TEST BANK for Essentials of Dental Assisting 6th Edition by Debbie S. Robinson, Doni L. Bird

Essentials of Dental Assisting 6th Edition Robinson Test Bank Chapter 01: Introduction to Dental Assisting Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is a member of the dental healthcare team? a. The dental assistant b. The dentist c. The dental supply person d. Both the dental assistant and the dentist ANS: D

Both the dental assistant and dentist are members of the dental healthcare team. The dental supply person provides an important support service but is not a member of the dental healthcare team.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 4 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 2. The American Dental Association (ADA) recognizes how many dental specialties? a. Five b. Seven c. Nine d. Eleven ANS: C

The ADA currently recognizes nine dental specialties, as opposed to five, seven, or eleven.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 5

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. Which dental team member is legally responsible for the care of the patient? a. Dentist b. Dental hygienist c. Dental assistant d. Dental laboratory technician ANS: A

The dentist is licensed to assess the oral health needs of the patient and is legally responsible for the patient’s care. A registered dental hygienist or assistant may only perform duties as delegated by the dentist under the state practice act. The dental laboratory technician does not work directly with patients and is not legally responsible for their care.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 4 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.g.responsibilities and/or obligations of the dentist and patients in the dentist-patient relationship 4. Which is required before a dental laboratory technician can make an appliance? a. A prescription from the dentist b. A model of the case c. Radiographs

d. A phone call or fax from the dental office ANS: A

A dental laboratory technician must have a written prescription from the dentist before making any type of dental appliance. While radiographs are not usually part of a dental laboratory case, a model may be required, but it cannot be used until the prescription is received. A dentist may place a phone call or send a fax to discuss a case, but neither can substitute for a written prescription.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 8 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.demonstrate an understanding of laboratory procedures 5. The minimal amount of advanced training required beyond dental school to specialize is: a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 4 years d. 6 years ANS: B

An additional 2 years of advanced training is the minimal requirement to specialize in dentistry. Specialty training ranges from 2 to 6 years beyond dental school; 1 year is insufficient for any dental specialty, and although some specialties require 4 to 6 years, a dentist may specialize in some areas of dentistry with only 2 years of advanced training and education.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. Which is used to trim modT elE s? a. Vacuum former b. Laboratory work pan c. Dental lathe d. None of the above ANS: D

A model trimmer is used to trim study models and diagnostic casts, whereas a vacuum former is used to create custom trays, a laboratory work pan stores parts of individual cases, and a lathe is used to grind or polish precious metals and acrylic dentures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts (e.g., trimming and finishing) 7. Which specialist diagnoses and treats the oral tissues that support and surround the teeth? a. Orthodontist b. Endodontist c. Periodontist d. Oral pathologist ANS: C

A periodontist specializes in the treatment of oral tissues that support and surround the teeth, whereas an orthodontist prevents and corrects dental malocclusion and misalignment, an endodontist treats injuries of the pulp, and an oral pathologist performs biopsies to determine the nature of an oral disease.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 5

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. The physicist who discovered x-rays in 1895 was: a. Ida Gray-Rollins b. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen c. C. Edmund Kells d. Jessica A. Rickert ANS: B

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen, a Bavarian physicist, discovered x-ray beams in 1895. Ida Gray-Rollins was the first African American woman to earn a dental degree in the United States. C. Edmund Kells is recognized as the first dentist to hire an assistant. Jessica A. Rickert was the first female Native American dentist.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

9. The first Native American dentist in the United States was: a. Ida Gray-Rollins b. Robert Tanner Freeman c. George Blue Spruce, Jr. d. Jessica A. Rickert ANS: C

George Blue Spruce, Jr., was the first Native American dentist in the United States. Ida Gay-Rollins was the first female African American to earn a dental degree, although Robert Tanner Freeman was the first African American accepted to any dental school. Jessica A. Rickert was the first femalT eE NS atT ivB eA AN mKeS ricEaL nL deEnRti. stCinOtM he United States.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 3

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

10. Which person is recognized as the first African American to receive a degree from the

Harvard School of Dental Medicine? a. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen b. Robert Tanner Freeman c. George Blue Spruce, Jr. d. C. Edmund Kells ANS: B

Robert Tanner Freeman was the first African American to receive a degree from the Harvard School of Dental Medicine. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen was Bavarian, not African American, and is credited with discovering x-ray beams. George Blue Spruce, Jr., was the first Native American, not African American, to receive a dental degree; he graduated from Creighton, not Harvard, University. C. Edmund Kells is credited with employing the first dental assistant in 1900.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

11. Which modern dental restoration resembles early Mayan and Inca dentistry? a. Implant b. Inlay c. Veneer

d. Bridge ANS: B

Early Mayan and Inca civilizations used jade, turquoise, and gold as dental inlays, similar to the gold inlay restorations fabricated in dentistry today. Implants, veneers, and bridges are evolutions of modern dentistry.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 2

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

12. Which best describes the purpose of CODA (Commission on Dental Accreditation)? a. Reviews and approves dental-related curriculums and educational programs. b. Provides professional support and opportunities for dental hygienists. c. Promotes the dental assisting profession to enhance quality dental health care. d. Grants professional membership to dental technicians.

ANS: A

CODA, the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, reviews and approves dental university curriculum and dental-related educational programs; dentists, dental hygienists, and certified dental technicians in the United States must graduate from a CODA-approved program. The American Dental Hygienists Association (ADHA) provides professional support and opportunities for dental hygienists, while the American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA) promotes the dental assisting profession to enhance quality dental health care. ADLTA (American Dental Laboratory Technician Association) grants professional membership to dental technicians.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 4 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 13. The tasks and responsibilities delegated to a dental assistant are determined by the: a. supervising dentist b. state dental practice act c. American Dental Association d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration ANS: B

The dental practice act in each state sets forth specific statutes, regulations, and administrative rules to govern which tasks and responsibilities can be delegated to the dental assistant. The supervising dentist must be aware of, and comply with, all state dental practice act regulations before assigning any task to members of the dental healthcare team. The tasks and responsibilities delegated to a dental assistant are determined by the state dental practice act, not the American Dental Association or Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 6 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 14. Which statement is true? a. All states require formal education for dental assistants. b. Accredited dental assisting programs do not usually provide laboratory training. c. Assistants with additional training may perform expanded duties nationwide. d. CODA (Commission on Dental Accreditation)-approved dental assisting programs

are 1 academic year in length.

ANS: D

Dental assisting programs approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA) are approximately 1 academic year in length. Not all states require formal education for dental assistants, but accredited dental assisting programs are required to include didactic, laboratory, and clinical coursework. Assistants with additional training may perform expanded duties, but only within the specific state where the training was completed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 7 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 15. Which dental assistant works primarily in the instrument-processing area? a. Business b. Chairside c. Circulating d. Sterilization ANS: D

The sterilization assistant works primarily in the instrument-processing area. The business assistant focuses on tasks in the business office, while the chairside assistant works mainly in the dental operatory. The circulating assistant works anywhere assistance is required, but primarily in the clinical areas of the practice.

DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 3

16. The business office of a dental practice serves each purpose EXCEPT one. Which is the

EXCEPTION? a. Record storage b. Financial arrangements c. Receive and greet patients d. Appointment scheduling ANS: C

The reception area, not the business office, is a dedicated space to receive and greet patients; the business office is used to schedule appointments, make financial arrangements, and store records.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.C.7.receive and dismiss patients and visitors 17. Which area of the dental office is used for staff meetings? a. Lounge b. Laboratory c. Business office d. Consultation room ANS: A

The staff lounge is an ideal location for office meetings; the business office, dental laboratory, and consultation areas are not used for this purpose.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 9

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

18. Which member of the dental healthcare team does NOT usually work in the dental office? a. Dental hygienist b. Circulating assistant c. Laboratory technician d. Administrative assistant ANS: C

Most dental laboratory technicians do not work in the dental office with other members of the dental healthcare team, but rather in private laboratories—separate from the dental practice.

Most hygienists and nearly all dental assistants (circulating, administrative, and otherwise) work with the dentist in the dental office.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 8

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

COMPLETION 1. The most important person in the dental office is the

.

ANS: patient DIF: Recall

REF: p. 4

2. The registered dental

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

is responsible for removing hard deposits from tooth

surfaces.

ANS: hygienist DIF: Recall

REF: p. 6

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. The team member who serves as an extra pair of hands to provide six-handed dentistry is the

.

ANS: circulating assistant DIF: Recall

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

4. The team member primarily responsible for the smooth and efficient operation of the business

office is the

.

ANS: business assistant DIF: Recall 5. The

REF: p. 7

OBJ: 3

is ultimately responsible for patient care.

ANS: dentist DIF: Recall

REF: p. 5

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.g.responsibilities and/or obligations of the dentist and patients in the dentist-patient relationship 6. Treatment plans are usually discussed in the

room.

ANS: consultation DIF: Recall

REF: p. 9

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

7. If a consultation room is not available, the dentist’s

should be used for discussing

treatment plans.

ANS: private office DIF: Recall

REF: p. 9

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. Contaminated instruments are cleaned and packaged in the

.

ANS: instrument-processing area DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1 Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 9. Patients are greeted in the

.

ANS: reception area DIF: Recall

. 9STBANKS OE BL J: LE 3 R.COM REF: TpE

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

10. Financial arrangements with the patient should be made in the

.

ANS: business office DIF: Recall REF: p. 9 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.C.4.explain fees charged to a patient as directed by the dentist 11. The proper name for a treatment room is the

.

ANS: operatory DIF: Recall

REF: p. 10

OBJ: 3

MATCHING

Match each specialty of dentistry with its focus. a. Oral pathology b. Prosthodontics c. Endodontics d. Public health dentistry e. Orthodontics f. Pediatric dentistry

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

g. Oral and maxillofacial surgery h. Oral and maxillofacial radiology 1. The dental specialty in which the “patient” is the entire community 2. The specialty that involves the cause, diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of diseases and 3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

injuries of the pulp and associated structures The specialty that uses imaging techniques to make a diagnosis of tumors and temporomandibular joint disorders The specialty involved in the diagnosis and surgical treatment of diseases, injuries, and defects of the oral and maxillofacial regions The specialty involved in the nature of diseases affecting the oral cavity and adjacent structures The specialty involved in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of malocclusions of the teeth and associated structures The specialty involved in the restoration and replacement of natural teeth with artificial constructs, such as crowns, bridges, and dentures The specialty involved in the oral health care of children from birth to adolescence

1. ANS: D OBJ: 3 2. ANS: C OBJ: 3 3. ANS: H OBJ: 3 4. ANS: G OBJ: 3 5. ANS: A OBJ: 3 6. ANS: E OBJ: 3 7. ANS: B OBJ: 3 8. ANS: F OBJ: 3

DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA SpTrB DIF: TCE om ehA enNsK ioS n MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA

REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5 REF: p. 5

TRUE/FALSE 1. The minimum education required for a dental hygienist is 2 academic years of college.

ANS: T

The ADA requires a minimum of 2 academic years of college, although there are some 4-year dental hygiene programs in the United States.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 6

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. General dentists do not have adequate training to perform maxillofacial surgery.

ANS: F

General dentists are trained and legally permitted to perform all dental functions, including maxillofacial surgery, although many dentists prefer to refer complicated cases to an oral or maxillofacial surgeon.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 4

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

Chapter 02: Professional and Legal Aspects of Dental Assisting Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which agency issues the certified dental assistant (CDA) credential? a. State dental board b. Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) c. American Dental Association (ADA) d. American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA) ANS: B

The DANB is the national agency responsible for testing dental assistants and issuing the CDA credential. Some states require dental assistant registration—however, the CDA credential is issued by DANB, not the state dental board. The DANB acts independent of the ADA and ADAA to administer the national examination for CDA certification.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 15|p. 18

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. Which best defines omission? a. Failure to do something that should have been done b. Doing something that should not have been done c. Protection from criminal or civil liability d. Permission to practice in a specific state ANS: A

Failure to do something is T anEaScT t oBfAoN mKisS siE onL.LCEoR m. mC isO siM on, not omission, is doing something that should not have been done. Immunity is protection from criminal or civil liability.

Licensure is permission to practice in a specific state.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 17 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.c.factors and precautions necessary to prevent lawsuits against dental personnel 3. The purpose of a state dental practice act is to provide: a. principles of ethics and a code of professional conduct b. contact information for professional dental organizations and government agencies c. laws to protect the public from incompetent dental healthcare providers d. protection for dentists from lawsuits ANS: C

Each state has established a dental practice act to protect the public from incompetent dental healthcare providers. A dental practice act is not a code of ethics or a directory of dental organizations and government agencies, but rather an act that establishes the legal requirements for the practice of dentistry. Compliance with the state dental practice act may help a dentist prevent unwanted legal action; however, the purpose of these regulations is to protect the public, not the dentist.

4. Which entity interprets and enforces state dental practice act regulations? a. State dental association b. State governor c. State legislature d. State board of dentistry ANS: D

An administrative board, usually known as the state board of dentistry, interprets, implements, and enforces the regulations of the state dental practice act, whereas the state dental association, governor, and legislature do not. The governor appoints the members of the state board of dentistry, and the state legislature passes regulations to control the practice of dentistry, but ultimately it is the state board of dentistry that interprets and enforces dental practice act regulations.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 14 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 5. Which is NOT true regarding direct supervision? a. The dentist must examine the patient before delegating the procedure. b. The dentist must examine the patient after the procedure has been completed. c. The dental assistant must be legally qualified. d. The assistant must have written authorization if the dentist cannot be physically

present.

ANS: D

The dentist must be physicT alE lySpTreBsA enNt K inStE heLoLffEicRe.aC t tO heMtime a directly supervised procedure is performed. Under direct supervision, the dentist must provide preprocedural and postprocedural examinations, and the dental assistant must be legally qualified to perform the delegated procedure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 6. A dental assistant who performs a function not delegated under the state dental practice act is: a. developing patient rapport b. reducing malpractice liability c. committing a crime d. improving practice efficiency ANS: C

A dental assistant who performs a function not delegated under the state dental practice act is committing a crime. This dental assistant is practicing dentistry without a license, which is considered a criminal act, as opposed to civil wrongdoing. Practicing dentistry without a license is likely to destroy patient rapport, increase malpractice liability, and decrease practice efficiency, as untrained and unlicensed individuals are more likely to make mistakes.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act

7. The dental healthcare team, researchers, and dental manufacturers are involved in the: a. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) b. Organization for Safety, Asepsis and Prevention (OSAP) c. Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) ANS: B

OSAP, the main resource for infection control and safety in dentistry, is composed of dentists, hygienists, assistants, government representatives, researchers, professors, dental manufacturers, and dental consultants. The EPA, DANB, and OSHA are not composed of similar professional diversity.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 9

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. The recognized expert in public health matters is the: a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) c. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) d. U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) ANS: B

The CDC is recognized as the leading public health expert, whereas the FDA issues clearance for all medical and dental devices marketed in the United States, the EPA handles environmental issues (especially those involving public safety), and OSHA regulates employee safety in the workplace.

DIF: Recall 9.

REF: TpE . 1S8TBANKS OE BL J: LE 9 R.COM

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

The FDA (Food and Drug Administration): a. regulates dental sterilization technology b. is responsible for the registration of chemical disinfectants c. sets standards of practice for dentists d. promotes infection control ANS: A

The FDA regulates dental sterilization technology, including the manufacture and labeling of sterilizers and liquid chemical sterilants. Chemical disinfectant registration is the responsibility of the EPA (Environmental Protection Agency), not the FDA. The American Dental Association (ADA), not the FDA, sets standards of practice for dentists, while the Organization for Safety, Asepsis and Prevention (OSAP) promotes infection control.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 9

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

10. Which organization issues the Certified Dental Assistant (CDA) credential? a. American Dental Association (ADA) b. American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA) c. Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) ANS: C

The DANB, not the ADA, ADAA, or OSHA, issues the CDA credential.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 15|p. 18

OBJ: 9

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

11. Which is associated with moral duty, conduct, and judgment? a. Ethics b. Rapport c. Law d. Jurisprudence ANS: A

Ethics are voluntary, high standards of behavior associated with moral duty, conduct, and judgment. Rapport refers to building a harmonious relationship, not moral duty, conduct, or judgment. Law sets forth social expectations that determine what a person must do, as opposed to ethics, which refers to what a person should do in regard to moral duty, conduct, and judgment. Jurisprudence is the theory of law.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 13

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

12. An established guide for professional behavior, in all major professions, is a code of: a. confidentiality b. ethics c. honor d. responsibility ANS: B

All major professions have a written code of ethics that states ideal behavior. Confidentiality, honor, and responsibility are valuable virtues; however, a code of ethics is a guide for professional behavior in alT lm ajT orBpA roNfeKsS siE onLsL . ER.COM ES DIF: Recall

REF: p. 13

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

13. Which statement is true? a. A behavior can be illegal and still be ethical. b. A behavior can be unethical and still be legal. c. Ethical issues are subject to a few gray areas but many absolutes. d. Laws are written to indicate the ideal standard of moral behavior.

ANS: B

Behavior can be unethical and still be legal, but it cannot be illegal and still be ethical. Ethical issues are subject to many grays areas but few absolutes. Laws are written to indicate the minimum standard of required behavior, not the ideal standard of moral behavior.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 13

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

14. An agreement negotiated between states to allow a dentist or dental hygienist who is licensed

in one state to receive a license to practice in another state is: a. informed consent b. administrative law c. reciprocity d. tort law ANS: C

Reciprocity is an agreement between states that allows a dentist or dental hygienist licensed in one state to receive, usually without further examination, a license to practice in any of the other states in the reciprocity agreement. Informed consent is permission granted by a patient for a procedure to be performed after the patient has been informed about the procedure’s details. Administrative law concerns regulations established by government agencies, while tort law concerns acts that cause harm to people or damage to property.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 15

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

15. A license to practice dentistry is issued by the: a. American Dental Association (ADA) b. state dental association c. state board of dentistry d. school from which the dentist graduated ANS: C

A license to practice dentistry is issued by the state board of dentistry rather than the ADA, state dental association, or school from which the dentist graduated.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 14

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

16. A dental assistant who passed a state examination is identified by which acronym? a. CDA b. CPFDA c. RDA d. NELDA ANS: C

RDA is the correct abbreviation for a registered dental assistant, the credential awarded to an individual who has passed a state-specific examination. The CDA (certified dental assistant), CPFDA (certified preventive functions dental assistant), and NELDA (National Entry Level Dental Assistant) are national, not state, certifications.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 15

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

17. Each exemplifies professional appearance EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Fit physique b. Light work-friendly cologne c. Clean short fingernails d. Simple makeup ANS: B

Cologne and perfume, even those advertised as light or work-friendly, are unprofessional in the dental setting as coworkers and patients may be allergic or irritated by some scents. A dental assistant’s professional appearance is demonstrated through good health, good grooming, and appropriate dress. A fit physique exemplifies good health and is important to the longevity of the dental assistant’s career. Short, clean fingernails exemplify good grooming, while simple natural-looking makeup is an essential element to appropriate dress.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

18. Which recommendation cultivates good grooming or appropriate dress?

a. Avoid using deodorant if possible. b. Limit the use of tobacco products to the outdoors to avoid an odor in treatment

areas. c. Consider infection control requirements when selecting clinical wear. d. Wear only inexpensive, replaceable jewelry.

ANS: C

Infection control requirements should be considered when selecting clinical wear. The use of perfume or cologne is not recommended in a dental practice; however, an unscented deodorant is critical to good grooming. Avoid, rather than limit, the use of tobacco products because the odor lingers on hair and clothing. Wearing jewelry, even inexpensive or replaceable jewelry, is not considered appropriate dress for a professional appearance in dentistry.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

19. Which action exemplifies dedication? a. Be cooperative. b. Show empathy to a patient. c. Volunteer to help a coworker. d. Complete necessary tasks without being asked.

ANS: B

Treating a patient with empathy shows real dedication, which is only possible if the assistant truly cares for people, is empathetic to their needs, and maintains a positive attitude.

Cooperating, volunteering to help a coworker, and completing tasks without being asked are examples of responsibility and initiative.

DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA

REF: p. 12

OBJ: 2

20. Which characterizes general supervision? a. The dentist conducts preprocedural and postprocedural examinations. b. Authorized, delegated procedures are executed by qualified staff on a patient of

record. c. Delegated procedures are performed in the presence of the dentist. d. The dentist guides expanded-function procedures not delegated in the state dental

practice act.

ANS: B

General supervision occurs when authorized, delegated procedures are executed by qualified staff on a patient of record. In contrast, direct supervision requires that a dentist examine a patient both before delegating a procedure and when the procedure is complete; additionally, the dentist must be physically present in the office at the time the procedure is performed.

Performing an expanded function that is not delegated in the state dental practice act is a criminal act, regardless of any level of dental supervision.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 15 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 21. Consent for treatment of a minor must be given by:

a. b. c. d.

the child the parent the legal guardian either the parent or the legal guardian

ANS: D

Either a parent or a legal guardian must give consent for treatment of a minor (child). If the parents live separately, it is important to show in the child’s record which parent has custody of the child. The child is not permitted by law to give consent.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.b.consent for routine and emergency office dental care 22. Implied consent is: a. the most reliable form of consent b. given when a patient enters a dental office c. adequate when the parent or guardian of a minor is not present d. documented in the patient record, with the signature of a witness ANS: B

Consent is implied when an individual enters a dentist’s office. Written informed, not implied, consent is the most reliable form of consent. Implied consent is not adequate for the treatment of a minor when a parent or guardian is not present—written informed consent is mandatory.

Written informed, not implied, consent is documented in the patient record, with the signature of a witness.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D 2.S b.T coB nsAeN ntKfoSr E roLuL tinEeR an.dCeO mM ergency office dental care T.E 23. Which is NOT included in the dental chart? a. Financial information b. Consent forms c. Patient correspondence d. Radiographs ANS: A

Financial information is not contained within the dental chart, although consent forms, patient correspondence, and radiographs are.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record 24. What percentage of child abuse injuries involve the head, neck, or mouth? a. 25 b. 45 c. 65 d. 85 ANS: C

Head, neck, or mouth wounds are apparent in approximately 65% of child abuse cases, as opposed to 25%, 45%, or 85%.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 17

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

25. Which is the primary factor in avoiding legal entanglements with patients? a. Maintain accurate and complete records. b. Foster good rapport and open communication. c. Uphold the highest standards of clinical excellence. d. Obtain informed consent.

ANS: B

Good rapport and open communication are key to avoiding unwanted legal entanglements with patients. Maintaining accurate and complete records, upholding the highest standards of clinical excellence, and obtaining informed consent are all major areas of risk management, but the primary factor in avoiding lawsuits is open communication and good rapport.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 16 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.c.factors and precautions necessary to prevent lawsuits against dental personnel 26. The primary intent in reporting suspected child abuse is to: a. protect the child b. help the parents c. exact justice d. comply with the law ANS: A

Protecting the child is the primary objective in reporting suspected child abuse, although providing help for the parents, obtaining justice, and complying with the law are valid secondary objectives.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 17

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

27. Which duty is a responsibility of the patient? a. Request consultation when indicated. b. Achieve reasonable treatment results. c. Maintain confidentiality. d. Follow instructions.

ANS: D

Following instructions is the patient’s responsibility to the dentist, whereas requesting consultation, achieving reasonable treatment results, and maintaining confidentiality are a few of many responsibilities the dentist is accountable to the patient for.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 14 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.g.responsibilities and/or obligations of the dentist and patients in the dentist-patient relationship 28. Breach of contract occurs when: a. a contract is drawn up for an illegal service b. a mentally incompetent individual signs a contract c. no form of payment is exchanged d. either party fails to meet contractual obligations

ANS: D

Breach of contract occurs when either party fails to fulfill the terms of the written or verbal contract. A contract is invalid if it entails an illegal service or act, is signed by a mentally incompetent individual, or omits any form of payment—either money or services.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 14

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

COMPLETION 1. A minimum level of conduct is achieved by

.

ANS: law DIF: Recall

REF: p. 13

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. What does the acronym TEAM stand for?

ANS: Together, Everyone Accomplishes More DIF: Recall

REF: p. 12

3. Prevention and good

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

are the best defenses against malpractice.

ANS: communication DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.c.factors and precautions necessary to prevent lawsuits against dental TESTBANKSELLER.COM personnel 4. The professional organization for dental assistants is the

. (Provide the full name, not

the acronym.)

ANS: American Dental Assistants Association DIF: Recall

REF: p. 18

OBJ: 9

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

5. The two things that must occur for the patient to give informed consent are being

and giving consent.

ANS: informed DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.b.consent for routine and emergency office dental care 6. If a dental assistant performs a procedure that is not legal, the assistant is in violation of

law.

ANS: criminal DIF: Recall REF: p. 13 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state

dental practice act 7.

is an attitude that is apparent in everything you do and say, inside and outside of the dental office.

ANS: Professionalism DIF: Recall

8.

REF: p. 11

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

refers to statements made spontaneously by anyone at the time of an alleged negligent act.

ANS: Res gestae DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.c.factors and precautions necessary to prevent lawsuits against dental personnel

9.

consent is the preferred means of obtaining and documenting the patient’s consent and understanding of the procedure.

ANS: Written DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.b.consent for routine and emergency office dental care

10. In some states, dental assistants are

reporters and must report suspected child abuse

if they observe signs of abuTsE eS orTiB fA thN eyKhSaE veLrLeaEsR on.aC blOeMsuspicion of abuse.

ANS: mandated

DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act TRUE/FALSE 1. Everything that is said or done in a dental office must remain confidential.

ANS: T

All information gathered in a dental office must be held in strict confidence, including patient identity, personal or financial information, medical records, and conversation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 13 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.f.patient’s right to privacy according to Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) 2. Patients have a right to gain access to and retrieve their records and radiographs from the

dentist.

ANS: T

Patients have a right to gain access to and retrieve their records and radiographs from the dentist.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.f.patient’s right to privacy according to Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) 3. Patients “technically” own their own records and radiographs.

ANS: F

The dentist, not patient, owns the patient’s records and radiographs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 17 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record 4. Spontaneous statements made by the dental assistant at the time of an alleged negligent act are

admissible as evidence in a court of law.

ANS: T

Res gestae is the legal concept that spontaneous statements made by anyone (including a dental assistant) at the time of an alleged negligent act can be admitted as evidence in a court of law.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 16 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.c.factors and precautions necessary to prevent lawsuits against dental personnel

Chapter 03: Anatomy and Physiology Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The scientific study of the shape and structure of the human body is: a. biology b. physiology c. anatomy d. pathology ANS: C

Anatomy is the scientific study of the shape and structure of the human body. Biology is the scientific study of plants and animals. Physiology is the study of the functions of the body, and pathology is the study of disease.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. The scientific study of how the body functions is: a. physiology b. anatomy c. pathology d. biology ANS: A

Physiology is the scientific study of how the human body functions, as opposed to anatomy (the study of the shape andTsE trS ucTtuBrA e oNfKthSeEhLuL mE anRb.oCdO y)M , pathology (the study of disease), or biology (the study of plants and animals).

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 20

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. The basic units of structure in the human body are: a. body systems b. tissues c. cells d. organs ANS: C

Cells are the basic units of structure found in the human body. Body systems (groups of organs), tissues (formed by the joining of cells), and organs (several types of tissues grouped together) are ultimately composed of cells.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 21

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

4. The four levels of organization in the human body, arranged from smallest to largest, are: a. cell, tissue, organ, body system b. tissue, organ, cell, body system c. cell, organ, tissue, body system d. body system, organ, tissue, cell ANS: A

The human body is organized in four levels, starting with the most simple or smallest and ending with the largest or most complex. The cell is the most basic structure; a group of like cells is a tissue; groups of tissues form organs; and groups of organs and tissues form body systems.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 21

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

5. The second phase of temporomandibular joint (TMJ) movement, in opening the mouth is: a. gliding b. rotational c. pivoting d. hinge action ANS: A

The gliding action of the TMJ is the second phase of opening the mouth, allowing the lower jaw to move forward and backward. The hinge action is the first, not second, phase of mouth opening. Rotational and pivoting motions are not possible with the TMJ, which is constructed for specialized hinge-and-glide movements.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 28 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity

OBJ: 5

6. Which nerve is the primary source of oral cavity innervation? a. Trigeminal b. Nasopalatine c. Anterior superior palatine d. Buccal ANS: A

The trigeminal nerve is the primary source of oral cavity innervation. Nasopalatine, anterior superior palatine, and buccal nerves are branches of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 30 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.5.nerves

OBJ: 5

7. Which bone(s) form(s) the prominence of the cheek? a. Maxillary b. Zygomatic c. Sphenoid d. Ethmoid ANS: B

The two zygomatic bones form the prominence of the cheek, as well as the lateral wall and floor of the orbit. The maxillary bone forms the upper jaw and hard palate. The sphenoid bone forms the anterior part of the base of the skull. The ethmoid bone forms part of the cranium, the orbit, and the nasal cavity.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 34

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

8. The rectangular area between the two ridges running under the nose to the midline of the

upper lip is the:

a. b. c. d.

outer canthus inner canthus philtrum tragus

ANS: C

The philtrum is the rectangular area between the two ridges running under the nose to the midline of the upper lip. The outer canthus is the fold of tissue at the outer corner of the eyelids. The inner canthus is the fold of tissue at the inner corner of the eyelids. The tragus is the tissue projection anterior to the external opening of the ear.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 34

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

9. Which part of the mandible forms the chin? a. Angle b. Mental protuberance c. Coronoid process d. Ramus ANS: B

The chin is formed by the mental protuberance of the mandible, as opposed to the ramus, angle of the mandible (lower posterior region of the ramus), or coronoid process.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 34

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

10. The space between the teeth and the inner mucosal lining of the lips and cheeks is the: a. vestibule b. philtrum c. labia d. frenum ANS: A

The vestibule is the space between the teeth and the inner mucosal lining of the lips and cheeks. The philtrum is a rectangular area between the two ridges running under the nose to the midline of the upper lip. Labia is a term that refers to the lips. A frenum is not a space, but rather a narrow band of tissue connecting two structures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 34 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity

OBJ: 7

11. The four main types of tissue found in the human body are: a. nerve, connective, epithelial, and muscle tissue b. lung, nerve, brain, and muscle tissue c. brain, epithelial, nerve, and connective tissue d. bone, muscle, epithelial, and nerve tissue ANS: A

The four main types of tissue in the human body are nerve, connective, epithelial, and muscle; lung, brain, and bone tissues are composed of these main types of tissue.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 21

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

12. Organs: a. are made up of singular tissue cell types b. work independent of each other c. form body systems d. do not belong to more than one body system ANS: A

Organs form body systems. Organs are not made of singular types of tissue cells; instead, several types of tissues group together to form a single function. Organs work together as a team, not independent of each other, and occasionally one organ can belong to more than one system.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 22

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

13. How many major systems does the human body have? a. 5 b. 8 c. 11 d. 12 ANS: C

The human body is composed of 11, not 5, 8, or 12, major systems, with each system having specific organs and performing a specific function.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 22

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

14. The three types of muscles that make up the muscular system are: a. striated, involuntary, anTdEcSarTdB iaA c NKSELLER.COM b. striated, smooth, and cardiac c. unstriated, involuntary, and visceral d. voluntary, involuntary, and smooth ANS: B

There are only three types of muscles in the human body: striated, smooth, and cardiac.

Unstriated, involuntary, and visceral are all terms that describe smooth muscle, while voluntary describes striated muscle.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 24 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.4.muscles

OBJ: 4

15. Which body system transports nutrients and oxygen throughout the body? a. Respiratory system b. Digestive system c. Cardiovascular system d. Endocrine system ANS: C

The cardiovascular system transports nutrients and oxygen throughout the body. The respiratory system delivers oxygen to cells but does not transport nutrients. The digestive system takes in whole food and breaks it down to be used by the body. The endocrine system produces the hormones that help maintain a constant environment in the body.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 23

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

16. Arteries, veins, and capillaries are major types of: a. blood vessels b. muscle tissue c. nerve tissue d. blood cells ANS: A

The three major types of blood vessels in the body are arteries, veins, and capillaries—none of which are types of muscle tissue, nerve tissue, or blood cells.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 30 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.1.blood vessels 17. The integumentary system: a. manufactures bile b. helps to regulate body temperature c. removes excess glucose from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen d. transports food from the pharynx to the stomach ANS: B

The integumentary system helps regulate body temperature. The liver manufactures bile. The liver also removes excess glucose from the bloodstream and stores it as glycogen. The esophagus transports food from the pharynx to the stomach.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 24

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

18. The outer layer of hard, dense, very strong bone is known as: a. cancellous bone b. bone marrow c. compact bone d. periosteum ANS: C

Compact, or cortical, bone is hard, dense, and forms bone’s outer layer. Cancellous bone is spongy and found on the inside of a bone. Bone marrow is a gelatinous type of material found in cancellous bone. Periosteum is the specialized connective tissue that covers the bone.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 25

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

19. Periosteum: a. does not contain nerves and blood vessels b. is necessary for bone growth and repair c. has an inner layer of dense fibrous connective tissue containing osteoclasts

associated with bone formation d. is found adjacent to spongy, trabecular, cancellous bone ANS: B

Periosteum is necessary for bone growth and repair. It contains nerves and blood vessels and also an inner layer of loose connective tissue containing osteoblasts associated with bone formation. Beneath the periosteum is dense, rigid, compact cortical bone.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 25

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

20. All are elevator muscles except the: a. external pterygoid muscle b. temporal muscle c. internal pterygoid muscle d. masseter muscle ANS: A

The external pterygoid muscle is not an elevator muscle; it depresses the mandible. The temporal, internal pterygoid, and masseter muscles all work together to raise the mandible.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 31 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.4.muscles

OBJ: 6

21. Which muscle draws the angles of the mouth upward and backward? a. External pterygoid b. Temporal c. Zygomatic major d. Masseter ANS: C

The zygomatic major muscle draws the angles of the mouth upward and backward. The external pterygoid muscle depresses the mandible. The temporal and masseter muscles help raise the mandible. . 3S1TBANKS OE BL J: LE 6 R.COM DIF: Recall REF: TpE MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.4.muscles 22. The orbicularis oris pertains to the: a. ear b. eye c. nose d. lips ANS: D

The orbicularis oris pertains to the lips—not the ear, eye, or nose.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 31 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.4.muscles

OBJ: 6

23. The buccinator muscle is found in the: a. back b. chest c. cheek d. shoulder ANS: C

The buccinator muscle is found in the cheek—not the back, chest, or shoulder.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 31 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.4.muscles

OBJ: 6

24. The human skull is divided into which two sections? a. Brain and face b. Cranium and face c. Frontal lobe and cranium d. Face and sinuses ANS: B

The human skull is divided into two sections, the cranium and the face. The brain is not part of the skull but rather an organ protected by the cranium of the skull. The frontal lobe is a section of the brain. The sinuses are open air-filled cavities in the skull.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 25

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

25. Which bone forms the lower jaw? a. Lacrimal b. Maxilla c. Mandible d. Nasal ANS: C

The mandible forms the lower jaw, whereas the lacrimal bone forms part of the orbit, the maxilla forms the upper jaw, and the nasal bone forms the bridge of the nose.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 25

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

26. The bone that forms the upper jaw is the: a. lacrimal bone b. maxilla c. mandible d. nasal bone ANS: B

The maxilla forms the upper jaw, while the lacrimal bone forms part of the orbit, the mandible forms the lower jaw, and the nasal bone forms the nose.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 25

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

27. A natural opening in bone through which blood vessels and nerves pass is the: a. foramen b. fossa c. process d. tuberosity ANS: A

The foramen is a natural opening in bone through which blood vessels and nerves pass. A fossa is not a natural opening, but rather a depressed area in bone. Likewise, a process is not an opening, but a prominence or projection on a bone; a tuberosity is a large, rounded, bony process.

DIF: Recall

REF: pp. 31-32

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

28. Which bone(s) form(s) the roof of the mouth? a. Inferior conchae b. Zygomatic c. Vomer d. Palatine ANS: D

The palatine bones form the posterior portion of the hard palate, or roof of the mouth. The inferior conchae bones shape part of the interior of the nose, and the zygomatic bones form the cheeks and part of the orbit, while the vomer is the bony base of the nasal septum.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 26

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

29. Which paranasal sinus infection mimics a toothache? a. Maxillary b. Frontal c. Ethmoid d. Sphenoid ANS: A

A maxillary sinus infection may cause pain in the maxillary teeth, a symptom unrelated to frontal, ethmoid, or sphenoid sinus infections.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 30

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.2.bones

30. The salivary glands are controlled by which body system? a. Nervous b. Circulatory c. Endocrine d. Lymphatic ANS: A

The nervous system controls the salivary glands, as opposed to the circulatory, endocrine, or lymphatic systems.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 36 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity

OBJ: 4

31. Which frenum passes from the floor of the mouth to the ventral border of the tongue? a. Maxillary labial b. Mandibular labial c. Lingual d. Buccal ANS: C

The lingual frenum passes from the floor of the mouth to the ventral border of the tongue. The maxillary labial frenum attaches the inner upper lip to the midline of the maxillary arch. The mandibular labial frenum attaches the inner lower lip to the midline of the mandibular arch.

The buccal frenum attaches the inner surface of the cheek to the maxillary arch near the first maxillary permanent molar.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 36

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity 32. Which is covered in masticatory mucosa? a. Vestibule b. Gingivae c. Lips d. Soft palate ANS: B

The gingivae are covered in masticatory mucosa, whereas the vestibule, lips, and soft palate are covered in lining mucosa.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 37 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity

OBJ: 7

33. The gag reflex is: a. voluntary b. not easily stimulated c. associated with retching and vomiting d. located near the anterior portion of the tongue ANS: C

The gag reflex causes gagging, retching, and vomiting. This particular reflex is both involuntary and sensitive. The gag reflex is located near the posterior, not anterior, portion of the tongue.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 36 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6T.oEraSl T caB viA tyNKSELLER.COM 34. Lingual papillae are: a. sparse on a healthy tongue b. usually scarlet red and coarse c. responsible for sensations of taste d. tiny indentions on the top of the tongue ANS: C

Lingual papillae are responsible for sensations of taste and touch, but they are not sparse— thousands of papillae cover the top surface of the tongue. Healthy papillae are usuallypinkishwhite and smooth, not red and coarse. Papillae are tiny projections, not indentions, located on the dorsal surface of the tongue.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 35 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity

OBJ: 6

35. A scar found inferior to the chin, along the medial aspect of the mandible is located: a. above the chin—near the midline b. below the chin—near the midline c. above the chin—away from the midline d. below the chin—away from the midline ANS: B

A scar that is inferior to the chin is located below or under the chin; a scar along the medial aspect of the mandible is located near the midline. The term inferior means below, not above (superior), and medial indicates close proximity to the midline, rather than distance (distal) from the midline.

DIF: Application REF: p. 21 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.B.4.Demonstrate how to recognize and describe any abnormal findings in the head and neck region 36. Which nerve innervates the chin and lower lip? a. Buccal b. Lingual c. Incisive d. Mental ANS: D

The mental nerve innervates the chin and lower lip, whereas the buccal nerve innervates the buccal mucous membranes, the lingual nerve innervates the tongue, and the incisive nerve innervates the anterior mandibular teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 33 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.5.nerves

OBJ: 5

MATCHING

Match each body planes with its correct description. a. Divides the body lengthwise into right and left regions TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Divides the body into anterior and posterior regions and is referred to as a coronal plane c. Cuts the body horizontally into anterior and posterior regions d. A vertical cut through the midline of the body 1.

2.

3.

4.

Sagittal Midsagittal Transverse Frontal

1. ANS: A OBJ: 2 2. ANS: D OBJ: 2 3. ANS: B OBJ: 2 4. ANS: C OBJ: 2

DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA DIF: Comprehension MSC: CDA Exam: NA

REF: p. 21 REF: p. 21 REF: p. 21 REF: p. 21

Chapter 04: Dental Anatomy Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The mouth can be divided into four sections called: a. arches b. sextants c. quadrants d. dentitions ANS: C

The maxillary and mandibular arches are each divided into halves; the resulting four sections are called quadrants. The arches consist of two sections, the maxillary and mandibular sections. A sextant refers to one-sixth of the dentition. Over a lifetime, each individual will have two dentitions—the primary and permanent dentitions.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 44 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 2. Which sextants contain canine teeth? a. Maxillary and mandibular anterior b. Maxillary right and left posterior c. Mandibular right and left posterior d. Mandibular and maxillary posterior and anterior

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: A

The maxillary and mandibular anterior sextants contain canine teeth, whereas the maxillary and mandibular right and left posterior sextants include only premolars and molars.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 45 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 3. Which teeth are the longest in the human dentition? a. Incisors b. Canines c. Molars d. Premolars ANS: B

The canines, used for cutting and tearing, are the longest teeth in the human dentition.

Incisors, premolars, and molars have a shorter crown-root length than canine teeth.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 44

4. Grinding food is a primary function of: a. molars b. canines c. premolars

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

d. incisors ANS: A

The molars are used to grind food, whereas canines are used for cutting and tearing with force, premolars grasp, tear, and chew, and incisors cut food.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

5. The crown of the tooth is covered with: a. enamel b. dentin c. cementum d. bone ANS: D

The crown of the tooth is covered with enamel, not dentin, cementum, or bone.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

6. Which is made of blood vessels and nerves? a. Pulp b. Cementum c. Enamel d. Dentin ANS: A

Pulp is the living tissue of the tooth, made up of blood vessels and nerves. Cementum, enamel, and dentin are mineralized tissues.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

7. Which is NOT a component of the periodontium? a. Cementum b. Alveolar bone c. Periodontal ligaments d. Dentin ANS: D

Dentin is not a component of the periodontium. The periodontium supports the teeth in the alveolar bone and consists of cementum, alveolar bone, and periodontal ligaments.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 43 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity

OBJ: 2

8. The Universal National System identifies primary teeth with the: a. numbers 1 to 20 b. letters A to T c. numbers 1 to 32 d. symbols with letters A to E ANS: B

Primary teeth are identified by Universal notation with the letters A to T, rather than with the numbers 1 to 20. Numerals 1 to 32 are identifiers for permanent, not primary, teeth in the Universal System. Symbols with letters A to E are used to identify primary teeth in the Palmer Notation, not Universal National, System.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 9. The anatomic crown is: a. shortest when the tooth first erupts in the oral cavity b. the portion of the tooth that is visible in the mouth c. the portion of the tooth covered with enamel d. formed by the junction enamel and cementum ANS: C

The anatomic crown is the portion of the tooth covered with enamel. The clinical, not anatomic, crown is shortest when the tooth first erupts in the oral cavity and is defined as the portion of tooth that is visible in the mouth. The cementoenamel junction (CEJ) is located where the enamel and cementum meet.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 41

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

10. Which best describes cementum? a. Gray-white b. Translucent c. Lustrous d. Sensitive ANS: D

Cementum is usually protected and covered with bone and gingival tissue, but when exposed, cementum is very sensitive and susceptible to decay. Enamel, not cementum, is a lustrous, translucent gray-white or pale yellow; cementum is a light yellow, but darker than enamel, without luster or translucency.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

11. The tapered end of each root tip is known as the: a. cervix b. bifurcation c. apex d. apical foramen ANS: C

The tapered end of each root tip is known as the apex. The cervix is the narrow area where the crown and root meet. A bifurcation is a division into two, as seen when a tooth has two roots.

The apical foramen is not the tapered end of the root tip, but rather an opening at the apex of the root.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 42

OBJ: 1

12. The normal process of shedding or losing primary teeth is:

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

a. b. c. d.

attrition eruption exfoliation demineralization

ANS: C

Exfoliation is the natural shedding of or losing of primary teeth. Attrition is the natural wearing or eroding of the teeth. Eruption is the process of the teeth coming into the mouth and into place. Demineralization is a form of damage to mineralized tissue, such as enamel.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 48

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

13. The root of the tooth is covered with: a. cementum b. dentin c. enamel d. pulp ANS: A

The root of the tooth is covered with cementum. Dentin forms the inner layer of the tooth, which is the bulk of the tooth. Enamel covers the crown of the tooth. The pulp is in the inner portion of the tooth, where the blood vessels and nerves are located.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 42

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

14. Which are NOT found in the primary dentition? a. Incisors b. Canines c. Premolars d. Molars ANS: C

Children with a primary dentition have no premolars, whereas incisors, canines, and molars are included in the primary dentition.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

15. Which identifies the broad chewing surface of a molar? a. Occlusal b. Palatal c. Incisal d. Buccal ANS: A DIF: Recall REF: p. 48 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify the surfaces of the tooth

OBJ: 4

16. Tooth #8 of the Universal National System is which tooth in the International Standards

Organization (ISO) System? a. 18 b. 11 c. 21 d. 28

ANS: B

The maxillary right central incisor, Universal #8, is designated as tooth 11 in the ISO/FDI System. Tooth 18 is a maxillary right third molar—tooth #1 in the Universal System. Tooth 21 is a left, not right, maxillary central incisor—tooth #9 in the Universal System. ISO tooth #28 is tooth #16 of the Universal System, a maxillary left third molar.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 49 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system 17. The first primary teeth to erupt are: a. first molars b. second molars c. lateral incisors d. central incisors ANS: D

The central incisors erupt 6 to 10 months after birth. Lateral incisors erupt 9 to 12 months (maxillary) or 7 to 10 months (mandibular) after birth, first molars erupt 12 to 18 months after birth, and second molars erupt 24 to 32 months (maxillary) or 20 to 32 months (mandibular) after birth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 48 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.h.stages of the eruption and exfoliation of teeth 18. Which statement is true? a. At eruption, the pulp chamber is small, but it becomes larger with age.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Radicular pulp is found in the pulp horns of the tooth. c. Weak pain stimuli in the pulp chamber usually goes unnoticed. d. Coronal pulp passes through the apical foramen to the periapical area.

ANS: C

The response to a weak neural stimulus in the pulp chamber is usually weak and painless; when the stimulus is great, the reaction increases and the individual feels pain. At eruption, the pulp chamber is large, but it becomes smaller with age. Coronal, not radicular, pulp is found in the pulp horns of the tooth, although radicular, not coronal, pulp passes through the apical foramen to the periapical area.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

19. How many teeth are in each quadrant of the permanent dentition? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 ANS: D

Each quadrant of the permanent dentition contains 8 teeth: 2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, and 3 molars. Each quadrant of the primary dentition contains 5 teeth, although neither dentition holds 6 or 7 teeth in a quadrant.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 44

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

20. Which tooth numbering system uses brackets? a. Palmer Notation b. Universal National c. Federation Dentaire Internationale d. International Standards Organization ANS: A

The Palmer Notation System uses four brackets and numerals 1 to 8 as a shorthand nomenclature. The Universal National System uses numbers and letters, while the Federation Dentaire Internationale and International Standards Organization use a numeric system.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 51 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 21. Facial and lingual contours do NOT: a. provide natural passageways for food b. protect the gingiva from food impact during mastication c. provide the gingiva with adequate, healthy stimulation d. stabilize the dental arches by holding teeth in contact with each other ANS: D

Contact relationships, not facial and lingual contours, stabilize the dental arches by holding teeth in contact with each other. Facial and lingual contours provide natural passageways for food, protect the gingiva, and provide healthy stimulation.

DIF: Recall

REF: pp. 46-47

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

COMPLETION 1.

is the hardest material of the body.

ANS: Enamel DIF: Recall

REF: p. 42

2. Enamel consists of millions of

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

that extend from the surface of the tooth to the

dentinoenamel junction.

ANS: enamel prisms DIF: Recall 3.

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

makes up the main portion of the tooth structure and extends almost the entire length of the tooth.

ANS: Dentin DIF: Recall

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

4. Pain is transmitted into the pulp via

that run through dentin tubules.

ANS: dentin fibers DIF: Recall

REF: p. 43

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

5. Embedded portions of periodontal ligaments in cementum and bone that become mineralized

are known as

.

ANS: Sharpey’s fibers DIF: Recall REF: p. 43 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.6.oral cavity 6. The

OBJ: 2

is the exact spot at which the teeth actually touch each other.

ANS: contact point DIF: Recall REF: p. 47 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify the surfaces of the tooth 7. A(n)

is a triangular space near the gingiva between the proximal surfaces of two

adjoining teeth.

ANS: embrasure DIF: Recall REF: TpE . 4S7TBANKS OE BJ:LLE 1 R.COM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify the surfaces of the tooth 8.

is the contact between the maxillary and mandibular teeth in all mandibular positions and movements.

ANS: Occlusion DIF: Recall REF: p. 48 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify the surfaces of the tooth

9. The term

means without natural teeth.

ANS: edentulous DIF: Recall REF: p. 48 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 10. The shedding process of the primary teeth is properly called

.

ANS: exfoliation DIF: Recall REF: p. 48 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to

accurately transcribe the record 11. A

is the presence of some permanent and some primary teeth in a child.

ANS: mixed dentition DIF: Recall REF: p. 49 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 12. The primary dentition contains

teeth. (Use numeric characters only in your answer.)

ANS: 20 DIF: Recall

REF: p. 44|p. 48

OBJ: 5

13. The tooth surface closest to the lips is termed

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.A.7.teeth

.

ANS: labial DIF: Recall REF: p. 45 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify the surfaces of the tooth 14. The tooth surface closest to the tongue is termed _

.

ANS: lingual . 4S5TBANKS OE BL J: LE 4 R.COM DIF: Recall REF: TpE MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify the surfaces of the tooth MATCHING

Identify the following teeth using the Universal numbering system. a. Maxillary right central incisor b. Maxillary right third molar c. Primary maxillary right second molar d. Primary left lateral incisor e. Maxillary right first premolar f. Mandibular left canine 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

8 5 A 22 1 N

1. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 49 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system

2. ANS: E DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 49 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system 3. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 50 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system 4. ANS: F DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 50 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system 5. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 50 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system 6. ANS: D DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 50 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system TRUE/FALSE 1. To assist in describing their locations and functions, the teeth are classified as being mesial

and distal in the mouth.

ANS: F

NnKteSrE Mesial and distal are toothTsE urS faTceBsA .A ioL rL anEdRp. osCteOriMor refer to the locations and functions.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 45 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 2. The permanent dentition period begins when the last permanent molar is shed, after

approximately 10 years of age.

ANS: F

The permanent dentition period begins when the last primary molar is shed, around 12, not 10, years of age.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 49 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 3. In the Universal numbering system, premolars, also known as cuspids, are numbered 6, 11,

22, and 27.

ANS: F

Cuspids are canines, and these are numbered 6, 11, 22, and 27. Premolars are also known as bicuspids because they have two cusps.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 44 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.1.Identify the permanent and primary teeth according to the Universal numbering system

Chapter 05: Disease Transmission Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Microorganisms that produce disease in humans are known as: a. nonpathogenic b. pathogens c. pasteurized d. spores ANS: B Pathogens are disease-producing microorganisms. The term nonpathogenic refers to a microorganism that does not produce disease. The term pasteurized means that a material has been heated to reduce the number of microorganisms. Spores cannot reproduce or cause disease until conditions are favorable for the bacteria to emerge from the dormancy of the spore-state.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 54 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 2. Which microorganism is LEAST likely to be bacterial? a. Spherical b. Rod c. Spiral d. Helical ANS: D Viral, not bacterial, microorganisms are helical in shape. There are three shapes of bacteria: spherical (cocci), rod (bacilli), and spiral (spirochetes).

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 3. Which life form is the most resistant? a. Virulent fungi b. Active bacteria c. Bacillus spore d. Bloodborne virus ANS: C Spores are the most resistant form of life because they can survive extremes of heat, dryness, and even the presence of disinfectants or radiation. Fungi, active bacteria, and viruses are not as resistant to heat, dryness, and disinfectants as spores.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their

relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 4. Oral candidiasis is an opportunistic infection caused by: a. yeast b. water c. protozoa d. bacteria ANS: A Oral candidiasis, a common opportunistic infection found in the oral cavity, is caused by yeast, which is a form of fungus. The etiology of oral candidiasis is unrelated to water, protozoa, or bacteria.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 56 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.b.causes of dental diseases 5. Dental personnel should be vaccinated against which form of viral hepatitis? a. A b. B c. C d. D ANS: B Exposure to viral hepatitis B (HBV) is a high risk for dental personnel; all members of the dental healthcare team should receive the HBV vaccination. Hepatitis A presents less risk to dental personnel than HBV and is easily prevented with good hand hygiene and proper sanitation. There is curreT ntElySnToBvA acNcK inS atEioLnLfoErRh. epCaO tiM tis C. Hepatitis D (HDV) cannot survive without the presence of HBV; vaccination against HBV also prevents HDV. DIF: Recall REF: p. 60 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.C. Demonstrate an understanding of the need for immunization against infectious diseases (e.g., hepatitis B) 6. The degree to which an organism produces disease is: a. virulence b. bioburden c. transmission d. susceptibility ANS: A The virulence of an organism refers to the degree of pathogenicity, or strength, of an organism to produce disease. Bioburden is visible organic debris, usually saliva or blood.

Transmission is not the strength of an organism to cause disease, but rather the mechanism by which the pathogen is spread. Susceptibility refers to the ability of the human body to resist a pathogen.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 56 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk

7. Handling contaminated instruments or touching contaminated surfaces facilitates: a. direct transmission b. indirect transmission c. airborne transmission d. spatter transmission ANS: B Indirect disease transmission is the transfer of organisms to a susceptible person by the handling of contaminated instruments or the touching of contaminated surfaces and then the touching of the other person’s face, eyes, or mouth. Direct transmission is the transfer of organisms by person-to-person touching or contact with fluids, including blood or saliva.

Airborne transmission is the transfer of organisms through droplets, as when a person coughs or sneezes, droplets of infection are spread through the air. Spatter transmission occurs when a patient’s fluids are splashed in the eyes or nose or on nonintact skin during a dental procedure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 58 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 8. The symptoms of an acute infection: a. are mild to moderate b. are usually short in duration c. lay dormant or latent for years d. appear gradually, long after the initial infection ANS: B Symptoms of an acute inT feEctSioTnBaA reNuKsuSaE llL yL shEoR rt .inCdOuM ration but quite severe, not mild, and appear soon after the initial infection, as opposed to lying dormant.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 57 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 9. Infectious pathogens carried in the blood and body fluids are: a. bloodborne b. parenteral c. virulent d. acquired ANS: A Bloodborne pathogens are carried in the blood and body fluids of infected individuals and can be transmitted to others through direct or indirect contact of blood or body fluids. The term parental describes an entry route for pathogenic microorganisms through the skin, as with cuts or punctures. The term virulent refers to the strength of a pathogen. The term acquired refers to a type of immunity achieved through exposure or immunization.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 59 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 10. Which disease is NOT transmitted from person to person? a. Syphilis

b. Legionnaires’ disease c. Tuberculosis d. Herpes labialis ANS: B Unlike syphilis, tuberculosis, and herpes labialis, Legionnaire’s disease is not transmitted from person to person, but instead through aspiration of contaminated water.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 63 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 11. A 41-year-old male presents for an initial dental examination; his medical history indicates unexplained weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats. He coughs and spits frequently. Which infectious disease is consistent with these symptoms? a. Tuberculosis b. Tetanus c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Measles ANS: A Symptoms of unexplained weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats, in addition to a productive cough, are consistent with the active stage of tuberculosis, not tetanus, infectious mononucleosis, or measles.

DIF: Application REF: pp. 62-63 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient saT feE tySaT ndBA ocNcuKpSaE tioLnL alErR is. k COM 12. The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is responsible for which infection? a. Herpes zoster b. Shingles c. Oral hairy leukoplakia d. Chickenpox ANS: C Hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV; herpes zoster, shingles, and chickenpox are associated with the herpes zoster virus (HZV) or varicella-zoster virus.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 62 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 13. A seropositive result indicates that the patient is infected with: a. hepatitis B (HBV) b. herpes zoster virus (HZV) c. herpes simplex virus (HSV) d. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ANS: D A positive HIV test is also known as a seropositive result; HBV, HZV, and HSV are not associated with this particular blood test.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 60 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 14. Which disease poses the greatest threat to dental personnel? a. Measles b. HIV/AIDS c. Hepatitis B (HBV) d. Tuberculosis ANS: D Tuberculosis presents a greater health risk for dental personnel than measles, HIV/AIDS, or HBV. As the leading cause of death from infectious disease, tuberculosis can withstand many surface disinfectants and is spread easily via airborne transmission, and a majority of people exposed to tuberculosis are carriers. Additionally, immunization for tuberculosis is not readily practiced in the United States, as it is for measles and HBV. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 63 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 15. Bacterial endocarditis is prevented by which means? a. Vaccination b. Prophylactic antibiotics c. Proper sanitation procedures d. Stress-reduction protT ocEoS lsTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B Prophylactic antibiotics are administered to prevent bacterial endocarditis in high-risk patients. Vaccination and proper sanitation procedures are recommended to prevent various strains of viral hepatitis, while stress-reduction protocols are useful in preventing the reactivation of a latent viral infection.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 59 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 16. By law, all clinical dental personnel are entitled to a free HBV vaccination within: a. 5 days of position assignment b. 10 days of position assignment c. 20 days of position assignment d. 30 days of position assignment ANS: B The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) mandates that all dental personnel who are assigned to a position in which there is a chance of exposure to blood or saliva are entitled to a free HBV vaccination within 10 days of initial assignment, not 5, 20, or 30 days.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 60 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.C. Demonstrate an understanding of the need for immunization against infectious diseases (e.g., hepatitis B) MATCHING Match each item or lesion with the associated mode of disease transmission. a. Direct b. Indirect c. Airborne d. Bloodborne e. Parenteral 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Drawer handle Contaminated instrument Infectious lesion Human bite High-speed aerosol

1. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 58 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 2. ANS: D DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 59 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission REF: p. 58 3. ANS: A DIT FE : ST CB om ApNrK ehSeE nsL ioLnER.COM OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 4. ANS: E DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 59 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 5. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 58 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission Match each organ or item with the form of contact with which it is associated. a. Inhalation b. Ingestion c. Mucous membrane 6. Eye 7. Hand piece aerosol 8. Handled food 6. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 57 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 7. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 57

OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 8. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 57 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission Match each disease with the type of infection. a. Acute b. Chronic c. Latent d. Opportunistic 9.

10.

11.

12.

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection Oral herpes simplex infection Pneumonia Common cold

9. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 57 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 10. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 57 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk REF: p. 57 11. ANS: D DIT FE : ST CB om ehSens ApNrK ELioLnER.COM OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 12. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 57 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk TRUE/FALSE 1. A highly resistant form of bacteria is called a spore.

ANS: T Under unfavorable conditions, some bacteria change into a highly resistant spore form.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 2. Viruses can live and multiply outside a host cell.

ANS: F

This is a false statement. Viruses can only live inside an appropriate host cell, which may be human, animal, plant, or bacteria.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 55 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 3. Bacterial endocarditis is a bacterial infection within the heart chamber.

ANS: F Bacterial endocarditis is a bacterial infection of the lining, not chamber, of the heart.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 59 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 4. Tuberculosis is the leading cause of death from infectious diseases.

ANS: T Among infectious diseases, tuberculosis is the leading cause of death.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 62 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk 5. Tuberculosis is always a bloodborne disease.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: F Tuberculosis is spread primarily by coughing, which expels tubercle bacillus in sputum through the mouth.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 62-63 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.I.A. Demonstrate an understanding of infectious diseases and their relationship to patient safety and occupational risk

Chapter 06: Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sharps container must be: a. transparent b. fireproof c. leakproof d. biodegradable ANS: C A sharps container must be leakproof, puncture resistant, closeable, and color-coded or labeled with the biohazard symbol; it does not need to be transparent, fireproof, or biodegradable.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.1.regulations described in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard 2. If your hands are visibly soiled: a. massage your hands vigorously with an alcohol-based hand rub b. treat your hands twice with alcohol-based hand rubs prior to gloving c. wash your hands with soap and water before applying an alcohol-based hand rub d. apply an alcohol-based hand rub before washing your hands with soap and water ANS: C Visibly soiled hands should be washed with soap and water before, not after, an alcohol-based product is applied. In fact, applying an alcohol-based hand rub to visibly soiled hands is contraindicated.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 69 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.1.Demonstrate understanding of proper hand hygiene as used during intraoral and oral surgery procedures 3. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC): a. makes scientific recommendations on health-related matters b. mandates laws and regulations to protect employees c. issues fines for noncompliance with CDC guidelines d. recommends routine booster doses of the HBV vaccine ANS: A The CDC makes science-based recommendations on health-related matters. The CDC is not a regulatory agency and cannot mandate laws and regulations or enforce such with fines.

The CDC does not recommend routine booster doses of the HBV vaccine.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 66 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.h.updates in Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines

to maintain office compliance 4. Contaminated linens, removed from the office for laundering, are transported in a: a. plastic box b. leakproof bag c. metal cassette d. cotton tote ANS: B A leakproof bag, labeled with a biohazard label, is required for the transportation of contaminated linens, as opposed to a plastic box, metal cassette, or cotton tote.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 71 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.1.regulations described in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard 5. The filtration efficacy of a protective mask should be at least: a. 80% of 3 to 5 µm particles b. 85% of 3 to 5 µm particles c. 90% of 3 to 5 µm particles d. 95% of 3 to 5 µm particles ANS: D A protective mask with at least 95% efficiency should be worn to prevent the inhalation of infectious organisms, especially when splash or spatter is possible. Lower filtrations of 80%, 85%, and 90% provide inadequate protection in the dental setting.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 71 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 6. Patients and practitioners should wear: a. examination gloves b. protective eyewear c. face shields d. disposable gowns ANS: B To prevent eye injury, patients and practitioners must wear protective eyewear during dental procedures. The practitioner, not patient, wears examination gloves, a face shield, and protective clothing to prevent injury and disease transmission.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 71-72 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 7. Which Hazard Communication Standard component provides employees with detailed information about every chemical product used in the dental office?

a. b. c. d.

Safety Data Sheet (SDS) Written program Chemical inventory Labeling

ANS: A An SDS is a valuable resource of detailed information about every product in the office that contains chemicals. The written program focuses on training staff in emergency protocols and chemical handling. Chemical inventory is a simple list of every chemical product in the office, not a detailed catalog of information. Labeling is used to identify a chemical product in a container, not provide detailed information.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 76 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.3.regulations described in the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard 8. Employee training for hazard safety is required at which interval? a. Monthly b. Every 6 months c. Annually d. Every 2 years ANS: C Annual training is essential to a successful hazard communication program and is mandated

by OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard. Employee training is required at hire, when a new chemical product is added to the office, and once a year for all employees, as opposed to monthly, biannually, oTr E evSeT ryB2AyNeK arS s.ELLER.COM DIF: Recall REF: p. 76 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.3.regulations described in the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard 9. First aid for a needle stick injury is best provided in which sequence? a. Wash and dry hands, remove gloves, apply antiseptic, notify employer, apply bandage b. Remove gloves, wash and dry hands, apply antiseptic, apply bandage, notify employer c. Remove gloves, wash and dry hands, notify employer, apply antiseptic, apply bandage d. Notify employer, remove gloves, wash and dry hands, apply antiseptic, apply bandage ANS: B First aid for an exposure incident begins with glove removal and is immediately followed by washing the hands in warm water with antimicrobial soap. After drying the hands, apply a small amount of antiseptic to the area and apply an adhesive bandage. The employer must be notified as soon as the wound is bandaged, and postexposure paperwork should be completed right away.

DIF:

Comprehension

REF: p. 79

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.4.Appropriate first aid procedures, documentation and reporting of all incidents, such as cuts/punctures from instruments, needle sticks, or chemical exposures as described in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens and Hazard Communication Standards 10. An orangewood stick or nailbrush is used in the: a. first handwashing of the day b. final handwashing of the day c. primary scrubbing, every time you wash your hands d. secondary scrubbing, every time you wash your hands ANS: A An orangewood stick or nailbrush cleans under each fingernail in the first handwashing of the day, not the last. Nailbrush/orangewood stick use is part of primary, not secondary, scrubbing in the first handwashing of the day; it’s not necessary every time you wash your hands.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 80 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.1.Demonstrate understanding of proper hand hygiene as used during intraoral and oral surgery procedures 11. Which item of personal protective equipment (PPE) is donned last? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Eyewear ANS: C Gloves are always donned last, just before your hands are placed in the patient’s mouth.

Personal protective clothing is donned first, followed by the surgical mask and eyewear; gloves are the final step in putting on PPE. DIF: Recall REF: p. 84 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 12.

Which best describes how to remove contaminated eyewear? a. Lean forward over a sink, allowing the eyewear to fall in. b. Lift eyewear from the nose bridge, careful not to touch the lenses. c. Grasp the frame of the eyewear at the temple with a paper towel. d. Touch only the ear rests to remove the eyewear.

ANS: D To remove contaminated eyewear, touch only the ear rests. Dropping contaminated eyewear in a sink is difficult, may contaminate additional surfaces, and could damage the eyewear.

The nose bridge is considered contaminated; instead, remove eyewear by the ear rests, which are not. Using a paper towel to remove eyewear is unnecessary because the ear rests are not contaminated.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 85 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 13. Which glove is worn to clean and disinfect the treatment room? a. Sterile b. Utility c. Over d. Exam ANS: B Utility gloves are used to clean and disinfect the treatment room. Sterile gloves are used for involved surgical procedures. Overgloves are worn over examination gloves to retrieve a clean object during treatment, and exam gloves are worn during patient care.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 74 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.j.treatment rooms COMPLETION 1. The is not a regulatory agency. Its role is to issue recommendations for health-related matters. (Answer with the full name of this organization, not the acronym.)

ANS: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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DIF: Recall REF: p. 66 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.h.updates in Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines to maintain office compliance 2. The concept that all human blood and certain other body fluids are treated as infectious is the main premise of Precautions.

ANS: Universal DIF: Recall REF: pp. 66-67 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.1.Identify the modes of disease transmission 3. Never bend or

needles before disposal.

ANS: break DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.2.demonstrate the appropriate protocols for single-use disposable (SUD) items 4. Always use the

-handed scoop technique to prevent accidental needle sticks.

ANS: single DIF: Recall REF: p. 68 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.2.demonstrate the appropriate protocols for single-use disposable (SUD) items 5. PPE stands for personal

equipment.

ANS: protective DIF: Recall REF: p. 70 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items MATCHING Match each item with a corresponding waste classification. a. General b. Contaminated c. Pathological d. Sharps e. Hazardous 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Used barriers Orthodontic wires Toxic chemicals Extracted teeth Paper towels

1. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 75 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.2.Describe how to dispose of biohazardous and other waste generated in the dental office according to federal regulations 2. ANS: D DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 75 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.2.Describe how to dispose of biohazardous and other waste generated in the dental office according to federal regulations 3. ANS: E DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 75 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.2.Describe how to dispose of biohazardous and other waste generated in the dental office according to federal regulations 4. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 75 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.2.Describe how to dispose of biohazardous and other waste generated in the dental office according to federal regulations 5. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 75 OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.B.2.Describe how to dispose of biohazardous and other waste generated in the dental office according to federal regulations Match each set of guidelines or statements with the agency in charge of it. a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 6. Standard Precautions 7. Bloodborne Pathogens Standard 6. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 67 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.h.updates in Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines to maintain office compliance 7. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 66 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.h.updates in Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines to maintain office compliance TRUE/FALSE 1. Laundering contaminated protective clothing is the responsibility of the employer.

ANS: T Laundering contaminated protective clothing is the responsibility of the employer.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 71 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.1.regulations described in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard 2. The BBP standard requires that all dental personnel be vaccinated against HBV. ANS: F The BBP standard requires that the HBV vaccine be made available at no cost to the employee; however, employees have the right to refuse the HBV vaccine for any reason.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 67 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.1.regulations described in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

Chapter 07: Surface Disinfection and Treatment Room Preparation Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which surface barrier is LEAST effective? a. Plastic bag b. Aluminum foil c. Sticky tape d. Paper liner ANS: D Paper is ineffective because surface barriers must be fluid resistant to prevent microorganisms in saliva, blood, and other liquids from soaking through to the surface underneath. Barriers can consist of plastic bags, clear plastic wrap, plastic tape, plastic-backed paper, sticky tape, or aluminum foil.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 87-88 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 2. Which entity registers and regulates disinfectants and chemical sterilants? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) troTlBaA ndNPKrS evEeL ntL ioEnR(C c. Centers for Disease CToEnS .DCCO)M d. National Institutes of Health (NIH) ANS: B The EPA, not OSHA, CDC, or NIH, is responsible for registering disinfectants and sterilants.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 89

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. Which combination of PPE is required to preclean a treatment room? a. Utility gloves and mask b. Mask and protective eyewear c. Protective clothing, utility gloves, protective eyewear d. Protective clothing, utility gloves, protective eyewear, mask ANS: D Complete PPE (protective clothing, utility gloves, protective eyewear, and mask) is required to preclean and disinfect contaminated surfaces. Omitting one or more components of PPE increases operator susceptibility and risk for disease and chemical exposure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 96 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items

4. Which destroys all forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores? a. Detergent b. Disinfectant c. Sterilant d. Antiseptic ANS: C Sterilants kill all forms of microbial life, including spores, whereas detergents, disinfectants, and antiseptics are less lethal.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 91 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection 5. Iodophors: a. can be used to disinfect impressions b. are not used as disinfectants in dentistry c. must be mixed with soft or distilled water d. are effective immediately on application ANS: C Iodophors must be mixed with soft or distilled water, as they are inactivated by hard water.

Synthetic phenol compounds, not iodophors, can be used to disinfect impressions. Iodophors are EPA registered and used in the dental setting for surface disinfecting, although they are not immediately effective and may require up to 10 minutes to take effect.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B9A 0 NKSELLOEBRJ. : C3OM MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.3.Prepare and use chemical agents according to manufacturer's instructions 6. Critical items must be: a. heat sterilized b. immersion sterilized c. disposable d. treated with a high-level disinfectant ANS: A Critical items, e.g., surgical burs, must be heat sterilized, as opposed to being soaked in cold immersion sterilant, or treated with high-level disinfectant. Critical items can be disposable, but items that are not must be heat sterilized.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 92 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies 7. Laboratory case pans should be cleaned and disinfected: a. monthly b. as often as possible c. when chemically corroded or discolored d. before they are used for another case

ANS: D Laboratory case pans should be cleaned and disinfected before they are used for another case, not whenever possible, once monthly, or when corroded or discolored; laboratory asepsis is as vital as operatory asepsis.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 94 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.g.laboratories 8. Which are recommended to disinfect a cast? a. Iodophors b. Complex phenols c. Phenol-alcohols d. Quaternary ammonium compounds ANS: A Iodophors and chlorine products are recommended to delicately disinfect a cast; complex phenols, phenol-alcohols, and quaternary ammonium compounds are not recommended.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 95 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.g.laboratories 9. Surfaces in the radiology area are considered noncritical. The surfaces the operator touches while producing radiographs must be covered with a barrier or cleaned and disinfected with a low- to intermediate-level disinfectant. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement isTtrEuS e;TthBeAsN ecKoS ndEiLs L faElsRe..COM d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: A Both statements are true; a low- to intermediate-level disinfectant is needed to clean and disinfect the surfaces in the radiology area, as these surfaces are considered noncritical.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 95 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.A.1.Demonstrate an understanding of infection control techniques to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography COMPLETION 1. Surface barriers contamination on a surface so it will not have to be cleaned and disinfected between patients.

ANS: prevent DIF: Recall REF: p. 87 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items

2. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is regulated by name of the organization, not the acronym.)

. (Answer with the full

ANS: Occupational Safety and Health Administration DIF: Recall REF: p. 87 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.III.A.1.regulations described in the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard 3. If a surface cannot be easily and thoroughly cleaned and disinfected, it should have protection.

ANS: barrier DIF: Recall REF: p. 87 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 4.

means to clean before disinfecting.

ANS: Precleaning DIF: Recall REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection

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5.

is intended to kill disease-producing microorganisms that remain on the surface after precleaning.

ANS: Disinfecting DIF: Recall REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection

6. Glutaraldehyde is classified as a

-level disinfectant.

ANS: high DIF: Recall REF: p. 92 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection 7.

instruments are items used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.

ANS: Critical DIF: Recall REF: p. 92 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate system for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies

8.

instruments pose the least risk of transmission of infection.

ANS: Noncritical DIF: Recall REF: p. 92 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate system for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies

9. Bacteria attached to, and accumulating on, the inside walls of water lines are called .

ANS: biofilm DIF: Recall REF: p. 93 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.2.Maintain dental unit water lines 10. An impression should be disinfected with an

-level hospital disinfectant.

ANS: intermediate DIF: Recall REF: p. 97 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.e.impressions 11.

water lines for several minutes at the beginning of the day and longer after weekends.

ANS: Flush DIF: Recall REF: p. 94 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.2.Maintain dental unit water lines

MATCHING Match each item with its classification. a. Critical b. Semicritical c. Noncritical 1. Mouth mirror 2. Scalpel 3. External dental x-ray head 1. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate system for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies 2. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate system for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies 3. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate system for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies Match each disinfectant with its classification. a. High-level disinfectant b. Intermediate-level disinfectant 4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Iodophors Glutaraldehyde Synthetic phenol compounds Chlorine dioxide Ortho-phthalaldehyde

4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ:

B 3 A 3 B 3 A 3 B 3

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 90 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 90 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 92 MT SC CB DANEKxS am .DC.1O.S E:ST E:LIC LEE.RII. Melect proper methods of disinfection

TRUE/FALSE 1. If a barrier slips out of position, the underlying surface will become contaminated.

ANS: T Precleaning and disinfection are required if a barrier slips out of position, negating the barrier’s purpose.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 96 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 2. You must discard a surface barrier as a hazardous waste product.

ANS: F Used surface barriers are discarded in the regular waste trash.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 96 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety

items 3. Under the new Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, household bleach alone is recommended as a disinfectant.

ANS: F Straight household bleach is no longer recommended for dental settings because it is not an EPA-registered disinfectant.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.Select proper methods of disinfection 4. Impression material can be disinfected with any type of disinfectant.

ANS: F Not all disinfectants are appropriate for impression material; always check the manufacturer’s recommendations for which disinfectant is best suited to the impression material.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 94-95 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.e.impressions 5. After the impression has been removed from a patient’s mouth, it is contaminated with saliva and, possibly, blood.

ANS: T An impression that has been removed from a patient’s mouth is contaminated with saliva and, possibly, blood. Dentists and dental assistants must wear gloves and protective eyewear and outerwear whenever they handle contaminated impressions. Some viral and bacterial pathogens can exist for long periods outside of the human body.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 94 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.e.impressions

Chapter 08: Instrument Processing Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Why are instruments wrapped or packaged before sterilization? a. To keep them from rusting b. To disinfect the instruments c. To protect them from becoming contaminated after sterilization d. To provide a simple system of instrument organization ANS: C Dental instruments are wrapped or packaged before sterilization to protect them from becoming contaminated after sterilization. Drying the instruments and treating them with a rust inhibitor will prevent rusting, but this is not the reason instruments are packaged before sterilization. Wrapping instruments does not disinfect them. One advantage to wrapping instruments before sterilization is organization; however, the reason instruments are wrapped is to maintain sterility after processing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 104 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 2. Packaging materials and cassettes for sterilization must be approved by the: a. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. state dental board d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) ANS: D The FDA is responsible for approving all medical devices, including sterilization cassettes and the packaging materials used for sterilization. In contrast, the EPA regulates items that affect the environment, OSHA regulates employee safety and health, and the state dental board regulates the practice of dentistry in its state.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 104

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. The workflow pattern for instrument processing should proceed in a single loop from: a. dirty, to sterile, to storage b. dirty, to clean, to sterile, to storage c. dirty, to preclean, to clean, to storage d. dirty, to preclean, to clean, to sterilize, to storage ANS: B The processing of instruments should proceed in a single loop—from dirty, to clean, to sterile, to storage—without ever “doubling back.” Instruments must be cleaned before sterilization, and sterilized before reuse. Precleaning and cleaning are considered to be the same procedure.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 101

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization of dental instruments and supplies 4. Ultrasonic cleaner solution must be discarded: a. every other day b. once a week c. at least once a day d. once every 28 days ANS: C Ultrasonic cleaner solution is highly contaminated and should be discarded and the unit disinfected at least once a day—more often if it becomes visibly cloudy. Fresh ultrasonic solution is necessary, at the very minimum, once a day.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 103 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.D.1.instrument processing 5. Process indicators that change color are useful for: a. monitoring sterilization b. identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature c. determining whether an instrument package has been processed d. both identifying instrument packs that have been exposed to a certain temperature and determining whether an instrument package has been processed ANS: D Process indicators do not guarantee or monitor sterilization; they only determine whether a package has been procesT seE dSanTdBw thS erEtL heLpEaR ck.aC geOhMas been exposed to a certain AhNeK temperature.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.3.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 6. The only approved way to determine that sterilization has actually occurred is to use: a. process integrators b. biologic monitors c. process indicators d. multiparameter indicators ANS: B Biologic monitoring, or spore testing, is the best way to determine whether sterilization has occurred. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends at least weekly biologic monitoring of sterilization equipment. Process integrators (a.k.a. multiparameter indicators) and process indicators provide visualization of sterilizing conditions, but they do not indicate sterility and cannot replace biologic monitoring.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 7. Which method of sterilization is best for plastic shade guides and rubber dam frames? a. Autoclave

b. Chemical vapor c. Dry heat d. Chemical liquid ANS: D Some plastics are damaged by heat sterilization, e.g., autoclaving, chemical vapor, and dry heat. Chemical liquid sterilization is best for these plastics, like shade guides and some rubber dam frames.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 107 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 8. Standard packaging for chemical vapor sterilization includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. film pouches or paper bags b. solid metal trays c. sterilization wrap d. nylon see-through tubing ANS: B Solid metal trays, aluminum foil, and other closed containers cannot be used in chemical vapor sterilization, because the chemical sterilant cannot reach the instruments inside.

Sterilization wrap, film pouches, paper bags, and nylon tubing are standard packaging for chemical vapor sterilization.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 107 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICET .IIE.CS.T 1.B DA esNcrKibSeEhL ow epOaM re dental instruments for sterilization LEtoRp.rC 9. Examples of process integrators include all of the following EXCEPT: a. aluminum foil b. strips c. tubes of colored liquid d. tabs ANS: A Aluminum foil is not used as a process integrator, which responds to pressure, temperature, and time to indicate whether or not the sterilizing agent has penetrated the package.

Common process integrators take the form of strips, tabs, and tubes of colored liquid, which are placed inside instrument packages.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 10. A dry heat sterilizer is inadvertently opened mid-cycle, but quickly shut again to finish the cycle, with no other adjustment. Which sterilization error has occurred? a. Improper loading b. Improper timing c. Inadequate instrument cleaning d. Improper packaging ANS: B

Improper timing has occurred when the sterilization cycle is interrupted and restarted, without restarting the cycle time. Improper loading occurs when the sterilizer is overloaded.

Inadequate instrument cleaning results in sterilization failure because residue left on the instruments shields organisms from the sterilizing agent. Similarly, excessive packaging may prevent the sterilizing agent from penetrating the wrap.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 109 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 11. When loading an autoclave sterilizer, larger packs are placed: a. tilted at an angle b. at the top of the chamber c. at the bottom of the chamber d. perpendicular to the floor ANS: C To facilitate an even flow of steam, place larger packs at the bottom of the autoclave chamber, as opposed to the top of the chamber or perpendicular to the floor. Glass or metal canisters, not large instrument packs, are tilted at an angle in the autoclave.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 111 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 12. Which parameter does NOT apply to both autoclave and chemical vapor sterilization? a. Instruments must be absolutely dry. b. Articles and packs mT usEt S beTsBeA paNraKteSdEfL roLmEeRa. chCoOthMer. c. Pressure and temperature must be reached before timing begins. d. Process integrators must be inserted into the test load instrument package.

ANS: A While dry instruments are not mandatory for autoclave sterilization, instruments must be completely dry before they are wrapped for chemical vapor sterilization. In both methods of sterilization, the articles and packs must be separated, pressure and temperature must be reached before timing begins, and process integrators must be properly employed.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 111 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 13. Liquid chemical sterilant must be covered, because glutaraldehyde produces toxic fumes. a. The statement is correct, but the reason is not. b. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct. c. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. d. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related.

ANS: C

Both the statement and the reason are correct and related; liquid sterilants are highly toxic and can lead to respiratory problems. Containers of liquid chemical sterilant must be covered with a lid, when instruments are not being placed in or taken out, to reduce exposure to toxic glutaraldehyde fumes.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 113 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 14. Instruments rest in a holding solution in which step of instrument processing? a. Transport b. Cleaning c. Packaging d. Sterilization ANS: B Instruments that are not cleaned immediately rest in a holding solution, as part of the cleaning step for instrument processing. Holding solution is not used in the transport, packaging, or sterilization of instruments.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 101 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 15. An ideal instrument processing area: a. is located in a separate building from the dental practice b. contains a dental laboratory and sterilization center TaElkSwTaByANKSELLER.COM c. is part of a common w d. is uncarpeted with multiple outlets and a vacuum line ANS: D An ideal instrument processing area is uncarpeted with multiple outlets and a vacuum line for flushing high-speed hand pieces. The instrument processing area should be centrally located to all operatories, as opposed to being located in a separate building. The sterilization center should be physically separated from the dental laboratory, and not part of a common walkway.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 100 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 16. Which is the LEAST desirable method of cleaning instruments? a. Ultrasonic cleaning b. Hand scrubbing c. Automated instrument washers d. Thermal disinfectors ANS: B Hand scrubbing requires direct hand contact with contaminated instruments, making this the least desirable, and most dangerous, precleaning method. Ultrasonic cleaners and automated instrument washers/thermal disinfectors are preferred to hand scrubbing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 102 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization COMPLETION 1. All soiled instruments are brought into the

area.

ANS: contaminated DIF: Recall REF: p. 101 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 2. The

solution is an enzymatic solution that partially dissolves organic debris.

ANS: holding DIF: Recall REF: p. 101 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 3. The ultrasonic cleaner works by producing

.

ANS: sound waves DIF: Recall REF: p. 102 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: CE.ITI.E CS .1T.DBeAscNriKbS eE hoLwLtEoRp. reC paOrM e dental instruments for sterilization 4. The ultrasonic cleaner is checked to see whether it is working properly by holding a 5-inch by 5-inch sheet of in the solution for 20 seconds.

ANS: aluminum foil DIF: Recall REF: p. 103 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: CE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 5. An

is used to sterilize dental instruments by means of steam under pressure.

ANS: autoclave DIF: Recall REF: p. 105 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 6. A

sterilizer is similar to an oven—hot air rises through natural convention.

ANS: static air DIF: Recall REF: p. 107 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental

instruments and supplies 7. Process

are placed outside the instrument packages before sterilization.

ANS: indicators DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: CE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 8. If the spores are killed on a biologic indicator, it will be a sterilization cycle was successful.

culture, which means the

ANS: negative DIF: Recall REF: p. 109 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: CE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 9. A

report from a biologic indicator indicates that sterilization did not occur.

ANS: positive DIF: Recall REF: p. 109 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: CE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 10. Sporox II is a heat sterilization.

-level disinfectant/sterilant used for instruments that cannot tolerate

ANS: high DIF: Recall REF: p. 107 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies TRUE/FALSE 1. Aluminum foil, metal, and glass containers may all be used in a static air sterilizer.

ANS: T A static air sterilizer is similar to an oven; aluminum foil, metal, and glass containers may all be used in a static air sterilizer. The wrapping material must be heat resistant so that burning is prevented.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 107 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.2.Select the appropriate method for sterilization for dental instruments and supplies 2. An additional advantage to packaging instruments is that they can be grouped into special setups.

ANS: T Packaging instruments protect sterilization, but a bonus advantage is setup organization; package groupings can be crown or bridge, amalgam, prophy, composite, and so on.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 104 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 3. An alternative to using rust inhibitors is drying instruments thoroughly using dry heat or chemical vapor.

ANS: T Instruments and burs made of carbon steel will rust during steam sterilization if not treated or dried.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 104 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 4. Process integrators are placed inside instrument packages.

ANS: T Process integrators are placed inside instrument packages, to provide a visual indicating whether the sterilizing agent penetrated the packaging.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 5. Another name for spore tTeE stiSnT gB isApN roKceSsE sL inL diEcaRti.nC g.OM ANS: F Another name for spore testing is biologic monitoring. Process indicators do not indicate sterility and are not a replacement for spore testing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 6. There are many other ways to confirm if sterilization has occurred, aside from spore testing.

ANS: F Spore testing is the only approved way to confirm if sterilization has occurred.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 108 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.3.Select the appropriate system for sterilization monitoring 7. In a dry heat sterilizer, you must clean and dry instruments before wrapping them.

ANS: T Wet instruments rust during dry heat sterilization, so you must clean and dry instruments before wrapping them.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 113 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 8. The first step in instrument processing is to put on your utility gloves.

ANS: T The first step in instrument processing is to put on your utility gloves. Utility gloves protect you from being contaminated or cut with sharp items.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 99 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization 9. It is neither cost-effective nor desirable to use a disinfectant alone as a holding solution.

ANS: T It is neither cost-effective nor desirable to use a disinfectant alone as a holding solution. A good holding solution would be dishwasher detergent.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 101 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.C.1.Describe how to prepare dental instruments for sterilization

Chapter 09: Clinical Dentistry Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the supine position, the patient is: a. lying down, head lower than the feet b. seated upright, with the back of the chair at a 90-degree angle c. almost lying down, head and knees along the same plane d. seated upright, leaning slightly forward, with chin to chest ANS: C When the patient is in the supine position, the chair back is lowered until the patient is almost lying down; the patient’s head and knees should be at the same approximate plane.

Most dental treatment takes place in this position. When the patient is in the subsupine position, the head is actually lower than the feet. When the patient is in the upright position, the back of the chair is placed at a 90-degree angle.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 117 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.3.Describe how to seat and prepare a patient, including how to position and adjust equipment 2. Patients receive their treatment in which designated area? a. Operatory b. Lounge c. Laboratory d. Reception ANS: A The dental operatory is the center of the practice and the area where patients receive treatment. The lounge, laboratory, and reception areas serve various other roles related to patient care; however, patient treatment is restricted to the operatory.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 116 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.1.Describe how to prepare the treatment room for a patient 3. Which polymerizes resins and composites? a. Rheostat b. Curing light c. Amalgamator d. Air-water syringe ANS: B The curing light is an electronically activated blue light that polymerizes resins and composites. The rheostat is a device used to operate hand pieces. The amalgamator electronically triturates encapsulated dental materials. The air-water syringe is used to rinse and dry the oral cavity.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 119

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.d.composite restorations 4. Which piece of equipment has an adjustable headrest for patient comfort? a. Operator’s stool b. Assistant’s stool c. Dental chair d. Dental unit ANS: C The dental chair is designed with an adjustable headrest to support the patient’s body and position the patient correctly for care. The operator’s and assistant’s stools are ergonomically designed to support the operator and assistant for a long period; neither has an adjustable headrest. The dental unit provides the electrical and air-operated mechanics for the equipment.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 118 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 5. Which piece of dental equipment triturates encapsulated dental materials? a. Amalgamator b. Curing light c. Rheostat d. Operating light ANS: A The amalgamator triturates encapsulated dental materials. The curing light is an activated blue light that polymerizT esErS esTinBsAanNdKcSoE mL poLsE iteRs. .T ChOeMrheostat is used to operate the low-speed and high-speed hand pieces. The operating light illuminates the oral cavity.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 119 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.a.amalgam restorations 6. Always greet the patient using his or her: a. first name b. nickname c. middle name d. last name ANS: D Always greets the patient using his or her last name, which is more professional than using a first name, nickname, or middle name.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 117 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.C.7.receive and dismiss patients and visitors 7. What determines the position of the dental chair? a. Patient’s size b. Length of the clinician’s arms and hands c. Area of the mouth being treated and the type of procedure being done d. Type or style of dental chair

ANS: C Ultimately, the position of the dental chair depends on the procedure and the area of the mouth being treated. Most dental treatments take place with the patient in the supine position. The patient’s size, the length of the clinician’s arms and hands, and the type or style of dental chair have less bearing on the position of the dental chair.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 117 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 8. The operator is seated with: a. a flat back and relaxed shoulders b. feet suspended above the floor c. knees slightly higher than hip level d. elbows lifted away from the body ANS: A The operator is seated in an unstrained position with back straight, feet flat on the floor, and thighs angled so that the knees are slightly lower than hip level. Elbows should be close to the sides, and shoulders should be relaxed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 120 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 9. The transfer zone is located directly over the patient’s: a. forehead b. chest c. neck d. face ANS: B Instruments are exchanged directly over the patient’s chest, in the transfer zone. Special caution is advised not to transfer anything over the patient’s face, forehead, or neck.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 122 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers 10. A right-handed assistant operates in which location? a. 10:00 to 12:00 b. 12:00 to 2:00 c. 2:00 to 4:00 d. 4:00 to 7:00 ANS: C Right-handed dental assistants operate in the assistant’s zone, between 2:00 and 4:00. The left-handed static zone is located between 10:00 and 12:00, while the right-handed static zone is located between 12:00 and 2:00. The right-handed transfer zone is located between 4:00 and 7:00.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 122 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment

11. The dental unit is usually located in which zone? a. Static b. Operator’s c. Assistant’s d. Transfer ANS: A The dental unit is usually located in the static zone, as opposed to the operator’s, assistant’s, or transfer zone. The static zone is located directly behind the patient.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 122 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 12. Which ergonomic mistake creates lower back pain? a. Overextension of the wrist repetitively b. Flexing the shoulder for over an hour a day c. Extending or elevating the arm for a long period d. Twisting the body over an extended period ANS: D Twisting the body over an extended period creates lower back pain. Other job-related injuries associated with dentistry include wrist pain (repetitive overextension of the wrist), shoulder pain, and neck pain (flexing the shoulder for over an hour a day), as well as neck and back pain (extension or elevation of the arm for long periods).

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B1A 20NKSELLOEBRJ. : C1OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 13. Training for expanded functions can take place in each location, EXCEPT a/an: a. dental assisting program b. program approved by the dental board c. state-approved continuing education course d. in-office, one-on-one training with the dentist ANS: D In-office training is inadequate for expanded functions credentialing; most states require dental assistants to receive formal education before they can perform an expanded function.

Dental assisting programs, special programs approved by the state dental board, and continuing education courses approved by the state are all acceptable avenues for certification.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 124 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 14. Which is transferred to the dentist by placing the handle over his or her fingers? a. Pliers b. Syringe c. Scissors

d. Forceps ANS: C Scissors are transferred to the dentist with the handle positioned over his or her fingers.

Pliers, syringes, and forceps are transferred by directing the handle of the instrument into the palm of the dentist’s hand.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 122 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.c.instrument transfers 15. When transferring an instrument, motion should be restricted with the: a. fingers b. fingers and wrist c. fingers, wrist, and elbow d. fingers, wrist, elbow, and shoulder ANS: C A minimum of motion is recommended in the transfer of instruments, involving only the fingers, wrist, and elbow. Shoulder motion is not recommended and may result in occupational injury.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.c.instrument transfers COMPLETION 1. In the

T_EpSosTitBioAnN , tK heSpEaL tiL enEt’R s. heCaO dM is actually lower than the feet.

ANS: subsupine DIF: Recall REF: p. 117 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.3.Describe how to seat and prepare a patient, including how to position and adjust equipment 2. Operating

are based on a “clock concept” to position the dental team.

ANS: zones DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 3. The “zone clock” is divided into your answer.)

zones. (Use numeric characters only in

ANS: 4 DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment

4. When transferring instruments during a procedure, a specific technique is most efficient.

-handed

ANS: single DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers 5. The manner in which the dentist holds an instrument is termed the

.

ANS: grasp DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers 6. The clinical assistant delivers the mirror and explorer simultaneously, using a exchange.

-handed

ANS: two DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers 7. The most common patient position for dental procedures is the

position.

ANS: supine DIF: Recall REF: p. 117 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 8. Most instruments have two ends and are referred to as

-ended instruments.

ANS: double DIF: Recall REF: p. 126 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers 9. You use the last two fingers of your the dentist.

hand to retrieve the used instrument from

ANS: left DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers 10. Using the single-handed technique, you should retrieve an instrument from the tray setup with your hand.

ANS: left

DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.instrument transfers TRUE/FALSE 1. When a patient is in the upright position, the back of the chair is placed at a 45-degree angle.

ANS: F When a patient is in the upright position, the back of the chair is placed at a 90-degree angle, as opposed to a 45-degree angle.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 117 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.3.Describe how to seat and prepare a patient, including how to position and adjust equipment 2. Operating zones are based on the clock concept.

ANS: T The clock concept is the best way to identify the working position or operating zones of the dental team.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment flE ueSnT ceBdAbN yK wShE etL heLr E thRe.oC peOraMtor is right-handed or left-handed.

3. Zone locations are not inT ANS: F Zone locations do, in fact, vary—depending on whether the operator is right-handed or left-handed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 4. The clinical assistant should be 2 to 3 inches higher than the operator.

ANS: F The clinical assistant should be seated at eye level with the operator, not 2 to 3 inches higher.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 5. The assistant should be seated with feet on the platform near the base of the stool.

ANS: T For proper positioning, the clinical assistant’s feet should rest on the platform near the base of his or her stool.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 121 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.A.4.b.correct positioning for prescribed dental treatment 6. The design of the clinical area is not dependent on the number of dental assistants on staff.

ANS: F The design of the clinical area depends on the number of dental assistants and hygienists on staff, in addition to the physical size of the practice, the number of patients seen daily, and the number of practicing dentists.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 116

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

7. Carpal tunnel syndrome refers to problems associated with continued flexion and extension of the wrist.

ANS: T Carpal tunnel syndrome is defined by problems associated with repetitive and forceful motion of the wrist.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 120

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. Care of dental equipment is the responsibility of the clinical staff.

ANS: T The clinical staff are responsible for the daily care of dental office equipment.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B1A 16NKSELLOEBRJ. : C2OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.B.1.Describe how to perform preventive maintenance on the equipment and instruments in the treatment room, as per manufacturers' instructions

Chapter 10: Moisture Control Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Teeth isolated with a rubber dam should be free of: a. staining b. restorations c. a fixed prosthesis d. plaque and debris ANS: D Teeth that are isolated with a rubber dam should be free of plaque and debris, which may dislodge and irritate the gingival tissue; brushing or selective coronal polishing is recommended to remove plaque before dam placement. The dental dam can isolate stained, restored, and prosthetic teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 132 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.9.assist with and/or apply and remove the dental dam 2. The HVE is used to: a. illuminate the mouth b. isolate dental tissues c. keep the mouth free of saliva, blood, water, and debris d. block the flow of saliva and protect the tissue ANS: C The HVE evacuates saliva, blood, water, and debris. A mouth mirror and light illuminate the mouth. A rubber dam is used to isolate dental tissues, while a dry angle blocks the flow of saliva and protects the tissue.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 129 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) 3. Single-tooth rubber dam isolation is commonly used for: a. extractions b. endodontic treatment c. removable prosthodontics d. implant surgery ANS: B Single-tooth rubber dam isolation is commonly used for endodontic treatment and selective restorative procedures, not extractions, removable prosthodontics, or implant surgery.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 132 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.9.assist with and/or apply and remove the dental dam 4. A malaligned tooth is not:

a. b. c. d.

the correct shape or size functioning in the occlusion anchored in the periodontium positioned correctly in the dental arch

ANS: D A malaligned tooth is not positioned correctly in the dental arch. Alignment refers to position, not shape, size, function, or attachment.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 132 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.oral examination and data collection 5.

A limited-area rinse is performed: a. frequently during a procedure b. occasionally during a procedure c. at the conclusion of a procedure d. at the beginning of a procedure ANS: A A limited-area rinse is required frequently, not occasionally, during a procedure.

Limited-area rinsing is routine when the dentist pauses for a closer inspection, and is not isolated to the beginning or conclusion of treatment. However, a complete mouth rinse is performed at the completion of a dental procedure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 128 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retractTioEnS , sTuB ctA ioNnK , iS rrE igL atL ioEnR , d.ryCiO ngM) 6. The saliva ejector: a. reduces bacterial aerosol from the high-speed hand piece b. retracts the tongue or cheek away from the procedure site c. removes small amounts of water from the patient’s mouth d. removes stray amalgam and other dental material debris ANS: C The saliva ejector removes small amounts of water from the patient’s mouth, whereas the high-volume evacuator (HVE) reduces bacterial aerosol, retracts oral tissue, and removes debris.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 128 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) 7. The bevel of the HVE tip is slanted downward for use in which area? a. Maxillary arch b. Mandibular arch c. Anterior region d. Posterior region ANS: C

The HVE tip bevel is slanted downward for use in the anterior region of the mouth. For use in the posterior region, the bevel is slanted upward. The slant of the HVE tip correlates to the region of the mouth, not the arch.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 129 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) 8. Cotton rolls: a. provide maximum retraction b. are comfortable for the patient c. prevent moisture contamination d. require only occasional replacement ANS: B Cotton rolls are comfortable for the patient; however, they provide only limited retraction, require frequent replacement, and provide no protection against moisture contamination.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 130 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.2.place and remove cotton rolls 9. Dry angles are placed on the buccal mucosa, opposite which molar? a. Maxillary second b. Mandibular second c. Maxillary first d. Mandibular first ANS: A Dry angles are placed on the buccal mucosa, opposite the maxillary second molar, to block the flow of saliva from Stensen’s duct. Stensen’s duct is not located opposite the maxillary first molar, mandibular first molar, or mandibular second molar.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 131 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) 10. The dentist is preparing the lingual surface of the mandibular left canine. Which describes the best position for the HVE tip? a. Adjacent to the facial surface of #32, or the last mandibular molar b. Parallel to the facial surface of #22, slightly beyond the incisal edge c. Adjacent to the lingual surface of #23, near the gingival margin d. Perpendicular to the lingual surface of #22, directly above the incisal edge ANS: B The HVE tip is best positioned parallel to the facial surface of #22, slightly beyond the incisal edge. When the dentist is preparing the lingual surface of a tooth, the HVE tip should be placed parallel to the facial aspect of that tooth, just beyond the incisal edge.

DIF: Application REF: p. 137 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g.,

through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) COMPLETION 1. The dental dam is applied

the local anesthetic has been administered.

ANS: after DIF: Recall REF: p. 131 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.9.assist with and/or apply and remove the dental dam 2. The

tooth holds the dental dam clamp.

ANS: anchor DIF: Recall REF: p. 132 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.9.assist with and/or apply and remove the dental dam 3.

is the abbreviation for the high-volume evacuator.

ANS: HVE DIF: Recall REF: p. 128 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying)

4. One of the main responsibilities of the clinical assistant is to maintain throughout a procedure

control

ANS: moisture DIF: Recall REF: p. 128 OBJ: 3 | 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) 5. The

end, or working end, of the HVE tip is slanted downward or upward.

ANS: beveled DIF: Recall REF: p. 129 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.1.maintain field of operation during dental procedures (e.g., through the use of retraction, suction, irrigation, drying) 6. Cotton rolls are placed on the cheek side of the teeth, in the mucobuccal ANS: fold DIF: Recall REF: p. 130 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.2.place and remove cotton rolls

.

Chapter 11: The Dental Patient Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. “Medically compromised” means a patient: a. cannot receive dental treatment b. has allergies c. is taking prescription drugs d. has an illness or condition that influences dental treatment ANS: D A medically compromised patient has an illness or a physical condition that may influence the way dental treatment is provided; these patients are not usually barred from dental treatment. Allergies and medications may affect the type of treatment provided, but neither is the solitary definition of the term “medically compromised.”

DIF: Recall REF: p. 143 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.2.Recognize medications related to the patient's present and/or past medical/dental history 2. A pulse is: a. the process of inhaling or exhaling b. the beat of the heart c. the blood pressure teSr TBANKSELLER.COM d. taken with a thermomTeE ANS: B The pulse is the beat of the heart. The process of inhaling or exhaling is called respiration.

Blood pressure refers to the amount of work the heart has to exert to pump blood to the body. A thermometer takes a patient’s oral temperature, not pulse.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 3. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) restricts the use of protected health information (PHI) to treatment, diagnosis, and: a. billing b. scheduling c. research d. marketing ANS: A HIPAA restricts the use of PHI to treatment, diagnosis, and billing. Disclosing a patient’s PHI for scheduling, research, or marketing purposes is strictly prohibited.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 147 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.f.patient's right to privacy according to Health Insurance

Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations 4. All examination data belong in the: a. medical history portion of the chart b. patient registration form c. clinical portion of the chart d. acknowledgement of privacy practices ANS: C Examination data belongs in the clinical portion of the chart. The medical history portion of the chart contains information regarding the patient’s medical and physical condition, including allergies and medications. The patient registration form is used primarily for the business office in management of the account. The acknowledgement of privacy practices is a separate form that new and existing patients must sign, after reviewing the practice privacy policy.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record 5. The normal pulse rate in resting adults is between: a. 18 and 30 beats per minute b. 60 and 100 beats per minute c. 10 and 20 beats per minute d. 100 and 600 beats per minute ANS: B The normal pulse rate in resting adults is between 60 and 100 beats per minute (bpm), as opposed to 18 to 30 bpm, 10 to 20 bpm, or 100 to 600 bpm.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 6. The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is: a. 10 to 20 breaths per minute b. 25 to 35 breaths per minute c. 45 to 55 breaths per minute d. 60 to 70 breaths per minute ANS: A The normal respiration rate for a relaxed adult is 10 to 20 breaths per minute; respiration that exceeds 20 breaths per minute (25 to 35, 45 to 55, or 60 to 70) is unusual. A rate of 18 to 30 breaths per minute is the normal respiration rate for children and teenagers.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 7. Which sound is associated with systolic blood pressure?

a. b. c. d.

Soft murmur Swishing Sound disappears Sharp tapping

ANS: D The systolic blood pressure reading is identified by sharp tapping sounds, as blood flows back into the artery. A swishing sound that becomes a soft murmur is associated with the deflation of the cuff in Phase II of Korotkoff sounds. Diastolic blood pressure is identified as the sound disappears.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 154 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 8. The pulse is commonly taken at which artery? a. Radial b. Carotid c. Brachial d. Femoral ANS: A The most common site for pulse evaluation is at the radial artery, as opposed to the carotid, brachial, or femoral arteries. The radial artery is located near the thumb side of the inner wrist.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B1A 53NKSELLOEBRJ. : C4OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 9. A new patient arrives for a dental examination. The dental assistant takes the patient’s brachial pulse for 30 seconds, recording 35 beats. How high should the assistant inflate the cuff to get an accurate blood pressure reading? a. 70 mm Hg b. 110 mm Hg c. 125 mm Hg d. 140 mm Hg ANS: B The correct inflation level for this patient is 110 mm Hg. To determine the inflation level for a new patient, take the brachial pulse for 30 seconds and double that number for a 1-minute reading. The patient’s pulse was recorded as 35 beats in 30 seconds = 70 bpm. Add 40 mm Hg to the pulse to arrive at the correct inflation level: 70 bpm + 40 mm Hg = 110 mm Hg. DIF: Application REF: p. 157 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 10. Respiration rate is measured: a. with a sphygmomanometer

b. by watching the nostrils flare c. in the same position used to take the pulse d. while taking the oral temperature reading ANS: C The respiration rate is measured, without the knowledge of the patient, in the same position used to take the pulse, so the patient does not alter his or her breathing pattern. A sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure, not respirations. Respirations are measured by watching the rise and fall of the patient’s chest, not nostrils. Respirations are recorded directly after taking the pulse, not while taking the temperature.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 11. An oral thermometer is placed in which location, to get an accurate reading? a. Under the tongue b. Above the lingual tonsil c. Between the tongue and palate d. In the labial vestibule ANS: A The oral thermometer is placed under the tongue, to get an accurate temperature reading, as opposed to placement above the lingual tonsil, between the tongue and palate, or in the labial vestibule.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B1A 55NKSELLOEBRJ. : C4OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 12. Identifying a latex allergy is especially important before: a. prescribing prophylactic antibiotics b. administering a topical anesthetic c. prescribing postoperative pain medication d. applying a rubber dam or using rubber gloves ANS: D It is crucial for the dental healthcare team to identify all allergies before providing treatment of any kind, but it is especially important to identify latex allergies before applying a rubber dam or using rubber gloves to avoid an allergic reaction. Reactions to antibiotics, anesthetic solutions, and pain medications are not associated with latex allergy.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 143 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.1.b.allergies

OBJ: 3

13. Which is NOT a component of the patient registration form? a. Demographics b. Progress notes c. Responsible party d. Insurance information

ANS: B Progress notes are a valuable component of the clinical chart, not the patient registration form. Information pertaining to demographics, the responsible party, and insurance information are all included on the patient registration form.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 143 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record COMPLETION 1. The patient

consists of a medical and dental history.

ANS: record DIF: Recall REF: p. 143 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record 2. The patient’s on the form indicates that the patient has provided the information and takes responsibility for its accuracy.

ANS: signature DIF: Recall REF: p. 143 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T VE IIS .DT.1B.bA.N iteKmSsEinLcL luEdR ed.aCs O paMrt of a legally documented patient record 3. A medical is placed inside the patient record if the patient has a medical condition that could affect dental treatment.

ANS: alert DIF: Recall REF: p. 143 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.c.legal significance of medical and dental histories 4. We abbreviate the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act with the letters .

ANS: HIPAA DIF: Recall REF: p. 147 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.f.patient's right to privacy according to Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations 5. The temperature of your body is the measurement of body ANS: heat

.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 6. A

is the beat of the heart.

ANS: pulse DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 7.

is the process of inhaling and exhaling or breathing.

ANS: Respiration DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs

8.

refers to the amount of work the heart has to exert to pump blood throughout the body.

ANS: Blood pressure DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 TESTBANKSELLER.COM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs

9. The higher number of a recorded blood pressure is the

pressure.

ANS: systolic DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 10. The lower number of a recorded blood pressure is the

pressure.

ANS: diastolic DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs TRUE/FALSE 1. Vital signs are not true indicators of a patient’s overall health.

ANS: F Vital signs truly are indicators of a patient’s overall health. They include temperature, pulse, respiration rate, and blood pressure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs 2. The assistant’s primary responsibility to the patient is to work independently.

ANS: F The assistant’s primary responsibility to the patient is to be a component of the dental team that provides quality patient care. The ability to work independently is valuable, but being part of the team facilitates comprehensive quality care.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 142

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. The assistant is responsible for the patient’s safety and well-being during treatment.

ANS: T Maintaining the patient’s safety and well-being during treatment is a primary responsibility of the assistant.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 142

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

4. The average oral temperature of the human body is 96.8° F.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: F The average oral temperature of the human body is 98.6° F. DIF: Recall REF: p. 148 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.B.3.Demonstrate an understanding of how to take, record, observe, and measure vital signs

Chapter 12: The Dental Examination Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Geometric tooth diagrams resemble actual teeth. Some geometric designs also illustrate the roots of the teeth. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: B Both statements are false. A geometric diagram is a circle, divided to represent each tooth surface. Anatomic diagrams resemble actual teeth. Some anatomic diagrams also illustrate the roots of the teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 162 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 2. Which provides the best view of the upper portion of the throat? a. Grasp the tip of the tongue and pull it forward b. Retract the lip with your thumb and index fingers c. Ask the patient to touch the tip of the tongue to the hard palate heEtS onTgBuA eN wK ithSaEm ouEthRm irrOoM r and ask the patient to say d. Depress the base of tT LL .C “ahhh” ANS: D To view the upper portion of the throat, gently and firmly depress the base of the tongue with a mouth mirror and ask the patient to say “ahhh.” Gently pulling the tongue forward provides the best visualization of the dorsum of the tongue. Retracting the lip helps the operator to examine the labial frenum. The floor of the mouth, lingual frenum, and salivary ducts are visible when the patient touches the hard palate with the tip of the tongue.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 173 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.D.1.Describe how to prepare for and assist with the collection of diagnostic data 3. The patient is asked to open and close the mouth and then move the jaw side to side to examine the: a. temporomandibular joint b. cervical lymph nodes c. oral mucosa and tongue d. floor of the mouth ANS: A

The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is examined through a series of mandibular movements; the patient is asked to open and close the mouth and then move the jaw side to side. Opening, closing, and lateral jaw movements are not used to examine the cervical lymph nodes, oral mucosa and tongue, or floor of the mouth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 172 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.D.1.Describe how to prepare for and assist with the collection of diagnostic data 4. Which is examined with articulating paper? a. Periodontal condition b. Demineralization c. Salivary flow d. Occlusion ANS: D Occlusion is examined using articulating paper. Various other instruments are used to examine periodontal health, demineralization, and salivary flow.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 174 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.j.occlusal registration 5. Which progress note is recorded in the correct sequence? a. IO/EO exam: WNL, 4BW Rgs. VS: BP 112/72, T 98.6, R 20 deep, P 72 strong.

Rev med hx: no changes. Schedule patient for cleaning. J.Doe, RDA/N.Payne, DDS. ST20BA b. VS: BP 112/72, T 98T .6E ,R deNeK p,SPE7L2LstEroRn. g.CJO .DMoe, RDA/N.Payne, DDS. IO/EO exam: WNL, 4BW Rgs. Rev med hx: no changes. Schedule patient for cleaning. c. Rev med hx: no changes. VS: BP 112/72, T 98.6, R 20 deep, P 72 strong. IO/EO exam: WNL, 4BW Rgs. Schedule patient for cleaning. J.Doe, RDA/N.Payne, DDS. d. J.Doe, RDA/N.Payne, DDS. Schedule patient for cleaning. Rev med hx: no changes. IO/EO exam: WNL, 4BW Rgs. VS: BP 112/72, T 98.6, R 20 deep, P 72 strong.

ANS: C Completed dental treatment is carefully recorded in the progress notes in a specific sequence, as exemplified in this entry: Rev med hx: no changes. VS: BP 112/72, T 98.6, R 20 deep, P 72 strong. IO/EO exam: WNL, 4BW Rgs. Schedule patient for cleaning. J.Doe, RDA/N.Payne, DDS. The entry begins with a review of the medical history. Vital signs are recorded next, followed by a detailed record of diagnostic treatment. Then the dentist’s treatment plan is recorded. Finally, both the dental assistant and dentist sign the entry.

DIF: Application REF: p. 170 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.E.1.Describe how to record treatment and prescriptions (e.g., medication, instructions) on patient's chart 6. Which examination technique relies primarily upon sense of touch? a. Radiography

b. Intraoral imaging c. Palpation d. Instrumentation ANS: C Palpation is a technique that primarily employs the sense of touch to determine the texture, size, and consistency of hard and soft tissues. Radiography provides a visualization of areas that cannot be directly seen. Intraoral imaging produces a magnified image, and instrumentation uses an instrument, as opposed to the hand, to examine hard tissue.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 160

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam NA

7. Each is considered optimum care, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Periodontal therapy b. Cosmetic dentistry c. Reconstructive surgery d. Implant surgery ANS: A Periodontal therapy is considered standard, not optimum, care. Cosmetic dentistry, reconstructive surgery, and implant surgery represent a restoration to maximum function through optimum care.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.E.2.Describe how to record recommended treatment and patient's acceptance or refusal of recommended treatment 8. If the dentist’s dictation d in the patient record: is omitted or documente a. the assistant can erase and correctincorrectly the faulty documentation at any time b. the dentist’s verbal clarification is sufficient in a court of law c. the clinical record is no longer admissible as evidence in a court of law d. it is legally as if the treatment was not provided ANS: D If the clinical assistant omits or incorrectly documents the dentist’s dictation, is it legally as if the treatment was not provided. Alteration of the original documentation is unethical and illegal. The clinical record is certainly admissible as evidence in a court of law; however, the dentist’s verbal clarification is not sufficient as evidence, after the fact.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 170 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.c.factors and precautions necessary to prevent lawsuits against dental personnel COMPLETION 1. The abbreviation “O” represents the

surface.

ANS: occlusal DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth 2. The abbreviation “D” represents the

_ surface.

ANS: distal DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth 3. The abbreviation “M” represents the

surface.

ANS: mesial DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth 4. The color appointment.

indicates that treatment is needed and the patient needs a future

ANS: red DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 5. A class cavity classification is diagnosed in the gingival third of the facial and TESTBANKSELLER.COM lingual surfaces of any tooth.

ANS: V DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 6. A class

cavity classification is diagnosed in the pits and fissures of a tooth.

ANS: I DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 7. A class canines.

cavity classification is diagnosed in the proximal surfaces of incisors and

ANS: III DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity

and how to accurately transcribe the record 8. A class cavity classification is diagnosed on the incisal edge of anterior teeth and cusp tips of posterior teeth.

ANS: VI DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 9. A level

treatment plan restores the teeth to normal function.

ANS: II DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.E.2.Describe how to record recommended treatment and patient's acceptance or refusal of recommended treatment 10. The chart entry should be clear, concise, and in

-colored ink.

ANS: black DIF: Recall REF: p. 170 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient's oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

MATCHING Match each term with the correct abbreviation. a. M d. O b. L e. D c. I 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Distal Incisal Mesial Lingual Occlusal

1. ANS: E DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth 2. ANS: C DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 3. ANS: A MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 4. ANS: B MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth

OBJ: 7 OBJ: 7 OBJ: 7 OBJ: 7

5. ANS: D DIF: Recall REF: p. 163 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.2.Identify surfaces of the tooth

OBJ: 7

TRUE/FALSE 1. Black’s original classifications included classes I through IV. ANS: F Black’s original classifications included classes I through V. Class VI was added later.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 163

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. There are three levels of optional treatment plans.

ANS: T The three levels of optional treatment plans are level I, emergency care; level II, standard care; and level III, optimum care.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 164 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.E.2.Describe how to record recommended treatment and patient's acceptance or refusal of recommended treatment 3. A dental examination includes examination of the neck, face, lips, and all of the soft tissues within the mouth.

ANS: T In addition to an examination of the teeth, a dental examination includes the neck, face, lips, and all of the oral soft tissues.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 162 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.B.4.Demonstrate how to recognize and describe any abnormal findings in the head and neck region

Chapter 13: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A list of emergency telephone numbers should be posted: a. in each operatory b. in the reception area c. next to each telephone d. in the dentist’s office ANS: C A list of emergency telephone numbers should be posted next to each telephone throughout the office, for easy access in an emergency. Posting telephone numbers in each operatory, the reception area, or the dentist’s office is far less practical and could waste valuable time in an emergency.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 178 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.6.Describe how to prepare and post a listing of emergency support personnel 2. A current list of emergency phone numbers should include numbers for: a. the local fire department, hospital, and pharmacy b. national hotlines c. the local police department, fire department, and emergency medical services (EMS) d. the local hospital, pharmacy, and doctors ANS: C Phone numbers for the local police department, fire department, and emergency medical services (EMS) should be included on the posted emergency contact list. All three agencies can be reached by dialing 911; however, services may vary widely depending on the area and population. Phone numbers of the nearest hospital and physicians are also important, but local pharmacies and various national hotlines are unlikely to offer life support services.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 178 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.6.Describe how to prepare and post a listing of emergency support personnel 3. Oxygen tanks are always which color? a. Green b. Blue c. White d. Gray ANS: A Oxygen tanks are always green, as opposed to blue, white, or gray. Blue tanks are filled with nitrous oxide, not oxygen.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency 4. Oxygen tanks must be checked for leaks at which interval? a. Hourly b. Daily c. Monthly d. Weekly ANS: D Oxygen tanks must be checked weekly, as opposed to hourly, daily, or monthly.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency 5. An important part of emergency preparedness is knowing: a. the patient’s middle name b. all emergency numbers by memory c. how quickly the local EMS can get to your office d. that there are no restrictions on the procedures EMS technicians can perform ANS: C Knowing how quickly thT eE loScaTlBEA MNSKcSanEL geLt E toRy.oC urOoM ffice is an important part of emergency preparation. Knowing the patient’s middle name is not. Having a list of important numbers next to each phone in the office is essential, although memorizing the numbers is unnecessary. Local restrictions may control the services EMS technicians are permitted to provide in a pre-hospital situation.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 178

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. Diagnosing a specific condition is whose responsibility? a. Chairside assistant b. Dentist c. Office manager d. Circulating assistant ANS: B The diagnosis of a specific condition is the dentist’s responsibility. Diagnosis is beyond the scope of practice for a dental assistant (chairside or circulating) or office manager.

Assistants provide only appropriate support procedures to assist the dentist.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 7. A symptom is:

a. b. c. d.

more reliable than a sign what you observe in a patient not recorded in the patient’s record the patient’s report of what he or she is experiencing

ANS: D A symptom is the patient’s report of what he or she is experiencing, whereas a sign is what you observe in a patient. A symptom is generally less reliable than a sign, although both signs and symptoms should be recorded in the patient’s record.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.A.4.Describe how to respond and assist in the management of the signs and symptoms related to specific medical conditions/emergencies likely to occur in the dental office 8. Which is a sign of hyperglycemia? a. Rapid pulse b. Excessive thirst c. Blurred vision d. Headache ANS: A A rapid pulse is a common sign associated with hyperglycemia. Excessive thirst, blurred vision, and headache are symptoms, not signs, associated with hyperglycemia.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 186 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T VE I.A .4 .f. di a be te so r ep i le ps y -related incidents STBANKSELLER.COM 9. The patient begins to perspire heavily during a routine dental procedure. When questioned, she reports a feeling of indigestion and nausea. Upon being gently returned to an upright position, the patient experiences a sharp pain in her left arm and a generalized feeling of weakness. Which medication is the dentist likely to request from the emergency kit? a. Albuterol b. Nitroglycerin c. Epinephrine d. Diphenhydramine ANS: B In this scenario, the dentist will likely administer nitroglycerin for the management of acute myocardial infarction. Administering albuterol, epinephrine, or diphenhydramine would be inconsistent with the patient’s signs and symptoms. Albuterol is used to manage asthma, while epinephrine and diphenhydramine are administered to manage allergic reactions.

DIF: Application REF: p. 187 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.d.cardiovasclar or cerebrovascular irregularities 10. The first step in each emergency, EXCEPT one, is to call 911. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Angina b. Partial seizure c. Hypoglycemia

d. Postural hypotension ANS: D The first step in responding to postural hypotension is to place the patient in a subsupine position, which is likely to immediately revive the patient. If the patient is experiencing chest pain (angina or myocardial infarction), a seizure, or a diabetic emergency, the first step is to call 911 for emergency assistance.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 185 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.g.fainting

OBJ: 7

11. During an emergency, vital signs are reassessed: a. constantly, without pause b. every 3 to 5 minutes c. every 10 to 15 minutes d. only if time and circumstance allow ANS: C During an emergency, vital signs should be reassessed every 10 to 15 minutes, to determine the status of the patient’s condition. Diagnostic signs are not taken constantly during an emergency, or every 3 to 5 minutes; instead, vital signs are taken every 10 to 15 minutes.

Diagnostic signs are essential for proper patient management in an emergency; the dental team must work together to champion challenges of time and circumstance.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.A.4.Describe how to respond and assist in the management of the signs and symptoms relaT teE dS toTsB peAcN ifK icSmEeL diLcaElRco.nCdO itiMons/emergencies likely to occur in the dental office 12. An anxious patient breathes rapidly during the administration of local anesthesia. With a panicked expression, he attempts to sit up before the chair is raised to an upright position, exclaiming: “I can’t breathe… I’m getting dizzy.” The assistant should reassure the patient, position him comfortably, and: a. have the patient breathe into a paper bag b. prepare to assist in the administration of oxygen c. instruct the patient to breathe into his cupped hands d. administer an ammonia inhalant ANS: C Hyperventilation is closely associated with anxiety and is best managed by comforting the patient and helping him breathe into his cupped hands. While a paper bag can be used, cupped hands are more efficient and effective. Administering oxygen will only exacerbate this situation. Ammonia inhalants are effective in the management of syncope, not hyperventilation.

DIF: Application REF: p. 185 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.j.respiratory irregularities (e.g., hypo- or hyperventilation, asthma) 13. Dental assistants must become certified in each, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

a. b. c. d.

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Heimlich maneuver Obtaining and recording vital signs Emergency tracheotomy

ANS: D Emergency tracheotomy training is not necessary to satisfy the standard of care as a dental assistant; however, the standard of care requires that dental assistants become certified in CPR, the Heimlich maneuver, and obtaining/recording vital signs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 178 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.B.2.Describe how to implement and/or assist with appropriate procedures for the management of dental emergencies COMPLETION 1. An is a condition or circumstance that requires immediate action to be taken for a person who has been injured or has suddenly become ill.

ANS: emergency DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 177

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. The law requires a healthcare worker to act or behave in a definable way called the of care.

ANS: standard DIF: Recall REF: p. 178 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.g.responsibilites and/or obligations of the dentist and patients in the dentist-patient relationship 3. The ideal agent for resuscitation of a patient who is unconscious but still breathing is 100% .

ANS: oxygen DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.g.fainting 4.

OBJ: 7

is the most frequently used drug in a medical emergency.

ANS: Oxygen DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency

5.

is a neurologic disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of seizures.

ANS: Epilepsy DIF: Recall REF: p. 180 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.f.diabetes- or epilepsy-related incidents

6. The word hypersensitivity is another term for an _

.

ANS: allergy DIF: Recall REF: p. 181 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.b.allergic reactions 7. An antibodies.

is a substance that causes an immune response through the production of

ANS: antigen DIF: Recall REF: p. 181 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.b.allergic reactions 8. An antigen that can trigger the allergic state is known as an

.

ANS: allergen

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DIF: Recall REF: p. 181 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.b.allergic reactions

9. A systemic reaction that develops very quickly and is very serious is known as

.

ANS: anaphylaxis DIF: Recall REF: p. 182 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.b.allergic reactions 10. When performing chest compressions for an adult, compress the chest at a depth of at least inches. (Use numeric characters only in your answer.)

ANS: 2 DIF: Recall REF: p. 183 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.4.d.cardiovascular or cerebrovascular irregularities TRUE/FALSE 1. Drugs can be safely used for up to 1 year past the pharmacy expiration date.

ANS: F

Once its expiration date has passed, a drug should be replaced immediately.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency 2. Routine checks of rubber tubing, oxygen masks, intravenous needles and syringes, ventilation masks, and blood pressure equipment are necessary.

ANS: T Routine checks of rubber tubing, oxygen masks, intravenous needles and syringes, ventilation masks, and blood pressure equipment are necessary to determine whether the equipment will work properly.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency 3. An emergency drug kit must be readily available for the dental assistant.

ANS: F The drug kit need only be readily available for the dentist, not assistant; drug administration is beyond the scope of the dental assistant.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B1A 78NKSELLOEBRJ. : C5OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency 4. If the dental office is equipped with a nitrous/oxygen unit, the oxygen from the unit should not be used for emergency situations.

ANS: F The oxygen from combination nitrous/oxygen units can be used for emergency situations.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 179 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VI.A.5.Describe how to assemble, maintain, and recognize the use of drugs, appropriate emergency supplies, and equipment in the prevention and/or effective management of an emergency 5. Calling 911 will always be effective for any emergency.

ANS: F Calling 911 is not always effective in every emergency situation. Emergency services vary widely depending on the geographic area and population served. Each member of the dental team must be prepared for an emergency.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 178

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

Chapter 14: Pain and Anxiety Control Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is true regarding the ratio of vasoconstrictor to anesthetic? a. The lower the second number, the larger the amount of epinephrine. b. The higher the second number, the larger the amount of epinephrine. c. The lower the first number, the larger the amount of epinephrine. d. The higher the first number, the lesser the amount of epinephrine.

ANS: A A vasoconstrictor concentration of 1:100,000 is one part vasoconstrictor, diluted in 100,000 parts anesthetic solution. The lower the second number, the larger the amount of epinephrine, so a solution of 1:50,000 has a larger amount of epinephrine than a 1:100,000 solution.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 190 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.a.administration of anesthetics 2. Which anesthetic provides the longest duration? a. Lidocaine 1:50,000 b. Mepivacaine 1:20,000 c. Articaine 1:200,000 d. Prilocaine 1:200,000 ANS: D Prilocaine 1:200,000 provides the longest duration of pulpal and soft tissue anesthesia, followed by lidocaine 1:50,000, mepivacaine 1:20,000, and articaine 1:200,000.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 191 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.a.administration of anesthetics 3. Which substance provides a temporary numbing effect on the surface of the oral mucosa? a. Local anesthetic b. Nitrous oxide/oxygen c. Topical anesthetic d. Analgesic agent ANS: C Topical anesthetics provide a temporary numbing effect on oral mucosa and are available in the form of ointments, liquids, sprays, and patches. Local anesthetics are administered subcutaneously to block nerve membrane impulses in a localized area. Nitrous oxide is inhaled to help eliminate fear and relax the patient. Analgesic agents are taken orally to dull the perception of pain.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 189 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.a.administration of anesthetics

4. Which is not considered a method of pain and anxiety control in dentistry? a. Alcohol b. Local anesthetic c. Antianxiety drugs d. Nitrous oxide/oxygen ANS: A Alcohol is not used to control pain and anxiety in dentistry. Local anesthetics, antianxiety drugs, and nitrous oxide/oxygen provide relief to the patient.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 189 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.2.Describe how to manage patients, including patients with special needs, during routine clinical procedures 5. Once the flow of nitrous oxide is discontinued, pure oxygen is administered for: a. 15 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 2 minutes ANS: C Oxygen is usually delivered for about 5 minutes, after nitrous oxide analgesia is discontinued. Most patients require oxygen for more than 2 minutes to completely recover from the effects of nitrous oxide analgesia. Some patients may require oxygen for a slightly longer period, but generally not for 10 or 15 minutes.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B1A 95NKSELLOEBRJ. : C5OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.12.assist with and/or monitor the administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia 6. Nitrous oxide should never be administered: a. for anxiety b. for pain relief c. for recreational purposes d. during patient treatment ANS: C Nitrous oxide is never administered unnecessarily, or for recreational purposes. Nitrous oxide is used only during patient treatment to help relieve pain and anxiety.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 195 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.12.assist with and/or monitor the administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia 7. For maximum effectiveness, topical anesthetic is applied to the: a. moist mucosal surface b. furthermost point of the inferior alveolar nerve c. buccal soft tissues closest to the mandibular molars d. dried mucosal surface at the site of injection ANS: D

Topical anesthetic is most effective when applied to the dried mucosal surface at the site of injection with a cotton-tipped applicator for 3 to 5 minutes. Applying a topical anesthetic to the moist mucosal surface is less effective. No one site of application is effective in anesthetizing all areas of the mouth; topical is most effective when applied directly to the mucosa at the site of needle penetration.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 190 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.assist with and/or apply topical anesthetic to site of injection 8. Which technique involves anesthetizing a major nerve to numb the entire area it serves? a. Block anesthesia b. Infiltration anesthesia c. General anesthesia d. Topical anesthesia ANS: A Block anesthesia involves anesthetizing a large nerve trunk to numb the entire area served by the nerve and its branches. Infiltration anesthesia is accomplished by injecting anesthetic solution into the tissue near the apices of the tooth being treated, to target the anesthetic effect to a solitary tooth. General anesthetic techniques are not commonly used in general dentistry and may require hospitalization. Topical anesthesia provides only temporary, superficial anesthesia to the terminal nerve endings of the oral mucosa.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 191 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.a.administration of anesthetics

TbBliAnN 9. Which is the first step inTaE ssS em gK anSaEnL esLthEeR tic.sCyO riM nge? a. Load the anesthetic cartridge into the syringe. b. Use the thumb ring to pull back the plunger. c. Engage the harpoon into the stopper. d. Release the thumb ring.

ANS: B To assemble an anesthetic syringe, first, use the thumb ring to pull the plunger back. Then, load the anesthetic cartridge into the syringe and release the thumb ring. Finally, engage the harpoon into the stopper with gentle finger pressure to ensure that the dentist can aspirate during the injection.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 197 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.b.anesthetics

OBJ: 4

10. The maximum concentration of nitrous oxide allowed in dental office air is: a. 25 ppm b. 50 ppm c. 100 ppm d. 200 ppm ANS: B

50 parts per million (ppm) is the maximum concentration of ambient nitrous oxide permitted in any dental setting, although a concentration of 25 ppm or less is preferred for the health of patients and dental personnel. Concentrations above 50 ppm (100 ppm, 200 ppm) are hazardous for staff and patients.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 195 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.12.assist with and/or monitor the administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia 11. Patients should be informed that antianxiety agents induce: a. tachycardia b. hallucinations c. drowsiness d. loss of apatite ANS: C Antianxiety agents induce drowsiness, as opposed to tachycardia, hallucinations, or decreased apatite. Patients should be advised not to drive to or from a dental appointment when taking antianxiety agents.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 196 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.3.Describe how to monitor and record patient's response to drugs/medications 12. After a difficult surgical extraction, the dentist is likely to prescribe which analgesic? a. Aspirin b. Ibuprofen c. Acetaminophen d. Oxycodone ANS: D Oxycodone is a strong analgesic agent, which is only prescribed for patients with severe pain, such as that which follows a difficult surgical extraction. Aspirin, ibuprofen, and acetaminophen are mild analgesic agents, used to manage low-intensity pain.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 196 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.3.Describe how to monitor and record patient's response to drugs/medications 13. Topical anesthetic ointment is applied directly to the injection site for no more than: a. 1 minute b. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes ANS: B Topical anesthetic is applied to the injection site for 2 to 5 minutes, before the dentist administers the injection. An application time of no more than 1 minute is insufficient to provide the desired effect, while an application that exceeds 5 minutes may irritate the tissue.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 197 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.assist with and/or apply topical anesthetic to site of injection 14. A loaded anesthetic syringe is transferred to the dentist: a. just below the patient’s chin b. adjacent to the patient’s mouth c. far above the patient’s forehead d. directly over the patient’s chest ANS: A A loaded anesthetic syringe is transferred to the dentist just below the patient’s chin, out of the line of vision, as opposed to near the mouth, above the forehead, or over the chest.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 191| p. 199 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.a.administration of anesthetics

OBJ: 4

15. Nitrous oxide analgesia is indicated for which patient? a. 23-year-old female in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy b. 58-year-old male with hay fever and nasal congestion c. 4-year-old female with acute dental phobia d. 82-year-old male with multiple sclerosis ANS: C Nitrous oxide analgesia is indicated in the case of a child with acute dental phobia. Safe for patients of all ages, nitrous oxide analgesia is effective as a sedative to help eliminate fear and relax the patient. NitT roEuS s oTxBidAeNisKcSoE ntL raLinEdR ic. atC edOiMn cases that involve pregnancy, nasal obstruction, and multiple sclerosis.

DIF: Application REF: p. 195 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.12.assist with and/or monitor the administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia 16. Nitrous oxide control valves: a. hold the cylinder in the machine b. dictate the flow of each gas c. indicate the gas flow rate d. disclose the gas pressure ANS: B Nitrous oxide control valves dictate the flow of each gas, whereas the yokes hold the cylinder in the machine, the flow meter indicates the gas flow rate, and the pressure gauge discloses the pressure of the gas within the cylinder.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 194 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.12.assist with and/or monitor the administration of nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia COMPLETION

1. For most dental patients, pain control can be accomplished by the use of topical and anesthetic.

ANS: local DIF: Recall REF: p. 189 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.2.Describe how to manage patients, including patients with special needs, during routine clinical procedures 2. General anesthesia is a type of intravenous

.

ANS: sedation DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 189

OBJ: 1

3. Amide local anesthetics are metabolized by the

MSC: CDA Exam: NA .

ANS: liver DIF: 4.

Recall

REF: p. 190

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

is the time from when an injection is given to complete numbing.

ANS: Induction DIF: Recall REF: p. 190 OBJ: 4 TESTBANKSELLER.COM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.3.Describe how to monitor and record patient's response to drugs/medications

5.

is the length of time beginning when the injection is given until the numbing sensation is gone.

ANS: Duration DIF: Recall REF: p. 190 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.3.Describe how to monitor and record patient's response to drugs/medications

6. The most common type of topical anesthetic is in a gel or

form.

ANS: ointment DIF: Recall REF: p. 190 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.assist with and/or apply topical anesthetic to site of injection TRUE/FALSE 1. Secobarbital (Seconal) is an antiseizure medication.

ANS: F Secobarbital (Seconal) is an antianxiety, not antiseizure, medication.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 195 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.2.Describe how to manage patients, including patients with special needs, during routine clinical procedures

Chapter 15: Radiation Safety and Production of X-Rays Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dental radiographs are NOT used for: a. detection of dental caries in the early stages b. identification of early stages of bone loss c. evaluation of growth and development d. detection of soft tissue trauma ANS: D Dental radiographs are not used to detect soft tissue trauma; soft tissues appear radiolucent (dark or black) in a radiographic image. Dental radiographs are used to detect dental caries, identify early stages of bone loss, and evaluate growth and development.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 203 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.a.Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image 2. Which radiation produces diagnostically useful radiographs? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Scatter d. Leakage ANS: A Primary radiation, or the primary beam, produces diagnostically useful images. Secondary radiation is given off after the primary beam contacts the tissues of the head and neck.

Scatter radiation is a form of secondary radiation that is deflected from its path, while leakage radiation escapes in all directions from a faulty x-ray tubehead. Only primary radiation produces diagnostic radiographs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 204 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.4.a.primary radiation 3. Which measure protects against occupational exposure to radiation? a. Always wear a film badge (pocket dosimeter) at work b. Wear a lead apron if holding the film in place by hand, for a small child c. Never stand closer than 3 feet from the x-ray unit during an exposure d. Stand at a straight angle (180 degrees) to the beam ANS: A The dental assistant must always wear a film badge at work to monitor occupational exposure. Additional measures to protect against occupational exposure include not holding films in the patient’s mouth, never standing closer than 6 feet from the x-ray unit during exposure, and standing at a right angle (90 degrees) to the beam.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 210

OBJ: 10

MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.E.2.Identify safety measure to reduce operator x-radiation exposure 4. If the tubehead drifts, which component of the x-ray machine needs attention? a. Cathode b. Extension arm c. Control panel d. Collimator ANS: B The extension arm needs immediate attention if the tubehead begins to drift. The cathode (where electrons are generated), control panel (used to operate the tubehead), and collimator (disc that controls the size and shape of the x-ray beam) play no role in positioning the tubehead.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.5.Describe protocol for suspected x-ray machine malfunctions 5. Which term describes light or white areas on the radiograph? a. Radiopaque b. Radiolucent c. Density d. Contrast ANS: A Radiopaque areas on a raTdE ioS grTaB phAaNpK peSaE r lLigLhE t oRr.wChO itM e, whereas radiolucent areas appear dark or black. Density is the overall blackness of a film. Contrast refers to varying shades of gray.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.2.b.Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images (e.g., differentiating between radiolucent and radiopaque areas) 6. X-ray wavelengths with the greatest energy and usefulness are: a. shorter b. longer c. more ionized d. straighter ANS: A Shorter wavelengths produce greater energy and are more useful in dentistry; longer wavelengths are weaker and have less energy. X-ray wavelengths with the greatest energy and usefulness are shorter, not more ionized. Wavelengths may be shorter or longer, but x-rays all have the same wavelike motion.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 203 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.4.a.primary radiation

7. Which component of the x-ray machine functions in positioning the tubehead? a. Kilovoltage selector b. Control panel c. Extension arm d. Cathode ANS: C The extension arm functions in positioning the tubehead. The kilovoltage selector is used to control the penetrating power of the x-ray beam. The control panel contains the master switch, an indicator light, selector buttons, and an exposure button. The cathode supplies the electrons necessary to generate x-rays.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 211 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 8. Which is the heart of the x-ray generating system? a. The x-ray tube b. An insulating oil c. A transformer d. The position indicator device ANS: A The x-ray tube is the heart of the x-ray generating system and contains the elements that produce the x-rays. An insulating oil surrounds the tube and absorbs the heat produced in the tube. A transformer serves to regulate the voltage for the tube. The position indicator device (PID) is attached T toEthSeTm gE ofRt. heCtO ubMehead and directs the primary beam.

BeAtaNl KhoSuEsiLnL DIF: Recall REF: p. 210 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 9. Which structure appears radiopaque on dental x-ray film? a. Metal restorations b. Soft tissue c. Tooth decay d. Dental pulp ANS: A Metal restorations, tooth enamel, and dense areas of bone appear radiopaque on dental x-ray film. Soft tissue, air spaces, abscesses, tooth decay, and the dental pulp will appear radiolucent.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.2.b.Identify anatomical structures, dental materials, and patient information observed on radiographic images (e.g., differentiating between radiolucent and radiopaque areas) 10. Radiographic density is controlled by the: a. low-voltage circuit

b. peak kilovoltage (kVp) setting c. milliamperes (mA) setting d. position indicator device (PID) ANS: C The degree of density or blackness of an image is controlled by the milliampere-seconds (mAs), not the low-voltage circuit, kVp setting, or PID. The low-voltage circuit lights the indicator light on the panel. The kVp controls the contrast. The PID serves to direct the path of the x-ray beam.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 11. Damage from ionizing x-radiation to genetic cells: a. affects only the person exposed b. can affect future generations c. affects only the dental assistant d. affects the cells of the eyes, skin, and oral mucosa ANS: B X-radiation damage to genetic cells is passed on to succeeding generations, whereas damage to somatic cells affects only the person exposed to the radiation. Damage to genetic cells may affect any member of the dental team and the patient. The cells of the eyes, skin, and oral mucosa are not genetic cells, but are somatic cells.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 06NKSELLOEBRJ. : C8OM MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.2.a.short- and long-term effects of x-radiation on cells and tissues 12. Which tissue has the highest radiation sensitivity? a. Small lymphocytes b. Salivary gland tissue c. Kidney tissue d. Muscle tissue ANS: A Small lymphocytes, bone marrow, and reproductive cells have the highest radiation sensitivity. Salivary gland, kidney, and muscle tissues have relatively low radiation sensitivity.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 206 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.2.a.short- and long-term effects of x-radiation on cells and tissues 13. A lead apron and a thyroid collar: a. are used for a full-mouth series of films but are not necessary for single periapical films b. must be used on all patients for all exposures c. are required for pediatric patients but are optional for adults

d. are mandated only for pregnant women ANS: B A lead apron and a thyroid collar must be used on all patients for all exposures. This rule applies to all patients, regardless of age, gender, or the number of films being exposed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 207 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) 14. Which statement is NOT true of electromagnetic radiation? a. It is made up of photons. b. It travels at various speeds. c. It differs only by wavelength. d. It travels in straight lines.

ANS: B All forms of electromagnetic radiation travel at the same speed—the speed of light.

Electromagnetic radiation is composed of photons that travel through space in a straight line with a wavelike motion; wavelength is the distinguishing feature between types of electromagnetic radiation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 203 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.2.describe the characteristics of x-radiation 15. If you change the exposure time of the x-ray unit, what is affected? a. Energy of the beam b. Wavelength of the x-rays c. Number of x-rays produced d. Penetrability of the x-rays ANS: C A change in exposure time controls how long electrons are allowed to flow, which controls the number of x-rays produced. The kilovolt setting controls energy, wavelength, and penetrability.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 16. Which controls the penetrating power of the x-ray beam? a. Exposure timer b. Kilovoltage selector c. Milliampere selector d. Master switch ANS: B The kilovoltage selector controls the penetrating power of the x-ray beam. The impulse timer and milliampere setting both control the number of x-rays produced, while the master switch turns the machine on and off.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 17. The lead collimator: a. absorbs heat produced in the generation of the primary beam b. restricts the size and shape of the primary beam c. removes long wavelengths of the primary beam d. stops production of the primary beam ANS: B The lead collimator restricts the size and shape of the primary beam. Oil in the x-ray tube absorbs the heat produced in the generation of the primary beam. The filter removes low-energy, long-wavelength x-ray beams. The exposure timer is electronically controlled to generate precise exposure time, and x-ray beams are generated only while the exposure timer is pressed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 208 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 18. Which best describes the latent period? a. Long period of time over which small doses of radiation are repeatedly absorbed b. Large dose of radiation, absorbed in a short period of time c. Lapse of time from x-ray exposure until noticeable damage d. Accumulation of damage from x-ray exposure over a lifetime ANS: C The lapse of time from x-ray exposure until noticeable damage is the latent period; effects of x-ray exposure may not be noticeable for many years after the actual exposure. Acute radiation exposure occurs when large doses of radiation are absorbed in a short period of time. Chronic radiation exposure is defined by small doses of radiation, repeatedly absorbed, over a long period of time. The cumulative effect of radiation exposure is described as the accumulation of damage from x-ray exposure over a lifetime.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 206 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.2.Describe the characteristics of x-radiation 19. Chronic radiation exposure occurs when: a. large doses of radiation are received over a short time period b. large doses of radiation are received over a long time period c. small doses of radiation are received over a short time period d. small doses of radiation are received over a long time period ANS: D Chronic radiation exposure occurs when small, not large, doses of radiation are received over a long, not short, time period. Acute radiation exposure occurs when large doses of radiation are received over a short time period.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 206

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.2.a.short- and long-term effects of x-radiation on cells and tissues 20. Damage to which cells could lead to genetic mutations? a. Bone marrow and blood vessel b. Ovarian and sperm c. Neural and connective tissue d. Skin and muscle tissue ANS: B Damage to genetic cells, ovarian cells or sperm cells, creates genetic mutations in future generations. All other cells, including those in bone marrow, blood vessels, neural tissue, connective tissue, skin, and muscle tissue may sustain damage from x-ray exposure, but this damage does not lead to genetic mutations.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 206 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.2.a.short- and long-term effects of x-radiation on cells and tissues 21. The annual maximum permissible dose (MPD) of radiation for an occupational worker is: a. 3 rem b. 5 rem c. 1.25 rem d. 0.3 rem ANS: B The maximum permissibTleEdSoT seBoAf N raKdS iaE tioLnLfE orRa. nCoO ccMupational worker is 5 rem/year, as opposed to 3, 1.25, or 0.3 rem/year.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 206 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.F.Describe techniques for monitoring individual x-radiation exposure 22. Which is NOT consistent with the ALARA principle? a. Reducing the number of exposures b. Minimizing retakes c. Keeping exposure levels as low as possible d. Exposing radiographs at predetermined intervals ANS: D Radiographs should never be taken at predetermined intervals; the dentist who prescribes the same radiographs for every patient every 6 months is not practicing ALARA. The ALARA concept refers to all measures used to keep exposure levels as low as reasonably achievable. This includes reducing the number of exposures, minimizing retakes, and keeping exposure levels as low as possible.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 205-206 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA)

23. When in storage, the lead apron should be: a. hung b. folded c. rolled d. creased ANS: A When in storage, the lead apron should be hung or draped over a bar. A lead apron should never be folded, rolled, or creased, which causes cracks to form in the lead and permits radiation leakage.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 209 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) 24. Dental imaging: a. refers only to film-based images b. refers only to digitally produced images c. detects conditions that might otherwise remain undetected d. is harmless with modern digital imaging technology ANS: C Dental imaging detects conditions that might otherwise remain undetected. Dental imaging refers to both film-based and digital images. Even with modern digital imaging technology, any exposure to radiation, no matter how small, can cause harmful biologic changes.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 03NKSELLOEBRJ. : C2OM MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.2.Describe the characteristics of x-radiation 25. The best way to limit exposure to a patient’s hands and fingers is to: a. have the patient use one finger only b. use a film-holding device c. have someone else hold the film d. hold the film in place for the patient ANS: B There are a variety of film-holding instruments that can be used to keep the patient’s hands and fingers from being exposed to x-rays. Requesting the patient or someone else to hold the film during an exposure is unnecessary and dangerous, as is holding the film in place for the patient.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 208 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) TRUE/FALSE 1. Any exposure to radiation, no matter how small an amount, has the potential to cause harmful biologic changes in the operator and the patient.

ANS: T Radiation has the ability to cause damage to all types of living tissues. Any exposure to radiation, no matter how small, has the potential to cause harmful biologic changes to the operator and the patient.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 203 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.2.a.short- and long-term effects of x-radiation on cells and tissues 2. The dental assistant can hold the film for a patient who is in a wheelchair or who is disabled, during a radiographic exposure.

ANS: F The dental assistant must never hold a film for a patient during an exposure, regardless of the situation.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 209-210 OBJ: 10 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.E.2.Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation 3. Ionization is the harmful effect of x-rays, resulting in a disruption of cellular structure and permanent damage to living cells.

ANS: T Ionization is the harmful effect of x-rays in humans that results in a disruption of cellular structure and causes permanent damage to living cells. When x-rays strike a patient’s tissues, ionization results.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 203 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.2.Describe the characteristics of x-radiation 4. Radiation exposure is measured in SI units as coulombs per kilogram.

ANS: T Radiation exposure is measured in SI units (International System of Units) as coulombs per kilogram. The traditional term is roentgen.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 205 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.4.a.primary radiation 5. Leakage radiation occurs when an x-ray is deflected from its path during impact with the patient.

ANS: F Leakage radiation escapes in all directions from a faulty x-ray head, whereas scatter radiation occurs when an x-ray is deflected from its path during impact with the patient.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 204 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.5.Describe protocol for suspected x-ray machine malfunctions

6. The maximum permissible dose (MPD) is the amount of radiation that a patient may receive in 1 year.

ANS: F The MPD is the exposure limit for those who are occupationally exposed to radiation when observing all safety practices.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 205 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.F.Describe techniques for monitoring individual x-radiation exposure 7. The dentist is responsible for prescribing or ordering dental radiographs for the patient and should evaluate each patient according to the patient’s individual needs.

ANS: T The dentist is responsible for prescribing or ordering dental radiographs for the patient and should evaluate each patient according to the patient’s individual needs. Radiographs should never be taken at predetermined intervals.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 207 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) 8. The faster the speed of the film, the less radiation is needed for each exposure.

ANS: T Fast-speed film is the single most effective method of reducing a patient’s exposure to x-rays. The faster the speed of the film, the less radiation is needed for each exposure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 207 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) 9. The aluminum filter restricts the size of the x-ray beam and reduces patient exposure.

ANS: F The purpose of the aluminum filter is to sift out the longer wavelength, low-energy x-rays from the beam. These x-rays are harmful to the patient and are not diagnostically useful.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 207 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.3.Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety (e.g., concepts of filtration, shielding, collimation, and PID [cone] length) 10. Film speed is determined by the size of the crystals in the emulsion that coats the film.

ANS: T

Film speed is determined by the size of the crystals in the emulsion that coats the film.

Larger crystals (F speed) are more sensitive to radiation and need less radiation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 207 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.3.Identify ways to reduce x-radiation exposure to patients (ALARA) 11. Electrons are generated in the x-ray tubehead at the cathode.

ANS: T The cathode is a tungsten filament located in the tubehead where electrons are generated.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 210 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.4.a.primary radiation 12. The function of the focusing cup is to aim the x-ray beam at the film in the patient’s mouth and thereby minimize the amount of radiation to the patient’s face.

ANS: F The focusing cup is part of the cathode and keeps the electrons suspended in a cloud at the cathode. The position indicator device (PID) is used to aim the x-ray beam at the film in the patient’s mouth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 210 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.4.a.primary radiation

LLoE 13. The oil in the x-ray tube T abEsS orTbB s aAbN ouKtS9E 9% f tRh. eC enOeM rgy; the other 1% exits the tubehead as x-rays that move toward the patient’s mouth.

ANS: T The oil in the x-ray tube absorbs about 99% of the energy; the other 1% exits the tubehead as x-rays that move toward the patient’s mouth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 211 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.4.a.primary radiation 14. The position indicator device (PID) is lined with aluminum to absorb excess radiation.

ANS: F The PID is lined with lead, not aluminum, to absorb excess radiation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 211 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.3.Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety (e.g., concepts of filtration, shielding, collimation, and PID [cone] length) 15. If the tubehead drifts, the extension arm should be held by the assistant while the dentist exposes the x-ray.

ANS: F The patient or operator must never hold the tubehead in place during exposure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 10 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.E.2.Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation exposure 16. An operator will know when the master switch is on because a black indicator light will also be on.

ANS: F An operator will know when the master switch is on because an orange, not black, indicator light will be on.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.1.Demonstrate knowledge of the factors affecting x-ray production (e.g., kVp, mA, exposure time) 17. The four factors that affect radiograph quality are contrast, time, film speed, and detail.

ANS: F The four factors that affect the quality of a radiograph are contrast, density, image detail, and image distortion.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.a.Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable TESTBANKSELLER.COM radiographic image 18. The term object-film distance (OFD) describes the distance between the teeth being radiographed and the radiographic film.

ANS: T The term object-film distance (OFD) describes the distance between the teeth being radiographed and the radiographic film. The distance from the film and the tooth affects distortion of the image, depending on how close it is to the teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 213 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.a.Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable radiographic image 19. The image on a radiograph appears in a range from black to white with multiple shades of gray in between. The differences between the shades of gray are referred to as density.

ANS: F The differences between the shades of gray are called contrast. Density is the overall blackness or darkness of a radiograph.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 212 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.a.Describe features of a diagnostically acceptable

radiographic image 20. The length of the PID determines the source-film distance. A shorter PID reduces distortion due to magnification.

ANS: F The length of the PID determines the source-film distance. A longer PID reduces distortion due to magnification.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 213 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.B.3.Demonstrate understanding of x-ray machine factors that influence radiation safety (e.g., concepts of filtration, shielding, collimation, PID [cone] length) 21. The Consumer Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a federal law that establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment and requires those taking dental radiographs to be properly trained and certified.

ANS: T The Consumer Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act is a federal law that establishes guidelines for the proper maintenance of x-ray equipment and requires those taking dental radiographs to be properly trained and certified.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 213 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.C.1.Identify major causes of unnecessary x-radiation exposure

Chapter 16: Oral Radiography Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Bite-wing radiographs are NOT used to detect: a. abscessed teeth b. periodontal disease c. interproximal caries d. pathologic pulpal conditions ANS: A Bite-wing radiographs are not used to detect abscesses or pathologic conditions around the apices of the teeth; periapical images are ideal in these cases. Bite-wing radiographs are used to detect periodontal disease, interproximal decay, and pulpal pathologic conditions.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 216 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.a.Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images 2. Occlusal views are best suited to which purpose? a. Diagnosing recurrent dental caries b. Guiding endodontic and oral surgery procedures c. Viewing the crowns of both arches on one film d. Locating fractures of the maxilla or mandible ANS: D Occlusal radiographs or images are used to locate suspected fractures of the maxilla or mandible, whereas bite-wing radiographs are used to diagnose interproximal and recurrent caries. Bite-wing, not occlusal, radiographs reveal the crowns of both arches on one film.

Periapical images are essential in endodontic and oral surgical procedures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 216 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.a.Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images 3. The paralleling technique is preferred in the presence of which anatomic anomaly? a. Long lingual frenum b. Large mandibular tori c. Shallow palate d. Small mouth ANS: A The paralleling radiography technique is recommended for most exposures and individuals, including those with a long lingual frenum, so long as the film can be positioned parallel to the tooth. In these special circumstances, when the paralleling technique is not possible, the bisecting technique is preferred: small mouth, shallow palate, large mandibular tori, or short lingual frenum.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 218| p. 222 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.B.1.b.ii.Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages 4. Which film placement guideline is legitimate? a. Posterior films are placed vertically b. Tabbed side of the film packet faces the teeth c. Film is centered over the areas to be examined d. Identification dot is positioned to the distal (dot to distal) ANS: C Film is always centered over the areas to be examined. Posterior films are placed horizontally, not vertically. The white (not tabbed) side of the film faces the teeth, and the identification dot is positioned in the slot of the film holder (dot in slot), as opposed to positioning the dot to the distal (dot to distal).

DIF: Recall REF: p. 223 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.B.1.b.i.Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image 5. Incorrect horizontal angulation of the PID results in: a. elongation b. foreshortening c. blurred images d. overlapped contact areas ANS: D Incorrect horizontal angulation of the PID results in overlapped contact areas, which obscure the interproximal view. Elongation is the result of too little vertical angulation.

Foreshortening is caused by too much vertical angulation. Movement of the machine, film, or patient can cause blurred images.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 220 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.b.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images 6. Which is associated with incorrect vertical angulation? a. Cone cut b. Foreshortening c. Overlapped contacts d. Radiolucent shadow ANS: B Foreshortening is associated with incorrect vertical angulation, whereas cone cut results from an incorrectly aligned PID. Overlapped contacts are associated with incorrect horizontal, not vertical, angulation. A radiolucent shadow is sometimes seen on a panoramic radiograph, when the patient’s tongue is not placed on the roof of the mouth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 233 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.b.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to

acquiring intraoral radiographic images 7. The bite-wing film shows: a. unerupted teeth b. impactions and supernumerary teeth c. the crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth d. the entire tooth plus 3 to 4 mm beyond the apices ANS: C The bite-wing film reveals the crowns of maxillary and mandibular teeth, whereas occlusal films reveal impactions and supernumerary teeth. Periapical films show the entire tooth plus 3 to 4 mm beyond the apices—ideal for identifying unerupted teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 216 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.a.Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images 8. How many bite-wing films are usually taken for an adult patient? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Eight ANS: B To open the proximal contact areas along the natural curvature of the arch, a total of four bite-wing films are taken for most adult patients, including two premolar and two molar shots. Two bite-wing film ffN icK ieS ntEfL orLtE heRp.riCmOaM ry dentition, but four, not six or eight, TsEaSreTsBuA films are needed to accommodate the anatomic considerations of the permanent dentition.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 216 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.b.Select appropriate radiographic survey to examine or view conditions, teeth or landmarks 9. Which is the correct order of steps in manual processing? a. Fix, rinse, develop, and wash b. Develop, rinse, fix, and wash c. Wash, fix, develop, and rinse d. Rinse, develop, wash, and fix ANS: B The correct order of steps in manual processing is: develop, rinse, fix, and wash.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 254 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.3.c.Identify optimum procedures for processing films 10. Which is NOT true regarding infection control in dental radiography? a. Barriers should be used on all surfaces that cannot be easily cleaned and disinfected. b. Barriers are placed over switches to prevent electrical shorts. c. Barriers do not need to be used, because spatter of blood and saliva is unlikely.

d. Barriers that cover the film packet are removed before entering the darkroom.

ANS: C Barriers are essential to infection control in dental radiography; disease transmission is possible, even though the spatter of blood and saliva is unlikely, because x-ray equipment, operatory surfaces, positioning devices, and image receptors are contaminated. Barriers should be used on all surfaces that cannot be easily cleaned and disinfected, including switches, to prevent the possibility of disinfectant causing electrical shorts. Film packet barriers are removed before entering the darkroom to prevent contaminating the processing fluids and equipment.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 218 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.IV.A.2.Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography 11. Which is the most common film holder used to position and hold the dental x-ray film? a. Snap-A-Ray b. Rinn XCP c. SUPA foam blocks d. Adhesive bite tabs ANS: B The Rinn XCP is the most common film holder used in dentistry today, although Snap-A-Ray, SUPA foam blocks, and adhesive bite tabs are also available on the market.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 19NKSELLOEBRJ. : C6OM MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.3.a.Describe the purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques 12. The most frequently used film size for adult intraoral imaging is size: a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: B The most frequently used film size for adult intraoral imaging is size #2; full-mouth radiographic surveys and bite-wing examinations for adults usually require size #2 film.

Size #0 film is used for children younger than 3 years. Size #3 film is used infrequently for bite-wings. Size #4 film is occlusal film, used to diagnose very specific conditions.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 217 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.3.b.Select appropriate image receptor size depending on patient characteristics and exposure technique indicated 13. Which is NOT a use for panoramic radiographs in dentistry? a. Location of impacted teeth b. Diagnosis of decay, periodontal disease, or periapical lesions c. Detection of lesions and fractures of the jaw

d. Observation of tooth eruption patterns ANS: B Panoramic films are used to locate impacted teeth, observe tooth eruption patterns, and detect lesions and fractures of the jaw; they are not used to diagnose decay, periodontal disease, or periapical lesions.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 234 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.c.ii.a) panoramic radiography 14. To correct an elongated image on a radiograph, the vertical angulation needs to be: a. increased b. decreased c. lowered d. flattened ANS: A Elongated images are the result of not enough, or insufficient, vertical angulation. The angulation therefore needs to be increased to correct the problem. Decreasing or lowering the vertical angulation would intensify the elongation. Flattening the tubehead would also decrease the angulation, exacerbating the elongation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 222 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.b.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral radiographic images 15. The correct assembly of T XE CS PT foBrAanNaKnSteEriL orLeExR po.sC urOeMis: a. blue b. yellow c. red d. green ANS: A Blue XCP parts are used for anterior exposures, whereas yellow are used for posterior exposures, red for bite-wing exposures, and green for endodontic exposures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 237 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.3.a.Describe the purpose or advantage of accessories for radiographic techniques 16. Which party owns the dental radiographs? a. Patient or legal guardian b. Insurance company c. Dentist d. State ANS: C Insurance companies and patients pay for dental films; however, the radiographs legally belong to the dentist. Patients have the right to access their records, including a copy of the radiographs, but the dentist owns the original films, as opposed to the patient, insurance company, or state.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 235 OBJ: 15 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record 17. Informed consent for radiographic exposure includes: a. assigning legal ownership for the impending radiographs b. explaining the risks and benefits of dental radiographs c. positioning the patient before exposing the radiographs d. documenting the information obtained by the radiographs ANS: B Explaining the risks and benefits associated with dental radiography is a key to obtaining the patient’s informed consent. Radiographs belong to the dentist; assigning ownership is not a component of informed consent. Informed consent should be given before the patient is positioned for radiographic exposure, the radiographs are taken, or the findings are documented.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 235 OBJ: 15 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.b.consent for routine and emergency office dental care 18. The exposure of dental radiographs should be documented in the chart to include the: a. type of film holder used b. processing method and temperatures of solutions c. time the radiographs were exposed d. number and type of radiographs exposed ANS: D Dental radiographs should always be documented in the chart to include the number and type of radiographs exposed, as well as the rationale for exposing the radiographs, the diagnostic findings, and the patient’s informed consent to the procedure. Information regarding the film holder, processing method, or time of exposure is not required in the documentation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 235 OBJ: 15 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.E.1.Describe how to record treatment and prescriptions (e.g., medication, instructions) on the patient's chart 19. Which sequence promotes infection control during film exposure? a. Place the lead apron, wash and dry hands, seat the patient, don gloves b. Wash and dry hands, don gloves, place the lead apron, seat the patient c. Seat the patient, place the lead apron, wash and dry hands, don gloves d. Don gloves, seat the patient, place the lead apron, wash and dry hands ANS: C Infection control during film exposure is best achieved when the operator follows a specific sequence of steps. First, the operator seats the patient. Then, the operator places the lead apron before washing and drying his or her hands. Finally, gloves are donned—immediately before the radiographs are exposed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 236 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.IV.B.1.Demonstrate an understanding of infection control for radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC, and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography 20. The image receptors in a solid-state digital imaging system: a. can be wireless or wired with a fiberoptic cable b. are thin flexible plates coated with phosphor crystals c. absorb x-ray electrons and release this energy as light d. are scanned to convert the latent image into a digital image ANS: A Solid-state system sensors may be wireless or wired with a fiberoptic cable. Phosphor storage plate technology, the alternative to the solid-state system, uses flexible plates coated with phosphor crystals that absorb electrons and release this energy as light. Phosphor storage plates are scanned to covert the latent image into a digital image.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 229 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.c.image receptors 21. Which describes the most effective way to erase a phosphor storage plate (PSP)? a. Leave the PSP in a lightproof drawer or safe-box for 8 to 12 hours before reusing b. Set the PSP, phosphor side up, on a paper towel in the darkroom under a red safelight c. Place the phosphor side of the PSP on a bright dental view box for 1 to 2 minutes d. Submerge the PSP in ultrasonic cleaner solution and process for 5 minutes ANS: C The most effective way to erase a PSP is to set it on a bright dental view box for 1 to 2 minutes. Shielding the PSP from light will protect the latent image and yields a double image upon re-exposure. Exposing a PSP to a red safelight damages the latent image but is less effective than a bright flood of light in erasing the image. Submerging the PSP in ultrasonic cleaner will damage the PSP. DIF: Recall REF: p. 232 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.c.image receptors 22. Film fog occurs when the: a. film is placed backwards in the film holder b. patient, film, or tubehead moves during exposure c. film packet bends, enabling improper angulation of the central ray d. dental film is stored in a room where radiographic procedures are performed ANS: D Storing unexposed dental film in a room where radiographic procedures are performed results in film fog from scatter radiation. A lead-foil image is the consequence of a film placed backwards in the film holder. A bent film packet produces a distorted image, while a burred image is the result of patient, film, or tubehead movement.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 217

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.A.2.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to improperly storing exposed and unexposed radiographic film 23. Which advantage is associated with panoramic radiography? a. Reduced radiation exposure b. Improved affordability c. Exceptional image sharpness d. Minimal distortion ANS: A The patient receives reduced radiation exposure with a panoramic radiograph, compared to a full-mouth series. Panoramic units are more expensive than intraoral radiograph units and are associated with reduced image sharpness and consistent distortion.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 234 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.c.ii.a) panoramic radiography COMPLETION 1. Which positioning error produces a white shadow over the middle of a panoramic radiograph?

ANS: The patient’s back was not straight and erect; therefore, the spinal column appears as a white shadow over the middle of the radiograph.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 257 OBJ: 14 TESTBANKSELLER.COM MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.e.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring panoramic radiographic images 2. Which positioning error creates a distorted panoramic image?

ANS: The midsagittal plane is not perpendicular to the floor, so that the patient’s head is tipped or tilted to one side, causing a distorted image.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 257 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.e.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring panoramic radiographic images 3. Which positioning error superimposes a radiolucent shadow over the apices of the maxillary teeth on a panoramic radiograph?

ANS: If the tongue is not placed on the roof of the mouth, a radiolucent shadow will be superimposed over the apices of the maxillary teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 258 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.e.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring panoramic radiographic images 4. Which positioning error produces a blurred panoramic image?

ANS: Any movement will cause a blurred image on a panoramic radiograph.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 258 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.e.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring panoramic radiographic images 5. The panoramic film is placed in a

to protect it from light.

ANS: cassette DIF: Recall REF: p. 256 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.c.ii.a) panoramic radiography 6. What is the preferred method of infection control when using a digital sensor?

ANS: The sensor must be protected with disposable barriers because the digital sensor cannot be heat sterilized.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 258 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.IV.A.2.Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, CDC and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography 7. When using films with a plastic barrier, how should the protective barrier be removed?

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: When using films with a plastic barrier, you should remove the protective barrier in the operatory with gloved hands.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 252 OBJ: 10 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.3.c.Identify optimum procedures for processing films 8. The American Dental Association (ADA) recommends mounting radiographs with the dot .

ANS: up DIF: Recall REF: p. 255 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.2.a.iii.Demonstrate understanding of appropriate techniques for optimum radiographic image viewing 9. The film/sensor is placed in a

position for anterior projections.

ANS: vertical DIF: Recall REF: p. 219 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.b.i.Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image

10. Conventional film is placed so that the raised dot is facing the acronym.)

. (Answer with

ANS: PID DIF: Recall REF: p. 220 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.b.i.Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image 11. Which teeth should be seen on a premolar bite-wing radiograph?

ANS: A premolar bite-wing radiograph should include the distal half of the cuspid, both premolars, and some of the molars of both the upper and lower arches.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 223 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.b.Select appropriate radiographic survey to examine or view conditions, teeth or landmarks 12. When exposing a molar bite-wing radiograph, the

molar should be centered.

ANS: second DIF: Recall REF: p. 223 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.b.Select appropriate radiographic survey to examine or view conditions, teeth or landmarks 13. The most critical error onTbEiS teT -wBiA ngNrK adSiE ogLraLpE hsRi.s C caOuM sed by incorrect

.

ANS: horizontal angulation DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 223 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.b.Identify and describe how to correct errors related to acquiring intraoral images 14. A plastic bag or

is used to carry contaminated films to the processing area.

ANS: paper cup DIF: Recall REF: p. 224 OBJ: 10 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.IV.B.2.Describe infection control techniques used during radiographic processing, following ADA, CDC and OSHA guidelines 15. Image plates are protected from scratching and contamination by using ANS: barrier envelopes DIF: Recall REF: p. 229 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.c.Image receptors

.

MATCHING Match each anatomic landmark with the type of exposure on which it would be visible. a. Median palatine suture b. Maxillary sinus c. Mental foramen d. Mylohyoid ridge and ramus e. Zygomatic process 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Upper cuspid/premolar exposure Upper molar exposure Lower premolar exposure Upper anterior exposure Lower molar exposure

1. ANS: B DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 255 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.C.2.a.i.Identify anatomic landmarks that aid in mounting 2. ANS: E DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 255 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.C.2.a.i.Identify anatomic landmarks that aid in mounting 3. ANS: C DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 255 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.C.2.a.i.Identify anatomic landmarks that aid in mounting 4. ANS: A DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 255 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.C.2.a.i.Identify anatomic landmarks that aid in mounting 5. ANS: D DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 255 OBJ: 12 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.C.2.a.i.Identify anatomic landmarks that aid in mounting TRUE/FALSE 1. When using the paralleling technique, the film must be positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth in a film holder placed away from the teeth and toward the middle of the mouth.

ANS: T When using the paralleling technique, the film must be positioned parallel to the long axis of the tooth in a film holder placed away from the teeth and toward the middle of the mouth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 219 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.b.ii.Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages 2. An intraoral film is composed of a black paper wrapper.

ANS: F The black paper wrapper is part of the film packet but is not a component of the actual film.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 217 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.b.iii.Describe the parts of a radiographic film packet, the different types of digital receptors, and the functions of both 3. Automatic film processing significantly reduces processing time.

ANS: T Automatic film processing significantly reduces processing time.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 226 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.3.b.Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors 4. The latent image on a film becomes visible after the film is processed in a darkroom.

ANS: T A latent image is invisible; it becomes visible only after the film is processed in a darkroom.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 216-217 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.3.a.Describe functions of processing solutions 5. The point of entry refers to the placement of the film packet in relation to the film holder.

ANS: F The point of entry is the position on the patient’s face at which the central x-ray beam is TESTBANKSELLER.COM aimed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 220 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.b.ii.Compare paralleling and bisecting angle techniques, including advantages and disadvantages 6. A complete full-mouth series can consist of as few as 10 films and as many as 18 films.

ANS: T A complete full-mouth series can consist of as few as 10 films and as many as 18 films.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 223 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.b.Select appropriate radiographic survey to examine or view conditions, teeth or landmarks 7. The temperature of the developer in an automatic processor must range from 50° F to 75° F. ANS: F The temperature in an automatic processor must range from 85° F to 105° F. DIF: Recall REF: p. 226 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.A.4.Identify optimum conditions for film processing

8. Units with a daylight loading capability have the advantage of not requiring a darkroom.

ANS: T Units with a daylight loading capability have the advantage of not requiring a darkroom.

Daylight loading systems have light-tight baffles into which hands are placed while opening a film packet.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 226 OBJ: 10 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.3.b.Describe how to process exposed intra- and extraoral films using automatic processors 9. The most common causes of automatic processor breakdown are the failure to keep the rollers clean and inadequate replenishing of chemicals.

ANS: T The most common causes of automatic processor breakdown are the failure to keep the rollers clean and inadequate replenishing of chemicals. Daily and monthly cleaning regimens must be carefully followed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 226 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.C.1.c.Identify and correct errors related to radiographic processing 10. The longer the duplicating film is exposed to light, the darker the film will become.

ANS: F The longer the duplicating film is exposed to light, the lighter the film will become. This is unlike regular x-ray film packets, in which the opposite occurs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 227 OBJ: 11 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.II.B.1.Describe how to prepare radiographic images for legal requirements, viewing, duplication, and transfer 11. A panoramic image is an extraoral x-ray that the dentist uses to view the entire dentition and related structures on a single large film.

ANS: T A panoramic image is an extraoral x-ray that the dentist uses to view the entire dentition and related structures on a single large film.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 233 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.c.ii.a) panoramic radiography 12. In developing films in digital radiography, the solution temperatures are an important factor.

ANS: F There is no film processing in digital radiography; therefore, there is no temperature requirement.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 229 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.a.Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography 13. Digital radiography exposure times are 50% to 80% less than conventional radiography times.

ANS: T Less radiation is required in digital radiography than in conventional radiography; therefore, less exposure time is needed. Digital radiography exposure times are 50% to 80% less than conventional exposure times.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 229 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.a.Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography 14. The role of the computer in digital radiography is to store the incoming electronic signal and convert it from the sensor to shades of gray that are viewed on the computer monitor.

ANS: T The role of the computer in digital radiography is to store the incoming electronic signal and convert it from the sensor to shades of gray on the computer monitor. This eliminates the need for x-ray film mounts.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 232 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.a.Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography 15. One of the disadvantages of using digital radiographs is the slow speed at which the image is recorded on the compuTteEr.STBANKSELLER.COM ANS: F The digital radiographic image is recorded on the computer in 0.5 to 120 seconds, much less time than that required for conventional film processing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 232 OBJ: 13 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.2.a.Advantages/disadvantages of digital radiography 16. The sensor used in digital radiography must be sterilized in the autoclave after each use.

ANS: F The sensor must be covered with a disposable barrier. It cannot be sterilized; if it were, it would be damaged.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 233 OBJ: 14 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.IV.A.2.Demonstrate an understanding of barriers to minimize cross-contamination during radiographic procedures according to ADA, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and OSHA guidelines for conventional and digital radiography

Chapter 17: Preventive Care Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which goal is NOT associated with preventive dentistry? a. To help people have maximum oral health throughout their lives b. To educate patients on how to achieve and maintain oral health c. To help patients understand what causes dental disease and how to avoid it d. To assist patients in managing oral disease by restoring health and function ANS: D Managing oral disease by restoring health and function is the primary goal of restorative, not preventive, dentistry. The goal of preventive dentistry is to help people attain maximum oral health throughout their lives. Preventive dentistry also works to help patients understand oral disease, how to prevent it, and guides patients to achieve and maintain oral health.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 263 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 2. Which procedure exemplifies preventive dentistry? a. Pit and fissure sealants b. Tooth bleaching/whitening riB caA tiN onKSELLER.COM c. Removable prostheseTs EfaSbT d. Endodontic surgery ANS: A Pit and fissure sealants exemplify preventive dentistry, by averting dental caries. The components of a preventive dentistry program include use of fluorides and dental sealants, a plaque control program, and proper nutrition. Tooth whitening procedures are a component of cosmetic dentistry, whereas prostheses fabrication and surgeries exemplify restorative dentistry.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 263 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 3. A preventive care dental program is a partnership between the: a. dentist and the hygienist b. hygienist and the patient c. patient and the dental healthcare team d. dentist and the dental assistant ANS: C A successful preventive dentistry program is a partnership between the patient and the dental healthcare team. The dentist, hygienist, and dental assistant comprise the dental healthcare team; the patient is the other half of the partnership.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 263

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

4. Which is a systemic fluoride? a. Fluoride varnish b. Fluoridated toothpaste c. Fluoridated water d. Fluoride mouth rinse ANS: C Fluoridated drinking water is a systemic fluoride because it is ingested. Topical fluoride applications, including varnishes, toothpastes, and mouth rinses, are not ingested.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 267 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 5. Correctly fluoridated drinking water poses which degree of risk? a. High to extreme b. Moderate to high c. Low to moderate d. None to low ANS: D Very low to no risk is associated with correctly controlled levels of fluoride in the drinking water. In fact, the danger of ingesting a toxic quantity of fluoride from fluoridated water is nonexistent.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 268 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 6. Which condition results from chronic overexposure to fluoride? a. Caries b. Fluorosis c. Gingivitis d. Demineralization ANS: B Fluorosis is the result of chronic overexposure to fluoride in children younger than 6 years of age. Dental caries, gingivitis, and demineralization are unrelated to fluoride exposure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 268 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 7. Foods that cause dental decay are: a. isogenic b. cariogenic c. pathogenic

d. carcinogenic ANS: B Foods that are capable of causing dental decay, or caries, are known as cariogenic, not isogenic, pathogenic, or carcinogenic.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 270 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.2.Explain the relationship of diet to the development of dental caries 8. Dental professionals generally recommend which toothbrush? a. Soft-bristled b. Hard-bristled c. Automatic d. Manual ANS: A Dental professionals generally recommend soft-bristled brushes, which are gentler to the gingiva and exposed cementum or dentin. Hard-bristled toothbrushes do not adapt well to the contours of the teeth, and can be abrasive. Soft-bristled automatic and manual toothbrushes are effective in the removal of dental plaque and may be recommended to a patient to meet specific needs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 264 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 9. The patient is usually ad vised to brush and floss at least: a. twice a day b. three times a week c. three times a day d. once every other day ANS: A While brushing frequency is always individualized to the patient, most patients are advised to brush and floss twice a day to control bacterial biofilm and prevent halitosis. Brushing frequency varies from patient to patient; however, two (not three) brushings and flossings a day are usually adequate to maintain oral health. Brushing every other day or three times a week will likely result in dangerous levels of bacterial biofilm.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 264 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 10. Toothbrushes should generally be replaced every: a. 4 to 6 weeks b. 8 to 12 weeks c. 4 to 6 months d. 8 to 12 months ANS: B

Toothbrushes should be replaced every 8 to 12 weeks, when bristles begin to show signs of wear. Most brushes can be used for longer than 4 to 6 weeks, but should be replaced every 2 to 3 months, as opposed to 4 to 6, or 8 to 12 months.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 264 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 11. Vigorous toothbrushing, over time, may cause: a. attrition b. abrasion c. erosion d. abfraction ANS: B Patients should be cautioned about abnormal abrasion of tooth structure over time, caused by vigorously scrubbing the teeth, even with a soft-bristled toothbrush. Loss of tooth structure due to attrition (tooth-to-tooth wear), erosion (caused by acid), and abfraction (caused by grinding) are unrelated to toothbrushing technique.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.1.appropriate toothbrush selection and brushing techniques 12. The first step in patient education is to: a. instruct the patient on how to remove plaque b. select home care aids c. listen carefully to theTpEatSieTnB t ANKSELLER.COM d. reinforce home care ANS: C The first step in patient education is to listen carefully to the patient, to better understand his or her dental healthcare needs as well as his or her perceptions of those needs. Plaque removal instruction, selection of home care aids, and reinforcement of home care instructions are only successful when the patient feels heard and understood.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 275 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 13. Which is not true? a. Toothbrushes should be replaced when they begin to show signs of wear. b. Toothbrushes should be allowed to dry between uses. c. Manual toothbrushes are especially helpful for patients with orthodontia d. The size and style of toothbrush is a personal decision ANS: C Powered, not manual, toothbrushes are especially helpful for patients with orthodontic bands and brackets. Toothbrushes should be replaced when they begin to show signs of wear, and should be allowed to dry between uses. The size and style of a toothbrush is a highly personal decision.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 14. Automatic toothbrushes are recommended for patients: a. with physical disabilities b. who struggle to visualize or feel bacterial biofilm c. who will not, or cannot, floss regularly d. with oral halitosis associated with bacteria on the tongue ANS: A Automatic brushes may be helpful for the physically disabled. Disclosing agents, not powered brushes, are recommended to help patients visualize bacterial biofilm. A powered toothbrush cannot remove interproximal biofilm; floss is recommended. Tongue brushing is accomplished equally with powered or nonpowered brushes.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.1.appropriate toothbrush selection and brushing techniques 15. Which is the least cariogenic habit? a. Sipping fruit juice a few times an hour b. Snacking frequently on raisins c. Eating snack crackers three times a day d. Drinking a 32-oz soda in 20 minutes, every day ANS: D Consuming a large amount of cariogenic food once a day, like drinking a 32-oz soda, produces the least dental decay. Sipping a sugary liquid slowly, or several times over the course of an hour, is more cariogenic than drinking it all at once. Sugary liquids leave the mouth quickly and are not as cariogenic as sticky, sugary foods that are retained or small amounts of cariogenic foods eaten frequently.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 270 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.2.Explain the relationship of diet to the development of dental caries 16. Which group is not emphasized on the new MyPlate icon? a. Fruits and vegetables b. Grains c. Protein and dairy foods d. Fats, oil, sugar, and salt ANS: D Fats, oil, sugar, and salt are not emphasized in the USDA’s new MyPlate Dietary Guidelines, although they once were the tip of the USDA’s MyPyramid. The new MyPlate icon emphasizes fruits and vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy foods.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 270 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.1.Describe how to provide instruction and evaluate basic

nutritional needs of individual patients as they relate to dental health 17. The recommended maximum percentage of daily calorie intake from fat is: a. 10% b. 15% c. 30% d. 35% ANS: C The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends that no more than 30% of the daily calorie intake should be in the form of fats; 10% to 15% is below the maximum percentage, while 35% exceeds the AHA recommendation of 30%.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 271 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.1.Describe how to provide instruction and evaluate basic nutritional needs of individual patients as they relate to dental health 18. Which mineral is associated with hypertension? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium ANS: B Sodium, a key nutrient for health, is associated with hypertension when consumed in excess; calcium, potassium, and magnesium are not.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 271 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.1.Describe how to provide instruction and evaluate basic nutritional needs of individual patients as they relate to dental health 19. Which is the best source of calcium? a. Milk and cheese products b. Potatoes and oranges c. Whole-grain cereals d. Sunshine ANS: A Milk and cheese are the best sources of calcium. Potatoes and oranges, whole-grain cereals, and sunshine do not provide significant amounts of calcium.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 273 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.1.Describe how to provide instruction and evaluate basic nutritional needs of individual patients as they relate to dental health 20. Which carbohydrate supplies calories without providing another nutritive value? a. Complex b. Refined c. Starch d. Fiber

ANS: B Refined carbohydrates are often called empty calories because they supply the body with calories but have little nutritive value. Complex carbohydrates, also known as starches, contain many vitamins, minerals, and fiber. Fiber contributes to digestive health, and may reduce cholesterol levels.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 271 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.1.Describe how to provide instruction and evaluate basic nutritional needs of individual patients as they relate to dental health 21. The recommended concentration of fluoride in community water is: a. 0.2 mg/L b. 0.7 mg/L c. 1.3 mg/L d. 1.5 mg/L ANS: B The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) recommends a concentration of fluoride in community water at 0.7 mg/L, as opposed to 0.2, 1.3, or 1.5 mg/L. DIF: Recall REF: p. 268 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 22. Which interdental aid removes biofilm from under a fixed bridge? a. Interproximal brush b. Water irrigation deviT ceESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Rubber tip stimulator d. Floss threader ANS: D A floss threader is used to remove biofilm and debris from under a fixed bridge.

Interproximal brushes and rubber tip stimulators are inserted between teeth to remove interproximal biofilm, but are too large to safely fit under a fixed bridge. Water irrigation devices do not remove biofilm.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 267 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 23. Each is used to remove oral biofilm, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Floss threader b. Wooden-tip stimulator c. Water irrigation device d. Floss holder ANS: C Water irrigation devices are used to clean the debris from orthodontic brackets, but they do not effectively remove oral biofilm. Floss threaders, wooden-tip stimulators, and floss holders are effective aids in the removal of bacterial biofilm.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 267 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 24.

The modified Bass method of sulcular toothbrushing is distinguished by: a. positioning the brush at a 45-degree angle to the long axis of the tooth b. pressing the tips of the bristles lightly into the sulcus and embrasures c. adding a rolling stroke after sulcular brushing d. vibrating the brush back and forth with very short strokes ANS: C The modified Bass method of toothbrushing is distinguished by adding a rolling stroke after sulcular brushing. The Bass method requires the toothbrush be positioned at a 45-degree angle to the long axis of the tooth, the bristles lightly pressed into the sulcus and embrasures, and the brush moved in a vibrating pattern, back and forth with very short strokes. The modified version of the Bass method adds a rolling stroke after these short vibrating strokes.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.1.appropriate toothbrush selection and brushing techniques 25. Interdental bleeding is effectively reduced with dental floss. Waxed or tufted dental floss is more effective than unwaxed or extra fine floss. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement isTtrEuS e;TthBeAsN ecKoS ndEiLs L faElsRe..COM d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: C The first statement is true; the second is false. Dental floss effectively reduces interdental bleeding, but research shows no difference in the effectiveness of waxed or unwaxed dental floss. The important factor in effectiveness is how well the dental floss is used.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 26. The primary cause of periodontal disease is: a. bacterial biofilm b. genetic predisposition c. vigorous toothbrushing d. immunosuppression ANS: A Bacterial biofilm is the primary cause of periodontal disease, as opposed to genetics, vigorous toothbrushing, or immunosuppression.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 263 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.b.causes of dental diseases

27. Professional topical fluoride treatments are most effective when applied for: a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes ANS: D Even though many professional fluoride treatments are advertised as 1-minute applications, the American Dental Association (ADA) asserts that professional topical fluoride treatments are most effective when applied for a full 4 minutes or more.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 270 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 28. Patients are advised to swish disclosing solution around in the mouth for at least: a. 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 60 seconds ANS: C To make an accurate assessment of oral biofilm, patients are advised to swish the disclosing solution around in the mouth for at least 30 seconds, as opposed to 10, 20, or 60 seconds.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 65NKSELLOEBRJ. : C4OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.6.select and use disclosing aids TRUE/FALSE 1. The purpose of disclosing solution is to make plaque visible to aid in oral health education.

ANS: T Disclosing agents tint bacterial biofilm (usually red) to make it visible, which aids oral health education.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.6.select and use plaque disclosing aids 2. The primary cause of dental caries is genetics.

ANS: F The bacteria found in biofilm are the primary cause of dental caries, as they convert sugar from the foods we eat into demineralizing acid.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 263 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.b.causes of dental diseases

3. Bacterial biofilm can harden into a calculus that cannot be removed by the patient.

ANS: T If left to accumulate, bacterial biofilm forms a hard mass of mineralized calculus that only a professional cleaning can remove.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 263 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.b.causes of dental diseases 4. A soft toothbrush is the most effective means of removing interproximal biofilm.

ANS: F The most effective means of removing biofilm from surfaces between the teeth is dental floss, not a soft toothbrush.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 265 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 5. To prevent gingivitis, tooth-brushing emphasis is placed on removing biofilm from between the teeth.

ANS: F Tooth-brushing emphasis should be placed on brushing the gingival margin to control inflammation. Dental floss is used to remove plaque from between the teeth.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 65NKSELLOEBRJ. : C3OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.5.select and use oral hygiene devices (e.g., brushes, floss, interdental aids, oral rinses, irrigating aids) 6. The dentist may prescribe dietary fluoride supplements for children age 6 months to 16 years who live where there is no source of fluoridated water.

ANS: T Dietary fluoride supplements (tablets, drops, or lozenges) may be prescribed by the dentist for children age 6 months to 16 years who live where there is no source of fluoridated water.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 268 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 7. The dentist and dental hygienist have the responsibility for oral health education.

ANS: F Patient education in oral health is the responsibility of all members of the dental healthcare team.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 274 OBJ: 10 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on

individual needs 8. Carbohydrates supply the body with energy.

ANS: T Carbohydrates are the chief source of energy used by the body.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 271 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.1.Describe how to provide instruction and evaluate basic nutritional needs of individual patients as they relate to dental health 9. Demineralization is the loss of calcium and phosphate from the enamel.

ANS: T After a period of time, acid attacks the tooth and causes demineralization, which is the loss of calcium and phosphate from the enamel.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 263 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.b.causes of dental diseases 10. Topical fluoride acts as a catalyst to remineralize teeth.

ANS: T Fluoride alone cannot remineralize tooth structure, but it does act as a catalyst to repair the damaged enamel by using calcium, phosphorus, and fluoride from the saliva.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 67NKSELLOEBRJ. : C6OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 11. The levels of fluoride in controlled water fluoridation are so low that there is no danger of ingesting an acutely toxic quantity of fluoride from the water.

ANS: T The levels of fluoride in controlled water are so low that there is no danger of ingesting an acutely toxic quantity of fluoride from the water. In communities where levels are higher and less well controlled, fluoride ingestion can result in dental fluorosis.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 268 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 12. Refined carbohydrates, such as fruits and vegetables, are less cariogenic because they leave the mouth before they are converted to simple sugars.

ANS: F Complex, not refined, carbohydrates such as fruits and vegetables are less cariogenic because they leave the mouth before they are converted to simple sugars.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 271 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.D.2.Explain the relationship of diet to the development of dental caries

Chapter 18: Coronal Polishing and Dental Sealants Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Coronal polishing is NOT used: a. to remove biofilm and stains b. before acid etching c. before placement of the dental dam d. as an oral prophylaxis (prophy) ANS: D Coronal polishing is not used to remove calculus or as a substitute for oral prophylaxis, but rather to remove stains and biofilm from the coronal surfaces of the teeth. Coronal polishing is indicated before acid etching, the placement of dental sealants, orthodontic bands, and the dental dam.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 281 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 2. Powder abrasives should be as wet as possible because fine-grit abrasives remove enamel. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not. d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

ANS: B Both the statement and the reason are correct, but not related. Powder abrasives should be prepared as wet as possible, before getting runny, to minimize frictional heat. The goal is to use the least abrasive paste to remove extrinsic stain, because even fine-grit abrasives remove small amounts of enamel.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 3. Disclosing solution can be used to: a. remove bacterial biofilm b. evaluate polishing effectiveness c. identify intrinsic stains d. prevent dental caries ANS: B Disclosing solution can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of polishing after it is completed. Coronal polishing removes bacterial biofilm, whereas disclosing solution does not. Disclosing solution is not used to identify intrinsic stains, or prevent dental caries— dental sealants prevent pit and fissure caries.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 287 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.6.select and use plaque disclosing aids

4. In which situation are sealants indicated? a. Obvious dental decay or any proximal surface decay b. Primary teeth that will be lost soon c. Poor patient cooperation in the dental chair or a lack of pits and fissures d. Newly erupted permanent molars ANS: D Sealants are indicated for newly erupted (within the past 4 years) permanent molars with deep pits and fissures. Sealants are contraindicated if there is obvious dental decay or proximal decay. Sealants are also contraindicated if the primary teeth are expected to be lost soon, if there is a lack of pits and fissures, or if there is poor patient cooperation in the dental chair.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 288 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 5. The first step in placing dental sealants is to: a. etch the enamel b. isolate and dry the teeth c. clean the enamel d. check the occlusion ANS: C The first step in the sealant process is to thoroughly clean the teeth to remove any plaque and debris from the occluTsE alSsT urBfaAcN e.KIsSoE laL tinLgEtR he.sCuO rfM ace is the second step followed by etching the enamel. Checking the occlusion is the final step in placing a sealant.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 293 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 6. After placing a sealant, check the interproximal space with: a. dental floss b. a mouth mirror c. a dental explorer d. disclosing solution ANS: A Once the sealant has cured, the interproximal space is examined with dental floss, to ensure that no sealant material is in the contact area. Visual inspection with a mouth mirror and/or a dental explorer is insufficient to determine whether the interproximal space is clear.

Disclosing solution is not used to evaluate sealants, but rather the effectiveness of polishing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 294 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 7. Etched enamel looks: a. shiny. b. frosty.

c. wet. d. slightly yellow.

ANS: B Etched enamel is a matte frosty white, as opposed to shiny, wet, or slightly yellow.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 294 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 8. Properly placed dental sealants are how effective in preventing cavities in sealed surfaces? a. 70% b. 80% c. 90% d. 100% ANS: D Properly placed dental sealants are 100%, as opposed to 70%, 80% or 90%, effective in preventing cavities in sealed tooth surfaces.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 287 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 9. The highest-risk period for decay occurs within the first: a. 3 to 4 years of eruption b. 5 to 6 years of eruption c. 7 to 8 years of eruption d. 9 to 10 years of eruptTioEnSTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A The highest-risk period for decay occurs within the first 3 to 4 (not 5 to 6, 7 to 8, or 9 to 10) years of eruption.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 288 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs 10. The most common cause of sealant loss is: a. the use of unfilled material b. the use of outdated material c. moisture contamination during placement d. bruxism ANS: C The most common cause of sealant loss is moisture contamination during placement. Filled and unfilled sealants penetrate the fissures equally well; there is no difference in microleakage, and they have similar rates of retention. Bruxism, or the grinding of teeth, is not the most common cause of sealant loss, moisture contamination is.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 293 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants

11. Coronal polishing is: a. a substitute for oral prophylaxis b. used to remove calculus, debris, stains, and plaque from teeth c. used to remove plaque and stains from the coronal surfaces of the teeth d. a procedure that can be performed by any dental assistant ANS: C Coronal polishing is a technique used to remove plaque and stains from the coronal surfaces of the teeth; however, is not a substitute for an oral prophylaxis. An oral prophylaxis is the complete removal of calculus, debris, stains, and plaque from the teeth. Any dental assistant cannot perform coronal polishing. In some states, coronal polishing is delegated to registered expanded-functions dental assistants (EFDAs), who have had special training in this procedure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 281 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 12. A stain that may be removed from the surfaces of the teeth is: a. extrinsic b. exogenous c. intrinsic d. endogenous ANS: A An extrinsic stain is located on the exterior of the tooth and may be removed. Intrinsic (exogenous or endogenous) stains occur within the enamel, and cannot be removed by polishing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 282 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 13. A stain that cannot be removed from the surfaces of the teeth is caused by: a. tea, coffee, and colas b. tobacco c. chlorhexidine mouth rinse d. tetracycline antibiotics ANS: D Tetracycline staining is intrinsic; an intrinsic stain is incorporated into the structure of the tooth and cannot be removed. Brown food stains (tea, coffee, and colas), reddish chlorhexidine stains, and black tobacco stains are extrinsic, and can be removed with careful prophylaxis.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 283 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.2.Explain and clarify the procedures and services being delivered 14. Which results from using the prophy angle at a high speed? a. Wrist fatigue b. Gingival lacerations

c. Heat damage to the tooth d. Polishing cup aspiration ANS: C High-speed polishing produces frictional heat that can damage to the tooth and gingiva.

Wrist fatigue results from an insecure hand piece grasp. Gingival lacerations are associated with incorrect bristle brush angulation. If the polishing cup falls off during a procedure, the patient may aspirate or swallow it.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 15. To avoid injury, the rubber-polishing cup is directed against the tooth surface. a. toward; lightly b. away from; lightly c. toward; firmly d. away from; firmly

the gingival third and pressed

ANS: B To avoid injury, the rubber-polishing cup is directed away from, not toward, the gingival third and pressed lightly, not firmly, against the tooth surface.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 16. When polishing the mandi buSlaTrBaA rcN h,KthSeEpLaL tieEnR t’. s cChOinMis positioned: TE a. to the right b. to the left c. up d. down ANS: D When polishing the mandibular arch, the patient’s chin should be down, not up, to the right or left. The patient’s chin is positioned up to polish the maxillary arch.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 286 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 17. A right-handed operator generally begins polishing seated at: a. 8 o’clock b. 3 o’clock c. 11 o’clock d. 5 o’clock ANS: A A right-handed operator begins polishing seated at 8 o’clock, as opposed to 3, 11, or 5 o’clock.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 287 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth

18. The right-angle hand piece is held with which grasp? a. Pen b. Palm-thumb c. Reverse palm-thumb d. Digital pronate ANS: A The right-angle hand piece is held with a pen grasp, not a palm-thumb, reverse palm-thumb, or digital pronate grasp.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 284 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 19. The lingual surfaces of the maxillary right quadrant are polished with the patient’s head positioned the operator. a. up and toward b. up and away from c. down and toward d. down and away from ANS: A The lingual surfaces of the maxillary right quadrant are polished with the patient’s head positioned up, not down, and toward, not away from, the operator.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 290 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T IIE .CS.3T.aBsA sisNt K wSitE hL anLdE /oRr . poClish OMteeth 20. Self-cured sealants usually polymerize within: a. 30 seconds. b. 1 minute. c. 5 minutes. d. 1 hour.

ANS: B Self-cured sealants usually polymerize within 1 minute, as opposed to 30 seconds, 5 minutes, or 1 hour.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 288 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.e.pit and fissure sealants 21. Which is recommended to prepare a tooth for sealant placement? a. Bristle brush with a pumice-water mixture b. Rubber cup with commercial toothpaste c. Bristle brush with fluoride prophylaxis paste d. Rubber cup with coarse silex ANS: A

A bristle brush with a pumice-water mixture is recommended to clean the tooth’s fissures and pits before sealant placement. The bristle brush is more effective in reaching the base of the fissures, than a rubber cup, and a pumice-water mixture cleans effectively without interfering with sealant bonding. Fluoridated pastes and abrasives that contain oil are contraindicated for sealant preparation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 288 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 22. After placing several dental sealants, the operator carefully inspects each one to discover that the distal aspect of the last sealant is missing. In an attempt to dry the tooth for closer inspection, the operator inadvertently sprays the tooth with water. What should the operator do next? a. Re-clean the tooth and rinse thoroughly b. Dry the tooth and place additional sealant material c. Re-etch and dry the tooth d. Floss the interproximal areas and check the occlusion ANS: C Additional sealant material is needed, but in this scenario, the etched enamel has been contaminated with moisture. The operator should re-etch and dry the tooth before placing additional sealant material. Re-cleaning the enamel is not necessary, but re-etching the surface is mandatory. Checking the interproximal space with floss and the occlusion with articulating paper is the last step, which cannot be completed until the tooth is re-etched, dried, and sealed properly.

DIF: Application RETFE: ST p.B2A 94NKSELLOEBRJ. : C6OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 23. Which describes amalgam stain? a. Bright white spots. b. Yellowish-brown translucence. c. Gray or black tint. d. Green discoloration.

ANS: C A gray or black halo around a silver filling is an amalgam stain. Bright white spots are associated with dental fluorosis. Yellowish-brown translucence is seen in cases of imperfect tooth development, and a greenish discoloration is associated with prolonged jaundice early in life.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 283 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.2.Explain and clarify the procedures and services being delivered 24. Which type of extrinsic stain is most common in pediatric patients? a. Green b. Black c. Brown d. Yellow

ANS: A Green stain is the most common extrinsic stain seen in children; black, brown, and yellow stains are seen less often.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 283 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 25. Which exogenous stain is frequently found in clean mouths? a. Yellow b. Brown c. Green d. Black ANS: D Black-line stain is frequently found in patients with exceptional oral hygiene. Yellow, brown, and green stains are caused by poor oral hygiene.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 283 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 26. Most sealant materials are designed for use at: a. 98° F (body temperature) b. 70° F (room temperature) c. 40° F (refrigeration temperature) d. 32° F (freezing temperature) ANS: B Most sealant materials are designed for use at room temperature, 70° F; however, some sealant materials are stored in the refrigerator in cooler temperatures. Sealants are not designed for use at body, refrigeration, or freezing temperatures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 289 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 27. Which polishing technique minimizes the removal of enamel? a. Fast rotation of the rubber-polishing cup b. Firm pressure applied to the hand piece c. Small quantity of prophy paste d. Coarse-grit abrasive agent ANS: C Using a small amount of abrasive agent decreases enamel abrasion. More enamel is lost when the rotation speed accelerates, firm pressure is applied, or a coarse-grit abrasive is used.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 293 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth COMPLETION

1. An

stain is the type of intrinsic stain that occurs during tooth development.

ANS: endogenous DIF: Recall REF: p. 282 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.2.Explain and clarify the procedures and services being delivered 2. An

stain is the type of intrinsic stain that occurs after eruption.

ANS: exogenous DIF: Recall REF: p. 282 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.2.Explain and clarify the procedures and services being delivered 3. The type of abrasive agent used for heavily stained teeth is

.

ANS: silex DIF: Recall REF: p. 286 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.1.Select and describe how to manipulate the various finishing polishing and cleaning agents 4.

is a highly effective dental abrasive that does not abrade enamel.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: Zirconium silicate DIF: Recall REF: p. 286 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.1.Select and describe how to manipulate the various finishing polishing and cleaning agents 5. If a patient has extensive tobacco staining, the best polishing agent to use is

.

ANS: fine pumice DIF: Recall REF: p. 286 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.1.Select and describe how to manipulate the various finishing polishing and cleaning agents 6. Select an effective polishing agent that produces the least amount of

.

ANS: abrasion DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.1.Select and describe how to manipulate the various finishing polishing and cleaning agents

TRUE/FALSE 1. Coronal polishing is contraindicated for patients at high risk for caries or with areas of thin demineralized enamel.

ANS: T High caries risk and thin demineralized enamel are contraindications for coronal polishing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 282 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 2. Coronal polishing entails the complete removal of calculus, debris, stains, and biofilm.

ANS: F Coronal polishing is not a substitute for oral prophylaxis—the complete removal of dental calculus, debris, stains, and biofilm.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 281 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 3. Two methods exist for removing extrinsic stains: air-powder and rubber cup polishing.

ANS: T The two methods for removing extrinsic dental stains are air-powder polishing and rubber cup polishing.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B2A 84NKSELLOEBRJ. : C3OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 4. Extrinsic stain removal techniques are completely safe for the patient’s teeth.

ANS: F Every stain removal technique has the potential for damage because it may remove a small amount of enamel from the surfaces of the teeth being polished.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 284 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.2.Explain and clarify the procedures and services being delivered 5. A fulcrum provides stability for the operator, but must facilitate movement of the wrist and forearm.

ANS: T The purpose of a fulcrum is to provide stability for the operator. It must be placed in such a way as to allow for movement of the wrist and forearm. The fulcrum is repositioned throughout the procedure as needed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 284 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth

6. Bristle brushes can be used on exposed cementum provided the brushes are soft.

ANS: F Bristle brushes are not recommended for use on exposed cementum or dentin because these surfaces are soft and easily abraded.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 7. The grit of an abrasive refers to its coarseness.

ANS: T The grit of an abrasive refers to its coarseness. Abrasives are available in extra coarse, coarse, medium, fine, and extra fine.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.1.Select and describe how to manipulate the various finishing polishing and cleaning agents 8. When performing a rubber cup polishing procedure, it is best to begin with the anterior teeth because they are closest and easily accessible.

ANS: F The best sequence of polishing is based on the operator’s preference and the individual needs of the patient, although it is imperative that the procedure is performed in a TESTBANKSELLER.COM predetermined, consistent sequence every time, to ensure that no area is missed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 285 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 9. When performing a rubber cup polishing procedure, the right-handed operator should be seated at the 11 o’clock position.

ANS: F When performing a rubber cup polishing procedure, the operator should be seated at the 8 to 9 o’clock position.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 287 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.3.assist with and/or polish teeth 10. Light-cured sealants require a two-part mixture before placement and curing on the tooth.

ANS: F Light-cured sealants do not require mixing; they cure when exposed to ultraviolet light.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 289 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.e. and fissure sealants

Chapter 19: Instruments, Handpieces, and Accessories Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is NOT an examination instrument? a. Cotton pliers b. Explorer c. Hatchet d. Mouth mirror ANS: C The hatchet is a hand- (manual) cutting instrument, not an examination instrument. Cotton pliers, the explorer, and the mouth mirror are examination instruments.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 298-299 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.r.oral examination 2. Which is a hand- (manual) cutting instrument? a. Periodontal probe b. Excavator c. Composite instrument d. Amalgam carrier ANS: B The excavator removes decay, as a hand- cutting instrument. The periodontal probe is an TESTBANKSELLER.COM examination instrument, while the composite instrument and amalgam carrier are restorative instruments.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 297 | p. 299 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 3. Which instruments follow the examination instruments on a tray setup? a. Restorative b. Hand-cutting c. Accessory d. Rotary ANS: B Hand-cutting instruments are placed on the tray after the examination instruments.

Restorative instruments follow hand-cutting instruments; accessory instruments follow restorative instruments. Rotary instruments are not organized on the tray setup with the hand instruments.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 299 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 4. Which instruments place, condense, and carve dental materials?

a. b. c. d.

Restorative Hand-cutting Accessory Examination

ANS: A Restorative instruments are used to place, condense, and carve dental material back to the normal anatomy of the tooth. Hand-cutting instruments are used to remove decay and form the cavity preparation. Accessory items are used on an as-needed basis. Examination instruments are used in procedures ranging from the dentist checking a specific problem area to providing a thorough oral examination.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 298 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 5. The mouth mirror is used to: a. protect the tooth from frictional heat b. retract and protect tissue c. provide moisture control d. smooth the completed restoration ANS: B The mouth mirror is used to retract and protect the tissue, in addition to facilitating vision and light reflection. The water spray device of the high-speed hand piece protects the tooth from frictional heat. Suction and air provide moisture control, while fine abrasive rotary discs smooth and polish T thE eS coTmBpAleNteKdSreEsL toL raEtiR on.. COM DIF: Recall REF: p. 298 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 6. Which type of bur is compatible with a high-speed handpiece? a. Friction-grip b. Straight c. Latch-type d. Laboratory ANS: A Friction-grip burs are used in all high-speed hand pieces. Straight burs are used in laboratory hand pieces or straight attachments on low-speed hand pieces. Latch-type burs are used in the contra-angle attachment for the low-speed hand piece. Laboratory burs, usually referred to as straight burs, are used in laboratory hand pieces.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 306 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 7. The procedure tray is organized in sequential order from left to right because the clinical assistant transfers instruments to the dentist with his/her left hand. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not. d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

ANS: A Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. The procedure tray is organized by sequence based on how the instruments are used and transferred throughout the procedure. The clinical assistant uses the left hand to transfer the instruments, which are set in sequence from left to right; this way, the most frequently used instruments are closer to the dentist.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 298| p. 300 OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 8. Each bur makes an initial cut into the tooth, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Round b. Pear c. Inverted cone d. End cutting ANS: C An inverted cone bur removes decay, but is not used for initial entry into the tooth structure, like the round, pear, and end cutting burs.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B3A 09NKSELLOEBRJ. : C9OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 9. Which best defines torque? a. Visible organic debris, most often blood or saliva. b. The turning power of the instrument when pressure is applied. c. Mechanical vibrations that result from a high-frequency electrical current. d. The metal shaft used to attach accessories to the dental hand piece.

ANS: B Torque is the turning power of the instrument when pressure is applied in the cutting procedure. Bioburden is visible organic debris, most often blood or saliva. Ultrasonic vibrations are mechanical vibrations created through a high-frequency electrical current. A mandrel is a metal shaft used to attach accessories to the dental hand piece.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 307

OBJ: 1

10. Rubber points are used to: a. adjust the occlusion of amalgam restorations b. polish the anatomic grooves of metallic restorations c. remove excess marginal filling material d. cut quickly into the tooth ANS: B

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

Rubber points are used to polish the anatomic grooves of metallic restorations. Stones are used to adjust the occlusion of amalgam restorations, whereas coarse polishing discs are used to remove excess marginal filling material, and diamond burs cut quickly into the tooth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 312 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 11. Worn or dull burs are: a. returned to the manufacturer for defect replacement b. sharpened chairside with a diamond stone c. transported in a bur block to a dental laboratory for sharpening d. discarded in the sharps container ANS: D Worn or dull burs are discarded in the sharps container. Wear is not a defect, but a natural consequence to the frequent use of the bur. Dull burs are not sharpened in office or in a dental laboratory, but should be discarded in the sharps container.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 308 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 12. Hand pieces with ceramic bearings require: a. lubrication before sterilization b. lubrication after sterilization c. lubrication before and after sterilization d. no lubrication ANS: D Hand pieces with ceramic bearings or heads require no lubrication. All other hand pieces require lubrication to maximize the life of the hand piece. Some require lubrication before sterilization, some after sterilization, and some require lubrication both before and after sterilization; following the manufacturer’s directions is wise.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 308 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.x.rotary instruments 13. Before a contaminated hand piece is removed from the dental unit, it should be run for at least: a. 5 to 7 seconds b. 10 to 15 seconds c. 20 to 30 seconds d. 45 to 60 seconds ANS: C A contaminated hand piece should be run for at least 20 to 30 seconds, before it is removed from the dental unit. Running the hand piece for less time, 5 to 7 seconds or 10 to 15 seconds, is inadequate to flush the bioburden from the turbine and air or water lines. 20 to 30 seconds is sufficient to flush the hand piece; running the hand piece for more time, 45 to 60 seconds, is not necessary.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 308 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.x.rotary instruments 14. Which is an accessory instrument? a. Carver b. Amalgam well c. Periodontal probe d. Low-speed hand piece ANS: B An amalgam well is an accessory instrument. A carver is a restorative instrument. A periodontal probe is an examination instrument, and a low-speed hand piece is a rotary instrument.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 304 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures COMPLETION 1.

instruments allow the dentist to examine the health status of the teeth and oral cavity.

ANS: Examination

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF: Recall REF: p. 297 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.r.oral examination 2. Cutting and finishing

fit into a hand piece.

ANS: burs DIF: Recall REF: p. 300 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 3. The

-speed hand piece is also referred to as the straight hand piece.

ANS: low DIF: Recall REF: p. 300 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 4. The -type angle holds the bur in place by grasping a small notch on the end of the shaft of the bur.

ANS: latch DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 305

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 5. An

abrasion hand piece is a small version of a sand blaster.

ANS: air DIF: Recall REF: p. 307 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.1.Select and describe how to manipulate the various finishing, polishing, and cleaning agents 6. The

hand piece uses a laser light beam instead of a rotary instrument.

ANS: laser DIF: Recall REF: p. 307 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 7. The amalgam

is used to carry the amalgam to the prepared tooth.

ANS: carrier DIF: Recall REF: p. 301 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.a.amalgam restorations 8. The

removes soft dentin, debris, and decay from the tooth.

ANS: excavator DIF: Recall REF: p. 299 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 9. The

smoothes the amalgam before the material hardens.

ANS: burnisher DIF: Recall REF: p. 302 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.a.amalgam restorations 10. Abrasive disks and wheels are attached to a accessories to the dental hand piece.

which attaches these

ANS: mandrel DIF: Recall REF: p. 312 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces MATCHING Match each bur type to its use.

a. b. c. d. e.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Creates a shoulder for the margin of a crown preparation Establishes retentive grooves Provides angles to the walls of the prepared tooth Forms the internal walls of the preparation Provides initial entry to the tooth structure and removes decay

Inverted cone Round End cutting Tapered fissure cross-cut Straight fissure cross-cut

1. ANS: B DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 2. ANS: E DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 3. ANS: A DIF: Recall REF: p. 310 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 4. ANS: C DIF: Recall REF: p. 310 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 5. ANS: D DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T IIE .BS.2T.SBeA leN ctKaS ndEL deLscErR ib. eC hoOwMto prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures Match each number series with its corresponding bur type. a. Round b. Tapered fissure plain-cut c. Pear d. Inverted cone e. Straight fissure plain-cut 6. to 37 L 7. 55 to 58 L 8. 1330 to 1331 L 9.

L to 10 L 10. 169 to 171 L 6. ANS: D DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 7. ANS: E DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 8. ANS: C DIF: Recall REF: p. 310 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 9. ANS: A DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 10. ANS: B DIF: Recall REF: p. 309 OBJ: 9 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces Match each instrument with its classification. a. Rotary instrument b. Restorative instrument c. Examination instrument d. Hand- (manual) cutting instrument 11.

12.

13.

14.

Amalgam condenser Gingival margin trimmer Explorer Bur

11. ANS: B DIF: Recall REF: p. 301 OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5 | 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 12. ANS: D DIF: Recall REF: p. 300 OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5 | 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 13. ANS: C DIF: Recall REF: p. 298 OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5 | 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.Select and describe how to prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures 14. ANS: A DIF: Recall REF: p. 300 OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5 | 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T IIE .BS.2T.SBeA leN ctKaS ndEL deLscErR ib. eC hoOwMto prepare tray setups and all necessary armamentaria for chairside dentistry and dental emergency procedures TRUE/FALSE 1. A hand instrument is made up of four parts.

ANS: F A hand instrument is made up of three, not four, parts: the handle, shank, and working end.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 297

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. Rotary instruments include the dental hand piece and the burs that fit into the hand piece.

ANS: T Hand pieces and revolving mechanisms are considered rotary instruments that can be combined to represent a miniature power tool.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 300 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.13.identify and change rotary instruments in dental hand pieces 3. The Hollenback carver shapes the amalgam on the occlusal surface to create a normal anatomic appearance.

ANS: F A discoid-cleoid carver shapes the amalgam of the occlusal surface, whereas the Hollenback carver shapes the proximal surfaces.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 302 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.a.amalgam restorations 4. A prophy angle is used for holding polishing cups and brushes ANS: T Prophy angles, also known as prophylaxis angles, are used to polish teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 305 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.l.oral prophylaxis

Chapter 20: Restorative and Esthetic Dental Materials Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The most widely accepted restorative material in dentistry is: a. amalgam b. composite c. porcelain d. gold ANS: B Composite resin is accepted and used more than any other restorative material, including amalgam, porcelain, or gold.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 317 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 2. The silver filling material, used to restore premolars and molars, is called: a. amalgam b. composite c. glass ionomer d. acrylic resin ANS: A Amalgam is the name of the silver filling material, predominantly used to restore decayed TESTBANKSELLER.COM premolars and molars. Composite and glass ionomer materials are tooth-colored, not silver, and dental acrylic resin is usually tinted pink, to mimic the oral mucosa.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 317 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 3. In which process is resin material changed from a pliable state to a hardened restoration? a. Polymerization b. Etching c. Bonding d. Cementation ANS: A Polymerization is the process through which the resin material is changed from a pliable state to a hardened restoration. Etching is used to prepare the enamel surface for improved restoration retention. Bonding is a process of adhesion; cementation is a type of bonding.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 319 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.c.composites 4. Which is NOT true regarding calcium hydroxide? a. It protects the pulp from chemical irritation through its sealing abilities. b. It stimulates the production of reparative or secondary dentin.

c. It is compatible with all types of restorative materials. d. It is frequently selected as a dental base for deep cavity preparations.

ANS: D Calcium hydroxide is frequently selected as a dental liner, not a dental base. In fact, calcium hydroxide is the most frequently selected cavity liner because it protects the pulp from chemical irritation, stimulates the production of reparative or secondary dentin, and is compatible with all types of restorative materials.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 320 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases, and liners 5. Which dental cement is most versatile, and least irritating to the pulp? a. Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) b. Polycarboxylate c. Zinc phosphate d. Glass ionomer ANS: A ZOE is one of the most versatile dental cements, in addition to being the least irritating to the pulp. Polycarboxylate and zinc phosphate cements are not as easy to use as ZOE cement and can irritate the pulp. Glass ionomer is more versatile and soothing than polycarboxylate or zinc phosphate; however, ZOE is recognized as the most versatile and least irritating.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

6. The process of mixing alloy and mercury together is: a. trituration b. retention c. polymerization d. galvanism ANS: A Trituration is the process by which mercury and alloy powders are mixed together to form an amalgam. Retention is the result of adhesion or mechanical locking, or both.

Polymerization is the process in which resin material is changed from a pliable state into a hardened restoration. Galvanism is an electrical current that develops when two different or dissimilar metals come together.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 318 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.a.amalgam 7. Intermediate restorative material (IRM) is reinforced: a. zinc phosphate b. composite resin c. zinc oxide eugenol d. calcium hydroxide ANS: C

IRM is a reinforced zinc oxide eugenol, not zinc phosphate, composite resin, or calcium hydroxide.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.f.temporary restorative materials 8. Which ensures an accurate ratio of alloy and mercury, when mixing dental amalgam? a. Use only single-use capsules b. Measure accurately with a weighted scale c. Empty capsule contents before trituration d. Avoid breaking the capsule membrane ANS: A Using premeasured single-use capsules will ensure an accurate ratio of alloy and mercury, when mixing dental amalgam. Amalgam capsules are manufactured with a precise ratio of alloy powder and mercury, and require no measuring. These single-use capsules are only emptied after trituration, when the capsule membrane is broken and the contents are thoroughly mixed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 318 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.a.amalgam 9. Single-surface amalgam capsules contain how much alloy? a. 800 mg b. 600 mg c. 400 mg d. 200 mg ANS: B Single-surface amalgam capsules contain 600 mg of alloy, as opposed to 800 mg, 400 mg, or 200 mg of alloy. Larger restorations require capsules that contain 800 mg of alloy.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 318 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.a.amalgam 10. Cavity varnish: a. opens dentinal tubules b. reduces leakage around a restoration c. stimulates the growth of reparative dentin d. strengthens composite resin material ANS: D Cavity varnish reduces micro-leakage around a restoration, seals the dentinal tubules, and protects the tooth from highly acidic cements such as zinc phosphate. Calcium hydroxide, not cavity varnish, stimulates the growth of reparative dentin. Cavity varnish is contraindicated for composite restorations because it interferes with the materials.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 320-321 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases, and liners

11. Without the protection of a dental base in a deep tooth preparation, there may be: a. premature contact with the restorative material b. occlusal trauma c. postoperative sensitivity and damage to the pulp d. premature loss of the restorative material ANS: C Dental bases are placed in deep tooth preparations to protect the pulp before the restoration is placed; without this protection there may be postoperative sensitivity and pulp damage. A premature contact with the restorative material results from excessive filling material; the protective base is under the restorative material, while the premature contact is on the surface. Occlusal trauma could occur whether or not a protective base has been placed. The presence of a protective base does not determine whether or not there will be premature loss of the restorative material.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases, and liners 12. Tooth conditioner (acid etchant) contains which acid? a. Sulfuric b. Hydrochloric c. Phosphoric d. Citric ANS: C The primary ingredient of acid etchant is phosphoric acid, not sulfuric, hydrochloric, or citric acid.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.d.etchants

OBJ: 6

13. A luting agent: a. removes the smear layer of debris b. cements a casting to the tooth permanently c. is applied in a thick, putty-like layer. d. lightens age-related tooth discoloration.

ANS: B A luting agent permanently cements a casting to the tooth. The etching process removes the smear layer of debris; a luting agent does not. Dental bases are applied in a thick layer with a putty-like consistency, whereas a luting agent is applied in a very thin layer with fluid consistency. Peroxide-based tooth-whitening products remove age-related tooth discoloration; luting agents do not.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements 14. A dental liner is placed: a. along the inside cavity walls b. mesial and distal of the tooth

OBJ: 7

c. in the deepest area of the tooth preparation d. along the interproximal margin ANS: C A dental liner is placed in a thin layer in the deepest area of the tooth preparation, as opposed to along the cavity walls, at the mesial or distal aspects of the tooth, or along the interproximal margin.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 320 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases, and liners 15. A dental material that exhibits excellent mechanical properties withstands: a. the force, stress, and strain of the oral environment b. temperature changes in the mouth c. scratching or abrasion d. permanent deformation by tensile or compressive forces ANS: A A dental material with excellent mechanical properties withstands the force, stress, and strain of the oral environment. Thermal change is the property associated with a material that can accommodate temperature changes in the mouth. The hardness of material determines its resistance to scratching or abrasion. The ductility and malleability of a material is a metal’s capability to withstand permanent deformation by either tensile or compressive forces.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 317 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T VE .AS.1T.aB.aAdNvK anStaEgL esLaE ndR. diC saOdM vantages of various restorative materials or procedures 16. The degree to which a restoration dissolves in the mouth is a measure of which property? a. Ductility b. Solubility c. Corrosivity d. Malleability ANS: B The solubility of a restoration is measured by the degree to which it dissolves in a wet environment. Ductility is a metal’s ability to withstand deformation by tensile forces.

Corrosivity describes a metal’s reaction when in contact with corrosive products.

Malleability is a metal’s ability to resist permanent deformation by compressive forces.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 317 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.a.advantages and disadvantages of various restorative materials or procedures 17. Which cement inhibits recurrent decay? a. Zinc oxide eugenol b. Zinc phosphate c. Glass ionomer d. Polycarboxylate

ANS: C Type I glass ionomer cement facilitates the slow release of fluoride to inhibit recurrent decay; zinc oxide eugenol, zinc phosphate, and polycarboxylate cements do not.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

18. Inorganic fillers in composite resin: a. contribute to fluidity b. add strength c. give the resin color d. reinforce chemical bonds ANS: B Inorganic fillers are included in composite resins to add strength. The resin matrix (bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate) is a fluid-like material used to make synthetic resins.

Pigment is added to the resin matrix to give the resin color. A coupling agent chemically bonds the filler to the resin matrix.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 319 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.c.composites 19. Which metal suppresses the oxidation of amalgam restorations? a. Silver b. Tin c. Copper d. Zinc ANS: D Amalgam alloy powder is made of silver, tin, copper, and zinc. Zinc suppresses oxidation.

Silver, tin, and copper add strength, improve workability, and reduce corrosion.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 318 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.a.amalgam 20. When mixing polycarboxylate as a base, the completed mix should: a. be fluid b. have a shiny, glossy surface c. string up and break, 1 inch from the slab d. be formed in a small ball ANS: D When mixed as a base, polycarboxylate is formed in a small ball for easy application. ZOE, mixed as permanent cement, is fluid after an additional 30 seconds of mix time.

Polycarboxylate, mixed as permanent cement instead of a base, should have a shiny, glossy surface. Zinc phosphate should string up and break, 1 inch from the slab, when mixed for permanent cementation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 332 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

21. Intermediate restorative material (IRM) must be completely mixed within: a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 1 minute d. 2 minutes ANS: C IRM must be completely mixed within 1 minute. Once the powder and liquid are combined, the mix is wiped back and forth on the mixing pad for 5 to 10 seconds. The completed IRM mix must be ready within 1 minute, not 2.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 328 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.f.temporary restorative materials 22. Intermediate restorative material (IRM) is dispensed in which ratio? a. 1 scoop of powder to 1 drop of liquid b. 1 scoop of powder to 2 drops of liquid c. 2 scoops of powder to 1 drop of liquid d. 2 scoops of powder to 3 drops of liquid ANS: A IRM is dispensed in a 1:1 ratio—1 scoop of powder to 1 drop of liquid, as opposed to a ratio of 1:2, 2:1, or 2:3.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 328 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T IIE I.B .

1. f. te m po r ar y re raC tiO veMmaterials STBANKSELLEsto R. TRUE/FALSE 1. Copper is a component of dental amalgam alloy.

ANS: T Amalgam alloy powder is composed of silver, tin, copper, and zinc.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 318 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.a.amalgam 2. Luting agents are mixed to a very thick consistency to temporarily hold castings in place.

ANS: F Luting agents are mixed to a thin consistency and are used to cement castings permanently.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

3. A properly mixed dental base should resemble the consistency of putty.

ANS: T

The consistency of a properly mixed dental base resembles putty.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases, and liners 4. When preparing for glass ionomer cementation, the tooth should be thoroughly dried to decrease postoperative sensitivity.

ANS: F When preparing for glass ionomer cementation, the tooth should never be over-dried because this could increase postoperative sensitivity.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

5. Most tooth whitening products are made from different concentrations of peroxide-based ingredients.

ANS: T The majority of tooth whitening products are peroxide-based.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.a.bleaching agents 6. When selecting a composite shade, fluorescent lighting helps in finding a natural match.

ANS: F Fluorescent lighting can alter the natural appearance of a patient’s teeth; natural lighting is recommended when selecting a composite shade.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 325 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.d.composite restorations 7. Etching time is always 15 to 30 seconds.

ANS: F The exact amount of time depends on the material and the use. For example, the etching time for placing sealants is not the same as the etching time for bonding orthodontic brackets.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 327 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.d.etchants

OBJ: 6

8. After a tooth surface has been etched, it should be desiccated (completely dried) so absolutely no moisture remains.

ANS: F Too much drying of the tooth structure will harm the tooth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 327 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.d.etchants

OBJ: 6

9. A proper mix of amalgam alloy is free of dry alloy particles and holds together as one unit.

ANS: T Amalgam should appear soft, pliable, and easily shaped when first triturated—free of dry alloy particles in one homogenous unit.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 318 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.a.amalgam 10. Cavity varnish is applied to control leakage with composite and glass ionomer restorations.

ANS: F Cavity varnish is contraindicated with composite resins and glass ionomer restorations due to interference with bonding and setting properties.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases, and liners 11. Type I glass ionomer cement is a luting agent.

ANS: T Different types of glass ionomer cement are used for various purposes; type I glass ionomer is a luting agent used to permanently cement metal and ceramic restorations.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

12. Polycarboxylate cement liquid has a limited shelf life.

ANS: T Polycarboxylate cement liquid has a limited shelf life because it thickens with time, as the water evaporates.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

13. Financial barriers are one reason a temporary restoration would be placed instead of a permanent restoration.

ANS: T A temporary restoration is placed instead of a permanent restoration when: (1) the condition of the tooth is questionable; (2) the patient’s health may not permit extensive dental treatment; and (3) the patient may not have the financial resources to pay for a permanent restoration.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 321

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.cc.temporary restoration 14. A major success associated with dentin bonding is the removal of enamel via etching.

ANS: F A major success of bonding to dentin is the removal of the smear layer, not enamel, thorough the etching process.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.d.etchants

OBJ: 6

15. The consistency of temporary cement should be slightly thicker than that of a luting agent.

ANS: T A temporary cement should be mixed slightly thicker than a luting agent.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 321 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

16. TempBond™ is an example of a type I ZOE cement.

ANS: T TempBond™ is one example of type I ZOE cement.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

17. The ideal temperature of the glass slab is 98.6° F when mixing zinc phosphate cement ANS: F When mixing zinc phosphate, the ideal temperature of the glass slab is 68° F; a warmer slab will shorten the cement’s setting time, while a cooler slab will increase the setting time.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

18. Polycarboxylate cement is a luting agent for cast restorations and the cementation of orthodontic bands.

ANS: T Polycarboxylate cement, also known as polyacrylic cement, is used as a luting agent for cast restorations and the cementation of orthodontic bands.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 322 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.b.cements

OBJ: 7

Chapter 21: Restorative Procedures Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The spindle of the universal retainer serves to: a. hold the end of the band in the retainer b. control the size of the loop c. position the band for the left or right quadrant d. lock the end of the matrix band in the vise ANS: D The spindle locks the end of the matrix band in the vise. The vise holds the end of the band in the retainer. The inner knob controls the size of the loop. The guide slots position the band for the left or right quadrant.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 336 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 2. For posterior restorations, the wedge is positioned from which side? a. Facial b. Buccal c. Lingual d. Labial ANS: C For posterior restorations, the wedge is positioned from the lingual side, as opposed to the facial, buccal, or labial aspect.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 335 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 3. Which is used to contour the metal matrix band at the contact area? a. Mouth mirror handle b. Cotton pliers c. Howe pliers d. Burnisher ANS: D A burnisher is used to contour the metal matrix band at the contact area, whereas a mouth mirror handle is used to contour a plastic matrix strip. Howe and cotton pliers are commonly used to place the wedge into the embrasure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 336 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 4. The size and shape of the wedge is determined by the size of the: a. cavity preparation b. operator’s hands

c. embrasure d. assistant’s hands ANS: C The size and shape of the wedge is determined by the size of the embrasure, as opposed to the size of the cavity preparation, operator’s hands, or assistant’s hands.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 342 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 5. A thin layer of tooth-colored material, fabricated in a laboratory and directly bonded to the tooth is a/an: a. porcelain inlay b. amalgam restoration c. composite restoration d. veneer ANS: D The thin layer of tooth-colored material that is fabricated in a laboratory and directly bonded to the tooth is a veneer, not a porcelain inlay, amalgam restoration, or composite restoration.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 338

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. A universal retainer is always positioned in the mouth with the diagonal slot facing: a. toward the gingiva b. away from the gingiva c. toward the midline d. away from the midline ANS: A The diagonal slot of a universal retainer is always positioned toward, not away from, the gingiva, as opposed to the midline.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 342 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 7. Which condition requires esthetic dental treatment? a. Abrasion of tooth structure b. Developmental anomalies c. Failed restorations d. Carious lesions ANS: B Anomalies caused by developmental disturbances require esthetic dental treatment, whereas dental abrasion, failed restorations, and carious lesions require restorative dental treatment.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 335

OBJ: 2

8. Which is included in the setup for an amalgam restoration? a. Condensers b. Shade guide

MSC: CDA Exam: N/A

c. Mylar matrix d. Abrasive strips ANS: A Condensers are used to tightly pack, or condense, amalgam in the cavity preparation, and are a necessary component of the amalgam restorative tray. A shade guide, Mylar matrix setup, and abrasive strips are components of the composite, not amalgam, restorative setup.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 342 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.a.amalgam restorations 9. In a composite restoration procedure, polishing discs, points, and cups are used: a. before the matrix band is placed b. before the composite material is light-cured c. after the occlusion is checked and adjusted d. after the dentist administers local anesthetic ANS: C In a composite restoration procedure, polishing discs, points, and cups are used in the final step, after the occlusion is checked and adjusted, not before the matrix band is placed and the composite material is light-cured, or after the local anesthetic is administered.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 346 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 10. The patient should avoid chewing on a newly placed amalgam restoration for a: a. day b. few hours c. couple days d. week ANS: B The patient should be advised to avoid chewing on a newly placed amalgam restoration for a few hours, to prevent a stress fracture. Amalgam takes several hours to reach its maximum strength, so waiting a full day, a couple days, or a full week before chewing is unnecessary.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 344 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.1.Describe how to provide oral and written pre- and post-treatment instructions (e.g., prescribed medications) 11. Retention pins are used for which type of restoration? a. Complex b. Resin veneer c. Composite resin d. Amalgam ANS: A Retention pins provide support and internal strength to complex restorations, where the loss of natural tooth structure is greater than the remaining tooth. Resin veneer restorations do not require the support of retention pins. Composite resin and amalgam restorations do not require retention pins, unless they are complex restorations.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 338 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 12. Veneers cannot: a. improve the alignment of teeth b. close a diastema c. conceal developmental discoloration d. whiten the enamel ANS: D Veneers cannot whiten the enamel, but they can improve occlusal alignment, close a diastema, and conceal the appearance of developmental discoloration.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 338

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: N/A

COMPLETION 1.

dentistry is devoted to improving the appearance of teeth.

ANS: Esthetic DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 335

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. A is triangular or round in shape, made of wood or plastic, and used to create a proper anatomic contouTrE . STBANKSELLER.COM ANS: wedge DIF: Recall REF: p. 335 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 3. A Tofflemire matrix retainer is also called a

retainer.

ANS: universal DIF: Recall REF: p. 336 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 4. A clear plastic matrix strip is the matrix of choice for

restorations.

ANS: anterior DIF: Recall REF: p. 337 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.10.prepare, assist with, and/or apply and remove matrix bands 5. The most detailed aspect of restoring a tooth is the ANS: cavity

preparation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 335 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration TRUE/FALSE 1. An expanded function is one delegated by the dentist.

ANS: T An expanded function is one delegated by the dentist. It must be legal according to state regulations for the function to be delegated.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 339 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.d.legal responsibilities of the dental assistant in relation to the state dental practice act 2. Vital bleaching is a technique that involves whitening the internal surface of a tooth.

ANS: F Vital bleaching involves the whitening of the external, not internal, surface of a tooth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 338 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.c.bleaching

OBJ: 7

3. It is the dental assistant’s responsibility to select the shade of composite material.

ANS: F The assistant can help to select the shade but should not be the only person making the selection.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 345 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.d.composite restorations

Chapter 22: Impression Materials and Laboratory Procedures Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The dental assistant should be familiar with all types of impression trays, because the type of tray selected for a procedure depends on the assistant’s preference. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not. d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

ANS: C The statement is correct, but the reason is not. The dental assistant is responsible for knowing the different types of impression trays, but the type of tray selected for a procedure is dependent upon the dentist’s, not assistant’s, preference as well as the type of impression material being used.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 348 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 2. A custom impression tray is made from: a. resin b. plastic c. metal d. gauze ANS: A Custom impression trays are constructed from resin (acrylic, light-cured, or thermoplastic).

Plastic, metal, and gauze are used to form various other impression trays.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 351 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.1.fabricate custom impression trays 3. The irreversible hydrocolloid material used most extensively for preliminary impressions is: a. light-bodied material b. alginate c. polysulfide d. polyether ANS: B Alginate is the irreversible hydrocolloid material used most extensively for preliminary impressions. Light-bodied material is a syringe or wash-type irreversible elastomeric impression material. Polysulfide and polyether are irreversible elastomeric impression materials.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 349 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions

4. Which impression tray covers half of a dental arch? a. Full b. Section c. Quadrant d. Custom ANS: C A quadrant tray covers half of a dental arch, while a full tray covers the entire dental arch. A section tray covers the anterior section of the mouth. Depending on fabrication needs, a custom tray may or may not cover half of a dental arch. It may be a full-arch, section, or quadrant tray.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 348 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 5. Which is NOT used for pouring diagnostic casts? a. Model plaster b. Dental stone c. Acrylic resin d. High-strength stone ANS: C Acrylic resin is not used to create dental casts. The materials most commonly used to create diagnostic casts are model plaster, dental stone, and high-strength stone.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 354 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.T IVE.B .

3 .fa b ri ca te d ia g ticCcOaM sts STBANKSELLEnoRs. 6. The three classifications of impressions in dentistry are: a. prospective, retrospective, and introspective registrations b. preliminary, functional, and occlusal, or bite, registrations c. preliminary, final, and occlusal, or bite, registrations d. diagnostic, functional, and determinative registrations ANS: C The three classifications of impressions in dentistry are preliminary, final, and occlusal, or bite, registrations. Dental impressions are not classified as prospective, retrospective, introspective, functional, diagnostic, or determinative.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 348 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 7. A preliminary impression is used to fabricate: a. custom trays b. indirect restorations c. partial or full dentures d. implants ANS: A

A preliminary impression is used to fabricate custom trays, diagnostic models, orthodontic appliances, and models for pretreatment and post-treatment records. A final impression provides the dentist and dental laboratory technician with the essential information needed for the creation of indirect restorations, as well as partial or full dentures and implants.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 348 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 8. A water temperature of 80° F (26.6° C) produces which effect on a gypsum mix? a. The mix will set rapidly. b. The mix will set with a grainy texture. c. The mix will set slowly. d. The mix will not set.

ANS: A A water temperature of 80° F produces a mix that will set rapidly. The ideal water temperature for mixing gypsum is 70° F (21.1° C)—the warmer the water, the faster the set.

Mixing gypsum with warm (80° F) water will not affect the texture of the mix, cause the mix to set slowly, or inhibit the set of the mix.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 355 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.A.3.gypsum products 9. Alginate impressions are disinfected by: a. soaking in glutaraldehyde b. submersion in disinfecting solution overnight c. wetting with isopropyTlEaS lcT ohBoA l NKSELLER.COM d. spraying the alginate with a disinfectant ANS: D Spraying the alginate with an intermediate-level disinfectant is the most acceptable method of disinfection; isopropyl alcohol is not an intermediate-level disinfectant. Dimensional change can result from soaking or submersing an alginate impression in liquid.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 359 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.A.1.a.alginate (e.g., irreversible hydrocolloid) 10. Alginate impressions are removed from the mouth by: a. using a gentle rocking movement b. using one quick, snap-out motion c. twisting the tray sideways d. using a vigorous back-and-forth action ANS: B Alginate impressions are removed from the mouth by using one quick, snap-out motion.

Using a gentle rocking movement, twisting the tray sideways, or using a vigorous back-and-forth action will distort the impression.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 359 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions

11. When taking a wax bite registration, the patient is directed to: a. bite with the posterior teeth first b. close normally and gently c. occlude with lateral movements d. bite with the anterior teeth first ANS: B When taking a wax bite registration, the patient is directed to close normally and gently.

Biting in any other way will produce an inaccurate bite registration.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 354 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.A.2.dental waxes 12. When loading a tray for an upper impression, place: a. more material toward the anterior and labial edges b. more material in the palatal area c. the material evenly in the tray d. more material toward the posterior and palatal areas ANS: A When loading a tray for an upper impression, place more material toward the anterior and labial edges to prevent gagging. Loading more impression material in the posterior and palatal areas, or evenly distributing the material in the tray, can lead to overflow when the impression is positioned in the mouth, triggering a gag response.

DIF: Recall RETFE: ST p.B3A 59NKSELLOEBRJ. : C3OM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 13. An extruder gun is used for which impression mix? a. Automix system b. Paste system c. Putty impression material d. Tabletop mixing unit ANS: A The automix system for elastomeric materials requires an extruder gun to dispense a homogeneous mix. The paste system uses a spatula and paper pad, not an extruder gun.

Putty impression material is kneaded by hand, while a tabletop mixing unit mechanically mixes the material and expresses it into the tray.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 353 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.A.1.b.elastomerics 14. An impression is a negative reproduction. A cast is a positive reproduction. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: A

Both statements are true. An impression is a negative reproduction of teeth and surrounding oral tissues, and the cast created from the impression is a positive reproduction of the structures.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 352 OBJ: 2 | 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 15. Which statement is true? a. Model plaster is stronger than dental stone. b. Dental stone is used when dimensional accuracy is not critical. c. High-strength stone is a form of gypsum. d. All gypsum products have the same powder-to-water ratio.

ANS: C High-strength stone is a form of gypsum. Dental stone is stronger than model plaster, which is used when dimensional accuracy is not critical. A very specific and unique water-to-powder ratio is required for each gypsum product. Model plaster requires the most water for mixing; dental stone has a powder-to-water ratio between that of model plaster and high-strength stone, and high-strength stone has the lowest powder-to-water ratio.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 354 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.A.3.gypsum products 16. Which forms the art portion of the cast? a. Teeth b. Oral mucosa c. Muscle attachments d. Base ANS: D The art portion of the cast forms the base, while the anatomic portion of the cast includes the teeth, oral mucosa, and muscle attachments.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 355 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts 17. Which correctly describes the pouring method of a dental cast? a. The art portion of a cast is poured first in the double-pour method. b. The completed box should extend at least 1 inch above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used. c. The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large amount of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step. d. The “box” used in the box-and-pour method is made of baseplate wax.

ANS: C

The inverted-pour method consists of mixing one large amount of plaster or stone and pouring both portions of the model in a single step. The anatomic, not art, portion of the cast is poured first when the double-pour method is used. The completed box should extend at least inch, as opposed to 1 inch, above the palatal area of the maxillary impression when the box-and-pour method is used. The “box” used in the box-and-pour method is a wax made specifically for that purpose, called boxing wax, not baseplate wax.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 355 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts 18. The anterior portion of a trimmed maxillary model will be: a. pointed b. rounded c. squared d. beveled ANS: A A trimmed maxillary model will be pointed at the anterior portion, as opposed to rounded, squared, or beveled. A trimmed mandibular model will be rounded at the anterior portion.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 358 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts (e.g., trimming and finishing) 19. Bite registration paste is applied with which tray? a. Perforated b. Gauze c. Plastic sooth d. Water coolant ANS: B Bite registration paste is applied with a gauze or triple tray, if not applied directly to the teeth. Perforated trays are used for preliminary impressions, not bite registrations. Plastic sooth and water coolant trays are designed to obtain a final impression, not a bite registration.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 350 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.j.occlusal registration 20. Light-body elastomeric material is placed in the sulcus, around and over the prepared tooth, and onto the surrounding tissue with a: a. syringe b. carrier c. spatula d. brush ANS: A A syringe attached to a cartridge system is used to enrobe a prepared tooth with light-bodied elastomeric material, as opposed to a carrier, spatula, or brush.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 352

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.A.1.b.elastomerics 21. Alginate should be mixed: a. without touching the sides of the bowl b. firmly against the sides of the bowl c. for 3 minutes d. for 5 minutes ANS: B Alginate should be mixed vigorously against the sides of the bowl for 1 to 2 minutes, depending on the type of alginate. Alginate cannot be properly mixed without touching the sides of the bowl. The working time for alginate is minutes for fast-set alginate or 2 minutes for normal-set alginate, not 3 or 5 minutes.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 356 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.A.1.a.alginate (e.g., irreversible hydrocolloid) 22. Gypsum should be mixed: a. vigorously against the sides of the bowl b. in steady increments with a slow stirring motion c. for 2 minutes d. for 3 minutes ANS: B Gypsum should be mixed in steady increments with a slow stirring motion, instead of vigorously against the sides of the bowl. A smooth and creamy mix should be achieved within 20 seconds, not 2 ToE r 3Sm inA utN esK. SELLER.COM TB DIF: Recall REF: p. 362 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.A.3.gypsum products 23. Which tray produces a final impression and bite registration at the same time? a. Perforated b. Triple c. Plastic sooth d. Water coolant ANS: B A triple tray is designed to produce a final impression and bite registration at the same time.

Perforated trays are used to obtain preliminary impressions. Plastic sooth and water coolant trays produce final impressions, without simultaneous bite registrations.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 351 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 24. Which final impression material has the longest setting time? a. Polyether b. Condensation silicone c. Addition silicone d. Polysulfide

ANS: D Polysulfide has the longest setting time (10 to 20 minutes) of all final impression materials, including polyether (6 to 7 minutes), condensation silicone (6 to 10 minutes), and addition silicone (6 to 8 minutes).

DIF: Recall REF: p. 352 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 25. Which slows the set of a gypsum cast? a. Using model plaster instead of dental stone b. Adding a little extra powder to the mix c. Using warm water in the mix d. Mixing gently for a short period of time ANS: D Mixing gypsum gently for a short period of time will slow the set of the cast—the longer and faster the mixing, the faster the set. Model plaster sets faster than dental stone. Adding extra powder to the mix accelerates the set, as does using warm water to mix the gypsum.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 355 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.A.3.gypsum products 26. Which step prepares a dental model for trimming? a. Mix a slurry of gypsum and water and fill in any voids. b. Draw a line inch behind the maxillary tuberosities. c. Soak the art portion oTfEthSeTmBoAdN elKinSaEbLoL wEl R of.wCaO teMr for at least 5 minutes. d. Remove gypsum beads from the model with a laboratory knife.

ANS: C Soaking the art portion of the model in water makes trimming easier and is key to preparing the model for trimming and finishing. Drawing an indicator line behind the maxillary tuberosities is a step in trimming, not preparing, the model. Filling in voids and removing gypsum beads are finishing, not preparatory, steps.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 364 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts (e.g., trimming and finishing) 27. To remove air bubbles from automix final impression material: a. allow the powder to settle into the water for about 30 seconds b. extrude a small amount of unmixed material onto a gauze pad c. place the mix on a vibrator platform until air bubbles rise to the surface d. press the material down to the base of the tray and smooth the surface with a wet finger ANS: B

To remove air bubbles in automix impression material, extrude a small amount of unmixed material from the dual cartridges before attaching the mixing tip. Allowing the powder of a dental plaster to settle in the water for 30 seconds prevents trapped air bubbles, as does vibrating the mix on a vibrator platform. To remove air bubbles trapped in the tray of a preliminary impression, quickly press alginate down to the base of the tray, and smooth the surface by wiping it with a moistened finger.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 357 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 28.

Which material is elastic and reversible? a. Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste b. Agar c. Alginate d. Impression compounds ANS: B Agar is both elastic and reversible. Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste is inelastic and irreversible. Alginate is elastic, but irreversible. Impression compounds are reversible but inelastic.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 349 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 29. After taking an alginate impression, the cast should be fabricated within: a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 24 hours ANS: C To prevent syneresis, the dental cast should be “poured up” within an hour of taking the alginate impression. Protected in a plastic bag and wrapped in a wet paper towel, the impression can wait for 15 or 30 minutes, but should be fabricated within 1 hour. Waiting 24 hours to pour up the impression could result in distortion and dimensional change.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 351 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions

TRUE/FALSE 1. Fast-set alginate has a working time of ANS: T Fast-set alginate has a working time of

minutes.

minutes, so a faster mix is required.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 349 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.A.1.a.alginate (e.g., irreversible hydrocolloid)

2. After seating and preparing the patient for preliminary impressions, the next step is to mix the alginate.

ANS: F After seating and preparing the patient for preliminary impressions, the next step is to explain the procedure to the patient, before mixing the alginate.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 357 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions 3. Dentists prefer to use plaster for diagnostic casts, due to its strength and long shelf life.

ANS: F Dentists prefer plaster casts because they are easy to trim and have a clean appearance.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 354 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts (e.g., trimming and finishing) 4. The art portion of the cast should be no more than one-half inch thick and should make up one-third of the overall cast.

ANS: T The base of the cast should be no more than one-half inch thick and should make up one-third of the overall cast.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 355 OBJ: 5 TESTBANKSELLER.COM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts (e.g., trimming and finishing) 5. Heavy-body material is the thickest of the three elastomeric impression materials.

ANS: T There are three viscosities of elastomeric impression material: light-body, medium-body, and heavy-body. Heavy-body material is the thickest of the three and is most commonly used as a tray material.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 352 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.A.1.b.elastomerics 6. The bite registration establishes the proper centric relationship when fabricating a permanent crown.

ANS: T The dental laboratory technician will use an articulator device to mount the upper and lower jaws with the bite registration to establish the proper centric relationship when fabricating a permanent crown.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 354 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.j.occlusal registration

7. A preliminary impression may be separated from its dental model within 15 minutes of being poured.

ANS: F To prevent distortion and cracking of the model, wait 45 to 60 minutes after the base has been poured before separating the impression from the model.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 364 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.3.fabricate diagnostic casts (e.g., trimming and finishing) 8. Although the technique may vary, when one is assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression, mix the light-bodied material first.

ANS: T Although the technique may vary, when one is assisting a dentist in taking an elastomeric impression, mix the light-bodied material first.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 352 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.s.taking initial/secondary impressions

Chapter 23: Prosthodontics and Dental Implants Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is an individual component of a fixed bridge? a. Unit b. Crown c. Onlay d. Tooth ANS: A

Units are the individual components of a fixed bridge, making a bridge a multiple unit cast restoration. A crown is a single unit restoration that covers the entire crown of the tooth. An onlay is also a single unit cast restoration. Each “tooth” of a fixed bridge is a unit.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 369 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 2. The pontic of a fixed bridge is: a. created to fit into a Class II preparation b. the natural tooth that supports the artificial unit c. the artificial unit d. a wing-like extension framework ANS: C

The pontic of a fixed bridge is the unit that replaces a missing natural tooth. An inlay, not a pontic, is created to fit into a Class II preparation. An abutment is the supporting tooth of a bridge, not the artificial unit. A wing-like extension framework is a unique characteristic of a particular bridge—the Maryland.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 369 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 3. How many abutments are required for a fixed bridge? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: B

The abutment is the component of the bridge that provides support for the replacement—at least 1 abutment is required. The bridge has no support without an abutment. While 2 or 3 abutments may be employed to evenly distribute load, at least 1 is required.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 369 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation

4. Immediate dentures do NOT: a. restore function b. spare the patient embarrassment c. irritate the surgical area d. require continual 24-hour wear ANS: C

Immediate dentures do not irritate the surgical area, but rather serve as a compress and bandage to facilitate healing. Immediate dentures restore function, spare the patient embarrassment, and must be worn continuously, 24 hours a day, except when removed for cleaning.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.k.immediate dentures 5. Which cast restoration fits into the prepared tooth and involves the occlusal and one or more

proximal surfaces? a. Onlay b. Inlay c. Crown d. Veneer ANS: B

An inlay is a cast restoration that is cemented or bonded into a Class II preparation in the tooth and covers a portion of the occlusal and proximal surfaces. An onlay is designed for the occlusal crown and proximal surfaces of posterior teeth. A crown is a cast restoration that covers the entire anatomic crown of the tooth. A veneer is a thin layer of tooth-colored material that is bonded or cTeE mS enTtB edAtN oK thSe E prLeL paEreRd.fC acOiaMl surface of a tooth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 368 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 6. When is gingival retraction cord placed? a. After the final impression is taken b. After the crown preparation is completed c. Before the provisional is removed d. Before the final cast restoration is cemented ANS: B

Gingival retraction cord is placed after the crown preparation is completed and is removed before, not after, the final impression—as opposed to before the provisional is removed or the final cast restoration is cemented.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 382 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 7. Packed gingival retraction cord is left in place for a maximum of: a. 1 to 3 minutes b. 5 to 7 minutes c. 8 to 10 minutes d. 12 to 15 minutes

ANS: B

Packed gingival retraction cord is left in place for maximum of 5 to 7 minutes, as opposed to 1 to 3, 8 to 10, or 12 to 15 minutes. The exact time depends on the type of chemical retraction used.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 382 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 8. Dental implants are commonly made from: a. titanium b. stainless steel c. cobalt-chromium d. gold ANS: A

Dental implants are commonly made from titanium coated with hydroxyapatite, as opposed to stainless steel, cobalt-chromium, or gold.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.m.implants

OBJ: 6

9. Completion of the entire dental implantation process requires: a. 15 to 30 days b. 4 to 6 weeks c. 3 to 9 months d. 1 to 2 years ANS: C

The entire dental implantation process requires 3 to 9 months to reach completion, not 15 to 30 days, 4 to 6 weeks, or 1 to 2 years.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 380 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.h.implants 10. Which is the most common type of dental implant? a. Transosteal b. Fixed mandibular c. Subperiosteal d. Endosteal ANS: D

Endosteal implants are the most common type of dental implant, used in place of a crown, bridge, or partial denture. Transosteal implants (e.g., fixed mandibular implants) are uncommon and placed only as a last resort. Subperiosteal implants are less common than endosteal implants, and are usually placed to support a mandibular complete denture.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.h.implants 11. The abutment post of an endosteal implant is: a. embedded surgically into the bone

b. screwed into the implant after osseointegration c. attached to the artificial tooth or denture d. supplied in blade, cylinder, or screw form ANS: C

The abutment post of an endosteal implant is attached to the artificial tooth or denture. The titanium implant is surgically embedded into the bone and supplied in either blade, cylinder, or screw form. The titanium abutment screw is screwed into the implant after osseointegration.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.m.implants

OBJ: 6

12. Which home care instruction supports optimal denture care? a. Store dentures in a glass of distilled water, when not in the mouth. b. With dentures removed, rinse oral tissues at least 3 times a day. c. Carefully brush dentures with nonabrasive cleanser over a sink of water. d. Soak dentures in boiling water to sterilize, after a cold or illness.

ANS: C

Patients should be advised to carefully brush dentures with a special denture brush and nonabrasive denture cleanser over a sink filled with water to protect the prosthesis in the event of an accidental drop. Dentures should be stored in a moist, airtight container, not a glass of water. Oral tissues should be rinsed at least once, as opposed to 3 times, a day. Patients should also be warned against soaking dentures in boiling or hot water, to prevent warping.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 376 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.T 2.E DS esT crB ibA eN hoKwStE oL caL reEfR or.reCmOoM vable and nonremovable appliances and prosthesis 13. Recall visits are vital to the long-term success of an implant because peri-implant tissue does

not respond to bacterial biofilm. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related. b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not. d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

ANS: C

The statement is correct, but the reason is not. Recall visits are vital to the long-term success of implants. Peri-implant tissue responds to bacterial biofilm with inflammation and bleeding, in the same manner as gingival tissue around a normal tooth. Recall visits are vital because the health of the peri-implant tissue is a critical factor in the overall success of the dental implant.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 381 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.2.Describe how to care for removable and nonremovable appliances and prosthesis COMPLETION 1. A multiple-unit cast restoration is called a fixed

.

ANS: bridge DIF: Recall REF: p. 370 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 2. A

guide is used to match the natural tooth color to samples of shades.

ANS: shade DIF: Recall REF: p. 375 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 3. A gingival

cord temporarily pushes the tissue away from the tooth and

widens the sulcus.

ANS: retraction DIF: Recall REF: p. 370 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.c.crown and bridge restoration, preparation, temporization and cementation 4. The

of a partial denture is a metal mesh extension of the connector that is covered with acrylic.

ANS: saddle DIF: Recall REF: p. 375 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.f.fabrication of removable partial or full dentures

5. A

is a metal projection on, or near, the clasp of a partial denture that is designed to control the extent of the seating.

ANS: rest DIF: Recall REF: p. 375 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.f.fabrication of removable partial or full dentures

6. Relining of a partial denture is accomplished by placing a new layer of denture

over the tissue surface of the appliance.

ANS: resin DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.v.removable partial or full dentures 7. Full dentures are also known as

dentures.

ANS: complete DIF: Recall

REF: p. 376

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.v.removable partial or full dentures 8. To achieve closer adaptation for a full denture, a modification called border

is

formed.

ANS: molding DIF: Recall REF: p. 377 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.f.fabrication of removable partial or full dentures 9. An

is a laboratory device that simulates the movement of the mandible and temporomandibular joint.

ANS: articulator DIF: Recall REF: p. 378 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.f.fabrication of removable partial or full dentures

10. During the construction of a complete denture, the laboratory technician must have an

accurate record of the patient’s bite, or

.

ANS: occlusion DIF: Recall REF: p. 378 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.f.fabrication of removable partial or full dentures TRUE/FALSE 1. During the healing process, an immediate denture should not be worn.

ANS: F

During the healing process, the immediate denture serves as a compress and bandage to protect the surgical area.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.k.immediate dentures 2. A patient will have to wait for at least 8 to 24 hours while a laboratory reline of a complete or

partial denture is being processed.

ANS: T

A patient will have to wait for at least 8 to 24 hours while a laboratory reline of a complete or partial denture is being processed. The patient should be warned about the wait time.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 379 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.f.fabrication of removable partial or full dentures

Chapter 24: Periodontics Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Information pertaining to periodontal pocket readings, furcations, tooth mobility, the presence

of exudate (pus), and gingival recession is recorded in the: a. medical history b. dental charting and history c. periodontal examination and charting d. treatment progress notes ANS: C

The periodontal examination and charting contains information pertaining to periodontal pocket readings, furcations, tooth mobility, the presence of exudate, bleeding index readings, and gingival recession. The medical history may provide valuable clues to possible systemic conditions affecting the periodontium. The dental history reveals current conditions that may indicate periodontal disease. Treatment progress notes are used to record the advancement and completion of the periodontal examination, but the specifics of that examination are recorded in the periodontal examination and charting.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 395 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.t.periodontal procedures 2. Which instrument is calibrated in millimeters to locate and measure the depth of periodontal

pockets? a. Probe b. Scaler c. Explorer d. Curette ANS: A

Periodontal probes are calibrated in millimeters to locate and measure the depth of periodontal pockets. Periodontal scalers are designed to remove mineralized deposits from the coronal surfaces of teeth. Periodontal explorers are used to detect supragingival and subgingival calculus. Curettes are area-specific tools designed to remove subgingival calculus, smooth rough root surfaces, and remove the diseased soft tissue lining the periodontal pocket.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 399 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.t.periodontal procedures 3. Which tool provides rapid calculus removal by converting high-frequency sound waves into

mechanical energy? a. Sickle scaler b. Ultrasonic scaler c. Universal curette d. Gracey curette ANS: B

The ultrasonic scaler provides rapid calculus removal through mechanical energy, whereas the sickle scaler, universal curette, and Gracey curette are hand instruments.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 403 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.t.periodontal procedures 4. Which procedure is performed during a recall appointment as the primary treatment for

gingivitis? a. Dental prophylaxis b. Root planing c. Coronal polishing d. Gingival curettage ANS: A

Dental prophylaxis is a common procedure performed at recall to treat gingivitis. Root planing and gingival curettage are not common recall procedures and are usually performed in cases that involve necrosis or periodontitis. Coronal polishing is only performed to remove stain, not to treat gingivitis.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 403 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.s.oral prophylaxis 5. Which periodontal surgery is performed to improve visibility for other surgical procedures? a. Gingivectomy b. Flap surgery c. Osteoplasty d. Gingival graft ANS: B

Periodontal flap surgery is performed to improve surgical access and visibility for other procedures; the tissues are not removed but are pushed away from the underlying tooth roots and alveolar bone. Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissues.

Osteoplasty is a specific type of bone surgery. Tissue is taken from one site and placed in another, in a gingival graft surgery.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 405 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 6. Alveolar bone is removed in which surgery? a. Gingivectomy b. Osteoplasty c. Ostectomy d. Gingivoplasty ANS: C

Bone is removed in an ostectomy, or subtractive surgery. A gingivectomy is the removal of gingival tissue, not bone. Osteoplasty and gingivoplasty are additive, not subtractive, surgeries that involve reshaping and contouring bone or gingival tissue.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 406 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery

7. A periodontal dressing serves each purpose, EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Acts as a bandage over the surgical site. b. Minimizes postoperative pain, infection, and hemorrhage. c. Supports mobile teeth during the healing process. d. Reshapes and contours the gingival tissue.

ANS: D

A surgical gingivoplasty, not periodontal dressing, is indicated for reshaping and contouring gingival tissue. A periodontal dressing is placed after periodontal surgery as a bandage, to minimize postoperative pain, infection, and hemorrhage, and to support mobile teeth during the healing process.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 407 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.C.1.a.periodontal surgical dressings 8. In which procedure is tissue from one site removed and sutured on another site? a. Gingival grafting b. Gingivectomy c. Gingival curettage d. Gingivoplasty ANS: A

In a gingival graft, tissue is taken from one site and sutured on another. Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissues. Gingival curettage involves scraping the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket, while gingivoplasty involves the surgical reshaping and contouring of the gingival tissues.

DIF: Recall REF: TpE . 4S0T 5 BANKS OE BJ:LLE 5 R.COM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 9. Periodontal flap surgery is NOT performed to: a. cover the root surfaces of an adjacent tooth with inadequate tissue coverage b. facilitate thorough scaling and root planing c. provide access for osteoplasty or bone grafting procedures d. remove necrotic tissue from the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket ANS: D

Gingival curettage, not periodontal flap surgery, is performed to remove necrotic tissue from the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket. Periodontal flap surgery is performed to cover the root surfaces of an adjacent tooth (laterally sliding flap), facilitate thorough scaling and root planing, and provide access for osteoplasty and bone grafting procedures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 405 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 10. Radiographs are NOT used to: a. detect interproximal bone loss b. locate furcation involvement c. measure the crown-root ratio d. determine gingival recession ANS: D

Gingival recession cannot be detected with radiographs; visual inspection with a periodontal probe is necessary. Radiographs are vital to the periodontal examination, however, to detect interproximal bone loss, locate furcation involvement, and measure the crown-root ratio.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 395 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.a.Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images 11. Signs and symptoms of periodontal disease include: a. the presence of plaque and calculus b. bleeding gums c. dental sensitivity to cold d. tooth discoloration or staining ANS: B

Patients with periodontal disease often complain of bleeding gums, loose teeth, or a bad taste in the mouth. Patients may also complain of a dull pain after eating or a burning sensation in the gingival tissue. The presence of plaque or calculus on the teeth is not an indicator of periodontal disease. Sensitivity to cold can be the result of gingival recession, a reaction to acidic foods, and/or a reaction to some dental procedures. Discolored or stained teeth are not an indication of periodontal disease.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 393 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1b.causes of dental diseases 12. Healthy, normal teeth have a minor amount of mobility, recorded at: a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: C

Normal mobility is recorded at 0, whereas slight mobility is recorded at 1, moderate mobility is recorded at 2, and extreme mobility is recorded at 3.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 397 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.C.3.Describe how to chart conditions in the patient’s oral cavity and how to accurately transcribe the record 13. The primary cause of periodontal disease is: a. calculus b. caries c. genetics d. biofilm ANS: D

Bacterial biofilm is the primary cause of gingival inflammation and periodontal disease.

Calculus (mineralized biofilm) contributes to periodontal disease because biofilm adheres to calculus; however, bacterial biofilm is the primary cause. Caries and genetics are not etiological factors for periodontal disease, bacterial biofilm is.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 398

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1b.causes of dental diseases 14. Which instrument is designed to remove supragingival calculus from posterior teeth? a. Sickle scaler b. Contra-angle sickle scaler c. Chisel scaler d. File ANS: B

A contra-angle sickle scaler, which is angled at the shank, is designed to remove supragingival calculus from the posterior teeth. A sickle scaler is used to remove supragingival calculus from the anterior teeth. A chisel scaler is used to remove supragingival calculus in the contact areas of the anterior teeth. A file is used to crush or fracture extremely heavy calculus.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 399 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 15. Which instrument is designed to clean subgingival calculus from a specific tooth surface? a. Universal curette b. Gracey curette c. Chisel scaler d. File ANS: B

Gracey curettes, which have only one cutting edge, are used to clean subgingival calculus in a specific area. The universal curette has two cutting edges and is designed so that one instrument is able to adaptTtoEaSllTtB ooAthNsKuS rfE acLeL s. ETR he.cChO isM el scaler is used to remove supragingival calculus in the contact area of the anterior teeth. A file is used to crush or fracture extremely heavy calculus from any surface.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 400 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 16. Which statement is NOT true concerning ultrasonic scalers? a. The spray of water at the tip of the ultrasonic scaler prevents the tip from getting

too hot b. The ultrasonic scaler can be used safely for all patients. c. The ultrasonic scaler may injure pulp tissue. d. The spray of water continuously flushes debris and bacteria from the pocket.

ANS: B

The ultrasonic scaler is not safe for all patients; precautions must be considered for pediatric patients and patients with some medical conditions. The spray of water at the tip of the ultrasonic scaler prevents the tip from getting too hot and continuously flushes debris and bacteria from the pocket. The ultrasonic scaler may damage pulp tissue, if used incorrectly.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 403 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.l.oral prophylaxis 17. Scraping the gingival lining of the pocket to remove necrotic tissue is: a. gingival curettage

b. gingival debridement c. scaling d. root planing ANS: A

Gingival curettage involves scraping or cleaning the gingival lining of the pocket to remove necrotic tissue from the pocket wall. Gingival debridement removes deposits of calculus and plaque on the tooth, and reduces the bioburden within the pocket. Scaling is the removal of mineralized deposits from the teeth with the use of suitable instruments. Root planing smoothes the surface of roots by removing abnormal tooth tissue that is rough, contaminated, or permeated with calculus.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 404 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.w.root planing and curettage 18. The process of smoothing the surface of roots by removing abnormal tooth tissue is: a. curettage b. debridement c. scaling d. root planing ANS: D

Root planing smoothes the surface of roots by removing abnormal tooth tissue that is rough, contaminated, or permeated with calculus. Gingival curettage involves scraping or cleaning the gingival lining of the pocket to remove necrotic tissue from the pocket wall. Gingival debridement is performed to remove deposits of calculus and plaque on the tooth and to reduce the bioburden within the pocket. Scaling is the removal of mineralized deposits from the teeth with the use of suT itE abSleTiB nsAtrNuK mS enEtsL. LER.COM DIF: Recall REF: p. 400 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.w.root planing and curettage 19. Which postoperative instruction is advised following periodontal surgery? a. Limit smoking to once a day, preferably in the evening. b. Exercise regularly to improve blood flow. c. Refrain from brushing. d. Avoid alcoholic beverages, citrus fruit, and spicy foods.

ANS: D

After periodontal surgery, the patient should be advised to avoid alcoholic beverages, citrus fruit, and spicy foods. Additional postoperative instructions for the patient include not smoking, limiting physical activities, and gently cleaning the area with a soft toothbrush.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 407 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.1.Describe how to provide oral and written pre- and post-treatment instructions (e.g., prescribed medications) 20. The bleeding points produced by a pocket marker indicate the: a. location the dentist will need to place the sutures after surgery b. depth of the pockets and show the dentist where to place the initial incisions c. bottom of the gingival sulcus and show the dentist where the alveolar bone begins d. beginning of the gingival grooves

ANS: B

The bleeding points from the pocket maker indicate the pocket depth and, therefore, the points for the initial incisions in a gingivectomy. The bleeding points do not indicate suture placement. The bleeding points indicate the pocket depth but not the gingival grooves, or the position of the alveolar bone.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 401 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 21. Diseased gingival tissue is removed in which surgical procedure? a. Gingivectomy b. Gingivoplasty c. Flap surgery d. Osseous surgery ANS: A

Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue. Gingivoplasty involves the surgical reshaping and contouring of the gingival tissue. In flap surgery, the tissues are not removed but are pushed away from underlying tooth roots and alveolar bone. Osseous surgery involves removing a defect in bone.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 405 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 22. The surgical procedure that recontours and reshapes bone is: a. gingivectomy b. gingivoplasty c. flap surgery d. osteoplasty ANS: D

Osteoplasty is the surgical recontouring and reshaping of bone. Gingivectomy is the surgical removal of diseased gingival tissue. Gingivoplasty is the surgical reshaping and contouring of the gingival tissue. In flap surgery, gingival tissues are not removed but are pushed away from underlying tooth roots and alveolar bone.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 406 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 23. What percentage of the alveolar bone has been affected in generalized periodontal disease? a. More than 15% b. More than 20% c. More than 25% d. More than 30% ANS: D

When more than 30% of alveolar sites are affected, the periodontal disease is generalized.

When less than 30% (15%, 20%, or 25%) of alveolar sites are affected, the disease is localized.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 393

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.t.periodontal procedures 24. Which oral habit can accelerate bone loss? a. Mouth breathing b. Clenching or grinding c. Tongue thrusting d. Nail biting ANS: B

Clenching or grinding the teeth (bruxism) may accelerate bone loss. Mouth breathing, tongue thrusting, and nail biting are not associated with accelerated bone loss.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 397 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1b.causes of dental diseases 25. Smoking is a relatively insignificant risk factor for periodontal disease. Periodontal treatments

are equally effective in smokers and nonsmokers. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: B

Both statements are false. Smoking is a significant risk factor for periodontal disease; smokers experience a greater loss of attachment, more bone loss and more tooth loss, than nonsmokers.

Periodontal treatments are also less effective in smokers than in nonsmokers. . 3S94 J: LE 2 R.COM DIF: Recall REF: TpE TBANKSOEBL MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1b.causes of dental diseases 26. Which is the first step in removing a periodontal dressing? a. Irrigate the surgical area with warm saline. b. Use dental floss to remove dressing fragments. c. Cut the suture material free and remove sutures. d. Insert the spoon excavator under the dressing margin.

ANS: D

The first step in removing a periodontal dressing is to insert the spoon excavator under the margin to pry the dressing gently away from the tissue. The next step is to cut the suture material free and remove the sutures. Next, use dental floss to remove any fragments of dressing material from the interproximal surfaces. Irrigating the surgical area with warm saline is the final step.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 412 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.u.periodontal surgical dressing placement/removal 27. Which prevents a non-eugenol dressing from sticking to the gloves? a. Saline solution b. Rubbing alcohol c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Talc powder

ANS: A

Lubricating gloved fingers in saline solution (not rubbing alcohol, sodium bicarbonate, or talc powder) prevents non-eugenol paste from sticking to the gloves when preparing and placing a periodontal dressing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 411 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.u.periodontal surgical dressing placement/removal 28. Zinc oxide eugenol dressing: a. has a rapid setting time b. is the most widely used periodontal dressing c. can be wrapped in wax paper and frozen for future use d. is supplied as two pastes: a base and an accelerator ANS: C

Zinc oxide eugenol periodontal dressings can be wrapped in wax paper and frozen for future use. Zinc oxide eugenol dressings have a slow set, whereas non-eugenol dressings have a rapid set. Non-eugenol dressings are the most widely used and are supplied as two pastes.

Zinc oxide eugenol dressings are supplied as a powder and a liquid.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 408 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.C.1.a.periodontal surgical dressings 29. Which level of discomfort can the patient expect to experience after periodontal surgery? a. None to mild b. Mild to moderate c. Moderate to severe d. Severe to extreme ANS: B

Mild to moderate discomfort is associated with recent periodontal surgery, especially during the first 24 hours. The patient should be advised to contact the dentist if severe or extreme pain is experienced. When indicated, pain medication may be prescribed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 404 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.1.Describe how to provide oral and written pre- and post-treatment instructions (e.g., prescribed medications) MATCHING

Match each type of periodontal disease with its characteristics. a. Aggressive periodontitis b. Early periodontitis c. Moderate periodontitis d. Advanced periodontitis e. Necrotizing periodontal disease 1.

2.

3.

4.

Early bone loss with periodontal probing depths of 3 to 4 mm Characterized by fetid breath and a pseudomembrane covering Moderate to deep pockets involving furcations Normally occurs prior to age 35 years

5. Tooth mobility and pocket depths of 7 mm or greater 1. ANS: B DIF: Recall REF: p. 394 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 2. ANS: E DIF: Recall REF: p. 395 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 3. ANS: C DIF: Recall REF: p. 394 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 4. ANS: A DIF: Recall REF: p. 394 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures 5. ANS: D DIF: Recall REF: p. 394 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.n.periodontal procedures

OBJ: 2 OBJ: 2 OBJ: 2 OBJ: 2 OBJ: 2

TRUE/FALSE 1. A periodontal pocket forms when disease causes the normal gingival sulcus to become deeper

than normal.

ANS: T

A periodontal pocket forms when disease causes the normal gingival sulcus to become deeper than normal (a normal sulcus is 3 mm or less).

DIF: Recall REF: p. 396 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1b.causes of dental diseases 2. Kirkland knives are kidney shaped, double ended, and are commonly used for periodontal

surgery.

ANS: T

Kirkland knives, the most common knife used in periodontal surgery, are kidney shaped and usually double ended.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 401 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.t.periodontal procedures 3. A gingival graft is a procedure in which bone is taken from one side of the mouth and placed

in another area.

ANS: F

A gingival graft is a procedure in which gingival tissue is taken from one side of the mouth and placed in another area. A bone graft is a procedure in which bone is taken from one side of the mouth and placed in another area.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 405 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 4. Failure to identify periodontal disease at an early stage is a leading complaint in malpractice

lawsuits.

ANS: T

Failure to identify periodontal disease at an early stage is a leading complaint in malpractice lawsuits. It is the responsibility of the dental profession to educate and instruct patients regarding periodontal care.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 408 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.4.provide preventive oral healthcare information based on individual needs

Chapter 25: Endodontics Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which component of an endodontic examination is subjective? a. Medical history b. Dental history c. Radiographs d. Pain intensity ANS: D

The patient’s description of pain, including intensity, duration, and location, is the subjective portion of the examination, whereas the medical history, dental history, and radiographs are components of the objective examination.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 414 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 2. Which diagnosis corresponds to a patient who experiences pain with thermal stimuli? a. Necrosis b. Irreversible pulpitis c. Reversible pulpitis d. Normal sensation ANS: C

Reversible pulpitis occurs T wE heSnTthBeApNuK lpSisEiL rrL itE atR ed.fC roOmMdecay or moisture, causing the patient to experience pain with thermal stimuli. Eliminating the irritant and placing a sedative material may save the pulp. Necrosis is present if the tooth does not respond to sensory stimulus. A patient with irreversible pulpitis experiences lingering pain. It is abnormal to experience pain with thermal stimuli.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 416 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 3. The first line of treatment in pulpal therapy is: a. root canal therapy b. an attempt to stimulate pulpal regeneration c. surgery d. an attempt to remove the coronal portion of the pulp ANS: B

The first line of treatment in pulpal therapy is an attempt to stimulate pulpal regeneration.

Root canal therapy and surgery are more extreme measures, reserved as options if pulpal regeneration fails. A pulpotomy is usually indicated for vital primary teeth after the first line of treatment.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 421 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 4. Which endodontic file is the smallest?

a. b. c. d.

08 35 70 140

ANS: A

Endodontic files range in diameter from size 08, the smallest, to size 140, the largest. Files 35 and 70 are larger than file 08.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 416 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy 5. Which tool has dramatically improved the efficiency and effectiveness of endodontics? a. Spoon excavator b. Operating microscope c. Lentulo spiral d. Double-ended Glick ANS: B

The operating microscope has dramatically changed the field of endodontics, producing a more efficient, effective, and patient-friendly endodontic procedure. The spoon excavator, Lentulo spiral, and double-ended glick are valuable endodontic tools; however, the operating microscope improves the efficiency and effectiveness of each tool through magnification, illumination, visualization, and documentation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 416 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy 6. Gutta-percha points are made of: a. rubber b. paper c. nitrile d. resin ANS: A

Gutta-percha points are made of natural rubber, as opposed to paper, nitrile, or resin.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 421

OBJ: 8

7. After providing pain control, the next step in root canal therapy is: a. access preparation b. obturation c. isolation and disinfection of the operating field d. debridement and shaping of the canal ANS: C

After providing pain control, the next step in root canal therapy is isolation and disinfection of the operating field. Access preparation is the third step, followed by debridement and shaping of the canal. Obturation is the final step in root canal therapy.

DIF: Recall REF: pp. 421-422 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy

8. In which proportion of cases is root canal therapy successful? a. 25% b. 50% c. 80% d. 95% ANS: D

90% to 95% of root canal procedures are successful; only in exceptional cases is surgery required. Root canal therapy is successful in 95%, not 25%, 50%, or 80%, of endodontic cases.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 423 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 9. In which surgical procedure is the tip of a tooth root removed? a. Apicoectomy b. Retrograde restoration c. Root amputation d. Hemisection ANS: A

An apicoectomy is the removal of the apical portion of the root. A retrograde restoration is a root end filling. Root amputation occurs when one or more roots of a multirooted tooth are removed without removing the crown. A hemisection involves removing a lengthwise section of tooth, including portions of the crown and root. . 4S2T 3 BANKS OE BL J: LE 10R.COM DIF: Recall REF: TpE MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 10. The palpation vitality test involves which process? a. Ethyl chloride is applied to the surface of the tooth. b. The handle of the mouth mirror is used to tap on the incisal or occlusal surface. c. Firm pressure is applied to the mucosa above the apex of the root. d. A small piece of heated gutta-percha is placed on the surface of the tooth.

ANS: C

In a palpation test, firm pressure is applied to the mucosa above the apex of the root to ascertain vitality. Ethyl chloride is applied in a cold test. A percussion test involves tapping the incisal or occlusal surface of a tooth. A small piece of heated gutta-percha is placed on the surface of a tooth in a heat test.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 415 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.5.assist with and/or perform a vitality test COMPLETION 1. Another word for nonvital is ANS: necrotic

.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF: Recall REF: p. 415 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.5.assist with and/or perform a vitality test

is the word used to describe pulpal tissues that have become inflamed.

2.

ANS: Pulpitis DIF: Recall REF: p. 416 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 3. The pulp canal sealer is irrigated with

hypochlorite, commonly known as bleach.

ANS: sodium DIF: Recall REF: p. 420 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 4. A root canal sealer is cement that seals out the unfilled voids during the

process.

ANS: obturation DIF: Recall REF: p. 421 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 5. An indirect

_ cap is indicated when a thin partition of dentin is still intact.

ANS: pulp DIF: Recall REF: p. 421 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 6. Another word for a tooth that is still alive is a

tooth.

ANS: vital DIF: Recall REF: p. 414 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.5.assist with and/or perform a vitality test 7. A

endodontic ruler is used to measure the distance from the reference point to the apex of the tooth.

ANS: millimeter DIF: Recall REF: p. 422 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy

8. After the canal has been debrided and dried, the canal is ready to be

gutta-percha.

ANS: obturated

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or filled using

TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF: Recall REF: p. 423 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 9. A thin layer of

is placed on the tip of the pulp tester electrode when testing tooth

vitality.

ANS: toothpaste DIF: Recall REF: p. 423 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.5.assist with and/or perform a vitality test 10. An assistant selects the appropriate-sized gutta-percha point, called the

point.

ANS: trial DIF: Recall REF: p. 425 OBJ: 8 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy TRUE/FALSE 1. A final periapical radiograph is not needed as long as the completed canal has been filled and

temporized.

ANS: F

A minimum of four radiographic images is required for endodontic treatment, including a final periapical radiograph of the completed canal.

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OBJ: 3 DIF: Recall REF: p. 415 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.a.Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images 2. Irreversible pulpitis requires root canal therapy or extraction.

ANS: T

Irreversible pulpitis requires root canal therapy or extraction, as the pulp is incapable of healing.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 416 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 3. A pulpectomy is also referred to as a pulp cap.

ANS: F

A pulpectomy is also referred to as root canal therapy and involves the complete removal of the pulp.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 421 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.e.endodontic therapy 4. An initial radiograph is taken during the diagnostic stage of endodontics.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: T

An initial radiograph is taken of a tooth in question during the diagnostic stage of endodontics.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 415 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.A.2.a.Describe use and purpose of various intraoral and extraoral radiographic images 5. For a root canal to be successful, it is extremely important that the radiographic depiction of

tooth length is accurate and not distorted.

ANS: T

Accurate portrayal of tooth length is the number one criterion in an endodontic radiograph, to prevent perforation of the apex and overfilling or underfilling.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 422 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.b.i.Define factors that influence quality of the radiographic image

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Chapter 26: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. After an extraction, the patient is instructed to bite firmly on a pressure pack for at least: a. 5 minutes b. 2 hours c. 30 minutes d. 4 hours ANS: C

The patient is instructed to bite firmly on a sterile gauze pressure pack for at least 30, not 5, minutes after an extraction, to control bleeding. Clot formation usually occurs within 30 minutes; keeping the pressure pack in place for 2 to 4 hours is unnecessary.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.C.1.b.post-extraction dressings 2. The periosteal elevator is used to: a. retract the tissue away from the bone b. retract the cheek c. incise the periosteum d. remove the bony covering from an impacted tooth ANS: A

The periosteal elevator is uTseEdStT oB reA trN acKt S thE eL tiL ssE ueRa.wCaO yM from the bone. A high-volume evacuator (HVE) or cheek retractor should be used to retract the cheek. A scalpel is used to incise the periosteum. Surgical burs remove the bony covering from an impacted tooth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 439 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.i.extractions 3. Which accompanies a scalpel on the tray setup? a. Root tip picks b. Suture equipment c. Surgical mallet d. Rongeur ANS: B

Suture equipment accompanies a scalpel on the tray setup. When a scalpel is used, sutures are required to facilitate proper healing. Root tip picks, a surgical mallet, and a rongeur serve purposes unrelated to the scalpel.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 4. Alveolitis usually occurs within: a. 8 hours of an extraction b. 24 hours of an extraction c. 2 to 4 days of an extraction

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. 5 to 7 days of an extraction ANS: C

Alveolitis usually occurs within 2 to 4 days of an extraction, as opposed to within 8 hours, 24 hours, or 5 to 7 days.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.dd.treatment of dry socket 5. Alveolitis is: a. an odontogenic cyst b. bone sequestra c. tissue impaction d. a dry socket ANS: D

Alveolitis is a dry socket that evolves when a blood clot fails to form, or is lost prematurely, in the bony socket of an extracted tooth. Alveolitis is not a cyst, sequestra, or impaction.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.dd.treatment of dry socket 6. Approximately how many minutes are required to perform a surgical scrub? a. 3 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15 ANS: D

A surgical scrub requires approximately 15 minutes. The nails are first cleaned with running water and an orangewood stick. Then hands and forearms are doused and scrubbed with warm water, antimicrobial soap, and a brush for 7 minutes, rinsed, and then scrubbed with soap again (no brush the second time) for an additional 7 minutes, before being dried with a sterile towel. A surgical scrub cannot be adequately performed in less time (3, 7, or 10 minutes).

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 434 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.1.Demonstrate understanding of proper hand hygiene as used during intraoral and oral surgery procedures 7. Which instrument follows the rongeur in an alveoloplasty? a. Bone file b. Surgical scissors c. Tissue retractors d. Needle holder ANS: A

In an alveoloplasty, a bone file follows the rongeur to smooth the rough margins of the alveolus, as opposed to surgical scissors, tissue retractors, or a needle holder.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 437 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM 8. Which sutures do NOT require removal? a. Silk b. Polydioxanone c. Polyester fiber d. Nylon ANS: B

Polydioxanone sutures are absorbable and do not require removal, whereas silk, polyester fiber, and nylon sutures must be removed 5 to 7 days after placement.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.r.suture placement and removal 9. Which describes the surgical assistant’s role during surgery? a. Monitor the administration of nitrous oxide and intravenous sedation. b. Update the patient’s medical history and laboratory reports. c. Illuminate radiographic images. d. Take and record the patient’s baseline vital signs.

ANS: A

During surgery, the surgical assistant monitors the administration of nitrous oxide and intravenous sedation. Before surgery, the surgical assistant updates the patient’s records, takes baseline vital signs, and illuminates the radiographs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 432 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.3. Describe how to monitor and record patient’s response to drugs/medication COMPLETION 1. General dentists are trained in basic surgical procedures, and many do perform

extractions in their practices.

ANS: single-tooth DIF: Recall REF: p. 428 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery

means to rock back and forth.

2.

ANS: Luxate

DIF: Recall REF: p. 429 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.m.oral surgery 3. Contact with anything that is not sterile will break the chain of

and contaminate

the surgical area.

ANS: asepsis DIF: Recall REF: p. 429 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: ICE.II.A.3.Describe how to protect the patient and operator through the use of

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM barrier techniques, personal protective equipment (PPE), dental dam, and other safety items 4. An

tooth is one that has not erupted normally.

ANS: impacted DIF: Recall REF: p. 432 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.l.impactions 5. Absorbable

are readily absorbed by the body and do not have to be removed.

ANS: sutures DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.r.suture placement and removal 6. A patient should not rinse or spit during the first _

hours following an extraction. (Use

numeric characters only in your answer.)

ANS: 12 DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.1.Describe how to provide oral and written pre- and post-treatment instructions (e.g., prescribed medications) 7. 24 hours after an extraction, the patient can gently rinse with warm

solution.

ANS: saline DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.1.Describe how to provide oral and written pre- and post-treatment instructions (e.g., prescribed medications) 8. External

may be applied to the face, 24 hours after an extraction.

ANS: heat DIF: Recall REF: p. 433 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.1.Describe how to provide oral and written pre- and post-treatment instructions (e.g., prescribed medications) 9. The instrument used to loosen a tooth is an

.

ANS: elevator DIF: Recall REF: p. 429 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.i.extractions 10. After multiple teeth have been extracted, the dentist uses the ANS: rongeur

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to trim the alveolus.

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Chapter 27: Pediatric Dentistry Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Many pediatric dental offices are designed with: a. modern industrial interior décor b. separately enclosed operatories c. a quiet room d. wheeled stretchers instead of dental chairs ANS: C

Many pediatric dental offices have a quiet room for children whose behavior may upset other children. Most pediatric dental practices are designed with child-friendly interior décor, as opposed to modern industrial décor, to portray a cheerful, pleasant atmosphere. An open-bay concept with several dental chairs in one large area is preferred to separately enclosed operatories in pediatric dental office design. Most pediatric dental offices use dental chairs, as opposed to wheeled stretchers.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 443 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.2.Describe how to manage patients, including patients with special needs, during routine clinical procedures 2. Preventive dental health in the pediatric practice includes: a. orthodontics b. pulp therapy c. vitality testing d. replantation ANS: A

Prevention in pediatric dentistry includes preventive orthodontics in addition to oral hygiene, nutrition, fluoride therapy, sealants, and sports safety. Pulp therapy, vitality testing, and replantation are restorative, not preventive, procedures.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 3. The dentist will treat severely decayed primary teeth with: a. stainless steel crowns b. porcelain-fused-to-metal crowns c. gold crowns d. provisional coverage ANS: A

A stainless steel crown is the restoration of choice for severely decayed primary teeth.

Porcelain-fused-to-metal and gold crowns are used for permanent, not primary, teeth.

Provisional coverage is designed to be temporary and may not last until the tooth is lost through exfoliation; a stainless steel crown is the restoration of choice.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.z.stainless steel crown placement/removal

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4. Replantation is most successful when the avulsed tooth is repositioned within: a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 2 hours d. 4 hours ANS: A

The success rate for replantation of permanent teeth is highest when the teeth are repositioned within 30 minutes of the avulsion, as opposed to within 60 minutes, 2 hours, or 4 hours.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.2.Describe how to implement and/or assist with appropriate procedures for the management of dental emergencies 5. Which teeth are most frequently injured in children? a. Mandibular anterior b. Mandibular posterior c. Maxillary anterior d. Maxillary posterior ANS: C

In children, the most frequently injured teeth are the maxillary anterior teeth, specifically the central incisors. Mandibular teeth (anterior and posterior) and maxillary posterior teeth are less prone to traumatic injury than maxillary anterior teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.T 1.E i.sSpT ecB iaA l dNeK ntS alEhL eaL lthEnRe. edCs O (eM .g., due to physical status or age) 6. Which services are NOT routinely provided in a pediatric dental office? a. Preventive b. Restorative c. Orthodontic d. Cosmetic ANS: D

Cosmetic dentistry is not routinely provided in a pediatric dental office. The services routinely provided in a pediatric dental office include preventive and restorative procedures, as well as interceptive orthodontics.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 443

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

7. Which procedure promotes healing in a young permanent tooth with exposed pulp? a. Pulp capping b. Formocresol pulpotomy c. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy d. Pulpectomy ANS: A

Pulp capping, not pulpotomy or pulpectomy, is indicated to promote healing in a young permanent tooth with an exposed pulp.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM DIF: Recall REF: p. 447 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy 8. When sizing a stainless steel crown, it must: a. sit above the plane of occlusion b. fit loosely on the prepared tooth c. have both mesial and distal contact d. retract from the tooth at the cervical margin ANS: C

A stainless steel crown must have both mesial and distal contacts, fit snugly on the prepared tooth, and sit at approximately the same height as the adjacent teeth. The cervical margin of the crown is crimped to obtain a tight fit and prevent retraction.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 451 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.z.stainless steel crown placement/removal 9. A stainless steel crown is contoured along the: a. mesial contact b. distal contact c. cervical margin d. occlusal surface ANS: C

A stainless steel crown is contoured along the cervical margin, not the mesial contact, distal contact, or occlusal surface, to obtain a tight fit and proper cervical contour. . 4S51 J: LE 4 R.COM DIF: Recall REF: TpE TBANKSOEBL MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.z.stainless steel crown placement/removal 10. Which is NOT used in a pulpotomy procedure? a. Rubber dam b. High-speed handpiece c. Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) base d. Slow-speed handpiece ANS: B

A high-speed handpiece is not used in a pulpotomy; however, a rubber dam, zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) base, and slow-speed handpiece are required for this procedure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 450 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy 11. Which is NOT included in the dental history of a pediatric patient? a. Past dental problems and care b. Current oral hygiene habits c. General health background d. Fluoride intake ANS: C

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The general health background of a pediatric patient is documented in the medical, not dental, history. Past dental problems, current oral hygiene habits, and fluoride intake are documented in the dental history.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.c.legal significance of medical and dental histories 12. Common causes of dental injuries in children include: a. hyperactivity b. pagophagia c. bicycle accidents d. motor vehicle collision ANS: C

Common causes of dental injury to children include bicycle accidents, sports injuries, falling, and possible child abuse. Hyperactivity, pagophagia (chewing on ice), and motor vehicle collisions are not commonly associated with traumatic pediatric dental injury.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.i.special dental health needs (e.g., due to physical status or age) 13. When preparing a dental dam for pediatric restorations, it is best to isolate: a. the tooth receiving the restoration, as well as the distal tooth that receives the

clamp b. the tooth receiving the restoration c. the tooth receiving the restoration, as well as the mesial tooth that receives the

clamp

d. the tooth receiving the T reEstSoT raB tioAnN, K asSwEeL llLaE s tRh. eC adOjaMcent mesial and distal teeth ANS: A

When preparing a dental dam for pediatric restorations, it is best to isolate the tooth receiving the restoration, as well as the distal tooth that receives the clamp; the mesial tooth is not isolated.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 447 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.9.assist with and/or apply and remove the dental dam 14. The base of choice after the pulpotomy and before the restoration is: a. zinc phosphate b. zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) c. glass ionomer d. calcium hydroxide ANS: B

The base of choice after the pulpotomy and before the restoration is ZOE, not zinc phosphate, glass ionomer, or calcium hydroxide.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 450 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.B.1.g.varnishes, bases and liners 15. Rapport is best defined as a feeling of: a. euphoria

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. ease or comfort c. apprehension or uneasiness d. confusion or conflict ANS: B

Rapport is a feeling of ease or comfort, not euphoria, apprehension, uneasiness, confusion, or conflict.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.C.3.communicate effectively and establish good working relationships with patients and with other members of the dental care team 16. A child’s first dental appointment should coincide with which birthday? a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Sixth ANS: A

The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry asserts that a child’s first dental appointment should coincide with his or her first, not second, fifth, or sixth, birthday.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.i.special dental health needs (e.g., due to physical status or age) 17. Which is a physical restraint, designed to protect a challenging pediatric patient? a. Sedative premedication b. Nitrous oxide oxygen c. Anti-anxiety drugs d. Papoose board ANS: D

A papoose board is a physical restraint, which effectively minimizes the movements of a challenging pediatric patient. Sedative premedication, nitrous oxide oxygen, and anti-anxiety medications are pharmacologic, not physical, restraints.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.2.Describe how to manage patients, including patients with special needs, during routine clinical procedures 18. Which is NOT part of a new dental procedure introduction? a. Do b. Ask c. Tell d. Show ANS: B

“Ask” is not a technique used to introduce a new dental procedure. The “show-tell-do” introduction comforts patients experiencing a new or foreign procedure.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.D.1.Demonstrate understanding of how to calm and reassure apprehensive patients

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19. A cross-bite occurs when: a. a tooth erupts past the occlusal plane b. one or more teeth rotate mesiolingually or distobuccally c. maxillary teeth are positioned lingual to the mandibular teeth d. posterior teeth drift toward the midline ANS: C

A cross-bite occurs when maxillary teeth are positioned lingual to the mandibular teeth.

Supra-eruption occurs when a tooth erupts past the occlusal plane. Rotation occurs when one or more teeth rotate mesiolingually or distobuccally. Mesial drift is the natural tendency of teeth to drift toward the midline.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 20. A child with a fractured tooth should see a dentist: a. immediately b. if in pain c. after 3 to 6 weeks d. within 72 hours ANS: A

A child with a fractured tooth should see a dentist immediately, whether or not the child is in pain. While restorative treatment is often delayed 3 to 6 weeks to prevent further trauma to a fractured tooth, emergency care must be rendered immediately, not within 72 hours, to divert serious long-term consequences.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.2.Describe how to implement and/or assist with appropriate procedures for the management of dental emergencies 21. Autonomy is a defining framework for children in which age group? a. Birth to 2 years b. 3 to 5 years c. 6 to 11 years d. 12 to 20 years ANS: B

Autonomy is a defining framework for 3- to 5-year-old children; including these children in decision-making strengthens rapport. Dependence is a defining behavioral characteristic in children from birth to 2 years of age. Socialization is a prominent framework for 6- to 11-year-old children. Self-certainty is developed in children between the ages of 12 and 20.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 444

OBJ: 1

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

TRUE/FALSE 1. A pulpotomy is the complete removal of the coronal portion of the dental pulp.

ANS: T

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A pulpotomy is the complete removal of the coronal portion of the dental pulp.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 447 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy 2. The main objective of pediatric pulp therapy is to remove the pulp of the tooth.

ANS: F

The main objective of pediatric pulp therapy is to stimulate and preserve pulpal regeneration of a primary tooth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 447 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.h.endodontic therapy 3. A parent or legal guardian must provide consent (permission) for any dental treatment of a

child younger than 12 years of age.

ANS: F

Any child younger than 18, not 12, years of age must have parental (or legal guardian) consent before dental treatment.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.2.b.consent for routine and emergency office dental care 4. If a child is unable to hold an x-ray film, the assistant should hold the film in the child’s

mouth during a radiographic exposure.

ANS: F

The assistant never holds the film in a patient’s mouth during a radiographic exposure; the radiographic examination may have to be deferred until the child can cooperate.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.III.E.2.Identify safety measures to reduce operator x-radiation exposure 5. A 3-year-old is in a period of socialization and has overcome most of his or her fears.

ANS: F

The period of socialization occurs between ages 6 and 11 years.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 444 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.i.special dental health needs (e.g., due to physical status or age) 6. Parents and caregivers may have to take on more responsibilities for maintaining the daily

physical and oral health care of a child with special needs such as Down syndrome.

ANS: T

Individuals with intellectual challenges, such as Down syndrome, may require additional assistance from parents and caregivers to maintain physical and oral health needs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.i.special dental health needs (e.g., due to physical status or age)

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM 7. A child’s experience during the initial dental examination can establish his or her attitude

toward dental health for a lifetime.

ANS: T

The rapport developed with a child in his or her initial dental examination can establish a positive attitude toward dental health that will last a lifetime.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.C.3.communicate effectively and establish good working relationships with patients and with other members of the dental care team 8. Preventive orthodontic procedures for oral development should not begin until the permanent

teeth begin to erupt.

ANS: F

It is never too early to start evaluating a child’s oral and facial (orofacial) development.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 9. The goal of oral hygiene instructions for children is limited to brushing once a day.

ANS: F

By teaching children the habit of brushing effectively twice a day with fluoride toothpaste and flossing once a day, children will maintain proper oral habits throughout their lives.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.C.T 4.E prS ovTidBeApN reK veSnE tivLeL oE raR l h.eaCltO hcMare information based on individual needs 10. Mouth guards provide limited protection against most sports injuries of the teeth.

ANS: F

The fields of sports medicine and dentistry have documented the benefits of wearing protective face equipment during recreational sports that might injure the mouth area.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.i.special dental health needs (e.g., due to physical status or age) 11. A primary tooth that has been avulsed can be replanted with varying degrees of success.

ANS: F

Primary avulsed teeth are not usually replanted, but permanent teeth can be replanted with varying degrees of success.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.2.Describe how to implement and/or assist with appropriate procedures for the management of dental emergencies 12. Before the examination of a child, it is the parent’s responsibility to provide the child’s

medical history, which includes information about the child’s general health background.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: T

Children are too young to provide any medical history background. This information should be obtained from the parent or guardian before beginning the child’s dental examination.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 445 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.c.legal significance of medical and dental histories 13. The decline in dental caries over the years has been largely influenced by the use of fluoride.

ANS: T

Fluorides have played a major role in bringing about a decline in dental caries over the years.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.3.Explain the effects of all types of fluoride, the advantages of the various methods of administration, and the dangers and results of overdosage 14. Sealants are placed to protect the cutting surfaces of all incisors.

ANS: F

Sealants protect the grooved and pitted surfaces of teeth, especially the chewing surfaces of molars and premolars.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.o.placement of sealants 15. A space maintainer saves space for the eruption of permanent teeth.

ANS: T

A space maintainer saves space for the eruption of permanent teeth. It is often cemented in place and retained until the permanent tooth erupts.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 16. Interceptive orthodontics includes the extraction of primary teeth, the correction of a

cross-bite, and the correction of a jaw size discrepancy.

ANS: T

Interceptive orthodontics allows the dentist to intercede or correct problems as they are developing. These include the extraction of primary teeth that may be contributing to malalignment of the permanent dentition, correction of a cross-bite, and correction of a jaw size discrepancy.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 446 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 17. The two matrix systems most commonly used on primary teeth are the T-band and the

spot-welded band.

ANS: T

The two matrix systems used on primary teeth are the T-band and the spot-welded band.

Other bands, such as the universal matrix, are reserved for permanent teeth.

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DIF: Recall REF: p. 447 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.14.b.cavity preparation and restoration 18. Multisurface amalgam restorations on primary molars are generally considered the procedure

of choice for badly decayed teeth.

ANS: F

Stainless steel crowns are considered superior to large multisurface amalgam restorations in treating badly decayed primary teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 447 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.z.stainless steel crown placement/removal 19. Precontoured crowns are already festooned and contoured.

ANS: T

Precontoured crowns are already festooned and contoured.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.z.stainless steel crown placement/removal 20. Dentists typically delay restorative treatment to the pulp of an injured primary tooth for 1

year, until the child is capable of handling the procedure better.

ANS: F

Dentists will usually choose to delay restorative treatment that might involve further trauma to the pulp of an injured toothTfEoS r 3TtBoA6NwKeS ekEsL . TLhEisRg.ivCeO sM the pulp a greater opportunity to recover without additional injury.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 448 OBJ: 5 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.z.stainless steel crown placement/removal

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Chapter 28: Orthodontics Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is NOT a diagnostic record? a. Photograph b. Radiograph c. Dental cast d. Patient interview ANS: D

The patient interview is not a diagnostic record, although it is a valuable source of information for diagnosis and treatment planning. Orthodontic diagnostic records include photographs, radiographs, and dental casts that provide data related to tooth angulation, crowding, and unerupted teeth.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 456 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.VII.D.1.b.items included as part of a legally documented patient record 2. The orthodontist measures dentofacial proportions from which radiograph? a. Full-mouth survey b. Panoramic c. Cephalometric d. Bite-wing ANS: C

The orthodontist measures and evaluates dentofacial proportions from a cephalometric radiograph, not a full-mouth, panoramic, or bite-wing radiograph.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 456 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: RHS.I.B.1.c.ii.b) cephalometric radiography 3. Orthodontic fixed appliances are also known as: a. braces b. separators c. retainers d. aligners ANS: A

Fixed orthodontic appliances, also known as braces, are a combination of bands, brackets, arch wires, and auxiliaries. Separators, retainers, and aligners are removable, not fixed, appliances.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 459

OBJ: 6

4. Which opens tight interproximal contacts? a. Orthodontic band b. Bonded bracket c. Arch wire d. Separator

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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ANS: D

A separator is used to open tight interproximal contacts. Orthodontic bands require adequate space to fit around each tooth; separators help create this space when interproximal contacts are tight. Bonded brackets are attachment points for the arch wire, which serves as a pattern for correcting the dental arch.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 463

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

5. Dental arch wires are NOT held in place with: a. wire ligatures b. dental cement c. elastomeric ties d. continuous wire ties ANS: B

Because the arch wire is removed at each subsequent adjustment appointment, cement is not used to attach the arch wire. Dental arch wires are held in place with wire ligatures, elastomeric ties, and continuous wire ties.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 464

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. An orthodontic positioner is designed to: a. move the teeth b. retain the teeth in their desired position c. reposition the teeth during orthodontic treatment d. move and reposition the teeth during orthodontic treatment ANS: B

An orthodontic positioner is a custom appliance that fits over the patient’s dentition to retain the teeth in their desired position after orthodontic treatment is complete, but before the patient wears a retainer. Tooth movement and repositioning are accomplished before the orthodontic positioner is fabricated; the arch wire is used to guide the teeth into the correct position.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 466 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.2.Fabricate custom occlusal appliances and bleaching trays 7. Before seating an orthodontic band, cement is placed on the: a. brackets b. tooth c. outer surface of the band d. inner surface of the band ANS: D

Cement is placed on the inner, not outer, surface of an orthodontic band, as opposed to the brackets or tooth.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 468

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. Each step, EXCEPT one, prepares a tooth for bracket bonding. Which is the EXCEPTION? a. Etch, rinse, and dry the tooth.

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Polish the tooth with pumice slurry. c. Isolate the tooth using cotton rolls or retractors. d. Brush the tooth with a thin layer of sodium fluoride.

ANS: D

Fluoride interferes with bracket bonding and is not applied to prepare the tooth. In preparation for the bonding of brackets, the teeth are isolated using cotton rolls or retractors, polished with pumice slurry, etched, rinsed, and dried.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 469 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.b.bonding agents 9. After preparing the tooth for bonding brackets, a liquid sealant is applied: a. to the back of the bracket b. to the prepared tooth surface c. with the orthodontic scaler d. with the bracket placement tweezers ANS: B

After preparing the tooth for bonding brackets, a liquid sealant is applied to the prepared tooth surface. Bonding material, not liquid sealant, is applied to the bracket. The orthodontic scaler is used to place and move the bracket, not apply sealant. Bracket placement tweezers are used to transfer the bracket to the dentist, not apply sealant.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 469 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.III.D.2.b.bonding agents 10. Which is NOT used to seatTaEm arSbE anLdL?ER.COM SaTnBdiAbuNlK a. Firm finger pressure b. Band pusher c. Patient’s biting force d. Bite stick ANS: B

A band pusher is used to seat maxillary, not mandibular, bands. A mandibular band is initially seated with firm finger pressure. Then a bite stick (band seater) is placed along the buccal margins, and the patient bites down to seat the band into place.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 463

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

11. Which instrument is used to sever ligature ties when removing an arch wire? a. Ligature cutter b. Ligature director c. Distal end cutter d. Bird-beak pliers ANS: A

Ligature cutters are used to sever ligature ties. A ligature director guides the elastic or wire around the bracket. Distal end cutters sever the end of the arch wire. Bird-beak pliers are designed to form or bend wire.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 462

OBJ: 6

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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12. The use of orthodontic separators may be necessary before placing: a. arch wires b. bands c. bonded brackets d. ligatures ANS: B

Separators are needed to make space between teeth before placing bands, not arch wires, brackets, or ligatures.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 463

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

13. Elastics are commonly referred to as: a. springs b. rubber bands c. Os d. tubes ANS: B

Elastics are commonly referred to as rubber bands, not springs, Os, or tubes. Elastic chain ties are commonly referred to as Os. DIF: Recall

REF: p. 464

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

14. Orthodontic band removal is accomplished with specialized: a. tweezers b. pluggers c. cutters d. pliers ANS: D

Removal of bands is safely accomplished with band-removing pliers, not tweezers, pluggers, or cutters.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 466

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

15. A headgear appliance: a. controls growth b. is composed of three parts c. moves the maxillary first molar mesially d. levies intraoral pressure to achieve desired treatment results ANS: A

A headgear appliance is an orthopedic device that controls growth and tooth movement.

Headgear is composed of two, not three, parts: a face bow and a traction device. The face bow is designed to move the maxillary first molar distally, not mesially. Headgear levies extraoral, not intraoral, pressure to achieve desired treatment results.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 465

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

16. Which food is LEAST likely to break or weaken a fixed appliance?

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. b. c. d.

Ice Pasta Popcorn Chewing gum

ANS: B

Cooked pasta is a soft food; soft foods are unlikely to break or weaken a fixed appliance.

Sticky foods, like chewing gum, and hard foods, like ice and popcorn husks, should be avoided.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 465 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.B.2.Describe how to care for removable and nonremovable appliances and prostheses 17. Elastomeric ring separators can be left in place for up to: a. 5 days b. 7 days c. 2 weeks d. 4 weeks ANS: C

Elastomeric ring separators can be left in place for up to 2 weeks, as opposed to 5 days, 7 days, or 4 weeks.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 467 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 18. The orthodontic hemostat iTs E uS seT dB toA: NKSELLER.COM a. twist a ligature tie around a bracket b. cut the ligature wire c. contour or bend the arch wire d. remove elastomeric rings ANS: A

The orthodontic hemostat helps twist a ligature tie around a bracket. A ligature cutter cuts the ligature wire. Three-prong pliers contour or bend the arch wire, while an orthodontic scaler aids in the removal of elastomeric rings.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 462

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

19. Malocclusion is: a. tooth contact when biting and chewing b. the presence of primary teeth in a permanent dentition c. an abnormal relationship of the maxillary teeth to the mandibular teeth when

occluded d. the habitual occlusion or bite of opposing teeth when the mandible is in centric relation ANS: C

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Malocclusion is an abnormal relationship of the maxillary teeth to the mandibular teeth when occluded. Tooth contact during biting or chewing is evidence of functional occlusion. Centric occlusion is the habitual occlusion or bite of opposing teeth when the mandible is in centric relation. The presence of primary teeth in a permanent dentition may lead to malocclusion; however, malocclusion is defined as an abnormal relationship between the maxillary and mandibular teeth when occluded.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 454 OBJ: 1 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 20. Angle’s classification is based on the relative position of which permanent teeth? a. Central incisors b. First molars c. Second molars d. First premolars ANS: B

The relationship of the permanent first molars is the basis of angle’s classification of occlusion and malocclusion. The incisors, premolars, and second molars are not used to gauge angle’s classification.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 454 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 21. Thumb sucking is permissible before the permanent teeth are in position because retained

primary teeth force permanent teeth to erupt out of alignment. a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

EeSrT b. Both the statement andTth eaBsoAnNaKreScEoL rrL ecEt R bu.tCnO otMrelated. c. The statement is correct, but the reason is not. d. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.

ANS: B

Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related. Thumb sucking is not considered a problem until the permanent teeth are in position. Primary teeth retained too long may force the permanent teeth to erupt out of alignment or to be impacted.

DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 459 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 22. Space maintainers are a function of which type of orthodontic treatment? a. Preventive b. Limited c. Interceptive d. Comprehensive ANS: A

Space maintainers are a function of preventive, not limited, interceptive, or comprehensive, orthodontic treatment because space maintainers are designed to minimize the severity of future orthodontic problems.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 459

OBJ: 4

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 23. How many photographs are taken for the diagnostic record? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five ANS: D

A total of five photographs are taken for each diagnostic record: two extraoral and three intraoral photographs.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 456 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.I.D.1.Describe how to prepare for and assist with the collection of diagnostic data 24. Each customized aligner (e.g., Invisalign) tray is worn for: a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 1 month d. 2 months ANS: B

For optimal results, each customized aligner tray is worn for 2 weeks, as opposed to 1 week, 1 month, or 2 months.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 459 OBJ: 4 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.2.fabricate custom occlusal appliances and bleaching trays 25. After debanding, residual cTeE mS enTtBisAeN asKilS yEreLmLoE veRd.w thMa/an: CiO a. abrasion strip b. prophy cup and pumice slurry c. ultrasonic scaler d. soft toothbrush and firm pressure ANS: C

Residual cement is easily removed with an ultrasonic scaler. An abrasion strip is used to contour and finish composite or amalgam restorations, not remove cement. Residual cement is tenacious and not easily removed with a prophy cup or soft toothbrush; a hand or ultrasonic scaler is required.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 466 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.7.assist with, place, and/or remove temporary cement MATCHING

Match each angle classification with its correct arch relationship. a. Class I b. Class II, division 1 c. Class II, division 2 d. Class III e. Normal occlusion

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TESTBANKSELLER.COM 1. Mesiobuccal (MB) of the maxillary first molar occludes distal to the MB groove of the lower

first molar, and maxillary anteriors protrude 2. MB of the maxillary first molar occludes with the MB cusp of the lower first molar 3. MB of the maxillary first molar occludes distal to the MB groove of the lower first molar;

maxillary centrals are retruded and lateral incisors are tipped 4. MB of the maxillary first molar occludes mesial to the MB groove of the lower first molar 5. MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with the MB groove of the mandibular first

molar 1. ANS: B DIF: Recall REF: p. 455 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 2. ANS: A DIF: Recall REF: p. 455 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 3. ANS: C DIF: Recall REF: p. 455 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 4. ANS: D DIF: Recall REF: p. 455 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion 5. ANS: E DIF: Recall REF: p. 455 OBJ: 2 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.V.A.1.c.classifications and importance of occlusion TRUE/FALSE 1. Indications for orthodontic treatment include psychosocial influences, oral function, and

dental disease.

ANS: T

Orthodontic treatment may be necessary as a result of the following conditions: psychosocial influences, such as self-esteem; oral function, such as chewing problems; and dental disease, such as dental decay, which affects malocclusion.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 454

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. The main purpose of the orthodontic clinical examination is to give the patient the cost of

treatment and evaluate the patient’s oral hygiene before placing braces.

ANS: F

The purpose of the orthodontic clinical examination is to document and evaluate the facial aspects, occlusal relationship, and functional characteristics of the jaw.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 456

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. In a profile examination, the orthodontist examines the face in profile to determine whether

the jaws are proportionately positioned, to evaluate lip protrusion, and to evaluate the vertical and facial proportions.

ANS: T

In a profile examination, the orthodontist examines the face in profile to determine whether the jaws are proportionately positioned, to evaluate lip protrusion, and to evaluate the vertical and facial proportions. This is part of the facial form analysis—the visual examination of the face.

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DIF: Recall

REF: p. 456

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

4. Giving the patient the cost estimate is part of the case presentation.

ANS: T

In the case presentation, the orthodontist studies the information gathered and develops a treatment plan and cost estimate for the patient in preparation for the case presentation.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 457 OBJ: 3 MSC: CDA Exam: VII.C.4.explain fees charged to a patient as directed by the dentist 5. Correction of an open bite is an example of limited orthodontic treatment.

ANS: T

Limited orthodontic treatment may be directed at the only existing problem, such as an open bite.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 459

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. A serial extraction of primary or permanent teeth is performed only when more conservative

methods of treatment will not be effective.

ANS: T

Serial extractions are performed to correct overcrowding of teeth in the arch and should only be done after all conservative methods of treatment are ruled as ineffective.

DIF: Recall REF: TpE . 4S5T 9 BANKS OE BJ:LLE 4 R.COM MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.B.2.p.interceptive orthodontics 7. Through the use of fixed appliances, a tooth can be moved in four directions.

ANS: F

Through the use of fixed appliances, a tooth can be moved in six directions: mesially, distally, facially, lingually, apically, and occlusally.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 460

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. The two main methods of separation are steel separating springs and elastomeric separators.

ANS: T

The two main methods of separation are steel separating springs and elastomeric separators.

Both types work on the same principle.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 463

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

9. When seating a mandibular molar band, the band pusher is placed along the buccal margin

and the patient’s biting force is used to drive the band into place.

ANS: F

A band pusher is used on the mesiobuccal and distolingual edges to drive the band into place on maxillary teeth.

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DIF: Recall

REF: p. 463

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

10. Orthodontic cement should be mixed thicker than the cement for an inlay or a crown.

ANS: T

Orthodontic cement should be mixed thicker than the cement for an inlay or a crown. This is because the escape of excess from the margins of the band is not the same as that from beneath a cast restoration.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 463 OBJ: 6 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.II.C.7.assist with, place and/or remove temporary cement 11. The most commonly used bracket is the edge-wise bracket.

ANS: T

The most commonly used bracket is the edge-wise bracket.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 463

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

12. The arch wire serves as a pattern for changing the dental arch.

ANS: T

The arch wire serves as a pattern for changing the dental arch. By bending the arch wire, the tooth or teeth are caused to move in the desired direction.

DIF: Recall

REF: p. 464

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

13. A positioner is an orthodontic appliance cemented in place to hold space for the eruption of a

permanent tooth.

ANS: F

A positioner is a custom appliance made of rubber or pliable acrylic that fits over the patient’s dentition after orthodontic treatment has been completed to retain the teeth in their desired position and permit the alveolus to rebuild support around the teeth before the retainer is placed.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 466 OBJ: 7 MSC: CDA Exam: GC.IV.B.2.fabricate custom occlusal appliances and bleaching trays

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Chapter 29: The Job Search Robinson & Bird: Essentials of Dental Assisting, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Travel opportunities are associated with which career? a. Education b. Private practice c. Sales representation d. Public health and government ANS: C Sales representatives for dental manufacturing or supply companies often enjoy various travel opportunities. Careers based in education, private practice, or public health are not usually associated with travel.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 474

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. The first step in acquiring employment is: a. creating an interesting cover letter b. determining personal needs and goals c. researching career opportunities d. marketing your skills ANS: B Determining your personal needs and professional goals is the first step in acquiring TESTBANKSELLER.COM employment. Researching career opportunities will then narrow potential areas of interest, after needs and goals have been established. Marketing your skills and creating an interesting cover letter are important steps in acquiring employment; however, the first step is to determine personal needs and goals.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 473

OBJ: 2

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. A cover letter is used to: a. communicate a maximum amount of information through a minimum number of words b. convince a prospective employer that it would be worth his or her time to interview you c. introduce yourself to the potential employer and create interest in your résumé d. highlight your educational and professional accomplishments ANS: C A cover letter is used to introduce yourself and create interest in your résumé. A résumé communicates a maximum amount of information through a minimum number of words to convince a prospective employer that it would be worth his or her time to interview you.

Educational and professional accomplishments are traditionally highlighted in a résumé, as opposed to a cover letter.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 475

OBJ: 5

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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4. Information included in the heading of the résumé includes your: a. name and address b. age and gender c. birth date and telephone number d. marital status and number of children ANS: A The heading of the résumé should include your name, address, and telephone number. Age, gender, birth date, marital status, and number of children of an applicant are not to be included on a résumé; in fact, it is illegal for an employer to ask for this information.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 477

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

5. Under federal and state laws, employers cannot ask interview questions regarding: a. references b. child-care arrangements c. citizenship or appropriate alien status d. termination of previous employment ANS: B Potential employers may not question an applicant concerning child-care arrangements; however, questions pertaining to references, citizenship, or the termination of previous employment are permissible under state and federal regulations.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 478

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. Which is most appr opriate for a professional interview? a. Conservative business attire b. Dental assisting uniform c. Smart casual attire d. Formal wear ANS: A Conservative business attire is recommended to make a positive impression at a professional job interview. Scrubs, a dental assisting uniform, casual attire, and formal wear are inappropriate.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 479

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

7. When listing work experience on a résumé: a. begin with your least recent work experience b. provide precise dates of your previous employment (date, month, and year) c. provide employers’ names and locations d. exclude your responsibilities and accomplishments ANS: C

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Employers’ names and locations are included when listing work experience on a résumé.

Employment is listed in chronological order, beginning with the most, not least, recent position. Precise dates of previous employment are not necessary; provide the month and year only. When listing work experience on a résumé, include your responsibilities and accomplishments.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 477

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. When should you plan to arrive for a job interview? a. 5 minutes before the scheduled time b. 15 minutes before the scheduled time c. Precisely at the scheduled time d. Just after the scheduled time ANS: B Plan to arrive 15, not 5, minutes before a scheduled job interview. Arriving at or just after the scheduled time of an interview is unprofessional.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 478| p. 479 MSC: CDA Exam: NA

OBJ: 6

9. Which portrays a positive image during an interview? a. Maintain direct eye contact. b. Speak only when spoken to. c. Do not ask questions. d. Speak slowly and loudly.

ANS: A When interviewing, create a positive and professional impression by maintaining direct eye contact, smiling, and offering a firm handshake. Introduce yourself at the beginning of the interview and thank the interviewer at the end of the interview. Be prepared for a variety of questions, feel free to ask questions yourself, and speak at a normal rate and in a normal tone.

DIF: Recall REF: p. 478| p. 479 MSC: CDA Exam: NA

OBJ: 6

10. Severance pay is: a. the equivalent of salary for the notice period b. issued if you terminate your employment for medical reasons c. withheld if your employer terminates your employment d. typically paid 2 to 4 weeks after the final paycheck ANS: A Severance pay is the equivalent of salary for the notice period. Severance is paid, not withheld, if your employment is terminated by your employer, but it is not issued when you terminate your employment. Severance pay is typically included in the final paycheck, not paid 2 to 4 weeks after the final paycheck.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 481

OBJ: 8

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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11. A résumé should: a. have 1-inch margins on all sides b. include your birth date and the names of your family members c. be as long as needed to list all of your skills and certifications d. include names of references ANS: A A résumé should have 1-inch margins on all sides. A résumé does not include your birth date or personal family information and should not exceed one page in length. Names of references are not included on a résumé; a separate page can be submitted if requested with the names of references and their contact information.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 481

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

12. Most employers prefer which social networking service? a. Twitter b. Facebook c. LinkedIn d. Google+ ANS: C Most employers prefer LinkedIn, which is seen as the most businesslike and professional of the social networks. Twitter, Facebook, and Google+ are valuable social media tools for communication and networking, but LinkedIn provides a direct connection with employers.

DIF:

Recall

RETFE: ST p.B4A 74NKSELLOEBRJ. : C4OM

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

13. Which is the best way to exit a job interview? a. “I look forward to hearing from you.” b. “How soon can I expect to hear from you?” c. “If you have no further questions, I would like to thank you for your time.” d. “Based on this interview, do you feel I could be successful in this position?”

ANS: A The best way to finish a job interview is to say, with a final handshake and direct eye contact, “I look forward to hearing from you.” It’s appropriate to ask about the timeline for a response, to thank the interviewer for their time, and to make inquiries regarding the interviewer’s perspective in a job interview; however, the best way to conclude the interview is by stating “I look forward to hearing from you.”

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 479

OBJ: 6

14. Which part of the interview is most critical? a. Applicant questions b. Salary negotiations c. Final handshake d. First 10 minutes ANS: D

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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The first 10 minutes of an interview is the most critical part; initial, lasting impressions are formed in the first 10 minutes. Applicant questions, salary negotiations, and the final handshake are important, but the most critical part of an interview is the first 10 minutes.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 479

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

15. Which employment lead also serves as an inexpensive background check? a. Professional organizations b. Social media c. Newspaper advertisements d. Employment agencies ANS: B Social media is a powerful tool when looking for employment, but it also functions as a fast and inexpensive background check for employers. Professional organizations and newspaper advertisements are valuable as employment leads but not as background checks.

Employment agencies usually conduct a background check on individuals in the agency, but they require a fee for services; social media provides a fast, free background check for potential employers.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 474

OBJ: 4

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

16. A follow-up (thank-you) letter should: a. be sent within 72 hours of an interview b. reaffirm your interest in the position c. be addressed to the practice d. consist of one or twoTcE onScT isB eA seNnK teS ncEeL s LER.COM ANS: B A follow-up thank-you letter should reaffirm your interest in the position, should be sent within 48 (not 72) hours of the interview, should be addressed to the person with whom you interviewed (not the practice), and should be thoughtful and sincere, rather than concise.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 480

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

17. Employee compensation varies depending on experience, education, and skills. Benefits increase the total value of a compensation package. a. Both statements are true. b. Both statements are false. c. The first statement is true; the second is false. d. The first statement is false; the second is true.

ANS: A Both statements are true. Education, experience, and skills are variables that determine the value, and ultimately the compensation, of a potential employee. The total dollar value of a compensation package is increased with the addition of a benefits package.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 480

OBJ: 7

18. Which is a professional approach to resignation?

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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a. b. c. d.

Vocalize complaints and frustrations.

Notify each patient personally.

Discuss new employment opportunities with coworkers.

Give at least 2 weeks’ notice.

ANS: D Exiting employment professionally requires adequate notice of at least 2 weeks. Vocalizing complaints and frustrations, discussing your resignation with patients, and chatting about new employment opportunities are unprofessional.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 481

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

TRUE/FALSE 1. To teach in a dental assisting program accredited by the American Dental Association (ADA), you must be certified by the Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) and working toward a bachelor’s degree.

ANS: T To teach in a dental assisting program accredited by the American Dental Association (ADA), you must be certified by the Dental Assisting National Board (DANB) and working toward a bachelor’s degree.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 474

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

2. Many university-based hT osEpS ital s hAaN vK e aSfEuL llyLE staRf. feC dO deMntal clinic.

TB ANS: T A fully staffed dental clinic is a common feature of many university-based hospitals.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 474

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

3. A résumé communicates a maximum amount of information through a minimum number of words.

ANS: T A résumé communicates a maximum amount of information through a minimum number of words.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 476

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

4. A résumé’s professional objective should be very specifically stated.

ANS: F The professional objective is a clear statement outlining the type of job you are seeking; however, it should not be too narrowly stated, because that could limit your job opportunities.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 477

OBJ: 5

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA

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5. References are always listed on a résumé.

ANS: F References are not required on a résumé.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 478

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

6. Any form of volunteer service may be included on a résumé.

ANS: T Volunteer service of any kind can be included on a résumé.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 478

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

7. A compensation package includes the salary plus additional benefits provided by the dentist.

ANS: T Salary plus additional benefits comprise a compensation package.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 480

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

8. The applicant should conclude the job interview.

ANS: F The prospective employer (or office manager) concludes the interview.

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DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 479

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

9. Salary should not be discussed during an interview.

ANS: F Although salary and benefits are not the only factors to be considered when you are accepting a job, they are very important issues that need to be clarified in an interview.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 480

OBJ: 7

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

10. A résumé should not have any empty spaces.

ANS: F The résumé should be easy to read and have a lot of white space.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 476

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

11. An interviewer may inquire into reasons for an applicant’s termination from past jobs.

ANS: T An interviewer may inquire into reasons for an applicant’s past terminations.

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DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 479

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

12. If you are uncomfortable informing your employer of your intentions to resign, it is okay to ask a respected coworker to do it for you.

ANS: F The employer should always learn of your intention to resign directly from you, not from another employee in the office.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 481

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

13. Severance pay is a fee paid to an employment agency.

ANS: F Severance pay, which is the equivalent of salary for the notice period, is paid to you if your employer terminates your employment.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 481

OBJ: 8

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

14. When considering your personal career goals, you should ask yourself what is important to you in a job and form a list of your expectations.

ANS: T Determining what is important to you in a job can help you reach your personal career goals.

DIF:

Recall

RETFE: ST p.B4A 73NKSELLOEBRJ. : C2OM

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

15. The primary purpose of the résumé is to convince a prospective employer that you are a qualified candidate for employment and that he or she should hire you without an interview.

ANS: F The primary purpose of the résumé is to convince a prospective employer that you are a qualified candidate for employment and that he or she should take the time to interview you for the position.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 476

OBJ: 5

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

16. A follow-up letter is composed after you have been offered a job.

ANS: F A follow-up letter is composed soon after an interview for a potential job, to thank the interviewer and let him or her know you are interested in the position.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 480

OBJ: 6

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

17. Working as an insurance agent is an employment opportunity for a dental assistant.

ANS: T

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Dental insurance companies are continually looking for talented dental assistants with knowledge of the processing of insurance claims and customer service.

DIF:

Recall

REF: pp. 474-475

OBJ: 3

MSC: CDA Exam: NA

18. The most common time frame for notifying your employer of your resignation is 1 month.

ANS: F The most common time frame for notifying your employer about leaving your job is 2 weeks, not 1 month.

DIF:

Recall

REF: p. 481

OBJ: 8

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MSC: CDA Exam: NA