Essentials of Biology 6th Edition Mader Test Bank Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Managing emerging diseases such as SARS is just one of the many challenges facing science today. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) The development of new technologies is based on science. ⊚
true
⊚
false
CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) Which of the following statement(s) regarding genes
A) Genes are made up of DNA. B) All cells in a multicellular organism contain the same set of genes. C) Humans receive their DNA/genes from either their mother or their father but not both. D) Variations in genes are the result of mutations.
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 4) The circulatory system of a whale is considered an
is/are true? Select all that apply.
E) All organisms such as roses, elephants and mushrooms have the same set of genes.
organ system because it is composed of different
C) organs. D) molecules. E) hearts.
A) cells. B) tissues.
5)
Which of the
following correctly lists the levels of biological organization from simplest to most complex?
A) cells, organs, tissues, organ systems, organism B) organs, organ system, organism, cells, tissues C) tissues, organs, organ systems, organism, cells D) cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism
6)
E) organ systems, tissues, cells, organism, organs
The smallest, most basic unit of life is a(n)
A) tissue. B) organ.
C) cell. D) species. E) organism.
7) Which of the following processes transforms solar energy into chemical energy?
A) metabolism B) homeostasis
C) respiration D) photosynthesis E) reproduction
8) As autumn approaches, white-tailed deer begin to accumulate a layer of body fat. This is an example of which characteristic of life?
A) maintaining homeostasis B) metabolism C) response to the environment
D) energy regulation E) organization
9) Salmon live in both fresh water and salt water during their lives. They are born in in fresh water but
migrate out to marine waters for most of their life. Eventually, they return to the place they were born in fresh water to spawn. Changing between fresh water and salt water affects the balance of water in their body. Salmon have an internalcontrol system called osmoregulationthatrestores the
A) adaptation B) reproduction and development C) response to the environment
balance by negative feedback. This is an example of which characteristic of life?
D) energy transformation E) maintaining homeostasis
10) Which of the following pairs of words is matched correctly?
A) brain - organ B) neuron - tissue C) osteocyte - organelle
D) gene - atom E) heart - organ system
11) Many insects cannot see the color red, and as a result many insect-pollinated flowers are colors other than red (e.g., purple and yellow). Flower color would be considered a(n)
A) method for maintaining homeostasis. B) way to maintain metabolism. C) adaptation.
12) Simon is an avid gardener who spends a lot of time caring for the plants in his garden. To minimize damage from pests from his garden, Simon uses a pesticide spray. After a few years of using the same pesticide spray, he notices that it
D) example of energy flow. E) example of nutrient cycling.
has become less effective. This is most likely due to
D) the plants A) evolution by natural selection. B) using the spray incorrectly. C) the plants in the garden evolving.
maintaining homeostasis. E) something else in the environment. 13) All the chemical reactions that occur in a cell are collectively called
A) mitosis. B) photosynthesis. C) cellular respiration.
D) meiosis. E) metabolism.
14) Is the following statement true or false? The only single-celled organismsare prokaryotes, such asarchaeans and bacteria.
A)
true, because prokaryotes are the simplest cell
form B) true, because all eukaryotes are multicellular C) false, because some eukaryotes, including protista, are single-celled
D) false, because some prokaryotes are multicellular E) false, because all single-celled organisms are prokaryotes
15) The various species of honeycreepers have an assortment of different beak shapes,but all honeycreeper species have a similar size and body shape. This is an example of
A) ascent with new traits. B) descent with modification. C) taxonomic differentiation.
D) fixed traits. E) modification of adaptations.
16) Based on the evolutionary tree of the three domains,which of the following statements is true?
A) All three domains have a common ancestor. B) Domain Bacteria and domain Eukarya are moreclosely related to each other than to domain Archaea.
C) The Eukarya have remained the same throughout evolutionary time. D) All three domains are equally related to oneanother. E) The Eukarya are the common ancestor to the
three domains.
17) Which of the following can be categorized as prokaryotic?
A) domain Eukarya B) kingdom Plantae C) kingdom Protista
D) domain Archaea E) kingdom Animalia
18) Is the following statement true or false? The mountain zebra ( Equus zebra) and the donkey ( Equus asinus) belong to the same species. other A) true, because they both start with Equus B) true, because they are both related to horses C) false, because the specific epithet is different D) false, because they have no similarities to each
E) true, because they belong to the same genus
19) Which of the following correctly lists the classification categories from least to most inclusive?
A) kingdom, phylum, domain, class, order family, genus, species B) domain, kingdom, class, order, family, phylum, genus, species C) species, genus, family, class, order, domain, phylum, kingdom
D) species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain E) phylum, species, genus, kingdom, domain, order, class, family
20) Phylum Arthropoda is broken into subgroups
which include both Arachnida (e.g., spiders) and Insecta (e.g., insects). As a result, Arachnida and Insecta most likely belong
to which classification category? C) family D) kingdom E) domain
A) class B) order
21) Which kingdom includes both unicellular and multicellular organisms? C) Protista D) Fungi E) Plantae
A) Eukarya B) Bacteria
22) Which of the following classification categories for humans is correct?
A) Homo sapiens: binomial name B) Homo: species C) Fungi: kingdom
23) Eli keeps a worm bin in his basement because the worms need cooler temperatures to survive. He feeds them about one pound of kitchen scraps each week. One summer the temperatures rose above the optimal temperature for the red worms (~ 85°F) and many in his colony died. However, those that survive continued to reproduce and within six months his colony was thriving again. The following summer, unusually warm temperatures once again resulted in the
A) After the first summer, a new species of worm evolved. B) The worms sensed that the temperature was going to be hot in the future and adapted.
D)
sapiens:
E) Archaea
Domain:
family
basement temperatures rising above 85°F. Surprisingly, Eli noticed that only a small portion of the worm colony died. What is the best explanation for this?
C) The worms learned how to tolerate higher temperatures. D) The worms that survived the first
summer had a higher heat tolerance and passed this trait on to their offspring. E) Temperature and worm survival are not related.
24) Which of the following levels of biological organization is correctly matched with an example?
A) a herd of bison - community B) a spider - organ system C) flowers and insects in a garden - organism D) a rock garden with various plants and rocks of
different sizes - population E) a desert with little water, high heat, sand, cacti, and some mammals- ecosystem
25) A biologist is studying how acid rain affects earthworm and beetle populations in a portion of Yellowstone National Park. What level of organization is she studying?
A) population B) community
C) ecosystem D) biosphere E) cells
26) Didinium are carnivorous protistansthat prey on other, slower moving protistans. How should Didinium be classified?
A) eukaryotic decomposer B) prokaryotic consumer C) bacterial decomposer
D) prokaryotic producer E) eukaryotic consumer
27) Sam is studying the interaction between porcupines, pinion pine
trees, and pine bark beetles. Over the course of his study in Colorado, he observes the behaviors of 25 porcupines, records the location of 151 pinion pines, and traps 332 beetles. How
A) 1 B) 3 C) 508
many populations does his study include?
D) 151 E) There is not enough information to answer the question.
28) Which of the following is the most inclusive level of organization?
A) class B) population
C) ecosystem D) species E) cells
29) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions. One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web. Later that day, a bird eats the spider. How many consumers has Kevin observed directly in this scenario? ev: 07_17_2014_QC_51325
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
31) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions. One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web. Later that day, a bird eats the spider. How many populations are involved in his study?
A) 0 B) 1
32) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions. One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web. Later that day, a bird eats the spider. Based on the organisms
A) population B) community
33)
C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
involved in this study, what level of organization is he studying? C) ecosystem D) biosphere E) cells
Which of the following is true about ecosystems?
A) nutrients are constantly recycled B) producers are a food source for both consumers and decomposers C) solar energy is required for photosynthesis
34) A pond ecosystem includes small water fleas which feed on submerged aquatic plants. When the water fleas die, they sink to the bottom of the pond where their dead bodies are broken downwith the help of bacteria. List in order the
D) chemicals are constantly recycled E) All of the above answers are true.
producer, decomposer, and consumer in this system.
A) water fleas,
bacteria, aquatic plants B) aquatic plants, water fleas, bacteria C) bacteria, water fleas, aquatic plants D) aquatic plants, bacteria, water fleas
E) bacteria, aquatic plants, water fleas
35) Male amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by feminization, deformity, behavioral abnormalities and sterility. Biologists from the University of Floridainvestigated whether reproductive problems among populations of cane toads ( Bufo marinus) arecaused by poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. The biologists collected local adult cane toadsfrom more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to agriculture, both large-scale and small-scale farms, as well as
from suburbs that are nonagricultural areas. Which of the following statements would be the best hypothesis for this study?
A) Amphibian populations are facing problems due to agricultural chemicals. B) Toxins are capable of causing diseases and deformities within many amphibian populations. C) Toads collected from suburbs had fewer deformities compared to toads collected from agricultural areas. D) Agricultural chemicals can cause deformities and
36) Male amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by feminization, deformity, behavioral abnormalities and sterility. Biologists from the University of Florida investigated whether reproductive problems among populations of cane toads ( Bufo marinus) are caused by poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. The biologists collected local adult cane toads from more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to
feminization amongst cane toads. E) More male toads from the large-scale agricultural areas showed signs of feminization.
agriculture, both largescale and small-scale farms, as well as from suburbs that are nonagricultural areas. Based on this study, what is the control group?
D) male toads A) male toads collected from the suburbs B) male toads collected from areas near large-scale farms C) male toads collected from small-scale farms
collected from all the different sites E) female toads that were not collected
37) Male amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by feminization, deformity, behavioral abnormalities and sterility. Biologists from the University of Floridainvestigated whether reproductive problems among populations of cane toads ( Bufo marinus) arecaused by poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. The biologists collected local adult cane toadsfrom more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to
A) male toads collected from the suburbs B) male toads collected from areas near large-scale and small-scale farms C) female toads collected from all the different sites D) male toads collected from all the different sites
38) Male amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by feminization, deformity, behavioral abnormalities and sterility. Biologists from the University of Floridainvestigated whether reproductive problems among populations of cane toads ( Bufo marinus) arecaused by poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. The biologists collected local adult cane toadsfrom more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to
A) Bufo marinus B) cane toad
agriculture, both largescale and small-scale farms, as well as from suburbs that are nonagricultural areas. Based on this study, what is/are the test group(s)?
E) male and female toads collected from areas near large-scale and small-scale farms
agriculture, both largescale and small-scale farms, as well as from suburbs that are nonagricultural areas. In this study, what is the genus of the study animal?
C) amphibian D) Bufo E) marinus
39) Male amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by feminization, deformity, behavioral abnormalities and sterility. Biologists from the University of
Floridainvestigated whether reproductive problems among populations of cane toads ( Bufo marinus) arecaused by poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. The biologists collected local adult cane toadsfrom more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to agriculture, both large-scale and small-scale farms, as well as from suburbs that are nonagricultural areas.Data collected by the biologists suggested a strong correlation between
A) yes, the data collected during the study strongly supports their theory B) no, the data did not show a link between the feminization of male toads and agricultural chemicals C) no, the scientists were testing a hypothesis which
feminization of male toads and agricultural chemicals. Is it accurate to state that the scientists had supported their theory that agricultural chemicals cause deformities?
is not the same things as a theory D) yes, this was a controlled study. E) no, this was a controlled study.
40) Which of the following statements is correctly matched to the step of the scientific method?
A) Biologists suggested that 2-3 cups of coffee per day can decrease death rates among women. (Hypothesis) B) Leslie set up mist nets to catch bats flying over a small stream. Each bat that was caught was weighed and sexed. (Experimental design) C) Bethany watched butterflies feeding in a large field of wild flowers. She noticed that more butterflies approached the yellow and purple flowers than the red flowers. (Observation)
D) A researcher reported that red-foot tortoises preferred redcolored fruits and vegetables to those that were green or white. (Conclusion) E) All of the above statements are correctly matched.
41) Robert, an aspiring scientist in a biology class, wanted to conduct a study on the effects of cigarette smoke on the web-building ability of spiders. Which of the following
statements is an incorrect use of terms pertaining to the scientific method? webs.
A) Robert wanted to see if his theory was true that cigarette smoke will influence web-building in spiders. B) Robert made the observation that spiders weave
C) As a control, Robert had a group of spiders that were never
exposed to cigarette smoke. D) Robert examined the webs from both the control group and the test group and the data were recorded in a table. E) Robert concluded that there was no significant
difference in the ability to weave a web under conditions of cigarette smoke compared to spiders that were not exposed.
42) Scientists were studying temperature selection amongst pregnant big brown bats. What would be the best
control group for this study? D)
A) pregnant bats B) female bats that were not pregnant C) male bats
juvenile male
bats E) juvenile female bats
43) Scientists were studying temperature selection among pregnant big brown bats. What would the test group be in this experiment? D) A) pregnant bats B) female bats that were not pregnant C) male bats
juvenile male
bats E) juvenile female bats
44) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to scientific theory?
A) Theories are accepted explanations for how the world works. B) The theory of evolution is considered the unifying concept in biology. C) Theories can help scientists generate new testable hypotheses.
D) Theories are supported by many observations and experiments. E) All of the statements about scientific theories are true.
45)
Which of the following is a true statement about
A) Many extinctions are associated with climate change. B) It is estimated that presently we are losing hundreds of species every year due to human activities. C) It is estimated that as much as 38% of all species, including most primates, birds, and amphibians, may be in danger of extinction before the end of the century.
extinction? D) Extinction is the death of a species or a larger taxonomic group. E) All of the statements about extinctionare true.
46) Which of the following statements inaccurately describes biodiversity?
A) Biodiversity is the total number and relative abundance of species, the variability of their genes, and the different ecosystems in which they live. B) The biodiversity of our planet has been estimated to be around 8.7 million species. C) The impact of human activities on biodiversity loss is one of the most significant bioethical issues that we
face today. D) So far, approximately 6 million species have been identified and named. E) Biologists are alarmed about the current rate of extinction.
47) Living organisms must constantly take in energy in order to power functions necessary to remain alive. All of the chemical reactions that involve energy conversions within a cellare called
A) evolution. B) respiration. C) photosynthesis.
D) metabolism. E) homeostasis.
48) For metabolic processes to occur within their cells, all living organisms need to maintain homeostasis which means they need
A) to maintain the correct internal temperature, moisture level, and acidity as well as other factors. B) to rely on the external conditions in the environment to maintain their body temperature. C) minute to minute and day to day fluctuations in body temperature, moisture level and acidity.
49)
The process of that environment.
leads to organisms that are
A) natural selection; adapted to B) adaption; evolved for C) homeostasis; suited to
50) that
D) natural selection; perfect for E) adaptation; only found in
In general, evolutionary processes lead to organisms
A) are perfect. B) function well in a given environment. C) can only survive in that one environment.
51)
D) to eat other organisms for energy and nutrition. E) to constantly evolve as the environment changes around them.
D) have a single adaptive trait. E) become extinct.
In science, a theory
A) is tested by an experiment. B) is more narrow in scope than a hypothesis. C) encompasses many hypotheses. D) cannot be tested.
E) is held to be an absolutely correct answer to a question.
52)
The purpose of a control group in an experiment is
A) to prove the hypothesis. B) for comparison to the other test groups. C) for comparison to the results of other experiments.
D) to prove the prediction. E) to control the dependent variable.
53) Which answer choice lists the steps of the scientific method in the correct order?
A) observation, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, conclusion B) hypothesis, observation, experiment, conclusion, predictions C) conclusion, hypothesis, observation, experiment, predictions
54)
D) observation, experiment, hypothesis, conclusion, prediction E) prediction, conclusion, hypothesis, experiment, observation
The scientific method
A) begins with the hypothesis. B) ends with the predictions. C) begins with observations.
D) ends after the experiment. E) does not require a hypothesis.
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 01 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) [A, B, D] 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) E 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) D
20) A 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) E 27) B 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) E 34) D 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) E
41) A 42) B 43) A 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) C
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Positron-emission tomography (PET) is an example of how ions are useful in medicine. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Both radioactive isotopes and stable isotopes contain the same number of electrons and protons. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) When a positively charged hydrogen in a water molecule become attracted to thenegatively charged oxygen in a nearby water molecule, this is called a ionic bond. ⊚
true
⊚
false
CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 4) Which of the following is a way that isotopes are
A) Radioactive isotopescan be used as tracers to detect molecular changes or to destroy abnormal or infectious cells. B) Radioactive isotopes can be used to regenerate damaged tissues. C) Radioactive isotopes can be used to detect Alzheimer's disease.
useful in medicine? Check all that apply.
D) Radioactive isotopes can be used to sterilize medical equipment. E) Radioactive isotopes can be used to protect against dangerous biological agents.
5) Version 1
Given the chemical 1
equation: 6 CO 2+ 6 H 2O + light → C 6H 12O 6+ 6 O 2 , identify which of the following statements are correct. Check all that apply.
A) CO 2 is a reactant B) H 2O is a product C) C 6H 12O 6 is both a reactant and a product D) O 2 is a product.
E) There is not enough information to distinguish the reactants from the products.
6) Which of the following properties of water involve hydrogen bonds? Check all that apply
A) cohesion B) high heat capacity C) surface tension
D) polarity E) water expands as it freezes
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) Which of the following would be considered a trace element in living things?
A) oxygen B) carbon
C) hydrogen D) nitrogen E) zinc
8) Which one of the following is the smallest unit of matter that has all the properties of an element?
A) molecule B) proton
Version 1
C) atom D) compound E) electron
2
A)
An element may be composed of several types of
atoms. B) The nucleus of an atom contains protons and electrons. C) The number and arrangement of electrons in an atom governs its chemical activity.
10)
Isotopes of an element differ in their
A) proton number. B) electron number. C) neutron number.
11)
E) is filled identically for every element.
An atom that has an electrical charge is called a(n)
A) ion. B) molecule.
13)
D) type of bonds. E) atomic number.
An atom's valence electron shell
A) is filled when it has three electrons. B) determines its chemical reactivity. C) determines its atomic mass. D) is filled with positively charged particles.
12)
D) The positive charges of an element are carried by the electrons. E) The neutral charges of an element are carried by the protons.
C) isotope. D) element. E) proton.
A covalent bond occurs when
A)
protons are transferred from one atom to another.
B) neutrons are shared between two atoms to form an isotope.
Version 1
C) electrons are shared between two atoms to complete their octets. D) the hydrogen of one water molecule is
3
attracted to the oxygen of another water molecule. E) electrons are transferred from one atom to
another.
14) The type of bond that would form from the transfer of an electron from one atom to another is a(n) bond.
A) covalent B) ionic
C) hydrogen D) atomic E) isotopic
15) When a sodium atom transfers an electron to a chlorine atom
A)
the sodium atom becomes a positively charged
ion. B) the chlorine atom becomes a negatively charged ion. C) the positive and negative ions will attract each other, forming a crystal if no water is present.
16)
Which of the following is a molecule?
A) H 2O B) O 2
17)
D) the ions will separate in the presence of water. E) All of the above statements are correct.
C) NaCl D) CO 2 E) MgCl 2
Glucose, C 6H 12O 6, is best described as a(n)
A) element. B) isotope.
Version 1
C) compound. D) ion. E) atom.
4
18)
A water molecule, as shown here, is polar because of
D) its hydrogen A) the transfer of electrons. B) unequal sharing of electrons. C) its ability to freeze.
bonds. E) the negative charge of the molecule.
19) The figure below is depicting the interaction of water molecules with one another. The weak attractions between water molecules are known as
A) covalent bonds. B) hydrogen bonds. C) ionic bonds.
20)
D) postive and negative ions. E) no chemical bonding.
Which of the following is a property of water?
A) Version 1
water is a good solvent
B) water is cohesive 5
C) water has a high heat capacity D) water can be found as a solid, liquid, or gas E) All of the above are properties of water.
21) Which of the following statements about basic solutions is true?
A)
Basic solutions have high concentrations of H
+
.
E) Basic solutions have a neutral pH.
B) Basic solutions have a pH under 7. C) Basic solutions release OH -. D) Basic solutions release both H+ and OH -.
22)
The pH scale is a mathematical indicator of the +
A) concentration of H present in a solution. B) concentration of OH - present in a solution. C) total amount of all ions in a solution.
D) ability of a solution to buffer. E) ability to dissolve in water.
23) After drinking a great deal of coffee (pH 5), a human's blood buffering system would need to as the coffee was digested to lower the level of acid present in the blood stream.
A) release OH B) take up H + C) release H +
Version 1
D) take up OH E) release OH and take up H +
6
24) A(n) can be defined as asubstance that keeps pH within established limits by taking up excess H +or OH - in a solution.
A) equalizer B) solute
C) buffer D) acid E) base
25) Which of the following would be an example of the value of water's heat capacity?
A) Water is able to travel up a 100-foot tree. B) Water expands as it freezes causing ice to float on the surface of a lake. C) Living organisms are able to maintain their internal body temperatures because the water in their cells
resists changes in temperature. D) Small insects can walk on water. E) Water molecules stick together.
26) Which property of water causes sugar to dissolve in coffee?
A) Water has high heat capacity. B) Water is less dense than ice. C) Water is a good solvent. D) Water is cohesive.
27)
E) Water is able to change from a gas to a solid.
When water boils
A) hydrogen bonds are broken between neighboring water molecules. B) covalent bonds are broken between oxygen and hydrogen atoms. C) ionic bonds are broken when the minerals in water are heated. D) the bond between one water molecule and Version 1
another becomes stronger. E) the hydrogen atoms break away from the oxygen and escape as vapor.
7
28) Which of the following property of water helps an individual who is exercising vigorously maintain a constant body temperature? D) Water molecules are cohesive. E) Water moleculesare adhesive.
A) Water has high heat capacity. B) Water is less dense than ice. C) Water is a good solvent.
29) Although Oregon and South Dakota are at similar latitudes, winters in Oregon arewarmer and summers in Oregon are cooler. Which of the following might explain these differences between the climate of Oregon and the climate of South Dakota?
A) South Dakota has fewer trees. B) The Pacific Ocean makes Oregon temperatures more moderate. C) Oregon receives more rainfall.
30)
D) South Dakota has fewer lakes and rivers. E) South Dakota has more prevailing winds from the west.
How does a strong acid differ from a weak acid? water. +
A) A strong acid contains fewer H in solution. B) A weak acid dissociates only partially in water. C) A strong acid is less likely to remain dissociated. D) A weak acid dissociates nearly completely in
31) Heartburn occurs when stomach acid escapes the stomach and burns the tissues of the esophagus. Baking soda is sometimes used as an antacid. How does baking soda help
A) Version 1
The baking soda is serving as a buffer to take up
E) A strong acid dissociates only partly in water.
relieve symptoms of heartburn? excess H + ions from stomach acid.
8
B) The baking soda is able to coat the lining of the esophagus thereby protecting it from the acid. C) The baking soda increases the acidity of the stomach. D) The baking soda releases salt which draws more
water into the esophagus thereby diluting the acid. E) The baking soda relaxes the stomach muscles.
32) What do lemons, tomatoes, and coffee all have in common chemically? -
A) They all produce OH ions in solution, making them bases. B) They all produce H +ions in solution, making them acids. C) They all are fruits.
D) They are all neutral in pH. E) They are all slippery to the touch.
33) Of the following examples, which best demonstrates the property of water cohesion?
A) Water can move up a 100-foot pine tree, from the roots to the leaves. B) A rock skipping across the surface of a lake. C) Water requires a great deal of heat to reach the point of vaporizing. D) A can of soda bursts when it is placed in the
34) of
Cola has a pH of 3.5. This means that it has an excess ions and would be called a(n) . A) H +; acid B) OH -; acid C) H +; base
35)
freezer. E) A large body of fresh water takes a long time to warm up after the winter season.
D) OH -; base E) H +; neutral solution
Isotopes of an atom differ in their
Version 1
9
A) atomic number. B) atomic mass. C) number of electrons.
36)
D) atomic radius. E) number of protons.
Which of the following is a property of acids?
A) Acids have a sharp or sour taste. B) Acids feel slippery when touched. C) Acids taste bitter. D) Acids release OH - when dissolved in a liquid.
E) Acids have a pH reading above 7.0.
37) An element has an atomic number of 88. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are
A) 176 protons and 88 electrons. B) 44 protons and 44 electrons. C) 0 protons and 88 electrons.
38)
D) 88 protons and 88 electrons. E) 88 protons and 44 electrons.
All atoms of the same element have the same
A) number of neutrons. B) atomic number. C) number of electrons.
D) atomic mass. E) number of ions.
39) In what ways are radioactive isotopes potentially harmful? D) They are used A) Unmonitored release into the environment can make changes in a cell's DNA. B) They are used to trace molecular changes. C) They are used to destroy abnormal cells.
Version 1
10
to determine the age of biological specimens. E) They are used to trace the path of materials throughout the body.
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11
40) The number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an average atom of any given element is best estimated by
A) adding the number of electrons and protons together. B) subtracting the number of electrons from the number of protons. C) adding the mass number to the number of electrons.
41)
D) subtracting the number of protons from the mass number. E) adding the atomic number and atomic mass together.
An atom with a neutral charge has
A) equal numbers of neutrons and electrons. B) more neutrons making it more neutral. C) the same number of protons and neutrons.
D) equal numbers of protons and electrons. E) more protons than it does electrons.
42) The atomic structure of water satisfies the octet rule by having
A)
electrons shared between the two oxygen atoms.
B) electrons from hydrogen transferred to the oxygen atom. C) electrons from oxygen transferred to the hydrogen atoms.
D) oxygen share electrons with two hydrogen atoms. E) electrons shared between the two hydrogen atoms.
43) In the reaction 6CO 2 + 6H 2O → C 6H 12O 6 + 6O 2 carbon dioxide is one of the
A) reactants. B) products.
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C) enzymes. D) elements. E) ions.
12
44)
Cells need buffering agents in order to
A) speed up chemical reactions. B) carry out life functions in extremely acidic conditions. C) minimize the changes in pH of their internal environment.
D) help transfer electrons from one atom to another. E) increase the amount of OH - in their surroundings.
45) Which of the following is a way in which chemical bonds can be formed?
A) sharing electrons B) losing electrons C) gaining electrons D) attracting opposite charges
E) All of the answers describe ways that chemical bonds can be formed.
46) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16. How many valence shell electrons does it have?
A) One B) Two
C) Three D) Four E) Six
47) Some insects can stride on the surface of water because water
A) has a high specific heat. B) has lower density when frozen. C) is a good solvent.
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D) has surface tension. E) resists temperature changes.
13
48)
The pH of pure water is
because
. ions. +
A) 7.0; water contains an equal number of H ions and OH -ions B) 14.0; water contains more OH - ions than H + ions. C) 1.0; water contains more H +ions than OH -
D) 7.0; there are no ions formed in pure water E) 5; because pure water lacks minerals.
49) Which of the following best describes the structure of how water molecules form?
A) Hydrogen atoms covalently bond with each other to create one stable valence shell of electrons. The hydrogen molecule then forms a hydrogen bond with an oxygen atom to create the water molecule. B) One oxygen atom transfers an electron to each of two hydrogen atoms, forming an ionic bond. C) The oxygen atom and hydrogen atoms form a covalent bond with one another to create stable valence shells of electrons. The electrons are shared unequally resulting in a polar molecule. D) Hydrogen bonds are formed between the two hydrogen atoms and the oxygen atom.
E) Because of its strong electronegativity, oxygenremoves one electron from two different hydrogen atoms. This satisfies the valence shell of oxygen. Then hydrogen bonds form between the two hydrogen atoms which keeps them in the vicinity of the oxygen atom.
50) The subatomic particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are the
A) protons and electrons. B) neutrons and protons. C) electrons only.
51)
D) protons only. E) electrons and neutrons.
The reactivity of an atom depends on the number of A) protons.
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B) neutrons. C) protons plus neutrons. D) valence electrons.
52)
E) protons and electrons.
Chemical bonds involve
A) the giving and taking of electrons. B) the giving and taking of protons. C) the giving, taking, or sharing of electrons. D) the giving, taking, or sharing of protons.
E) the sharing of electrons.
53) The electron arrangement for argon, which has 18 electrons, is
A) 2 in the inner electron shell, 8 in the second electron shell, and 8 in the outer electron shell. B) 8 in the inner electron shell, 8 in the second electron shell, and 2 in the outer electron shell. C) 6 in the inner electron shell, 6 in the second electron shell, and 6 in the outer electron shell. D) 5 in the inner electron shell, 6 in the second
54)
An ionic bond forms when
A) an atom gives away or takes in an electron. B) an atom gives away or takes in a proton. C) a negatively charged ion is attracted to one with a positive charge. D) two atoms come close enough to share one or
55)
electron shell, and 7 in the outer electron shell. E) 7 in the inner electron shell, 6 in the second electron shell, and 5 in the outer electron shell.
more electrons. E) two atoms come close enough to share one or more protons.
A covalent bond involves the sharing of
A) Version 1
neutrons.
B) protons. C) pairs of
15
protons. D)
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at least three electrons.
E) pairs of electrons.
16
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 02 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) [A, C, D, E] 5) [A, D] 6) [A, B, C, E] 7) E 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) B Version 1
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20) E 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) B 39) A 40) D Version 1
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41) D 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) E 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) E
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) When starch is digested, water molecules are used to break the bonds holding the monosaccharide subunits together. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) A polypeptide forms a beta pleated sheet or an alpha helix as its primary structure. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) In sickle-cell disease, malformation of red blood cells is caused by only one error in the genetic code for hemoglobin. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A) all proteins. B) lipids.
5)
4) Deoxyribose is a sugar found in C) DNA. D) glycogen. E) RNA.
Hydrolysis of sucrose, a disaccharide, results in D) two glycerol A) two monosaccharides. B) a polypeptide. C) three monosaccharides.
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1
units. E)
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the formation of a polysaccharide.
2
6) Scientists created an enzyme that will break down any type of carbohydrate. If given to humans, which of the
A) glucose B) glycerol
7)
following could be used as a new food source? C) cellulose D) cholesterol E) protein
Wood and paper are composed of
A) chitin. B) cellulose.
C) glycogen. D) cholesterol. E) lipid.
8) A triglyceride is formed when three fatty acids join a glycerol by a
A) hydrolysis reaction. B) dehydration synthesis reaction. C) polymeric reaction.
9)
D) digestive reaction. E) evaporation reaction.
A saturated fat has
A) no double bonds. B) more than one double bond. C) only one double bond.
D) many omega3 fatty acids. E) long protein chains.
10) Refer to the figure. Which of the following is true regarding the labeled plasma membrane? Version 1
3
A) Parts X and Z are hydrophobic. B) Parts W and Z are hydrophilic. C) Parts X and Y are hydrophilic.
11)
D) Parts W and Y are hydrophobic. E) Parts W and X are hydrophilic.
Testosterone is a lipid-based hormone; insulin is a -based hormone.
A) saccharide B) protein
C) steroid D) carbohydrate E) nucleic acid
12) Which of the following is in correct order from smallest to largest?
A) peptide - amino acid - polypeptide B) amino acid - polypeptide - peptide C) amino acid - peptide - polypeptide D) protein - glycerol - amino acid
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E) disaccharide polysaccharide monosaccharide
4
13)
Which of the following correctly lists the parts of a
nucleotide of RNA?
A)
E) amino acid, glycerol, nitrogencontaining base
nitrogen-containing base, deoxyribose, phosphate
B) sulfur-containing base, ribose, phosphate C) nitrogen-containing base, ribose, phosphate D) nitrogen-containing base, ribose, sulfur
14) of
A gene in DNA is the code for assembling a sequence
A) amino acids. B) glucose molecules. C) fatty acids used in a fat.
15)
D) sugars. E) functional groups.
Select the incorrect association.
A) glucose - monosaccharide B) cellulose - building block for cell walls in plants C) sucrose - table sugar
D) fructose - a polysaccharide E) starch - a long chain of glucose molecules
16) Which of the following is a true statement about proteins?
A) The three dimensional shape of a protein is a result of its secondary structure. B) Denaturation restores proteins' shape and function. C) Proteins are used to produce DNA. D) Proteins are monomers and they are built from
17)
amino acid polymers. E) Proteins are used to produce many types of hormones.
Select the correct association.
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5
A) carbohydrates—serve to insulate, protect, and store energy B) lipids—contain the codes used to construct proteins C) proteins—have three forms: monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides
D) nucleic acids —provide the body with energy E) carbohydrates —include glucose, sucrose, and starch
18) Which of the following terms should be categorized separately from the others?
A) muscle B) antibodies
19)
C) sucrose D) enzymes E) hair
Which of the following is a hydrolysis reaction?
A) amino acids forming proteins B) glycogen forming glucose molecules C) nucleotides forming DNA
D) glucose units forming starch E) fatty acids and glycerol forming a fat
20) Which word should be categorized separately from the others?
A) fats B) steroids
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C) glycogen D) phospholipids E) lipids
6
21)
The following figure represents which process?
A) dehydration synthesis B) denaturation C) polyunsaturation
22)
D) hydrolysis E) combustion
The figure below represents the formation of a molecule by the process of .
A) glycogen; hydrolysis B) DNA; dehydration synthesis C) protein; hydrolysis
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D) fat; dehydration synthesis E) polysaccharide; hydrolysis
7
23) The polymer shown below is comprised of what kind of subunits?
A) nucleotides B) triglyercides C) monosaccharides
24)
D) bases E) amino acids
Which of the following is an organic molecule? B) C 6H1 A)
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2O
CO 2 8
6
C) NaCl D) CaCl 2 E) H 2O
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9
25)
Which of the following is an inorganic molecule?
A) CaCO 3 B) C 6H 12O 6 C) C 256H 381N 65O
D) C 18H E) CH 4 79
S
Amino acids are needed to build are needed to create DNA.
D) polymers are joined to form monomers; removed E) polymers are broken up to form monomers; removed
,just as
D) A) proteins; nucleotides B) fatty acids; amino acids C) polysaccharides; monosaccharides
RNA; amino
acids E) triglycerides; nucleotides
The four main categories of organic macromolecules
A) monosaccharides, disaccharides, trisaccharides, and polysaccharides. B) proteins, DNA, waxes, and sugars. C) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
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2
. In order for this
A) monomers are joined to become a polymer; removed B) polymers are broken up to form monomers; added C) monomers are broken up to form polymers; added
28) are
O
6
26) In a dehydration reaction, to occur water is .
27)
34
D) RNA, DNA, steroids, and fats. E) lipids, starches, DNA, and protein.
10
29)
Which of the following elements are found in glucose? C) C, H, O, P D) C, H, O, N E) C, H, Cl, O
A) C, H B) C, H, O
30)
The principle role for sugars in living things is to E) produce hormones.
A) form cell membranes. B) serve as a form of long-term energy storage. C) create our genetic code. D) serve as a form of immediate cellularenergy.
31)
Glycogen is a
made of many
. D)
A) simple sugar; amino acids B) peptide; amino acids C) polymer; glucose molecules
32) When a person orders a cheeseburger with lettuce, tomato, and mayonnaise, which of the following would be a
A)
Amino acids can be obtained from the hamburger
patty. B) Glycogen will be obtained from the cheese. C) Fat will be consumed from the lettuce and tomato. D) Cellulose will be consumed from the
protein; fatty
acids E) nucleic acid; nucleotides
true statement about the nutritional intake? mayonnaise. E) Carbohydrates and cellulose will be obtained from the hamburger patty.
33) Plants store their sugar in the form of Version 1
11
A) protein. B) glycogen.
34)
C) cellulose. D) starch. E) glucose.
Humans store glucose in the form of
A) lactose. B) starch.
C) glycogen. D) glucose. E) cellulose.
35) Which one of the following is a main function of proteins?
A) energy storage B) enzymatic activity
C) genetic coding D) energy source E) insulation
36) When you eat a salad, which one of the following components will pass through the body with the least amount of digestion?
A) dressing B) croutons
37)
C) lettuce D) egg E) bacon bits
A starch molecule is to glucose as
A) a protein is to a polypeptide. B) DNA is to an amino acid. C) a lipid is to nucleic acid.
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D) a protein is to an amino acid. E) fatty acid is to a fat.
12
38)
39) as
How are lipids different from other categories of
biological molecules?
A) They are not seen in all living things. B) They do not have carbon. C) They are much more complex.
D) They will not combine with water. E) They are not organic.
If a material mixes readily with water, it is identified
A) dehydrated. B) hydrophobic.
C) saturated. D) hydrophilic. E) salty.
40) What makes saturated triglycerides considerably less healthy than unsaturated ones?
A) They taste better than other fats. B) They possess no double bonds between carbon atoms, which makes them more tightly packed together. C) Individuals tend to consume more saturated fats than unsaturated fats.
41)
A fatty acid that has double bonds is called
A) steroid. B) cholesterol.
42)
D) Unsaturated fats are found in processed foods more frequently. E) They are digested more quickly by the body.
C) unsaturated. D) abonded. E) organic.
Steroid are classified as B) lipids. A)
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proteins.
13
C) carbohydrates. D) nucleic acids. E) fats.
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14
43) Which one of the following is a potential danger of anabolic steroids?
A) liver problems B) psychological disorders C) male breast development D) heart problems
E) All of the above answers are problems associated with anabolic steroids.
44) Which of the following is a feature that proteins and polysaccharides share? units. A) They are made of repeated monomer units. B) They are both made from fatty acids. C) They both contain glucose. D) They are both long chains of repeated nucleotide
E) They both contain phosphorus.
45) Which of the following is a functional group present in amino acids?
A) -PO 4 B) -OH
46)
C) -NH 2 D) -C=O E) -CH 3
Which of the following would describe a polypeptide?
A) fatty acids joined to glycerol by hydrolysis reactions B) glucose molecules joined by dehydration synthesis reactions C) nucleotides broken by hydrolysis reactions
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D) amino acids joined by dehydration synthesis reactions E) a repeated sequence of carbon and hydrogen atoms
15
47)
What is the function ofa peptide bond?
A) joins a sodium atom to a chloride atom B) helps hold one water molecule to an adjacent one C) links oxygen to hydrogen atoms D) joins an amino acid to an adjacent amino acid
E) joins nucleotide bases to one another
48) Which of the following is least likely to be affected when a protein is denatured?
A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure
49)
The primary structure of a protein refers to the
A) interactions among two or more polypeptides. B) alpha helix or pleated sheets. C) side groups of the amino acids. D) number and sequence of amino acids.
50)
D) quaternary structure E) the folded shape of the protein
E) DNA nucleotide sequence that coded for it.
How does DNA differ from RNA?
A) DNA is in plants; RNA is found in animals. B) DNA is comprised of a double-strand; RNA is a single-strand. C) DNA is made from amino acids; RNA is made from nucleotides.
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D) DNA is used by all living things; RNA is used only in plants. E) DNA is seen in animals; RNA is seen in all living things.
16
A) a nitrogen-containing base, an amino acid, and a five-carbon sugar B) a nitrogen-containing base, an amino acid, and a phosphate group C) a nitrogen-containing base, a phosphate group,
52)
and a sugar D) a nitrogencontaining base, a fatty acid, and an amino acid E) a long chain of glucose units
A molecule is said to be organic if it contains
A) double bonds. B) hydrogen bonds. C) carbon and hydrogen atoms.
D) carbon and oxygen atoms. E) two or more atoms.
53) The term "functional" is used in the phrase "functional group" because it describes a group of atoms that
A) are organic. B) make the entire molecule hydrophobic. C) prevent interaction with other molecules. D) help determine the chemical properties of an
organic molecule. E) make the entire molecule hydrophilic.
54) What functional group makes a carbohydrate hydrophilic?
A) -OH B) -NH 2
C) -SH D) -R E) -C-H
55) The basic building block or subunit of many biological molecules is called a(n)
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17
C) monomer. D) isomer. E) chain.
A) quaternary structure. B) polymer.
56) In which of the following is the correct monomer matched with its polymer? D) A) fatty acid - DNA B) monosaccharide - lipid C) glycerol - carbohydrate
57)
protein E) nucleotide carbohydrate
Which of the following is an organic molecule? C) CO 2 D) C 43H E) H 2O
A) NaOH B) HCl
58)
64
O
Which of the following is an organic molecule?
A) CO 2 B) H 2CO
59)
amino acid -
C) Na 2CO 3 D) MnCO 3 E) CaCO 3
3
Which of the following is an inorganic molecule? D) H A) C B) C C) C
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H 9SO 3H 9H 13NO 3 10H 13N 5O 4 12
2NCH
2CN
E) COCl 2
18
4
60)
In addition to carbon, an organic molecule must
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contain
19
A) nitrogen. B) oxygen.
C) hydrogen. D) sulfur. E) phosphorous.
61) Which functional group is both polar (hydrophilic) and weakly acidic? A) –OH B) –NH 2
C) –SH D) –COOH E) –PO 4
62) Which nitrogen-containing base is found in DNA but not in RNA?
A) guanine B) thymine
C) cytosine D) adenine E) uracil
63) Which nitrogen-containing base is found in RNA but not in DNA?
A) guanine B) thymine
64)
C) cytosine D) adenine E) uracil
DNA and RNA differ in that
A) DNA is single-stranded and contains the sugar deoxyribose and the nitrogen-containing base thymine; RNA is double-stranded and contains sugar ribose and the nitrogencontaining base uracil. B) DNA is double-stranded and contains the sugar deoxyribose and the nitrogen-containing base thymine; RNA Version 1
is single-stranded and contains sugar ribose and the nitrogen-containing base uracil. C) DNA is single-stranded and contains the sugar ribose 20
and the nitrogen-containing base thymine; RNA is singlestranded and contains sugar deoxyribose and the nitrogencontaining base uracil. D) DNA is single-stranded and contains the sugar deoxyribose and the nitrogen-containing base uracil;RNA is double-stranded and contains sugar ribose and the nitrogencontaining base thymine. E) DNA is double-stranded and contains the sugar
65) to
DNA functions to .
, while RNA’s function is
A) store the information to make a new organism; contain the information to make a new cell. B) store information to produce gametes; contain the information to make a protein. C) store information to produce proteins; contain the information to make DNA. D) stores genetic information; aids in the processing
66) ATP is a molecule used for energy transport inside the cell. The components of ATP are a nitrogen-containing base, a 5-carbon sugar, and three phosphate groups. Given this
A) amino acid. B) carbohydrate.
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ribose and the nitrogencontaining base thymine; RNA is single-stranded and contains sugar deoxyribose and the nitrogen-containing base uracil.
of the information within the DNA into proteins. E) store information to produce a new protein; contain the information to make mRNA.
structure, ATP is classified as a(n)
C) lipid. D) nucleic acid. E) protein.
21
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
67)
67.1) Which of the following levels of a protein are susceptible to denaturation?
A) primary and secondary structures B) secondary and tertiary structures C) tertiary and quaternary structures
D) primary and tertiary structures E) primary and quaternary structures
67.2) Which of the following levels of protein folding would include shapes identified as helix and pleated sheet?
A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure
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D) quaternary structure
22
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23
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 03 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) C 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) E 18) C 19) B Version 1
24
20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) D 40) B Version 1
25
41) C 42) B 43) E 44) A 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) C 56) D 57) D 58) B 59) E 60) C 61) D Version 1
26
62) B 63) E 64) B 65) D 66) D 67) Section Break 67.1) C 67.2) B
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27
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Both the nuclear membrane and the plasma membrane are composed of phospholipids. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) The hydrophilic parts of the plasma membrane are oriented towards both the outside of the cell and the cytoplasm. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Plant cells have walls but do not have plasma membranes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Proteins within the extracellular matrix play a role in communicating between the matrix and the cytoskeleton. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) Some proteins within a cell can be viewed with D) A) the human eye. B) an electron microscope. C) a light microscope.
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a magnifying
glass. E) a dissecting microscope.
1
6) Below is a diagram of a bacterium. What part of the bacterial cell does Y represent?
A) capsule B) flagella
7)
C) nucleoid D) cell wall E) fimbriae
Receptor proteins allow a cell to
A) transport water into the cytoplasm. B) bind to signal proteins from other parts of the
D) perform metabolic reactions. E) divide.
body. C) allow the passage of H + ions into the cell.
8) Which of the following allows eukaryotic cells and their organelles to move?
A) the cytoskeleton B) the endomembrane system C) chloroplasts
9)
D) the plasma membrane E) the nucleus
Chromosomes are made from
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2
A) condensed vesicles. B) expanded ribosomes. C) expanded polysaccharides.
10)
D) condensed chromatin. E) cell recognition proteins.
Which of the following is a correct match?
A) ribosomes - lipid synthesis B) Golgi apparatus - production of cellular ATP C) mitochondria - protein alteration and packaging D) lysosomes - cellular digestion
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum storage of water
11) Which of the following is a correct match of a molecule and the location where it is principally used?
A) DNA - cytoplasm B) mRNA - nucleus and cytoplasm C) rRNA - nucleus
D) glucose lysosome E) lipids ribosome
12) Which organelle modifies the contents within vesicles and then repackages them for export?
A) smooth ER B) rough ER C) Golgi apparatus
D) ribosomes E) plasma membrane
13) Which of the following is the correct sequencethrough the endomembrane system for material that is destined to besecreted from the cell?
A) rough
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3
endoplasmic reticulum - Golgi apparatus - plasma membrane B) Golgi apparatus - ribosome - plasma membrane C) nucleus - smooth endoplasmic reticulum - Golgi apparatus D) Golgi apparatus - smooth endoplasmic reticulum
14)
In which way are vesicles different from vacuoles?
A) they are not made from membranes B) they are smaller C) vesicles are more specialized than vacuoles D) they are most often involved in storage
15)
E) they are primarily found in plant cells
Both plants and animals need mitochondria to
A) produce glucose. B) produce ATP. C) produce lipids.
16) both
- plasma membrane E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum plasma membrane - Golgi apparatus - ribosome
D) break down proteins. E) manufacture phospholipids.
Chloroplasts and mitochondria are similar in that they
A) contain DNA. B) are involved in protein production for the cell. C) are involved in cellular waste processing. D) are membranous sacs involved in storage.
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E) are involved in helping to maintain cell shape.
4
17) The stack of thylakoids labeled "A" in this figure is called
A) chloroplast. B) thylakoid space.
C) granum. D) cristae. E) stroma.
18) Which of the following is a type of intracellular protein?
A) actin filaments B) myosin C) microtubules
19)
D) kinesin E) All of the above are types of intracellular proteins.
Plant cells are connected to one another by
A) plasmodesmata B) fimbriae
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C) centrioles D) cytoskeleton E) pili
5
A)
enables cells to migrate along intracellular fibers
B) permits communication between the extracellular matrix and the cells C) creates a variety of consistencies for cells to live in, from flexible cartilage to solid bone
21)
D) helps cells have flexibility E) All of the answers are possible functions of the extracellular matrix.
Without gap junctions in certain tissues,
A) cells would not be able to communicate with each other. B) fluids may leak out past the barrier the junction would create. C) the tissues would not be able to expand and stretch without damage.
D) nutrients would not be able to be passed from cell to cell. E) cells would not be able to migrate during their development.
22) Which of the following structures would not be found only in a eukaryoticcell?
A) cell membrane B) nucleus
C) ribosomes D) flagella E) chromosomes
23) Which of the following is a correct matching of an organelle and its function?
A) Golgi apparatus - protein synthesis B) mitochondrion - cellular respiration C) lysosome - transport
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D) vacuole control center E) endoplasmic reticulum - houses DNA
6
A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria D) ribosomes E) chloroplasts
25) There is an antibiotic called streptomycin that inhibits the function of bacterial ribosomes. Consequently, as the bacterial cells die, the person taking the antibiotics gets better.
In other words, the antibiotic destroys bacteria by
A) stopping photosynthesis. B) preventing them from packaging materials. C) stopping the production of ATP energy.
D) not allowing them to produce proteins. E) stopping them from being able to move.
26) Identify the organelle - function pairing that is mismatched.
A) flagella - long, tail-like structure used in motility of some cells B) ribosomes - capable of producing proteins for the cell C) plasma membrane - outermost barrier of a plant cell
D) lysosomes contain digestive enzymes that can digest molecules or cellular components E) nucleus houses the DNA used for controlling all cell function
27) Carrie would like to observe the cilia on the surface of a live paramecium—a single-celled organism. The best device to do this would be a(n)
A) light microscope. B) electron microscope. C) magnifying glass.
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D) unaided eye. E) dissecting microscope.
7
28) Which statement below is correct when comparing plant and animal cells?
A) Plant cells only have a cell wall, and animal cells only have a plasma membrane. B) Plant cells only have a plasma membrane, and animal cells only have a cell wall. C) Both plant and animal cells have a plasma membrane, and plant cells also have a cell wall.
29) A cell being observed under a microscope has a cell wall, plasma membrane, ribosomes, and chromosomal material that is not found in a nucleus. Based on this
D) Both plant and animal cells have a plasma membrane and a cell wall. E) Both plant and animal cells have a cell wall, but only animal cells have a plasma membrane.
information, the cell could be a
D) A) cell from a cactus. B) cell from a mushroom. C) bacterial cell.
30)
fish. E) cell from a paramecium.
A general eukaryotic cell is typically in the area of
A) 0-1 mm. B) 1-10 nm.
31) cell?
cell from a
C) 1-10 μm. D) 10-100 μm. E) 10-100 mm.
What must materials pass through to enter or leave a
A) ribosome B) nucleus C) plasma membrane
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D) lysosome E) vacuole
8
32)
What function does the nucleolus have?
A) houses the chromatin B) prepares products for export from the cell C) contains enzymes for intracellular digestion
33)
Which of the following organelles lacks a membrane?
A) nucleus B) chloroplast
34)
D) contains the majority of cellular DNA E) synthesizes ribosomal RNA
C) mitochondrion D) lysosomes E) ribosomes
Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
A) prepares molecules for export from the cell B) provides a place for produced cellular materials to be refined C) manufactures molecules
D) acts as the control center of the cell E) assists in moving materials from one part of the cell to another
35) Which of the following is involved in the breakdown of damaged organelles?
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) lysosome C) ribosome
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum E) peroxisome
36) Which of the following organelles would be abundant in a sperm cell that is actively swimming towards an egg cell? C) smooth A) mitochondria B) lysosomes Version 1
9
endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus E) ribosomes
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10
37) A tadpole that is undergoing metamorphosis into a frog and no longer requires a tail. Which organelle would help assist in the tail loss?
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) vacuoles
C) centrioles D) microtubles E) lysosomes
38) Which of the following statements describes the function of a chloroplast?
A) It converts light energy into chemical energy. B) It aids in intracellular digestion. C) It manufactures proteins.
39)
D) It converts chemical energy into heat energy. E) It stores water.
Mitochondria are found in
A) plant cells. B) animal cells only. C) both plant cells and animal cells.
D) neither plant cells nor animal cells. E) animal cells and bacterial cells only.
40) A cell that cannot produce enough energy to function properly most likely has a problem with its
A) nucleus. B) vacuoles. C) mitochondria.
D) Golgi apparatus. E) chloroplasts.
41) Mitochondria andchloroplasts are similar Version 1
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in that they both ,but are different in that mitochondria, but not chloroplasts, .
A) are involved in energy conversions; are found in nearly all eukaryotic cells B) are found in bacteria; are used to capture radiant energy and convert it into chemical energy C) are organelles involved in the production of proteins; are found in animal cells D) produce glucose needed for cellular processes;
are found in plant cells E) are responsible for cell movements; help to produce the microtubules seen in cilia
42) What does the folding of the mitochondrial inner membrane, shown here, provide?
A) increased surface area for light absorption B) increased surface area for photosynthesis C) greater ability to remove waste from the cell
D) greater surface area for ATP production E) increased space for protein synthesis
43) Which of the following human cells would contain cilia?
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D) neuron E) bone cell
A) red blood cell B) sperm C) cell from the trachea (windpipe)
44) Cell size is limited because cell's function.
is critical to a
A) the number of microvilli B) the size of the nucleus C) cilia movement
45)
D) surface-areato-volume ratio E) the ability to photosynthesize
A prokaryotic cell
A) lacks DNA. B) does not have a membrane-bound nucleus. C) does not have ribosomes. D) does not have cytoplasm.
E) is typically larger than a eukaryotic cell.
46) The cell walls of bacterial cells and plant cells function in D) A) moving organelles throughout the cell. B) maintaining cell shape. C) producing the cytoskeleton.
containing
DNA. E) modifying lipids and proteins.
47) Surface-to-volume ratio is an important characteristic for cell function; some cells increase their ratio by
A) developing finger-like projections. B) having multiple membranes surrounding them.
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C) growing extremely large to increase their surface area.
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D) using amoeboid movement to spread out farther. E) using phagocytosis to pull the membrane inward.
48) All cells have some characteristics in common; both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have
A) cytoplasm, a plasma membrane, and DNA. B) a cell membrane and cytoplasm. C) a nucleus and a cell membrane. D) cytoplasm, a plasma membrane, and a nucleus.
E) DNA and a cell membrane.
49) As a molecule moves through the plasma membrane it passes through
A) a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid heads, then a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid tails, and then another hydrophobic layer of phospholipid heads. B) a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails, then a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads, and then another hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails. C) a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads, then a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails. D) a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads, then a
hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails, and then another hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads. E) a hydrophobic layer of phospholipid tails, and then a hydrophilic layer of phospholipid heads.
50) The glycoproteins found in the plasma membrane function in what capacity?
A) to transport molecules across the membrane B) establishing the identity of the cell C) to attach to the cytoskeleton on the interior of the cell and maintain the cell in a position relative to other cells
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D) to maintain the membrane’s fluidity E) to catalyze reactions that are crucial to the cell’s functioning
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51) Since the plasma membrane blocks the passage of all but a few molecules with specific traits, it is necessary for other molecules to
A) pass through the membrane via pores made of carbohydrates. B) be broken down into their constituent atoms to move through the membrane. C) be converted into other types of molecules so that they meet the specific traits necessary.
52)
Receptor proteins
A) receive incoming nutrients and store them until they are needed by the cell. B) only function in very specific cell types that receive sensory information. C) bind to a signal molecule and bring about a cellular response. D) are found embedded in the nuclear membrane
53)
D) pass through the membrane via nucleic acids. E) pass through the membrane via proteins.
andtransmit information to the cell’s cytoplasm on how to make a protein from the DNA. E) receive large molecules and transmit them through the membrane.
Which of the following is a function of glycoproteins?
A)
to stitch cells together so that they do not move
apart B) to allow information to pass between adjacent
D) to permit cells to recognize one another E) to allow cellto-cell communication
cells C) to bind cells together into a functional organ
54) Eukaryotic cells have DNA enclosed in a double membrane called the nucleus. The nucleus functions to
A)
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separate the DNA from other activities that occur
in the cytoplasm. B) prevent the
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DNA from influencing the activities in the cytoplasm. C) prevent materials associated with the DNA from coming into contact with the cell’s cytoplasm. D) separate the DNA and mRNA from the
cytoplasm. E) separate the DNA from the RNA.
55) The nucleus has a double membrane that encloses the DNA. Inside the nucleus, the DNA acts as the template to produce mRNA and ribosomes.To exit the nucleus, these molecules must
A) diffuse through the double membrane into the cytoplasm. B) pass through carrier proteins which use ATP to transport the molecules. C) attach to carrier molecules that carry them through the membrane.
56)
The main structural component of a plant cell wall is
A) cytoskeleton. B) cellulose. C) extracellular matrix.
57)
D) pass through pores that span both membranes. E) be transported across the two membranes by means of vesicles.
D) plasmodesmata. E) middle lamella.
Plant cells have plasmodesmata that
A) function in photosynthesis. B) are the sites of starch production. C) resemble the cytoskeleton of animal cells. D) take the place of the plasma membrane that
would be found in animals. E) connect the cytoplasm of one cell with that of another.
58) Compared with a eukaryotic cell, a prokaryotic cell Version 1
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A) lacks organelles beyond ribosomes. B) is larger. C) does not require energy.
59)
D) is not living. E) has no method of movement.
Which feature is found in all cells?
A) plasma membrane composed of phospholipids B) nucleus containing DNA C) cell wall composed of cellulose
D) flagella E) Golgi apparatus
60) Which structures determine the flexibility of the extracellular matrix?
A) proteins B) lipids
C) carbohydrates D) phospholipids E) nucleic acids
61) Which is the most common type of intercellular junction between cells of the bladder?
A) adhesion junctions B) gap junctions C) tight junctions D) plasmodesmata
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E) None of these are found between cells of the bladder.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 04 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) E 19) A Version 1
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20) E 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) E 33) E 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) E 38) A 39) C 40) C Version 1
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41) A 42) D 43) C 44) D 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) E 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) E 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A Version 1
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Less energy is needed to bring about a reaction when an enzyme is present. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) When a car burns gasoline, much of the energy is released in the form of heat.Which of the following best describes this process in relation to the first law of thermodynamics?
A) energy is conserved B) energy can be changed from one form to another C) energy is often destroyed
3)
D) all energy comes from the sun E) energy is always used up in reactions
Which of the following terms best describes entropy?
A) order B) disorder C) potential energy
D) kinetic energy E) energy conversions
4) Which of the following is an example of potential energy rather than kinetic energy?
A)
an apple made up of energy-rich macromolecules
B) a firefly using light flashes to attract a mate C) a skier at the bottom of the hill instead of the top
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of the hill D) a pile of leaves that have been burnt E) a candle giving off light
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5) Which of the following statements about ATP is inaccurate?
A) ATP is formed when energy is released during cell respiration. B) When ATP becomes ADP + P, the amount of energy released is enough for a biological purpose. C) ATP is comprised of a sugar, base, and two phosphate groups.
D) ATP contains the energy form used for cellular work. E) ADP is lower in potential energy than ATP.
6) Considering the ATP cycle, which of the following would have the most potential energy to perform work for cell activities? C) adenosine D) AMP E) H + ions
A) ATP B) ADP
7)
ATP releases energy when D) A) a ribose is added. B) adenine is removed. C) a phosphate is removed.
deoxyribose is
added. E) strikes it.
sunlight
8) Which of the following is best associated with a coupled reaction? reaction. A) ATP consumes energy from another metabolic reaction. B) ADP often transfers a phosphate to the reactant. C) The breakdown of ATP generally releases more energy (and heat) than is needed to power the metabolic Version 1
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D) ATP gains a phosphate group during the metabolic reaction. E) ADP is used up in the metabolic reaction.
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9) ATP breakdown provides the energy necessary for muscle contraction. This is an example of which concept?
A) coupled reactions B) the first law of thermodynamics C) enzyme inhibition
D) receptormediated endocytosis E) active transport
10) Which of the following correctly lists the order in which energy flows through an ecosystem?
A) solar energy - mitochondria - chloroplast B) chloroplast - solar energy - mitochondria C) solar energy - chloroplast - mitochondria D) mitochondria - solar energy - chloroplast
11)
E) chloroplast mitochondria - solar energy
Energy of activation
A) is the energy required for molecules to react with each other. B) requires the use of enzymes. C) allows for feedback inhibition. D) acts on the products of metabolic reactions.
E) is a measure of the amount of solar radiation striking a leaf surface.
12) The part of the enzyme into which the substrate fits is called the
A) feedback site. B) active site. C) substrate location.
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D) inhibitor. E) solute.
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13)
What process typically regulates the enzymes involved
in metabolic reactions?
A) substrate inhibition B) pH change C) ATP blockage D) feedback inhibition E) temperature levels
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14) What function do the carrier proteins embedded in the cell membrane serve?
A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) support for the membrane
D) receptor for hormone molecules E) osmosis
15) Which of the following is a mechanism used to regulate enzyme activity?
A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) active transport
16)
D) feedback inhibition E) phagocytosis
Simple diffusion of molecules occurs
A) from an area of lesser concentration to an area of greater concentration. B) in nonliving systems as well as living systems. C) across plasma membranes only through transport proteins. D) until those molecules are more highly
concentrated on one side of the plasma membrane. E) only in molecules that are in a gaseous state.
17) Simple diffusion across a plasma membrane is called passive transport because it
A) does not require the presence of an enzyme. B) requires energy from the cell. C) does not require energy from the cell. D) does not require control by the nucleus.
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E) moves molecules from low to high concentration.
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18)
Molecules move from greater to lesser concentration
A) simple diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) pinocytosis.
through a carrier protein in D) active transport. E) phagocytosis.
19) What prevents a plant cell from bursting in a hypotonic solution?
A) plasma membrane B) transport proteins, which help pump the excess water out of the cell C) the presence of a cell wall
20)
D) water moving out of the cell E) the presence of chloroplasts
The opposite of a turgid plant cell is a
A) hypertonic plant cell. B) osmotic plant cell. C) isotonic plant cell.
D) plasmolyzed plant cell. E) ruptured plant cell.
21) During an osmosis experiment in class, you look at some cells under the microscope. You notice the cells look shriveled. What type of solution were the cells immersed in?
A) hypotonic B) isotonic
22) If the concentration of the solute is the same in the cell as it is in the surrounding solution, the cell is in a(n)
A) Version 1
isotonic.
C) hypertonic D) diffuse E) ionic
envir onment. B) hypertonic. C) hypotonic. 7
D)
osmotonic.
23) Intestinal cells absorb glucose via active transport. What would happen if all the mitochondria within these
A) Glucose absorption would increase. B) The cells would switch to sucrose. C) Glucose absorption would decrease. D) Glucose absorption would not be affected.
E) saturated.
intestinal cells were destroyed? E) Glucose absorption would be slow at first and then increase.
24) A white blood cell surrounds and engulfs a worn-out red blood cell. This process is called
A) active transport. B) phagocytosis. C) exocytosis.
D) pinocytosis. E) facilitated diffusion.
25) Which of these words should be classified separately from the others?
A) osmosis B) diffusion C) passive transport
D) active transport E) facilitated diffusion
26) The concentration of calcium in a cell is 3%. The concentration of calcium in the surrounding fluid is 1%. Which of the following processes could the cell use to obtain more calcium?
A) passive transport B) diffusion Version 1
C) active transport D) osmosis
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E)
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pinocytosis
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27) During an osmosis experiment, you place some plant cells under the microscope. You notice the cells seem very swollen. What type of solution were the cells immersed in?
A) isotonic B) ionic
28) A tube with a membrane covering the bottom is placed in a beaker. The membrane allows water to flow through but not salt or glucose. If the tube contains an aqueous solution with4% salt and 20% glucose and the beaker contains an
A) The level of the solution in the tube would rise because there are more dissolved solutes present in the beaker than in the tube. B) The level of the solution in the tube would lower because the glucose and salt would move into the tube. C) The level of the solution in the tube would rise because there are more dissolved solutes in the tube than the beaker. D) The level of the solution would not change as the
C) hypotonic D) hypertonic E) salt
aqueous solution with 12% salt and 6% glucose, what would happen to the level of the water in the tube? membrane prohibits any exchange between the tube and the beaker. E) The level of solution in the tube would not change because the solute levels are equal on both sides.
29) A tube with a membrane covering the bottom is placed in a beaker. The membrane allows water to flow through but not salt or glucose. The tube contains an aqueous solution with4% salt and 20% glucose and the beaker contains an aqueous solution with 12% salt and 6% glucose. How could you describe the solution in the beaker compared to the solution in the tube?
A) The beaker solution is hypertonic to the tube solution. B) The beaker solutionishypotonic to the tube solution. Version 1
C) The beaker and tube solutions are isotonic to each other. D) The beaker solution issweeter than the 10
tube solution. E) The beaker contents and the tube contents will
not change.
30) What process allows water to move across a cellmembrane?
A) osmosis B) active transport C) phagocytosis
D) facilitated diffusion E) passive transport
31) If blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution, the cells will
A) shrink due to water loss by the cell. B) be unaffected since they have a cell membrane to separate them from the solution. C) swell due to diffusion.
D) burst due to active transport. E) shrink due to the loss of solutes from the blood cell.
32) Factors that may affect the passage of materials across cell membranes include
A) concentration. B) size. C) time.
33)
D) charge. E) all of the above answers.
Which of the following is an example of osmosis?
A) Glucose is transported from our blood stream across cell membranes and into the cytoplasm. B) Sodium is pumped across a cell to increase its concentration on one side of the cell membrane.
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C) The fragrance from a broken bottle of perfume travels throughout the department store. D) A bacterium
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in the blood stream is engulfed by a white blood cell. E) Cells in our kidneys reabsorb water to reduce the
amount of water lost in our urine.
34) What is the biological risk of using salt on icy roads in parts of the country that have a cold winter season?
A) The salt has the risk of leeching into the ground and creating a hypertonic environment for plant cells. B) Plant root cells will grow in excess to try to reach fresh water. C) Plant cells will take on excess water from the melted ice and become turgid. D) Salt is in limited supply in the ecosystem and this
35) When a potted houseplant is wilting, the addition of water quickly changes the look of the plant. This can be
A) The water creates a hypertonic environment causing the cells to lose water. B) The water creates a hypotonic environment causing cells to lose water. C) The water creates a hypertonic environment causing the cells to gain water. D) The water creates a hypotonic environment
36) When neurons release their neurotransmitters, they release them in secretory vesicles that fuse with the plasma
A) active transport B) diffusion
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type of overuse will make it even more so. E) The deer in these areas have the danger of consuming too much of it as they forage for food.
accounted for by which of the following statements? causing the cells to gain water. E) The water creates an isotonic environment that allows for the cells to neither gain nor lose water.
membrane. What type of cellular transport is this? C) exocytosis D) pinocytosis E) osmosis
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A) Salting meat serves as a preservative. B) Vegetables placed in fresh water firm up. C) A sugar cube dissolves in coffee. D) Strawberries placed in sugar become syrupy.
E) Eating salty popcorn makes people's lips dry.
38) Which one of the following molecules is able to move across the cell membrane by simple diffusion?
A) DNA B) hemoglobin
C) carbon dioxide D) glucose E) starch
39) Pickles are often preserved in a 20-30% salt solution called brine. How does this method prevent contamination by microorganisms?
A) Bacteria can't survive in a hypertonic solution because they lose water. B) Bacteria can't survive in hypotonic solutions because of the added pressure of the water they take in. C) Bacteria cells are unable to digest the salt, thus killing the cells by starvation. D) The high-salt concentration increases the pH of
the environment, making it unfavorable for bacteria to live there. E) The high-salt concentration creates an isotonic environment that the bacteria cannot live in.
40) Which of the following methods of transport uses a coated pit to take in a specific type of molecule?
A) passive transport B) receptor-mediated endocytosis C) osmosis
D) exocytosis E) facilitated diffusion
41) A patient who is admitted to the hospital Version 1
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shares that she has been taking "water pills" to help her lose weight. Her skin and mucous membranes are dry, and she is complaining of a headache. The physician asks for an IV treatment to be promptly administered. Based on the
A) hypotonic B) isotonic
42)
information given, what would likely be the type of IV solution given to this patient? C) osmotic D) hypertonic E) saturated
ATP is a good source of energy for a cell because
A)
it is able to be used in only one type of reaction.
B) its breakdown is coupled with energy-requiring reactions. C) it provides excess energy for cellular reactions.
D) it is not reusable. E) it takes no energy to make it.
43) Which of the areas shown in the figure below indicates the presence of an enzyme?
A) a B) b
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C) c D) d E) Both a & d
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44) Which of the types of cellular activities listed below can proceed without ATP energy?
A) active transport B) muscular contraction C) flagella movement
D) passive transport E) protein synthesis
45) Which of the following statements correctly describes an energy transformation in living organisms?
A) Chloroplasts convert solar energy to the chemical energy of nutrient molecules. B) Mitochondria convert ATP molecules into glucose. C) Chloroplasts produce CO 2 and H 2O during photosynthesis.
D) Mitochondria capture solar energy and convert it to oxygen. E) Chloroplasts burn glucose into ATP molecules during cell respiration.
46) Which of the following is an example of kinetic energy?
A) the energy in a glucose molecule B) the energy contained in a rock sitting at the top of a cliff C) the skier traveling downhill
47) The second law of thermodynamics states that all energytransformations resultin an increase in entropy (disorder). If so, how does photosynthesis, which is an energy
A)
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Plants do not obey the second law of
D) the energy contained in a hamburger E) the energy of a diver standing on a diving board
transformation, create order rather than disorder?
thermodynamics. B) Plants take
15
highly ordered molecules like glucose and break them into smaller disordered molecules like carbon dioxide and water. C) Plants do not have mitochondria like animals and therefore cannot create disorder. D) The tree takes in small disordered molecules like carbon dioxide from the air and water from the earth and
using solar energy produce highly ordered sugar molecules likeglucose. E) Photosynthesis does not actually create order.
48) Both starch and cellulose are made by stringing together many glucose molecules, but starch is easily digested by humans, while cellulose is indigestible. The starch polysaccharide has every bond occurring below the sugar rings while the bonds in cellulose alternate between one bond
above the ring and the next below the ring. How can you explain humans' inability to digest cellulose?
A) The enzyme that breaks down starch can only fit the specific bond configuration of bonds below the ring. B) Humans do not eat cellulose. C) The acidic molecules found in stomach acid cannot act on the bonds that are above the sugar rings in cellulose. D) The alternating bonds make the cellulose
molecule too large and bulky to enter cells for digestion. E) Cellular respiration is only capable of breaking down specific bonds.
49) Why do metabolic pathways require tens to hundreds of different enzymes?
A) The enzymes are used up after one reaction and the molecules have to undergo multiple rearrangements. B) The enzyme is deformed by the interaction with the substrate and needs a period of time to return to its original reactive form, so many enzymes are needed to keep the pathway going. C) Each enzyme has a specific substrate and produces a specific product. D) Multiple enzymes are not required for the pathway, but having them speed up the production of the final
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product. E) The enzymes are attached to a membrane and cannot move to the location of the new intermediate, so having a long line of enzymes to carry out the reaction allows the reaction to occur faster.
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50) Enzymes are usually named based on the substrate that they bind. This is possible because
A) enzymes all have the same shape. B) each type of enzyme binds only one specific substrate. C) enzymes are used up in the reaction.
51)
D) an enzyme is only associated with one metabolic pathway. E) enzymes speed up the rate of a reaction.
Enzymes are able to speed up the rate of a reaction by
A) transferring electrons from one substance to another. B) binding substrates to a membrane. C) producing more enzymes.
D) lowering the energy needed for the reaction to proceed. E) producing more substrates.
52) Once the substrate moves into the active site of the enzyme,
A) the enzyme breaks the substrate into three products. B) the two molecules fuse together to form the product. C) the enzyme alters in shape to more closely fit the substrate.
D) the substrate alters shape to more closely fit the active site. E) the substrate and enzyme both alter shape to fit together.
53) The changing of an enzyme’s shape as the substrate binds to the active site is called the
A) substrate binding theory. B) induced fit model. C) metabolic pathway.
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D) energy of activation. E) enzyme binding theory.
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54) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the first law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be changed from one form to another. B) One usable form of energy cannot be completely converted into another usable form. C) One usable form of energy can be completely
55)
converted into another usable form. D) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. E) Energy cannot be transformed.
Which energy association is correct?
A) Kinetic energy is energy of motion. B) Water stored behind a dam is an example of kinetic energy. C) Energy in the chemical bonds of a molecule is kinetic energy.
D) Potential energy must be used immediately or it is lost. E) Light energy is a form of chemical energy.
56) Which of the following is a byproduct of photosynthesis that is used during cellular respiration?
A) oxygen B) NADH
C) carbon dioxide D) ATP E) FADH 2
57) Where within the cell is the majority of ATP produced?
A) mitochondria B) cytoplasm C) nucleus
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D) endoplasmic reticulum E) Golgi body
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58)
Which statement most accurately describes the second
A) Energy cannot be changed from one form to another without a loss of usable energy. B) One usable form of energy can be completely converted into another usable form. C) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, but it can be changed from one form to another.
law of thermodynamics? D) Energy can be created or destroyed. E) Energy can be recycled within an ecosystem.
59) In feedback inhibition of a metabolic pathway, where does the inhibitor bind?
A) to the first enzyme in the pathway B) to the first substrate in the pathway C) to the first product produced in the pathway
D) to the last enzyme of the pathway E) to the last substrate in the pathway
60) Which form of passive transport allows small noncharged molecules, such as oxygen, to cross the cell membrane?
A) diffusion B) osmosis
61)
C) plasmolysis D) phagocytosis E) pinocytosis
Which of the following is a passive process?
A) diffusion B) sodium/potassium pump
C) pinocytosis D) phagocytosis E) exocytosis
Answer Key
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Test name: Chapter 05 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) C
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20) D 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) C 27) C 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) E 33) E 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) C 38) C 39) A 40) B Version 1
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41) A 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A Version 1
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The products of photosynthesis are water and carbon dioxide. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Which of the following organisms can perform photosynthesis? C) animals D) invertebrates E) vertebrates
A) algae B) fungi
3) The innermost compartment of a chloroplast formed by the interconnected thylakoids is the D) thylakoid A) stroma. B) thylakoid membrane. C) chlorophyll.
4)
space. E) leaf space.
Inside the chloroplasts, chlorophyll is found in the
A) mesophyll. B) thylakoid space. C) thylakoid membrane.
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D) stroma. E) cytoplasm.
1
C) cytoplasm. D) stroma. E) christae
A) granum. B) chlorophyll.
6) In a redox reaction, reduction means oxidation means .
, and
D) loss of water; gain of water E) gain of protons; loss of protons
A) loss of electrons; gain of electrons B) gain of water; loss of water C) gain of electrons; loss of electrons
7)
During photosynthesis, is reduced.
is oxidized, while
D) carbon dioxide; carbohydrate E) carbon dioxide; oxygen
A) water; carbon dioxide B) carbon dioxide; water C) carbohydrate; carbon dioxide
8) Which of the following events takes place in the Calvin cycle?
A) transfer of electrons to the reaction center of photosystem I B) generation of ATP from ADP + P i C) splitting of water, releasing an electron
9) In photosynthesis, the light reactions the Calvin cycle .
D) generation of NADPH from NADP + E) CO 2is converted intoG3P
while
A) capture solar Version 1
2
energy; converts the captured energy to chemical potential energy B) can occur only in the light; can occur only in the dark C) require the presence of ATP; makes ATP D) can only function if the stomata are open; can
only occur if the stomata are closed E) use products manufactured in the dark reactions; creates products used in the dark reactions
10) As climate change leads to drier and drier summers in the southeastern United States, more and more homeowners find that they have crabgrass growing in their yards. The reason for this is that
A) crabgrass is a type of cactus, so it grows better in dry climates. B) as the climate changes, homeowners are not caring for their yards as well. C) crabgrass is a tropical plant that likes hot, dry climates.
11) The light reactions produce , which are used in the Calvin cycle. The Calvin cycle releases ,
A) ATP and NADPH; ADP and NADP B) CO 2 and H 2O; glucose and O 2 C) ATP and CO 2; glucose and O 2
D) crabgrass is a type of C 3 plant that does well in dry climates. E) crabgrass is a type of C 4 plant that does well in dry climates.
which return to the light reactions. D) glucose and O 2; CO 2 and H 2O E) ADP and NADH; ATP and NADPH
12)
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The chlorophyll a
3
molecules in the reaction center of a photosystem participate directly in the capture of solar energy. What is the purpose of
A) They participate in the Calvin cycle. B) They absorb additional wavelengths of light and pass on the energy tothe chlorophyll a in the reaction center. C) They split the water molecule to supply electrons to the chlorophyll a in the reaction center.
the accessory pigments?
D) They change the color of the leaves to discourage predators. E) They have no purpose.
13) Why do plants contain other pigments besides chlorophyll?
A) The additional pigments are able to absorb other light wavelengths that chlorophyll cannot. B) The additional pigments can only absorb violet or ultraviolet light. C) Chlorophyll is unable to absorb visible light. D) When chlorophyll breaks down, the additional
pigments can absorb the same wavelengths of light. E) When the additional pigments break down, the chlorophyll can absorb other wavelengths of light.
14) The light reactions of photosynthesis are said to be similar to a battery because they form a current. In which
direction do the electrons of this circuit flow?
A) H 2O → PSII → electron transport chain → PSI → electron transport chain → NADPH B) H 2O → PSII → chlorophyll b → PSI →
chlorophyll a → NADPH C) NADPH → PSII → electron transport chain → PSI → electron
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transport chain → NADP + D) NADP + → PSII → electron transport chain → PSI → electron transport chain → NADPH E) PSI → electron transport chain → PSII →
electron transport chain → NADPH
15) Which of the following is a function specific to photosystemI?
A) split water to release electrons B) rebuild water molecules C) produceNADPH D) give off oxygen when stimulated by light
E) combine hydrogen ions with an electron to form water
16) How does ATP synthase obtain the energy to produce ATP?
A) Hydrogen ions flow down a concentration gradient from the thylakoid space to the stroma through ATP synthase, releasing energy that can be used to produce ATP from ADP + P i. B) Water splits, releasing electrons that flow from the stroma to the thylakoid space and attach to the active site of ATP synthase. C) Electrons from the reaction site center of photosystem II are funneled to ATP synthase, which uses the energy to produce ATP from ADP + P i. D) Hydrogen ions in the thylakoid space combine
with electrons from the stroma at ATP synthase, releasing energy that can be used to produce ATP from ADP + P i. E) A hydrogen ion from NADPH is used by ATP synthase to power the production of ATP from ADP + P i, and an electron is released, splitting water.
17) The light reactions act much as a battery to power the reactions of the Calvin cycle. This energy is stored as D) ATP and +
A) ATP and NADP . B) ADP + P i. C) ADP + P i and NADP Version 1
+
.
5
NADPH. E)
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NADPH and NADP +.
6
18) Chlorophyll is to the light reactions as the Calvin cycle.
is to
+
A) NADP B) carbon dioxide
19) The production of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) in the Calvin cycle requires six molecules each of ATP and NADPH. Another three molecules of ATP are then used in
A) to regenerate the starter molecule RuBP B) to attract the next CO 2 molecule to enter the Calvin cycle C) to reduce the molecules of G3P to form glucose D) to join acetyl CoA into pyruvate, preparing it to
C) ATP D) ATP synthase E) RuBP
the cycle. What is the purpose of these three additional ATP molecules? enter the citric acid cycle E) to fix carbon dioxide to RuBP
20) Which compounds link the light reactions with the Calvin cycle reactions?
A) ATP and NADPH B) H + and ATP C) G3P and ATP
D) H + and G3P E) G3P and NADPH
21) Replacement electrons for the reaction center of photosystem II are derived from
A) H 2O. B) NADP +.
22)
C) G3P. D) NADPH. E) CO 2.
The three stages of the Calvin cycle reactions are
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A) NADPH reduction, CO 2 fixation, and NADP regeneration. B) NADPH reduction, CO 2 fixation, and RuBP regeneration. C) CO 2 fixation, CO 2 reduction, and RuBP regeneration.
+
D) CO 2 fixation, CO 2 reduction, and NADP + regeneration. E) CO 2 reduction, NADPH reduction, and CO 2 regeneration.
23) ATP and NADPH are both used during the Calvin cycle. What is the function of each?
A) ATP supplies energy and NADPH supplies electrons for reducing power. B) ATP supplies energy and NADPH fixes CO 2 so it can enter the cycle. C) Both ATP and NADPH supply energy to the Calvin cycle. D) NADPH supplies energy and ATP supplies
electrons for reducing power. E) ATP and NADPH are joined into the starter molecule, RuBP, to form glucose.
24) Energy to drive the formation of ATP in photosynthesis is derived from C) G3P. D) NADPH. E) CO 2.
+
A) the H gradient. B) NADP +.
25) from
The O 2 given off during photosynthesis is derived
A) both CO 2 and H B) RuBP.
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2O.
C) CO 2. D) NADP +. E) H 2O.
8
26) Sucrose, cellulose, amino acids, and starch are all made from what starter molecule in plants?
A) glucose B) fructose C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
D) ATP E) RuBP carboxylase
27) The Calvin cycle reactions occur in bundle sheath cells in a C 4 plant
A) to shield the Calvin cycle reactions from O 2 in the leaf spaces. B) to allow O 2 to enter bundle sheath cells. C) because rubisco is only found in mesophyll cells.
28)
D) so that they are adjacent to stomata. E) so that H 2O is not available to mesophyll cells.
In C 4 plants, chloroplasts are located in D) A) mesophyll cells. B) the stomata. C) both mesophyll and bundle sheath cells.
29) A new species of plant is discovered and you are asked to help classify it. Upon examination under a microscope, you find that there is a layer of bundle sheath cells containing chloroplasts around the vein of the leaf of the
bundle sheath
cells. E) epidermal cells of the leaf.
plant. What can you tell about the plant from this information?
plants. A) This plant is unlike any other plant that has ever been discovered and is a completely new category of plant. B) This plant very likely carries out C 4 photosynthesis. C) This plant falls into the category of CAM-type
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D) This plant uses chemosynthesis rather than photosynthesis. E) This is a C 3 type of plant.
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30) The difference between bundle sheath cells in C 3 and C 4 plants is that
A) the bundle sheath cells in C 3 plants have chloroplasts, while those in C 4 plants do not. B) the bundle sheath cells in C 4 plants have chloroplasts, while those in C 3 plants do not. C) the bundle sheath cells in C 3 plants are arranged in columns just beneath the upper epidermis, while those in C 4 plants are arranged in a ring around veins. D) the bundle sheath cells in C 4 plants are arranged
in columns just beneath the upper epidermis, while those in C 3 plants are arranged in a ring around veins. E) There is no difference in bundle sheath cells in C 3 and C 4 plants.
31) A plant that uses CAM photosynthesis is most likely to be successful in what type of environment?
A) cool, moist B) hot, moist
C) cool, dry D) hot, dry E) semi-tropical
32) CAM photosynthesis limits CO 2 fixation to nighttime hours in order to
A) allow water to enter leaf spaces during the daylight hours. B) open stomata only at night, limiting water loss because of heat and low humidity. C) allow NADPH and ATP to enter leaf spaces.
D) limit the Calvin cycle reactions to nighttime only. E) limit water uptake from the soil during daytime hours.
33) A poison that disrupts the H + gradient in the thylakoid space would most likely cause which of the following to accumulate during the Calvin cycle reactions?
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A) 3-phosphoglycerate (3PG) B) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
D) NADPH E) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)
34) Before being converted into sucrose, starch, or cellulose, G3P must first be converted into which compound?
A) glucose B) galactose C) glucose phosphate
D) fructose E) 3PG
35) Which steps of photosynthesis does C 4 photosynthesis partition in space?
A) carbon fixation and Calvin cycle reactions B) carbon fixation and light reactions C) light reactions and Calvin cycle reactions D) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) formation and glucose phosphate formation
36)
E) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) formation and glucose phosphate formation
The Calvin cycle produces
A) glucose. B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P). C) sucrose.
D) 3phosphoglycerate (3PG). E) ribulose 1,5bisphosphate (RuBP).
37) In a high latitude rainforest, the dominant type of photosynthesis is most likely to be B) C 4. A)
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both C 3 and CAM.
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C) CAM. D) both C 4 and CAM. E) C 3.
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38) A small, low-growing plant found on the surface of a sun-exposed rock in a desert would most likely use which type of photosynthesis?
A) CAM B) C 3 C) C 4
D)
both C 4 and
E)
both C 3 and
CAM CAM
39) In C 4 plants, the light reactions will stop during the daytime when the supply of what compound is limited?
A) chlorophyll B) NADP +
a
C) H 2O D) CO 2 E) O 2
40) The reaction center of photosystem I consists of what type of molecule?
A) chlorophyll a B) chlorophyll b C) carotenoids
41)
D) NADP + E) electron transport proteins
Which of the following is a coenzyme?
A) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) B) chlorophyll a C) electron transport protein
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D) rubisco E) NADP +
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A) thylakoid membrane; stroma B) stroma; thylakoid space C) thylakoid space; thylakoid membrane
D) stroma; thylakoid membrane E) thylakoid space; stroma
43) The localization of the electron transport chains to the thylakoid membrane ensures that
A) the energy released can be used to establish an H ion gradient. B) the energy released is stored in the stroma. C) NADP + does not enter the thylakoid space. D) CO 2 remains in the stroma for the Calvin cycle reactions and does not enter the thylakoid space. +
E) glyceraldehyde 3phosphate (G3P) is produced in the thylakoid space.
44) The from the light reactions is used to reduce CO 2 to a carbohydrate using energy derived from .
A) NADPH; ATP B) NADP +; ATP C) RuBP; ATP
45)
D)
NADPH;
E)
rubisco; RuBP
RuBP
Which of the following is a coenzyme?
A) starch B) cellulose C) glucose phosphate
D) NADP + E) sucrose
46) How many turns of the Calvin cycle would be required for a plant to make one molecule of glucose? B) 2 A) Version 1
1
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C) 3 D) 6 E) 12
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47)
A coenzyme is defined as
A)
a nonprotein helper that works with an enzyme.
B) another enzyme that assists an enzyme with a chemical reaction. C) another enzyme in the same biochemical
pathway. D) a carbohydrate that assists an enzyme. E) a protein that is not an enzyme.
48) Which stages of the Calvin cycle reactions require the use of energy from ATP?
A) CO 2 fixation and CO 2 reduction B) CO 2 reduction and RuBP regeneration C) CO 2 fixation and RuBP regeneration D) CO 2 fixation, CO 2 reduction, and RuBP
regeneration E) CO 2 reduction and RuBP oxidation
49) What two things are added to NADP + to convert it into NADPH? D) H + and CO A) H + and electrons B) electrons and ATP C) H + and ATP
50) 2O?
2
E) electrons and CO
2
Which complex or enzyme of photosynthesis splits H
A) photosystem I B) photosystem II C) rubisco
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D) electron transport chain E) ATP synthase
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51)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of C 4
photosynthesis relative to
A) inability of rubisco to obtain O 2 B) C4 plants need energy to move fixed carbon compounds into bundle sheath cells C) need for stomata to close to conserve H 2O D) need for energy to move H 2O into bundle sheath cells E) inability of ATP synthase to utilize H + gradient for energy
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52) Which of the labeled cells of a C 3 leaf is known as a bundle sheath cell?
A) A B) B C) C
D) D E) C3 plants do not have bundle sheath cells.
53) Version 1
In which of the
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labeled cells of a C 4 leaf are the Calvin cycle reactions performed?
A) A and B B) B and C
54)
C) A and D D) B only E) C only
Grana are
A) interconnecting stomata. B) stacks of thylakoids.
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C) pores that open to allow gas exchange.
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D)
the sites of the Calvin cycle and production of
sugars.
E) enzymes that bind CO 2.
55) Not all molecules contain the same amount of chemical energy. What is the energy relationship between G3P and CO 2?
energy.
D) G3P has more energy than CO 2. E) There is not enough information provided to answer the question.
56) Carotenoids are found in high concentrations in yellow and orange leaves or vegetables. Why do these leaves
and vegetables appear yellow or orange?
A)
G3P and CO
2 have the same amount of energy.
B) G3P has less energy than CO 2. C) Neither G3P nor CO 2 contain any chemical
A) The carotenoids reflect and transmit yellow and orange wavelengths of light. B) The carotenoids absorb yellow and orange wavelengths of light. C) The carotenoids absorb or transmit yellow and orange wavelengths of light. D) The carotenoids absorb or reflect yellow and
orange wavelengths of light. E) The carotenoids absorb all wavelengths of light and then transmit yellow and orange wavelengths.
57) ATP synthasederives energy for the generation of ATP from
A) the movement of hydrogen ions against their concentration gradient into the thylakoid space. B) the splitting of H 2O, which releases electrons. C) solar energy captured by the light reactions changing the shape of the enzyme. D) electrons transferred from NADPH causing the
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enzyme to change shape. E) the movement of hydrogen ions down their concentration gradient from the thylakoid space to the stroma.
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58)
RuBP carboxylase (rubisco) is able to bind with both D) A) carbon dioxide and water. B) carbon dioxide and oxygen. C) carbon dioxide and NADPH.
oxygen and
water. E) NADPH and ATP.
59) How many times must the Calvin cycle turn to yield a single molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)?
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
60) The addition of electrons and hydrogen ions to a substrate is called what?
A) reduction B) oxidation C) phosphorylation
D) metabolism E) an enzymesubstrate complex
61) The removal of electrons and hydrogen ions from a substrate is called what?
A) oxidation B) reduction C) phosphorylation
D) metabolism E) an enzymesubstrate complex
62) Which statement is accurate about how C 4 plants are able to survive hot, dry spells during the growing season? A) Version 1
When the
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stomata close during the heat of the day, RuBP carboxylase(rubisco), which is located in the bundle sheath cells, is not exposed to the increasing oxygen concentration in the leaf spaces. This prevents RuBP carboxylase from binding to oxygen instead of carbon dioxide. B) When the stomata close during the heat of the day, RuBP carboxylase (rubisco), which is located in the mesophyll cells,is exposed to the increasing oxygen concentration in the leaf spaces. This help facilitate the binding of RuBP carboxylase to oxygen. C) When the stomata are open during the heat of the day, RuBP carboxylase (rubisco), which is located in the bundle sheath cells, is equally exposed to both the carbon dioxide and the oxygen in the leaf spaces. D) When the stomata close during the heat of the day, RuBP carboxylase (rubisco), which is located in the bundle sheathcells,is exposed to the increasing oxygen
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concentration in the leaf spaces. This help facilitate the binding of RuBP carboxylase to oxygen. E) When the stomata close during the heat of the day, RuBP carboxylase (rubisco), which is located in the bundle sheath cells,is exposed to the increasing oxygen concentration in the leaf spaces. This help facilitate the binding of RuBP carboxylase to oxygen.
22
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 06 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) E 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) E 19) A Version 1
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20) A 21) A 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) E 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) E 38) A 39) B 40) A Version 1
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41) E 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) E 54) B 55) D 56) A 57) E 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) A Version 1
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62) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The number of ATP produced during aerobic cellular respiration from one glucose molecule is usually .
A) 2–4 B) 26–28
C) 10–20 D) 36–38 E) 10–12
2) Which of the following is necessary for the complete breakdown of glucose?
A) Oxygen B) Water C) Carbon dioxide
D) ATP E) ADP
3) The final acceptor for electrons in aerobic cellular respiration is .
A) oxygen B) pyruvate
C) CoA D) glucose E) carbon dioxide
4) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration? A) Glycolysis → preparatory reaction → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain B) Citric acid cycle → electron transport → glycolysis → preparatory reaction C) Glycolysis →citric acid cycle → electron transport chain
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D) Citric acid cycle → glycolysis → electron transport chain → preparatory reaction E) Glycolysis → electron transport chain → preparatory reaction
1
5)
Which of the following is mismatched?
A) Citric acid cycle - matrix of mitochondria B) Glycolysis - cytoplasm C) ATP production in the electron transport chain cristae of mitochondria D) Where the H+ ions are located before flowing
through an ATP synthase complex - intermembrane space E) Preparatory reaction - cristae of mitochondria
6) What molecule most directly provides the energy you need for your muscles to contract? C) NADH D) ADP E) Oxygen
A) Glucose B) ATP
7) What organelle is used during the process of cellular respiration?
A) Cytoplasm B) Mitochondria C) Chloroplast
D) Ribosomes E) Cell membrane
8) What cellular process uses oxygen to produce ATP from glucose and other organic molecules? D) Mitosis E) Meiosis
A) Photosynthesis B) Oxidation/reduction reactions C) Cellular respiration
9)
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What is oxidation?
2
A) The addition of electrons and H+ ions to form molecules B) The removal of electrons and H+ ions to form new molecules C) The addition of ATP to a molecule
D) The production of ATP by the use of carbon dioxide E) Oxygen production
10) Which of the following is the opposite of cellular respiration?
A) Fermentation B) Cell division C) Hydrolysis
D) Photosynthesis E) Dehydration synthesis
11) Where in the cell are both NAD+ and FAD reduced to form NADH and FADH2?
A) Outer mitochondrial membrane B) Cristae C) Mitochondrial matrix
D) Intermembrane space E) Thylakoids
12) Cellular respiration uses oxygen to convert the chemical energy stored in organic molecules into .
A) other organic molecules B) ATP
C) carbon dioxide D) water E) pyruvate
13) The energy source that drives the production of ATP in oxidative phosphorylation is the . A)
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the diffusion
3
of hydrogen protons down their electrochemical gradient B) removal of a phosphate group from ATP C) capture of solar energy D) the production of lactic acid
E) the diffusion of CO 2 across the cell membrane
14) The production of ATP in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle is accomplished by . D) lactic acid synthesis E) the oxidation of O 2
A) the reduction of carbon dioxide B) substrate-level ATP synthesis C) oxidative phosphorylation
15)
When glucose is broken down to CO 2 and H 2O, energy is released and converted into . D) NADH; ATP E) chemical;
A) chemical; ATP B) photon; ATP C) kinetic; NADH
NADH
16) During cellular respiration, the energy in glucose is ultimately converted to . D) ATP and A) ADP and heat B) ATP and heat C) heat only
17)
Energy is released from ATP when
NADH E) CO 2 and water
.
A) adenine bonds to an additional phosphate group forming ADP B) ATP bonds to oxygen forcing the adenine (A) to
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be removed C) ATP is exposed to sunlight, which forces the phosphate
4
groups to be removed D) a phosphate group is removed from ATP yielding ADP + P + energy
18)
E) ATP bonds to carbon dioxide forcing a phosphate to be removed
Two ATP are invested in glycolysis in order to .
A) produce acetyl-CoA B) break glucose into two molecules C) add a phosphate group to glucose
D) join glucose molecules together E) release carbon dioxide
19) Why is it necessary for ATP to be used in the energyinvestment phase of glycolysis?
A) Adding the phosphate activates the glucose, making it easier to break it apart. B) Adding the phosphate to the glucose makes it more stable and less likely to break apart. C) There is no purpose to adding the phosphate to the glucose; it just happens that way. D) The addition of the phosphate is necessary to
20) In the energy payoff phase of glycolysis, both ATP and NADH are formed. What purpose do each of these
A) ATP acts as a way to break up glucose to form pyruvate, while NADH serves as an electron acceptor. B) ATP acts as a power source for the citric acid cycle, while NADH serves as energy to run the cell. C) ATP acts as a power source for performing cellular work, while NADH serves as an electron carrier to allow for greater ATP production. D) ATP acts as an electron acceptor, while NADH
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produce NADH. E) The energy that is released when ATP becomes ADP is harnessed and used to pump hydrogen ions across the mitochondrial membrane.
molecules serve in the cell? serves as a way to break up glucose to form pyruvate. E) ATP acts as a power source for performing cellular work, while NADH acts as a power source for photosynthesis.
5
21) The processes of glycolysis that break down glucose to pyruvateduring the energy-investment phaseinvolve the removal of .
A) electrons and hydrogen from glucose, and the addition of phosphate to ADP B) phosphate from glucose, and the addition of that phosphate to ATP C) NAD from glucose, and the addition of phosphate to ADP
D) NAD from ATP, and the addition of phosphate to ADP E) electrons from ATP, and the addition of phosphate to glucose
22) Glucose is a 6-carbon molecule. How is it changed as it moves through glycolysis?
A) Electrons and hydrogen are removed, and the molecule is rearranged to form two 3-carbon molecules. B) ATP is added, and the molecule is rearranged to form three 2-carbon molecules. C) Electrons and hydrogen are removed, and the molecule is rearranged to form three 2-carbon molecules. D) Electrons and hydrogen are removed, and the
23)
A product of glycolysis is
.
A) FADH 2 B) carbon dioxide
24)
molecule is rearranged to form three ATP molecules. E) ATP is added, and the molecule is rearranged to form two 3carbon molecules.
C) pyruvate D) oxygen E) acetyl-CoA
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?
A) Cytoplasm B) Mitochondrion C) Matrix of mitochondrion Version 1
D) Cristae of mitochondrion E) Nucleus
6
25) Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle are similar in that they both produce . D) NADH and A) CO 2 B) NADH C) ATP
26) If three molecules of glucose went through glycolysis and eventually into the citric acid cycle, how many times did
A) One B) Two
27)
E) ADP
the preparatory reaction occur? C) Four D) Six E) Twelve
The product of the preparatory reaction is .
A) pyruvate B) acetyl-CoA
28)
ATP
C) glucose D) water E) carbon dioxide
As a result of glycolysis, there is a net gain of ATP.
A) 0 B) 2
C) 4 D) 36 E) 12
29) Cellular respiration can be described as the conversion of the energy .
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A) stored in food to energy stored in ATP B) stored in ATP to energy used to do work C) of sunlight to energy stored in inorganic compounds
D) stored in ATP to energy stored in food E) stored in leaves to energy in food
30) Before entering the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is converted to .
A) lactic acid B) ethyl alcohol
C) acetyl-CoA D) citric acid E) pyruvate
31) What two stages of cellular respiration produce the carbon dioxide you exhale?
A) Preparatory reaction and citric acid cycle B) Preparatory reaction and electron transport chain C) Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain
D) Glycolysis and preparatory reaction E) Glycolysis and citric acid cycle
32) The energy of the electrons passing along the electron transport chain is ultimately used to produce .
A) lactic acid B) citric acid
C) alcohol D) ADP E) ATP
33) The citric acid cycle starts with and yields .
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A) lactic acid; carbon dioxide B) glucose; 32 ATPs C) acetyl-CoA; lactic acid or alcohol D) acetyl-CoA, NAD +, FAD, and ADP; carbon
34) Your friend has been on a diet and loses 15 pounds of fat. After studying cellular respiration, you explain to her that
A) ATP, carbon dioxide, and water B) protein C) amino acids and then eliminated from the body
35) During hibernation the rate of cellular respiration in a mammal is typically less than half the rate measured when the mammal is not hibernating. This slowed cellular respiration is
A) Reduced body temperature only B) Reduced pulse rate and reduced body temperature C) Reduced pulse rate and increased body temperature
36)
dioxide, NADH, FADH 2, and ATP E) carbon dioxide; oxygen
the fat was converted to . D) urine and eliminated from the body E) ATP, oxygen, and water
probably accompanied by which of the following?
D) Increased body temperature only E) Increased pulse rate only
The cristae of a mitochondrion are critical .
A) B) complexes C) chain D)
because they are the location for glycolysis because they contain the ATP synthase because they are the site for the electron transport
chain and they contain the ATP synthase complexes E) because they are the location of the citric acid cycle
because they are the site of the electron transport
37) Version 1
As electrons are 9
passed down the electron transport chain, the energy released is used immediately to .
A) form ATP B) concentrate H + in the intermembrane space C) move phosphate groups to ATP synthase D) release CO 2 to the matrix
E) concentrate H in the cytoplasm of the cell +
38) The final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain is , resulting in formation of .
A) phosphate; ATP B) CoA; acetyl-CoA C) oxygen; water
39)
D) hydrogen; carbon dioxide E) pyruvate; oxygen
What happened to the hamburger you had for lunch?
A) All of the carbohydrates were converted to ATP, while the fats and proteins were used to make molecules for the cell. B) Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins were converted to ATP or used to make new molecules for the cell. C) Carbohydrates and fats were converted to ATP, while only proteins were used to make new molecules for the cell. D) All of the fats and proteins were converted to
40) Susan suffered from a heart attack. When the doctors tested her heart muscle, they found that she had an increased ratio of lactic acid to pyruvate in her heart. Which of the
ATP, while only the carbohydrates were used to make new molecules for the cell. E) All of the proteins were converted to ATP, while both the fats and carbohydrates were used to make new molecules for the cell.
following is the most likely cause of the skewed ratio?
A) The heart cells Version 1
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must have received too much oxygen B) The heart cells had not received enough oxygen C) The heart cells accumulated to much carbon dioxide which poisoned her cells D) The lactic acid accumulated as a result of cellular
respiration occurring too quickly E) The heart cells produced too much ATP
41) The products of fermentation depend on the type of organism carrying out the process. What do yeast produce during fermentation? D) Lactic acid and CO 2 E) Ethyl alcohol and oxygen
A) Lactic acid B) Lactic acid and ethyl alcohol C) Ethyl alcohol and CO 2
42) What would happen if NAD+ were not available for cellular respiration?
A) There would be a small reduction in the number of ATP formed. B) There would be a great reduction in the number of ATP formed. C) There would be no effect on the number of ATP formed.
43)
Fermentation occurs if
A) glucose is not present B) excess ATP is present C) oxygen is not present
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D) Cellular respiration would stop completely. E) There would be an increase in the number of ATP produced.
. D) carbon dioxide is present E) carbon dioxide is not present
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A) can be used to produce additional ATP B) is toxic and causes muscle fatigue C) is stored in the muscle for future energy use D) is converted into carbon dioxide and is released
45) If you were able to stop the process of cellular respiration after the completion of the electron transport chain but prior to chemiosmosis, what would you find is true about
A) It is lowest in the intermembrane space. B) It is highest in the intermembrane space. C) It is lowest in the mitochondrial matrix.
46)
in the bloodstream E) is transported to the liver where it is reconverted to pyruvate
the pH in the mitochondria?
D) There is no difference in pH. E) It is highest in the mitochondrial matrix.
Yeast is used to make bread rise by producing during fermentation.
A) lactic acid B) heat
47) A new organism is discovered to have an enzyme that requires no ATP to split glucose into pyruvate. In addition, the enzyme cannot function if oxygen is present. Based on this information, what is this organism's net production of
A) 2 B) 4
C) O 2 gas D) glucose E) CO 2 gas
ATP from one molecule of glucose?
C) 38 D) 40 E) 42
48) A family took their newborn to the doctor. They were worried
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something was wrong because the baby seemed to be in constant pain. After medical tests revealed the baby had large amounts of lactic acid accumulating in his muscle cells, doctors diagnosed the child with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from skeletal muscle cells. How
might the lack of mitochondria explain the large amounts of lactic acid in the baby's muscle cells?
A) Without mitochondria, the muscle cells are going through fermentation to produce energy. This leads to an accumulation of lactic acid. B) Without mitochondria, the muscle cells use fats and proteins rather than carbohydrates to generate energy. The breakdown products from the fat and proteins leads to an accumulation of lactic acid. C) Because of the lack of mitochondria, the muscle cells require extremely high levels of oxygen to function. This additional oxygen requires lactic acid to produce energy. D) Without the mitochondria, the muscle cells cannot split glucose into pyruvate. As the glucose
accumulates in the cell it is converted into lactic acid. E) In the absence of mitochondria, the muscle cells spend too much in the citric acid cycle. This results in a buildup of NADH and FADH 2, which break down into lactic acid if they are unable to proceed to the electron transport chain.
49) The enzyme that converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA requires vitamin B 1, also called thiamine. Vitamin B 1 has to be obtained through the diet. At what phase would cellular
A) Glycolysis B) Preparatory reaction C) Citric acid cycle
respiration come to a halt without B 1?
D) Electron transport chain E) Carbon fixation
50) Where do the electrons come from that are used in the electron transport chain?
A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH 2
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D) ADP E) NADH and FADH 2
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51) In cellular respiration, the majority of ATP are produced during .
A) fermentation B) the electron transport chain C) the citric acid cycle
52)
By-products of cellular respiration include .
A) FADH 2 and NADH B) NADH and ATP C) oxygen and heat
53)
D) the preparatory stage E) the Calvin cycle
D) carbon dioxide and water E) carbon dioxide and oxygen
Which process is used to make bread rise? D) A) Lactic acid fermentation B) Glycolysis C) Alcohol fermentation
54) You have decided to try to make your own wine by adding yeast to a sweet grape juice. After allowing plenty of time for the yeast to grow, you find that although the sugar levels in the juice are decreased, there is no alcohol in the
A) More sugar needs to be added. Yeast need a lot of energy before it produces alcohol. B) Less sugar is needed in the juice. High sugar concentration causes cellular respiration to occur rather than fermentation. C) Yeast cannot ferment grapes, only bacteria can. D) The mixture needs less oxygen. Yeast only Version 1
The citric acid
cycle E) Cellular respiration
mixture. What could have been the reason fermentation did not occur? produces alcohol in the absence of oxygen. E) The mixture needs more carbon dioxide. Yeast produce alcohol more quickly in the presence of CO 2.
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55) The functioning of an electron transport chain is analogous to .
A) playing tennis B) a rock falling from a cliff C) a person jumping from the top to the bottom of a flight of stairs in one jump
D) a person descending a flight of stairs one step at a time E) a person jumping rope
56) Which of the following reactions builds sugars rather than breaks them down?
A) Calvin cycle B) Glycolysis C) Citric acid cycle
D) Electron transport chain E) Preparatory reaction
57) Which of the following describes what will happen if there is a lack of oxygen during cellular respiration?
A) respiration B) C) D)
Cellular respiration will shift towards anaerobic The number of ATP produced will increase Carbon dioxide will start to diffuse into the cell Nothing will change since oxygen is not required
for cellular respiration E) There will be a lack of RUBP produced during the Calvin cycle
58) How many ATP are produced from the 10 NADH that enter the electron transport chain?
A) 30 B) 38
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C) 4 D) 2 E) 36
15
59)
How many total ATP are produced during glycolysis?
A) 4 B) 2
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C) 38 D) 36 E) 14
16
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 07 Test Bank 1) D 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) E 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) A Version 1
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20) C 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) E 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) B 40) B Version 1
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41) C 42) B 43) C 44) E 45) A 46) E 47) B 48) A 49) B 50) E 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) A
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they should not. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Translocations can lead to cancer if they disrupt the genes that regulate the cell cycle. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) Losing weight can reduce an obese person's risk for cancer by up to 40%.
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1
⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible under a microscope? D) only during the G 1 phase E) chromosomes are always visible
A) only during interphase B) only when they are being copied C) during mitosis
8) Which items in the following pairs are correctly matched? D) A) G 1 phase - DNA replication B) G 2 phase - organelle replication C) S phase - DNA replication
M phase - cell
growth E) G 0 phase cell growth
9) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?
A)
DNA is duplicated during the G 1 and G
2
D) interphase consists of G 1, S, and G
phases
2
B) DNA replicates during cytokinesis C) the M phase is usually the longest phase of the cell cycle
E) the cell enters a non-dividing state in the G 2 phase.
10)
Nuclear division occurs during
A) M phase Version 1
2
B) G 1 and S phases C) S and G 2 phases D) G 2 and M phases
E) G 0 phase
11) Differentiated cells, such as nerve cells, would be in which of the following stages of the cell cycle?
A) G 1 B) G 0
12)
C) G 2 D) M E) R
What structure holds two sister chromatids together?
A) centromere B) centriole
C) chromatin D) spindle E) centrosome
13) A centromere holds together twov: 03_11_2019_QC_CS-162215
A) centrosomes. B) centrioles. C) sister chromatids.
D) spindle fibers. E) non-sister chromatids.
14) Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B) interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase,
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cytokinesis E) metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase
3
15)
Which of the following is an inaccurate statement
A)
the cells arising from mitosis are genetically alike
B) the process of nuclear division is followed by cytokinesis C) spindle fibers are involved in the movement of chromosomes during mitosis D) both sexually and asexually reproducing
about mitosis? organisms utilize the process of mitosis E) the cells arising from mitosis contain only half of the necessary genetic material
16) Chromatin wrapped around histones form a bead-like structure known as a C) centrosome. D) nucleosome. E) mesosome.
A) nucleotide. B) the chromatin network.
17) Susan was examining a cell under the microscope and noticed the formation of a cell plate in the midline of the cell and the formation of nuclei at opposite poles of the cell. The
cell under examination was most likely a(n)
A) animal cell in the M phase of the cell cycle. B) dividing bacterial cell. C) plant cell undergoing cytokinesis.
D) animal cell undergoing cytokinesis. E) plant cell in the anaphase stage.
18) If you were looking under the compound light microscope at an onion root tip, in what stage of the cell cycle
would the majority of the cells be? C) cytokinesis D) interphase E) prophase
A) anaphase B) metaphase
19) Version 1
Which of the 4
following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis?
A) centrioles B) Golgi apparatus C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes E) central vacuole
20) The G 2 checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until
A) it is known for sure if the cell will divide. B) the DNA has finished replicating. C) the chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle fibers. D) all the organelles have been duplicated.
E) the centrosomes have duplicated.
21) A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein needed for the M-phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A) the cell would prematurely enter anaphase B) the cell would never leave metaphase C) the cell would never enter metaphase D) the cell would never enter prophase
E) the cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G 1
22) During which phase of mitosis are the sister chromatids separated and consequently become daughter chromosomes?
A) anaphase B) interphase Version 1
C) metaphase D) prophase
5
E)
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telophase
6
23)
The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of
A) anaphase. B) interphase.
24)
C) metaphase. D) prophase. E) telophase.
The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of
A) anaphase. B) interphase.
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C) metaphase. D) prophase. E) telophase.
7
25) Ben was looking at onion root tip cells under the microscope in biology class. He saw one cell that had two nuclei within it. What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in?
A) anaphase B) interphase C) metaphase
D) prophase E) telophase/cytokinesis
26) A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle. It will not reproduce due to lack of
A) ATP availability. B) centriole migration. C) centromere formation.
D) DNA synthesis. E) plasma membrane structure.
27) If there are 20centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there? C) 30 D) 40 E) 80
A) 10 B) 20
28) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell undergoes mitosis and not cytokinesis, this would result in
A) a cell with a single large nucleus. B) a cell with two nuclei. C) cells with abnormally small nuclei. D) feedback responses that prevent mitosis.
E) death of the cell line.
29)
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How do the
8
daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in G 1 of the cell cycle?
A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. D) The daughter cells have the same number of
30)
chromosomes and the same amount of DNA. E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
Which of the following occurs prior to prophase? D) A) coiling of chromosomes B) degradation of the nucleolus C) formation of spindles
31)
synthesis of
DNA E) degradation of the nuclear envelope
Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by
A) increasing telomeres. B) preventing spindle formation. C) producing kinases.
D) inhibiting cytokinesis. E) causing cells to divide quickly.
32) If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there would be a total of
A) 23 chromatids. B) 23 chromosomes. C) 46 chromatids.
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D) 46 chromosomes. E) 92 chromosomes.
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33)
What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins
halted during the cell
A) the cell would continue to divide indefinitely B) organelles would not be duplicated in G 1 C) the cell would not complete cytokinesis D) the cell would enter the G 0 phase E) the cell would remain in the G 2 phase and would not enter into mitosis
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34) Which of the following would increase your risk of cancer?
A) increasing the consumption of foods rich in vitamin A and C B) avoiding salt-cured, pickled, and smoked foods C) increasing the consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family D) avoiding cigarette smoking, smokeless tobacco,
35)
Apoptosis
A) is a process that repairs damaged DNA. B) occurs as telomeres increase in length. C) can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.
36)
and sunbathing E) avoiding a high-fiber, low-sodium diet
D) increases the number of somatic cells. E) increases the number of gamete cells.
Cancer occurs when
A)
cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.
B) faulty spindle fibers are unable to pull chromatids apart. C) apoptosis occurs.
D) the DNA of a cell becomes mutated. E) the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.
37) Which of the following is characteristic of cancer cells?
A) cells that have lost contact inhibition B) cells with abnormal nuclei C) cells that lack differentiation D) cells that have uncontrolled cell division Version 1
E) All of the above are characteristics of cancer cells.
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38) The term metastasis refers to the fact that cancer cells tend to
A) destroy. B) divide.
39) In an experiment, cells grown in a petri dish divided until they formed a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. When cells were removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space began dividing until they had
C) decline. D) shrink. E) spread.
filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?
A) When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing. B) The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off. C) Cell division can be regulated by factors outside
of the cell. D) Cells continue to grow as long as there is adequate space. E) All answers are valid and correct.
40) Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. Which of
the following statements explains why this occurs?
A) The cells become deficient in cyclin. B) The petri dish inhibits the cells' growth. C) Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called contact inhibition.
D) Most cells grown in petri dishes have gone through apoptosis. E) The cells have differentiated into more specialized cells.
41) Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
A) size. Version 1
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B) spindle fibers. C) rate of cell division.
42) Rebecca has a tumor in her ovaries. She recently underwent a series of tests and is returning to the doctor to find out the results.Which of the following would be the best
A) It is a benign tumor. B) The cells are cancerous and are in situ. C) It is a malignant tumor. D) It is malignant ovarian cancer.
D) surface area. E) volume.
news that Rebecca could receive from her doctor?
E) The tumor has metastasized and invaded neighboring tissue.
43) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuation in concentration during the cell cycle, are called
A) centromeres. B) kinetochores.
44) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA in the nucleus. Those cells would have picograms at the end of the S phase
A) 8; 8 B) 8; 16
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C) centrioles. D) proton pumps. E) cyclins.
and picograms at the end of G 2.
C) 16; 8 D) 16; 16 E) 12; 16
13
45) The figure below shows a cell in which stage of the cell cycle?
A) anaphase B) interphase
46) The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules. During which stage of the cell cycle would
A) M phase B) G 1
47)
C) metaphase D) prophase E) telophase
chloral hydrate be most harmful? C) G 2 D) S phase E) cytokinesis
Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to
A) repair damaged cells. B) increase the size of the organism. C) produce new organisms. D) increase the genetic variability of the population.
E) produce gametes.
48) Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to Version 1
14
A) produce new organisms. B) produce gametes. C) increase the variability of the population.
D) increase the size of the organism. E) facilitate sexual reproduction.
49) Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G 1 into S phase will enter G 0 and therefore will cells. A) immediately move into the mitotic phase. B) never be able to undergo mitosis. C) be able to produce gametes through meiosis. D) stay in an undifferentiated state and become stem
50) The mitotic spindle is composed of originate from the .
E) not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.
, which
A) microtubules; centrosome B) asters; spindle equator C) centrosomes; aster
D) microtubules; chromatid E) microtubules; cleavage furrow
51) Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because
A) plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not. B) animal cells need to build a cell wall, while plant cells do not. C) animal cells need to build a cell membrane, while plant cells do not.
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D) animal cells are living, while plant cells are not. E) plant cells divide by mitosis, while animal cells divide by meiosis.
15
52)
Cytokinesis in plants occurs as
and in
A) actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch; the Golgi apparatus produces membranebound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall B) the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch C) the centrosome produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; the Golgi apparatus produces actin fibers to pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
animals as
.
D) actin fibers interact to make the cell wall; the cleavage furrow pulls the membrane inward until the two sides touch E) the Golgi apparatus produces a cleavage furrow; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
53) Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because
A) plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not. B) animal cells need to build a cell wall, while plant cells do not. C) animal cells need to build a cell membrane, while plant cells do not.
D) animal cells are living, while plant cells are not. E) plant cells divide by mitosis, while animal cells divide by meiosis.
54) Which of the following is a characteristic of cancer cells?
A) stimulate the growth of blood vessels B) travel through the bloodstream to other parts of the body C) have abnormal chromosomes D) produced by a mutation of a proto-oncogene
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E) All of the above answers are characteristics of cancer cells.
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55)
A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor
gene because a proto-
A) may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot. B) stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis. C) only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis. D) inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle. E) promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.
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56) A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be the most
A)
the cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G 0
stage B) the cell loses contact inhibition even when it is not surrounded by other cells C) the cell cycle accelerates D) the cell no longer responds to signals that cause it
likely result of this mutation? to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis E) the cell stops dividing permanently and will never re-enter the cell cycle
57) A mutation that causes an increase in function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because a tumor suppressor protein
A) normally promotes the cell cycle. B) normally responds to growth factors. C) activates a signal transduction pathway.
58)
Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because
A) DNA polymerase is inactive. B) telomerase is active. C) telomerase is inactive.
59)
D) inactivates growth factors. E) does not promote cell division.
D) RNA polymerase is inactive. E) protooncogenes are inactive.
A translocation may lead to cancer if it
A) disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle. B) deletes the telomere of the chromosome. C) moves genes from one chromosome to another.
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D) activates tumor suppressor genes. E) affects both tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes.
18
60)
A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that
A) RB is inactive. B) a cell is undergoing apoptosis. C) proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.
D) a cell is probably cancerous. E) tumor suppressors are active.
61) Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer. Which of the genes listed below takes its name from its association with an eye tumor?
A) BRCA1 B) RB
C) RET D) RAS E) DScam
62) An oncogene is more likely to lead to cancer than a mutant tumor suppressor gene because
A) a gain of function mutation in an oncogene need only occur in one allele before it disrupts control of the cell cycle. B) a loss of function mutation in an oncogene is sufficient to cause unregulated cell division. C) the mutant oncogene may inactivate telomerase. D) a gain of function mutation in a tumor suppressor
63)
gene can promote the cell cycle. E) a gain of function mutation in an oncogene is more likely to cause the other allele to mutate.
Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because it D) causes A)
allows tumor cells to spread to other parts of the
body. B) causes blood vessels to grow into the tumor. C) allows tumor cells to invade underlying tissues. Version 1
19
additional mutations to occur in tumor cells. E) causes apoptosis in tumor cells.
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20
64) A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)
A) oncogene. B) proto-oncogene. C) tumor suppressor. D) mutant tumor suppressor.
E) signal transduction pathway protein.
65) If tumor cellshave afaulty, nonfunctional proteinase, they will be unable to undergo which of the following processes?
A) mitosis B) mutations
C) metastasis D) apoptosis E) angiogenesis
66) The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?
A) histone B) nucleosome
C) actin D) chromatid E) myosin
67) What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?
A) duplicated chromosome B) chromatin
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C) histones D) nucleosome E) DNA
21
A) interphase: S B) interphase: G C) interphase: G
69)
D) prophase E) telophase 1 2
Which of the following is mismatched?
A) interphase - shortest stage of the cell cycle B) S stage - DNA synthesis C) M stage - mitosis and cytokinesis D) G 1 stage - cell grows in size and cell organelles
increase in number E) G 2 stage metabolic preparation for mitosis
70) If a cell stops at the G 1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?
A) there is DNA damage B) the DNA has not finished replicating C) the chromosomes are not aligned properly D) the cell is cancerous
E) the chromosomes are not properly attached to the spindle
71) What is the structure that holds together the two sister chromatids that form a chromosome? C) histone D) nucleus E) chromatin
A) centromere B) nucleosome
72) If cancer is discovered at an early stage, which treatment method is most often used?
A) surgery B) radiation C) chemotherapy
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D)
hormonal
E)
drug therapy
therapy
22
73) Which cancer therapy can lead to side effects such as nausea and hair loss?
A) chemotherapy B) surgery C) hormonal therapy
D) drug therapy E) All of these can lead to nausea and hair loss.
74) When a portion of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome, this is called a D) suppressor A) translocation. B) telomerase. C) apoptosis event.
event. E) jumping gene.
75) Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?
A) smoking B) using tanning beds C) excessive alcohol consumption
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D) drug use E) using smokeless tobacco
23
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 08 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) E 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) E 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) B Version 1
24
20) B 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) E 34) E 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) E 39) E 40) C Version 1
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41) C 42) A 43) E 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) E 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) E 55) B 56) D 57) E 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) B Version 1
26
62) A 63) B 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) A 73) A 74) A 75) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes. B) Meiosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes. C) Mitosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes. D) Mitosis involves two divisions and produces four
identical gametes. E) Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four identical gametes.
2) One major difference between meiosis I and meiosis II is that
A) sister chromatids are separated during meiosis I, while homologous chromosomes are separated during meiosis II. B) crossing-over occurs in prophase of meiosis I but not in prophase of meiosis II. C) the resulting cells at the end of meiosis I are diploid, while the cells at the end of meiosis II are haploid. D) in telophase of meiosis I, four gametes form from the parent cell, and in telophase of meiosis II, each parent cell
gives rise to two identical daughter cells. E) in meiosis I there is no pairing of chromosomes while homologues pair in meiosis II.
3) The chances of a woman over 40 years old having a baby with Down Syndrome is
A) 1 in 800. B) 1 in 400.
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C) 1 in 40. D) 1 in 80. E) 1 in 21.
1
4)
During metaphase I, the homologous chromosomes
align at the spindle equator
A) facing the same spindle pole. B) facing both spindle poles. C) facing opposite spindle poles. D) not facing either spindle pole. E) being separated into two sister chromatids.
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2
5) Armadillos have a diploid chromosome number of 64. At prophase I, an armadillo's cell would have how many homologous pairs?
A) 16 B) 32
C) 64 D) 80 E) 128
6) Which of the following processes contributes to creating genetic variability in the offspring?
A) crossing-over B) independent assortment of chromosomes C) pairing of homologous chromosomes D) having different alleles of the same gene
E) All of the answers describe processes that contribute to genetic variability.
7) During the G 1 stage of interphase, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 4 D) 8 E) 16
8) During prophase I, a diploid organism contains how many copies of each gene?
A) 1 B) 2
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C) 3 D) 4 E) 8
3
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4 E) 8
10) In each gamete following telophase II, how many copies of each gene is/are present?
A) 1 B) 2
11)
Which of the following is a correct match?
A) separation of tetrads - anaphase II B) synapsis - metaphase I C) separation of sister chromatids - anaphase I D) synapsis - prophase II
12)
C) 3 D) 4 E) 8
E) separation of sister chromatids anaphase II
A homologous pair is composed of
A)
two chromosomes with two sister chromatids
each. B) two sister chromatids with separate centromeres. C) four chromosomes with two sister chromatids each.
D) four sister chromatids, each with its owncentromere. E) four sister chromatids attached at a common centromere.
13) Which of the following only occurs once during meiosis?
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4
A) cytokinesis B) spindle formation C) pairing of homologous chromosomes D) separation of genetic material
14)
E) alignment of chromosomes at the spindle equator
During crossing-over,
A) genetic material is exchanged between sister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles. B) genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles. C) sister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles. D) nonsister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new
combinations of alleles. E) one homologous chromosome of a tetrad is exchanged with another tetrad, resulting in new combinations of alleles.
15) Which statement best describes how homologous chromosomes are separated during meiosis I?
A) The two homologous chromosomes separate into two different daughter cells. B) The sister chromatids of each chromosome separate into different daughter cells. C) The nonsister chromatids of each homologous pairs separate into different daughter cells. D) The two homologous chromosomes travel
16)
together into one new daughter cell. E) The two homologous chromosomes are not separated during meiosis I.
A tetrad consists of
A) two homologous chromosomes each comprised of two sister chromatids. B) two homologous chromosomes each comprised of two nonsister chromatids. Version 1
C) one duplicated chromosome consisting of two nonsister chromatids. D) one duplicated chromosome consisting of 5
two sister chromatids. E) two homologous chromosomes consisting of a
17)
single DNA strand each.
In the human life cycle,
A) meiosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by mitosis to produce a new individual. B) mitosis produces haploid gametes, and fertilization creates a diploid cell that divides by meiosis to produce a new individual. C) diploid gametes are produced by meiosis, and fertilization produces haploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual. D) diploid gametes are produced by mitosis, and
fertilization results in tetrapolid daughter cells that divide by meiosis to produce a new individual. E) a haploid zygote is produced by meiosis and fertilization results in a diploid daughter cells that divide by mitosis to produce a new individual.
18) The failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis is called
A) synapsis. B) crossing-over. C) tetrad formation.
D) disjunction. E) nondisjunction.
19) Which of the following processes and products are paired correctly? D) meiosis - 2n A) spermatogenesis - 2n zygote B) oogenesis - 2n zygote C) oogenesis - 1n gamete
zygote E) mitosis - 1n gamete
20) For the figure shown here, indicate the Version 1
6
correct stage of meiosis and the whether the cell is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
D) metaphase II, A) prophase I, n B) prophase II, 2n C) metaphase I, n
2n E) prophase II, n
21)
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For the figure
7
shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and whether the cell is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
A) anaphase I, 2n B) anaphase II, n C) anaphase I, n
D) anaphase II, 2n E) neither anaphase I or anaphase II.
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8
22) For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and whether the cell is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
A) metaphase II, 2n B) metaphase II, n C) metaphase I, 2n
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D) metaphase I, n E) anaphase I, 2n
9
23) Metaphase II is more similar to metaphase of mitosis than to metaphase I because
A) in metaphase I, tetrads align together at the spindle equator. B) in metaphase II, tetrads align separately at the spindle equator. C) in metaphase of mitosis, tetrads align separately at the spindle equator. D) in metaphase II, chromosomes align separately at
the spindle equator. E) in metaphase I, chromosomes align separately at the spindle equator.
24) Which of the following phases results in separation of sister chromatids into daughter chromosomes?
A) anaphase of mitosis only B) anaphase I, anaphase II, and anaphase of mitosis C) anaphase I and anaphase II
D) anaphase I and anaphase of mitosis E) anaphase II and anaphase of mitosis
25) Following meiosis I, the daughter cells are ; following meiosis II, the daughter cells are ; and following fertilization and mitosis, the daughter cells are .
A) diploid; haploid; diploid B) diploid; diploid; haploid C) haploid; haploid; diploid
26)
D) haploid; haploid; haploid E) diploid; diploid; diploid
Interphase differs from interkinesis because
A) DNA is duplicated during interphase, but not during interkinesis. B) DNA is duplicated during interkinesis, but not during interphase. Version 1
C) homologous chromosomes separate during interkinesis, but not during interphase. D) homologous 10
chromosomes separate during interphase, but not during interkinesis. E) interkinesis only occurs during mitosis, while
27)
During meiosis II,
A) homologous chromosomes line up separately, with sister chromatids facing the same spindle pole. B) chromosomes line up separately, with sister chromatids facing opposite spindle poles. C) chromosomes line up separately, with sister chromatids facing the same spindle pole. D) homologous chromosomes line up separately,
28)
interphase occurs during both meiosis and mitosis.
with sister chromatids facing opposite spindle poles. E) homologous chromosomes line up together, with sister chromatids facing opposite spindle poles.
Which of the following is a function only of mitosis?
A) organismal growth B) creating genetic variability C) reducing the chromosome number in gametes D) keeping the chromosome number constant from
one generation to the next E) producing gametes
29) A human egg with 22 chromosomes that is fertilized by a normal sperm will result in
A) a zygote with trisomy. B) a zygote with disomy. C) a zygote with monosomy. D) a zygote with a normal chromosome number.
E) a fertilized egg with 44 chromosomes.
30) Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?
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11
A) Turner syndrome B) Klinefelter syndrome C) Down syndrome
D) Swyer syndrome E) Barr body syndrome
31) An individual with the karyotype 48, XYYY would have how many Barr bodies?
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
32) An individual with Swyer syndrome (46, XY) differs from an individual with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) because
A) an individual with Swyer syndrome has a Barr body, while an individual with Klinefelter syndrome does not. B) an individual with Klinefelter syndrome has a functional SRY gene on his Y chromosome, whereas an individual with Swyer syndrome does not. C) both individuals have a functional SRY gene, but the extra X chromosome makes the individual with Klinefelter syndrome appear female. D) neither individual has a functional SRY gene, but the X chromosome of the individual with Swyer
syndrome has a functional SRY and appears male. E) an individual with Swyer syndrome lacks a functional SRY gene, but appears male because it has moved to the X chromosome as in an individual with Klinefelter syndrome.
33) Swyer syndrome (46, XY, female appearance), would most likely result from
A) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the female parent. Version 1
B) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the male parent. 12
C) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the female parent. D) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the male
a portion of the Y chromosome in the male parent.
parent. E)
normal disjunction during meiosis, but deletion of
34) Turner syndrome is associated with which of the following karyotypes?
A) 47, XXY B) 47, XXX C) 46, XY
D) 47, XY, trisomy 21 E) 45, XO
35) The failure of sister chromatids to separate in one of the cells during meiosis II would result in how many normal gametes?
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
36) Klinefelter syndrome can result fromnondisjunction during
A) meiosis I in the female parent. B) meiosis I in the male parent. C) meiosis I in either female parent.
37) Goats have a diploid chromosome number of 60. At prophase I, each cell would have tetrads present,
D) meiosis I or II in the male parent. E) meiosis I or II in either parent.
for a total of chromatids. B) 30; 60
A)
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30; 120
13
C) 60; 120 D) 60; 240 E) 30; 240
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14
38) Camels have a diploid chromosome number of 70. At prophase II, each cell would contain how many chromatids? C) 70 D) 140 E) 280
A) 0 B) 35
39) Camels have a diploid chromosome number of 70. At prophase II, each cell would contain how many tetrads? C) 70 D) 140 E) 280
A) 0 B) 35
40)
The first 22 pairs of chromosomes are called while the 23rd pair are known as the
chromosomes, which code for gender. D)
A) homologous; autosomes B) autosomes; homologous C) diploid; haploid
autosomes:
sex E) sex; autosomes
41) Which pair of chromosomes on a karyotype would show you the sex of a baby?
A) 21st pair B) 18th pair
42)
C) 23rd pair D) 6th pair E) 1st pair
Which of the following statements is true? A) Chromosomes
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15
are classified into two categories:the sex chromosomes that determine gender and autosomes that determine non-gender related traits. B) Homologous chromosomes differ in banding patterns, the traits they code for, and size. C) While sex chromosomes determine different genders, they look the same until they are stained. D) In humans all 46 chromosomes have an identical match called the homologue.
43)
One of the main goals of meiosis is
A) create cells that are genetically identical to their parent cell. B) to create a fertilized egg that has half the genetic material of the parents. C) to reduce the number of chromosomes by half in
44)
E) Chromosomes are classified into two categories:autosomes that determine gender and the sex chromosomes that determine non-gender related traits.
gametes. D) to prevent genetic disorders. E) to reduce genetic diversity.
The human life cycle consists of
A) adults who are haploid and produce diploid gametes; these gametes fuse to produce a haploid zygote which grows into an adult. B) zygotes who are haploid fuse to produce a diploid gamete which grows into an adult. C) gametes that are diploid and produce haploid zygotes; these grow into haploid adults. D) adults who are diploid and produce haploid
gametes; these gametes fuse to produce a diploid zygote which grows into an adult. E) adults that are diploid who produce zygotes that are also diploid.
45) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about crossing-over?
A)
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Crossing-over is preceded by a process known as
synapsis, where homologous chromosomes
16
attach to each other. B) Crossing-over results in greater genetic variability in offspring. C) Crossing-over occurs between sister chromatids. D) Crossing-over occurs during prophase I when
homologous chromosomes line up prior to separation. E) In humans, crossing-over results in genetic recombination.
46) Crossing-over between sister chromatids does not result in recombination of genetic material, while crossing-
over between nonsister chromatids does because
A) sister chromatids have the same alleles, while nonsister chromatids have different ones. B) sister chromatids have the same genes, while nonsister chromatids have different ones. C) sister chromatids have the same alleles but different genes, while nonsister chromatids have different alleles but the same genes. D) nonsister chromatids have the same alleles, while
sister chromatids have different ones. E) nonsister chromatids have the same genes, while sister chromatids have different ones.
47) All but which one of the following results from nondisjunction?
A) trisomy B) diploidy C) monosomy
D) polyploidy E) Down syndrome
48) During which stage of meiosis will the pairs of homologous chromosomes line up? C) metaphase D) anaphase I E) prophase II
A) metaphase I B) metaphase II
49) Version 1
You are looking at
17
a cell under a microscope and see what appears to be several "X" structures being pulled to each side of the cell. What
A) anaphase I B) prophase I
stage of meiosis are you looking at? C) prophase II D) metaphase I E) anaphase II
50) Which of the following is a characteristic of someone with Down syndrome?
A) short stature B) eyelid fold C) stubby fingers D) fissured tongue
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E) All of the above answers describe characteristics of someone with Down syndrome.
18
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 09 Test Bank 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) E 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) C Version 1
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20) E 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) E 34) E 35) C 36) E 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) D Version 1
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41) C 42) A 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) E
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Alleles that are linked on the same chromosome will always assort independently during meiosis. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Which variable(s) will determine the coat color of a Himalayan rabbit?
A) only genetics B) only the environmental temperature C) both genetics and environmental temperature
D) neither genetics or environmental temperature
3) Skin color is coded for by several different genes which results in a range of skin colors from very dark to very light. This is an example of
A) a multifactorial trait. B) polygenic inheritance. C) pleiotropy.
4) Sickle-cell disease is caused by a single mutation in the DNA of a particular gene. A person with this disease has red blood cells that lose their original donut shape and form a sickle shape. People with this disorder suffer from low energy
A) a multifactorial trait. B) polygenic inheritance. C) pleiotropy.
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D) codominance. E) incomplete dominance.
levels, blood clots, and strokes. This is an example of
D) codominance. E) incomplete dominance.
1
5) A couple has three children, two of which have blonde hair. The third child and both parents have dark hair. What can be determined about the gene for hair color in this family?
A)
Blonde hair color is an autosomal recessive trait.
E) Blonde hair colorconveys a lethal mutation.
B) Blonde hair color is an autosomal dominant trait. C) Blonde hair color is a sex-linked dominant trait. D) Blonde hair coloris a sex-linked recessive trait.
6) If both parents express a particular trait, but their child does not, what does this indicate about the trait?
A) The trait is an autosomal dominant trait. B) The trait is an autosomal recessive trait. C) The trait is sex-linked recessive.
7)
D) The trait is sex-linked dominant. E) This is a lethal trait.
What does true-breeding mean?
A) When the plant is pollinated, all the offspring resemble the parent and are heterozygotes. B) The organism can be cross-pollinated. C) When the plant self-pollinates, all the offspring resemble the parent, and arehomozygous for that gene.
8) The garden pea was a good model for Mendel's genetics experiments. Which of the following is a true
D) The organism is easy to cultivate. E) The organism cannot be cultivated.
statement regarding this model organism? D) Most of the
A) The plants were easy to grow. B) Pea plants can either cross-pollinate or selfpollinate. C) All inheritance patterns were simple. Version 1
2
traits studied had no intermediate stage.
9)
Which of the following is mismatched?
A) pollen - male B) stigma - female C) anther - female
10)
D) ovule - female E) stamen - male
The filled-in squares of a Punnett square represent
A) the gametes from both parents. B) all possible combinations of gametes based on a cross between the two parents. C) an exact ratio that must always occur when the same parents have four offspring.
D) examples of some of the offspring that can arise from a one-trait cross. E) the gametes from one parent.
11) If a true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a tall pea plant of unknown parentage, which of the following is correct?
A) All of the offspring (F 1) will be short. B) Over several generations, no short individuals will appear. C) Some short individuals may appear in the F 2 generation.
D) It is impossible to determine based on the information provided. E) Some of the F 1 generation will be short.
12) Determine if the following statement is true or false. Parents with the dominant phenotype cannot have offspring
with the recessive phenotype. down from each parent.
A) Version 1
True, because the dominant gene must be passed 3
B) True, because at least one dominant gene will be passed down from each parent. C) False, because one parent could be heterozygous. D) False, because both parents could be
13)
heterozygous. E) True, because both parents have the dominant allele.
In a monohybrid cross, how many traits are examined?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
14) Which of the following is true with regards to the law of independent assortment?
A) Each individual has two factors for each trait. B) Genes segregate during gamete formation. C) Gametes contain only one gene from each pair. D) During fertilization, each new individual obtains
15)
two genes for each trait. E) Each pair of alleles assorts independently of the other allele pairs.
Alleles are
A) dominant genes. B) recessive genes. C) two versions of the same gene.
D) alternate versions of the same gene. E) sister chromatids.
16) In a one-trait testcross, a homozygous dominant individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual. Which phenotype will be absent in the F 1 generation? C) recessive trait. A) dominant trait. B) negative trait. Version 1
4
D) heterozygote. E) homozygote.
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5
17) If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio?
A) 1 tall:1 short B) 1 tall:2 short
18)
C) 3 tall:1 short D) all tall E) all short
Which of the following is an example of a phenotype?
A) AAGg B) freckles
C) AA D) Ag E) Gg
19) If an individual expresses a dominant disease, which of the following is true?
A)
All of his children will always inherit the disease.
B) He will pass this disease to all of his daughters. C) There is at least a 50% probability that his children will inherit the disease. D) There is a 100% possibility that his sons will
Version 1
inherit this disease. E) None of his children will inherit the disease unless his wife also has the disease.
6
20) Which of the following is true about an individual with the chromosomes shown in this figure?
A) All offspring will have the dominant phenotype for each trait. B) All offspring will have the recessive phenotype for each trait. C) The individual is homozygous for all traits.
21)
Which of the following is mismatched?
A) physical expression of a trait - phenotype B) allele that masks expression of alternate allele dominant C) identical alleles - heterozygous D) allele whose expression can be masked by an
22)
D) The individual is heterozygous for all traits. E) The individual is homozygous for at least one trait.
alternate allele - recessive E) the specific alleles that an individual has - genotype
Which of the following is mismatched?
A)
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physical expression of a trait - phenotype
B) allele that masks the expression of an
7
alternate allele - dominant C) identical alleles - heterozygous D) allele whose expression can be masked by an alternate allele - recessive
E) the specific alleles that an individual has - genotype
23) What are all possible gametes that can be produced by an individual with the following genotype:FFGg?
A) FG, Fg B) FF, Gg
C) Fg D) FG, Fg, fG, fg E) Fg, fG
24) In a dihybrid cross where both parents are heterozygous, the expected phenotypic ratio is
A) 1:2:1. B) 9:3:3:1.
25) During meiosis, each pair of alleles on the homologous chromosomes sorts independently from all other
A) the rule of multiplication. B) the law of segregation. C) the law of probability.
26) Matt breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and
A) He must be homozygous dominant. B) He must be heterozygous.
Version 1
C) 1:1:1. D) 3:1. E) 1:1:1:1.
pairs of alleles. This statement corresponds to D) gene theory. E) the law of independent assortment.
four were albino. What do you know about the genotype of the father?
C) He must be homozygous recessive. D) He could be
8
either heterozygous or homozygous dominant. E) There is not enough information to determine the
father's genotype.
27) Matt breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino. What do you know about the genotype of
the baby snakes with the normal coloration?
A) They must be homozygous dominant. B) They must be homozygous recessive. C) They must be heterozygous. D) They could be either heterozygous or homozygous dominant.
28) Matt breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino. What is the chance that another offspring
A) 0% B) 25%
29) Matt buys a male python from a snake dealer who tells him that the snake carries the albino allele. What is the most
A) Breed the snake with a heterozygous female. B) Breed the snake with a homozygous normal female. C) Breed the snake with a female sibling. D) Breed the snake with a homozygous recessive
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E) There is not enough information to determine their genotype, but we know that they must carry the dominant allele.
produced by the same parents will be albino?
C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
effective way for Morgan to verify this statement? albino female. E) He can breed the snake with any female, and a portion of the offspring will always be albino.
9
30) Matt buys a male python from a snake dealer who tells him that the snake carries the albino allele. Matt mates the snake with an albino female, and four normally pigmented offspring are produced. Matt rushes back to the snake dealer and demands his money back stating that the male he bought
A) Yes, because according to the laws of probability, at least one of the offspring should have been albino. B) Yes, because 50% of all offspring produced must be albino. C) No, because for each offspring, there is a 50% chance that it will have normal pigmentation. D) No, because a heterozygous male will only pass
is not heterozygous for the albino allele because all of its offspring had normal pigmentation. Is Matt justified in his accusation? the dominant allele to its offspring. E) Yes, because if at least one parent is homozygous recessive, at least one of their offspring must also show the recessive trait.
31) In fruit flys, long-wings (L) is dominant to shortwings (l) and a gray body color (G) is dominant to black body color (b). A long-winged Drosophila female with a gray body mates with a black, short-winged male fly (llgg). The phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 1:1:1:1. What is the genotype of the female fly?
A) LlGg B) LLGG
C) llgg D) LLgg E) llGG
32) If the parental genotype is EeWw, what are the potential allele combinations that could occur at the end of meiosis?
Version 1
10
A) EW, Ew, eW, and ew B) EW, EE, eW, and ww C) WW, Ew, EW, and ew
D) EE, WW, ee, and ww E) EW, Ew, ee and ww
33) The outcome of a genetic cross involving eye color and body type is predicted to have a 25%: 25%: 25%: 25% ratio. When bred, the organisms produced offspring with the following ratio 45%: 45%: 3%: 3%. These results are most likely due to
A) the two genes in question being linked on the same chromosome. B) a spontaneous mutation within the offspring. C) pure chance. D) an inaccurate prediction for the 25%: 25%: 25%:
25% ratio. E) the two genes being on separate chromosomes.
34) Megan has a widow's peak (dominant trait) and attached earlobes (recessive trait). Megan's dad has a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. What is Megan's genotype?
A) WWEE B) WwEE
C) wwee D) WwEe E) Wwee
35) Megan has a widow's peak (dominant trait) and attached earlobes (recessive trait). Megan's dad has a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. If Megan marries a man that is heterozygous for both traits, what is the probability that they will have a child with a widow's peak and attached earlobes? C) 1/4 A) 1/16 B) 3/8
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11
D) 1/2 E) 3/4
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12
36) A cow with black and white patches is produced from a white bull and a black cow. This is an example of D) polygenic. E) pleiotropy.
A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance. C) dominance/recessive trait.
37) A heterozygote for a trait exhibiting incomplete dominance will D) A) express the dominant trait. B) express the recessive trait. C) exhibit an intermediate phenotype.
38) If a homozygous black bull is mated with a homozygous white cow and the calf is gray, this would be an example of . However, if the calf has black and
A) incomplete dominance; a sex-linked trait B) complete dominance; polygenic trait C) codominance; homology
express both
alleles. E) exhibit an intermediate genotype.
white spots, this would be an example of .
D) incomplete dominance; codominance E) a sex-linked trait; a recessive trait
39) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about human blood types? A
A) I represents antigen A on red blood cells. B) A person with AB blood has two different antigens on their red blood cells. C) The allele representing blood type O is recessive. D) Human blood genetics involves multiple alleles and an individual can have up to three different blood alleles. Version 1
E) When inherited together, A and B blood types exhibit codominance.
13
40) Determine if the following statement is true or false. A man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B can
have a baby with blood type O.
A) True, because although A and B are the dominant blood types, both individuals could carry a type O allele. B) False, the child must have type AB blood. C) True, because A and B are codominant. D) False, because type A and B are dominant blood
types and these individuals cannot have offspring with the recessive blood type. E) True, because only one O allele is needed.
41) A woman with type AB blood marries a man who is heterozygous for type B blood. If they have children, what are
all the possible blood types for the children?
A) AB only B) AB, AA, AO, and BO C) AB, BB, AO, and BO
42)
D) BB only E) AA, BB, and AB
Which of the following is a true statement?
A)
Females can be heterozygous for sex-linked
traits. B) All traits on the sex chromosomes are associated with sexual development. C) Males inherit two copies of the SRY gene.
D) The X and Y chromosomes are homologous. E) Men pass their X-linked traits to their sons.
43) Red-green color blindness is a recessive X-linked trait. If a female is red-green color-blind, which of the following is true?
A) Her mother must be color-blind. B) Both her parents must be color-blind. Version 1
C) Both her parents are carriers of the recessive allele. 14
D) Her father must be color-blind. E) Women cannot exhibit red-green color blindness
because they have two X chromosomes.
44) In fruit flies, red-eyes are dominant to white-eyes. In addition, eye color is a sex-linked trait. If a homozygous redeyed female Drosophila mates with a red-eyed male Drosophila. What proportion of the female offspring will have white eyes?
A) 0% B) 25%
45) In fruit flies, red-eyes are dominant to white-eyes. In addition, eye color is a sex-linked trait. A red-eyed male Drosophila mates with a red-eyed female Drosophila. One of the female's parents had white eyes. What proportion of the
A) 0% B) 25%
C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
male offspring will have white eyes?
C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
46) Alport syndrome, a dominantly inherited X-linked disorder, is characterized by glomerulonephritis, end-stage kidney disease, and hearing loss. A mother with alport disease, whose father was unaffected, marries an unaffected man. What are the chances that she would give birth to a son with alport syndrome?
A) 0% B) 25%
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C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
15
47) Hunter syndrome is a rare genetic disorder in which large sugar molecules called glycosaminoglycans build up in body tissues. Hunter syndrome causes abnormalities in many organs, including the skeleton, heart, and respiratory system. In severe cases, this leads to death during the teenage years. Hunter syndrome is caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome. If a woman who is normal (but had a father
A) 0% B) 25%
48)
C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
Linked genes
A) always assort independently. B) undergo crossing-over of sister chromatids at a high rate. C) are found on homologous chromosomes.
49)
with the disease) marries a normal man, what are the chances of having a daughter affected by the disease?
D) never cross over during prophase I. E) tend to be close together on the same chromosome.
A male is always homozygous for a trait that is
A) codominant. B) X-linked.
C) autosomal. D) dominant. E) dihybrid.
50) On one chromosome, the allele for white eyes is located at loci 12 and the allele for a hairy body is located at loci 16. On a second chromosome, the allele for red eyes is located at loci 15 and the allele for a normal body is located at loci 17. Which allele combination has the greater map distance?
A) white eyes and hairy body B) white eyes and normal body Version 1
C) red eyes and normal body D) red eyes and 16
hairy body E) white eyes and red eyes
51) Both parents are heterozygous for Tay-Sachs disease (an autosomal recessive disorder). Three children in a row were born with Tay-Sachs disease. What is the chance that a
fourth child will have TaySachs disease?
C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
A) 25% B) 0%
52) A blue-eyed, left-handed woman marries a browneyed, right-handed man who is heterozygous for both of histraits. If blue eyes and left-handedness are recessive, how
many different phenotypes are possible in their children? C) two D) one E) five
A) four B) three
53) Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?
A) Huntington's disease B) sickle-cell disease C) alkaptonuria
D) cystic fibrosis E) methemoglobinemia
54) What genetic disorder is associated with the lack of an enzyme necessary for the normal metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine? C) Huntington A) phenylketonuria (PKU) B) Marfan syndrome Version 1
disease D)
sickle-cell 17
disease E)
cystic fibrosis (CF)
55) Which genetic disorder is associated with an irregular shape of the red blood cells?
A) sickle-cell disease B) Marfan syndrome C) Huntington disease
D) phenylketonuria (PKU) E) cystic fibrosis (CF)
56) Unattached earlobes (EE or Ee) are dominant over attached earlobes (ee). A couple both have unattached earlobes but each one has a parent with attached earlobes (ee). Therefore, they correctly assume that they are carriers for attached earlobes (Ee). If the couple proceeds to have four children, then
A) they can be certain that three will be heterozygous and one homozygous recessive. B) if the first three are heterozygous, the fourth must be homozygous recessive. C) the children must repeat the grandparents' genotype (Ee). D) all children must have unattached earlobes since both parents possess the dominant gene for it. E) two heterozygous, one homozygous dominant,
and one homozygous recessive is a likely outcome, but all heterozygous, or two, three, or all four homozygous is also possible.
57) Which of the following is true in regards to an autosomal recessive pedigree?
A) Heterozygotes have a normal phenotype. B) Affected children will have at least one affected parent.
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C) Heterozygotes are affected. D) Males are affected more often than
18
females. E)
The trait is carried on the Y chromosome.
58) Traits that are controlled by several sets or pairs of alleles, such as skin color and height in humans, are the result
A) polygenic B) incomplete dominance C) multiple allele systems
of what form of inheritance? D) simple Mendelian inheritance E) codominance
59) Which of the following is a sex-linked recessive disorder?
A) color blindness B) Marfan syndrome C) sickle-cell disease
D) cystic fibrosis E) alkaptonuria
60) Hydrangeas are a flowering plant with large showy blooms. When a plant is grown in acidic soil, it has blue flowers; if the same plant is transplanted into soil that is alkaline, the flowers produced will be pink. This is an example of
A) environmental influence. B) codominance. C) incomplete dominance.
61)
D) polygenetic inheritance. E) monohybrid inheritance.
What is the inheritance pattern of hemophila?
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C) codominance D) polygenic E) pleiotropic
A) sex-linked recessive B) sex-linked dominant
62) Cold weather can change what aspect of a Himalayan rabbit?
A) phenotype B) genotype C) alleles
D) sex E) rate of genetic mutations
63) What is the inheritance pattern of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
A) sex-linked recessive B) sex-linked dominant C) codominance
D) pleiotropic E) polygenic inheritance
64) Primroses have white flowers when grown above 32°C but red flowers when grown at 24°C. This interaction between phenotypic expression and environment is an example of
A) epistasis. B) polygenictraits. C) pleiotropy.
D) environmental influence. E) codominance.
65) Version 1
People who suffer
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fromMarfan syndrome have disproportionately long limbs, a weakened aorta, and poor eyesight. All of these characteristics are due to the production of abnormal connective tissue,
A) pleiotropy. B) polygenic inheritance. C) multiple allelism.
Version 1
resulting from a single defective gene. Marfan syndrome is an example of D) epistasis. E) codominance.
21
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 10 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) E 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) C Version 1
22
20) D 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) E 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) B 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) A Version 1
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41) C 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) E 49) B 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) E 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A Version 1
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62) A 63) A 64) D 65) A
Version 1
25
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) mRNA is processed in the cytoplasm before being used in protein synthesis. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) The genetic code in bacteria is different than the genetic code in animals and plants. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) The two DNA strands must be separated before DNA replication or transcription can occur. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) The repressor protein used by Escherichia coli to control the lac operon is coded for by a gen e located within the operon. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) In eukaryotes, one gene may specify the construction of several proteins. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) If the maternal X chromosome is inactive Version 1
1
and becomes the Barr body in one cell, then the maternal X chromosome becomes the Barr body in every cell of that woman's body. ⊚
true
⊚
false
7) Histone displacement is necessary for transcription to occur in euchromatin. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) Proteins are active immediately after translation occurs. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Signal transduction pathways can stimulate transcription activators. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) tRNAs carrying the correct amino acid recognize the
A) the anticodon of the tRNA hydrogen binds to the codon of the mRNA by complementary base pairing. B) the codon of the tRNA binds to the anticodon of the ribosome by complementary base pairing. C) the anticodon of the tRNA carries the correct amino acid. D) the amino acid binds to the anticodon of the
Version 1
proper codons on the mRNA because
mRNA and brings the correct tRNA with it. E) the codon of the mRNA binds the correct amino acid, and the tRNA stabilizes this interaction.
2
11) The central dogma of molecular biology states that the information contained within genes flows in which direction? D) protein to DNA to RNA E) protein to RNA to DNA
A) DNA to protein to RNA B) RNA to DNA to protein C) DNA to RNA to protein
12) with
According to Chargaff's data, , and must pair with
must pair .
A) A; G; T; C B) A; T; C; G
C) A; C; G; T D) C; T; G; A E) G; U; A; C
13) If an organism's DNA contains 30% adenine nucleotides, what percentage of its DNA is composed of thymine nucleotides?
A) 10% B) 15%
C) 20% D) 30% E) 40%
14) The X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA discovered by Rosalind Franklin showed that DNA
A) is helical. B) has a repeating pattern. C) is both helical and has a repeating pattern. D) is pleated and has a repeating pattern.
15)
E) is neither pleated or helical but has a repeating pattern.
The term semiconservative refers specifically to
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3
A) DNA replication. B) translation. C) transcription.
16) are
D) transformation. E) RNA processing.
The three steps that are required for DNA replication
A) unwinding, complementary base pairing, and joining. B) base doubling, unwinding, and joining. C) complementary base pairing, transcription, and translation.
D) unwinding, transcription, and translation. E) unwinding, base doubling, and base pairing.
17) Which of the following enzyme is needed to reseal breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone during replication?
A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase
C) RNA ligase D) helicase E) DNA ligase
18) For a DNA strand that is two nucleotides long, how many different sequences are possible?
A) 2 B) 4
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C) 8 D) 16 E) 64
4
A) 10% B) 15%
20) If an organism's DNA contains 33% adenine nucleotides and 17% guanine nucleotides, what percentage of
A) 8.5% B) 17%
C) 20% D) 30% E) 40%
its DNA is composed of cytosine nucleotides? C) 25% D) 33% E) 50%
21) For a DNA strand composed of the sequence AGT in the 5' to 3' direction, the free phosphate is on the nucleotide and the free hydroxyl is on the nucleotide.
A) T; A B) A; G
22) For a DNA strand that contains the sequence AGT in the 5' to 3' direction, what nucleotides are found on the other
A) ACT B) TGA
23)
C) A; A D) G; T E) A; T
DNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction? C) AGT D) TCA E) GTA
DNA replication is called semiconservative because
A) one of the resulting DNA molecules is comprised of entirely old DNA and one is comprised of entirely new DNA. B) each resulting DNA molecules is comprised of Version 1
one new DNA strand and one old strand. C) both of the resulting DNA molecules are comprised of entirely 5
new strands of nucleotides. D) no extra nucleotides are incorporated into the replicated DNA molecules. E) the sequence of nucleotides in one strand is
conserved, whereas the new DNA molecule consists of a unique sequence of nucleotides.
24) What chemical force must be overcome in order to separate the two DNA strands during replication?
A) hydrophobic interactions B) intrastrand folding C) ionic bonds
25)
D) phosphodiester bonds E) hydrogen bonds
A defect in DNA ligase would most likely result in
A) normal replication, but gaps remaining in the sugar-phosphate DNA backbone. B) failure to remove introns from the primary mRNA. C) incompletely processed primary mRNA that does not get translated properly. D) translation initiating normally but failing to
proceed to elongation. E) DNA strands separating normally but failing to join nucleotides in the growing nucleotide chain.
26) During the elongation cycle of translation, the A site on a ribosome functions in
A)
receiving a new tRNA with the correct amino
acid. B) holding the growing polypeptide chain as amino acids are added. C) attaching the small subunits of rRNA to the large
27)
subunit. D) releasing the completed polypeptide. E) processing the rRNA.
RNA differs from DNA because RNA
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6
A) is double-stranded, whereas DNA is not. B) is single-stranded, whereas DNA is doublestranded. C) is never single-stranded, whereas DNA may or may not be. D) can self-replicate, whereas DNA replication
28)
Which base is found in DNA, but not in RNA?
A) cytosine B) uracil
29)
requires enzymes. E) is replicated along with DNA but does not require strand separation like DNA.
C) thymine D) adenine E) guanine
If RNA polymerase malfunctions,
A) one of the subunits of rRNA will not be transcribed from DNA. B) amino acids will not be joined to their tRNA. C) mRNA cannot bind to rRNA.
D) mRNA will not be formed. E) mRNA cannot copy itself.
30) Which process requires the participation of all three types of RNA?
A) transcription B) translation C) RNA processing
D) replication E) complementary base pairing
31) Failure to remove introns from a primary mRNA would most likely cause
A) irregularities Version 1
7
in transcription. B) abnormal translation. C) DNA to mutate. D) DNA replication to fail.
E) transcription to terminate early.
32) Using three bases to represent each amino acid in a polypeptide
A) ensures that all amino acids are represented at least once by the code. B) ensures that other organisms can read the code too. C) ensures that DNA can replicate properly. D) prevents the wrong amino acid from being
33)
incorporated into a protein. E) prevents early termination of transcription.
The stages of translation are
A) transcription, mRNA processing, and termination. B) DNA replication, transcription, and termination. C) initiation, transcription, elongation cycle, and termination. D) initiation, elongation cycle, and termination.
34) DNA replication makes a(n) DNA strand, while transcription makes a(n) of the DNA strand.
A) mRNA; DNA B) DNA; mRNA
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E) initiation, transcription, mRNA processing, and termination.
copy of the copy
C) DNA; tRNA D) mRNA; tRNA E) mRNA; rRNA
8
C) mRNA D) DNA E) protein
A) rRNA B) tRNA
36) Which of the following processes takes place in the cytoplasm?
A) DNA replication B) transcription C) intron removal
D) translation E) primary mRNA splicing
37) The sequence of the mRNA that would result from transcribing a DNA template strand with the bases TACGCTAAT would be
A) AUGCGAUUA. B) AUUAGCGUA. C) UACGCUAAU.
38) The sequence of amino acids that would result from transcribing and translating a DNA template strand with the
D) UAAUCGCAU. E) ATGCGATTA.
bases TACGCTAAT would be "stop."
A) Tyr-Ala-Asn. B) Ile-Ser-Val. C) no peptide would be made; the first codon means
D) Met-Arg-Leu. E) Tyr-Ser-Val.
39) Heterochromatin differs from euchromatin in that heterochromatin
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9
A)
is transcriptionally active, whereas euchromatin
is not. B) is not found in Barr bodies. C) is transcriptionally inactive.
D) is the result of the unpacking of euchromatin. E) contains DNA with accessible promoters.
40) Transcription activators are different from transcription factors in that
A) transcription activators are required for RNA polymerase binding, while transcription factors slow RNA polymerase binding. B) transcription factors assist RNA polymerase binding while transcription activators accelerate the mRNA processing. C) transcription activators slow transcription, while transcription factors accelerate transcription. D) transcription factors prevent RNA polymerase
binding, while transcription activators assist RNA polymerase binding. E) transcription factors are required for RNA polymerase binding, while transcription activators accelerate transcription.
41) Prokaryote regulate gene expression at which of the following levels?
A) epigenetic inheritance only B) mRNA translation, mRNA translation and epigenetic inheritance C) alternative mRNA processing and chromatin compaction
D) mRNA translation and epigenetic inheritance E) mRNA transcription
42) A point mutation in the operator of the lac operon would most likely cause
A) Version 1
no transcription of the lactose metabolizing
genes, even when lactose is absent.
10
B) no transcription of the lactose metabolizing genes, even when lactose is present. C) no binding of the repressor protein to the operator, even when lactose is absent. D) binding of the repressor protein to the regulatory gene in both the presence and absence of lactose.
E) no transcription of the regulatory gene, even in the presence of lactose.
43) What would be the most likely result on the regulation of the lac operon from a nonfunctional repressor protein?
A) transcription of the lactose metabolizing genes, even when lactose is absent B) no transcription of the lactose metabolizing genes, even when lactose is present C) binding of the repressor protein to the operator, even when lactose is present D) binding of the repressor protein to the regulatory
gene in both the presence and absence of lactose E) no transcription of the regulatory gene, even in the presence of lactose
44) The unpacking of heterochromatin into euchromatin does not immediately result in DNA transcription because
A) Barr bodies are still present. B) histones still block the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C) euchromatin is always transcriptionally inactive. D) transcription factors still block the binding of
RNA polymerase to the promoter. E) heterochromatin contains DNA with accessible promoters.
45) The protein derived from a particular gene is different when it is found in a neuron than in a muscle cell. This is most likely due to
A) alternative mRNA processing. B) regulation of mRNA translation. Version 1
C) alteration of protein activity. D) mRNA 11
editing.
46)
E) DNA excision.
Female mammals form Barr bodies because
A) compacting the chromatin of one of their X chromosomes allows them to inactivate it and produce the same amount of gene product as a male. B) unpacking one of their X chromosomes allows them to produce more gene product than a male. C) compacting the chromatin in one of their X chromosomes allows them to conserve histone proteins. D) compacting the chromatin in one of their X chromosomes allows them to produce more gene product than
a male from the other X chromosome. E) unpacking one of their X chromosomes allows them to choose which allele they wish to express, which a male cannot do.
47) Which of the following series of events are in the correct order?
A) chemical binds to receptor, signal transduction pathway stimulates transcription activator, target gene is transcribed and translated B) signal transduction pathway stimulates receptor, transcription activator is activated by target gene C) chemical binds to receptor, target gene is transcribed and translated, signal transduction pathway stimulates proteins that bring about desired changes D) signal transduction pathway activates receptor,
48)
chemical binds to receptor, target gene stimulates transcription activator E) chemical binds to receptor, signal transduction pathway stimulates target gene, target gene stimulates transcription activator
What is the hereditary material found in all cells?
A) DNA B) rRNA
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C) mRNA D) tRNA E) ATP
12
49)
Which of the following is an inactive region of DNA?
A) heterochromatin B) intron
C) exon D) euchromatin E) nucleosome
50) An intervening sequence of DNA that is not expressed is called a(n)
A) intron. B) exon.
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C) gene. D) repressor. E) promoter.
13
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 11 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) E 18) D 19) C Version 1
14
20) B 21) E 22) A 23) B 24) E 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) E Version 1
15
41) E 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A
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16
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Organisms that have had foreign genes inserted into them are called transgenic organisms. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) In order to clone adult animals, scientists typically begin with a(n) D) red blood cell. E) enucleated sperm cell.
A) isolated sperm cell. B) enucleated egg. C) enucleated liver cell.
3) Reproductive cloning results in therapeutic cloning results in
while .
A) mature cells; clones B) clones; enucleated eggs C) clones; various types of mature cells D) embryonic stem cells; adult stem cells
E) enucleated eggs; various types of mature cells
4) Why is it necessary to "starve" the donor cells prior to reproductive cloning?
A) to force the cells into G 0 stage so that they will respond to cytoplasmic growth signals B) to force the enucleated egg cell into G 0 stage so that it would accept the donor nucleus C) to lengthen the telomeres in the donor nucleus D) to make the nucleus "start over" in the S stage so Version 1
that the nucleus will be diploid E) to make the nucleus "start over" in the S stage so that the nucleus will be haploid
1
5)
Therapeutic cloning can
A) produce clones of adult individuals. B) be used to produce superior farm animals. C) produce specialized cells to treat human disease. D) be used to create new species of plants.
E) produce embryonic stem cells.
6) Why do adult stem cells currently have fewer uses in therapeutic cloning than embryonic stem cells?
A) Embryonic stem cells have longer telomeres and persist for much longer than adult stem cells. B) Embryonic stem cells are capable of reverting to a G 0 stage when starved. C) Adult stem cells may become any type of cell, whereas embryonic stem cells may only become adult stem cells first. D) Embryonic stem cells may become any type of
cell, whereas adult stem cells may only become a limited number of cell types. E) Adult stem cells have more restrictions that prevent them from reentering the cell cycle at the G 0 stage.
7) Which of the following reasons explains a possible advantage of using adult stem cells in therapeutic cloning
rather than embryonic stem cells?
A) Adult stem cells have a longer lifespan in culture than embryonic stem cells, and would persist for a longer time in the patient's body. B) Embryonic stem cells can only produce a few cell types while adult stem cells can produce any type of cell. C) Adult stem cells are less likely to be rejected by the patient's body.
D) Unlike adult stem cells, embryonic stem cells may stop dividing within the patient's body. E) The use of adult stem cells is less controversial than the use of embryonic stem cells.
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2
A) only cells of the root contain the plant's genes. B) every cell of the root contains all of the plant's
E) a carrot's roots contain all of the tissues of an adult plant.
genes. C) plants are easier to clone than animals. D) carrots may be used for therapeutic cloning.
9)
Specialized cells differ from one another because they
A) only express certain genes. B) express all genes. C) turn off gene expression once specialized.
D) may re-enter the cell cycle at any time. E) do not express any genes.
10) Which of the following sequences of events in the production of recombinant DNA are in the correct order?
A) cut DNA with restriction enzymes, mix DNA with plasmid DNA, add DNA ligase B) mix DNA with plasmid DNA, cut with restriction enzymes, add DNA ligase C) add DNA ligase, cut DNA with restriction enzymes, mix DNA with plasmid DNA D) mix DNA with plasmid DNA, add DNA ligase,
11)
cut with restriction enzymes E) cut with restriction enzymes, add DNA ligase, mix DNA with plasmid DNA
DNA ligase
A)
produces many copies of an unknown piece of
DNA. B) makes copies of a foreign gene for use in making recombinant DNA. C) is used to produce DNA fingerprints of a crime
Version 1
scene suspect. D) amplifies mitochondrial DNA sequences. E) links two DNA molecules together.
3
12)
The steps involved in a single PCR cycle, in the
A) cool to allow DNA strands to anneal, heat to allow primer to anneal, cool to allow DNA polymerase to copy DNA. B) heat to denature DNA strands, cool to allow primer to anneal, allow DNA polymerase to copy DNA. C) heat to denature DNA strands and for primer to anneal, cool to allow DNA polymerase to copy DNA. D) cool to denature DNA strands, heat to allow
correct order, are primer to anneal, cool to allow DNA polymerase to copy DNA. E) cool to allow primer to anneal, heat to denature DNA strands, cool to allow DNA polymerase to copy DNA.
13) Which of the following describes a way that DNA fingerprinting can be useful?
A) DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify a viral infection. B) DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify a suspected rapist. C) DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify the remains of an unknown person.
D) DNA fingerprinting can be used to identify the parents of a child. E) All of the above describe uses for DNA fingerprinting.
14) is the study of the structure and function of cellular proteins and their interactions; may be employed to use computer algorithms to aid this process.
A) Proteomics; bioinformatics B) Comparative genomics; bioinformatics C) Genomics; proteomics
D) Proteomics; comparative genomics E) Comparative genomics; proteomics
15) Which of the following is used to cleave DNA in order to create recombinant DNA? B) DNA ligase A) Version 1
restriction enzymes 4
C) DNA helicase D) vectors E) plasmids
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5
16) Which of the following is used to insert the foreign gene when creating recombinant DNA?
A) a vector B) restriction enzymes C) DNA ligase
D) embryonic stem cells E) DNA helicase
17) After 12 PCR cycles, how many DNA strands would be available? C) 1,024 D) 512 E) 256
A) 4,096 B) 2,048
18) Which of the following is a possible use for transgenic organisms?
A) bacteria that degrade oil B) corn plants that are resistant to herbicides C) cattle that secrete therapeutic proteins into their milk D)
can be used as vaccines E) All of the above describe possible uses of transgenic organisms.
carrots that produce influenza virus proteins that
19) Bacteria, plants, and animals have all been used to create transgenic forms that are useful in
A) producing high-yield tomato plants. B) creating pest-resistant versions of corn. C) cleaning up oil spills.
D) generating pharmaceuticals. E) producing new types of high-yield beef.
20) Version 1
The study of 6
comparative genomics has given researchers the ability to look at multiple genomes from different species, which has lead to new ideas about the evolutionary history of organisms. The conclusion is that
A) modern vertebrate species have very little similarity between their genomes. B) modern vertebrate species all evolved from the different ancestors. C) the genomes of modern vertebrate species and modern bacterial species are 98% similar.
D) the genomes of all modern verterbrates are very similar. E) the genomes of modern bacteria contain 85% more genes than that of modern vertebrates.
21) Which organisms have been modified to produce insulin, blood clotting factor VIII, and human growth hormone?
A) bacteria B) goats
C) cows D) corn E) soy beans
22) Which gene on chromosome 22 is believed to have made a difference in the evolution of humans compared to that of chimpanzees?
A) The gene for proper speech development. B) The gene for smell. C) The gene for hearing.
23)
D) The gene for blood type. E) The gene for social behaviors.
How genetically similar are humans and mice? D) 45% A) 85% B) 90% C) 98%
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7
E) and mice.
Version 1
There is no genetic similarity between humans
8
24)
What does the field of proteomics study?
A) The structure and function of cellular proteins and how they interact to contribute to traits. B) The structure and function of cellular lipids and how they interact to contribute to traits. C) The structure of carbohydrates and how they are converted into a useable form of energy for the body. D) The structure of prions and how they can lead to
various diseases within the body. E) The interaction between cellular proteins and how they make up the bulk of the cell membrane.
25) Based on genomic studies, when did a change in gene sequences occur that lead to a change in the way that the brain processes speech?
A) between 1 and 6 million years ago B) between 4 and 9 million years ago C) between 10,000 and 100,000 years ago
D) approximately 25,000 years ago E) approximately 12,000 years ago
26) Because of the area of study that it addresses, proteomics will play an important role in which of the following fields?
A) of disease. B) C) D)
27)
The development of new drugs for the treatment The development of new surgical techniques. The development of new transgenic food crops. The development of new transgenic domesticated
animals. E) Genetic alterations to unborn children that will eliminate potential health problems.
There are several methods of gene editing, including , the most widely used method. B) CLUSTER A)
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CRISPR 9
C) Cas9 D) PCR E) sequencing
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10
28) The CRISPR system involves the Cas9 enzyme, which identifies specific nucleotides to be cut using a(n) molecule as a guide to identify the proper DNA sequence to edit.
A) RNA B) DNA
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C) protein D) virus E) helicase
11
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 12 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) E 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) E 12) B 13) E 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) D Version 1
12
20) D 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) A
Version 1
13
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Chorionic villus sampling carries less risk of causing miscarriage than amniocentesis. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) A translocation chromosomal mutation is the exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Testing for a protein may help reveal whether or not an individual has a genetic disorder. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Alleles associated with known genetic disorders can be detected using DNA microarray analysis. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) To perform an in vivo gene therapy treatment, cells are removed from the patient's body, normal genes are added to them, and then the cells are returned to the patient's body. ⊚
true
Version 1
⊚
false
1
6)
An extra three nucleotides inserted into a gene will
⊚
true
Version 1
⊚
cause a frameshift
false
2
7) Mutations within genes always result in nonfunctional proteins. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) Genetic counseling can help determine the risk of inheriting sickle cell disease in a family. ⊚
true
⊚
false
CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9) Which of the following is considered a mutagen? Check all that apply.
A) X-rays B) UV light
C) Transposons D) alleles E) pesticides
10) A chromosome normally has the following sequence of genes: f-g-h-i-j-k-l-m. Upon testing, an individual is found to have the following sequence: f-g-h-i-j-k-k-j-i-l-m. What kind(s) of chromosomal mutation(s) does this chromosome have? Check all that apply.
A) deletion B) duplication
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C) translocation D) inversion E) frameshift
3
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A) banding pattern, size, and shape. B) shape, size, and complexity. C) complexity, radius, and length.
11) A karyotype shows chromosomes arranged by D) length, structure, and color. E) color, width, and length.
12) Chromosomes for karyotyping are often obtained from a blood sample. Red blood cells, however, cannot be used for this purpose because
A) they are too small. B) they lack nuclei. C) white blood cells are much more common.
D) they have abnormal chromosomes. E) they are difficult to isolate.
13) Amniocentesis may be preferred over chorionic villus sampling (CVS) for karyotyping because
A) B) C) than CVS. D)
CVS takes much longer to obtain a karyotype. CVS is a more invasive procedure. amniocentesis has a lower risk of miscarriage
than CVS. E) a larger amount of tissue may be obtained through amniocentesis.
amniocentesis can be performed more quickly
14) Chromosome 7 may lose an end piece resulting in Williams syndrome. This is an example of a chromosomal
A) inversion. B) duplication. C) deletion. Version 1
D) translocation. E) epigenetic inheritance.
4
15) A missing piece of chromosome 5 may result in a child whose glottis and larynx do not develop properly,
A) cri du chat syndrome. B) Huntington syndrome. C) Klinefelter syndrome.
16)
resulting in an abnormal cry. This is called D) inv dup 15 syndrome. E) Down syndrome.
Inversions are chromosomal mutations that
A) always result in a syndrome. B) neither increase nor decrease the amount of genetic material in the cell. C) rarely cause deletions or duplications during gamete formation when crossing-over occurs.
D) result from duplication of a portion of a chromosome. E) never disrupt gene regulation or cause physical abnormalities.
17) A parent carries a deletion on one of the two homologouschromosomes. What is the probability of this
individual's child carrying the same deletion?
A) 0% B) 25%
C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%
18) Which of the following syndromes is caused by a translocation?
A) Alagille syndrome B) inv dup 15 syndrome C) Williams syndrome
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D) cri du chat syndrome E) Turner syndrome
5
19) A child with bluish-purple skin is found to lack the enzyme diaphorase and is subsequently diagnosed with which genetic disorder? D) A) methemoglobinemia B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy C) Marfan syndrome
sickle-cell
disease E) blindness
color
20) A known abnormality in a gene's sequence that can be linked to a genetic disease is called a(n)
A) genetic profile. B) enzyme. C) genetic marker.
21)
D) DNA microarray. E) genomic DNA.
A genetic profile includes
A) the location of all known genes in the human genome. B) the entire base sequence of an individual's genome. C) all of an individual's normal genes.
D) an individual's complete genotype, including mutations. E) all of an individual's genetic markers.
22) What kinds of mutations can be revealed through ultrasound? duplications, inversions, A) Some chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome and Edwards syndrome, and a few other known inherited disorders. B) The genetic profile, including any mutant gene alleles the fetus may have. C) All chromosomal mutations, including deletions, Version 1
6
and translocations. D) Only larger chromosomal mutations, such as the large deletion seen in individuals with cri du chat syndrome. E) Only inherited genetic disorders caused by single gene mutations.
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7
23) An embryo produced by in vitro fertilization (IVF) may be tested for genetic disorders prior to implantation. How is this accomplished?
A) Fetal cells are recovered from the mother's blood, and the DNA is analyzed. B) Amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling is performed, and a karyotype assembled. C) A polar body is isolated and its DNA amplified by PCR for analysis.
24)
D) A single cell is removed from a 6- to 8celled embryo, and its DNA analyzed. E) Blood is drawn from the embryo for genetic marker analysis.
A DNA microarray detects
A) uncommon forms of alleles, or mutants, associated with disease. B) an individual's complete genotype, including all the various mutations. C) chromosomal abnormalities, such as duplications
or deletions. D) fetal cells in the mother's blood. E) viral DNA in an individual's cells.
25) A person with familial hypercholesterolemia is participating in an ex vivo gene therapy trial. The procedure involves
A) infecting a portion of the person's liver with a retrovirus containing a normal gene for a cholesterol receptor. B) spraying the normal gene for the cholesterol receptor into the nose. C) insertion of the cholesterol receptor gene into a virus, then injecting the virus into the person. D) removing a piece of the person's liver, infecting it
Version 1
with a retrovirus containing the normal cholesterol receptor gene, and replacing the liver cells following treatment. E) transplanting a normal liver into the individual.
8
26)
What are the current known methods of delivering
genes to cells for gene
A) viruses, liposomes, and nasal sprays B) viruses, nasal sprays, and gene guns C) liposomes, nasal sprays, and chemical transformation D) nasal sprays, liposomes, and gene guns E) viruses and gene guns
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9
27) Ex vivo gene therapy differs from in vivo gene therapy in that
A) ex vivo gene therapy involves directly introducing the gene into the body. B) in vivo gene therapy involves directly introducing the gene into the body. C) in vivo gene therapy only employs viruses for gene transfer. D) ex vivo gene therapy only employs viruses for
gene transfer. E) ex vivo gene therapy can employ viruses, nasal sprays, or liposomes for gene transfer, but only liposomes may be used for in vivo gene therapy.
28) Gene therapy would not be an effective treatment for Down syndrome because
A) scientists do not know which faulty genes cause the syndrome. B) Down syndrome results from having an extra chromosome with over a thousand genes. C) liposomes and nasal sprays cannot be used due to abnormalities in the respiratory tract of Down syndrome individuals.
D) Down syndrome is not a genetic disorder. E) the gene therapy treatment could not be performed on an adult individual.
29) Which one of the following diseases or disorders has not been treated using gene therapy methods?
A) rheumatoid arthritis B) familial hypercholesterolemia C) cri du chat syndrome
30)
D) cystic fibrosis E) SCID
A transposon may cause a mutation if it
A) Version 1
jumps into an exon of another gene.
B) jumps into an intron of another gene. 10
C) jumps into an intergenic DNA sequence. D) remains trapped within an intergenic DNA sequence.
31)
A silent mutation is more likely to occur as a result of
A) a frameshift mutation. B) a point mutation that does not change the amino acid encoded within the gene. C) the movement of a transposon into an exon. D) a point mutation that alters the amino acid
32)
encoded within the gene. E) a large dose of radiation.
Mutations are relatively uncommon because
A) DNA repair enzymes often fix errors. B) physical mutagens such as X-rays seldom damage DNA. C) DNA is able to repair itself over time. D) frameshift mutations occur very frequently.
33)
E) interacts with a physical mutagen.
E) transposons are constantly moving throughout the genome.
In what way do transposons cause mutations to occur?
A) Transposons move within and between chromosomes, disrupting the genes. B) Transposons cause large sections of the gene to be deleted from the chromosome, making it useless. C) Transposons cause sections of the chromosome to make multiple copies of the same nucleotide. D) Transposons produce proteins that conflict with
the normal functioning proteins of the cell. E) Transposons cause nonfunctional genes to be "woken up" and become functional.
34) Transposons have been discovered in which of the following groups?
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A) bacteria B) plants C) humans
D) fruit flies E) All of the above
35) Which genetic disorder is due to a deletion on chromosome 7?
A) Williams syndrome B) cri du chat syndrome C) Alagille syndrome
36) During DNA replication, the original strand (ATTCGCGATTTA) was replicated as (ATTCGGATTTA).
A) deletion B) duplication C) transposon
D) Down syndrome E) cancer
What type of mutation is present? D) translocation E) None of these mutations have taken place.
37) Which of the following consequences can arise as the result of a chromosomal inversion?
A) The inverted sequence of alleles can lead to altered gene activity, but only if it disrupts the control of gene expression. B) The additional nucleotides added to the allele can cause it to produce an additional protein. C) The nucleotides that have been deleted from the allele will cause the new amino acid chain to be shortened. D) The multiple copies of the adenine nucleotide
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that have been added will increase the number of amino acids added to the chain. E) There are no consequences due to a chromosomal inversion.
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C) transposons D) deletion E) duplication
A) point mutation B) frameshift mutation
39) What structure is often used to deliver copies of genes into cells?
A) viruses B) PCR C) bacteria
D) prions E) hypodermic needles
40) Which structure is used in the new treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) adenovirus B) SCID C) bacteriophage D) hypodermic needles
E) None of these structures are used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.
41) Which type of chromosomal mutation will lead to Alagille syndrome?
A) translocation B) duplication
C) inversion D) frameshift E) point mutation
42) Which human disorder is being treated with gene therapy?
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A) severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) B) familial hypercholesterolemia C) cancer
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D) cystic fibrosis E) All of these are being treated with gene therapy.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 13 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) [A, B, E] 10) [B, D, E] 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) A Version 1
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20) C 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) E 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A Version 1
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41) A 42) E
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Prior to Darwin, people considered variation among individuals as "imperfections" that served no particular purpose. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Analogous structures are evidence of common ancestry. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) The similarity of thefossil glyptodont to the living, modern armadillo is an example of comparative anatomy. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) The artificial selection of different breeds of dogs is an example of speciation. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Environmental catastrophes are a requirement of natural selection. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) Given the comparative study of Version 1
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embryology, it is concluded that genes controlling embryonic development are essentially the same. ⊚
true
⊚
false
7) The theory of evolution is supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different people, and ⊚
true
⊚
by a variety of fields of study.
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8) Bacteria that cause ear infections have increased their resistance to antibiotics over time. Which of the following is the selective agent?
A) bacteria B) increased resistance C) antibiotics
D) the human ear E) the ear infection
9) Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?
A) different breeds of dogs: poodle, basset hound, Chihuahua, Great Dane, etc. B) different varieties of roses: yellow, pink, red, thornless, climbing, etc. C) different types of tomatoes: roma, beefsteak, grape, cherry, etc.
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D) different breeds of cats: Siamese, Persian, Himalayan, American shorthair, etc. E) All of the above are examples of artificial selection.
2
A) develop the theory of evolution. B) observe natural selection in action. C) gather data on geologic processes from around the world. D) make contact with as many indigenous populations as possible.
E) to act as the ship's naturalist and expand the Navy's knowledge of natural resources around the world.
11) Which of the following concepts would have been supported by Charles Lyell?
A)
that the Earth was only a few thousand years old
B) that the Earth and its organisms were divinely created C) that the Earth and its organisms slowly changed
through time D) local catastrophes caused the extinction of many species E) that species were "fixed"
12) Although Lamarck hypothesized that adaptations to the environment did occur, he also believed that
A) mass extinctions did not occur. B) offspring inherited characteristics that were acquired by their parents during their lifetime. C) similar organisms do not share common ancestors.
D) humans descended from apes. E) natural selection was the source of all diversity.
13) Following Lamarck's ideas, if a person were to lose his arm in an accident, then that person's children would
C) inherit three A) inherit one arm. B) inherit two arms.
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arms. D)
inherit one
3
arm that is larger and stronger than the parent's arm. E) inherit two arms, each slightly smaller than the
parent's single arm.
14) Lyell's Principles of Geology was the first text to give evidence that the Earth
A) was created a few thousand years ago. B) did not change over time. C) was actually much younger than previously believed. D) was undergoing slow and continuous cycles of
15)
erosion and uplift. E) was undergoing a different process compared to what occurred in the past.
Lyell's theory of uniformitarianism stated that
A) new and different processes are continually shaping the Earth in new and different ways. B) the processes that shape the Earth today are the same process that have always shaped the Earth. C) the processes that shape the Earth occur at a constant rate.
D) the processes that shape the Earth slow down over time. E) the processes that shape the Earth occur uniformly around the globe.
16) Critical to the theory of evolution, Darwin needed to include an idea that was not generally accepted by scientists
or society at that time. That idea was that
A) catastrophism occurred at a uniform rate. B) the inheritance of acquired characteristics was
E) diversity of life was constant through time.
true. C) the Earth must be very old. D) uniformitarianism was false.
17) The sugar glider in Australia and the flying squirrel in North America Version 1
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are both small mammals with large expanses of loose skin between their forelimbs and hindlimbs, allowing them to glide from tree to tree within their respective forest habitats. These two species are not evolutionarily related but are very similar
A) both are descendants from a recent common ancestor. B) each have adapted in very similar ways to similar habitats. C) the similarity of the two unrelated species is simply coincidence.
in their overall appearance. Darwin's explanation for their similarity is that
D) the two species were created to have similarities. E) the two species must be related to possess such like qualities.
18) Wings of insects and birds are results of convergent evolution. This means that
A) insects must have evolved from birds. B) these organisms share a recent common ancestor and so have similar adaptations. C) these organisms have different adaptations to different environments. D) insects and birds have each independently evolved structures that serve the same function (flight) but
have done so in very different ways. E) the insects and birds must be related to possess such similar qualities.
19) Which of the following is an important characteristic of the Galápagos Islands in the context of Darwin's theory of evolution?
A) The islands were too far from mainland South America for most terrestrial plants and animals to colonize. B) The organisms on the islands were different from those observed in South America. C) The organisms on the islands were similar to those observed in South America.
D) The organisms on the islands varied from island to island. E) All of the above answers are important characteristics.
20) Version 1
Tortoises in the 5
Galápagos possessed neck lengths unique to each island. Neck lengths appear to be an adaptation to which selective agent?
A) ease in finding pools of drinking water B) type of vegetation available to eat C) reproductive barriers used to produce offspring
D) defense against predators E) male competition for females
21) Which of the following is a step specific to the process of artificial selection?
A) Members of a population possess heritable variations. B) The population produces more offspring than the environment can support. C) Individuals who have favorable traits survive and reproduce more than those individuals lacking such traits. D) People select which individuals breed and which
ones do not. E) Over multiple generations of reproducing, a larger proportion of the population will have those favorable traits and thus adaptation has occurred.
22) What influence did the writings of Thomas Malthus have on Darwin's ideas of natural selection?
A)
Malthus described the reproduction of elephants.
B) Malthus explained how variation was maintained within populations. C) Malthus illustrated that some individuals possessed favorable traits while others did not. D) Malthus wrote a detailed history of artificial
23)
selection examples. E) Malthus proposedthat the human population grows faster than the food supply, meaning that death and famine are inevitable.
In the context of natural selection, fitness refers to
A) Version 1
the variation in traits within the population.
B) reproductive success. 6
C) mutations that benefit an organism's survival. D) the physical health of an individual.
E) the physical health of a population.
24) Broccoli, kohlrabi, Brussels sprouts, Chinese cabbage, and cauliflower were all derived from the single wild species. This diversity is a result of
A) adaptation. B) natural selection. C) biogeography.
D) artificial selection. E) speciation.
25) The presence of vestigial organs supports evidence of evolution because
A) the vestigial organ is unique to one species. B) the vestigial organ is similar to a functional organ in a related species, having been passed down from a common ancestor. C) both the vestigial organ and the functional organ perform the same function.
26)
D) the vestigial organ could not have been passed down from an ancestor. E) the vestigial organs represent variation in a species.
The wing of a penguin and the wing of an eagle are
A) homologous structures. B) analogous structures. C) identical structures.
D) vestigial structures. E) not comparable in any way.
27) A finch population with heritable variation in beak size arrives on an island where only large seeds are available as a food source. Describe the process of natural selection that would follow.
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A) Finches with smaller beaks would grow larger beaks so that they could eat the large seeds. All birds will reproduce and the frequency of large beaks within the population will increase. B) Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and are thus more likely to survive and produce offspring with similarly large beaks. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase. C) All of the finches with small and medium beaks will soon die; all of the finches with large beaks will survive. The frequency of large beaks within the population will increase.
D) Finches with smaller beaks would grow larger beaks so that they could eat the large seeds. Only these birds that grew larger beaks will reproduce and the frequency of large beaks within the population will increase. E) Finches with larger beaks will more easily eat the large seeds and not need to reproduce.
28) Which type of snail would be best suited to hide from predators if this population existed in a variable (mixed
patches of light and dark areas) environment?
A) The dark-colored snails would most easily hide from predators. B) The light-colored snails would most easily hide from predators. C) The multicolored (variable) snails would most easily hide from predators. D) All snails would equally hide well from predators
anywhere in the environment. E) All snails would equally be obvious to predators anywhere in the environment.
29) When comparing chick and pig embryos, the similar eyes, pharyngeal pouches, and postanal tails are evidence of
A) analogy. B) convergent evolution. C) common ancestry.
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D) biogeography. E) artificial selection.
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A) natural selection. B) biogeography. C) comparative anatomy.
31) Monkeys in the New World (the Americas) have prehensile tails, strong flexible tails that grip branches and operate much like another hand. Old World (Africa and Asia)
A) monkeys in the Old World did not need a prehensile tail and therefore did not evolve one. B) monkeys in the New World needed a prehensile tail and therefore evolved one. C) the prehensile tail evolved in New World monkeys after the Americas separated from Africa and Asia. D) the Americas are much older than Africa and Asia. There has not been enough time to evolve a prehensile
D) geology. E) paleontology.
monkeys do not have such a tail. The explanation for this is tail in Africa and Asia. E) a catastrophe occurred in the Old World that killed all prehensile tail monkeys leaving only non-prehensile tailed monkeys to survive.
32) When hiking high in the mountains, you find fossil marine shells lying about. This provides evidence that
A) someone brought the shells to the top of the mountain. B) shelled marine animals live on the top of mountains. C) very high ocean waves brought the shells to the top of the mountain.
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D) the mountain top was once under the ocean and has been uplifted. E) marine animals are not restricted to living in the ocean.
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33) Interpreting this figure, which of the following is a similarity between Lamarck's proposal for evolution and
Darwin's proposal?
population. A) Both scenarios begin with a population of giraffes that contains variation. B) Both scenarios expose the giraffes to an environmental pressure (or challenge). C) Both scenarios involve only an individual, not a Version 1
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D) Both scenarios involve differential reproductive success. E) Both scenarios involve giraffes of equal fitness.
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34) Many species of finches, tortoises, cacti, and iguanas are found on the Galápagos Islands and nowhere else in the world. Which physical attribute of these islands has played a
A) There is geographic isolation from mainland species. B) Multiple islands exist. C) The islands are small compared to the South American mainland. D) Each island has its own unique environment.
35)
role in permitting such unique life forms to evolve? E) All of the above answers describe physical attributes of the islands important in the evolution of unique life forms.
What do transitional fossils illustrate?
past.
D) Natural selection happened long ago just as it does today. E) All transitional links are now extinct.
36) Many people refer to Alfred Russel Wallace as the "father of biogeography." Which of the following
contributions led Wallace to achieve this title?
A) All life is related. B) Shared ancestral traits. C) Convergent evolution occurred in the ancient
A) Wallace described the idea of evolution at the same time as Darwin. B) Wallace had traveled around the world and collected specimens. C) Wallace coined the term "survival of the fittest." D) Wallace described a sharp line dividing
Australian species from Asian species. E) Wallace prompted Darwin to publish the book On the Origin of Species.
37) Why are Australian mammals all marsupial while mammals on other continents are mostly placental?
A) Version 1
The marsupial anatomy is better adapted to the
environments of Australia than is the anatomy of 12
placental mammals. B) The placental anatomy is better adapted to the environments of North and South America than is the anatomy of marsupial mammals. C) When the continents separated from one another, marsupials in Australia did not have the placental competitors that were present in the Americas. D) Marsupials outcompeted the placental mammals
38)
Natural selection results in
A) increased genetic variation. B) a decreased population size. C) an increase in population size. D) offspring that are better adapted to their current
39)
in Australia. E) Australian mammals have a different common ancestor than mammals elsewhere in the world.
environment. E) offspring that are better adapted to a future environment.
Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Organisms always evolve the characteristics they need to survive. B) Some individuals within the population must die for natural selection to occur. C) Darwin used molecular biology as evidence of evolution.
D) Natural selection can only work on variation that already exists. E) Convergent evolution produces homologous structures.
40) The molecule cytochrome c supports the theory of evolution as biochemical evidence. Which of the following is part of that evidence?
A) Cytochrome c has the same function in all organisms. B) The genetic code for cytochrome c differs Version 1
among species. C) Cytochrome c is found in a variety of organisms from yeast to 13
humans. D) Cytochrome c plays a role critical to survival. E) All of the above answers describe reasons why
cytochrome c supports the theory of evolution.
41) The fact that DNA is the molecule containing the genetic code for all life on Earth is a part of
A) comparative anatomical evidence. B) comparative embryological evidence. C) biochemical evidence.
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D) biogeographical evidence. E) evidence of artificial selection.
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42) Refer to the figure shown here. Which of the following would have been a selective agent or pressure that
could lead to the reduction in hindlimbs through time?
A) The animal's body size was too heavy to support the weight on land and hindlimbs were no longer useful. B) More emphasis was placed on flexing the backbone than on paddling with hindlimbs for swimming. C) Appendages cause resistance, or drag, when
moving through water. D) With the increased size of the tail and its use in swimming, the hindlimbs were not as necessary.
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E) All of the above answers describe selective agents or pressures that could have led to the reduction in
hind limbs over time.
43) What characteristics of Archaeopteryx tell us that it is a link to reptiles and birds?
A) feathers B) tail with vertebrae C) teeth
D) teeth and a tail with vertebrae E) feathers and teeth
44) Darwin and Wallace both concluded that species evolve through the process of natural selection. What similarexperiences and information helped them bothreach the same conclusion?
A) Both supported the ideas of Cuvier. B) Both were familiar with the writings of Lyell. C) Both traveled the world and collected specimens for museums in England.
D) Both were naturalists. E) Both collected specimens from islands in the Malayan Archipelago.
45) Which of the following information cannot be determined from the fossil record? exist. A) Geologic uplift has occurred. B) Transitional fossils exist. C) Diversity has changed through time. D) Evidence of prior natural disasters/catastrophes
E) Evidence of every species that ever existed.
Answer Key Test name: Chapter Version 1
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14 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) C 9) E 10) E 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) E
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20) B 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) E 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) D 39) D 40) E Version 1
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41) C 42) E 43) E 44) D 45) E
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Dominat alleles are always the most common. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) The conditions required by the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are commonly found in nature. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Natural selection can favor directional, stabilizing, and disruptive selection in the same population simultaneously. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Polydactylism (possessing more than five fingers per hand) within the Amish population in Pennsylvania isconsidered an example of the founder effect. This is because the frequency of polydactylism among the Amish in ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 5) In regards to natural selection, which of the following
A) the individual that has the longest canine teeth B) the individual that has the greatest number of breeding opportunities C) the individual that has the best camouflage to Version 1
Pennsylvania is identical to its frequency among the Amish population in Germany.
individuals would be considered the most fit?
avoid predators D) the individual that controls the largest territory E) the individual 1
that has the greatest number of offspring
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2
6) Which of the following generates genetic variation within a population?
A) genetic recombination B) independent assortment of alleles C) sexual reproduction D) mutation
7)
E) All of the above answers describe ways that genetic variation is generated in a population.
If p = 0.6, what is q?
A) 0.6 B) 0.4
C) 0.36 D) 0.15 E) 0
8) If half of a population is homozygous recessive, what is p?
A) 0.5 B) 0.707
C) 0.25 D) 0.293 E) 0.1
9) Which of the following is a condition required for a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) Mutations must not occur. B) Natural selection must not occur. C) Random mating must occur. D) Genetic drift must not occur.
E) All of the above are conditions required for HardyWeinberg Equilibrium.
10) What might occur in moth populations if Version 1
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pollution from industry was cleaned up and the color of tree bark returned to its natural color?
A) Dark-colored moths would continue to be the predominant phenotype. B) Birds would see dark-colored moths more easily than light-colored moths and prey on dark-colored moths more frequently. C) Dark- and light-colored moths would survive in equal numbers.
D) Birds would prey upon dark- and lightcolored moths equally. E) Selection would favor the hybrid offspring of dark and light moths.
11) Which Hardy-Weinberg condition is violated by sexual selection? D) no genetic A) no mutations B) no natural selection C) random mating
drift E) no gene flow
12) Which of the following examples describes genetic drift?
A) A forest fire kills all plant life south of a highway. B) Rabbits with longer fur survive the winter. C) Insects resistant to insecticide survive crop dusting. D) Colorful lizards living on brown leaves are most
often eaten by predators. E) Plants with larger flowers attract more butterflies than plants with smaller flowers.
13) Which of the following could increase genetic variation?
A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) bottleneck effect
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D) founder effect E) mutation
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14) If the average tail size of a reptile continually got smaller through generations, this would be an example of
A) disruptive selection. B) stabilizing selection. C) directional selection.
D) genetic drift. E) bottleneck effect.
15) If people with freckles preferentially mated with other people with freckles, this would be an example of
A) microevolution. B) natural selection. C) genetic drift.
D) nonrandom mating. E) gene flow.
16) All of the genes and all of their associated alleleswithin a population represent the population's
A) genotype. B) gene flow. C) gene pool.
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D) genome. E) HardyWeinberg equilibrium.
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17) The figure shown here represents stabilizing selection. What happens when an individual is produced that possesses
a trait far away from the mean value?
A) That extreme individual likely will not survive and reproduce. B) That extreme individual will be more likely to survive and reproduce. C) That extreme individual will have neither an advantage nor a disadvantage over other individuals.
D) All phenotypes have equal likelihood of surviving and reproducing. E) The average phenotype is less likely to survive and reproduce.
18) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does q 2 represent?
A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of the recessive allele C) frequency of the heterozygotes
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D) frequency of the homozygous dominants E) frequency of the homozygous recessives
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19) If a population recovers to its original population size after experiencing a bottleneck, which statement is correct regarding this population?
A) The recovered population is as likely to go extinct as is the population prior to the bottleneck. B) The bottleneck subjected the population to directional selection. C) The recovered population shows less genetic diversity than the population prior to the bottleneck. D) The recovered population shows more genetic
diversity than the population prior to the bottleneck. E) The recovered population is more likely to go extinct as is the population prior to the bottleneck.
20) What characteristic is common of both a genetic bottleneck and a founder effect?
A) Both encounter a population crash. B) Both involve a portion of a population becoming isolated. C) Both involve a decrease in a population's genetic
21)
diversity. D) Both affect the entire population. E) Both are a type of natural selection.
Why does malaria persist in the human population?
A) Too few humans have died of malaria to end the disease. B) Heterozygote advantage maintains both the normal allele and the sickle cell allele in the population. C) Malaria is a recessive disease and few humans
contract it. D) Humans are protected from the malaria parasite. E) Malaria is under stabilizing selection.
22) Which of the following is most likely to result in the formation of two distinct species?
A) Version 1
directional selection
B) stabilizing selection 7
C) disruptive selection D) genetic drift
E) bottleneck effect
23) The increase in frequency of dark phenotypes in response to increased pollution is called
A) genetic drift. B) founder effect. C) industrial melanism.
D) assortative mating. E) stabilizing selection.
24) Microevolution is influenced by which of the following?
A) mutation B) gene flow C) natural selection D) genetic drift
E) All of the above answers describe factors that influence microevolution.
25) A female peacock chooses a mate based on his showy plumage and courtship dance. This is an example of
A) random mating. B) assortative mating. C) sexual selection.
26)
D) gene flow. E) natural selection.
In random mating
A) individuals choose the most attractive mate. B) there is no factor influencing mate choice. C) breeding occurs between two different species. D) breeding occurs between two different
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subspecies. E) fertile offspring are not produced.
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27) If p 2 = 0.04, what is the frequency of homozygous recessives in the population?
A) 0.04 B) 0.2
C) 0.32 D) 0.64 E) 0.8
28) A group of field mice crosses a highway and joins a new population of field mice on the other side, producing offspring with this population. This is an example of
A) gene flow. B) genetic drift. C) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
D) assortative mating. E) hybridization.
29) Today, cheetahs show extreme genetic similarity. This is evidence of
A) past gene flow. B) a past bottleneck event. C) a history of directional selection.
D) a history of few genetic mutations. E) assortative mating.
30) Biotic environments that influence natural selection include all but which of the following?
A) competition B) predation
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C) parasitism D) weather E) disease
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A) survive the longest. B) reproduce the most. C) migrate every year.
D) have the most genetic mutations. E) are the most physically fit.
32) The usage of the insecticide DDT to control mosquitoes resulted in
A) directional selection to insecticide resistance in the insects. B) stabilizing selection to insecticide resistance in the insects. C) disruptive selection to insecticide resistance in
the insects. D) genetic drift to insecticide resistance in the insects. E) no change in the insect population.
33) Directional selection in the modern horse is demonstrated by
A) populations consisting of only very dark and very light colored horses. B) the rapid decrease in size over the last 200 years. C) the gradual increase in size over millions of years.
D) fossils which show the horse has not changed in millions of years. E) the extinction of other horse species.
34) British land snails primarily occur in two extreme phenotypes. This is an example of
A) directional selection. B) stabilizing selection. C) disruptive selection.
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D) genetic drift. E) mutation.
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35)
In what type of environment is being heterozygous in
regards to the sickle-cell
A) an environment that has malaria B) an environment that is malaria-free C) an environment that is exposed to a large amount of sunlight year-round D) a polluted environment E) an environment that is cold and rainy
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36) A fraction of a green frog population survives a hurricane to reproduce and generate a new population. This event is an example of
A) natural selection. B) genetic drift. C) founder effect.
D) industrial melanism. E) gene flow.
37) The members of a population survive and successfully reproduce due to the specific phenotypes they posses. This is an example of
A) natural selection. B) genetic drift. C) founder effect.
D) industrial melanism. E) gene flow.
38) What is the genotype of an individual that has protection from both sickle-cell disease and malaria? A) Hb AHb A B) Hb AHb S
39) A population of bacteria is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Through repeated exposure to an antibiotic, the frequency of a recessive allele is rapidly increasing. What is
A) The recessive allele is responsible for susceptibility of the bacteria to the antibiotic. B) The dominant allele is responsible for susceptibility of the bacteria to the antibiotic. C) The recessive allele is responsible for resistance of the bacteria to the antibiotic. Version 1
C) Hb SHb S D) Hb S Hb s E) Hb A Hb a
the most likely explanation for this response?
D) The population is experiencing gene flow. E) The population is experiencing disruptive selection.
12
40) Microevolution is the term that applies to which of the following?
A) any evolution at any scale B) large-scale changes over a long period of time C) small-scale changes over a long period of time D) small-scale changes over a short period of time
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
41.1) In the figure shown here, petal color of a flower population is distributed in a bell-shaped normal curve. If the pink petal color increases in frequency in
A) stabilizing selection. B) disruptive selection.
E) changes of any scale within microorganisms
41)
the population, this would illustrate
C) directional selection. D) genetic drift.
41.2) In the figure shown here, petal color of a flower Version 1
13
population is distributed in a bell-shaped normal curve. If the white petal color increases in frequency in the
population, this would illustrate
A) stabilizing selection. B) disruptive selection.
C) directional selection. D) genetic drift.
41.3) In the figure shown here, petal color of a flower population is distributed in a bell-shaped normal curve. If the white and yellow petal colors increase in frequency in the population while the pink petal color
A) stabilizing selection. B) disruptive selection.
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decreases, this would illustrate
C) directional selection. D) genetic drift.
14
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 15 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) E 6) E 7) B 8) D 9) E 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) E 19) C Version 1
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20) C 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) E 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) D Version 1
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41) Section Break 41.1) A 41.2) C 41.3) B
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Members of two different species are never capable of mating. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Use of chemical signals in mate recognition is a type of postzygotic isolating mechanism. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Allopatric speciation is compatible with both the gradualistic and punctuated equilibrium models of evolution. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Geographic isolation is not a factor in sympatric speciation. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Convergent evolution gives rise to analogous structures in unrelated taxa. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) Cladograms show the sequence of evolution of the characters in a clade.
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⊚
true
⊚
false
7) Two organisms present in the same genus are usually more closely related to each other than to organisms in other genera. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) The ribosomal RNA (rRNA) genes of different organisms are often compared as a means to classify them because rRNA genes evolve much more slowly than other genes. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Shared derived traits are found in all members of the ingroup of a clade. ⊚
true
⊚
false
10) The gradualistic model of speciation is supported by many transitional forms. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) Which of the three domains contain(s) prokaryotic organisms? A)
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Bacteria
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B) Archaea C) Eukarya D) Bacteria and Archaea
12)
E) Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
In the three-domain system of classification
A) eukaryotes are more similar to the prokaryotes now classified in domain Bacteria than to those now classified in domain Archaea. B) animals and plants are less similar to each other than to the prokaryotes now classified in domain Archaea. C) prokaryotes are classified into two domains, with the organisms in domain Archaea more similar to eukaryotes than to the prokaryotes in domain Bacteria. D) cladistics alone are used to formulate the new
phylogenetic tree of life. E) by the principle of parsimony, it requires fewer assumptions to divide the prokaryotes into two domains than it does to put them in a single domain.
13) Which of the following correctly reflects the division of the history of life on Earth, from most inclusive to least inclusive?
A) era - period - epoch B) epoch - period - era C) era - epoch - period
D)
epoch - era -
E)
period - epoch
period - era
14) Most dinosaurs became extinct at the end of which of the following periods of the Mesozoic?
A) Jurassic B) Cretaceous
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C) Devonian D) Triassic E) Permian
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A) possess a common ancestor. B) can interbreed but not produce fertile offspring. C) are reproductively isolated from each other. D) have a shared gene pool.
E) can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
16) Which of the following is a postzygotic isolating mechanism for two species found in the same geographical location?
A) The two species occupy different habitats. B) The two species are active during different parts of the day. C) The two species mate during different times of the year.
D) The two species have incompatible genitalia. E) The two species can mate, but the offspring are sterile.
17) The pollen, or sperm, from a red maple tree is unable to fertilize the eggs from a sugar maple tree. This is an
example of what type of isolating mechanism?
A) mechanical isolation B) habitat isolation C) temporal isolation
D) hybrid sterility E) gamete isolation
18) A reproductive barrier that prevents interbreeding because the two species mate during different times of the year is called
A) hybrid sterility isolation. B) gamete isolation. C) F 2 fitness isolation.
D) temporal isolation. E) behavioral isolation.
19) Version 1
Elaborate courtship
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behavior in animals, such as with the blue-footed boobies of the Galápagos Islands, is an example of which of the
A) behavioral isolation B) mechanical isolation C) temporal isolation
following reproductive barriers? D) postzygotic isolation E) hybrid sterility
20) A zygote fails to undergo mitosis because of a mismatch in the number of chromosomes. This is an example of
A) hybrid sterility. B) zygote mortality. C) prezygotic isolation.
D) temporal isolation. E) allopatric speciation.
21) Which of the following is an example of sympatric speciation?
A) two populations of salamanders that live on isolated islands and eventually become separate species, unable to interbreed B) different breeds of dogs that live in different areas of the world but are able to produce fertile offspring C) a horse and a donkey that may interbreed to produce a mule that is sterile and unable to reproduce D) two related plant species living in the same area that hybridize, then undergo chromosome doubling, which results in the creation of a third species of plant that is unable
to reproduce with either of the two original species E) three species that evolve from a common ancestral species due to reproductive isolation and adaptation to different habitats
22) Which of the following correctly shows a possible order of events resulting in allopatric speciation? isolation - natural selection A)
postzygotic reproductive isolation - geographic B) geographic
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isolation - prezygotic reproductive isolation - genetic drift C) geographic isolation - natural selection prezygotic reproductive isolation D) natural selection - postzygotic reproductive isolation - geographic isolation
E) natural selection - prezygotic reproductive isolation postzygotic reproductive isolation
23) Sympatric speciation occurs more commonly in which types of organisms?
A) plants B) humans
C) birds D) fish E) insects
24) A major difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation is whether
A)
the resulting species are reproductively isolated
or not. B) gene flow continues to occur or not. C) two or three species result. D) geographic isolation is required or not.
E) the new species are separated by a prezygotic or postzygotic isolating mechanism.
25) The finches of the Galápagos islands evolved as a result of what type(s) of speciation?
A) allopatric speciation B) adaptive radiation C) sympatric speciation D) both allopatric speciation and adaptive radiation
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E) both sympatric speciation and adaptive radiation
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A) Pleistocene, Ordovician, and Triassic B) Ordovician, Triassic, and Jurassic C) Triassic, Permian, and Cretaceous D) Triassic, Permian, Cretaceous, Pleistocene,
Ordovician, and Devonian E) Ordovician, Triassic, Jurassic, Silurian, Eocene, and Oligocene
27) Which of the following is inconsistent with the punctuated equilibrium model?
A) There is a period of no change interrupted by speciation. B) Transitional fossils are less likely to be found. C) It is difficult to determine when speciation occurred.
D) It often involves an isolated subpopulation. E) Speciation often occurs rapidly.
28) Which of the following is thought to have contributed to the many mass extinction events that have occurred throughout Earth's history?
A) plate tectonics B) habitat loss C) meteorite impacts D) continental drift
E) All of the above describe factors that have contributed to mass extinctions events.
29) The punctuated equilibrium model of evolution suggests that new species appear
A) gradually; as groups become isolated, they slowly evolve through their own individual pathways. B) only after older species disappear from the fossil record. C) suddenly after long periods of time with little to no change. D) gradually after long periods of time with little to no change; as groups become isolated, they slowly evolve Version 1
through their own individual pathways. E) gradually over very short periods of time so that intermediate species are often observed in the fossil record.
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30) The fossils of a new species of reptile are found in deposits dating to the Permian period. Later, scientists discover that fossils of the reptile species changed somewhat over time and can be found in deposits dating from the Permian period all the way up to the Cretaceous period. The
A) allopatric speciation B) punctuated evolution C) adaptive radiation D) both allopatric speciation and adaptive radiation
scientists' observations most strongly support which evolutionary model(s)?
E) gradualistic evolution
31) Pinus strobus is the scientific name for the white pine. Pinus is the
A) specific epithet. B) genus. C) binomial name.
D) family name. E) order name.
32) Which of the following lists the levels of taxonomic classification in order from the most inclusive to the least inclusive?
A) genus - family - order - class - phylum B) phylum - order - class - family - species C) genus - order - family - class - phylum D) family - order - class - phylum - kingdom
33)
E) domain kingdom - phylum - class order
A phylogenetic tree D) indicates the
A) indicates common ancestors. B) is based entirely on DNA evidence. C) uses analagous characteristics to determine relationships. Version 1
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geologic time scale for the evolution of a particular species. E) are no longer used in science.
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34)
Similarity due to convergent evolution is called
A) analogy. B) homology.
35)
C) taxonomy. D) phylogeny. E) cladistics.
Homologous structures
A) have identical functions. B) have fully divergent functions. C) are also called analogous structures. D) are only shared by organisms of the same genus.
E) are often shared by organisms in the same line of descent.
36) Which of the following would be considered analogous structures?
A)
the forelimb of a bat and the forelimb of a horse
E) the wings of a bird and the forelimbs of a reptile
B) the wings of a fly and the wings of a sparrow C) the pelvis of a human and the pelvis of a whale D) the flipper of a dolphin and the arm of a human
37) A shared ancestral characteristic used in cladistics is found
A) only in the two most recent ancestors. B) only among the members of the ingroup. C) in both the outgroup and the ingroup.
D) in two of the outgroups. E) only in the most distant ancestor.
38) A clade includes which of the following? Version 1
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A) an outgroup and an ingroup B) a common ancestor and all its descendant species C) one taxon with shared derived characters D) an ancestor and all its descendant species, and
39)
taxa with shared derived characters E) an ingroup only
Shared derived traits
A) are shared only by common ancestors. B) are shared by all organisms on the cladogram. C) are found within members of the outgroup. D) are homologies found only in certain members of
the ingroup. E) are homologies found between the ingroup and the outgroup.
40) Evolutionary relationships between organisms are determined by
A)
molecular evidence and anatomical homologies.
B) molecular evidence, anatomical homologies, and fossil records. C) molecular evidence, anatomical analogies, and fossil records. D) molecular evidence and fossil records.
41)
E) molecular evidence, anatomical homologies, anatomical analogies, and fossil records.
The term parsimony implies that clades.
A) the three-domain system is superior to the fivekingdom system of classification. B) molecular data are more accurate in implying evolutionary relationships than homology. C) the fewer assumptions that are made, the more probable the conclusion. D) smaller clades are more accurate than larger
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E) shared derived traits shared by fewer organisms are more correct than those shared by more organisms.
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42) Which of the following statements is true about the shown cladogram and the characters used to derive it?
A) Three-chambered heart is the most inclusive character on the cladogram. B) The snake and lizard share a common ancestor that does not have the characters internal fertilization or amniotic membrane in egg. C) The character notochord in embryo is not shared by the common ancestor to all of the organisms on the cladogram.
D) The two organisms furthest from each other on the cladogram share only two common characters. E) The character long cylindrical body is useful in placing the snake and eel into the cladogram.
43) Which geological timescale contains the greatest number of years?
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C) epochs D) centuries E) decades
A) eras B) periods
44) Which event is specific to the Cretaceous mass extinction? habitat A) dramatic environmental change B) shifting wind patterns C) shifting ocean currents D) a decrease in the amount of shallow marine
E)
a large meteor
impact
45) The presence of which feature is the first step to being classified in domain Eukarya?
A) membrane-bound nucleus B) ribosomes
C) cell wall D) chloroplast E) mitochondria
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
46)
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46.1) In the figure shown here,which organisms have vertebrae?
A) lancelets and eels only B) lancelets only C) eels and newts only
D) newts and snakes only E) eels, newts, snakes and lizards
46.2) In the cladogram shown here, which of the following organisms have an amniotic egg and internal fertilzation?
A) snakes and lizards B) newts and eels C) lancelets only D) eels, newts, snakes and lizards
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E) lancelets, eels, newts, snakes and lizards
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47.1) Which of the following statements is true about the phylogenetic tree shown here?
A) The gibbon is more closely related to the rhesus monkey than to the chimpanzee. B) The galago is more closely related to the green monkey than to the capuchin. C) The green monkey and rhesus monkey share a common ancestor with the gibbon and chimpanzee. D) The gibbon does not share a common ancestor with the chimpanzee or human.
E) The green monkey and rhesus monkey share a more recent common ancestor than do the chimpanzee and human.
47.2) Which of the following statements is true about the phylogenetic tree shown here?
A) A combination of molecular data, fossil records, and anatomical homologies shows the human is more closely related to the chimpanzee than to the green monkey. B) The green monkey and rhesus monkey cannot reproduce with each other because of a postzygotic isolating mechanism. C) The chimpanzee and human must have evolved as a result of allopatric speciation. D) There is no single common ancestor to all of the
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organisms displayed on this phylogenetic tree. E) The gibbon and human are no more closely related than the green monkey and human are.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 16 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) E 17) E 18) D 19) A Version 1
16
20) B 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) D 27) C 28) E 29) C 30) E 31) B 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) E 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) B Version 1
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41) C 42) B 43) A 44) E 45) A 46) Section Break 46.1) E 46.2) A 47) Section Break 47.1) C 47.2) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) How are the algae traditionally categorized?
A) by the mode of motility B) by their method of sexual reproduction C) by the the color of their pigment D) by the type of habitat in which they are found
2)
E) by their mode of feeding
Which species are representatives of the green algae?
A) diatoms, Volvox, and Spirogyra B) coralline algae, Volvox, and Spirogyra C) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, and Spirogyra D) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, and coralline
E) diatoms, Chlamydomonas, and Volvox
3) Which of the following provides support for the endosymbiotic hypothesis?
A) Double membranes are around mitochondria and chloroplasts. B) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own genomes. C) Mitochondria and chloroplasts can synthesize proteins. D) Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain genes that
are strikingly similar to bacterial genes. E) All of the above statements provide support for the endosymbiotic hypothesis.
4) Which of the following is a characteristic only found in some viruses?
B) a protein A) Version 1
an inner core of nucleic acid
capsid
1
C) is an obligate intracellular parasite D) an envelope E) genomes consisting of either DNA or RNA
5) A virus is specific to a particular type of host cell because
A) only certain hosts enter the environment inhabited by the virus. B) not every virus contains metabolic machinery which can replace that of the host cell. C) a glycoprotein onthe viralcapsidis a specific match to a receptor on the surface of a compatible host cell.
D) a host cell must be malfunctioning, or a virus cannot infect it. E) the genome of the virus must be similar to that of its potential host.
6) Which is the correct order of events in the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage?
A) attachment - penetration - biosynthesis maturation - release B) integration - penetration - biosynthesis maturation - release C) attachment - integration - biosynthesis maturation - release
D) attachment biosynthesis - maturation release E) penetration attachment - biosynthesis release - maturation
7) A researcher infects a bacterium with a bacteriophage and notices that the infection does not immediately bring about the destruction of the host cell. Instead, the phage's genetic material is copied whenever the host reproduces. Which viral replication cycle is described here?
A) integration cycle B) lysogenic cycle C) biosynthetic cycle
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D) lytic cycle E) emergence cycle
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8) Citrus tristeza virus (CTV) damages and kills susceptible citrus trees around the world. It can be spread by grafting of infected plants, and by aphids, insects with piercing mouthparts that they use to suck fluid from plants. Which of the following would be ineffective in controlling the spread of CTV?
A) use of insecticides to control the aphids B) destruction of infected plants C) production of transgenic citrus lines using genes from resistant plants
9)
Animal viruses that have an envelope enter cells by
A) injecting their nucleic acid into the cell's cytoplasm. B) fusing with the plasma membrane. C) endocytosis.
10)
D) quarantine of fields with infected plants E) application of antibiotic drugs to citrus plants
D) plasmolysis. E) either fusing with the plasma membrane or endocytosis.
Retroviruses D) A) contain DNA. B) contain the enzyme reverse transcriptase. C) produce RNA from DNA.
11)
only invade
plants. E) produce protein directly from DNA.
Which of the following is an emerging virus?
A) HIV B) H5N1 C) West Nile
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D) SARS E) All of the above are considered emerging viruses.
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12) Your task as a researcher is to develop a new drug to prevent retrovirus infections in newly exposed individuals. Which of the means listed is likely to be the most effective?
A) blocking enzyme action B) destroying the viral genome C) dissolving the capsid
13)
D) preventing conjugation E) disrupting the viral envelope
Viroids and prions are alike in that both are infectious
A) cell types. B) proteins.
C) molecules. D) DNA. E) RNA.
14) Why don't new biological macromolecules form abiotically from nonliving matter on the Earth today?
A) The special environmental conditions that are required do not exist. B) There are not enough of the various elements needed. C) There is not enough available energy. D) There is no need for biological macromolecules.
E) Biological macromolecules do arise abioticallybut are quickly consumed by organisms.
15) Cell-like structures that may have resulted from macromolecular self-assembly are referred to as
A) prokaryotes. B) protocells.
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C) protoypes. D) archaea. E) protists.
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16) What would you most likely call a long chain of bacterial cells that are spherical in shape?
A) Streptococcus B) Staphylococcus C) Streptobacillus
17)
D) Diplococcus E) Streptospirillum
A bacteria's genetic material can include
A) a circular chromosome. B) plasmids. C) latent bacteriophage DNA. D) a circular chromosome plus plasmids.
E) a circular chromosome, plasmids, and latent bacteriophage DNA.
18) Which means of genetic recombination in bacteria is facilitated by use of a pilus?
A) transformation B) transduction C) conjugation
D) both transformation and transduction E) translocation
19) Which of the following statements regarding bacterial endospores is false?
A) Endospores can survive in extremely harsh environments. B) Within an endospore is a copy of the bacterial chromosome. C) An endospore contains a small amount of
cytoplasm material. D) Endospores can survive for very long periods of time. E) Endospores are reproductive structures.
20)
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In the infamous
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anthrax attacks of 2001, several letters were received at the offices of two U.S. senators and various news media outlets. The letters contained dry granular or powdery material. Seventeen people who came into contact with the material from the letters suffered anthrax infections; five more died of
A) Anthrax bacteria are acellular infectious particles. When they came into contact with living hosts, they entered the hosts' cells, took over their metabolic machinery, and caused them to produce more bacteria. B) Anthrax bacteria can form endospores under harsh environmental conditions. The material in the letters contained endospores of anthrax bacteria, which germinated and grew in the more favorable environment of the victims' bodies. C) Anthrax bacteria can form endospores in order to reproduce. A few active bacteria in the letters started to produce enormous numbers of endospores upon contact with
anthrax. How could driedout material cause anthrax?
the anthrax victims. D) Anthrax endospores are highly motile by flagella. When the endospores came into contact with human hosts, they swarmed into the bodies of their victims. E) None of the choices are correct.
21) Cyanobacteria are important producers, more specifically called
A) photoautotrophs. B) saprotrophs. C) chemoautotrophs.
D) saproautotrophs. E) photoheterotrophs.
22) Bacteria that secrete digestive enzymes into their surroundings in order to decompose nonliving organic matter are called
A) chemoautotrophs. B) symbiotes. C) saprotrophs. Version 1
D) parasites. E) photoautotrophs.
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23)
Without bacteria in the environment,
A) adequate amounts of carbon would not be available to living organisms. B) plants would not be able to grow due to lack of nitrogen. C) bioremediation would have limited use as a tool
to clean up pollutants. D) there would be a shortage of decomposer organisms. E) All of the choices are correct.
24) You take a large sample of soil and divide it among individual pots. You then separate the pots into two groups. In the first group, every pot of soil has been sterilized. In the second group, none of the pots of soil have been sterilized.
You plant soybean seeds in all the pots. What would you expect to see as the seeds sprout and grow?
A) The plants growing in the sterile soil are bigger because they have not been exposed to any bacteria. B) The plants growing in the non-sterile soil are bigger because they have mutualistic associations with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. C) The plants growing in the sterile soil are bigger because they do not have to compete with nitrogen-fixing bacteria in order to obtain usable nitrogen. D) The plants growing in the non-sterile soil are
bigger because saprotrophic bacteria produce nutrients for them. E) There is no difference in size between the plants growing in the sterile soil and those in the non-sterile soil.
25) Some species of pathogenic bacteria are able to attack specific cells in the human body due to structures called D) conjugation A) adhesion factors. B) bioremediaton factors. C) flagella.
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pili. E) cilia.
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A) Archaea and eukaryotes initiate transcription in the same fashion. B) Archaea and eukaryotes both have cell walls with peptidoglycan. C) Archaea and eukaryotes share some ribosomal proteins and have similar types of tRNA. D) Archaea and eukaryotes initiate transcription in
the same fashion, share some ribosomal proteins, and have similar types of tRNA. E) None of the choices supporta close relationship between eukaryotes and archaea.
27) Penicillin is an antibiotic drug that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis in bacteria, eventually resulting in cell death. What effect would you predict if you applied penicillin to archaea?
A) The archaea would die due to the weakening of their cell walls. B) The archaea would not be affected, since they do not contain peptidoglycan. C) The archaea would not be affected, since none of the archaea have cell walls.
28)
D) The archaea would die due to their inability to synthesize protein for their cell walls. E) None of the choices are correct.
Archaea
A) have plasma membranes but lack cell walls. B) have plasma membranes, and most have cell walls. C) lack plasma membranes, but most have cell walls.
D) have neither plasma membranes nor cell walls. E) have double plasma membranes and no cell walls.
29) In which type of environment would you be most likely to find methanogenic archaea?
A)
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hot, acidic
B) high salt concentration
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C) anaerobic D) aerobic
30) Which type ofarchaea use a pigment related to the rhodopsin, a pigment found in human eyes, to absorb solar
A) methanogens B) halophiles C) thermoacidophiles
E) dry
energy and pump chloride ions? D) alkaliphiles E) psychrophiles
31) Which of the following applies to algae but not protozoans?
A) chemoheterotrophs B) have a means of locomotion C) are eukaryotes
D) were previously classified as animals E) photosynthetic
32) All of the following are true statements about algae except
A) algae are eukaryotes. B) algae are photoautotrophs. C) algae are producers. D) algae were once classified as plants.
E) most algae have some form of locomotion.
33) One group of protozoans which are nonmotile, produce spores, and have disease-causing species is the
A) foraminiferans. B) trypanosomes.
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C) sporozoans. D) amoeboids. E) radiolarians.
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34) As a result of drinking contaminated water, a patient contracts amoebic dysentery. Would an antibiotic drug that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis be beneficial in treating the amoeba infection?
A) Yes, because it would weaken the cell walls of the amoebas and cause them to die. B) No, because amoeba are not bacteria and do not have peptidoglycan. C) Yes, because antibiotics are always beneficial in treating infectious diseases. D) No, because the cell walls of the amoeba that
35)
Which statement about slime molds is incorrect?
A) Slime molds are eukaryotic. B) Slime molds are classified in supergroup Ameobozoa. C) Slime molds produce spores.
36)
The
of a virus is enclosed by a
D) Slime molds are chemoheterotrophs. E) Slime molds are most commonly found in coastal areas.
capsid.
A) nucleic acid; protein B) membrane; protein C) nucleic acid; membrane
37)
causes dysentery contain calcium carbonate, not peptidoglycan. E) Yes, because the amoeba would not be able to reproduce.
D) protein; nucleic acid E) RNA; DNA
Naked strands of RNA not covered by a capsid are
A) viroids. B) archaea.
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C) prions. D) retroviruses. E) viruses.
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38)
A viroid is a naked, infectious
molecule.
A) protein B) DNA
39)
Which of these is mismatched?
A) malaria - protozoan B) AIDS - virus C) kuru - prion
40)
E) A bacterial cell has one chromosome.
Which of these is mismatched?
A) cilia - bacteria B) flagella - bacteria C) pseudopods - slime molds
42)
D) tetanus bacterium E) food poisoning - archaea
Which statement about bacteria is incorrect?
A) All bacteria are pathogenic to humans. B) Bacteria are prokaryotes. C) Most bacteria are chemoheterotrophs. D) Bacterial cells reproduce by binary fission.
41)
C) RNA D) fatty acid E) enzyme
D) flagella Euglena E) pseudopods amoebas
Protists can be
A) unicellular only. B) unicellular or colonial, but not multicellular. C) colonial only. D) colonial or multicellular, but not unicellular. Version 1
E) unicellular, colonial, or multicellular.
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43)
Which of these is mismatched?
A) Paramecium - ciliate B) Chlamydomonas - green alga C) Plasmodium - sporozoan
44)
D) Giardia zooflagellate E) Salmonella amoeba
African sleeping sickness is caused by a
A) trypanosome. B) sporozoan.
C) prion. D) bacterium. E) virus.
45) Which of the following groups contains the foraminifera?
A) stramenopiles B) apicomplexans
46)
C) dinoflagellates D) rhizaria E) ameobozoa
Which of the following are acellular?
A) prions B) protozoans
C) archaea D) algae E) bacteria
47) Which of the following groups contains at least some members that have cell walls? C) archaea only A) protists only B) bacteria only
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D) protists, bacteria and archaea E) None of the members of the above groups have cell walls.
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48) Which sporozoan characteristic is most consistent with a parasitic lifestyle?
A) lack of motility B) chemoheterotrophism C) unicellular
D) lack of lightabsorbing pigment E) eukaryotic
49) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Paramecium?
A) a macronucleus produces mRNA and directs metabolic functions B) motile with cilia C) a micronucleus functions in reproduction
D) engulfs prey with pseudopods E) chemoheterotrophic
50) Which of the following is unique to the lysogenic cycle?
A) attachment B) penetration
C) integration D) biosynthesis E) maturation
51) Which group of organisms are viroids(not viruses)most likely to parasitize?
A) plants B) bacteria
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C) fish D) fungi E) cattle
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A) Viroids do not have a capsid covering. B) Viruses do not have a capsid covering. C) Viroids contain DNA, while viruses do not. D) Viruses contain RNA, while viroids do not.
E) There is no structural difference between the two.
53) Which of the following structures would enable a plant virus to move from one plant cell to the next?
A) plasmodesmata B) vesicles C) vacuoles
54)
What feature enables the paramecium to move?
A) cilia B) contractile vacuole
55)
D) gap junctions E) recognition proteins
C) flagella D) nucleus E) pseudopodia
Which group of algae are associated with red tide?
A) red algae B) green algae
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C) brown algae D) diatoms E) dinoflagellates
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 17 Test Bank 1) C 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) E 10) B 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) E 18) C 19) E Version 1
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20) B 21) A 22) C 23) E 24) B 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) E 32) E 33) C 34) B 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) A Version 1
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41) A 42) E 43) E 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) E
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of these is a fungal disease (mycosis)?
A) wheat rust B) ringworm C) athlete's foot
D) oral thrush E) All of the choices are fungal diseases.
2) Which fungal disease results in a loss of 1/3 of the world's rice crop every year?
A) rice smut B) rice rust C) leaf curl disease
D)
rice blast
E)
Panama
disease disease
3) Which feature is believed to have been the first step in the evolution of land plants from the green algae?
A) protection of the embryo B) evolution of vascular tissue C) evolution of microphylls D) evolution of seeds
E) evolution of flowers in order to attract pollinators
4) Which structures are found in both ferns and gymnosperms?
A) seeds and flowers B) megaphylls and seeds C) microphylls and megaphylls
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D) flowers and vascular tissue E) megaphylls and vascular tissue
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5)
The closest living relatives of land plants are C) sporozoans. D) cyanobacteria. E) lichens.
A) charophytes. B) chytrids.
6) You discover a green, filamentous multicellular eukaryote growing at the edge of a pond. How could you
A)
Test for the presence of chlorophylls
a and
B) Examine the cell walls to see if they are composed of cellulose. C) See if the organism stores its excess carbohydrates in the form of starch.
determine if the organism is a green alga or a plant?
b.
D) Determine if the organism protects its zygotes. E) Determine if the organism protects and nourishes its embryos.
7) Which structure is a characteristic found onlyin angiosperms?
A) vascular tissue B) seed
8)
C) leaf D) flower E) megaphyll
The gametophyte is the dominant generation in
A) angiosperms. B) gymnosperms.
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C) ferns. D) mosses. E) all land plants.
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C) lycophyte. D) fern. E) bryophyte.
A) angiosperm. B) gymnosperm.
10) Which of the following groups provides protection and nourishment to the embryo? D) bryophytes A) all plants B) angiosperms only C) gymnosperms only
11) While walking in the woods, you come across some low-growing plants clustered at the base of a tree. You collect one as a specimen for biology class. Upon examination in the lab, you find that the leaf-, stem-, and root-like structures
A) a lycophyte. B) an angiosperm. C) a gymnosperm.
12)
only E) lycophytes only
contain no vascular tissue. The plant is
D) a bryophyte. E) not a plant but a charophyte.
Which of these is mismatched? D) gymnosperms A) bryophytes - flagellated sperm B) lycophytes - microphylls C) ferns - megaphylls
- fruits E) angiosperms seeds
13) Which of these was the first to have well-developed vascular tissue?
A) Version 1
charophytes
B) bryophytes C) lycophytes 3
D)
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ferns
E) gymnosperms
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A) stored food. B) the sporophyte embryo. C) the seed coat.
15)
Pollen grains are
A) female gametophytes. B) embryonic sporophytes. C) male gametophytes.
16)
D) megaspores. E) encapsulated ovules.
Which of these is mismatched?
A) carpel - ovary B) stamen - anther C) calyx - stigma
17)
D) the gametophyte embryo. E) vascular tissue.
D) corolla - petal E) stamen filament
Which of these is found in the moss life cycle? D) A) double fertilization B) pollen C) megaspore
18)
flagellated
sperm E) microspore
Conifers such as pine trees are classified as C) bryophytes. D) charophytes. E) gymnosperms.
A) angiosperms. B) lycophytes.
19)
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Endosperm is a tissue.
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A) haploid ( n) B) vascular
20) by
C) diploid (2 n) D) cotyledon E) triploid (3 n)
Apples, oranges, peanuts, and rice grains are produced
A) gymnosperms. B) bryophytes.
C) angiosperms. D) charophytes. E) lycophytes.
21) Some scientists estimate that over half of the world's rainforest has already been lost, mostly due to human activities. What would you predict as a consequence of the massive loss of plant life?
A) a decline in atmospheric carbon dioxide B) reduced incidence of flooding C) an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide D) a decline in soil erosion
22)
E) a drop in average temperatures worldwide
In ferns, the dominant generation is the
A) haploid gametophyte. B) diploid gametophyte. C) haploid sporophyte.
D) diploid sporophyte. E) triploid endosperm.
23) Which of the following have microscopically small gametophytes?
A) mosses Version 1
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B) ferns C) angiosperms D) gymnosperms
24)
E) both angiosperms and gymnosperms
By definition, a fruit is derived from the
A) archegonium. B) corolla.
C) calyx. D) ovary. E) stamen.
25) Beekeepers and scientists are very troubled by a recent decline in bee populations around the world. What would you predict as a likely consequence of the widespread disappearance of bees?
A) loss of crop productivity B) decline in conifer numbers C) disappearance of mosses and ferns D) inability of plants to obtain enough nitrogen
26)
Which statement does not apply to all fungi?
A) Fungi are chemoheterotrophic by absorption. B) Fungi produce gametes that are motile. C) Adult fungal cells are haploid. D) Fungal cell walls are composed of chitin.
27)
E) increase in prevalence of seedless vascular plants
E) Fungi are thought to be descendants of a flagellated protist.
The body of a typical fungus is termed a(n)
A) antheridium. B) mycorrhiza.
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C) sporangium. D) hypha. E) mycelium.
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28) In a fungal life cycle, which of the following is/are diploid?
A) the zygote only B) the spores only C) the hyphae only D) the hyphae and spores but not the zygote
29)
E) the zygote, spores, and hyphae
Which statement about chytrids is incorrect? cycle. A) They have flagellated spores and gametes. B) They are obligate parasites. C) Some are unicellular, while others form hyphae. D) Some have an alternation-of-generations life
E) Some stages of their life cycle are motile.
30) In black bread mold, spores are produced in structures called
A) clublike structures of the gills. B) sporangia.
C) carpels. D) sori. E) mycorrhizae.
31) Many garden supply stores sell root dips used to treat plants that are being transplanted. Such dips are advertised as containing spores. What kind of spores should these dips contain?
A) mycorrhizal fungi B) chytrids
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C) lycophytes D) yeasts E) lichens
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32) When making bread, you first "proof" the yeast by mixing it with sugar in lukewarm water. Assuming that the
A) The water will become cloudy as the flagellated yeast cells swim around. B) The yeast will germinate and start to form a mycelium. C) Bubbles form as the yeast ferment the sugar and release carbon dioxide.
yeast are alive, what happens next and why? D) Bubbles form as the yeast produce sugar and release oxygen. E) Nothing could happen, since yeast are not living organisms.
33) A unicellular, eukaryotic organism has flagella and cell walls of chitin. What is it? D) black bread A) charophyte B) lycophyte C) mycorrhizal fungus
mold E) chytrid
34) is the vascular tissue that conducts water and minerals from a plant's roots to its leaves.
A) Endosperm B) Phloem
35)
Which of these is mismatched?
A) ovule - seed B) ovary - fruit C) microspore mother cell - pollen D) embryo - male gametophyte
36)
C) Hypha D) Xylem E) Corolla
E) megaspore mother cell - female gametophyte
In the fern life cycle, which of these is haploid?
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A) frond only B) zygote only C) gametophyte only
D) gametes only E) both gametophyte and gametes
37) If you are studying a eukaryotic, multicellular, nonphotosynthetic organism, what piece of information would be most useful in determining if it is a fungus or an animal?
A) It is motile. B) It has cell walls. C) It ingests or absorbs its food. D) It has specialized tissues and organs.
38)
Which of these has a diploid stage in their life cycle?
A) mosses only B) mosses and ferns, but not gymnosperms or angiosperms C) gymnosperms and angiosperms, but not mosses or ferns
39)
D) mosses, ferns, gymnosperms, and angiosperms E) angiosperms only
Most fungi in the environment function as
A) parasites. B) saprotrophs. C) photoautotrophs.
40)
E) All of the choices would be equally useful.
D) producers. E) predators.
Which of these is mismatched? D) charophyte A) mushroom - fruiting body B) angiosperm - flower C) lycophyte - microphyll
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hypha E)
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gymnosperm - seed
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41) How is the mycelium a valuable adaptation for a fungus?
A) It provides a strong anchor for the fungus. B) It provides a large surface area for the absorption of nutrients and moisture. C) It discourages animals from feeding on the fungus. D) It provides a vast surface area for the generation
of spores. E) It provides physical support for the fragile sporophyte generation.
42) What would you predict as a likely consequence of eradicating all fungi from soil before sowing it with plant seeds?
A) Although the plants might grow, they would be unlikely to thrive due to the lack of mycorrhizal fungi. B) The plants would grow much more vigorously because they would not have to compete with fungi for nutrients. C) The plants would grow much more vigorously because they would not need to fight off fungal diseases. D) No plants would be able to grow because
mycorrhizal fungi are essential for the germination of seeds. E) The plants would grow as normal because the presence or absence of fungi has no impact on plants.
43) Which of these would be best able to reproduce during a period with little to no rainfall?
A) lycophytes B) gymnosperms C) bryophytes
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D) ferns E) No plants can reproduce except during rainy weather.
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A) Spores are produced by meiosis. B) The zygote is diploid. C) The zygote undergoes mitosis to produce the sporophyte plant.
D) Gametes are only produced by meiosis. E) Both gametes and spores are haploid.
45) Which of these would you expect to thrive in areas with abundant moisture? D) mosses and ferns but not lycophytes E) mosses, ferns, and lycophytes
A) ferns only B) mosses only C) lycophytes only
46) A plant has vascular tissue and true roots, stems, and leaves, but it does not produce seeds. The plant has microphylls and bears its sporangia in strobili. This plant is a C) lycophyte. D) gymnosperm. E) angiosperm.
A) bryophyte. B) fern.
47) The fermentation capabilities of produce bread and alcoholic beverages.
are used to
D) mycorrhizal A) yeasts B) chytrids C) lichens
48)
fungi E) molds
What is the function of the fungal fruiting body?
A) to produce spores B) to produce fruits that attract predators
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C) to provide a large surface area for photosynthesis
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D) to decompose organic matter E) to assist in fungal movement
49) Why are green algae placed in the kingdomProtista, while plants are given their own kingdom?
A) Plants enclose and protect the embryo within the female plant, while green algae do not. B) The green algae use chlorophyll a, while plants use chlorophyll b. C) Green algae have a cell wall of chitin, while plants have cell walls of cellulose. D) All plants are vascular, while all green algae are
nonvascular. E) Algae are sporophytes that reproduce only asexually, while plants are gametophytes and reproduce sexually.
50) Which feature possessed by most land plants is missing in mosses, which grow low to the ground in damp, shaded areas?
A) vascular tissue, so they must grow along the ground in damp areas to supply water to the cells B) cell walls, so they cannot stand upright C) a protected zygote, so they must grow in damp areas to supply the zygote with moisture D) chlorophyll b, so they can only use filtered light
for photosynthesis E) starch production, so they only produce small amounts of glucose since any beyond what they use immediately cannot be stored
51) Which group of organisms is attacked by Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis, a parasiticchytrid that causes a cutaneous infection called chytridiomycosis?
A) amphibians B) bats
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C) humans D) rice E) corn
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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
52)
52.1) Which part of the figure represents the sporophyte?
A) A B) B
C) C D) D E) E
52.2) Which part of the figure represents the gametophyte?
A) A B) B
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C) C D) D E) E
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53)
53.1)
Which structure is the ovary? C) C D) D E) E
A) A B) B
53.2)
Which structure is the anther? B) B
A) Version 1
A
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C) C D) D E) E
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53.3)
A) A B) B
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Which structure is the style? C) C D) D E) E
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 18 Test Bank 1) E 2) D 3) A 4) E 5) A 6) E 7) D 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) E 19) E Version 1
19
20) C 21) C 22) D 23) E 24) D 25) A 26) B 27) E 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) D 36) E 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) D Version 1
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41) B 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) E 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) Section Break 52.1) A 52.2) C 53) Section Break 53.1) E 53.2) A 53.3) D
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) One of the key features of the lophotrochozoans is that they have a band of cilia during their larval stage. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 2) Animals are
A) multicellular. B) heterotrophic. C) motile.
D) eukaryotic. E) All of the above answers describe the characteristics of animals.
3) The repetition of body parts along the length of an animal's body is termed
A) cephalization. B) coelomization. C) segmentation.
4)
D) compartmentalization. E) septation.
Which of these is a primate, but not an anthropoid?
A) chimpanzee B) baboon
C) opossum D) human E) lemur
5) Which two groups of primates share the closest ancestry? Version 1
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A) prosimians and gibbons B) New World monkeys and apes C) hominins and Old World monkeys
6)
D) gibbons and prosimians E) apes and hominins
Which of these is a chordate characteristic?
A) notochord B) pharyngeal pouches C) postanal tail
D) coelom E) All of the above are chodate characteristics.
7) Which feature is necessary in order to classify an organism as an ecdysozoan?
A) nonliving exoskeleton B) endoskeleton made of chitin C) closed circulatory system
8)
What is the defining feature of the lophotrochozoans?
A) tentacle-like feeding structure B) filter feeding C) multicellularity
9)
D) open circulatory system E) gills
D) bilateral symmetry E) exoskeleton
Which is an example of a parazoa?
A) sponges B) cnidarians
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C) flatworms D) annelids E) echinoderms
2
10)
Animals are thought to be most closely related to C) chytrids. D) fungi. E) amoebas.
A) choanoflagellates. B) charophytes.
11) Which of these statements about the evolutionary tree of animals is incorrect?
A) All animals have true tissues. B) All animals are multicellular. C) Humans are more closely related to sea stars than to insects. D) Radial symmetry preceded bilateral symmetry in
12)
Which statement about sponges is correct?
A) Sponges have two germ layers, which give rise to well-organized tissues. B) Sponges can only reproduce asexually by fragmentation or budding. C) Most sponges have bilateral symmetry.
13)
animal evolution. E) Some animals have no germ layers, while others have two or three germ layers.
D) Sponges belong to the group of invertebrates known as cnidarians. E) Sponges are filter feeders.
Which of these is mismatched? D) A) cnidarian - nematocyst B) planarian - ladderlike nervous system C) sponge - collar cell
fluke - body
cavity E) roundworm complete digestive tract
14) Which of these has radial symmetry?
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3
A) human B) planarian
15)
Which of these has a coelom?
A) sea star B) roundworm
16)
C) jellyfish D) roundworm E) nudibranch
C) fluke D) planarian E) hydra
Which of these is a protostome?
A) a chimpanzee B) a planarian
C) a sea anemone D) a sea star E) lancelet
17) A(n) is an individual animal that possesses both male and female sex organs.
A) cephalopod B) acoelomate
18)
C) deuterostome D) larva E) hermaphrodite
Which of these diseases is caused by a flatworm?
A) hookworm infection B) pinworm infection C) trichinosis
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D) schistosomiasis E) elephantiasis
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A) fluke. B) roundworm.
20)
In protostome development,
A) the blastopore becomes the anus. B) the coelom forms from mesodermal outpocketings of the gut. C) there is no coelom. D) the mouth forms from the second embryonic
21) a(n)
C) planarian. D) tunicate. E) arthropod.
Which of these is a bivalve?
A) clam B) octopus
23)
opening, not from the blastopore. E) the blastopore becomes the mouth.
The mantle, foot, and visceral mass are all parts of
A) annelid. B) mollusc.
22)
C) tapeworm. D) hydra. E) sponge.
C) snail D) squid E) conch
Which of these is a cephalopod?
A) nudibranch B) snail
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C) oyster D) squid E) mussel
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24)
Which of these worms are segmented?
A) annelids B) planarians C) roundworms
D) flukes E) All worms are segmented.
25) All of the following are characteristics of arthropods except
A) a blastopore during development. B) a pseudocoelom. C) mesoderm.
D) jointed appendages. E) an exoskeleton.
26) The exoskeleton of an arthropod is composed largely of the polysaccharide
A) cellulose. B) starch.
27) The luna moth ( Actias luna) is a large, showy moth with lovely green wings. It has no mouth and therefore cannot
A) The luna moth is chemoheterotrophic by absorption, not by ingestion. B) The luna moth is the adult stage in the life cycle; feeding occurs during the caterpillar stage. C) The luna moth is a rare mutant; typical moths of the species Actias luna do have mouths. D) The luna moth is the larval stage in the life cycle;
28)
C) chitin. D) collagen. E) glycogen.
eat. How is it that this species continues to exist? it eventually becomes a caterpillar which can feed. E) The luna moth can use its green wings for photosynthesis.
Which organism listed is a crustacean?
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D) horseshoe A) spider B) scorpion C) tick
crab E) lobster
29) All of the following are characteristics of annelids except
A) a coelom. B) segmentation. C) a complete digestive tract.
D) excretion via nephridia. E) metamorphosis.
30) Which is the largest, most diverse group of arthropods?
A) arachnids B) millipedes
C) insects D) crustaceans E) centipedes
31) All of the following are features of echinoderms except
A) a water vascular system. B) a coelom.
32)
C) a larval stage. D) skin gills. E) nephridium.
Which of the following are invertebrate chordates?
A) tunicates only B) lancelets only C) jawless fishes only D) tunicates and lancelets but not jawless fishes
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E) tunicates, lancelets, and jawless fishes
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33)
Which are the most numerous and diverse vertebrates?
A) reptiles B) lancelets C) cartilaginous fishes
34)
Which of these is mismatched?
A)
tunicate - has all chordate characteristics as an
adult B) ray-finned fish - has a swim bladder C) lamprey - lacks jaws
35)
D) mammals E) bony fishes
D) cartilaginous fish - has jaws E) lobe-finned fish - has a lung
Amphibians are the descendants of
A) ray-finned fishes. B) cartilaginous fishes. C) lobe-finned fishes.
36) A fungal infection that covers an amphibian's skin can quickly kill the animal. Why can't amphibians tolerate their
A) Amphibians produce blood in their skin, and become anemic when the skin is covered by fungus. B) Amphibians have small lungs and use their skin for gas exchange; they suffocate when the skin is covered with fungal growth. C) Amphibians with fungal infections starve when the fungus absorbs all the food stored in their skin. D) Because amphibians hear with their skin, those with fungal infections on the skin lose the ability to hear
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D) hagfishes. E) reptiles.
skin being covered with a foreign substance? approaching predators. E) Since amphibians use their skin for water storage, they dehydrate when an infectious fungus covers the skin and drains it of moisture.
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37)
Which is not a typical adult amphibian characteristic?
A) eyelids B) jaws C) jointed limbs
38)
D) lungs E) fourchambered heart
Birds are
A) reptiles. B) amniotes. C) chordates and amniotes. D) deuterostomes and reptiles.
E) reptiles, amniotes, chordates and deuterostomes.
39) The main reason reptiles are so well-adapted to land environment is their method of
A) respiration. B) vocalization. C) reproduction.
40)
Egg-laying mammals are known as
A) marsupials. B) ectotherms. C) placental mammals.
41)
D) predation. E) temperature regulation.
D) monotremes. E) prosimians.
Which of these is a unique characteristic of mammals?
A) hair B) four-chambered heart C) extraembryonic membranes
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D) endothermic E) cephalization
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42)
The closest living relatives of modern humans are
A) prosimians. B) African apes. C) New World monkeys.
43)
D) Asian apes. E) Old World monkeys.
Which of the following is a hominin?
A) Neandertal B) australopithecine C) Homo erectus and australopithecine D) Cro-Magnon and Neandertal
E) Neandertal, australopithecine, Home erectus and Cro-Magnon
44) In 2004, fossil skeletons of a new Homo species were discovered in Indonesia and named Homo floresiensis. Which factor was the key to classifying this species in the genus Homo?
A) evidence of bipedalism B) resemblance to other hominins C) humanlike rather than apelike craniums
D) evidence of being placental mammals E) evidence of mosaic evolution
45) While excavating a cave in Spain, you stumble across a skeleton that looks to be human. Upon closer examination, you find that the bones are disproportionately short and thick, and the skull has massive brow ridges. Carefully arranged
around the skeleton are a variety of stone tools. You have most likely found the remains of a(n)
A) Cro-Magnon. B) australopithecine.
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C) early hominin. D) Neandertal. E) prosimian.
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A) a notochord. B) segmentation. C) a ventral nerve cord.
47)
D) a coelom. E) mesoderm.
Molluscs are
A) deuterostomes. B) acoelomates. C) protostomes.
D) pseudocoelomates. E) segmented.
48) Why are developmental biologists especially interested in studying echinoderm embryos?
A) Echinoderms are primitive chordates. B) Echinoderms are the closest living relatives of chordates. C) Echinoderms are the only animals with three embryonic germ layers. D) Echinoderms, unlike most invertebrates, retain
their notochords as adults. E) Echinoderms, like chordates, are protostomes.
49) Which of these would be found in both roundworms and annelids?
A) coelom B) segmentation C) setae
50)
D) complete digestive tract E) notochord
Which of these is present in all fishes?
A) jaws B) lungs C) fleshy, bone-containing appendages Version 1
D) fins supported by bony spikes E) vertebrae
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51)
Nephridia are found in
A) jawless fishes. B) echinoderms.
C) lancelets. D) annelids. E) cephalopods.
52) Which of these has the necessary adaptations to survive in a dry land environment?
A) insect B) lobe-finned fish
C) amphibian D) planarian E) tunicate
53) Organisms that live in a marine environment and have skin gills, tube feet, a coelom, and a water vascular system are classified as a(n)
A) tunicate. B) lancelet.
54)
C) planarian. D) oligochaete. E) echinoderm.
Which of the following is a crustacean?
A) barnacle B) oyster
C) clam D) mussel E) scallop
55) Which feature is present in cnidarians but lacking in sponges?
A) Version 1
cellular level of organization
B) filter feeding C) 12
multicellularity D) radial symmetry E) Cnidarians are classified asanimals, while
56)
Which feature is lacking in sponges?
A) multicellularity B) cellular level of organization C) organized true tissues
57)
sponges are not animals.
D) flagella E) filter feeder
What are the key features of chordates?
A) notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord, pharyngeal pouches, and a tail B) notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord, water vascular system, and a tail C) ventral nerve chord, notochord, pharyngeal pouches, and a tail
D) notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord, nerve ring, and a tail E) notochord, ventral nerve cord, water vascular system, and a tail
58) Arthropods exhibit all of the following characteristics except
A) segmentation. B) exoskeleton. C) jointed appendages.
D) welldeveloped nervous system. E) pseudocoelom lined with mesoderm.
59) What is a common feature shared by both the roundworms and the arthropods?
A) gills B) cutaneous respiration C) exoskeleton
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D) endoskeleton E) jointed appendages
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60)
Which feature places cnidarians as eumetazoans?
A) Cnidarians have two germ layers during development. B) Cnidarians are active predators. C) Cnidarianslive in aquatic environments. D) Cnidariansreproduce sexually.
E) Cnidariansare sessile at some point of their life cycle.
61) What feature is used to classify a sponge as a parazoan?
A) molecular data B) reproductive abilities C) environment they live in D) feeding mechanism
E) number of different species known to science
62) Lophotrochozoans are defined by all of the following features except
A) having two embryonic germ layers that develop into their body systems. B) having an aquatic lifestyle. C) being bilaterally symmetrical during some stage of their development.
63)
D) using a lophophore as a feeding apparatus. E) they are protostomes.
Which feature is used to identify the ecdysozoans?
A) shedding their exoskeleton B) presence of an endoskeleton C) parasitic lifestyle
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D) asexual reproduction E) adapted to aquatic habitats
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64)
Ascaris is considered to be a(n) C) earthworm. D) cnidarian. E) arthropod.
A) roundworm. B) flatworm.
65)
Which statement is inconsistent with echinoderms?
A) The exoskeleton is made up of bony tissue. B) Gas exchange occurs through gills on the skin. C) Larvae are free-swimming and bilaterally symmetrical. D) A water vascular system allows the tube feet to
66)
produce suction. E) Symmetry is radial in the adult, usually with parts in fives or multiples of five.
The name Echinodermata literally means
A) spiny skin. B) soft skin. C) circulation of water.
D) skinless. E) ability to store water.
67) In the replacement model of evolution, where did modern humans first evolve?
A) Africa B) Asia C) Europe
68)
D) North America E) South America
Which primate is classified as a prosimian?
A) lemur B) baboon
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C) human D) gibbon E) spider monkey
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69) When did modern humans migrate from Africa into Asia and Europe?
A) 100,000 year ago B) 10,000 years ago C) 200,000 years ago
D) 1.2 million years ago E) 220,000 years ago
70) Which group of organisms is it believed that animals evolved from?
A) protozoan B) fungi
C) bacteria D) archaea E) sponges
71) Which statement is inconsistent with invertebrate animals?
A) Invertebrates lack a nervous system. B) The vast majority of animal species are invertebrates. C) Many invertebrate species live in a marine environment.
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D) Most animal phyla are invertebrates. E) All major invertebrate groups arose from protistan ancestors.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 19 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) E 3) C 4) E 5) E 6) E 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) E 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) D 19) C Version 1
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20) E 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) E 29) E 30) C 31) E 32) D 33) E 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) E 38) E 39) C 40) D Version 1
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41) A 42) B 43) E 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) E 51) D 52) A 53) E 54) A 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) E 59) C 60) A 61) A Version 1
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62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) A
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Mineral transport in plants occurs through xylem tissue. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Micronutrients that are needed by plants as enzyme cofactors are also needed by humans for the same reason. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Transport in xylem is typically upward, while transport in phloem can be in any direction in the plant. ⊚
true
⊚
4)
Eudicot roots may experience secondary growth.
⊚
true
⊚
false
false
5) A leaf is considered to be compound when it possesses a only one single blade. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) In the pressureflow model, the movement of nutrients through phloem is initiated when Version 1
1
water moves from sieve-tube members into companion cells by osmosis, causing sugar in surrounding cells to be ⊚
true
⊚
transported into sieve-tube members.
false
7) Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules produces a force sufficient to move water from the roots to the shoot tip of a plant. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) Plants are capable of directly absorbing nitrogen from the atmosphere. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Water must first pass through the endodermis of a root before it can enter xylem vessels. ⊚
true
⊚
false
10) The bark of a tree is entirely derived from vascular cambium. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) Secondary growth occurs in plants which have a(n) A) Version 1
tracheid.
2
B) pericycle. C) apical meristem. D) vascular cambium.
E)
cortex.
12) Which of the following is a typical function of the root system?
A) anchorage B) absorption of nitrates C) absorption of water D) absorption of minerals
13)
Which of the following is part of the root system?
A) pericycle B) terminal bud
14)
C) axils. D) terminal bud. E) root hairs.
Which of the following occurs only in the roots?
A) photosynthesis B) water storage C) food storage
16)
C) stomata D) flower E) lateral bud
Primary growth occurs from the
A) pericycle. B) nodes.
15)
E) All of the above answers describe typical functions of a root system.
D) nitrogen fixation E) attachment and support
What advantages do root hairs give to a plant?
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3
A) The products of photosynthesis from the leaves are stored in the root hairs. B) Root hairs provide support for the elongating shoot system. C) Root hairs allow the plant to regenerate after the shoot system dies back.
D) Root hairs allow lateral branching of the roots. E) Root hairs increase the surface area available for water absorption.
17) If you remove all of the terminal buds from a plant, what is the most likely outcome?
A) Branching would occur, and the plant would become bushier as all new growth would originate from the lateral buds. B) All of the plant's leaves would die and photosynthesis would cease. C) The plant would continue to grow taller but would be unable to produce lateral growth.
D) There would be more root growth which would allow for a greater nutrient uptake. E) Additional stems would develop and grow upward.
18) Which of the following correctly describes a major difference between monocot and eudicot plants?
A) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a eudicot stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a monocot stem. B) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot root, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a eudicot root. C) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a eudicot root, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a monocot root. D) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot
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stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a eudicot stem. E) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot stem, while xylem and phloem occur in scattered bundles in a eudicot stem.
4
A) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a eudicot stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a monocot stem. B) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a eudicot stem. C) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a eudicot stem, while xylem and phloem occur in scattered bundles in a monocot stem. D) Xylem and phloem occur in a ring in a monocot
stem, while xylem and phloem occur in scattered bundles in a eudicot stem. E) Xylem and phloem occur in scattered bundles in a monocot stem, while phloem occur between arms of xylem in a eudicot stem.
20) Which of the following correctly describes a major difference between monocot and eudicot plants?
A) The leaves of monocot plants have leaf veins that form a netlike pattern, while the leaves of eudicot plants have parallel leaf veins. B) Monocot leaves have leaf veins that form a netlike pattern, and their flower parts occur in multiples of three; eudicot leaves have parallel leaf veins, and their flower parts occur in multiples of four or five. C) Monocot leaves have parallel leaf veins, and their flower parts occur in multiples of four or five; eudicot leaves have leaf veins that form a netlike pattern, and their flower parts occur in multiples of three.
D) Monocot flower parts occur in multiples of four or five, while eudicot flower parts occur in multiples of three. E) Monocot leaves have parallel leaf veins, while the leaf veins of a eudicot plant form a netlike pattern.
21) Root hairs are composed of which of the following types of tissue?
A) sclerenchyma B) parenchyma C) collenchyma
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D) vascular cambium E) epidermal
5
22)
In the trunk of a tree, the epidermis is replaced by
that is produced by
A) cork cells; cork cambium B) epidermal; vascular cambium C) cuticle; vascular cambium D) wood; cork cambium E) sclerenchyma; cork cambium
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6
23)
Vessel elements are to xylem as
are to phloem. D) companion
A) tracheids B) sclerenchyma C) sieve-tube members
24)
cells E) sieve plates
Stomata are found on the
A) roots. B) epidermis. C) stems only.
D)
roots and
E)
cork cells.
leaves.
25) Which of the following cell types are most likely to be involved in the long-term storage of food for a plant?
A) mesophyll B) parenchyma
26)
C) collenchyma D) sclerenchyma E) epidermis
In contrast to a simple leaf, a compound leaf
A) has a blade that is divided into leaflets. B) contains leaflets with individual lateral buds. C) lacks a petiole.
D) occurs only near the terminal bud. E) occurs only between internodes.
27) Which of the following structures is found within the interior a leaf?
A) cuticle Version 1
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B) spongy mesophyll C) stoma
D) guard cells E) leaf hairs
28) In the correct order, indicate the structures of a leaf that water encounters as it enters and exits a leaf.
A)
cuticle, epidermis, mesophyll, xylem of leaf vein
B) xylem of leaf vein, stomata, mesophyll C) epidermis, stomata, xylem of leaf vein
29) Removing bark from a tree means that removed.
D) xylem of leaf vein, mesophyll, stomata E) xylem of leaf vein, stomata, mesophyll, phloem of leaf vein
are
A) phloem, cortex, cork cambium, and cork B) vascular cambium, phloem, cork cambium, and cork C) xylem, vascular cambium, and phloem
D) cortex, cork cambium, and cork E) vascular cambium, cortex, cork cambium, and xylem
30) Summer wood can be distinguished from spring wood because summer wood
A) contains wide vessels with thin walls, and is lighter than spring wood. B) is impregnated with suberin, whereas spring wood is not. C) contains thick-walled tracheids that give it strength, and is more dense than spring wood. D) contains only thin-walled xylem, and is lighter
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than spring wood. E) is produced during the summer when moisture is plentiful, and contains only heavy fibers and thick-walled tracheids.
8
31)
Herbaceous eudicot stems differ from woody stems
because herbaceous
A) do not contain cork cambium. B) lack an organized pith. C) initiate branching from the cortex, rather than from the cork cambium. D) do not contain distinct vascular bundles. E) contain scattered vascular bundles rather than containing vascular bundles in a ring.
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32) Which of the following is an incorrect match between a root structure and its function?
A) endodermis - regulates mineral entrance into vascular tissues B) epidermis - forms root hairs for absorption C) pericycle - contains starch granules
D)
cortex - food
E)
pith - food
storage storage
33) A monocot root differs from a eudicot root because a monocot root
A) lacks an organized pith. B) contains xylem and phloem organized in a ring around the pith. C) does not have a pericycle.
34)
D) lacks a functional endodermis. E) contains a cortex that is inside of the endoderm.
Root hairs are found within the
A) zone of maturation only. B) zone of maturation and zone of elongation. C) zone of cell division, zone of elongation, and
zone of maturation. D) root cap only. E) root cap and zone of cell division.
35) Which of the following statements regarding the organization of vascular tissue in roots is true? D) In both A) In eudicot roots, xylem and phloem bundles occur in a ring surrounding the pith. B) In eudicot roots, phloem form a star shape in the center, with xylem occurring between arms of phloem. C) In monocot roots, vascular bundles are found only within the zone of cell division. Version 1
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monocot and eudicot roots, phloem are found outside the endodermis, and xylem within the endodermis. E) In monocot roots, xylem and phloem bundles alternate in a ring surrounding the pith.
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11
36) Root branching occurs from the elongation occurs from the .
, while root
A) lateral meristem; root meristem B) apical meristem; root cap C) pericycle; apical meristem
D) apical meristem; pericycle E) pericycle; root cap
37) What two properties of water are critical in moving water through xylem?
A) polarity and neutral pH B) cohesion and adhesion C) density as a solid and low molecular weight
38)
and and
D) adhesion and density as a solid E) low molecular weight and cohesion
are micronutrients in plants, while are macronutrients.
A) Mn; Zn; N; O B) Mn; O; Zn; C
C) Cu; K; O; H D) Cu; K; B; Mn E) Mn; Zn; B; N
39) In your garden, you observe a single pea plant that is much smaller and not growing well, despite being surrounded by other normal plants. You dig it up to discover that it has a weak, shallow root system. You suspect that the plant may be lacking
A) a micronutrient. B) mycorrhizal fungi.
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C) oxygen. D) carbon. E) hydrogen.
12
40) When water enters guard cells, turgor pressure and the stomata . D) A) increases; open B) decreases; open C) increases; close
decreases;
close E) does not change; close
41) In the pressure-flow model, what starts the flow of phloem contents?
A) sugar is actively transported into sieve tubes and water follows by osmosis B) water leaves the sieve tubes by osmosis, after which sugar is actively transported into the sieve tubes C) water is actively transported into sieve tubes, and then sugar enters by osmosis D) both water and sugar are actively transported into
42)
the sieve tubes E) sugar is actively transported into companion cells and water follows by osmosis
Mineral transport in plants occurs
A) through xylem tissue when sugars are present. B) through both xylem and phloem tissue. C) due to osmosis of water out of tracheids. D) through xylem tissue as the water column is
pulled upward. E) continuously through phloem in both directions.
43) Which zone of the eudicot root tip is formed from the division of the apical meristem cells?
A) zone of maturation B) zone of elongation C) zone of cell division
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D) root cap E) epidermis
13
44) What is the correct order of root zones starting with the root tip and moving upward?
A) cell division - elongation - maturation B) elongation - cell division - maturation C) maturation - elongation - cell division
D) cell division maturation - elongation E) cell division root cap - elongation
45) Which group of ground tissue cells will help carry out photosynthesis? D) xylem E) phloem
A) parenchyma cells B) collenchyma cells C) sclerenchyma cells
46)
Which layer is the central most layer in a woody stem? D) secondary A) bark B) pith C) wood
xylem E)
phloem
47) Which feature best describes the appearance ofvascular bundles of a nonwoody monocot stem? lines. A) The vascular bundles are scattered. B) The vascular bundles are arranged in a ring. C) There are no vascular bundles in a nonwoody monocot stem. D) The vascular bundles are arranged in parallel
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E) The vascular bundles are arranged in squares.
14
A) vascular cambium B) phloem
C) cortex D) cork cambium E) cork
49) Which layer of the woody stem is composed of spring wood and summer wood?
A) phloem B) pith
C) cortex D) annual ring E) bark
50) Which plant tissue type forms a protective covering of the plant?
A) epidermal B) vascular
C) ground D) xylem E) parenchyma
51) Which plant tissue type helps carry out the function of a particular plant organ?
A) ground B) epidermis
C) vascular D) xylem E) trichomes
52) Which plant tissue type transports water and nutrients throughout the plant?
A) vascular B) epidermis
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C) ground D) dermis E) parenchyma
15
53) Which type of ground tissue makes the plant cell tough and hard due to secondary walls composed of lignin? C) collenchyma D) xylem E) cambium
A) sclerenchyma B) parenchyma
54)
In which part of the plant will primary growth occur? C) xylem D) sclerenchyma E) parenchyma
A) apical meristem B) internode
55) Which type of vascular tissue will contain vessel elements in order to transport water and minerals? D) parenchyma A) xylem B) phloem C) sieve tube members
cells E) collenchyma cells
56) Which feature determines whether or not a nutrient is a macronutrient or a micronutrient?
A)
The concentration of the nutrient in the plant
tissue. B) The concentration of the nutrient in the soil. C) The molecular size of the nutrient. D) The availability of the nutrient in the
environment. E) The time of the year that the nutrient becomes available to the plant.
57) Which plant system will consist of the terminal bud, blade, petiole, and node?
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D) epidermal A) shoot system B) root system C) vascular system
tissue E)
ground tissue
58) What is the main reason that farmers practice crop rotation?
A) Crop rotation will help replenish the soil's supply of nitrogen. B) Crop rotation will help replenish the soil's supply of hydrogen. C) Rotation of crops allows for an increased chance of profit.
D) Government regulations require farmers to rotate crops every year. E) Crop rotation will help replenish the soil's supply of carbon.
59) Which nutrient tends to become depleted due to traditional farming practices?
A) nitrogen B) sulfur
C) calcium D) phosphate E) hydrogen
60) Which root adaptation enables plants to access atmospheric nitrogen?
A) root nodules that are colonized by bacteria B) a mutualistic relationship with fungi C) stomata that allow the diffusion of nitrogen through the epidermis of the leaf D) thin cell membranes that are porous enough to allow for the diffusion of nitrogen into the root system
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E) bacteria that live within the leaves of the plants that absorb nitrogen and make it available for the plant
17
A) The stomata will close. B) The plasmodesmata will close. C) Water will enter the guard cells causing them to swell.
D) Turgor pressure will increase. E) The plant will increase the rate of photosynthesis.
62) Which plant structure will open and close in response to turgor pressure, helping to regulate transpiration? C) stroma D) xylem E) trichomes
A) stomata B) stoma
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
63)
63.1) Photosynthesis primarily occurs in which tissues of the leaf shown here?
A) 2 and 4 B) 3, 4, and 5
C) 1 and 5 D) 1, 2. 3 and 4 E) 2 and 3
63.2) Version 1
Water 18
enters the leaf through structure , whereas carbon dioxide enters the leaf through structures located within .
A) 1; 5 B) 4; 5
C) 3; 5 D) 4; 3 E) 3; 1
64)
64.1) Refer to the figure shown here. Which structure(s) of a eudicot root is/are responsible for regulating the entry of minerals into the xylem?
A) 1 B) 1 and 6
C) 6 D) 2 and 3 E) 2
64.2) Refer to the figure shown here.
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19
Branching of roots occurs from structure root hairs develop from structure .
A) 1; 2 B) 6; 2
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, while
C) 3; 6 D) 2; 1 E) 3; 4
20
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 20 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) D 12) E 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) B 19) C Version 1
21
20) E 21) E 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) E 36) C 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) A Version 1
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41) A 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) E 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A Version 1
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62) A 63) Section Break 63.1) A 63.2) C 64) Section Break 64.1) E 64.2) C
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24
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) An incomplete flower may lack a carpel. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) A root growing into the Earth is exhibiting negative gravitropism. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Gametophytes of flowering plants are produced within the flower. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) A monocot seed consists of a seed coat, two cotyledons, an embryo, and an endosperm. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Plants are naturally able to reproduce asexually because they contain meristematic tissue. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) The application of auxin to a seed may cause it to germinate. ⊚
true
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⊚
false
1
7) The application of abscisic acid to a plant may prevent fruit maturation. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) Cytokinins may help promote the growth of new plants in tissue culture. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Alternation of generations means that a diploid sporophyte produces haploid spores by meiosis, and a haploid ⊚
true
⊚
gametophyte produces gametes by mitosis.
false
10) An increase in the amount of protein produced is an advantage of using plants to develop products for the pharmaceutical industry. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 11) Monocot seeds differ from eudicot seeds because in monocot seeds
A) the cotyledons absorb the stored food of the endosperm. B) the endosperm is retained. Version 1
C) there are two cotyledons instead of one. D) there is no seed coat. 2
E)
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the endosperm develops into the embryo.
3
12) Which of the following events will occur if gibberellins are applied to barley?
A) the lateral meristems will be inhibited and the plant growth will cease B) the starchy endosperm will be broken down and converted into sugars for the developing embryo C) the stomata will remain closed to avoid the loss of water from the plant
13)
D) plant growth will be accelerated as the stems elongate E) the plant will produce fewer seeds than normal
Plant hormones are
A) are only found in the growing root tip. B) only control plant growth. C) produced only in the apical meristem. D) only found in monocots.
E) are chemical signals between cells and tissues.
14) You wish to change the growth pattern of the shrubs in your yard to give them a fuller, more bushy appearance. This could be accomplished by
A) pruning the terminal bud. B) pruning the lateral buds. C) pruning the lateral buds and applying gibberellins.
15)
D) applying auxin to the roots. E) pruning the shoot tip and applying auxin to the shoot.
Auxin causes bending in stems and roots by
A) causing cell elongation. B) preventing cell elongation. C) breaking down cell walls.
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D) causing cell shrinkage. E) inhibiting lateral bud growth.
4
16)
Synthetic auxins are used in agriculture to
A) create seedless varieties of fruit. B) to control the growth of grasses. C) to speed up the growth of the plant.
17)
D) to encourage larger root masses. E) to incrase the size of the lateral buds.
Which of the following is an effect of gibberellins?
A) increased stem length B) cell elongation C) breaking the dormancy of seeds D) larger fruit size
E) All of the above are effects of gibberellins.
18) Which of the following plant hormones promotes cell division and prevents senescence?
A) cytokinins B) auxin
19) A gardener wants to stimulate branching but keep the apical meristem intact so that the plants will also grow in
A) auxin B) cytokinin
C) gibberellins D) abscisic acid E) ethylene
height. What hormone should be applied? C) ethylene D) abscisic acid E) gibberellins
20) A farmer wishes to force a normal plant to maintain a dwarf size. Which of the following plant hormones might she apply?
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5
A) auxin B) cytokinin
21)
C) ethylene D) abscisic acid E) gibberellins
When a plant is experiencing water stress,
A) auxin will shut down vessel elements. B) gibberellins will stimulate growth of root hairs. C) abscisic acid will stimulate closure of stomata. D) ethylene will increase water flow in vessel
elements. E) cytokinins will stimulate elongation of stems and growth of new leaves.
22) A winter bud begins winter with an amount of abscisic acid to maintain dormancy. Dormancy is broken in the spring because of a(n)
A) gradual reduction in abscisic acid over winter. B) increase of abscisic acid production by the meristem within the bud. C) increase in cytokinin in the leaves. D) gradual reduction of auxin in the shoot tip.
E) gradual increase in ethylene production by the meristem within the bud.
23) Peaches may be ripened at home by enclosing them in a paper bag. This is due to the production of which hormone?
A) auxin B) cytokinin
24)
C) ethylene D) abscisic acid E) gibberellins
Ethylene stimulates fruit ripening by stimulating
A) the transport of hydrogen ions out of the cell. B) the production of amylase for starch breakdown. Version 1
C) bacterial activity which softens the fruit. 6
D) cellulase to break down cellulose in cell walls. E) mitosis of cells within the fruit to promote fruit
growth.
25) A plant's growth response toward or away from a directional stimulus is called C) senescence. D) a photoperiod. E) dormancy.
A) apical dominance. B) a tropism.
26) Plants detect the presence of light using whereas day length is detected using .
,
A) auxin; gibberellin B) phytochrome; auxin C) auxin; phytochrome
27)
D) phytochrome; gibberellin E) gibberellin; auxin
Flowering in most plants is triggered by
A) auxin migration. B) night length. C) day length.
D) gibberellin production. E) negative phototropism.
28) A long-day (short-night) plant would most likely bloom
A) in the fall. B) in the spring.
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C) in the summer. D) at night. E) during the day.
7
29)
Short-day (long-night) plants
A) bloom after a certain length of continuous daylight. B) bloom after a certain length of continuous darkness. C) bloom only at night.
D) use other environmental stimuli to trigger flowering. E) bloom only during the day.
30) Phytochrome red (P r) differs from phytochrome farred (P fr) in that
A) P r is converted to P fr during the nighttime. B) P r is converted to P fr by absorbing sunlight. C) P fr is converted to P r by absorbing sunlight. D) P fr is converted to P r by absorbing far-red light that is available at dusk.
E) P r is converted to P fr by absorbing far-red light, which is available only during full daylight.
31) Since plant sperm are nonflagellated, how do they reach the ovule from the stigma?
A) the sperm swim in water B) the sperm are delivered by a pollen tube C) the sperm are carried on air currents
D) the sperm delivered by insects E) the ovules are delivered to the stigma
32) Which of the following is an incorrect match of structure to function?
A) sepal - protection of flower B) filament - produces pollen C) petal - attracts pollinator D) ovary - contains female gametophyte
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E) stigma allows pollen to adhere
8
33)
The microspores develop into pollen grains in the C) stigma. D) style. E) ovary.
A) anther. B) filament.
34) 2n
The products of double fertilization in the and a 3n .
are a
A) ovary; zygote; endosperm B) ovary; endosperm; zygote C) anther; zygote; endosperm
D) anther; endosperm; zygote E) stigma; endosperm; zygote
35) Plants undergo an alternation of generations. This means that the diploid produces spores, which develop into the haploid .
A) sporophyte; gametophyte B) gametophyte; sporophyte C) sporophyte; seeds
D) flowers; gametophyte E) sporophyte; flowers
36) Plants undergo an alternation of generations. The haploid produces gametes that fuse to produce a new diploid .
A) sporophyte; gametophyte B) gametophyte; sporophyte C) gametophyte; flower
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D) flowers; gametophyte E) sporophyte; flower
9
E) All of the above are functions of a flower.
A) producing fruit B) protection of the gametophyte C) attracting pollinators D) producing spores
38) Plants with both female and male flowers on the same plant are called C) monoecious. D) dioecious. E) bisexual.
A) complete. B) incomplete.
39) A plant that is dioecious is incapable of which of the following? D) gametophyte production E) pollen production
A) cross-pollination B) double fertilization C) self-pollination
40)
A flower that is bisexual contains D) both stamens and carpels. E) anthers but no filaments.
A) only carpels. B) only stamens. C) extra sepals.
41) In a eudicot seed, the zygote becomes the while the is derived from the endosperm.
,
D) embryo; A) embryo; seed coat B) cotyledons; embryo C) embryo; cotyledon Version 1
10
stored food E) stored food; seed coat
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11
42) a
Because tomatoes contain seeds they are classified as
C) fruit. D) tree. E) legume.
A) plant. B) vegetable.
43) A fleshy fruit is more likely to use which of the following methods of seed dispersal?
A)
eaten by animals and seeds passed through feces
B) blown by wind C) stuck to fur of mammal and carried
D) fruit bursts when mature, spreading seeds outward E) drop and remain near parent plant
44) Which of the following is a method of sexual reproduction in plants? C) suckers D) tubers E) dry fruits
A) rhizomes B) stolons
45) A nursery wishes to produce a large number of carrot plants for sale in the spring. The nursery will most likely use which technique?
A) tissue culture B) hybridization C) cuttings
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D) anther culture E) meristem culture
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46) An advantage of using genetically modified plants is that they
A) are genetically identical to the parent plant. B) grow much more quickly. C) may possess superior characteristics to the original plant.
D) are always virus-free. E) cannot undergo asexual reproduction.
47) Some citizens are concerned about the use of genetically modified plants because they
A) are better for the environment. B) may create herbicide-resistanct super weeds. C) are less nutritious than the original plant.
D) are genetically identical. E) do not grow as well as the original plant.
48) Which of the following is a possible use for genetically modified crops?
A) vaccine production B) improved yield C) herbicide resistance D) improved nutritional value
E) All of the above are possible uses for genetically modified crops.
49) Which plant hormone is responsible for breaking seed dormancy?
A) gibberellins B) auxins
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C) abscisic acid D) ethylene E) cytokinins
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50)
The aging process in plants is known as
A) senescence. B) dormancy. C) abscission.
D) apical dominance. E) gravitropism.
51) In order for senescence to be prevented, which hormone needs to be present in the plant?
A) gibberellins B) cytokinins
C) abscisic acid D) ethylene E) auxin
52) In what way would a grower in the grape industry use gibberellins?
A)
Gibberellins would increase the size of the fruits.
B) Gibberellins would prevent the plants from getting fungal infections. C) Gibberellins would help break down the starches found in the fruits, making them sweeter. D) Gibberellins would promote an increase in the
53)
rate at which the plants produce fruit. E) Gibberellins would make the plants resistant to parasitic infections.
What is the role of auxin in regards to plant growth?
A)
Auxin softens the cell wall enabling the cells to
grow. B) Auxin disintegrates the cell wall in a plant allowing two cells to enlarge into one. C) Auxin will stunt plant growth.
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D) Auxin will increase the rate at which plant cells can grow. E) Auxin will decrease the rate at which plant cells grow.
14
54) A friend complains that all of her houseplants have bent stems. You examine the plants and find that their stems all curve toward the light. What would you recommend to
A) Turn each plant occasionally so that different sides will face the light. B) Apply an auxin to the shady side of the stems. C) Water the plants more frequently.
your friend to correct the problem?
D) Apply gibberellins to the bases of the stems. E) Repot the plants.
55) If ethylene is applied to a bushel of apples, what is most likely to occur?
A) The fruit will all ripen. B) The apple seeds will go into a state of dormancy. C) The seeds will germinate. D) The fruit will retain its water for a longer period
of time. E) The apple stem will fall off.
56) During germination, which part of the seed exhibits negative gravitrophism?
A) embryonic shoot B) cotyledon
C) seed coat D) root system E) embryo
57) During germination, which cellular structure will exhibit positive gravitrophism and grow downward?
A) embryonic root B) embryonic shoot
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C) cotyledon D) shoot E) seed nucleus
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A) cytokinins B) gibberellins
C) auxin D) ethylene E) abscisic acid
59) Which cellular structure enables a root cell to grow downward?
A) amyloplast B) chromoplast
60)
Which fruit is most likely to be dispersed by the wind?
A) dandelion B) apples
61)
C) auxin D) chloroplast E) nucleus
C) walnut D) cocklebur E) cherry
What is the actual site of double fertilization?
A) ovule B) ovary
C) embryo sac D) anther E) stigma
62) Which of the following is an advantage of genetically engineered plants?
A) increased yield B) herbicide resistance C) drought tolerance D) disease protection
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E) All of the above are advantages of genetically engineered plants.
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63) Which of the following structures is used by strawberry plants during asexual reproduction?
A) stolon B) rhizome
C) tuber D) corm E) ovary
64) Which of the following pharmaceutical products can be produced by genetically modified plants?
A) antigens B) antibodies C) hormones
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D) therapeutic proteins E) All of these are produced by plants.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 21 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) B 12) D 13) E 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) E 18) A 19) B Version 1
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20) D 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) B 37) E 38) C 39) C 40) D Version 1
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41) D 42) C 43) A 44) E 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) E 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A Version 1
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62) E 63) A 64) E
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21
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Glands are often composed of muscle tissue. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Ligaments are made up of loose fibrous connective tissue. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Blood is classified as connective tissue because of its fluid matrix called plasma. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) The urinary system and respiratory system both participate in homeostasis by removing metabolic waste. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) To enter the body, substances have to pass through connective tissue cells to reach the tissues beneath. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) Homeostasis maintains various levels within a narrow range only if environmental conditions do not fluctuate much. ⊚
true
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⊚
false
1
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) If the lymphatic system did not function correctly,
A) fluids would collect within body tissue. B) oxygen would not reach all the cells of the body. C) urea would build up in the liver.
D) nutrients would not reach the liver. E) carbon dioxide would not reach the lungs.
8) The digestive, respiratory, and urinary systems are similar in that they all help maintain
A) fluid level in the blood. B) constant temperature in the body. C) balance of substances in the blood.
D) oxygen levels in the blood. E) control of the other body systems.
9) The nervous system and endocrine system control the body's functions by
A) B) hormones. C) D)
maintaining a constant level of nerve impulses. sending out messages by nerve impulse and
E) maintaining a constant level of hormones in the blood.
responding only to the internal environment. stimulating the body's reproductive organs.
10) If your body is dehydrated, the control center in the brain will stimulate the release of a hormone which causes the reabsorption of water into the blood during urine formation. When the control center senses that enough water is reabsorbed, it will stop the release of the hormone. This is an example of
A) Version 1
a negative feedback mechanism.
B) a positive feedback mechanism.
2
C) response to external stimuli. D) lack of control over homeostasis. E) a combination of negative and positive feedback.
11) Environmental air temperature can fluctuate many degrees during the course of a day. A human's body temperature
A) can also fluctuate many degrees. B) is lowered by shivering. C) must be maintained within a range of a few degrees. D) is not maintained internally but fluctuates with
the air temperature. E) is raised by sweating and dilation of blood vessels in the skin.
12) List the levels of organization of the body from simple to complex. 1. organ system2. organism3. tissue4. organ5. cell
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
C) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 D) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 E) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
13) Which of the following lists the levels of biological organization in order from simplest to most complex?
A) cell, cardiac muscle, heart, cardiovascular system, human B) cardiac muscle, cell, human, heart, cardiovascular system C) human, heart, cardiovascular system, cardiac muscle, cell
14)
D) cell, heart, human, cardiovascular system, cardiac muscle E) heart, human, cell, cardiac muscle, cardiovascular system
Which of the following is true about epithelial tissue?
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3
A) covers body surfaces B) generally one cell layer thick C) allows for gas exchange in the lungs
D) contains cubeshaped cells E) All of the above are true.
15) Which of the following would be most likely to occur if the sweat glands failed to be activated in response to an increased body temperature as shown in the figure?
A) The body temperature would continue to increase. B) The body temperature would decrease. C) The signal to the control center that the set point had exceeded would stop being sent. D) The signal from the control center to the blood
16)
vessels and sweat glands would stop being sent. E) The blood vessels would constrict.
The ability of epithelial tissue to constantly divide
A) is a disadvantage in areas of the body where tissue undergoes a lot of wear and tear, such as the digestive tract. B) makes epithelial tissue more likely to become Version 1
cancerous than other tissues. C) results in an inability to replace damaged tissue.
4
D) makes it similar to nervous tissue. E) makes it an unsuitable tissue type for the outer
layer of skin.
17) Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they are both
A) under voluntary control. B) under involuntary control. C) made of highly branched cells.
18)
D) striated. E) made of long parallel cells.
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A)
columnar epithelium - forms outer layers of skin
E) transitional epithelium - lines the bladder
B) squamous epithelium - lines blood vessels C) pseudostratified epithelium - lines the trachea D) cuboidal epithelium - lines kidney tubules
19) If blood sugar levels drop below normal, the system is primarily responsible for returning levels to normal.
A) digestive B) urinary
C) reproductive D) lymphatic E) skeletal
20) The system is the only system in which there are different organs in males and females.
A) reproductive B) integumentary
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C) muscular D) cardiovascular E) digestive
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21)
The respiratory system would respond to a change in
A) oxygen levels only. B) blood sugar levels. C) the body's fluid levels.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide levels. E) body temperature.
22) Columnar cells with small projections called microvilli that line the intestine are a type of D) squamous A) muscle tissue. B) epithelial tissue. C) connective tissue.
tissue. E)
nervous tissue.
23) Which of the following is a characteristic of squamous epithelium?
A) lining or covering tissue B) flattened cells C) adhere to one another D) may be found in multiple layers
24)
E) All of the above are characteristics of squamous epithelium.
Which of the following best describes skin?
A) pseudostratified columnar epithelium B) columnar epithelium C) stratified epithelium
D) transitional epithelium E) cuboidal epithelium
25) What is the distinctive characteristic of connective tissue? A) flat,
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interconnected cells B) presence of a matrix C) presence of axons D) contractile ability
26)
Collagen fibers and elastic fibers are produced by
A) squamous epithelium. B) neuroglia.
27)
E) being hard and mineralized
C) fibroblasts. D) platelets. E) adipose.
Which of the following is a function of the blood?
A) stores fat B) moves the body C) transports nutrients
D) lines body cavities E) produces mucus
28) White blood cells are different from red blood cells in that white blood cells
A) have nuclei. B) carry oxygen. C) contain hemoglobin. D) are actually cell fragments.
E) are the most plentiful type of cell in blood.
29) What system removes waste products from the blood and maintains water balance?
A) cardiovascular B) urinary
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C) respiratory D) lymphatic E) skeletal
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30)
carry signals to the cell body of a neuron, while carry signals away from the cell body.
A) Neuroglia; dendrites B) Axons; dendrites C) Intercalated disks; neuroglia
31)
Dendrites;
E) neuroglia
dendrites;
axons
Movement of body parts directly requires the
A) muscular system and skeletal system. B) nervous system and endocrine system. C) skeletal system and digestive system. D) muscular system and cardiovascular system.
32)
D)
E) endocrine system and nervous system.
Within a negative feedback loop,
A) the sensor sends data directly to a muscle. B) the sensor sends data to the control center. C) the control center detects a change in the internal environment. D) the sensor causes an effector to return conditions
to normal. E) the stimulus sends data to the control center.
33) Groups of similar cells and the surrounding materials that work together to perform a specific function are
A) organelles. B) tissues.
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C) molecules. D) organs. E) organ systems.
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A) respiratory B) integumentary
35)
C) digestive D) urinary E) muscular
Which body system produces red blood cells?
A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic
C) skeletal D) muscular E) endocrine
36) Which body system and its organs are incorrectly matched?
A) digestive - mouth, stomach, intestines B) lymphatic - thymus, vessels, nodes C) endocrine - mouth, lungs, pituitary D) reproductive - ovaries, testes, uterus
E) cardiovascular - heart, blood, blood vessels
37) Mucus-producing glands found within simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelium are comprised of
A) mucus cells. B) areolar cells.
C) apocrine cells. D) goblet cells. E) fibroblasts.
38) Which of the following is/are a characteristic(s) of epithelial tissue?
A) secretion, absorption, protection B) contraction Version 1
C) cushioning and insulation D) supporting 9
E)
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storage
10
39) In the figure shown here, "2" represents move(s) into the blood from the digestive tract.
, which
D) carbon A) nutrients B) oxygen C) metabolic wastes
dioxide E) indigestible food particles
40) Most metabolic wastes leave the body through the production of by the .
A) urine; urinary system B) feces; digestive system C) carbon dioxide; respiratory system
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D) urine; digestive system E) carbon dioxide; urinary system
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A) their ability to regenerate B) the matrix formed outside the cells C) their storage of glycogen D) their ability to stretch
E) their ability to generate electrical impulses
42) Which of the following lists the types of connective tissue from least rigid to most rigid?
A) hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous - bone - blood B) blood - loose fibrous - hyaline cartilage - bone C) loose fibrous - blood - bone - hyaline cartilage D) bone - hyaline cartilage - blood - loose fibrous
43)
E) blood - bone hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous
Which of the following is an incorrect match? D)
A) adipose tissue - fat storage B) hyaline cartilage - flexible support C) dense fibrous connective tissue - protective covering
bone - rigid
support E) blood transport of oxygen
44) If damaged, which tissue type will not be able to conduct an impulse?
A) nervous B) epithelial
45)
C) connective D) muscular E) columnar
Which cell type supports and nourishes the neurons?
A) neuroglia B) axon
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C) dendrites D) epithelial cells E) platelets
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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
46) Using the figure shown here as a guide, answer the following questions about the situation described. Jane dives into a swimming pool to retrieve a diving ring from the bottom, holding her breath the whole time she is underwater. This act causes an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in her blood. As she surfaces, chemoreceptors in certain major arteries detect the change from normal. These receptors cause impulses to be sent to the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata sends impulses to the diaphragm and muscles between the ribs causing more frequent and more forceful inhalations and exhalations. This in turn causes a decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.
46.1)
The stimulus in this scenario is
A) the increase in carbon dioxide concentration in Jane's blood while she is holding her breath. B) the impulses sent to the medulla oblongata. Version 1
C) the more frequent inhalations and exhalations. D) the decrease in 13
carbon dioxide concentration as she breathes more forcefully. E) Jane diving into the swimming pool.
46.2) The medulla oblongata acts as the this example of negative feedback.
in
A) sensor B) stimulus C) control center
46.3) Which of the following will happen as a result of the decrease in concentration of carbon dioxide in the
A)
Jane's rate of breathing will continue to increase.
B) The signal from the chemoreceptors will stop being sent. C) The medulla will send more frequent impulses to the diaphragm and rib muscles. D) The signal from the chemoreceptors will be sent
47) The police were called by a citizen whose dog had dug up animal remains. The remains were sent to a forensic lab for identification. The first step was to properly prepare the tissue to view under a microscope. Sample one showed tissue composed of cube-shaped cells tightly packed together. Sample two showed tissue composed of branched cells with
47.1)
A) Version 1
D) effect E) response to the stimulus
blood at the end of the scenario? more strongly. E) The diaphragm and rib muscles will contract more forcefully.
dark bands running across the cells. There were also darkly stained disk-like structures connecting the cells.
The tissue in sample one can be identified as
cuboidal epithelium.
B) skeletal muscle.
14
C) bone. D) pseudostratified epithelium.
E) squamous epithelium.
47.2) A possible location in the body for the tissues in sample one is the
A) kidneys. B) intestines.
47.3)
The tissue in sample two can be identified as
A) cardiac muscle. B) skeletal muscle. C) columnar epithelium.
47.4)
D) adipose tissue. E) loose fibrous connective tissue.
The source in the body of sample two is
A) the heart. B) a skeletal muscle. C) a tendon or ligament.
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C) brain. D) skin. E) trachea.
D) the stomach. E) the lungs.
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48)
48.1) In the figure shown here, the tissue indicated by "2" is
A) dense fibrous connective tissue. B) skeletal muscle. C) adipose.
D) loose fibrous connective tissue. E) bone.
48.2) In the figure shown here, the tissue indicated by "1" is
A) characterized by a mineralized matrix. B) the primary component of the fetal skeleton. C) filled with coarse collagen fibers.
48.3) by "3"
In the figure shown here, the tissue indicated
A) lends strength to and supports the joint. B) cushions the bones of the joint. C) attaches muscle to the bones. D) provides a smooth surface on the ends of bones.
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D) storing fat. E) a type of epithelial tissue.
E) causes the movement of the joint.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 22 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) E 13) A 14) E 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) A Version 1
18
20) A 21) D 22) B 23) E 24) C 25) B 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) A 40) A Version 1
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41) A 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) Section Break 46.1) A 46.2) C 46.3) B 47) Section Break 47.1) A 47.2) A 47.3) A 47.4) A 48) Section Break 48.1) A 48.2) B 48.3) B
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) In order for cells in multicellular organisms to exchange gases, a circulatory system must be present. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) The two large lymphatic ducts deliver lymph to the subclavian veins. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Formation of plaques in atherosclerosis can lead to hypertension, blood clots, stroke, and heart attacks. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) When red blood cells are destroyed, the heme molecule is returned to the bone marrow to be used again. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) A leak in a blood vessel is closed first by platelets and then by fibrin threads. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) Mammal blood serves to transport substances to and from the capillary beds.
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1
⊚
true
⊚
false
7) One of the functions of blood is to help regulate body temperature. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8) Which statement is true about the arterial end of a capillary?
A) The blood pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure, causing water to leave the bloodstream. B) The blood pressure is lower than the osmotic pressure, causing water to leave the bloodstream. C) The blood pressure is higher than the osmotic pressure, causing water to enter the bloodstream. D) The blood pressure is equal to the osmotic
9)
pressure, causing water to leave the bloodstream. E) The blood pressure is equal to the osmotic pressure, causing water to enter the bloodstream.
In an open circulatory system,
A) hemolymph enters the heart via ostia. B) blood leaves the heart via venules. C) the heart has two or more chambers. D) nutrients are exchanged across the walls of
capillaries. E) blood is pumped into cavities called ventricles.
10) A four-chambered heart, veins, arteries, and capillaries are found in
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2
A) all closed circulatory systems. B) some closed circulatory systems. C) some open circulatory systems.
D) all open circulatory systems. E) mammals only.
11) The pulmonary circuit in a closed circulatory system functions in
A) nutrient absorption from the intestine. B) gas exchange in the lungs. C) waste disposal in the kidneys. D) creating proper blood pressure.
E) distribution of nutrients to the body tissues.
12) A major evolutionary change between thefishcirculatory system and the circulatory systemsofamphibians, birds, and mammalians is the presence of a
A) separate pulmonary circuit in fish. B) two-chambered heart in amphibians, birds, and mammals. C) double-loop pathway in amphibians, birds, and mammals.
D) stronger atria in amphibians, birds, and mammals. E) fourchambered heart in fish.
13) In animals with four-chambered hearts, the left ventricle
A) is larger as it pumps blood to the entire body. B) is larger as it pumps blood in the pulmonary circuit. C) pumps blood to the lungs.
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D) pumps blood to both the lungs and the body. E) pumps deoxygenated blood.
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14)
A heart murmur is caused by
A) blocked arteries to the heart muscle. B) loss of oxygen to the left atrium. C) faulty semilunar valves.
D) faulty atrioventricular valves. E) an irregular heartbeat.
15) Which of the following is true about atrioventricular valves? valves. A)
One is found at the entrance to the pulmonary
trunk. B) Their closing causes the second, shorter "dub" sound of the heartbeat. C) They are also known as the triscupid and bicuspid
16)
In the cardiac cycle, diastole is the
A) relaxation of heart muscle. B) contraction of the atria. C) closing of the atrioventricular valves.
17)
D) opening of the semilunar valves. E) contraction of the ventricles.
If the sinoatrial node fails in the heart,
A) the heart ceases to beat. B) the ventricles will beat at a higher rate. C) an artificial pacemaker can correct the problem.
18)
D) One is found at the entrance to the aorta. E) They are composed of three halfmoon shaped flaps.
D) the heartbeat is unaffected. E) the atria will not contract.
Blood pressure A) is highest
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4
when the heart relaxes. B) can decrease because of atherosclerosis. C) can be lowered by the constriction of arterioles. D) is considered high when it is above 100/70 mm Hg.
E) contributes to movement of substances from the blood into the tissues.
19) Which of the following statements is an inacurrate statement regarding the movement of blood through capillary beds?
A) Cold temperatures will cause the opening of sphincters to capillary beds in the skin. B) Eating will cause the opening of sphincters to capillary beds in the digestive tract. C) Exercise will cause the opening of sphincters to capillary beds in skeletal muscles. D) When the sphincters leading to a capillary bed
20)
Blood in veins is
A) moved by the contraction of the muscles in the walls of the veins. B) moved away from the heart by skeletal muscle contraction. C) usually high in oxygen. D) moved away from the heart with the help of the
21)
are closed, the blood passes through a shunt. E) Red blood cells move through the capillaries in single file.
valves within the veins. E) moved toward the heart by skeletal muscle contraction.
Pulmonary arteries take
A) O 2-poor blood to the lungs. B) O 2-rich blood to the lungs. C) O 2-rich blood to the body.
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D) O 2-poor blood to the right atrium. E) O 2-poor blood to the body.
5
22)
The vessel that leaves the heart, taking O 2-rich blood
A) is large in diameter with a thick muscle and elastic layer. B) is called the pulmonary trunk. C) has many valves along its length to assist in blood flow.
to the body, D) is comprised of a single layer of thin epithelial cells. E) is called the superior vena cava.
23) If blood is blocked from reaching the heart muscle and it results in chest pain,
A) this indicates a heart attack has occurred due to the lack of oxygen to part of the heart muscle. B) it is called angina pectoris. C) this indicates a heart attack has occurred due to a stroke.
D) the likely cause is a heart murmur. E) a probable treatment is a blood transfusion.
24) Taking up fat from digested foods along with excess tissue fluid and returning it to cardiovascular veins is a function of the D) A) circulatory system. B) systemic circuit. C) lymphatic system.
pulmonary
circuit. E) arteries.
cardiovascular
25) The osmotic pressure and buffering capacity of the blood is maintained by the D) white blood A) red blood cells. B) plasma. C) lymph.
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cells. E) platelets.
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26)
For which of the following is iron required?
A) Iron stimulates formation of lymph. B) Iron forms part of hemoglobin, which transports oxygen. C) Iron prevents destruction of red blood cells.
27) both
D) Iron prevents plaque formation in arteries. E) Iron forms part of white blood cells.
Neutrophils and monocytes are similar in that they
A) are types of erythrocytes. B) result in phagocytized pathogens. C) produce antibodies in response to pathogens.
D) release kinins which attract platelets. E) are responsible for specific immunity.
28) You are a doctor and an individual comes into your office. During the routine exam, you listen to the patient's heart sounds and notice that the first heart sound or "lub" is not as sharp or crisp as it should be. Your diagnosis of the patient's condition is
A) atherosclerosis. B) a heart murmur. C) angina pectoris.
D) thromboembolism. E) hypertension.
29) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about platelets?
A) They form clumps in leaks in blood vessels. B) They produce prothrombin activator. C) They contract within a clot. D) They phagocytize pathogens.
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E) They are actual fragments of a larger type of cell.
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30)
The presence of salts and plasma proteins in
A) a greater osmotic pressure than blood pressure at the arterial end. B) diffusion of water into the body tissues. C) greater osmotic pressure in the blood than in body tissues.
capillaries causes D) slower flow of blood through capillaries. E) water to move out of the blood capillary at the venous end.
31) Which one of the following statements is true about animals that do not have circulatory systems?
A) They do not have tissues and organs. B) They may rely on diffusion for the transfer of gases, nutrients, and wastes. C) There are no animals without circulatory systems. D) They tend to have large bodies.
E) The body cells are typically distant from the source of the oxygen, so the gas has to diffuse through several layers to reach all cells.
32) In the figure shown here, the blood in the chamber indicated by the arrow marked with "X"
A) is a mixture of Version 1
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O 2-poor and O 2-rich blood. B) is poor in oxygen. C) is rich in oxygen. D) will all be pumped to the lungs.
E) will all be pumped to the systemic capillaries of the body.
33) The advantage of the double-loop circulatory pathway of some vertebrates over the single-loop circulatory pathway of fish is that
A) the blood is put back under pressure after picking up oxygen in the respiratory organ. B) all the O 2-rich blood is pumped to the systemic arteries of the body. C) the O 2-rich blood and O 2-poor blood mixes in
the single ventricle. D) the ventricle acts as a strong pump. E) the atria act as receiving chambers.
34) In the figure shown here, the top ECG shown is normal. What condition does the bottom ECG indicate?
C) hypertension A) ventricular fibrillation B) a heart murmur
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9
D) stroke E) angina pectoris
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10
35) Which of the following correctly gives the orders of events in a cardiac cycle?
A) atria contract, ventricles contract, AV valves close, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close B) ventricles contract, AV valves close, atria contract, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close C) ventricles relax, atria contract, ventricles relax, AV valves close, semilunar valves close D) AV valves close, ventricles relax, atria contract,
semilunar valves close, ventricles contract E) ventricles contract, atria contract, AV valves close, ventricles relax, semilunar valves close
36) Which blood vessel within the systemic circulatory system will connect the digestive tract and the liver?
A) hepatic portal vein B) hepatic vein C) pulmonary trunk
D) aorta E) renal vein
37) The blood vessels to the lungs and back are collectively known as the
A) pulmonary circulation. B) systemic circulation. C) lymphatic system.
38)
D) portal system. E) oxygen exchange system.
The function of the lymphatic system is to D) collect tissue
A) collect O 2-rich blood from below the heart and return it to the right atrium. B) carry blood from the heart to the tissues of the body. C) collect tissue fluid and return it to the subclavian veins. Version 1
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fluid and return it to the aorta. E) collect O 2-poor blood from above the heart and return it to the right atrium.
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39) Which of the following collects all the venous blood from below the heart?
A) pulmonary artery B) renal vein C) hepatic portal vein
40) You are a doctor and a patient comes to you for a checkup. He expresses that his father recently had a heart attack brought on by atherosclerosis. He wants to know what he should do to lower his risk of also having a heart attack.
A) Do not be concerned about your weight. B) Keep exercise to a minimum. C) Decrease the amount of fruits and vegetables in your diet.
D) aorta E) inferior vena cava
Which of the following statements might you make to him?
D) Decrease the amount of saturated fat and cholesterol in your diet. E) Smoking does not contribute to your risk.
41) Both a coronary bypass operation and a stent insertion procedure are treatments used for which of the following conditions?
A) blockage of a coronary artery B) hypertension C) anemia
D) heart murmur E) ventricular defibrillation
42) One of the side effects of chemotherapy is lack of energy due to anemia. Why might erythropoietin be prescribed for a cancer patient undergoing chemotherapy?
A) Erythropoietin treats the anemia by stimulating the production of white blood cells. B) Erythropoietin treats the anemia by stimulating Version 1
the production of red blood cells. C) Erythropoietin prevents the destruction of 13
red blood cells, preventing the anemia. D) Erythropoietin prevents the destruction of white blood cells, preventing the anemia. E) Erythropoietin treats the anemia by stimulating
the production of platelets.
43) Because of the nature of platelets, having a low platelet count can be cause for concern if which of the following were to occur? D) a diet deficient A) a deep cut B) a bacterial infection C) a viral infection
44)
E) a parasitic worm infection
A neutrophil is a type of
A) white blood cell. B) red blood cell. C) platelet.
45)
in iron
D) erythrocyte. E) cardiac muscle cell.
A neutrophil
A) fights disease. B) forms a plug in damaged blood vessels. C) carries oxygen in the blood. D) releases clotting factors which stimulate the
formation of a blood clot. E) carries carbon dioxide in the blood.
46) Which of the following features are incorrectly matched with the type of blood vessel in which it is found?
A) well-developed middle layer with smooth muscle and elastic tissue - arteries B) narrow, microscopic tubes of endothelium -
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capillaries C) valves are present insuring one-way flow of blood - veins
14
D) thick, well-developed walls due to the presence of a thick layer of smooth muscle - veins E) formed from capillaries and join to form veins -
venules
47) Which of the following statements is correct about the function of the pulmonary circulatory system?
A) The pulmonary system is responsible for adding oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the red blood cells. B) The systemic system is responsible for adding oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the red blood cells. C) The pulmonary system is responsible for adding carbon dioxide and removing oxygen from the red blood cells. D) The pulmonary system is responsible for adding
48) A lower-than-normal level of increased clotting time.
oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the white blood cells. E) The pulmonary system is responsible for adding oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the platelets.
can result in an
A) platelets B) basophils
C) neutrophils D) erythrocytes E) lymphocytes
49) Which of the following statements is true about the majority of arteries in the body?
A) Arteries transport blood toward the heart and contain a thick wall of smooth muscle. B) Arteries transport blood toward the heart and contain a thin wall of smooth muscle. C) Arteries transport blood away from the heart and contain a thick wall of smooth muscle. D) Arteries transport blood away from the heart and
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contain a thick wall of skeletal muscle. E) Arteries transport blood away from the heart and contain a thick wall of cardiac muscle.
15
50)
Which organism has an open circulatory system?
A) grasshopper B) frog
51) In organisms that lack a circulatory system, what is the most common method of exchanging nutrients from the
A) diffusion B) osmosis C) absorption
C) eagle D) human E) shark
external environment to the body? D) swallowing them whole E) engulfing them into their stomach
52) Which substances do not exit the capillary in order to enter the tissue fluid?
A) red blood cells B) amino acids
53)
C) oxygen D) glucose E) water
Which of the following is a function of blood?
A) transport substances B) defend the body against infection C) regulate body temperature
D) form clots E) All are functions of blood.
54) Which substance will always leave the tissue fluid and enter the capillary and eventually leave the body?
A) carbon dioxide B) glucose
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C) oxygen D) amino acids E) water
16
55)
What is the first step in the formation of a blood clot?
A) The platelets form a plug. B) Prothrombin activator is released. C) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin. D) Fibrin threads are formed.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
E) Red blood cells are trapped in fibrin threads.
56)
56.1) Which structure is the letter Z pointing to in the diagram?
A) pulmonary trunk B) septum C) left atrium
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D) right ventricle E) superior vena cava
17
A) is rich in oxygen. B) is poor in oxygen. C) will next enter the left atrium.
D) has come from the pulmonary veins. E) has come from the aorta.
57)
57.1) The portion of whole blood indicated by "C" in the figure shown here
A) represents 60% of the sample and is composed of leukocytes and platelets. B) represents 45% of the sample and is composed of plasma. C) represents 60% of the sample and is composed of erythrocytes. D) represents 55% of the sample and is composed of
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plasma. E) represents 45% of the sample and is composed of erythrocytes.
18
A) is composed of formed elements, mostly platelets. B) is a fluid and contains nutrients, gases, proteins, and ions. C) is composed of formed elements, mostly white
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blood cells. D) is 100% water. E) carries most of the oxygen in the blood.
19
Answer Key Test name: Chapter 23 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) E 19) A Version 1
20
20) E 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) E 40) D Version 1
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41) A 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) E 54) A 55) A 56) Section Break 56.1) B 56.2) B 57) Section Break 57.1) E 57.2) B Version 1
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23
Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Each red blood cell contains about 250 million hemoglobin molecules and so can carry at least one billion molecules of oxygen. ⊚
true
⊚
2)
Ammonia helps maintain the optimal pH of urine.
⊚
true
⊚
false
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 3) Which of the following events will cause problems
with the body's ability to exchange gasses between the blood and tissue fluid?
A) an increase in the blood pH due to smoking B) getting into a car accident and bruising your ribs on the steering wheel C) getting a piece of meat lodged within your windpipe and not being able to breathe
D) being congested due to a sinus infection E) playing football and getting the wind knocked out of you
4) tract
Hair within the nose and cilia lining the respiratory
A) moisten the air before it enters the lungs. B) prevent particles from entering the lungs. C) help oxygen move into the lungs. D) help carbon dioxide leave the lungs.
5)
E) help carbon dioxide move into the lungs.
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
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1
A) larynx - contains vocal cords B) pharynx - connects nasal and oral cavities to larynx
D) glottis opening to the larynx E) epiglottis covers the glottis
C) sinuses - remove dust particles from the air
6) The functional unit of the lungs where gas exchange occurs is the
A) alveolus. B) bronchiole.
C) sinus. D) glottis. E) trachea.
7) Increasing the size of the thoracic cavity through contraction of the diaphragm and rib muscles causes
A) an inhalation. B) an exhalation. C) coughing.
D) positive pressure in the lungs. E) swallowing.
8) The mechanism by which oxygen moves into capillaries from alveoli is
A) active transport. B) facilitated transport. C) diffusion.
D) osmosis. E) secondary active transport.
9) Emphysema occurs when the walls of the alveoli are destroyed, reducing surface area for gas exchange. This condition impacts the
A)
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upper respiratory system more than the lower.
B) upper respiratory system as much
2
as the lower. C) sinuses. D) lower respiratory system more than the upper.
10)
E) trachea only.
Most carbon dioxide is carried in the blood
A) as bicarbonate ion formed from carbonic acid in the plasma. B) causing the pH to increase. C) within the plasma.
D) bonded with hemoglobin. E) bonded with oxygen.
11) Which of the following is the correct path urine follows from internal structures to outside the body?
A) renal cortex - urethra - urinary bladder - ureter B) urinary bladder - renal pelvis - ureter - urethra C) renal pelvis - ureter - urinary bladder - urethra D) ureter - renal pelvis - urinary bladder - urethra
E) ureter - urinary bladder - renal pelvis urethra
12) A genetic defect causes the distal tubules of nephrons to malfunction. Which of the following may not occur during urine formation?
A) reabsorption of water and glucose B) secretion of larger molecules which may be toxic C) secretion of urea
13)
D) reabsorption of amino acids E) reabsorption of hydrogen ion
In which structure does urine formation begin?
A) collecting duct B) proximal tubule C) nephron loop
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D)
glomerular
E)
distal tubule
capsule
3
14) During urine formation, it is important for sodium and chloride ions to be reabsorbed into the bloodstream so that
A) urea can be secreted. B) some water will be reabsorbed through osmosis. C) some glucose reabsorption will occur.
D) needed amino acids will be reabsorbed. E) the pH of the blood is maintained.
15) The nephron of mammals and Malpighian tubules of insects are both involved in water and salt balance. They are
also similar in that they are both
A) involved in elimination of nitrogenous wastes. B) involved in the elimination of digestive wastes. C) attached to the digestive system.
D) attached to the respiratory system. E) found in the kidneys.
16) Which of the following statements does not apply to edema?
A) It can lead to heart failure. B) It is the retention of water and salts. C) It is an imbalance in the ionic composition of body fluids.
D) It can result from kidney failure. E) It results in kidney stones if uncorrected.
17) In hemodialysis, wastes normally collected by the kidney D)
are actively
A) diffuse through artificial or natural semipermeable membranes. B) are pumped through a series of filters. C) are diluted by adding dialysate from bags attached to the abdomen.
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4
transported through natural membranes in the abdomen. E) are diluted by a transfusion of blood lower in wastes.
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18) During respiration in fish, what percentage of dissolved oxygen is absorbed?
A) 100% B) 95–99%
C) 80–90% D) 70–80% E) 60–70%
19) Which of the following is the correct pathway of air into the lungs to the site of gas exchange?
A) nasal cavity - pharynx - larynx - trachea - bronchi - bronchioles - alveoli B) bronchi - pharynx - larynx - trachea - nasal cavity - bronchioles - alveoli C) bronchi - pharynx - trachea - nasal cavity bronchioles - alveoli - larynx D) nasal cavity - alveoli - bronchioles - bronchi -
20)
trachea - larynx - pharynx E) pharynx trachea - nasal cavity bronchioles - alveoli larynx - bronchi
The tracheal system of insects
A)
helps remove metabolic wastes from their bodies.
B) makes a respiratory pigment in their hemolymph unnecessary. C) relies on the expansion and contraction of the body wall to move air into and out of the system.
D) is limited to the posterior end of the body. E) digests food and distributes nutrients to the body.
21) Muscular dystrophy affects the functioning of skeletal muscle. As this disease advances, it can impair the contraction of the diaphragm and the muscles of the rib cage. What effect
will this have on the ability of people with this disease to carry out gas exchange?
A) It will decrease their ability to exchange air into and out of the lungs, decreasing gas exchange.
B) It will have no effect on their ability to carry out gas exchange.
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6
C) It will cause a buildup of mucus in their respiratory tract, decreasing gas exchange. D) It will lower the surface area for gas exchange, decreasing gas exchange.
E) It will decrease the ability to exhale but the ability to inhale will be unaffected.
22) You are at your cousin's high school graduation party. The only thing good to drink is lemonade. You end up staying at the party for a long time, drinking four large glasses of lemonade. What would you expect to happen to your urine production? urine. A)
You will produce an increased amount of dilute
urine. B) You will produce an increased amount of concentrated urine. C) You will produce a decreased amount of concentrated urine. D) You will produce a decreased amount of dilute
23)
E) You will produce a typical amount of urine; the lemonade will not have any noticeable impact on your urine production.
In reference to fish respiration,
A)
gills are thick lobes of tissue with little blood
supply. B) gills are used to rid the body of nitrogenous wastes similar to the kidneys in humans. C) about 80–90% of dissolved oxygen in the water is absorbed by the skin. D) blood flows through the gills in the same
24) In order for the body to stay in homeostasis, it must maintain the water-salt balance. Which system is responsible
direction that water flows over them. E) gases are exchanged between the lamellae of the gills and the water.
for maintaining this feature? C) respiratory
A) urinary system B) digestive system Version 1
system D) cardiovascular
7
system E)
integumentary system
25) Which event occurs during inspiration but not expiration?
A) The rib cage moves out and up. B) The diaphragm relaxes and moves up. C) Pressure in the lungs increases.
D) Air is pushed out of the lungs. E) The rib cage moves down and inward.
26) Which organisms use Malpighian tubules to excrete uric acid?
A) insects B) humans
C) birds D) fish E) None of these.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
27)
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27.1) The figure shown represents urine formation. What specific process is occurring at #2?
A) secretion B) filtration
C) reabsorption D) excretion E) urination
27.2) The figure shown represents urine formation. Substances which move from the blood into the filtrate at #3 include
A) glucose. B) amino acids.
C) sodium ions. D) chloride ions. E) hydrogen ions.
28.1)
here,
28)
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At the area labeled "A" in the figure shown
9
A) O 2 and CO 2 enter the lungs. B) O 2 and CO 2 leave the lungs. C) O 2 enters the lungs and CO 2 leaves the lungs. D) CO 2 enters the lungs and CO 2 leaves the
28.2)
lungs. E) nutrients move into the body and CO 2 leaves the body.
In the figure shown here, "E" represents
A) external respiration—the exchange of gases between the body tissues and the blood. B) external respiration—the exchange of gases between the blood and the air in the lungs. C) internal respiration—the exchange of gases between the body tissues and the blood. D) internal respiration—the exchange of gases between the blood and the air in the lungs.
E) external respiration—the exchange of gases between the air in the lungs and the outside.
29)
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10
A) where blood is filtered to form urine. B) the area where urine formed by nephrons is collected. C) where arterial blood is brought into the kidneys.
D) the renal cortex. E) the renal medulla.
29.2) In the figure shown here, the structure indicated by the letter "E"
A) carries urine to the urinary bladder. B) carries urine to the outside of the body. C) returns filtered blood to the systemic circulation. D) further alters the composition of the urine formed
by the nephrons. E) empties urine from the renal medulla.
29.3) In the figure shown here, the letter "A" represents
A) a renal pyramid. B) the cortex.
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C) a column. D) a renal pelvis. E) a nephron.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 24 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) E 17) A 18) C 19) A Version 1
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20) B 21) A 22) A 23) E 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) Section Break 27.1) C 27.2) E 28) Section Break 28.1) C 28.2) C 29) Section Break 29.1) B 29.2) A 29.3) A
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Scientific testing has not been performed on many herbal supplements. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Essential amino acids are obtained only from animal proteins. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Cholesterol can be synthesized by the body and is found in certain foods. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) A person's total daily intake of water must be obtained through drinking liquids. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Obesity increases the risk of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. ⊚
true
⊚
false
6) Dietary supplements are safe to use due to the governmental testing they go through before they are approved for sale. Version 1
1
⊚
true
⊚
false
7) Ruminants have a stomach that enables them to digest cellulose. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) The longer digestive tract of herbivores is necessary to complete digestion of plant material. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Fats are absorbed by the epithelial cells of villi in the intestinal tract and enter the capillary beds of the circulatory system. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A) are always safe because they are natural. B) can be harmful. C) can accumulate to toxic levels. D) can be harmful and accumulate to toxic levels.
11)
10) Dietary supplements E) are regulated by the federal government.
The best definition of a nutrient is
A) any food taken into the body. B) a food component which performs a
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physiological function in the body. C) a food
2
component which can be stored in the body for future energy needs. D) an essential vitamin or mineral.
E) a food component which enhances one's health.
12) Bleeding gums and easy bruising of the skin can be symptoms of a deficiency disorder involving
A) vitamin D. B) vitamin A.
13)
Energy needs are supplied by
A) carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. B) micronutrients. C) antioxidants.
14)
C) lipids. D) vitamin C. E) potassium.
D) fiber. E) essential amino acids.
Micronutrients
A) supply the body's energy needs. B) are needed in large quantities. C) include lipids and proteins.
D) include vitamins and minerals. E) include carbohydrates.
15) Nutrients that are deemed to be "essential" are those which
A) the body is not able to produce. B) the body is able to produce so no food source is needed. C) are needed in very low quantities.
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D) are essential for muscle development. E) make up a large proportion of the body.
3
16)
Carbohydrates are typically broken down to
A)
maltose, the molecule stored for future energy
needs. B) fructose, the molecule stored for future energy needs. C) glucose, the molecule used as the energy source in cells.
17)
Fiber is a type of
provided by
. D) carbohydrate; animals E) protein; animals
A) fat; animals B) carbohydrate; plants C) protein; plants
18)
D) glycogen, the molecule used as the energy source in cells. E) glucose, the molecule stored for future energy needs.
Fiber is important in the diet in E) providing essential amino acids.
A) providing glucose for cells. B) stimulating movements of the large intestine. C) assisting in fat digestion in the small intestine. D) aiding absorption of fats in the small intestine.
19) Foods derived from animals typically contain while foods derived from plants typically contain
A) saturated fats; unsaturated fats B) trans fats; saturated fats C) unsaturated fats; saturated fats
, . D) saturated fats; trans fats E) unsaturated fats; trans fats
20) Version 1
Trans fats are 4
A) found naturally in all animals. B) found naturally in all plants. C) produced by hydrogenating unsaturated oils. D) produced by hydrogenating saturated fats and
21)
unsaturated oils together. E) produced by hydrogenating polysaturated fats.
Proteins must be ingested in order to obtain
A) necessary trans fats. B) essential amino acids. C) essential cholesterol. D) needed minerals such as potassium and
magnesium. E) needed vitamins such as vitamin C.
22) Adult females need more iron in their diet than males because females
A) require more red blood cells. B) require more iron to maintain eggs. C) lose hemoglobin during menstruation. D) are not as efficient in manufacturing hemoglobin.
E) are not as efficient in manufacturing red blood cells.
23) Which of the following minerals is typically overconsumed by Americans?
A) sodium B) potassium
24)
C) iron D) cholesterol E) calcium
Regulation of metabolic activities typically involves
A) cholesterol. B) water.
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C) vitamins. D) glucose. E) glycogen.
5
25) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about antioxidant vitamins?
A) They include certain water-soluble vitamins, specifically vitamin C. B) They are abundant in fruits and vegetables. C) They protect the body against free radicals. D) They include certain fat-soluble vitamins,
specifically vitamins A and E. E) They are difficult to get in the diet.
26) If a person increases his food intake without increasing his energy need for metabolic functions or processing, what will he need to do in order to maintain his weight?
A) decrease physical activity B) increase physical activity C) consume additional vitamins
D) drink additional water E) drink less water
27) Which of the following is part of a plan to maintain a healthy weight?
A) physical activity B) a kilocalorie output equal to the kilocalorie input C) appropriate intake of vitamins and minerals D) moderate intake of fats
E) All of the above are part of a plan to maintain a healthy weight.
28) In type 2 diabetes, cells become resistant to insulin because of
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A) reduced levels of glucose. B) chronically reduced levels of insulin. C) chronically high levels of insulin.
29)
D) chronically high levels of glycogen. E) chronically reduced levels of glycogen.
Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A) trans fat - margarine B) saturated fat - beef C) unsaturated fat - olive oil
D) trans fat coldwater fish E) unsaturated fat - walnut oil
30) If egg yolks are a source of cholesterol, why doesn't eating a few eggs a week raise blood cholesterol?
A) Cholesterol from eggs does not affect HDLcholesterol levels. B) The impact on LDL-cholesterol levels is greater from dietary saturated and trans fats than from cholesterol. C) Cholesterol from eggs naturally lowers LDLcholesterol levels.
31)
D) The human body produces more cholesterol than is in the two eggs. E) Cholesterol from eggs naturally raises LDL-cholesterol levels.
Eating disorders
A) are caused primarily by biological factors. B) occur only in woman. C) are caused by a combination of biological, social, and psychological factors.
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D) always involve overeating. E) rarely have serious consequences for one's health.
7
A) a starvation diet. B) a less-than-healthy body weight. C) binging and purging. D) a normal body weight.
E) an abnormal focus on muscle development.
33) The USDA recommends which type of food should compose the smallest percentage of our diet? D) A) fruits and vegetables B) fats and oils C) meat, eggs, and nuts
breads and
cereals E) dairy products
34) When looking at a food label, in order to know how many calories you will ingest, it is important to know total number of calories and
A) serving size. B) % daily value of protein. C) number of grams of fat.
35)
D) number of grams of fiber. E) % daily value of sodium.
Carbohydrates blood. A) should not comprise a large amount of the diet. B) are mostly found in animal sources of food. C) are stored as starch by animals. D) are converted to glucose for transport in the
36)
E) are stored for insulation and protection of organs.
Lipids
A) add to fecal bulk. B) regulate metabolism and physiological
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development. C) may be used to make certain hormones
8
and vitamin D. D) should be the main component of a healthy diet. E) are found only in low amounts in animal sources
of food.
37) Stephen has a family history of type 2 diabetes. He knows he should reduce the amount of sugars in his diet but is not sure how to go about it. What is some advice you might give him?
A)
Most breakfast cereals are a good way to start the
day. B) Eat white bread instead of whole wheat. C) Cooking with sugar is all right since it breaks down in the process of heating.
D) Avoid jams and jellies. E) Use honey instead of spices like cinnamon to flavor your food.
38) Which food choice below offers the healthiest fat for your heart?
A) oily fish B) red meat C) whole milk
D) cheese E) shrimp and lobster
39) Which of the following minerals is incorrectly matched with its source?
A) calcium - leafy green vegetables B) phosphorus - meat C) iodine - seafood
D) zinc - fruit E) magnesium whole grains
40) Which of the following minerals is incorrectly matched with its function in the body? A)
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potassium -
9
nerve conduction B) sulfur - component of some amino acids and vitamins C) iron - bone growth
D) sodium water balance E) copper - iron metabolism
41) A serving of food contains 9g carbohydrate, 3g protein, and 5g fat. The total calories per serving of this food is C) 93. D) 103.
A) 73. B) 83.
42) Which of the following foods is considered an emptycalorie food?
A) potato chips B) broccoli C) sweet potatoes
D) salmon E) whole-grain pasta
43) Yellow-orange and dark-green fruits and vegetables are a good source of
A) vitamin A. B) vitamin D.
44)
C) vitamin E. D) biotin. E) vitamin C.
Which of the following is a healthy body mass index?
A) 20.3 B) 26.6
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C) 29.2 D) 32.8 E) 41.5
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45)
Mark is 72 inches tall and weighs 180 pounds. His
body mass index is C) 29.8. D) 33.2. E) 35.4.
A) 24.4. B) 20.0.
46) Mark is 72 inches tall and weighs 180 pounds. According to Mark's BMI, he is D) morbidly A) at a healthy weight. B) overweight. C) moderately obese.
obese. E)
underweight.
47) Which of the following substances is incorrectly matched with its caloric value?
A) carbohydrate - 4 kcal/gram B) fat - 4 kcal/gram C) water - 0 kcal/gram
D) protein - 4 kcal/gram E) fiber - 0 kcal/gram
48) The percent daily value on a Nutrition Facts label is based on a(n)
A) diet of 2,000 calories each day. B) diet of 2,500 calories each day. C) BMI of 22.
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D) individual weighing 175 pounds. E) individual weighting 120 pounds.
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49)
One serving of the food shown on this label contains calories from protein.
A) 20 B) 5
C) 45 D) 15 E) 120
50) Which of the following correctly ranks the following food groups in order from most to least amount to be consumed each day?
A) grains, vegetables, protein, oils B) vegetables, grains, protein, oils C) grains, oils, vegetables, protein
D) oils, protein, grains, vegetables E) protein, oils, grains, vegetables
51) Ashley has been diagnosed with high blood pressure. Her doctor recommended that she try to lower the amount of sodium in her diet. What advice would you give her?
A)
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Eat canned soups; they are typically low in salt.
B) Cheese is a
12
good source of protein and calcium and is low in sodium. C) Adding salt to vegetables while cooking is all right since most of the salt pours off when you drain them. D) Use spices instead of salt to flavor food when cooking.
E) Hot dogs, bacon, and other processed meats are a good source of protein and are low in sodium.
52) A diet high in fiber may contribute to a lower chance of heart disease because
A) fiber absorbs cholesterol. B) fiber absorbs excess sugars in the bloodstream. C) fiber is capable of breaking apart clots in the bloodstream. D) fiber produces cholesterol.
53)
E) fiber promotes fecal formation which contributes to movements of the large intestine.
Which statement is correct about empty-calorie foods?
A) Empty-calorie foods have a high amount of sugar and/or fat in relation to the vitamin content. B) Empty-calorie foods have a low amount of sugar and/or fat in relation to the vitamin content. C) Empty-calorie foods have a high amount of protein in relation to the vitamin content.
54) It is midsummer and Julie was out playing softball all day. She had to leave the game early because she was not
A) Her body is dehydrated and her core body temperature is increasing. B) Her body is dehydrated and her core body temperature is decreasing. C) Her body is fatigued from all of the exercise. D) Her muscles are cramped up due to a lack of
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D) Empty-calorie foods have a high amount of vitamins in them. E) Empty-calorie foods have a high amount of fiber in them.
feeling well. What is most likely happening to Julie? calcium. E) Her aerobic conditioning was not strong enough to handle all of the exercise.
13
55) Which of the following is the least likely to contribute protein to the diet?
A) eggs B) fish
C) beans D) milk E) apples
56) Which of the following food sources would contain the least amount of fiber?
A) chicken B) beans
C) peas D) nuts E) fruits
57) During water toxication (hyponatremia), which electrolytes can become out of balance?
A) sodium and potassium B) sodium and calcium C) calcium and potassium
D) iron and magnesium E) zinc and iron
58) What criteria is used to distinguish between an emptycalorie food and a junk food?
A) Empty-calorie foods have a high sugar and/or fatto-vitamin ratio. B) Empty-calorie foods have a low sugar and/or fatto-vitamin ratio. C) Empty-calorie foods have no calories in them at all.
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D) Empty-calorie foods are made completely from artificial ingredients. E) Junk foods have a higher vitamins-tosugar ratio than emptycalorie foods.
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59) Which eating disorder is characterized by a person thinking that his or her body is underdeveloped?
A) muscle dysmorphia B) binge-eating disorder C) bulimia nervosa
D) anorexia nervosa E) type 2 diabetes
60) Which source of protein does not contain the nine essential amino acids?
A) nuts B) eggs
C) milk D) chicken E) beef
61) Which of the following pieces of nutritional information is not included on the nutritional label of a food package?
A) daily % of water available in the food B) daily % of protein available in the food C) daily % of fat available in the food
D) serving size E) calories based upon serving size
62) Which of the following is a function of the digestive system?
A) eliminate dead bacteria B) eliminate nondigestible food C) eliminate bile pigments from the breakdown of hemoglobin
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D) absorb nutrients E) All of the above are functions of the digestive system.
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A) enzymes secreted in human saliva. B) urine produced by humans. C) human teeth. D) human taste buds.
64) Starch digestion begins in the digestion begins in the .
E) enzymes secreted in human intestines.
and protein
A) mouth; small intestine B) stomach; small intestine C) mouth; stomach
D) stomach; large intestine E) small intestine; stomach
65) If an area of the stomach lining lacks mucus, it will result in
A) a bolus. B) acid reflux.
66)
C) heartburn. D) an ulcer. E) chyme.
Food in the digestive tract is called chyme after
A) the tongue mixes it with saliva. B) the stomach processes it. C) all nutrients have been absorbed by the small intestines.
D) elimination through the anus. E) it is chewed by the teeth.
67) Which of the following is in the correct order for protein digestion?
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A) pepsin - peptides - peptidase - amino acids B) peptidase - peptides - pepsin - amino acids C) peptidase - amino acids - pepsin - peptides D) amino acids - peptidase - peptides - pepsin
68)
E) peptides pepsin - peptidase - amino acids
Villi are important because they D) secrete A) produce vitamin K. B) help absorb nutrients. C) produce pepsin.
insulin. E) produce feces.
69) Which of the following is a function of the small intestine?
A) storage of indigestible material B) absorption of water C) absorption of salts
70)
Which of the following is a function of the pancreas?
A) produces plasma proteins such as fibrin and fibrinogen B) detoxifies the blood by removing poisonous substances
71)
D) absorption of vitamin K E) absorption of amino acids
C) produces insulin and glucagon D) produces bile E) produces urea from amino acids
Digestion in humans and earthworms
A) is similar in that in both organisms, digestion is an extracellular process, occurring in a complete digestive tract.
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B) is different in that earthworms have a sac plan body plan and humans have a tube-within-a-tube
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body plan. C) is different in that digestion is an extracellular process in humans but an intracellular process in earthworms. D) is similar in that in both organisms, digestion is an intracellular process, occurring in an incomplete digestive system.
E) is similar in that in both organisms, digestion occurs in a simple tract, in which all parts of the tract are similar.
72) Which of the following incorrectly pairs the enzyme and the molecule on which it acts? D) A) salivary amylase - starch B) pepsin - protein C) maltase - starch
trypsin -
protein E) pancreatic amylase - starch
73) The digestion and absorption of fats differs from that of sugars and proteins in that
A) sugars and proteins must be emulsified before being digested. B) fats are absorbed into lymphatic capillaries instead of blood capillaries. C) sugars and proteins interact with bile salts in order for absorption to occur.
D) fats are digested primarily in the stomach. E) fats do not require digestion before being absorbed.
74) Vanessa and her friends are having lunch together. Just as Vanessa takes a drink of her chocolate milk, one of her friends tells a joke. Laughing, Vanessa has some of her milk
come out of her nose. What is the explanation for this unusual event?
A) The laughter interfered with the movement of the soft palate so it did not shut off the nasal cavity. B) The laughter interfered with the movement of the epiglottis so it did not shut off the nasal cavity. C) The laughter interfered with the movement of the
epiglottis so it did not shut off the trachea. D) Vanessa has something wrong with the structure of her pharynx which allowed the milk to
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come out her nose. E) The laughter interfered with the movement of the
soft palate so it did not shut off the trachea.
75) Alicia and Juan are hiking in the woods and come across the skull of an animal. The teeth are still in the skull. The front teeth, or incisors, are short but sharp. The canines are long and pointed. The back teeth, or molars and
premolars, are jagged. Based on these teeth, the skull likely belonged to a(n)
A) carnivore. B) omnivore. C) herbivore.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
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D) human. E) There is not enough information to answer.
76)
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A) liver. B) stomach.
C) duodenum. D) pancreas. E) small intestine.
76.2) The primary role in digestion of the structure indicated by "D" in the figure shown here is
A)
the mixing of ingested food with digestive juices.
B) the production of saliva. C) the absorption of water and formation of feces. D) the majority of chemical digestion and
76.3) "B,"
Refer to the figure shown here. In structure
A) food particles are absorbed. B) the contents are acidic. C) there are digestive enzymes which were released by the pancreas. D) food is processed into a soft mass called a bolus.
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absorption. E) the production of digestion enzymes that are released into the small intestine.
E) fats are emulsified by bile salts.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 25 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) A Version 1
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20) C 21) B 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) E 26) B 27) E 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) C Version 1
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41) C 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) E 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A Version 1
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62) E 63) C 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) E 70) C 71) A 72) C 73) B 74) A 75) A 76) Section Break 76.1) A 76.2) C 76.3) B
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Red bone marrow in adults produces only white blood cells. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) During an inflammatory response, macrophages consume debris and cause the release of colony-stimulating factors which increase production of white blood cells by the bone marrow. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Natural killer cells can destroy cancer cells that have lost their "self" proteins. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Macrophages present antigens to T cells by digesting the pathogen and then placing one of the pathogens antigens combined with an MHC "self" protein on it's membrane. ⊚
true
5)
HIV is contracted mainly by rectal intercourse.
⊚
true
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⊚
⊚
false
false
1
6)
The immune system plays a significant role in fighting
⊚
true
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⊚
infections and cancer.
false
2
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) When the body responds against its own cells as
foreign antigens, this results in
D) A) allergies. B) autoimmune disease. C) passive immunity.
8)
shock. E) active immunity.
Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
A) myasthenia gravis B) rheumatoid arthritis C) multiple sclerosis D) systemic lupus erythematosus
9)
anaphylactic
E) All of the above are autoimmune diseases.
Which of the following is a lymphatic organ?
A) thymus B) spleen C) bone marrow
D) lymph node E) All of the above are organs of the lymphatic system.
10) Antibodies are proteins, whileantigens that elicit an immune reaction are proteins.
A) bacterial; self-produced B) self-produced; foreign C) self-produced; also self-produced
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D) cancer; bacterial E) viral; selfproduced
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11)
T lymphocytes mature in the
A) thyroid gland. B) bone marrow.
C) thymus. D) spleen. E) blood.
12) What type of cells filter the blood as it flows through the sinuses of the red pulp of the spleen?
A) T lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes
C) mast cells D) macrophages E) areolar tissue
13) Doctors can easily examine lymph nodes to see if a patient is fighting disease because
A)
many lymph nodes are near the surface of the
body. B) all lymph nodes are near the surface of the body. C) lymph nodes become hot when fighting disease. D) lymph nodes secrete pus when fighting an
infection. E) lymph nodes are concentrated in the abdomen.
14) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about the spleen?
A) It contains red pulp and white pulp. B) It is an essential organ for survival. C) It can be involved in fighting cancer. D) It is spongy, containing many sinuses.
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E) It is easily ruptured by a severe blow or infection.
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A) lymphocytes in the saliva. B) filters lining the pharynx. C) stomach acid.
D) lymph nodes at the base of the tongue. E) mucus in the trachea.
16) During the inflammatory response, histamine may be released by
A) mast cells. B) neutrophils. C) B lymphocytes.
17)
D) macrophages. E) natural killer cells.
One way the complement system acts is by producing
A) proteins that assist phagocytes in recognizing a pathogen. B) mast cells that attack pathogens' membranes. C) histamines that stimulate B cell formation.
D) kinins that bind to the surface of pathogens. E) macrophages that phagocytize bacteria.
18) cells are large, granular lymphocytes that kill virus-infected cells and cancer cells by cell-to-cell contact.
A) Complement B) Mast
19)
C) Natural killer D) Helper T E) Plasma
T lymphocytes
A) migrate from the thymus to the bone marrow where they mature. B) that recognize "self-cells" leave the thymus and enter lymphatic vessels and organs. Version 1
C) must have the antigen presented to them by an antigen-presenting cell. D) develop into 5
plasma cells once activated. E) are a component of the body's nonspecific
immune defenses.
20) Long-term immunity to diseases such as measles occurs because
A) memory mast cells produce antibodies in response to pathogens entering the body. B) plasma cells remain in the immune system to protect the body. C) memory B cells are produced in response to specific pathogens.
D) neutrophils remain in the blood to phagocytize any new measles pathogens. E) helper T cells continue to produce cytokines indefinitely.
21) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement regarding B-cell receptors?
A) They bind with specific antigens. B) They cause B cells to produce plasma cells and memory B cells when activated. C) They may never encounter the antigen which binds to them. D) They are identical to the antibodies produced by
22)
plasma cells, which they activate. E) They may be changed by the B cell in response to whatever pathogen is present.
A person has type A blood. This means that
A) she has A antigens on her red blood cells and can only receive type A blood in transfusions. B) she produces A antibodies when type A blood is used in transfusion, causing agglutination. C) she has A antigens on her red blood cells and will produce antibodies if red blood cells with B antigens are transfused into her body.
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D) she has B antigens on her red blood cells and can only receive type O blood. E) she produces A antibodies when type B blood is used in a transfusion.
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23)
T-cell receptors will bind with their specific antigens
A) immediately upon encountering them. B) after being activated by an antigen-presenting cell.
when presented by an APC. E) only in the presence of histamine.
C) after antibodies are produced for that antigen. D) either immediately upon encountering them or
24) When a disease has been fought off by the immune system, what happens to most of the remaining cells that were
produced by the immune system to fight the disease?
A) The remaining cells undergo apoptosis. B) The remaining cells are saved for later use. C) The remaining cells are stored in the thymus
marrow. E) The remaining cells are killed by cytotoxic T cells.
gland. D)
The remaining cells are destroyed by bone
25) Which of the following shows the function of cytotoxic T cells in the correct order?
A) perforin released - cytotoxic T cell binds to virusinfected cell - granzymes delivered - apoptosis occurs in virus-infected cell B) cytotoxic T cell binds to virus-infected cell granzymes delivered - apoptosis occurs in virus-infected cell perforin released C) apoptosis occurs in virus-infected cell - perforin released - cytotoxic T cell binds to virus-infected cell perforin released D) cytotoxic T cell binds to virus-infected cell -
perforin released granzymes delivered apoptosis occurs in virusinfected cell E) granzymes delivered - perforin released - apoptosis occurs in virus-infected cell cytotoxic T cell binds to virus-infected cell
26) If a person has a genetic defect in the metabolic pathway that produces cytokines, then A)
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macrophages
7
will not be produced by the immune system. B) B cells would not be activated to respond when cells presenting antigens are present. C) helper T cells would take over the role of activating B cells. D) the spleen would destroy all red blood cells.
E) histamine will not be produced by mast cells.
27) After organ transplantation, immunosuppressive drugs are given that
A) stimulate T cell response to cytokines. B) increase the production of histamines. C) inhibit T cell response to cytokines. D) both stimulate T cell response to cytokines and
increase the production of histamines. E) stimulate phagocytosis by macrophages.
28) Active and passive immunity involves all of the following except
A) exposure to a pathogen either naturally or by vaccination. B) memory B cells responding to a second exposure to the same pathogen. C) receiving mother's antibodies through the placenta.
29)
D) receiving mother's antibodies through breast-feeding. E) the stimulation of a nonspecific immune defense.
Immediate allergic responses occur when
A) IgE antibodies in red blood cells cause destruction of allergens. B) IgE antibodies in mast cells attach to allergens, releasing histamines. C) cytotoxic T cells produce histamine in response to allergens.
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D) memory T cells release cytokines in response to allergens. E) memory B cells respond to the presence of an allergen.
8
30)
When people are hypersensitive to pollen, they have in response to the antigens on pollen called . D) A) an autoimmune disease; cytokines B) immunity; allergens C) an allergy; allergens
31)
an allergy;
IgG E) immunity; antibodies
AIDS is caused by
A) the human immunodeficiency virus that destroys helper T cells. B) the human immunodeficiency virus that stimulates apoptosis of immune system cells. C) allergens that stimulate helper T cells to produce cytokines.
D) bacteria that destroy lymphocytes in the bone marrow. E) the human immunodeficiency virus that destroys macrophages.
32) David was in a car accident and needed a blood transfusion due to his injuries. His brother, Steve, went to the hospital hoping to donate blood to be used in the transfusion. David's blood type is type B. Steve's blood type is type AB.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Steve's potential donation?
A) David cannot receive Steve's blood because of the antibodies in Steve's blood. B) David cannot receive Steve's blood because of the antigens in David's blood. C) David cannot receive Steve's blood because of the antibodies in David's blood.
D) David can receive the transfusion from Steve. E) David can receive blood from Steve as long as it is only a small amount.
33) David was in a car accident and needed a blood transfusion due to his injuries. His brother, Version 1
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Steve, went to the hospital hoping to donate blood to be used in the transfusion. David's blood type is type B. Steve's blood type is type AB. Persons of what blood type can receive a
A) AB only B) AB and O C) A, B, AB, and O
transfusion of Steve's blood?
D) A, B, and AB E) A and B
34) This is a graph of antibodies in an immunized person's blood. At point B is given that enhances the immunity to the pathogen.
A) a booster B) the primary exposure to the vaccine C) a dose of antibodies
D) a live pathogen E) histamine
35) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about passive immunity? D) It can be A) It is temporary. B) It can be gained by infants through breast milk. C) It is achieved through the production of antibodies by the person gaining the immunity.
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achieved through injections of antibodies or immunoglobulins. E) It can be used to prevent an illness in someone who has been exposed to that illness.
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36) Which one of the following is a method of treatment for HIV infections?
A) chemotherapy B) radiation treatment C) blood transfusion
D) herbal supplements E) drug therapy
37) Which one of the following is a symptom of an HIV infection?
A) progression into AIDS B) number of T cells decreases C) chronic fever D) Kaposisarcoma, a form of cancer
E) All of the above are symptons of an HIV infection.
38) Which of the statistics regarding the number of cases of HIV is inaccurate?
A) Male-to-male contact accounts for the greatest number of new cases each year. B) As of 2017, there were about 25 million people living worldwide with HIV. C) In 2017, among the 1.8 million new HIV infections, nearly 10% were in people under the age of 15. D) In 2017, HIV/AIDS claimed 940,000 lives.
E) Heterosexual contact and intravenous drug use together account for a greater percentage of new cases than male-tomale contact.
39) Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the complement proteins?
A) They are blood plasma proteins. B) Some form the membrane attack complex, which forms a hole in the bacterial plasma membrane. C) They may amplify the inflammatory response by Version 1
attracting phagocytes to the site of the infection. D) They may bind to pathogens already coated with antibodies, 12
ensuring they are phagocytized. E) Many proteins must be independently activated in order to have a significant impact on the immune response.
40) Which of the following bones contain red bone marrow in children but not in adults?
A) pelvic bones B) sternum
C) clavicle D) vertebrae E) radius
41) cells kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by cell-to-cell contact.
A) Natural killer B) Plasma
C) Cytotoxic T D) Memory B E) Helper T
42) What could happen if T cells failed to undergo apoptosis after the defeat of an infection?
A) An HIV infection may result. B) Leukemia or lymphoma may result. C) Future immunity would be strengthened. D) An autoimmune disease may result.
43)
E) An allergy may result.
Which substances are examples of antigens?
A) proteins and carbohydrates B) nucleic acids and proteins C) lipids and proteins
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D) lipids and carbohydrates E) nucleic acids and carbohydrates
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44)
Which statement about vaccines is correct?
A) Vaccines will always cause the patient to become ill in order to build the immune system. B) Vaccines never cause the patient to become ill in order to build the immune system. C) Vaccines are not intended to cause the patient to become ill in order to build the immune system. D) Vaccines need to be administered on a
continuous basis in order to be effective. E) It is only necessary to be vaccinated once in order to have immunity for your entire life.
45) Which of the following statements is correct about the usage of a booster?
A) The booster allows the antibody concentration to rise to a level higher than the primary response. B) The booster will raise the antibody concentration in the individual by 10%. C) The booster will cause the antibody concentration to rise and then decrease rapidly.
D) The booster will do nothing for the individual's immune response. E) The booster will initiate the immune response.
46) Which body system plays the greatest role in fighting cancer? D) digestive A) immune system B) cardiovascular system C) neural system
system E) integumentary system
47) What structures do the lymphocytes "recognize" in order to participate in active immunity?
A) Version 1
antigens
B) foreign DNA C) antibodies
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D) phospholipids E) RNA complexes
48) Which cell type plays a role in adaptive immunity in the body?
A) lymphocytes B) red blood cells C) platelets
D) epithelial cells E) None of these cell types play a role in adaptive immunity.
49) What organisms are commonly used to mass-produce vaccines?
A) bacteria B) viruses
C) cattle D) pigs E) humans
50) During tissue transplant, what is the main reason for the rejection of the transplanted tissue?
A) Cytotoxic T cells and antibodies in the body destroy the transplanted tissue. B) Helper T cells and antibodies in the body destroy the transplanted tissue. C) Cytotoxic T cells and antibodies will reroute the blood supply away from the transplanted tissue, starving it to death.
D) The host body's antigens will not allow the transplanted tissue to attach to the host. E) The host body red blood cells will not carry oxygen to the transplanted tissue.
51) Which autoimmune disorder is characterized by a breakdown of the myelin sheaths on the nerve cells? A) Version 1
multiple 15
sclerosis (MS) B) myasthenia gravis C) systemic lupus erythematosus
D) rheumatoid arthritis E) leukemia
52) Which statement about delayed allergic reactions is the most accurate?
A) Memory T cells initiate the response at the site in which the allergen contacts the body. B) Cytotoxic T cells initiate the response at the site in which the allergen contacts the body. C) Memory T cells initiate the response at the site in which the antibodies contact the body.
53)
D) The response can occur within a matter of seconds. E) The response can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure that can be life-threatening.
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A) AIDS B) myasthenia gravis C) multiple sclerosis
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
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D) systemic lupus erythematosus E) rheumatoid arthritis
54)
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54.1) The letter "A" in the figure shown here is referring to a(n)
A) sweat gland. B) oil (sebaceous) gland.
C) salivary gland. D) blood vessel. E) lymph node.
54.2) The secretions of the structure lettered "A" in the figure shown here
A) contain substances that will weaken or kill some bacteria on the skin. B) cool the body through evaporative cooling. C) release white blood cells on the surface of the skin. D) are part of the body's specific defenses against
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disease. E) attract white blood cells to cuts in order to fight infections.
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55)
55.1)
In this figure, "A" is acting as a(n)
A) antigen-presenting cell. B) helper T cell.
55.2)
The cells labeled "B"
A) produce cytokines that stimulate other types of immune cells. B) destroy virus-infected cells through phagocytosis. C) produce perforins and granzymes that destroy cancer cells.
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C) neutrophil. D) antibody. E) plasma cell.
D) produce histamine to induce the inflammatory response. E) produce specific antibodies.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 26 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) B 8) E 9) E 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C Version 1
19
20) C 21) E 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) E 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) B 39) E 40) E Version 1
20
41) A 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) Section Break 54.1) B 54.2) A 55) Section Break 55.1) A 55.2) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Dendrites
A) are usually the longest nerve fibers. B) are covered with a myelin sheath. C) receive signals from sensory receptors or other neurons.
2)
D) generate nerve impulses. E) are longer and less numerous than axons.
Gaps in the myelin sheath are termed C) ganglia. D) clefts. E) synapses.
A) nodes of Ranvier. B) interaxons.
3) Which of these is a region of close proximity between an axon terminal and the next cell? C) cell body D) axon E) synapse
A) dendrite B) nucleus
4) Which type of neuron is completely contained within the central nervous system?
A) sensory neuron B) motor neuron C) autonomic neuron
D) interneuron E) sympathetic neuron
5) Which part of a neuron could be covered with a myelin sheath? Version 1
1
A) nucleus B) axon
C) dendrite D) cell body E) terminal
6) The arrow shows the direction of the nerve impulse in a neuron. Part X would represent a(n)
A) axon. B) dendrite.
C) cell body. D) myelin sheath. E) axon terminal.
7) Which of these lists the events of an action potential in the correct order? A) Na + gates open→inside of axon becomes positive→Na + gates close→K + gates open→inside of axon becomes negative B) K + gates open→inside of axon becomes positive→K + gates close→Na + gates open→inside of axon becomes negative C) K + gates open→inside of axon becomes negative→K + gates close→Na + gates open→inside of axon becomes positive D) Na + gates open→inside of axon becomes Version 1
negative→Na + gates close→K + gates open→inside of axon becomes positive E) Na + gates open→inside of axon becomes positive→K + gates close→Na + gates open→inside of axon becomes negative
2
8) Transmission across the synaptic cleft is accomplished by chemical signals called
A) hormones. B) exocrine secretions. C) enzymes.
9)
D) stimulants. E) neurotransmitters.
A nerve impulse travels down a myelinated axon by D) integration. E) summation.
A) repolarization. B) saltatory conduction. C) simple diffusion.
10) If a neuron receives both excitatory and inhibitory signals, will an action potential be generated?
A) No, because any inhibitory signals will cancel out the excitatory signals. B) Yes, but the action potential will be much smaller than if only excitatory signals were received. C) It depends; if more excitatory than inhibitory signals are received, then an action potential may result. D) Yes, because excitatory signals always stimulate
an action potential. E) It depends; if more inhibitory than excitatory signals are received, then the neuron will be free to produce an action potential.
11) Which of these works by inhibiting dopamine reuptake into synapses?
A) cocaine B) THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) C) heroin
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D) marijuana E) all drugs of abuse
3
12)
Which of these is mismatched? D) cerebellum midbrain E) frontal lobe prefrontal area
A) diencephalon - thalamus B) brain stem - medulla oblongata C) cerebral cortex - occipital lobe
13) A patient's pons has been affected by a rapidly growing tumor. Of the choices listed below, which is the most likely result? D) inability to regulate blood pressure E) inability to experience emotions
A) loss of the normal breathing rhythm B) hearing loss C) inability to understand speech
14) You aren't normally aware of ongoing sensory stimulation, such as the touch of clothing on your skin. What part of your brain is responsible for this "filtering" of sensory input? C) cerebral cortex D) cerebellum E) thalamus
A) hypothalamus B) medulla oblongata
15) Long, myelinated nerve fibers are called PNS and in the CNS.
A) tracts; nuclei B) nerves; ganglia
in the
C) ganglia; nuclei D) nerves; tracts E) ganglia; tracts
16) Which of these receives sensory input Version 1
4
from the eyes, ears, joints, and skeletal muscles about the present position of body parts? C) hypothalamus D) hippocampus E) cerebellum
A) thalamus B) amygdala
17) Following a severe head injury, a patient has uncontrollable, unfocused feelings of rage. What has most likely been damaged? D) primary motor A) medulla oblongata B) limbic system C) pineal gland
area E) cerebellum
18) Someone who is good at memorizing other people's phone numbers has an excellent memory.
A) episodic B) skill
C) semantic D) short-term E) sensory
19) Degenerating neurons surrounded by clusters of abnormal tissue, especially in the hippocampus and amygdala, accompanied by progressive memory loss is typical of
A) Alzheimer disease. B) Parkinson disease. C) Graves disease.
D) Addison disease. E) Cushing syndrome.
20) A spinal nerve contains
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A) axons of sensory neurons only. B) myelinated axons only. C) axons of motor neurons only.
D) dendrites only. E) both sensory and motor axons.
21) Which of these represents the flow of information in a spinal reflex arc in the correct order? A) sensory axon→sensory neuron→spinal cord→interneuron→effector→motor axon→motor neuron B) motor neuron→motor axon→spinal cord→interneuron→sensory neuron→sensory axon→effector C) sensory receptor→motor axon→interneuron→motor neuron→spinal cord→sensory axon→effector D) sensory receptors→sensory axon→spinal
cord→interneuron→motor neuron→motor axons→effector E) sensory axon→motor neuron→spinal cord→interneuron→effect or→sensory receptor→motor axon
22) The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
A) is associated with "fight or flight." B) uses the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. C) arises from parts of the spinal cord. D) inhibits digestion.
23) The conveys sensory information to the central nervous system and motor commands away from the central
A) parasympathetic division B) autonomic nervous system C) somatic system
24)
E) opposes the effects of the sympathetic division.
nervous system to skeletal muscles. D) sympathetic division E) brain stem
The spinal cord's gray matter is located
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A) on the outside, surrounding a central core of white matter. B) on the inside, surrounding the central canal. C) on both the inside and the outside. D) neither inside nor outside—the spinal cord is
entirely white matter. E) scattered among a collection of ganglia.
25) You are relaxing, having a snack and watching TV, when suddenly the entire house begins to shake violently. The activity of your quickly decreases, while that of your increases.
A)
somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous
system B) autonomic nervous system; somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division; parasympathetic division
26)
D) sympathetic division; somatic nervous system E) parasympathetic division; sympathetic division
Only the glands of the endocrine system
A) use chemical signals to bring about changes in target organs. B) work to regulate the activities of other body systems. C) use the bloodstream to convey signals throughout
the body. D) help to maintain homeostasis. E) bring about rapid responses by target organs.
27) hormones can pass through the plasma membrane of a target cell.
A) Second messenger B) Steroid C) First messenger
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D) Peptide E) DNA
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28)
Which of these is a second messenger?
A) cAMP B) ATP C) a peptide hormone
D) a steroid hormone E) DNA
29) Which of the following is produced in the hypothalamus and released via the posterior pituitary?
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B) prolactin (PRL) C) growth hormone (GH) D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
30)
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Which hormone stimulates milk letdown?
A) prolactin (PRL) B) luteinizing hormone (LH) C) oxytocin
D) folliclestimulating hormone (FSH) E) estrogen
31) Consuming alcohol increases the need to urinate. This is due to the inhibitory effect of alcohol on
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). C) parathyroid hormone (PTH).
D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine.
32) When the level of adrenal cortex hormones is low due to hyposecretion, a person develops which of the following disorders? A) Cushing Version 1
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syndrome B) exophthalmos C) Graves disease D) Addison disease
E) diabetes mellitus
33) Which two hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla?
A) aldosterone and cortisol B) acetylcholine and norepinephrine C) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin E) epinephrine and norepinephrine
34) If you do not obtain enough iodine in your diet, you will likely develop D) diabetes mellitus. E) tetany.
A) pituitary gigantism. B) simple goiter. C) exophthalmos.
35) them.
inhibits osteoclasts, while
stimulates
A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH); calcitonin B) Growth hormone (GH); calcitonin C) Epinephrine; norepinephrine D) Calcitonin; parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E) Glucagon; growth hormone (GH)
36) The hormone lowers blood glucose, while the hormone raises blood glucose. C) cortisol; A) insulin; glucagon B) epinephrine; norepinephrine Version 1
insulin D) thyroxine;
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glucagon E)
glucagon; insulin
37) Which hormone helps to maintain your blood glucose level between breakfast and lunch? D) thyroxine E) epinephrine
A) insulin B) glucagon C) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
38) If an individual's pancreatic islets have been destroyed, the result will be D) Addison disease. E) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
A) Cushing syndrome. B) Graves disease. C) type 2 diabetes mellitus.
39) The hormonal secretion(s) of the increase the body's metabolic rate.
serve to
A) thyroid gland B) adrenal medulla C) adrenal cortex
D) posterior pituitary E) parathyroid glands
40) Which of the following is part of both the nervous and endocrine systems, and is crucial to maintenance of homeostasis?
A) adrenal medulla B) thyroid gland Version 1
C) hypothalamus D) thalamus E) medulla 10
oblongata
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41) the
Gigantism can result from excessive secretion from
A) posterior pituitary. B) anterior pituitary. C) adrenal medulla.
D) adrenal cortex. E) pancreas.
42) If you eat a jelly donut, your pancreatic islets will respond by secreting
A) growth hormone. B) glucagon.
C) epinephrine. D) insulin. E) oxytocin.
43) The exophthalmos seen in Graves disease results from hypersecretion of the
A) thyroid gland. B) parathyroid glands. C) posterior pituitary.
44) A patient who has recently undergone surgery to remove tumors from his thyroid gland suddenly begins to tremble violently from head to toe because his nerves have
D) adrenal cortex. E) pancreas.
become too excitable. Why?
D) Too much A) Too much thyroid tissue was removed, and without oxytocin, blood calcium levels fell too low. B) The parathyroid glands were removed, and without parathyroid hormone (PTH), blood calcium levels rose too high. C) The parathyroid glands were removed, and without parathyroid hormone (PTH), blood calcium levels fell too low. Version 1
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thyroid tissue was removed, and without calcitonin, blood calcium levels fell too low. E) The hypothalamus was removed, and without it releasing hormones, blood calcium levels fell too low.
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45) Which two anterior pituitary hormones do not target other endocrine glands?
A) prolactin (PRL) and growth hormone (GH) B) oxytocin and prolactin (PRL) C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH) D) luteinizing hormone (LH) and
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin
46) People who are under constant stress have a tendency to gain weight, especially in the midsection, even if they do not overeat. This is because the hypothalamus responds to the stress by stimulating the
A) posterior pituitary. B) adrenal cortex. C) thyroid.
D) adrenal medulla. E) pancreas.
47) Weight gain, diabetes mellitus, and a moon-shaped face may indicate
A) Addison disease. B) Graves disease. C) simple goiter.
D) pituitary dwarfism. E) Cushing syndrome.
48) Contraction of the uterus during childbirth is stimulated by
A) prolactin. B) luteinizing hormone (LH). C) oxytocin.
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D) glucagon. E) parathyroid hormone (PTH).
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49) When the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is activated, its effects can be prolonged by secretions of the
A) adrenal cortex. B) thyroid gland. C) parathyroid glands.
D) adrenal medulla. E) posterior pituitary.
50) The arrow shows the direction of the nerve impulse in a neuron. Where is the neurotransmitter released from the neuron?
A) axon B) dendrite
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C) cell body D) myelin sheath E) axon terminal
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51)
Which of these structures is the pons?
A) A B) B
52) Your teenage son comes home late on Friday night and is acting strange. His behavior includes the following characteristics: high agitation, violent behavior, and irritability. These traits are far different from his normal
A) cocaine B) methamphetamine
C) C D) D E) E
behavior. As a parent you suspect he may have taken a drug. Which drug did he most likely take? C) marijuana D) alcohol E) crack
53) Which of the following describes how drugs can affect the nervous system?
A) Drugs can enhance the release of a neurotransmitter. B) Drugs can block the release of a neurotransmitter. C) Drugs can block the receptor for a neurotransmitter. D) Drugs can mimic the actions of a
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neurotransmitter. E) All of these statements describe how drugs can affect the nervous system.
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54)
Which ion needs to be pumped to the exterior of the
axon in order to generate a
A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca+ D) H+ E) Cl-
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 27 Test Bank 1) C 2) A 3) E 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) E 15) D 16) E 17) B 18) C 19) A Version 1
19
20) E 21) D 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) C 27) B 28) A 29) E 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) E 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) E 39) A 40) C Version 1
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41) B 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) B 47) E 48) C 49) D 50) E 51) E 52) B 53) E 54) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which is not a type of taste? C) sour D) bitter E) hot
A) umami B) sweet
2) Which sense requires the stimulation of chemoreceptors? C) balance D) vision E) touch
A) hearing B) smell
3)
The spiral organ is located in the
A) vestibule. B) saccule. C) utricle.
4)
canals.
The ossicles are located in the
A) inner ear. B) middle ear.
5)
D) cochlea. E) semicircular
C) auditory canal. D) outer ear. E) spiral organ.
Hair cells are receptors for the senses of
A) vision and hearing. B) taste and smell. Version 1
C) hearing and balance. D) vision and
1
smell. E)
touch and taste.
6) In order for sensory receptors for hearing to be stimulated, vibrations must pass through
A) air, then fluid, then bone. B) fluid, then bone, then air. C) air, then bone, then air again.
7)
Which statement about the spiral organ is incorrect?
A) Its hair cells synapse with the cochlear nerve. B) Each part is responsive to a different pitch. C) It is found in the cochlea. D) It contains the sensory receptors for hearing.
8) the
D) bone, then air, then fluid. E) air, then bone, then fluid.
E) It has two main parts: the utricle and the saccule.
The greater the amplitude of sound waves, the greater
A) pitch. B) volume.
9) You notice your friend's music is turned up so loud you can make out the words to each song, even though she is wearing earbuds. Your friend should turn down the volume in
A) conduction B) tone
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C) brightness. D) tone. E) equilibrium.
order to avoid deafness.
C) cytotoxic D) nerve E) cerebral
2
10)
Bony fishes can detect other fishes as a result of their
A) gravitational equilibrium. B) statocysts. C) lateral line system.
D) rotational equilibrium. E) compound eyes.
11) You can tell "up" from "down" even when your eyes are closed. This is due to your
A) rotational equilibrium. B) statocysts. C) sense of hearing.
12)
A(n)
eye has a single lens.
A) confocal B) compound
13) Which of these lists the structures in the correct sequence that light must pass through in order to reach the A) retina→lens→pupil→cornea B) lens→cornea→pupil→retina C) lens→pupil→cornea→retina D) cornea→lens→pupil→retina
14)
D) lateral line system. E) gravitational equilibrium.
C) static D) camera-type E) eyespot
photoreceptors of the human eye? E) cornea→pupil→lens→reti na
The colored part of the eye is the A) pupil.
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B) cornea. C) iris.
15)
D) retina. E) sclera.
The fovea of the eye is
A) the area where axons leave the retina. B) the area where cones are primarily located. C) the area where ciliary muscles contact the lens.
D) the area where rods are primarily located. E) the opening in the iris.
16) The sensory receptors found in skeletal muscles and joints are
A) hair cells. B) otoliths. C) rods.
17)
Which of these is mismatched?
A) cutaneous receptors - skin B) rods and cones - eye C) taste buds - tongue
18)
D) cutaneous receptors. E) proprioceptors.
D) ganglion cells and intermediate cells - ear E) hair cells lateral line
Rhodopsin is found in
A) rod photoreceptors. B) hair cells. C) olfactory cells.
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D) taste buds. E) cone photoreceptors.
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19)
Which of these is mismatched? D) fovea - eye E) ossicles -
A) utricle - ear B) taste bud - tongue C) tympanic membrane - ear
20)
joints
Skeletal muscles do not
A) assist the movement of blood. B) store fat. C) help maintain body temperature.
21) A grasshopper has a(n) chitin.
D) protect internal organs. E) enable the movement of body parts.
composed mainly of
A) exoskeleton B) hydrostatic skeleton
C) metaskeleton D) endoskeleton E) preskeleton
22) Which of these animals has a body supported by a hydrostatic skeleton?
A) lobster B) deer
23)
C) fruit fly D) leech E) millipede
Which bone belongs to the appendicular skeleton?
A) skull B) vertebra
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C) rib D) sternum E) scapula
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24)
Which is the more slender bone of the lower leg? C) ulna D) fibula E) femur
A) radius B) tibia
25) Which bones articulate at the joint stabilized by the rotator cuff?
A) humerus and scapula B) coxal bone and femur C) radius and humerus
26)
D)
femur and
E) clavicle
scapula and
tibia
The cells that deposit bone matrix are termed
A) osteoclasts. B) osteocytes.
C) osteons. D) osteoblasts. E) marrow cells.
27) The structural units of compact bone that house osteocytes are called
A) osteoclasts. B) osteocytes.
C) osteons. D) osteoblasts. E) sarcomeres.
28) The central cavity of an adult human's long bone is filled with
A) Version 1
yellow bone marrow.
B) plasma. C) osteocytes. 6
D) osteons. E) red bone marrow.
29) The spaces in the ends of a long bone such as the femur contain
A) yellow bone marrow. B) plasma. C) osteocytes.
30)
D) osteons. E) red bone marrow.
The contractile units of skeletal muscle are the
A) myofibrils. B) sarcomeres. C) sarcolemma.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) osteons.
31) According to the sliding filament model, when muscle tissue contracts,
A) the Z lines slide away from one another. B) the myosin filaments shorten, while the actin filaments remain the same length. C) the sarcomeres shorten.
32) You are taking notes in a lecture, writing as fast as you can, when suddenly your hand become so stiff that you can't write any more. You pull the pencil from between your frozen fingers with your other hand, and after a few worried
A) The muscles in your hand depleted their supply of ATP, and the myosin heads could not detach from actin. B) The muscles in your hand depleted their supply
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D) the actin and myosin filaments shorten. E) the T tubules shorten.
moments your hand is able to relax again. What happened?
of acetylcholinesterase. C) The muscles in your hand depleted their supply of Ca 2+, and the
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myosin heads could not attach to actin. D) The actin and myosin filaments in your hand muscles became detached from their Z lines. E) The motor neurons stimulating your hand
muscles depleted their supply of acetylcholine.
33) In a sarcomere, thick filaments are composed of and thin filaments of . D) Z lines; T A) actin; myosin B) sarcoplasm; actin C) myosin; actin
tubules E) myosin; sarcolemma
34) The hip and shoulder joints would be incorrectly classified as joints. C) hinge D) synovial E) fluid-filled
A) freely movable B) ball-and-socket
35)
Which of these is a hinge joint? fibula A) the joint between the coxal bone and the femur B) the joint between the scapula and the humerus C) the joint between two adjacent vertebrae D) the joint between the femur and the tibia and
36) Martha is 57 years old and has been overweight for the past several years. Although she hasn't changed her daily activity level, Martha is now experiencing pain in her hips
A) rheumatoid arthritis B) sprains
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E) the joint between adjacent cranial bones
and knees. What is most likely to be the cause of Martha's discomfort? C) strains D) osteoarthritis E) bursitis
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37) Which of these statements about contracting muscles is incorrect? pull. A) A contracting muscle shortens. B) A contracting muscle uses cellular energy. C) A contracting muscle may work as part of an antagonistic pair. D) A contracting muscle can only push; it cannot
E) A contracting muscle cannot push; it can only pull.
38) If you want to prevent osteoporosis and strengthen muscles, your best approach would be to
A) eat foods rich in vitamin A. B) exercise. C) take calcium supplements.
39)
D) lose weight. E) seek medical treatment.
If you sprain your ankle, that means
A) the meniscus is torn. B) the bursa has become inflamed. C) the articular cartilage has worn away. D) your immune system has attacked the ankle joint.
E) the ligaments and tendons at the ankle joint have been overstretched.
40) In order to lift a book from a table, your must contract; to put the book back down, the must contract.
A) meniscus; bursa B) biceps; triceps C) actin filament; myosin filament
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D) bursa; meniscus E) triceps; biceps
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41)
If a drug prevents calcium release from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum, it
A) treatment for osteoarthritis. B) treatment for osteoporosis. C) muscle relaxant. D) stimulant for blood cell production. E) promoter of muscle contraction.
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42)
Your skeleton is a(n)
A) exoskeleton. B) hydrostatic skeleton. C) cartilaginous skeleton.
D) endoskeleton. E) osteon.
43) Which of these puts the steps of the sliding filament model of muscle contraction in the correct order?
A) ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament→myosin heads bind ATP→ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament B) Myosin heads bind ATP→ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament→ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament C) ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament→ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament→myosin heads bind ATP D) Myosin heads bind ATP→ ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament→ATP is
44)
hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament E) ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament→ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament→myosin heads bind ATP
At a synovial joint, the bones are bound together by
A) tendons. B) osteons.
C) sarcomeres. D) ligaments. E) hinges.
45) Which sense is found in all animals, and is thought to be the most primitive sense?
A) photoreception B) mechanoreception C) chemoreception Version 1
D) hearing E) proprioception
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46) The smell of crayons always brings back fond memories of kindergarten and makes you feel happy. This is because the olfactory bulbs have direct connections with the
A) limbic system. B) thalamus. C) medulla oblongata.
D)
cochlear
E) system.
vestibular
nerve.
47) In the figure shown here, which of the following is the retina?
A) A B) B
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C) C D) D E) E
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48) In the figure shown here, which of the following is the sclera?
A) A B) B
C) C D) D E) E
49) Which of these is responsible for rotational equilibrium?
A) auditory canal B) ossicles C) semicircular canals
50)
D) cochlea E) tympanic membrane
Which of these belongs to the outer ear?
A) auditory canal B) ossicles C) semicircular canals
D) cochlea E) tympanic membrane
51) Which of the following correctly describes the structure of a compound eye? A)
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composed of
13
many independent visual units, each of which possesses a lens to focus light rays on photoreceptors B) composed of a single visual unit that possesses a lens to focus light rays on photoreceptors C) composed of many independent visual units that will collectively focus light rays on a singlephotoreceptor D) composed of many independent visual units, each of which possesses a lens to focus light rays on a single
photoreceptor E) composed of a single visual unit that possesses a lens to focus light rays on a single photoreceptor
52) What is the correct sequence of events required for fish to detect the physical presence of other fish within the school?
A) Water currents cause the cilia within the gelatinous membrane to bend, which causes a nerve impulse to go to the brain. B) Sound waves cause the cilia within the gelatinous membrane to bend, which causes a nerve impulse to go to the brain. C) A chemical signal will cause the cilia within the gelatinous membrane to bend, which causes a nerve impulse
to go to the brain. D) Water currents cause a nerve impulse to go directly to the brain. E) A chemical signal will cause a nerve impulse to go directly to the brain.
53) Which of the following events would cease to function if the skeletal muscles became temporarily paralyzed?
A)
Fat and calcium storage would no longer occur.
B) The movement of blood through the veins would not occur. C) The internal organs would lack any type of protection.
D) Core body temperature would decrease dramatically. E) The movement of blood through the arteries would not occur.
54) Which of the following functions is performed by both the skeletal and muscular system? A) Version 1
protection of
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internal organs B) movement of blood through the veins C) storage of calcium
D) maintenance of body temperature E) storage of fat
55) Which of the following is a function of a proprioceptor?
A) maintain the body's sense of balance B) determine whether or not the stove is hot C) detect when pressure is being applied to the body D) sense that the skin is being damaged by frostbite
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E) alert the body if an acidic substance has been applied to the skin
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 28 Test Bank 1) E 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) E 7) E 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) E 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) B 16) E 17) D 18) A 19) E Version 1
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20) B 21) A 22) D 23) E 24) D 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) B 39) E 40) B Version 1
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41) C 42) D 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) E 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) A 55) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) An unfertilized egg from a female Komodo dragon may develop directly into a young Komodo dragon. This is an example of D) abiogenesis. E) copulation.
A) parturition. B) assisted reproduction. C) parthenogenesis.
2) the
The male gonad is the .
, and the female gonad is
A) ovary; testis B) vagina; penis
C) testis; uterus D) testis; ovary E) penis; vagina
3) Animals with both male and female reproductive systems are
A) hermaphroditic. B) chimeric. C) parthenogenetic.
4)
D) asexual. E) menopausal.
Which of these is viviparous?
A) salmon B) parrot
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C) bullfrog D) crayfish E) moose
1
C) ovary D) cervix E) labia
A) placenta B) uterus
6) Which one adaptation was most important in enabling animals to reproduce on land? C) placenta D) gametes E) copulation
A) penis B) shelled egg with extraembryonic membranes
7)
Sperm mature in the C) penis. D) vas deferens. E) epididymis.
A) prostate gland. B) testis.
8) Which of these correctly traces the path of a sperm from its origin to the point at which it leaves the male reproductive tract? A) testis→epididymis→vas deferens→ejaculatory duct→urethra B) epididymis→vas deferens→testis→urethra→ejaculatory duct C) testis→epididymis→vas deferens→urethra→ejaculatory duct
D) vas deferens→epididymis→tes tis→ejaculatory duct→urethra E) testis→vas deferens→epididymis→eja culatory duct→urethra
9) Which part of male anatomy is part of both the urinary system and the reproductive system? B) seminal A) Version 1
testis
vesicle 2
C) urethra D) prostate gland
10)
E) bulbourethral gland
Sperm are produced
A) by Sertoli cells. B) in the epididymis. C) by interstitial cells.
D) in the seminiferous tubules. E) in the seminal vesicles.
11) How does follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) affect the male reproductive system?
A) promotes testosterone production B) causes erection C) promotes spermatogenesis
D) stimulates ovulation E) triggers ejaculation
12) Secondary sex characteristics in males develop due to the influence of
A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). B) progesterone. C) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
D) estrogen. E) testosterone.
13) Which of these is part of the female reproductive system?
A) oviduct B) uterus C) vagina D) ovary
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E) All of the answers are parts of the female reproductive system.
3
14)
The inner lining of the uterus is the C) placenta. D) fimbria. E) chorion.
A) cervix. B) endometrium.
15) Which of these serves as the female organ of copulation and the birth canal? C) ovary D) vagina E) urethra
A) uterus B) oviduct
16) Which lists the structures a secondary oocyte must pass through on its way out of a woman's reproductive tract?
A) oviduct, uterus, vagina B) vagina, oviduct, uterus C) vagina, uterus, oviduct
17)
Which of these cells is diploid (2 n)?
A) first polar body B) spermatid C) secondary oocyte
18)
D) uterus, oviduct, vagina E) oviduct, vagina, uterus
D) sperm E) primary oocyte
The fingerlike projections of the oviducts are the C) labia. A) fimbriae. B) chorionic villi.
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D) follicles. E) acrosomes.
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19) Ovulation usually occurs on day cycle.
of a woman's
A) 0 B) 7
20)
During the first half of the human ovarian cycle,
A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) promotes the development of estrogen-secreting follicles. B) luteinizing hormone (LH) promotes the development of a progesterone-secreting corpus luteum. C) the corpus luteum reaches its maximum size and progesterone output, then shrinks.
21)
D) there are high levels of both estrogen and progesterone. E) ovulation occurs on each consecutive day.
The second half of the ovarian cycle is termed the phase.
A) ovulatory B) follicular
22)
C) 14 D) 21 E) 28
C) luteal D) menstrual E) menopausal
Which of these is mismatched?
A) ovulation - luteinizing hormone (LH) peaks B) menstruation - follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) peaks C) secretory phase - progesterone peaks
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D) menstruation progesterone declines E) proliferative phase - estrogen levels rise
6
A) menstrual phase→secretory phase→proliferative phase→ovulation B) menstrual phase→ovulation→secretory phase→proliferative phase C) menstrual phase→proliferative phase→ovulation→secretory phase D) menstrual phase→proliferative phase→secretory
phase→ovulation E) menstrual phase→ovulation→prolife rative phase→secretory phase
24) Which of the following is 100% effective against both pregnancy and STDs?
A) vasectomy B) female condom
C) diaphragm D) tubal ligation E) abstinence
25) This birth control device consists of a small piece of plastic that is inserted into the uterus by a health care provider.
A) cervical cap B) IUD C) diaphragm
26)
D) female condom E) vaginal sponge
A birth control pill works by
A) inhibiting FSH and LH production. B) making the woman's reproductive tract toxic to sperm.
E) immunizing the woman against human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
C) stimulating FSH and LH production. D) destroying the endometrium.
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A) parthenogenesis. B) menopause.
C) contraception. D) infertility. E) abortion.
28) What is the assisted reproductive technology that involves the placement of harvested sperm in a woman's vagina by a physician?
A) IVF B) AID
C) GIFT D) ICSI E) IUD
29) If a man has such severe infertility that his sperm are incapable of penetrating an oocyte and achieving fertilization, then the best assisted reproductive technology for him and his partner would be
A) IVF. B) AID.
30)
Which STD is caused by a virus?
A) chlamydia B) syphilis
31)
C) GIFT. D) ICSI. E) E.IUD.
C) trichomoniasis D) gonorrhea E) genital warts
Which STD is caused by a protozoan?
A) chlamydia B) genital herpes
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C) trichomoniasis D) gonorrhea E) hepatitis
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32) If a woman has been diagnosed with genital warts, she should be examined regularly for
A) cervical cancer. B) liver cancer. C) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
D) gummas. E) skin cancer.
33) If a woman has an untreated case of chlamydia, it may likely lead to
A) gummas. B) liver failure. C) buboes.
D) blisters on the genitals. E) pelvic inflammatory disease.
34) Whatis the extraembryonic membrane that serves as the first site of blood cell formation for the embryo?
A) chorion B) allantois
C) amnion D) yolk sac E) zona pellucida
35) Which list contains the correct sequence of structures a sperm nucleus must penetrate in order to fertilize an egg? A) egg plasma membrane→follicle cells→zona pellucida B) follicle cells→egg plasma membrane→zona pellucida C) follicle cells→zona pellucida→egg plasma membrane
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D) egg plasma membrane→zona pellucida→follicle cells E) zona pellucida→follicle cells→egg plasma membrane
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36)
Which of these cells is haploid (n)?
A) zygote B) oogonium C) spermatogonium
D) primary spermatocyte E) secondary oocyte
37) The first two months of human development are referred to as the period.
A) fetal B) blastocyst
38)
C) implantation D) cleavage E) embryonic
Which of the listed embryonic stages is the earliest?
A) gastrula B) blastocyst
C) neurula D) morula E) 8-cell stage
39) The hollow, fluid-filled ball of cells that develops from the morula is the
A) neurula. B) zygote.
40)
C) somite. D) blastocyst. E) gastrula.
In which stage do the three germ layers form?
A) gastrula B) blastocyst
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C) neurula D) morula E) 8-cell stage
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41) If you could mark the ectoderm of a mouse embryo so that all tissues and organs descended from ectoderm were
A) skeletal muscles and dermis B) cardiovascular and reproductive systems C) nervous system and epidermis D) lining of the digestive and respiratory tracts
42)
E) urinary bladder and its lining
The bladder originates from
A) ectoderm only. B) mesoderm only. C) endoderm only. D) both mesoderm and endoderm, but not ectoderm.
43)
easily identifiable, where would you expect to find the marker?
E) ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
The brain and spinal cord develop from the
A) endoderm. B) neural tube.
C) notochord. D) neural crest. E) somites.
44) The embryo (and later the fetus) is connected to the placenta by the
A) umbilical cord. B) placental tube.
C) somite. D) chorionic villi. E) vas deferens.
45) If a pregnant woman wanted to know the sex of her fetus as soon as possible, she could have an ultrasound in the month.
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A) first B) third
C) sixth D) eighth E) ninth
46) A pregnant woman has passed her due date, and her cervix is dilated. This indicates which stage of childbirth?
A) first B) second
C) third D) fourth E) fifth
47) In which stage of childbirth would a mother deliver the placenta?
A) first B) second
C) third D) fourth E) fifth
48) Which organism is most likely to reproduce by fragmentation?
A) hydra B) sponge
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C) bird D) honeybee E) frog
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49) In the figure shown here, which of the following is the prostate gland?
A) A B) B
C) C D) D E) E
50) In the figure shown here, which of the following is the bulbourethral gland?
B) B A) Version 1
A 13
C) C D) D E) E
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51) In the figure shown here, which of the following is the cervix?
A) A B) B
C) C D) D E) E
52) Which of the following structures is part of the reproductive system?
A) oviduct B) ovary C) cervix D) vagina
E) All of the answers are parts of the female reproductive system.
53) Which lifestyle is most likely to lead to infertility in a male?
A) Version 1
a man who is a semiprofessional athlete
B) a manwho works as a computer 15
programmer and sits at a desk the majority of the day C) a manwho works as a mechanic D) a man who works for a company that applies
54)
pesticides to lawns E) a man who works as a teacher
Which statement is correct about the placenta?
A) The placenta allows for free exchange of blood from the fetus to the mother but not the other direction. B) The placenta allows for free exchange of blood from the mother to the fetus but not the other direction. C) The placenta allows for a limited exchange of gases from the fetus to the mother but a free exchange from the mother to the fetus. D) The placenta does not allow the exchange of
blood between the fetus and mother but allows the exchange of gases. E) The placenta does not allow the exchange of blood or gases between the fetus and mother.
55) Which type of assisted reproductive technology allows the doctor to evaluate the embryo for genetic defects before it is placed into the uterus?
A) ICSI B) AID C) IVF D) GIFT
E) It is impossible to test the embryo for genetic diseases prior to assisted reproductive technology.
56) What percentage of infertility is attributed to problems associated with both the male and female in the couple?
A) 20% B) 40%
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C) 90% D) 10% E) 30%
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57)
What structure allows for the exchange of oxygen and
carbon dioxide between
A) chorionic villi B) umbilical cord C) morula D) chorion E) amnion
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 29 Test Bank 1) C 2) D 3) A 4) E 5) A 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) C 12) E 13) E 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) E 18) A 19) C Version 1
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20) A 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) E 31) C 32) A 33) E 34) D 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) E 39) D 40) A Version 1
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41) C 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) C 51) C 52) E 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) A
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Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) In European countries such as Italy, people are delaying childbirth and/or choosing to have no childrenor only one child. Which of the following age structure diagrams illustrates this type of trend?
A) increasing population B) decreasing population C) stable population
D) This trend is not depicted in these diagrams.
2) Which of the following is true about the majority of less-developed countries (LDCs)?
A) They consume the most fossil fuels. B) They support the highest populations. C) They produce the most hazardous wastes. D) They have the largest environmental impact.
E) They exhibit the highest per capita resource consumption.
3) In which of the following areas is human population growth the lowest?
A)
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Africa
B) North America
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C) Australia D) Europe
E) South America
4) Which of the following is true about human population growth? A) The world’s population size is predicted to reach about 5 billion by 2050. B) Human populations tend to be evenly distributed. C) After the Industrial Revolution, population growth increased.
D) The current global death rate exceeds the current global birthrate. E) The doubling time for the human population is increasing.
5) A population that is growing at a rapid rate would have an age-structure diagram with
A) a higher number of reproductive individuals compared to postreproductive individuals but very few individuals in the prereproductive category. B) a higher number of postreproductive and reproductive individuals compared to prereproductive individuals. C) a higher number of prereproductive and reproductive individuals compared to postreproductive individuals.
D) an equal number of prereproductive and reproductive individuals. E) more postreproductive individuals compared to prereproductive individuals.
6) The birthrate in a small town is 14 per 1,000 per year and the death rate is 5 per 1,000 per year. What is the annual growth rate for this town?
A) 9% B) 0.9%
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C) 19% D) 1.9% E) 0.19%
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7) Which of the following statements is/are true about human population growth?
A) the majority of the world's human population live in Asia. B) the Black Plague resulted in a decreased growth rate in the 1300s. C) changes during the Industrial Revolution led to a steep rise in the human population.
D) human population densities tend to be highest along the coasts. E) All of the above statements are true.
8) Which of the following represents replacement reproduction?
A) A couple has only one child. B) A couple has no children but each has two siblings. C) Each couple has only two children.
9) Emperor penguins defend an area around their nests. Their territory encompasses a complete circle around the nest with approximately a 0.5 m radius. If each nesting penguin has this same size and shape territory, what type of
A) clumped B) random
D) A government policy limits the number of children per family. E) A couple has four children.
distribution will these animals exhibit?
C) dense D) uniform E) independent
10) Schools of parrot fish tend to remain within close proximity to coral reefs for protection from predators and for easy access to food sources. What type of distribution does this represent? A) Version 1
clumped
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B) C)
random dense
D) uniform E) independent
11) Prairie dogs are highly social, burrow-dwelling rodents. Families have a strict social hierarchy and their "towns" can span hundreds of acres. In one colony, 750 animals live in a 500 m 2 area. What is the population density?
A) 15 B) 1.5
C) 150 D) 2.5 E) 25
12) Which of the following is true about populations with a negative growth rate?
A) The death rate exceeds the birthrate. B) The population will remain the same size for several generations. C) The age structure diagram looks like a pyramid. D) The population has reached its carrying capacity.
E) The majority of the population is prereproductive.
13) Which of the following represents a type II survivorship curve?
A) a curve depicting organisms that have a large number of offspring, but only a few offspring survive to reproduce B) a curve depicting organisms that have an equal probability of dying at all age groups C) a curve that depicts organisms that provide some level of parental care
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D) a curve that depicts organisms that survive for many years before they reproduce E) a curve that depicts organisms that have low mortality during their early years
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14)
Which of the following represents a type I
A) Spiders produce egg sacs with thousands of offspring, but only a few survive to adulthood. B) Each spring an oak tree drops thousands of seeds, but only a few will ever reach sexual maturity. C) Daphnia are planktonic crustaceans that produce offspring every three weeks. One Daphnia produces eight young and after 1.5 weeks, four of these individuals are still alive. D) Bald eagles return to the same mates and nests each year. They typically have two to three eggs and with parental care provided by both parents, the survival rate of the
survivorship curve? chicks is high. E) As adults, female leatherback sea turtles return to the beaches where they hatched to lay their own brood. One female produces approximately 600 eggs, but at least 400 of these will be eaten before they ever reach the ocean.
15) Which of the following descriptions about survivorship curves is mismatched?
A) Black bear females usually produce just one cub. The cub nurses from the female for several months and can remain with the mother for up to two years. - Type I B) Each spring an oak tree drops thousands of seeds, but only a few will ever reach sexual maturity. - Type III C) Daphniaare planktonic crustaceans that produce offspring every three weeks. One Daphnia produces eight offspring, and after 1.5 weeks, four of these individuals are still alive. - Type II D) Female giant pandas generally raise one cub at a time and their cubs may stay with their mothers for up to three years before striking out on their own.. - Type II
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E) As adults, female leatherback sea turtles return to the beaches where they hatched to lay their own brood. One female produces approximately 600 eggs, but at least 400 of these will be eaten before they ever reach the ocean. - Type I
What is meant by an organism's biotic potential?
A) The rate at which the population grows. B) The number of offspring that an organism produces over its entire life span.
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C) The age at which an organism reaches sexual maturity. D) The number of
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individuals in the prereproductive stage. E) The maximum rate of population growth with
unlimited resources.
17) All of the following impact a population's ability to reach biotic potential except
A) resource abundance. B) the number of offspring produced each reproductive cycle. C) chances of survivorship until sexual maturity. D) how frequently each individual in the population
reproduces. E) the age at which reproduction ends.
18) Which of the following populations has the greatest biotic potential?
A) Population A in which females start to reproduce at 1 year and produce 2 offspring each year. B) Population B in which females reach sexual maturity in 6 months and produce 1 offspring each 12monthreproductive cycle. C) Population C in which males reach sexual maturity in just 3 months. D) Population D in which individuals reach sexual
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maturity in 6 months and produce 5 offspring each year. E) Population E in which individuals produce 5 offspring starting at 5 years of age.
Exponential growth
A) has three phases. B) results in accelerating growth. C) produces an S-shaped growth curve.
D) requires limited resources. E) declines over time.
20) Which of the following is an example of exponential growth? Version 1
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A) 2,000→2,000→2,000 B) 1,500→1,600→1,700 C) 1,500→1,550→2,010
D) 1,000→1,500→2,000 E) 2,000→1,500→1,000
21) If a population of 200 squirrels has a 10 percent growth rate each year, how many individuals will there be in the population after 3 years (assuming that no deaths occur during this period)?
A) approximately 250 B) approximately 266 C) approximately 300
D)
approximately
E)
approximately
350 400
22) If a population of 200 squirrels has a 10 percent growth rate each year, how many individuals will be born in the next year?
A) 2 B) 10
C) 20 D) 100 E) 200
23) All of the following are true of BOTH logistic growth and exponential growth except
A) they both have a lag phase. B) they both have an exponential growth phase. C) they both have a stable equilibrium phase. D) they are both a type of population growth.
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E) they are influenced by resource availability.
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A) the carrying capacity of the environment. B) logarithmic growth. C) exponential growth. D) the minimum number of individuals that the
environment can sustain. E) the slow growth stage.
25) A population growth curve that exhibits both exponential growth and a stable equilibrium phase is
A) growing exponentially. B) growing logistically. C) unsustainable.
26) Jacob is studying a population of wrens in Michigan. Over several years, he notices that the population always stabilizes at around 45 individuals. Which of the following is
A) population is at maximum density B) death rate is higher than birthrate C) exponential growth
D) not yet at its carrying capacity. E) exhibiting a Jshaped curve.
a possible explanation for Jacob's observation?
D) limited resources to support additional birds E) slow lag phase
27) Jacob is studying a population of wrens in Michigan. Over several years, he notices that the population always stabilizes at around 45 individuals. Forty-five individuals is
A) the density. B) the growth rate. C) a density-dependent factor.
D) a densityindependent factor. E) the carrying capacity.
28) Jacob is studying a population of wrens in
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Michigan. During one severe winter, 5% of the birds died due to starvation and cold temperatures. Severe weather is an example of
A) a density-independent factor. B) a negative growth rate. C) a density-dependent factor.
29) During a summer with lots of rain, the vegetation grew lush and the white-footed mouse populations increased due to increases in food availability. However, the next two summers were record drought years and food became increasingly scarce. Over these two years, the population size of the mice
A) a density-independent factor. B) a negative growth rate. C) a density-dependent factor.
D) an opportunistic population. E) logistic growth.
decreased due to increased competition for access to food. This increased competition is an example of D) an opportunistic population. E) logistic growth.
30) Honeybees have been declining at dramatic rates in the last few years. Colony collapse disorder has been linked to a virus and results in hives completely emptied of bees among both wild populations and domestic hives. Recently, scientists have suggested that infected bees may contaminate flowers that they visit and thus spread the disease. This is an example of a
31)
A) clumped distribution. B) density-dependent factor. C) random factor.
D) densityindependent factor. E) biotic potential.
Which of the following is an example of a density-
dependent factor?
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A) parasite infection B) a wildfire C) a tornado
D) flooding E) freezing temperatures
32) Which of the following is an example of a densityindependent factor?
A) parasite infection B) males fighting for access to females C) wolf packs in territory disputes D) spread of West Nile virus among chickadees
E) flooding after heavy rains
33) Which of the following is a characteristic of equilibrium species?
A) short life span B) short time to reach sexual maturity C) production of many offspring
D) little or no parental care E) logistic growth
34) All of the following are true about equilibrium populations except
A) larger individuals. B) long time required to reach sexual maturity. C) production of few offspring.
D) little or no parental care. E) long life span.
35) Equilibrium populations tend to exhibit a type III survivorship curve.
A)
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True, because individuals tend to have fewer
offspring and provide extensive parental care.
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B) False, because individuals tend to have lots of offspring with no parental care. C) True, because all individuals in the equilibrium populations are large and live for a long period of time. D) True, because there are high rates of mortality
early in life. E) False, because equilibrium populations tend to have low mortality rates early in life.
36) Organisms are more likely to face extinction if they have which of the following characteristics?
A) restricted geographic ranges B) broad habitat tolerance C) large local populations
D) extensive geographic ranges E) high biotic potential
37) Different populations living in the same geographical region is a(n)
A) organism. B) population.
C) community. D) ecosystem. E) biosphere.
38) Meghan is studying interactions between caribou and their wolf predators. This is an example of ecology.
A) population B) community
C) ecosystem D) biosphere E) demographic
39) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern
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Florida. Prior to this event, this species did not inhabit the island, but with the ample vegetation on the island and a lack of predators, the displaced individuals were able to survive and reproduce. When the butterflies initially arrived on the island, they did not have to compete for food or space. What
A) logistic B) exponential C) density-dependent
type of population growth did they likely exhibit?
D) densityindependent E) logarithmic
40) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. When the butterflies first arrived on the island, they did not have to compete for access to food or space. In addition, there were few natural predators such as wasps and birds which were common on the mainland. As a result, the island population will have a biotic potential compared to the mainland population.
A) higher B) lower
C) similar D) reduced E) stable
41) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. During the first year, 80 caterpillars hatched from eggs laid by the butterflies and only 5 individuals in the population died. What is the growth rate for the population during this period?
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C) 10% D) 30% E) 400%
A) 1% B) 3%
42) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. In general, each female butterfly lays more than 50 eggs each year, but only a few individuals survive for more than a month after hatching from the eggs. What type of
survivorship curve most accurately represents this species?
C) type III D) type IV E) type V
A) type I B) type II
43) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. The hurricane which lead to the arrival of the
A) clumped B) random C) density-dependent
44) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. When the butterflies first arrived on the island, they remained in the southeast corner of the island where most of the flowering plants had not been destroyed or uprooted by
butterflies on the island is an example of a factor. D) densityindependent E) dispersed
the high winds and seas during the hurricane. What type of distribution do these butterflies exhibit?
C) dispersed D) uniform E) even
A) clumped B) random
45)
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During a recent
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hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. Prior to this event, this species did not inhabit the island, but with the ample vegetation on the island and a lack of predators, the displaced individuals were able to survive and reproduce. After several years, the population stabilized with
A) density-dependent factors. B) biotic potential. C) exponential growth.
approximately 150 individuals. The 150 individuals on the island is an example of the
D) logistic growth. E) carrying capacity.
46) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. After several years, the population stabilized with approximately 150 individuals. The butterflies and the flowers that they require for food would be considered an example of a(n)
A) organism. B) population.
C) community. D) ecosystem. E) biosphere.
47) A butterfly species has very wide distribution across southern Florida. In addition, the adults and caterpillars can use a wide array of plant species as a food source and also tolerate a broad range of temperatures. Based on these criteria, this species is unlikely to face extinction in the immediate future.
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A)
True, because they have a restricted geographic
range. B) False, because they have an extensive geographic range.
mainland and island are small. E) True, because they have narrow habitat tolerances.
C) True, because they have broad habitat tolerances. D) False, because all the local populations on the
48) Which statement about ecology and environmental science is correct?
A) Ecology is a field of science that helps negate the information that is derived from the field of environmental science. B) During the study of ecology, only living organisms are studied, while the nonliving aspects are studied within the field of environmental science. C) During the study of environmental science, living organisms are studied, while the nonliving aspects are studied within the field of ecology. D) The field of environmental science applies the
49) What is the greatest problem that the human population will face if we fail to have a greater understanding
A) We will have a lack of understanding about the problems that the human population poses to the health of the biosphere. B) We will have a lack of understanding about the ability of the human population to obtain additional resources from the environment. C) We will not understand how to expand human society into currently uninhabited areas on the planet.
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ecological principles to human-based concerns. E) The field of ecology focuses on humanbased issues and uses them to help determine if there is going to be an environmental change.
of ecology and environmental science? D) The human population will start to decline in size. E) The human population will go extinct in the near future.
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50)
Which of the following statements is correct about the
comparison between
A) MDCs consume 4 timesas many metals and 3 times as much paperas LDCs. B) MDCs consume twice as much paper and 4 times as many metals as LDCs. C) The population of MDCsis growing twice as fast as the population of LDCs. D) MDCs produce 10 timesas much hazardous waste and consume 3 times as much paper as LDCs. E) MDCs consume 3 times as many metals and 4 times as much paperas LDCs.
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51) If the fishing village of Hopkins, Belize, is experiencing a decreasing population, what should they do if they wish to reverse this trend and see the greatest amount of population growth in the next 10 years?
A) increase the number of individuals in the prereproductive stage B) increase the number of individuals in the postreproductive stage C) increase the number of individuals in the reproductive stage
D) increase the amount of medical care available for its residents E) increase the economic opportunities for the members of the community
52) What is the correct ratio of fossil fuel consumption between the MDCs and LDCs?
A) MDCs 60% vs. LDCs 40% B) MDCs 40% vs. LDCs 60% C) MDCs 22% vs. LDCs 78%
D) MDCs 50% vs. LDCs 50% E) MDCs 80% vs. LDCs 20%
53) Which field of biology studies all aspects of biodiversity?
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A) conservation biology B) histology C) geology
D) entomology E) environmental science
54) Based upon the features listed, which of the following species is the most likely to go extinct?
A) Species A has a small population, has a narrow habitat tolerance, and lives on an island. B) Species B has a large population, can withstand a large spectrum of environmental conditions, and lives all over the United States. C) Species C has a small population, can withstand a large spectrum of environmental conditions, and lives within a small section of the forest. D) Species D has a moderate population, can
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
withstand a moderate spectrum of environmental conditions, and lives on an island. E) Species E has a large local population, broad tolerance to environmental change, and a large geographic range.
55)
55.1) Above is a life history table for a minnow (small fish). Based on this table, what type of survivorship curve do these animals have? A) Version 1
type I 18
B) C)
type II type III
D) type IV E) type V
55.2) Above is a life history table for a minnow (small fish). Based on this table, how many years until the population drops to less than 50% of its original population?
A) less than one 1 year B) 1-2 years
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C) 5 years D) 3 years E) 4 years
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 30 Test Bank 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) E 17) E 18) D 19) B Version 1
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20) C 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) E 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) E 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) A Version 1
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41) B 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) E 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) Section Break 55.1) C 55.2) A
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) On average, 90% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. ⊚
⊚
true
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A) a group of walrus on a beach B) hummingbirds at a feeder C) trout and the lake they inhabit D) squirrels and the oak trees they live in
3)
E) a herd of elephants in the NamibDesert
A community is
A) populations of multiple species interacting with one another in a specific area. B) populations of organisms and the abiotic factors in their environment. C) competition for food between individuals in a population.
4)
2) Which of the following is a community?
D) all the biotic and abiotic factors in an environment. E) multiple organisms of the same species living in a specific area.
An ecosystem
A)
includes only the plants within a particular area.
B) includes all the living organisms within a specific area, but not the abiotic factors. C) includes both living and abiotic factors within a
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particular region. D) always includes equal numbers of plant and animal species. E) only refers to biotic factors in a region.
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5) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?
A) zebras and the lions that prey on them B) a coral reef together with all the fishes and invertebrates living in and around it C) flowering plants and all the insects and birds that pollinate them
D) male prairie chickens competing for access to mates E) rabbits eating carrots
6) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about species diversity?
A) It includes species richness. B) It includes species age distribution. C) It is influenced by the relative abundance of species. D) It is influenced by the distribution of the different
species. E) It is not impacted by species richness.
7) Which of the following communities is the least diverse?
A) 15 lions, 100 zebras, 80 giraffes B) 50 squirrels, 75 oak trees, 60 maple trees C) 4 crab spiders, 76 goldenrod, 60 echinacea
D) 40 bass, 60 minnow, 55 blue gill E) 5 elm trees, 7 beech trees, 6 birch trees
8) Which of the following is an example of species richness? mates A) vultures feeding on the remains of a carcass B) 60 elk, 6 bald eagles, and 90 white pine trees in a forest C) prairie chickens at a lake competing for access to Version 1
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D) diving beetles, blue gill, lilies, water mites, crayfish, bass E) 100 kg of vegetation, 10 kg of grasshoppers, 1 kg of spiders
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9)
Ecological succession is
A) a change in communities caused by human activities. B) a stable community that forms after a change. C) an orderly process of change in the community of organisms.
D) what happens to a cultivated field every year that crops are planted. E) competition between opportunistic and equilibrium species.
10) Which of the following is an example of primary succession?
A) new growth in a forest after a forest fire B) regrowth and recolonization on Mt. St. Helens in areas covered with rock and lava C) a wheat field that is not allowed to grow wild D) regrowth of vegetation in an area covered by a
mudslide after flooding E) colonization of an isolated island by a population of long-horned beetles
11) Which of the following correctly lists the progression of species present during primary or secondary succession?
A)
fungi, nonvascular plants, gymnosperms, animals
B) nonvascular plants, angiosperm, gymnosperms, fungi C) animals, fungi, nonvascular plants, angiosperms
D) angiosperms, nonvascular plants, animals, gymnosperms E) gymnosperms, angiosperms, fungi, nonvascular plants
12) The first pioneer species to appear in an area undergoing secondary succession is
A) an equilibrium species. B) long-lived. Version 1
C) able to produce numerous offspring.
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D) a secondary consumer. E) slow to reach sexual maturity.
13) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about primary and secondary succession?
A) both lead to a stable climax community. B) both include a progression of changes in the community over time. C) both occur in regions where soil is already present. D) for both communities, fungi and vascular
seedless plants are typically the first species to colonize the area. E) both are colonized first by opportunistic species.
14) Which of the following would be considered a mutualistic relationship?
A) Some species of crabs decorate their shells with sea anemones and other corals. These "decorations" help camouflage the crab, and the movement of the crab from one area to the next exposes the corals and anemones to different sources of food. B) Some spiders do not build webs, but live in the web of another species. When a prey item is caught in the web, the non-web building spider will sneak in and steal the prey. C) A praying mantis hunts and eats a fly. D) The longest tapeworm removed from a human was approximately 11 meters long. Tapeworms do not have a
digestive system, but obtain all of their nutrients from the host. E) Pseudoscorpions are small, harmless arachnids. To move from one place to another, they will sometimes latch onto the legs of flies and thus be carried long distances that they would not readily be able to traverse.
15) Which of the following would be considered a commensalistic relationship?
A)
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Some species of crabs decorate their shells with
sea anemones and other corals. These "decorations"
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help camouflage the crab, and the movement of the crab from one area to the next exposes the corals and anemones to different sources of food. B) Some spiders do not build webs, but live in the web of another species. When a prey item is caught in the web, the non-web building spider will sneak in and steal the prey. C) A praying mantis hunts and eats a fly. D) The longest tapeworm removed from a human was approximately 11 meters long. Tapeworms do not have a digestive system, but obtain all of their nutrients from the
host. E) Pseudoscorpions are small, harmless arachnids. To move from one place to another, they will sometimes latch onto the legs of flies and thus be carried long distances that they would not readily be able to traverse.
16) Which of the following would be considered a parasitic relationship?
A) Some species of crabs decorate their shells with sea anemones and other corals. These "decorations" help camouflage the crab, and the movement of the crab from one area to the next exposes the corals and anemones to different sources of food. B) Some spiders do not build webs, but live in the web of another species. When a prey item is caught in the web, the non-web building spider will sneak in and steal the prey. C) A praying mantis hunts and eats a fly. D) The longest tapeworm removed from a human was approximately 11 meters long. Tapeworms do not have a digestive system, but obtain all of their nutrients from the
host, which can cause problems for the host especially if he or she is undernourished. E) Pseudoscorpions are small, harmless arachnids. To move from one place to another, they will sometimes latch onto the legs of flies and thus be carried long distances that they would not readily be able to traverse.
17) Which of the following would be considered an example of competition?
A)
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Some species of crabs decorate their shells with
sea anemones and other corals. These "decorations"
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help camouflage the crab, and the movement of the crab from one area to the next exposes the corals and anemones to different sources of food. B) Some spiders do not build webs, but live in the web of another species. When a prey item is caught in the web, the non-web building spider will sneak in and steal the prey. C) A praying mantis hunts and eats a fly. D) The longest tapeworm removed from a human was approximately 11 meters long. Tapeworms do not have a digestive system, but obtain all of their nutrients from the
18)
host. E) Pseudoscorpions are small, harmless arachnids. To move from one place to another, they will sometimes latch onto the legs of flies and thus be carried long distances that they would not readily be able to traverse.
Which of the following is an example of predation?
A) daddy-long-legs, a type of arachnid that eats dead and decaying matter B) marine filter-feeders that have long tentacles to filter food particles from the water C) a starfish which is able to evert its stomach to
break open and eat clams D) a vulture feeding on a dead carcass E) a tick that attaches to a deer and sucks its blood
19) The physical space that an organism occupies in its environment is its
A) habitat. B) niche.
C) biotic factor. D) role. E) abiotic factor.
20) Which of the following is an example of an animal's habitiat?
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A) a small bird living in the dense shrubs at the base of a tree B) two male lizards fighting over access to a female C) a grasshopper feeding on leaves D) an oystercatcher eating bivalves
E) lions and hyenas fighting over access to a zebra carcass
21) Which of the following is an example of the competitive exclusion principle?
A) two different species occupying the same ecological niche B) two species competing for food and territory C) competition of mates between two different species
D) two species sharing the same habitat E) one species outcompeting another species in a particular niche
22) Among American warblers, several different species often live in the same spruce trees and eat caterpillars. However, each species reproduces at a slightly different time of year and each species also forages at different areas within
the tree canopy. These differences in foraging behaviors and reproduction is an example of
A) competitive exclusion. B) character displacement. C) resource partitioning.
23)
D) mutualism. E) competitive inclusion.
A keystone species is
A) the largest species in a community. B) the most numerous species in a community. C) the least numerous species in a community. D) a species on which many other species depend.
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E) the species that occupies most of the niches within a particular environment.
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A) autotroph. B) consumer.
C) heterotroph. D) decomposer. E) omnivore.
25) Martin is studying blue gill fish, which are insectivores. How would you classify this fish?
A) autotroph and consumer B) autotroph and producer C) heterotroph and decomposer
D) autotroph and detritivore E) heterotroph and consumer
26) Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about ecosystems?
A) chemicals are constantly recycled and reused. B) chemicals are converted from one form to another. C) energy is constantly recycled. D) energy is required continuously because some
27) In an aquatic ecosystem, the aquatic plants are eaten by small invertebrates that in turn are eaten by crayfish, which are eaten by fish, which are then eaten by ducks. In this
A) aquatic plants. B) small invertebrates.
28) In an aquatic ecosystem, the aquatic plants are eaten by small invertebrates that in turn are eaten by crayfish, which are eaten by fish, which are then eaten by ducks.Based on
energy is lost. E) the ultimate source of energy is the sun.
system, the greatest amount of biomass would be found in the C) crayfish. D) fish. E) ducks.
this, which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) aquatic plant -
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producer B) crayfish - secondary consumer C) duck - 4th trophic level D) fish - tertiary consumer
E) small invertebrates - 2nd trophic level
29) If there is 2,000 kg of plant material, how much of this biomass will be converted into top carnivore tissue?
A) 20,000 kg B) 2,000 kg
30)
C) 200 kg D) 20 kg E) 2 kg
A chemoautotroph obtains its energy from
A) ammonia. B) sulfides. C) nitrites. D) inorganic compounds.
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E) All of the above describe energy sources for chemoautotrophs.
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31)
Which of the following is an autotroph?
A) rose bush B) lion
32)
C) decomposer D) omnivore E) hyena
A decomposer ultimately obtains all its energy from
A) sunlight. B) mushrooms. C) preying on other living organisms.
D) parasitizing living organisms. E) dead and decaying plant matter.
33) When too many nutrients are added to of a body of water, this is known as
A) a biogeochemical cycle. B) reservoirs. C) eutrophication.
D) global warming. E) nitrogen fixing.
34) Which of the following is an example of a sedimentary cycle?
A) the phosphorus cycle B) the nitrogen cycle C) the carbon cycle
D) the atmospheric cycle E) eutrophic cycle
35) Which of the following has the slowest phosphate transfer rate?
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A) runoff B) decomposition of plants and animals C) mining
D)
weathering of
E)
fertilizers
rocks
36) What is the source of carbon for most aquatic organisms?
A) carbon dioxide B) calcium carbonate C) bicarbonate ions
D) carbon monoxide E) fossil fuels
37) Which of the following would be inaccurately classified as a reservoir?
A) oil. B) calcium carbonate.
C) coal. D) natural gas. E) bicarbonate.
38) When an animal respires, the carbon in the carbon dioxide originated from
A) the air that the organism breaths in. B) dead and decaying plant matter. C) fossil fuels.
39)
D) photosynthesis. E) carbon fixation.
The greenhouse effect trapping heat in the Earth's A) will lead to decreased sea levels. B) decreases the amount of carbon dioxide in the air. C) increases the amount of carbon dioxide in the air. D) is caused by gases such as carbon dioxide
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atmosphere. E) is due to gases forming a barrier around the Earth and insulating the Earth from the sun's rays.
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40) To increase her tomato yield, an organic gardener plants legumes alongside her tomato bushes rather than using
fertilizers. Why did she plant legumes?
A) Legumes have root nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. B) Legumes convert ammonium to nitrates. C) Root nodules on legumes have denitrifying bacteria.
D) Legumes are an immediate source of phosphorus and nitrogen. E) Root nodules on legumes produce nitrifying bacteria.
41) The most exclusive level of biological organization that is listed below is
A) ecosystems. B) biomes.
42)
C) the biosphere. D) communities. E) populations.
Biomes are defined by
A) their size. B) types of animals. C) communities. D) temperature and rainfall.
E) plants, animals, and inorganic matter.
43) Water is a major limiting factor in which of the following biomes?
A) temperate grasslands B) tundra C) savannah
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D) tropical rainforest E) coral reef
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44)
Which of the following terrestrial ecosystems is a very
cold northern coniferous
A) taiga B) tropical rainforest C) temperate rainforest D) prairie E) tundra
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45) What is the main reason that the tundra does not have large plants?
A) The seeds of large plants were never dispersed into these regions. B) The amount of sunlight is not great enough for large plants to survive. C) The amount of rainfall is not enough for large plants to survive.
D) The other species of plants have outcompeted them for resources. E) The permafrost persists, even during the summer.
46) In aquatic ecosystems, primary productivity is most dependent on
A) organic nutrients. B) species richness and diversity. C) the type of soil.
D) the rate of photosynthesis. E) inorganic nutrients.
47) Which two terrestrial biomes are the most similar with regards to rainfall? D) A)
temperate deciduous forest and tropical seasonal
forest B) taiga and tropical rain forest C) temperate rain forest and shrubland
grasslands and
desert E) temperate deciduous forests and tropical rainforests
48) Which ecosystem makes up approximately 70% of the Earth's surface?
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D) terrestrial; A) aquatic; marine B) aquatic; fresh water C) aquatic; coral reefs
tundra E) rainforest
terrestrial;
49) What is the first step in energy flow through an ecosystem?
A) Producers absorb solar energy. B) Producers are eaten by the herbivores. C) Decomposers break down the organic matter and make it available for the producers. D) Top-level carnivores eat the herbivores or
50) As humans continue to use fossil fuels as a primary source of energy, the amount of carbon entering the atmosphere from fossil fuel combustion will continue to increase dramatically. What is the effect of large-scale
A) Because trees are a major sink for atmospheric carbon, fewer trees will result in less carbon being removed from the atmosphere for photosynthesis. B) As trees are removed, there is more room for carbon to enter the soil directly and be used by other plants. C) The large-scale removal of forests does not have any real effect on atmospheric carbon, because carbon dioxide
51)
omnivores within the ecosystem. E) Producers absorb nutrients from the soil.
deforestation on the carbon in the atmosphere?
is not stored in trees. D) Because trees produce carbon dioxide, the amount of carbon in the atmosphere will decrease with their widescale removal.
How does climate change effect Earth's oceans?
A) The pH level of the ocean willshift to a more acidic environment, leading to stress and thepossible extinction of many species of shellfish and corals. B) The pH level of the ocean willshift to a more basic/alkaline environment, leading to a decrease in overall Version 1
productivity. C) As levels of carbon in the atmosphere increase, the amount of carbon in the ocean decreases proportionately.
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D) Excess carbon in the atmosphere is absorbed by the ocean, which directly increases ocean temperature.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 52)
52.1) Based on the figure shown here, which organism is a secondary consumer?
A) rabbit B) deer
C) mouse D) chipmunk E) fisher
52.2) Based on the figure shown here, which of the following is a carnivore? B) owl A) Version 1
skunk 18
C) rabbit D) insects E) deer
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52.3) Based on the figure shown here, which of the following is both a primary and secondary consumer?
A) skunk B) mouse
C) rabbit D) deer E) snake
53)
53.1) Which of the following boxes indicates the process of nitrification?
A) Box A B) Box B
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C) Box C D) Box D E) Box E
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A) Box A B) Box B
53.3)
What process is occurring in Box C?
A) nitrification B) decomposition C) denitrification
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C) Box C D) Box D E) Box E
D) nitrogen fixing E) nitrogen incorporation
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 31 Test Bank 1) FALSE 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) E 7) C 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) E 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) A Version 1
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20) A 21) E 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) E 30) E 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) C 37) E 38) D 39) D 40) A Version 1
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41) E 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) E 46) E 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) Section Break 52.1) E 52.2) B 52.3) B 53) Section Break 53.1) B 53.2) A 53.3) D
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Student name: TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Beach erosion is often caused by structures built to prevent erosion. ⊚
true
⊚
false
2) Since water is a renewable resource, freshwater is readily available globally. ⊚
true
⊚
false
3) Agriculture, industrial use, and domestic use are the largest uses of freshwater supplies, in that order. ⊚
true
⊚
false
4) Extensive irrigation may contribute to global climate change because it may cause droughts in some semiarid regions of the world. ⊚
true
⊚
false
5) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are damaging to the world's freshwater supply. ⊚
true
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⊚
false
1
⊚
true
⊚
false
7) Habitat destruction is the largest cause of the loss in biodiversity worldwide. ⊚
true
⊚
false
8) Preserving biodiversity can increase the value of land and the resources extracted from it. ⊚
true
⊚
false
9) Growing livestock is more sustainable than growing crop plants. ⊚
true
⊚
false
10) More sparse urban settlement patterns may help conserve energy and preserve the environment. ⊚
true
⊚
false
11) The requirements of large amounts of fossil fuels and fertilizers in modern agriculture is one of the reasons that ⊚
true
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⊚
human society is unsustainable.
false
2
⊚
true
⊚
false
13) Knowledge of both basic biology and applied biology are needed to support conservation biology. ⊚
true
⊚
false
14) Wildlife management is a subfield of biology that supports conservation biology. ⊚
true
⊚
false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?
A) fossil fuels B) food crops
16)
Pollution is defined as
A) an alteration in land usage. B) an undesirable alteration to the environment. C) the impact of human activity on the environment. D) the impact of animal and plant species on the
17)
C) water D) wild game E) solar energy
environment. E) the introduction of a new species into an environment.
Which of the following is an example of pollution? scattered on the ground. A) Turkeys enter a field and eat some of the seeds
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B) A heavy rain occurs, resulting in some ponding of water. C) Small amounts of iron leach from rocks in a streambed, increasing the amount of dissolved iron in the water. D) Leftover minerals from ores are left along a streambed, allowing leftover traces of the mineral to run off
into the stream after heavy rains. E) Deer cross a stream, disturbing the sand and silt on the streambed, making the water muddy and cloudy.
18) Which of the following activities contribute to beach erosion?
A) construction of groynes B) filling coastal wetlands C) use of seawalls to protect cities from hurricane storm surges D) rising sea levels
E) All of the above describe activities that contribute to beach erosion.
19) Desertification is primarily caused by which of the following activities?
A) overgrazing of livestock B) overplanting of crops C) overuse of farm machinery
D) lack of rainfall E) restoration of wetlands
20) Desertification and deforestation are similar in that both involve
A) overpopulation of an area by humans. B) loss of plant and animal life in an area. C) lack of rainfall in an area. D) overgrowth of undesirable plants in an area.
21)
E) loss of wetland habitats.
Most of the world's freshwater supply is used for
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A) drinking water by humans. B) bathing by humans. C) irrigating crops.
22)
D) drinking water for livestock. E) boating and recreation.
Which of the following is a major drawback of dams?
A) saltwater intrusion B) providing irrigation water C) sediment buildup
D) depletion of aquifers E) deforestation of nearby lands
23) Which of the following is a consequence of removing water from aquifers?
A) land subsidence including sinkhole formation B) loss of habitat for aquatic organisms C) lowering of sea levels D) water seepage into underground rock beds
E) sediment buildup
24) Some rivers have been dammed under the guise of flood control. What might be an unintended consequence of using this approach?
A) saltwater intrusion into the aquifer B) reduced fertility of downstream land due to reduced silt deposits C) more frequent rainfall D) deforestation of land downstream due to reduced
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silt deposits E) increased rainfall due to increased water evaporation
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A) polyculture B) construction of dams for irrigation needs C) biological pest control D) contour with no-till farming
E) reducing pesticide and fertilizer usage
26) Extensive irrigation may contribute to desertification because
A) the water dissolves soil nutrients, making them unavailable to plants. B) water used in irrigation leaves behind toxic substances in the soil. C) runoff of water leaves silt deposits behind, which reduce the ability of plants to grow. D) a reduction of water available in the aquifer
lowers lake, river, and stream levels. E) evaporation of water used in irrigation causes salinization of the land, reducing the ability of plants to grow.
27) Which of the following creates the least amount of soil erosion?
A) poor landscaping practices that expose the land to excess wind B) overgrazing by livestock C) use of drip irrigation systems
D) deforestation E) wetland destruction
28) An accumulation of mineral salts due to evaporation of irrigation water is called
A) salinization. B) desalinization.
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C) desertification. D) forestation. E) sedimentation.
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A) growing crops. B) providing water. C) growing livestock.
30)
D) cleaning sewage. E) pest and weed control.
The increased efficiency of fishing has led to
A) no change in the biodiversity of the ocean. B) decreased yields from fishing. C) increased biodiversity of aquatic animals other than fish.
D) increased nutritional deficiencies in the human population. E) decreased need for agriculture.
31) Which of the following has reduced fishing pressures on wild populations?
A)
depletion of fish populations through overfishing
B) use of aquaculture/aquafarming C) herbicide and pesticide use
D) new technologies that increase fishing efficiency E) water pollution
32) In which ways does overfishing lead to decreased biodiversity?
A)
It reduces the available habitat for other species.
B) Overfishing allows fished species to overpopulate once the larger individuals are removed from the population, which in turn depletes the species' food sources. C) Newer technologies allow the fishing fleet to take a larger catch while leaving larger numbers of breeding pairs, which overpopulate and degrade the environment. D) It depletes fish that feed on some species and
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serve as food sources for other species, leading to the eradication of some species and the overpopulation of others. E) It depletes food sources for aquatic mammals, which then overpopulate.
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33) The world today derives the majority of its energy from which of the following sources?
A) coal and oil B) hydropower and nuclear power C) hydropower
34) are
D) nuclear power E) wind and solar power
Hydropower and wind power are similar in that both
A) nonrenewable energy sources. B) renewable energy sources. C) commonly used worldwide as power sources.
D) dependent in part on fossil fuels. E) sources of environmental pollution.
35) Which of the following is a drawback to the use of hydropower?
A) Hydropower consumes more fossil fuels than power plants fueled solely by fossil fuels. B) More countries derive more power from fossil fuels as compared to hydropower. C) Hydropower causes more pollution than fossil fuels, such as coal or oil. D) Hydropower is less efficient as compared to
36) Mercury can enter an aquatic food chain and collect in fish as well as people who eat fish. This is an example of
A) biotic potential B) biological magnification C) salinization
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fossil fuels, such as coal or oil. E) Water levels below dams are reduced, and large dams disrupt upstream ecosystems.
which of the following processes? D) bioremediation E) biological accumulation
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37) Before solar energy can become usable for consumers, which of the following events must occur?
A) Energy must be collected, converted into another form, and stored until needed. B) Energy must be converted into another form, stored until needed, and then converted into heat. C) Energy must be used to heat water, and solar energy is combined with steam to heat a photovoltaic system that produces electricity. D) Solar energy passes through a photovoltaic cell, which then stores the energy as heat until it is needed.
E) Solar energy is used to power a photovoltaic cell, which splits water into hydrogen and oxygen, and the hydrogen can be used to provide energy.
38) How does the use of minerals such as metals differ from the use of fossil fuels?
A) Fossil fuels are more plentiful than metals and are depleted more slowly. B) Metals can be extracted by strip mining, while fossil fuels may not. C) Many metals may be recycled, decreasing the necessity for finding new reserves, unlike fossil fuels, which cannot be recycled.
D) The mining of metals is not as destructive to the environment as the mining of fossil fuels. E) The recycling of fossil fuels is more economically feasible than the recycling of metals.
39) Which of the following types of compounds have been implicated in ozone depletion?
A) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) B) volatile organic compounds (VOCs) C) DDT
40)
D) polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) E) chromium
How do forests regulate global climate?
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A) Forests replenish atmospheric oxygen. B) Forests provide shade. C) Forests block wind. D) Forests add moisture to the atmosphere via
transpiration. E) Forests take up carbon dioxide.
41) How much revenue is generated from ecotourism annually in the United States?
A) 25 million B) 5 billion
C) 25 million D) 1 billion E) 75 million
42) Which of the following groups is suspected of causing climate change?
A) fossil fuel usage, deforestation, and agriculture B) overfishing and hydropower usage C) fossil fuel usage and overfishing D) salinization and desertification
43)
The major cause of the loss in Earth's biodiversity is
A) fossil fuel usage. B) pollution. C) habitat loss.
44)
E) erosion, deforestation, pollution, and salinization
D) overfishing and water pollution. E) agricultural runoff.
Which of the following is a benefit of biodiversity? D) climate A) development of novel medicines B) waste disposal C) new and better crop plants
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regulation E) All of the choices are benefits of biodivesity.
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45) Biodiversity increases the consumptive value of land, meaning that
A) more value can be derived from the more diverse products produced by ecosystems with high biodiversity relative to land that has been cleared for agriculture. B) ecosystems with higher biodiversity consume more resources than those with lower biodiversity, creating more strain on the environment. C) ecosystems with low biodiversity consume resources at a higher rate than those with higher biodiversity. D) land that has been cleared for agriculture
consumes natural resources at a slower rate and is cheaper to maintain. E) land with lower biodiversity has many more possible uses for humans than land with higher biodiversity.
46) Deforestation may contribute toward climate change because
A) the trees naturally trap heat near the Earth's surface, and the loss of trees allows this heat to escape into space through the atmosphere. B) it leads to habitat loss for many forest species, which invade nearby marginal habitats, including those used by humans. C) loss of trees disrupts the carbon cycle, limiting the amount that is absorbed by plants, and increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
D) the forest canopy reflects some solar radiation back into space, allowing more of it to penetrate to the Earth's surface. E) it leads to salinization of the land.
47) Forests and other natural ecosystems, such as wetlands, exhibit the "sponge effect," meaning that they
A) soak up water from runoff and rainfall, and thus accumulate pollutants. B) soak up water from runoff and rainfall, releasing it at a regular rate that moderates flooding of streams and rivers.
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C) soak up pollutants from runoff and rainfall, releasing it quickly into streams and rivers and raising their levels.
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D) draw water away from rivers and streams, lowering their levels. E) soak up water from runoff and rainfall, saturating
nearby ecosystems.
48) Which of the following explanations about the financial impact of biodiversity on the economy is inaccurate?
A) Protecting biodiversity prevents damage to farms due to the alleviation of flooding and siltation problems. B) Many communities are utilizing biodiversity to assist in wastewater treatment, both lowering costs and protecting the environment in the process. C) Loss of biodiversity in many areas of the world has led to increases in local and global average temperatures (global warming). D) Protecting biodiversity has decreased the amount
of freshwater available to human populations because of the "sponge effect." E) Protecting biodiversity has led to new industries in ecotourism, adding billions of dollars to the economy annually.
49) Human society in its current form is unsustainable because
A) important natural resources are being consumed more quickly than they can be replenished. B) renewable energy sources require too many land and this is reducing the area available for farming. C) recycling has eliminated the need for the mining of some mineral resources. D) freshwater is being effectively preserved through
conservation. E) diverting agricultural yield for feeding livestock supplies enoughprotein to fulfill community's dietary needs.
50) Which of the following is inconsistent with the idea of making rural areas more sustainable?
A) planting of native grasses to rebuild the soil B) planting of trees next to land used for agriculture to break the wind and protect the soil from erosion C) use of cover crops to stabilize the soil between Version 1
growing seasons D) restoration and maintenance of wetlands to lessen runoff and alleviate flooding 13
E) increasing use of extensive irrigation techniques to nurture demanding crops
51)
Multipurpose trees are useful for what purpose?
A) improved pest control, as well as serving as a windbreak B) water conservation and improved pest control C) providing additional products, as well as serving as a windbreak
D) restoring wetlands and improving soil quality E) providing fossil fuel sources and assisting with irrigation
52) Which of the following is inconsistent with the idea of making urban environments more sustainable?
A) development of more energy-efficient means of transportation B) utilization of "green roofs" C) creation of "greenbelts" D) development of new sections in cities as older ones become dilapidated and unusable
E) use of native species in landscaping that require less maintenance and attract bees and butterflies
53) A company that owns an office building decides to build a "green roof." Which of the following is least likely to occur as a result?
A) higher water bills because of the need to irrigate vegetation B) fresh fruits and vegetables for employees to take home to their families C) additional recreational space for employees to enjoy during work breaks
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D) lower electric bills due to the extra insulation the vegetation provides E) lowered rainwater runoff
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54) Which of the following practices would be most effective in reversing the loss of biodiversity on Earth? species A) redesign city developments to revitalize existing areas instead of developing new ones B) increase the number of species housed in zoos and captive environments C) establish large-scale captive breeding programs to help bolster wild populations D) preserve the genetic material of endangered
E) eliminate the opportunity for invasive species to establish themselves in new communities
55) The Canada lynx ( Lynx canadensis) is currently listed as an endangered species. Which of the following would play the greatest role in removing the lynx from the endangered species list?
A) create a law that bans the development and use of roads for snowmobiling and skiing in the lynx habitat B) pass a law that restricts hunting of lynx C) increase the amount of available prey for the lynx D) establish limits on the amount of timber that can be harvested from the forests that the lynx use as their habitat
E) remove any potential competitors (i.e., wolves and coyotes) from the lynx habitat to increase the amount of resources available for the lynx
56) Which indirect value of biodiversity will have the greatest economical value to people?
A) a twenty-hectare marshland that acts as a sponge for rainwater B) the ecotourism market in the United States C) two hundred hectares of wetlands in Canada that soak up pollutants and purify water D) forests that decrease erosion along the banks of rivers in the Philippines
E) a row of trees that act as a wind block on the northwest side of our homes, decreasing our need for air conditioning and cooling systems in the summer
57) Version 1
Which of the 15
following would have the greatest influence in creating a more sustainable urbansociety?
A) improving the efficiency of water filtration systems in order to decrease our consumption of freshwater B) increasing fuel efficiency in our vehicles so we can decrease the consumption of fossil fuels C) decreasing the amount of environmental pollution produced by industry D) decreasing the amount of land that is altered in order to accommodate human desires (new homes, factories,
agriculture, etc.) E) exploring alternative energy sources that are more environmentally favorable (i.e., solar, hydropower, etc.)
58) Conservation biology supports all of the following ethical principles except
A) all animals have the same rights or legal status as humans. B) biodiversity is desirable for the biosphere and humans. C) biodiversity has value in and of itself regardless of any practical benefit to humans.
59)
D) extinction due to human actions are undesirable. E) the complex interactions of ecosystems support biodiversity and are desirable.
The main goal of conservation biology is to
A) conserve natural resources for this and future generations. B) promote the needs of certain ecosystems that are determined to be in danger. C) prevent the hunting and fishing of species. D) prevent the building of large structures like
shopping malls and businesses. E) promote the welfare of endangered species.
60) Which subfield directly supports conservation biology? Version 1
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A) genetics B) ecology C) wildlife management
D) field biology E) All of the subfields listed support conservation biology.
61) Which of the following activities will help make rural societies more sustainable?
A) plant multipurpose trees B) design energy-efficient forms of transportation C) create greenbelts D) improve storm-water management
E) promote sustainability by encouraging the recycling of business equipment
62) Which of the following human behaviors is considered sustainable?
A) the use of the sun in order to produce a readily available form of energy B) consumption of meat by people in the United States C) the use of fossil fuels as our primary form of energy D) mining, processing, and the use of minerals for
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everyday products E) modern agricultural practices that require large amounts of fertilizers
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 32 Test Bank 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) E 19) A Version 1
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20) B 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) E 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) E 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) E Version 1
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41) B 42) A 43) C 44) E 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) E 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) A 60) E 61) A Version 1
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62) A
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