor distance is not the cause of increased magnification with the paralleling technique. An increased operator-patient distance is not the cause of increased magnification with the paralleling technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 167 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. Image magnification with the paralleling technique is decreased when

the _______________ distance is increased. a. target-object b. object-receptor c. target-receptor d. operator-patient ANS: c

An increased target-object distance is not used to decrease image magnification with the paralleling technique. An increased

object-receptor distance is not used to decrease image magnification with the paralleling technique. An increased target-receptor distance compensates for image magnification. This will ensure that only the most parallel rays will be directed at the tooth and the receptor. The distance between the operator and patient do not have anything to do with image magnification. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 167 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. Which of the following is a disposable receptor holder designed for

one-time use only? a. Rinn XCP instruments b. Precision receptor holders c. Stabe bite-block d. Snap-a-ray receptor holder ANS: c

Rinn XCP instruments are autoclaved between patients. Precision receptor holders are autoclaved between patients. The Stabe bite-block is a disposable receptor holder designed for one-time use only. The Snap-a-ray receptor holder is autoclaved between patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 169 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. Reusable receptor holders must be _________________ after each

use. a. rinsed with tap water

b. wiped with disinfectant c. placed in an immersion disinfectant d. sterilized ANS: d

Rinsing with tap water is insufficient. Wiping with disinfectant is inadequate. Placing in an immersion disinfectant is not sufficient. Reusable receptor holders must be sterilized after each use. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 169 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. Which of the following receptor holders include aiming rings that aid

in the alignment of the position-indicating device (PID) with the receptor? a. Hemostat with bite-block b. Stabe Bite-block c. Snap-A-Ray receptor holder d. Rinn XCP instruments ANS: d

A hemostat with bite-block does not have an aiming ring. A Stabe Bite-block is a disposable receptor holder made of Styrofoam that does not have an aiming ring. A Snap-A-Ray Holder does not have an aiming ring. Rinn XCP instruments include aiming rings that aid in the alignment of the PID with the receptor. The plastic bite blocks and aiming rings are color-coded to aid in assembly. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 169 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

9. The authors recommend using a size ____ receptor for anterior teeth

and a size ____ receptor for posterior teeth. a. 1; 1 b. 2; 2 c. 1; 2 d. 2; 1 ANS: c

They recommend using a size 1 receptor for anterior teeth. They recommend using a size 2 receptor for posterior teeth. The authors recommend using a size 1 receptor for anterior teeth and a size 2 receptor for posterior teeth. They mention that some practitioners prefer to use a size 2 receptor instead. They recommend using a size 1 receptor for anterior teeth and a size 2 receptor for posterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 169 | Page 170 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. According to the text, a size 1 receptor is always positioned with the

long portion of the receptor in a ____________ direction, and a size 2 receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a ______________ direction. a. vertical; vertical b. horizontal; horizontal c. vertical; horizontal d. horizontal; vertical ANS: c

A size 2 receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a horizontal direction. A size 1 receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a vertical direction. A size 1

receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a vertical direction, and a size 2 receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a horizontal direction. According to the text, a size 1 receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a vertical direction, and a size 2 receptor is always positioned with the long portion of the receptor in a horizontal direction. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 169 | Page 170 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages | CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. (1) The dental radiographer should be careful not to stimulate the

patient's gag reflex. (2) Once the gag reflex is stimulated, the patient may gag on receptors that could normally be tolerated. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The size 1 receptor used for anterior exposures is small, less uncomfortable, and easier for the patient to tolerate. Some practitioners prefer to use a size 2 receptor instead, which may be more difficult to place, depending on the size of the patient's mouth. Anterior receptor placements are less likely to cause the patient to gag. The dental radiographer should be careful not to stimulate the patient's gag reflex. Once the gag reflex is stimulated, the patient may gag on receptors that could normally be tolerated. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 170 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle

techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. If you are using size 1 receptors, how many exposures will you need

to take of the anterior teeth? a. Four b. Six c. Seven d. Eight ANS: c

More than four exposures will need to be taken of the anterior teeth, four is sufficient for the maxillary anterior teeth. More than six exposures will need to be taken of the anterior teeth. A total of seven anterior receptor placements are used in the paralleling technique: four maxillary exposures and three mandibular exposures. Fewer than eight exposures will need to be taken of the anterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 172 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages | CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

13. If you are using size 2 receptors, how many exposures will you need

to take of the anterior teeth? a. Four b. Six c. Seven d. Eight ANS: b

More than four exposures will need to be taken of the anterior teeth. With a size 2 receptor, a total of six anterior receptor placements are

used with the paralleling technique: 3 maxillary exposures and 3 mandibular exposures. Fewer than seven exposures will need to be taken of the anterior teeth. Fewer than eight exposures will need to be taken of the anterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 172 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

14. If you are taking an anterior image sequence, which tooth do the

authors recommend you begin with? a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 11 ANS: a

The authors recommend an exposure sequence starting with the maxillary right canine (tooth #6). The authors do not recommend starting with tooth #8. The authors do not recommend starting with tooth #9. The authors recommend finishing the maxillary anterior teeth with tooth #11. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 172 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

15. How many exposures of the posterior teeth will you need to take

when using the paralleling technique? a. Four b. Six

c. Seven d. Eight ANS: d

More than four exposures are recommended when using the paralleling technique. More than six exposures are recommended when using the paralleling technique. More than seven exposures are recommended when using the paralleling technique. Eight posterior receptor placements are used in the paralleling technique: four maxillary exposures and four mandibular exposures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 173 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

16. Which posterior quadrant would be the best for you to begin with

when using the paralleling technique with Rinn XCP instruments? a. Maxillary left quadrant b. Maxillary right quadrant c. Mandibular left quadrant d. Mandibular right quadrant ANS: b

The recommended sequence does not begin with the maxillary left quadrant. The recommended posterior periapical sequence for the Rinn XCP instruments starts with the maxillary right quadrant. The premolar teeth should be exposed before the molar teeth. The recommended sequence does not begin with the mandibular left quadrant. The recommended sequence does not begin with the mandibular left quadrant. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 173 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle

techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 17. Which posterior quadrant should you move to next (second) when

using the paralleling technique with Rinn XCP instruments? a. Maxillary left quadrant b. Maxillary right quadrant c. Mandibular left quadrant d. Mandibular right quadrant ANS: c

The maxillary left quadrant is not the recommended choice. The maxillary right quadrant is not the recommended choice. The second quadrant in the recommended posterior periapical sequence for the Rinn XCP instruments is the mandibular left quadrant. This saves the operator from needing to reassemble the posterior Rinn XCP instrument. The mandibular right quadrant is not the recommended choice. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 173 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

18. Your patient has a shallow palate; you should modify your technique

when there is a lack of parallelism ________________. a. greater than 10 degrees b. greater than 20 degrees c. greater than 30 degrees d. less than 30 degrees ANS: b

The lack of parallelism requiring modification is more than "greater than 10 degrees". A lack of parallelism of greater than 20 degrees requires a modification in technique. The lack of parallelism requiring modification is less than "greater than 30 degrees". Lack of parallelism

"less than 30 degrees" is not correct.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 174 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. (1) When taking maxillary periapical images on a patient with a

shallow palate, there is only one technique that can be used to compensate for lack of parallelism. (2) To compensate for lack of parallelism, the vertical angulation can be increased by 5 to 15 degrees more than the XCP instrument indicates. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

There is more than one technique that can be used. One technique is to increase the vertical angulation by 5 to 15 degrees more than the XCP instrument indicates. There are two compensation techniques that can be used. Two cotton rolls can be placed, one on each side of the bite-block, or the vertical angulation can be increased by 5 to 15 degrees more than the XCP instrument indicates. There is more than one technique that can be used. One technique is to increase the vertical angulation by 5 to 15 degrees more than the XCP instrument indicates. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 174 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

20. Your patient has a palatal torus, where should you place the

receptor?

a. You cannot take a periapical, the patient will require a panoramic

receptor. b. Place the receptor on the torus. c. Place the receptor in front of the torus next to the teeth you are exposing. d. Place the receptor on the far side of the torus. ANS: d

The technique must be modified to take a periapical. The receptor should not be placed on the torus. The receptor should not be placed in front of the torus. When tori are present, the receptor must be placed on the far side of the torus. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 174 | Page 175 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. When placing the receptor in the mandibular premolar region, the

receptor must be placed ________ the tongue. When inserting the receptor holder into the mouth, the receptor is tipped __________ the tongue. a. over; toward b. over; away from c. under; toward d. under; away from ANS: d

The receptor should not be placed over the tongue and it should not be tipped toward the tongue. The receptor should not be placed over the tongue. The receptor should not be tipped toward the tongue. The receptor must be placed under the tongue to avoid impinging on muscle attachments and the sensitive soft tissues on the floor of the mouth. When inserting the receptor holder into the mouth, the receptor is tipped

away from the tongue and toward the teeth being examined.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 175 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 22. (1) When using the paralleling technique, you must be conscious of

fixed vertical angulations. (2) The paralleling technique creates dental images free from dimensional distortion. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

The paralleling technique does not rely on fixed vertical angulation. The paralleling technique produces an image that has dimensional accuracy; the image is highly representative of the actual tooth. The paralleling technique does not rely on fixed vertical angulation. The paralleling technique produces a radiographic image without dimensional distortion. The paralleling technique does not rely on fixed vertical angulations and produces a radiographic image without dimensional distortion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 175 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

23. When using film, the dot should always be placed ________ in

relation to the bite-block. a. down b. up

c. distal d. in the slot ANS: d

Dot down may interfere with diagnosis for mandibular images. Dot up may interfere with diagnosis for maxillary images. Dot distal may interfere with diagnosis on some images. The authors recommend that each film be placed in the bite-block with the dot in the slot. This facilitates film mounting and ensures that the dot will not interfere with the diagnosis of the periapical area. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 184 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

24. The lingual cusp of the first premolar usually obscures the distal

contact of the canine on the ________________ periapical exposure. a. maxillary canine b. maxillary incisor c. mandibular canine d. mandibular incisor ANS: a

The lingual cusp of the first premolar usually obscures the distal contact of the canine on the maxillary canine exposure due to the shape of the teeth. This is not usually seen on the maxillary incisor image. This is not usually seen on the mandibular canine image. This is not usually seen on the mandibular incisor image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 174 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

25. Which image must include the crowns, roots, and surrounding bone

of the right or left central and lateral incisors? a. Maxillary canine b. Maxillary incisor c. Mandibular canine d. Mandibular incisor ANS: b

The entire crown and root of the canine, including the apex and the surrounding structures, must be visible. The entire crowns and roots of one lateral and one central incisor, including the apices of the teeth and surrounding structures, must be seen on the maxillary incisor image. The entire crown and root of the canine, including the apex and the surrounding structures, must be visible. The entire crowns and roots of the four mandibular incisors, including the apices of the teeth and the surrounding structures, must be visible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 174 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 26. Which of the following images must include the crowns, roots, and

surrounding bone, sinus and tuberosity region of the first, second, and third molars? a. Maxillary premolar b. Maxillary molar c. Mandibular premolar d. Mandibular molar ANS: b

All crowns and roots of the first and second premolars and of the first molar, including the apices, alveolar crests, contact areas, and

surrounding bone, must be visible. All crowns and roots of the first, second, and third molars, including the apices, alveolar crests, contact areas, surrounding bone, and tuberosity region, must be seen on the maxillary molar image. All crowns and roots of the first and second premolars and of the first molar, including the apices, alveolar crests, contact areas, and surrounding bone, must be visible. All crowns and roots of the first, second, and third molars, including the apices, alveolar crests, contact areas, and surrounding bone, must be visible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 175 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 27. Which target-receptor distance should be used in the paralleling

technique to compensate for image magnification and loss of definition? a. 4 inches b. 8 inches c. 12 inches d. 16 inches ANS: d

4 inches will not compensate for image magnification in the paralleling technique. 8 inches will not compensate for image magnification in the paralleling technique. 12 inches will not compensate for image magnification in the paralleling technique. A long (16-inch) target–receptor distance must be used with the paralleling technique to compensate for image magnification. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 168 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

28. (1) The American Dental Association (ADA) and the American

Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology both recommend the use of a beam alignment device to reduce the amount of radiation the patient receives. (2) Limiting the size of the x-ray beam not only reduces the amount of skin that is exposed but also results in a significant reduction of radiation to the patient, by as much as 20%. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

Use of a beam alignment device is not what is recommended to reduce the amount of radiation a patient receives. Limiting the size of the x-ray beam reduces the amount of radiation to the patient by more than 20%. The American Dental Association (ADA) and the American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology both recommend the use of a rectangular collimator to reduce the amount of radiation the patient receives. Limiting the size of the x-ray beam not only reduces the amount of skin that is exposed but also results in a significant reduction of radiation to the patient by as much as 70%. A beam alignment device is not what is recommended to reduce the amount of radiation received by the patient. Limiting the size of the x-ray beam reduces the amount of radiation received by the patient by more than 20%. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 168 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 29. Which of the Rinn beam alignment device includes one ring and one

arm that can be used for anterior, posterior, and bite-wing receptor positioning?

a. Rinn XCP Extension Cone Paralleling System b. Rinn XCP-ORA System c. Rinn SCP-DS FIT Universal Sensor Holder d. Rinn Flip-Ray System ANS: b

The Rinn XCP Extension Cone Paralleling System includes three plastic bite-blocks, three plastic aiming rings, and three metal indicator arms. It may be used with film, PSP sensors, and digital sensors. The Rinn XCP-ORA One Ring & Arm Positioning System includes one ring and one arm. It was designed to be universal and accommodates anterior, posterior, and bite-wing receptor placement. It may be used with film, PSP sensors, and digital sensors. The Rinn XCP-DS FIT Universal Sensor Holder is a bite-block that includes a self-adjusting clip that stretches to accommodate the size of the digital sensor, regardless of brand or size. The Rinn Flip-Ray System uses a rotating bite-block and ring to eliminate multiple positioning parts. It may be used with film or PSP sensors. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 168 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 30. Which basic rule of paralleling states that the receptor must be

parallel to the long axis of the tooth? a. Receptor placement b. Receptor position c. Vertical angulation d. Receptor exposure ANS: b

Receptor placement, the first basic rule of paralleling, indicates the receptor must be positioned to cover the area of teeth to be examined. Receptor position, the second basic rule of paralleling, indicates the

receptor must be positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth. Vertical angulation, the third basic rule of paralleling, indicates the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed perpendicular (at a right angle) to the receptor and the long axis of the tooth. Receptor exposure, the fifth basic rule of paralleling, indicates the x-ray beam must be centered on the receptor to ensure that all areas are exposed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 170 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 31. According to the basic rules of paralleling, the central ray should be

directed ______________ to the receptor and the long axis of the tooth. a. parallel b. perpendicular c. horizontal d. adjacent ANS: b

Receptor position, the second basic rule of paralleling states that the receptor must be positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth. Vertical angulation, the third basic rule of paralleling states that the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed perpendicular (at a right angle) to the receptor and the long axis of the tooth. Horizontal angulation, the fourth basic rule of paralleling indicates the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed through the contact areas between teeth. Adjacent is not a basic rule of paralleling. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 167 | Page 170 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

32. Which basic rule of paralleling indicates that the central ray should

be directed through the contact area of the teeth? a. Receptor placement b. Vertical angulation c. Horizontal angulation d. Receptor position ANS: c

Receptor placement, the first basic rule of paralleling, indicates the receptor must be positioned to cover the prescribed area of teeth to be examined. Vertical angulation, the third basic rule of paralleling states that the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed perpendicular (at a right angle) to the receptor and the long axis of the tooth. Horizontal angulation, the fourth basic rule of paralleling states that the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed through the contact areas between teeth. Receptor position, the second basic rule of paralleling, indicates the receptor must be positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 170 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 33. Identify this image; it is mounted using the labial view.

a. Maxillary right molar b. Maxillary left premolar c. Maxillary left molar d. Mandibular left molar ANS: c

This is not a maxillary right molar image. This is not a maxillary left premolar image. This is a maxillary left molar image because the front edge of the receptor covers the distal half of the maxillary second

premolar. This is not a mandibular left molar image.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 181 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 34. Identify this image; it is mounted using the labial view.

a. Maxillary right canine b. Maxillary left canine c. Maxillary right incisor d. Maxillary left incisor ANS: c

The image is not of the maxillary right canine. The image is not of the maxillary left canine. The image is of the maxillary right incisor. The image is not of the maxillary left incisor. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 177 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 35. Identify the major placement error in this periapical molar image.

a. Placed too far mesially b. Placed too far distally c. Incorrect vertical angulation d. Incorrect horizontal angulation ANS: a

The receptor was placed too far mesially; the front half of the receptor

should cover the distal half of the mandibular second premolar. The receptor was not placed too far distally. Foreshortening would be seen if the vertical angulation was incorrect. Overlapping of contacts would be seen if the horizontal angulation was incorrect. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 175 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_20.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The rule of isometry states that two triangles are equal if they have

______ equal angle(s) and share a common side. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANS: b

The two triangles must have more than one equal angle and share a common side. Two triangles are equal if they have two equal angles and share a common side. The two triangles do not need to have three equal angles and share a common side. A triangle does not have four angles. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 190 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. When the bisecting technique is used, the receptor must be placed

along the ________ surface of the tooth. a. buccal b. lingual c. mesial d. distal ANS: b

No image will be created if the receptor is placed along the buccal surface of the tooth. The receptor must be placed along the lingual surface of the tooth. The receptor cannot be placed along the mesial surface of the tooth unless the adjacent tooth is not present. The receptor cannot be placed along the distal surface of the tooth unless the adjacent

tooth is not present.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 191 OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. When the bisecting technique is used, which of the following angles is

bisected? a. The angle formed by the receptor and the long axis of the tooth b. The angle formed by the central ray and the tooth c. The angle formed by the central ray and the receptor d. The angle that is perpendicular to the receptor ANS: a

The angle formed by the receptor and the long axis of the tooth is the angle that is bisected when the bisecting technique is used. The angle formed by the central ray and the tooth is not the angle that is bisected. The angle formed by the central ray and the receptor is not the angle that is bisected. The angle that is perpendicular to the receptor is not the angle that is bisected. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 191 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. When the bisecting technique is used, the central ray is directed at 90

degrees to the a. receptor. b. long axis of the tooth in the same arch. c. long axis of the tooth in the opposing arch. d. imaginary bisector.

ANS: d

The central ray is directed at 90 degrees to the receptor when the paralleling technique is used. The central ray is directed at 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth in the same arch when the paralleling technique is used. The central ray is not directed at 90 degrees to the long axis of the tooth in the opposing arch. The opposing arch is not relevant for determining angulation. The central ray is directed at 90 degrees to the imaginary bisector. The imaginary bisector creates two equal angles and provides a common side for the two imaginary equal triangles. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 191 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. (1) When using the bisecting technique, the receptor holder or the

patient's finger may be used to stabilize the receptor. (2) A beam alignment device is used to stabilize the receptor and to align the position-indicating device (PID). a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

The patient's finger should not be used to stabilize the image receptor. Pushing on a film will warp the film and using a finger exposes part of the patient's body to x-radiation. The beam alignment device is used to position the intraoral receptor in the mouth and maintain it in position during the exposure. The patient's finger should not be used to stabilize the image receptor. A beam alignment device is used to stabilize the receptor and align the PID. A receptor holder may be used to stabilize the receptor. The patient's finger should not be used. A beam alignment

device is used to stabilize the receptor and to align the position-indicating device. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 191 | Page 192 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. The primary benefit of using a rectangular collimator on a Rinn BAI

instrument with the bisecting technique is a. assisting in determining vertical angulation. b. helping to create more cone cuts. c. reducing the patient's exposure to radiation. d. allowing the operator to have the receptor parallel to the long axis of

the tooth. ANS: c

The vertical angulation is determined by the bisector of the long axis of the tooth and the image receptor. The aiming ring make it easier to align the position-indicating-device (PID) and reduce the number of cone cuts. The primary benefit to using receptor holders with the bisecting technique is reducing the patient's exposure to radiation. The receptor will be as close as possible to the tooth when the bisecting technique is used. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 192 | Page 193 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. You are using the Rinn Snap-A-Ray to take a dental image of tooth

#13. What vertical angulation should you set the PID at to get a dental image that is the same length as the tooth?

a. –10 to –15 degrees b. +20 to +30 degrees c. +30 to +40 degrees d. There is no need to set the vertical angulation. ANS: c

With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular premolars is –10 to –15 degrees. With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for maxillary molars is +20 to +30 degrees. With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for maxillary premolars is +30 to +40 degrees. Setting the vertical angulation is required with the Snap-A-Ray because there is no alignment rod or ring. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 194 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

8. When Rinn BAI instruments are used, "BAI" refers to which of the

following? a. Bisecting aiming instrument b. Bisecting angle instrument c. Bisecting angle integration d. Both angle integration ANS: b

"BAI" does not refer to bisecting aiming instrument. "BAI" refers to bisecting angle instrument. "BAI" does not refer to bisecting angle integration. "BAI" does not refer to both angle integration. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 191 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages

MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. Which of the following commercially available receptor holders are

recommended for use with both the paralleling and the bisecting techniques? 1. Rinn XCP instruments 2. Rinn BAI instruments 3. Precision receptor holder 4. Stabe bite-block 5. Snap-A-Ray receptor holder a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 2, 3, 4, 5 c. 3, 4, 5 d. 2, 4, 5 ANS: d

Rinn XCP instruments and the precision receptor holder are not recommended for use with the bisecting technique. The precision receptor holder is not recommended for use with the bisecting technique. Ring BAI instruments are recommended and the precision receptor holder is not recommended for use with both of these techniques. Rinn BAI instruments, Stabe bite-block, and Snap-A-Ray receptor holder are recommended for use with either the paralleling technique or the bisecting technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 191 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. Which of the following commercially available receptor holders is

recommended for one-time use only? a. Rinn XCP instruments b. Rinn BAI instruments

c. Stabe bite-block d. Rinn Snap-A-Ray receptor holder ANS: c

Rinn XCP instruments are sterilized between uses. Rinn BAI instruments are sterilized between uses. The Stabe bite-block is recommended for one-time use only. The Rinn Snap-A-Ray holder is sterilized between uses. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 192 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. Which size receptor is traditionally used with the bisecting

technique? a. #1 receptor for anterior teeth, #1 receptor for posterior teeth b. #1 receptor for anterior teeth, #2 receptor for posterior teeth c. #2 receptor for anterior teeth, #1 receptor for posterior teeth d. #2 receptor for anterior teeth and for posterior teeth ANS: d

With the bisecting technique, the #2 receptor is traditionally used for anterior teeth and for posterior teeth; the #1 receptor is recommended for anterior teeth with the paralleling technique. With the bisecting technique, the #2 receptor is traditionally used for anterior teeth and for posterior teeth; the #1 receptor not used for posterior teeth, it is recommended for anterior teeth with the paralleling technique. With the bisecting technique, the #2 receptor is traditionally used for anterior teeth and for posterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 193 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages

MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. Which of the following techniques use the same principles of

horizontal angulation? 1. Paralleling 2. Bisecting 3. Bite-wing a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 3 ANS: a

Horizontal angulation refers to the positioning of the PID and the direction of the central ray in a horizontal, or side-to-side plane. Paralleling, bisecting, and bite-wing techniques all use the same principles of horizontal angulation. The bite-wing technique also uses the same principles of horizontal angulation as the paralleling and bisecting techniques. The paralleling technique also uses the same principles of horizontal angulation as the bisecting and bite-wing techniques. The bisecting technique also uses the same principles of horizontal angulation as the paralleling and bite-wing techniques. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 193 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. With the bite-wing technique, the vertical angulation is

predetermined; the central ray is directed at ____ degrees to the occlusal plane. a. +10 b. –10 c. +20

d. –20 ANS: a

The central ray is directed at +10 degrees positive vertical angulation to the occlusal plane. Vertical angulation is measured in degrees and is registered on the outside of the tubehead. The central ray is not directed at –10 degrees to the occlusal plane. The central ray should be directed at less than +20 degrees to the occlusal plane. The central ray should be directed at less than –20 degrees to the occlusal plane. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 194 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. With the ____________ technique, the vertical angulation is

determined by the imaginary bisector; the central ray is directed perpendicular to the imaginary bisector. a. paralleling b. bisecting c. bite-wing d. maxillary pediatric occlusal ANS: b

The paralleling technique seeks to direct the central ray perpendicular to both the object and image receptor, which are parallel to each other. With the bisecting technique, the vertical angulation is determined by the imaginary bisector; the central ray is directed perpendicular to the imaginary bisector. The bite-wing technique uses a predetermined vertical angulation of +10 degrees. The maxillary pediatric occlusal technique uses a predetermined vertical angulation of +60 degrees. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 194 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle

techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. Foreshortened images refer to images of the teeth that appear

_________. Foreshortening of images results from ___________ vertical angulation. a. shortened; insufficient b. shortened; excessive c. too long; insufficient d. too long; excessive ANS: b

Foreshortening results from excessive rather than insufficient angulation. Foreshortened images refer to images of the teeth that appear shortened. Foreshortening of images results from excessive vertical angulation. Foreshortening refers to images of the teeth that appear shortened rather than too long. Foreshortening results from excessive rather than insufficient vertical angulation. Foreshortening refers to images of the teeth that appear shortened rather than too long. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 194 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. When the bisecting technique is used, foreshortening will occur if

the central ray is directed perpendicular to the a. plane of the receptor. b. imaginary bisector. c. long axis of the tooth in the same arch. d. long axis of the tooth in the opposite arch. ANS: a

Foreshortening will occur if the central ray is directed perpendicular to the plane of the receptor. The goal of the bisecting technique is to have

the central ray be directed perpendicular to the imaginary bisector. The goal of the paralleling technique is to have the central ray be directed perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth and the receptor in the same arch. The long axis of the tooth in the opposite arch is not relevant. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 194 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

17. Elongated images refer to images of the teeth that appear too

__________. Elongation of images results from _____________ vertical angulation. a. long; excessive b. long; insufficient c. too short; excessive d. too short; insufficient ANS: b

Elongation results from insufficient rather than excessive vertical angulation. Elongated images refer to images of the teeth that appear too long. Elongation of images results from insufficient vertical angulation. Elongation also occurs if the central ray is directed perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth rather than to the imaginary bisector. Elongated images appear too long rather than too short. Elongated images result from insufficient rather than excessive vertical angulation. Elongated images appear too long rather than too short. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 194 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. The receptor should be placed approximately ____ inch beyond the

incisal or occlusal surfaces when using the bisecting technique. a. 1/16 b. 1/8 c. 1/4 d. 1/2 ANS: b

The receptor should be placed more than 1/16 inch beyond the incisal or occlusal surfaces to ensure the edge of the teeth appear on the image. The receptor should be placed approximately 1/8 inch beyond the incisal or occlusal surfaces when using the bisecting technique. The apical end of the receptor must rest against the palatal or alveolar tissues. Placing the receptor 1/4 inch beyond the incisal or occlusal edge is more than necessary. Placing the receptor 1/2 inch beyond the incisal or occlusal edge is more than necessary, exposes the patient to radiation without diagnostic benefit, and increases the chances that the apex of the tooth will be cut off requiring a retake. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 194 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

19. According to the text, when exposing the anterior teeth using the

bisecting technique, there are ________ recommended size 2 periapical receptor placements. a. four b. six c. seven d. eight ANS: b

More than four anterior receptor placements are used in the bisecting technique with a size 2 receptor. With a size 2 receptor, a total of six

anterior receptor placements are used in the bisecting technique: three maxillary exposures and three mandibular exposures. Fewer than seven anterior receptor placements are used in the bisecting technique with a size 2 receptor. Less than eight anterior receptor placements are used in the bisecting technique with a size 2 receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 197 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 20. The recommended anterior periapical exposure sequence for the

bisecting technique starts with the a. maxillary right canine. b. maxillary left canine. c. mandibular right canine. d. mandibular left canine. ANS: a

The recommended anterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique starts with the maxillary right canine. The recommended anterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique does not start with the maxillary left canine. The recommended anterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique finishes with the mandibular right canine. The recommended anterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique does not start with the mandibular left canine. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 197 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the

bisecting technique is to begin with the a. maxillary right quadrant. b. maxillary left quadrant. c. mandibular right quadrant. d. mandibular left quadrant. ANS: a

The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique is to begin with the maxillary right quadrant. The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique does not begin with the maxillary left quadrant. The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique does not begin with the mandibular right quadrant. The recommended posterior periapical exposure sequence for the bisecting technique finishes with the mandibular left quadrant. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 198 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 22. According to the recommended posterior periapical exposure

sequence for the bisecting technique, the second posterior quadrant exposed should be the a. maxillary right quadrant. b. maxillary left quadrant. c. mandibular right quadrant. d. mandibular left quadrant. ANS: c

The maxillary right quadrant should be the first quadrant exposed. The maxillary left quadrant should be the third quadrant exposed. The second posterior quadrant exposed should be the mandibular right quadrant. The mandibular right quadrant should be the fourth quadrant exposed.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 198 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 23. According to the text, when exposing a complete mouth series

(CMS) using the bisecting technique, there are ____ recommended size 2 periapical receptor placements. a. 7 b. 12 c. 14 d. 19 ANS: c

There are more than 7 recommended size 2 periapical receptor placements for a CMS using the bisecting technique. More than 12 size 2 periapical receptor placements are recommended for a CMS using the bisecting technique. There are 14 recommended size 2 periapical receptor placements for all anterior and posterior exposures. Variations in placement or the number of total receptors used may be recommended by other reference sources or individual practitioners. Fewer than 19 size 2 periapical receptor placements are recommended when exposing a CMS using the bisecting technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 198 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 24. According to the text, the advantages of the bisecting technique are

greater than the disadvantages. Therefore, the bisecting technique should be used instead of the paralleling technique when taking periapical images.

a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true. ANS: b

The disadvantages of the bisecting technique are greater than the advantages, so the paralleling technique is preferred. According to the text, the disadvantages of the bisecting technique outweigh the advantages. Therefore, the paralleling technique is preferred over the bisecting technique for exposure of periapical receptors and should be used whenever possible. The disadvantages of the bisecting technique are greater than the advantages. The paralleling technique should be used whenever possible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 199 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 25. The primary disadvantage of the bisecting technique when

contrasted with the paralleling technique is a. longer exposure times. b. dimensional distortion. c. requirement of a receptor holder. d. greater magnification. ANS: b

The bisecting technique has a reduced exposure time when contrasted with the paralleling technique. The primary disadvantage of the bisecting technique when contrasted with the paralleling technique is dimensional distortion. The primary advantage of the bisecting technique is that it can be used without a beam alignment device when the anatomy of the patient precludes the use of such a device. The

paralleling technique has greater magnification because the image receptor is further from the tooth than it is when the bisecting technique is used. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 199 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 26. When adjusting the horizontal angulation, the PID is moved

___________. When adjusting the vertical angulation, the PID is moved ______________. a. side-to-side; side-to-side b. side-to-side; up-and-down c. up-and-down; side-to-side d. up-and-down; up-and-down ANS: b

Vertical angulation refers to positioning the PID in an up-and-down rather than a side-to-side plane. Horizontal angulation refers to the placement of the PID in a side-to-side plane. The central ray is directed through the contact areas of the teeth, and the contact areas on the image appear "opened". Vertical angulation refers to the positioning of the PID in an up-and-down plane. Correct vertical angulation results in a dental image that is of the same length as that of the tooth. Horizontal angulation is a side-to-side rather than up-and-down plane, and vertical angulation is an up-and-down rather than side-to-side plane. Horizontal angulation is a side-to-side rather than up-and-down plane. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 208 OBJ: 6 | 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

27. For the maxillary premolar exposure, the mesial edge of the receptor

should be aligned with the midline of the maxillary a. lateral incisor. b. canine. c. first premolar. d. second premolar. ANS: b

Aligning the front edge of the receptor with the midline of the lateral incisor is too far mesially. The front edge of the receptor should be aligned with the midline of the maxillary canine. Aligning the front edge of the receptor with the midline of the first premolar would be too far distally. Aligning the front edge of the receptor with the midline of the second premolar would be correct for the maxillary molar exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 198 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

28. For the mandibular molar exposure, the mesial edge of the receptor

should be aligned with the midline of the a. canine. b. first premolar. c. second premolar. d. first molar. ANS: c

The front edge of the receptor should be aligned with the midline of the maxillary canine for the mandibular premolar exposure. Aligning the front edge of the receptor with the midline of the first premolar would be too far distal. The front edge of the receptor should be aligned with the midline of the second premolar. Aligning the front edge of the receptor with the midline of the first molar would be too far distal.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 198 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 29. With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation

range for tooth number 6 is _________ degrees. a. +20 to +30 b. +30 to +40 c. +40 to +50 d. +45 to +55 ANS: d

The recommended vertical angulation for maxillary molars is +20 to +30 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation for maxillary premolars is +30 to + 40 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation for maxillary incisors is +40 to +50 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation range for maxillary canines is +45 to +55 degrees. All maxillary teeth will have positive vertical angulation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 194 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

30. With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation

range for tooth number 30 is _________ degrees. a. –5 to 0 b. + 20 to +30 c. –20 to –30 d. –10 to –15 ANS: a

The recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular molars is –5 to 0 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation range for maxillary molars is +20 to +30 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular canines is –20 to –30 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular premolars is –20 to –30 degrees. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 194 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 31. The contacts on your dental image are overlapped, which of the

following would you correct when retaking the image? a. Horizontal angulation b. Vertical angulation c. Head position of the patient d. Receptor placement ANS: a

Incorrect horizontal angulation results in overlapped ("unopened") contact areas. Incorrect vertical angulation results in a dental image that is not of the same length as that of the tooth; instead, the image exhibits distortion and appears longer or shorter. Changing your patient's head position will not correct overlapping. Moving the receptor placement will not correct overlapping. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 193 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

32. The teeth on your dental images appear shorter than your patient's

teeth, which of the following would you correct when retaking the dental

image? a. Increase horizontal angulation b. Increase vertical angulation c. Decrease vertical angulation d. Decrease horizontal angulation ANS: c

Incorrect horizontal angulation results in overlapped ("unopened") contact areas. Elongation of images results from insufficient vertical angulation. Foreshortening of images results from excessive vertical angulation, you will need to decrease vertical angulation. Horizontal angulation errors lead to overlapped contact areas. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 194 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 33. Your premolar image is undiagnostic, the mesial half of the dental

image is radiopaque. You are missing the canine and first premolar, and the distal edge of the radiopaque area is curved. Which of the following will you adjust to correct this error for the retake? a. Receptor position b. Vertical angulation c. Horizontal angulation d. Receptor exposure ANS: d

Incorrect receptor placement, the first basic rule of bisecting, would affect which teeth were visible on the receptor. Incorrect vertical angulation, the third basic rule of bisecting, causes images that are either elongated or foreshortened. Incorrect horizontal angulation, the fourth rule of bisecting, results in overlapped ("unopened") contact areas. Incorrect receptor exposure caused the cone-cut on your image. You

must correct receptor exposure, the fifth basic rule of bisecting. The x-ray beam (PID) must be centered on the receptor to ensure that all areas are exposed. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 194 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 34. You are using the Rinn Snap-A-Ray to take a dental image of tooth

number 13. What vertical angulation should you set the PID at to get the proper image? a. –10 to –15 degrees b. + 20 to +30 degrees c. +30 to +40 degrees d. There is no need to set the vertical angulation. ANS: c

teeth numbers 23 to 26. What vertical angulation should you set the PID at to get the proper image?

a. –20 to –30 degrees b. –15 to –25 degrees c. +40 to +50 degrees d. There is no need to set the vertical angulation. ANS: b

With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular canines is –20 to –30 degrees. With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular incisors is –15 to –25 degrees. With the bisecting technique, the recommended vertical angulation range for maxillary incisors is +40 to+50 degrees. Setting the vertical angulation is required with the Stabe Bite-block because there is no alignment rod or ring. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 194 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 36. You are using the Rinn BAI System to take a dental image of tooth

number 1. What vertical angulation should you set the PID at to get the proper image? a. –5 to 0 degrees b. +20 to +30 degrees c. +30 to +40 degrees d. There is no need to set the vertical angulation. ANS: d

The Rinn BAI System has an alignment ring and rod, and the PID is aligned with the ring. You will not set the vertical angulation. The recommended vertical angulation range for mandibular molars when there is no aiming rod or ring is –5 to 0 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation range for maxillary molars when there is no aiming rod or ring is +20 to +30 degrees. The recommended vertical angulation

range for maxillary premolars when there is no aiming rod or ring is +30 to +40 degrees. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 192 | Page 193 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_21.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. (1) The bite-wing tab is a heavy paperboard tab or loop fitted around a

periapical film or sensor and used to stabilize the receptor during exposure. (2) The periapical receptor is oriented in the bite loop so that the tab portion extends from the white side (tube side) of the film or sensor. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The dental radiographer must be familiar with the original bite-wing technique of using a tab attached to the receptor for use with patients. Bite tabs and bite loops are available in various sizes. Bite-wing tabs may be used on horizontal or vertical bite-wing projections. The bite-wing tab is a heavy paperboard tab or loop fitted around a periapical receptor and used to stabilize the receptor during exposure. The periapical receptor is oriented in the bite loop so that the tab portion extends from the white side (tube side) of the film or sensor. The periapical receptor is oriented in the bite tab or loop so that the tab portion extends from the white side (tube side) of the film or sensor. The bite-wing tab is a heavy paperboard tab or loop fitted around a periapical receptor and used to stabilize the receptor during exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 214 OBJ: 1 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. _______ sizes of bite-wing receptors are available.

a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Six ANS: b

More than two sizes of bite-wing receptors are available. Three sizes of bite-wing receptors are available. Size 0 is used to examine the posterior teeth of children with primary dentitions. Size 2 is used to examine the posterior teeth in older children and adults. Size 3 is longer and narrower and is used only for bite-wing exposures. Less than four sizes of bite-wing receptors are available. Fewer than six sizes of bite-wing receptors are available. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 214 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

3. You have a 4-year-old boy in your chair, which size receptor will you

need to use to take bite-wing images on him? a. Size 0 b. Size 1 c. Size 2 d. Size 3 ANS: a

The size 0 bite-wing receptor is used to examine the posterior teeth of children with primary dentition. A size 1 bite-wing receptor is not listed in the text. The size 2 bite-wing receptor is used to examine the posterior teeth in older children and adults and may be placed horizontally or vertically. The size 3 bite-wing is longer and narrower than the standard size 2 receptor and is used only for bite-wing exposures. PTS: 1 DIF: Application

REF: Page 214 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. Which size bite-wing receptor may be placed in a horizontal or

vertical position? a. Size 0 b. Size 1 c. Size 2 d. Size 3 ANS: c

The size 0 bite-wing receptor is always placed with the long portion of the receptor in a horizontal direction. The size 1 bite-wing receptor is not listed in the text. The size 2 bite-wing receptor may be placed in a horizontal or vertical position. The size 3 bite-wing receptor is always placed horizontally. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 214 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. Your 35-year-old patient has clinical attachment loss in the posterior

teeth. What type of bite-wing images should you take, and what size receptor should you use? a. Horizontal; 0 b. Horizontal; 2 c. Vertical; 0 d. Vertical; 2 ANS: d

Clinical attachment loss justifies the use of vertical orientation. The size

0 receptor is used with primary dentition. Clinical attachment loss justifies the use of vertical orientation of the receptor. The size 0 receptor is used with primary dentition and is always placed horizontally. When vertical posterior bite-wing exposures are indicated, the size 2 receptor is placed with the long portion of the receptor in a vertical direction. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 214 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated | CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. (1) The size 3 receptor can only be used for bite-wing images. (2) The

size 3 receptor is the recommended size for adult bite-wing images. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

In the adult patient, a size 2 receptor is recommended for bite-wing exposures. The size 3 receptor is not recommended. The size 3 receptor is used only for bite-wing images. The size 3 receptor is used only for bite-wing images. The size 3 bite-wing receptor is not recommended for adult bite-wings. The size 2 receptor is recommended for adult bite-wings. The size 3 receptor is used only for bite-wing images. The size 2 receptor is recommended for adult bite-wings. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 214 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

7. In the adult patient, which size receptor is recommended for bite-wing

exposures? a. Size 0 b. Size 1 c. Size 2 d. Size 3 ANS: c

The size 0 receptor is used with primary dentition. The size 1 receptor is not used for bite-wing images. The size 2 receptor is recommended for bite-wing exposures. The size 3 receptor is not recommended. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 214 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. When taking a molar bite-wing image, in order to follow rule number

1 of the bite-wing technique, receptor placement, what must the mesial part of the bite-wing receptor cover? a. Mesial of the mandibular first molar b. Both first molars c. Mesial of the mandibular second premolar d. Both second premolars ANS: c

The mesial of the mandibular first molar is too far distal. Both first molars is too far distal. The bite-wing receptor is positioned far enough forward to cover the front edge of the mandibular second premolar. The mandibular second premolar is mesial to the maxillary second premolar, so covering the mesial of the mandibular second premolar ensures the maxillary second premolar is covered as well. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension

REF: Page 223 OBJ: 4 | 10 | 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. The problem with a using single bite-wing receptor per side for adult

patients is increased a. x-ray exposure. b. possibility of inciting the gag reflex. c. overlapped contacts. d. useful diagnostic information. ANS: c

A single bite-wing image would result in half the x-ray exposure as two images per side. Periapical images rather than bite-wing images are associated with inciting the gag reflex. The problem with a single bite-wing receptor per side for adult patients is increased overlapped contacts. More diagnostic information can be gathered from two images per side. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 217 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. When determining vertical angulation, if the position-indicating

device (PID) is positioned above the occlusal plane and the central ray is directed _______, the vertical angulation is termed _________. a. upward; positive b. downward; positive c. upward; negative d. downward; negative ANS: b

If the PID is positioned above the occlusal plane the central ray would not be directed upward. If the PID is positioned above the occlusal plane and the central ray is directed downward, the vertical angulation is termed positive. If the PID is positioned above the occlusal plane the central ray would not be directed upward. If the PID is positioned above the occlusal plane and the central ray is directed downward, the vertical angulation would be positive rather than negative. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 215 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

11. Which of the following exposure sequences is recommended for the

patient who requires both periapical and bite-wing images? 1. Bite-wing exposures 2. Anterior periapical receptors 3. Posterior periapical receptors a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 1, 3 c. 2, 3, 1 d. 3, 1, 2 ANS: c

The periapical exposures should be taken before the bite-wing exposures. The periapical images should be exposed before the bite-wing images. The recommended exposure sequence for the patient who requires both periapical and bite-wing images is anterior periapical receptors, posterior periapical receptors, and finish with bite-wing exposures. The sequence ends with bite-wing exposures because these receptors are relatively easy for the patient to tolerate. Completing a CMS with bite-wing exposures may leave the patient with a more positive feeling regarding the series. The anterior periapical exposures should be taken before the posterior periapical exposures and the

bite-wing exposures should be taken last.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 217 OBJ: 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. Vertical bite-wings are often used for patients with a. mixed dentition. b. extensive decay. c. bone loss. d. sealants. ANS: c

Mixed dentition is not the indication for the use of vertical bite-wings. Extensive decay is not the indication for the use of vertical bite-wings. Vertical bite-wings are often used for patients with bone loss. Sealants are not the indication for the use of vertical bite-wings. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 217 | Page 218 OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. What modification in technique is recommended when the patient

has an edentulous space causing a problem with bite-wing receptor placement? a. Skip the bite-wing receptor. b. Place a cotton roll in the area of the missing tooth or teeth. c. Have the patient hold the receptor in position with a hemostat. d. Take a periapical receptor with a bite-block instead. ANS: b

There is a reason why the bite-wing needs to be taken and it should not

be skipped. Place a cotton roll in the area of the missing tooth or teeth. Failure to support the bite-wing tab or the beam alignment device results in a tipped occlusal plane on the resulting image. Having the patient hold the receptor in position with a hemostat is indicated during endodontic procedures, but not for bite-wing procedures. A bite-block will not work for a bite-wing image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 225 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. According to the text, the identification dot on the film in bite-wing

placement a. should be oriented "dot down." b. should be oriented "dot distal." c. should be oriented "dot up." d. has no significance. ANS: d

The text does not state that the identification dot should be "dot down". The text does not state that the identification dot should be "dot distal". The text does not state that the identification dot should be "dot up". According to the text, the identification dot on the film in bite-wing placement has no significance. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 218 OBJ: 14 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. When taking a premolar bite-wing image, in order to follow rule

number 1 of the bite-wing technique, receptor placement, what must the mesial part of the bite-wing receptor cover?

a. Both premolars b. Both canines c. Mandibular canine d. Mandibular premolar ANS: c

The premolars are too far distal. The mandibular premolar is mesial to the maxillary premolar, so covering the mesial of the mandibular canine includes the maxillary canine as well. The bite-wing receptor is positioned far enough forward to cover the middle of the mandibular canine. The mandibular premolar is too far distal. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 221 OBJ: 4 | 10 | 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

16. Where should you position the mesial edge of the receptor when

taking a premolar bite-wing image? a. Midline of the maxillary canine b. Midline of the mandibular canine c. Mesial of the maxillary first premolar d. Mesial of the mandibular first premolar ANS: b

The midline of the maxillary canine is not far enough mesially. The front edge of the receptor should be aligned with the midline of the mandibular canine. The midline of the maxillary first premolar is too far distal. The midline of the mandibular first premolar is too far distal. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 221 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages

MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 17. Where should you position the mesial edge of the receptor when

taking a molar bite-wing image? a. Distal of the maxillary first premolar b. Distal of the mandibular first premolar c. Midline of the maxillary second premolar d. Midline of the mandibular second premolar ANS: d

The distal of the maxillary first premolar is too far mesial. The distal of the mandibular first premolar is too far mesial. The midline of the maxillary second premolar is not far enough mesially. For the molar bite-wing exposure, the front edge of the receptor should be aligned with the midline of the mandibular second premolar. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 223 OBJ: 13 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. (1) Overlapped interproximal contacts are caused by improper

vertical angulation. (2) To prevent overlap, the vertical angulation should be adjusted to +10 degrees. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

Overlapped contacts are not caused by improper vertical angulation. The vertical angulation is not adjusted to prevent overlapped interproximal contacts. Overlapped interproximal contacts are caused by improper horizontal angulation. To prevent overlap, the horizontal angulation

needs to be adjusted. Overlapped contacts are not caused by improper vertical angulation. The vertical angulation is not adjusted to prevent overlapped interproximal contacts. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 214 | Page 215 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. What vertical angulation should you use when adjusting the PID to

take bite-wing images with bite-tabs? a. –10 degrees b. 0 degrees c. +5 degrees d. +10 degrees ANS: d

Bite-wing images are not taken with negative vertical angulation. Bite-wing images are not taken with zero degree vertical angulation. Bite-wing images are not taken with +5 degrees vertical angulation. According to the third rule of bite-wing technique, when a bite-wing tab is used, the central ray of the x-ray beam must be directed at +10 degrees. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 215 OBJ: 4 | 10 | 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

20. The contacts on your dental image are closed. You will need to take

a retake. What should you do in order to achieve open contacts on your retake dental image? a. Direct the PID at a +10 degree vertical angulation.

b. Direct the PID at a –10 degree vertical angulation. c. Direct the PID through the contacts of the teeth. d. Stabilize the receptor when the patient bites. ANS: c

Directing the PID at a +10 degree vertical angulation will not affect the contacts on the teeth of the dental image. Directing the PID at a –10 degree vertical angulation will not affect the contacts on the teeth of the dental image. Directing the central ray through the contacts of the teeth will open the contacts on the teeth of the dental image. Stabilizing the receptor when the patient bites will not affect the contacts on the teeth of the dental image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 215 OBJ: 4 | 7 | 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.ii. Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_22.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An unexposed film appears a. clear. b. black. c. dark. d. light. ANS: a

An unexposed film appears clear. This error may occur with film or digital sensors. An exposed film appears black. This error only occurs with film. An overexposed receptor will appear dark or high in density. This error may occur with film or digital sensors. An underexposed receptor will appear light or low in density. This error may occur with film or digital sensors. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 229 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. Which of the following choices may be the cause of an unexposed

film or receptor? a. Excessive exposure time b. Failure to turn on the x-ray machine c. Excessive kilovoltage d. Excessive milliamperage ANS: b

Excessive exposure time would create a film that appears dark. Failure to turn on the x-ray machine may be the cause of an unexposed film or receptor. Excessive kilovoltage would create a film or receptor that appears dark. Excessive milliamperage would create a film or receptor

that appears dark.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 229 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. Which of the following films would most likely appear black? a. An unexposed film b. A film exposed to light c. An overexposed film d. An underexposed film ANS: b

An unexposed film would be clear. A film exposed to light would most likely appear black. An overexposed film would appear dark, and with sufficient exposure the darkness may approach that of a film exposed to light. An underexposed film would appear light. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 229 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. The possibility of exposure of radiographic film to white light can be

reduced by a. turning off the safelight and unwrapping the films in a pitch-black

room. b. pre-exposing the entire package of film to radiation before opening the package. c. not unwrapping the film in a room with white light. d. turning off the fluorescent lighting in the treatment room before exposing radiographic films.

ANS: c

Turn off all the lights in the darkroom except for the safelight before unwrapping the film. Pre-exposing the package of film to radiation would fog the film and would not reduce the exposure of radiographic film to white light. The possibility of exposure of radiographic film to white light can be reduced by not unwrapping the film in a room with white light. Turning off the fluorescent light in the treatment room would not affect the exposure of radiographic film to white light. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 229 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing | CDA, RHS, I.C.1.d. Identify and describe how to correct errors due to improper film handling MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. An underexposed receptor results from a. insufficient exposure time. b. inadequate tissue density. c. excessive milliamperage. d. excessive kilovoltage. ANS: a

An underexposed receptor results from insufficient exposure time. To prevent underexposure, check the exposure time, kilovoltage, and milliamperage settings on the x-ray machine before exposing the receptor. Manufacturers have titrated the properties of the film so that inadequate tissue density is not a possible factor. Excessive milliamperage would create an overexposed film. Excessive kilovoltage would create an overexposed film. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 230 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing

MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. To prevent underexposure, check and increase ___________ as

needed. 1. exposure time 2. kilovoltage 3. milliamperage a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 3 d. 1, 3 ANS: a

Check and increase exposure time, kilovoltage, or milliamperage as needed. Increasing milliamperage will prevent underexposure in addition to exposure time and kilovoltage. Increasing exposure time will prevent underexposure in addition to kilovoltage and milliamperage. Increasing kilovoltage will prevent underexposure in addition to exposure time and milliamperage. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 230 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. The cause of an excessive margin of receptor edge (which appears as

a black band) on a nondiagnostic periapical image is a. the edge of the receptor was not placed parallel to the incisal-occlusal

surfaces of the teeth. b. the receptor was not positioned in the patient's mouth to cover the apical regions of the teeth. c. the receptor was underexposed. d. the central ray was not directed through the interproximal spaces.

ANS: b

A dropped corner is seen when the edge of the receptor was not placed parallel to the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth. The receptor was not positioned in the patient's mouth to cover the apical regions of the teeth. The image appears light or low in density when the receptor was underexposed. Overlapped contacts are seen when the central ray was not directed through the interproximal spaces. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 231 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. To correct a dental image where apices do not appear, a. make certain that no more than 3/4 inch of the receptor edge extends

beyond the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth. b. the teeth being imaged must be firmly in contact with the bite-block. c. increase the exposure time. d. direct the x-ray beam through the interproximal spaces. ANS: b

3/4 inch increases the chances that the apices will not appear. To correct a dental image where apices do not appear, the teeth being imaged must be firmly in contact with the bite-block. Increasing the exposure time will not improve the quality of the image if the receptor is not correctly placed. Directing the beam through interproximal spaces is involved with horizontal angulation. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 231 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. When the occlusal plane appears tipped or tilted, the error is a(n)

a. incorrect horizontal angulation. b. incorrect vertical angulation. c. dropped receptor corner. d. elongated image. ANS: c

Incorrect horizontal angulation would create overlapped contact areas. Incorrect vertical angulation would produce a foreshortened or elongated image. When the occlusal plane appears tipped or tilted, the error is a dropped receptor corner. An elongated image occurs when the vertical angulation was insufficient (too flat). PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 231 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. To prevent a dropped receptor corner, a. change the horizontal angulation. b. increase the vertical angulation. c. decrease the vertical angulation. d. make certain the edge of the receptor is placed parallel to the

incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth. ANS: d

Changing the horizontal angulation can correct overlapped contacts. Increasing the vertical angulation can correct elongated images. Decreasing the vertical angulation can correct foreshortened images. Make certain the edge of the receptor is placed parallel to the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 231 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related

to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. When overlapped contacts appear on a dental image, the cause is a. incorrect vertical angulation. b. incorrect horizontal angulation. c. a dropped receptor corner. d. an underexposed film. ANS: b

Incorrect vertical angulation would produce a foreshortened or an elongated image. When overlapped contacts appear on a dental image, the cause is incorrect horizontal angulation. A dropped receptor corner will produce an image that appears tipped. An underexposed dental image would appear light. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 232 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. To avoid overlapped contacts on a periapical image, a. increase vertical angulation. b. decrease vertical angulation. c. direct the x-ray beam through the interproximal regions. d. make certain that no more than 1/8 inch of the receptor edge extends

beyond the incisal-occlusal surfaces of the teeth. ANS: c

Increasing vertical angulation will reduce elongated images. Decreasing vertical angulation will improve foreshortened images. To avoid overlapped contacts on periapical image, direct the x-ray beam through the interproximal regions. This will prevent the absence of apical structures. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 232 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. Short teeth with blunted roots appear on the image when a. the vertical angulation is excessive. b. the vertical angulation is insufficient. c. the horizontal angulation is incorrect. d. there is a cone-cut. ANS: a

Short teeth with blunted roots appear on the image when the vertical angulation is excessive. Long, distorted teeth appear on the image when the vertical angulation is insufficient. Overlapped contacts appear on the image when the horizontal angulation is incorrect. There is a cone-cut when a clear, rounded area appears on the image (if a round collimator is used). PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 232 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. Long, distorted teeth appear on the image when a. the vertical angulation is excessive. b. the vertical angulation is insufficient. c. the horizontal angulation is incorrect. d. there is a cone-cut. ANS: b

Short teeth with blunted roots appear on the image when the vertical angulation is excessive. Long, distorted teeth appear on the image when

the vertical angulation is insufficient. Overlapped contacts appear on the image when the horizontal angulation is incorrect. A clear, curved area will be seen on the image when there is a cone-cut. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 232 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. A cone-cut occurs when a. the receptor is underexposed. b. the receptor is overexposed. c. the PID was not properly aligned with the periapical receptor holder. d. the exposure button was not depressed for a sufficient amount of time. ANS: c

The image is too light when the receptor is underexposed. The image is too dark when the receptor is overexposed. A cone-cut occurs when the PID (position-indicating device) was not properly aligned with the periapical receptor holder. Depending on the machine, failure to depress the exposure button for a sufficient amount of time may or may not affect the receptor. On some machines the exposure time would be decreased which would result in an image that is too light. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 233 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

16. When the distal surfaces of the canines are not visible on a premolar

bite-wing image, the solution is to a. change the horizontal angulation of the tubehead. b. increase the vertical angulation of the tubehead.

c. decrease the vertical angulation of the tubehead. d. position the anterior edge of the receptor at the midline of the

mandibular canine. ANS: d

Changing the horizontal angulation would cause overlapping. Increasing the vertical angulation would cause foreshortening. Decreasing vertical angulation would cause elongation. When the distal surfaces of the canines are not visible on a premolar bite-wing image, the solution is to position the anterior edge of the receptor at the midline of the mandibular canine. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 234 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 17. When the third molar regions are not visible on a molar bite-wing

image, the solution is to a. decrease the vertical angulation of the tubehead. b. increase the vertical angulation of the tubehead. c. position the anterior edge of the receptor at the midline of the

mandibular first premolar. d. position the anterior edge of the receptor at the midline of the mandibular second premolar. ANS: d

Decreasing vertical angulation would cause elongation. Increasing the vertical angulation would cause foreshortening. Positioning the anterior edge of the receptor at the midline of the mandibular first premolar could result in not including the third molars in the image. When the third molar regions are not visible on a molar bite-wing image, the solution is to position the anterior edge of the receptor at the midline of the mandibular second premolar. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 234 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. With ____________, images appear stretched and distorted. a. film creasing b. film bending c. double exposure d. patient movement ANS: b

A thin radiolucent line is seen with creasing on the image with film. With film bending, images appear stretched and distorted. A double image results and appears dark with superimposed structures. Patient movement is the most common cause of a blurred image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 236 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. A thin radiolucent line appears on the film with a. film creasing. b. film bending. c. double exposure. d. patient movement. ANS: a

A thin radiolucent line appears on the film with film creasing. An image that appears stretched and distorted appears with film bending. A dark film with superimposed images occurs with a double exposure. A blurred image occurs with patient movement. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 236 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.d. Identify and describe how to correct errors due to improper film handling MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 20. The appearance of a patient's finger on the image is called a a. hemangioma. b. phalangioma. c. myxoma. d. melanoma. ANS: b

A hemangioma of bone is a radiolucent lesion that may look like a honeycomb or be multilocular. The appearance of a patient's finger on the image is called a phalangioma. A myxoma is a soft tissue neoplasm that usually occurs intraorally in the palate. Melanoma is a cancer of melanocytes. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 237 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. What is the cause of a double exposure? a. The patient moved during receptor exposure. b. Two radiographs were stuck together during film exposure. c. A double packet of film was used. d. The film was exposed in the patient's mouth twice. ANS: d

Movement during exposure would cause a blurred image. Two radiographs may be stuck together during film processing, but they cannot be stuck together during film exposure. There would be no

difference in image quality if a double packet of film were used. The cause of a double exposure is that the film was exposed in the patient's mouth twice. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 238 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 22. To avoid a double exposure, a. only expose and process one half of the patient's mouth at one time. b. mark exposed films with indelible ink. c. always separate exposed and unexposed film and PSP receptors. d. ask the patient to hold the unexposed film and PSP receptors. ANS: c

Exposing one half of the patient's mouth at a time will not prevent double exposure. Marking exposed films with indelible ink may damage the film and reduce the diagnostic benefit. Always separate exposed and unexposed film and PSP receptors. The patient should not be asked to hold films and PSP receptors. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 238 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 23. Blurred images appear on the dental image when a. there is patient movement. b. the film is reversed. c. there is a double exposure. d. the film is creased. ANS: a

Blurred images appear on the dental image when there is patient movement. A reversed film results in a lighter film with a herringbone or tire track image on the radiograph. Double-exposed film causes two images in the radiograph. Creased film causes a black line through the radiograph. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 239 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 24. Your left premolar bite-wing image is lighter than the rest of the

images and has a herringbone (tire-track) pattern. What can you do to prevent this problem from occurring? When the film is reversed, a. change vertical angulation. b. make sure you do not double expose your receptor. c. make sure the film side is facing the PID. d. make sure the patient doesn't move. ANS: c

Incorrect vertical angulation causes elongation or foreshortening. A double image will occur on the image when the film or PSP is double exposed. When the film is reversed, the image will be light with a herringbone or tire track pattern. Patient movement causes a blurred image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 239 | Page 240 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 25. An unexposed digital sensor appears a. clear.

b. black. c. gray. d. clear or blank. ANS: d

An unexposed film appears clear. An unexposed digital sensor does not appear black. An unexposed digital sensor does not appear gray. An unexposed receptor appears clear or blank. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 229 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 26. You have noticed that your mandibular incisors are foreshortened;

how would you correct this problem? a. Adjust horizontal angulation. b. Decrease vertical angulation. c. Increase vertical angulation. d. Place receptor parallel to the long axis of the teeth. ANS: b

Adjusting the horizontal angulation will prevent overlapping. To correct foreshortening, decrease the vertical angulation. Increasing the vertical angulation will increase foreshortening. Receptor position will depend on whether you are using the paralleling or bisecting technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 232 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 27. You have noticed that your maxillary premolars are elongated, how

would you correct this problem?

a. Adjust horizontal angulation. b. Decrease vertical angulation. c. Increase vertical angulation. d. Place receptor parallel to the long axis of the teeth. ANS: c

Adjusting the horizontal angulation will prevent overlapping. Decreasing the vertical angulation will increase elongation. To correct elongation, increase the vertical angulation. Receptor position will depend on whether you are using the paralleling or bisecting technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 232 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

28. The mesial half of your right premolar bite-wing image is clear, what

will you need to correct when taking your retake to prevent this from reoccurring? a. Adjust receptor position. b. Adjust horizontal angulation. c. Adjust vertical angulation. d. Adjust receptor exposure. ANS: a

This is a cone-cut error. The PID is not centered over the receptor. To correct a cone-cut, you will need to change your receptor position by moving the PID mesial to cover the distal half of the mandibular canine. Correcting horizontal angulation will open the contacts. Correcting vertical angulation will prevent foreshortening and elongation. Adjusting the exposure may change the density and/or contrast. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 233 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic

processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 29. You will need to take a retake on your patient's mandibular right

premolars because of overlapping. The overlapping is more excessive toward the mesial of the film than the distal of the film. What do you need to do to prevent this error on the retake? a. Correct horizontal angulation, direct the PID more toward the distal. b. Correct horizontal angulation, direct the PID more toward the mesial. c. Correct vertical angulation, decrease vertical angulation. d. Correct vertical angulation, increase vertical angulation. ANS: a

If the overlapping is more pronounced in the anterior half of the image, the PID was pointed too much from the distal toward the mesial (too much horizontal angulation). To correct this error, you would need to direct the PID more toward the distal (decrease horizontal angulation) until the x-ray beam is directed through the interproximal contacts. If the overlapping is more pronounced in the posterior half of the image, the PID was pointed too much from the mesial toward the distal. To correct this error, you would need to direct the PID more toward the mesial until the x-ray beam is directed through the interproximal contacts. In order to prevent foreshortening, you would need to decrease vertical angulation. In order to prevent elongation, you would need to increase vertical angulation. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 235 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 30. Radiopaque artifacts or radiolucent scratch marks on the image

indicate which of the following? a. Debris accumulation on the sensor

b. Creasing of the film or PSP receptor c. Bending of the film or PSP receptor d. Double image ANS: a

Debris on the surface of the sensor may cause permanent radiopaque artifacts or radiolucent scratch marks on the dental image. Creasing appears as a thin radiolucent line seen on the image when film is used, and when using a PSP receptor, a crease appears as a white line. The image appears stretched and distorted on a film and on PSP receptor that is bent. A double image results and appears dark with superimposed structures when a receptor is exposed twice. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 237 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 31. Identify the cause of the lines the arrows are pointing to on your

patient's dental image. a. Fractures in the root and crown b. Scratched film emulsion c. Artifacts on the phosphor plates d. Streaks of light ANS: c

These are not fractures. This is a PSP not film; there is no emulsion. The arrows are pointing to scratches that are caused from artifacts on the phosphor plates. Streaks of light would be radiolucent. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 237 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.c. Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing

MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 32. Identify the major technique error on your patient's bitewing.

a. Overlap b. Vertical angulation c. Cone-cut d. Occlusal plane not centered ANS: d

Overlap will result in the superimposition of the teeth. Vertical angulation will result in the occlusal plane not being centered, either the maxillary or mandibular teeth will be superimposed, and there will be distortion of the teeth. Cone-cut would result in a clear area on the film or PSP or a clear or blank area on the image when a sensor is used. The occlusal plane is not centered on the film. This results in unequal amounts of maxillary and mandibular teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 233 | Page 234 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image | CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_23.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The occlusal technique is used to examine a. interproximal areas. b. large areas of the upper or lower jaw. c. third molars. d. for bone loss. ANS: b

The bite-wing technique is used to examine interproximal areas. The occlusal technique is used to examine large areas of the upper or lower jaw. The periapical technique is used to examine third molars. The bite-wing technique and the periapical technique are used to examine for bone loss. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 243 OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. In adults, the size ____ receptor is used in the occlusal examination. a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 ANS: d

The size 0 receptor is not used in the occlusal examination. The size 1 receptor is not used in the occlusal examination. In the child with a primary dentition, a size 2 receptor is typically used. In adults, the size 4 receptor is used in the occlusal examination. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension

REF: Page 243 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. Which size receptor would you use to take an occlusal image on your

3-year-old patient? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 ANS: c

The size 0 receptor is not used in the occlusal examination. The size 1 receptor is not used in the occlusal examination. In children, a size 2 receptor is used in the occlusal examination. The size 4 receptor is not used in the occlusal examination for children.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 243 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. How is the receptor stabilized in the patient's mouth when taking a

mandibular cross-sectional occlusal projection? a. The receptor is placed in a Stabe Bite-block. b. The receptor is held by a hemostat. c. The patient gently bites on the surface of the receptor. d. A bite-wing tab is attached to the receptor. ANS: c

The receptor is placed in a Stabe Bite-block for periapical images. The receptor is held by a hemostat for imaging during endodontic procedures. When the occlusal technique is used, a patient gently bites

on the surface of the receptor to stabilize the receptor. A bite-wing tab is attached to the receptor for bite-wing images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 244 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. When using the occlusal technique, the receptor is positioned with the

_______ side facing the arch that is being exposed, and the receptor is placed in the mouth ______. a. tube; to the lingual of the teeth b. tube; between the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular

teeth c. colored or back; to the lingual of the teeth d. colored or back; between the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth ANS: b

The receptor is not placed to the lingual of the teeth. The receptor is positioned with the tube side facing the arch that is being exposed, and the receptor is placed in the mouth between the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth. The colored or back of the receptor does not face the arch that is being exposed, and the receptor is not placed to the lingual of the teeth. The colored or back of the receptor does not face the arch that is being exposed. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 243 OBJ: 5 | 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

6. Which of the following is a maxillary occlusal projection but not a

mandibular occlusal projection?

a. Topographic occlusal projection b. Lateral occlusal projection c. Cross-sectional occlusal projection d. Pediatric projection ANS: b

Occlusal projections include both the maxillary topographic projection and mandibular topographic projection. The lateral occlusal projection is a maxillary occlusal projection but not a mandibular occlusal projection. The mandibular cross-section occlusal projection does not have a maxillary counterpart. Occlusal projections include both the maxillary pediatric occlusal projection and the mandibular pediatric occlusal projection. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 244 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. Which occlusal projection is used to examine the palate and the

anterior teeth of the maxilla? a. Topographic occlusal projection b. Lateral occlusal projection c. Cross-sectional occlusal projection d. Pediatric projection ANS: a

anterior teeth of the mandible.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 244 OBJ: 3 | 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. Which occlusal projection is used to locate foreign bodies or salivary

stones in the region of the floor of the mouth? a. Topographic occlusal projection b. Lateral occlusal projection c. Cross-sectional occlusal projection d. Pediatric projection ANS: c

The topographic occlusal projection is used to examine the palate and the anterior teeth of the maxilla. The maxillary lateral occlusal projection is used to examine the palatal roots of molar teeth. The mandibular cross-sectional occlusal projection is used to examine the buccal and lingual aspects of the mandible. It also is used to locate foreign bodies or salivary stones in the region of the floor of the mouth. The maxillary pediatric occlusal projection is used to examine the anterior teeth of the maxilla. The mandibular pediatric occlusal projection is used to examine the anterior teeth of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 244 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. The pediatric projection is recommended for use in children ____

years old or younger. a. 2

b. 5 c. 8 d. 10 ANS: b

The recommended age includes children older than 2 years of age. The pediatric projection is recommended for use in children 5 years old or younger. The recommended age is less than 8 years old. The recommended age is less than 10 years old. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 244 OBJ: 3 | 5 | 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. For the maxillary topographic occlusal projection, the central ray is

directed at ____ degrees. a. +30 b. +45 c. +65 d. –30 ANS: c

The central ray is directed at more than +30 degrees for the maxillary topographic occlusal projection. The central ray is directed at more than +45 degrees for the maxillary topographic occlusal projection. The central ray is directed at +65 degrees. The central ray is not directed at –30 degrees. It would need to be at a positive vertical angulation for a maxillary image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 244 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

11. The dental image is a _______-dimensional picture of a

_______-dimensional object. a. two; two b. three; three c. two; three d. three; two ANS: c

The object is three-dimensional, meaning it has length, width, and depth. The dental image is two-dimensional, meaning is has length and width, but not depth. The dental image is a two-dimensional picture of a three-dimensional object. A dental image depicts an object in superior-inferior and anterior-posterior relationships. It does not depict the buccal-lingual relationship, or the depth of an object. The dental image is two-dimensional, and the object is three-dimensional. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 244 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. A dental image depicts which of the following dimensions of an

object? 1. Length 2. Width 3. Depth a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 3 d. 2, 3 ANS: b

The dental image does not depict depth. The dental image depicts length

and width, it does not depict depth. The dental image depicts width, but it does not depict depth. The dental image depicts length, but it does not depict depth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 244 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. The buccal object rule depends on a ________ image shift when

trying to locate vertically aligned images. With the buccal object rule, an object to the buccal of the reference object will move in the ________ direction as the shift. a. vertical; same b. vertical; opposite c. horizontal; same d. horizontal; opposite ANS: d

The buccal object rule depends on a horizontal rather than vertical image shift, and an object will move in the opposite rather than same direction. The buccal object rule depends on a horizontal rather than vertical image shift. An object to the buccal of the reference object will move in the opposite direction as the shift. The buccal object rule depends on a horizontal image shift when trying to locate vertically aligned images. With the buccal object rule, an object to the buccal of the reference object will move in the opposite direction as the shift. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 251 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB stands for

a. shift. b. similar. c. same. d. some. ANS: c

The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB does not stand for shift. The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB does not stand for similar. The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB stands for same. The "S" in the mnemonic SLOB does not stand for some. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 251 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. According to the SLOB rule, when two dental images are compared,

the object that lies to the lingual appears to have moved in the same direction as the position-indicating device (PID), and the object that lies to the buccal appears to have moved in the opposite direction as the PID. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The object that lies to the lingual appears to have moved in the same direction as the PID, and the object that lies to the buccal appears to have moved in the opposite direction as the PID. The object that lies to the lingual appears to have moved in the same rather than opposite direction as the PID, and the object that lies to the buccal appears to have moved in the opposite rather than same direction as the PID. The object that lies to the buccal appears to have moved in the opposite rather than same direction as the PID. The object that lies to the lingual

appears to have moved in the same rather than opposite direction as the PID. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 251 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. When the right-angle technique is used, an occlusal receptor is

exposed directing the central ray at ____ degrees to the receptor. a. 20 b. 45 c. 65 d. 90 ANS: d

An occlusal receptor is not exposed directing the central ray at 20 degrees to the receptor. An occlusal receptor is not exposed directing the central ray at 45 degrees to the receptor. An occlusal receptor is not exposed directing the central ray at 65 degrees to the receptor. An occlusal receptor is exposed directing the central ray at 90 degrees to the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 251 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 17. You need to take a maxillary occlusal image on your 4-year-old

patient. Which of the following will you need to do? a. Place the tube side of the receptor facing down. b. Direct the PID through the canine-premolar contact. c. Place the top of the PID at the tip of the nose.

d. Direct the PID at a +60 degrees angle. ANS: d

Place the receptor with the tube side facing the maxilla. Position the PID with the central ray directed through the midline of the arch toward the center of the receptor. Place the top edge of the PID between the child's eyebrows on the bridge of the nose. Direct the PID at a +60 degrees angle. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 247 OBJ: 5 | 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. You need to take a mandibular occlusal image on your 28-year-old

patient. Which of the following will you need to do? a. Place the tube side of the receptor facing up. b. Use a size 4 receptor. c. Place the bottom of the PID at your patient's chin. d. Direct the PID at a –35 degrees angle. ANS: b

Place the receptor with the tube side facing the mandible. Use a size 4 receptor. Center the PID over the patient's chin. Direct the PID at a –55 degrees angle. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 248 OBJ: 5 | 12 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. Your patient indicates he was shot around tooth number 30 with a

BB when he was younger. The BB is still there. He would like it removed. You have been asked to take a dental image of the area to

locate the buccal-lingual and anterior-posterior position of the BB. Which of the following would you take? a. Mandibular topographic occlusal image b. Right-angle technique c. Mandibular molar periapical image d. Mandibular occlusal image ANS: b

The mandibular topographic occlusal image is exposed with a –55 degrees vertical angulation. The right-angle technique uses the cross-sectional image to locate the buccal-lingual and anterior-posterior orientation of the object. One periapical receptor is exposed using proper technique. Next, an occlusal receptor is exposed with the central ray perpendicular (90 degrees) to the receptor. The mandibular molar periapical image can be used to locate the object but cannot be used to determine the buccal-lingual and anterior-posterior position of the BB. The mandibular occlusal image can be used to locate the object but cannot be used to determine the buccal-lingual and anterior-posterior position of the BB. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 252 OBJ: 9 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 20. Your 17-year-old patient has tooth number 6 impacted. Which of the

following would you take to evaluate the tooth? a. Maxillary pediatric occlusal projection b. Mandibular cross-sectional occlusal projection c. Maxillary lateral occlusal projection d. Maxillary topographic occlusal projection ANS: d

Although placement of the receptor and PID would be correct, the

number 2 size receptor would not show the entire canine. The size 4 receptor used for the adult maxillary occlusal image would cover a larger area of the maxilla and would show the entire canine. The mandibular cross-sectional would be used to evaluate foreign objects or salivary stones on the mandible. The maxillary lateral occlusal is used to evaluate the roots of the molar teeth. The maxillary occlusal would be used to evaluate an impacted canine on an adult. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 244 | Page 245 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_24.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The gag reflex is elicited by stimulation of the sensitive tissues of the a. larynx. b. pharynx. c. soft palate. d. hard palate. ANS: c

The gag reflex is not elicited by stimulation of the larynx. The gag reflex is not elicited by stimulation of the pharynx. The gag reflex is elicited by stimulation of the sensitive tissues of the soft palate. The gag reflex is not elicited by stimulation of the hard palate. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 260 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 2. The gag reflex is a(n) ___________ effort, preceded by

____________ of respiration. a. voluntary; an increased rate b. involuntary; cessation c. voluntary; cessation d. involuntary; an increased rate ANS: b

The gag reflex is not voluntary. It is not preceded by increased respiration. The gag reflex is an involuntary effort, preceded by cessation of respiration and contraction of the muscles in the throat and abdomen. The gag reflex is not voluntary. The gag reflex is not preceded by increased respiration. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 260 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 3. Which receptor placement is most likely to elicit the gag reflex? a. Maxillary premolar b. Maxillary molar c. Mandibular premolar d. Mandibular molar ANS: b

The maxillary premolar receptor placement is not the most likely to elicit the gag reflex. The maxillary molar receptor placement is most likely to elicit the gag reflex. In the patient with a hypersensitive gag reflex, the exposure sequence should be altered so that the maxillary molar receptors are exposed at the end of the procedure. The mandibular premolar receptor placement is not the most likely to elicit the gag reflex. The mandibular molar receptor placement is not the most likely to elicit the gag reflex. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 261 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 4. Which of the following choices would represent the suggested

receptor placement sequence for a patient who is likely to gag? 1. Anterior 2. Premolar 3. Molar a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 1, 3

c. 2, 3, 1 d. 3, 1, 2 ANS: a

Anterior, premolar, and then molar receptor placement would represent the suggested sequence for a patient who is likely to gag. The dental radiographer should always begin with anterior exposures. Anterior receptors are easier for the patient to tolerate and are less likely to elicit the gag reflex. Anterior receptors should be placed before premolar receptors. Anterior receptors should be placed before premolar and molar receptors. Anterior receptors should be placed before molar receptors. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 261 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 5. Which of the following could you do to prevent stimulating your

patient's gag reflex? a. Slide the receptor along his palate. b. Slowly place the receptor in his mouth to avoid stimulating his gag

reflex. c. Let the patient get used to each receptor placement, and wait 20 seconds before exposing the receptor. d. Put your finger on the tissue where the receptor will be placed to demonstrate the receptor placement. ANS: d

Sliding the receptor along the palate stimulates this sensitive area and causes the gag reflex. The longer the receptor placement takes, the more likely the patient is to gag. The receptor must be placed and exposed as quickly as possible. Waiting is more likely to precipitate the gag reflex. Suggestions to avoid stimulating the gag reflex include demonstrating receptor placement in the area where the receptor will be placed to

desensitize the tissue.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 261 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 6. Your patient warned you about her gag reflex. She said that no one

has ever been able to take dental images on her. She started gagging on the maxillary anterior images. You have tried several things but have not had any luck. You tried topical anesthetic on the soft palate, salt on her tongue, and having her lift her foot. What should you do? a. Inject a local anesthetic on her patient's throat and try again. b. Skip the images. c. Switch to a different type of intraoral receptor (film, PSP, or sensor). d. Take extraoral images to gather diagnostic information. ANS: d

Injections are not used to obtain dental images. Images are part of the patient record and cannot be skipped. An intraoral image cannot be used without stimulating the gag reflex. When intraoral images are impossible to obtain, the radiographer should use extraoral images to obtain diagnostic information. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 261 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care

7. You have just placed the receptor to expose the maxillary right molar

and your patient has started gagging. What should you do? a. Keep the receptor in her mouth, tell her to hang on, and expose the

receptor.

b. Keep the receptor in her mouth to acclimate her to the receptor. Then

remove it and try again. c. Take the receptor out of your patient's mouth as quickly as possible. d. Have the patient remove the receptor. ANS: c

Exposing the receptor while the patient is gagging could result in a retake. The patient will continue to gag or her gagging could increase while the receptor is in place. If the patient gags, the dental radiographer must remove the receptor as quickly as possible. You will be able to remove the receptor faster than the patient will be able to remove it. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 260 | Page 261 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 8. What can you do to reduce the risk of a gag reflex? a. Help the patient focus on not gagging. b. Discuss with your patient ways to prevent gagging. c. Have your patient hold her breath. d. Give your patient a cup of ice water to drink to try to reduce tactile

stimuli. ANS: d

You should distract your patient, not try to get him or her to focus on preventing gagging. Avoid using the term gagging. Do not tell the patient to hold his or her breath. You can give your patient a drink of ice water or put salt on his or her tongue. To help reduce the gag reflex, try to reduce tactile stimuli. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 262 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex

MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 9. Which of the following suggestions are intended to help reduce the

gag reflex? a. Instructing the patient to breathe rapidly through the nose b. Asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air c. Placing a small amount of baking soda on the tip of the tongue d. Asking the patient to perform jumping jacks for 5 minutes in the

treatment room ANS: b

Instructing the patient to breathe slowly rather than rapidly through the nose is another suggestion. Asking the patient to suspend an arm or leg in the air is a suggestion intended to help reduce the gag reflex. Placing a small amount of table salt on the tip of the tongue is another suggestion. Asking the patient to perform jumping jacks for 5 minutes in the treatment room is not a suggestion to help reduce the gag reflex. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 262 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.2. Describe techniques for patients with a severe gag reflex MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care

10. When taking images on a patient with a hearing disability, the dental

radiographer should ask the patient how he or she prefers to communicate, but should not ask the caregiver to act as an interpreter due to HIPAA privacy regulations. a. Both parts of the statement are true. b. Both parts of the statement are false. c. The first part of the statement is true; the second part of the statement

is false. d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part of the statement is true.

ANS: c

The dental radiographer may ask the caregiver to act as an interpreter. The dental radiographer should ask the patient how he or she prefers to communicate. The dental radiographer should ask the patient how he or she prefers to communicate and may ask the caregiver to act as an interpreter, use gestures or sign language, use assistive technology, or use written instructions. The dental radiographer should ask the patient how he or she prefers to communicate and may ask the caregiver to act as an interpreter. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 262 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before, during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 11. If a person is blind or visually impaired, the dental radiographer

must a. communicate using clear visual explanations. b. communicate using clear verbal explanations. c. not explain each procedure before performing it. d. gesture to another person in the presence of a person who is blind. ANS: b

Visual explanations will not work. If a person is blind or visually impaired, the dental radiographer must communicate using clear verbal explanations. The radiographer also must explain each step of the procedure before performing it. The radiographer must never gesture to another person in the presence of a person who is blind. A person who is blind is sensitive to this type of communication and may perceive this as the dental radiographer "talking behind his or her back." PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 262 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before,

during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 12. A developmental disability is a substantial impairment of mental or

physical functioning that occurs before age ____ years and is of indefinite duration. a. 12 b. 18 c. 19 d. 22 ANS: d

A developmental disability may occur after 12 years of age. A developmental disability may occur after 18 years of age. A developmental disability may occur after 19 years of age. A developmental disability is a substantial impairment of mental or physical functioning that occurs before age 22 years and is of indefinite duration. Examples include autism, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, and other neuropathies, and mental retardation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 263 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before, during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 13. In treating children with a primary or transitional dentition, the

bisecting technique is preferred, because the small size of the mouth precludes the placement of a receptor beyond the apical regions of the teeth. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

The bisecting technique is preferred, because the small size of the mouth precludes the placement of a receptor beyond the apical regions of the teeth. The bite-wing and occlusal techniques are also used in pediatric patients. The paralleling technique is not preferred over the bisecting technique. It is difficult to place a receptor beyond the apical regions of the teeth. It is difficult to place a receptor beyond the apical regions of the teeth due to the small size of the mouth. The paralleling technique is not preferred over the bisecting technique. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 264 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before, during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 14. ____________ periapical images can be used to examine the

edentulous arches. a. Eight b. Twelve c. Fourteen d. Eighteen ANS: c

More than eight periapical images are used. More than twelve periapical images are used. Fourteen periapical images (6 anterior and 8 posterior) can be used to examine the edentulous arches. Eighteen periapical images are used for a dentulous patient with teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 268 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before, during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special

needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 15. A size ____ receptor is typically used for the edentulous

examination. a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 ANS: c

A size 0 receptor is not typically used for the edentulous examination. A size 1 receptor is not typically used for the edentulous examination. A size 2 receptor is typically used for the edentulous examination. A size 4 receptor is not typically used for the edentulous examination. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 268 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. For a periapical examination in an edentulous patient, the receptor

should be positioned so that approximately ____________ of it extends beyond the edentulous ridge. a. one eighth b. one quarter c. one third d. one half ANS: c

More than one eighth should extend beyond the edentulous ridge. More than one quarter should extend beyond the edentulous ridge. The receptor should be positioned so that approximately one third of it extends beyond the edentulous ridge. Less than one half should extend beyond the edentulous ridge.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 268 OBJ: 10 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before, during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 17. Your patient is edentulous and has very little alveolar ridge

remaining. Which technique would you use for a periapical examination on your patient? a. Bisecting b. Paralleling c. Occlusal d. Interproximal ANS: a

If the alveolar ridges of the patient are severely resorbed, the bisecting technique is recommended for a periapical examination. The paralleling technique is not recommended for an edentulous patient with severely resorbed alveolar ridges. The occlusal technique is not recommended for an edentulous patient with severely resorbed alveolar ridges. The interproximal technique is not recommended for an edentulous patient with severely resorbed alveolar ridges. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 268 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.D.1. Describe techniques for patient management before, during, and after radiographic exposure, including patients with special needs MSC: NBDHE, 3.0 Planning and Managing Dental Hygiene Care 18. The mixed occlusal and periapical examination on an edentulous

patient consists of _______ size 4 receptors and ________ size 2 receptors.

a. two; four b. two; two c. four; four d. four; two ANS: a

The mixed occlusal and periapical examination consists of two size 4 receptors and four size 2 receptors. The combined occlusal and periapical examination consists of a total of 6 exposures; 1 maxillary topographic occlusal projection, 1 mandibular cross-sectional occlusal projection, and 4 standard molar periapical exposures. The mixed occlusal-periapical examination does not include two size 2 receptors. The mixed occlusal-periapical examination does not include four size 4 receptors. The mixed occlusal-periapical examination does not include four size 4 receptors and does not include two size 2 receptors. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 268 | Page 269 OBJ: 11 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. When preparing your patient for dental images, you should ask your

patient if she gags, because if she does, you need to do some additional preparation prior to taking the images on her. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

The dental radiographer must never bring up the subject of gagging. You should do the same preparation to prevent gagging for all of your patients. The power of suggestion can act as a strong psychogenic stimulus and can, in turn, elicit the gag reflex. You should do the same preparation to prevent gagging for all of your patients. The dental

radiographer must never bring up the subject of gagging. You should do the same preparation to prevent gagging for all of your patients. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 262 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_25.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Advantages of panoramic receptors over intraoral periapical receptors

include visualization of 1. impacted third molar teeth. 2. jaw fractures. 3. large lesions in the posterior mandible. a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 3 d. 2, 3 ANS: a

Advantages include visualization of impacted third molar teeth, jaw fractures, and large lesions in the posterior mandible. These cannot be adequately examined on intraoral projections. The panoramic image allows the dental professional to view a large area of the maxilla and mandible on a single projection. Advantages include large lesions in the posterior mandible. Advantages include jaw fractures. Advantages include third molar teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 273 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 2. A panoramic image is __________ image(s) taken using __________

technique. a. a series of; intraoral b. a series of; extraoral c. a single; intraoral d. a single; extraoral

ANS: d

A panoramic image is not a series of images and is not taken using an intraoral technique. A panoramic image is not a series of images. A panoramic image is not taken using an intraoral technique. A panoramic image is single image taken using an extraoral technique. An extraoral receptor is positioned outside the mouth during the exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 273 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. You are examining your patient's panoramic image. You notice that

the molars and premolars on the right side are larger than the teeth on the left side. What patient positioning error did you make? a. The patient's head was turned to the right. b. The patient's head was turned to the left. c. The patient is slumped. d. The patient's teeth are behind the focal trough. ANS: b

If the patient's head is turned to the right, the teeth on the patient's right side would be closer to the receptor and would be smaller. If the patient's head is turned to the left, the teeth on the patient's left side would be closer to the receptor and appear smaller and the teeth on the patient's right side would be magnified. If the patient's head is turned slightly to one side and not centered on the bite-block, the posterior structures on the side closest to the receptor appear smaller and the posterior structures on the side farthest from the receptor are larger. When the patient is slouched, slumped, or not standing with the shoulders back, the x-ray beam passes through more of the cervical spine because the beam is angled upward at a negative vertical angulation (–10 degrees). The cervical spine appears as a radiopacity in the center of the image and obscures diagnostic information. If the patient's anterior teeth are

aligned too far back on the bite-block or posterior to the focal trough, the teeth appear "fat" and out of focus on the image. The roots of the anterior teeth may appear to be cut off. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 283 | Page 284 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. (1) The panoramic image is the preferred image for the detection of

caries and periodontal disease. (2) The panoramic image is preferred for the evaluation of eruption patterns, growth, and development. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Bite-wing images are preferred rather than the panoramic image for the detection of caries. The panoramic image is preferred for evaluation of growth and development and eruption patterns. Periapical images are preferred for the detection of periodontal disease. The panoramic image is preferred for evaluation of growth and development and eruption patterns. A panoramic image should not be used to diagnose caries, periodontal disease, or periapical lesions. It is preferred to: evaluate the dentition and supporting structures, evaluate impacted teeth, evaluate eruption patterns, growth, and development, detect diseases, lesions, and conditions of the jaws, examine the extent of large lesions, and evaluate trauma. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 273 OBJ: 2 | 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

5. In panoramic imaging, the x-ray tube rotates around the patient's head

in one direction while the receptor rotates __________________ direction. a. horizontally in the same b. horizontally in the opposite c. vertically in the same d. vertically in the opposite ANS: b

The receptor does not rotate in the same direction. The x-ray tube rotates around the patient's head in one direction while the receptor rotates horizontally in the opposite direction. The patient may stand or sit in a stationary position, depending on the type of panoramic x-ray machine that is used. The receptor does not rotate vertically in the same direction. The receptor does not rotate vertically. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 273 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. In panoramic imaging, the movement of the receptor and the tubehead

produces an image through the process known as a. a ghost image. b. digitizing. c. digital subtraction. d. tomography. ANS: d

A ghost image is produced when a thick, dense object is located outside of the focal plane and close to the x-ray source. Digitize is to convert an image into digital form that, in turn, can be processed by a computer. Digital subtraction is a method of reversing the gray scale as an image is

viewed. The movement of the receptor and the tubehead produces an image through the process known as tomography. Tomography is a technique that allows the imaging of one layer, or section, of the body while blurring images of structures in other planes. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 273 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

7. In panoramic imaging, the pivotal point, or axis, around which the

cassette carrier and x-ray tubehead rotate is termed a a. terminal hinge axis. b. rotation center. c. tipping point. d. germinal center. ANS: b

The pivotal point is not the terminal hinge axis. The pivotal point, or axis, around which the cassette carrier and x-ray tubehead rotate is termed a rotation center. The pivotal point is not the tipping point. The pivotal point is not the germinal center. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 275 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. The rotational change in a panoramic machine allows the image layer

to conform to the ___________ shape of the dental arches. a. square b. tapering c. ovoid

d. elliptical ANS: d

The average shape of the dental arches is not square. The average shape of the dental arches is not tapering. The average shape of the dental arches is not ovoid. The center of rotation changes as the receptor and the tubehead rotate around the patient. This rotational change in a panoramic machine allows the image layer to conform to the elliptical shape of the average dental arches. The moving x-ray source and receptor generate a zone known as the focal trough. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 275 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

9. In panoramic imaging, the ___________ is a theoretical concept used

to determine where the dental arches must be positioned to achieve the clearest image. a. waypoint b. focal trough c. neutral zone d. home zone ANS: b

The waypoint is not a term used to determine where the dental arches must be positioned. The focal trough is a theoretical concept used to determine where the dental arches must be positioned to achieve the clearest image. The size and shape of the focal trough vary, depending on the manufacturer of the panoramic x-ray unit. The neutral zone is not a term used to determine where the dental arches must be positioned. The home zone is not a term used to determine where the dental arches must be positioned. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 275 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 10. Structures are clearly demonstrated on a panoramic image in a

_____________ zone. a. two-dimensional straight b. two-dimensional curved c. three-dimensional straight d. three-dimensional curved ANS: d

The structures are not two-dimensional straight. The structures are not two-dimensional. The structures are not straight. Structures are clearly demonstrated on a panoramic image in a three-dimensional curved zone. The structures located within the focal trough appear reasonably well defined on the resulting panoramic image. The structures positioned outside of the focal trough appear blurred or indistinct and are not readily visible on the panoramic image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 275 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

11. (1) The closer the rotation center is to the teeth, the narrower the

focal trough. (2) In most panoramic machines, the focal trough is wide in the anterior region and narrow in the posterior region. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

ANS: c

In most panoramic machines, the focal trough is narrow in the anterior region and wide in the posterior region. The closer the rotation center is to the teeth, the narrower the focal trough. The size and shape of the focal trough vary, depending on the manufacturer of the panoramic x-ray unit. The closer the rotation center is to the teeth, the narrower the focal trough. In most panoramic machines, the focal trough is narrow in the anterior region and wide in the posterior region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 275 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. (1) All panoramic units have the same focal trough size and shape.

(2) Panoramic units may have different receptor transport mechanisms. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Panoramic units may differ with regard to the size and shape of the focal trough. Panoramic units may have different receptor transport mechanisms. All panoramic units do not have the same focal trough size and shape. Panoramic units may have different receptor transport mechanisms. Panoramic units may differ with regard to the size and shape of the focal trough and the type of receptor transport mechanism used. Each panoramic x-ray unit has a focal trough that is designed to accommodate the average jaw. Each manufacturer provides specific instructions about patient positioning to ensure that the teeth are positioned within the focal trough. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 275

OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. Which component in the panoramic x-ray machine tubehead is most

different from that found in an intraoral x-ray machine tubehead? a. Filament b. Target c. Heat sink d. Collimator ANS: d

The panoramic x-ray tubehead is similar to an intraoral x-ray tubehead; each has a filament used to generate electrons. The panoramic x-ray tubehead is similar to an intraoral x-ray tubehead; each has a target used to produce x-rays. Both the panoramic x-ray tubehead and the intraoral tubehead have a heat sink. The collimator in the panoramic x-ray machine tubehead is most different from that found in an intraoral x-ray machine tubehead. The collimator used in the intraoral x-ray machine is a lead plate with a small round or rectangular opening in the middle. The collimator used in the panoramic x-ray machine is a lead plate with an opening in the shape of a narrow vertical slit. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 276 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. The function of the collimator used in the panoramic x-ray machine

is to ____________________. a. align the patient's teeth as accurately as possible in the focal trough. b. generate the x-rays. c. restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam.

d. prevent a ghost image. ANS: c

The head positioner is used to align the patient's teeth as accurately as possible in the focal trough. A filament in the tubehead is used to generate electrons and a target is used to produce x-rays. The function of the collimator is to restrict the size and shape of the x-ray beam. Removal of metal objects prevents most ghost images. It doesn't prevent anatomical ghost images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 276 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. The collimator used in panoramic imaging has an opening in the

shape of a _____________ slit. a. narrow horizontal b. narrow vertical c. wide horizontal d. wide vertical ANS: b

The collimator opening is vertical rather than horizontal. The collimator used in panoramic imaging has an opening in the shape of a narrow vertical slit. The x-ray beam emerges from the panoramic tubehead through the collimator as a narrow band. The beam passes through the patient and then exposes the receptor through another vertical slit in the receptor holder. The collimator opening is narrow rather than wide and vertical rather than horizontal. The collimator opening is narrow rather than wide. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 276 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing

panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 16. The vertical angulation in the tubehead of the panoramic unit a. is fixed in position so that the x-ray beam is directed slightly upward. b. is fixed in position so that the x-ray beam is directed slightly

downward. c. can be adjusted according to the size of the patient. d. can be adjusted for maxillary or mandibular images. ANS: a

The vertical angulation in the tubehead of the panoramic unit is fixed in position so that the x-ray beam is directed slightly upward, approximately –10 degrees. The tubehead is angled slightly upward. The vertical angulation is fixed in position and is not adjusted according to the size of the patient. The vertical angulation is fixed in position and is not adjusted for images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 276 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

17. The tubehead of the panoramic unit always rotates _________ the

patient's head as the receptor rotates _________ the patient. a. behind; behind b. in front of; in front of c. behind; in front of d. in front of; behind ANS: c

The image receptor rotates in front of the patient. The tubehead rotates behind the patient. The tubehead of the panoramic unit always rotates behind the patient's head as the receptor rotates in front of the patient. The tubehead rotates behind rather than in front of the patient's head and

the receptor rotates in front of rather than behind the patient.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 276 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. An anatomic structure that is located outside of the focal plane and

close to the x-ray source can cast a ghost image on the panoramic image. The ramus of the mandible is one example of a structure that can cast a ghost image on the panoramic image. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

A ghost image resembles its true image and is found on the opposite side of the image receptor; it appears blurred, magnified, and higher than the actual counterpart. Anatomic structures that are located laterally, such as the ramus of the mandible, or located centrally, such as the hard palate, can produce ghost images. A ghost image results when an anatomic structure or object is located outside of the focal plane and close to the x-ray source. Anatomic structures that are located laterally, such as the ramus of the mandible, or located centrally, such as the hard palate, can produce ghost images. The ramus of the mandible can produce a ghost image. A ghost image results when an anatomic structure or object is located outside of the focal plane and close to the x-ray source. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 276 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

19. Panoramic screen film is exposed by a. photons. b. electrons. c. intensifying screens in a cassette holder. d. a shutter in the cassette with visible light. ANS: c

A digital sensor is exposed by photons, however, panoramic screen film is not. Electrons travel from the cathode to the anode, but do not leave the x-ray tubehead. Panoramic screen film is exposed by intensifying screens in a cassette holder. A screen film is placed between two intensifying screens in a cassette holder. When the cassette holder is exposed to x-rays, the screens convert the x-ray energy into light, which, in turn, exposes the screen film. The cassette does not have a shutter. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 277 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

20. Green-sensitive film must be paired with intensifying screens that

produce ________ light. a. yellow b. blue c. red d. green ANS: d

There are no intensifying screens that produce yellow light. Blue-sensitive film must be paired with intensifying screens that produce blue light. There are no intensifying screens that produce red light. Green-sensitive film must be paired with intensifying screens that produce green light. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 277 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. Rare earth screens emit _______ light and are considered faster than

calcium tungstate screens, which emit _______ light. a. blue; green b. blue; blue c. green; green d. green; blue ANS: d

Rare earth screens do not emit blue light. Calcium tungstate screens emit blue light. Rare earth screens do not emit blue light. Calcium tungstate screens do not emit green light. Rare earth screens emit green light and are considered faster than calcium tungstate screens, which emit blue light. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 277 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 22. A cassette has ________ intensifying screen(s). a. one b. two c. three d. four ANS: b

A cassette has more than one intensifying screen. A cassette has two intensifying screens. One intensifying screen is placed on each side of

the film and held in place when the cassette is closed. A cassette does not have three intensifying screens. A cassette does not have four intensifying screens. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 277 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 23. You should have your 75-year-old patient remove her partial

dentures and her hearing aids before taking a panoramic image because ghost images occur that could cover diagnostic information on the panoramic image. a. Both parts of the statement are true. b. Both parts of the statement are false. c. The first part of the statement is true; the second part of the statement

is false. d. The first part of the statement is false; the second part of the statement is true. ANS: a

To avoid a ghost image artifact, the dental radiographer must instruct the patient to remove all dense objects in the head-and-neck region before positioning the patient for panoramic radiography. All metallic or dense objects (e.g., eyeglasses, earrings, necklaces, intraoral and extraoral piercings, hairpins, removable partial dentures, complete dentures, orthodontic retainers, hearing aids, napkin chains) must be removed before the exposure of a panoramic receptor or a ghost image will result that may obscure diagnostic information. A ghost image may obscure diagnostic information. The patient should remove her partial dentures and hearing aids. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 280 OBJ: 7

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.b. Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 24. A ghost image appears ___________ than/of its actual counterpart. a. on the same side b. higher c. more distinct d. smaller ANS: b

A ghost image appears on the opposite side of its actual counterpart. A ghost image appears higher than its actual counterpart. A ghost image appears more indistinct than its actual counterpart. A ghost image appears larger than its actual counterpart. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 281 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 25. The panoramic image of your patient has two radiopaque areas, one

on each side, in the bottom portion of the image. What do you need to do to correct the error? a. Remove the lead apron. b. Use a lead apron without a thyroid collar. c. Have the patient remove her partial denture. d. Have the patient stand up straight. ANS: b

The lead apron must always be worn. The lead apron causes a triangular radiolucent area at the bottom center of the panoramic image. If this error occurs, the lead apron should be adjusted. This error is caused by the thyroid collar. A thyroid collar should not be worn while exposing a panoramic image. A lead apron with a thyroid collar causes a bilateral

radiopaque artifact hat obstructs the mandible on a panoramic projection. A partial denture would cause ghost images. When the patient is slouched, slumped, or not standing with the shoulders back, the cervical spine appears as a radiopacity in the center of the image and obscures diagnostic information. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 281 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 26. If the patient's lips are not closed on the bite-block during the

exposure of a panoramic image, a _____________ shadow results that obscures the anterior teeth. a. light radiopaque b. dark radiopaque c. light radiolucent d. dark radiolucent ANS: d

The shadow would be dark and radiolucent rather than light and radiopaque. The shadow would be radiolucent rather than radiopaque. The shadow would be dark rather than light. If the patient's lips are not closed on the bite-block during the exposure of a panoramic image, a dark radiolucent shadow results that obscures the anterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 281 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 27. A "reverse smile line" is seen on the image if the patient's a. chin is tipped down.

b. chin is tipped up. c. teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block. d. teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block. ANS: b

An "exaggerated smile line" or "jack-o'-lantern" appearance is seen if the chin is tipped down. A "reverse smile line" is seen if the patient's chin is tipped up. The teeth appear "fat" and out of focus if the patient's anterior teeth are too far back on the bite-block. The teeth appear "skinny" and out of focus if the patient's anterior teeth are too far forward on the bite-block. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 282 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 28. An "exaggerated smile line" is seen on the dental image if the

patient's a. chin is tipped down. b. chin is tipped up. c. teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block. d. teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block. ANS: a

panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 29. The anterior teeth will appear "skinny" if the a. chin is tipped down. b. chin is tipped up. c. teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block. d. teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block. ANS: d

An "exaggerated smile line" is seen on the dental image if the patient's chin is tipped down. A "reverse smile line" is seen if the patient's chin is tipped up. The teeth appear "fat" and out of focus if the patient's anterior teeth are too far back on the bite-block. The teeth appear "skinny" and out of focus if the patient's anterior teeth are too far forward on the bite-block. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 282 | Page 283 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 30. The anterior teeth will appear "fat" if the a. chin is tipped down. b. chin is tipped up. c. teeth are positioned too far back on the bite-block. d. teeth are positioned too far forward on the bite-block. ANS: c

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 283 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 31. A disadvantage of panoramic dental imaging when contrasted with

intraoral dental imaging is a. panoramic imaging results in higher exposure to the patient than

intraoral imaging. b. fewer anatomic structures can be viewed on a panoramic image than on a complete intraoral imaging series. c. the images seen on a panoramic image are not as sharp as those on intraoral images because of the intensifying screens. d. the exposure of a panoramic image is readily accepted by the patient because there is no discomfort involved. ANS: c

Panoramic imaging has lower exposure to x-radiation than intraoral imaging. More anatomic structures can be viewed on a panoramic image than with a complete mouth series (CMS). A disadvantage of panoramic dental imaging when contrasted with intraoral dental imaging is the images seen on a panoramic image are not as sharp as those on intraoral images because of the intensifying screens. A panoramic image does not involve any discomfort. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 286 OBJ: 8 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 32. (1) The exposure settings (milliamperage, kilovoltage, and time) are

all adjustable on the panoramic machines. (2) Adjustments of milliamperage and kilovoltage are made to change between panoramic

and extraoral bite-wing exposures and time is used to accommodate different patient sizes. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The exposure time may be adjusted based on the type of image obtained (panoramic, extraoral bite-wing), and adjustments of milliamperage and kilovoltage are varied to accommodate patients of different sizes. The exposure settings are all adjustable on panoramic machines. Although predetermined exposure settings for panoramic imaging are available, the milliamperage and kilovoltage settings are adjustable and can be varied to accommodate patients of different sizes. The exposure time may be adjusted based on the type of image obtained (panoramic, extraoral bite-wing). The exposure settings are all adjustable on panoramic machines. The milliamperage and kilovoltage settings are adjustable and can be varied to accommodate patients of different sizes. The exposure time may be adjusted based on the type of image obtained (panoramic, extraoral bite-wing). PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 277 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 33. Which of the following should appear in a panoramic image that was

taken correctly? a. The posterior teeth on the right side appear larger than the posterior

teeth on the left side. b. The anterior teeth are narrow. c. The hard palate appears on the apical portion of the maxillary teeth.

d. The pulp chambers are clear and visible in the anterior teeth. ANS: d

The posterior teeth on the right and left sides should be the same size. The anterior teeth should not be excessively narrow or wide. The hard palate appears above the apices of the maxillary teeth and is superimposed over the maxillary sinus. The anterior teeth are in focus with pulp chambers visible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 280 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 34. Your digital panoramic image appears dark and has burned-out

areas. Which of the following would you need to adjust in order to have a diagnostic image? a. Computer software b. Time c. Focal trough d. Patient positioning ANS: a

With digital imaging, the overexposed image may be corrected with the use of computer software; the underexposed image cannot. The exposure time may be adjusted based on the type of image obtained (panoramic, extraoral bite-wing). The structures located within the focal trough appear reasonably well defined on the resulting panoramic image. The structures positioned outside of the focal trough appear blurred or indistinct and are not readily visible on the panoramic image. Patient positioning errors create a distorted image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 280 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.ii. Describe appropriate technique for exposing

panoramic radiography MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_26.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An extraoral image receptor is placed __________ the mouth during

x-ray exposure. Extraoral imaging is used to image _________ areas of the skull or jaws. a. outside; small b. outside; large c. inside; small d. inside; large ANS: b

Extraoral imaging is used to view large areas of the skull or jaws. An extraoral image receptor is placed outside the mouth during x-ray exposure. Extraoral imaging is used to image large areas of the skull or jaws. A variety of projections are used in extraoral imaging, and the choice of projection depends on what information is needed. An intraoral image receptor is placed inside the mouth. An extraoral image is used to examine large areas of the skull or jaws. An intraoral image receptor is placed inside the mouth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 290 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

2. (1) A thyroid collar is used for Waters, submentovertex, and reverse

Towne projections. (2) A thyroid collar is not used for the lateral jaw, lateral cephalometric, and the posteroanterior projections. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true.

ANS: d

A thyroid collar is not used for Waters, submentovertex, and reverse Towne projections. A thyroid collar is not used for the lateral jaw, lateral cephalometric, and the posteroanterior projections. A thyroid collar is not used for Waters, submentovertex, and reverse Towne projections. A lead apron without a thyroid collar should be used. The lead apron should be placed low around the neck so that it does not block the x-ray beam. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 292 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 3. (1) Temporomandibular joint tomography is used to evaluate the

condyle, articular eminence, and glenoid fossa. (2) Other landmarks are blurred in TMJ tomography. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

TMJ tomography provides imaging of the bony components of the TMJ. As a result, the condyle, the articular eminence, and the glenoid fossa can all be examined on an image known as the tomogram. Tomography is a technique used to show structures within a selected plane while blurring structures outside the selected plane. Temporomandibular joint tomography is used to evaluate the condyle, articular eminence, and glenoid fossa. TMJ tomography is a technique used to show structures located within a selected plane of tissue while blurring structures outside the selected plane. Other landmarks are blurred in TMJ tomography. Temporomandibular joint tomography is used to evaluate the condyle, articular eminence, and glenoid fossa. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 298 | Page 304 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 4. Which of the following would you evaluate using an extraoral lateral

cephalometric image? a. Gutta percha placement in the root canal b. Level of crestal bone c. Recurrent decay d. Growth and development ANS: d

The intraoral periapical image is used to evaluate gutta percha root canal fillings. The intraoral image is used to evaluate the integrity of the crest of alveolar bone. The intraoral image is used to evaluate recurrent decay. The extraoral image is typically used to evaluate facial growth and development, trauma, and disease and developmental abnormalities. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 293 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 5. Extraoral images may be used in conjunction with intraoral images.

Extraoral images are not as defined or sharp as intraoral images. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

An extraoral projection may be used alone or in conjunction with

intraoral images. Like the panoramic projection, an extraoral image does not appear as defined or sharp as when is seen on an intraoral projection. Extraoral images may be used in conjunction with intraoral images. Extraoral images are not as defined or sharp as intraoral images. Extraoral images are not as defined or sharp as intraoral images. Extraoral images may be used in conjunction with intraoral images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 290 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 6. Which of the following is the most commonly used extraoral film

size? a. 15 × 30 cm b. 5 × 12 inch c. 6 × 12 inch d. 8 × 10 inch ANS: d

The 15 × 30 cm is not the most commonly used extraoral film size. The 5 × 12 inch is not the most commonly used extraoral film size. The 6 × 12 inch is not the most commonly used extraoral film size. The 8 × 10 inch is the most commonly used extraoral film size. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 290 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 7. An occlusal receptor (size ____) may be used for some extraoral

images. a. 0

b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 ANS: d

A size 0 receptor is not used for extraoral images. A size 1 receptor is not used for extraoral images. A size 2 receptor is not used for extraoral images. An occlusal receptor (size 4) may be used for some extraoral images. In film based extraoral imaging, the occlusal film is used is not a screen film and does not require the use of screens for exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 290 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 8. An occlusal receptor ________ be used for some extraoral images.

When used extraorally, it covers a ________ area than a screen film. a. may; smaller b. may not; smaller c. may; larger d. may not; larger ANS: a

An occlusal receptor may be used for some extraoral images. When used extraorally, it covers a smaller area than a screen film. The occlusal film used extraorally requires more radiation exposure than does a screen film. An occlusal receptor may be used for some extraoral images. An occlusal receptor covers a smaller area than a screen film. An occlusal receptor may be used for some extraoral images. An occlusal receptor covers a smaller area than a screen film. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 290 | Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.A.3.b. Select appropriate image receptor size depending

on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 9. The front side of the cassette is typically constructed of ________ and

permits the passage of the x-ray beam, whereas the back side is made of _________ to reduce scatter radiation. a. metal; metal b. plastic; plastic c. plastic; metal d. metal; plastic ANS: c

The front side of the cassette is not constructed of metal because metal would attenuate the x-ray beam. The back side of the cassette is not constructed of plastic because this would permit the passage of x-rays and expose the patient to radiation. The front side of the cassette is typically constructed of plastic and permits the passage of the x-ray beam, whereas the back side is made of metal to reduce scatter radiation. Metal would attenuate the beam before it reached the image receptor and plastic would expose the patient to more radiation. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

10. Which of the following is the fastest recommended screen and

screen film combination? a. Calcium tungstate screen with blue light b. Calcium tungstate screen with green light c. Rare earth screen with blue light d. Rare earth screen with green light ANS: d

The rare earth screen with green light is the fastest recommended screen

and screen film combination. To minimize patient exposure, the fastest film and screen combination that provides a diagnostic image should be used. A calcium tungstate screen with blue light is not the fastest combination. A calcium tungstate screen should not be used with green light. A rare earth screen should not be used with blue light. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 11. For the transcranial projection, the central ray is directed toward a

point _____ inches above and 0.5 inches behind the opening of the ear canal. a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 2.0 d. 4.0 ANS: c

The central ray is not directed toward a point 0.5 inches above the opening of the ear canal. The central ray is not directed toward a point 1.0 inches above the opening of the ear canal. The central ray is directed toward a point 2.0 inches above and 0.5 inches behind the opening of the ear canal. The central ray is not directed toward a point 4.0 inches above the opening of the ear canal. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 298 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 12. Scatter radiation

a. increases film fog. b. increases image contrast. c. decreases film fog. d. decreases density. ANS: a

Scatter radiation increases film fog and reduces image contrast. Scatter radiation decreases image contrast. Scatter radiation increases film fog. Scatter radiation increases overall image density. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 13. (1) A grid can be used to decrease scatter radiation, decrease film

fog, and increase contrast on film and PSP receptors. (2) A grid should only be used when it is necessary to improve image quality and increase contrast because it requires increased x-ray exposure. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

In film-based imaging, a grid is a device that may be used to reduce the amount of scatter radiation that reaches an extraoral film during exposure. A grid can be used to decrease film fog and increase the contrast of the image. A grid should be used only when improved image quality and high contrast are necessary. A grid can be used to decrease scatter radiation, decrease film fog, and increase contrast on film and PSP receptors. A grid should only be used when it is necessary to improve image quality and increase contrast because using a grid requires increased x-ray exposure. A grid can be used to decrease scatter radiation, decrease film fog, and increase contrast on film and PSP

receptors. A grid should only be used when it is necessary to improve image quality and increase contrast because using a grid requires increased x-ray exposure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 14. A grid is composed of a series of a. wire mesh that is similar to the screen in a window or door. b. copper wires around an armature. c. thin lead strips. d. thick lead strips. ANS: c

A grid is not a wire mesh. A grid is not composed of copper wires around an armature. A grid is composed of a series of thin lead strips embedded in a material that permits the passage of the x-ray beam. A grid is not composed of a series of thick lead strips. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 15. The grid is placed between the ____________ and the

______________. a. aluminum filter; PID b. PID; patient's head c. patient's head; film or PSP receptors d. film or PSP receptors; cassette ANS: c

The grid is not placed between the aluminum filter and the PID. The grid is not placed between the PID and the patient's head. The grid is placed between the patient's head and the film or PSP receptors. The grid is not placed between the film or PSP receptors and the cassette. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

16. To compensate for the strips found in the grid, _______________

must be used to expose a film or PSP receptor. a. increased kilovoltage b. increased milliamperage c. increased exposure time d. decreased exposure time ANS: c

Increased kilovoltage is not used to compensate for the strips found in the grid. Increased milliamperage is not used to compensate for the strips found in the grid. Increased exposure time must be used to expose a film or PSP receptor. Decreased exposure time is not used to compensate for the strips found in the grid. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 291 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 17. The lateral jaw projection a. requires the use of a special x-ray unit. b. provides for more diagnostic information than a panoramic image. c. is used to examine the anterior portion of the mandible.

d. is valuable for patients with limited jaw opening because of a fracture

or swelling. ANS: d

Lateral jaw imaging does not require the use of a special x-ray unit; a standard intraoral x-ray machine can be used. Although lateral jaw imaging is useful, the panoramic image is preferred because more diagnostic information is obtained. Lateral jaw imaging is valuable for use in children. Lateral jaw projection is valuable for use in children, in patients with limited jaw opening due to a fracture or swelling, and in patients who have difficulty stabilizing or tolerating intraoral receptor placement. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 292 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 18. Which of the following choices is a type of lateral jaw projection? a. Lateral cephalometric projection b. Reverse Towne projection c. Waters projection d. Body of the mandible projection ANS: d

The lateral cephalometric projection is considered to be skull imaging. The reverse Towne projection is considered to be skull imaging. The Waters projection is considered to be skull imaging. The body of the mandible projection is a lateral jaw projection. The purpose is to evaluate impacted teeth, fractures, and lesions located in the body of the mandible. This projection demonstrates the mandibular premolar and molar regions as well as the inferior border of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 292

OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 19. For which of the following projections would be you place the

receptor parallel to the patient's cheek and have the patient tip her head 15 degrees toward the receptor with her chin slightly extended and elevated? a. Lateral cephalometric projection b. Ramus of the mandible projection c. Reverse Towne projection d. Waters projection ANS: b

For the lateral cephalometric projection, the receptor is placed perpendicular to the floor in a receptor-holding device. The long axis of the receptor is positioned horizontally; the left side of the patient's head is positioned adjacent to the receptor. The midsagittal plane (an imaginary plane that divides the face in half) must be aligned perpendicular to the floor and parallel to the receptor. For the ramus of the mandible projection, the receptor is placed flat against the patient's cheek and is centered over the ramus of the mandible. The receptor must also be positioned parallel with the body of the mandible. The head is tipped approximately 15 degrees toward the side being imaged. The chin is extended and elevated slightly. For the reverse Towne projection, the receptor is positioned perpendicular to the floor in a receptor-holding device. The long axis of the receptor is positioned vertically, the patient faces the receptor, with the head tipped down and the mouth open as wide as possible; the chin rests on the chest, and the top of the forehead touches the receptor. For the Waters projection the receptor is positioned perpendicular to the floor in a receptor-holding device. The long axis of the receptor is positioned vertically, and the patient faces the receptor and elevates the chin; the chin touches the receptor, and the tip of the nose is positioned 1/2 to 1 inch away from the receptor. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the head is

centered over the receptor.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 292 | Page 293 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 20. For the _____________ projection, the patient's face is against the

receptor with both the forehead and chin touching the receptor. a. posteroanterior b. lateral cephalometric c. reverse Towne d. Waters ANS: a

For the posteroanterior projection, the patient faces the receptor; the forehead and nose both touch the receptor. The midsagittal plane is aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the Frankfort plane is aligned parallel to the floor. The head is centered over the receptor. For the lateral cephalometric projection the left side of the patient's head is positioned adjacent to the receptor. The midsagittal plane (an imaginary plane that divides the face in half) must be aligned perpendicular to the floor and parallel to the receptor. For the reverse Towne projection, the patient faces the receptor, with the head tipped down and the mouth open as wide as possible; the chin rests on the chest, and the top of the forehead touches the receptor. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the head is centered on the receptor. For the Waters projection, the patient faces the receptor and elevates the chin; the chin touches the receptor, and the tip of the nose is positioned 1/2 to 1 inch away from the receptor. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the head is centered over the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 294

OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 21. The beam should be directed _______________ degrees for the

ramus of the mandible projection. a. downward at 15 to 20 b. upward at 15 to 20 c. downward at 45 d. upward at 45 ANS: b

The beam should not be directed downward at 15 to 20 degrees. The beam should be directed upward at 15 to 20 degrees for the ramus of the mandible projection. The central ray is directed to a point posterior to the third molar region on the side opposite the receptor. The beam must be directed perpendicular to the receptor. The beam should not be directed downward at 45 degrees. The beam should not be directed upward at 45 degrees. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 293 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 22. The left side of the patient's head is positioned adjacent to the

cassette for the _____________ projection. a. lateral cephalometric b. posteroanterior c. Waters d. submentovertex ANS: a

The left side of the patient's head is positioned adjacent to the cassette

for the lateral cephalometric projection. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor and parallel to the receptor. The Frankfort plane is aligned parallel to the floor. The head is centered over the receptor. The patient faces the receptor for the posteroanterior projection; the forehead and nose both touch the receptor. The midsagittal plane is aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the Frankfort plane is aligned parallel to the floor. The head is centered over the receptor. The patient faces the receptor and elevates the chin for the Waters projection; the chin touches the receptor, and the tip of the nose is positioned 0.5 to 1 inch away from the receptor. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the head is centered over the receptor. The patient's head and neck are tipped back as far as possible for the submentovertex projection; the vertex of the skull touches the receptor. Both the midsagittal plane and the Frankfort plane are aligned perpendicular to the floor. The head is centered on the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 293 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

23. The patient's head and neck are tipped back as far as possible for the

_____________ projection. a. lateral cephalometric b. posteroanterior c. Waters d. submentovertex ANS: d

The left side of the patient's head is positioned adjacent to the cassette for the lateral cephalometric projection. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor and parallel to the receptor. The Frankfort plane is aligned parallel to the floor. The head is centered over

the receptor. The patient faces the receptor for the posteroanterior projection; the forehead and nose both touch the receptor. The midsagittal plane is aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the Frankfort plane is aligned parallel to the floor. The head is centered over the receptor. The patient faces the receptor and elevates the chin for the Waters projection; the chin touches the receptor, and the tip of the nose is positioned 0.5 to 1 inch away from the receptor. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the head is centered over the receptor. The patient's head and neck are tipped back as far as possible for the submentovertex projection; the vertex of the skull touches the receptor. Both the midsagittal plane and the Frankfort plane are aligned perpendicular to the floor. The head is centered on the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 298 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

24. Your patient thinks she has fractured her zygomatic arch. Which of

the following projections would you take? a. Lateral cephalometric b. Posteroanterior c. Waters d. Submentovertex ANS: d

The lateral cephalometric projection is used to evaluate facial growth and development, trauma, and disease and developmental abnormalities. The posteroanterior projection is used to evaluate facial growth and development, trauma, and disease and developmental abnormalities. The Waters projection is used to evaluate the maxillary sinus area. This projection also demonstrates the frontal and ethmoid sinuses, the orbits, and the nasal cavity. The submentovertex projection is used to evaluate

fractures of the zygomatic arch.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 298 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 25. You have been asked to take a dental image to locate a fracture at the

neck of the condyle. Which projection would you take? a. Reverse Towne b. Posteroanterior c. Waters d. Submentovertex ANS: a

The purpose of the reverse Towne projection is to identify fractures of the condylar neck and ramus area. The purpose of the posteroanterior projection is to evaluate facial growth and development, trauma, and disease and developmental abnormalities. The purpose of the Waters projection is to evaluate the maxillary sinus area. This projection also demonstrates the frontal and ethmoid sinuses, the orbits, and the nasal cavity. The purpose of the submentovertex projection is to identify the position of the condyles, demonstrate the base of the skull, and evaluate fractures of the zygomatic arch. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 298 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 26. In order to take this projection, you need to have your patient face

the receptor, touch his forehead to the receptor, tuck his chin down to his chest, and open his mouth as wide as he can. Which projection is this?

a. Waters b. Posteroanterior c. Reverse Towne d. Submentovertex ANS: c

For the Waters projection, the patient faces the receptor and elevates the chin; the chin touches the receptor, and the tip of the nose is positioned 1/2 to 1 inch away from the receptor. The midsagittal plane must be aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the head is centered over the receptor. For the posteroanterior projection, the patient faces the receptor; the forehead and nose both touch the receptor. The midsagittal plane is aligned perpendicular to the floor, and the Frankfort plane is aligned parallel to the floor. The head is centered over the receptor. For the reverse Towne projection, the patient faces the receptor, with the head tipped down and the mouth open as wide as possible; the chin rests on the chest, and the top of the forehead touches the receptor. For the submentovertex projection, the patient's head and neck are tipped back as far as possible; the vertex (top) of the skull touches the receptor. Both the midsagittal plane and the Frankfort plane are aligned perpendicular to the floor. The head is centered on the receptor. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 298 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique 27. The purpose of the transcranial projection is to evaluate the articular

eminence and _________ surface of the condyle. a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior ANS: c

The transcranial projection does not evaluate the anterior surface of the condyle. The transcranial projection does not evaluate the posterior surface of the condyle. The purpose of the transcranial projection is to evaluate the articular eminence and superior surface of the condyle. This projection can also be used to evaluate movement of the condyle when the mouth is opened and to compare the joint spaces. The transcranial projection does not evaluate the inferior surface of the condyle. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 298 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.b.i. Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.3 Technique

Chapter_27.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. (1) Three-dimensional imaging provides a more accurate image than

traditional two-dimensional imaging. (2) Locations, distances, sizes, and shapes of pathology and anatomic landmarks, including eruption patterns, are more accurately represented with three-dimensional imaging. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Three-dimensional imaging provides more detailed information allowing for a more accurate interpretation. These geometric characteristics limit the accurate interpretation of traditional two-dimensional images. The dental practitioner, therefore, may not have the ability to evaluate pathology (e.g., bony and soft tissue), distances to critical anatomic landmarks (e.g., maxillary sinus, mandibular canal), locations of impacted teeth, eruption patterns, or other concerns of the oral and maxillofacial complex. Three-dimensional imaging provides a more accurate image than traditional two-dimensional imaging. Locations, distances, sizes, and shapes of pathology and anatomic landmarks, including eruption patterns, are more accurately represented with three-dimensional imaging. Locations, distances, sizes, and shapes of pathology and anatomic landmarks, including eruption patterns, are more accurately represented with three-dimensional imaging. Three-dimensional imaging provides a more accurate image than traditional two-dimensional imaging. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 306 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography)

MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. Three-dimensional imaging is encoded for handling, storage, and

transmission by which of the following? a. Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) b. Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM) c. Voxel d. Spatial resolution ANS: b

Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) is the term used to describe computer-assisted digital imaging in dentistry. The universal format for handling, storing, and transmitting three-dimensional images is called Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine. Voxel refers to the smallest element of a three-dimensional image. Spatial resolution is a measurement of pixel size in multiplanar reconstruction. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 306 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. The reconstruction of raw data into images when imported into

viewing software to create three anatomic planes of the body is called a. multiplanar reconstruction. b. axial plane. c. coronal plane. d. sagittal plane. ANS: a

The reconstruction of raw data into images when imported into viewing software to create three anatomic planes of the body is called multiplanar reconstruction. Axial plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts. Coronal plane is a vertical

plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior sides. Sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left sides. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 306 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. The number of gray scales available to be chosen for each pixel in the

image is called a. two-dimensional volume rendering. b. three-dimensional volume rendering. c. spatial resolution. d. contrast resolution. ANS: d

The number of gray scales is not called two-dimensional volume rendering. Three-dimensional volume rendering is a three-dimensional shape that is created from two-dimensional images. Spatial resolution is a measurement of pixel size in multiplanar reconstruction. The number of gray scales available to be chosen for each pixel in the image is called contrast resolution. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 309 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. (1) Until recently, three-dimensional imaging has been used primarily

for medical image purposes. (2) Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) was developed for use in dentistry to evaluate the oral and maxillofacial areas of the head and neck. a. Both statements are true.

b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

In the past, three-dimensional imaging was performed primarily with medical procedures. Today, manufacturers of CBCT have developed three-dimensional imaging specifically to evaluate the oral and maxillofacial complex. For years, three-dimensional imaging was primarily used in medicine. Today, manufacturers of CBCT units have developed three-dimensional imaging specifically to evaluate the oral and maxillofacial complex. Until recently, three-dimensional imaging has been used primarily for medical image purposes. Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) was developed for use in dentistry to evaluate the oral and maxillofacial areas of the head and neck. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 306 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 6. (1) Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) utilizes a vertical,

narrow x-ray beam, similar to panoramic imaging, to acquire three-dimensional information. (2) The source of radiation in the CBCT machines rotates around the head of the patient. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Cone-beam computed tomography utilizes a cone-shaped x-ray beam to acquire three-dimensional information. The source of radiation in the CBCT machines rotates around the head of the patient. Cone-beam computed tomography does not utilize a vertical, narrow x-ray beam to

acquire three-dimensional information. The source of radiation in the CBCT machines rotates around the head of the patient. Cone-beam computed tomography utilizes a cone-shaped x-ray beam to acquire three-dimensional information. The source of radiation in the CBCT machines rotates around the head of the patient. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 306 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. With CBCT, the divergent rays exit the machine and some of the

radiation is attenuated by the patient. In this statement, attenuated means a. to dilute. b. to amplify. c. to increase the strength of. d. to intensify. ANS: a

Attenuate means to dilute. With CBCT, the divergent rays exit the machine and some of the radiation is attenuated by the patient. In this statement, attenuated means to dilute, to make thin or weak, or to reduce the strength of the divergent rays as they pass through the body. Some of the radiation passes through the patient and is received by a digital receptor. To amplify is the opposite of attenuate. To increase is the opposite of attenuate. To intensify is the opposite of attenuate. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 307 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. The acronym, DICOM, stands for

a. Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine. b. Direct Imaging and Cone-beam Modality. c. Distance Imaging and Communications in Medicine. d. Divergent Images and Cone-beam Modus. ANS: a

DICOM stands for Digital Imaging and Communication in Medicine. DICOM does not stand for Direct Imaging and Cone-beam Modality. DICOM does not stand for Distance Imaging and Communications in Medicine. DICOM does not stand for Divergent Images and Cone-beam Modus. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 306 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

9. The information the receptor receives following exposure to the x-ray

beam is called a. computer analysis. b. image. c. raw data. d. DICOM data. ANS: c

The information on the receptor is not called computer analysis. The information on the receptor is not the image. The information that the receptor receives is termed the raw data. This raw data, which is three-dimensional in volume, undergoes reconstruction forming a stack of axial images termed DICOM images. The information on the receptor is not DICOM data. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 307 OBJ: 1 | 2

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. When viewed together, the axial, coronal, and sagittal images are

referred to as a. three-dimensional digital imaging. b. multiplanar reconstructed images (MPR). c. cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT). d. cone-beam volume tomography (CBVT). ANS: b

Three-dimensional digital imaging is an image that demonstrates the anatomy in three dimensions. When viewed together, the axial, coronal, and sagittal images are referred to as multiplanar reconstructed images or MPR images. Cone-beam computed tomography (CBCT) is computer-assisted digital imaging in dentistry; this imaging technique uses a cone-shaped x-ray beam to acquire information and present it in three dimensions. Cone-beam volume tomography (CBVT) is computer-assisted digital imaging in dentistry, used interchangeably with cone-beam volume imaging (CBVI). PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 307 OBJ: 1 | 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. (1) One of the advantages of using DICOM Data is that images

among dental professionals, imaging centers, and physicians may be shared. (2) The volume of data produced is similar to medical computed tomography but CBCT uses more radiation to acquire the images. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

CBCT does not use more radiation to acquire the images. One advantage of using DICOM Data is that images may be shared. One of the advantages of using DICOM Data is that images among dental professionals, imaging centers, and physicians may be shared. The volume of data produced is similar to medical computed tomography, but CBCT uses much less radiation to acquire the images. One advantage of using DICOM Data is that images may be shared. CBCT does not use more radiation to acquire the images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 308 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. (1) Contrast resolution and the size of the field of view can both be

adjusted on CBCT machines. (2) Spatial resolution cannot be adjusted. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

Spatial resolution can be adjusted. Contrast resolution and the size of the field of view can both be adjusted on CBCT machines. Spatial resolution can be adjusted. Contrast resolution refers to the number of gray scales available, and spatial resolution is the measurement, in millimeters, of the size of pixels in the MPR images. Factors that can be altered when scanning the patient include the size of the field of view and the resolution (contrast and spatial). PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 309

OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. The specialized equipment necessary for three-dimensional imaging

that accepts the raw data and converts it to a stack of axial images called DICOM images is called the a. computer. b. control panel. c. imaging hardware. d. CBCT machine. ANS: a

The specialized equipment necessary for three-dimensional imaging includes the CBCT machine, a computer, and various types of viewing software. The CBCT machine is comparable in size and appearance to a panoramic machine. In a single rotation, the source of radiation and the receptor capture the field of view by use of a solid-state flat panel detector. This raw data is sent to the computer. The computer is attached to the CBCT machine, and it accepts the raw data and converts it into a stack of axial images called DICOM images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 309 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. Viewing software allows the practitioner to select the region of

interest and to scroll through these images on a computer monitor to create three-dimensional information that will assist in ____________. 1. obtaining insurance reimbursement 2. referrals 3. diagnosis and treatment planning

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1, 2, 3 ANS: c

Obtaining insurance reimbursement is not the purpose of the viewing software. Gaining referrals is not the purpose of the viewing software. Viewing software allows the practitioner to select the region of interest and to scroll through these images on a computer monitor to create three-dimensional information that will assist in diagnosis and treatment planning. Each CBCT machine has its proprietary viewing software, but many third-party DICOM viewing software packages are available with additional features. Obtaining insurance reimbursement and gaining referrals is not the purpose of the viewing software. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 309 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. Common uses of three-dimensional imaging include which of the

following? 1. Implant placement 2. Extraction or exposure of impacted teeth 3. Definition of anatomic structures 4. Airway and sinus analysis 5. Evaluation of temporomandibular joint disorders a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 b. 2, 4, 5 c. 1, 2, 3 d. 3, 4 ANS: a

Some common uses of three-dimensional imaging include: implant

placement, extraction or exposure of impacted teeth, definition of anatomic structures, endodontic assessment, airway and sinus analysis, evaluation of temporomandibular joint disorders, orthodontic evaluation, and pathology concerns. Common uses include more than: extraction or exposure of impacted teeth, airway and sinus analysis, and evaluation of temporomandibular joint disorders. Common uses include more than: implant placement, extraction or exposure of impacted teeth, and definition of anatomic structures. Common uses include more than: definition of anatomic structures and airway and sinus analysis. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 309 | Page 311 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. (1) Failure of the dental practitioner to evaluate, interpret, and

document observations outside the region of dental interest could result in negative consequences for the patient. (2) It is not the responsibility of the dental practitioner to recognize findings and pathology outside the region of dental interest. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

It is the responsibility of the dental practitioner to recognize findings and pathology outside the region of dental interest. Failure of the dental practitioner to evaluate, interpret, and document observations outside the region of dental interest could result in negative consequences for the patient. Interpretation of CBCT images requires training so that the dental practitioner can recognize findings outside the region of interest, specifically outside the maxilla and the mandible. Failure of the dental practitioner to evaluate, interpret, and document observations outside the

region of dental interest could result in negative consequences for the patient. It is the responsibility of the dental practitioner to recognize findings and pathology outside the region of dental interest. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 311 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. (1) In preparation for a CBCT scan, you should explain to your

patient how she will be positioned and the length of time she will need to be motionless. (2) Your patient will be able to leave her jewelry on but will need to remove her partial denture. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

Prior to the CBCT procedure, instructions given to the patient include the removal of all metallic items in the head and neck region, including jewelry, eyeglasses, and removable dental appliances. In preparation for a CBCT scan, you should explain to your patient how they will be positioned (sitting, standing, supine, and depending on the type of scan you may need to ask them to keep their upper and lower teeth separated) and the length of time they will need to be motionless. In preparation for a CBCT scan, you should explain to your patient how they will be positioned (sitting, standing, supine, and depending on the type of scan you may need to ask them to keep their upper and lower teeth separated) and the length of time they will need to be motionless. Prior to the CBCT procedure, instructions given to the patient include the removal of all metallic items in the head and neck region, including jewelry, eyeglasses, and removable dental appliances. In preparation for a CBCT scan, you should explain to your patient how they will be positioned

(sitting, standing, supine, and depending on the type of scan you may need to ask them to keep their upper and lower teeth separated) and the length of time they will need to be motionless. Prior to the CBCT procedure, instructions given to the patient include the removal of all metallic items in the head and neck region, including jewelry, eyeglasses, and removable dental appliances. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 311 | Page 312 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 18. Your patient is concerned about the amount of radiation she is

receiving from the dental x-rays she has been receiving. You will be taking a CBCT scan. Based on evidence-based research, you can share with your patient that the CBCT scan is equal to which of the following? a. Three or four panoramic images b. Three or four full-mouth series of intraoral images c. A CT procedure of the head and neck d. A set of bite-wing images ANS: b

The radiation dose of a typical CBCT scan is not equal to three or four panoramic images. The radiation dose of a typical CBCT scan is not equal to three or four full-mouth series of intraoral images. Compared with traditional CT procedures, cone-beam imaging provides a lower radiation dose for the patient. Studies have compared the radiation dose of a typical CBCT scan to the radiation dose received from three or four full-mouth series of intraoral images. The radiation dose of a typical CBCT scan is not equal to a set of bite-wing images. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 312 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT

(cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 19. (1) There are CBCT machines that have shortened exposure times of

8 to 10 seconds. (2) This shortened exposure time results in increased patient cooperation and decreased artifacts caused from patient movement. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

With some machines, cone-beam data can be acquired with a quick 8- to 10-second scan. This short exposure time decreases the chance for motion artifacts to occur and encourages a high level of patient cooperation. Some machines have a quick 8- to 10-second scan, which decreases the chance for motion artifacts and encourage patient cooperation. The shortened exposure time result in increased patient cooperation and decreased artifacts. Some CBCT machines have shortened exposure times. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 312 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 20. (1) Cone-beam data is said to have a 1:2 relationship with the

anatomy. (2) With CBCT imaging, anatomy can be accurately reproduced, the superimposition of structures is eliminated, and image magnification doesn't occur. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false.

d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: d

Cone-beam data does not have a 1:2 relationship with the anatomy. Anatomically accurate images are produced, CBCT eliminates the superimposition of structures, and magnification of measurements does not occur. Cone-beam data does not have a 1:2 relationship with the anatomy. Anatomically accurate images are produced, CBCT eliminates the superimposition of structures, and magnification of measurements does not occur. Cone-beam data is said to have a 1:1 relationship with the anatomy. Anatomically accurate images are produced. CBCT eliminates the superimposition of structures; magnification of measurements does not occur. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 312 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

21. Radiation is stopped and may not reach the receptor when it interacts

with an area of high attenuation such as a. soft tissue. b. large amalgam restorations. c. periodontal abscess. d. normal anatomic structures. ANS: b

Radiation penetrates soft tissue. Radiation is stopped and may not reach the receptor when it interacts with an area of high attenuation such as large amalgam restorations. A periodontal abscess appears radiolucent on an image, meaning that x-radiation has easily penetrated the lesion in order to reach the receptor. While normal anatomic structures vary in density, x-radiation will still penetrate the structures and will reach the receptor. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 312 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 22. Metallic restorations may eliminate or hide the surrounding anatomy

with the appearance of a. high density. b. fogged film. c. streak artifacts. d. blank images. ANS: c

The appearance is not of high density. The appearance is not of fogged film. Metallic restorations may eliminate or hide the surrounding anatomy with the appearance of streak artifacts. The appearance is not a blank image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 312 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 23. (1) If the field of view (FOV) is small, findings or pathology in other

regions of the oral and maxillofacial complex may be missed. (2) The size of the field of view should not matter if a high-quality machine is used. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The size of the field is critically important. It needs to be large enough to include findings or pathology that would be missed if it was too small. Findings or pathology may be missed if the FOV is too small. The FOV should include not only the region of interest but also anatomic features related to the region of interest. The size of the field of view should capture the appropriate anatomy. A larger FOV is more likely to include findings or pathology in other regions of the oral and maxillofacial complex. The size of the FOV is critically important for this reason. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 312 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 24. (1) Many dental professionals who incorporate CBCT into their

practices have not had the training required to interpret anatomy beyond the maxilla and mandible. (2) The AAOMR recommends that CBCT and implant imaging be interpreted only by a board certified oral and maxillofacial radiologist or a dentist with adequate training and/or experience. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Many dental professionals who incorporate CBCT into their practices have not had the training required to interpret anatomy beyond the maxilla and mandible. The AAOMR recommends that CBCT and implant imaging be interpreted only by a board certified oral and maxillofacial radiologist or a dentist with adequate training and/or experience. The ADA suggests that the CBCT image be evaluated by a dentist with appropriate training and education in CBCT interpretation. Many dentists have not had the training. The AAOMR recommends

interpretation only by a dentist who has been board certified or one with adequate training and/or experience. The AAOMR recommends that CBCT and implant imaging be interpreted only by a board certified oral and maxillofacial radiologist or a dentist with adequate training and/or experience. Many dental professionals who incorporate CBCT into their practices have not had the training required to interpret anatomy beyond the maxilla and mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 315 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.B.1.c.iii. Demonstrate basic understanding of CBCT (cone-beam computed tomography) MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_28.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Compact bone is also called __________ bone. a. trabecular b. spongy c. cancellous d. cortical ANS: d

Trabecular bone is cancellous, spongy bone. Spongy bone is cancellous, trabecular bone. Cancellous bone is the soft, spongy bone located between two layers of dense cortical bone. Compact bone is also referred to as cortical bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 320 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 2. (1) Cancellous bone is considered radiopaque. (2) Cortical bone is

considered radiolucent. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

Cancellous bone is not considered radiopaque. Cortical bone is not considered radiolucent. Cortical bone appears predominantly radiopaque, and cancellous bone appears predominantly radiolucent. Cancellous bone is not considered radiopaque. Cortical bone is not considered radiolucent. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 320 | Page 321 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 3. The _________ the trabeculations, the _______ radiolucent the area

of cancellous bone appears. a. smaller; more b. larger; more c. larger; less d. both A and B ANS: b

Smaller trabeculations would cause the area of cancellous bone to appear more radiopaque. The larger the trabeculations, the more radiolucent the area of cancellous bone appears. Larger trabeculations would cause the area of cancellous bone to appear more radiolucent. The presence of trabeculations will not make the area of cancellous bone more radiolucent. The trabeculae resist the passage of the x-ray beam, and appear radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 321 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 4. Cancellous bone is the soft, ________ bone located between two

layers of _______ cortical bone. a. spongy; spongy b. dense; dense c. spongy; dense d. dense; spongy

ANS: c

Cancellous bone is not located between two layers of spongy bone. Cancellous bone is not dense bone. Cancellous bone is the soft, spongy bone located between two layers of dense cortical bone. Cancellous bone is not dense bone and is not located between two layers of spongy bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 320 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 5. Which type of bone is composed of bony trabeculae? a. Cortical b. Dense c. Compact d. Cancellous ANS: d

Cortical bone is the dense outer layer of bone. Bony trabeculae are not found in dense bone. Compact bone does not contain bony trabeculae. Cancellous bone is composed of bony trabeculae. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 321 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 6. Which of the following describes a ridge? a. Linear protrusion of bone b. Sharp, thornlike projection of bone c. Small nodular bone d. Rounded prominence ANS: a

A ridge is defined as a linear prominence or projection of bone. A spine is a sharp, thornlike projection of bone. A tubercle is a small bump or nodule of bone. A tuberosity is a rounded prominence of bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 322 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 7. A pointed, spikelike protrusion of bone is a a. process. b. ridge. c. spine. d. tubercle. ANS: c

A process is a marked prominence or projection of bone. A ridge is a linear prominence or projection of bone. A spine is a sharp, thornlike projection of bone. A tubercle is a small bump or nodule of bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 322 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 8. An empty space within the bone is known as a a. canal. b. foramen. c. fossa. d. sinus. ANS: d

A canal is a tubelike passageway through bone that contains nerves and blood vessels. A foramen is an opening or hole in bone that permits the

passage of nerves and blood vessels. A fossa is a broad, shallow, scooped-out or depressed area of bone. A sinus is a hollow space, cavity, or recess in bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 323 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 9. A foramen is a(n) a. opening or hole in bone that permits the passage of nerves and blood

vessels. b. broad, shallow, scooped-out or depressed area of bone. c. hollow space, cavity, or recess in bone. d. sharp, thornlike projection of bone. ANS: a

A foramen is an opening or hole in bone that permits the passage of nerves and blood vessels. A fossa is a broad, shallow, scooped-out or depressed area of bone. A sinus is a hollow space, cavity, or recess in bone. A spine is a sharp, thornlike projection of bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 323 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 10. A suture is a(n) a. movable joint between any two bones in the body. b. immovable joint between any two bones in the body. c. movable joint between two bones in the skull. d. immovable joint between two bones in the skull. ANS: d

A suture is not a movable joint. A suture is found only in the skull. A suture is not a movable joint. A suture is an immovable joint between two bones in the skull. Sutures are found only in the skull. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 323 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 11. A _________ is a bony wall or partition that divides two spaces or

cavities. a. process b. ridge c. septum d. spine ANS: c

A process is a marked prominence or projection of bone. A ridge is a linear prominence or projection of bone. A septum is a bony wall or partition that divides two spaces or cavities. A septum may be present within the space of a fossa or sinus. A bony septum appears radiopaque, in contrast to a space or cavity, which appears radiolucent. A spine is a sharp, thornlike projection of bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 323 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 12. Which of the following landmarks would appear radiolucent on a

dental image? a. Septum b. Suture

c. Tubercle d. Tuberosity ANS: b

A bony septum appears radiopaque. A suture would appear as a thin radiolucent line. A tubercle appears radiopaque. A tuberosity appears radiopaque.

PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 323 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 13. This foramen is almond shaped and is located between the apices of

the maxillary central incisors. a. Mental b. Lingual c. Superior d. Incisive ANS: d

The mental foramen is an opening or hole in bone located on the external surface of the mandible in the region of mandibular premolars. The lingual foramen is a tiny opening or hole in bone located on the internal surface of the mandible. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are two tiny openings or holes in bone that are located on the floor of the nasal cavity. The incisive foramen is an opening or hole in bone located in the midline of the anterior portion of the hard palate directly posterior to the maxillary central incisors. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

14. The ____________ nerve exits the maxilla through the incisive

foramen. a. anterior superior alveolar b. middle superior alveolar c. posterior superior alveolar d. nasopalatine ANS: d

The anterior superior alveolar nerve does not exit the maxilla. It enters the sinuous canal on the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus, turns medially, and then descends to form the anterior portion of the superior alveolar plexus over the roots of the maxillary anterior teeth. The middle superior alveolar nerve does not exit the maxilla. It runs downward in a small, bony groove in the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus and forms the intermediate portion of the superior alveolar plexus. The posterior superior alveolar nerve does not exit the maxilla. It descends along the infratemporal surface as several branches. The nerves pass through the posterior superior alveolar foramina and enter the maxillary sinus. The nasopalatine nerve exits the maxilla through the incisive foramen. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 15. On a _________ periapical image, the nasal cavity (nasal fossa)

appears as a large ______________ area located above the roots of the maxillary incisors. a. maxillary; radiopaque b. maxillary; radiolucent c. mandibular; radiopaque d. mandibular; radiolucent

ANS: b

The nasal cavity is radiolucent not radiopaque. On a maxillary periapical image, the nasal cavity appears as a large radiolucent area located above the roots of the maxillary incisors. The nasal cavity is in the maxilla not the mandible. It appears radiolucent not radiopaque. The nasal cavity is in the maxilla not the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 326 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 16. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are _____ tiny openings

or holes in bone. a. two b. four c. six d. eight ANS: a

The superior foramina of the incisive canal are two tiny openings or holes in bone on the floor of the nasal cavity. These two small canals join together to form the incisive canal and share a common exit, the incisive foramen. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are not four tiny openings or holes in bone. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are not six tiny openings or holes in bone. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are not eight tiny openings or holes in bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

17. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are located on the

__________ of the nasal cavity. a. lateral wall b. medial wall c. floor d. roof ANS: c

The lateral wall of the nasal cavity is formed by the ethmoid bone and the maxillae. The nasal cavity is divided by a bony partition called the nasal septum. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are located on the floor of the nasal cavity. The floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the palatal processes of the maxilla and the horizontal portions of the palatine bones. The roof of the nasal cavity is formed by the lateral nasal cartilages, the nasal bones, the nasal spine of the frontal bone, the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone, and the anterior and inferior aspects of the body of the sphenoid bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 324 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 18. On a periapical image, the maxillary sinuses appear as

radiolucencies located superior to the apices of the a. maxillary canines. b. maxillary central incisors. c. maxillary molars and premolars. d. maxillary incisors and canines. ANS: c

The maxillary sinuses are not located superior to the apices of the maxillary canines. The nasal cavity appears as a large, radiolucent area superior to the maxillary incisors. The maxillary sinuses appear as

radiolucent areas located superior to the apices of the maxillary premolars and molars. The maxillary sinuses are not located superior to the apices of the maxillary incisors and canines. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 328 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 19. The median palatal suture is located between the two __________ of

the maxilla. a. inferior nasal conchae b. nasal cavity c. palatine processes d. maxillary sinuses ANS: c

The inferior nasal conchae are wafer-thin curves plates of bone that extend from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. The nasal cavity is a pear-shaped compartment of bone located superior to the maxilla. The median palatal suture is located between the two palatine processes of the maxilla. The maxillary sinuses are paired cavities or compartments of bone located within the maxilla. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 20. On a periapical image, the median palatal suture appears as a thin

__________ line between the _________________. a. radiopaque; maxillary lateral incisor and canine b. radiolucent; maxillary lateral incisor and canine

c. radiopaque; maxillary central incisors d. radiolucent; maxillary central incisors ANS: d

The median palatal suture is radiolucent rather than radiopaque. It is not located between the lateral incisor and canine. The median palatal suture is not located between the lateral incisor and canine. The median palatal suture appears as a thin radiolucent line between the maxillary central incisors. The median palatal suture is radiolucent rather than radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 21. The lateral fossa is located between the a. maxillary canine and lateral incisor. b. mandibular canine and lateral incisor. c. maxillary canine and first premolar. d. mandibular canine and first premolar. ANS: a

The lateral fossa is located between the maxillary canine and lateral incisor. The lateral fossa is in the maxilla, not the mandible. The lateral fossa is not located between the maxillary canine and first premolar. The lateral fossa is in the maxilla. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 22. On a dental image, the lateral fossa appears as a __________ area of

____________ appearance, depending on the anatomy of the individual.

a. radiopaque; consistent b. radiolucent; consistent c. radiopaque; variable d. radiolucent; variable ANS: d

The lateral fossa is a radiolucent rather than radiopaque area of variable appearance. The lateral fossa is of variable appearance. In some periapical images it may appear as a distinct radiolucency, in others, it may appear to be absent. The lateral fossa is a radiolucent rather than radiopaque area. The lateral fossa appears as a radiolucent area of variable appearance, depending upon the anatomy of the individual. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 23. The lateral walls of the nasal cavity are formed by the __________

bone and the maxillae. a. temporal b. sphenoid c. ethmoid d. zygomatic ANS: c

The temporal bone does not form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. The sphenoid bone does not form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. The lateral walls of the nasal cavity are formed by the ethmoid bone and the maxillae. The zygomatic bone does not form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 326 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials,

and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 24. On an anterior maxillary periapical image, the nasal septum may be

superimposed over the a. canine. b. median palatal suture. c. greater palatine foramen. d. genial tubercles. ANS: b

The nasal septum would not be superimposed over the canine on an anterior maxillary periapical image. The nasal septum appears as a vertical radiopaque partition that divides the nasal cavity. It may be superimposed over the median palatal suture on an anterior maxillary periapical image. The nasal septum would not be superimposed over the greater palatine foramen. The greater palatine foramen is part of the horizontal plate of the palatine bone, which forms the posterior third of the bony palate. The nasal septum would not be superimposed over the genial tubercles. The genial tubercles are part of the internal aspect of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 327 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 25. On a maxillary periapical image, the floor of the nasal cavity appears

as a ________ band of bone ________ the maxillary incisors. a. radiolucent; above b. radiolucent; below c. radiopaque; above d. radiopaque; below ANS: a

The floor of the nasal cavity appears as a radiolucent band of bone above the maxillary incisors. The floor of the nasal cavity is not below the maxillary incisors. The floor of the nasal cavity is radiolucent rather than radiopaque. The floor of the nasal cavity is radiolucent rather than radiopaque. It appears above rather than below the maxillary incisors. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 327 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 26. The anterior nasal spine is located at the _____________ portion of

the nasal cavity. a. anterior and superior b. anterior and inferior c. posterior and superior d. posterior and inferior ANS: b

The anterior spine is located at the inferior rather than superior portion of the nasal cavity. The anterior nasal spine is located at the anterior and inferior portion of the nasal cavity. The anterior nasal spine is located at the posterior rather than anterior portion of the nasal cavity. The anterior nasal spine is located at the anterior rather than posterior, and inferior rather than superior portion of the nasal cavity. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 327 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 27. On a maxillary periapical image, the anterior nasal spine appears as a

____-shaped radiopaque area located at the intersection of the floor of the nasal cavity and the nasal septum.

a. T b. U c. V d. I ANS: c

The anterior nasal spine does not appear as a T-shaped radiopaque area. The anterior nasal spine does not appear as an U-shaped radiopaque area. The anterior nasal spine appears as a V-shaped radiopaque area located at the intersection of the floor of the nasal cavity and the nasal septum. The anterior nasal spine does not appear as a I-shaped radiopaque area. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 327 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 28. The inferior nasal conchae extend from the a. medial walls of the maxillary sinus. b. lateral walls of the maxillary sinus. c. medial walls of the nasal cavity. d. lateral walls of the nasal cavity. ANS: d

The inferior nasal conchae do not extend from the medial walls of the maxillary sinus. The inferior nasal conchae do not extend from the lateral walls of the maxillary sinus. The inferior nasal conchae do not extend from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. The inferior nasal conchae extend from the lateral walls of the nasal cavity. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 327 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials,

and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 29. On a maxillary periapical image, the inferior nasal conchae appear as

a __________ mass within the nasal cavity. a. well-demarcated radiolucent b. well-demarcated radiopaque c. diffuse radiolucent d. diffuse radiopaque ANS: d

The inferior nasal conchae do not appear as a well-demarcated radiolucent mass within the nasal cavity. The inferior nasal conchae do not appear as a well-demarcated radiopaque mass within the nasal cavity. The inferior nasal conchae do not appear as a well-demarcated radiolucent mass within the nasal cavity. The inferior nasal conchae appear as a diffuse radiopaque mass within the nasal cavity. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 328 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 30. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are located above the

maxillary ____________. a. central incisors b. lateral incisors c. canines d. premolars and molars ANS: a

The superior foramina of the incisive canal are located above the central incisors. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are not located above the maxillary lateral incisors. The superior foramina of the incisive canal are not located above the maxillary canines. The superior

foramina of the incisive canal are not located above the maxillary premolars and molars. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 324 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 31. Bony septa and nutrient canals may be seen within the walls of the a. median palatal suture. b. maxillary sinus. c. incisive foramen. d. anterior nasal spine. ANS: b

Bony septa are not seen in the median palatal suture. Bony septa and nutrient canals may be seen within the walls of the maxillary sinus. In some periapical images, the septa appear as distinct radiopaque lines; in others, no septa are seen. Nutrient canals are tiny, tubelike passageways through bone, which contain blood vessels and nerves that supply maxillary teeth and interdental areas. Bony septa are not seen in the incisive foramen. Bony septa are not seen in the anterior nasal spine. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 328 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 32. The inverted Y refers to the intersection of the maxillary sinus and

the a. median palatal suture. b. anterior nasal spine. c. incisive foramen.

d. nasal cavity. ANS: d

The inverted Y does not involve the medial palatal suture. The inverted Y does not involve the anterior nasal spine. The inverted Y does not involve the incisive foramen. The inverted Y refers to the intersection of the anterior border of the maxillary sinus and the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. Both are composed of dense cortical bone and appear as a radiopaque line or band. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 330 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 33. The inverted Y is a __________ line above the maxillary

_________. a. radiopaque; canine b. radiopaque; first molar c. radiolucent; canine d. radiolucent; first molar ANS: a

The inverted Y is a radiopaque line above the maxillary canine. The inverted Y is not above the first molar. The inverted Y is radiopaque rather than radiolucent. The inverted Y is radiopaque rather than radiolucent. It is not above the first molar. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 330 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 34. The maxillary tuberosity appears as a ___________ rounded

prominence posterior to the ________ molar region. a. radiolucent; first b. radiolucent; third c. radiopaque; first d. radiopaque; third ANS: d

The maxillary tuberosity appears as a radiopaque rather than radiolucent rounded prominence. It is distal to the third rather than first molar region. The maxillary tuberosity appears as a radiopaque rather than radiolucent rounded prominence. The maxillary tuberosity is distal to the third rather than first molar region. The maxillary tuberosity appears as a radiopaque bulge distal to the third molar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 330 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 35. The hamulus extends from the a. medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. b. lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. c. styloid process. d. maxillary tuberosity. ANS: a

The hamulus is a small, hooklike projection of bone extending from the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. The hamulus extends from the medial rather than lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. The hamulus does not extend from the styloid process. The hamulus is located posterior to the maxillary tuberosity. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 330 OBJ: 4

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 36. On a maxillary periapical image, the zygomatic process appears as a

__________ to the maxillary first molar region. a. radiolucency located inferior b. radiopacity located superior c. radiolucency located superior d. radiopacity located inferior ANS: b

The zygomatic process appears as a radiopacity rather than as a radiolucency. It is superior rather than inferior to the maxillary first molar region. The zygomatic process is a bony projection of the maxilla that articulates with the zygoma, or malar bone. It is composed of dense cortical bone and appears as a radiopacity located superior to the maxillary first molar region. The zygomatic process appears as a radiopacity rather than as a radiolucency. It is superior rather than inferior to the maxillary first molar region. The zygomatic process appears as a radiopacity rather than as a radiolucency. It is superior rather than inferior to the maxillary first molar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 331 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 37. Your patient is looking at her dental images and is pointing to the

bilateral vertical section of the mandible. What is she pointing to? a. Ramus b. Coronoid process c. Body d. Alveolar process

ANS: a

The ramus is the vertical portion of the mandible that is found posterior to the third molar. The coronoid process is a marked prominence of bone on the anterior ramus of the mandible. The body of the mandible is the horizontal, U-shaped portion that extends from ramus to ramus. The alveolar process is the portion of the mandible that encases and supports the teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 331 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 38. Which muscles attach to the genial tubercles? a. Digastric and genioglossus b. Genioglossus and geniohyoid c. Geniohyoid and digastric d. Mylohyoid and geniohyoid ANS: b

The genial tubercles do not serve as attachments for the digastric and genioglossus muscles. The genial tubercles are tiny bumps of bone located on the lingual aspect of the mandible. They serve as attachments for the genioglossus and geniohyoid muscles. The genial tubercles do not serve as attachments for the geniohyoid and digastric muscles. The genial tubercles do not serve as attachments for the mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 332 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 39. On a periapical image, the genial tubercles appear as a ring-shaped

__________ the apices of the mandibular incisors. a. radiolucency below b. radiolucency above c. radiopacity below d. radiopacity above ANS: c

The genial tubercles are a radiopacity rather than a radiolucency. The genial tubercles are a radiopacity rather than a radiolucency. They are found below rather than above the apices of the mandibular incisors. The genial tubercles appear as a ring-shaped radiopacity below the apices of the mandibular incisors. The genial tubercles are below rather than above the apices of the mandibular incisors. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 332 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 40. The lingual foramen is in the center of the a. mental foramen. b. genial tubercles. c. anterior nasal spine. d. external oblique ridge. ANS: b

The mental foramen is an opening or hole in bone located on the external surface of the mandible in the region of mandibular premolars. The lingual foramen is surrounded by the genial tubercles. The anterior nasal spine is a sharp projection of the maxilla located at the anterior and inferior portion of the nasal cavity. The external oblique ridge is a linear prominence of bone located on the external surface of the body of the mandible. PTS: 1

DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 332 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 41. Interdental nutrient canals are most often seen in the a. anterior maxilla. b. anterior mandible. c. posterior maxilla. d. posterior mandible. ANS: b

Interdental nutrient canals are not seen in the anterior maxilla. Interdental nutrient canals are most often seen in the anterior mandible. They may also be seen in the maxillary sinuses. Interdental canals are seen in the maxillary sinuses of the posterior maxilla, but not as often as in the anterior mandible. Interdental canals are not seen in the posterior mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 333 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 42. Nutrient canals appear as ______________ lines on a periapical

image. a. vertical radiolucent b. horizontal radiolucent c. vertical radiopaque d. horizontal radiopaque ANS: a

Nutrient canals appear as vertical radiolucent lines on a periapical

image. Nutrient canals are vertically oriented rather than horizontally oriented. Nutrient canals are radiolucent rather than radiopaque. Nutrient canals are vertically oriented rather than horizontally oriented and are radiolucent rather than radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 333 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

43. Your patient is pointing to the mental ridge on his dental image. He

is pointing to the ____________________ portion of the mandible. a. external surface of the anterior b. internal surface of the anterior c. external surface of the posterior d. internal surface of the posterior ANS: a

The mental ridge is located on the external surface of the anterior portion of the mandible. The mental ridge extends from the premolar region to the midline and slopes slightly upward. The mental ridge is located on the external surface, not the internal surface of the mandible. The mental ridge is located on the external surface of the anterior rather than posterior mandible. The mental ridge is located on the external rather than internal surface of the anterior rather than posterior mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 333 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 44. On a dental image, the mental ridge often appears superimposed over

the ___________ teeth.

a. maxillary anterior b. maxillary posterior c. mandibular anterior d. mandibular posterior ANS: c

The mental ridge often appears superimposed over the mandibular rather than maxillary anterior teeth. The mental ridge often appears superimposed over the mandibular anterior rather than the maxillary posterior teeth. The mental ridge often appears superimposed over the mandibular anterior teeth. The mental ridge often appears superimposed over the anterior rather than posterior mandibular teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 333 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 45. The mental fossa is located ________ the mental ridge in the

mandibular __________ region. a. above; incisor b. below; incisor c. above; premolar d. below; premolar ANS: a

The mental fossa is a scooped-out, depressed area of bone located on the external surface of the anterior mandible. It is located above the mental ridge in the mandibular incisor region. The mental fossa is located above rather than below the mental ridge. The mental fossa is located in the mandibular incisor rather than premolar region. The mental fossa is located above rather than below the mental ridge in the mandibular incisor rather than premolar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 333 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 46. The ____________ is an opening or hole in bone located on the

external surface of the mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars. a. nutrient canal b. mental fossa c. lingual foramen d. mental foramen ANS: d

Interdental nutrient canals are most often seen in the anterior mandible. The mental fossa is a scooped-out, depressed area of bone located on the external surface of the anterior mandible. The lingual foramen is a tiny opening or hole in bone located on the internal surface of the mandible. The mental foramen is an opening or hole in bone located on the external surface of the mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 334 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 47. The mental foramen is frequently misdiagnosed as a _____________

because of its apical location. a. dentigerous cyst b. radicular cyst c. periapical granuloma d. odontoma

ANS: c

A dentigerous cyst presents as a well-defined, unilocular or occasionally multilocular radiolucency with corticated margins in association with the crown of an unerupted tooth. A radicular cyst cannot be differentiated from a periapical granuloma on radiographs. The mental foramen is frequently misdiagnosed as a periapical granuloma because of its apical location. A periapical granuloma is a localized mass of chronically inflamed granulation tissue at the apex of a non-vital tooth. A compound odontoma typically appears radiographically as numerous tiny teeth. Complex odontomas appear as amorphous, opaque masses. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 334 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

48. The conduit that extends from just below the ramus to the premolar

region of the mandible is the a. external oblique ridge. b. mylohyoid ridge. c. submandibular fossa. d. mandibular canal. ANS: d

The external oblique ridge is a linear prominence of bone located on the external surface of the body of the mandible. The mylohyoid ridge is a linear prominence of bone extending from the molar region downward on the internal surface of the mandible. The submandibular fossa is a scooped-out, depressed area of bone located on the internal surface of the mandible inferior to the mylohyoid ridge. The mandibular canal is a tubelike passageway through bone that travels the length of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 334

OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 49. On a __________ periapical image, the mylohyoid ridge is a

___________ band that extends downward and forward. a. maxillary; radiopaque b. maxillary; radiolucent c. mandibular; radiopaque d. mandibular; radiolucent ANS: c

The mylohyoid ridge is seen on a mandibular periapical image. The mylohyoid ridge is seen on a mandibular rather than maxillary periapical image as a radiopaque rather than radiolucent band. On a mandibular periapical image, the mylohyoid ridge is a radiopaque band that extends downward and forward. The mylohyoid ridge usually appears most prominently in the molar region and may be superimposed over the roots of the mandibular teeth. The mylohyoid ridge is seen as a radiopaque rather than radiolucent image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 335 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 50. On a mandibular periapical image, the mandibular canal is a

___________ band that appears below or superimposed over the apices of the mandibular _________ teeth. a. radiolucent; incisor b. radiolucent; molar c. radiopaque; incisor d. radiopaque; molar

ANS: b

The mandibular canal appears below or superimposed over the apices of the mandibular molar rather than incisor teeth. The mandibular canal is a radiolucent band that appears below or superimposed over the apices of the mandibular molar teeth. The mandibular canal appears as a radiolucent rather than radiopaque band over the apices of the mandibular molar rather than incisor teeth. The mandibular canal appears as a radiolucent rather than radiopaque band. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 334 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 51. The mylohyoid ridge extends from the third molar region to the

____________ area. a. canine b. first molar c. incisor area d. second premolar ANS: d

The mylohyoid ridge does not extend as far as the canine region. The mylohyoid ridge extends past the first molar. The mylohyoid ridge does not extend as far as the incisor area. The mylohyoid ridge (also known as the internal oblique ridge) is a linear prominence of bone that extends from the third molar region downward and forward to the second premolar area. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 335 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

52. On a mandibular molar periapical image, the external oblique ridge

appears as a _______________ band extending _______________________ from the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible. a. radiopaque; upward and backward b. radiolucent; upward and backward c. radiopaque: downward and forward d. radiolucent: downward and forward ANS: c

The external oblique ridge extends downward and forward rather than upward and backward from the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible. The external oblique ridge is a radiopaque rather than radiolucent band extending downward and forward rather than upward and backward from the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible. The external oblique ridge appears as a radiopaque band extending downward and forward from the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible. The external oblique ridge appears as a radiopaque rather than radiolucent band extending downward and forward from the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 335 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 53. The external oblique ridge typically ends in the _____________

molar region. a. maxillary first b. mandibular first c. maxillary third d. mandibular third ANS: d

The external oblique ridge is in the mandible rather than the maxilla. The external oblique ridge does not extend as far as the mandibular first molar region. The external oblique ridge is in the mandible rather than the maxilla. The external oblique ridge typically ends in the mandibular third molar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 335 | Page 337 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 54. The ______________ is found in the submandibular fossa. a. inferior alveolar nerve b. submandibular salivary gland c. mylohyoid muscle d. lingual nerve ANS: b

The inferior alveolar nerve is found in the mandibular canal. The submandibular salivary gland is found in the submandibular fossa. The mylohyoid muscle is in the floor of the mouth. The lingual nerve is in the tongue. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 337 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 55. On a periapical image, the submandibular fossa appears as a

___________ area in the molar region _______ the mylohyoid ridge. a. radiopaque; above b. radiopaque; below c. radiolucent; above

d. radiolucent; below ANS: d

The submandibular fossa appears as a radiolucent rather than radiopaque area below rather than above the mylohyoid ridge. The submandibular fossa appears as a radiolucent rather than radiopaque area. The submandibular fossa appears below rather than above the mylohyoid ridge. The submandibular fossa appears as a radiolucent area in the molar region below the mylohyoid ridge. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 337 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 56. The coronoid process may be seen on a ______________ periapical

image. a. maxillary incisor b. maxillary molar c. mandibular incisor d. mandibular molar ANS: b

The coronoid process cannot be seen on a maxillary incisor periapical image. The coronoid process is a marked prominence of bone on the anterior ramus of the mandible. It may be seen on a maxillary molar periapical image. The coronoid process cannot be seen on a mandibular incisor periapical image. The coronoid process cannot be seen on a mandibular molar periapical image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 337 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

57. Which of the following tooth structures is most radiopaque? a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Cementum d. Pulp ANS: a

Enamel is the most radiopaque tooth structure. It is the densest structure found in the human body. Dentin is radiopaque, but not as radiopaque as enamel. Cementum is not as radiopaque as enamel. Pulp contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics and appears relatively radiolucent on a dental image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 338 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 58. Which of the following tooth structures is most radiolucent? a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Cementum d. Pulp ANS: d

Enamel is the most radiopaque tooth structure. Dentin is not the most radiolucent tooth structure. Cementum is not the most radiolucent tooth structure. Pulp is the most radiolucent tooth structure. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 338 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

59. The ______________ is the space between the alveolar bone and the

tooth, it contains the attachment fibers. a. alveolar crest b. residual ridge c. periodontal ligament (PDL) space d. lamina dura ANS: c

The alveolar crest is the most coronal portion of alveolar bone found between teeth. The residual ridge is what remains of the alveolar bone following the removal of teeth. The periodontal ligament space (PDL space) is the space between the root of the tooth and the lamina dura. The PDL space contains connective tissue fibers, blood vessels, and lymphatics. The lamina dura is the wall of the tooth socket that surrounds the root of the tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 338 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 60. On a dental image, the alveolar crest in a healthy mouth is typically

located _________ mm below the junction of the crown and the root surfaces. a. 0.5 to 1.0 b. 1.5 to 2.0 c. 2.0 to 3.0 d. 1.5 to 3.0 ANS: b

The alveolar crest is located more than 0.5 to 1.0 mm below the junction of the crown and root surfaces. The alveolar crest is typically located 1.5 to 2.0 mm below the junction of the crown and the root surfaces. The

alveolar crest in a healthy mouth is located less than 2.0 to 3.0 mm below the junction of the crown and the root surfaces. The alveolar crest in a healthy mouth is not located less between 1.5 to 3.0 mm below the junction of the crown and the root surfaces. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 339 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 61. On a dental image, the periodontal ligament space (PDL) space

appears as a _____________ line around the root of a tooth. a. thin, radiopaque b. thin, radiolucent c. wide, radiopaque d. wide, radiolucent ANS: b

The PDL space appears as a radiolucent rather than radiopaque line around the root of a tooth. The PDL space appears as a thin, radiolucent line around the root of a tooth. In the healthy periodontium, the PDL space appears as a continuous radiolucent line of uniform thickness. The PDL space appears as a thin rather than wide radiolucent rather than radiopaque line around the root of a tooth. The PDL space appears as a thin rather than wide line around the root of a tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 339 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 62. The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear ______

dense and ______ radiopaque than the alveolar crest seen in the anterior region.

a. less; less b. more; more c. less; more d. more; less ANS: a

The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear less dense and less radiopaque than the alveolar crest seen in the anterior region. The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear less rather than more dense and less rather than more radiopaque. The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear less rather than more radiopaque. The alveolar crest in the posterior region tends to appear less rather than more dense. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 340 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 63. Your patient's mother is concerned because her two-year-old son

doesn't have all of his teeth. What should you tell her? a. Your son is late in his eruption pattern. They should have all erupted a

year ago. b. If your son's teeth don't all erupt in the next month, we will refer him. c. We need to take dental images to see if he has his teeth under the tissue. d. Don't worry, his teeth should be in by the time he is three. ANS: d

The son is not late in his eruption pattern. The son is not late and does not need a referral yet. The son is not late. By the age of three, all twenty primary teeth should be erupted and functioning. PTS: 1 DIF: Application

REF: Page 340 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 64. Identify this landmark.

a. Genial tubercles b. Mental ridge c. Mental fossa d. Mylohyoid ridge ANS: b

The genial tubercles can be seen on this image, however, they are not the structures labeled by the arrows. The landmark indicated is the mental ridge. The mental fossa can be seen on this image, but it is not the structure identified by the arrows. The mylohyoid ridge extends from the third molar region to the second premolar area. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 333 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 65. Identify this landmark.

a. Incisive foramen b. Nasal cavity (fossa) c. Nasal septum d. Anterior nasal spine ANS: d

The incisive foramen can be seen on this image, but it is not the area labeled with the arrow. The anterior part of the floor of the nasal cavity

can be seen on this image, however, it is not labeled with the arrow. Part of the nasal septum can be seen on this image, but it is not the area labeled with the arrow. The landmark indicated is the anterior nasal spine. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 327 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 66. Identify this landmark on your patient's dental image.

a. Lateral pterygoid plate b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Zygoma d. Maxillary sinus ANS: b

The lateral pterygoid plate is located distal to the maxillary tuberosity region. The landmark indicated is the maxillary tuberosity. The zygoma extends posteriorly from the zygomatic process of the maxilla. The maxillary sinus appears as a radiolucent area located superior to the apices of maxillary premolars and molars. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 330 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 67. Identify this landmark.

a. Maxillary tuberosity

b. Zygoma c. Maxillary sinus d. Mylohyoid ridge ANS: c

The maxillary tuberosity appears as a radiopaque bulge distal to the third molar region. The zygoma appears as a diffuse radiopaque band extending posteriorly from the zygomatic process of the maxilla. The landmark indicated is the maxillary sinus. The maxillary sinus appears as a radiolucent area located superior to the apices of maxillary premolars and molars. The mylohyoid ridge appears as a dense radiopaque band that extends downward and forward from the third mandibular molar region at the level of the apices of the posterior teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 328 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 68. What is the arrow pointing to on your patient's dental image?

a. Periapical abscess b. Trabecular bone c. Mental foramen d. Periodontal abscess ANS: c

A periapical abscess would be associated with the apex of premolar tooth. Trabecular bone is seen on the entire image, the arrow is pointing toward the circular lucency seen within the trabecular bone. The arrow is pointing to the mental foramen. A periodontal abscess would be seen along the lateral surface of the tooth root. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 334

OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 69. Identify the landmark the arrows are pointing to on your patient's

dental image. a. Nose b. Incisive foramen c. Median palatal suture d. Lateral fossa ANS: b

The nose is the faint radiopaque area. It is seen on this image, but is not labeled with the arrows. The arrows are pointing to the incisive foramen. The median palatal suture is between the halves of the hard palate. The lateral fossa is located between the maxillary canine and lateral incisor. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 324 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 70. Identify this landmark.

a. External oblique ridge b. Submandibular fossa c. Mylohyoid ridge d. Mandibular canal ANS: c

The external oblique ridge appears as a radiopaque band extending downward and forward from the anterior border of the ramus of the

mandible. The submandibular fossa is a scooped-out, depressed are of bone located on the internal surface of the mandible inferior to the mylohyoid ridge. The arrows are pointing to the mylohyoid ridge. The mandibular canal appears superimposed over the apices of the mandibular molar teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 335 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 71. What are the arrows pointing to?

a. Periodontal abscess b. Incisive foramen c. Lateral fossa d. Periapical abscess ANS: c

A periodontal abscess would be located along the lateral root surface of the tooth. The incisive foramen would be located between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. The arrows are pointing to the lateral fossa, also called the canine fossa. A periapical abscess would be located at the apex of the tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 324 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 72. Identify the radiolucent area the arrows are pointing to.

a. Mental fossa b. Periodontal pocket c. Mental ridge d. Nutrient canal ANS: d

The mental fossa appears as a radiolucent area above the mental ridge. A periodontal pocket would be adjacent to the root surface. The mental ridge appears as a thick radiopaque band that extends from the premolar region to the incisor region. The radiolucent area the arrows are pointing to is a nutrient canal. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 330 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 73. Identify the radiopaque area the arrows are pointing to.

a. Maxillary tuberosity b. Coronoid process c. Mandibular condyle d. Anterior nasal spine ANS: b

The maxillary tuberosity is located distal to the maxillary third molar. It is on the image, but is not labeled with the arrows. The radiopaque area the arrows are pointing to is the coronoid process. The mandibular condyle rests in the glenoid fossa of the temporal bone. The anterior nasal spine is located between the maxillary central incisors. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 337 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images

MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 74. Identify the radiopaque area the arrows are pointing to.

a. Maxillary sinus b. Lateral pterygoid plate c. Orbit d. Zygoma ANS: d

The maxillary sinus is a radiolucent area located superior to the apices of maxillary premolars and molars. The lateral pterygoid plate appears as a radiopaque projection of bone distal to the maxillary tuberosity region. The lateral pterygoid plate is not seen on intraoral images. The orbit is seen on panoramic images. The radiopaque area the arrows are pointing to is the zygoma. It is seen as a diffuse radiopaque band extending posteriorly from the zygomatic process of the maxilla. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 331 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 75. Identify the area the arrows are pointing to on your patient's dental

image. a. Mandibular canal b. Submandibular fossa c. Mylohyoid ridge d. Border of the mandible ANS: a

The arrows are pointing to the mandibular canal. Two thin radiopaque lines that represent the cortical walls of the canal outline the mandibular

canal. The submandibular fossa appears as a radiolucent area in the molar region below the mylohyoid ridge. The mylohyoid ridge appears as a dense radiopaque band that extends downward and forward from the third molar region at the level of the apices of the posterior teeth. The border of the mandible is the inferior border, which cannot be seen on this image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 334 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_29.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. You have been asked to take a single image on your patient to

evaluate his maxilla and the mandible. Which of the following should you take? a. Four bite-wing images b. 18-image periapical series c. 21-image periapical series d. Panoramic ANS: d

Bite-wing images do not permit visualization of the apical area. An 18-image periapical series does not permit visualization of the entire maxilla and mandible. A 21-image periapical series does not permit visualization of the entire maxilla and mandible. The panoramic image allows the dental professional to view the largest area of the mandible and maxilla on a single image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 346 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 2. This bilateral landmark is located above the apices of the maxillary

premolars and molars and appears radiolucent on the panoramic image. a. Maxillary sinus b. Maxilla c. Incisive foramen d. Infraorbital foramen ANS: a

The maxillary sinuses appear as paired radiolucent areas located superior to the apices of maxillary premolars and molars. The floor of the

maxillary sinus is composed of dense cortical bone and appears as a radiopaque line. The maxilla forms the floor of the orbit of the eyes, the sides and floor of the nasal cavity, and the hard palate. The incisive foramen is a hole or opening in bone located at the midline of the anterior portion of the hard palate. The infraorbital foramen is a hole or opening in bone located inferior to the border of the orbit. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 348 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 3. The mastoid process is a marked prominence of bone located

____________ to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). a. anterior and superior b. anterior and inferior c. posterior and superior d. posterior and inferior ANS: d

The mastoid process is not located anterior and superior to the TMJ. The mastoid process is not located anterior to the TMJ. The mastoid process is not located superior to the TMJ. The mastoid process is a marked prominence of bone located posterior and inferior to the TMJ. The mastoid process is part of the temporal bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 346 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 4. The mastoid process is a sizable curved __________ that ______ seen

on periapical images.

a. radiolucency; is b. radiolucency; is not c. radiopacity; is d. radiopacity; is not ANS: d

The mastoid process is a radiopacity rather than a radiolucency that is not seen on periapical images. The mastoid process is a radiopacity rather than a radiolucency. The mastoid process is not seen on periapical images. The mastoid process is a rounded radiopacity that is not seen on periapical images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 346 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 5. Which of the following structures is part of the sphenoid bone? a. Glenoid fossa b. Articular eminence c. Lateral pterygoid plate d. Styloid process ANS: c

The glenoid fossa is part of the temporal bone. The articular eminence is part of the temporal bone. The lateral pterygoid plate is part of the sphenoid bone. The styloid process is part of the temporal bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 346 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 6. Which of the following structures may be seen on a periapical image?

a. Mastoid process b. Styloid process c. External auditory meatus d. Maxillary tuberosity ANS: d

The mastoid process is not seen on a periapical image. The styloid process is not seen on a periapical image. The external auditory meatus is not seen on a periapical image. The maxillary tuberosity may be seen on a periapical image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 7. The _____________ is a long, thin, pointed process below the

external auditory meatus. a. glenoid fossa b. articular eminence c. styloid process d. lateral pterygoid plate ANS: c

The glenoid fossa is a concave, depressed area of the temporal bone located anterior to the mastoid process and the external auditory meatus. The articular eminence is a rounded projection of the temporal bone located anterior to the glenoid fossa. The styloid process is a long, pointed, and sharp projection of bone that extends downward from the inferior surface of the temporal bone. The lateral pterygoid plate is a thin, wing-shaped bony extension of the sphenoid bone located distal to the maxillary tuberosity region. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 346

OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 8. The glenoid fossa is a _______________ area. a. dome-shaped, elevated b. dome-shaped, indented c. bowl-shaped, elevated d. bowl-shaped, indented ANS: d

The glenoid fossa is not a dome-shaped, elevated area. The glenoid fossa is not dome-shaped. The glenoid fossa is not elevated. The glenoid fossa is a bowl-shaped, indented area of the temporal bone. The glenoid fossa appears as a concave radiopacity superior to the mandibular condyle. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 346 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 9. The _____________ articulates with the glenoid fossa. a. styloid process b. mastoid process c. mandibular condyle d. coronoid process ANS: c

The styloid process extends down from the inferior surface of the temporal bone. The mastoid process is part of the temporal bone. The mandibular condyle rests in the glenoid fossa. The coronoid process extends from the anterior portion of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 348 | Page 349

OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 10. On a panoramic image, the articular eminence appears as a rounded

radiopaque projection of the bone located _________ to the glenoid fossa. a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior ANS: a

The articular eminence appears as a rounded radiopaque projection of the bone located anterior to the glenoid fossa. The articular eminence is not located posterior to the glenoid fossa. The articular eminence is not located superior to the glenoid fossa. The articular eminence is not located inferior to the glenoid fossa. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 346 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 11. The lateral pterygoid plate is a wing-shaped bony projection of the

__________ bone. a. temporal b. frontal c. occipital d. sphenoid ANS: d

The lateral pterygoid plate is not a bony projection of the temporal bone. The lateral pterygoid plate is not a bony projection of the frontal bone.

The lateral pterygoid plate is not a bony projection of the occipital bone. The lateral pterygoid plate is a wing-shaped bony projection of the sphenoid bone located to the distal to the maxillary tuberosity region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 346 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 12. The pterygomaxillary fissure is a narrow space or cleft that separates

the ________ and the maxilla. a. medial pterygoid plate b. lateral pterygoid plate c. hamulus d. coronoid notch ANS: b

The pterygomaxillary fissure does not separate the medial pterygoid plate and the maxilla. The pterygomaxillary fissure is a narrow space or cleft that separates the lateral pterygoid plate and the maxilla. It has the shape of an elongated and inverted teardrop that is outlined anteriorly by the posterior border of the maxillary sinus and posteriorly by the lateral pterygoid plate. The pterygomaxillary fissure does not separate the hamulus and the maxilla. The pterygomaxillary fissure does not separate the coronoid notch and the maxilla. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 13. On a panoramic image, which of the following structures appears as

a radiolucency?

a. Lateral pterygoid plate b. Medial pterygoid plate c. Pterygomaxillary fissure d. Coronoid process ANS: c

The lateral pterygoid plate is a wing-shaped bony projection of the sphenoid bone located distal to the maxillary tuberosity region. The lateral pterygoid plate appears as a radiopaque bony projection that lies distal to the maxillary tuberosity region. The medial pterygoid plate appears as a bony projection that lies medial to, and is obscured by, the lateral pterygoid plate. The pterygomaxillary fissure appears as a radiolucency. A fissure is a narrow space or cleft, so a greater number of photons would pass through this area of decreased density. The coronoid process is a marked prominence of bone found on the anterior superior ramus of the mandible. The coronoid process appears as a triangular radiopacity that lies posterior to the maxillary tuberosity region. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 14. On a panoramic image, which of the following structures appears

radiolucent on images and is located above and in front of the mastoid process? a. Hamulus b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Coronoid process d. External auditory meatus ANS: d

The hamulus is located posterior to the maxillary tuberosity. The hamulus appears as a radiopaque hook-like projection posterior to the maxillary tuberosity area. On a panoramic image, the maxillary

tuberosity appears as a radiopaque bulge distal to the third molar region. The coronoid process is a marked prominence of bone found on the anterior superior ramus of the mandible. The coronoid process appears as a triangular radiopacity posterior to the maxillary tuberosity region. The external auditory meatus appears as a round-to-ovoid radiolucency anterior and superior to the mastoid process. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 346 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 15. On a panoramic image, the infraorbital foramen may be

superimposed over the ____________. a. mental foramen b. maxillary sinus c. frontal sinus d. external auditory meatus ANS: b

The mental foramen is a hole or opening in bone located on the external surface of the mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars; thus the infraorbital foramen would not be superimposed over the mental foramen on a panoramic image. On a panoramic image, the infraorbital foramen may be superimposed over the maxillary sinus. The infraorbital foramen is a hole or opening in bone found inferior to the border of the orbit. The frontal sinus is superior to the orbit; thus the infraorbital foramen would not be superimposed over the frontal sinus on a panoramic image. The external auditory meatus is a hole or opening in the temporal bone located superior and anterior to the mastoid process; thus the infraorbital foramen would not be superimposed over the external auditory meatus on a panoramic image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 347

OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 16. Only the __________ border of the orbit is visible on most

panoramic images. a. inferior b. lateral c. medial d. superior ANS: a

Only the inferior border of the orbit is visible on most panoramic images, where it appears as a radiopaque line. The orbit is not seen on intraoral images. The lateral border of the orbit is not visible on most panoramic images. The medial border of the orbit is not visible on most panoramic images. The superior border of the orbit is not visible on most panoramic images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 17. On a panoramic image, the incisive foramen appears as an

almond-shaped radiolucent area located a. at the apex of the mandibular first premolar. b. below the orbit c. between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. d. above the maxillary sinuses. ANS: c

The mental foramen is located near the apex of the mandibular first premolar. The infraorbital foramen is located inferior to the orbit. The

incisive foramen appears as a small, ovoid or round area located between the roots of the maxillary central incisors. The orbit is located superior to the maxillary sinuses. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 18. The anterior nasal spine is a pointed, bony protrusion of the maxilla

situated ____________ the nasal fossa. a. in front of and above b. in front of and below c. behind and above d. behind and below ANS: b

The anterior nasal spine is not located above the nasal fossa. The anterior nasal spine is a sharp bony projection of the maxilla located at the anterior and inferior portion of the nasal cavity. The anterior nasal spine is not located behind and above the nasal fossa. The anterior nasal spine is not located behind the nasal fossa. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 19. The nasal cavity is also known as the a. nasal spine. b. nasal septum. c. zygoma. d. nasal fossa.

ANS: d

The anterior nasal spine is located at the anterior-inferior portion of the nasal cavity. The nasal septum divides the nasal cavity into right and left nasal fossae. The zygoma is the cheekbone. The nasal cavity is also known as the nasal fossa. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 347 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 20. The nasal _______, which consists of bone and cartilage, separates

the nasal cavity into the two halves. a. spine b. cavity c. hard palate d. septum ANS: d

The anterior nasal spine does not separate the nasal cavity into halves. The nasal cavity does not separate itself into halves. The hard palate separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity. The nasal septum is a vertical bony wall or partition that divides the nasal cavity into the right and left nasal fossae. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 348 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 21. (1) The zygomatic process appears Y-shaped on images. (2) The

zygomatic process appears radiolucent on images. a. Both statements are true.

b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: b

The inverted Y is between the maxillary sinus and the nasal cavity. The zygomatic process is not radiolucent. The zygomatic process of the maxilla appears as a J- or U-shaped radiopacity. The Y-shaped area is between the maxillary sinus and the nasal cavity. The zygomatic process is radiopaque rather than radiolucent. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 348 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 22. The hamulus extends from the a. medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. b. lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. c. coronoid process. d. styloid process. ANS: a

The hamulus extends from the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. The hamulus does not extend from the lateral pterygoid plate. The hamulus does not extend from the coronoid process. The hamulus does not extend from the styloid process. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 348 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 23. Which of the following structures may be seen on both periapical

and panoramic images? a. Mandibular condyle b. Coronoid notch c. Mandibular foramen d. Mental foramen ANS: d

The mandibular condyle is not seen on periapical images. The coronoid notch is not seen on periapical images. The mandibular foramen is not seen on periapical images. The mental foramen may be seen on both periapical and panoramic images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 350 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

24. (1) Areas of teeth not covered by the lips appear more radiolucent;

areas covered by the lips appear more radiopaque. (2) The tongue appears as a faint dome-shaped, radiopaque area superimposed over maxillary posterior teeth. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

On a panoramic image, the lipline is seen in the region of anterior teeth. The lips and tongue increase the opacity of the areas that they cover. Areas of teeth not covered by the lips appear more radiolucent; areas covered by the lips appear more radiopaque. The tongue appears as a faint dome-shaped, radiopaque area superimposed over maxillary posterior teeth. The tongue appears as a faint dome-shaped, radiopaque area superimposed over maxillary posterior teeth. Areas of teeth not

covered by the lips appear more radiolucent; areas covered by the lips appear more radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 352 | Page 354 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 25. The ______________ is a marked prominence of bone found on the

anterior superior ramus of the mandible. a. mandibular condyle b. coronoid notch c. coronoid process d. lingula ANS: c

The mandibular condyle is a rounded projection of bone extending from the posterior superior border of the ramus of the mandible. The coronoid notch is a scooped-out concavity of bone located distal to the coronoid process of the mandible. The coronoid process is a marked prominence of bone found on the anterior superior ramus of the mandible. The lingula is a small, tongue-shaped projection of bone seen adjacent to the mandibular foramen. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 349 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

26. The __________ is a hole or opening in bone located on the external

surface of the mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars. a. mandibular foramen b. lingula

c. mandibular canal d. mental foramen ANS: d

The mandibular foramen is a round or ovoid hole in bone on the lingual aspect of the ramus of the mandible. The lingula is a small, tongue-shaped projection of bone seen adjacent to the mandibular foramen on the lingual surface of the mandible. The mandibular canal is a tubelike passageway through bone that travels the length of the mandible. The mental foramen is a hole or opening in bone located on the external surface of the mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 350 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 27. The ________ foramen is a tiny hole or opening in bone located on

the internal surface of the mandible near the midline. a. lingual b. mental c. incisive d. mandibular ANS: a

The lingual foramen is a tiny hole or opening in bone located on the internal surface of the mandible near the midline. The mental foramen is a hole or opening in bone located on the external surface of the mandible in the region of the mandibular premolars. The incisive foramen (nasopalatine foramen) is a hole or opening in bone located at the midline of the anterior portion of the hard palate directly posterior to the maxillary central incisors. The mandibular foramen is a round or ovoid hole in bone on the lingual aspect of the ramus of the mandible. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 351 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 28. On a panoramic image, the ____________ air space appears as a

diagonal radiolucency located superior to the radiopaque shadow of the soft palate and uvula. a. palatoglossal b. nasopharyngeal c. glossopharyngeal d. both A and B ANS: b

The palatoglossal air space is found between the palate and the tongue and appears as a horizontal, radiolucent band located above the apices of the maxillary teeth. On a panoramic image, the nasopharyngeal air space appears as a diagonal radiolucency located superior to the radiopaque shadow of the soft palate and uvula. The glossopharyngeal air space is the portion of the pharynx located posterior to the tongue and oral cavity and appears as a vertical, radiolucent band superimposed over the ramus of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 352 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 29. On a panoramic image, the ear is viewed superimposed over the a. anterior teeth. b. styloid process. c. incisive foramen. d. mandibular canal.

ANS: b

The ear is not viewed superimposed over the anterior teeth. The ear is viewed superimposed over the styloid process. It appears as a radiopaque shadow that projects anteriorly and inferiorly from the mastoid process. The ear is not viewed superimposed over the incisive foramen. The ear is not viewed superimposed over the mandibular canal. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 354 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 30. Inferior border of the mandible a. Label A b. Label B c. Label C d. Label I ANS: d

Label A-The mandibular canal appears as a radiolucent band outlined by two thin radiopaque lines representing the cortical walls of the canal. Label B-The external auditory meatus appears as a round or ovoid radiolucency anterior and superior to the mastoid process. Label C-The mandibular condyle appears as a bony, rounded radiopaque projection extending from the posterior border of the ramus of the mandible. Label I-The inferior border of the mandible appears as a dense radiopaque band the outlines the lower border of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 350 (Figure 29-5) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

31. Orbit a. Label D b. Label A c. Label J d. Label E ANS: a

Label D-The orbit appears as a round radiolucent compartment with radiopaque borders located superior to the maxillary sinuses. Label A-The mandibular canal appears as a radiolucent band outlined by two thin radiopaque lines representing the cortical walls of the canal. Label J-The mental foramen appears as a small, ovoid or round radiolucency located in the apical region of the mandibular premolars. Label E-The nasal conchae appear as diffuse radiopaque masses or projections within the nasal cavity. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 347 (Figure 29-1) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 32. Mental foramen a. Label F b. Label G c. Label H d. Label J ANS: d

round radiolucency located in the apical region of the mandibular premolars. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 350 (Figure 29-5) | Page 351 (Figure 29-7) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 33. Hard palate a. Label A b. Label C c. Label E d. Label G ANS: d

Label A-The mandibular canal appears as a radiolucent band outlined by two thin radiopaque lines representing the cortical walls of the canal. Label C-The mandibular condyle appears as a bony, rounded radiopaque projection extending from the posterior border of the ramus of the mandible. Label E-The nasal conchae appear as diffuse radiopaque masses or projections within the nasal cavity. Label G-The hard palate appears as a horizontal radiopaque band superior to the apices of maxillary teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 347 (Figure 29-1) | Page 348 (Figure 29-2) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 34. Coronoid process a. Label B b. Label D c. Label F

d. Label I ANS: c

Label B-The external auditory meatus appears as a round or ovoid radiolucency anterior and superior to the mastoid process. Label D-The orbit appears as a round radiolucent compartment with radiopaque borders located superior to the maxillary sinuses. Label F-The coronoid process appears as a triangular radiopacity posterior to the maxillary tuberosity region. Label I-The inferior border of the mandible appears as a dense radiopaque band the outlines the lower border of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 350 (Figure 29-5) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 35. Condyle a. Label B b. Label C c. Label G d. Label H ANS: b

Label B-The external auditory meatus appears as a round or ovoid radiolucency anterior and superior to the mastoid process. Label C-The mandibular condyle appears as a bony, rounded radiopaque projection extending from the posterior border of the ramus of the mandible. Label G-The hard palate appears as a horizontal radiopaque band superior to the apices of maxillary teeth. Label H-The zygomatic process of the maxilla appears as a J- or U-shaped radiopacity located superior to the maxillary first molar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 350 (Figure 29-5) | Page 351 (Figure 29-7) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials,

and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 36. External auditory meatus a. Label F b. Label G c. Label B d. Label I ANS: c

Label F-The coronoid process appears as a triangular radiopacity posterior to the maxillary tuberosity region. Label G-The hard palate appears as a horizontal radiopaque band superior to the apices of maxillary teeth. Label B-The external auditory meatus appears as a round or ovoid radiolucency anterior and superior to the mastoid process. Label I-The inferior border of the mandible appears as a dense radiopaque band the outlines the lower border of the mandible. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 347 (Figure 29-1) | Page 348 (Figure 29-2) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 37. Mandibular canal a. Label I b. Label H c. Label J d. Label A ANS: d

Label I-The inferior border of the mandible appears as a dense radiopaque band the outlines the lower border of the mandible. Label H-The zygomatic process of the maxilla appears as a J- or U-shaped radiopacity located superior to the maxillary first molar region. Label J-The mental foramen appears as a small, ovoid or round radiolucency

located in the apical region of the mandibular premolars. Label A-The mandibular canal appears as a radiolucent band outlined by two thin radiopaque lines representing the cortical walls of the canal. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 350 (Figure 29-5) | Page 352 (Figure 29-8) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 38. Nasal conchae a. Label B b. Label E c. Label F d. Label H ANS: b

Label B-The external auditory meatus appears as a round or ovoid radiolucency anterior and superior to the mastoid process. Label E-The nasal conchae appear as diffuse radiopaque masses or projections within the nasal cavity. Label F-The coronoid process appears as a triangular radiopacity posterior to the maxillary tuberosity region. Label H-The zygomatic process of the maxilla appears as a J- or U-shaped radiopacity located superior to the maxillary first molar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 347 (Figure 29-1) | Page 348 (Figure 29-2) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs 39. Zygomatic arch a. Label C b. Label E c. Label H

d. Label J ANS: c

Label C-The mandibular condyle appears as a bony, rounded radiopaque projection extending from the posterior border of the ramus of the mandible. Label E-The nasal conchae appear as diffuse radiopaque masses or projections within the nasal cavity. Label H-The zygomatic process of the maxilla appears as a J- or U-shaped radiopacity located superior to the maxillary first molar region. Label J-The mental foramen appears as a small, ovoid or round radiolucency located in the apical region of the mandibular premolars. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 347 (Figure 29-1) OBJ: 2 | 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_30.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The definition of interpret is to a. establish a diagnosis. b. offer an explanation. c. process radiographs. d. mount radiographs. ANS: b

Interpretation is not synonymous with establishing a diagnosis. The definition of interpret is to offer an explanation. Processing radiographs is not the same as interpreting them. Mounting radiographs is not the same as interpreting them. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 357 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

2. Dental image interpretation enables the dental professional to play a

vital role in the detection of _________ of the teeth and jaws that cannot be identified clinically. 1. lesions 2. diseases 3. conditions a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2 c. 1, 3 d. 1 only ANS: a

Dental image interpretation enables the dental professional to play a vital role in the detection of lesions, diseases, and conditions of the teeth

and jaws that cannot be identified clinically. Dental image interpretation includes conditions as well as lesions and diseases. Dental image interpretation includes diseases as well as lesions and conditions. Dental image interpretation includes diseases and conditions as well as lesions. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 357 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

3. To interpret images, the dental radiographer must be confident in the

identification and recognition of the following: 1. Normal anatomy 2. Dental caries 3. Periodontal disease 4. Traumatic injuries and periapical lesions a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 4 ANS: a

The dental radiographer must be confident in the identification and recognition of the following: normal anatomy, dental caries, periodontal disease, and traumatic injuries and periapical lesions. The dental radiographer must be confident in the identification of traumatic injuries and periapical lesions as well as normal anatomy, dental caries and periodontal disease. The dental radiographer must be confident in the identification of normal anatomy as well as dental caries, periodontal disease, and traumatic injuries and periapical lesions. The dental radiographer must be confident in the identification of periodontal disease as well as normal anatomy, dental caries, and traumatic injuries and periapical lesions. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 357 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. (1) In the dental setting, interpretation refers to an explanation of

what is viewed on a dental image, (2) whereas the term diagnosis refers to the identification of disease by examination or analysis. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Although any dental professional with training in interpretation may examine dental images, the final interpretation and diagnosis are the responsibilities of the dentist. Interpretation refers to an explanation of what is viewed on a dental image, whereas the term diagnosis refers to the identification of disease by examination or analysis. Diagnosis refers to the identification of disease by examination or analysis. Interpretation refers to an explanation of what is viewed on a dental image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 357 | Page 358 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. After exposing the dental images, you should review and interpret

your patient's images a. alone in a quiet room in the evening. b. in front of the patient. c. at the end of the week. d. only when it is convenient.

ANS: b

If the patient is not present during the interpretation of dental images, much needed clinical information is unavailable. Dental images should be reviewed and interpreted immediately after exposure in the presence of the patient. Dental images should be reviewed and interpreted immediately rather than at the end of the week. Dental images should be reviewed and interpreted immediately rather than when it is convenient. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 358 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

6. After exposing you patient's dental images, you would most likely

examine the images in which of the following areas? a. Business office b. Darkroom c. Operatory d. Reception room ANS: c

The business office is not the best area for examination of dental images; the lighting is not appropriate, and there are privacy concerns. The darkroom itself is not the best area for examination of dental images because the light from the viewbox will fog and ruin unfixed films. In the dental setting, most images are examined in the operatory, which allows for immediate review and interpretation in the presence of the patient. The reception room is not an acceptable area for examination of dental images; the lighting is not appropriate, and there are privacy concerns. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 358 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.a.iii. Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing

MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_31.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. (1) When you are discussing with your dentist a lesion you notice on

your patient's dental image, you should use specific terms to describe it. (2) Use of specific terms, known as descriptive terminology, enables you to communicate intelligently with others in a common language that helps prevent confusion. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

Descriptive terminology allows dental professionals to intelligently describe and discuss what is seen on a dental image and to communicate using a common language. The use of descriptive terminology eliminates the chance for miscommunication among dental professionals. Specific terms should be used to describe a lesion noticed on a patient's dental image. Descriptive terminology enables you to communicate with other and prevent confusion. Descriptive terminology enables you to communicate with other and prevent confusion. Specific terms should be used to describe a lesion noticed on a patient's dental image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 362 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 2. (1) You should use descriptive language when you are documenting

findings from your patient's dental image. (2) Use of descriptive language in the dental record indicates a diagnosis.

a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

Descriptive terminology allows the dental professional to describe what is seen on a dental image without implying a diagnosis. Descriptive terminology allows dental professionals to intelligently describe and discuss what is seen on a dental image. Descriptive terminology allows dental professionals to intelligently describe and discuss what is seen on a dental image and to communicate using a common language. The use of descriptive terminology eliminates the chance for miscommunication among dental professionals. Descriptive language does not imply a diagnosis. Descriptive terminology allows dental professionals to intelligently describe and discuss what is seen on a dental image and to communicate using a common language. Descriptive language does not imply a diagnosis. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 362 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 3. (1) It is important to document all pathology according to location,

size, and appearance. (2) Describing a lesion as poorly defined and irregular is an example of documenting the size of the pathology. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: a

In order to properly document a lesion seen on a dental image, the lesion must be described in terms of appearance, location, and size. A lesion

may be documented as: radiolucent or radiopaque, unilocular or multilocular, well-defined or poorly defined, and regular or irregular, for example. It is important to document all pathology according to location, size, and appearance. Describing a lesion as poorly defined and irregular is an example of documenting the appearance of the pathology. Describing a lesion as poorly defined and irregular is an example of documenting the appearance of the pathology. It is important to document all pathology. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 363 | Page 366 OBJ: 1 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 4. A dental image appears ____________ where the tissues are soft or

thin. a. radiopaque b. white c. light d. black or dark ANS: d

More photons pass through tissue that is soft or thin rather than hard or thick to expose the receptor. In contrast, the image would appear white or light (radiopaque) where tissues are thick or hard. Fewer photons pass through thick or hard tissue to expose the receptor. A dental image appears black or dark (radiolucent) where the tissues are soft or thin. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 362 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 5. Most structures on a dental image _______ exhibit as a uniform

thickness and therefore appears _____________. a. do; white b. do not; gray c. do; black d. do not; white ANS: b

Most structures do not exhibit uniform thickness and appear gray. Most structures on a dental image do not exhibit uniform thickness and therefore appear gray. Most structures do not exhibit uniform thickness and appear gray. Most structures appear gray. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 362 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

6. The cavitation caused by dental caries will appear _______________

on dental images because the area of caries will be ________ dense than surrounding structures. a. radiopaque; more b. radiopaque; less c. radiolucent; more d. radiolucent; less ANS: d

The cavitation will not appear radiopaque. Caries is less dense than surrounding structures. The cavitation will not appear radiopaque. The area of caries is less dense than surrounding structures. Dental caries appears radiolucent because the area of the tooth with caries is less dense than surrounding structures. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 362 OBJ: 2 | 3

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 7. Which of the following structures would appear the most radiopaque? a. Dental pulp b. Metallic restoration c. Periodontal ligament space d. Air space ANS: b

Dental pulp appears radiolucent. A metallic restoration would appear the most radiopaque. The periodontal ligament space appears radiolucent. An air space appears radiolucent. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 362 | Page 363 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 8. Which of the following would appear radiopaque on a dental image? a. Dental pulp b. Dentin c. Periodontal ligament space d. Soft tissue ANS: b

Dental pulp is radiolucent. Dentin is an example of a radiopaque structure. The periodontal ligament space is radiolucent. Soft tissue is radiolucent. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 363 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image

MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 9. Which of the following is a type of radiolucent lesion? a. Target lesion b. Multifocal confluent c. Ground glass d. Moth-eaten pattern ANS: d

Target lesion is used to classify a radiopaque lesion. Multifocal confluent is used to classify a radiopaque lesion. Ground glass is used to classify a radiopaque lesion. Moth-eaten pattern is used to classify a radiolucent lesion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 369 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 10. A unilocular lesion with corticated borders is usually indicative of a

__________ process. a. benign slow-growing b. benign rapidly growing c. malignant slow-growing d. malignant rapidly growing ANS: a

A unilocular lesion with corticated borders is usually indicative of a benign slow-growing process. Unilocular lesions tend to be small and nonexpansile. A unilocular lesion with noncorticated borders appears fuzzy or ill-defined and may represent either a benign or a malignant process. This does not indicate a rapidly growing lesion. This does not indicate a malignant slow-growing lesion. This does not indicate a malignant rapidly growing lesion. PTS: 1

DIF: Recall REF: Page 364 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 11. Unilocular lesions tend to be a. small and expansile. b. small and nonexpansile. c. large and expansile. d. large and nonexpansile. ANS: b

Unilocular lesions do not tend to be expansile. Unilocular lesions tend to be small and nonexpansile and have borders that may appear corticated or noncorticated on the dental image. Unilocular lesions do not tend to be large and expansile. Unilocular lesions do not tend to be large. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 364 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 12. Your patient is looking at his dental image and wants to know what

the space between the roots of tooth number 29 and 30 is called. Which of the following is the correct term? a. Periapical b. Inter-radicular c. Pericoronal d. Edentulous zone ANS: b

Periapical refers to a lesion located around the apex of a tooth. Inter-radicular refers to a lesion located between the roots of adjacent

teeth. The term pericoronal refers to a radiolucent lesion located around the crown of an impacted tooth. Edentulous zone refers to a lesion located in an area without teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 364 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 13. Radiopaque lesions may occur in a. bone but not soft tissue. b. soft tissue but not bone. c. neither bone nor soft tissue. d. either bone or soft tissue. ANS: d

Radiopaque lesions may be found in soft tissue. Examples include: sialolithiasis, calcified lymph nodes, foreign bodies, and myositis ossificans. Radiopaque lesions may be found in bone. Radiopaque lesions may be found in both bone and soft tissue. Radiopaque lesions may occur in either bone or soft tissue. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 365 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 14. The term ___________ refers to a well-defined, localized radiopaque

area surrounded by a uniform radiolucent halo. a. focal opacity b. target lesion c. multifocal confluent d. ground glass

ANS: b

A focal opacity is a well-defined, localized radiopaque lesion on a dental image, but it is not surrounded by a uniform radiolucent halo. The term target lesion refers to a well-defined, localized radiopaque area surrounded by a uniform radiolucent halo. A benign cementoblastoma is an example of a radiopacity that can be described as a target lesion. A multifocal confluent radiopaque pattern can be described as multiple radiopacities that appear to overlap or flow together. A ground-glass pattern can be described as a granular or pebbled radiopacity that resembles pulverized glass. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 365 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 15. Condensing osteitis is an example of a lesion that can be described

as a. a focal opacity. b. a target lesion. c. a multifocal confluent. d. ground glass. ANS: a

Condensing osteitis is an example of a lesion that can be described as a focal opacity. A benign cementoblastoma is an example of a radiopacity that can be described as a target lesion. Diseases such as osteitis deformans and florid osseous dysplasia exhibit a multifocal confluent radiopaque pattern. Diseases such as osteitis deformans and osteopetrosis may exhibit a ground glass appearance on dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 365 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable

radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 16. Which of the following would be radiopaque and look similar to

ground glass on a dental image? a. Condensing osteitis b. Osteosarcoma c. Osteopetrosis d. Benign cementoblastoma ANS: c

Condensing osteitis is an example of a radiopaque lesion that can be described as a focal opacity. Focal opacity refers to a well-defined, localized radiopaque lesion on a dental image. Osteosarcoma is an example of a radiopaque, irregular, ill-defined lesion. A ground-glass appearance of bone is associated with osteopetrosis. Benign cementoblastoma is an example of a radiopaque lesion that can be described as a target lesion. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 366 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 17. Which of the following would be an example of a mixed

lucent-opaque lesion? a. Compound odontoma b. Osteitis deformans c. Chondrosarcoma d. Florid osseous dysplasia ANS: a

A compound odontoma would be an example of a mixed lucent-opaque lesion. Osteitis deformans is an example of a lesion with either a multifocal confluent or a ground-glass radiopaque appearance.

Chondrosarcoma is an example of an irregular, ill-defined radiopaque lesion. Florid osseous dysplasia is an example of a lesion with a multifocal confluent radiopaque pattern. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 366 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General 18. Which of the following is an example of a soft-tissue opacity? a. Osteitis deformans b. Sialolith c. Chondrosarcoma d. Florid osseous dysplasia ANS: b

Osteitis deformans is a bony opacity found in the jaw. It is a calcification within the duct of a salivary gland. A sialolith is an example of a soft-tissue opacity. It is a calcification within the duct of a salivary gland. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumor of cartilage. Florid osseous dysplasia is an abnormal proliferation of bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 366 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.1.a. Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image MSC: NBDHE, 2.5 General

Chapter_32.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. You are having difficulty determining whether the radiolucent area on

tooth number 7 on the dental image is decay or a composite restoration. Which of the following should you do? a. Ask your patient. b. Perform a clinical examination. c. Search on the Internet. d. Look in a textbook. ANS: b

Verbal inquiry of the patient can be attempted, but some patients are unreliable historians. If questions arise as to what is seen on a dental image concerning dental restorations, materials, or foreign objects, clinical examination of the patient can be used to obtain additional information. An Internet search may be useful for background information, but if dental images are interpreted without the patient present, some important clinical information is not available. A textbook reference may be useful for background information, but if dental images are interpreted without the patient present, some important clinical information is not available. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 378 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 2. Because metallic restorations absorb x-rays, the area of the image that

corresponds to their location remains unexposed, and the metallic restorations appear completely ___________ on a dental image. a. radiosensitive b. radioresistant

c. radiopaque d. radiolucent ANS: c

Radiosensitivity refers to the relative sensitivity of a tissue or organ to damage from radiation and is not a property of restorations, metallic or otherwise. Radioresistant refers to the relative sensitivity of a tissue or organ. Because metallic restorations absorb x-rays, the area of the image that corresponds to their location remains unexposed, and the metallic restorations appear completely radiopaque on a dental image. On a dental image, nonmetallic restorations may vary in appearance from radiolucent to slightly radiopaque, depending on the density of the material. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 378 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

3. Of the nonmetallic restorations, ____________ is the most dense and

least radiolucent. a. unfilled acrylic b. filled acrylic c. composite d. porcelain ANS: d

Unfilled acrylic is the least dense and most radiolucent. Manufacturers may add radiopaque materials such as barium to acrylic to enhance visualization. Manufacturers may add radiopaque materials to composite to enhance visualization and differentiate the restorative material from caries. Porcelain is the densest and least radiolucent. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 378

OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 4. Which of the following is the most inexpensive restorative material

used in dentistry? a. Porcelain b. Cast gold c. Amalgam d. Acrylic ANS: c

Porcelain requires fabrication in the dental laboratory and is more costly than amalgam. Cast gold requires fabrication in the dental laboratory and is more expensive than amalgam. Amalgam is one of the most inexpensive restorative materials used in dentistry. Acrylic is used as a temporary material. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 378 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

5. Amalgam overhangs, excess amalgam material that extends beyond

the cavity margin, can be seen on dental images in the ____________ region of the crown of the tooth. a. buccal b. lingual c. interproximal d. occlusal ANS: c

Amalgam extensions on buccal restorations may often be observed clinically; however, they are not often seen on dental images because the

image is a two-dimensional representation of a three-dimensional object and depth perception is lost. Amalgam extensions on lingual restorations may be observed clinically. These are easier to remove than interproximal amalgam overhangs. Amalgam overhangs can be described as extensions of amalgam seen on dental images beyond the crown portion of a tooth located in the interproximal region. Amalgam extensions on occlusal restorations may occasionally be observed; however, they do not contribute to bone loss. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 378 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 6. The greatest potential negative consequence of an amalgam overhang

is a. unesthetic contour. b. destruction of interproximal bone. c. impingement of the interdental papilla. d. stretching of periodontal ligament fibers. ANS: b

An amalgam overhang may be unesthetic, but this is not the greatest negative consequence. An amalgam overhang disrupts the natural cleansing contours of the tooth, traps food and plaque, and contributes to bone loss. The greatest potential negative consequence of an amalgam overhang is destruction of interproximal bone. Amalgam overhangs are not associated with impingement of interdental papillae. Amalgam overhangs are not known to stretch periodontal ligament fibers. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 381 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

7. You are looking at your patient's dental images. On tooth number 30,

you see a large restoration that has smooth margins, doesn't conform to the tooth, and has a ghostlike radiopaque appearance. Which type of restoration does your patient have on tooth number 30? a. Silver amalgam b. Gold crown c. Porcelain crown d. Stainless steel crown ANS: d

Silver amalgam two-surface and multi-surface restorations are characterized by their irregular outlines or borders. They are radiopaque. Gold will appear as a large, well-adapted radiopaque restoration with smooth borders. Unlike metallic restorations, which appear totally radiopaque, porcelain restorations are slightly radiopaque and resemble the radiodensity of dentin. Stainless steel crowns are prefabricated, and their outlines and margins appear very smooth and regular; often, however, these crowns do not appear to fit the tooth well. They have a ghostlike radiopaque appearance on dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 384 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 8. Post and core restorations can be seen in ____________ treated teeth. a. periodontally b. orthodontically c. endodontically d. nonendodontically ANS: c

Periodontally means around the tooth and endodontically means within

the tooth. A post and core restoration must be performed within the tooth, not around the tooth. Orthodontia is concerned with moving teeth. A post and core restoration must be within a tooth. Post and core restorations can be seen in endodontically treated teeth. The core portion of the restoration resembles the prepared portion of a tooth crown, and the post portion extends into the pulp canal. A post and core restoration cannot be performed on a tooth unless it has been endodontically treated. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 382 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 9. Porcelain restorations are a. radiolucent. b. slightly radiolucent. c. slightly radiopaque. d. radiopaque. ANS: c

Porcelain restorations are not radiolucent. Porcelain restorations are not slightly radiolucent. Porcelain restorations are slightly radiopaque and resemble the radiodensity of dentin. Acrylic restorations are slightly radiopaque as well. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 382 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 10. A thin radiopaque line outlining the prepared tooth may be evident

on a dental image of an all-porcelain crown. This thin line represents a. die spacer.

b. cement. c. an air pocket. d. a metal substructure. ANS: b

Die spacer is placed to provide space for the cement layer. A thin radiopaque line outlining the prepared tooth may be evident on a dental image of an all-porcelain crown. This thin line represents cement. The thin line is not an air pocket A metal substructure blocks the x-rays and produces a radiopaque area on the image. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 382 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 11. A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown appears a. uniformly radiopaque. b. uniformly radiolucent. c. to have two components. The metal component appears completely

radiopaque, and the porcelain component appears slightly radiopaque. d. to have two components. The metal component appears completely radiolucent, and the porcelain component appears slightly radiolucent. ANS: c

All porcelain restorations appear slightly radiopaque. Porcelain restorations are slightly opaque and resemble the radiodensity of dentin. A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown appears to have two components. The metal component appears completely radiopaque, and the porcelain component appears slightly radiopaque. The metal component appears radiopaque rather than radiolucent and the porcelain component appears slightly radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 382

OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 12. Some manufacturers of composite materials add radiopaque particles

to their products to help the viewer differentiate a composite restoration from a. an amalgam restoration. b. dental caries. c. a cast gold restoration. d. a porcelain-fused-to-metal (PFM) crown. ANS: b

An amalgam restoration is very radiopaque. Some manufacturers of composite materials add radiopaque particles to their products to help the viewer differentiate a composite restoration from dental caries. Historically, some composite restorative materials were radiolucent, making it difficult at times to differentiate the restoration from decay. Adding radiopaque particles to composite materials would diminish rather than increase the differentiation of a composite restoration from a cast gold restoration. Adding radiopaque particles would reduce the differentiation of a composite restoration from a PFM crown. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 382 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 13. Gutta percha appears __________. If compared with amalgam, gutta

percha appears ________ radiodense. a. radiolucent; more b. radiolucent; less c. radiopaque; more

d. radiopaque; less ANS: d

Gutta percha appears radiopaque, similar in density to that of base materials. Gutta percha is less radiodense compared with amalgam. Gutta percha appears radiopaque rather than radiolucent. Gutta percha is less radiodense than amalgam. Gutta percha appears radiopaque. If compared with amalgam, gutta percha appears less radiodense. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 384 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 14. Diatorics are found in a. silver point endodontic fillings. b. gutta percha endodontic fillings. c. anterior porcelain denture teeth. d. anterior acrylic denture teeth. ANS: c

Diatorics are not found in silver point endodontic fillings. Diatorics are not found in gutta percha endodontic fillings. Diatorics are found in anterior porcelain denture teeth. They are used to retain the denture teeth in the acrylic denture base material. Diatorics are not found in acrylic denture teeth because acrylic denture teeth are capable of bonding to the acrylic denture base material. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 386 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 15. (1) The metal framework on a removable partial denture appears

radiopaque on dental images. (2) The acrylic portion of a removable partial denture appears radiolucent on dental images. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second statement is false. d. The first statement is false; the second statement is true. ANS: c

The acrylic portion of a removable partial denture appears slightly radiopaque. The metal framework on a removable partial denture appears radiopaque. The size and shape of the radiopacity depend on the design of the metal framework of the partial denture. A removable partial denture constructed of a metal base with acrylic saddles appears densely radiopaque where metal is present and slightly radiopaque in the areas of acrylic. The metal framework on a removable partial denture appears radiopaque on dental images. The acrylic portion of a removable partial denture appears slightly radiopaque on dental images. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 387 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

16. You are going to take intraoral images on your patient. Which of the

following should you ask her to remove? 1. Necklace 2. Eyeglasses 3. Nose ring 4. Hearing aids a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 2, 3

ANS: d

With intraoral images, patients should be instructed to remove eyeglasses and nose jewelry. Hearing aids would be outside of the field of vision for an intraoral image. A necklace would be outside of the field of vision for an intraoral image. Necklaces and hearing aids would be outside the field for an intraoral image, but not for an extraoral image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 387 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 17. Identify the restoration your patient has on tooth number 30.

a. Amalgam b. Stainless steel crown c. Gold crown d. Porcelain fused to metal crown ANS: b

The restoration on tooth number 3 is an amalgam, but the restoration on tooth 30 is not an amalgam. The restoration on tooth number 30 is a stainless steel crown. Because stainless steel crowns are prefabricated, the outlines and margins appear very smooth and regular. Often these crowns are not contoured properly to the cervical portion of the tooth and do not appear to fit the tooth well. A gold crown would appear completely radiopaque. A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown has a metal component that would appear completely radiopaque and a porcelain component that would appear slightly radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 381 | Page 382 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images

MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_33.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the practice of dentistry, ___________ is probably the most

frequent reason for taking dental images. a. periodontitis b. caries c. impacted teeth d. orthodontia ANS: b

Dental images are taken for diagnosis of periodontitis, but not as frequently as they are for caries. Caries are probably the most frequent reason for taking dental images. Dental images should be taken at least once to determine the existence and location of impacted teeth. Dental images are taken for orthodontia, but not as frequently are they are for caries. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 403 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 2. A dental image is most useful for detection of _________ caries. a. buccal b. lingual c. occlusal d. interproximal ANS: d

Because of the superimposition of the densities of normal tooth structure, buccal caries are difficult to detect on a dental image and are best detected clinically. Lingual caries are difficult to detect on a dental image due to the superimposition of the densities of normal tooth

structure. A thorough clinical examination with the mirror, explorer, and light is the method of choice for the detection of occlusal caries. A dental image is most useful for detection of interproximal caries. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 403 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 3. A carious lesion appears _________ on a dental image. a. radiopaque b. radiolucent c. white d. clear ANS: b

A radiopaque (light or white) area would be due to increased rather than decreased density. A carious lesion appears radiolucent (dark or black) on a dental image. Demineralization and destruction of the hard tooth structures result in a loss of tooth density in the area of the lesion. Decreased density allows greater penetration of x-rays in the carious area. A white area on a dental image would be due to increased density. A silver amalgam restoration appears clear on a dental image. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 403 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

4. You suspect your patient has caries in the molar regions. Which of the

following dental images should you take? a. Periapical b. Bite-wing

c. Panoramic d. Occlusal ANS: b

A periapical image using the paralleling technique can also be used for evaluation of dental caries; however, day-in and day-out, most practitioners rely on bite-wing images for the evaluation of caries in posterior teeth. The bite-wing image is the dental image of choice for the evaluation of caries. Although panoramic images are superior to periapical or bite-wing images for visualization of the entire head and jaws, the resolution is less than that seen with intraoral images. In fact, a panoramic image is typically supplemented with bite-wing images to create a full mouth series. The steep vertical angulation of an occlusal image largely precludes utilization for the detection of caries. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 403 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 5. ____________ caries are found between two teeth. a. Occlusal b. Buccal c. Lingual d. Interproximal ANS: d

Occlusal caries involves the chewing surface of the posterior teeth. Buccal caries involves the buccal tooth surface. Lingual caries involves the lingual tooth surface. Interproximal caries are found between two teeth. This area is difficult, if not impossible, to examine clinically with an explorer unless the area of caries is extensive and cavitation has occurred. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall

REF: Page 404 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 6. On a dental image, interproximal caries are typically seen at or just

below the a. marginal ridge. b. contact point. c. cementoenamel junction. d. crest of the alveolar bone. ANS: b

Interproximal caries are not most often seen at the marginal ridge unless the tooth has a crack in that area. Interproximal caries are typically seen at or just below the contact point. Root caries are more likely to be seen at the cementoenamel junction than interproximal caries. Interproximal caries are not seen at the crest of alveolar bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 404 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 7. Which of the following interproximal lesions does not involve the

dentin, but is does extend more than half way through the enamel? a. Incipient b. Moderate c. Advanced d. Severe ANS: b

Incipient interproximal caries extend less than halfway through the thickness of enamel. Moderate interproximal caries extend more than

halfway through the thickness of enamel but do not involve the dentino-enamel junction (DEJ). Advanced interproximal caries extend to or through the DEJ and into dentin but do not extend through the dentin more than half the distance toward the pulp. Severe interproximal caries extend through enamel, through the dentin, and more than half the distance toward the pulp. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 405 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 8. You are viewing your patient's bite-wing images. He has an

interproximal carious lesion that is almost to the pulp. What is the classification of the lesion? a. I b. II c. III d. IV ANS: d

A Class I lesion is seen in enamel only. A Class II lesion is moderate interproximal caries. A moderate lesion is seen in enamel only. A Class III lesion is an advanced interproximal lesion. A Class IV lesion is severe interproximal caries. A severe lesion involves both enamel and dentin and may appear clinically as a cavitation in the tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 406 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

9. Which of the following carious occlusal lesions cannot be found on a

dental image and must be identified clinically?

1. Incipient 2. Moderate 3. Severe a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 3 d. 1 only ANS: d

Incipient occlusal caries cannot be seen on a dental image and moderate likely will not be seen as well. It is not likely that both incipient and severe carious occlusal lesions cannot be found on a dental image. It is not likely that both moderate and severe carious occlusal lesions cannot be found on a dental image and incipient lesions can be. Moderate occlusal caries extends into dentin and appears as a very thin radiolucent line. On a dental image, little, if any, change is noted in enamel. Severe occlusal caries extends into dentin and appears as a large radiolucency. Severe occlusal caries is apparent clinically and appears as a cavitation in the tooth. Incipient occlusal caries cannot be seen on a dental image and must be detected clinically with an explorer. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 407 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 10. Buccal or lingual caries appear as a _____________________ on

dental images. a. radiolucent triangle b. radiopaque triangle c. radiolucent small circle d. radiopaque small circle ANS: c

Buccal or lingual caries appear as a small circle rather than a triangle. Interproximal caries appears most often as a triangle on bite-wing images. Buccal or lingual caries would be radiolucent rather than radiopaque and would be circular rather than triangular in shape. Caries that involve the buccal or lingual surface appear as a small, circular radiolucent area. Buccal or lingual caries would be radiolucent rather than radiopaque. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 407 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 11. Which of the following statements is true of root surface caries? a. Root surface caries involve the loss of enamel. b. Root surface caries are clinically difficult to detect on exposed root

surfaces. c. Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just below the cement-enamel junction (CEJ). d. Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just above the CEJ. ANS: c

Root surface caries does not involve loss of enamel. Root surface caries are easily detected on exposed root surfaces. Root surface caries appear as a cupped-out or crater-shaped radiolucency just below the CEJ. Enamel is found above the CEJ, and no involvement of enamel occurs. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 407 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 12. Rampant caries are typically seen in children with ________ dietary

habits or in adults with __________ salivary flow. a. poor; increased b. poor; decreased c. good; increased d. good; decreased ANS: b

Increased salivary flow would reduce the frequency of caries. Rampant caries is advanced and severe caries that affects numerous teeth. Rampant caries are typically seen in children with poor dietary habits or in adults with decreased salivary flow. Rampant caries are typically seen in children with poor rather than good dietary habits. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 408 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 13. Which type of caries occurs under an existing restoration? a. Buccal b. Recurrent c. Rampant d. Root ANS: b

Buccal caries involves the buccal tooth surface. Recurrent caries occurs adjacent to a pre-existing restoration. Rampant caries is typically seen in children with poor dietary habits or in adults with decreased salivary flow. Root surface caries involves only the roots of teeth. The cementum and dentin located just below the cervical region of the tooth are involved. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 408 OBJ: 6

TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 14. Identify the type of decay present that your patient has on the mesial

of tooth number 4. a. Incipient interproximal caries b. Moderate interproximal caries c. Advanced interproximal caries d. Severe interproximal caries ANS: c

Incipient interproximal caries extends less than halfway through the thickness of enamel. Moderate interproximal caries extends more than halfway through the thickness of enamel but does not involve the DEJ. The caries extends through the DEJ and into the dentin. It does not extend more than halfway to the pulp. Advanced interproximal caries is evident on the mesial of tooth number 4. The caries extends through the DEJ and into the dentin. It does not extend more than halfway to the pulp. Severe interproximal caries extends through enamel, through the dentin, and more than half the distance to the pulp. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 406 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_34.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In health, the lamina dura around the roots of the teeth appears as a(n)

_________ line. a. dense radiolucent b. dense radiopaque c. intermittent radiolucent d. intermittent radiopaque ANS: b

Lamina dura is radiopaque rather than radiolucent. In health, the lamina dura around the roots of the teeth appears as a dense radiopaque line around the roots. Healthy lamina dura is dense radiopaque rather than intermittent radiolucent. Healthy lamina dura is dense rather than intermittent. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 413 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 2. Your patient has been diagnosed as having a periodontal classification

of gingivitis. How far below the cement-enamel junction (CEJ) would you expect to see the crestal bone on the dental images? a. 0.5 to 1.0 mm b. 1.0 to 1.5 mm c. 1.5 to 2.0 mm d. 2.0 to 2.5 mm ANS: c

Normal alveolar crest height is not 0.5 to 1.0 mm apical to the CEJ. Normal alveolar crest height is more than 1.0 to 1.5 mm apical to the CEJ. The normal healthy alveolar crest is located approximately 1.5 to

2.0 mm apical to the CEJ. Crestal bone height of 2.0 to 2.5 mm from the CEJ indicates bone loss and periodontitis. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 413 | Page 414 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 3. The normal periodontal ligament (PDL) space appears as a

______________ line. a. thin radiopaque b. thin radiolucent c. thick radiopaque d. thick radiolucent ANS: b

The normal PDL space is radiolucent rather than radiopaque. The normal PDL space appears as a thin radiolucent line between the root of the tooth and the lamina dura. The normal PDL space would be thin and radiolucent rather than thick and radiopaque. The normal PDL space would be thin rather than thick. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 413 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 4. The periodontal ligament (PDL) space is located between the root of

the tooth and the a. crest of alveolar bone. b. lamina dura. c. cementum. d. spongy bone.

ANS: b

The PDL space is not associated with the crest of alveolar bone. The PDL space is located between the root of the tooth and the lamina dura. The root of the tooth is covered with cementum. The tooth socket is lined with lamina dura and not spongy bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 413 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 5. Dental images permit the evaluation of ______ in the detection of

periodontal disease. a. pocket depth b. soft tissue c. inflammation d. bone ANS: d

Dental images cannot be used to determine pocket depth. Dental images cannot be used to determine the condition of soft tissue; the clinical examination provides information about the soft tissue. Dental images cannot be used to determine inflammation. Dental images permit the evaluation of bone in the detection of periodontal disease. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 413 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 6. You suspect your patient has periodontal disease in the molar regions.

Which of the following dental images should you take? a. Horizontal bite-wing

b. Vertical bite-wing c. Panoramic d. Periapical ANS: d

The horizontal bite-wing image is the dental image of choice for the evaluation of caries. The vertical bite-wing image can be used to examine bone levels and is best used as a post-treatment or follow-up image. Although panoramic images are superior to periapical or bite-wing images for visualization of the entire head and jaws, the resolution is less than that seen with intraoral images. The periapical image using the paralleling technique is the image of choice for the evaluation of periodontal disease. With the paralleling technique, the height of crestal bone is accurately recorded in relation to the tooth root. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 414 | Page 415 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 7. The _________________ of adjacent teeth can be used as a plane of

reference in determining the pattern of bone loss present. a. marginal ridge height b. cemento-enamel junctions (CEJs) c. pulp chambers d. cementum thickness ANS: b

The marginal ridge height is not used to determine the pattern of bone loss. The cemento-enamel junctions (CEJs) of adjacent teeth can be used as a plane of reference in determining the pattern of bone loss present. With horizontal bone loss, the bone loss occurs in a plane parallel to the CEJs of the adjacent teeth. With vertical bone loss, the bone loss does not occur in a plane parallel to the CEJs of adjacent teeth. The pulp chambers are not used to determine the pattern of bone loss. The

cementum thickness is not used to determine the pattern of bone loss.

PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 416 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 8. A patient with localized bone loss will exhibit bone loss in less than

______ of the areas. a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50% ANS: c

A patient can have bone loss in more than 10% of areas and still have it defined as localized. A patient can have bone loss in more than 20% of areas and still be defined as having localized bone loss. Localized bone loss occurs in isolated areas, specifically less than 30% of the sites involved. 50% loss of bone would indicate generalized rather than localized bone loss. Generalized bone loss occurs evenly throughout the dental arches, including greater than 30% of the sites involved. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 416 | Page 417 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 9. Which of the following should you use to determine the extent of your

patient's periodontal disease? a. Pocket depth b. Recession c. Amount of inflammation

d. Clinical attachment loss ANS: d

Bone loss is considered to be a more significant clinical parameter than pocket depth. Recession may involve many factors, including toothbrushing technique and bruxism, and does not necessarily involve bone loss. The amount of inflammation does not necessarily reflect or determine bone loss. The severity of bone loss is measured by the clinical attachment loss. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 417 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 10. Severe bone loss is defined as a loss of __________. a. 1 to 2 mm b. 2 to 3 mm c. 3 to 4 mm d. 5 mm or greater ANS: d

Slight bone loss is defined as a loss of 1 to 2 mm. Bone loss of 2 to 3 mm is between slight and moderate bone loss. Moderate bone loss is defined as a loss of 3 to 4 mm. Severe bone loss is defined as a loss of 5 mm or greater. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 417 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 11. Stage II radiographic bone loss is bone loss a. extending to the mid-third of the root and beyond including vertical

bone loss, furcation involvement and tooth mobility. b. extending to the mid-third of the root including vertical bone loss and furcation involvement. c. in the coronal third of the root from 15% to 33%. d. in the coronal third of the root < 15%. ANS: c

Stage I radiographic bone loss is bone loss in the coronal third of the root < 15%. Stage II radiographic bone loss is bone loss in the coronal third of the root from 15% to 33%. Stage III radiographic bone loss is bone loss extending to the mid-third of the root including vertical bone loss and furcation involvement. Stage IV radiographic bone loss is bone loss extending to the mid-third of the root and beyond including vertical bone loss, furcation involvement and tooth mobility. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 418 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 12. Your patient is viewing her bite-wing images and has noticed the

small radiopaque area on the interproximal surfaces below the contacts of some of her teeth. What is she looking at? a. Crestal bone b. Cemento-enamel junction (CEJ) c. Composite restorations d. Calculus ANS: d

The normal healthy alveolar crest is located approximately 1.5 to 2.0 mm apical to the cemento-enamel junctions (CEJs) of adjacent teeth. In the anterior regions, the alveolar crest appears pointed and sharp and is normally very radiopaque. In the posterior regions, the alveolar crest appears flat, smooth, and parallel to a line between adjacent CEJs. The CEJ is located at the junction between the enamel and the cementum.

Composite restorations can appear either radiopaque or radiolucent and should not extend past the interproximal surface. Calculus appears radiopaque on a dental image. Calculus varies in appearances on dental images; it most often appears as pointed or irregular radiopaque projections. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 420 | Page 421 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 13. Identify the radiopaque area the arrow is pointing to on your patient's

dental image. a. Calculus b. Caries c. Cemento-enamel junction d. Cementum ANS: a

The radiolucent area indicated by the arrow is calculus. Caries would be more radiolucent than the surrounding area. The cemento-enamel junction would not be bulbous. Cementum is not usually seen on a radiographic image. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 420 | Page 421 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.0 Obtaining and Interpreting Radiographs

Chapter_35.bnk MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Root fractures occur most often in the _______________ region. a. maxillary central incisor b. mandibular central incisor c. maxillary molar d. mandibular molar ANS: a

Root fractures occur most often in the maxillary central incisor region. Root fractures do not occur most often in the mandibular central incisor region. Root fractures result from an accident or traumatic blow, so they would occur in the anterior rather than posterior teeth. Root fractures do not occur most often in the mandibular molar region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 427 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 2. Your patient thinks he fractured his mandible. Which image would

you take to evaluate for a fracture? a. Occlusal b. Periapical c. Bite-wing d. Panoramic ANS: d

An occlusal image is too small and is not in the right plane for visualization of jaw fractures. A periapical image is too small for visualization of jaw fractures. A bite-wing image is too small for visualization of jaw fractures. The panoramic image and images produced with cone-beam computed tomography are recommended for

the evaluation of a mandibular fractures.

PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 427 OBJ: 2 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 3. Which of the following describes luxation? a. The displacement of teeth b. The fragments of bone following traumatic injury c. Hemorrhage, or bleeding d. Swelling or edema ANS: a

Luxation is the abnormal displacement of teeth and can be categorized as either intrusion or extrusion. Sequestra are the loose fragments of bone following traumatic injury. Hemorrhage or bleeding is associated with luxation, but luxation refers to the displacement of teeth. Swelling or edema is associated with luxation, however, luxation itself is the abnormal displacement of teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 427 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

4. Your patient had tooth #8 displaced lingually when she fell, and her

face impacted the sidewalk. Which type of image should you take to evaluate the tooth? a. Bite-wing b. Periapical c. Occlusal d. Panoramic

ANS: b

The bite-wing image does not permit visualization of the apex of the tooth. Teeth that have been luxated should be evaluated by a periapical image and examined for root and adjacent alveolar bone fractures, damage to the periodontal ligament, and pulpal problems. The occlusal image may reveal the apex of some anterior teeth, but the roots of many teeth are severely foreshortened. The panoramic image does not have the resolution of a periapical image, making it difficult to rely on alone for evaluation of a luxated tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 427 | Page 428 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

5. The term used for a tooth that is totally dislodged from the alveolar

bone is a. luxation. b. intrusion. c. extrusion. d. avulsion. ANS: d

Luxation is the abnormal displacement of teeth. Intrusion is the abnormal displacement of teeth into bone. Avulsion is the complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone. Extrusion is the abnormal displacement of teeth out of bone. Avulsion is the complete displacement of a tooth from alveolar bone. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 429 OBJ: 3 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

6. Absorption of a tooth that is occurs from the inside out is called

___________ resorption. a. physiologic b. pathologic c. external d. internal ANS: d

Physiologic resorption is a process seen with the normal shedding of primary teeth. Pathologic resorption is a regressive alteration of tooth structure observed when a tooth is subjected to abnormal stimuli. External resorption is seen along the periphery of the root surface and is often associated with reimplanted teeth, abnormal mechanical forces, trauma, chronic inflammation, tumors and cysts, impacted teeth, or idiopathic causes. Internal resorption is the destruction of dentin around the pulp cavity within the crown or root of a tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 430 OBJ: 4 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 7. _____________ is a diffuse calcification of the pulp chamber and

pulp canals of teeth. a. Pulpal sclerosis b. Pulpal obliteration c. Pulp stones d. Internal resorption ANS: a

Pulpal sclerosis is a diffuse calcification of the pulp chamber and pulp canals of teeth. A tooth with pulpal obliteration does not appear to have a pulp chamber or pulp canals. On a dental image, pulp stones appear as

round, ovoid, or cylindrical radiopacities. Internal resorption appears as a round-to-ovoid radiolucency in the midcrown or midroot portion of a tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 431 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 8. Teeth that exhibit pulpal obliteration a. require extraction. b. require endodontic therapy. c. require occlusal restoration. d. do not require treatment. ANS: d

Teeth with pulpal obliteration do not require extraction. These teeth do not require endodontic therapy. In fact, endodontic therapy may not be possible because the pulp canal system is sclerosed. Teeth with pulpal obliteration only require occlusal restoration if they have caries. Pulpal obliteration is the calcification, or deposition of hard tissue, within the pulp cavity. A tooth with pulp canal obliteration does not have a visible pulp chamber and/or pulp canals. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 431 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 9. Pulp stones _________ cause symptoms and _________ require

treatment. a. do; do b. do; do not

c. do not; do d. do not; do not ANS: d

Pulp stones do not cause symptoms. Pulp stones have little clinical significance unless endodontic therapy is indicated. Pulp stones are not symptomatic. Pulp stones do not have clinical significance unless the tooth requires endodontic treatment. Pulp stones do not cause symptoms and do not require treatment. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 431 | Page 432 OBJ: 5 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 10. Your patient is complaining of pain around tooth #30. A dental

image reveals a radiolucent area on the side of the root. You cannot see the lamina dura. Which of the following best describes what your patient is experiencing? a. Hypercementosis b. Condensing osteitis c. Periapical cyst d. Periodontal abscess ANS: d

Hypercementosis is a periapical radiopacity. Condensing osteitis is a periapical radiopacity. A periapical cyst is a periapical radiolucency. A periodontal abscess is painful and appears as a radiolucent area along the lateral aspect of the root. The lamina dura is not visible. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 435 | Page 436 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

11. Periapical cysts account for ___________ of all cysts in the oral

region. a. 10% to 20% b. 20% to 25% c. 25% to 50% d. 50% to 70% ANS: d

Periapical cysts account for more than 10% to 20% of all cysts in the oral region. Periapical cysts account for more than 20% to 25% of all cysts in the oral region. Periapical cysts account for more than 25% to 50% of all cysts in the oral region. Periapical cysts are the most common of all tooth-related cysts and account for 50% to 70% of all cysts in the oral region. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 434 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 12. A chronic periapical abscess is a. painful. b. usually asymptomatic. c. sensitive to percussion. d. sensitive to heat. ANS: b

An acute periapical abscess is painful, however, a chronic periapical abscess is usually painless because the pus drains through bone or the periodontal ligament space. A chronic periapical abscess is usually asymptomatic. It is a localized collection of pus around the apex of a nonvital tooth that has features of a long-standing, low-grade, pus-producing process. An acute rather than chronic periapical abscess

is sensitive to percussion. An acute rather than chronic periapical abscess is sensitive to heat. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 435 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 13. The periapical abscess a. refers to a tooth with an infection in the pulp. b. is a purulent inflammation within the periodontal tissues. c. is treated with deep scaling and debridement. d. when it heals, the tooth is still vital. ANS: a

The periapical abscess refers to a tooth with an infection in the pulp. The periodontal abscess is a purulent inflammation within the periodontal tissues. Treatment of the periapical abscess includes drainage and endodontic therapy or extraction. The periodontal abscess is treated with deep scaling and debridement. A periapical abscess results from a nonvital tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Comprehension REF: Page 434 | Page 435 OBJ: 6 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 14. Your patient's dental image reveals a distinct radiopaque area below

the apex of tooth #18, which is a nonvital tooth and has had chronic pulpitis. Your patient most likely has a. condensing osteitis. b. periodontal abscess. c. sclerotic bone.

d. periapical abscess. ANS: a

Condensing osteitis is a well-defined radiopacity that is seen below the apex of a nonvital tooth with a history of a long-standing pulpitis. A periodontal abscess is a purulent inflammation within the periodontal tissues. Sclerotic bone is a well-defined radiopacity that is seen below the apices of vital, noncarious teeth. With an acute periapical abscess, no changes may be evident on the dental image. A chronic periapical abscess appears as a round or ovoid, apical radiolucency with poorly defined margins. PTS: 1 DIF: Application REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 15. Condensing osteitis is seen ________ the apex of a __________

tooth. a. below; vital b. below; nonvital c. above; vital d. above; nonvital ANS: b

Condensing osteitis is not associated with vital teeth. Condensing osteitis is seen below the apex of a nonvital tooth. Condensing osteitis is associated with nonvital teeth. Condensing osteitis is seen below the apex of the tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

16. Condensing osteitis _______ vary in size and shape and _________

appear to be attached to the tooth root. a. may; does b. may; does not c. may not; does d. may not; does not ANS: b

Condensing osteitis does not appear to be attached to the tooth root. Condensing osteitis may vary in size and shape and does not appear to be attached to the tooth root. It does not involve the periodontal ligament space. Condensing osteitis may vary in size and shape and is not attached to the tooth root. Condensing osteitis may vary in size and shape. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 17. The treatment for condensing osteitis is a. extraction. b. root canal therapy. c. osseous recontouring. d. no treatment is necessary. ANS: d

Condensing osteitis does not require extraction. The nonvital associated tooth requires endodontic therapy or extraction. Condensing osteitis itself does not require treatment, but the associated nonvital tooth requires endodontic therapy or extraction. Condensing osteitis does not require osseous recontouring as it occurs within bone. Because condensing osteitis is believed to represent a physiologic reaction of

bone to inflammation, no treatment of the condensing osteitis itself is necessary. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 18. ______________ is the most common periapical radiopacity

observed in adults. a. Hypercementosis b. Sclerotic bone c. Condensing osteitis d. Pulpal sclerosis ANS: c

Hypercementosis is not the most common periapical radiopacity in adults. Sclerotic bone is not the most common periapical radiopacity in adults. Condensing osteitis is the most common periapical radiopacity observed in adults. The most common periapical radiopacity in adults is not pulpal sclerosis. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities 19. Condensing osteitis most frequently involves the _______________

tooth. a. mandibular premolar b. mandibular molar c. maxillary premolar d. maxillary molar

ANS: b

Condensing osteitis is not most frequently found in the mandibular premolar tooth. Condensing osteitis most frequently involves the mandibular molar tooth. Condensing osteitis is not most frequently found in the maxillary premolar tooth. Condensing osteitis does not most frequently involve the maxillary molar tooth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities

20. Sclerotic bone is seen below the apices of ________________ teeth. a. vital, carious b. vital, noncarious c. nonvital, carious d. nonvital, noncarious ANS: b

Sclerotic bone is not associated with carious teeth. Sclerotic bone is a well-defined radiopacity that is seen below the apices of vital, noncarious teeth. It varies in size and shape, and the margins may appear smooth or irregular and diffuse. Sclerotic bone is associated with vital rather than nonvital teeth. It is seen below the apices of noncarious rather than carious teeth. Sclerotic bone is associated with vital rather than nonvital teeth. PTS: 1 DIF: Recall REF: Page 436 OBJ: 7 TOP: CDA, RHS, I.C.2.b. Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images MSC: NBDHE, 2.4 Recognition of Normalities and Abnormalities