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Chap 01_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Many of our most important life decisions are made with either an implicit or explicit assumption about how long we expect to live. a. True b. False 2. Developmental change refers to patterns of growth and reorganization. a. True b. False 3. All cultures support physical growth and health in similar ways. a. True b. False 4. The development from one period of life to the next is an individual process. a. True b. False 5. According to projections, life expectancy has been increasing for both men and women. a. True b. False 6. Psychological change is partly guided by genetic information. a. True b. False 7. It is likely that people will be healthier in older age rather than live much longer than current life expectancy. a. True b. False 8. Children from low-income families are more likely to be exposed prenatally to maternal malnutrition. a. True b. False 9. The biological, psychological, and societal systems are responsive and adapt to changes. a. True b. False 10. Self-insight is considered a vital component of mental health. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. People can live longer and healthier lives by Page 1
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Chap 01_13e a. exercising 20-30 minutes daily. b. engaging in predominantly light exercise. c. socializing with healthy people to avoid catching illnesses. d. working as long and as productively as possible. 12. Jo Ellen’s divorce was final yesterday afternoon. Based on research, she and her two children can expect which of the following in terms of their financial well-being? a. An increase in financial stability based on child support b. A decrease in household income followed by a sharp increase c. A decrease in household income d. An increase in financial well-being 13. Which aspect of development is illustrated in the case of Ruth Hamilton? a. Development is primarily a social construct. b. Development is primarily a result of biological processes. c. Development follows the same sequence of steps for everyone. d. Development occurs across the life span. 14. Marcy can expect to live how much longer than her husband, Frank, who is Marcy’s same age? a. 5.5-7 years b. 6-10.5 years c. 1-2 years d. 3.5-5 years 15. Why do we need to understand the whole person in studying human development? a. We function as individuals. b. Our families do not affect our development. c. We function in an integrated manner. d. Our developmental outcomes are a result of external factors. 16. Which of the following is TRUE of life expectancy? a. It establishes and enhances meaningful relationships. b. It has been largely stable for more than a century. c. It is a useful “bellwether” of societal progress. d. It is affected more by societal than biological forces. 17. Life expectancy refers to the ____ . a. longest potential lifespan of the human species b. number of years one can expect to live c. expectation of resources needed for living d. expectation that one will marry and have children 18. The meaning-making system focuses on the ________. a. predictable nature of humankind Page 2
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Chap 01_13e b. diversity of cultures c. search for identity d. need for stability 19. Rose is torn between her memories of how close her family used to be and how her son’s divorce has made her family less close. This disparity is a reflection of Rose’s system. a. biological b. psychological c. societal d. adaptive 20. The influence of culture in one's lifespan is considered to be a component of which of the following systems? a. Psychological b. Societal c. Biological d. Psychoanalytic 21. The biological system alerts us to the severity of a threat or crisis through the development of a. psychological distress. b. physical symptoms. c. social withdrawal. d. hope and forgiveness. 22. The system provides the resources for processing information and navigating reality. a. biological b. psychological c. integrative d. societal 23. The life span approach strives to identify ________. a. interactions of individuals that produce prejudice and discrimination b. patterns of transition and transformation from one period of life to another c. individual differences in biological factors that lead to maladaptation d. uncommon bonds among groups of people that lead to hostility between societies 24. Which of the following is TRUE of individuals’ lives, as they progress through time? a. They show both continuity and change b. They show neither continuity nor change c. They show continuity, but not change d. They show change, but not continuity 25. Bianca receives, processes, and transmits all sensory information through which components of her biological system? a. Eyes and ears b. Brain and spine Page 3
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Chap 01_13e c. Brain and peri-nervous system d. Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system 26. Ruth Hamilton believed having many students of differing levels in one classroom was good for children. This supports the idea that individuals . a. need external control of their environment b. are influenced by society c. only learn from direct instruction d. learn the most through competition 27. According to the text, on what is development based? a. Only an individual’s psychological ability b. Only an individual’s biological ability c. The interaction of the social, psychological, and biological systems d. The relationship between one's psychological and biological abilities 28. In terms of human development, poverty is considered______. a. a major obstacle to optimal development b. an enhancement to resiliency c. in harmony with psychological functioning d. a source of continuity in the life course 29. Javier has always known exactly who he is and what is important to him. This shows that Javier has a strong ________. a. continuity b. resilience c. plasticity d. integration 30. Which factor is least likely to enhance the impact of poverty? a. Higher level of education b. Strong religious beliefs c. Active behavioral coping skills d. Family conflict 31. A well-balanced diet combined with vitamin and mineral supplements seems to a. speed up cellular damage associated with aging b. slow down cellular damage associated with aging c. lead to better education d. keep a person skinny
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32. Which of the following is TRUE of the biological system? a. It cannot modify the social system. b. It is stable over time. c. It is guided by genetics. Page 4
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Chap 01_13e d. It cannot modify the psychological system. 33. Which of the following is most likely to bring about change in the psychological system? a. Disease b. Environmental toxins c. Education d. Accidents 34. Which of the following statements best describes the psychosocial approach? a. Most psychological development is a result of the environment. b. Lives show patterns of change up through adolescence, and continuity thereafter. c. Development must be understood as the integration of the biological, psychological, and societal systems. d. Home and school are the only relevant social environments. 35. Retirement, dating in old age, and second or third careers are all part of a complex network of policies and practices that are being called into question. Which factor is the biggest influence in this shift? a. Life expectancies b. Governmental regulations c. Population plasticity d. Brain science 36. How has life expectancy changed the landscape of retirement since the 1930s? a. People are not as healthy after retirement. b. People tend to forego retirement. c. People are living longer after retirement. d. People receive unrestricted benefits from the government. 37. Poverty is primarily considered an element of the ______system. a. biological b. psychological c. societal d. temporal 38. Which scenario best illustrates how the environment influences the biological system? a. A toddler is adopted by a family and grows to be much taller than her adopted parents b. An adolescent attends middle school and then goes to high school. c. An infant is exposed to many illnesses while attending infant day care. d. A family takes a vacation. 39. What is one aspect of social integration that has been linked to improved health and longevity? a. Having siblings b. Being in a committed relationship c. Working in an office setting d. Living in an urban environment Page 5
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Chap 01_13e 40. At summer camp, Gordon experienced a real sense of belonging for the very first time, connecting significantly with the other kids at camp. What is this an example of? a. Social integration b. Intrinsic meaning c. Plasticity d. Self-insight 41. Giovanni sustained a serious injury to his brain and spinal cord during the hockey game. Who among the following specialists should his parents seek for consultation? a. A peripheral nervous system specialist b. A central nervous system specialist c. An autonomic system specialist d. A sympathetic system specialist 42. Which descriptor most accurately reflects the psychosocial approach? a. Only the biological and psychological systems are necessary to analyze behavior. b. People build relationships that remain in place throughout life. c. Individual longevity is determined by one’s social relationships. d. Internal experiences are products of the interaction of biological, psychological, and societal systems. 43. Most processes through which a person becomes integrated into a community involve the a. societal b. psychological c. biological d. physiological
system.
44. Which statement most accurately describes projections of life expectancy? a. Men outlive women in Africa. b. Life expectancy is projected to decrease for men and women. c. Women outlive men worldwide. d. Men outlive women worldwide. 45. Which of the following is NOT a change factor for the biological system? a. Genetically guided maturation b. Environmental toxins c. Creative insight d. Accidents and diseases 46. Micah goes to a high school where the majority of students are immigrants from Russia, China, Bangladesh, and Korea. This diverse environment will benefit Micah by encouraging her to . a. adapt b. understand others c. maintain her identity d. act as caregiver Page 6
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Chap 01_13e 47. How is the study of life span development related to an understanding of life expectancy? a. Estimating death rates is the only reason for us to study life expectancy. b. Estimating birth rates is the only reason for us to study life expectancy. c. Life expectancy has no relation to the way we study human development. d. Life expectancy provides a framework for timing about stages and periods of life. 48. In the context of human development, t o w h a t d o e s the term plasticity refer? a. Continuity and developmental changes b. An adaptive re-organization during the life span c. The impact of prior generations d. The interaction of biological and psychological systems 49. Which of the following BEST describes self-insight? a. Sheila is aware of her thoughts and feelings. b. Margot understands which why she is growing. c. Keith is aware of how biology influences his development. d. Keisha desires to know about the world at large. 50. Adaptive reorganization that occurs at every period of life is called a. plasticity b. continuity c. stability d. reductivity
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51. Which of the following LEAST represents Karen’s psychological system at work? a. Karen’s good memory leads to many As on tests and quizzes. b. Karen has just become fluent in a third language. c. Karen is not very motivated or excited about her future. d. Karen’s hormonal changes have resulted in mood swings. 52. Which factor is most likely to contribute to families living in poverty? a. A change in government assistance programs b. An increase in purchasing power for minimum wage earners c. An increase in white-collar jobs d. An increase in single-mother households 53. It has been demonstrated that Jerry (born in 1998) is likely to live ten years longer than his grandmother (born in 1948). Which of the following outlines this? a. Life expectancy b. Population index c. Life index d. Population expectancy 54. According to the textbook, active contribution to one’s life can be expressed in numerous ways. The text suggests that the most influential among these is: Page 7
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Chap 01_13e a. development of cognitive ability. b. development of a social network. c. development of the epigenetic system. d. establishment of cultural norms. 55. Michael believes that he can influence his personal development by making certain choices and being motivated to succeed. Michael’s belief best illustrates which of the following assumptions of the Newman and Newman text? a. Behavior is best analyzed within the context of a person’s environment. b. Personal development occurs throughout the life span. c. People contribute actively to their development. d. As people age, they show continuity and change in their personality. 56. As a child, Jordan had an accident that has left him with brain damage. As a result, he can’t read or write and has trouble with his memory. Which system of development has been most disrupted? a. Biological b. Psychologica c. Societal d. Cultural 57. Why is it so important to interpret events in context? a. People adapt to their environment. b. People act outside of environmental influences. c. People are most influenced by biological processes. d. People are affected by their surroundings. 58. The psychosocial approach seeks to understand the internal experiences that are a. relevant prior to the age of 12 b. relevant after the age of 12 c. products of interactions among biological, psychological, and societal systems d. influenced by the societal system
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59. The concept of identity best illustrates the relationship between the psychological system and the a. biological b. scientific c. adaptive d. societal
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60. Michael’s breathing, blood circulation, and reflexes are all considered elements of which of the following systems? a. Biological b. Psychological c. Societal d. Psychoanalytic 61. Which social change is brought about by longer life expectancies? a. Establishing anti-discrimination norms Page 8
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Chap 01_13e b. Delaying marriage and reproduction c. Retiring earlier d. Adapting less frequently to environmental cues 62. Which of the following is most likely to bring about change in the societal system? a. Genetic factors b. Insight c. Nutrition d. Entry into new roles 63. Which of the following is most likely to bring about change in the biological system? a. Use of drugs b. Entry into new roles c. Movement from one culture to the next d. Age-graded expectations 64. Which group has the shortest life expectancy? a. White females b. African American females c. White males d. African American males 65. Which of these is an example of a change factor for the societal system? a. An accident b. Technological change c. Self direction d. Nutrition 66. Which system is most influenced by changes in self-regulation and self-awareness? a. Psychological b. Biological c. Societal d. Cultural 67. The biological system is a system. a. complex and self-containing b. predictable and predetermined c. linear and static d. multilevel and dynamic 68. Longevity is influenced by _____ . a. primarily the biological system b. primarily the psychological system c. primarily the societal system Page 9
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Chap 01_13e d. an interaction of all three systems 69. According to the text, changes in psychological processing are most likely to be affected by a. genetic influences. b. technological advances. c. historical events. d. cultural shifts. 70. Which factor is most influential in a society’s life expectancy? a. Mobility b. Family rituals c. Education d. Urbanization 71. Candace has a 7-year-old son, and she would never leave him home alone. But in another country, it is common for 7year-old boys to have a job and work. This is an example of . a. cultural insight b. internal worldviews c. meaning making d. age-graded expectations 72. Which of the following LEAST describes the biological system? a. Processes that regulate eating and sleeping patterns b. Processes integral in hormonal changes and growth c. Processes necessary for the physiological functions d. Processes central to making sense of experiences 73. What term refers to the number of years of life, based on the average length of life for a given population? a. Life expectancy b. Population index c. Life index d. Population expectancy 74. Barbara’s culture dictates that men work to make money, while women do not. As such, Barbara did not go to college, though both of her brothers did. Which system is influencing this aspect of Barbara’s development? a. Biological b. Psychological c. Societal d. Physiological 75. Which factor is a societal influence that has increased longevity? a. Medicare and Medicaid b. Smoking cessation c. Eating better d. Reduction in heart disease Page 10
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Chap 01_13e 76. Tension between one’s competencies and the demands of society is a description of a. the biological imperative. b. self-insight. c. a normative crisis. d. plasticity. 77. Education has been shown to be linked to a. unstable relationships b. an increased tendency toward pessimism c. longevity d. social isolation
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78. Likely advances in _____ and treatment, coupled with ____ can lead to higher standards of living in later life. a. medical technology; increased Medicare coverage b. insurance reform; improved support services c. medical technology; improved support services d. eliminating poverty; new drugs 79. The most critical way in which a person can contribute to his or her development is through a. increasing physical ability b. achieving upward mobility c. focusing on career success d. creating significant social relationships
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80. Insight is a change factor for which system? a. Biological b. Psychological c. Physiological d. Societal 81. Which statement is an assumption of the Newman and Newman text? a. Human growth peaks in middle childhood. b. The study of human development is primarily theoretical. c. Behavior must be interpreted in the context of settings and relationships. d. Human behavior has the same meaning across sociocultural borders. 82. Yolanda was born in 2015. Which of the following most closely represents her life expectancy? a. 100 years b. 90 years c. 80 years d. 70 years 83. Manuel speaks six languages and has a very good memory. Which of the following systems can he thank for this? Page 11
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Chap 01_13e a. Psychological b. Affective c. Societal d. Ecological 84. According to your text, the developing person a. cannot modify their psychological system. b. can modify the psychological system through self-guided choice. c. can modify one system without affecting other systems. d. has no control over their development. 85. Earlier exposure to health risks, higher exposure to environmental hazards, and challenges in achieving developmental tasks are factors that are most often associated with . a. African American, Hispanic, and Asian American families who experience poverty b. children who must learn resilience c. all Americans is rural areas d. families who are in transitory poverty 86. Which statement best describes the biological system? a. All of the environmental influences on an individual's health b. All of the processes through which a person becomes integrated into society c. All of the processes necessary for the physiological functions of an organism d. All of the mental processes central to making sense of experiences 87. Jennifer is being raised in a low-income family. Marjorie is being raised in a high-income family. Which of the following is TRUE of their risk of prenatal exposure to environmental toxins? a. Jennifer’s risk is higher than Marjorie’s. b. Jennifer’s risk is lower than Marjorie’s. c. Jennifer’s risk is equal to Marjorie’s. d. There is no relationship between their risk and family income level. 88. Colleen expects to live until age 80, so she feels that there’s no need to have babies for a very long time. Tyler, though, only expects to live to age 25, so he wants to have babies as soon as possible. What is the core influence on Colleen and Tyler’s ideas about reproduction? a. Plasticity b. Biological threshold c. Life expectancy d. Continuity 89. The concept of identity, the meaning we give to ourselves and our sense of purpose, connects us to others. This concept best illustrates the link between the psychological and systems. a. biological b. scientific c. adaptive d. societal Page 12
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Chap 01_13e 90. The Moore family’s elderly grandmother hosts an annual family celebration at the family farm every spring. Which system does this ritual best illustrate? a. Biological b. Psychological c. Societal d. Emotional 91. Which of the following is TRUE of poverty? a. It can have an impact on both the biological and psychological systems. b. It cannot have an impact on either the biological or psychological systems. c. It can have an impact on the biological system, but not the psychological system. d. It can have an impact on the psychological system, but not the biological system. 92. Which statement about longevity is false? a. A diet low in fat and high in fruits and vegetables contributes to longevity. b. Daily exercise can contribute to longevity. c. Longevity is influenced by genetic factors. d. Longevity is primarily influenced by psychological factors. 93. A high level of functioning in later life is associated with a. education. b. health. c. lifestyle. d. all of these. 94. Dale is 12 years old and is being raised by a single mother who recently lost her job. Dale and his mom are now homeless and experiencing poverty for the first time. Chip is 6 years old. He is being raised by an unemployed single father. Chip and his father have been living in poverty since Chip’s birth. According to research on poverty, who is more at risk for negative consequences pertaining to health, cognitive development, and school achievement? a. Dale only b. Chip only c. Both Dale and Chip d. Neither Dale nor Chip, because they are being raised by a parent 95. Changes in the biological system are most likely to cause changes in the a. psychological and societal systems b. genetic code of an individual c. awareness and identity of self d. environmental systems around us
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96. According to Erik Erikson, as 17-year-old Jamison lives his life, his experiences are produced by which of the following? a. Primarily the biological system b. Primarily the psychological system Page 13
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Chap 01_13e c. Primarily the societal system d. The interaction of biological, psychological, and societal systems 97. Jeanne’s great grandmother was born at the turn of the 20th century. Jeanne was born at the turn of the 21st century. Which of the following is TRUE of their life expectancies? a. They were roughly the same. b. Jeanne had a shorter life expectancy than her great grandmother. c. Jeanne had a longer life expectancy than her great grandmother. d. There is no way to know how their life expectancies compared. 98. Which assumption is fundamental to understanding how significant social relationships influence development? a. Characteristics stay stable as individuals progress through time. b. People contribute actively to their development. c. Development is based on physiological change in humans. d. Individuals’ development occurs as a type of adaptation to the environment. 99. In the U.S., 16-year-olds expect to obtain a driver’s license. What concept is best illustrated here? a. Life expectancy b. Psychological functioning c. Age-graded societal expectations d. Individualism 100. A poor diet, lacking essential vitamins, minerals, and supplements, seems to a. speed up cellular damage associated with aging b. slow down cellular damage associated with aging c. lead to a poor education d. make a person obese
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101. Which of the following is most likely to result from a negative resolution to a normative crisis? a. Self-indulgence b. Rigidity c. Aggressiveness d. Unpredictability 102. The psychosocial approach emphasizes the . a. consistent progression to maturity through childhood b. relatively minimal influence of heredity in development c. universality in common development stages d. biopsychosocial aspects of development 103. Ruth Hamilton’s motivation and personal goal to travel the world is an example of something that might be analyzed using which system? a. Biological b. Psychological c. Societal Page 14
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Chap 01_13e d. Physiological 104. Which statement best illustrates how the biological system influences the societal system? a. Tall people receive higher salaries and are more likely to be hired than short people. b. People who have a sense of hope have greater immunity toward disease. c. Over 50% of new mothers in the United States are employed. d. As people age, they experience more sleep disturbances.
105. How does the case of Rose illustrate the relationships among the biological, psychological, and societal systems? 106. Discuss why poverty is a risk factor for development by considering biopsychosocial aspects. 107. Discuss why and how both biological and psychological processes develop and change over one’s life span. 108. Select one of the six assumptions of human development. Discuss the implications of this assumption for life span analysis. Critically evaluate the usefulness of this assumption for understanding human development. 109. Explain how we know about the life expectancy of people who were just born in the last few years. 110. What is meant by the statement that psychological change can be self-directed? 111. Define culture and describe how culture may influence the view of life span human development. What is the role of culture in the societal system? 112. What does it mean to say that the concept of life-span development implies plasticity? 113. Differentiate between “nature” and “nurture.” 114. What are some important life decisions you might make during early adulthood that would have an impact on your potential life expectancy?
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Chap 01_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. d Page 16
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Chap 01_13e 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. d 43. a 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. d Page 17
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Chap 01_13e 52. d 53. a 54. b 55. c 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. d 72. d 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. c Page 18
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Chap 01_13e 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. b 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. c 87. a 88. b 89. d 90. c 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. b 95. a 96. d 97. c 98. b 99. c 100. a 101. b 102. d Page 19
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Chap 01_13e 103. b 104. a 105. Answers will vary. 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary.
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Chap 01_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Learning about principles that govern objects does not help us learn about ourselves. a. True b. False 2. Inner speech helps the child problem-solve. a. True b. False 3. Psychosexual theory gives a greater role to the individual in shaping his or her own development than psychosocial theory. a. True b. False 4. Species produce just enough offspring to survive and reproduce. a. True b. False 5. According to the evolutionary perspective, variability is important for survival of a species. a. True b. False 6. According to cognitive theory, accommodation is the tendency to interpret new experiences in terms of an existing scheme. a. True b. False 7. Vygotsky theorized that language is a barrier between generations. a. True b. False 8. Yelling at the dog after a hard day at work may be a form of displacement. a. True b. False 9. According to the psychosocial perspective, the ego works on the pleasure principle. a. True b. False 10. The assumptions of any theory may or may not be correct. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 01_13e 11. Ricky wants to play a computer game, but cannot quite figure out how to get the figures to jump and kick. Ricky watches his older sister play the computer game for a few minutes and asks her a few questions. Then Ricky is able to play the game by himself. According to Vygotsky's theory, this is an example of a. formal operational reasoning. b. learning in the zone of proximal development. c. cultural determinism. d. equilibrium. 12. In contrast to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, Vygotsky placed greater emphasis on a. social context. b. role of exploration and experimentation. c. biological bases of cognition. d. evolution. 13. Which of the following is TRUE of social cognition? a. It is a type of positive stimulus package for infants. b. It is a facet of social learning theory that emphasizes a cognitive orientation. c. It is a product of a cognitive map. d. It is a natural selection process that is a by-product of evolutionary theory. 14. Which of the following statements is considered an assumption of Freud's psychoanalytic theory? a. All behavior is a result of cultural conditioning. b. Children’s behavior is rational and thoughtful. c. All behavior is motivated. d. Most behavior is a result of random factors that cannot be explained. 15. Which statement best describes systems theory? a. Family systems evolve slowly through psychosocial evolution. b. Family members are interdependent in which each member can influence the others. c. Vicarious reinforcement can be used by family members to create equilibrium. d. Role enactment produces role strain that impacts the family's microsystem. 16. Cultural theory provides insight into a. the cognitive mapping process worldwide. b. learned systems of meanings and patterns of behavior shared by a group of people. c. how two group events can occur very close together and produce similar responses. d. observation and imitation of peer group role models. 17. Gilda’s professor has asked her to describe a cognitive map. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response? a. A map of shapes and adjoining surfaces b. A combination of the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious c. An internal representation of the learning environment d. A set of boundaries between the self and others Page 2
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Chap 01_13e 18. Charlie is a newborn. According to psychoanalytic theory, the most significant personality developments in Charlie’s life took place or will take place during which of the following life stages? a. His prenatal period b. The first five or six years of his life c. His adolescence d. His early adulthood 19. When did Yang’s preoperational thought stage occur? a. When he first became a toddler b. When, as a child, he learned a language c. When, as a child, he first understood abstract concepts d. When he first became an adolescent 20. What is the zone of proximal development? a. Length of time needed to accommodate b. Distance between the radius of significant others and development c. Length of time needed to assimilate d. Distance between developmental level and level of potential development 21. Daniela is capable of organizing and making meaning of her experiences. Which of the following allows her to do so? a. Equilibrium b. Repression c. Cognition d. Ethology 22. Which of the following best describes the difference between cognitive behaviorism and the other theories of learning? a. Cognitive behaviorists study internal mental activities that influence behavior. b. Cognitive behaviorists study the stimulus-response relationship to determine behavioral influences. c. Cognitive behaviorists study reflexes as the biological basis learning. d. Cognitive behaviorists focus on the relationships among systems to understand learning. 23. The comparative study of unique adaptive behaviors is called ethology. This type of study helps clarify long-term survival of the species. a. the contributions of culture b. the importance of males c. the role of gender d. the contributions of each generation
to the
24. By asking children how they know what they know, Piaget introduced the study of a. intelligence. b. metacognition. c. categorization. d. morality. Page 3
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Chap 01_13e 25. Which of the following psychosocial theory concepts is most similar to Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development? a. Psychosocial crisis b. Stages of development c. Developmental tasks d. Radius of significant relationships 26. Involvement in personal relationships and social groups contributes to the formation of a. social cognition. b. a cognitive map. c. cultural continuity. d. social identity. 27. What is the difference between a scheme and an operation in cognitive developmental theory? a. An operation is a verbal scheme b. An operation is a mental manipulation of related schemes c. A scheme is more complex than an operation d. A scheme is in equilibrium and an operation is in disequilibrium 28. Which of the following statements best describes a characteristic of formal operational thought? a. Knowing is based primarily on instruction from others. b. Logic is based on the creation of a system of interrelated rules that can be used for problem solving. c. Knowing is based primarily on direct experience by the individual within a family context. d. Logic is based largely on memories of past experiences. 29. Which of the following is considered the focus of Freud’s psychoanalytic theory? a. The influence of sexual and aggressive drives to motivate behavior b. Learned behaviors and habits on moral development c. Social roles on family uniqueness d. Goals and expectations on confidence building 30. Evolutionary theory places the study of individual development in the context of a. classical conditioning based on learning over time. b. individual development in the context of the history of the species. c. habituation with a mother/caregiver figure for survival. d. biologically-guided genetic growth plans. 31. In order to adapt to changes in the environment, systems require which of the following? a. Shared meaning b. Role systems c. Feedback mechanisms d. Schedules of reinforcement 32. Which of the following statements would be considered an example of cultural continuity? a. Young children learn skills related to food preparation and remain involved in food preparation as adults. Page 4
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Chap 01_13e b. Children are permitted to express emotions up to age 10; after age 10, they have to hide their feelings. c. Only children who have gone through a rite of passage can enter a certain holy place. d. Mothers and daughters dress in different colors at a funeral to depict social status. 33. Which of the following statements best describes a link between cultural theory and psychosocial theory? a. Biology is considered the basic mechanism for development. b. Psychological and physiological responses are the primary strategies for growth and development. c. An individual’s culture contributes fundamentally to development. d. The individual culture of a person limits a person’s aspirations and goals. 34.
is a worldview in which social behavior is guided largely by personal goals and ambitions. a. Collectivism b. Individualism c. Enculturation d. Ethnic group identity
35. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Repetition is the most important experience for promoting cognitive growth. b. Young children and adults approach problems using the same basic principles of logic and reasoning. c. Encounters with discrepancy promote the growth of logical thinking. d. Because they cannot use symbols, infants do not have the capacity for problem solving. 36. In psychoanalytic theory, which of the following terms refers to reality-oriented functions such as perception, learning, memory, and judgment? a. Superego b. Ego c. Id d. Unconscious 37. Which of the following theories focuses on the processes and relationships among interdependent elements that have some common goals, interrelated functions, boundaries, and an identity? a. Cognitive developmental theory b. Systems theory c. Cultural differences theory d. Psychosexual theory 38. Vygotsky emphasized the role of a culture's ________ in shaping thought. a. tools and signs b. levels of continuity c. boundaries d. roles 39. Husband and wife, teacher and student, and therapist and client are all examples of a. reciprocal roles. b. roles that have no social consensus. Page 5
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Chap 01_13e c. lifelong role relationships. d. roles that have no contour. 40. Pamela strives to achieve a balance of organized structures that provides effective ways of interacting with her environment. This is known as a. balancing. b. intelligence. c. equilibrium. d. consciousness. 41. Any theory is generally limited to explaining behaviors that fall within that theory’s _________. a. life stage b. range of applicability c. placebo effect d. statistical significance 42. Which of the following statements best illustrates the link between evolutionary theory and psychosocial theory? a. Through patterns of reinforcement, genetics is linked to individual development during adulthood. b. Adults strengthen their genetic make-up and influence as they age. c. The process of cultural survival is considered random in specific generations. d. Individuals face a continuous struggle to adapt traits and abilities to environmental demands. 43. Which of the following statements best describes how theories help explain observations? a. They determine correctness for specific contradictory examples. b. They identify orderly relationships. c. They are based on random sampling. d. They bring about change. 44. When Don watches his brother practice the piano, he sees how proud his mother is and how she compliments him for his hard work. This encourages Don to practice his trumpet. According to social learning theory, this is an example of which of the following? a. Vicarious reinforcement b. Negative reinforcement c. Positive reinforcement d. Punishment 45. Accommodation is referred to as the a. resistance to changing familiar schemes held in place through equilibrium. b. tendency to interpret new experiences in light of existing schemes. c. desire to make meaning out of experience. d. tendency to modify schemes to account for new attributes revealed through experience. 46. Elisangela’s behavior patterns are the very same behaviors shared by most of her community, and they have been transmitted from one generation to the next. Which of the following does this represent? a. Discontinuity Page 6
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Chap 01_13e b. Culture c. Plans and goals d. Cognitive map 47. Evolutionary psychology includes the study of a. the future development of behavior. b. the dominance of members of species currently living. c. the origins of social behavior. d. the similarity of mammals in various environmental settings. 48. What guiding premises underlie the logic of a theory? a. Its predictions b. Its assumptions c. Its variables d. Its applications 49. According to Walter Mischel’s six types of cognitive-affective factors that influence behavior, which of the following best describes self-regulatory plans? a. A type of emotional reaction associated with a specific situation. b. The ability to play a variety of roles. c. The expectations one has for one’s behavior. d. Strategies to achieve one’s goals. 50. Whereas theories of cognitive development emphasize thinking and reasoning, theories of learning tend to focus on which of the following? a. Hypothesis testing that occurs in scientific problem solving b. Relatively permanent changes in behavior that result from experience c. Language development and written communication d. The role of genetic factors in guiding adaptive behavior 51. The application of systems theory to families has focused primarily on a. how families determine their culture. b. the climate of individualism versus collectivism. c. how families establish boundaries and rules. d. the impact of mesosytems within the family context. 52. Which of the following statements is considered an implication for human development based on Vygotsky’s theory? a. In all cultures, children will approach problem solving in the same way. b. Social interaction and culture shape an individual's cognitive development. c. It is better to spend time with people who are a little less skilled than you in order to build self-esteem. d. The direction of cognitive growth is largely determined by genetic factors. 53. In Piaget’s theory, which of the following are considered the two complementary processes that account for adaptation? a. Sensorimotor intelligence and preoperational thought Page 7
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Chap 01_13e b. Natural selection and fitness c. Cultural discontinuity and moral reasoning d. Assimilation and accommodation 54. Through which of the following does Jasper have the power of culture to shape her own experience? a. Operant conditioning b. Survival of the fittest c. Formal operations d. Cultural determinism 55. Which of the following is considered a similarity between psychoanalytic theory and psychosocial theory? a. Use of a life span approach b. Description of the functions of the ego system c. Consideration of middle childhood as a "latent" and quiet life stage d. Incorporation of importance of schooling on development 56. Equilibrium is achieved through _________, a process of gradually modifying existing schemes in order to take into account discrepancies between what is known and what is being experienced. a. natural selection b. evolution c. adaptation d. schematic overload 57. According to social role theory, _____________ involves meeting perceived role expectations or balancing competency role demands. a. role enactment b. role strain c. reciprocal roles d. role convergence 58. What is the function of a theory? a. To dictate an appropriate research design b. To describe unobservable processes and relate them to observable events c. To develop hypotheses d. To create symbols that society can agree upon 59. Sudha has been driving to school using the same route for two years. Although she has never had time to stop at the Coffee Corner on her way to school, she knows where it is and how to direct a friend there. This is an example of which of the following concepts? a. Positive reinforcement b. Cognitive map c. Expectations d. Imitative learning 60. Cognitive developmental theory focuses specifically on how Page 8
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Chap 01_13e a. knowing emerges and is transformed into logical, systematic capacities for reasoning. b. the ego interprets experiences into logical, systematic thought processes. c. evolution continues throughout the life span of a specific species based on cognition. d. various systems within a family impact an individual's capacity for thought. 61. According to Freud, many explanations for Blanca’s seemingly natural behavior can be found by analyzing her conflicting sexual and aggressive needs, fears, and wishes that are housed in her a. metaconscious. b. conscious. c. ego. d. unconscious. 62. Dakota has started to read short biographies of women she believes are important. She makes lists of who is most important in categories like business leader, political leader, and star athlete. Then she starts to read about the number one person in each category. Which of Piaget’s stages do you think Dakota is in? a. Formal operational stage b. Concrete operational stage c. Preoperational stage d. Post formal operational stage 63. Which of the following is considered one of Piaget’s contributions to understanding infant cognition? a. Infants are able to create and manipulate symbols. b. For infants, most thinking is unconscious. c. Infants have the same capacity for abstract reasoning as adolescents. d. Infants establish logical connections. 64. According to cultural theory, which of the following would be considered an example of physical culture? a. Colonial time period artifacts b. Rites of passage for teenagers c. A set of values passed down from one generation to the next generation d. The role of a matriarch 65. In terms of psychoanalytic theory, which of the following statements about defense mechanisms is most accurate? a. Children are so honest that they use only coping mechanisms. b. Only very neurotic people use defense mechanisms. c. The basic function of defense mechanisms is to protect the person from being overwhelmed by painful thoughts and feelings such as anxiety and guilt. d. After a long period, defense mechanisms lead to higher levels of functioning. 66. Which of the following is the most accurate description of the term worldview? a. Societal expectations influences on individual decision making b. Social demographics of an ethnic group c. Way of making meaning of relationships, situations, and objects encountered in daily life d. Global view of physical culture Page 9
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Chap 01_13e 67. Harvinder and Jasmine just had their first baby, Nina. According to psychoanalytic theory, what are the psychosexual stages though which Nina will develop? a. Oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital b. Id, ego, superego c. Unconscious, preconscious, conscious d. Reaction formation, projection, denial 68. Vicarious reinforcement can best be described as learning __________. a. through ignoring negative behaviors in a naturalistic setting b. by observing what happens to someone else who is either rewarded or punished for their actions c. through trial and error d. through repeated associations between two stimuli either conditioned or unconditioned 69. Daryl is a human being. From an evolutionary perspective, he depends on the capacity of all of the species' individual members to survive, mate, reproduce, and a. rear their offspring. b. have reflexes. c. use spoken language. d. express emotion. 70. According to cultural theory, what determines whether behavior appears to occur in stages? a. The religions of the society b. The climate c. The life span of the individuals d. The degree of discontinuity in cultural conditioning 71. Which statement BEST describes the laws of natural selection? a. The genetic make-up of most species is remarkably similar. b. Over time, species are becoming more and more responsive to radiation. c. Over generations, species gradually change in response to changing environmental conditions. d. Genetics alone account for species change. 72. Young children are scolded for being selfish but when they are adults they are expected to be assertive and selfreliant. This is an example of a. cultural conservatism. b. cultural discontinuity. c. worldview. d. cultural continuity. 73. Which of the following statements reflects an important contribution made by psychoanalytic theory to the study of human development? a. The role of childhood experiences can be used to explain adult behavior. b. Parenting practices help shape biological sexual urges. c. The foundation for sexual drives is projected to the next generation. d. The unconscious is the main contributor to sexual development. Page 10
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Chap 01_13e 74. According to psychoanalytic theory, which structure houses Jonathan’s moral and ethical principles? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Guilt 75. Freda has always given great importance to the passage of time over her life, even taking time to often reflect on it. According to Bronfenbrenner's ecological theory, which of the following refers to this passage of time? a. Chronosystem b. Mesosystem c. Microsystem d. Macrosystem 76. According to a systems theory, through which of the following processes can a system preserve its structure and still respond to change? a. Adaptive self-regulation b. Social identity c. Ego functioning d. Social learning 77. Which of the following statements is considered an implication for human development based on social learning theory? a. All components of social learning theory are considered positive responses to cognitive development. b. All learning requires direct instruction. c. Natural selection occurs in one’s determination of an appropriate behavioral response. d. Models are relevant in guiding the behavior of others. 78. Social learning theory emphasizes the process of learning new behaviors by a. observing and imitating the behavior of others. b. being taught by more skillful adults and peers. c. being reinforced for increasingly close approximations of the desired behavior. d. developing a cognitive map. 79. Which of the following is an example of cultural determinism? a. All cultures have some form of spiritual philosophy for dealing with death. b. Cultures, like species, must adapt to changes in the environment. c. Family life is a cornerstone of the culture. d. Some cultures value aggressiveness while others consider it shameful. 80. The assumptions of any theory may or may not be correct. In other words, assumptions a. are based on research results from over 50 years ago, so they may not be relevant today. b. may be influenced by the cultural context of the theorist. c. predict statistical significance of the current research design only. d. may be the same as another theory. Page 11
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Chap 01_13e 81. Kimberly just began a new job. In her work, she will focus on the unique adaptive behaviors of specific species, such as mating, caregiving, play, and strategies for obtaining resources. In which of the following fields is Kimberly working? a. Chemistry b. Paleontology c. Ethology d. Teratology 82. Which of the following is considered a link between social role theory and psychosocial theory? a. The use of positive and negative reinforcers b. Role relationships and the radius of significant others c. Culture and natural selection d. Social identity and systems 83. The Dillard family adopted a new child, requiring the older children to take on new responsibilities for childcare and household tasks. Mrs. Dillard changed her work hours, and Mr. Dillard gave up his nighttime job so he could be with the baby in the evenings. From a family systems perspective, these changes are an example of a. function coordination. b. boundaries. c. underfunctioning. d. adaptive self-organization. 84. Bronfenbrenner argues that development is influenced by interactions that take place within the a. chronosystem. b. mesosystem. c. microsystem. d. macrosystem. 85. Among Yolanda and her peers there is a set of behaviors that they have collectively agreed upon which function as an accepted code of norms. Which of the following terms BEST encapsulates this? a. Agency b. Family system c. Role d. Culture 86. According to psychoanalytic theory, middle-aged Valerie has two instinctual drives that contribute to her personality development. What are these two instinctual drives? a. Sexuality and shame b. Aggression and affiliation c. Sexuality and aggression d. Sexuality and inhibition 87. Which of the following statements is considered an assumption of Piaget’s cognitive development theory? a. All behavior is motivated. b. Advances in cognitive capacities occur into old age. Page 12
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Chap 01_13e c. Personality development ends at age 6. d. The roots of cognition lie in an infant's biological capacities. 88. Why are theories of human development needed? a. To help explain behavior at different levels of analysis b. To assist in uncovering truths about humans and animals c. To embellish case studies of families d. To illustrate relationships from the beginning of time 89. Which of the following terms best describes a worldview in which social behavior is guided by personal goals, ambitions, and pleasures? a. Cultural determinism b. Individualism c. Collectivism d. Enculturation 90. A __________ is a logical system of concepts that provides a framework for organizing and interpreting observations. a. theory b. variable c. symbol d. correlation 91. __________ is a common defense mechanism used by children and adults in which they claim that a bad experience never happened. a. Denial b. Projection c. Rejection d. Reality expansion 92. Through which of Alice’s ages would psychosocial theory focus? a. Infancy through age 12 b. Her adolescence c. Her entire life d. Her late adulthood 93. Kendra has been breastfed. The first time she gets a bottle of apple juice, she uses the same sucking motion she has been accustomed to using during breastfeeding. Juice floods out of the nipple of the bottle. This is an example of a. defensive behavior. b. assimilation. c. adaptive self-organization. d. vicarious learning. 94. According to a systems theory, a system that maintains its organization, even though the parts constantly change, is considered a. elemental. Page 13
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Chap 01_13e b. open. c. erratic. d. honest. 95. Helena is 6 months old. At what stage in Piaget’s cognitive developmental theory is she in? a. Sensorimotor thought b. Preoperational thought c. Concrete operational thought d. Formal operational thought 96. Which of the following psychosexual terms is most closely related to the processes of cognition? a. Unconscious processing b. Impulse expression c. Ego functions d. Projection 97. Which of the following statements is considered a difference between psychosocial and psychoanalytic theory? a. Psychosocial theory does not suggest stages of development. b. Psychosocial theory is not interested in child-rearing practices. c. Psychosocial theory suggests directions for development beyond adolescence into adulthood and old age. d. Psychosocial theory places greater emphasis on infancy and toddlerhood. 98. A theory of human development is expected to provide explanations for which of the following? a. How society and economics change over time b. How people change and grow over the life span c. Conflicts between ethnic subcultures d. Causes of illness and health over the life span 99. What was Piaget trying to explain in his cognitive development theory? a. The process for how the capacity for logical thought develops b. Reasons why some children are mathematically gifted c. Individual differences in learning styles d. The process for how culture influences cognition 100. Which of the following statements is considered a major implication of evolutionary theory related to the study of human development? a. The importance of similarities among all humans allows for the scientific study of continuity over time. b. Factors that influence reproductive success of a group have implications for the survival of the species. c. The early years of childhood are most critical in shaping the structure of adult personality. d. The course of human development is shaped by entries into and exits from key life roles. 101. Vygotsky argued that complex mental operations exist first in the social world and are then internalized. He described this as movement from the __________ to the __________. a. ego; superego b. intermental; intramental Page 14
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Chap 01_13e c. model; child d. microsystem; mesosystem 102. Psychosocial evolution refers to a. the survival of humans who progress through various life stages. b. ways in which knowledge can alter or transform behavior and override genetically guided patterns. c. the fact that psychosocial development cannot be influenced by individuals’ conscious decisions. d. strategies to achieve a positive resolution during a psychosocial crisis. 103. In psychoanalytic theory, how is the ego related to the id and the superego? a. The ego is mostly unconscious, pushing the id and superego into awareness. b. The ego tries to satisfy the id without offending the superego. c. The superego is the commander-in-chief, the ego is the sergeant, and the id is the private. d. The ego’s moral and ethical principles dictate the actions of the id. 104. Genevieve is studying cognitive development theories. Today, her professor introduced the central concepts of Vygotsky’s theory, explaining that these would be the topics covered in the end-of-the-week quiz. Which of the following should Genevieve study before the end of the week? a. The Id, ego, and superego b. Assimilation, accommodation, and schemes c. Culture, zone of proximal development, and movement from intermental to the intramental d. Microsystem, exosystem, and mesosystem 105. Which of the following statements is considered a characteristic of a “good” formal theory? a. It is logical and internally consistent. b. It is unrelated to previous research. c. It is focused on a relatively narrow, specific subject area. d. It includes contradictory statements that can be tested.
106. What links are there between social role theory and the psychosocial approach? 107. Define social role, role enactment, and role expectations. Give an example of each. 108. What is the focus of evolutionary theory? What is its relevance for the study of human development? Give two examples of behaviors that take on new meaning when considered from an evolutionary perspective. 109. According to psychosexual theory, what are the three basic structures of personality? Give the term for each and a definition. 110. Differentiate between social learning theory and cognitive behaviorism. 111. Differentiate between ethology and evolutionary psychology? 112. Select three theories and explain how each one accounts for stability and change over the life span. Page 15
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Chap 01_13e 113. How do environmental and social contexts affect individual development? 114. What role does fitness play in the theory of evolution? 115. Define assimilation and accommodation, and describe the roles they play in cognitive development theories. 116. Describe what a theory is in your own words. 117. What significance does Freud assign to motivation and behavior in his theories? 118. Elaborate on Freud’s domains of consciousness and explain what role they play in his theories. 119. Explain what it means for one to have a social identity. 120. Discuss the questions that must be answered in the evaluation of a theory.
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Chap 01_13e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. d Page 17
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Chap 01_13e 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. d 50. b 51. c Page 18
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Chap 01_13e 52. b 53. d 54. d 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. c 66. c 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. a 76. a Page 19
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Chap 01_13e 77. d 78. a 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. b 83. d 84. c 85. c 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. b 90. a 91. a 92. c 93. b 94. b 95. a 96. c 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. b 101. b 102. b Page 20
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Chap 01_13e 103. b 104. c 105. a 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 03_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Marcus is 6 years old. He most likely only imitates his parents and siblings. a. True b. False 2. As a late adolescent, it would be very typical for one of Keeana’s developmental tasks to be membership in a peer group. a. True b. False 3. Joaquin’s ego qualities contribute to his primary worldview. a. True b. False 4. Psychosocial theory predicts that self-concept and worldview are reorganized at each stage of life. a. True b. False 5. Development tasks contribute to increased mastery over our environment. a. True b. False 6. Core pathologies can lead to a paralysis of action and thought that prevents productivity. a. True b. False 7. Imitation is the central process for psychosocial growth during adolescence. a. True b. False 8. The importance of some prime adaptive ego qualities, such as love and wisdom, has been verified by research. a. True b. False 9. In order for Jennifer to successfully cope with the loss of her job, she must begin with reconciling her situation. a. True b. False 10. Longer life expectancy is causing developmental psychologists to reexamine later stages. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which of the following is no longer considered a weakness of psychosocial theory? Page 1
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Chap 03_13e a. Basic concepts are presented in terms that are abstract and difficult to measure. b. A dynamic view of the interaction between a genetically guided plan and societal expectations is offered. c. The theory identifies predictable crises throughout the lifespan. d. The theory provides a broad societal and historical perspective within which to study development. 12. In Erikson’s original model, life stages were given names but no ages because Erikson wanted to a. incorporate all ages into all stages. b. conduct research first prior to determining ages. c. leave something unfinished in order to continue theorizing about life stages. d. emphasize an individual developmental timetable as unique, guided by biological maturation and cultural expectations. 13. Jeremy is hopeful, competent, caring, and wise. These attributes represent Jeremy’s ___________. a. prime adaptive ego qualities b. psychosocial crises c. core pathologies d. central processes 14. Core pathologies a. provide new resources for coping with the next psychosocial crisis. b. protect the person from unwanted interaction with the societal system. c. provide new information. d. promote an optimistic worldview. 15. Longitudinal research using psychosocial theory as a framework has found a. general support for many of the psychosocial concepts. b. lack of support for many of the psychosocial concepts. c. that individuals do not preview themes prior to entering a life stage. d. mixed results focusing on developmental tasks. 16. Psychosocial theory is considered a stage theory because at each stage, . a. failures at each stage prevent an individual from growing and developing to the next stage b. accomplishments from previous stages provide resources for mastering challenges at new stages c. there is no specific direction or order for the stages d. there is no underlying organization for progressive stages 17. Erikson suggested that there is a biological plan for growth that allows each function to emerge in a systematic way until the fully functioning organism is developed. What is this concept called? a. Epigenetic principle b. Coping c. Psychosocial crisis d. Moratorium 18. According to psychosocial theory, prior to the end of each life stage, individuals try to adjust to societal demands based on their personal terms. This process produces tension that must be reduced in order to develop to the next stage. Page 2
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Chap 03_13e This tension produces a. sensitive periods of life. b. transformational change. c. teachable moments. d. psychosocial crisis. 19. Which of the following is the best definition of developmental tasks? a. Tasks that need to be completed around the house. b. Rituals that are performed at various ages. c. Planning for a goal and reaching that goal. d. Skills and competencies that contribute to increased mastery. 20. Which of the following is NOT one of the six basic concepts of psychosocial theory as defined by the text? a. Operational definitions b. Radiating networks of significant relationships c. Stages of development d. Developmental tasks 21. Which of the following statements is most accurate concerning life expectancy and psychosocial theory? a. Life expectancy determines the age breakdown of the life stages. b. The number of life stages is based on the life expectancy age. c. As life expectancy increases, it is expected that developmental tasks may need reexamination. d. Psychosocial theory concepts will remain the same despite increases in life expectancy. 22. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between developmental tasks and the psychosocial crisis? a. Mastery of developmental tasks is not related to the resolution of the psychosocial crisis. b. Mastery of developmental tasks is influenced by the resolution of the psychosocial crisis. c. Developmental tasks are resolved independently of the psychosocial crisis. d. Skills learned from developmental tasks allow individuals to skip resolving the psychosocial crisis. 23. According to Robert Havighurst, which of the following terms is considered a time when a person is most ready to acquire a new ability? a. Coping situation b. Sensitive period c. Psychosocial conflict d. Developmental task 24. Jonathan is in early adulthood. He and his wife are expecting their first child, and Jonathan is learning what it is like to be a father. Jonathan’s exploration of child-rearing is an example of a(n) . a. life stage b. developmental task c. psychosocial crisis d. age-graded expectation Page 3
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Chap 03_13e 25. Which phrase best describes middle adulthood? a. A life stage b. A developmental task c. A psychosocial crisis d. An age-graded expectation 26. Which of the following exemplifies a persistent subcultural force that shapes the daily lives of children and adults? a. Families b. Siblings c. Ethnic groups d. Networks 27. Helen actively tries to resolve her stress and find new solutions to challenges. Which of the following best explains her efforts to do so? a. Developmental stage b. Coping c. Defense d. Equilibrium 28. Which of the following is considered a strength of psychosocial theory? a. It provides insight into directions of healthy development across the lifespan. b. It has fully developed the mechanisms of crisis resolution. c. Its theory and research have been based on a diverse population. d. Its supporting research is gender neutral. 29. In developing the eight stages, which of the following did Erik Erikson utilize? a. Jean Piaget’s cognitive development stages b. Peter Blos’s theory of identity c. Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual stages d. Urie Brofenbrenner’s ecological context 30. Which of the following explains the tension Julio feels each time he strives to adjust to societal demands at each life stage of development? a. Psychosocial crisis b. Radius of significant relationships c. Epigenetic principle d. Sensitive period 31. When an individual engages in a central process, the result is a. a stabilization of boundaries and identity. b. a reworking of an individual’s psychological system. c. a stagnation in growth and development. d. a decrease in the acquisition of new skills. 32. Joel just graduated from college and is about to start his first job as a family life educator. He has planned to ask his Page 4
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Chap 03_13e college sweetheart to marry him after about 3 months in his new job. When Joel came home last weekend, he learned that his parents are divorcing, partially in order to dedicate more time to their careers. According to psychosocial theory, a combination of Joel’s needs for development and the unexpected divorce of his parents may lead to a. Joel being able to resolve his current psychosocial crisis more quickly. b. Joel ignoring his developmental needs. c. Joel needing to revisit and reinterpret earlier psychosocial stages. d. Joel focusing only on his intimate relationship. 33. Jamie is better able to cope with challenges than is her twin sister. Which of the following is TRUE of these twins? a. Jamie is more resilient than her sister. b. Jamie’s sister is more resilient than Jamie. c. Jamie is better at imitating than her sister. d. Jamie’s sister is better at imitating than Jamie. 34. How is Samuel able to gather knowledge from his grandparents and great grandparents and transmit that knowledge to his grandchildren and great grandchildren? a. Through the stages of development b. Through coping c. Through psychosocial evolution d. Through psychosocial crises 35. Psychosocial theory presents human development as a product of . a. the culmination of human experience calculated in older adulthood b. the interaction between biological and psychological needs and societal expectations c. infantile experiences of the id, ego, and superego d. genetic influences on personality development 36. Which of the following statements about developmental tasks is most accurate? a. Developmental tasks are universal and are not related to societal expectations. b. Learning about team play is a developmental task for all stages of life. c. There is no relationship between developmental tasks of one life stage and the psychosocial crisis of previous stages. d. Achieving developmental tasks in one stage contributes to greater chances of achieving developmental tasks of future stages. 37. Which of the following statements best describes the pattern of change in the radius of significant relationships from infancy through adolescence? a. There is a deepening and narrowing of significant relationships. b. There is a new focus on one’s relationship with humankind with the radius of significant others. c. The radius of significant relationships does not change much during these years. d. The range and variety of significant relationships expand. 38. The psychosocial crisis serves as a mechanism for development by a. highlighting the tension and conflict between positive and negative poles. b. speeding up the biological maturation process. Page 5
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Chap 03_13e c. focusing on the sensitive period of an infant’s development. d. experiencing only the negative of a conflict. 39. Which phrase is indicative of a psychosocial crisis? a. Managing a career b. Middle adulthood c. Generativity versus stagnation d. Concrete operations 40. Arnold is in middle childhood. He is most likely dealing with which psychosocial crisis? a. Industry versus inferiority b. Trust versus mistrust c. Generativity versus stagnation d. Initiative versus guilt 41. Which of the following statements reflects a psychosocial stage approach to development? a. Psychological growth occurs in a patterned sequence. b. One can reinterpret previous stages in light of new experiences. c. Each stage brings a unique set of problems to solve. d. All of these reflect a psychosocial approach. 42. Dylan wants to drop out of high school and go to New York to be a musician. Her parents, friends, and high school teachers encourage her to graduate from high school prior to moving to New York. This encouragement is an example of what organizing principle of psychosocial theory? a. Stages of development b. Central process c. Radius of significant others d. Coping behavior 43. The term radius of significant others refers to a. a geometric pattern illustrating the life stages and psychosocial crisis. b. a process for resolving a psychosocial crisis. c. the tension between individual development and societal pressures. d. a network of relationships important to an individual. 44. Which of the following statements is considered a strength of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial stages? a. Presentation of stages makes each stage look similar in length of time to complete. b. Stages appear to be discreet and separate. c. Stages are complete; no new stages are needed. d. Stages incorporate biological and societal influences. 45. Why is Erik Erikson typically associated with psychosocial theory? a. Because he identified and developed the theory b. Because his work was influenced by the work of many others c. Because he collaborated with his wife Page 6
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Chap 03_13e d. Because he rejected the theory over the course of his life 46. How is a psychosocial crisis best resolved? a. Through hard work and persistence b. Through an orderly unfolding of functions c. Through age-graded expectations based on biological maturity d. Through a central process linking individuals’ needs with cultural expectations 47. Anna started dating Chris soon after breaking up with Hayden. She wants to continue to explore intimate relationships and doesn’t like being alone. Anna strives to be with others and has acquired new skills and coping that can be classified as a. a psychosocial crisis. b. progression through stages. c. her radius of significant others. d. the central process of coping. 48. Sam is considering dropping out of college. Which core pathology is related to his decision? a. Repudiation b. Inertia c. Withdrawal d. Exclusivity 49. Dr. Know and Dr. Shore are discussing the merits of psychosocial theory while drinking lattés. Dr. Know asserts that the basic concepts of psychosocial theory are not well developed or defined. Dr. Shore concurs and feels that the theory is further hampered because its concepts are based on its European American male context. As a student of human development, how would you characterize these comments? a. Both comments are inaccurate and hinder the advancement of the theory. b. Both comments are accurate portrayals of the weaknesses associated with the theory. c. Dr. Know’s comment is accurate; Dr. Shore's is inaccurate. d. Dr. Shore's comment is accurate; Dr. Know’s comment is inaccurate. 50. Developmental tasks can be viewed as a. the physical challenges in a stage of development. b. the unfolding of the epigenetic principle. c. competencies that lead to mastery of the environment. d. unrelated to stages of a person’s development. 51. Which of the following statements about the negative pole of the psychosocial crisis is most accurate? a. Most people experience both the negative as well as the positive poles of each psychosocial crisis. b. The negative pole is only relevant for understanding extreme cases of mental illness. c. Any exposure to the negative pole is likely to result in a negative resolution to the crisis. d. The negative pole is produced by individual vulnerability and genetic predisposition, not by society. 52. Which of the following statements about the psychosocial crisis is most accurate? a. Only infants and toddlers have psychosocial crises. Page 7
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Chap 03_13e b. The psychosocial crisis is expressed as polarities with positive and negative ends on a continuum. c. Most people do not experience a psychosocial crisis during their lifetime. d. The psychosocial crisis is a result of vulnerability in the biological system without societal influence. 53. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of stages? a. Ages correspond directly to stages. b. Poverty can alter the sequence of stages. c. The length of each stage remains constant. d. All individuals follow the same basic stage sequence. 54. Which of the following would Erik Erikson be LEAST likely to argue? a. Each new developmental stage of psychosocial theory incorporates gains made in earlier stages. b. The developmental stages of psychosocial theory reflect a biologically based plan for the nature and direction and growth. c. Each new development stage of psychosocial theory brings a qualitatively new approach for understanding oneself and others. d. Once a developmental stage of psychosocial theory is passed, there is no way to review or reinterpret events from that stage. 55. Why is psychosocial theory useful as an organizing framework? a. It focuses solely on the age ranges of adolescence and adulthood. b. It ignores the role of culture in a person’s development. c. It assumes people actively contribute to their development. d. It focuses only on the biological influences on human development. 56. Which of the following should Trevor do if he wants to utilize problem-focused coping? a. He should control his emotions associated with a particular stressor. b. He should change something about the source of his stress. c. He should control the emotions of others involved. d. He should change his stages of development. 57. Why did the authors of the text alter the life stages in Erikson’s original theory? a. To generalize them b. To better explain them c. To expand upon them d. To abbreviate them 58. Which of the following statements is considered an assumption of psychosocial theory? a. At every stage of life, individuals may contribute to their own development. b. The direction of growth follows a genetically guided course that is impervious to cultural influences. c. Development is shaped largely through experiences in the first six years of life. d. The combination of differences among cultures and individual differences make it impossible to speak of patterns of development. 59. Michele is coping with the death of her father by redefining the meaning of the loss. This process is referred to as Page 8
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Chap 03_13e a. reappraisal. b. emotional-focused coping. c. stage progression. d. central process identification. 60. Ellie received a "big" bike for her birthday without training wheels attached. She was both eager and apprehensive about riding her new bike. According to Havighurst, this is an example of a a. teachable moment. b. developmental task. c. transformation. d. psychosocial crisis. 61. Psychosocial crises arise because a. most people are not prepared for the level of intimacy and identity required in adult life. b. of the unsatisfactory relationship developed between parents and children. c. of a discrepancy between a person’s competence and societal expectations. d. society benefits when most of the people are in some kind of conflict. 62. According to psychosocial theory, development occurs as a result of which of the following crises? a. Reinforcements and punishments b. Modeling and imitation c. Interaction between individual needs and societal demands d. Modification of boundaries as a result of feedback and adaptive self-regulation 63. The emphasis on the interplay between individual development and society is considered a a. weakness of psychosocial theory. b. factor that is not considered in psychosocial theory. c. strength of psychosocial theory. d. psychosocial crisis embedded in psychosocial theory. 64. The ability to enlist affective and behavioral strategies is a key element of a. coping behavior. b. defensive behavior. c. core pathologies. d. life crises. 65. Which of the following terms refer to the set of skills and competencies that contribute to increased mastery over one’s environment at a particular life stage? a. Developmental tasks b. Psychosocial evolution c. Psychosocial crises d. Prime adaptive ego qualities 66. Dick has shown throughout his life that he is more likely than most of his friends to exhibit positive outcomes in the face of serious threats to his development. Which of the following is TRUE of Dick? Page 9
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Chap 03_13e a. He does not cope as well as most of his friends. b. He is more resilient than most of his friends. c. He has a better socioeconomic status than most of his friends. d. He has a better worldview than most of his friends. 67. Robin has moved to a new town during her sophomore year in high school. In order to find a new group of friends, she joins the staff of the school paper and tries out for the girls’ swim team. These efforts are examples of which of the following? a. Developmental stage b. Core pathology c. Psychosocial crisis d. Coping behavior 68. When Alana was 2 years old, she was able to burp at the dinner table because she was considered "a kid." Now at age 16, Alana is expected to be polite at the dinner table. This most illustrates the concept of a. life stages. b. developmental tasks. c. age-graded expectations. d. life roles. 69. Which of the following psychosocial concepts best illustrates a sense of communion or connection? a. Prime adaptive ego quality b. Central process c. Developmental tasks d. Radius of significant others 70. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a factor in a person's coping strategy? a. The range of resources available b. The hidden meaning of the stressor c. The nature of the stressor d. How the situation is perceived 71. Which of the following statements best reflects a potential risk of thinking about development as a sequence of stages? a. Stages highlight qualitative differences in outlook. b. Stages emphasize a mixture of new needs, capabilities, and expectations at each period of life. c. Stages may be misconstrued to assume that a person in one stage cannot function at other levels. d. Stages build one upon the other. 72. The key function of the radius of significant relationships is to a. help individuals learn their spoken language. b. recognize the demands of society brought to bear on the individual. c. determine a person’s fame based on network size. d. determine the age of adulthood. Page 10
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Chap 03_13e 73. How is a developmental stage best defined? a. As the ability to manage stress and emotions associated with that stress b. As a set of skills and competencies that one performs c. As people who are important sources of support and information at each period of life d. As a period of life that is characterized by a specific underlying organization 74. Cheria wanted to attend the local community college rather than attend a prestigious college where she was awarded a full scholarship. Her decision was based on the family expectation that she would be near her parents to assist with their care. Her other siblings were unable to provide care, and she was raised to believe that it was her responsibility. Cheria’s perception is an example of a. core pathology. b. cultural context. c. stage of development. d. central process. 75. Which of the following best describes the range of applicability of psychosocial theory? a. Changes in unconscious processes during childhood b. Patterns of psychological and social change and growth over the life course c. Habits created and sustained in adulthood d. Logical thinking changes from infancy through adolescence 76. As Jamison develops new ego qualities, which of the following will he reformulate to adapt to them? a. His worldview b. His coping strategies c. His imitation d. His core pathologies 77. The process of psychosocial evolution is centered on . a. gathering knowledge from ancestors and passing it to future generations b. strengthening groups of people through selective breeding c. transmitting biochemical information through the mechanisms of genetics d. the evolving nature of genetic counseling 78. Which of the following statements best describes the importance of the negative poles at each psychosocial crisis? a. The negative poles define specific types of mental illness. b. The negative poles reflect areas of vulnerability at each stage. c. The negative poles predict the possibility of criminal activity at a later stage. d. The negative poles highlight issues where the rights of the individual outweigh the rights of the group. 79. Which of the following statements concerning the resolution of psychosocial crisis is most accurate? a. Individuals are most likely to have a completely positive resolution of the crisis based on epigenetic principle. b. Individuals are most likely to have a completely negative resolution of the crisis based on societal influence. c. Most people resolve crisis in a generally positive direction based on developmental task achievement. d. Most people resolve crisis in a generally negative direction based on complex developmental tasks as one ages. Page 11
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Chap 03_13e 80. Jennie is struggling with whether to give in to peer pressure in order to fit in or whether to be herself, but not have many friends. This is an example of which psychosocial crisis? a. Industry versus inferiority b. Trust versus mistrust c. Generativity versus stagnation d. Group identity versus alienation 81. Carrie is a 2-year-old who is starting to learn how to control her actions and implement her will upon the world around her. Which psychosocial crisis is Carrie experiencing? a. Intiative versus guilt b. Industry versus inferiority c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt d. Trust versus mistrust 82. Coping is an important concept in psychosocial theory because a. no other theory uses it. b. it is determined by the epigenetic principle. c. it explains how unique and inventive behaviors occur. d. it always involves gathering new information that changes the biological system. 83. Robert Havighurst introduced the concept of developmental tasks and argued that developmental tasks change with age because a. society has age-graded expectations. b. infants form social attachments that last throughout life. c. language skills change with age. d. children have greater physical strength at older ages. 84. ______develop from the positive resolution of the psychosocial crisis, and ___ develop from the negative resolution of the psychosocial crisis. a. Worldviews; insider views b. Prime adaptive ego qualities; core pathologies c. Adaptation techniques; self-approaching techniques d. Core pathologies; ego qualities 85. According to the epigenetic principle, the succession of psychosocial crises a. is unpredictable and haphazard in nature. b. occurs in a predictable sequence over the life course. c. is non-sequential over the life course, especially during adolescence. d. occurs in an unpredictable sequence over the life course. 86. Which example is LEAST illustrative of the relationship between psychosocial theory and psychosocial evolution? a. Your biological evolution b. Emailing your children c. Following your parents’ childrearing techniques Page 12
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Chap 03_13e d. Passing down traditional rituals 87. Unpredictable life stresses, such as divorce and death, may contribute to the a. re-working of earlier life stages. b. progression to future life stages. c. speeding up of resolving a psychosocial crisis. d. sequential progression of life stage development. 88. Consistent efforts to cope with a psychosocial crisis are likely to result in a. additional developmental tasks. b. appraisal needs. c. prime adaptive ego qualities. d. a radius of significant others. 89. In terms of the context of development, culture refers to a. socially standardized ways of thinking, feeling, and acting shared by members of a society. b. a group of individuals who co-reside with one another in a community. c. the exclusion of technology and religion in age-graded expectations. d. uncommon threads of standardization of an ethnic group. 90. Prime adaptive ego qualities and core pathologies influence one’s a. physical development. b. subcultural or ethnic identity. c. worldview. d. generational cohort. 91. Which of the following is most influential in the demands for growth based on developmental tasks? a. Cultural values b. Age of the individual c. Physical maturation d. The sensitive period of growth 92. Izekial was preparing for his marriage at the age of 13. His upcoming marriage is typical of his peers in Iran. This example best illustrates which of the following influences of developmental tasks? a. Biological age of individuals b. Cultural values c. Physical growth and development d. Teachable moment and sensitive period 93. Which of the following statements about psychosocial stages is most accurate? a. Once a stage is passed, the achievements of that period are never challenged again. b. At each stage, one struggles with one, and only one, major developmental issue. c. Once a stage is passed, the achievements of earlier stages are no longer relevant. d. The way one perceives and experiences life varies qualitatively from stage to stage. Page 13
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Chap 03_13e 94. George is a toddler. Which of the following does he most likely utilize in his central process for psychological growth? a. Repudiation b. Imitation c. Withdrawal d. Exclusivity 95. Chelsea is a newborn baby. Which core pathology is MOST related to her life stage? a. Diffidence b. Dissociation c. Withdrawal d. Inertia 96. Which of the following best describes Joanna’s psychosocial crisis? a. Her unusual set of stresses and strains b. Her absence of societal demands c. Her normal set of stresses and strains d. Her unpredictable life events 97. Which of the following represent Dolores’s three primary social contexts for development? a. Her family, her culture, and her ethnic group b. Her school, her job, and her community c. Her home, her neighborhood, and her country d. Her friends, her family, and her job 98. The central process in psychosocial theory refers to a. stages of development. b. how a person resolves a psychosocial crisis. c. important people in an individual’s life. d. a dichotomy between positive and negative poles. 99. Which of the following statements best describes the central process, an organizing concept of psychosocial theory? a. The central process identifies a discrepancy between a developmental task and stage. b. The central process identifies a discrepancy between a developmental task and stage. c. The central process helps to resolve the psychosocial crisis. d. The epigenetic principle allows internalization of processes central to development. 100. Lou was uncomfortable when he arrived at summer camp, so he began to walk around and learn where the activities were held. He next observed the boys in his age group playing a game of ball. According to psychosocial theory, Lou was a. negatively resolving the identity crisis. b. determining members of his radius of significant others c. following the epigenetic principle. d. appraising the situation as a coping behavior. 101. Ignacio is a typical 7-year-old boy. What is most likely his primary social context of childhood? Page 14
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Chap 03_13e a. His family b. His community c. His nation d. His religion 102. Which of the following statements is most accurate with regard to a psychosocial crisis? a. Most people resolve the crisis with an entirely negative resolution. b. Most people never resolve the first crisis of trust versus mistrust. c. Most people resolve the crisis positively along with some negative experience. d. Most people resolve the crisis with an entirely positive resolution. 103. Which of the following statements is considered a weakness of psychosocial theory? a. It focuses on childhood rather than adulthood. b. It hypothesizes a specific direction for healthy growth at each life stage. c. The process of moving from one stage to another needs more development. d. The psychosocial crisis is not the same from one stage to the next. 104. Which of the following is TRUE of the stage theory concept? a. It proposes a specific direction of development. b. It follows a haphazard pattern. c. It focuses on correlations. d. It uses naturalized relationships. 105. Which of the following criticisms of psychosocial theory relates to the stages of development? a. A male, Eurocentric, individualistic perspective is utilized to create the stages. b. The period of adult life is not adequately differentiated. c. The life stage concept is abstract and difficult to measure. d. Movement from one stage to the next is not adequately explained. 106. The epigenetic principle refers to a. ages and stages in psychosocial theory. b. a biological plan for growth. c. societal expectations. d. age-graded expectations. 107. Brenda and all of the other 11 women in her bridge club are in their 80s. Which of the following core pathologies is MOST related to her and her fellow bridge players? a. Inertia b. Dissociation c. Withdrawal d. Diffidence 108. Which example illustrates how a person might anticipate the challenges and roles of a future stage? a. A teenager worries about taking a test. Page 15
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Chap 03_13e b. A preschool child pretends to get married and have a family. c. A middle adult woman plans Thanksgiving dinner. d. A grandfather regrets not having spent enough time with his granddaughter.
109. Explain radius of significant relationships and how it influences development. Give at least one example. 110. Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of psychosocial theory. 111. What role does imitation play in resolving psychosocial crises? 112. Define the concept of psychosocial crisis. Give an example. Explain how the crisis contributes to psychosocial growth. 113. Explain how psychosocial theory accounts for positive and negative development over the life span. 114. Explain the significance of ethnic groups in contexts of development. 115. Explain how the psychosocial theory takes into consideration the active contribution of culture to individual growth. 116. Explain what it means to say that there is an “evolution” to psychosocial theory. 117. Describe the three features of psychosocial theory that provide a rationale for its use as the framework for the text. 118. Briefly explain how one developmental stage transfers into the next.
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Chap 03_13e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. a Page 17
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Chap 03_13e 26. c 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. c 51. a Page 18
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Chap 03_13e 52. b 53. d 54. d 55. c 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. c 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. d 74. b 75. b 76. a Page 19
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Chap 03_13e 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. c 82. c 83. a 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. b 93. d 94. b 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. b 99. c 100. d 101. a 102. c Page 20
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Chap 03_13e 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary.
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Chap 04_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Two-thirds of infant deaths occur during the first month after birth. a. True b. False 2. Infant mortality rates are much lower in the United States than in Japan. a. True b. False 3. The drug RU-486 (mifepristone) requires several clinical administrations to cause an abortion. a. True b. False 4. An additional 21st chromosome results in Tay-Sachs syndrome. a. True b. False 5. Developing defects from teratogens occur only during the third trimester. a. True b. False 6. Anesthetic used during delivery can induce depression in the neonate. a. True b. False 7. Thirty-four percent of women describe their childbirth experience as traumatic. a. True b. False 8. The biochemical basis of genetic information is the DNA molecule. a. True b. False 9. Fetal behavior indicates periods of REM and non-REM sleep. a. True b. False 10. Couvade symptoms are experienced exclusively by fathers in New Guinea. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. About how many years of potential childbearing are there for healthy women? a. 35 Page 1
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Chap 04_13e b. 30 c. 20 d. 10 12. What is the probability that two heterozygous parents will produce a blue-eyed child? a. .10 b. .25 c. .50 d. 0.0 13. In a longitudinal study of the effects of prenatal exposure to alcohol, what was one of the findings? a. By 4 years old, the negative effects of exposure to alcohol were no longer observed. b. Children who had been exposed to alcohol prenatally were delayed in motor development. c. A positive family environment could not compensate for the negative effects of alcohol exposure. d. There were no enduring effects of alcohol for women who consumed 1 to 2 ounces per day. 14. Kevin is a human male. Which of the following pairs reflects his chromosomes? a. XY b. YY c. XX d. XO 15. Which of the following family relationships shows the most similarity in measured intelligence? a. Siblings b. Adopted child and siblings c. Monozygotic twins d. Dizygotic twins 16. Julia is 43 years old and pregnant for the first time. Which of the following is she at higher risk for than her neighbor, who is also pregnant but only 24 years old? a. Having a baby with Down syndrome b. Having an abortion c. Eating an inadequate diet d. Getting divorced 17. Which factor is most likely to reduce the likelihood that a pregnant woman will experience depression? a. Reading about birthing options b. Maternity leave c. Focusing more on the baby d. Financial resources 18. What impact might a father’s depression have on a mother during her pregnancy? a. It makes her more likely to suffer from gestational diabetes. b. It increases her sense of isolation and depression. Page 2
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Chap 04_13e c. It makes her more relaxed during childbirth. d. None of these impact the mother. 19. How have medical practices in the United States related to pregnancy and childbirth changed since the 1940s and 50s? a. More use of obstetrical anesthesia b. More freedom in the use of a wide range of drugs during pregnancy c. Greater involvement of fathers during labor and delivery d. Fewer cesarean deliveries 20. April is in the second stage of psychological adaptation to the birth process. How many more stages will she go through? a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Seven 21. Agents that can produce malformations in the fetus while tissues and organs are forming are called a. teratogens. b. zygote perils. c. amniotics. d. gestational intercepts. 22. The final psychological adaptation stage of the birth process is a. the postpartum period. b. the expulsion of the placenta. c. the mother’s move to a sterile delivery room. d. calling friends and family. 23. When does the differentiation of the sex organs occur in fetal development? a. The germinal period b. The embryonic period c. The fetal period d. The third trimester 24. What is known about the effects of cesarean delivery on mothers? a. Mothers who had a cesarean delivery are less satisfied with their childbirth experiences. b. The experience of a cesarean delivery is associated with lower confidence in one’s ability to parent. c. The experience of a cesarean delivery increases anxiety and stress at home. d. Mothers who had a cesarean delivery have less positive interactions with their babies at 4 and 12 months of age. 25. When a nucleus of an egg cell is removed and replaced with the DNA from an adult cell, which of the following has just occurred? a. DNA replacement b. Nuclear replacement Page 3
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Chap 04_13e c. Nuclear transplantation d. Hormonal replacement therapy 26. In Japan, becoming pregnant and giving birth to a child a. has a negative effect on a woman’s social status. b. is viewed as interfering with productivity at work. c. is the highest role a woman can play. d. results in women losing their impact in the community. 27. Sarah is in her first trimester. Which phrase best describes her current stage? a. Quickening b. Cognitive maturation c. Effacement d. Embryonic period 28. What is the most important factor that contributes to prematurity for babies born to mothers age 16 and younger? a. The mother’s lack of social support b. The mother's inadequate diet c. The mother’s biological immaturity d. The mother’s anxiety 29. What is the pregnancy rate for women using Assisted Reproductive Technology? In other words, what percent of cycles result in pregnancies? a. 60% b. 40% c. 30% d. 20% 30. Which of the following is TRUE of the DNA molecule? a. It is spherical. b. It is shaped like a twisted rope ladder. c. It is conical. d. It is in the form of a pyramid. 31. Marla and Audrey just heard their unborn child’s heartbeat for the first time. How far along, roughly, is Audrey’s pregnancy? a. 8 months b. 6 months c. 3 months d. 4 weeks 32. In a dominance relation, if the dominant allele is present, what can be said about its characteristic? a. It is always masked. b. It is always sex-linked. c. It is always combined. Page 4
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Chap 04_13e d. It is always observed. 33. Abigail’s professor asked her to explain what a gene is. Which of the following would be her BEST response? a. A chain of DNA molecules b. An egg or sperm cell c. The observed characteristics of a trait d. A portion of DNA that codes for the production of one protein 34. If David and Yolanda want to increase their chances of conceiving a child, they should have intercourse no more than how long before Yolanda’s ovulation period? a. 1 day b. 1 hour c. 5 days d. 5 hours 35. Which of the following is a risk of smoking during pregnancy? a. Women who smoke are at greater risk for miscarriages and stillbirths. b. Women who smoke have longer labor. c. Women who smoke are more likely to have multiple births (twins, triplets). d. Babies born to women who smoke are more likely to be born with facial malformations. 36. Matthew has the genetic potential to have an above average IQ. However, he has been placed in a foster home where he is never read to, no one speaks to him, and he is left to play alone much of the day. When he starts first grade, his measured IQ is 85. This is an example of the concept of a. codominance. b. norm of reaction. c. Down syndrome. d. genetically regulated rate of growth. 37. Which of the following explains why it is hard to learn much about the childbirth experiences of other cultures? a. Childbirth usually occurs in a hospital and outsiders are not permitted. b. Childbirth is a personal, private event not readily discussed with outsiders. c. Childbirth is of such little importance that it is not considered worthy of discussion. d. Most cultures do not have words in their vocabularies to describe childbirth. 38. Reducing high levels of caffeine intake during pregnancy is likely to do which of the following? a. Result in better health of the baby b. Not have any affect on the health of the baby c. Prevent fetal alcohol syndrome d. Increase health risks of the unborn child 39. Which of the following is an example of an environmental toxin that can harm fetal development? a. Industrial waste in low amounts b. Pollen spores c. Acid rain Page 5
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Chap 04_13e d. Fluoride 40. The consequence to the fetus of exposure to teratogens varies by a. dosage. b. doctor. c. religion. d. gender. 41. Fredo is an expectant father who has observed very specific taboos during his wife's pregnancy and spends long periods of time in bed. Which of the following BEST labels Fredo’s behavior? a. Couvade b. Effacement c. Birth neurosis d. In vivo fertilization 42. Why is hemophilia a sex-linked trait? a. Because it is carried on the 23rd chromosome pair b. Because it is only observed after puberty c. Because it never occurs in females d. Because it interferes with normal sexual maturation 43. Which of the following occurs during the embryonic period associated with pregnancy? a. The fetus assumes the fetal position. b. The mother’s heartbeat quickens. c. The placenta is formed. d. The fetus begins to suck and swallow. 44. Ursula is 42 years old. Which of the following is TRUE of Ursula, compared to women who are in their 20s and 30s? a. She will tend to have shorter labor. b. She will tend to have longer labor. c. She will be more likely to have a male child. d. She will be more likely to have a female child. 45. Harold has the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability in the United States. Which of the following is TRUE of Harold? a. He has Down syndrome. b. He was born with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. c. He has acquired Tay Sachs disease. d. He suffers from Turner’s syndrome. 46. Which of the following is TRUE of two-thirds of infant deaths? a. They are the result of SIDS. b. They are the result of low birth weight. c. They occur within the first month after birth. Page 6
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Chap 04_13e d. They occur after the first 3 months after birth. 47. What do Tay Sachs and Thalassemia have in common? a. They are both unrelated to genetics. b. They both have the same symptoms. c. They both affect only African Americans. d. They are both genetic diseases linked to ancestry. 48. Francine drank alcohol heavily during her pregnancy. She delivered a child, Gilbert, with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Which of the following is young Gilbert also likely to experience? a. Reduced height b. Central nervous system disorders c. Blindness d. Malformations of the joints 49. Elouise is 23 weeks pregnant. At this stage, how will her baby’s foot appear? a. The same as full term but much smaller b. Malformed but nearly as large as full term c. Unlike a foot d. Without five distinct toes 50. Valerie is pregnant and now at the stage of her pregnancy where her unborn baby is at its most vulnerable period of prenatal development to teratogens. At what stage of her pregnancy is Valerie? a. Her third trimester b. Her second trimester c. 3-9 weeks d. Her first month 51. What is a good rule of thumb when trying to determine the impact of environmental toxins on fetal development? a. If it does not bother the mother, it will not bother the developing fetus. b. If it does not bother young children aged 6 to 10, it will not bother the developing fetus. c. The impact on fetal development must be assessed separately from the impact on children or adults. d. The fetus is well protected. There are very few toxins to which it is likely to be vulnerable. 52. The genetic information about a trait is called the a. prototype. b. genotype. c. phenotype. d. stereotype. 53. Which statement about the characteristics of women having legal abortions is TRUE? a. Over 80% are age 20 and under. b. Over 80% are beyond the 12th week of pregnancy. c. Over 80% have had one or more previous abortions. d. Over 80% were unmarried. Page 7
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Chap 04_13e 54. Taylor is addicted to caffeine. She has never been able to function without at least three cups of strong coffee per day. Now that she has become pregnant, Taylor has asked her doctor how much coffee she can safely consume per day. Which of the following is likely to be her doctor’s answer? a. No more than 100 milligrams b. No more than 300 milligrams c. No more than 500 milligrams d. No more than 1000 milligrams 55. Ingrid and her sister-in-law Jenna both began labor at the same time this morning. It is Ingrid’s first birth and Jenna’s third. Which of the following will MOST LIKELY be true of their deliveries? a. They will happen at about the same time because most women experience very similar lengths of labor. b. Ingrid’s will be shorter because this is her first birth, and it is Jenna’s third. c. Ingrid’s will be longer because this is her first birth, and it is Jenna’s third. d. There is no way to tell whose will be shorter or longer because length of labor is highly variable from woman to woman. 56. This morning, George and Katrina are at a fertility clinic to have George’s sperm artificially inseminated into Katrina. The doctor has told Katrina she will need to take it easy after the procedure until the time that the embryo is implanted into her uterus. For about how long will Katrina need to take it easy? a. 6 days b. 1 day c. 6 hours d. 6 weeks 57. In the comparison study of parents of naturally conceived or adopted children with parents of children conceived through assisted reproduction, the parents who used assisted reproduction a. showed less warmth to their children than the other parents. b. showed more warmth to their children than the other parents. c. showed higher stress than the other parents. d. showed lower levels of interaction with their children. 58. Juanita is in her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following behaviors is the fetus inside her just now experiencing? a. Preference for a sweet taste b. Assuming the fetal position c. Grasp reflex d. Vocalization 59. In the second trimester, the pregnant woman experiences early fetal movement called a. neural awakening. b. fluttering. c. amniotic waves. d. quickening. 60. Which scenario illustrates how genetic factors influence a child’s environment? Page 8
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Chap 04_13e a. Mary and Bill were raised in the country so they want to raise their children in the country. b. Tina is very sociable and outgoing. She loves to have friends over to the house who also get to play with her baby, Joe. c. Karen is going to an elementary school where children are grouped by the first letter of their last name for reading instruction. d. Craig and Alice have decided that they only want one child. Martin is that child. 61. A child's measured intelligence is a product of the child's genotype for intelligence and the quality of the environment in which the child is raised and educated. This is an example of the concept of a. genetic anomaly. b. gene therapy. c. reaction range. d. delayed reaction. 62. Why are some genetic characteristics referred to as sex-linked? a. Because they influence men more than women b. Because they encourage risky sexual behavior c. Because they influence women more than men d. None of these 63. Joanne is expecting her child, but she lives in a low income region of the U.S.. She is currently below the poverty line. Which of these is an income-related regional problem that could affect the survival of Joanne’s baby? a. Age of the mother b. Adequacy of medical facilities available c. The mother’s attitude about the baby d. Anti-infant mortality laws 64. A newborn infant shows symptoms of irritability, high-pitched cry, muscle spasms, fever, sleep disturbance, and feeding problems. What is one likely diagnosis? a. The mother is a cigarette smoker. b. The mother is addicted to. c. The mother addicted to alcohol. d. The mother is diabetic. 65. Why does Celine’s uterus contract during her labor and birth process? a. Because it serves the purposes of dilation and effacement b. Because it forces the crowning function c. Because it is necessary for the transition d. Because it pauses delivery processes for the sake of the mother 66. Which of the following characteristics might Jenna pass on to her daughter through a specific gene pool? a. Her body structure b. Her brain weight c. Her hair color d. Her ability to walk upright Page 9
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Chap 04_13e 67. What are chromosomes? a. Cell nuclei b. Heterozygous gametes c. Strands of genetic material d. Chains of alleles 68. Why are sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen bases important to DNA molecules? a. Because they are what DNA molecules are composed of b. Because DNA molecules react to each of these c. Because, together, these counteract DNA molecule functions d. Because DNA molecules “feed” on these proteins 69. Thalidomide, a prescription drug prescribed for morning sickness in the 1960s, was associated with a. reduced birth weight. b. premature births. c. miscarriages. d. major deformities in baby’s limbs. 70. Yolanda’s egg is now just ready to receive David’s sperm. How long do they have to have intercourse before her egg begins to disintegrate? a. 1 hour b. 24 hours c. 2 days d. 24 days 71. What is the first stage in the first trimester? a. Germinal period b. Embryonic period c. Fetal period d. Effacement 72. The goal established by the United States Public Health Service regarding childbirth via cesarean delivery is to a. make cesarean delivery the standard method of childbirth by the year 2012. b. increase the incidence of cesarean deliveries from 24% to 30% of all births. c. reduce the rate of cesarean deliveries to 15%. d. reduce the number of days in the hospital following cesarean deliveries. 73. Which of the following is TRUE of the alternative states of a gene on the chromosome strands in a pair? a. They destroy DNA. b. They are anomalies. c. They are alleles. d. They form one genotype. 74. Wilson is a sixth-grader who was born with a genetic abnormality. If he has one hundred classmates, how many of Page 10
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Chap 04_13e them, on average, were also born with genetic abnormalities? a. 3 or 4 b. 15 c. 25 d. 45 75. Which of the following of Jeremiah’s traits are found on only one of his genes? a. Sociability b. Intelligence c. Criminality d. None of these 76. Clarissa knows that she has a different number of chromosomes in each of her cells than does her cat, Leo. How many chromosome pairs are in each of Clarissa’s cells? a. 20 b. 23 c. 25 d. 28 77. It is obvious that Dawn’s eye color gene is homozygous. If this is true, which of the following is also TRUE? a. That gene is heterozygous. b. That gene is a phenotype. c. The alleles for that gene from both parents are the same. d. The alleles for that gene from her parents are different. 78. Megan, who is 8 weeks pregnant, is passing all of the nutrients she takes in to the embryo inside of her. Through which organ is this occurring? a. Her placenta b. Her neural tube c. Her amniotic sac d. Her fallopian tube 79. How might genetic counseling influence the gene pool? a. Deciding not to have children decreases the incidence of a disease over time. b. Counseling increases the risk-taking behaviors of couples who carry a genetic disease. c. Counseling results in gene transfer therapy. d. Genetic counseling cannot influence the gene pool. 80. How are the effects of malnutrition on human fetal development studied? a. By using an experimental and control group design in which mothers are randomly given an inadequate or an adequate diet during pregnancy. b. By examining birth records for babies born during periods of famine. c. By using a survey technique to determine how hungry women are during pregnancy. d. By cutting off the food supply to a random group of pregnant women for 3 days in the last trimester of pregnancy. Page 11
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Chap 04_13e 81. MaryAnne describes her feelings about pregnancy as sometimes anxious or depressed and sometimes excited and hopeful. MaryAnne’s feelings are considered a. signs of bipolar disorder. b. signs of postpartum depression. c. signs of a vitamin deficiency. d. normal. 82. Shayna would like to get pregnant because she knows she is within the age range at which she is least likely to experience complications in childbirth. Which of the following age ranges can Shayna NOT be within? a. Between 20 and 25 b. Between 25 and 35 c. Between 16 and 20 d. Between 36 and 40 83. What impact does the use of anesthetic drugs during childbirth have on the newborn? a. These drugs have no impact on the newborn. b. The impact depends on the kind, amount, and timing of the drug that is used. c. The babies exposed to these drugs have lower birth weight. d. The babies exposed to these drugs have a higher rate of infant mortality. 84. What belief would be associated with extensive purification rituals for a woman following childbirth? a. Childbirth is a great physical triumph. b. Childbirth brings honor to the family. c. Childbirth is dirty and spiritually defiling. d. Childbirth is natural and exhausting. 85. The attitudes of care and help for pregnant women in contrast to keeping the pregnancy secret as long as possible is known as a. adequacy vs. vulnerability. b. trust vs. mistrust. c. autonomy vs. shame and doubt. d. solicitude vs. shame. 86. Russ is a geneticist who studies the nitrogen bases in the DNA molecule. Which of these is he studying? a. Phenylthiocarbamide b. Alleles c. Cytosine d. Proteome 87. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the influence of a woman's emotional state on her pregnancy and delivery? a. A mother's anxiety and irritability help speed up labor. b. Women who are experiencing marital difficulties are likely to have shorter labors. c. Anxious and irritable women are more likely to experience labor complications. Page 12
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Chap 04_13e d. Extreme emotions of joy and elation are just as disruptive as anxiety and depression. 88. Linda’s pregnancy is at the end of its second month. About how large is the embryo inside of Linda? a. 1 millimeter b. 1 inch c. 3 inches d. 5 inches 89. What is the impact of a husband's presence on his wife's childbirth experience? a. The women report that they experience less pain, and they use less medication. b. The women experience longer deliveries. c. The women are more self-conscious. d. The women form a more immediate attachment to their babies. 90. Sometimes, early in the gestational process, a single fertilized egg divides and separates. Two individuals with exactly the same chromosomal composition begin to form. This results in ________ twins. a. monozygotic b. fraternal c. sibling d. dizygotic 91. Emmanuelle has blue eyes. This is a result of which type of allelic relationship? a. Recessive b. Codominance c. Cumulative d. Crossing over 92. Which of the following is a fundamental question in the legal controversies about abortion? a. At what developmental point is the embryo individualized to the extent that it is entitled to protection by the state? b. Under what conditions is a mother capable of making a choice about abortion? c. When women suffer the negative consequences of abortion, can the state be sued? d. If public funds are used for abortions, can they be used to provide contraception? 93. How does the text’s description of stages of labor differ from the medical model? a. The text includes a special stage for expulsion of the placenta. b. The text includes a stage of early signs that labor is approaching. c. The text includes a stage that focuses on delivery of the baby. d. The text includes a stage of selecting the obstetrician and hospital where the baby will be born. 94. Which of the following is an example of how genes influence the rate of development? a. Genes determine eye color. b. Genes determine blood type. c. Genes determine sociability. d. Genes determine the sequence of growth. Page 13
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Chap 04_13e 95. Brenda is HIV positive, and she is not being treated for any disease. She has just delivered her first child. If she chooses to breastfeed, which of the following will be TRUE? a. Her baby’s chances of contracting HIV will decrease. b. Her baby’s chances of contracting HIV will increase. c. Her baby’s chances of contracting HIV will be unchanged. d. Her baby will be protected from contracting HIV. 96. A gene that is heterozygous has which of the following characteristics? a. Alleles that are the same b. Alleles that are different c. Three alleles d. Two identical pairs of alleles 97. A mother who agrees to carry an implanted embryo for her daughter and then gives the birthed baby to her daughter to raise has assisted a. as a grandmother proxy. b. with in vitro fertilization. c. as a surrogate mother. d. in an illegal procedure. 98. Alexandra has the most commonly known cause of genetically linked anomaly. Which of the following is TRUE of Alexandra? a. She has a single gene. b. She has chromosomal damage. c. She has multiple genes interacting with environmental factors. d. She has an absence of a chromosome pair. 99. How is malnutrition determined among human infants? a. By their weight for their gestational age b. By their gestational age c. By their weight at birth d. By their alertness and cry 100. How are gamete cells different from other cells in the body? a. They have membranes that surround them. b. They contain genetic information. c. They disintegrate and die. d. They each contain 23 chromosomes rather than 23 pairs of chromosomes. 101. Pamela recently gave birth. She had a very typical pregnancy. How long was Pamela’s pregnancy? a. 11 months b. Longer than any other mammal c. 38 weeks from ovulation d. 4 trimesters Page 14
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Chap 04_13e 102. Which of the following uses of genetic technology is LEAST controversial in today’s society? a. Cloning of mammals b. Using gene therapy to treat a known disease c. Gene transfer d. Genetic fingerprinting 103. Which of the following conditions of malnutrition is linked to the most serious growth retardation? a. Malnutrition before conception b. Malnutrition during pregnancy c. Malnutrition of the infant after birth d. A combination of b and c 104. What prevents the fetus from experiencing a sense of smell? a. The nostrils are plugged with skin cells and then filled with amniotic fluid. b. The brain is not developed enough to detect odors. c. There is no sense of smell without a sense of taste. d. The sense of smell requires cognitive interpretation which does not take place until 6 months of age. 105. Luis is a 12-year-old boy. If one chromosome from one of his chromosome pairs is identified as having come from his father, from whom does the other chromosome in that pair come? a. It also comes from his father. b. It comes from his mother. c. It comes from Luis himself. d. There is no way to know.
106. Discuss different cultural reactions to pregnancy. How might different approaches affect the mother? How might they affect the fetus? 107. What are the ethical implications for mothers and babies of charging drug-addicted pregnant women of child endangering and taking their babies away from them at birth? 108. Briefly describe the process of fertilization, including the important roles that both the male and female bodies play. 109. Explain the relationship between the legal and political contexts of abortion in the United States. 110. Explain the importance of chromosomes as sources of genetic information, and discuss their role in heredity. 111. Discuss infant mortality rates, their trends over time, and their differences among regions of the world today. 112. Define the term solicitude. How does this relate to women who become pregnant? How do different cultures react differently to pregnant women? 113. Describe how stress can affect fetal development. 114. Discuss the benefits and risks associated with four different types of reproductive technologies. Page 15
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Chap 04_13e 115. Discuss how the number of legalized abortions has changed between 1973 and 2005. What are some of the influences on a mother’s decision to have an abortion? 116. What can happen when a mutation occurs, and what causes mutations? 117. Differentiate between developmental viability and fetal viability. 118. Based on what you have read about genetics, conception, and the prenatal period, what are the ethical considerations surrounding new technologies such as genetic markers, nuclear transplantation, or cloning? 119. Describe the ways in which a fetus impacts a pregnant woman’s body. What physical and emotional changes can and do occur? 120. In what ways is the American view of childbirth evolving?
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Chap 04_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. c Page 17
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Chap 04_13e 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. c 51. c Page 18
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Chap 04_13e 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. d 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. d 76. b Page 19
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Chap 04_13e 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. c 81. d 82. d 83. b 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. b 94. d 95. b 96. b 97. c 98. c 99. a 100. d 101. c 102. b Page 20
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Chap 04_13e 103. d 104. a 105. b 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 05_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Joanna’s baby is 4 months old and, therefore, might soon start displaying object permanence. a. True b. False 2. Infants cannot categorize because they do not have enough words in their vocabulary yet. a. True b. False 3. Research supports the idea that child outcomes are a product of child temperament and parenting strategies. a. True b. False 4. Infants in a poor-quality care-center-based setting are more likely to develop secure attachments with their mothers. a. True b. False 5. No matter what culture an infant is raised in, mothers will respond just as quickly to a crying baby. a. True b. False 6. Infant cries communicate a different level of need through pitch, tempo, and duration. a. True b. False 7. The only effect of a parent’s mental illness on a child is if the parent becomes violent. a. True b. False 8. Separation anxiety can be displayed when a 9-month-old baby is separated from its mother for 30 minutes. a. True b. False 9. Non-depressed mothers typically engage in touching, talking, soothing, and comforting their infants more than depressed mothers. a. True b. False 10. Vagal tone is the sound a neonate hears at birth. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. When infants pay attention to their caregivers, the caregivers attempt to stimulate them. When infants withdraw Page 1
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Chap 05_13e attention, caregivers reduce their efforts at stimulation. This illustrates the concept of a. synchrony. b. trust. c. communication repair. d. soothability. 12. What is the purpose of the Strange Situation as an experimental procedure? a. To stimulate the attachment system and observe it under controlled conditions b. To stimulate alternative approaches to emotional regulation and control c. To help babies reduce their fear of separation d. To help parents learn to handle separation from their infants 13. What would provide evidence that habituation has occurred? a. The infant opens her mouth to mimic the mother’s open mouth. b. The infant visually follows the caregiver who is walking across the room. c. The infant’s response decreases each time she sees the same red teddy bear. d. The infants loses interest in sucking her thumb. 14. Which of the following family factors is tied to increases in an infant’s negative emotionality? a. Being a first born child b. High levels of marital dissatisfaction for mother or father c. Low educational level of mother d. Lack of grandparent involvement in childcare 15. Trust develops as parents a. make up innovative games to play with their baby. b. give their child more time to explore the environment. c. get older. d. interpret their children’s signals correctly. 16. How do infants grow in their understanding of causality? a. Through sensory and motor investigation b. Through pointing and naming c. Through visual gazing d. Through memory and recall 17. Which is an example of a cognitive or mastery smile? a. Smile at being tickled b. Smile at making a bell jingle c. Smile at seeing a favorite toy d. Smile at seeing mommy in the morning 18. Harriet’s baby was born with a condition on his largest sensory organ and the first organ to develop during the prenatal period. Where is Harriet’s baby’s condition? a. Nose Page 2
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Chap 05_13e b. Skin c. Ears d. Eyes 19. Samira is fearful and inhibited by nature. She is most likely to be confident if her mother is a. fearless of nature. b. careful of nature. c. protective of Samira. d. supportive of Samira’s autonomy. 20. What effect do sweet-tasting substances have on newborns? a. They have a calming effect. b. They increase the baby’s irritability. c. They increase activity level. d. They give babies the hiccups. 21. The relatively stable characteristics of a child’s response to the environment including activity level, sociability, and emotionality are called a. temperament. b. reflexes. c. attachment. d. personality. 22. Rachel’s baby boy was born at 5 pounds, 3 ounces. Which of the following is TRUE of Rachel’s newborn? a. He is a low birth-weight baby. b. He is a high birth-weight baby. c. He is a premature baby. d. None of the above is true. 23. Objects do not cease to exist when they are out of 3-year-old Tommy’s reach or view. This concept is referred to as a. a scheme. b. primitive causality. c. a means-end relationship. d. object permanence. 24. Which of the following is most accurate about infant emotion in the first 2 years of life? a. Emotions are tied to internal states of pain and pleasure during the first 2 years of life. b. Emotions change in stage-like progression from internal physical expressions to differentiation of self in relation to others in the environment. c. Infant emotional expressions remain limited and unchanging during the first 2 years with no stage-like progression. d. Infant emotions are primarily negative in the first 2 years, reflecting wariness, anger, and defiance. 25. Cross-cultural observations suggest that infants are likely to be carried for longer periods during the day and for more months during infancy when Page 3
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Chap 05_13e a. women marry at younger ages. b. families live in extended family groups. c. men help with childcare. d. there are more physical dangers on the ground. 26. When parents and infants can understand each other’s emotions, creating and modifying shared interactions in response to each other, this is called a. intersubjectivity. b. conformity. c. equivalence. d. self-recognition. 27. According to the text, many parental behaviors that are important for the development of strong emotional bonds between parents and infants are also important for a. fostering intellectual growth. b. achieving autonomy. c. fostering communication mismatch. d. producing early signs of depression. 28. Which of the following is the process through which people develop specific, positive, emotional bonds with others? a. Attachment b. Social referencing c. Emotional differentiation d. Categorization of social objects 29. When infants begin to be able to modify their needs for security to include the needs and goals of their caregiver, we say they are achieving a a. disorganized attachment. b. goal-corrected partnership. c. capacity fore categorization. d. reactive temperament. 30. Motor reflexes undergo some transformations during infancy. What is the typical pattern of change? Think about reaching and grasping as an example. a. Motor control begins in the hands and fingers and moves toward the trunk. b. Motor control shifts from the feet to the hands and shoulders. c. Involuntary behavior disappears and voluntary behavior emerges with practice. d. Voluntary behavior becomes involuntary behavior. 31. In the development of reaching and pushing, which of the following is the earliest behavior likely to be observed? a. Grasping a moving object b. Holding an object in both hands c. Picking up a piece of yarn using index finger and thumb d. Reaching into a jar to pull out a candy Page 4
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Chap 05_13e 32. Japanese parents try to regulate anger by a. displacing their feelings of anger toward an acceptable target such as a doll. b. minimizing their children’s exposure to anger or frustration. c. encouraging their children to express anger when they feel it. d. talking about their feelings when they are angry. 33. When a baby shows excitement, which of Peter Wolff’s seven stages of arousal are they demonstrating? a. Self-awareness b. Crying c. Waking activity d. Empathy 34. The purpose of the Apgar score, which is calculated twice within the first 5 minutes of birth, is to a. measure infant intelligence. b. measure the quality of parental investment in the newborn at birth. c. assess an infant’s life signs to determine the need for intervention at birth. d. decide whether the newborn infant has been exposed to prenatal teratogens. 35. The example given in the text of the emergence of the use of a spoon as a tool for eating illustrates which concept? a. Motor skills become integrated into purposeful problem-solving strategies. b. Motor skills develop independently from causal relations. c. Infants are limited in their exploration of spoons by what they have observed in their home environment. d. Infants are unable to coordinate means and ends. 36. Which of the following is the pattern of development of emotion along the rage-anger dimension? a. Distress, anger, guilt b. Guilt, anger, distress c. Guilt, distress, anger d. Anger, guilt, distress 37. Four-month-old Brendan cries the most in the home situation. What type of attachment does this show? a. Anxious-avoidant b. Anxious-resistant c. Secure d. Undeveloped 38. Renee Baillargeon has conducted a number of studies to examine infants’ reactions to objects that are hidden from view. Infants as young as 4 months appear to be surprised when a toy car emerges from behind a screen when it should have been blocked. What is the basic purpose of her studies? a. To detect dimensions of visual acuity in infants b. To determine an infant’s ability to track a moving object c. To demonstrate that infants have a mental image of an object even when it is out of view d. To present information about infants' sense of touch to soft objects 39. A mother who can accurately interpret her baby’s signals and respond appropriately is said to demonstrate Page 5
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Chap 05_13e a. sensitivity. b. good temperament. c. inhibited attachment. d. organized security. 40. What is one important conclusion drawn from research comparing the attachments of Israeli children to a mother, father, and special caregiver (metapelet)? a. Babies can only form one true attachment. b. The attachment to one’s mother is more important than the other attachments. c. Infants can have a variety of attachment relationships that all contribute to social development differently. d. All attachment relationships are the same. 41. Observations of naturally occurring disruptions in the parent-infant relationship suggest that the onset of a sensitive period for attachment occurs at which age? a. 18 months b. 12 months c. 6 months d. 3 months 42. Which of the following is a characteristic of babies who have a disorganized attachment? a. At home, they cry less than other babies. b. They actively explore the environment when their mothers are present. c. They are more distressed when separated from their mothers. d. They interact with strangers while mothers are present. 43. Which attachment pattern is linked with the most serious mental health problems in later childhood? a. Anxious-avoidant b. Anxious-resistant c. Secure d. Disorganized 44. According to Piaget, the primary mechanism underlying the growth of intelligence during infancy is a. reciprocity. b. social attachment. c. trust versus mistrust. d. sensorimotor adaptation. 45. What theme related to temperament is illustrated in the case of the Cotton family? a. Anna’s temperament was a good fit with that of her parents, which made parenting more satisfying. b. Nancy and Paul had to make many changes in their lifestyle in order to adapt to Anna’s temperament. c. Nancy and Paul found it impossible to soothe Anna. They had to hire help in order to find someone who could calm Anna and comfort her. d. Anna’s difficult temperament made Nancy and Paul regret their decision to have children. 46. The prime adaptive ego quality of infancy is Page 6
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Chap 05_13e a. caring. b. fidelity. c. will. d. hope. 47. In identifying the fact that young birds thought that the first moving thing they saw after hatching was their parent, which of the following concepts did Konrad Lorenz apply to social development? a. Adaptation b. Developmental tasks c. Stranger anxiety d. Imprinting 48. Although there are many definitions and explanations about the concept of temperament, theorists tend to agree about 2 points. What is one of these? a. Theorists focus on the 3 concepts of easy, difficult, and slow-to-warm up. b. Theorists agree that temperament is stable across the lifespan. c. Theorists agree that a primary feature of temperament is the child’s positive or negative reaction to environmental stimuli. d. Theorists agree that a primary feature of temperament is the recognition of causal schemes. 49. Jordan is 3 months old. By this age, he should be able to a. distinguish his parent’s face from the face of a stranger. b. pick up a toy from a basket and put it back. c. sit up alone without support. d. speak well enough to be understood. 50. At about what age will Thadeus form an internal, mental representation of the object of attachment? a. 9 to 12 months b. 6 to 9 months c. 3 to 6 months d. Birth to 3 months 51. Which of the following statements best describes the role of early attachments for later behavior? a. Attachments formed in infancy are not relevant for understanding relationships in childhood or adolescence. b. The attachment formed at 12 months may change dramatically by age 2. c. A secure attachment can become insecure but an insecure attachment cannot become secure. d. Secure attachments are associated with positive adaptive capacities at 3 to 5 years. 52. Which term refers to caregiver-infant interactions that are rhythmic, well-timed, and mutually rewarding? a. Synchrony b. Ethology c. Differentiation d. Behavioral system 53. Heather’s unborn baby is most likely to hear what while still in utero? Page 7
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Chap 05_13e a. No sounds at all b. Television programs c. The telephone ringing d. The mother’s heartbeat 54. Under which conditions would you expect a 9-month-old baby to make the strongest protest over separation? a. The mother leaves the baby in a laboratory room and closes the door behind her. b. The mother leaves the baby’s sight but calls out to the baby from another room. c. The mother leaves the living room and walks into the kitchen while the baby stays in the living room. d. The mother walks from one laboratory room to an adjoining room while the baby watches. 55. Babies who avoid contact with their mothers after separation or who ignore her efforts to interact have a(n) _____________ attachment. a. secure b. insecure c. anxious-resistant d. anxious-avoidant 56. What is one contribution of emotions to survival in infants? a. The first indication of sensorimotor adaptation b. To provide a mechanism for species variability c. To serve as adult-infant communication d. To enhance fitness 57. Which statement best describes plasticity? a. The neurons in the infant’s brain are connected in a random manner, and all the patterns depend on experience. b. The basic organization of areas of the brain depend on early experience. c. There is no relationship between experience and neural development. d. Sensory experiences can strengthen certain neural pathways; less used pathways may disappear. 58. Juanita is anxious and sings to herself to ease the feelings of fear while waiting for a doctor’s appointment. She is showing what capacities? a. Reactivity b. Coping c. Emotional regulation d. Self-monitoring 59. Differentiate between Piaget’s and Baillargeon’s views of object permanence. a. Piaget’s view of object permanence required the infant to pursue, whereas Baillargeon’s view observed change in looking time. b. Baillargeon’s view of object permanence required the infant to pursue, whereas Piaget’s view observed change in looking time. c. Piaget’s view of object permanence dealt only with infants, whereas Baillargeon’s view observed both adolescents and adults. Page 8
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Chap 05_13e d. Baillargeon’s view of object permanence dealt only with infants, whereas Piaget’s view observed both adolescents and adults. 60. On her first birthday, Emily looks at her mother as they observe the clown coming to her party. At first Emily is crying. Then her mother smiles and acts very happy, so Emily smiles, too. This is an example of a. empathy. b. attachment. c. visual acuity. d. social referencing. 61. Which statement best reflects the apparent connection between infant temperament and attachment? a. The infant’s temperament influences the kinds of parental responses needed to help the infant form a secure attachment. b. An infant’s temperament is a strong predictor of the type of attachment that will be formed. c. The infant’s temperament influences the caregiver’s self-esteem. d. Only sociable babies form secure attachments. 62. In what way are fathers’ interactions likely to differ from mothers’ interactions with their infants? a. Fathers are more likely to respond to the infants’ signals. b. Fathers do more care giving, such as feeding and bathing. c. Fathers interact in more physically playful ways. d. Fathers focus more on fostering a sense of comfort and trust. 63. Coordination of infant-caregiver interaction involves two related characteristics, which are a. causality and categorization. b. matching and synchrony. c. crying and smiling. d. trust and hope. 64. A sensitive period is a. the period of maximal readiness to achieve a behavior pattern or skill. b. the age of 2 months for establishing infant/caregiver attachment. c. not critical to humans. d. the age of 2 months for establishing trust. 65. Caroline holds her newborn baby in her arms and watches as the baby gazes at her. The baby seems to be staring at a spot on Caroline’s forehead. She wonders what is so interesting about her forehead. What explanation can you give for this? a. Babies tend to gaze at the eyes and mouth of a face. b. Babies recognize an inner eye just above the eyebrows. c. Babies tend to focus attention on borders and contours; the hairline is a type of border. d. Babies are looking for a sign of contentment on the mother’s face which is expressed on the forehead. 66. Social smiles begin to be observed a. at about 1 year. Page 9
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Chap 05_13e b. at about 20 weeks. c. at about 5 weeks. d. 12 hours after birth. 67. How does one assess an infant’s grasp of object permanence? a. Give a baby a new object, something the baby has never seen before, and observe how the baby plays with it. b. Remove an object from a baby’s view and observe whether or not the baby pursues the object. c. Take an object away from a baby and place it among two or three other objects. See if the baby can select the familiar object. d. Tell the baby “bye-bye” and then see if the baby waves bye-bye to you. 68. Infants who exhibit a pattern of withdrawal from unfamiliar objects, negative mood, and low level of activity are called a. difficult. b. shy. c. uninhibited. d. slow to warm up. 69. One cognitive explanation for an infant’s experience of separation anxiety is that the a. baby lacks object permanence. b. baby is insecurely attached. c. baby has not yet learned to crawl after the caregiver. d. baby has no ability to distinguish the caregiver from a stranger. 70. What aspect of the question regarding a critical period for attachment remains unanswered? a. Is there a point after which a secure attachment can no longer be formed? b. What is the time of onset for the critical period for attachment? c. How stable are attachments formed by the end of the first year of life? d. When do infants express a preference for an object? 71. Robin has basic sensory, cognitive, and motor structures that allow her to see, pick up, and move her toys. When she shakes her rattle and it makes a pleasing sound, her mother laughs and says, “Good girl.” Later, Robin picks up the rattle again, watching her mother for a positive reaction. According to the "Theory theory," Robin is a. testing her predictions based on previous experience. b. gazing and concentrating. c. seeking parental warmth. d. acting on an innate understanding of the world. 72. Anthony is 4 months old. What behaviors might suggest the formation of a preference for the object of his attachment? a. Anthony smiles more at the object of attachment than at a stranger. b. Anthony asks to go along whenever the object of attachment goes on an errand. c. Anthony follows the object of attachment around the house by creeping and crawling. d. Anthony finds comfort in holding a scarf that belongs to the object of attachment. Page 10
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Chap 05_13e 73. What is the relationship of high levels of motor activity and frequent crying at 4 months of age to later development? a. There is no relationship to later behavior. b. These babies become high exploring, curious toddlers. c. These babies show greater fearfulness and shyness at later ages. d. These babies have fewer behavior problems than the quiet, less active infants. 74. Which of the following is likely to influence the way 6-month-old Charlie reacts to an unfamiliar adult when he is with his mother? a. Whether or not the mother works outside the home b. The mother’s reaction to the adult c. The adult’s height d. The adult’s occupation 75. Early strategies for tactile exploration, which then leads to the ability to identify objects visually include a. smiling and cooing. b. sucking and mouthing. c. listening and watching. d. chewing and swallowing. 76. Within the process of communication, which of the following patterns builds a sense of mutuality between the infant and the caregiver? a. Attend, protest, anger b. Trust, mistrust, withdrawal c. Coordination, mismatch, repair d. Coordination, mismatch, protest 77. Cultures such as Africa and Central America hold infants upright rather than lying them down in a cradle or crib. Infants in these cultures tend to a. walk at an earlier age than western infants. b. walk at a later age than western infants. c. speak at a later age than western infants. d. do none of these. 78. What is the adaptive role of the capacity for categorization? a. It allows you to approach each object as if it were completely novel. b. It offers a channel for the expression and interpretation of emotions. c. It allows for sensory and motor exploration of new objects in the environment. d. It reduces the amount of information that must be processed for each instance of the category. 79. The infant’s sense of self as _______ combined with the caregiver’s sensitivity create the context for the emergence of hope. a. emotional regulator b. a permanent object c. an animate category d. causal agent Page 11
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Chap 05_13e 80. Jermaine was born as a very low birth-weight baby. Which of the following is likely to be TRUE of Jermaine? a. He will be calm and easily soothed. b. He will have unpleasant, high-pitched cries. c. He will have delicate, physically attractive features. d. He will easily establish a rhythmic pattern of interaction. 81. The reflexive motor responses of the newborn infant serve to a. facilitate the infant’s survival. b. allow the infants to control their muscles. c. enable the infant to exhibit voluntary movement. d. allow the infant to communicate with the caregiver. 82. ________ combines fearfulness and a general cautiousness. a. Behavioral inhibition b. Problem temperament c. Terrible two d. Stranger anxiety 83. In considering the role of culture in attachment formation, cultural beliefs about infants might be evident in which of the following? a. The caregiver’s interpretation of the urgency of a baby’s cry b. The caregiver’s age at birth of first child c. The caregiver’s marital status d. The caregiver’s participation in a traditional marriage ceremony 84. What experiences from the past are most likely to interfere with an adult’s ability to form a secure attachment with an infant? a. Having a mother who responds promptly to signs of distress b. Being an only child c. Disruption of early attachment relationship d. Lack of a high school diploma 85. When mothers are inconsistent in responsiveness to their babies, the babies are characterized as a. anxious-avoidant. b. anxious-resistant. c. secure. d. disorganized. 86. After 6 months of age Dolores is clinging more to her parents in the presence of people she doesn’t know. This is an example of a. a fear syndrome. b. separation anxiety. c. stranger anxiety. d. a negative attachment. Page 12
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Chap 05_13e 87. Which of the following conditions places an infant at greater risk for developmental problems? a. Low weight for gestational age b. Being "post-term" c. High weight for gestational age d. High birth weight 88. Which of the following statements captures the sense of trust? a. A trusting relationship links confidence about the past with faith about the future. b. A trusting relationship has nothing to do with the past, only the present. c. A trusting relationship is only about the other person; not about oneself. d. A trusting relationship can only be experienced once in a lifetime. 89. Geoffrey has a general orientation of wariness toward people and objects. This shows which of the following? a. Anxiety b. Withdrawal c. Fear d. Apprehension 90. Margot’s baby Jack just reached the age at which he can see objects as well as his mother. How old is Jack? a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 7 months d. 9 months 91. If the caregiver is unable to differentiate the infant’s needs or responds harshly to those needs, the infant is likely to develop a sense of a. mutuality. b. synchrony. c. mistrust. d. hope. 92. In the normal pattern of development, mother-infant interactions become increasingly a. rigid. b. disengaged. c. fussy. d. coordinated. 93. Valeria is very withdrawn, hypervigilant in social contacts, and resistant to comfort. Valeria is considered a(n) ________ type. a. nonsociable b. unexpressive c. inhibited d. slow-to-warmPage 13
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Chap 05_13e 94. An infant who is able to use different techniques for sucking from a breast and sucking from a bottle is demonstrating a. sensorimotor intelligence. b. social referencing. c. object permanence. d. internalization. 95. In what way do the last two phases in the development of causal schemes and experimentation with new means and insight differ? a. In the last phase, there is no experimentation, just direct solution of a problem. b. In the last phase, there is no planning. c. In the last phase, babies use novel means to achieve novel goals. d. In the last phase, experimentation is carried out mentally rather than directly. 96. Which of the following categorization tasks can be performed by Jonathan, an 18-month-old infant? a. Sorting insects into butterflies and bees b. Sorting words into nouns and verbs c. Sorting yellow triangles and human figures into two separate groups d. None of these 97. Babies discover that if they drop a spoon while sitting in the high chair, the spoon will fall to the floor and make a noise. This is an example of a. emotional differentiation. b. introspection. c. reflexive behavior. d. sensorimotor causality. 98. The psychosocial crisis of infancy is a. initiative versus guilt. b. autonomy versus shame and doubt. c. industry versus inferiority. d. trust versus mistrust. 99. Which of the following has been consistently observed to be a consequence of secure attachments formed in infancy? a. Success in job placement after college b. Positive, close peer relationships in childhood and adolescence c. Meaningful relationships with one’s grandchildren in later adulthood d. An ability to face one’s death without great fear 100. As soon as Barbara’s baby was born, the doctors performed a series of routine evaluative tests, twice within the first 5 minutes of the birth. What is this series of tests called? a. The Babinski reflex test b. Bayley Scales of Infant Development c. The Infant Visual Perception Test d. The Apgar scoring method Page 14
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Chap 05_13e 101. What are the first and last phases in the development of causal schemes during the sensorimotor period? a. Reflexes; experimentation with new means b. Reflexes; insight c. First habits; insight d. First habits; experimentation with means 102. What did Piaget consider to be adaptive learning systems where cause and effect are linked through involuntary responses? a. Circular reactions b. Coordination of means and ends c. First habits d. Reflexes 103. Two expressions of reactive attachment disorder are a. inhibited and uninhibited type. b. expressive and unexpressive type. c. inhibited and expressive type. d. none of these. 104. How does culture influence motor development during infancy? a. Cultures provide different opportunities for motor exploration in infancy. b. Cultures differ in how babies move through the sequence of motor accomplishments from rolling over to sitting and standing. c. Cultures differ in the role that genetics plays in guiding individual differences in motor skills. d. Motor development is largely a matter of genetically guided pathways; cultures have little impact on motor development. 105. Infants who show an anxious-resistant attachment appear to have an internal, mental representation of the mother as a. skewed and simplistic. b. rejecting. c. accessible and responsive. d. unpredictable.
106. Explain whether temperament traits can affect and/or predict adult personality. 107. Describe three key stages of attachment and explain why each of the three stages is significant in development? 108. Explain why safety and nutrition function as necessities for most parents when it comes to their children. 109. Explain the importance of the Apgar scoring method in newborns. 110. In what ways can withdrawal affect a person’s orientation toward other people and objects? 111. Compare the characteristics of mothers whose babies develop anxious-avoidant attachment to the characteristics of mothers whose babies develop secure attachment. Page 15
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Chap 05_13e 112. How do parents foster socioemotional and cognitive development? 113. How does language perception affect an infant’s ability and capacity to learn to communicate? 114. Explain how infants use their sensorimotor experience to organize experience and communicate with their caregivers. 115. Describe how sensorimotor adaptation leads to and alters sensorimotor intelligence. 116. Describe three sensory and motor areas of the brain and explain how each is related to a specific emerging infant capacity. 117. Describe how habituation affects an infant’s responses and reactions to stimuli. 118. What are some ways mistrust may be expressed in behavior? 119. What are three ways that the prime adaptive ego qualities influence a person’s outlook on life? 120. Discuss the role of parents in promoting optimal development for their infants. How does the psychosocial perspective influence the way the parent role is analyzed in this text?
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Chap 05_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. a 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. d Page 17
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Chap 05_13e 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. d Page 18
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Chap 05_13e 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. d 56. c 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. d 61. a 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. c 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. b 76. c Page 19
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Chap 05_13e 77. a 78. d 79. d 80. b 81. a 82. a 83. a 84. c 85. b 86. c 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. b 91. c 92. d 93. c 94. a 95. d 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. b 100. d 101. b 102. d Page 20
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Chap 05_13e 103. a 104. a 105. d 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 06_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Yolanda is in the transitional period during which her infant schemes are represented internally. This is known as preoperational thought. a. True b. False 2. Quality child care is defined primarily as a large play area with a lot of stimulating toys and activities. a. True b. False 3. Experts in early childhood education recommend realistic toys. a. True b. False 4. Effective discipline should be immediate, brief, and firm without overreacting. a. True b. False 5. Michael is 30 months old. At this point, he should be able to say all the words he understands. a. True b. False 6. Research indicates that when mothers are available as play companions, the symbolic play of 2-year-old children is more complex and lasts longer. a. True b. False 7. Rituals help provide feelings of continuity during change, whereas compulsions continue because the anxiety that motivates them is unresolved. a. True b. False 8. Cases of obsessive-compulsive disorder in young children have the same pattern of symptoms as adults. a. True b. False 9. Research on child care is problematic because of the variety of child care conditions, including the hours involved, family life, and a lack of valid measures (such as IQ for toddlers). a. True b. False 10. The goals of mastery and exploration are a strong drive in toddlerhood. a. True b. False Page 1
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Chap 06_13e
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. What is the primary effect of bilingualism for a child? a. It expands access to concepts. b. It causes the child to be confused. c. It restricts the child's social network. d. It reduces a child's mathematical advancement. 12. Semiotic thinking refers to the understanding of a. basic rules for mental manipulation. b. representations such as symbols or signs. c. fundamental movement patterns. d. basic principles of self regulation. 13. Which of the following has been defined as the ability to comply with a request, modify behavior according to the situation, postpone action, and behave in a socially acceptable way? a. Superego control b. Self-control c. Social control d. Behavioral compliance 14. Which motive primarily accounts for a toddler’s enthusiasm for locomotion? a. The fear of failure b. The drive for mastery c. The need for being protected d. The need for parental discipline 15. In Mischel's research, children who had waited longer in an experimental situation that required self-imposed delay of gratification at age 4 were described by their parents 10 years later as than their peers. a. having more difficulty using and responding to reason b. more distractible and less able to concentrate c. more frustrated d. more verbally fluent and able to plan ahead 16. When Jim acts up at school, his teacher sits down in a quiet corner with him and explains why what he did was wrong. She asks him to consider the consequences to himself and to others. She is utilizing a. induction. b. power assertion. c. love withdrawal. d. distraction. 17. When Carrie tells her mother “I want,” her mother asks, “What do you want?” This is an example of a. prompting. b. scaffolding. c. expansion. Page 2
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Chap 06_13e d. induction. 18. Children who have well-developed pretending skills a. have advanced abilities to take the point of view of others. b. are rather solitary and not well-liked by peers. c. have relatively undeveloped communication skills. d. have relatively inflexible approaches to problem solving. 19. Which of the following approaches to disciplining a toddler is especially effective in promoting positive child outcomes? a. The discipline should take place after a few hours so the child has time to think about the misdeed. b. The discipline should be firm but not overly harsh because harsh punishment is associated with maladaptive consequences. c. The discipline should be administered at intervals so that the toddler will be reminded of the misdeed. d. The discipline should occur continuously over a sustained period of time to aid in retention. 20. What is telegraphic speech? a. One word expressions b. Whining, cooing, and grunting c. Short sentences without unnecessary words d. Vocalization without meaning 21. According to Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development, children in pretend play a. reveal the areas of competence they are striving to master. b. show the limits of their patience. c. play best with the children closest to them physically. d. often regress in preschool play. 22. Sam does not believe in using either power assertion or love withdrawal to discipline his daughter. He does, however, use one of the three major kinds of discipline practice. Which of the following discipline strategies does Sam use? a. Induction b. Avoidance c. Playfulness d. Imitation 23. As children enter toddlerhood, they begin to imitate parental activities when they are alone. This is the beginning of which of the following? a. Sensorimotor play b. Parallel play c. Group play d. Symbolic play 24. Four-year-old Suzy is feeling a sense of autonomy. Which of the following MOST LIKELY allowed her to feel this? a. Hope Page 3
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Chap 06_13e b. Caring c. Imitation d. Envy 25. According to Vygotsky’s view, goals. a. assimilation b. accommodation c. egocentric speech d. parallel play
plays a key role in helping young children solve problems and attain their
26. Which of the following is an important factor in a toddler's ability to control impulses? a. An increased ability to withstand delays in gratification b. An increase in sensorimotor intelligence c. The development of running and jumping ability d. An increased understanding of the concept of distance 27. What is a critical gap in the United States with respect to childcare? a. Lack of high quality childcare settings b. Lack of knowledge about how to train child care professionals c. Lack of need for these services d. Not enough physical accommodations that will meet licensing codes 28. The toddler’s preoccupation with locomotor activities such as walking, jumping, and running appears to provide the groundwork for a. basic work style. b. lifelong movement patterns. c. school performance patterns. d. representational thinking. 29. Timmy says: “All gone Daddy,” and his mother says: “Yes, Timmy. Daddy has gone to work.” This is an example of a. grammar. b. lack of match between parent and child. c. expansion. d. motherese. 30. As children become more skillful in their fantasy play, they tend to a. elaborate on common, daily experiences b. use real objects as props in their pretense c. benefit most from adult supervision d. include others in their play
.
31. Which of the following is the psychosocial crisis of toddlerhood? a. Initiative versus guilt b. Imitation versus inferiority Page 4
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Chap 06_13e c. Autonomy versus shame and doubt d. Peer group membership versus despair 32. Which of the following statements is most characteristic of the early part of toddlerhood? a. I can beat you. b. I will keep at it until I get it done. c. I feel great about doing it well. d. No, no, no! 33. When 3-year-old Juliana makes adjustments to the social setting that are necessary to produce and interpret communication, she is using which component of communicative competence? a. Pragmatics b. Verbatim accounts c. Moral judgments d. Fast mapping 34. Through the achievement of communicative competence, children a. become increasingly integrated into their culture. b. learn when to speak and when to remain silent. c. learn how to approach communication with parents, peers, and authority figures. d. all of these. 35. According to research, how common is it for children to have imaginary companions? a. Very rare; less than 3% of all children report having imaginary companions. b. Only very gifted children have imaginary companions. c. Only bilingual children have imaginary companions. d. Almost half of children report having an imaginary companion. 36. In what way(s) does language play a critical role in adolescent and adult psychosocial crises, especially the establishment of group identity, intimacy, and generativity? a. Attains levels of disclosure that sustain significant personal relationships b. Serves as a mechanism for resolving conflicts c. Serves as a mechanism for building a sense of cohesiveness within groups d. All of these 37. Pamela’s mother has noticed that her 3-year-old daughter is now using many words. These words are, in essence, ________. a. signs b. sensorimotor schemes c. desires d. preoperational communications 38. Which of the following has been identified as an especially important activity in preparing a child for literacy and for expanding a child’s language skills? a. Reading silently Page 5
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Chap 06_13e b. Reading aloud c. Watching television d. Drawing with friends 39. By the end of toddlerhood, children who have been allowed to experience autonomy will likely a. be more hyperactive. b. have a strong foundation of self-confidence. c. have more anxiety associated with behaving independently. d. be unusually capable in being able to delay gratification. 40. Which of the following predicts the level of a child’s language development at ages 2 and 3? a. The child’s age at jumping b. The quality of social games as an infant c. Conversations between mother and daycare teacher d. When the child began to babble 41. Adults in White, middle-class, Western societies tend to use which of the following techniques when speaking to toddlers in order to facilitate the children’s language acquisition? a. They emphasize the future and the past so that the child becomes aware of time in his/her speech. b. They use long, complex sentences to extend the child’s language abilities. c. They use simplified, redundant utterances that correspond with the child’s interests and comprehension levels. d. They tease their children in order to give them a chance to develop a quick wit. 42. Findings from the NICHD study of the effects of early childcare indicate a. the impact on children of poverty is low. b. the impact on children who have been in church-operated centers is high. c. quality childcare was a more important predictor of cognitive development than family variables. d. family variables were more important predictors of cognitive development than quality of childcare. 43. What are grammatical transformations? a. Ways of expanding on a young child's language b. Rules for two-word sentences c. Rules for polite speech d. Rules for word order and for adding modifiers or inflections to convey meaning 44. Children learn a great deal about how to control anger by doing which of the following? a. Watching their parents when they are angry b. Having a pet c. Listening to verbal discussions about anger d. Interacting with angry peers 45. Which factor associated with poverty could also have a negative impact on development? a. Nutrition b. Health care Page 6
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Chap 06_13e c. Lack of stimulating parental-child interactions d. Lax punishment 46. Three-year-old Noah is feeling shame at the moment. Noah has not, however, failed to live up to anyone’s standards. Which of the following, then, is MOST LIKELY the cause of Noah’s shame? a. Social ridicule b. Too much praise c. Being overly indulged d. Spending too much time watching television 47. Children who can express anger and not lose control make gains in the development of a. autonomy. b. trust. c. imitation. d. language. 48. Some studies have found that children who have had daycare experience are a. less able to empathize with peers b. more depressed c. less compliant with parents’ wishes d. more lonely
than those who have not.
49. During the time when Lars was learning to talk, his parents spoke to him a great deal, and Lars and his parents often took turns in their interactions. One of the parents was often in the same room with Lars. When Nick was learning to talk, his parents were mostly silent, waiting for him to say things. Usually they were in a different room and shouted commands such as “Play with your stacker.” What would you predict the relationship between Lars and Nick’s IQ would be at 3 years of age? a. There would be no difference in IQ. b. Nick would have a higher IQ. c. Lars would have a higher verbal IQ. d. Lars would have a higher verbal IQ, and Nick would have a higher nonverbal IQ. 50. Which of the following describes the direction of fantasy play from the beginning of toddlerhood to the end? a. The play becomes less planned and more associational (one action sparks the rest). b. The play relies increasingly on real objects. c. The play is based largely on the imitation of real world characters. d. The play becomes more organized and play leaders emerge. 51. How is poverty related to discipline practices? a. Poor families are more likely to reward and recognize their children's achievements. b. Poverty is associated with harsher parenting. c. There is no consistent relationship between poverty and discipline. d. Poverty is associated with a greater emphasis on explanations about why a behavior was wrong or bad. 52. Which of the following describes the earliest phases of pretend play? Page 7
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Chap 06_13e a. The child pretends to do some action he or she has actually done or seen someone do in the past. b. The child links a sequence of actions together to tell a story. c. The child uses an imaginary prop to substitute for a real object. d. The child creates an imaginary companion. 53. Children gain which of the following skills as their locomotor skills develop? a. New ways of remaining close to the object of attachment b. New ways for investigating the environment c. New strategies for coping with stressful situations d. All of these 54. The primary motivation for imitation in toddlerhood is the drive for a. affiliation. b. mastery and competence. c. power. d. generativity. 55. “All gone Mommy,” and “Go Bye Bye” are examples of a. gestures. b. telegraphic speech c. fast mapping. d. holophrases. 56. The ability to control impulses and a. imitation in the absence of the model b. self-esteem c. cooperation d. self-regulated goal attainment
are two components of the developmental task of self-control.
57. Gweneth has recently become increasingly dramatic in her roleplaying, including by taking on the role of other people and creating fantasy situations. Which of the following age groups is Gweneth MOST LIKELY in? a. 7-9 years b. 5-7 years c. 3-5 years d. 1-3 years 58. The ability to delay gratification of impulses varies from toddler to toddler. Which of the following is associated with differences in the ease or difficulty children have in controlling their impulses? a. Children who are more active and aggressive have better control of their impulses. b. Children who have a secure attachment with their caregiver are better able to regulate their impulses. c. Toddlers who can tell time are better able to control their impulses. d. Children who are indifferent to the distress of others are better able to control their impulses. 59. The prototype for the conflict between autonomy and social demands for conformity in toddlerhood is a. answering the telephone. Page 8
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Chap 06_13e b. eating with a spoon. c. wearing lace-up shoes. d. toilet training. 60. Physical activity contributes in a fundamental way to a. a toddler’s self-concept. b. a parent’s mental health. c. gender role development. d. a father’s involvement with a toddler. 61. As children acquire representational skills, they gain the ability to a. make their wishes come true. b. compare their performance to the performance of others. c. communicate about the past and create imagined experiences. d. move more freely in the environment. 62. What is the difference between symbols and signs? a. Symbols are usually related in some way to the object they stand for; signs are more abstract in that there is no direct relation between the sign and what it stands for. b. There is no direct relation between a symbol and what it stands for, but there is a direct relation between a sign and what it stands for. c. Symbols are more powerful mental tools than signs. d. Symbols are semiotic; signs are sensorimotor. 63. In addition to the intellectual and social benefits of quality child care participation, studies of Head Start Programs have shown benefits in which of the following areas? a. Higher daily nutritional intake b. Better muscle tone and endurance c. Higher levels of risk taking behavior d. Greater artistic creativity 64. For a toddler, what is one of the consequences of having strong feelings of shame and doubt? a. Seeking out new information b. Avoiding new activities c. Realistic expectations about performance d. Extreme sensitivity to the feelings of others 65. Which statement best characterizes early two-word expressions for children across cultures? a. There is great variation in the types of words and word combinations used within each culture. b. Children in all cultures say “all gone” or its equivalent as one of their very first two-word sentences. c. Children rarely make reference to movement or action words. d. Only English-speaking children use two-word sentences. 66. How did Erikson view fantasy play? a. As a mechanism that allows a child to assimilate reality and redefine it Page 9
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Chap 06_13e b. As providing insight into the cognitive capacities for children who have some form of language delay c. A mechanism for dramatizing the psychological conflicts with which children are struggling d. As activity that enhances complex language use and problem solving 67. Which of the following is 3-year-old Maxwell MOST LIKELY to be able to exhibit at his young age? a. Withdrawal and depression b. Hysteria and phobia c. Regression and denial d. Obsessions and compulsions 68. Children begin toddlerhood with relatively uncoordinated, hesitant movement skills and a. progress only if actively and rigorously trained. b. remain this way until the next stage of development. c. make amazing accomplishments in acquiring coordination and complex locomotor skills. d. frequently backtrack while focusing on language acquisition. 69. Marta’s son Roberto is very upset and angry. He is overtired from their trip to the zoo, and he just fell down and scraped his knee on the sidewalk. Marta brings Roberto on her lap, and tries to comfort him by talking about all the fun they have had and how tiring the day was. What is she teaching Roberto? a. She is teaching him that big boys should not cry. b. She is teaching him how to use language to gain control of intense feelings. c. She is teaching him that he has no control over his feelings. d. She is teaching him to feel afraid of her. 70. When Maria gets angry at her daughter, she gives her the silent treatment. Which form of discipline is Maria using? a. Induction b. Power assertion c. Love withdrawal d. Distraction 71. Four-year-old Matthew has not yet mastered any of the rules that guide the combination of the words and phrases he uses, and therefore there is little meaning in what he says. Which of the following has Matthew NOT yet mastered? a. Grammar b. Vocabulary c. Language d. Symbols 72. Which of the following is TRUE of children who have participated in quality childcare? a. They show higher levels of conceptualization. b. They experience higher levels of hospitalizations. c. They show higher levels of social competence. d. They show higher levels of altruism. 73. Which of the following will MOST LIKELY lead 4-year-old Quinton to a positive belief that he is someone who can make things happen? Page 10
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Chap 06_13e a. Will b. Hope c. Care d. Fidelity to others 74. What is the goal in the socialization of the expression and control of angry feelings? a. To let children know that anger is never acceptable b. To teach children how to find acceptable expressions of anger without hurting themselves or others c. To teach children that it is acceptable to express anger to those outside the family but not toward family members d. To make sure that children experience strong feelings of shame and doubt when they get angry 75. Which of the following would help toddlers learn how to manage their angry impulses? a. Sense of humor and motor skills b. Self-awareness and activity level c. Model acceptable ways to express angry feelings d. Temperament and attachment 76. Among the choices below, which is the most important factor that caregivers contribute for the cognitive growth of their toddler? a. Nutritious meals b. Opportunities for verbal engagement c. Providing for safety d. Enrollment in childcare 77. A three-year-old may say, “I runned fast.” This is an example of a. two-word sentences. b. overregularization. c. expansion. d. scaffolding. 78. Communicative gestures occur a. before production of spoken words. b. after production of spoken words. c. same time as production of spoken words. d. without variability among children. 79. Ana’s family does not have health care, and she has had several illnesses that have gone untreated. Why might this lead to Ana being behind in development? a. She will correlate illness with education. b. She will miss out on social interactions. c. She will be more likely to have seizures from fever. d. She will have little energy left to learn. Page 11
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Chap 06_13e 80. Marina has a vocabulary of over 300 words and uses two-word phrases. She likes to talk and clearly enjoys participating in social talk. Marina is about ______ months of age. a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36 81. When Margot disciplines her two toddlers, she expresses disappointment, refuses to communicate, or turns away from them. Which of the following strategies does Margot employ? a. Ego engagement b. Induction c. Power assertion d. Love withdrawal 82. Jamison was born into a Spanish-speaking family. Although he attends a preschool where English is the only language spoken, he is also able to communicate fully in Spanish with his parents and grandparents at home. Which of the following does this BEST represent? a. Telegraphic speech b. Communicative competence c. Grammatical transformation d. Scaffolding 83. Agnes is a 3-year-old growing up in a family that is open to identifying and talking about emotions. Because of this, Agnes is more likely to a. have mental health problems. b. show less skill in identifying the feelings of others. c. show fearful behavior in the family. d. show sensitivity to others in relationships outside the family. 84. What social characteristic is associated with well-developed pretending skills? a. Isolation b. Stubbornness c. Empathy d. Assertiveness 85. Which of the following BEST differentiates obsessions from compulsions? a. Obsessions are actions, whereas compulsions are thoughts. b. Obsessions are thoughts, whereas compulsions are actions. c. Obsessions are disciplines, whereas compulsions are rituals. d. Obsessions are rituals, whereas compulsions are disciplines. 86. A child’s ability to pretend provides insight into his or her a. temperament. b. attachment status. c. theory of mind. Page 12
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Chap 06_13e d. environmental resources. 87. Of the following list, which is the earliest milestone in language development? a. Vocabulary of more than 75 words b. Two-word sentences c. Responding to commands such as “Show me your nose.” d. All phrases appear to be the child’s own creation 88. The capacity for pretense requires that children understand the difference between ________ and _________. a. signs; symbols b. pretend; real c. language; thinking d. fantasy; play 89. By the end of the third year, language is concentrated in the ___________ hemisphere of the brain for righthanded children. a. right b. left c. upper d. lower 90. How does 4-year-old Miguel MOST LIKELY use fantasy play to help him control his emotions? a. By creating fantasies of being punished for expression of impulses b. By avoiding situations that are beyond their real-world capabilities to control c. By intensifying his impulses in fantasies d. By creating imaginary situations in which disturbing problems can be expressed and resolved 91. What advantage do toddlers who remain in a stable childcare arrangement have over children who move from setting to setting? a. They have more advanced motor skills. b. They engage in more complex social pretend play. c. They adapt more readily to new environments. d. They form closer attachments to adults. 92. What is a child’s language partner’s purpose in using expansion and prompting when interacting with a toddler? a. To show the child that speaking well does not require the use of sentences that are grammatically correct b. To increase the child’s ability to fastmap words c. To help the child communicate more effectively by expanding on or asking the child to elaborate on something of interest to him/her d. To model a problem-solving strategy that the child can use when dealing with complex situations 93. In which type of play do children coordinate their pretense by establishing a fantasy structure, taking roles, agreeing on the make-believe meaning of props, and solving pretend problems? a. Solitary play b. Social pretend play Page 13
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Chap 06_13e c. Social play d. Sensorimotor play 94. Which characteristic is a feature of children’s behavior during toddlerhood? a. Introspection b. Reading c. Playing team sports d. High level of physical activity 95. Now that Jason and Susan are raising their third toddler, they are well aware that the immediate goal of ________ is to achieve compliance. a. communication b. imitation c. autonomy d. discipline 96. What is the impact of poverty on standard measures of academic achievement? a. The impact is negative. b. The impact is positive but modest. c. There is a positive impact only for middle income children. d. No impact has been found in research so far. 97. When Johnny acts up, his father spanks him. This is an example of a. induction. b. power assertion. c. love withdrawal. d. distraction. 98. Austin is motivated to increase her competence through persistent investigation and skillful problem solving. She wants to achieve a sense of a. affiliation. b. emotional control. c. mastery. d. assertiveness. 99. Which of the following is a common function of an imaginary companion? a. Helping the child work out conflicts between right and wrong b. Helping the child develop categorization skills c. Promoting the scheme for the permanent object d. Establishing a sense of secure attachment 100. Which of the following is an example of a representational skill in toddlerhood? a. Javier zipping his coat b. Harvinder telling a make-believe story c. Jennifer sorting blocks by color Page 14
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Chap 06_13e d. Kevin designing a scientific experiment 101. Mental images, symbolic drawing, and imitation in the absence of a model are examples of which of the following? a. Concrete thinking b. Operational schemes c. Hypothetic-deductive reasoning d. Representational thinking 102. Advanced locomotor skills may a. increase dependence on caregivers. b. decrease caregiver’s safety concerns for the child. c. increase conflicts with caregivers. d. decrease new struggles of willfulness between child and caregiver. 103. Desmond is a healthy 4-year-old. According to Piaget, Desmond is in which of the following periods? a. Sensorimotor intelligence b. Oedipal conflict c. Initiative versus guilt d. Preoperational thought 104. Franco is three-and-a-half years old. Assuming he is an “average” toddler, he will be ________ before incorporating words into his vocabulary. a. able to assess the expertise of their language partner b. unable to assess the expertise of their language partner c. able to grasp the complete meaning d. under stress 105. Benjamin is trying to put some blocks together to make a tall tower. As he works he says, “Be careful, go slow.” This is an example of the use of speech for a. self-directed goal attainment. b. self-comforting. c. self-regulation. d. self-esteem.
106. Discuss the prevalence of poverty in the United States and explain how poverty influences a toddler’s biopsychosocial development. 107. How can child care impact social competence? 108. How do advances in grammar transform toddlers? 109. Critically evaluate the importance of fantasy play for social and cognitive development. 110. Critically evaluate time-out as a discipline strategy. Page 15
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Chap 06_13e 111. Compare and contrast ritualized behavior with compulsive behavior. 112. Describe how motor impairments can affect toddlers and children of young ages. 113. Discuss the variety of ways that the acquisition of locomotor skills contributes to the development of toddlers. 114. Differentiate between Piaget’s, Vygotsky’s, and Erikson’s views on children’s fantasy play. 115. Explain how toddlers utilize scaffolding in enhancing language development. 116. What is known about the impact of childcare experiences on development? What are some of the strengths and some of the limitations of the research on child care? 117. Explain whether or not toddlers have the capacity to understand and use pretense. 118. Explain how a toddler can develop a sense of autonomy. 119. Why did Jean Piaget describe the years between 2 and 6 as the stage of preoperational thought? 120. What roles can poverty play in the brain development and overall health of toddlers?
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Chap 06_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. a 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. c Page 17
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Chap 06_13e 26. a 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. d 51. b Page 18
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Chap 06_13e 52. a 53. d 54. b 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. b Page 19
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Chap 06_13e 77. b 78. a 79. d 80. c 81. d 82. b 83. d 84. c 85. b 86. c 87. c 88. b 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. b 94. d 95. d 96. a 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. b 101. d 102. c Page 20
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Chap 06_13e 103. d 104. a 105. a 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 07_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. According to psychoanalytic theory, the development of the superego increases 5-year-old Javier’s impulse control. a. True b. False 2. School readiness skills in children ages 3 to 5 years indicate that poverty status is not a significant factor. a. True b. False 3. The only reason children seek others of the same sex to play with is that our society pressures them to do so. a. True b. False 4. Many children with disabilities are mainstreamed into a classroom without any provision for encouraging social interaction with the other children. a. True b. False 5. Because 6-year-old Marcus tends to explore his own body, he has likely suffered severe psychological trauma. a. True b. False 6. Without intervention, inhibited children are likely to become increasingly withdrawn, bringing deficits in social skill development. a. True b. False 7. Teachers’ concepts of school readiness typically focus on social behavior while parents typically focus on skills. a. True b. False 8. Young children tend to evaluate situations on the basis of intentions rather than outcomes. a. True b. False 9. According to the views of a child who has achieved autonomous morality, it is more wrong to break 10 cups accidentally than one cup while disobeying a parent. a. True b. False 10. The idea that dressing in different clothes does not change someone’s sex is called gender consistency. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 07_13e 11. Group games permit children to shift roles. This contributes to which of the following? a. Emotional regulation b. Fantasy c. Perspective-taking abilities d. Self-esteem 12. Moral development in the early-school-age years involves growth in three domains: a. emotions, knowledge, and action. b. internalization, repression, and self-regulation. c. cognitive, physical, and emotional. d. internal motivation, external motivation, and ambition. 13. The text treats " __________ " as a theory that links a person’s understanding about the nature of the world, the nature of the self, and the meaning of interactions between the self and the environment. a. superego b. self-concept c. gender preference d. reward structure 14. According to cognitive developmental theory, an important aspect of heteronomous moral behavior is a. whether one believes the behavior would be observed and punished. b. one’s identification with a loving parent. c. whether one understands that morality is a product of a social contract. d. whether one has been punished by spanking or loss of privileges. 15. The most effective way to sustain internalization is through a. avoidance conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. reward conditioning. d. punishment. 16. According to object relations theory, morality has its basis in which of the following? a. Behaviors that are rewarded or punished b. Behaviors that strengthen or threaten the bonds between the self and valued others c. Behaviors that create cognitive disequilibrium d. Behaviors that make it easy to delay gratification 17. What type of empathy is it when you recognize distress in another person and react in the same way you would if the distress were your own? a. Empathy for another’s life conditions b. Empathy for another’s feelings c. Egocentric empathy d. Global empathy 18. Cultural cues that one sex is valued more than the other contributes to which of the following? Page 2
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Chap 07_13e a. Forming a gender preference b. Using gender labels c. Learning gender-role standards d. Understanding of gender constancy 19. Which of the following statements about stage 6 moral reasoning in Kohlberg’s model is most accurate? a. Stage 6 reasoning requires the development of a set of universal ethical principles that apply across time and culture. b. Most adults function at stage 6 reasoning. c. At stage 6, decisions about justice are based on whether the behavior upholds or violates the laws of society. d. At stage 6, judgments about behavior are based on whether authorities approve or disapprove. 20. Perspective taking differs from empathy in which way? a. They are both social skills. b. Perspective taking does not occur at the early-school-age period. c. Perspective taking involves recognizing someone’s point of view, which may differ from one’s own. d. Perspective taking reduces a child’s egocentrism. 21. In James’s conceptualization of the self, what is one of the fundamental features of the “I”? a. The self that one can describe b. A sense of agency as one who initiates behavior c. One’s social roles d. A sense that one’s life is based on discrete, moment-to-moment experiences that do not show continuity 22. According to Damon and Hart, the organizing principle that integrates aspects of the self-concept during middle and later childhood is a. beliefs and plans. b. interpersonal goals. c. comparative assessments. d. categorical identifications. 23. When televised heroes’ violent actions are rewarded or viewed as successful, children are likely to imitate these actions. Which theory best accounts for this? a. Object relations theory b. Kohlberg’s cognitive theory of moral development c. Learning theory d. Evolutionary theory 24. James differentiated the “I” and the “me” as the components of the self. What is the “me”? a. The self as knower b. The self that imitates behavior c. The self that reflects upon its own qualities d. The self as an object that can be described by others 25. What type of early childhood educational environment can promote more autonomous, flexible moral reasoning in Page 3
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Chap 07_13e young children? a. Make sure rules are clearly stated at the beginning of the school year. b. Punish children quickly and not overly severely when they break rules. c. Involve children in rule making and teach them strategies to help resolve conflicts. d. Make sure parents and teachers agree about what behaviors are wrong and how to correct these behaviors. 26. Heather wants to be a princess when she grows up. Thus she starts wearing make-up and practicing curtseys. This is an example of Heather’s emerging a. sense of inhibition. b. preconventional morality. c. identification with the aggressor. d. ego ideal. 27. Six-year-old Francene sees rules as a product of cooperative agreements. Because of this, Francene is said to have achieved a level of ____________ morality. a. schematic b. heteronomous c. autonomous d. overt 28. Which of the following motives for identification is most closely related to children imitating a model who controls the resources? a. Identification with the aggressor b. Fear of loss of love c. Need for sex-role similarity d. Need for status and power 29. According to cognitive developmental theory, advances in moral reasoning occur when a child has to reconcile new views about basic moral concepts with existing views about what is right or wrong. This process is called a. social convention. b. empathy. c. conventional morality. d. equilibration. 30. Young children often ask questions about why things are as they are, how things began, and what will happen in the future. This is a sign of a. initiative. b. trust. c. autonomy. d. creativity. 31. The natural way that children between 4 and 6 years of age become more aware that people have different points of view is detailed in the theory of a. thought. b. morality. Page 4
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Chap 07_13e c. cognition. d. mind. 32. Children who suffer extreme feelings of guilt are likely to believe that a. they are a lot like other friends. b. they can be forgiven for their mistakes. c. the good things that happen to them are a result of their efforts. d. their thoughts cause the misfortunes of others. 33. Which statement about self-esteem among early-school-age children is correct? a. Early-school-age boys are more critical of their abilities than early-school-age girls. b. Early-school-age children are exposed to low levels of peer criticism that challenge self-esteem. c. Early-school-age children feel less guilty about violating rules and norms than younger children. d. Early-school-age children are likely to experience feelings of depression and worthlessness that may crystallize into a scheme for low self-esteem. 34. Piaget described the major transition in moral development from heteronomous to a. sensitive b. representational c. egocentric d. autonomous
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35. Several of Freud’s ideas about moral development have been shown to be incorrect. Which idea below is an incorrect assumption of Freud's? a. Males would have a weaker superego than females. b. Identification with the mother has a greater role to play in moral development than identification with the father. c. Girls’ superego is weaker than boys’ and girls are less able to resist temptation. d. The superego develops in infancy. 36. Which of the following is true? a. Girls are more likely to experience guilt than boys when they have lied to or been inconsiderate of others. b. Boys are more likely to experience guilt than girls when they have lied to or been inconsiderate of others. c. Boys are more likely than girls to experience guilt when they blame themselves for unhappiness or conflict among others. d. Boys and girls tend to experience similar amounts of guilt in most situations. 37. When a person decides whether something is morally right or wrong based on how individuals in positions of authority view it, the person is said to be at which level of moral reasoning? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 38. Martin Luther King, Jr., who fought for civil rights of minorities and underrepresented groups, displayed what level of Page 5
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Chap 07_13e morality according to Kohlberg’s theory? a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 39. Which of the following dimensions is an aspect of gender role identification? a. Establishing a gender role preference b. Developing an understanding of gender c. Identifying with the opposite-sex parent d. Acquiring gender role standards 40. Which of the following is the primary characteristic of the self theory that emerges in infancy? a. Self as an independent, separate being b. Self-criticism c. The self as a blank slate d. Self as responsive to others 41. Selman’s analysis of levels of social perspective taking suggests that children aged 4 to 6 years are likely to approach social conflicts in which way? a. They assume all participants view the situation as they do. b. They know that another’s gain will be their loss. c. They realize that people must take each other’s point of view into account before acting. d. They see all conflicts in terms of the consequences of their behavior for others. 42. According to research, one of the most serious problems associated with televised violence is that a. the violence is punished by violence. b. the violence is glamorized and goes unpunished. c. the violence is not easily understood by children. d. only bad characters perform violent actions. 43. What is the psychosocial crisis of early school age? a. Trust versus mistrust b. Autonomy versus shame and doubt c. Industry versus inferiority d. Initiative versus guilt 44. The ability to appreciate that what you know or believe to be true is different from what others know and believe to be true is a salient feature of a. jealousy. b. empathy. c. self-awareness. d. cognition. 45. The central process of ___________ allows children to feel their parents are with them even when their parents are not Page 6
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Chap 07_13e physically present. a. mutuality b. identification c. education d. reciprocity 46. David is 6 years old. He had a tooth pulled this afternoon. His mother just tucked him into bed promising him that the tooth fairy would be coming for the tooth while he sleeps. David puts pillows under his blanket and moves into the closet so he can see the tooth fairy take his tooth. This is an example of a. mistrust. b. initiative. c. contextual dissonance. d. parental identification. 47. According to learning theories, internalization is a result of a. identification. b. empathy. c. rewards and punishments. d. cognitive judgments. 48. Kohlberg expanded on Piaget’s theory by developing a theory of stages of moral judgment. Children of the earlyschool-age period (4 to 6 years of age) are most likely to be at which level? a. Conventional b. Preconventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 49. Which of the following features characterizes self theory during the early and middle school years? a. A preoccupation with an integration of past, present, and future selves b. A new level of concern about comparative assessments c. The beginning of self-awareness d. The lack of self-evaluation content 50. If behavior is restrained or suppressed, the early school-age child tends to demonstrate a. inhibition. b. withdrawal. c. inertia. d. exclusivity. 51. Of the various approaches to understanding moral development discussed in the text, which one makes the greatest contribution to understanding how children develop the emotions of guilt and remorse associated with morality? a. Learning theory b. Cognitive theory c. Research on perspective taking d. Psychoanalytic theory Page 7
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Chap 07_13e 52. How does the knowledge of gender role standards influence a child’s behavior? a. It influences how much they love their parents. b. It influences their food preferences and tastes. c. It influences their preferences for certain toys and games. d. It influences whether they will go to preschool. 53. Joni’s parents agree with parents nationally because they think Joni and her brother should enter school when a. they developed specific skills (e.g., able to use a pencil or scissors). b. they were sensitive to other children’s feelings. c. they were not disruptive. d. they could follow directions. 54. In a staff meeting at Acme Corporation, the men speak first and the women listen, waiting until they have something new or different to offer. How might the individual differences perspective on gender roles interpret this behavior? a. Women are naturally more cautious and passive than men. b. Women defer to men out of respect for their power and authority. c. Women have a less well-developed problem-solving capacity than men. d. All of these fit with an essential differences perspective. 55. Which of the following is a potential benefit of TV viewing in early childhood? a. Children can learn to challenge social stereotypes from certain TV programming. b. Children are quiet and calm while watching TV. c. Childrn can avoid negative peer interactions in which differences of opinion can arise. d. Children who watch a lot of televised violence see the world as a more dangerous place. 56. The complexity and logic of the self theory changes as a result of a. maturation of cognitive functions. b. id impulses. c. defense mechanisms. d. gender labels. 57. You hear a 5-year-old girl say, “I love my mommy. When I grow up I want to be just like her.” This is an example of which of the following? a. Understanding gender labels b. Identifying with the same-sex parent c. Knowledge of gender-role standards d. None of these 58. Which of the following statements is true about friendships during early school age? a. Children of this age prefer mixed-sex play groups. b. Children tend to evaluate each other on the basis of intentions which are usually seen as positive c. Children like to let adults “sit in” on peer play sessions so that they can benefit from the adult’s advanced play and problem solving. d. Children tend to have a rather rigid approach to issues of social responsibility, so that peer play is Page 8
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Chap 07_13e frequently disrupted by quarrels, “tattling,” and hard feelings about injustices. 59. What is an adaptive outcome of experiencing guilt? a. Curiosity and experimentation b. A sense of remorse and attempts to set things right c. Intensive self-blame and feelings of worthlessness d. There is no adaptive outcome related to experiences of guilt 60. What is the function of the ego ideal? a. It punishes wrongdoing. b. It creates fears and nightmares. c. It serves as a goal for positive achievement. d. It negotiates between id and superego. 61. Talia is a very young child. She is, however, able to recognize emotions in others. Which of the following provides Talia the basis for this? a. Guilt b. Sarcasm c. Increased heart rate and blood pressure d. Facial expressions 62. Jeremy tends to incorporate the values and beliefs of another’s into his own outlook and personality. Which of the following BEST explains this? a. Heteronomous morality b. Sex-role preference c. Status d. Identification 63. For the early school age child, moral development involves a process of learning the family’s moral code and then using it to guide behavior. This is called a. avoidance conditioning. b. internalization. c. gender-role preference. d. induction. 64. Parents concerned about children having the combination of physical, cognitive, emotional, and social skills necessary for kindergarten are concerned about their children’s a. age. b. fears. c. happiness. d. readiness. 65. What is one implication of the fact that girls and boys tend to form same-sex friendship groups? a. Girls never experience leadership among friends. b. Girls and boys develop distinct peer-communication strategies. Page 9
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Chap 07_13e c. Boys learn to be better listeners and acquire valued skills for building group consensus. d. Girls and boys lack gender identity so there are no same-sex friendships formed. 66. According to social learning theory, learning the moral code occurs largely through which of the following? a. Guilt and shame b. Cognitive schemes c. Help giving behaviors d. Observation and imitation 67. Which demographic factor is LEAST associated with the likelihood of poor school adjustment for children? a. Welfare dependency b. The gender of the child c. Low parental education d. Single-parent households 68. Why is hopscotch so popular with early-school-age children in many cultures? a. The game has no fantasy element so children can focus on reality. b. The game symbolizes perils of childhood and the need for balance while providing opportunities for mastery. c. The game provides a sense of safety and security. d. The game is easy, with few opportunities for failure. 69. Why are children likely to seek others of the same sex as play companions? a. Because they believe these children will be kinder to them b. Because parents guide them into same-sex play groups c. Because they believe these other children will have the same play preferences they have d. Because they believe these children will provide diverse mental representations of possible activities 70. Jeannie likes to play football with her brothers. When they tease her about not acting like a girl, she responds, “Even when I play football like a boy, I’m still a girl.” Jeannie is demonstrating an understanding of a. genital identification. b. sexual stereotypes. c. gender constancy. d. sexual orientation. 71. Which of the following is an example of a social convention transgression as compared to a moral transgression? a. Using another child’s hat and gloves b. Telling a lie c. Stealing from another student d. Destroying another child’s toy 72. Sloan’s father is physically abusive. He hits and slaps Sloan to make his point. Sloan is afraid of his father’s power, but he also admires this power. Sloan likes to slap and punish other children at school in order to get them to do what he wants. This is an example of a. agentic competition. b. agentic identification. Page 10
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Chap 07_13e c. identification competence. d. identification with the aggressor. 73. The _________ is a fantasy of the type of person one aspires to become. It is a product of strong parental identifications in the early-school-age period. a. id b. ego ideal c. superego d. ego 74. What are gender-role standards? a. Cultural expectations about appropriate behavior for boys and girls, men and women b. Knowing that gender is stable, i.e. girls become women, boys become men c. Wanting to do the things that members of your sex are expected to do d. Wanting to grow up to be like your same-sex parent 75. Suggesting a new game to play, trying to get other kids to play with you, or bragging to friends about something special are all examples of a. play frustration. b. initiative. c. autonomy. d. social referencing. 76. Children raised by gay or lesbian parents tend to have a. homosexual gender preferences. b. gender preferences that are similar to children raised in heterosexual homes. c. a higher likelihood of becoming a homosexual. d. none of these issues. 77. Alexis, a 6-year old, really wants to eat a cookie out of the cookie jar. However, she remembers how mad her mother got at her when she ate a cookie right before dinner last week and she starts to feel anxiety. In the end, Alexis decides not to eat the cookie because she knows it is wrong. This is an example of ________ conditioning. a. anxiety b. operant c. reward d. avoidance 78. Paradoxically, identification contributes both a sense of connectedness with parents and a sense of a. independence. b. competition. c. isolation. d. willfulness. 79. Which of the following is true about the groups girls and boys prefer during early school age? a. Boys prefer mixed-sex groups while girls prefer same-sex groups. Page 11
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Chap 07_13e b. Boys prefer two-person groups, while girls prefer larger groups. c. Girls prefer two-person groups, while boys prefer larger groups. d. Girls prefer mixed-sex groups while boys prefer same-sex groups. 80. How is temperament related to the effectiveness of discipline techniques? a. Children who are slow to warm up never need to be disciplined. b. Children who are fearful and inhibited need to experience love withdrawal as a discipline strategy. c. Children who are active and insensitive to disapproval need more focused, directive discipline. d. Children who are sociable and outgoing need to be disciplined using power assertion. 81. George has just realized the capacity for empathy. How old is George MOST LIKELY to be? a. An infant b. A toddler c. Early school age d. Middle school age 82. People who have high self-esteem a. have strong positive evaluations of all of their abilities. b. derive this sense of self-worth primarily through pretend activities. c. find that failure increases their feelings of doubt about their basic worth. d. use a variety of strategies to minimize the importance of negative feedback. 83. The cognitive underpinning of one’s gender role identification is referred to as a gender a. label. b. scheme. c. constant. d. preference. 84. Ring-Around-the-Rosie, London Bridge, and Farmer-in-the-Dell are examples of a. sensorimotor play. b. group games. c. team sports. d. social pretend play. 85. Six-year-old David’s evaluation about his own worthiness is called a. dissonance. b. egocentrism. c. self-esteem. d. self theory. 86. Every day Joseph watches Molly get in trouble when she rides her bike further than their mother allows them to go. Joseph really wants to go around the corner when riding his bike but he knows his mother will be angry and that he will get in trouble, so he stops at the corner and turns back toward their house on his bike. This is an example of a. observation of models. b. cognitive schemes. Page 12
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Chap 07_13e c. help giving behaviors. d. punishment. 87. The object relations theoretical perspective on moral development has revised Freud’s original thinking in what way? a. Morality is now considered primarily a new series of defense mechanisms against anxiety. b. Moral development is viewed as almost entirely cognitive; the role of emotion is much less than Freud thought. c. Moral development is seen as emerging earlier than Freud thought, in the context of the first close, emotional bonds with a caregiver. d. Morality is seen as developing after latency, during the reawakening of Oedipal and Electra fantasies that accompany puberty. 88. Research with early-school-age children suggests that their moral reasoning focuses on a. upholding a social contract. b. consequences of their behavior. c. universal ethical principles. d. conforming to the opinions of legitimate authorities. 89. According to psychoanalytic theory, morality (superego) results from a. empathy. b. parental identification. c. strong id impulses. d. defense mechanisms. 90. Yolanda and Leon have a son and a daughter. Both parents believe that their son should be assertive and that their daughter should try to please others. This is an example of a. a gender label. b. a gender-role preference. c. a gender-role stereotype. 91. Five-year-old Gilbert is able to experience the emotion that he perceives someone else is experiencing. This means Gilbert is which of the following? a. Egocentric b. Guilty c. Able to internalize d. Empathetic 92. People with low self-esteem will see any failure as evidence of their a. contextual dissonance. b. lack of worth. c. sense of efficacy. d. subjective self-concept. 93. Walter’s view of gender differences is that there should be an emphasis on the role of socially agreed-upon norms for particular types of interaction. Walter’s view is most closely aligned with the perspective. Page 13
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Chap 07_13e a. constructivist b. psychoanalytic c. individual differences d. cognitive developmental 94. Samantha, who is 5 years old, is watching TV and sees a boy lie to his mother but suffer no consequence. According to social learning theory, she is likely to conclude that a. lying is morally wrong. b. lying is acceptable. c. lying is a violation of one’s social contract. d. lying is okay for boys but not for girls. 95. Mary does not feel like anyone likes her and she feels ignored, rejected, and scorned. Mary suffers from low a. self-esteem. b. creativity. c. empathy. d. persistence. 96. Which of the following is the earliest component of gender role identification to be achieved? a. Sex-role preference b. Correct use of gender labels c. Sex-role standards d. Understanding that gender is constant 97. The emotion that accompanies 6-year-old Samantha’s sense that she has been responsible for an unacceptable thought, fantasy, or action is a. depression. b. fear. c. guilt. d. mistrust. 98. Charlie and Zoey tend to use different strategies to achieve _________ in their same-sex friendship groups. a. dominance b. self-efficacy c. continuity d. sensorimotor equilibrium 99. The early-school-age child who imposes intention and goals on action demonstrates the prime adaptive ego quality of a. fidelity to values. b. purpose. c. wisdom. d. hope. 100. Gloria and Dan have a policy at their home about their young children and television viewing. Which of the following MUST be their policy if it also agrees with the recommendation of the American Academy of Pediatrics about Page 14
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Chap 07_13e television viewing for young children? a. They let their children have televisions in their bedrooms. b. They encourage TV viewing before bed. c. They discourage all television viewing for any of their children under age 2. d. They restrict television viewing to non-fictional programming only. 101. Which of the following terms refers to the integrated cognitive, social, and emotional schemes associated with being male or female? a. Sex b. Sexual orientation c. Gender d. Gender constancy 102. When Billy meets Jenny, he notices that she’s wearing a Batman t-shirt. He says to her, “I like comic books, too!” Which strategy for initiating interaction is Billy utilizing? a. Establishing common ground b. Engaging in a critical interchange c. Showing evidence of negative, irritable behavior d. Making a weak demand 103. The establishment of a gender preference depends on three factors. Which of the following is NOT one of these? a. The match between one’s strength and competence and the expectations of the gender-role standards b. How much one likes the parent of the same sex c. Understanding that gender is constant and stable d. Cues from the culture valuing one sex over the other 104. What is an example of the idea that the family environment is gendered? a. Fathers are more assertive than mothers in their interactions with children. b. Fathers and mothers are both employed outside the home. c. Families can be categorized by the sex of the head of household. d. Children have less power in families than adults. 105. Terms such as boy, girl, mommy, daddy, aunt, and uncle are examples of a. sex-role stereotypes. b. gender bias. c. sex-role standards. d. gender labels.
106. Explain how the Me and the I work together toward one’s self-understanding. 107. Define identification. Give at least three different explanations for why children identify with their parents. For each explanation, provide an example. 108. Discuss similarities and differences in play groups during this life stage. What is the role of interactions such Page 15
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Chap 07_13e as teasing, using commands, and boasting in children’s group play? 109. Explain the function of the self theory. 110. What can friendship groups accomplish for early-school-age children? 111. Differentiate between gender permanence and gender constancy. 112. Define gender identification. Explain the cognitive, affective, physical, and interpersonal components of gender identification. 113. Explain how identification contributes to the resolution of the psychosocial crisis of initiative versus guilt in early school age. How does the psychosocial crisis of initiative versus guilt help us to understand the relationship between intellectual curiosity and emotional development? 114. Explain how initiative plays a role in children’s curiosity and in how they see the outside world. 115. Differentiate between group games and media play. 116. Based on what you have read about moral development in the early-school-age years, discuss the cognitive, emotional, and behavioral dimensions of the young child’s morality. 117. Explain how emotions, knowledge, and action all contribute to early moral development? 118. What is meant by kindergarten readiness, and how is it measured? 119. Describe how the cognitive development theory compares to other learning theories. 120. Describe why gender identification is completely different from sexual orientation.
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Chap 07_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. c 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. c Page 17
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Chap 07_13e 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. d Page 18
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Chap 07_13e 52. c 53. a 54. c 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. c 61. d 62. d 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. a 75. b 76. b Page 19
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Chap 07_13e 77. d 78. a 79. c 80. c 81. a 82. d 83. b 84. b 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. b 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. b 93. a 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. b 100. c 101. c 102. a Page 20
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Chap 07_13e 103. c 104. a 105. d 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 08_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Industry is comprised of cognitive, behavioral, and affective dimensions. a. True b. False 2. Children who had secure attachments in infancy have more friends by age 10 than those with insecure attachments. a. True b. False 3. Bullies are more likely to see hostile intentions in other children. a. True b. False 4. Because Thomas has high levels of self-efficacy, he is more likely to avoid challenging goals in order to preserve their positive self- view. a. True b. False 5. Writer’s block and procrastination are examples of inertia. a. True b. False 6. Gloria experienced much team play as a child, which will most likely lead to her having a win-win strategy to resolve conflicts as an adult. a. True b. False 7. Shawna’s soccer skills are goal-oriented actions that perform specific functions in the competitive soccer environment. a. True b. False 8. In some cultures, parents feel social intelligence is a more important skill than reading. a. True b. False 9. Metacognition develops independently of other cognitive capabilities. a. True b. False 10. Children who live in violent conditions typically have a normal social life, but sleep with a weapon close by. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 08_13e 11. When a child understands that physical matter does not change in quantity despite changes in form or container, she should be able to do which of the following types of problems? a. Categorization problem b. Classification problem c. Conservation problem d. Computational problem 12. What new aspect of the self-concept influences a child’s enthusiasm for reading? a. The child thinks of himself/herself as a first grader. b. The child thinks of himself/herself as someone who can read. c. The child thinks of himself/herself as loved and valued. d. The child thinks of himself/herself as someone who can ride a two-wheeled bicycle. 13. Which of the following is the best definition of self-evaluation? a. Children develop ways of knowing about knowing. b. Children identify role expectations. c. Children feel optimistic about their ability to succeed. d. Children compare their achievements to both internal and external standards for performance. 14. According to psychosocial theory, a person’s fundamental attitude toward middle childhood. a. religion b. intimacy c. work d. parenting
is established during
15. The investigator showed a card to a child and asked: “Are there more radishes or more vegetables in this picture?” What is the investigator likely to be studying? a. Conservation b. Combinatorial skills c. Identity equivalence d. Classification skills 16. Nine-year-old Jamie has recently become involved in team sports. Which of the following is Jamie likely to improve upon, based on this new involvement? a. Friendship formation b. The principle of division of labor c. Formation of group identity d. Development of classification skills 17. Which of the following best captures the idea of an illusion of competence? a. Children want to be smart but no one will help them. b. Children are smart but feel worthless. c. Children have such low ability they can’t distinguish correct and incorrect responses. d. Children want to be rewarded for trying hard even if they don’t do well. Page 2
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Chap 08_13e 18. Bandura suggests that there are four sources of information that contribute to judgments of self-efficacy. Which of the following is one of these? a. Literacy b. Practical intelligence c. Past performance in the specific area of mastery d. Combinatorial skills 19. Thomas knows he is good at baseball because he can hit the ball further than any of his teammates. This is an example of what? a. Internal frames of reference b. External frames of reference c. Internal and external frames of reference d. Psychological and social frames of reference 20. One cognitive benefit of active involvement in the peer group is increased a. emotional control. b. hopefulness. c. perspective-taking skills. d. egocentrism. 21. Why are “best friend” relationships important in middle childhood? a. They provide a model for relationships with authority figures. b. They protect children from the peer group. c. They rarely break up and often last a lifetime. d. They provide a context for working on relationships in which both members have equal power, status, and access to resources. 22. What are the findings of studies that have tried to teach young children (under age 6) to conserve? a. Children under age 6 are not able to use the principles necessary to solve conservation problems. b. Children under age 6 can be taught the concept of conservation with clay, but they do not transfer this concept to other materials. c. With special training, children as young as 4 years old can learn conservation principles and apply them across materials. d. Children under age 6 are just as ready to solve conservation problems as older children. 23. Which of the following is considered a feature of complex skilled behavior? a. Complex skilled behavior relies primarily on sensory/perceptual capacities. b. Skilled behaviors are acquired in a strict order from simple to more complex. c. Skilled behaviors rely on memorization rather than adaptive strategies. d. The limits of the human system place constraints on a child’s ability to perform skilled behaviors. 24. During middle childhood, self-evaluation is strongly influenced by a. combinational skills. b. the ability to maintain emotional control. Page 3
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Chap 08_13e c. trust in one’s parents as economic providers. d. comparisons with the performance of peers. 25. Which of the following is an example of an out-group attitude fostered through experiences in team play? a. One must relinquish personal goals for team goals when necessary. b. Team victories bring personal satisfaction. c. Team members are dependent on one another for success. d. Assisting the other team is unethical. 26. One of the most critical intellectual skills that is developed and elaborated during middle childhood is a. speaking. b. synthesizing information from multiple sources. c. reading. d. forming scientific hypotheses. 27. What is a common characteristic of children who are victims of bullying? a. When attacked, they do not retaliate. b. They have a strong need for power and control. c. They are aggressive toward authority figures. d. They become forces of change within the school environment. 28. What parenting style is characteristic of fathers whose children have an illusion of incompetence? a. The fathers are emotional and expressive. b. The fathers use love withdrawal as a discipline technique. c. The fathers set standards that are too easily attained. d. The fathers are critical and unsupportive. 29. Tally, an 8-year-old, watches Claire climb the rock wall. Tally had been scared to try it until she saw Claire do it. This is an example of how Tally’s self efficacy can be raised through a. enactive attainments. b. vicarious experiences. c. verbal persuasion. d. physical state. 30. How might the cultural context influence a child’s ability to read? a. Some cultures consider reading to be of little use and too difficult for children. b. All cultures value reading as a useful tool in daily life. c. Children in all cultures are able to read at a third-grade level by age 10. d. Reading is a universal skill, not influenced by cultural context. 31. Both aggressive and withdrawn rejected children tend to a. have multiple problems. b. seek out adults for companions. c. be interpersonally reserved. Page 4
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Chap 08_13e d. overcome rejection by the end of elementary school. 32. The ability to order subgroups in a hierarchy is an ability related to a. conservation. b. categorization. c. computational skills. d. object permanence. 33. How is attachment formation in infancy related to friendship formation? a. Children who are securely attached look for one best friend with whom to share their feelings. b. Children who are securely attached are more popular and more comfortable in social interactions. c. Children who are anxiously attached make friends readily. d. Children who are securely attached do not need friends. 34. Sally’s mother used power-assertive discipline techniques, such as yelling and spanking, when Sally was young and continues to do so. Today, Sally is 8. You can expect her relationships with her peers to be characterized by a. cooperation and mutuality. b. avoiding conflict at all costs. c. asserting power in peer conflicts. d. hostility, warmth, and honesty. 35. Milly is thinking about why she is feeling sad and disappointed. This kind of thinking is called a. depression. b. inferiority. c. psychological mindedness. d. shame. 36. Which of the following increases a child’s sense of loneliness? a. Having musical skill b. Being academically competent c. Being a target of peer rejection d. Being outgoing and sociable 37. According to Sternberg, there are three kinds of intelligence. However, tests of intelligence typically only assess ________ intelligence. a. analytic b. creative c. practical d. interpersonal 38. Which of the following is an accurate statement about education in contemporary society? a. Caregivers, not schools, bear the primary responsibility for education. b. School experiences do not play a critical role in the development of a personal sense of industry. c. Schools can serve the educational function without the active involvement of family members. d. An important goal of education is to help children acquire the basic tools of learning. Page 5
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Chap 08_13e 39. Meredith practices her math skills using flash cards with her father. Meredith is showing what type of skill? a. Reciprocity b. Classification c. Computational d. Abstraction 40. Tyrone has serious mental health problems as a teenager. It could be that he was part of which one of the following groups during middle childhood? a. Aggressive children b. Withdrawn children c. Aggressive-withdrawn children d. Aggressive-rejected children 41. Addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are all a. computational skills. b. examples of reciprocity. c. classification skills. d. examples of semantics. 42. The work of Erikson and Piaget point to which area as central in psychological development during middle childhood? a. Parental identification b. Intellectual development c. Development of a sense of trust d. Formation of a personal identity 43. Some children who perform well on standardized tests perceive themselves to be below average in academic ability. Why is this? a. These children think their parents have a low opinion of their abilities. b. These children have been praised too much by parents so they have no realistic standard by which to judge their abilities. c. These children are good test takers, but they don’t perform well in school. d. These children feel guilty about being so smart. 44. How does the school environment affect close friendships? a. Close friendships are more stable in schools that keep children in the same classroom groups from grade to grade. b. The school curriculum emphasizes the importance of having close friends. c. Teachers decide which children will become close friends. d. Schools that contextualize learning promote the formation of more stable best friend relationships. 45. Anya has always been a shy, inhibited child. She doesn’t participate much in school, and comes across as passive and withdrawn. It is likely that she feels a sense of a. industry. b. agency. Page 6
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Chap 08_13e c. competence. d. inertia. 46. Children discover that they cannot master every skill they attempt. This contributes to feelings of a. inferiority. b. purpose. c. competence. d. alienation. 47. Which of the following is the psychosocial crisis of middle childhood? a. Autonomy versus shame and doubt b. Intimacy versus isolation c. Initiative versus guilt d. Industry versus inferiority 48. When a child understands that even though you change the shape of a piece of clay you still have the same clay, we say that the child understands a. reciprocity. b. reversibility. c. classification. d. identity. 49. Erin, says, “I can’t do it” and her father, Bruce, says, “Try harder.” Erin then replies, “It does not matter how hard I try. I will never be good at it like Timmy.” This could be an example of a. self-monitoring. b. high self-efficacy. c. learned helplessness. d. industry. 50. Children who participate in team sports learn that each position has a unique function and that the team has the best chance of winning if each player performs the functions of their position. This is called a. competition. b. division of labor. c. in-group attitudes. d. out-group attitudes. 51. According to Piaget, an action or transformation that is carried out in thought rather than in action is called a. a formal transformation. b. fantasy thinking. c. a mental operation. d. a cerebral manipulation. 52. Children who are aware of the variety of perspectives that are present in the social situation are likely to be a. positively evaluated by their age-mates. b. exposed to harsh discipline by parents. Page 7
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Chap 08_13e c. friendly with rejected and withdrawn children. d. more positively evaluated by their teachers than by their peers. 53. In order for 7-year-old Rory to properly classify, he must be adept at both categorization and a. permanence. b. addition. c. induction. d. inversion. 54. Bobby is often mean to younger children at school by taunting, teasing, and pushing them. However, when an older boy taunts, teases, and pushes Bobby, he rarely retaliates. It is most likely that Bobby is a(n) a. aggressive-rejected child. b. bully-victim. c. empathic individual. d. physically immature child. 55. When a child can simultaneously manipulate two dimensions cognitively, such as circumference and thickness, so that s/he understands that a change in one dimension is compensated for by a change in the other, s/he understands a. reversibility. b. reciprocity c. identity. d. metacognition. 56. Billy is 4 years old. He has a big box of Legos, and his mother asks him to give her five Legos from the box. He has trouble deciding how many to give her so he takes a handful and says, “Here, it’s five.” What is Billy’s problem with this task? a. Four-year-olds cannot count to five. b. Four-year-olds are obstinate. c. Four-year-olds do not have a scheme for conservation of numbers. d. Four-year-olds do not want to be tested by their mothers. 57. Which of the following statements is considered a consequence of today’s increased exposure to violence for children? a. Fewer friendships are formed among children. b. Children may suffer from symptoms similar to post traumatic stress disorder. c. Children do not trust anyone in authority. d. More children are overweight. 58. In middle childhood, children are aware of social norms for peer acceptance. This results in more pressure toward a. conformity. b. egocentrism. c. altruism. d. isolation. 59. Under what combination of student ability and student effort is the teacher most likely to take a sense of personal Page 8
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Chap 08_13e responsibility? a. The child is bright but doesn’t try hard. b. The child has a behavioral problem. c. The child has a low level of ability but doesn’t try. d. The child has a low level of ability and tries hard. 60. Why does Piaget use the term “concrete” to describe the quality of thinking that is characteristic of middle childhood? a. The term reflects Piaget’s concerns about the intellectual rigidity and vulnerability of middle childhood. b. The term highlights the focus on real objects rather than hypothetical situations and relationships. c. The term indicates that children can only reason about inanimate objects at this stage. d. The term reflects the directness and transparency of young people at this age. 61. What is an example of a vicarious experience that contributes to the sense of self-efficacy? a. Remaining calm as you approach the situation b. Watching someone else, who is like you, succeed c. Succeeding at a similar task in the past d. Having a teacher or coach tell you that you can succeed 62. Marcus has a first-grade reading ability even though he is in fourth grade. His reading ability is not reflective of his measured IQ, which is about 105. What is a likely explanation for Marcus’s difficulty? a. Marcus has a communication disorder. b. Marcus has a learning disorder. c. Marcus has a motor skill disorder. d. Marcus has a behavioral disorder. 63. Which of the following is an example of a sociocultural factor that contributes to the superior mathematical skill development of Japanese and Chinese children? a. Japanese and Chinese parents expect their schools to do a better job and put pressure on educators to improve the quality of education. b. Japanese and Chinese parents emphasize natural ability over effort. c. Japanese and Chinese children have a genetically superior capacity for mathematical problem solving. d. Japanese and Chinese children have more fun studying for mathematics. 64. Metacognition includes a. a feeling of knowing. b. shared meaning between two or more people. c. grammar and syntax. d. conservation of space. 65. What is one academic benefit of metacognition? a. It helps guide actions to improve understanding. b. It supports fantasy play. c. It encourages a competitive outlook for problem solving. d. It helps children form more secure attachments. Page 9
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Chap 08_13e 66. Sheila continually monitors how well she understands her homework assignments and takes steps to make sure she studies hard to understand them better. This is called a. conservation. b. metacognition. c. industry. d. classification. 67. Computational skills like addition and subtraction require which of the following? a. Hypothetical reasoning b. Class inclusion c. Conservation of number d. Formal operations 68. Which of the following happens to a rejected child in the process of social skill development? a. The child becomes closer to siblings and extended family members. b. The child selects an activity such as sports or drama in order to gain peer acceptance. c. The child comes to expect negative behaviors from others. d. The child has as many opportunities as accepted children to develop social-relations skills. 69. Parents’ stereotypes about which gender is more talented in a particular area such as math, English, or sports, influence their a. discipline strategies. b. own involvement in school activities. c. child’s confidence about being able to perform well in this area. d. confidence in their ability to save for their child’s college education. 70. Which parental discipline technique is most likely to interfere with a child’s friendship formation? a. Power assertion b. Love withdrawal c. Induction d. Synchrony 71. Some children who are rejected tend to be disruptive and aggressive; others tend to be socially withdrawn. Which of the following statements is more characteristic of the aggressive/disruptive children than the socially withdrawn group? a. They tend to experience difficulty dealing with stress. b. They tend to display inappropriate affect and unusual behavioral mannerisms. c. They are more likely to attribute hostile intentions to others. d. They are more likely to benefit from organized sports programs. 72. What is the difference between peer acceptance and having a “best friend” relationship? a. Once established, peer acceptance can never be lost whereas best friends can break up. b. Peer acceptance requires more conformity than best friend relationships. c. Peer acceptance is more important to a sense of well-being than having a close friend. d. Peer acceptance allows more openness and self-disclosure than a best friend relationship. Page 10
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Chap 08_13e 73. Which emotion is most characteristic of withdrawn children? a. Disdain for peers b. Guilt c. Anger d. Happiness 74. How is a sense of self-efficacy related to persistence? a. Children who have a low sense of self-efficacy are likely to give up after a failure experience. b. Children who have a positive sense of self-efficacy give up after they fail. c. Children who fail often are more likely to believe the encouragement offered by others. d. Children who have a low sense of self-efficacy try harder after they fail. 75. Self-evaluation takes place in two contexts. They are the ________ frames of reference. a. external and social b. internal and external c. psychological and social d. internal and psychological 76. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Aggressiveness is a highly valued characteristic for girls that promotes peer acceptance. b. Aggressiveness is a characteristic of withdrawn-rejected children. c. Children with special needs problems are more likely to be accepted if they are aggressive. d. In some school environments, aggressiveness contributes to popularity and closeness among boys. 77. Juanita tends to strive toward higher and higher levels of mastery in her graphic art program. What is this sometimes referred to as? a. Contextualization b. Cognition c. Competence motivation d. Concrete operational thought 78. Chris likes to burp loudly, and he does not care if people think it is gross. He just likes the sound of it and hopes that someday he can burp the entire alphabet in a row. Chris has a. high self-monitoring. b. low self-esteem. c. low self-monitoring. d. high self-esteem. 79. Children who show evidence of learned helplessness believe a. they can control every aspect of their lives. b. they are much better than their performance might suggest. c. they will succeed if they try harder. d. the outcome of most situations is beyond their control. 80. Aguar is very excited about jumping off the diving board, while Penelope is fearful and anxious. Who is more likely Page 11
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Chap 08_13e to perceive themselves as able to jump off of the diving board? a. Aguar only b. Penelope only c. Aguar and Penelope are both as likely to jump off of the board. d. Neither are likely to jump off the board. 81. Which of the following groups is most likely to develop serious mental health problems in adolescence or adulthood? a. Aggressive-withdrawn children b. Aggressive-rejected children c. Aggressive children d. Withdrawn children 82. Children who have difficulty acquiring new vocabulary, oversimplify grammatical expressions, and have problems understanding certain expressions of others are likely to have which of the following? a. Learning disorder b. Motor skills disorder c. Organ inferiority d. Communication disorder 83. Nine-year-old Laure has great confidence that she will perform very well in the sold-out school play later this evening. This is called ________. a. self-efficacy b. effortful control c. conservation d. zone of proximal development 84. What might make a child especially vulnerable to believing the false expectations of others and thereby expecting less from themselves? a. Being experienced in an area or being highly skilled b. Learning a new skill or learning something for the first time c. Being indifferent to the social expectations of others d. Having many sources of information about one’s abilities and performance 85. Children with a sense of inertia a. do not believe they can master the challenges they face. b. believe they can master the challenges they face. c. show great empathy for their peers. d. cannot experience empathy. 86. Which of the following is a characteristic of withdrawn children who have strong feelings of loneliness? a. Many other children like them and want to be with them. b. They are likely to have been bullied or victimized. c. They work hard to improve their social skills. d. They rarely spend time alone. Page 12
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Chap 08_13e 87. Nine-year-old Gerson scores proficient in grouping objects according to some shared dimension. This reflects acute abilities in which of the following? a. Introversion b. Reciprocity c. Conservation d. Classification 88. From an ethological perspective, how might group cooperation contribute to species survival? a. It is part of the mating ritual. b. It allows more offspring to be produced. c. It fosters more competition among the males for mating privileges. d. It improves the group’s ability to track and hunt for food. 89. In team sports, when one team wins, the other team loses. This results in the creation of which of the following? a. A division of labor among team members b. A sense of compassion for the members of the other team c. In-group and out-group antagonism d. A willingness to learn the rules of the game 90. Which of these is an example of an in-group attitude of team play? a. Recognizing that team members share a common fate b. Viewing the outcome of the game as being that only one team can win c. Recognizing that helping the other team is unethical d. Devising strategies to exploit the weaknesses of the opponent 91. Which in-group attitude is most likely to be fostered through experiences in team play? a. The other team is the enemy. b. One may need to relinquish personal goals for team goals. c. Assisting the other team is unethical. d. One must try as hard as possible to beat the other team. 92. Which of the following is an important function of education? a. Helping children understand that even if they work hard they may not reach their dreams b. Helping students gain the language of concepts, theories, and relationships that will allow them to organize experience c. Teaching children that there is generally one way to do things well and providing the method for them to do this d. Teaching children the rights and wrongs of our society and how to abide by these rules 93. When teachers believe that a child is bright but does not try very hard, the teacher’s reaction to the child is most likely one of a. guilt. b. pride. c. anger. d. satisfaction. Page 13
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Chap 08_13e 94. A student who believes in her ability to approach a new situation and “get the job done” demonstrates a. inertia. b. competence. c. responsibility. d. egocentrism. 95. Zachary likes to group his Matchbox cars in different categories. Sometimes he sorts them by color, other times by model, and other times by the size of the car. Zachary is showing what trait? a. Introversion b. Reciprocity c. Classification d. Conservation 96. ______ children are more aware of the emotional and nonverbal behavior of others and make more use of social information to evaluate and regulate their own behavior. a. High self-monitoring b. Low self-monitoring c. High self-esteem d. Low self-esteem 97. Why are skills the basis of intellectual competence? a. They are the same across cultures and historical periods. b. They combine knowledge and practice for solving meaningful problems. c. They can be taught. d. They can be differentiated and assessed easily. 98. According to the neurobiology of aggression, an overactive brain stem results in a ________ child. a. calmer b. more aggressive c. smarter d. happier 99. Team sports emphasize which of the following concepts? a. Interdependence of team members b. The win-win approach to conflict resolution c. Conservation of volume d. Empathy with the victim 100. Clarence is very curious and gets excited when he can learn new things. His positive feelings about learning are indicative of the component of industry. a. competence b. cognitive c. affective d. behavioral Page 14
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Chap 08_13e 101. Through , children begin to appreciate the logic, order, and predictability of the physical world. a. fantasy play b. sensorimotor intelligence c. preoperational thinking d. concrete operational thinking 102. Juan is sure he is going to strike out when he is up to bat in baseball, so he doesn't swing at any pitches. As a result, he strikes out! What is this called? a. Self-efficacy b. Metacognition c. Self-fulfilling prophecy d. Psychophyisiological 103. Nathan’s school records are passed from teacher to teacher each year. Every year his new teacher reads the same comments, “Nathan is intelligent but lazy.” At the end of the year that new teacher writes the same summary statement and passes it on to the next teacher in the subsequent grade. This could be an example of a. academic competence. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. self-efficacy. d. metacognition. 104. One of the strategies for preventing and reducing violence in neighborhoods and schools mentioned in the text is a. treating all juvenile law breakers as adults. b. increasing police presence in all the nation’s homes and schools. c. making parents responsible for all crimes committed by their underage children. d. educating parents and teachers about socialization practices that help develop self-control, empathy, and perspective-taking. 105. Feelings of worthlessness and inadequacy in middle childhood come from which two sources? a. Self-esteem and skill development b. The self and the social environment c. Ego and id d. Self-efficacy and self-evaluation
106. Compare what happens in social skill development for children who are accepted by age-mates with social skill development for children who are rejected by age-mates. 107. Discuss the roles of interdependence, division of labor, and competition in team play. How does being involved in team play through team sports help to enhance each of these? 108. Discuss the principles of skill development, and describe how each plays its own key role in the overall process. 109. Describe the three social characteristics that combine to increase a child’s experiences of loneliness, and explain how they do so. Page 15
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Chap 08_13e 110. Explain why reversibility is considered to be one of the most powerful mental operations. 111. Discuss some of the ways that violence in the schools is disruptive to the developmental tasks of middle childhood. 112. Differentiate between self-evaluation and self-efficacy. How does each affect middle childhood differently? 113. Differentiate between classification skills and computational skills, and describe the roles of categorization, induction, and conservation of number. 114. Explain why in middle childhood there is a new focus on self-evaluation that accompanies the emphasis on skill building. 115. Discuss the potential sources of feelings of industry and the potential sources of feelings of inferiority in middle childhood. Illustrate how these feelings can be produced internally as well as being produced through social evaluation. 116. Define bullying and discuss the characteristics of bullies and their victims. 117. Discuss the implications of experiences in team play for social and intellectual development during middle childhood. 118. What is the self-fulfilling prophecy? Provide a detailed example that might occur in middle childhood. 119. Discuss the role of industry in many aspects of work during middle childhood. 120. Explain why friendship is so important in middle childhood, and define what constitutes a “close” friend.
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Chap 08_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. d Page 17
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Chap 08_13e 26. c 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. b 51. c Page 18
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Chap 08_13e 52. a 53. c 54. b 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. d Page 19
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Chap 08_13e 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. a 81. a 82. d 83. a 84. b 85. a 86. b 87. d 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. b 92. b 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. b 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. d 102. c Page 20
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Chap 08_13e 103. b 104. d 105. b 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 09_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Michele’s cognitive processes associated with psychotherapy, diplomacy, and spiritual leadership are examples of formal operational thought. a. True b. False 2. Joanna just turned 8 years old, which means she will not start to develop breasts for at least four more years. a. True b. False 3. Research has found a link between puberty and sleeping late on weekends. a. True b. False 4. Research studies on first intercourse experiences are thorough and may be easily interpreted. a. True b. False 5. Early adolescent changes rarely affect a boy’s self-esteem. a. True b. False 6. We internalize conduct problems and externalize our negative feelings. a. True b. False 7. In one study, it was clear that many adolescents are confused about the difference of contraception to prevent pregnancy and contraception to prevent sexually transmitted infections. a. True b. False 8. Dyadic friendships will become a more important source of social support in Harriet’s adolescence than they were in her earlier childhood. a. True b. False 9. Some people engage in sexual activity to avoid a negative outcome, such as conflict in a relationship. a. True b. False 10. Manny’s culture marks the beginning of puberty with a rite of passage. This is highly unusual for most other cultures. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 09_13e 11. What is the meaning of the term “crowd” in relation to the adolescent peer group? a. A small group of 5 to 10 friends b. All the people one adolescent knows by name c. A large group recognized by a few predominant characteristics d. All the popular kids in a school 12. Hammad, who is 15, does not feel that he is a part of any social group; he is uneasy in the presence of peers. Several of the other kids in his classroom intentionally dismiss him because of his ethnic background. He is experiencing a. group identity. b. fidelity. c. discrimination. d. inferiority. 13. Rafael is going through puberty. Which of the following can he expect to occur during this time? a. Concrete operational thoughts b. Maturation of his reproductive system c. Slowing of his growth curve d. Increased speed of linguistic competence 14. Ann is an adolescent girl whose boyfriend wants to have sexual intercourse with her. Her decision about this will be closely related to a. her physical attractiveness. b. her hormone levels. c. her parents values and the norms of her peer group. d. her desire to achieve independence. 15. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about formal operational thinking? a. No new skills are required; there is a more complex intermingling of skills learned in previous stages. b. It is best developed through rote learning of complex material. c. New skills help the person anticipate the consequences of their actions. d. It depends upon thoughts generated by remote associations to well-learned concepts. 16. Which of the following is most accurate concerning sexual-minority youth’s sexual orientation? a. Self-labeling does not occur until adulthood. b. Disclosure occurs almost immediately after self-labeling. c. Parental acceptance after disclosure is very important to well-being and identity development. d. Disclosure typically occurs first with family members and then with close friends. 17. James has just begun growing at a very fast, accelerated pace that is likely to last for a year or more. James is MOST LIKELY which of the following ages? a. About 15 b. About 12 1/2 c. About 10 d. About 8 Page 2
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Chap 09_13e 18. The onset of the menstrual cycle is called a. amenorrhea. b. anorexia. c. menarche. d. menopause. 19. Which of the following was observed in research that examined the influence of parenting practices on peer group membership? a. Parents who ignore their children have children who stay at home more. b. Parents who emphasize academic achievement have children who belong to the “popular” crowd. c. Parents who love and support their children have children who bring their friends back to the house after school. d. Parents who do little to involve their children in decision-making have children who are socially rejected. 20. What is a common consequence of early maturation for girls? a. Higher grades in school b. Loyalty to friends c. High levels of leadership abilities d. Higher levels of conflict with parents 21. What is one challenge faced by adolescent girls who do not live with their mothers? a. Their fathers know more than they do about pubertal development. b. They are embarrassed to ask their fathers about their pubertal development. c. Their fathers talk to their boyfriends too much. d. Their fathers do not know anything about girls’ pubertal development. 22. A depressed mood in early adolescence is of special concern because it is linked to: a. suicide and/or suicidal attempts. b. juvenile delinquency. c. lack of respect for authorities. d. delayed formal operational reasoning. 23. Recognizing that some aspects of one’s thoughts, feelings, and actions are influenced by one’s ethnic heritage is evidence of a. ethnic-group identity. b. discrimination. c. peer pressure. d. cultural continuity. 24. Teresa is just beginning puberty. Which of the following was MOST LIKELY her first sign of this? a. She began growing breast buds. b. She needed to start wearing a bra. c. She experienced menarche. d. She noticed increased muscle strength. Page 3
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Chap 09_13e 25. Membership in peer groups helps adolescents learn important skills such as a. assessing group structure. b. avoiding delinquent behavior. c. being responsive to adult expectations. d. coping with media images. 26. Because of “who she is,” Kendra is especially prone to depression. Knowing only this, which of the following is MOST LIKELY true of Kendra? a. She is the daughter of a depressed mother. b. She is the teacher of adolescents. c. She is the mother of adolescents. d. She is the daughter of a working mother. 27. Monte has been involved in repeated acts of violence and violent crimes, which makes him much more likely to a. drop out of school. b. turn himself around with little need for intervention. c. experience clinical levels of depression. d. be dissatisfied with his body image. 28. Most studies of adolescent mothers find that many fathers a. abandon the mother and child in the first month after birth. b. remain active in the child’s life throughout early childhood and adolescence. c. are teenagers themselves. d. remain in contact with the mother and child. 29. Which of the following is least characteristic of adolescent peer cliques? a. They have rigid boundaries. b. They have strong expectations for moral behavior. c. They can be identified by characteristic clothing, language, and places where they get together. d. They are extremely stable over the course of a school year. 30. Agnes is growing up in a household with four big brothers. Chances are, Agnes is more ____ than her brothers about her physical appearance. a. satisfied b. dissatisfied c. vain d. hopeful 31. Because the pediatrician told her so, Yolanda knows that her son Ricky’s rapid physical growth at puberty will most likely a. take place at about the same rate in all parts of his body. b. be easily integrated into a new body image. c. leave Ricky awkward and uncoordinated for a time. d. be characterized by an increase in muscle strength about a year before the peak height spurt. Page 4
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Chap 09_13e 32. Stacey discusses her concerns about her aging parents and her sense of duty and responsibility to them. What she is expressing is called a. parental responsibility. b. filial obligation. c. caretaker rights. d. collectivism. 33. The changes in conceptual development that occur during the early adolescent period can result in a. a more flexible, critical, and abstract view of the world. b. fewer creative ideas. c. greater belief in one’s own ideas and relatively little understanding of others’ ideas. d. a less flexible, critical, and longitudinal view of the world. 34. Eleven-year-old Rachel lost her father last year. Because of this, Rachel is more vulnerable to a. egocentrism. b. depression. c. early onset of puberty. d. romantic ideas about family formation. 35. Martin aspires to belong to the Eagle Scouts. For Martin, the Eagle Scouts represent a(n) ________ group. a. reference b. membership c. ethnic d. cohort 36. Ignacio often uses teasing, gossip, and sarcasm to influence his friends’ and classmates’ attitudes and behavior. This is called a. bullying. b. normative regulation. c. modeling. d. direct suggestion. 37. Diverse processes such as joining a group, forming in-group and out-group attitudes, stereotyping, rejecting a group, and exercising leadership in a group, are all examples of group a. referencing. b. reflecting. c. representations. d. operations. 38. When Larson and Lampman-Petraitis gave electronic paging devices to monitor adolescents’ emotions, they found that adolescences experienced: a. more positive emotions than younger children. b. more mildly negative emotions than younger children. c. frequent, sudden shifts from intense anger to intense joy. d. no change in variability of emotions with age. Page 5
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Chap 09_13e 39. For young people, the transition to sexualized relationships including learning the art of flirtation, practicing how to approach, and learning the rules of engagement between the sexes is influenced by a. reading “how to” books. b. what they learn in the classroom. c. the norms of the peer group and the community. d. innate reflexes that become manifest at puberty. 40. In what way might experiences of alienation be important for the formation of group and individual identity? a. These do not help teens appreciate how good social acceptance feels. b. They help the young person see others against the backdrop of the group. c. The discomfort of not fitting in helps the young person recognize the distinctiveness of his or her point of view. d. Chronic conflict among teens is important to social acceptance. 41. Which of the following statements about peer pressure is most accurate? a. Peer groups demand total conformity. There is little room for variations in temperament or behavior. b. Most peer groups do not expect any significant level of conformity. They usually have an “anything goes” philosophy. c. Peer pressure is usually exerted in a few select areas that give the group stability and help the individual members achieve a sense of group identity. d. Adolescents are usually in great conflict with most of the expectations of their peer group. 42. The European American culture gives _____ advantages to muscular, well-developed males and petite-shaped females. a. egocentric b. academic c. self-esteem d. legal 43. Lars and his cousins are all between the ages of 15 and 24. Lars is sixteen, three of his cousins are 15, two are 19, and two are 24. Among this broad age group, what is the national occurrence of suicides? a. One every week b. One every day c. One every 2 hours and 15 minutes d. One every 15 minutes 44. Why do romantic relationships, sexual fantasies, and sexual behaviors increase during adolescence? a. As a result of biological changes alone b. As a result of cultural contexts alone c. As a result of both biological changes and cultural contexts d. Neither because of biological changes nor cultural contexts 45. Which of the following is an example of a secondary sex characteristic? a. Production of mature sperm Page 6
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Chap 09_13e b. Growth of the penis c. Onset of menarche d. Maturation of breasts 46. Alan is experiencing sleeplessness, sadness, and loss of appetite. He is very low in energy and doesn’t want to get involved in any of the activities that provided enjoyment in the past. A likely diagnosis is a. anorexia nervosa. b. depressed mood. c. binge drinking. d. egocentrism. 47. According to experts, what factor is LEAST likely to drive young people to join gangs? a. Poverty b. The desire to belong c. The desire to be loved and recognized d. Easy access to guns 48. Mild, periodic conflicts between adolescents and their parents reflect which of the following? a. Adolescent stubbornness as a result of hormone changes b. Parental rigidity as a result of age c. The influence of friends’ pressures d. To achieve new autonomy 49. Which of the following is considered to be of central importance to the prevention of early pregnancy for both boys and girls? a. Building greater confidence in and commitment to the consistent use of contraception as part of any sexual relationship b. Building greater social expectations and commitment to assuming the financial and social responsibilities of parenthood c. Fostering a sense of self-efficacy and investment in academic goals leading to post-secondary education d. Creating feelings of guilt about engaging in sexual intercourse 50. Which of the following statements about sexual maturation is true for boys? a. They are generally well prepared by their parents for the maturation of the reproductive organs. b. They often gain information about the maturation of the reproductive system from friends and through reading. c. The first ejaculation experience is associated with overwhelming feelings of anxiety. d. Spontaneous ejaculation is one of the first physical signs of puberty. 51. The formation of group identity requires which of the following? a. A sense of having a history of shared experiences b. Adequate financial resources c. A sense of sexual adequacy d. Adequate role containment Page 7
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Chap 09_13e 52. An important characteristic of formal operational thought is the ability to a. think about themselves, other individuals, and their world in relativistic ways. b. use sensory and motor schemes to solve non-verbal problems. c. conform to the expectations of one’s peers in guiding one’s behavior. d. do trial and error problem solving. 53. How is the problem of anorexia linked to the topic of emotional development? a. Guilt is not experienced among adolescents with anorexia. b. Girls with anorexia have other externalizing problems as well. c. Anorexia is associated with difficulties accepting and expressing emotions. d. Anorexia is associated with difficulties in impulse control. 54. One change in mental activity that occurs during early adolescence is that young people are able to a. consciously experience changes in the brain. b. generate perceptions based on fantasy principles. c. generate hypotheses about events they have never perceived. d. use motor behavior as the basis of planning activity. 55. Based on research, it is likely that since Shauna has a more mature body shape than her best friend, she is also more likely to report more thoughts and feelings that are related to a. obesity. b. love. c. aggression. d. depression. 56. A positive resolution of the psychosocial crisis of group identity versus alienation results in the achievement of the prime adaptive ego quality of a. intimacy. b. isolation. c. friendship. d. fidelity to others. 57. Alcohol may be associated with adolescent death in which of the following conditions? a. By suppressing breathing when in high concentration levels b. None, as long as you do not combine drugs c. When used before the age of 18 d. Alcohol does not contribute to adolescent death rates in any significant way 58. Alienation associated with issues of _______ may occur when early adolescents are forced to take on roles to which they do not subscribe. a. common bond b. common identity c. ethnicity d. identity confusion Page 8
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Chap 09_13e 59. Delinquency is associated with which of the following? a. Overcontrol of emotions b. Fear of being thought of as unmanly c. Body image dissatisfaction d. Inability to control and manage one’s impulses 60. Which of the following is TRUE of contraceptive use among adolescents? a. Jared is more likely to use contraceptives as an adolescent than his father was as an adolescent. b. Jared is less likely to use contraceptives as an adolescent than his father was as an adolescent. c. Jared is just as likely to use contraceptives as an adolescent as his father was as an adolescent. d. Neither Jared nor his father likely used contraceptives as adolescents. 61. Which of the following might lead to increased feelings of insecurity and worthlessness, and lack of confidence for adolescent girls? a. Lack of a part-time job b. Parental restrictions on dating c. Sexist micro-aggressions by teachers, male peers, or parents d. Ambitious academic goals 62. How is the timing of puberty related to self-image for late-maturing adolescent boys? a. They are likely to be self-conscious and have a negative self-image. b. They are confident and assume leadership roles. c. They have a more positive attitude about their physical appearance. d. They are extremely narcissistic and self-absorbed. 63. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Adolescents rarely contract sexually transmitted diseases. b. AIDS is the most common sexually transmitted disease among adolescents. c. Most young people are interested in learning more about AIDS. d. If chlamydia is untreated, it may cause pelvic inflammatory disease that leads to infertility. 64. As adolescents become aware of a more differentiated array of emotions, boys are more likely to have a heightened awareness of new levels of negative emotions that focus on a. being crazy. b. internalizing. c. consequences. d. aggressive impulses. 65. Which of the following is most accurate about adolescent suicides? a. Girls commit suicide more often than boys. b. Availability of a firearm is a risk factor. c. Boys attempt suicide more often than girls. d. The number reported seems to be quite accurate. 66. Evidence of a secular trend can be found in the fact that Page 9
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Chap 09_13e a. over the last 100 years more and more adolescents have enrolled and graduated from high school. b. over the last 100 years people have developed a healthier diet. c. over the last 100 years people have attained their adult height at earlier ages. d. over the past 50 years, there has been a decline in the amount of exercise in an adolescent’s life. 67. The interdependence of emotion and cognition may result in a. improved management of emotional expression. b. over-intellectualizing the feelings of others. c. denial of one’s emotional complexity. d. attempts to defend against the behavior of family and friends. 68. Alienation associated with issues of common bond occurs when adolescents are a. so tied to their families that they fail to gain membership in a peer group. b. forced to comply with group expectations to which they do not subscribe. c. unable to form interpersonal ties that provide feelings of acceptance or emotional support. d. members of so many groups that they can’t become loyal to any of them. 69. Which of the following is likely to be possible because one has attained formal operational thinking? a. Categorizing objects b. Thinking about things changing in the future c. Doing complicated calculations d. Solving conservation problems 70. Abby is a shy adolescent who lives a very structured life, keeping to a strict routine. Over the last 6 months, she has lost 20 pounds. She is often nauseous and does not enjoy eating. Her mother tries to encourage her to eat, but Abby insists she is too fat and she looks better this way. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Externalizing disorder b. Anorexia c. Peer group alienation d. Obsessive compulsive disorder 71. Joaquin’s susceptibility to peer pressure is currently at its greatest. About how old is Joaquin? a. 10-12 years b. 13-14 years c. 15-16 years d. 17-18 years 72. In the study of three ethnic groups, what happened to relations with parents as peer relations increased in importance during early adolescence? a. Family members continued to be the most central source of love and emotional support. b. Parents decreased in importance as peer relations provided more closeness. c. Adolescents spent more time at home in interaction with their parents after school and on weekends. d. Family members were only important for those adolescents who did not have close friends. 73. According to Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development that is attained in early adolescence is called Page 10
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Chap 09_13e a. formal operations. b. information processing. c. general intelligence. d. critical thinking. 74. The self-consciousness and egocentrism common in early adolescence is likely to result in experiences of a. formal operational reasoning. b. alienation. c. social support. d. peer group membership. 75. The Newman and Newman conceptualization of adolescence a. is the same as Erikson’s. b. argues for a single stage from the onset of puberty until the end of college. c. emphasizes the importance of the development of individual identity during the high school years. d. describes two distinct stages: early adolescence and later adolescence 76. During early adolescence, the peer group tends to become more _____ than it had been at earlier ages. a. causal b. structured c. tied to the neighborhood d. homogeneous 77. As a result of the newly installed metal detectors, Bob was caught bringing a gun to school. He claims that he just wanted to show it to his history teacher. Based on what you know about teens who carry guns, what do you think might be another possible motive? a. Bob is interested in the physics of weapons. b. Bob wants to help protect his friends from other bullies at school. c. Bob is looking for respect by intimidating his peers with a gun. d. Bob is trying to protect himself, having been threatened by other kids at school. 78. Which of the following is an example of how culture shapes experience? a. Early pubertal onset and weight increases were particularly strong predictors of negative body image and depression among African American girls. b. Mexican girls become somewhat more depressed as they go through puberty, whereas Mexican boys experience an improved sense of body image and well-being. c. Early pubertal onset and weight increases were not particularly strong predictors of negative body image and depression among European American girls. d. Mexican boys become somewhat more depressed as they go through puberty, whereas Mexican girls experience an improved sense of body image and well-being. 79. What is the relationship of body dissatisfaction to eating disturbances? a. Body dissatisfaction is linked to more physical activity, which interferes with proper eating. b. Girls who are dissatisfied with their body are likely to engage in extreme forms of dieting. c. Girls who are dissatisfied with their weight are less likely to be socially isolated. Page 11
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Chap 09_13e d. Body dissatisfaction is universal among adolescent girls. There is no systematic relationship between body dissatisfaction and eating disturbances. 80. According to the model developed by Udry and Billy, the three dimensions that contribute to the transition to sexual intercourse in adolescence are a. motivation, impulse, and drive. b. motivation, social control, and attractiveness. c. social control, social norms, and social roles. d. attractiveness, popularity, and opportunity. 81. As adolescents go through puberty, conflicts with parents a. are about basic values. b. are likely. c. decrease. d. are started by the father. 82. According to research on formal operational thought, a. most 15-year-olds do not use formal operational strategies on all problems. b. formal operational thought is observed consistently by adults in all cultures. c. mature scientific reasoning does not require formal operational thought. d. most 13-year-olds used formal operational strategies on most problems. 83. The intensification of emotions that occurs in early adolescence often contributes to a ________ for adolescents to their groups. a. distancing process b. distillation c. deepening dedication d. categorization process 84. Which of the following is an example of an internalizing problem? a. Feelings of romantic attraction b. Feelings of hopefulness c. Feelings of worthlessness d. Feelings of aggression directed toward property 85. Nigel has a tendency to pursue activities that are novel, thrilling, and exciting. This is known as a. fatalism. b. sensation seeking. c. reality avoidance. d. risk bingeing. 86. Which of the following is an eating disorder that is characterized by fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a minimally normal body weight? a. Menarche b. Depression Page 12
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Chap 09_13e c. Anorexia d. Egocentrism 87. Which of the following is an important aspect of peer relationships that occurs in early adolescence? a. Sexual interest b. Shared activities c. Best friend relationships d. The formulation of a social contract 88. For boys who are experiencing pubescent growth, shaving provides some evidence for a. enhanced masculinity. b. peer group identification. c. the secular trend. d. understanding reproductive maturation. 89. Acts that are illegal for adolescents but not adults, such as truancy and underage drinking, are called a. stage offenses. b. status offenses. c. problems of immaturity. d. acting out behavioral offenses. 90. Populars, gangs, skateboarders, and jocks are examples of a. high school organizations. b. peer crowds. c. troubled teens. d. social class roles. 91. What, broadly speaking, occurs when adolescents are exposed to and actively engaged in suicide prevention programs in school? a. They show an increase of help seeking following the beginning of the program. b. They show increases in negative reactions after being exposed to information about suicide. c. They are much less likely to commit suicide than students who are not in the program. d. They are less likely to talk to teachers once the program begins. 92. There are exactly 100 eighth graders at Shauna’s middle school. About how many of them have been drunk at least once? a. 5 b. 13 c. 25 d. 50 93. In contrast to those with anorexia, adolescents who suffer from bulimia are more likely to a. prevent food absorption through induced vomiting or use of laxatives. b. suffer serious health risks. c. focus exclusively on weight loss. Page 13
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Chap 09_13e d. have spurts of public gluttony. 94. Twelve-year-old Henry has been carrying a knife for more than a year. Which of the following is his MOST LIKELY primary motive for doing so? a. Intimidation b. Self-defense c. The desire for revenge d. Peer group pressure 95. The kind of reasoning associated with diplomacy, psychotherapy, and spiritual leadership is called ________ reasoning. a. formal b. emotional c. scientific d. postformal 96. As a member of a group, Bianca perceives that she is expected to behave in certain ways. This is called a. peer pressure. b. alienation. c. ethnicity. d. egocentrism. 97. Which term refers to the sense of separateness, withdrawal from others, and an inability to experience the bond of mutual acceptance? a. Individuality b. Separation anxiety c. Dissociation d. Distance regulation 98. Rosie and her 300 classmates are in their senior year of high school. About how many of them have tried an illegal drug (other than alcohol)? a. 200 b. 150 c. 100 d. 50 99. After puberty, boys and girls show noticeably different levels of aggression. Problems that result from difficulties in managing aggression are known as a. externalizing problems. b. internalizing problems. c. defensive problems. d. turning against the self. 100. Which of the following is a criticism of formal operational reasoning as a stage of cognitive development? a. It does not describe the sensory-based reasoning of which adolescents are capable. Page 14
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Chap 09_13e b. It does not deal with the ability of adolescents to raise hypotheses about an unknown future. c. It is not broad enough to encompass the many dimensions along which cognitive functioning changes in adolescence. d. It includes too many dimensions such as the biological basis and social context of reasoning. 101. During early adolescence, there is _____ in the rate and sequence of development. a. variability b. reversibility c. reliability d. stability 102. In the process of resolving the psychosocial crisis of _____ , adolescents become psychologically connected to the social life of their family, school, and community. a. group identity versus alienation b. fidelity versus despair c. intimacy versus isolation d. industry versus inferiority 103. Which of the following is least likely to cause depression in early adolescence? a. Experiences of loss or failure b. Parental loss or rejection c. Hormonal changes d. Peer acceptance 104. Which of the following is a precipitating event that might lead to adolescent suicide? a. A humiliating experience b. A notable failure c. Rejection by a romantic partner d. All of these 105. In general, how do girls react when they begin to menstruate? a. A mix of positive and negative feelings b. Proud and happy c. Mostly negative feelings d. They feel inadequate
106. Outline the six characteristics of formal operational thought that emerge in adolescence, and describe how each contributes to the maturation process. 107. Explain how key brain developments at adolescence affect and contribute to maturation, operational thought, and reasoning abilities. 108. What factors affect the initiation of sexual intercourse for girls and boys? Page 15
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Chap 09_13e 109. Based on what you have learned about the developmental tasks and psychosocial crisis of early adolescence, design a developmentally appropriate intervention that would promote condom use and/or pregnancy prevention. 110. How does the diversity of emotions in adolescence contribute to the overall maturation process, and what challenges are posed by the new levels of emotions that adolescents experience? 111. What are some of the factors that make early adolescents vulnerable to experiences of depression? How do males and females differ in their experiences of depression? How do you explain this difference? 112. Explain the importance of peer group membership in adolescence. What roles do cliques and crowds play in this? Differentiate between the two. 113. Describe some of the ways in which an adolescents’ peer relationships change during the period from ages 12 to 18. 114. Outline what precipitates the transition into sexualized relationships for both boys and girls. 115. Describe what is meant by “secondary sex characteristics,” and explain what role these play in the physical and emotional maturation of adolescents. 116. Describe how peer pressure can have both positive and negative affects, and explain the conflicts between belonging and personal autonomy. 117. Compare and contrast the impact of pubertal timing for boys and girls. 118. Discuss the essential characteristics of formal operational thought. What kinds of experiences are most likely to stimulate this kind of reasoning? 119. Discuss the physical and cognitive factors associated with adolescent drug and alcohol use. How do these affect the social contexts of alcohol and drug use? 120. How might the prime adaptive ego quality of fidelity to others be important to the subsequent development of the person in early, middle, or later adulthood?
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Chap 09_13e Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. c 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. a 25. a Page 17
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Chap 09_13e 26. a 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. d 41. c 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. d 49. a 50. b 51. a Page 18
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Chap 09_13e 52. a 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. a 73. a 74. b 75. d 76. b Page 19
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Chap 09_13e 77. c 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. c 84. c 85. b 86. c 87. a 88. a 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. b 95. d 96. a 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. a 102. a Page 20
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Chap 09_13e 103. d 104. d 105. a 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 10_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Transsexuals develop a gender identity that reflects their biological features. a. True b. False 2. Many students drop out of college for financial reasons. a. True b. False 3. The private self includes a sense of unity and decentering. a. True b. False 4. Achieving a psychological sense of autonomy from one’s parents is accomplished when one moves out of the parental home. a. True b. False 5. Most college students attend colleges far from home in order to achieve autonomy. a. True b. False 6. Men and women who score high on both masculine and feminine characteristics compared to others of the same sex are termed androgynous. a. True b. False 7. Kohlberg’s view of moral development focuses on the behavioral aspects of morality. a. True b. False 8. A secure attachment to parents, based on a perception of them as committed to their child’s well-being, is essential for growth toward independence. a. True b. False 9. Gender role expectations can only change over several generations. a. True b. False 10. The sequence of moral stages is well established and is unaffected by the kinds of moral situations encountered. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 10_13e 11. The college curriculum can help advance moral reasoning because students experience a. differing points of view. b. information overload. c. support for their beliefs. d. failure. 12. Henry and his friends are all enrolled in 4-year colleges. Assuming there are 100 college students within Henry’s “circle of friends,” about how many of them will graduate? a. 87 b. 70 c. 58 d. 31 13. Janice dating Stan may be viewed as an example of a. adolescent rebellion. b. negative identity. c. role experimentation. d. identity achievement. 14. Which of the following identity statuses is characterized by a period of questioning and crisis followed by the formation of occupational and ideological commitments? a. Identity achievement b. Identity foreclosure c. Moratorium d. Identity confusion 15. Jennifer moved out of her parents’ home when she was married at 21. Many of Jennifer’s friends are also planning their weddings. Maurice is 24 and has never been married. Like many of his friends, he still lives with his parents. It is most likely that Beverly lives in and Maurice lives in . a. 2008; 2008 b. 1960; 2008 c. 2008; 1960 d. 1960; 1960 16. Which of the following statements about the relationship of gender and identity achievement is most accurate? a. For both men and women, identity achievement is associated with positive ego qualities. b. Identity achievement is associated with positive ego strengths for women but not for men. c. Identity achievement is associated with a process of crisis and commitment for men but not for women. d. Identity achievement is associated with positive ego strengths for men but not for women. 17. Of the following identity statuses, which one reflects crisis and questioning but no commitment? a. Identity confusion b. Identity achievement c. Group identity d. Public identity Page 2
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Chap 10_13e 18. Berzonsky suggests that not all later adolescents are equally open to identity-related information processing that would help clarify their identity. The types who actively seek this kind of information are called a. normative. b. emotion-based. c. diffuse avoidant. d. informational. 19. In the Tiedeman model of career decision-making, the last three phases involve a. implementation. b. planning. c. clarification. d. counseling. 20. During later adolescence, the loosening of ties to one’s family and participation in an expanding set of social roles leads to which of the following? a. Alienation b. Re-examination of one’s moral code c. Delinquent behavior d. New feelings of shame and doubt 21. Students in the top 10% in high school class rankings will a. fail b. quite possibly earn Cs and Ds c. get all As d. fail competency exams
in college.
22. College faculty are __________ concerned now than in the past that students are not prepared for college mathematics, independent work, and critical thinking. a. more b. less c. equally d. rarely 23. Parents who want to help their later-adolescent children achieve a comfortable sense of independence should a. be extremely permissive and let their children do what they want to do. b. send their children off on their own to sink or swim. c. support the expression of differences. d. make sure limits and expectations are unclear so the adolescents will have to make their decisions. 24. Which of the following is a characteristic of the contemporary U.S. job market? a. People stay with one company their whole career, moving steadily up the career ladder. b. Each employee will need to have several skills to handle a variety of jobs. c. Most businesses are focused on their local and regional markets only. d. People take time to train for a job, being confident that the job will be available several years in the future. Page 3
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Chap 10_13e 25. Lack of funds can lead students to a. live at home. b. be less at risk for dropping out of college. c. work more hours at jobs. d. both live at home and work more hours. 26. Juana is experiencing a period of experimentation and freedom from daily expectations for role performance. Which of the following terms BEST relates to this? a. Crystallization b. Psychosocial moratorium c. Self-efficacy d. Commitment 27. Which of the following is one of the areas of accomplishment that is necessary in order for a person to achieve autonomy from parents? a. The ability to express views that differ from one’s parents’ views b. Living in a separate residence c. Giving up the sense of closeness and affection for parents d. Absorption in the parents’ identities 28. Ray is beginning to take responsibility for his own bills and expenses. He is deciding for himself how he wants to spend the money he earns at his job and how much time he will give to community service on the weekends. Over time, he has begun to feel increasingly confident about his decisions. Ray is developing a sense of a. attachment. b. role experimentation. c. self-sufficiency. d. exclusivity. 29. Living away from one’s parental home is often considered a symbol of a. rebelliousness. b. independence. c. egocentrism. d. generativity. 30. Tiedeman has created a model for career decision-making in which there are a. nine b. seven c. five d. three
phases.
31. Which of the following is found to be associated with work experiences that do not involve too many hours and involve valued skilled development? a. Postconventional moral reasoning b. Alienation from school Page 4
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Chap 10_13e c. Fewer problem behaviors d. Positive sex-role preference 32. Young people who identify with labels such as hood, loser, or druggie are likely to develop a a. foreclosed identity. b. moratorium. c. social conscience. d. negative identity. 33. Which factors do high school and college students say played the greatest role in career decision-making? a. Family factors such as mother and father’s occupations b. Socioeconomic factors such as race or religion c. Situational factors such as chance or unexpected encouragement d. Individual factors such as abilities and interests 34. Bethany has wanted to be a nurse since she was age 13 exclusively because her mother wanted her to be a nurse. Today she is graduating from college with a nursing degree. What is her identity status? a. Moratorium b. Identity achieved c. Identity foreclosed d. Negative identity 35. Gender role socialization shapes career decisions through a. inherent differences between the genders. b. the relative influence of family members. c. perceptions of ability and career-related values and goals. d. choices in levels of higher education. 36. Based on research about the relationship of parental attachment and adaptation to college, the most difficulty adapting to college during their first year. a. socially engaged b. dismissive c. preoccupied d. autonomous
students had
37. As a general rule, how would you characterize the kinds of jobs that are available to people who leave high school without a diploma or who do not go to school beyond high school? a. Low material rewards offset by a nurturing environment and skilled supervisors b. Routine with good pay and steady employment c. Require technical skills that can be developed over time and recognized through good pay raises d. Unstable and supervised by rigid autocratic employers 38. Beverly knows she should be doing more to figure out what she wants to do after college, but she just cannot bear to face all the conflicts and hassles. She figures things will work out the way they were meant to be and that worrying or getting too involved in these decisions is not worth the energy. According to Berzonsky’s identity exploration model, Page 5
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Chap 10_13e Beverly is a(n) a. information type. b. diffuse/avoidant type. c. foreclosed type. d. secure type. 39. The term private self refers to a. a sense of being the originator of one’s thoughts. b. the expectations others have for one’s behavior. c. the roles one plays. d. the self as it is known by family and friends. 40. Which of the following is considered a criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development? a. It is based on a “caring” approach to morality. b. It is based on a prosocial approach to morality. c. It is sensitive to contextual issues. d. It is based on a method emphasizing prohibitive moral judgments. 41. What is the relationship between sexual orientation and gender identity? a. Gay men are androgynous. b. Lesbians are masculine. c. Heterosexual men are masculine. d. Sexual orientation does not predict gender identity. 42. The relationship of a secure attachment to parents and identity in later adolescence is that those who have a a. secure attachment are more likely to have an achieved identity. b. secure attachment are more rebellious. c. positive attachment are more likely to be confused about their identity. d. secure attachment are more likely to require constant reassurance from peers about their self worth. 43. In Tiedeman’s model of career decision making, an individual gains increased control over life events ________. a. with effective problem solving b. by moving out of the home c. by getting married d. with information about career paths in a specific profession 44. In the case of Houston A. Baker, Jr., what aspect of his identity process is revealed? a. His commitment to political activism b. His commitment to a religious identity c. His commitment to the pursuit of intellectual creativity d. His commitment to living in Great Britain 45. Considering the fact that most people play many of the same roles, their identities a. are essentially the same. Page 6
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Chap 10_13e b. differ because they place different values on some of these roles. c. are the same because these roles have the same goal affordances. d. differ because they have equal levels of commitment to these roles. 46. The importance one gives to certain content areas of identity, and the salience of some aspects of identity over others contributes to the of identity. a. evaluation b. resolution c. moratorium d. content 47. The core pathology of later adolescence is repudiation. This refers to a. a hostile rejection of ideas and groups that do not adhere to one’s own beliefs. b. withdrawal from the support and companionship of others. c. self-doubt and self-criticism. d. a sense of having violated one’s own standards for good and moral behavior. 48. In the process of achieving _________, Candice must integrate her private sense of self with her public self. a. autonomy b. personal identity c. self efficacy d. goal abundances 49. Kathleen has a certain set of ideals, values, and beliefs that are specific to her African-American heritage and culture. This is called a. ethnic identity. b. cultural identity. c. family values. d. none of these. 50. How do students typically change during the college years in their gender role attitudes? a. No changes are likely during this period. b. They become more traditional. c. They become more flexible. d. They become increasingly confused about what is best for them. 51. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Mothers’ perceptions of their child’s ability to succeed in math-oriented careers are a predictor of their college-age child’s career choice. b. In today’s world, men and women have the same expectations about their ability to succeed at various careerrelated skills. c. Women with a strong sense of their goals, awareness of personal needs, and an ability to cope effectively with stress are more likely to adopt a traditional career choice. d. Mothers’ perceptions of their child’s ability to write effectively is a predictor of their adult child’s career success. Page 7
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Chap 10_13e 52. Jared is a college freshman. His moral reasoning is dominated by his concerns for maintaining existing rules within the college as well as by his respect for his professors, advisors, and deans. This is called ________ moral reasoning. a. preconventional b. post conventional c. conventional d. unconventional 53. What is the basic idea behind Tiedeman’s model of career decision-making? a. People who begin the process of career decision-making at a young age are able to make more progress over time. b. The process of career decision-making is a one-way street. There is no turning back. c. There is a continuous interaction between the work context and self-understanding about career goals. d. Once people experience uncertainty in the world of work, their future success is significantly limited. 54. A person who develops complex decision-making strategies, gains access to career-related information, and archives self-insight about career-related goals is said to have achieved a. self-sufficiency. b. post conventional moral reasoning. c. conscientiousness. d. career maturity. 55. The theoretical construct of identity status assumes a developmental progression. According to this view, a person who has been categorized as in a period of moratorium could never accurately be described at a later time as a. identity achieved. b. identity foreclosed. c. having a negative identity. d. having a confused identity. 56. The psychosocial crisis of later adolescence is a. autonomy versus shame and doubt. b. individual identity versus identity confusion. c. group identity versus alienation. d. intimacy versus isolation. 57. How is college choice related to attitudes about wanting to be independent from parents? a. The majority of freshmen say they chose a college as far from home as possible. b. The majority of college freshmen say they chose a college that would allow them to live near home. c. College freshmen appear to differ in how much they want autonomy from parents as they begin college. d. The majority of freshmen go to school in a different state from where their parents live. 58. How is family income associated with educational achievement? a. Children from low-income families are more likely to go to college than children from middle-income families. b. Children from low-income families are more likely to attend college out of state. Page 8
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Chap 10_13e c. Children from low-income families are more likely to drop out of high school. d. Children from low-income families are more likely to complete college in four years or less. 59. Which of the following statements best describes a possible difference in point of view between career development professionals and parents? a. Career development professionals advise making a decision at an early age, while parents say, “Take your time.” b. Career development professionals worry about a child’s reputation in the community, while parents just want their child to pick a career that makes the child happy. c. Career development professionals advise taking time to reach a mature career decision, while parents say, “What are you going to do? Make up your mind.” d. Career development professionals are more focused on childhood fantasies of career goals. Parents are more focused on changing market conditions. 60. Of the various identity statuses, which one is most likely to be associated with tendencies toward procrastination, hostility, and disagreeableness? a. Identity achievement b. Moratorium c. Identity confusion d. Identity foreclosure 61. How is physical appearance related to gender identity? People who are a. dissatisfied with their appearance try harder to get along with the opposite sex. b. dissatisfied with their appearance expect to be rejected by the opposite sex. c. satisfied with their appearance are afraid to assert their opinions. d. satisfied with their appearance tend to make fun of the opposite sex. 62. Jeremiah is 20 years old. Compared with his grandparents, who were between 18 and 24 years old in the 1960s, fewer of Jeremiah’s friends between 18 and 24 a. are married and living in their own households. b. are living in their parents’ households. c. want to attend college. d. expect to marry after college. 63. Frederico’s ability to sustain loyalties freely pledged in spite of the inevitable contradictions and confusions of his value systems is referred to as a. sacrifice. b. fidelity. c. repudiation. d. contamination. 64. John has dropped out of college. The most likely consequence will be that a. all his problems will disappear. b. his goals and directions will be clarified. c. he will earn more money in the short and long-term. Page 9
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Chap 10_13e d. his marriage prospects will be impacted. 65. In many of the measures of identity development, vocational choice, political and religious ideologies, and gender role or interpersonal values comprise the a. peripheral content areas. b. foundational content areas. c. central processes. d. evaluation techniques. 66. Benicio has recently been questioning and examining his Mexican culture’s own values, beliefs, and practices. Which of the following transitions is Benicio going through? a. Exploration b. Retrospection c. Introspection d. Validation 67. In the Tiedeman model of career decision-making, an individual decides which action alternative to follow in the _________ phase. a. integration b. crystallization c. choice d. exploration 68. Yolanda’s structure of identity has two components. What are they? a. Content and evaluation b. Self esteem and body image c. Content and function d. Society and salience 69. In Tiedeman’s crystallization phase, an individual a. learns the power of natural crystals. b. realizes a career decision must be made. c. encounters the new career environment for the first time. d. becomes more aware of alternatives and consequences. 70. Paul has changed his major twice. He has had several summer jobs and is considering another type of internship next year. With respect to his occupational identity, we would say he is engaging in a. role experimentation. b. identity confusion. c. occupational integration. d. crystallization. 71. Which of the following statements about gender and identity is most accurate? a. Men emphasize interpersonal commitments more than vocational choice. b. Few gender differences in identity status have been discovered. Page 10
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Chap 10_13e c. Women do not make vocational commitments. d. Women are more likely to be characterized as identity foreclosed than men. 72. Moral judgment changes from early school age to later adolescence in that in later adolescence, there is more emphasis on ___________. a. generative activities b. principles of social responsibility c. rewards and punishments d. approval from authority figures 73. Blake’s identity status, which is characterized by commitment without a period of questioning and exploration, is a. identity achievement. b. moratorium. c. negative identity. d. foreclosure. 74. What is the difference between role experimentation and a turning point? a. A turning point rarely leads to change, whereas role experimentation usually does. b. A turning point is a more dramatic, sudden incident than role experimentation. c. These two concepts are basically the same idea. d. Role experimentation is a more important source of change than a turning point. 75. With respect to identity formation, a person’s assessment of the importance of certain content areas in relation to others influences the a. use of resources. b. direction of certain decisions. c. kinds of experiences that may be viewed as personally rewarding. d. all of these. 76. One cannot embrace all ideologies and roles. Each commitment brings some boundaries to one’s values and limits one’s investments to a certain vision of the self continuing in the future. This rejection of certain ideologies is called a. repudiation. b. refusal of cultural values. c. rejection identification. d. fidelity. 77. Which of the following statements is most accurate about identity? a. The content of identity may change over the life course, but the evaluation component remains constant. b. The content of identity remains constant but the evaluation changes. c. Both content and evaluation of identity remain constant over the life course. d. Both content and evaluation of identity may change over the life course. 78. Career choice becomes a central component of a person’s emerging a. impulses. b. androgyny. Page 11
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Chap 10_13e c. identity. d. alienation. 79. Keisha has recently acquired a strong set of beliefs, attitudes, and values about who and what she is as a woman. Which of the following terms BEST explains this? a. Moratorium b. Sex-role preference c. Autonomy d. Gender identity 80. In order for later adolescents to be successful in achieving autonomy, a. secure attachments must be dissolved. b. there must be a context of mutual caring, emotional support, and differentiation in the family. c. they must feel that parents do not accept their need to have their opinions and views. d. they must sense that their parents are no longer committed to their well-being. 81. A moral conflict, which requires a choice between doing something helpful for someone else or meeting one’s own needs, involves a a. prohibitive moral judgment. b. preoperational moral judgment. c. prosocial moral judgment. d. conventional moral judgment. 82. The terms mother and father, sister and brother, aunt and uncle refer to __________ roles. a. public b. gender-differentiated c. negative identity d. conflicting 83. Ignacio’s identity serves as his anchor point that allows him an essential sense of ___________ in the social experience of his relationships. a. empathy b. morality c. continuity d. confusion 84. Berzonsky suggests that not all later adolescents process identity-related information in the same way. According to his model, the normative types a. read lots of books from the library and search for relevant information on the Internet. b. procrastinate and delay facing self-relevant issues as long as possible. c. are self-reflective. d. focus on the standards set for them by others. 85. Carlos is experiencing high levels of testosterone production. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be associated with this? Page 12
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Chap 10_13e a. Conventional values b. Low levels of sexual arousal c. High levels of sexual arousal d. High levels of empathy 86. The term gender-role expectations refers to a. cultural and subcultural expectations for the appropriate behavior of males and females. b. identification with a parent of the same sex. c. the genital basis of sexuality. d. words that are used to distinguish between men and women. 87. Which of the following is associated with spending long hours in stressful employment for adolescents? a. Jim has experienced better school and work habits. b. Gary has experienced poor academic performance. c. Lucy is benefitting from high self-esteem. d. Gloria is experiencing increased conflict with her parents. 88. Ideals, goals, ideological commitments, roles, and role expectations are all aspects of the a. evaluation b. resolution c. content d. moratorium
of identity.
89. In the model of ethnic group identity described by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue, what is the direction of change? a. From adhering to a dominant culture’s view of your ethnic group without questioning it to understanding this view more fully and accepting it. b. From confusion about conflicting values in the two cultures to a unique synthesis of these values. c. From recognizing the strengths and weaknesses in your cultural group’s values to valuing only the strengths. d. From rejecting the dominant culture's view of your ethnic group to accepting it. 90. Research on ethnic identity as measured by the Multigroup Ethnic Identity Measure (MEIM) has found that a. ethnic identity is negatively associated with self-esteem in later adolescence and adulthood. b. the salience of ethnic identity is the same for those who face discrimination and for those who do not. c. individuals with positive ethnic identity deal more effectively with threatening social situations involving discrimination and stereotyping. d. ethnic identity is stronger in men than women. 91. Of the following four people, who is MOST LIKELY to have the highest median income? a. Jane, who has graduated from high school b. Marcia, with one to three years of college but no degree c. John, who has graduated from high school d. Steven, who does not have a high school diploma 92. Under what conditions are parents most likely to be willing to provide financial support to their child in later adolescence? Page 13
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Chap 10_13e a. When a child is taking a year off from college to decide on a major b. While a child is traveling and exploring new places to start out their adult life c. After a child is married, but still attending college d. While a child is single and attending college 93. In Marcia’s model of identity status, ___________ consists of a period of role experimentation and active decision making among alternative choices. a. crisis b. commitment c. salience d. exploration 94. Which of the following involves the ability to select and guide one’s decisions and actions, without undue control from or dependence on parents? a. Physical separation b. Internalization c. Emotional regulation d. Autonomy 95. According to Gilligan, women’s reasoning about moral situations differs from that of men in which of the following ways? a. Women are more likely to emphasize justice and upholding the law. b. Men are more likely to emphasize the impact of a decision on friends and family. c. Women are more concerned about reward and punishment than men. d. Women are more sensitive than men to the interpersonal context and one’s responsibility for others. 96. Many young people come to college ready to engage in a period of questioning and personal experimentation. They suspend the need to make commitments. This is described as a. negative identity. b. psychosocial moratorium. c. foreclosure. d. androgyny. 97. In a survey of entering college freshmen, which of the following life objectives was more important to women than to men? a. Helping others who are in difficulty b. Keeping up to date with political affairs c. Having administrative responsibilities d. Writing original works 98. If you were a career counselor working with a college student, which of the following suggestions would you be unlikely to give the student? a. Engage in work-related tasks or personal experimentation. b. Avoid being confused by talking to a lot of people. c. Gather information about various careers or fact finding. Page 14
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Chap 10_13e d. Focus on self-evaluation. 99. Gender role preference is based on two main factors: how well one can meet the cultural and social expectations associated with one’s gender; and a. how much flexibility one perceives in the society’s gender-role standards. b. satisfaction with one’s physical appearance. c. how positively one views the social status associated with one’s gender. d. one’s temperament and talents. 100. College students tend to be more a. egalitarian and flexible b. traditional and fused c. satisfied and romantic d. fused and dominating
than the non-college population regarding gender roles.
101. In what way do parents and adolescent children differ in their views about leaving home? a. Adolescent children expect to return home and live with parents after college, but parents do not have this pattern in mind. b. Children say they are ready to live on their own at an earlier age than parents expect. c. Parents expect their children to leave home at a younger age than the children have in mind. d. Parents do not believe that children should leave home except to go to college or marry. 102. In later adolescence, work on identity requires ___________ various sources of content and deciding which elements have the greatest importance. a. compartmentalizing b. rejecting c. integrating d. denying 103. Suppose that you wanted to try to advance a person’s moral reasoning. What would you do? a. Force a person to defend his or her moral judgments to a younger child using all levels of reasoning. b. Engage the person in thought-provoking discussions to present ideas at a higher level than the person is currently using in moral reasoning. c. Present moral arguments that are two or more levels higher than the person’s current level of reasoning. d. There is nothing you can do; moral development depends largely on maturation of the central nervous system. 104. The term public self refers to a. a sense of being the originator of one’s thoughts. b. feeling the same from one moment to the next. c. recognizing the boundaries between oneself and others. d. the expectations others have for one’s role performance. 105. The term goal affordances refers to a. estimates of the costs of achieving a goal. b. the goals viewed as likely to be achieved in certain careers. Page 15
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Chap 10_13e c. the amount of effort needed to reach a goal. d. a measure of male-female differences in the perception of a goal.
106. How does one’s moral identity “mature”? 107. Explain why later adolescents, especially those who attend college, are likely to become more relativistic in their moral reasoning. 108. Discuss the identity statuses that have been identified by research on identity formation. What are the implications of each of the identity statuses for adjustment during adulthood? 109. What roles do femininity, masculinity, and sexual preference play in gender identity? 110. How does a person’s level of autonomy from parents during later adolescence influence the process of identity development? 111. Outline the stages of moral reasoning. How do the various stages affect cognitive development? 112. What role does autonomy play in self-sufficiency? How can it affect or enhance self-advocacy? 113. Explain the process of ethnic identity development. Evaluate the strengths and limitations of this idea. What new research is needed to understand how the college environment influences ethnic identity development? 114. Explain how identity confusion can affect self-esteem, life decisions, and developmental progression. 115. Differentiate between the private and public faces of identity. 116. Differentiate between gender identity and sexual orientation. 117. How can gender-role socialization affect or influence career choice? How does this affect men differently from women? 118. How does autonomy affect the decision to leave home, and how is the college experience influenced or even driven by autonomy? 119. What personal factors can play roles in the decision to drop out of college, and what consequences come with the decision to drop out? 120. Compare the process of identity development for males and females.
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Chap 10_13e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. d Page 17
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Chap 10_13e 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. c 51. a Page 18
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Chap 10_13e 52. c 53. c 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. a Page 19
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Chap 10_13e 77. d 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. c 82. b 83. c 84. d 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. a 94. d 95. d 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. a 100. a 101. b 102. c Page 20
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Chap 10_13e 103. b 104. d 105. b 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 11_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Though uncommon, workplace bullying is a growing concern. a. True b. False 2. Men and women have no difficulty establishing an egalitarian relationship at work. a. True b. False 3. Harvinder and Jasper are feeling pressure to marry because of their cultural expectations. This is called endogamy a. True b. False 4. Stanley and Eunice both have much higher levels of education and income than their neighbors, Lars and Karen. Therefore, Stanley and Eunice are more likely to divorce than Lars and Karen. a. True b. False 5. Perceived discrimination may undermine psychological wellbeing for Sharon, but probably not for Michael. a. True b. False 6. Minority status is associated with many indicators of psychological weakness only for women and men. a. True b. False 7. Cohabitation may be a prelude to marriage or an alternative to marriage. a. True b. False 8. Jamie’s initial impressions in original attraction will be formed carefully over several dates with Keith. a. True b. False 9. Maria and Jose’s conflictual marriage will MOST LIKELY show an increase in marriage satisfaction after the birth of their first child. a. True b. False 10. Because Tammy and Bradley have young children, they are more likely to rate communities with large numbers of older adults more favorably. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 11_13e 11. According to Kram’s model, in the early career phase, a person’s concerns tend to focus on which of the following questions? a. What can I commit myself to outside of my career that will be meaningful? b. How involved and committed to the organization do I want to become? c. What can I commit to if the goal of advancement no longer exists? d. How can I let go of my involvement in the work role? 12. Which of the following statements most accurately describes trends in the age of marriage? a. People are marrying at later ages. b. Men are more likely to marry in the age range 20 to 24 than women. c. Since the 1960s, age at marriage has declined. d. People are marrying at younger ages. 13. Which factor is least likely to influence the original attraction to a partner in Phase I of the mate selection process? a. Opportunity for interactions b. Physical attractiveness c. Valued behaviors d. Role compatibility 14. Why might a relationship break up once it has entered Phase IV, the “right one” relationship, of the mate selection process? a. Friends and family think of the partners as a couple. b. There is no more negative self disclosure. c. The partners are unable to make a commitment to marriage. d. The partners count on one another for mutual support. 15. The central process through which intimacy is acquired is a. early career and childbearing choices. b. peer group identification. c. social support. d. mutuality among peers. 16. Among the Gusii tribe in Kenya, the goal of reproduction is to a. have only daughters. b. remain barren until just before menopause. c. capture the spirit of deceased great grandparents in the newborns. d. have children as frequently as possible. 17. Which of the following is TRUE of Heuveline and Timberlake’s cross-national comparison of cohabitation? a. It found a single type of cohabiting relationship. b. It found similar patterns of cohabitation in most countries. c. It found six types of cohabiting relationships. d. It found that cohabitation was never a stage in the marriage process. 18. In Crouter and Manke’s analysis of dual-earner couples, which lifestyle experienced the greatest amount of Page 2
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Chap 11_13e role overload? a. Low-stress couples b. High-status couples c. Main-secondary couples d. Family devotion couples 19. Exposure to air pollution, contagious diseases, or dangerous chemicals are considered examples of a. work-family conflicts. b. occupational hazards. c. outcomes of work-related burnout. d. side-effects of authority relations with co-workers. 20. Social roles are often associated with other ______ roles, such as parent and child or teacher and student. a. marginal b. transitory c. reciprocal d. childhood 21. Why is the idea of a cohort important in the study of development? a. One’s cohort influences access to distinct resources and exposure to distinct stressors. b. Certain cohorts never achieve formal operational intelligence. c. This is an easy way to determine a group’s average IQ. d. People who grow up in the same period of history share certain common genetic features. 22. How do life roles change in adulthood? a. Adulthood involves multiple roles that are increasingly complex. b. Adulthood is the first time one experiences role conflict. c. Kinship roles begin in adulthood. d. Adults experience role loss but not role gain. 23. Childbearing is considered a developmental task associated with what life stage? a. Later adolescence b. Early adulthood c. Middle adulthood d. Later adulthood 24. Which category is LEAST associated with the feelings of loneliness? a. Transient b. Situational c. Chronic d. Nonverbal 25. In the work trajectory, getting hired, being promoted, and retirement are examples of a. self actualization. Page 3
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Chap 11_13e b. autonomy. c. life course transitions. d. role conflict. 26. Which of the following is most accurate concerning differences in the communication styles of men and women? a. Women value the skills of being a good storyteller. b. Men desire a degree of closeness that is not typically reciprocated by women. c. Women tend to want to talk things out so everyone feels comfortable. d. Men are more comfortable with escalating conflict. 27. White’s term competence motivation refers to a. behaviors motivated by desire to achieve a sense of mastery. b. conflict with radius of significant others. c. motivation to promote equilibrium between work and family. d. early adulthood cohort changes. 28. Wendy belongs to a support group of 100 married women, all who have children under the age of six. Approximately how many of these women are in the labor force? a. 83 b. 62 c. 35 d. 17 29. According to fulfillment theory, psychological growth is accomplished through what mechanism? a. Family trajectory convergence b. Avoidance of risk to promote resiliency c. Setting goals and achieving them d. Cohort involvement 30. Which of the following statements is considered a benefit of a dual-earner marriage? a. Partners share more of the traditionally female household tasks. b. Partners are in greater conflict and develop greater intimacy. c. Partners are more fully integrated into support systems based on multiple roles. d. One partner encourages the other to move often from one city to the next to improve the couple’s employment situation. 31. Michelle graduated from high school last month and is now preparing for her freshmen year in college. Michelle’s preparation for her first year in college is an example of which of the following life course terms? a. Social clock b. Social dimension c. Transition d. Trajectory 32. A consensual union is considered a(n) a. uncommitted relationship. Page 4
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Chap 11_13e b. type of informal marriage. c. self-actualization process. d. original attraction. 33. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of people who have experienced one or more inter-ethnic dating relationships? a. They have an ethnically diverse group of friends. b. Women are more likely to have had interethnic dating relationships than men. c. White students are more likely to have had interethnic dating experiences than students of color. d. Most people, regardless of gender, race or ethnicity, have had an interethnic dating relationship. 34. The degree to which people in a community have a sense of connection, including common values, is referred to as a. population change. b. urbanity. c. social integration d. socioeconomic level. 35. In Phase III of the mate selection process, the discovery of ______ and ______ give the couple a sense that their relationship has a life of its own. a. parental support; basic similarities b. career compatibility; feelings of rapport c. basic differences; sexual preferences d. role compatibility; empathy 36. The first few years of a committed relationship involve a process of a. intersubjectivity. b. intersubjectivity. c. conflict resolution. d. generativity versus stagnation. 37. In Maslow’s theory, __________ is a motive that urges a person to make optimal use of his/her potential to become a more effective, creative participant in daily life. a. effectance b. potentiation c. self-acceptance d. self-actualization 38. What does the term Glick Effect refer to? a. People who drop out of high school or college have higher divorce rates than those who complete high school or college. b. People who attend college for 1-3 years have a lower divorce rate than high school graduates who did not attend college. c. Men with higher income have lower divorce rates. d. Women with higher education, beyond college, have higher divorce rates. Page 5
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Chap 11_13e 39. In the mate selection process, men tend to emphasize _______ while women tend to emphasize _______ in their attraction to a partner. a. sexual moderation; sexual prowess b. social status; physical appearance c. earning potential; sensitivity d. physical appearance; social status 40. The principle of suggests that people are attracted to others who share important areas of similarity. a. homogamy b. endogamy c. self-actualization d. social evolutionary theory 41. The negative pole of the psychosocial crisis of early adulthood is a. integrity. b. intimacy. c. isolation. d. inferiority. 42. The group of people who are roughly the same age during a particular historical period are referred to as a a. clique. b. cohort. c. crowd. d. social role. 43. Which term refers to social consensus about the period of life when one should assume or leave certain roles? a. Norm of reciprocity b. Social clock c. Homogamy d. Self disclosure 44. Which of the following would be considered a developmental task of early adulthood? a. Shayna explores intimate relationships. b. Yohan has established a sense of self. c. Jennifer believes in giving back to future generations. d. David has established a sense of independence. 45. Which factor is LEAST likely to be associated with high levels of satisfaction in marriage? a. Frequent, pleasurable interaction b. High degree of disclosure c. Agreeing not to have conflicts d. High levels of disclosure reciprocity 46. In research comparing gay and lesbian couples, which of the following statements is most accurate? a. Lesbian couples have higher rates of satisfaction. Page 6
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Chap 11_13e b. Gay and lesbian couples have different approaches to conflict resolution. c. Gay couples are more stable. d. Lesbian couples received greater support from their social network. 47. Which behavior would NOT be considered a positive post-divorce coping strategy? a. Becoming involved in new activities b. Gaining new skills c. Reminiscing about the former spouse d. Spending more time with family and friends 48. According to Elder, what are likely to be two central organizing features of Frederica’s life course? a. Trajectories and transitions b. Life span and life expectancy c. Social clock and social alarm d. Ego and pathology 49. Research indicates that in the United States, different social norms for ________ may be operating in the respective ethnic communities. a. reciprocal roles b. role sequencing c. role strain d. bidirectionality 50. In the partner selection process, role compatibility refers to a. finding that the partners have mutually supportive career aspirations. b. a sense that the two partners approach a situation in ways that work well together. c. a sense that the partners have similar expectations for the roles of husband and wife. d. the peer group’s acceptance of the couple. 51. Mutuality in a romantic relationship is associated with which of the following? a. Relational depression b. Sexual vigor c. Relationship satisfaction d. Infatuation 52. Which of the following is most likely to occur after the birth of Liam and Daniela’s first child? a. Their monetary resources will increase. b. They will have greater sexual intimacy. c. They will spend less time in leisure activities for just the two of them. d. They will spend more time in leisure activities for just the two of them. 53. Often, the decision to marry is a response to a. the social clock. b. moral judgments. Page 7
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Chap 11_13e c. fluctuations in self-esteem. d. needs for autonomy. 54. A tenuous personal identity is likely to stand in the way of achieving a. intimacy. b. isolation. c. industry. d. inferiority. 55. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the adjustment process in the early years of marriage? a. Usually, it is the number of demands rather than any single one that makes the adjustment process so difficult. b. The greatest source of tension in the early years of marriage is a result of the testing of the psychological commitment of each of the partners by the other. c. As a result of the blissful nature of the courtship process and good preparation in anticipating problems, adults find that the early years of marriage are relatively stress free. d. Young adults are not able to respond very well to problems because they are less aware of problems in marriage than middle-aged or older married adults. 56. In a study of four decades of trends associated with having children, in the 1980s and 1990s people viewed childbearing a. as more of an obligation than an option. b. as more of an option than an obligation. c. with decreasing value. d. as a moral imperative. 57. Emma has never felt comfortable in close relationships. She tries to develop close relationships, but finds it difficult to trust others. What type of attachment style best describes Emma? a. Secure b. Preoccupied c. Dismissing avoidant d. Fearful avoidant 58. The ability to experience an open, supportive, tender relationship with another person without fear of losing one’s identity is called a. intimacy. b. isolation. c. generativity. d. stagnation. 59. What is the relationship between personal identity and intimacy? a. Couples who worked on identity are more likely to experience high levels of intimacy. b. Intimacy in a relationship is not associated with identity status. c. Intimacy must precede identity for men but not for women. d. Identity resolution must precede intimacy for women but not for men. Page 8
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Chap 11_13e 60. In research that examined adaptation to the transition to parenthood, Belsky and Rovine found that a. marital quality declined for all couples. b. marital quality improved for all couples. c. there were four patterns of change in marital quality. d. the birth did not influence marital quality. 61. Because of the age they both were when they married, Ingrid and Franco are more likely to get divorced than they would have been at any other age. How old were Ingrid and Franco when they married? a. under 20 b. early to mid-20s c. late 20s d. over 30 62. Robert and Nanda are a cohabiting couple that belongs to a social group made up exclusively of other cohabiting couples. Twenty years ago, their group size would have been __________. a. larger b. smaller c. the same size d. unmeasurable 63. In Juana’s society, which would be best described as a collectivist culture, the choice of a marriage partner is more likely _________ than it would be in a culture that is individualistic. a. based on love b. made by family members c. made under the principle of heterogeneity d. made by government officials 64. Which of the following factors appears to play an important role in the mate selection process today as partners determine their similarity? a. Number of siblings b. Health and fitness c. Agreement about the balance of work and family roles d. Role incompatibility 65. The pattern of integration and sequencing of phases of work and family life is called the a. life stage. b. life course. c. functional autonomy of motives. d. tendencies toward growth. 66. For gay and lesbian couples, what is the association between the couples’ satisfaction with each other and the extent to which they are “out” to family members? a. Couples who are “out” are less satisfied with their relationship. b. Couples who are “out” are more satisfied with their relationship. c. Gay couples are less satisfied and lesbian couples are more satisfied when they are “out” to their families. Page 9
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Chap 11_13e d. There is no systematic association between a couple’s satisfaction with their relationship and being “out” to their family members. 67. According to Sternberg, all types of love are a combination of three dimensions: intimacy, commitment, and a. disclosure. b. fascination. c. jealousy. d. passion. 68. Which factor is LEAST likely to be a source of stress associated with divorce? a. Financial loss b. Role loss c. More independence d. Social isolation 69. Work on intimate relationships may be postponed by which of the following? a. Work on group identity b. Cohabitation c. Working class SES d. School enrollment 70. Characteristics of lifestyle are based on the interaction of a. authority relations, contactful communication, and controlling communication. b. intimate relationships, parenting, and career choice. c. concerns about self in early, middle, and late career. d. isolation, marital adjustment, and societal expectations. 71. To whom do gay and lesbian couples most often turn to validate and encourage their relationships? a. Parents b. Siblings c. Extended family members d. Other members of the gay and lesbian community 72. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of chronically lonely people? a. They do not value social relationships. b. They overestimate their popularity. c. They expect social interactions to result in negative outcomes. d. They have unusually high levels of social communication skills. 73. Raymond and Aeysha met for dinner at their favorite restaurant after work. After dating for 4 months, they were discussing childhood memories and family goals. Based on this information, what phase in the mate selection process are they in? a. Phase I b. Phase II c. Phase III Page 10
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Chap 11_13e d. Phase IV 74. The concept of mutuality is central to the resolution of the crisis of early adulthood and a. middle school age. b. middle adulthood. c. early school age. d. infancy. 75. Wilson and Juanita are both employed and have recently married. Based on the text readings about marital adjustment, what assumptions will they need to re-examine? a. The division of labor in the family b. Occupational hazards c. Mutuality in the relationship d. The social clock 76. How do sexual disorders contribute to the psychosocial crisis of isolation? People with sexual disorders have a. no sexual partners. b. no desire for sexual intimacy nor meaningful relationships. c. difficulty integrating sexuality into meaningful, close relationships. d. serious problems in social skills and communication competence. 77. What is the biggest challenge in an individual’s transition from the welfare system? a. Finding a job with a salary that meets basic living expenses b. Being motivated to find a job c. Being willing to take any position that is offered d. All of these 78. Which statement about couples who decide to remain childless is most accurate? a. They are increasingly common in the U.S. and other industrialized nations. b. They have a high need for social support from friends. c. They are more traditional and less flexible than individuals who have children. d. They tend to use the contactful style of interaction more than couples with children. 79. Which of the following best characterizes the core pathology of exclusivity in early adulthood? a. A sign of healthy commitment b. A prerequisite to the achievement of intimacy c. The shutting out of others d. An outcome of the career choice more than relationship choice 80. What does data about divorce suggest? a. That the median length of marriage is 18 years b. That divorce is equally likely throughout the first 15 years of marriage c. That the probability of divorce is highest during the first years of marriage d. That the probability of divorce is lowest between 2 and 4 years after marriage Page 11
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Chap 11_13e 81. Which behavior most determines whether an initial attraction between two people will move into a deeper attraction? a. The couple take a vacation together. b. The couple disclose information about themselves that reveals basic similarities. c. The couple argue over values. d. The couple begin to date other people. 82. According to the metaphor of a three-dimensional space to describe lifestyle, the dimensions of depth stand for ______. a. where a person is on a developmental continuum b. the “busyness” of life c. a congruence with career stages d. a sense of purpose and meaning 83. As a couple, Jorge and Suzanne become very anxious if either one makes an effort to become more independent or express individual opinions. Which term best describes their relationship? a. Disengagement b. Enmeshment c. Mutuality d. Isolation 84. Compared to her heterosexual friends Jenna and Margot, Janice, who is in a lesbian relationship, is more likely to report a. greater satisfaction with her sexual activity. b. greater dissatisfaction with inequalities in the relationship. c. greater satisfaction with their sexual activity and greater dissatisfaction with relationship inequalities. d. none of these. 85. Which of the following best describes voluntarily child-free couples? a. Mostly live in rural areas b. Strong religious affiliation c. Less than four years of college education d. High level of personal autonomy 86. In which cultural group is the principle of endogamy most likely to be encouraged when selecting a marriage partner? a. Irish b. European Americans c. Asian Indians d. French 87. According to research, which couple would BEST be able to maintain their relationship quality in the face of economic distress? a. Kevin and Marcy, who both work b. Fernanda and Richard, who report the greatest satisfaction with their sexual relationship c. Bobby and Ralene, who have supportive family and friends d. Nancy and Paul, who exhibit cooperative, mutually respectful problem-solving strategies Page 12
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Chap 11_13e 88. What is an essential process that promotes growth in Rogers’ theory of personality development? a. Conditional approval b. Being conscientious c. Reliance on the approval of others d. Experiencing and accepting the authentic self 89. Since Freda and Manuel had high levels of conflict before their baby’s birth, what is likely to occur after their baby’s birth? a. The level of conflict is likely to decrease. b. The level of conflict is likely to increase. c. They are likely to get divorced after the baby’s birth. d. They tend to go into marriage counseling. 90. Which of the following statements is one of the results of research by Ryff, Keyes, & Hughes on psychological wellbeing in midlife? a. Minority status is associated with negative outcomes for men and women. b. Perceived discrimination undermines psychological well-being for men. c. Minority status is associated with many indicators of strength for men and women. d. There are no differences in well-being between minority and majority group members. 91. Which factor is most associated with the advancing age of entry into early adulthood? a. Harriet’s young age of entry into marriage b. Stephan’s educational and occupational goals c. Virginia’s relatively young age of parenthood d. Georgia’s varying levels of chronic illnesses 92. According to the model of the partner selection process presented in the text, people move from Phase I, original attraction, to Phase II, deeper attraction as increases. a. parental encouragement b. positive self-disclosure c. identification as a couple d. cohabitation 93. Men who entered fatherhood at a later age (after 30), when compared to young and on-time fathers, were considered a. less involved with their children. b. more critical of their children. c. regretful about having remained childless for so long. d. more involved in parenthood. 94. Although income, occupation, and education are important predictors of divorce, when you ask couples about the major cause for their divorce, they more frequently cite a. alcoholism b. problems in communication. c. infidelity Page 13
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Chap 11_13e d. identity confusion. 95. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following is most likely to be considered Samuel’s first or primary human motive? a. Safety and security b. Physiological needs c. Self-esteem d. Self-actualization 96. The style of interaction in which the probability of a negative remark will be followed by another negative remark as the conversation continues is called a. contactful interaction. b. coercive escalation. c. consensus seeking. d. conventional interaction. 97. What is likely to happen during Juanita’s adulthood with respect to her life roles? a. Her number of roles will decrease. b. Her number of roles will increase. c. Her number of roles will remain constant throughout her adolescence and adulthood. d. Her roles will become less demanding. 98. Which of the following may occur during Phase II of the mate selection process and could lead to termination of the relationship? a. Lack of sexual initiative b. Negative self-disclosure c. Inability to express commitment d. Parental support 99. Of the four types of communication styles, what style do husbands and wives agree is most desirable? a. Controlling b. Conventional c. Speculative d. Contactful 100. Among the factors that contribute to social integration, which one is related to a high divorce rate? a. Low population change b. High religious integration c. Low urbanity d. High population change 101. The tempo of activity, the balance of work and leisure, and the establishment of social relationships are all components of a. lifestyle. b. occupational commitment. Page 14
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Chap 11_13e c. extrinsic rewards. d. authority relations. 102. When workers are organized into teams, ______ . a. a competitive orientation is likely to be fostered b. intergroup relations tend to be trusting c. individual relations tend to be less trusting d. bullying is more likely to occur 103. The advantages of the dual-earner, multiple-role lifestyle can be offset when one or both partners experience a. role overload. b. role enactment. c. ambivalence. d. role stagnation. 104. Moderate to strong feelings of attachment to a former spouse following divorce is a. experienced by less than 10% of divorced adults. b. linked to greater difficulties in adjusting to divorce c. an important part of coping effectively with divorce. d. experienced primarily by those who initiated the request for the divorce. 105. In adulthood, one’s beliefs and goals guide the nature of one’s actions. Then actions create a context for the revision of one’s goals. This process illustrates which of the following ideas? a. Humanizing of values b. Role overload c. The social clock d. The bidirectional nature of development
106. Differentiate between two-income and one-income married couples. What implications come with having a twoincome household? Similarly, what implications come with having a single-income household? How does bringing children into the mix affect both? 107. Discuss reasons why relationships may break up during different phases of the mate selection process. 108. Discuss the impact of demands from the workplace on the achievement of a sense of intimacy in early adulthood. 109. Discuss the factors that contribute to the high rate of divorce in the United States. Why are married couples in the United States so much more likely to divorce than married couples in other cultures? What significant steps to married couples who do not divorce take in order to keep their marriages strong? 110. Discuss the concept of intimacy. Why is it important in development? What skills may result from achieving intimacy? What are the difficulties in achieving a sense of intimacy? What effect may one’s resolution of the crisis of intimacy versus isolation have on later development? 111. From a psychosocial perspective, what are the factors that may contribute to the high divorce rate for couples who Page 15
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Chap 11_13e marry before age 20? 112. Discuss the roles that trajectories and transitions play in the life course. In what ways does the social clock act as both a prod and a brake on behavior? 113. Explain how the decision not to have children affects couples. What social implications does this decision bring with it? How does the social impact differ among different cultures? 114. Describe the importance of social roles in understanding adulthood. In what ways can social roles link individuals to their social environments? 115. What challenges do couples face in striving for the “perfect” work/life balance? Discuss the role that careers and childbearing play in this balance. 116. Describe how isolation, loneliness, and depression in early adulthood can each affect one’s decisions about becoming part of a couple, marriage, and childbearing. 117. In what ways does the “pace of life” affect marriages and relationships? How is the pace of life affected by climate? By community? 118. Discuss how decisions about childbearing impact relationships and marriages. How does the timing of entry into parenthood affect marriages and relationships differently? 119. Discuss the challenges and benefits of the dual-earner marriage and consider the impact of these challenges and benefits for marital stability. 120. What are the cognitive and affective components of an intimate relationship, and how do these affect a couple’s intimacy?
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Chap 11_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. c 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. c Page 17
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Chap 11_13e 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. c 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. b 51. c Page 18
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Chap 11_13e 52. c 53. a 54. a 55. a 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. d 68. c 69. d 70. b 71. d 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. c Page 19
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Chap 11_13e 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. c 81. b 82. d 83. b 84. c 85. d 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. b 95. b 96. b 97. b 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. a 102. a Page 20
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Chap 11_13e 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 12_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. A happy intimate relationship is less important than satisfaction at work for well-being in adulthood. a. True b. False 2. In 1964, the Civil Rights Act made it illegal to refuse to hire a person based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. a. True b. False 3. Because Raul’s family is one in which several cultural backgrounds are represented in a harmonious setting, Raul’s family is a blended family. a. True b. False 4. Maxine and Patricia tend to have a greater sense of obligation to their aging parents, Sasha and Peter, than Sasha and Peter expect. a. True b. False 5. Rejectivity can come about through caring strongly for certain people or ideas. a. True b. False 6. Because Charlie is a man, he is among the fastest growing group of new employees. a. True b. False 7. Yolanda and Leon generate activities related to their grandchildren. This is a representation of grand-generativity. a. True b. False 8. Because Juanita puts equal emphasis and priority on her work and her personal life, she is considered to be dualcentric. a. True b. False 9. Although there has been a reduction in John’s sperm count with aging, he will most likely remain fertile well into very old age. a. True b. False 10. Pablo’s problems with interpersonal coworker relationships can have a negative impact on his coworkers in the workplace as well as on the image of the organization he works for. a. True Page 1
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Chap 12_13e b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. As leader of the neighborhood crime watch committee, Theo is describing what he hopes the neighborhood will be like after the committee is functioning for the coming year or two. What leadership assumption does this best exemplify? a. Leadership is a relationship among people. b. Leadership is directly related to the complexity of tasks. c. Leaders have an impact on the achievement of goals. d. Leaders provide a sense of vision and direction. 12. Management of the household is similar to the workplace in that it requires a. paid work. b. leadership skills. c. adults and children. d. paid vacations. 13. Authority relations refer to a. meeting new skill demands in the workplace. b. a stagnated relationship with an intimate partner. c. the hierarchical structure which involves supervision and control. d. a psychosocial crisis in middle adulthood. 14. Stephanie’s parents’ involvement with which of the following is MOST LIKELY to have an important impact on her academic success during her early and middle childhood? a. Politics b. Her educational system c. Health and fitness d. Career management 15. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of generative concern? a. Goals to be successful and make a name for yourself b. Actions that involve creating, maintaining, or caring c. Recollections of one’s good deeds d. A sense that one is making a positive difference in the lives of others 16. In blended families with children, adult parents try to create ___________ that will allow extended family members to support the family, and still protect the family from unwanted intrusions and pressures from competing loyalties. a. boundaries b. contracts c. obligations d. obstacles 17. Which term refers to the ability to bring positive energy from work to family life and vice versa? a. Work-family facilitation Page 2
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Chap 12_13e b. Synergistic ergonomics c. Cross pollination d. Family energies 18. Which aspect of career management refers to such behaviors as working effectively in a group, influencing coworkers, communicating with clients or customers, and comparing oneself to others? a. Authority relations b. Evaluation c. Interpersonal skills d. Skill demands 19. Which of the following statements best describes caring for one’s aging parents? a. It is increasingly likely that many midlife adults will need to meet the needs of their aging parents. b. The older population is decreasing so midlife adults are less likely to provide care for aging parents. c. Midlife adults are not confronted with caring for aging parents because they are still likely to have children at home. d. Aging parents are entirely self-sufficient and do not need care as they age. 20. What is the risk associated with creative action? a. The action is new. b. The action may fail. c. The action opens doors to new possibilities. d. The action contributes to a new sense of meaning. 21. The pressure on adults to be committed to improving the life conditions of future generations is expressed as the psychosocial crisis of a. intimacy versus isolation. b. integrity versus despair. c. generativity versus stagnation. d. immortality versus extinction. 22. What is likely to be the impact on Carl’s family members when he experiences negative work-related stressors? a. It will create a closer bond between him and his children. b. It will create a closer bond between his children and their mother. c. It will prevent him from using effective parenting strategies with his children. d. It will increase his wife’s sense of overload. 23. Effective leaders in the workplace should a. balance self-interest with the good of the group. b. work only for their self-interest. c. ignore the dynamics among group members. d. create a rigid, hierarchical leadership structure. 24. Dakota was named New Sales Associate of the Year and will be presented with an award next Friday night at the mandatory awards banquet. She has worked hard for the award and wants the raise associated with her sales production, Page 3
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Chap 12_13e but is frustrated about the date and time of the awards banquet as it is the same as the high school football game opener in which her children participate in the band and on the team. This is an example of a. spillover from work and family roles. b. role overload. c. complementary roles. d. role conflict. 25. Paige and Mario were recently married and are trying to deal with the various obligations of her family and his family without being insulting. Paige and Alex are aware of the __________ involved in building relationships with their extended families. a. generativity b. Household decision making c. family politics d. time management 26. Which of the following statements best reflects the product of creative problem solving? a. A sense of stagnation is obtained. b. The social environment may be reshaped to meet personal needs. c. Creativity is stagnated. d. Person-environment interaction becomes isolated. 27. Juanita is considered to have intellectual flexibility. Because of this, she is likely to be able to a. carry out only one task at a time. b. be a supportive supervisor. c. see a problem from one rather than several perspectives simultaneously. d. consider conflicting information on a topic. 28. There are two aspects of the central process that lead to the development of generativity. The first is personenvironment interaction. The second is a. building coalitions. b. creativity. c. narcissistic behaviors. d. presence of children. 29. The core pathology associated with Miguel’s achievement of stagnation is shown in his a. inferiority. b. mistrust. c. rejectivity. d. dominance. 30. Jackie spent most of her time and energy shopping for various clothes and decorations for her home. She had numerous parties in order to show off her possessions and to increase her visibility in various social circles. Which of the following best describes Jackie? a. Depressed b. Narcissistic Page 4
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Chap 12_13e c. Generative d. Creative 31. Adolescent children often challenge their parents’ a. marriage. b. ancestry. c. ethnic identity. d. authority. 32. What is meant by the description of the United States as an achieving society? a. The United States has a high proportion of individuals who achieve generativity. b. The United States has a high proportion of individuals who achieve stagnation. c. The United States values individual achievement, especially in the work place. d. The United States values families and wants them to achieve in the work place. 33. For most adults who become grandparents, grandchildren symbolize a. the continuity of their lives into the future. b. the lost opportunities of their youth. c. the struggle for economic self-sufficiency. d. a sense of industry. 34. Which of the following is usually found in a long-lasting, happy marriage? a. The partners sacrifice individuality for the sake of being a strong couple. b. The partners never disagree. c. The partners find pleasure and comfort in each other’s company. d. The partners avoid situations that may require change in their relationship. 35. The desire to have a positive impact on the world is referred to as a. an inability to care for non-family members. b. belief in one’s ability to be generative. c. subjective sense of accomplishment of generativity. d. generative motivation. 36. Which of the following best describes the current views on the most important component of effective leadership? a. A prime adaptive ego quality b. Social integration related to authority recognition c. A component of personality development d. A relationship among people 37. Which group had the lowest unemployment rate in 2012? a. African Americans with less than high school education level b. European Americans with a college graduation c. Hispanic/Latino with some college experience but no degree d. Asian Americans with high school graduation Page 5
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Chap 12_13e 38. When a person is unsuccessful in the world of work, explanations typically focus on which of the following? a. Personality attributes such as lack of motivation b. Family factors, liked being married or single c. Unfortunate circumstances d. Discrimination in the workplace 39. Parents of adolescent children must learn to balance freedom, emotional support, and __________ in order to promote their adolescent child’s optimal development. a. limit-setting b. positive regard c. time on task d. detachment 40. Who, among the following, is most likely to live alone? a. Jana, who has a problem family b. Wilson, who is from a low-income family c. Jenna, who is over age 45 d. Mark, who is over age 45 41. How is menopause related to culture? a. Hot flashes are considered sexually alluring in some cultures. b. Menopause is associated with illness and depression in all cultures. c. In cultures that admire older women, the symptoms of menopause are less severe. d. Menopause is culturally determined. In some societies, women continue to be fertile into their 80s. 42. In the case of Annette and Gary, what is the challenge the couple faces in trying to preserve a vital marriage? a. Neither Annette nor Gary wants to change. b. Annette wants to achieve a new level of competence in work, but her husband and children do not want her to change. c. Gary and the children want to have more independence and self-sufficiency, but Annette does not want to give up her caregiving role. d. Gary and Annette are experiencing escalating levels of hostility and disenchantment with their relationship. 43. Which of the following scenarios BEST represents the greatest source of stress for single-mother families? a. The daily social activities of Sherry’s children b. Gilda’s feelings of closeness to her children c. Brenda’s attachment to her former spouse d. Andrea’s lack of financial resources 44. In comparison to workers in Western European countries, U.S. workers a. have a more powerful labor union structure. b. work 250 hours longer per year. c. work fewer hours. d. are more cooperative. Page 6
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Chap 12_13e 45. Which of the following might make it difficult to make a midlife career change? a. Knowing you have gone as far as possible in the current career b. Wanting to return to one’s career after a period of being the primary parent and homemaker c. Fearing the possibility of disappointing important loved ones by failing in the new career d. Being fired from one’s current job 46. Vital, harmonious couples are able to affirm each other's concerns because they have a. an effective communication system. b. been married a long time. c. no conflicts or major arguments. d. not changed developmentally since they were married. 47. During early and middle childhood, parents a. act as educators and gatekeepers. b. anticipate regression to earlier developmental stages. c. criticize work in order to manage the household. d. are not viewed as a resource to their children. 48. The Fulmer Corporation prides itself on having a diverse workforce. However, the majority of the non-white employees work in the Human Resources department, not in development, research, or marketing. This is an example of a. racial segmentation. b. fair business practices. c. affirmative action. d. cultural competence. 49. Based on studies of intergenerational families, which of the following scenarios is the most likely type of economic transfer of resources? a. Adult children Tom and Betty give more money to their aging parents than they receive from them. b. Aging parents Thor and Sheila live in their child’s home and pay rent. c. Aging parents Daniel and Tina pay interest free loans on money they borrow from their children. d. Adult children Gilbert and Rual receive more money from their aging parents than they give. 50. The combination of extensive knowledge required for the work and experience with a variety of problem-solving strategies gives middle adults an advantage with respect to a. managerial resourcefulness. b. self-sufficiency. c. getting away with spending less hours at the office. d. getting the shift or vacation schedule they request. 51. Who, among the following single-mother families, is considered one of the fastest growing subgroups? a. Sherry, a low-income woman who has never been married b. Susan, a low-income woman who is divorced c. Tracey, a high-income woman who is divorced d. Teresa, a high-income woman who has never been married Page 7
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Chap 12_13e 52. What is the childhood basis of adult creativity? a. Games with rules b. Social attachment c. Categorization skills d. Representational thought 53. The ability to enact the grandparent role is mediated by which of the following? a. The grandparent’s filial obligation b. The grandparent’s mother and father c. The relationship a grandparent has with his or her adult children d. The grandparent’s ability to communicate using nonverbal expressions and gestures 54. In an international comparison, which of the following was related to less family-work conflict across all 48 countries that were studied? a. Responsibility for children b. Responsibility for elders c. Marriage d. Job responsibility 55. When adult children leave home, what is most likely to happen to the parents' relationship with each other? a. The parents tend to drift apart emotionally. b. If the parents’ marriage was satisfactory before the children left, the couple grows closer emotionally after the children leave. c. Parents experience new levels of stress and conflict once the children leave home. d. The parents’ relationship does not change. 56. In middle adulthood, the ego strength of ___________ leads to having the welfare of people and enduring things (including ideas) deeply at heart. a. will b. care c. persistence d. confidence 57. In happily married couples, the two people a. are exclusively dependent upon each other. b. are very different from each other. c. tend to be passionate. d. are basically even-tempered and warm hearted. 58. Some single parents experience a. poverty b. kin support c. role overload d. role compatibility
as a result of trying to juggle too many roles and expectations.
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Chap 12_13e 59. Which of the following contributes to greater job satisfaction? a. Job flexibility b. Marital flexibility c. Dual earners in the same field d. Job travel 60. Who, among the following, is most likely to purchase services for household tasks? a. Harriet, a single parent of two children b. Franco and Justine, a traditional two-parent family c. Rachel and Stephan, a dual-earner couple d. Gilbert, Laurie, Priscilla, and Nick, an extended family household 61. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between work and an individual in middle adulthood? a. There is reciprocity between work and individual development. b. Work plays a minor role in terms of psychosocial development. c. No relationship exists between work and individual development. d. Psychosocial development influences work, but work does not influence psychosocial development. 62. What is one lesson to be learned from the case of Lois Lyles and her mother? a. Caregiving is reciprocal; costs and rewards flow in both directions. b. Caregiving is unidirectional; rewards flow only to the person being cared for. c. The person receiving care can lose her independence by becoming bound to the caregiver. d. Caregiving can be a totally draining experience for the caregiver. 63. If a wife receives encouragement and support from her husband for participating in the paid labor market, then the couple is more likely to experience a. dyadic adaptation. b. marital satisfaction. c. enmeshment. d. internal competition. 64. Based on the case study of Lourie Campos, what was one outcome of her participation in the Women’s Health Leadership program that illustrates the concept of generativity? a. She became an advocate for other women and for herself. b. She spent more time at work. c. She changed jobs. d. She took fewer risks. 65. Jan’s willingness to abandon her old forms or old patterns of doing her job and caring for her children in favor of new ways to balance work and childcare is referred to as a. social integration. b. narcissism. c. stagnation. d. creativity. Page 9
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Chap 12_13e 66. In a study of elderly parents and their adult children, which of the following was something parents and children agreed was part of filial obligation? a. Helping elderly parents understand community and agency resources b. Living near the elderly parents c. Writing to elderly parents at least once per week d. Leaving work to help an elderly parent 67. Harvey and Frederica are a dual-career couple. Their marital satisfaction is most likely maintained when a. Frederica experiences spillover. b. Harvey is insensitive to Frederica’s work and family roles. c. Harvey supports Frederica’s involvement in work roles. d. both Harvey and Frederica’s gender roles are rigid and traditional. 68. Of the following, who is most likely to be distressed by family-work conflict? a. Mora and Frank, grandparents b. Harry, a husband c. Gladis, a wife d. Zoey and Charlie, children 69. Who is MOST LIKELY to provide care for an aging parent/grandparent? a. Xavier, a grandson b. Malcolm, a son who doesn’t work c. Ursula, a daughter d. Maggie, a granddaughter 70. Melinda and Mike were interviewed for a study on generativity. They emphasized their involvement as volunteers for a local senior citizen center. This represents an aspect of generativity called generative: a. actions. b. goals. c. ideology. d. recollections. 71. There are two aspects of establishing relationships with other social structures. One is protecting the family from excessive external demands. What is the other? a. Going to work regularly b. Setting long-term household goals c. Recycling resources d. Preserving valuable external relationships 72. What is the potential impact on society of workplace discrimination? a. It offers good jobs to those who are best trained. b. It provides incentives to those who are willing to commit to education and training. c. It fosters the growth of human capital. d. It creates societal stagnation. Page 10
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Chap 12_13e 73. The prime adaptive ego quality associated with the achievement of generativity is BEST exemplified by a. Bill’s care for his children. b. Evan’s will to succeed at work. c. Jean’s confidence in her new position. d. Juan’s unconditional fidelity. 74. What role does conflict likely play in a David and Tara’s vital marriage? a. David and Tara do not experience conflict. b. David and Tara can always resolve the conflict. c. Disagreements in David and Tara’s marriage are avoided at all costs. d. David and Tara disagree, but positive statements outnumber negative statements in their interactions. 75. Which historical trend has been noted with respect to performing household tasks? a. Men spend more time on housework than women. b. The differences in the amount of time men and women spend on household tasks have been increasing. c. Less time is devoted to childcare today than in the past. d. Less time is devoted to household tasks today than in the past. 76. Settings may shape a person’s behavior, and people may alter the setting in which they participate. This is the meaning of a. immortality versus extinction. b. generativity versus stagnation. c. person-environment interaction. d. role overload. 77. As he observed interactions among married couples while they discussed a difficult issue, Gottman found that couples in long-enduring, satisfying relationships a. had five negative statements to one positive statement. b. had an equal number of positive and negative statements. c. had five positive statements to one negative statement. d. did not have any conflicts. 78. Sisters Karen and Jennifer both feel a strong sense of responsibility to care for their aging parents. This is called a. social isolation. b. filial obligation. c. stagnation. d. guilt. 79. Which term refers to the negative pole of the psychosocial crisis in middle adulthood, characterized by a focus on oneself, one's needs, and one's problems? a. Role confusion b. Isolation c. Stagnation d. Inferiority Page 11
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Chap 12_13e 80. What does Erikson mean by grand-generativity? a. Accepting care from others in a generous way that enhances their feelings of generativity b. Enhancing the quality of life for future generations c. Making an impact at a large, societal, or cultural level d. Being overly generative 81. In an international study of IBM workers in 48 countries, work was consistently more likely to create life than family life was to in work. a. good communication; facilitate productivity b. satisfaction; create satisfaction c. harmony; be disruptive d. conflict; be disruptive
in family
82. Pat is among the fastest growing segment of the homeless population. Which of the following is true of Pat? a. Pat’s family includes children. b. Pat is a single woman. c. Pat is a single man. d. Pat is married without children. 83. Which of the following reflects the substantive complexity of a job? a. Exposure to physical and emotional hazards b. On-the-job training c. Repetitive technical skills d. Independent judgment and decision making 84. The physical symptoms associated with the climacteric among women are most likely due to which of the following? a. A rapid decline in estrogen production b. The number of children she has c. Malnutrition d. A change in lifestyle after children leave home 85. The term managerial resourcefulness refers to a. a teamwork approach. b. a problem-solving process. c. the substantive nature of a job description. d. the reliance on previous solutions for new and different problems. 86. Which of the following is the best definition of a household? a. All the people who live in one housing unit b. All people who are related by birth, marriage, or adoption c. Two or more people related by birth, marriage, or adoption who live in one housing unit d. The style of life created by the people who live in a household 87. How is the nature of the workplace predicted to change over the coming 20 years? Page 12
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Chap 12_13e a. To a more centralized, hierarchical model b. To a more decentralized, fee-for-service model c. To a more caring, humanistic model d. To a more secure, job-for-life model 88. Which factor is least likely to contribute to the poverty of single-mother families? a. Cecile’s child care requires that she work fewer hours. b. Robin has a lower earning capacity, as a woman. c. Michelle receives child support each month. d. The expenses of raising her children are great for Yolanda. 89. People who distill complex ideas into a simple message and link their message to experiences that are personally relevant to their followers are a. using upward comparison. b. charismatic leaders. c. using downward comparison. d. exercising their authority. 90. Which of the following statements best describes the impact of joblessness for men? a. Joblessness allows a man to increase his capacity to be generative. b. Joblessness can decrease a man’s ability to achieve generativity. c. When unemployed, a man’s family plays little role in his mental state. d. Job loss for men is associated with hopefulness about the future. 91. Which of the following statements is most accurate? a. The household system can provide an environment that facilitates development and mental health. b. Household maintenance is relatively easy and does not take much time. c. The value of the accomplishments of management of the household is well defined in monetary terms. d. Recent trends indicate an increase in time spent on household tasks. 92. The development and understanding of how the structures of other organizations affect one’s life and the lives of other family members is a. not very important to most families. b. a new type of learning that is difficult and occurs during middle adulthood. c. accomplished relatively easily by most families. d. usually done by the male head of the household in most families. 93. Which of the following terms refers to setting priorities, planning, problem solving, managing resources, decisionmaking, and other activities adults carry out in order to take care of themselves and others who are entrusted to their care? a. Meditation skills b. Management of the household c. Housekeeping d. Positive maintenance 94. The strains of middle adulthood result largely from Page 13
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Chap 12_13e a. work on identity formation. b. efforts to complete an education. c. trying to balance many demanding roles. d. trying to diet and quit smoking. 95. Because Jamison’s engineering job is one that can be described as substantively complex, Jamison will likely develop new levels of a. intellectual flexibility. b. competitiveness. c. role conflict. d. task completion. 96. Which of the following changes in sexual responsiveness is likely to occur for 45-year-old married couple David and Darlene? a. Certain diseases and medications may interfere with David’s ability to have an erection. b. Orgasm is no longer pleasurable for either David or Darlene. c. After menopause, Darlene can no longer have sexual intercourse. d. David can no longer produce sperm. 97. Which of the following is least likely to be a consequence of unemployment in middle adulthood? a. Increases in marital conflict b. Self-doubt c. Depression d. Role overload 98. The involution and atrophy of the female’s reproductive organs is called a. the launching period. b. a threshold. c. attachment. d. climacteric. 99. Dissatisfied couples experience which of the following communication problems? a. They avoid problems. b. They avoid problems and counterattack. c. They use irony. d. They counterattack. 100. Which term refers to the capacity of spouses to acknowledge, respect, and value each other’s parenting roles and tasks? a. Filial obligation b. Co-parenting agreement c. Parenting alliance d. Managerial resourcefulness 101. After adult children leave home, parents Page 14
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Chap 12_13e a. usually disassociate themselves from the identities of their children. b. whose relationships had been satisfactory before their adult children left home tend to develop less cohesive and affectionate relationships after they leave home. c. no longer have to perform parenting functions. d. begin to find new areas for the energy and commitment that was directed toward their adult children who lived in their home. 102. In an international comparison, which characteristics of a job consistently produced work-family conflict? a. Job responsibility b. Salary c. Friendship with co-workers d. Commute 103. In managing the household, adults build coalitions and determine the family’s position in terms of other a. social groups. b. nuclear family members. c. global positioning. d. cultural identities. 104. In family development theory, the progression of stages or phases of family development are linked to a. the age of the parents. b. changes in developmental level of children in the family. c. the number of years the parents have been married. d. the number of children in a family. 105. Which of the following is considered an example of a societal factor that contributes to homelessness in families with young children? a. Age of the children b. Shortages in low-income and public assistance housing c. The mother’s sense of optimism d. The mother’s capacity to cope with stress
106. How can generativity be measured? What are the potential purposes for taking this measurement? 107. Some people argue that management of the household is not really an important force in adult psychological development because it requires mostly mundane skills and there is little demand for high level intellectual functioning. How would you evaluate this point of view? Support your answer focusing on the developmental stage of middle adulthood. 108. Discuss the competing demands of work and family life in middle adulthood. What are some factors that reduce the potential conflicts between these two critical domains? What is the impact on men? On women? 109. What are some of the advantages to working in teams as opposed to working individually? What role, if any, does social comparison play in this? Page 15
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Chap 12_13e 110. Define the concept of generativity. How is the crisis of generativity versus stagnation related to the evolution of society? 111. What is filial obligation? How has this changed among adults over the past half century? What are today’s pressures felt by those who feel filial obligation? 112. Discuss the various types of discrimination that exist in the workplace. Differentiate between them. How has discrimination in the workplace changed over the years? 113. How does parenthood compare to grandparenthood? Discuss the similarities and difference between the two. 114. What are some of the ways that couples successfully preserve passion in a long-term relationship? Discuss the roles that decreases in sexual responsiveness, prostate gland issues, and reductions in estrogen play. 115. What are some of the essential components to a vital, intimate relationship? What partner characteristics are essential to achieve this? 116. In what ways does the building of networks and coalitions help in managing the household? How has this role changed and been enhanced over the years leading up to what it is today? 117. Compare and contrast the caring roles of an adult child caring for elderly parents and a parent caring for children. What are the similarities? What are the differences? How does each affect the caregiver’s other life relationships? 118. Discuss the ways in which discrimination is perpetuated and how people can cope effectively with discrimination. 119. Discuss three developmental stages of families: the years when children are in early and middle childhood, the years when children are adolescents, and the years when children are adults. How are each of these stages different? How are they the same? 120. Explain the idea of reciprocity between work experiences and individual growth in middle adulthood. Give specific examples.
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Chap 12_13e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. d 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. c Page 17
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Chap 12_13e 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. a Page 18
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Chap 12_13e 52. d 53. c 54. c 55. b 56. b 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. a 71. d 72. d 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. c Page 19
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Chap 12_13e 77. c 78. b 79. c 80. a 81. d 82. a 83. d 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. b 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. a 96. a 97. d 98. d 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. a Page 20
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Chap 12_13e 103. a 104. b 105. b 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 13_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Because 73-year-old Lars has some regrets about his life, he will be unable to resolve the psychosocial crisis with integrity. a. True b. False 2. Older adults continue to formulate personal life goals and assess life satisfaction on how well they are able to achieve those goals. a. True b. False 3. In the U-shaped curve of well-being, 70-year-old Darlene is most likely at the low point. a. True b. False 4. According to Rosnick’s research, Quinten’s illness will most likely affect his higher order aspects of memory, particularly the recall of past life a. True b. False 5. Even if Valerie and Steve achieve a positive resolution to the psychosocial crisis of generativity vs. stagnation, it will likely contribute very little to their reduction of death anxiety. a. True b. False 6. After retirement, most retirees realize they should have spent more time on financial planning rather than focusing on the psychosocial aspects of planning retirement. a. True b. False 7. Changes in work status, such as retirement, affect marital relationships. a. True b. False 8. Through their five grandchildren, grandparents Jennifer and Troy will likely avoid a sense of alienation from the contemporary world. a. True b. False 9. Results of cognitive aging research may contain serious confounding variables for both cross-sectional and longitudinal methods. a. True b. False 10. Many grandparents who support their grandchildren cannot access social and financial resources since they are not legal guardians. Page 1
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Chap 13_13e a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Which of the following statements about grandparenthood is most accurate? a. Spending time with grandchildren forces older adults to live in the past. b. Grandchildren are an older adult's link to the future. c. Most adults are alienated from their grandchildren. d. Grandchildren resent the idea that the grandparents are replacing their parents. 12. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship of life goals and satisfaction in later adulthood? a. Older adults continue to set goals and evaluate their satisfaction level. b. Older adults stop setting goals as they near the end of their life. c. Older adults tend to set goals, but not assess their degree of satisfaction. d. Older adults evaluate the degree of life satisfaction without setting goals. 13. Caramia’s ability to experience a sense of well-being and acceptance of her life is most associated with her a. socioeconomic status. b. ethnicity. c. gender. d. physical health. 14. How does postformal thought differ from formal operational thought? a. Postformal thought seeks solutions that conform to the highest level of logic and theory. b. Postformal thought involves problems with only two variables. c. Postformal thought is less flexible. d. Postformal thought involves the integration of cognition and emotion. 15. Bengston’s longitudinal study of three-generational families would be BEST summarized as a focus on the construct of: a. transition to widowhood. b. surrogate parenting. c. intergenerational solidarity. d. reminiscence. 16. Margot’s capacity to encode and retrieve five to nine bits of information in the span of a minute or two is referred to as ________ memory. a. short-term b. episodic c. long-term d. semantic 17. What is the meaning of disdain? a. Becoming less critical of others and regarding them highly Page 2
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Chap 13_13e b. Rejecting ideas and persons with an arrogance regarding one’s own views c. Expressing insecure attachment toward family and friends d. Lacking wisdom in one's social environment 18. Roberta’s job requires her to take in and process visual, auditory, tactile, and olfactory information. Which of the following is the neurological processing activity that is required for Roberta to effectively do her job? a. Semantic memory b. Episodic memory c. Sensory register d. Short-term memory 19. What is likely to occur for 60-year-old Robert, now that he has just become a widow? a. He is likely to remarry. b. He is likely to die within the next 6 months. c. He is likely to start a new business. d. He is likely to begin an exercise program. 20. In psychosocial theory, the ability to accept the facts of one's life and to face death without great fear is called a. despair. b. industry. c. integrity. d. achievement. 21. When looking at the future of retirement, which factor challenges the concept of an individual’s right to retire? a. As the healthy adult years expand, people can't support 20 or more years of retirement on 40 years of employment. b. More and more professionals want to retire early. c. People who make midlife career changes want to retire early. d. Many people look forward to retirement as a time when they can direct their energy to activities they enjoy more than work. 22. __________ is an important activity for many older adults and provides opportunities to assume new responsibilities and learn new skills. a. Fluid intelligence development b. Volunteerism c. Narrative method to construct memories d. Crystallized intelligence development 23. Which of the following terms refer to the negative attitudes of others toward older adults, which may contribute to experiences of despair in later adulthood? a. Ageism b. Sexism c. Homophobia d. Anti-Semitism Page 3
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Chap 13_13e 24. In order to achieve a sense of integrity, an individual must engage in a deliberate process of personal reflection and self-evaluation, which occurs through a. mutuality. b. education. c. introspection. d. identification. 25. Teka was nearing the end of her life. She felt a deep sense of regret about some opportunities and paths she chose not to take. She was angry at the way her family treated her. What state best describes Teka? a. Despair b. Isolation c. Inferiority d. Mistrust 26. By selecting an enjoyable set of leisure activities and deciding for himself the age at which he will retire, Phil is exerting a sense of _______ that contributes to his life satisfaction. a. authority b. control c. impulsiveness d. disengagement 27. According to Tucker-Drobb’s research, in which ability will Lenny experience the least decline as he continues to age into his seventies? a. Comprehension knowledge b. Processing speed c. Visual-spatial thinking d. Long-term retrieval 28. Which of the following statements best describes the role of memory in later life? a. There is no role for memory in later life because older adults have limited memory. b. There is wide variability in memory creating much change in memory throughout a person’s life. c. Measures of memory suggest more stability than change throughout a person’s life. d. Measures of memory are only reliable during adolescence making it difficult to examine memory in later life. 29. Which dimension is LEAST thought to promote wisdom? a. Opportunity to experience a variety of life events and circumstances b. A belief that one’s own opinions are superior to the opinions of others c. Encouragement to expand one’s capacity to think about problems contextually d. A strong generative orientation 30. Which of the following is TRUE of the SOC model? a. It refers to selection, optimization, and compensation. b. It is a type of intellectual vigor exercise similar to crossword puzzles. c. It represents social, optimal, and control personality types. d. It is a sense of extinction and wanting for a sense of immortality. Page 4
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Chap 13_13e 31. Promoting intellectual vigor is considered an important developmental task of later adulthood because a. intellectual vigor influences the capacity for introspection and adaptation to change. b. most older adults have dementia. c. Most older adults have a neurotic personality and lose intellectual capacities. d. intellectual vigor leads to acceptance of one’s life. 32. According to Erikson, the term wisdom refers to a. an inability to resolve past events and to acknowledge the despair about these events b. the positive resolutions of all previous psychosocial crises. c. an arrogance that one’s opinion about life and death is superior to others’ opinions. d. a desire to learn and communicate essential lessons about life in the face of death. 33. In terms of psychosocial development, ego concerns about death should a. increase b. fluctuate c. stay the same d. decrease
in later adulthood.
34. Which of the following statements most accurately describes widowers? a. Widowers exhibit less emotional attachment to their former spouses than widows. b. Widowers tend to have higher mortality rates than men who are still married. c. Widowers experience financial difficulties. d. Widowers’ fluid memory decreases drastically. 35. Research using a narrative method suggests that people ________ memories to make sense of their past. a. embellish b. construct c. generate d. suppress 36. Which of the following statements best describes the danger of excessive reminiscence? a. The person is able to bring closure to a painful memory. b. The person begins to achieve distance from a past event. c. The past becomes more of a focus of attention than the present. d. The present becomes more dominant in one's thoughts than the future. 37. Which of the following places Stanley at a greater risk for heart disease than his wife, Gertrude? a. Stanley is more likely to be aware of his body and detect illnesses more quickly than Gertrude. b. Stanley is likely to go to the doctor for regular checkups less often than Gertrude. c. Stanley is more likely to eat more fruits and vegetables than Gertrude. d. Stanley is likely to eat less meat and fatty foods than Gertrude. 38. Which of the following family life situations is most likely to increase the direct involvement of grandparents in the care and supervision of grandchildren? Page 5
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Chap 13_13e a. Maternal employment b. Paternal employment c. Moving to a new town d. Widowhood 39. A common model of memory functions breaks memory into which of the following forms? a. Sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory b. Short-term, long-term, and intermediate-term memory c. Sensory register, tactile deficit memory, and crystallized intelligence d. Episodic memory, sensory register, and long-term memory 40. Which factor is LEAST correlated with Henry’s high levels of cognitive functioning as he enters into his seventies? a. His being an only child b. His wife’s high cognitive functioning c. His flexible personality style at midlife d. The absence of cardiovascular disease 41. Marsha’s memory, her reasoning and information processing, and her problem-solving abilities are part of which developmental task? a. Introspection b. Accepting one’s life c. Developing a point of view about death d. Promoting intellectual vigor 42. When Martha was young, she spent lots of time working with horses. Now at the age of 71, she still has a basic knowledge of the meaning of specific horse riding terms despite not being around horses in several years. This is an example of a. prospective memory. b. semantic memory. c. narrative method. d. episodic memory. 43. The negative pole of the psychosocial crisis of later adulthood is a. stagnation. b. inferiority. c. narcissism. d. narcissism. 44. As older adults develop a point of view about death, they must be able to a. attend the funerals of family and friends. b. accept the loss of family and friends and one’s own death. c. ignore the death of family and friends and one’s own death. d. have good long term memory and role balance. 45. Which of the following statements about older adults and life satisfaction is most accurate? Page 6
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Chap 13_13e a. Most older adults experience low levels of life satisfaction. b. Most older adults experience a generally high level of life satisfaction. c. Life satisfaction for older adults is based on physical wellbeing and ability to look young. d. Life satisfaction for older adults is irrelevant as they don’t experience satisfaction with aging. 46. In Samantha’s later adulthood, the role demands and responsibilities of parenthood and employment will tend to a. decrease, allowing more time for her to devote to leisure. b. increase in preparation for her retirement. c. stay the same, increasing her need to balance work and family. d. intensify, in order for her to balance work, family, and personal pursuits. 47. Seventy-two year-old Peter’s core pathology is most likely a. extinction. b. rejectivity. c. exclusivity. d. disdain. 48. Grandma Dot always remembered to send her grandchildren birthday cards and holiday cards, but rarely visited her grandchildren. Grandma Dot would be considered which of the following grandparent styles? a. Formal b. Distant figure c. Reservoir of family wisdom d. Funseeker 49. Jorgen is 75 years old and was diagnosed with a life-threatening condition. He often thinks about his homeland Sweden. His memories lead him to verbalize his desire to get better and visit Sweden one last time before he dies. He states, “If only I could visit Sweden, then I would be good for the rest of my life.” This would be an example of which Kubler-Ross stage of death and dying? a. Depression b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Acceptance 50. Seventy-year-old Jamison’s prime adaptive ego quality, according to Erikson, is a. integrity. b. generativity. c. wisdom. d. care. 51. A strategy for Wilma to cope with the role loss of widowhood is to a. decrease contact with her friends in order to mourn the loss. b. refuse invitations from her family and friends for help. c. become withdrawn and reflect on her experience. d. become more involved in her leisure activities. Page 7
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Chap 13_13e 52. Orville Gilbert Brim contributed to human development through his work on social role theory. He described the process of sustaining well-being and life satisfaction in later adulthood as a. refusing to set new goals and thereby avoiding failure. b. becoming totally engrossed in one project at a time. c. establishing goals that match one's desire for mastery with one's current level of ability. d. setting increasingly ambitious goals. 53. Damien has always had a strong belief that his decisions would lead to positive consequences and that uncertain situations would turn out well. Which of the following BEST encapsulates Damien’s outlook? a. Competence b. Neuroticism c. Extroversion d. Optimism 54. Rodney went to visit his doctor for a check-up as part of his 70th birthday present to himself. The doctor asked Rodney to recall his diet and eating habits for the past three days. Rodney was able to complete a dietary recall. This is an example of a. semantic memory. b. prospective memory. c. narrative method. d. episodic memory. 55. Theresa’s ability to organize information in order to generate new hypotheses is considered a. crystallized intelligence. b. fluid intelligence. c. behavioral slowing. d. swan song. 56. The process of nostalgic remembering is called a. integrity. b. reminiscence. c. despair. d. stagnation. 57. Regina is a 75-year-old widow. Research has found that she is likely to have a high level of a. chronic depression. b. learned helplessness. c. self-sufficiency. d. crystallized intelligence. 58. Which of the following is TRUE of long-term memory? a. It is a storehouse of a lifetime of information. b. It is a limitation, as it decreases with age. c. It is a way to remember information within a short amount of time. d. It is a strategy for concrete operational thought. Page 8
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Chap 13_13e 59. The term intergenerational solidarity refers to a. the independence of one generation from the other. b. the injustices that exist between the generations regarding social services. c. closeness and commitment within the parent-child and grandparent-grandchild relationships. d. the mediating role of the adult child between the grandparent and grandchild. 60. People who believe that they have little personal control over whether they continue to work or retire are likely to experience a. relief when they finally retire. b. a new enthusiasm for work. c. more difficulty adjusting to retirement. d. redirection of energy to new roles. 61. Which of the following statements is considered a criticism about using cross-sectional research to evaluate cognitive functioning in adulthood? a. The ability to solve the tasks declines for both males and females. b. Those with more formal education do better than those with less formal education. c. The tasks do not relate to cognitive problem-solving. d. The tasks are overly dependent upon speed of reaction time. 62. One of the common consequences of widowhood for women is a. a decrease in financial resources. b. a decrease in the importance of friends. c. a decline in contact with siblings and children. d. an increase in personal income. 63. Roberto has a very positive view about his life and his accomplishments. Now that he is turning 70, he looks back with happiness at the many twists and turns his life has taken. This satisfaction with his life leads him to consider his death with a. great regret. b. acceptance. c. despair. d. compulsive planning. 64. Who, among the following individuals is most likely to experience widowhood? a. John, a 70-year-old man b. Stephanie, a 70-year-old woman c. Stephen, a 70-year-old stepfather d. Marcus, a 70-year-old man in a second marriage 65. The psychosocial crisis of later adulthood (60-75 years) is a. generativity versus stagnation. b. immortality versus extinction. c. integrity versus despair. Page 9
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Chap 13_13e d. wisdom versus disdain. 66. Abner is considered to be sociable, vigorous, sensation-seeking, and almost always very positive. Which of the following terms BEST describes Abner’s personality characteristic? a. Attachment b. Extroversion c. Neuroticism d. Conservation 67. The achievement of integrity in later adulthood requires a. a sense of trust in the political process. b. the acceptance of one's life as it has been lived. c. an ability to predict the future. d. a willingness to take new risks. 68. Jeremy is faced with a dilemma about how to find a more efficient way to manage his business. His secretary, who has been working for him for a long time, is making many errors and missing days of work due to family illness. He thinks he should fire her, but she knows a lot about his business and has been a loyal employee. He is trying to find a solution that combines logic, compassion, and practicality. What kind of cognitive capacity does he need? a. Postformal reasoning b. Crystallized intelligence c. Short-term memory d. Concrete operational thought 69. The process of integrating one’s past life, including the successes and disappointments is a component of a. the developmental task of accepting one’s life. b. the core pathology of disdain. c. the radius of significant others in later adulthood. d. life expectancy. 70. Which of the following statements best describes how health is related to the assessment of cognitive functioning in later life? a. Casey’s ill health interferes with his performance on tests of intelligence. b. Jeremy’s ill health is a factor that enhances his memory but slows his reaction time. c. Ignacio’s ill health promotes his intellectual vigor. d. Ingrid’s ill health increases her performance on tests of intelligence. 71. The case about Morrie, who is dying from ALS, includes a conversation with his former student Mitch. From the conversation, one could conclude that a. Morrie is stagnated and unable to effectively interact with Mitch. b. Mitch is afraid of Morrie and his death anxiety is heightened. c. Morrie is in a state of despair and denial regarding his terminal illness. d. Morrie has achieved a sense of integrity and wisdom. 72. Kubler-Ross identified five stages of death and dying. Which of the following is NOT considered one of these stages? Page 10
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Chap 13_13e a. Denial b. Suppression c. Acceptance d. Bargaining 73. Theresa was at the grocery store and met a friend who told her to call her later that day so they could catch up on old times. Theresa was able to remember the phone number and store it into her cell phone shortly after saying good-bye to her friend. This is an example of a. semantic memory. b. short-term memory. c. narrative method. d. episodic memory. 74. Developing a point of view about death begins in one’s a. later adulthood years. b. middle adulthood years. c. adolescence. d. childhood. 75. High levels of retirement anxiety are related to concerns about: a. loss of income. b. finding appropriate investments for one’s retirement income. c. losing health care benefits. d. losing the social involvement and sense of connection that was possible at work. 76. Morrie Schwartz says, in his conversation with Mitch, “Once you learn how to die, you learn how to live.” What does he mean? a. Death is no different from life. b. When you die, you live in the hereafter. c. When you accept the reality of death, you become more appreciative of life. d. Death dominates life, leaving the day-to-day realities of life meaningless. 77. Which personality characteristic is least likely to be linked with Rebecca’s life satisfaction in her later life? a. Attachment b. Extroversion c. Lack of neuroticism d. Optimism 78. Marco has worked extensively as a dog handler for many years. He is well known for his ability to understand dogs. Recently he decided on a trip to a ranch with horses, Marco was able to apply his knowledge and experiences of working with dogs to the horses. This is considered an example of a. postformal reasoning. b. fluid intelligence. c. crystallized intelligence. d. episodic memory. Page 11
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Chap 13_13e 79. During middle adulthood, people realize that they have lived more than half their lives. This makes the issue of death a. less immediate. b. more concrete. c. a new realization. d. a philosophical challenge. 80. _________is considered a critical component of adaptive coping for which older adults use a variety of strategies to help stay attuned to their functional future. a. Post-operational thought b. Semantic memory c. Prospective memory d. Episodic memory 81. As grandparents, Gilda and Jerome have assumed major child-care responsibilities of their grandchildren. How would Neugarten and Weinstein describe Gilda and Jerome? a. They are authority figures. b. They are fun seekers. c. They are surrogate parents. d. They are normal grandparents. 82. What is the relationship between personality and life satisfaction? a. There is no relationship between personality and life satisfaction. b. There is an oppositional relationship—if one has a happy personality, then one has low life satisfaction. c. There is a link between personality and life satisfaction in later life dependent on personality type. d. There is a relationship only if life satisfaction is a priority in a person’s life. 83. B. F. Skinner warned that there were certain lifestyle or environmental factors that contributed to a lack of intellectual growth in later life. Which of the following describes one of these factors? a. Older people interact with too many other people every day. b. Older people may be encouraged to spend too much time reminiscing about the past. c. Older people are likely to live in warm climates. d. Older people spend too much time planning for the future. 84. Valerie’s excellent vocabulary, her heightened problem solving skills, and her “computer-like” short-term memory are all examples of a. social roles. b. contextual learning. c. cognitive functioning. d. cognitive deficits. 85. According to John Horn who focused on mental abilities across the life span, 68-year-old Laure’s neurological loss associated with her aging is most damaging to which type of her intelligence? a. Crystallized intelligence b. Word fluency Page 12
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Chap 13_13e c. Fluid intelligence d. Reading comprehension 86. According to research, oldest adults are more likely to a. plan the details of their funeral in advance. b. avoid writing a will. c. give all responsibilities for their burial to their children. d. be afraid of death. 87. In terms of women who have been widowed, which of the following is considered the most positive form of immediate support? a. A reluctance in discussing the death of her husband b. An increase in her financial stability c. A willingness to discuss the death of her husband d. Suppressing emotional reactions until the mourning has been completed 88. In toddlerhood, children are likely to believe that death is a. a natural part of the lifespan. b. permanent. c. reversible. d. imaginary. 89. Alexander is 74 years old. He loves candy and has chronic arthritis in both hands, making it difficult for him to use his hands. He keeps his candy in a container with a screw top lid, which becomes difficult for him to open. When visiting the store, he noticed a candy bowl with no lid and purchases the bowl with some candy. This is considered an example of a. an older adult with an ADL and a sense of diffidence. b. the development of a psychohistorical perspective. c. an ability to optimize and compensate for a physical limitation. d. a sense of extinction and wanting a sense of immortality. 90. It is difficult to study the development of intelligence in adulthood because: a. intelligence declines with age. b. adults do not participate in studies of intelligence. c. it is difficult to distinguish historical factors from developmental factors. d. most changes are due to genetics. 91. The __________ personality dimension is typically associated with well-being and high levels of life satisfaction. a. extroversion b. attachment c. neuroticism d. conservation 92. Crystallized intelligence is considered the ability to a. apply knowledge accumulated through prior experiences in new situations. b. impose organization on information and generate new hypotheses. Page 13
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Chap 13_13e c. anticipate the consequences of one’s actions. d. nurture and guide those less experienced than oneself. 93. Harold has taken up a leisure activity that his physician told him is an important component of optimal aging. What has Harold taken up? a. Gardening b. Sports c. Volunteerism d. Exercise 94. Jean and Donald have taken on one of the five different styles of grandparenting. Which of the following could NOT describe their style? a. CEG’s (corporate executive grandparents) b. Reservoirs of family wisdom c. Surrogate parents d. Fun seekers 95. A positive contribution of reminiscence as a coping strategy in later life is that it a. helps provide continuity between past and present. b. keeps one’s focus on the past. c. allows a person to rehears the same difficult experiences time and again. d. creates a domain of crystallized intelligence. 96. Which of the following statements best describes the interaction of heredity and environment on mental functioning? a. Hereditary factors associated with genetic make-up are far more influential than environment. b. Environmental factors are far more influential than hereditary factors. c. Heredity and environment play a role on mental functioning. d. There is a lack of evidence to make any claims about heredity or environment on mental functioning. 97. What was the main point behind the photograph and caption of the retired man, Victor, who spends more time with his grandchildren since retiring? a. People never feel fully productive after retirement. b. Most people feel guilty about receiving a pension. c. Some people view retirement as a release from the stressors of the workplace and a chance to do things that are personally satisfying. d. After retirement, most adults are depressed, uninvolved, and unable to find a path forward. 98. In terms of the patterns of adaptation during widowhood, which of the following is considered a common pattern? a. Most widows become chronically depressed. b. Only a few widows experience a sense of resilience. c. The vast majority experience depression followed by a drastic improvement. d. Most widows experience common grief and resilience. 99. Which type of reminiscence is LEAST associated with positive adjustment? a. Obsessive reminiscence Page 14
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Chap 13_13e b. Instrumental reminiscence c. Integrative reminiscence d. Story telling 100. Seventy-year-old Franco has begun to experience a reduced activity level, loss of close relationships, and a loss of independence. These are all associated with a. introspection. b. depression. c. integrity. d. personal identity. 101. Harriet relies on a complex network of information, concepts, and schemes related by associations, knowledge, and use in her day-to-day work. Which of the following does Harriet rely on in her work? a. Crystallized intelligence b. Short-term memory c. Long-term memory d. Fluid intelligence 102. Seventy-five year-old Francene has begun to enjoy the most popular leisure activity among her age mates. Which of the following has Francene taken up? a. Dancing b. Exercise c. Gardening d. Charity work 103. Which of the following is considered a problem in the evaluation of research on intelligence in later life? a. Lack of early childhood IQ test scores for comparison b. Relevance of tasks used to measure adult cognitive functioning c. Lack of other older adults to use as comparison groups d. Inability of older adults to complete the intelligence measures 104. At the age of 69 years, Micah considered himself to be healthy even though he took blood pressure medicine after dinner each night. His ability to remember to take his pills each night after dinner would be an example of what type of memory? a. Prospective b. Semantic c. Long-term d. Episodic 105. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a developmental task of later adulthood? a. Promoting intellectual vigor b. Developing a point of view about death c. Managing a career d. Accepting one’s life Page 15
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Chap 13_13e
106. Despair is often though of as the polar opposite of integrity. How do despairing people in their late adulthood years view the world and their lives? How can ageism play a role in this despair? What are the signs and symptoms that despair is leading to depression? 107. Discuss the case about retirement as “stepping aside” for the next generation. What psychosocial strengths or adaptive capacities are illustrated in this case? 108. Explain how one’s perspective about death tends to change approaching and into late adulthood. What roles do spirituality and religion play in this? 109. How do social integration and personality relate to well-being? Explain how extroversion, openness to experience, and neuroticism can each play contributing roles in this. 110. Differentiate between crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence, providing examples of each. 111. Discuss the reciprocity between grandparents and grandchildren. How do grandchildren contribute to psychosocial well-being for grandparents? How do grandparents contribute to psychosocial well-being for grandchildren? 112. Discuss some of the problems of definition, measurement, and cohort factors that make it difficult to study the development of cognitive functioning in adulthood. 113. Discuss ways in which intellectual vigor is promoted. How do neuroplasticity and the different functions of memory factor into this? 114. Explain how goal domains, goal orientation, and goal-related actions each play integral roles in achieving life satisfaction. 115. Explain the SOC model of adaptation. Give two examples of how the SOC model might apply to older adults. 116. Define the psychological concept of integrity and describe some factors that may make it difficult to achieve a sense of integrity in American society. 117. Discuss the five distinct styles of grandparenting. How do they differ from one another? How is each focused directionally on a distinct target or subject? 118. How has the meaning of the grandparent role evolved over time? What has changed? What has remained the same? 119. Discuss death anxiety. What factors help people cope with fears about death? What roles can societal resources play in this? 120. What does the term “retirement” mean to most Americans? How has the term and the act itself changed over the last half century? In what ways is the typical retiree different from the typical retiree of fifty years ago? What accounts for these changes?
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Chap 13_13e Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. a Page 17
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Chap 13_13e 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. d Page 18
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Chap 13_13e 52. c 53. d 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. c 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. d 76. c Page 19
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Chap 13_13e 77. a 78. b 79. b 80. c 81. c 82. c 83. b 84. c 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. c 90. c 91. a 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. a 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. a 100. b 101. c 102. c Page 20
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Chap 13_13e 103. b 104. a 105. c 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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Chap 14_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. Physical changes of aging are multidimensional and variable across individuals. a. True b. False 2. Role reversal is necessary for children to take care of their aging parent’s decision-making responsibilities. a. True b. False 3. Cosmic transcendence is an expression of immortality that is independent of religion, offspring, or creative achievement. a. True b. False 4. Most people in very old age cannot provide a psychohistorical perspective because of their cognitive dysfunctions. a. True b. False 5. Because Oliver is an older adult with a high self-esteem and a hearing problem, he will be less likely to ask others to repeat themselves. a. True b. False 6. The quality of life for the frail elderly depends on the nature of health-related limitations, the availability of resources within the home and community, self-selective emphasis to some experiences as central to well-being, and motivation to find creative and adaptive strategies. a. True b. False 7. The code of conduct Offenbacher and Poster researched suggests that being sociable, active, and independent are measures of successful living to older people. a. True b. False 8. Because Evan is a part of “The Elders,” he is part of an international group formed to assist the global community with world-wide issues. a. True b. False 9. Samantha has told her children that she needs more socioemotional support. Therefore, her children should expect to give more direct assistance, including in the forms of chores and medical care. a. True b. False 10. Because Malcolm is in his 50s, he is now MOST LIKELY to first begin to notice declines in his physical health and fitness. Page 1
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Chap 14_13e a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11. Eighty-year-old Thalia suffers from the most common sleep problem of people her age. What does Thalia suffer from? a. Excessive napping b. Difficulty breathing c. Depression d. Insomnia 12. Which of the following has been shown to retard the degenerative effects of aging? a. Working at a desk job b. Sleeping nine hours per day c. Spending substantial time in strong sunshine d. Following a regular program of physical activity 13. A sense of immortality is least likely to be achieved through a. living through children. b. belief in an afterlife. c. creative achievements. d. experimental transcendence. 14. One way that elder people pass on to their grandchildren a shared and collective identity that has been learned from their own grandparents is through a. hereditary traits. b. a program of regular exercise. c. a living will. d. storytelling. 15. Eighty-five year-old Wanda suffers from the most common effect of hearing loss in people her age. From which of the following does Wanda suffer? a. Decreased ability to understand spoken messages b. Increased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds c. Increased sensitivity to low-intensity sounds d. Selective attention to familiar sounds 16. According to Neugarten, which of the following is a characteristic of the “old-old”? a. They are competent, vigorous, and relatively healthy. b. They live in their own households. c. They participate in activities in their communities. d. They have suffered major physical or mental decrements, which increase their dependence on health and social services. Page 2
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Chap 14_13e 17. Because Regina is _________, religion provides an especially important source of social support for her. a. Protestant b. female c. White d. African American 18. In the future, it is______ that older adults will engage in a new type of intimacy. a. more likely b. less likely c. financially unfeasible d. improbable 19. In countries with higher levels of education in the general population, older adults are more likely to a. live with family. b. live alone. c. live in retirement housing. d. die before reaching very old age. 20. Which life circumstance might result in the heightened importance of a sense of agency for very old women? a. Having a husband who is active and healthy b. Living alone after widowhood c. Living with one’s adult children after widowhood d. Experiencing one or more chronic illnesses 21. Which statement concerning physical fitness for aging adults is most accurate? a. For people who lead an inactive life, there is less of a decline in physical capacity than for those who engage in regular fitness activity, particularly after the age of 60. b. After the age of 75, regular physical fitness activity can build muscle strength and help a person maintain cognitive functioning. c. Maintenance of optimal physical condition in very old age depends primarily on having been active in adolescence. d. Overweight people are better off reducing their physical activity after age 65. 22. In order for Hacienda to face the later years in the best possible physical condition, a commitment to _________ is the most important factor for her. a. religious beliefs b. physical activity c. family values d. sedentary behavior 23. Ninety year-old Arthur has for the last four years rates his health as good, very good, or excellent. What percentage of his age mates rate their health similarly to Arthur? a. 0% b. 10% c. 25% Page 3
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Chap 14_13e d. Over 50% 24. Eighty-eight year-old Brenda needs assistance with basic tasks of self-care (activities of daily living) other than walking. What percentage of her age mates also need this level of assistance? a. Less than 10% b. Roughly 20% c. Roughly 33% d. More than 50% 25. Janet is 73 years old. Her son has observed a relatively sudden change in her tempo of movement recently. She has begun to move more slowly and change position very deliberately. What is the most likely explanation for her behavior? a. She is purposefully attempting to prevent dizziness due to normal respiratory and circulatory degeneration. b. She is too tired to move any faster. c. She is thinking, “At my age, why should I rush?” d. She is showing signs of senility due to neural degeneration. 26. One of the most serious psychological problems associated with vision loss is that it leaves older people with a. tendencies toward irritability. b. increased feelings of helplessness. c. increased feelings of rejection. d. tendencies toward stubbornness. 27. Which of the following has been found to help older adults maintain a sense of well-being? a. Finding meaning in one’s existence b. Blood pressure medicine c. Self-absorption d. Living with one’s children 28. Aging adults tend to be characterized by a gradual slowing in response to stimuli. This is called a. fatigue. b. loss of resilience. c. behavioral slowing. d. sedentary inhibition. 29. Because variations in life experience and outlook among the very old are great, _______ becomes a less useful indicator of functioning in late life. a. functional independence b. health c. chronological age d. social participation 30. According to research done by Offenbacher and Poster, which dictate is NOT part of the “code of conduct” older adults use to guide to their behavior? a. Don’t feel sorry for yourself. b. Accept dependence gracefully. Page 4
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Chap 14_13e c. Don’t just sit there, do something. d. Be sociable. 31. Difficulty in managing ADLs increases markedly after age 85. Which of the following is a leading factor in postindustrial countries? a. Biological changes b. Malnutrition c. A sedentary lifestyle d. Diseases 32. A feeling that there is a “continuous present” in the “here and now” that is also inseparable from past and future is called a. universal consciousness. b. symbolic existentialism. c. experiential transcendence. d. time absorption. 33. Which of the following best describes the current pattern of living arrangements for women 75 and older in the U.S.? a. Approximately 50% live with their children in three generation households. b. Approximately 50% live with their spouses. c. Approximately 50% live in nursing homes. d. Approximately 50% live alone. 34. If an elder person has achieved integrity as a result of the resolution of the psychosocial crisis of later adulthood, the remaining years of life are filled with the belief that a. death must be confronted directly. b. the end of life is an end to motion, attachment, and change. c. life makes sense. d. better choices could have led to more favorable outcomes. 35. Which effect is least likely to be an age-related change in vision experienced by most older adults? a. Samuel has a slower adaptation time. b. Ingrid experiences increased sensitivity to glare. c. Dennis has noticed a decrease in color discrimination. d. Ignacio has an increased need for illumination. 36. Dependency in very old age is often measured by assessing a person’s difficulties in performing activities of daily living. Which activity is NOT considered an activity of daily living? a. Feeding oneself b. Using the toilet c. Bathing d. Reading the newspaper 37. Which statement about living in a nursing home is most accurate? a. Once people are admitted to a nursing home, they usually stay there until they die. Page 5
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Chap 14_13e b. About 75% of those in nursing homes have spouses. c. About 85% of nursing home residents are age 85 and older. d. Many enter nursing homes after hospitalization and eventually return home. 38. Which statement concerning food intake in elderhood is most accurate? a. Because of the reduced need for calories, very old people have less of a chance of malnutrition than younger people. b. Because of the increased need for calories, very old people will feel very weak and lose resilience if they keep eating only as much as they have previously. c. Slowed metabolism increases the very old person’s need for calories. d. Because of a diminished appetite, the very old person must become more conscientious in selecting foods that will provide the nutritional elements necessary for healthy functioning. 39. Elder adults may exhibit behavioral slowing because of a. erratic neural firing. b. age-related decline in crystallized intelligence. c. lack of plasticity and adaptive reorganization in brain function. d. learned cautiousness to avoid making mistakes. 40. Juan’s living arrangement is just like the majority of elder men. Which of the following is TRUE of Juan? a. He is married and lives with his spouse. b. He lives alone. c. He lives with his children in a three-generation household. d. He lives in a nursing home. 41. Mark has been having some lapses in memory and he finds that he cannot always explain himself verbally. He told his wife, Allison, that he was going to the store for a few items, and came home 3 hours later. He told Allison that he got lost on the way back and could not remember his address. When Allison asked him to go see their doctor to find out what might be going on, he shouted at her—something he had rarely done in their 40 years of marriage. What is a possible explanation for Mark’s behaviors? a. Mark is tired and stressed out. b. Mark has the early stages of arthritis. c. Mark has Alzheimer’s disease. d. Mark has psychohistorical anxiety. 42. Which statement is most accurate concerning psychosocial development in very old age? a. Finding ways to integrate negative poles of each stage into a positive worldview strengthens one’s character b. Developing and expanding self-doubt is greatly enhanced c. Meeting one’s physical needs is the main factor in resolving the psychosocial crises of this stage d. Realizing that life is hopeless is integrated into one’s future outlook 43. The case of Mr. Z illustrates that maintaining vitality and a sense of meaning while living in a nursing home during elderhood is most dependent on which factor? a. Accessibility of neighborhood services b. Giving up control of daily activities Page 6
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Chap 14_13e c. One’s psychological outlook and love of life d. The importance of a loving spouse 44. In later adulthood, confidence is sustained and bolstered by a. role loss. b. behavioral slowing. c. a supportive social network. d. social isolation. 45. What is the central process for 88-year-old Jean to resolve the psychosocial crisis of her old age? a. Social support b. Introspection c. Hope d. Transcendence 46. Social support contributes to a very old adult’s health and sense of well-being in a variety of ways. Which of the following is NOT one of these ways? a. It reduces isolation. b. It provides a flow of critical resources such as affection, transportation, and advice. c. It reduces the impact of stressors. d. It provides a source of conflict that is intellectually stimulating. 47. Communities characterized by_____can enhance the health and optimal functioning of the frail elderly. a. cultural segmentation b. collective efficacy c. high-rise apartments d. gentrification 48. What is the difference between activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)? a. ADLs are the more basic self-care functions. b. IADLs are the more basic self-care functions. c. ADLs usually require more complex chains of related tasks. d. ADLs are usually performed in public while the IADLs are performed in private. 49. Which factor is considered a significant barrier to optimal functioning for individuals living in a nursing home? a. Round-the-clock skilled nursing care b. Informal support networks c. A sense of confidence in one’s ability d. Removing expectations for planning or performing activities of daily life 50. Which of the following is TRUE of older adults who are the most likely to cope effectively with hearing loss? a. They have high self-esteem. b. They have low levels of vision loss. c. They have strong feelings of isolation. Page 7
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Chap 14_13e d. They have children who live near them. 51. Which of the following is considered a factor in describing “aging issues” as “women’s issues”? a. The majority of those 85 years old and over are women. b. Women are better prepared for aging than men. c. Men aren’t interested in aging issues. d. Men don’t show many physical characteristics of aging. 52. Loretta gets a lot of pleasure in fixing broken toys that her grandchildren bring to her. She has developed a variety of novel techniques for toy repair and she takes pride in this new area of mastery. This reflects her ____________ values. a. introspective b. instrumental c. affiliative d. moral 53. Eighty-five year-old Abigail has a psychohistorical perspective, which means she has the ability to a. remember historical events. b. anticipate the future. c. know future history at a psychic level. d. integrate information about past, present, and future. 54. What is the prime adaptive ego quality associated with very old age? a. Hope b. Confidence c. Will d. Care 55. In the process of developing a psychohistorical perspective, elder adults develop a personal understanding of all of the following EXCEPT a. stability and change in social norms. b. the effects of political leadership on society. c. the effects of history on individual lives. d. the effects of mutations on the evolution of the species. 56. As part of a new interdisciplinary perspective on aging, how is usual aging defined? a. Low risk for various diseases b. A psychohistorical approach to aging c. Functioning well but at a high risk for disease or disability d. The lack of introspection 57. Which statement is most accurate within the first 18 months of widowhood? a. Widowed women are more likely to remarry than widowed men. b. The more social support a man has, the less likely he is to be interested in remarriage after widowhood. c. Most widowed men and women remarry. d. The most important predictor of whether a widow or widower will remarry is the dead spouse’s wishes. Page 8
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Chap 14_13e 58. Which term refers to the combination of a strong sense of social cohesion with a high level of informal social control? a. Self-efficacy b. Social attachment c. Leadership d. Collective efficacy 59. An especially important implication of insensitivity to salt is that older adults may add additional salt to food, which may a. result in malnutrition. b. aggravate hypertension. c. increase lung congestion. d. increase dental problems. 60. In the case of Mr. Z, who lives in a nursing home, what seems to be the impact of the nursing home environment on his functioning? a. It has prevented him from getting medical care. b. It has provided opportunities for him to entertain and encourage others. c. It has reduced his capacity for helping others. d. It has fostered a sense of despair. 61. In Erikson’s advice on aging, which of the following does he recommend? a. Be willing to give and receive help as needed. b. Hang on to your possessions. c. Use your pride to remain independent. d. Keep striving toward new achievements and levels of excellence. 62. Which statement is an accurate description of the sexual behavior of older adults? a. Research indicates that older adults no longer have sexual needs. b. Research indicates that older adults are able to remain sexually active. c. Most older adults give up sexual activity in favor of companionship. d. Most older widows readily integrate sexuality into their single lifestyles. 63. The theory that men become more nurturant with age and women become more achievement-oriented is called a. gender role convergence. b. heterogeneity of gender. c. affiliative transformation. d. selective identification. 64. The positive pole of the psychosocial crisis of very old age involves a belief in continuous existence and transformation through the development of a sense of a. immortality. b. transcendence. c. pre-eminence. d. superiority. Page 9
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Chap 14_13e 65. What is the most likely effect of gentrification for older adults? a. A significant reduction in low-cost housing b. Improved access to health care services for the elderly c. An increase in high quality, low-cost housing d. An opportunity to develop new forms of leisure 66. Which approach is considered to be the most effective way for an older adult to cope with behavioral slowing? a. Marcus makes a greater effort to be in harmony with the tempo of others. b. Abner adopts a sedentary lifestyle. c. Samantha selects fewer activities to accomplish each day. d. Thomas takes vitamins and minerals. 67. Agnes and her friends are all between the ages of 75 and 84. What percentage of them live with their spouse? a. 10% b. 33% c. 53% d. 75% 68. In a comparison of living arrangements of older adults, in which setting was it more common for older adults to head up a large household that included young children? a. Asia b. Latin America c. North America d. Africa 69. How is behavioral slowing related to processing load? a. The greater the processing load, the more likely one is to observe behavioral slowing with age. b. The greater the processing load, the less likely one is to observe behavioral slowing with age. c. Processing load is related to behavioral slowing only in younger subjects. d. Processing load is related to behavioral slowing only in tasks involving motor skills. 70. Changes in taste and smell that occur with age, especially the reduced ability to detect specific tastes, are likely to result in a. experimenting with new kinds of foods. b. learning more about food preparation. c. loss of appetite. d. greater appreciation for the visual presentation of foods. 71. What can very old adults do to maintain a sense of purpose and social connection? a. Remain in a larger home for as long as possible. b. Spread their time and interest over as many roles as possible. c. Sustain important social relationships through frequent interaction. d. Get to know specific television shows and their recurring characters. Page 10
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Chap 14_13e 72. Why do older adults need higher levels of illumination to see clearly? a. The number of cones in the retina decreases. b. Hardening of the lenses begins at about age 20. c. Pupil size decreases with age. d. There is a flattening of the retina. 73. The psychosocial crisis of very old age is a. integrity versus despair. b. immortality versus extinction. c. wisdom versus disdain. d. generativity versus stagnation. 74. From an evolutionary perspective, one possible adaptive advantage of longevity is greater: a. competition for limited resources within a group. b. support for the care and protection of the young. c. attractiveness for females in the mating process. d. competition among males for finding a suitable female partner. 75. A residential setting offering private housing, medical and preventive health services, social services, and nursing care as needed is referred to as a a. continuing care retirement community. b. nursing home. c. gentrified condominium. d. utopia. 76. Eighty-nine year-old Darlene is suffering from Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following symptoms will her family caregivers most likely find are the most difficult to manage? a. Sleep disturbances and wandering b. Agitation and declining mental functioning c. Confusion and bowel/bladder accidents d. Physical decline and uncooperativeness 77. Which factor has the greatest impact on increasing life expectancy at birth? a. Reduction of the fertility rate b. Prevention of illness that affects those over age 70 c. Prevention of illness that leads to death in infancy and early childhood d. Delay of age at marriage 78. According to the text, which belief is least likely to result in achieving a symbolic sense of immortality? a. A belief that one lives on through one’s achievements b. A belief in an afterlife c. A belief in democracy d. A belief that one lives on through the lives of one’s offspring 79. Raquel is among those in the fastest growing age group in the United States. How old is Raquel? Page 11
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Chap 14_13e a. 2 years old b. 12 years old c. 34 years old d. 85 years old 80. Optimal functioning is described as a. one’s ability at age 25. b. what one can do when motivated and well-prepared. c. what the most highly skilled person can do. d. one’s usual level of functioning. 81. Which age-related change in vision is most likely to interfere with an older adult’s ability to read road signs from a moving automobile? a. A decline in near vision b. Sensitivity to glare c. Glaucoma d. Difficulties with tasks that require speed of visual performance 82. What is considered the first step in supporting optimal functioning of the elderly? a. Reduction of supportive services b. Accurate assessments of limitations c. Denial of supportive services to increase self-sufficiency d. Assistance with ADLs only 83. Mary explains to her grandchildren how her grandparents came to the United States on a boat many years ago. The homeland of her grandparents is Slovakia and she retells the stories of her childhood and her grandparents’ childhood. Mary’s sharing of her identity is an example of a. storytelling. b. mementoes. c. written work. d. inheritance. 84. The developmental task of traveling uncharted territory assumes that elder adults are a. creating their own definitions of this life stage. b. readying themselves for the process of dying. c. preoccupied by issues relating to any kind of travel. d. unable to think clearly about the end of life process. 85. In relationships between adult daughters and their aging mothers, if the daughters attempt to make sure the mothers are consistently involved in decisions that affect their lives even when the mothers are heavily dependent upon their daughters for daily care, the result is likely to be a. that the mothers are happy but the daughters tend to become irritable. b. that the mothers become increasingly stubborn and demanding and the daughters become unhappy. c. a great deal of unhealthy conflict. d. a mutually satisfying relationship. Page 12
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Chap 14_13e 86. Based on Rosenfeld’s study of very old men, approximately what percentage of 90-year-old Walter’s 90-year-old male friends feel that their lives were rich and rewarding? a. 10-15% b. 25-30% c. 50% d. 90% 87. If an elder person tells you she will live on through the lives of her children and grandchildren and their offspring, you may conclude she is expressing a sense of a. procreation. b. immortality. c. diffidence. d. competence. 88. What enlightenment was achieved from the experiences linked to the desecration of Hawaiian burial grounds, as discussed in the text? a. Native Hawaiians learned that large corporations will build their hotels on the least expensive land possible. b. Native Hawaiians are indifferent to the ancient traditions which no longer hold any meaning. c. Native Hawaiians have protected the ancestral remains at Honokahua through the intervention of the President of the United States. d. Native Hawaiians learned that there is a reciprocal relationship in which the living and the dead care for one another and protect each other. 89. Which phrase best describes the psychosocial concept of extinction? a. Being bound by the limits of one’s own life history b. A welcoming of death c. A sense of nurturing future generations d. The epigenetic principle 90. For some older adults, a consequence of reaching a sense of extinction in later life is a. transcendence. b. building new sources of social support. c. suicide. d. trusting in interdependence. 91. According to the model described by Rowe and Kahn, successful aging is characterized by three interconnected features: avoiding disease, maintaining high cognitive and physical functioning, and a. storytelling. b. reminiscence. c. engagement with life. d. living alone. 92. Which statement best indicates that older men and women tend to be tied to the gender-role standards of their historical cohort? Page 13
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Chap 14_13e a. Today’s older women believe that the only kinds of relationships possible between men and women are romantic. b. Many very old women have friendships with very old men. c. Older women enjoy having the opportunity to date again. d. Very old men prefer to "play the field" when they become widowers. 93. Older men and women appear to be very similar in their the degree of satisfaction they get in helping or pleasing others. a. instrumental b. affiliative c. cognitive d. democratic
values, or the amount of time they spend and
94. Hugo’s high level of social integration in his later life are associated with which of the following? a. Living in a nursing home b. Serious illness c. Increased longevity d. High suicide rates 95. What is the best approach for an older person to develop a psychohistorical perspective? a. Learning to accept alternative solutions b. Developing a commitment to essential positive values c. Learning to accept alternative solutions and developing a commitment to essential positive values. d. Ultimately identifying with his or her own national, economic, or religious group 96. What does the term norm of reciprocity mean? a. You are obliged to return in full value what you receive. b. You expect to give more than you receive. c. You expect to receive more when you are young, and to give more when you are old. d. You and your friends gather all your resources and share them. 97. In a comparison of changes in bodily functions from age 40 to age 75, which function shows the greatest amount of decline? a. Maximum breathing capacity b. Metabolism c. Kidney filtration d. The velocity of nerve conduction 98. Age-related changes in the sensory system begin in person’s life. a. later adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. later adulthood
and their effects increase throughout the remainder of a
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Chap 14_13e 99. Which statement describes a common link between impaired vision and independence in very old age? a. As people lose their vision, their hearing improves, which makes them more attuned to the environment. b. Loss of vision leads to giving up driving which reduces independence. c. Loss of vision makes people more self-reliant and independent. d. As vision declines, people spend more time visiting with friends and neighbors. 100. Which of the following do studies of people in their later 90s and older find? a. That they are struggling with one health crisis after another b. That they appear to be more disease free than those 10 to 15 years younger c. That a majority are bedridden d. That most are malnourished 101. What happens to instrumental values with increasing age? a. They become somewhat more important b. They become somewhat less important. c. They stay the same. d. They become more important for men, and less important for women. 102. What is the primary goal of providing community services to the frail elderly? a. Maintain a sense of diffidence among frail elderly. b. Develop a sense of dependency. c. Enhance a realistic level of performance. d. Create superficial support networks. 103. Which symptom is least characteristic of organic brain syndromes? a. Disorientation b. Confusion c. Loss of vision d. Loss of control over daily functions such as toileting, feeding, and dressing 104. Which factor is least likely to improve the daily functioning that has been observed in recent cohorts of elders? a. Improved design of interior space in senior housing b. New devices that make it easier for older adults to compensate for physical limitations c. Medications that help alleviate the symptoms of chronic diseases d. Increased availability of reconstructive plastic surgery 105. Which of the following is TRUE of the proportion of elderly people needing help with activities of daily living, over the last decade? a. It has declined. b. It has increased. c. It has remained the same. d. It has approached 100%.
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Chap 14_13e 106. Your 70-year-old friend is beginning to plan his or her living arrangements for the next few years. What are some of the possibilities? What concerns should be raised for each of the possibilities? What advice would you give your friend about living arrangements? 107. What role does the development of a psychohistorical perspective play for the psychology of the elder adult? 108. Differentiate between affiliative values and instrumental values in gender-role convergence in elderhood. How does each affect the aging process in the later years? 109. How are romance and sexuality affected by elderhood? What romantic and sexual changes come with elderhood, and why? 110. What is social support, and how does it contribute to the health and well-being of elder adults? 111. Explain what the term “elderhood” means. Why is it important that elderhood be identified as a unique developmental psychosocial stage? 112. What happens to sleep and rest for many who enter into elderhood? What are some strategies to combat the effects on sleep and rest that elderhood brings? What role, if any, do sensory changes play in sleep and rest in elderhood? 113. Write a column of advice to later adults concerning how they might be best able to maintain optimal functioning during elderhood. Include a discussion of potential barriers to optimal functioning and how these might be overcome. 114. Describe the ways in which elder adults may be able to cope successfully with age-related declines in health, fitness, and capabilities. 115. What role does fitness play in elderhood? How do nutrition and lifestyle affect fitness? How can each be detrimental to fitness? How can each be beneficial? 116. What lifestyle factors and environmental conditions contribute to effects on quality of life in elderhood? How do these factors become more or less influential throughout elderhood? What distinctions can be made in elderhood between the old-old and the young-old? 117. How do feelings of immortality change in elderhood? What are the five possible paths toward immortality, and how does each affect one’s outlook in elderhood? 118. What is meant by a “psychohistorical” perspective? How do those in elderhood attain or achieve a psychohistorical perspective? What are the outcomes of having this type of perspective? 119. Differentiate between those in elderhood characterized by usual aging and those who are termed to be successful agers. What distinguishes one from the other? What benefits are there to being characterized as one over the other? 120. What defines frailty? How does frailty affect quality of life in elderhood? Discuss real and perceived functional limitations in your response.
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Chap 14_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. d 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. a Page 17
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Chap 14_13e 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. c 35. c 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. d 50. a 51. a Page 18
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Chap 14_13e 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. a Page 19
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Chap 14_13e 77. c 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. d 82. b 83. a 84. a 85. d 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. c 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. a 97. a 98. b 99. b 100. b 101. b 102. c Page 20
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Chap 14_13e 103. c 104. d 105. a 106. Answer will vary. 107. Answer will vary. 108. Answer will vary. 109. Answer will vary. 110. Answer will vary. 111. Answer will vary. 112. Answer will vary. 113. Answer will vary. 114. Answer will vary. 115. Answer will vary. 116. Answer will vary. 117. Answer will vary. 118. Answer will vary. 119. Answer will vary. 120. Answer will vary.
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Chap 15_13e
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. 1. It is possible for a person to have respiration and a heart beat even when there is no cortical functioning of the brain. a. True b. False 2. Most people do not believe in a spirit that can exist separate from the body. a. True b. False 3. Kübler-Ross raised issues about death and dying that reinforced the culture of death as medical failure. a. True b. False 4. Laura is in a persistent vegetative state, therefore only a doctor can determine if he or she should let Laura die. a. True b. False 5. Illnesses such as AIDS result in a dying trajectory of sudden decline. a. True b. False 6. Grief reactions can be very similar to symptoms of mental illness. a. True b. False 7. Funeral rituals allow survivors to begin to detach themselves from the dead person. a. True b. False 8. Based on research on quality of care, there is MOST LIKELY to be a lower percentage of excellence for hospital care for loved ones than those in home hospice care. a. True b. False 9. The double ABCX model refers to a mathematical formula that is used to determine the length of bereavement in months. a. True b. False 10. Like birth, dying occurs in a psychosocial context of relationships, resources, cultural beliefs, and practices. a. True b. False
Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Page 1
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Chap 15_13e 11. Among people who have lost a spouse, intense depression is most likely to be experienced by those who a. had no children. b. described their marriage as positive and vital. c. received a substantial life insurance payment. d. experienced sensory and auditory hallucinations. 12. Which requirement for Medicare coverage of hospice services is particularly troublesome for persons in advanced stages of Alzheimer’s disease? a. That the person be terminally ill and have 6 months or less to live b. That the person have a form of cancer c. That the person forgo prescription drugs intended to cure the condition d. That the person reside in their own home 13. Which of the following is one of the three primary functions of death-related rituals? a. Disposal of the dead person’s possessions b. Cleansing of the dead person’s home to rid it of disease c. Care of the dead person’s soul or spirit d. Financial support of the dead person’s spouse 14. Three of the following rituals are common in the United States. Which is the exception? a. People typically leave a will that is read to heirs. b. Obituaries are published in local newspapers to notify the community of the death. c. Contributions are made to charities. d. The mayor of the deceased person’s city is the first person to visit the family. 15. Which of the following would agree with the results of a research study that followed older couples from before the death of a spouse until 18 months after the death? a. Jim, a chronic griever, was depressed before his partner became ill. b. Joanna, considered resilient, had an unhappy and unsatisfying marriage. c. The context of his loss did not affect Kevin’s grieving process. d. Dillon felt a relative lack of grief-related symptoms that was not due to denial but was evidence of appropriate coping. 16. In the study that followed older couples from before the death of a spouse until 18 months after the death, which group showed a pattern of elevated levels of depression before the death of the spouse but lower levels of depression at 6 and 18 months after the death of the spouse? a. The depressed-improved b. The resilient c. The obtuse d. The common grief group 17. Which statement best describes the impact on the survivor of the death of a loved one in a nursing home? a. It increases the negative aspects of the experience. b. It may prepare them for the separation that death finalizes. c. It causes increased anxiety. Page 2
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Chap 15_13e d. It adds to the burden and strain of their caregiving. 18. According to Carr (2003), what leads to lower levels of anxiety and anger for the survivors and may provide them with an analysis of the meaning of the death of their loved one? a. Wealth b. Children c. Education d. Religiousity 19. In the Jewish traditions regarding death-related rituals and mourning, a. the family surrounds itself with luxuries to show how successful the deceased person was. b. business is conducted in the home when friends come by to visit. c. special focus is given to the practices expected of children upon the death of their parents. d. each family establishes its own rituals. 20. Because Carla is terminally ill, with less than 6 months to live, she can legally request a prescription from her physician for a lethal dose of medication. In which U.S. state does Carla live? a. Texas b. Oregon c. California d. New York 21. In the Netherlands, where there are guidelines for physician-assisted suicide and euthanasia, a study found that a. assisted suicide is approached cautiously and used sparingly. b. passive euthanasia was requested much more often than active euthanasia. c. active euthanasia was hardly requested at all. d. assisted suicide accounted for most of the medically-assisted deaths. 22. If a person leaves a living will that directs a physician or hospital not to provide life-sustaining, heroic measures to prolong his or her life, he is requesting a. passive euthanasia. b. active euthanasia. c. physician or hospital malpractice. d. physician-assisted suicide. 23. Which statement best describes the background and training of hospice workers and volunteers? a. They are primarily medical doctors. b. They come from a wide variety of backgrounds and disciplines. c. They are required to be registered nurses or licensed practical nurses. d. They are mostly ministers, priests, and other religious workers. 24. Confronting one’s pain and sadness and finding a place for the deceased loved one in one’s thought and memories is called ________ coping. a. restoration-oriented b. love-oriented Page 3
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Chap 15_13e c. resource-oriented d. loss-oriented 25. Which of the following is most accurate? a. Funerals are the only death-related rituals in most societies. b. In most cultures, people have a strong need to carry out funeral rituals for the burial of the dead. c. Funerals are only held when the body is to be buried. d. Funerals only take place in modern Western countries. 26. It is not unusual for a grieving person to think about a situation involving the dead person over and over again. This is called a. time distortion. b. obsessive rumination. c. identification symptoms. d. mystical experience. 27. Which of the following most accurately describes persons who survive a loved one’s suicide? a. They may feel angry at the person for killing themselves. b. They realize that they were unable to prevent it. c. Their religion will likely provide rituals to support them in their loss. d. The community will rally around them during their time of grief. 28. Lack of a heartbeat is one of the criteria of which of the following? a. Wilson’s whole-brain death b. Paula’s pulmonary thanatosis c. Cathy’s cardiopulmonary death d. Peter’s persistent vegetative state 29. According to research findings, which of the following is MOST LIKELT true among older adults? a. Harriet may not expect a full resolution of grief work associated with the death of her husband. b. James would expect a full resolution of grief work associated with the death of his wife in one year. c. Jonah would expect a full resolution of grief work associated with the death of his wife in three years. d. Mary may expect no need for grief work associated with the death of her husband. 30. Which factor is NOT part of the double ABCX model of coping? a. Geographic or cultural setting b. Initial stressor c. Family perceptions d. Sources and social support 31. In a study cited in the text, how did hospice workers view a dying patient’s refusal of food and fluids in order to hasten death? a. Physician-assisted suicide b. Active euthanasia c. An expression of personal autonomy Page 4
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Chap 15_13e d. A mercy killing 32. What is the dying trajectory for someone who experiences the diagnosis of a terminal disease followed by several periods of illness and remission before death? a. Stigmatized b. Nonfatal c. Ambiguous d. Chronic 33. Who is quoted in the text as saying “I’ve tasted every victual and danced every dance; now there’s one last tart I haven’t bit on, one tune I haven’t whistled. But I’m not afraid”? a. A mother b. A teenage boy c. A great-grandmother d. A teenage girl 34. Hospice has many advantages for those with a terminal illness. Which of the following is considered one of these advantages? a. It has means available for treating the disease and intervening to delay the end of life. b. It allows the person to die in a hospital setting. c. It offers the opportunity of dying alone as friends and family are asked to leave. d. It offers emotional, spiritual, and physical comfort, helping people experience a good death. 35. The discussion of topics related to death and dying became taboo as part of the a. religious practices in early New England. b. physician-assisted suicide movement. c. psychosocial crisis of trust versus mistrust. d. culture of death as medical failure. 36. Which group in the bereavement study consisted of unhappy or unsatisfying marriages and may have had a substantial caregiving burden for an ailing spouse? a. The depressed-improved group b. The resilient group c. The chronic grief group d. The common grief group 37. The primary causes of death are different for people of different ages. What might a primary cause of death be for 6year old Aidan? a. Heart disease b. Cancer c. Abuse d. Diabetes 38. Why did the ancient Egyptians develop techniques for embalming and mummification? a. To prevent the corpses from smelling bad Page 5
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Chap 15_13e b. In order for the person’s soul to move to the next life, the body had to remain in tact c. In order to improve the chances for reincarnation as a high status animal d. So the body could be exhibited as a work of art 39. When a husband dies, his wife may need to create a new identity and social life in the community because the loss a. ended his participation in household responsibilities. b. reawakened a prior psychosocial crisis. c. affected a reciprocal social role. d. prompted introjections of her spouse. 40. Which of the following would authorize Darlene to act on behalf of her life partner about a financial or property matter as well as healthcare decisions? a. Durable power of attorney b. Living will c. Surrogate decision maker d. Directive of advice 41. Why is Dr. Cicely Saunders famous? a. Because she was the first to perform open-heart surgery b. Because she founded the Red Cross c. Because she founded the first hospice d. Because she developed chemotherapy 42. Activities designed to end a person’s life such as administering poison are referred to as a. passive euthanasia. b. expedient termination. c. the Stockholm Syndrome. d. active euthanasia. 43. Which of the following is TRUE of the Oregon Death with Dignity Act? a. It was overturned by the US Supreme Court in 1997. b. It was defeated by Oregon voters when placed on the ballot in 1997. c. It requires the patient to be 18 years or older and a resident of Oregon. d. It leaves the decision up to the physician. 44. Because of the circumstances of her brother’s death, a young woman grieves in secret and feels rejected by her social circle. His was likely a(n) ________ death. a. ambiguous b. sudden c. unacknowledged d. stigmatized 45. In Jenna’s family, when someone dies there is a one- to three-day viewing period of the body followed by a funeral service and burial. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY true of Jenna? a. She is Japanese. Page 6
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Chap 15_13e b. She is Protestant or Catholic. c. She is Muslim. d. She is Navajo. 46. Although 70% of Americans say they would prefer to die _________, about 75% actually die _________. a. at home; at work b. with a will; intestate c. at home; in a hospital d. alone; with someone present 47. The primary causes of death are different for people of different ages. What might a primary cause of death for 34year-old Anna be? a. Abuse b. Smallpox c. Starvation d. Homicide 48. As part of what you read in this chapter, why did the President’s Commission for the Ethical Study of Problems in Medicine and Biomedical and Behavioral Research perform a study? a. To determine the number of criteria for whole brain death b. To determine the number of criteria for lung disease c. To determine the number of criteria for nervous system malfunction d. To determine the number of criteria for gastrointestinal disorder 49. In order to take advantage of hospice care through Medicare, a person must a. be terminally ill with 6 months or less to live. b. be in advanced stages of Alzheimer’s disease. c. agree to use all available forms of life-prolonging measures. d. have veterans’ benefits. 50. The primary causes of death are different for people of different ages. What might a primary cause of death for 65year-old Stephanie be? a. A fire b. Cerebral palsy c. Abuse d. Diabetes 51. Which of the following is NOT an example of a dying trajectory? a. Gradual decline b. Ambiguous decline c. Sudden decline d. Ambivalent decline 52. In a qualitative study of South Africans who had lost a loved one to AIDS, bereaved adults a. were paralyzed by their grief. Page 7
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Chap 15_13e b. struggled to provide for surviving children and the sick. c. were soothed by the rituals of mourning. d. experienced each of the five stages of grief. 53. Which of the following groups was composed of people who were preoccupied with a search for meaning in trying to make sense of a spouse’s death? a. The resilient group b. The philosophical bipolar group c. The chronic explorers d. The chronic grievers 54. In one study, most people who survived the death of a loved one from cancer found the intensity of the grief response a. led to mental illness that required treatment. b. decreased by the end of the first year after the death. c. increased during the first year after the death. d. remained the same by the end of the first year after the death as it was at the time of death. 55. People in most cultures believe that a. the death of a person is the end of their existence. b. there is a spiritual component of a person’s being that continues after the body decomposes or burns. c. the spirit remains in the location where death occurred. d. a person’s spirit returns in the birth of a new child in that culture. 56. What happens in the process of introjection? a. The mourner has increased thoughts of their own death. b. The mourner feels as if the dead person is within them, guiding their behavior. c. The mourner takes over the business of the deceased. d. The mourner tries to be like the dead person. 57. Which of the following statements about death-related rituals is most accurate? a. People in the United States wash the dead person’s body with scented water. b. Muslims cover the dead person’s face with cosmetic makeup. c. American Indians cover a dead person’s face with a powdery substance made of corn. d. Hindus bury the body after 12 days. 58. Which of the following terms refers to the long-term, all-encompassing process of adjustment to the death of a loved one? a. Bereavement b. Morbid coping c. Ritualized dysfunction d. The Stockholm Syndrome 59. Which of the following is considered a function of death rituals? a. Isolating those grieving from the rest of society b. Expressing personal grievances toward the departed Page 8
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Chap 15_13e c. Increasing the mystery surrounding death d. Providing a social context for expressions of grief 60. In reflecting on the life of someone who dies, a survivor may take on valued characteristics of the deceased such as integrity, fairness, or courage. This is an example of which of the following processes? a. Identification b. Rationalization c. Introjection d. Symbiosis 61. One positive consequence of the loss of a loved may be the for the survivor. a. decline in the quality of relationships with significant others b. feelings of alienation c. growth in commitment to those in one’s radius of significant relationships d. reaction formation 62. Which of the following refers to the cognitive and emotional reactions that follow the death of a loved one. a. Denial b. Grief c. Depression d. Deification 63. According to Lindemann’s analysis, which of the following prolongs the survivor’s preoccupation with the dead person? a. Attending the funeral and the wake b. Retaining photographs of the deceased person c. Avoiding grief d. Being in contact with people who were close to the deceased 64. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’s work focused on a. family dynamics as a loved one’s death approached. b. the needs of the dying person. c. the doctor-patient relationship. d. the rights of dying children. 65. In the case of Harriet McBryde Johnson, what is the dying trajectory? a. Gradual b. Ambiguous c. Artificial d. Sudden 66. In the face of widespread catastrophes, such as the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001, a. all business, education, and transportation facilities close for one week in mourning b. life goes on as usual to reduce the terrorists’ impact c. public memorial services are televised to permit international mourning
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Chap 15_13e d. there is a ceremonial reading of the will to reflect the extensive loss of life 67. Which of the following statements is most accurate about bereavement? a. It may serve to help someone understand the grief and unhappiness of others. b. The negative emotions associated with it lead to negative outcomes. c. Expressions of grief turn others away from the griever. d. Bereavement usually impedes psychosocial growth. 68. Three of the following are goals for high quality end-of-life care according to the Hospice Education Institute. Which one is NOT one of their goals? a. Promote relief from pain. b. Integrate the psychological and spiritual aspects of patient care. c. Offer a support system to help patients live as actively as possible until death. d. Arrange for a terminally ill patient to administer his or her own lethal dose of medication. 69. In Pauline Boss’s work with families experiencing ambiguous loss, families would get into protracted arguments particularly about whether to a. attend social events. b. observe holidays in any way. c. end the mourning period. d. hold a funeral when they did not have the body. 70. Reuben Hill’s ABCX model of coping has been expanded to double ABCX. This new model a. emphasizes the societal context of death. b. allows for more extended family members to be included. c. reflects the changes in the family system over time. d. reduces the role that meaning making plays. 71. Kathleen is a dying woman living in Oregon. According to the Oregon Death with Dignity Act, which of the following must Kathleen do if she chooses to die with dignity? a. Prove she has less than four months to live. b. Request the lethal medication four times. c. Wait the 21-day waiting period, in case she were to change her mind. d. Make sure a second physician confirms her diagnosis and prognosis. 72. Which statement best describes the level of universality of Lindemann’s ideas about grief work? a. In all cultures, intense expressions of grief are considered appropriate. b. The context of death and its meaning for those who mourn suggests an individualized view of the adaptive process of bereavement is most accurate. c. The loss of a loved one after a long, painful illness always requires intense grief work. d. Counselors agree that after conditions of grave trauma, an early period of intense grieving is important for coping with immediate demands. 73. Which of the following is most accurate about the funeral rituals of Africans who have migrated to the United States? a. The entire community contributes money to cover the costs of food, burial expenses, and the family's support Page 10
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Chap 15_13e during the period of mourning. b. The body is cremated and the ashes spread over the ground in Africa where their tribe lives. c. A drum is buried with the deceased so they can communicate with the spirits. d. All members of the community receive the same burial ritual regardless of their social position. 74. Which scenario is LEAST likely to make bereavement more difficult for a surviving loved one? a. Nursing home residence for the dying person b. Lack of effective pain medication for the dying person in the last days of life c. The survivor’s perception of physician negligence d. Sudden death of the loved one 75. What prompted psychiatrist Erich Lindemann to describe three phases of the grieving process? a. Working with people who had lost loved ones in the 9/11 attacks on America b. Working with people whose relatives had experienced hardships during the Great Depression c. Working with people whose relatives had been killed in World War II d. Working with people whose relatives had been killed in the Coconut Grove fire 76. Which of the following is considered one of the techniques Pauline Boss used to help ambiguous loss families cope with their loss? a. She created storytelling meetings where adults and children were encouraged to tell something they remembered about the missing person. b. She warned groups of families who lived in the same community not to meet together because it would intensify their feelings of loss. c. She cautioned families to keep the same family rituals they always had and to observe them just as they had before the loss. d. She urged them to push for closure. 77. Which of the following statements about death-related rituals is most accurate? a. Cremation is typically associated with a belief in the liberation of the spirit. b. Burial is associated with liberation from society. c. Burial is only used in Eastern societies. d. Cremation is used as a punishment for evil deeds. 78. Abner wishes to inform his physicians and family members of his end-of-life medical preferences. Through which of the following can he BEST do this? a. A "do not resuscitate" order b. A living will c. A durable power of attorney d. A directive of advice 79. Grief may be more intense for those who lose a loved one a. who receives a great deal of pain medication. b. who dies a sudden death. c. who dies in a nursing home. d. who dies at a very old age. Page 11
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Chap 15_13e 80. Harvinder strongly believes that a person’s spirit enters a small flame that is placed in the sea as a signal to the spirit to leave the attachments of the earthly life and begin the transition to the afterlife. In which of the following cultures was Harvinder raised? a. Eastern Orthodox b. Hindu c. Muslim d. Catholic 81. Which of the following best describes the public’s opinion, from 1947 to 2007, regarding the involvement of doctors in helping a terminally ill patient end their life? a. Unchanged b. Significantly more acceptant c. Marginally more acceptant d. Marginally less acceptant 82. What is NOT one of the advantages of hospice for those with a terminal illness? a. It focuses on intensive treatment of the person’s disease using all medical means available. b. It prevents the experience of dying alone for those who do not have family and friends nearby. c. It allows the person to die in a more natural, familiar setting rather than in a hospital or nursing home. d. It offers emotional, spiritual, and physical comfort, helping more people experience a good death. 83. In the car accidnt, Wanda injured the area of her brain that controls sensory integration and cognitive functioning. What area of the brain has Wanda injured? a. The cortex b. The brainstem c. The amygdala d. The cerebellum 84. The primary causes of death are different for people of different ages. What might a primary cause of death be for 16year old Thomas? a. An automobile accident b. Diabetes c. Lung cancer d. AIDS 85. In the study that followed older couples from before the death of a spouse until 18 months after the death, which group showed a pattern of low levels of depression before the death of the spouse and continued low levels after the death of the spouse? a. The insensitive b. The resilient c. The liberated d. The chronically happy 86. Joanna’s culture teaches that there is a day each year when the dead return to their home for a visit. In which culture was Joanna raised? Page 12
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Chap 15_13e a. Estonian b. Scottish c. Navajo d. Bantu 87. A(n) occurs when a person is physically present but unable to participate in any meaningful way in family interactions, as when a person is in a coma or in late stages of Alzheimer’s disease. a. living death b. fugue state c. ambiguous loss d. stigmatized loss 88. According to Carr’s research about spousal reactions to their partners’ death, which of the following was associated with a good death? a. Keeping the partner alive using heroic means b. Having a religious leader with the partner at the moment of death c. Believing the partner had led a full life and was at peace with the idea of dying d. Feeling the partner was relieved from confusion and delirium 89. The chronic grieving pattern of bereavement was associated with a a. disruption of one’s life by the sudden death of a healthy spouse. b. lack of expression of grief related symptoms. c. co-dependent relationship with the spouse who died. d. long illness punctuated by periods of illness and periods of remission. 90. Manny (and many other people within his culture) believe that his ancestors are always with him. In which of the following countries does Manny MOST LIKELY live? a. Brazil b. Canada c. France d. Japan 91. __________are those in which people attribute the death to an immoral, illegal, or evil cause. a. Stigmatized deaths b. Acknowledged deaths c. Slow deaths d. Sudden deaths 92. The term context of loss refers to which of the following that can affect the bereavement process? a. The nature of the relationship between the deceased and the survivor b. The sudden or gradual trajectory of death c. The extent to which the survivor believes that his spouse led a full life d. All of these 93. The term physician-assisted suicide refers to Page 13
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Chap 15_13e a. when a physician arranges for the patient to administer a lethal dose of medication. b. when a physician removes a patient’s feeding tube. c. a legal means of ending a terminally ill person’s life in New Jersey. d. passive euthanasia. 94. Theresa studies the science that addresses dying, death, and psychological mechanisms of coping with them. Which of the following does Theresa study? a. Psychology b. Thanatology c. Deathology d. Biology 95. When Lindemann said that a bereaved person must achieve "emancipation from bondage to the deceased,” what did he mean? a. The person must resolve all financial ties with the deceased. b. The person must begin to form new relationships. c. The person must overcome feelings of regret for things left unsaid. d. The person must establish a memorial for the deceased. 96. Which of the following was NOT included in Lindemann’s description of grief work? a. Planning and conducting the funeral and mourning rituals b. Achieving emancipation from bondage to the deceased c. Making an adjustment to all aspects of the environment from which the deceased person is missing d. Beginning to form new relationships 97. According to the text, which of the following is one of the arguments against physician-assisted suicide? a. Legalizing assisted suicide would increase a person’s trust in and reliance on someone who is given the right to withhold care or accelerate death. b. Legalizing assisted suicide would use up precious financial resources that could be left to one’s heirs. c. Legalizing assisted suicide would be brought on by suggestive counseling. d. Legalizing assisted suicide might put pressure on the elderly to end their lives rather than be a burden to their families. 98. What term describes qualities that can affect the bereavement process such as the nature of the relationship between the deceased and the survivor, the sudden or gradual trajectory of death, and the extent to which the survivor believes that his spouse led a full life? a. Unacknowledged loss b. Context of loss c. Loss-oriented coping d. Patterns of bereavement 99. Which of the following is one of the goals for high quality end-of-life care, according to the Hospice Education Institute? a. Educate the relatives about proper death rituals. b. Offer a support system to help patients live as actively as possible until death. Page 14
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Chap 15_13e c. Keep the patient from depending on pain medication. d. Make sure the dying person makes a will. 100.
is an example of a stigmatized loss. a. The death of a nurse’s patient b. The death of a foster parent c. A death in a terrorist attack d. A death from AIDS
101. The crisis of generativity versus stagnation brings the issue of mortality to center stage because a. we are considering our impact on future generations. b. if we are stagnant we may choose euthanasia. c. death anxiety is increasing as we age. d. all the world’s a stage and all the men and women merely players. 102. All of the following are true for the Amish culture EXCEPT a. families care for their aging parents in their own homes. b. the service and ritual express the belief in a spiritual immortality. c. open communication about the process of dying. d. during the course of the person’s illness, the family lifestyle is changed to focus in on the dying person. 103. Which of the following aspects of grief is likely to be the most common and last the longest, according to studies of family members who were responsible for caring for a person suffering from later-life dementia? a. Painful emotions b. Sensory illusions that give the impression that the deceased person is still present c. Preoccupation with thoughts of the deceased person d. Feeling disconnected from reality 104. Jose believes that everything a person creates has some part of that person’s spirit in that creation. In which of the following cultures was Jose raised? a. Estonian b. Mexican c. Navajo d. Hindu 105. Which of the following is considered an example of a person for whom someone’s death is an unacknowledged loss? a. Mother of a victim of the attack on the World Trade Centers b. Spouse of a person who committed suicide c. Sister of a person in a persistent vegetative state d. Former spouse of the deceased
106. Compare and contrast at least two different cultural approaches to death. Page 15
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Chap 15_13e 107. What ethical issues can arise at the end of life? How have thoughts on euthanasia changed over the last 50 years? Differentiate between passive euthanasia and active euthanasia. 108. In what ways do people begin the process of confronting their own death? How does the dying trajectory play a part in this? 109. In what ways might bereavement contribute to psychosocial development? 110. Discuss the cultural aspects of caring for the body and the spirit after death versus also caring for the surviving family, friends, and community. What role does the concept of legacy play in where the emphasis of care is focused? 111. How has the definition of death changed over time? Differentiate between cardiopulmonary death and whole-brain death. What distinguishes one from the other, and what criteria are used to determine each? 112. Discuss the case of Harriet McBryde Johnson. Examine the challenges she confronts in facing an ambiguous death trajectory, and how her psychosocial development is likely to have been affected at the different stages of her life by the threat of her death. 113. Explain how the crisis of generativity versus stagnation brings the issue of mortality to center stage, and discuss how and why developing a point of view about death is a major developmental task during later adulthood. What role do each of these play in the crisis of immortality versus extinction? 114. Discuss the various types of advance directives. Which directives best instruct doctors and family members about your healthcare? Which ones do not? What does the absence of directives (such as a “Do Not Resuscitate” directive) mean for a dying patient? 115. Describe what is meant by the concept of “a good death.” How do hospice care and euthanasia help a person who is suffering a slow, painful death trajectory effect the effort to achieve a good death? 116. Describe some possible outcomes for someone experiencing an ambiguous loss who denies a loved one’s death and does not engage in grief work. What would be some ways to help the person? 117. What is the focus of psychosocial development? Explain the role of psychosocial development in the resolution of the crisis of identity versus role confusion. 118. How do people’s expectations often differ from the reality of death and whether or not a “good death” is achievable? What roles are played by the healthcare system and by family members in the realization of a “good death”? 119. How is bereavement associated with coping with stress? How does the Double ABCX Model of Coping with Stress help to explain this? 120. Differentiate between bereavement and grief. In what ways are these related? In what ways are they very distinct? What role does each play in older widows and widowers outlooks and in the process of coping with the death of a loved one?
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Chap 15_13e Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. b Page 17
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Chap 15_13e 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. a 41. c 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. d Page 18
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Chap 15_13e 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. b 56. b 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. b 65. b 66. c 67. a 68. d 69. d 70. c 71. d 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. a Page 19
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Chap 15_13e 77. a 78. b 79. b 80. b 81. b 82. a 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. a 90. d 91. a 92. d 93. a 94. b 95. c 96. a 97. d 98. b 99. b 100. d 101. a 102. d Page 20
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Chap 15_13e 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. Answers will vary. 107. Answers will vary. 108. Answers will vary. 109. Answers will vary. 110. Answers will vary. 111. Answers will vary. 112. Answers will vary. 113. Answers will vary. 114. Answers will vary. 115. Answers will vary. 116. Answers will vary. 117. Answers will vary. 118. Answers will vary. 119. Answers will vary. 120. Answers will vary.
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