TEST BANK ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION
Test Bank Questions with Complete Solutions
Essentials of Nursing Leadership & Management 7th Weiss Test Bank Chapter 1: Characteristics of a Profession 1. Professionalism has been historically difficult to define. Early definitions of professionalism included which of the following characteristics? A. Expertise B. Empathy C. Ethical and moral values D. Honesty Answer: 2. A registered nurse (RN) who usually uses public transportation has not renewed her driver’s license. During a recent car trip with a friend, she took over driving when her friend became tired. Which of the following is true? A. She has acted in a professional manner. B. She may lose her RN license for driving without a license. C. She should renew her driver’s license as soon as possible. D. Under the circumstances, she will not be faulted for driving without a license. Answer:
3. An RN visits a middle school class to discuss the profession of nursing. Which of the following statements is true of nursing? A. Nurses must graduate from nursing school in order to obtain a license to practice. B. Nursing is a vocation that requires continuous education. C. Nurses function autonomously within their scope of practice. D. Nurses must adhere to expected professional behaviors in their lives. Answer:
4. An RN is reviewing professional behavior expectations with a group of new nurses. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching? A. It is OK to discuss your days at work on social media. B. When you are passionate about a topic, speak up in blogs and forums. C. Your behavior outside of the practice setting is up to you and will not impact your license. D. Nurses may lose their licenses for unprofessional actions. Answer: 5. An RN is explaining to a student nurse what professionalism in nursing means. Which of the following statements, if made by the student nurse, demonstrates teaching has been successful?
A. “Commitment to others means I should be honest and accountable for my actions.” B. “I should encourage my fellow nurses to talk when they are having a bad day.” C. “I should be flexible with myself and my fellow nurses when it comes to the dress code.” D. “If I need a day off, I should promptly call in sick to give my manager plenty of time to find a replacement.” Answer:
6. As the definition of nursing evolved, which of the following nurse theorists focused on the uniqueness of nursing? A. Florence Nightingale B. Virginia Henderson C. Martha Rogers D. Abraham Maslow Answer:
7. Recent polls have placed nursing as one of the most trusted professions because of which of the following? A. Nurses engage in lifelong learning. B. Nurses abide by a dress code. C. Nurses have the skills needed to care for diverse populations. D. Nurses must pass the NCLEX in order to obtain a license to practice. Answer:
8. The main purpose of the NCLEX examination is which of the following? A. Ensure individuals have passed nursing classes. B. Provide assurance that the nursing schools are part of the service agency. C. Enable potential students to determine the best nursing schools. D. Ensure the safety of the public. Answer:
9. A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true? A. Upon graduation from nursing school, she can use the title RN. B. Because the NCLEX is a national examination, her RN license will allow her to practice in all states and territories of the United States.
C. If her home state participates in the compact agreement, she may practice in other states participating in the agreement, but should renew her license in her home state. D. The RN license is a permissive license. Answer:
10. The Social Security Act of 1935 impacted public health nursing because it contained provisions for care for which of the following vulnerable populations? A. Disabled children B. Mentally disabled C. Older adults D. Opioid addicts Answer:
11. The decades between the 1960s and 1980s brought about many changes in nursing. Which of the following is a reason for advances in nursing? A. Decreased demand for health care B. Development of specialty care disciplines C. Gender discrimination D. Advances in technology leading to more generalized care Answer:
12. Which of the following is a challenge the profession of nursing faced? A. Because of fear, nursing contributed to the stigma of AIDS in the 1980s. B. During the Korean War, nursing practice grew in field hospitals where supplies and equipment were abundant. C. After the Vietnam War, many nurses were frustrated with the lack of independent functioning of nurses when they returned home. D. Ethical dilemmas led to a decline in the number of hospice nurses. Answer:
13. A nurse supervisor is planning an educational session for her staff regarding improving teamwork among different generations. Which of the following recommendations will reduce potential generational conflicts? A. Involve only millennials in technology decisions. B. Focus on the team as a whole, rather than individual generations. C. Involve only the baby boomers in technology decisions. D. Practice active and assertive communication techniques.
Answer:
14. Which of the following is a reason for increasing the use of advanced practice nurses? A. A 2010 Institute of Medicine report encouraged nurses to practice to the full extent of their education. B. Advanced practice nurses serve as an extension of physicians. C. The National League for Nursing promotes the master of science in nursing (MSN) as the terminal degree for nurse practitioners. D. Advanced practice nurses do not have the skills to diagnose. Answer:
15. Which of the following is a reason for conflicts in professional nursing today? A. Some nurses who had planned to retire but find themselves forced to continue working because of the current economic situation B. Balancing state practice acts, codes of ethics, and standards of practice C. Advances in technology D. Multiple generations in the workforce Answer:
Weiss Chapter 1: Characteristics of a Profession—Answers and Rationales
1. Professionalism has been historically difficult to define. Early definitions of professionalism included which of the following characteristics? A. Expertise B. Empathy C. Ethical and moral values D. Honesty ANS: A Page: 4
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Older definitions of professionalism only look at knowledge and expertise. This is incorrect. Empathy is a modern characteristic of professional behavior. This is incorrect. A code of ethics and moral values are more recent characteristics of professionalism. This is incorrect. Honesty is a more recent characteristic of professional behavior.
2. A registered nurse (RN) who usually uses public transportation has not renewed her driver’s license. During a recent car trip with a friend, she took over driving when her friend became tired. Which of the following is true? A. She has acted in a professional manner. B. She may lose her RN license for driving without a license. C. She should renew her driver’s license as soon as possible. D. Under the circumstances, she will not be faulted for driving without a license. ANS: B Page: 5
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Professionalism requires nurses to avoid illegal behaviors. Driving without a license is illegal. This is correct. Driving without a license is deemed an unprofessional and illegal behavior for which a nurse may lose his or her license. This is incorrect. It is up to the individual to decide if she should renew her license. This is incorrect. Driving without a valid driver’s license is illegal, and the nurse may lose her nursing license.
3. An RN visits a middle school class to discuss the profession of nursing. Which of the following statements is true of nursing? A. Nurses must graduate from nursing school in order to obtain a license to practice. B. Nursing is a vocation that requires continuous education. C. Nurses function autonomously within their scope of practice. D. Nurses must adhere to expected professional behaviors in their lives. ANS: C Page: 4
A.
B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Nurses must graduate from a nursing program to be eligible to take the NCLEX examination. Nurses must pass the NCLEX examination in order to be eligible to obtain a license to practice. Passing the NCLEX examination demonstrates the nurse has received specialized education and training and enables the nurse to obtain a license to practice in the state. This is incorrect. Although lifelong learning is required in nursing, nursing is a profession rather than a vocation. This is correct. Rather than being assistants to doctors, nurses are able to function autonomously within their scope of practice. Nurses formulate and deliver a plan of care for clients, utilizing nursing judgment and critical thinking skills to make decisions in client care. This is incorrect. The state boards of nursing expect nurses to uphold professional standards of behavior in their practice and personal lives in order to maintain their license.
4. An RN is reviewing professional behavior expectations with a group of new nurses. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching? A. It is OK to discuss your days at work on social media. B. When you are passionate about a topic, speak up in blogs and forums. C. Your behavior outside of the practice setting is up to you and will not impact your license. D. Nurses may lose their licenses for unprofessional actions. ANS: D Page: 5
A. B. C.
Feedback This is incorrect. Inappropriate use of social media may lead to a nurse losing his or her license. This is incorrect. Emotionally charged blogs or forums may be deemed unprofessional behavior. This is incorrect. Nurses are expected to behave in a professional manner in both their personal and professional lives.
D.
This is correct. State boards on nursing elaborate the expected professional behaviors, and nurses can lose their licenses for unprofessional or illegal behavior.
5. An RN is explaining to a student nurse what professionalism in nursing means. Which of the following statements, if made by the student nurse, demonstrates teaching has been successful? A. “Commitment to others means I should be honest and accountable for my actions.” B. “I should encourage my fellow nurses to talk when they are having a bad day.” C. “I should be flexible with myself and my fellow nurses when it comes to the dress code.” D. “If I need a day off, I should promptly call in sick to give my manager plenty of time to find a replacement.” ANS: A Page: 5
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Commitment to others involves accountability for one’s actions, lifelong learning, and commitment to colleagues. This is incorrect. Gossip and negative comments should be avoided. This is incorrect. Dress codes should be followed according to the employer’s expectations. This is incorrect. Honesty is part of commitment to others and professionalism. When a day off is needed, a personal day or vacation day should be taken. One should only call in sick when one is really sick.
6. As the definition of nursing evolved, which of the following nurse theorists focused on the uniqueness of nursing? A. Florence Nightingale B. Virginia Henderson C. Martha Rogers D. Abraham Maslow ANS: B Page: 5
A. B. C.
Feedback This is incorrect. Florence Nightingale’s description of nursing involved putting the client in the best place for healing. This is correct. Virginia Henderson’s definition of nursing focused on its uniqueness. This is incorrect. Martha Rogers upheld the importance of all people, not just the
D.
ill. This is incorrect. Abraham Maslow was not a nurse theorist.
7. Recent polls have placed nursing as one of the most trusted professions because of which of the following? A. Nurses engage in lifelong learning. B. Nurses abide by a dress code. C. Nurses have the skills needed to care for diverse populations. D. Nurses must pass the NCLEX in order to obtain a license to practice. ANS: C Page: 5
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although nurses do engage in lifelong learning, this is not the main reason why recent polls show nursing to be one of the most trusted professions. This is incorrect. Although nurses do abide by a dress code according to their organization, this is not the main reason why recent polls show nursing to be one of the most trusted professions. This is correct. Nurses are one of the most trusted professions because they have the knowledge, expertise, and ability to care for diverse populations. This is incorrect. Although it is true that nurses must pass the NCLEX examination to obtain a license to practice nursing, this is not the main reason why recent polls show nursing to be one of the most trusted professions.
8. The main purpose of the NCLEX examination is which of the following? A. Ensure individuals have passed nursing classes. B. Provide assurance that the nursing schools are part of the service agency. C. Enable potential students to determine the best nursing schools. D. Ensure the safety of the public. ANS: D Page: 6
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Transcripts, and not the NCLEX, demonstrate that individuals have passed nursing classes. This is incorrect. Nightingale considered schools of nursing to be educational institutions, not part of a service agency. This is not the purpose of the NCLEX examination. This is incorrect. The purpose of the NCLEX is not to rate schools of nursing, but to ensure the safety of the public. This is correct. The purpose of the NCLEX examination is to ensure the safety of
the public by establishing a minimum standard to indicate that an individual has the knowledge and skills necessary to practice nursing safely and effectively.
9. A recent nursing school graduate is preparing to take the NCLEX. The graduate knows which of the following is true? A. Upon graduation from nursing school, she can use the title RN. B. Because the NCLEX is a national examination, her RN license will allow her to practice in all states and territories of the United States. C. If her home state participates in the compact agreement, she may practice in other states participating in the agreement, but should renew her license in her home state. D. The RN license is a permissive license. ANS: C Page: 6
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The title RN may only be used after the graduate has obtained an RN license. This is incorrect. State boards of nursing issue licenses for their state. Although some states have joined together to form a “compact,” it may be necessary to obtain a license from another state if she wishes to practice in that other state. This is correct. The state in which the nurse lives is considered her home state. Although the nurse may practice nursing in other states participating in the compact, she should renew her RN license in her home state. This is incorrect. The RN license is mandatory, meaning that a license is required for practice.
10. The Social Security Act of 1935 impacted public health nursing because it contained provisions for care for which of the following vulnerable populations? A. Disabled children B. Mentally disabled C. Older adults D. Opioid addicts ANS: A Page: 7
A.
B.
Feedback This is correct. The Social Security Act of 1935 strengthened public health services, particularly for dependent mothers and children, the blind, and disabled children. This is incorrect. The Social Security Act of 1935 did not focus on mentally disabled individuals.
C. D.
This is incorrect. Amendments to the Social Security Act provided access for older adults. This is incorrect. The Social Security Act of 1935 did not provide care for opioid addicts.
11. The decades between the 1960s and 1980s brought about many changes in nursing. Which of the following is a reason for advances in nursing? A. Decreased demand for health care B. Development of specialty care disciplines C. Gender discrimination D. Advances in technology leading to more generalized care ANS: B Page: 7
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A demand for increased access to health care resulted in the creation of the advanced practice role for nurses to meet the primary health-care needs of the public. This is correct. Specialty care disciplines developed because of advances in intensive care, neurosurgical techniques, and cardiothoracic surgery. This is incorrect. Gender discrimination did not advance the profession of nursing. In 1964, the Civil Rights Act prohibited gender discrimination in the workplace. This is incorrect. Advances in technology led to the creation of specialty care disciplines.
12. Which of the following is a challenge the profession of nursing faced? A. Because of fear, nursing contributed to the stigma of AIDS in the 1980s. B. During the Korean War, nursing practice grew in field hospitals where supplies and equipment were abundant. C. After the Vietnam War, many nurses were frustrated with the lack of independent functioning of nurses when they returned home. D. Ethical dilemmas led to a decline in the number of hospice nurses. ANS: C Page: 8
A. B. C.
Feedback This is incorrect. Nursing was instrumental in public education about AIDS and caring for infected individuals. This is incorrect. During the Korean War, nurses often cared for those at or near the front lines, where they lacked necessary supplies and equipment. This is correct. During the Vietnam War, many nurses functioned independently
D.
in mobile hospital units performing lifesaving procedures for wounded soldiers. Many felt restricted by the lack of independent practice when they returned home. This is incorrect. Increased use of life support systems led to ethical dilemmas in critical care areas and a growing support for hospice nurses. Because of renewed interest in hospice nursing, the numbers increased.
13. A nurse supervisor is planning an educational session for her staff regarding improving teamwork among different generations. Which of the following recommendations will reduce potential generational conflicts? A. Involve only millennials in technology decisions. B. Focus on the team as a whole, rather than individual generations. C. Involve only the baby boomers in technology decisions. D. Practice active and assertive communication techniques. ANS: D Page: 9
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although millennials are often more comfortable with technology, it is essential to involve all generations in technology decisions. This is incorrect. Each generation has a core set of values that must be taken into consideration for the team to function cohesively. This is incorrect. All generations should be involved in technology decisions. This is correct. Active and assertive communication will assist each generation to value the others’ skills and perspectives.
14. Which of the following is a reason for increasing the use of advanced practice nurses? A. A 2010 Institute of Medicine report encouraged nurses to practice to the full extent of their education. B. Advanced practice nurses serve as an extension of physicians. C. The National League for Nursing promotes the master of science in nursing (MSN) as the terminal degree for nurse practitioners. D. Advanced practice nurses do not have the skills to diagnose. ANS: A Page: 9
A. B.
Feedback This is correct. A 2010 Institute of Medicine report stated nurses should be allowed to practice to the full extent of their education. This is incorrect. Advanced practice nurses are board certified and licensed in the states in which they practice. They practice according to their own license, and
C.
D.
are not extensions of physicians. This is incorrect. The National League for Nursing and the American Association of Critical Care Nurses both promote the doctorate of nursing practice (DNP) as the terminal degree for nurse practitioners. This is incorrect. Advanced practice nurses are qualified to diagnose and treat certain conditions.
15. Which of the following is a reason for conflicts in professional nursing today? A. Some nurses who had planned to retire but find themselves forced to continue working because of the current economic situation B. Balancing state practice acts, codes of ethics, and standards of practice C. Advances in technology D. Multiple generations in the workforce ANS: D Page: 9
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Having more experienced nurses on the staff does not directly cause conflict. This is incorrect. State practice acts, codes of ethics, and standards of practice guide professional behavior. This is incorrect. Technological advances do not directly cause conflict in professional nursing, but they are a reason for nurses to be lifelong learners. This is correct. Multiple generations in the workforce today with multiple viewpoints can lead to conflict.
Chapter 2: Professional Ethics and Values 1. Which of the following best describes the ethical concept of values? A. Values are an individual’s feelings about situations. B. Values are learned through family systems. C. Values are organized ways of thinking about the meaning of life. D. Values determine the rightness or wrongness of behavior. Answer:
2. Which of the following best describes intrinsic values? A. Intrinsic values are often abstract ideas. B. Intrinsic values are basic needs for sustaining life. C. Intrinsic values are qualities patients consider to be important in their private lives. D. Intrinsic values are qualities patients consider important for nurses to have. Answer:
3. Values are learned through which of the following methods? A. Reading books B. Formal degrees C. Continuous reinforcement D. Meeting diverse individuals Answer:
4. Which of the following statements about ethical principles and laws is true? A. The government holds the power to enforce ethics. B. Laws provide standards that assist in decision making. C. Ethics are very specific. D. As a standard for measuring actions, ethical principles may be the basis for laws. Answer: 5. A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a patient who is one of Jehovah’s Witnesses and has refused a blood transfusion even though her hemoglobin is dangerously low. After providing information about all the alternatives available and risks and benefits of each, the health-care provider allows the patient to determine which course of treatment she would prefer. The RN knows this is an example of which ethical principle? A. Autonomy B. Nonmaleficence
C. Beneficence D. Distributive justice Answer:
6. An RN cared for a state senator during the day shift. Later that day he was having dinner with friends when the news mentioned the senator had been hospitalized. The RN’s friends asked if he knew what was wrong with the senator. Which ethical principle should the RN consider when replying? A. Fidelity B. Confidentiality C. Veracity D. Accountability Answer:
7. When considering virtue ethics, which of the following is true? A. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to moral rules. B. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to knowledge of consequences. C. Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior. D. Virtue ethics is a formal statement of rules for behavior. Answer:
8. Which of the following statements is true regarding nursing ethics? A. Nursing ethics focus on the organizational level at the workplace. B. Nursing ethics focus on the duties and rules of behavior for professional nurses. C. Nursing ethics focus on the moral character of nurses. D. Nursing ethics focus on the experiences and needs of nurses. Answer:
9. A recent ethical issue has resulted in uneasiness and discomfort for several nurses on a unit. The unit manager has decided to discuss the issues at the next team meeting. The situation has resulted in which of the following for some of the nurses? A. Moral suffering B. Moral distress C. Ethical dilemma D. Veracity Answer:
10. An RN’s current patient and family have presented her with an ethical dilemma. What is the first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem? A. Planning B. Assessment C. Evaluation D. Implementation Answer:
11. An RN is working through an ethical dilemma involving a patient on his unit. He has just identified the decision makers involved. Which step best describes the current stage the RN is working through? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Implementation Answer:
12. An RN knows that sometimes, when working through an ethical dilemma, the decision makers are unable to arrive at a mutually agreed upon decision. Which of the following is a reason why an agreement cannot be reached? A. One or more of the parties may be able to reconcile their values. B. The patient’s point of view is recognized as valuable. C. The dilemma involves two or more equally unpleasant choices. D. The institution is unable to honor the patient’s request. Answer:
13. An RN recognizes which of the following as a primary goal of nursing? A. Assist patients to achieve a peaceful death. B. Improve personal knowledge and skill in order to improve patient outcomes. C. Advocate for quality of life over quantity of life. D. Work to control costs so that patients can live the best quality of life possible. Answer:
14. Although technology has seen many advances, which two ethical principles may be in conflict because of technology? A. Beneficence and justice
B. Beneficence and nonmaleficence C. Beneficence and veracity D. Beneficence and confidentiality Answer:
15. A unit director at a local hospital knows even leadership may face ethical dilemmas. Which of the following should the director take into consideration when dealing with an employee who is incompetent? A. The situation should be tolerated for as long as possible because of the amount of time and paperwork required to terminate an incompetent nurse. B. Incompetence only impacts the individual nurse. C. The director should follow her institution’s formal process for reporting and handling practices that jeopardize patient safety. D. Most nurse practice acts direct how to handle incompetent nurses. Answer:
Chapter 2: Professional Ethics and Values—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following best describes the ethical concept of values? A. Values are an individual’s feelings about situations. B. Values are learned through family systems. C. Values are organized ways of thinking about the meaning of life. D. Values determine the rightness or wrongness of behavior. ANS: A Page: 15
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Values are how individuals feel about ideas, situations, and concepts. This is incorrect. Morals, springing from an individual’s conscience, are learned through family systems, instruction, and socialization. This is incorrect. Belief systems are organized ways of thinking about why people exist. This is incorrect. Ethics deal with the rightness or wrongness of human behavior.
2. Which of the following best describes intrinsic values? A. Intrinsic values are often abstract ideas. B. Intrinsic values are basic needs for sustaining life. C. Intrinsic values are qualities patients consider to be important in their private lives. D. Intrinsic values are qualities patients consider important for nurses to have. ANS: B Page: 15
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Extrinsic values are not essential to sustaining life and may include physical or abstract objects or meanings. This is correct. Intrinsic values are related to sustaining life, such as food and water. This is incorrect. Personal values are qualities people consider important in their private lives. This is incorrect. Professional values are qualities a professional group consider to be important.
3. Values are learned through which of the following methods? A. Reading books B. Formal degrees C. Continuous reinforcement D. Meeting diverse individuals
ANS: C Page: 16
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Values can be taught directly through societal norms, not through reading books. This is incorrect. Values can be taught directly though modeling behavior, not through formal degrees. This is correct. Children learn values through continuous reinforcement by watching their parents, friends, teachers, and religious leaders. This is incorrect. Values are learned through continuous reinforcement, and not through meeting diverse individuals.
4. Which of the following statements about ethical principles and laws is true? A. The government holds the power to enforce ethics. B. Laws provide standards that assist in decision making. C. Ethics are very specific. D. As a standard for measuring actions, ethical principles may be the basis for laws. ANS: D Page: 18
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The government holds the power to enforce laws. This is incorrect. Ethics provide standards for measuring actions, and therefore assist in decision making. This is incorrect. Laws are more specific than ethics. This is correct. Ethical principles are a standard for measuring actions. They may form the basis for laws, but are not laws themselves.
5. A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a patient who is one of Jehovah’s Witnesses and has refused a blood transfusion even though her hemoglobin is dangerously low. After providing information about all the alternatives available and risks and benefits of each, the health-care provider allows the patient to determine which course of treatment she would prefer. The RN knows this is an example of which ethical principle? A. Autonomy B. Nonmaleficence C. Beneficence D. Distributive justice ANS: A Page: 19
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Autonomy is an individual’s right to make his or her own decisions. This is incorrect. Nonmaleficence is the responsibility of the nurse to do no harm either intentionally or unintentionally and to protect those who cannot protect themselves. This is incorrect. Beneficence is the principle of doing good to others. This is incorrect. Distributive justice is the responsibility to fairly allocate scarce resources regardless of gender, sexual orientation, religion, ethnicity, disease, social standing, or any other criteria.
6. An RN cared for a state senator during the day shift. Later that day he was having dinner with friends when the news mentioned the senator had been hospitalized. The RN’s friends asked if he knew what was wrong with the senator. Which ethical principle should the RN consider when replying? A. Fidelity B. Confidentiality C. Veracity D. Accountability ANS: B Page: 21
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The principle of fidelity requires nurses to fulfill all commitments they make and all responsibilities of professional practice. This is correct. The principle of confidentiality requires nurses to hold healthcare information and anything patients tell them in the strictest confidence. This is incorrect. The principle of veracity requires nurses to be truthful. This is incorrect. The principle of accountability requires nurses to accept responsibility for their own answers.
7. When considering virtue ethics, which of the following is true? A. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to moral rules. B. Virtue ethics attributes behaviors to knowledge of consequences. C. Virtue ethics focuses on moral character, rather than rules for behavior. D. Virtue ethics is a formal statement of rules for behavior. ANS: C Page: 23
A. B.
Feedback This is incorrect. Deontology attributes behaviors to moral rules and duties. This is incorrect. Teleological theories derive rules for behavior from the consequences
C. D.
of the action. This is correct. Virtue ethics focuses on qualities and moral character rather than rules or duties. This is incorrect. A code of ethics is a formal statement of rules for ethical behavior.
8. Which of the following statements is true regarding nursing ethics? A. Nursing ethics focus on the organizational level at the workplace. B. Nursing ethics focus on the duties and rules of behavior for professional nurses. C. Nursing ethics focus on the moral character of nurses. D. Nursing ethics focus on the experiences and needs of nurses. ANS: D Page: 23
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Organizational ethics focus on the organizational level at the workplace. This is incorrect. Deontology focuses on the duties and rules of behavior. This is incorrect. Virtue ethics focus on virtues and moral character. This is correct. Nursing ethics not only focus on the experiences and needs of nurses, but also on the nurses’ perceptions of these experiences.
9. A recent ethical issue has resulted in uneasiness and discomfort for several nurses on a unit. The unit manager has decided to discuss the issues at the next team meeting. The situation has resulted in which of the following for some of the nurses? A. Moral suffering B. Moral distress C. Ethical dilemma D. Veracity ANS: A Page: 24
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Moral suffering occurs when a situation results in a feeling of uneasiness or concern because of behaviors or circumstances that challenge one’s own morals and beliefs. This is incorrect. Moral distress occurs when nurses know the action they should take, but are unable to take that action. This is incorrect. An ethical dilemma occurs when a situation forces a nurse to choose between two ethical principles. This is incorrect. Veracity is an ethical principle that requires nurses to be truthful.
10. An RN’s current patient and family have presented her with an ethical dilemma. What is the first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem? A. Planning B. Assessment C. Evaluation D. Implementation ANS: B Page: 26
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Planning occurs after all relevant information is collected. Planning involves establishing goals, identifying decision makers, and reviewing all options. This is correct. The nursing process can be used to find a solution to an ethical dilemma. The first step is assessment and identification of the problem. This is incorrect. Evaluation is the last step of the nursing process, requiring nurses to evaluate the outcomes of the decision made. This is incorrect. Implementation is the mutually acceptable plan of action that decision makers agree upon.
11. An RN is working through an ethical dilemma involving a patient on his unit. He has just identified the decision makers involved. Which step best describes the current stage the RN is working through? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Implementation ANS: C Page: 26
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Assessment occurs as nurses collect all necessary information about an ethical dilemma. This is incorrect. Nursing diagnosis is not a step in solving ethical dilemmas. This is correct. During the planning phase, goals of treatment are established, decision makers are identified, and all options are reviewed. This is incorrect. Implementation occurs when all stakeholders arrive at a mutually acceptable decision.
12. An RN knows that sometimes, when working through an ethical dilemma, the decision makers are unable to arrive at a mutually agreed upon decision. Which of the following is a reason why an agreement cannot be reached? A. One or more of the parties may be able to reconcile their values. B. The patient’s point of view is recognized as valuable. C. The dilemma involves two or more equally unpleasant choices. D. The institution is unable to honor the patient’s request. ANS: D Page: 27
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Inability to reconcile belief patterns or values is a reason why a solution to an ethical dilemma may not be reached. This is incorrect. If the caregivers do not recognize the worth of the patient’s point of view, a solution to an ethical dilemma may not be found. This is incorrect. An ethical dilemma is a situation that involves two or more equally unpleasant choices, but this does not mean that an agreement cannot be reached. This is correct. A patient may make a request that is not possible within the institution. When this occurs, a solution may not be possible within the institution and the patient may need to be transferred to a different institution that may be able to honor the request.
13. An RN recognizes which of the following as a primary goal of nursing? A. Assist patients to achieve a peaceful death. B. Improve personal knowledge and skill in order to improve patient outcomes. C. Advocate for quality of life over quantity of life. D. Work to control costs so that patients can live the best quality of life possible. ANS: A Page: 28
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. The primary goal of nursing is to keep people alive and well, or if this is not possible to at least assist them to live as comfortably as possible and achieve a peaceful death. This is incorrect. Improving nursing knowledge and skills assists nurses in achieving their primary goal. This is incorrect. Although nurses seek to provide their patients with the best quality of life possible, this is not the primary goal of nursing. This is incorrect. Although controlling costs may lead to improved quality of life, this is not the primary goal of nursing.
14. Although technology has seen many advances, which two ethical principles may be in conflict because of technology? A. Beneficence and justice B. Beneficence and nonmaleficence C. Beneficence and veracity D. Beneficence and confidentiality ANS: B Page: 29
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The principle of justice requires nurses to treat all patients the same. Technology usually does not cause dilemmas between beneficence and justice. This is correct. Beneficence is the principle of doing good to benefit others. Nonmaleficence is the principle of doing no harm to others. Technological advances can cause the principles of beneficence and nonmaleficence to develop into an ethical dilemma. This is incorrect. Veracity is the ethical principle that requires nurses to tell the truth. Technology usually does not cause dilemmas between beneficence and veracity. This is incorrect. Confidentiality is the ethical principle requiring nurses to hold their patient’s statements in the strictest confidence. Technology usually does not cause dilemmas between beneficence and confidentiality.
15.1A 15. 5. unit director at a local hospital knows even leadership may face ethical dilemmas. Which 5. the following should the director take into consideration when dealing with an employee of who is incompetent? A. The situation should be tolerated for as long as possible because of the amount of time and paperwork required to terminate an incompetent nurse. B. Incompetence only impacts the individual nurse. C. The director should follow her institution’s formal process for reporting and handling practices that jeopardize patient safety. D. Most nurse practice acts direct how to handle incompetent nurses. ANS: C Page: 30
A. B. C.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although following regulations may require time and effort, patient safety is the top priority. This is incorrect. Incompetence can place patients and the entire staff at risk. This is correct. Incompetence jeopardizes patient safety. Therefore, the formal process
D.
for handling these practices should be followed. This is incorrect. Most nurse practice acts direct the reporting of impaired nurses, but do not address incompetence.
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Chapter 3: Nursing Practice and the Law 1. Which of the following laws govern nursing practice? A. Statutory laws B. Common laws C. Administrative laws D. Constitutional laws Answer:
2. Which of the following categories does a violation of the nurse practice act fall under? A. Juvenile B. Felony C. Misdemeanor D. Tort Answer: 3. A registered nurse (RN) administered a patient’s morning insulin as the breakfast tray arrived at 0800. The RN performed a complete assessment at the same time. Then, the RN got busy with her other patients and did not check on the patient until 1400. At that time, she found the patient unresponsive with a blood glucose of 23. Both the breakfast and lunch tray were at the bedside untouched. Which of the following could the RN be charged with? A. Quasi-intentional tort B. Misdemeanor C. Negligence D. Juvenile offense Answer:
4. Which of the following is true of malpractice? A. Malpractice occurs when a professional shares information about a patient that could damage that patient’s reputation. B. Malpractice is a serious criminal offense. C. Malpractice is a minor criminal offense. D. Malpractice is a negligent act by an individual whose duties require specialized education. Answer:
5. An RN comes upon a serious motor vehicle accident that has just occurred and no first responders are on the scene. One car has been flipped upside down and she can see the driver
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still in the car. The RN decides to stop and help. She knows she is protected from civil liability as long as she does which of the following? A. Acts in an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent professional manner B. Assures that information obtained is not communicated to anyone else C. Does not make any verbal comments that could lead to economic harm D. Fails to meet the established standards of practice Answer:
6. As an RN stands in line for the cafeteria cashier, he overhears the staff in front of him talking about a client the RN took care of earlier in the week. The client’s room number is mentioned along with the diagnosis and prognosis. Which of the following actions should the RN take? A. Join in the conversation in case the RN is assigned to care for the client in the future. B. Remind the staff members that they are in a public location and sharing this information is a breach of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). C. Correct a statement made by one of the staff members. D. Ignore the conversation. Answer:
7. Which of the following is a potential benefit to social media? A. Sharing the fun side of nursing by posting a video of nurses singing and dancing in the hallways of the hospital while on duty B. Connecting with clients to keep up with their health status C. Connecting with the public to encourage healthy behaviors D. Sharing pictures of interesting clinical experiences with friends Answer:
8. There are several pitfalls that should be avoided when using social media of any type. For example, a nurse or student could be found guilty of libel in which of the following scenarios? A. Snapping a selfie with a patient B. Posting a positive review of the hospital where the student completed clinicals C. Creating a closed online forum where students can discuss clinical experiences without providing client information D. Complaining about her nurse preceptor on social media, discussing the preceptor’s unprofessional characteristics. Answer:
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9. An RN enters a patient’s room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the health-care professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment? A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him. B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave. C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis. D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form. Answer:
10. Which of the following is a recommendation for avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients? A. Carefully assess and document client status. B. Ensure all patient information is closed and the nurse has signed out of the computer before leaving the computer station. C. Keep careful notes while providing care so that documentation later in the day is accurate. D. Discuss safety needs with clients. Answer:
11. A postop nurse is caring for a client after knee replacement. She discovers the consent was not signed before the surgery. Which of the following charges could be filed? A. False imprisonment B. Libel C. Battery D. Malpractice Answer:
12. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates? A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive. B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so. C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions.
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D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so. Answer: 13. An RN’s client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN’s teaching to the client? A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead. B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders. C. A DNR order can be written after the health-care provider has discussed it with the client and family. D. A DNR requires a court decision. Answer:
14. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy? A. No expense is involved in frivolous lawsuits. B. If a nurse is found guilty of malpractice the institution cannot sue the nurse. C. Liability policies may also cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. D. Only doctors are sued for malpractice. Answer:
15. An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders? A. Use shortcuts in documentation. B. Only use approved abbreviations. C. Documentation should be subjective. D. Document after care is provided. Answer:
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Chapter 3: Nursing Practice and the Law—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following laws govern nursing practice? A. Statutory laws B. Common laws C. Administrative laws D. Constitutional laws ANS: A Page: 36
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Statutory laws are those created by various legislative bodies, such as state legislatures. Laws that govern nursing practice are statutory laws. This is incorrect. Common laws develop out of the judicial system, as court decisions set precedent for other decisions. This is incorrect. Administrative laws are developed by administrative agencies such as federal or state governments. This is incorrect. The U.S. Constitution is the foundation for American law, defining the power of the government and protecting the rights of citizens.
2. Which of the following categories does a violation of the nurse practice act fall under? A. Juvenile B. Felony C. Misdemeanor D. Tort ANS: B Page: 37
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A juvenile offense is when an individual under the age of 18 breaks a law. The age limit varies by state. This is correct. A felony offense is the most serious category and includes such offenses as homicide and nurse practice act violations. This is incorrect. A misdemeanor offense includes lesser offenses, such as traffic violations. This is incorrect. A tort is a type of civil offense.
3. A registered nurse (RN) administered a patient’s morning insulin as the breakfast tray arrived at 0800. The RN performed a complete assessment at the same time. Then, the RN got busy with her other patients and did not check on the patient until 1400. At that time, she found the
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patient unresponsive with a blood glucose of 23. Both the breakfast and lunch tray were at the bedside untouched. Which of the following could the RN be charged with? A. Quasi-intentional tort B. Misdemeanor C. Negligence D. Juvenile offense ANS: C Page: 38
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A quasi-intentional tort is voluntary speech that inflicts economic harm or damages a reputation. This is incorrect. A misdemeanor is a lesser criminal offense, such as a traffic violation. This is correct. Negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable, ordinary, and prudent manner, causing harm to someone who is owed the duty to care. This is incorrect. A juvenile criminal offense is an act committed by someone under the age of 18.
4. Which of the following is true of malpractice? A. Malpractice occurs when a professional shares information about a patient that could damage that patient’s reputation. B. Malpractice is a serious criminal offense. C. Malpractice is a minor criminal offense. D. Malpractice is a negligent act by an individual whose duties require specialized education. ANS: D Page: 38
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A quasi-intentional tort occurs when someone makes a verbal statement that damages another’s reputation. This is incorrect. Malpractice is a civil offense. This is incorrect. Malpractice is a civil offense. This is correct. Malpractice occurs when duties requiring specialized education are not fulfilled, resulting in harm and injury to the patient.
5. An RN comes upon a serious motor vehicle accident that has just occurred and no first responders are on the scene. One car has been flipped upside down and she can see the driver still in the car. The RN decides to stop and help. She knows she is protected from civil liability as long as she does which of the following? A. Acts in an ordinary, reasonable, and prudent professional manner
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B. Assures that information obtained is not communicated to anyone else C. Does not make any verbal comments that could lead to economic harm D. Fails to meet the established standards of practice ANS: A Page: 39
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. The Good Samaritan Law protects trained professionals from civil lawsuits when they provide assistance in an emergency situation as long as they behave in a manner that is ordinary, reasonable, and prudent. This is incorrect. Confidentiality laws require nurses to ensure they do not communicate private client information to anyone who does not have a need to know. However, these laws do not protect professionals helping in emergency situations. This is incorrect. A quasi-intentional tort occurs when verbal comments lead to economic harm or damage the reputation of another. This does not protect the nurse from civil lawsuits when helping someone in an emergency situation. This is incorrect. A failure to meet established standards of practice for someone to whom a duty to care is owed would be negligence. However, this does not describe an emergency situation when a nurse offers to help voluntarily.
6. As an RN stands in line for the cafeteria cashier, he overhears the staff in front of him talking about a client the RN took care of earlier in the week. The client’s room number is mentioned along with the diagnosis and prognosis. Which of the following actions should the RN take? A. Join in the conversation in case the RN is assigned to care for the client in the future. B. Remind the staff members that they are in a public location and sharing this information is a breach of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). C. Correct a statement made by one of the staff members. D. Ignore the conversation, ANS: B Page: 39
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Discussing a client’s private health information in a public setting where it can be overheard is a breach of confidentiality. This is correct. HIPAA protects the privacy of health information and preserves confidentiality. Discussing a client’s health information in a public place where it can be overheard is a breach of HIPAA. This is incorrect. Discussing a client’s private health information in a public setting where it can be overheard is a breach of confidentiality. This is incorrect. The RN should protect the client’s privacy by stopping the
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conversation. Allowing the conversation to continue is a breach of HIPAA and could result in liability for the organization. 7. Which of the following is a potential benefit to social media? A. Sharing the fun side of nursing by posting a video of nurses singing and dancing in the hallways of the hospital while on duty B. Connecting with clients to keep up with their health status C. Connecting with the public to encourage healthy behaviors D. Sharing pictures of interesting clinical experiences with friends ANS: C Page: 40
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although encouraging potential students to enter the field of nursing would be a benefit, it is important to avoid sharing anything that could be viewed as unprofessional conduct. This is incorrect. Nurses must be extremely cautious not to intentionally or inadvertently expose a client’s personal health information. This is correct. Encouraging health benefits and connecting with the public are potential benefits to social media. This is incorrect. Posting pictures of clinical experiences can potentially expose private client health information.
8. There are several pitfalls that should be avoided when using social media of any type. For example, a nurse or student could be found guilty of libel in which of the following scenarios? A. Snapping a selfie with a patient B. Posting a positive review of the hospital where the student completed clinicals C. Creating a closed online forum where students can discuss clinical experiences without providing client information D. Complaining about her nurse preceptor on social media, discussing the preceptor’s unprofessional characteristics. ANS: D Page: 41
A. B. C.
Feedback This is incorrect. Taking and posting a picture with a patient may present a breach of confidentiality, but would not specifically indicate libel. This is incorrect. Posting a positive review would not damage the organization’s reputation and therefore is not considered to be libel. This is incorrect. Students should be very careful not to expose any potentially identifiable client information; however, as the forum is closed, it is not
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D.
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specifically indicative of libel. This is correct. Statements about individuals encountered in one’s professional or educational life that could damage that person’s reputation may be slander or libel and can be prosecuted as quasi-intentional torts.
9. An RN enters a patient’s room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the health-care professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment? A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him. B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave. C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis. D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form. ANS: A Page: 41
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. Verbal or physical detainment of a client who desires to leave the institution is false imprisonment. This is incorrect. Asking the client why he wishes to leave is not false imprisonment and may provide additional information. This is incorrect. Asking a client to explain what he or she understands about the medical diagnosis will ensure the client has all the information needed to make an informed decision. This is incorrect. Asking a client to sign the against medical advice discharge form is not false imprisonment.
10. Which of the following is a recommendation for avoiding charges of negligence and false imprisonment for confused clients? A. Carefully assess and document client status. B. Ensure all patient information is closed and the nurse has signed out of the computer before leaving the computer station. C. Keep careful notes while providing care so that documentation later in the day is accurate. D. Discuss safety needs with clients. ANS: A Page: 42 Feedback
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A. B.
C. D.
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This is correct. Careful assessment and documentation of client status is an essential component of good nursing practice. This is incorrect. Protecting client information by signing out of computers is good practice to protect client health information, but it does not protect a nurse against charges of negligence or false imprisonment. This is incorrect. Documentation should occur as soon as patient assessment and care has occurred. This is incorrect. Discussing safety needs with clients, their families, and the health-care team is one way nurses can protect themselves from charges of negligence and false imprisonment. However, if the client is confused, discussing safety needs with only the client is not enough.
11. A postop nurse is caring for a client after knee replacement. She discovers the consent was not signed before the surgery. Which of the following charges could be filed? A. False imprisonment B. Libel C. Battery D. Malpractice ANS: C Page: 43
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. False imprisonment occurs when an individual wishes to leave a facility but is detained by physical or verbal means. This is incorrect. Libel occurs when an individual says something that damages the reputation of another. This is correct. Battery occurs when an individual is touched without consent. Performing surgery without a signed consent is battery. This is incorrect. Malpractice occurs when duties requiring specialized education are not fulfilled, resulting in harm and injury to the patient.
12. Which of the following should be included in a discussion of advance directives with new nurse graduates? A. According to the Patient Self-Determination Act, nurses are required to inform clients of their right to create an advance directive. B. The advance directive designates an individual who will make financial decisions for the client if he or she is unable to do so. C. A living will designates who will make health-care decisions for an individual in the event the individual is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions. D. The advance directive designates a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes regarding medical treatment if the client is unable to do so.
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ANS: D Page: 50
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The Patient Self-Determination Act does not specify who should discuss advance directives with clients. This is incorrect. Advance directives describe an individual’s treatment wishes in case of a serious accident or illness. This is incorrect. The living will outlines the client’s wishes regarding lifeprolonging medical treatment in the event he or she is unable or incompetent to make his or her own decisions. This is correct. One function of the advance directive is to appoint a health-care surrogate who will make known the client’s wishes for medical treatment to the medical and nursing team if the client is unable to do so.
13. An RN’s client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN’s teaching to the client? A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead. B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders. C. A DNR order can be written after the health-care provider has discussed it with the client and family. D. A DNR requires a court decision. ANS: C Page: 49
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is in cardiac arrest and this is commonly when CPR is initiated. This is incorrect. In many states, nurse practitioners and physician assistants may also write DNR orders. This is correct. Clients may request a DNR order, but they need to be fully informed of all the ramifications of the decision. Therefore, the health-care provider will consult with the client and family before the order is written. This is incorrect. A DNR may require a court decision if a legal dilemma has arisen. However, in general DNRs can be written by the health-care provider after consulting with the client and family.
14. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy? A. No expense is involved in frivolous lawsuits.
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B. If a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution cannot sue the nurse. C. Liability policies may also cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations. D. Only doctors are sued for malpractice. ANS: C Page: 48
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Even in a frivolous lawsuit, if a patient fails to incur damages, but hopes to collect on a settlement, nurses incur expenses. This is incorrect. When a nurse has been charged with and found guilty of malpractice, the employing institution may sue the nurse to recoup damages. This is correct. Assault, HIPAA violations, libel, slander, and property damage may be covered in professional liability insurance policies. This is incorrect. Any professional health-care worker, including nurses, may be charged with malpractice.
15. An RN is writing reminders for good documentation for the nurses on her staff. The purpose is to ensure nursing documentation is legally credible. Which of the following is a recommendation she should include in the reminders? A. Use shortcuts in documentation. B. Only use approved abbreviations. C. Documentation should be subjective. D. Document after care is provided. ANS: B Page: 47
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Shortcuts in documentation should be avoided. This is correct. Only approved abbreviations should be used in documentation. This is incorrect. Documentation should be objective and appropriate. This is incorrect. Documentation should be completed at the time care is provided.
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Chapter 4: Leadership and Followership 1. A new nurse is thinking about the ways she can demonstrate leadership in her position. Which of the following is true about leadership? A. Leadership is a component of nursing practice. B. Leadership requires a position of oversight. C. Leadership depends on the actions of others. D. Only experienced nurses can demonstrate leadership. Answer:
2. Which of the following statements regarding leadership and management is true? A. Leadership is focused on achievement of organizational goals. B. One must develop the ability to adapt in order to lead. C. Management occurs when an individual attempts to influence another. D. Successful managers encourage others to work together toward a common goal. Answer:
3. Which of the following is a trait that was found to be common among leaders in trait theory? A. Communication of duties assigned B. Adaptability and changing priorities C. Order giving and decision making for a group D. Communication of goal direction Answer:
4. Behavioral leadership theory recognizes three styles of leadership. Which of the following best describes democratic leadership? A. The democratic leader communicates meaning and purpose. B. The democratic leader gives orders and makes decisions for the group. C. The democratic leader does little planning or decision making. D. The democratic leader makes plans and decisions with the team. Answer:
5. Which of the following is a skill emotionally intelligent leaders must develop? A. Encourage constructive criticism. B. Work to complete all assigned tasks on his or her own. C. Minimize one’s own emotions, instead of seeking to understand the emotions of others. D. Encourage others to work efficiently and independently.
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Answer:
6. A nurse is focusing on improving the ability to multitask without losing focus and to turn problems into opportunities. Which of the following leadership theories describes the nurse’s focus? A. Emotional intelligence B. Motivation theory C. Situational leadership theory D. Transformational leadership theory Answer:
7. Caring is a basic value in nursing and forms a foundation for caring leadership. Which of the following is true about a caring leader? A. A caring leader serves first and leads second. B. A caring leader is aware of the feelings of others. C. The traits of a caring leader include respecting coworkers as individuals and empathizing with the needs and concerns of others. D. A caring leader is fair and honest. Answer:
8. The staff in the emergency department has presented the nurse leader with a suggestion for streamlining the triage process, cutting down on wait times. Which of the following qualities does the leader specifically need to implement the suggestion? A. Courage B. Integrity C. Energy D. Initiative Answer:
9. A unit manager has been working to decrease the incidence of catheter-associated urinary tract infections on his unit, spending extra time on the unit researching best practices and conducting training. Having completed training, the manager decides to take a couple days off. Which of the following leadership traits is this unit manager displaying? A. Perseverance B. Balance C. Generosity D. Ability to handle stress
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Answer:
10. Skillful communication is one behavior of an effective leader. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication? A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and what improvements the new nurse can make. B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policy. C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to unveil new policies designed to prevent further safety events. D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager. Answer:
11. A new nurse is working on becoming a better follower. Which of the following recommendations should she implement? A. When you disagree with the manager, seek to determine the manager’s rationale. B. Share what you have learned only with newer nurses. C. Listen and reflect on your manager’s feedback. D. Seek to find a balance and manage your time and energy as you seek to learn about your specialty. Answer: 12. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to “manage up.” Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to “manage up”? A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it. B. Assist your manager to capitalize on his or her strengths and weaknesses. C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit. D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers. Answer:
13. Which of the following is true about effective leadership? A. Leadership traits cannot be learned from a book. Real life experiences are the best way to learn to become a good leader. B. Nurses can learn to become good leaders by acting as a good leader and by reflecting on leadership qualities they have and those they can improve upon. C. Focus on leadership activities required for the day.
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D. Take advantage of every opportunity to be a leader, creating those opportunities as often as possible, but only after gaining experience as a nurse. Answer:
14. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future? A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements. C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff. D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others. Answer:
15. Which of the following is true regarding followership and leadership? A. Effective leadership is more important than followership. B. Good leaders do not need to be good followers. C. A good follower is not just skilled but also self-directed. D. Critical thinking is only required for effective leadership. Answer:
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Chapter 4: Leadership and Followership—Answers and Rationales 1. A new nurse is thinking about the ways she can demonstrate leadership in her position. Which of the following is true about leadership? A. Leadership is a component of nursing practice. B. Leadership requires a position of oversight. C. Leadership depends on the actions of others. D. Only experienced nurses can demonstrate leadership. ANS: A Page: 58
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Leadership is a dimension of nursing practice. This is incorrect. Leadership is not dependent upon a high-level position within an organization. This is incorrect. Leadership is a function of a nurse’s actions. This is incorrect. Even brand new nurses can demonstrate the quality of leadership.
2. Which of the following statements regarding leadership and management is true? A. Leadership is focused on achievement of organizational goals. B. One must develop the ability to adapt in order to lead. C. Management occurs when an individual attempts to influence another. D. Successful managers encourage others to work together toward a common goal. ANS: B Page: 58
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Management is focused on the achievement of organizational goals. This is correct. In order to lead, one must develop the competency to diagnose, adapt, and communicate well. This is incorrect. Leadership occurs when an individual attempts to influence another. This is incorrect. Successful leaders encourage others to work together toward a common goal.
3. Which of the following is a trait that was found to be common among leaders in trait theory? A. Communication of duties assigned B. Adaptability and changing priorities C. Order giving and decision making for a group D. Communication of goal direction
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ANS: D Page: 59
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Leaders manage meaning by communicating meaning and purpose. This is incorrect. Leaders manage trust through reliability and consistency. This is incorrect. The autocratic leader in behavioral leadership theory gives orders and makes decisions for a group. This is correct. Leaders manage attention by communicating a sense of goal direction that attracts followers.
4. Behavioral leadership theory recognizes three styles of leadership. Which of the following best describes democratic leadership? A. The democratic leader communicates meaning and purpose. B. The democratic leader gives orders and makes decisions for the group. C. The democratic leader does little planning or decision making. D. The democratic leader makes plans and decisions with the team. ANS: D Page: 60
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Communicating meaning and purpose is a trait of leaders identified in trait theory. This is incorrect. The autocratic leader gives orders and makes decisions for the group. This is incorrect. The laissez-faire leader does little planning or decision making. This is correct. The democratic leader involves team members when planning or making decisions.
5. Which of the following is a skill emotionally intelligent leaders must develop? A. Encourage constructive criticism. B. Work to complete all assigned tasks on his or her own. C. Minimize one’s own emotions, instead of seeking to understand the emotions of others. D. Encourage others to work efficiently and independently. ANS: A Page: 60
A.
Feedback This is correct. Emotionally intelligent leaders ask for and promote constructive
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B. C. D.
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criticism. This is incorrect. An emotionally intelligent leader will ask for help when needed. This is incorrect. Emotional intelligence requires understanding and managing one’s own feelings and emotions. This is incorrect. The emotionally intelligent leader fosters collaboration and cooperation with the team working together to achieve team goals.
6. A nurse is focusing on improving the ability to multitask without losing focus and to turn problems into opportunities. Which of the following leadership theories describes the nurse’s focus? A. Emotional intelligence B. Motivation theory C. Situational leadership theory D. Transformational leadership theory ANS: B Page: 60
A.
B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The emotionally intelligent leader handles multiple demands at once while maintaining focus, fosters constructive criticism, asks for assistance when needed, and works to turn problems into opportunities. This is correct. Motivation theory describes individuals’ behaviors. The main concept of motivation theory is that individuals will act to get what they want, but they will not do what they do not want to do. This is incorrect. Situational leadership theory emphasizes the need to match the readiness of the follower with the task needing to be completed. This is incorrect. The transformational leader shares his or her vision in such a way that followers become excited about the vision and negativity is reduced.
7. Caring is a basic value in nursing and forms a foundation for caring leadership. Which of the following is true about a caring leader? A. A caring leader serves first and leads second. B. A caring leader is aware of the feelings of others. C. The traits of a caring leader include respecting coworkers as individuals and empathizing with the needs and concerns of others. D. A caring leader is fair and honest. ANS: C Page: 63
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although servant-leader is one facet of a caring leader, a leader who
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B.
C. D.
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serves first and leads second more specifically describes a servant-leader. This is incorrect. An emotionally intelligent leader is aware of the feelings of others. Although emotional intelligence is one quality of a caring leader, being aware of the feelings of others more specifically identifies emotional intelligence. This is correct. Respecting coworkers as individuals and empathizing with the needs and concerns of others are two specific traits of caring leaders. This is incorrect. Being fair and honest may be traits of a caring leader, but more specifically they describe the traits of a moral leader.
8. The staff in the emergency department has presented the nurse leader with a suggestion for streamlining the triage process, cutting down on wait times. Which of the following qualities does the leader specifically need to implement the suggestion? A. Courage B. Integrity C. Energy D. Initiative ANS: D Page: 64
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Sometimes being a leader requires taking risks. This takes courage. However, implementing a good idea does not specifically require courage. This is incorrect. Integrity is an essential part of moral leadership. It requires the leader to be honest and trustworthy. Nurse leaders adhere to both a personal and a professional code of ethics. This is incorrect. Energy is necessary for leaders working to accomplish endeavors, but this does not specifically describe the quality needed to implement a good idea. This is correct. Initiative is required to implement a good idea.
9. A unit manager has been working to decrease the incidence of catheter-associated urinary tract infections on his unit, spending extra time on the unit researching best practices and conducting training. Having completed training, the manager decides to take a couple days off. Which of the following leadership traits is this unit manager displaying? A. Perseverance B. Balance C. Generosity D. Ability to handle stress ANS: B Page: 64
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A. B. C. D.
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Feedback This is incorrect. Perseverance is a quality leaders need to keep from giving up. This is correct. Balance helps a leader to ensure he or she has enough time for family and other activities, in addition to work. This is incorrect. A generous leader freely supports and assists coworkers and shares credit for successes. This is incorrect. Dealing with stress in a healthy manner sets a good example for others and conserves energy. Although balancing work and personal life is one way to handle stress in a healthy manner, it is not the only way.
10. Skillful communication is one behavior of an effective leader. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication? A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and what improvements the new nurse can make. B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policy. C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to unveil new policies designed to prevent further safety events. D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager. ANS: A Page: 65
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. Providing both constructive and positive feedback is an effective method of communication for a skilled leader. This is incorrect. A better method of communication than simply explaining departmental policy is to listen to the new nurse and provide both positive and negative feedback. This is incorrect. Exchanging information is one mark of skillful communication. A better option for the unit manager would be to discuss the safety events with all involved so as to learn from the mistakes and then work together to create a new policy. This is incorrect. Although discussing ideas for policy to improve practice with another manager is not a bad idea, a better method of communication would be to discuss recommendations with staff directly involved.
11. A new nurse is working on becoming a better follower. Which of the following recommendations should she implement? A. When you disagree with the manager, seek to determine the manager’s rationale. B. Share what you have learned only with newer nurses.
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C. Listen and reflect on your manager’s feedback. D. Seek to find a balance and manage your time and energy as you seek to learn about your specialty. ANS: C Page: 67
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. When a follower disagrees, it is best to explain to the leader why you disagree. This is incorrect. It is important to share what you know with all others. This is correct. Listening and reflecting on both positive and negative feedback will help a new nurse to grow. This is incorrect. It is better to freely invest your energy and interest as you learn all you can about your specialty area.
12. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to “manage up.” Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to “manage up”? A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it. B. Assist your manager to capitalize on his or her strengths and weaknesses. C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit. D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers. ANS: D Page: 67
A.
B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Providing feedback when the manager asks for it is important, but to manage up it is better to alert the manager when a problem occurs and provide recommendations for improvement. This is incorrect. Although a good follower will assist the manager to capitalize on strengths, he or she will also help to compensate for weaknesses. This is incorrect. Although it may become necessary to transfer to a different unit if the situation becomes intolerable, there are other options to try first, including managing up. This is correct. Showing respect and appreciation for a manager and sharing these feelings with others, especially those who also answer to the manager, is one way to manage up.
13. Which of the following is true about effective leadership?
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A. Leadership traits cannot be learned from a book. Real life experiences are the best way to learn to become a good leader. B. Nurses can learn to become good leaders by acting as a good leader and by reflecting on leadership qualities they have and those they can improve upon. C. Focus on leadership activities required for the day. D. Take advantage of every opportunity to be a leader, creating those opportunities as often as possible, but only after gaining experience as a nurse. ANS: B Page: 66
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Combining learning from books and courses with real life experiences is the best way to become a good leader. This is correct. Nurses learn leadership skills by taking advantage of every opportunity to be leaders, by acting as a good leader, and by reflecting on qualities they have. This is incorrect. Take time out of your day to reflect on leadership, rather than focusing solely on leadership activities. This is incorrect. Although taking advantage of opportunities to be a leader is good experience, it is also important to consider your contributions as a leader. Additionally, it is not too soon to start learning to become a good leader.
14. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future? A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements. C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff. D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others. ANS: A Page: 65
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. Involving others in creating the vision and tying work tasks to the vision make the vision meaningful. This is incorrect. Encouraging open communication and recommendations for improvement is effective communication, but does not involve communicating the vision. This is incorrect. Maintaining currency in practice and incorporating new evidence into practice is one method to develop self and others; however, it does not impact communication of the vision. This is incorrect. Listening to others is important for effective leaders, but does not directly impact communication of the vision.
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15. Which of the following is true regarding followership and leadership? A. Effective leadership is more important than followership. B. Good leaders do not need to be good followers. C. A good follower is not just skilled but also self-directed. D. Critical thinking is only required for effective leadership. ANS: C Page: 66
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Both effective leadership and effective followership are important. This is incorrect. Everyone in an organization must be a good follower to some degree. This is correct. A skilled and self-directed professional who thinks critically and invests time and energy into the work of the group is an effective follower. This is incorrect. Critical thinking is needed for effective leadership and effective followership.
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Chapter 5: The Nurse as Manager of Care 1. Which of the following is the best definition for management? A. A manager is someone who does what is necessary to ensure employees get their work done. B. A manager controls the work of employees. C. A manager gets work done by organizing and controlling a group of employees. D. A manager accomplishes tasks through planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling work groups. Answer:
2. Scientific management and human relations-based approach are two major theoretical management schools of thought. Which of the following best describes the scientific model of management? A. A nurse manager considers methods of motivating the staff to do their assigned tasks. B. A nurse manager commends staff for the work they do, reminding them of the importance of their work and the lives they have saved. C. A nurse manager analyzes the role of each staff member on the unit to determine ways to increase efficiency. D. A conflict between two staff nurses has impacted an entire unit. The unit manager meets with the nurses and entire staff to promote mutual understanding. Answer:
3. A new unit manager works hard to get to know each of the staff members on the unit and determine what each staff member needs in order to effectively do his or her job. What type of management best describes this manager? A. Servant leader-style manager B. Networking manager C. Coaching manager D. Monitoring manager Answer:
4. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in? A. Interpersonal activities B. Decisional activities C. Informational activities D. Transformational activities
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Answer:
5. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in? A. Spokesperson B. Reporting C. Monitoring D. Job analysis and redesign Answer:
6. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions? A. Resource allocation B. Monitoring C. Job analysis and redesign D. Planning for the future Answer:
7. As a nurse manager rounds on the unit, he speaks with staff, patients, and family members. Later in the day, he is in a meeting with administration. During the conversations he considers how these interactions impact the care provided to patients on the unit. Which of the following interpersonal activities best describes this manager’s actions? A. Networking B. Employee development C. Coaching D. Monitoring Answer:
8. Nurse managers need several qualities to be effective. A nurse manager is working hard to fully understand how patient outcomes are measured on the unit and how budget changes could impact patient outcomes. Which of the following qualities does this best describe? A. Leadership B. Business sense C. Clinical expertise D. Financial management
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9. A psychological contract exists between staff members and nurse managers. Which of the following best describes this relationship? A. Nurse managers provide positive evaluations and in turn staff members do what managers ask of them. B. Nurse managers coordinate multiple departments and supervise multiple staff members. C. Staff members do what managers ask of them and in turn are rewarded through assignments, promotions, and evaluations. D. Nurse managers advocate for staff and support nursing roles and ethical practice. Answer:
10. A nurse manager works hard to keep employee morale high with the thought that this will lead to effective employees doing the best work they can. Which of the following theories does this best describe? A. Theory X B. Theory Y C. Servant leadership D. Scientific management Answer:
11. Nursing is a stressful position in a stressful work environment. Effective nurse managers are essential. Which of the following skills is needed for a nurse manager to be effective? A. Clinical knowledge B. Managerial skills C. Patient care coordination D. Human resource training Answer:
12. A nurse manager is reviewing data from the unit. More than 50% of new nurses hired left within 1 year of being hired. Which of the following implementations should the nurse manager consider to improve retention of newly hired nurses? A. Increase the length of time new hires spend in training. B. Conduct a performance review at 3, 6, and 9 months to review the new nurse’s weaknesses. C. Stress the importance of continuity of care to new hires. D. Build the manager’s own leadership skills through building relationships with staff members.
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Answer:
13. To be effective, a nurse manager needs both managerial and leadership skills. Interpersonal activities have many concerns that overlap both leaders and managers. However, some interpersonal activities are needed by nurse managers, but are not specific duties of leaders. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders? A. Coaching B. Resource allocation C. Planning for the future D. Monitoring
14. Which of the following recommendations is best for a new nurse manager? A. Work hard at becoming the type of manager your staff wants you to be, but balance this with becoming the type of manager your administration wants you to be. B. Remember it can take 6 months to feel comfortable in a new position. C. Start out with mentoring other new nurse managers. D. Engage in extensive personal development. Answer:
15. A new nurse graduate is considering her future career path. She thinks she wants to eventually become a nurse manager. When should she consider applying for a position as a nurse manager? A. When she is comfortable in her current position B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses C. As soon as a position opens D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise Answer:
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Chapter 5: The Nurse as Manager of Care—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following is the best definition for management? A. A manager is someone who does what is necessary to ensure employees get their work done. B. A manager controls the work of employees. C. A manager gets work done by organizing and controlling a group of employees. D. A manager accomplishes tasks through planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling work groups. ANS: D Page: 72
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The focus of management is getting work done, but this is not the best definition. This is incorrect. Although controlling is one of the duties of management, it is not a complete definition. This is incorrect. Organizing and controlling are two duties of management, but this is not a complete definition. This is correct. A classic and more complete definition of management includes planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling groups of employees.
2. Scientific management and human relations-based approach are two major theoretical management schools of thought. Which of the following best describes the scientific model of management? A. A nurse manager considers methods of motivating the staff to do their assigned tasks. B. A nurse manager commends staff for the work they do, reminding them of the importance of their work and the lives they have saved. C. A nurse manager analyzes the role of each staff member on the unit to determine ways to increase efficiency. D. A conflict between two staff nurses has impacted an entire unit. The unit manager meets with the nurses and entire staff to promote mutual understanding. ANS: C Page: 72
A.
B.
Feedback This is incorrect. Theory X, a human relations-based management theory, holds that employees do not want to work very hard, and therefore it is the manager’s job to keep them motivated. This is incorrect. Theory Y, a human relations-based management theory, claims that work itself can be a motivation for employees. Managers who provide a
Test Bank, Chapter 5 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
C. D.
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supportive environment and keep morale high can increase efficiency. This is correct. Scientific management considers thorough analysis to be the best method of improving efficiency. This is incorrect. Theory Y, a human relations-based management theory, encourages managers to work out conflicts and promote mutual understanding in order to establish an environment for employees to do their best work.
3. A new unit manager works hard to get to know each of the staff members on the unit and determine what each staff member needs in order to effectively do his or her job. What type of management best describes this manager? A. Servant leader-style manager B. Networking manager C. Coaching manager D. Monitoring manager ANS: A Page: 73
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. A servant leader-style manager values employees as individuals, is committed to improving the way they are treated at work, and puts employees first. This is incorrect. Networking means managers need to consider the connection between their interactions with staff members and patient outcomes. This is incorrect. Coaching occurs when a manager takes the time to carefully nurture an employee through learning. This is incorrect. Monitoring is when a manager works to detect small issues before they turn into large problems.
4. A nurse manager conducts evaluations with each staff member and reviews the staffing needs for the upcoming year. Which of the following best describes the behavior this manager is engaging in? A. Interpersonal activities B. Decisional activities C. Informational activities D. Transformational activities ANS: B Page: 75
A. B.
Feedback This is incorrect. Interpersonal management activities include many leadership duties but also include networking, developing, and coaching employees. This is correct. Decisional management activities include making decisions
Test Bank, Chapter 5 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
C.
D.
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about resource allocation, planning for the future, hiring and firing, and employee evaluations. This is incorrect. Informational activities include acquiring information from administration and passing it on to staff members, or acquiring information from staff members and passing it on to administration. This is incorrect. Transformational leadership is a style of leadership rather than management.
5. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in? A. Spokesperson B. Reporting C. Monitoring D. Job analysis and redesign ANS: C Page: 76
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Being a spokesperson is a type of informational activity, but it involves relaying information from administration to staff members and from staff members to administration. This is incorrect. Reporting is an informational activity, but it involves sharing information with patients, staff members, and employers. This is correct. Monitoring is an information activity where the nurse manager detects early signs of a problem. This is incorrect. Job analysis and redesign is a decisional activity associated with budgeting concerns. Nurse managers work to improve the efficiency of their units.
6. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions? A. Resource allocation B. Monitoring C. Job analysis and redesign D. Planning for the future ANS: D Page: 76
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. Resource allocation is a decisional activity where the manager
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B. C.
D.
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carefully allocates resources according to the annual budget. This is incorrect. Monitoring is an informational activity where the nurse manager detects early signs of a problem. This is incorrect. Job analysis and redesign is a decisional activity where the nurse manager works to make the unit as efficient as possible because of cost constraints. This is correct. Planning for the future is a decisional activity that involves considering the future of the organization within its competition and in the health-care system as a whole.
7. As a nurse manager rounds on the unit, he speaks with staff, patients, and family members. Later in the day, he is in a meeting with administration. During the conversations he considers how these interactions impact the care provided to patients on the unit. Which of the following interpersonal activities best describes this manager’s actions? A. Networking B. Employee development C. Coaching D. Monitoring ANS: A Page: 75
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. Networking is an interpersonal activity where the manager is connected with those above and below him or her in the organizational hierarchy. Conversations the manager has with all individuals in the organizational hierarchy can impact care provided to patients. This is incorrect. Employee development is an interpersonal activity where the manager provides continuing education in order to improve the skills of the company’s staff members. This is incorrect. Coaching is an interpersonal activity where the manager shares his or her experiences and expertise with staff members in an effort to nurture the growth and development of the staff members. This is incorrect. Monitoring is an informational activity where the nurse manager carefully works to detect early signs of a problem.
8. Nurse managers need several qualities to be effective. A nurse manager is working hard to fully understand how patient outcomes are measured on the unit and how budget changes could impact patient outcomes. Which of the following qualities does this best describe? A. Leadership B. Business sense C. Clinical expertise
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D. Financial management ANS: B Page: 74
A.
B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The quality of leadership is an essential skill for effective nurse managers. However, understanding how the budget impacts patient outcomes is not a direct component of leadership. This is correct. Business sense means nurse managers are concerned with the bottom line, and how budgeting, staffing, and measurement of patient outcomes interact. This is incorrect. Clinical expertise is required for coaching and mentoring staff members. This is incorrect. Financial management is a skill nurse managers need, but is not only about the budget and patient outcomes.
9. A psychological contract exists between staff members and nurse managers. Which of the following best describes this relationship? A. Nurse managers provide positive evaluations and in turn staff members do what managers ask of them. B. Nurse managers coordinate multiple departments and supervise multiple staff members. C. Staff members do what managers ask of them and in turn are rewarded through assignments, promotions, and evaluations. D. Nurse managers advocate for staff and support nursing roles and ethical practice. ANS: C Page: 74
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A psychological contract begins with staff members doing what managers ask of them, which leads to positive evaluations. This is incorrect. It is true that nurse managers coordinate multiple departments and supervise multiple staff members; however, this does not define a psychological contract. This is correct. A psychological contract occurs when staff members do what managers ask of them and are then rewarded by their managers through preferred assignments, promotions, and evaluations. This is incorrect. Professionalism, one quality of nurse managers, involves advocacy for staff, ethical practice, and support of nursing roles. This is not the same as a psychological contract.
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10. A nurse manager works hard to keep employee morale high with the thought that this will lead to effective employees doing the best work they can. Which of the following theories does this best describe? A. Theory X B. Theory Y C. Servant leadership D. Scientific management ANS: B Page: 73
A.
B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Theory X is a human relations-based management theory that claims people do not really want to work very hard and the manager is there to ensure that they do their work. This is correct. Theory Y is a human relations-based management theory that emphasizes guidance and development over control and close supervision. Theory Y managers focus on morale with the purpose of motivating employees to do the best work they can. This is incorrect. Servant leadership managers value employees as individuals and work at improving how they are treated. This is incorrect. Scientific management claims that if a task is designed well and employees are motivated, the workers will be productive.
11. Nursing is a stressful position in a stressful work environment. Effective nurse managers are essential. Which of the following skills is needed for a nurse manager to be effective? A. Clinical knowledge B. Managerial skills C. Patient care coordination D. Human resource training ANS: C Page: 74
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Clinical knowledge is important for nurses, but nurse managers need clinical expertise to be effective. This is incorrect. Management skills are needed by nurse managers, but to be effective nurse managers need leadership skills. Leadership skills will help them with relationship building, teamwork, and mentoring. This is correct. Patient care coordination is an essential skill for effective nurse managers. It includes scheduling, work flow, work assignments, monitoring the care provided, and documentation of care. This is incorrect. Human resource training is a start, but to be effective, nurse managers
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need expertise in human resources. This skill includes staff development and performance appraisals.
12. A nurse manager is reviewing data from the unit. More than 50% of new nurses hired left within 1 year of being hired. Which of the following implementations should the nurse manager consider to improve retention of newly hired nurses? A. Increase the length of time new hires spend in training. B. Conduct a performance review at 3, 6, and 9 months to review the new nurse’s weaknesses. C. Stress the importance of continuity of care to new hires. D. Build the manager’s own leadership skills through building relationships with staff members. ANS: D Page: 75
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Lack of managerial support is a major reason why new nurses leave their positions. Increasing the length of time spent training new hires does not improve managerial support. This is incorrect. Lack of managerial support is a major reason why new nurses leave their positions. Performance reviews should be focused on celebrating an employee’s strengths while improving his or her weaknesses. This is incorrect. Lack of managerial support is a major reason why new nurses leave their positions. Continuity of care does not directly improve managerial support. This is correct. Lack of managerial support is a major reason why new nurses leave their positions. When the manager focuses on building and improving his or her own leadership skills, such as building relationships with staff and mentoring skills, the staff benefit from increased managerial support.
13. To be effective, a nurse manager needs both managerial and leadership skills. Interpersonal activities have many concerns that overlap both leaders and managers. However, some interpersonal activities are needed by nurse managers, but are not specific duties of leaders. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders? A. Coaching B. Resource allocation C. Planning for the future D. Monitoring ANS: A Page: 75
Test Bank, Chapter 5 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
A.
B. C. D.
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Feedback This is correct. Coaching is an interpersonal duty specific to nurse managers. Coaching involves assisting employees to learn and to become better and more effective at their assignments. This is incorrect. Resource allocation is a decisional activity of nurse managers. This is incorrect. Planning for the future is a decisional activity of nurse managers. This is incorrect. Monitoring is an informational activity of nurse managers.
14. Which of the following recommendations is best for a new nurse manager? A. Work hard at becoming the type of manager your staff wants you to be, but balance this with becoming the type of manager your administration wants you to be. B. Remember it can take 6 months to feel comfortable in a new position. C. Start out with mentoring other new nurse managers. D. Engage in extensive personal development. ANS: D Page: 76
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Trying to be “all things to all people” can lead to unrealistic expectations and feelings of being overwhelmed. This is incorrect. It can take up to a year to feel comfortable in a new position. This is incorrect. Mentoring of other new nurse managers should begin after gaining experience as a nurse manager. This is correct. Becoming a novice nurse manager requires personal development and learning.
15. A new nurse graduate is considering her future career path. She thinks she wants to eventually become a nurse manager. When should she consider applying for a position as a nurse manager? A. When she is comfortable in her current position B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses C. As soon as a position opens D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise ANS: D Page: 76
A. B.
Feedback This is incorrect. Being comfortable in one’s current position does not indicate clinical expertise. This is incorrect. Mentoring new nurses is a start in developing leadership skills, but
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C. D.
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does not indicate leadership expertise. This is incorrect. Brand new nurses need to develop leadership and clinical expertise before becoming nurse managers. This is correct. When a nurse has developed leadership and clinical expertise he or she may be ready for a nurse manager position.
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Chapter 6: Delegation and Prioritization of Client Care Staffing 1. A registered nurse (RN) instructs a nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to take vital signs for several patients. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. Direct delegation B. Supervision C. Indirect delegation D. Assignment Answer:
2. A chief nursing officer instructs a supervisor to complete staff scheduling for the month. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. Direct delegation B. Supervision C. Indirect delegation D. Assignment Answer:
3. When making assignments for the nursing team, an RN carefully considers the scope of practice and skills of each of the team members. This is an example of which task-related concern? A. Appropriateness B. Fairness C. Efficiency D. Abilities Answer:
4. A staff nurse informed the charge nurse that she was 6 weeks pregnant. The charge nurse rearranged patient assignments so the pregnant nurse would not be caring for highly infectious patients. This scenario is an example of which relationship-oriented concern? A. Health B. Appropriateness C. Fairness D. Staff preference Answer:
5. The charge nurse assigns a patient with a rare diagnosis to a newer nurse. This is an example of which relationship-oriented concern in making assignments?
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A. Staff preference B. Learning opportunities C. Compatibility D. Fairness Answer:
6. A new nurse is reviewing the legal constraints of nursing practice. Which of the following should the nurse review to determine legal boundaries to practice? A. State nursing practice act B. Professional nursing organization C. Institutional policies D. National Council of the State Boards of Nursing Answer:
7. Safety is a main concern when delegating patient care assignments. Which of the following is true regarding delegation? A. The individual to whom a task is delegated is held accountable for the task. B. The RN may need to intervene even after patient care tasks have been delegated. C. If a licensed practical nurse (LPN) cannot complete a patient care task that was assigned to her by the RN, that task may be delegated to another member of the nursing team, as long as it is within that individual’s scope of practice. D. After delegating a task, the RN does not need to supervise its completion. Answer:
8. An RN is supervising a team consisting of an LPN and a NAP. Which of the following patients should the RN see first? A. A patient on an insulin drip requiring hourly blood glucose checks B. A terminally ill cancer patient complaining of pain radiating throughout the abdomen C. A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has become confused D. A patient with a serum potassium of 4.0 Answer:
9. The nurse is making assignments for the patient care team. Which of the following tasks should the RN complete herself? A. Blood glucose testing for a diabetic patient B. Feeding a client with dementia C. Administering the scheduled oral beta blocker to a patient with hypertension
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D. Providing medication to a patient complaining of pain after surgery Answer:
10. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following is the RN’s priority assessment? A. Breath sounds B. Pedal pulses C. Location and intensity of pain D. Cardiac rate and rhythm Answer:
11. When organizing work for the day, which of the following should take priority? A. Clustered activities B. Activities that are time specific C. Delegating of assignments D. Peak energy time Answer:
12. A charge nurse is faced with a unit that is short staffed. The charge nurse reviews the tasks that need to be completed and assigns them to the best person. Which of the following types of nursing does this describe? A. Team nursing B. Total patient care C. Functional nursing D. Primary nursing Answer:
13. An ICU RN has been assigned to a high acuity patient who needs constant assessment and evaluation. What type of nursing is this RN performing? A. Team nursing B. Total patient care C. Functional nursing D. Primary nursing Answer:
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14. The RN has been assigned to care for a group of patients on an inpatient unit. The RN is assigned an LPN and an NAP to assist in caring for the group of patients. Patients are assigned to the RN and nursing team for their entire length of stay on the unit. Which of the following types of nursing does this scenario best represent? A. Team nursing B. Total patient care C. Functional nursing D. Dyad primary nursing Answer:
15. A nursing manager participates on a committee reviewing approved assignments for LPNs. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. Direct delegation B. Supervision C. Indirect delegation D. Assignment Answer:
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Chapter 6: Delegation and Prioritization of Client Care Staffing—Answers and Rationales 1. A registered nurse (RN) instructs a nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to take vital signs for several patients. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. Direct delegation B. Supervision C. Indirect delegation D. Assignment ANS: D Page: 83
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Direct delegation occurs when an RN reassigns responsibility for performing a job to another person. This is incorrect. Supervision occurs when one individual holds authority over another. This is incorrect. Indirect delegation occurs when a list of duties is approved by an organization to be assigned to certain personnel. This is correct. Assignment is the allocation of duties that an individual is already authorized to do.
2. A chief nursing officer instructs a supervisor to complete staff scheduling for the month. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. Direct delegation B. Supervision C. Indirect delegation D. Assignment ANS: A Page: 84
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Direct delegation occurs when an RN reassigns responsibility for performing a job to another person. The delegator retains responsibility to ensure the job is actually completed. This is incorrect. Supervision occurs when one individual holds authority over another. This is incorrect. Indirect delegation occurs when a list of duties is approved by an organization to be assigned to certain personnel. This is incorrect. Assignment is the allocation of duties that an individual is already authorized to do.
3. When making assignments for the nursing team, an RN carefully considers the scope of practice and skills of each of the team members. This is an example of which task-related concern? A. Appropriateness
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B. Fairness C. Efficiency D. Abilities ANS: D Page: 88
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Appropriateness is a task-related concern. When making assignments it is essential to consider whether the individual assigned the task has the education to perform the task, and whether the task needs an individual with specific education and licensure. This is incorrect. Fairness is a relationship-oriented concern, taking into account the physical and emotional aspects of providing nursing care and striving to divide the workload evenly. This is incorrect. Efficiency is a task-related concern when RNs are making assignments. Appropriate delegation results in efficiency, but inappropriate delegation costs time and money and decreases efficiency. This is correct. Assignments should be individualized for each member of the nursing team. For each member of the team, the RN should consider the individual’s knowledge and skill level, job description, role expectation, legal definitions, and individual strengths and weaknesses. This is tailoring the assignment to the abilities of each team member.
4. A staff nurse informed the charge nurse that she was 6 weeks pregnant. The charge nurse rearranged patient assignments so the pregnant nurse would not be caring for highly infectious patients. This scenario is an example of which relationship-oriented concern? A. Health B. Appropriateness C. Fairness D. Staff preference ANS: A Page: 90
A. B.
C.
Feedback This is correct. Health is a relationship-oriented concern when making assignments. Special health needs should be taken into consideration. This is incorrect. Appropriateness is a task-related concern. When making assignments it is essential to consider whether the individual assigned the task has the education to perform the task, and whether the task needs an individual with specific education and licensure. This is incorrect. Fairness is a relationship-oriented concern when making assignments. Fairness takes into account the physical and emotional aspects of providing nursing care and striving to divide the workload evenly.
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D.
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This is incorrect. Staff preference is a relationship-oriented concern when making assignments. Staff preference takes into account the individual desires of the team members.
5. The charge nurse assigns a patient with a rare diagnosis to a newer nurse. This is an example of which relationship-oriented concern in making assignments? A. Staff preference B. Learning opportunities C. Compatibility D. Fairness ANS: B Page: 89
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Staff preference is a relationship-oriented concern in making assignments that takes into consideration the individual desires of the team members. This is correct. Learning opportunities is a relationship-oriented concern when making assignments that considers the educational needs of team members, challenging them to take on new tasks. This is incorrect. Compatibility is a relationship-oriented concern in making assignments that focuses on team building efforts. This is incorrect. Fairness is a relationship-oriented concern that takes into account the physical and emotional demands of providing nursing care and strives to divide this workload evenly.
6. A new nurse is reviewing the legal constraints of nursing practice. Which of the following should the nurse review to determine legal boundaries to practice? A. State nursing practice act B. Professional nursing organization C. Institutional policies D. National Council of the State Boards of Nursing ANS: A Page: 91
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. State practice acts define the legal boundaries for nursing practice. This is incorrect. Professional nursing organizations define the standards of practice for nurses. This is incorrect. Institutional policies outline the job descriptions for members of the health-care team and serve to guide delegation decisions. This is incorrect. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) writes the
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NCLEX licensure examination.
7. Safety is a main concern when delegating patient care assignments. Which of the following is true regarding delegation? A. The individual to whom a task is delegated is held accountable for the task. B. The RN may need to intervene even after patient care tasks have been delegated. C. If a licensed practical nurse (LPN) cannot complete a patient care task that was assigned to her by the RN, that task may be delegated to another member of the nursing team, as long as it is within that individual’s scope of practice. D. After delegating a task, the RN does not need to supervise its completion. ANS: B Page: 91
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The RN retains accountability for patient care even when delegating a task. This is correct. If the care provided is unethical or unsafe, the RN has a duty to intervene. This is incorrect. Assignments made by the RN may not be reassigned, even if it is within the scope of practice of the other team member. This is incorrect. RNs should train and supervise those to whom they delegate patient care tasks.
8. An RN is supervising a team consisting of an LPN and a NAP. Which of the following patients should the RN see first? A. A patient on an insulin drip requiring hourly blood glucose checks B. A terminally ill cancer patient complaining of pain radiating throughout the abdomen C. A patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has become confused D. A patient with a serum potassium of 4.0 ANS: C Page: 92
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The RN should determine when the last blood glucose check was completed. However, airway, breathing, and circulation concerns take priority. This is incorrect. The patient’s pain should be assessed and treated. However, airway, breathing, and circulation concerns take priority. This is correct. COPD is an airway and breathing concern. Confusion can be the result of decreased cerebral perfusion. This patient should be seen first. This is incorrect. The patient’s serum potassium is within normal limits. Airway,
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breathing, and circulation concerns take priority.
9. The nurse is making assignments for the patient care team. Which of the following tasks should the RN complete herself? A. Blood glucose testing for a diabetic patient B. Feeding a client with dementia C. Administering the scheduled oral beta blocker to a patient with hypertension D. Providing medication to a patient complaining of pain after surgery ANS: D Page: 92
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Taking routine blood glucose levels does not require assessment, planning, or evaluation. This task may be delegated. This is incorrect. Assisting with feeding does not require assessment, planning, or evaluation. This task may be delegated. This is incorrect. Scheduled oral medications do not require assessment, planning, or evaluation. This task may be delegated. This is correct. A pain assessment should be completed before providing the pain medication, and its effectiveness should be evaluated afterwards. Assessment and evaluation cannot be delegated.
10. A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which of the following is the RN’s priority assessment? A. Breath sounds B. Pedal pulses C. Location and intensity of pain D. Cardiac rate and rhythm ANS: A Page: 92
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Airway, breathing, circulation, and vital signs are priority assessments. The patient has a breathing diagnosis; therefore, breath sounds take priority. This is incorrect. Pedal pulses are a circulatory assessment. A breathing assessment takes priority when the patient has a breathing diagnosis. This is incorrect. Airway, breathing, circulation, and vital signs are priority assessments over pain. This is incorrect. Cardiac rate and rhythm are circulation assessments. A breathing assessment takes priority when the patient has a breathing problem.
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11. When organizing work for the day, which of the following should take priority? A. Clustered activities B. Activities that are time specific C. Delegating of assignments D. Peak energy time ANS: B Page: 93
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Some activities are best performed in a cluster, but these are not the highest priority. This is correct. Activities that need to occur at a certain time and high-priority tasks are the biggest concerns. This is incorrect. Delegating assignments is an important task, but time-specific activities must be considered first. Also, it is important to remember that the RN is accountable even for tasks that have been delegated. This is incorrect. Taking peak energy time into consideration when planning activities for the day is a good recommendation, but time-specific activities take priority.
12. A charge nurse is faced with a unit that is short staffed. The charge nurse reviews the tasks that need to be completed and assigns them to the best person. Which of the following types of nursing does this describe? A. Team nursing B. Total patient care C. Functional nursing D. Primary nursing ANS: C Page: 93
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Team nursing occurs when a group of nursing staff provide care for a cluster of patients. This is incorrect. Total patient care is when one RN cares for all the tasks involved with caring for one patient. This is correct. Functional, or task, nursing focuses on matching tasks with the best individuals to complete those tasks. This is incorrect. Primary nursing occurs when one nurse directs care for a patient during his or her entire hospital stay. The primary nurse and associate nurses provide care for the patient.
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13. An ICU RN has been assigned to a high acuity patient who needs constant assessment and evaluation. What type of nursing is this RN performing? A. Team nursing B. Total patient care C. Functional nursing D. Primary nursing ANS: B Page: 94
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Team nursing occurs when a group of nursing staff provide care for a cluster of patients. This is correct. Total patient care is when one RN cares for all the tasks involved with caring for one patient. This is incorrect. Functional, or task, nursing focuses on matching tasks with the best individuals to complete those tasks. This is incorrect. Primary nursing occurs when one nurse directs care for a patient during his or her entire hospital stay. The primary nurse and associate nurses provide care for the patient.
14. The RN has been assigned to care for a group of patients on an inpatient unit. The RN is assigned an LPN and an NAP to assist in caring for the group of patients. Patients are assigned to the RN and nursing team for their entire length of stay on the unit. Which of the following types of nursing does this scenario best represent? A. Team nursing B. Total patient care C. Functional nursing D. Dyad primary nursing ANS: D Page: 94
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Team nursing is when a group of nursing staff provide care for a cluster of patients. Although the team is providing care for a group of patients, there is a better description for this scenario, as the patient cluster remains the same for the patients’ entire length of stay on the unit. This is incorrect. Total patient care is when one RN cares for all the tasks involved with caring for one patient. This is incorrect. Functional, or task, nursing focuses on matching tasks with the best individuals to complete those tasks. This is correct. Primary nursing occurs when one nurse directs care for a patient during his or her entire hospital stay. Today many hospitals use a dyad form of primary nursing, which uses support staff rather than all RNs. The principle remains the same. The
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patient will have the same staff providing care during the entire stay on the unit.
15. A nursing manager participates on a committee reviewing approved assignments for LPNs. Which of the following best describes this situation? A. Direct delegation B. Supervision C. Indirect delegation D. Assignment ANS: C Page: 84
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Direct delegation occurs when an RN reassigns responsibility for performing a job to another person. The delegator retains responsibility to ensure the job is actually completed. This is incorrect. Supervision occurs when one individual holds authority over another. This is correct. Indirect delegation occurs when a list of duties is written into policy and approved by an organization to be assigned to certain personnel. This is incorrect. Assignment is the allocation of duties that an individual is already authorized to do.
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Chapter 7: Communicating With Others and Working With the Interprofessional Team 1. A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a patient who has refused chemotherapy. As the healthcare team discusses the reasons why the patient should receive chemotherapy, the RN forcefully restates the patient’s wishes. Which type of communication does this scenario best demonstrate? A. Assertive communication B. Aggressive communication C. Interpersonal communication D. Transactional communication Answer:
2. A nurse checks her work e-mail for policy updates and spends about 5 minutes deleting spam messages. Spam messages are described in transactional models as which of the following? A. Senders of communication B. Noise C. Time wasters D. Receivers of communication Answer:
3. An RN is conducting discharge teaching for a patient when he realizes the patient does not have the skills needed to access and use health information. Which of the following most likely describes the barrier this patient is facing to effective communication in health care?
A. Cultural diversity B. Cultural competency of health-care providers C. Low health literacy D. Communication skills of health-care providers Answer:
4. During shift change, the day shift nurse reports to the night shift nurse that the patient has no known drug allergies and the last potassium came back low. Which of the following best describes the part of the I PASS the BATON tool used in this scenario? A. Patient B. Situation C. Actions D. Safety concerns Answer:
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5. The use of electronic health records (EHRs) was mandated by the year 2013. Which of the following is the main purpose of computerized record keeping in health care? A. Ease of finding and correcting errors B. Reduction of paper and conservation of resources C. Safe, quality patient care D. Ease of searching records Answer:
6. There are several benefits to using EHRs. Which of the following is most specifically designed to reduce medication errors? A. Barcode scanning of laboratory labels B. Connection to monitoring equipment, such as telemetry and blood pressure cuffs C. Data tracking D. Barcode scanning of patient identification bracelets Answer:
7. Although there are many advantages to the use of electronic medical records (EMRs), disadvantages do exist. Which of the following is a disadvantage to the use of EMRs? A. Patient confidentiality B. Portability C. Identification of patients in need of screenings D. Quality of care evaluation Answer:
8. Which of the following is the most important reason why the computer on wheels (COW) or workstation on wheels (WOW) gained popularity in health care? A. Cost savings B. Convenience C. Patient safety D. Decreased use of workstations in the nurses station Answer: 9. An RN is using a WOW for charting at the patient’s bedside. Which of the following is an important reminder for the RN to keep in mind? A. Ensure the WOW has an extension cord. B. Position the WOW between the RN and the patient to facilitate communication while charting. C. Turn the WOW off when not using it.
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D. Log off when not using the WOW. Answer:
10. Which of the following is a rule of netiquette to follow when sending professional e-mails to others in the organization? A. Proofread e-mails before sending them. B. Send the information to anyone who might find it helpful. C. Online behavior requires different rules from in-person behavior. D. Capitalize important words to reinforce points. Answer:
11. A new nurse is reviewing social media use. Which of the following tips should be followed? A. Social media is a personal choice with a different set of standards. B. Do not make remarks about patients, even if they are not identified. C. Ask permission from patients before taking pictures or videos at work. D. Connecting with patients on social media for follow-up can be beneficial. Answer:
12. A new RN on an interdisciplinary team is working at becoming a good team player. Which of the following qualities is best for an effective team player? A. Communicate positively. B. Share information that is needed by the others. C. Participate when there is something to be added. D. Actively work to solve problems. Answer:
13. Which of the following best indicates that an interprofessional health-care team can work together effectively? A. The team has a process in place for sharing information. B. Each team member understands his or her role. C. Team members create goals for the patients according to their specialty and then share with the team. D. Members provide care to a diverse group of patients. Answer:
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14. Which of the following is a good recommendation for effective communication between shifts? A. Always end with identifying the patient and health-care provider. B. Consistently use the same process for hand-off communication. C. Use a worksheet to keep track of data provided during hand-off communication. D. Use walking rounds to facilitate communication during hand-offs. Answer:
15. An RN calls the health-care provider to report a change in patient condition. During the conversation the RN describes what has already been done for the patient. Which section of the ISBARR communication does this best describe? A. Situation B. Assessment C. Background D. Recommendation Answer:
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Chapter 7: Communicating With Others and Working With the Interprofessional Team— Answers and Rationales 1. A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a patient who has refused chemotherapy. As the healthcare team discusses the reasons why the patient should receive chemotherapy, the RN forcefully restates the patient’s wishes. Which type of communication does this scenario bes demonstrate A. Assertive communication B. Aggressive communication C. Interpersonal communication D. Transactional communication ANS: A Page: 100
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Assertive communication involves standing up for oneself and one’s patients and their rights without violating the rights of others. This is incorrect. Aggressive communication involves forcing one’s wishes or ideas on others. This is incorrect. Interpersonal communication provides an opportunity to reflect, construct personal knowledge, and develop collective knowledge. This is incorrect. Transactional models of communication consider all individuals to be in the process of sending, receiving, and interpreting messages at the same time.
2. A nurse checks her work e-mail for policy updates and spends about 5 minutes deleting spam messages. Spam messages are described in transactional models as which of the following? A. Senders of communication B. Noise C. Time wasters D. Receivers of communication ANS: B Page: 101
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Linear models of communication label individuals who communicate as “senders.” This is correct. Noise is anything that interrupts communication, which includes spam and instant messaging in the electronic environment. This is incorrect. The concept of time in transactional models of communication acknowledges how communication changes through time. This is incorrect. Linear models of communication label individuals who receive communication as “receivers.”
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3. An RN is conducting discharge teaching for a patient when he realizes the patient does not have the skills needed to access and use health information. Which of the following most likely describes the barrier this patient is facing to effective communication in health care? A. Cultural diversity B. Cultural competency of health-care providers C. Low health literacy D. Communication skills of health-care providers ANS: C Page: 101
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Cultural diversity as a barrier impedes the ability to access, understand, and utilize health-care services and information. This is incorrect. Lack of cultural competency of health-care providers results in a failure to identify and consider cultural practices. This is correct. Low health literacy results in a lack of skills needed to access and use health information. This is incorrect. Communication skills become a barrier when health-care providers lack the skills needed for effective interpersonal communication.
4. During shift change, the day shift nurse reports to the night shift nurse that the patient has no known drug allergies and the last potassium came back low. Which of the following best describes the part of the I PASS the BATON tool used in this scenario? A. Patient B. Situation C. Actions D. Safety concerns ANS: D Page: 110
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Patient communication includes patient name, identifiers, age, gender, and location. This is incorrect. Situation communication includes current status, code status, level of concern, recent changes, and response to treatment. This is incorrect. Action communication includes discussing what has been done and why. This is correct. Safety communication includes critical laboratory values, allergies, socioeconomic factors, and risk assessment.
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5. The use of electronic health records (EHRs) was mandated by the year 2013. Which of the following is the main purpose of computerized record keeping in health care? A. Ease of finding and correcting errors B. Reduction of paper and conservation of resources C. Safe, quality patient care D. Ease of searching records ANS: C Page: 103
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although EHRs increase the ease of finding and correcting errors, this is not the main purpose. This is incorrect. Although reducing the use of paper and other resources is helpful, this is not the main purpose of EHRs. This is correct. Providing safe, quality patient care is the main purpose of EHRs. EHRs reduce errors, increase safety, and improve quality of care. This is incorrect. Although EHRs do make it easier to search records, this is not the main purpose of EHRs.
6. There are several benefits to using EHRs. Which of the following is most specifically designed to reduce medication errors? A. Barcode scanning of laboratory labels B. Connection to monitoring equipment, such as telemetry and blood pressure cuffs C. Data tracking D. Barcode scanning of patient identification bracelets ANS: D Page: 103
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Barcode scanning of laboratory labels reduces errors in laboratory testing. This is incorrect. A connection to equipment monitoring the patient does facilitate documentation of vital signs, but it does not directly reduce medication errors. This is incorrect. Although tracking data through time is an advantage, it does not specifically reduce medication errors. This is correct. Barcode scanning of patient identification bracelets and medications are examples of improved safety measures that are directly related to reducing medication errors.
7. Although there are many advantages to the use of electronic medical records (EMRs), disadvantages do exist. Which of the following is a disadvantage to the use of EMRs?
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A. Patient confidentiality B. Portability C. Identification of patients in need of screenings D. Quality of care evaluation ANS: B Page: 104
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Security safeguards are in place to protect patient confidentiality. This is correct. Moving data from an EMR to a location other than the provider’s practice or the health-care facility can be difficult and may require physical printing of the information. This is incorrect. The ease of quickly identifying patients in need of screenings is a benefit. This is incorrect. The ability to evaluate the quality of care is a benefit.
8. Which of the following is the most important reason why the computer on wheels (COW) or workstation on wheels (WOW) gained popularity in health care? A. Cost savings B. Convenience C. Patient safety D. Decreased use of workstations in the nurses station ANS: C Page: 104
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Adding workstations created an expense. This is incorrect. Although the COWs and WOWs allow for real time documentation, convenience was not the most important reason for using them. This is correct. Computers located only in the nurses station, away from patients, meant documentation was not completed in a timely manner. Additionally, the time spent away from the patients was an increased risk to patient safety. This is incorrect. Workstations were utilized more often after the EMRs, and nurses found themselves waiting for one to be free.
9. An RN is using a WOW for charting at the patient’s bedside. Which of the following is an important reminder for the RN to keep in mind? A. Ensure the WOW has an extension cord. B. Position the WOW between the RN and the patient to facilitate communication while charting. C. Turn the WOW off when not using it.
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D. Log off when not using the WOW. ANS: D Page: 104
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The WOW should either be plugged in or have a fully charged battery. This is incorrect. The WOW should not be positioned between the RN and patient. The RN should be able to make eye contact with the patient and make a personal connection. This is incorrect. The WOW should be plugged in when not in use to ensure a full battery, but it is not necessary to turn it completely off. This is correct. To protect patient confidentiality, the RN should log completely out of the WOW when not using it.
10. Which of the following is a rule of netiquette to follow when sending professional e-mails to others in the organization? A. Proofread e-mails before sending them. B. Send the information to anyone who might find it helpful. C. Online behavior requires different rules from in-person behavior. D. Capitalize important words to reinforce points. ANS: A Page: 105
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Always proofread e-mails before sending them. This is incorrect. Send information only to those who need it. This is incorrect. The same rules of behavior should be followed online as when dealing with individuals face-to-face. This is incorrect. Do not write in all capital letters, as this suggests anger.
11. A new nurse is reviewing social media use. Which of the following tips should be followed? A. Social media is a personal choice with a different set of standards. B. Do not make remarks about patients, even if they are not identified. C. Ask permission from patients before taking pictures or videos at work. D. Connecting with patients on social media for follow-up can be beneficial. ANS: B Page: 106
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. Professional standards are the same with social media as any other circumstances.
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This is correct. Disparaging remarks about patients, employers, or coworkers should not be made on social media, even if they are not identified. This is incorrect. Do not take videos or pictures of any patients on any personal devices. This is incorrect. Professional boundaries should be maintained even online. Online contact with patients blurs professional boundaries.
12. A new RN on an interdisciplinary team is working at becoming a good team player. Which of the following qualities is best for an effective team player? A. Communicate positively. B. Share information that is needed by the others. C. Participate when there is something to be added. D. Actively work to solve problems. ANS: D Page: 112
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Effective team players communicate constructively. This is incorrect. Effective team players share information openly and willingly. This is incorrect. Effective team players participate actively. This is correct. Effective team players work at being problem-solvers.
13. Which of the following best indicates that an interprofessional health-care team can work together effectively? A. The team has a process in place for sharing information. B. Each team member understands his or her role. C. Team members create goals for the patients according to their specialty and then share with the team. D. Members provide care to a diverse group of patients. ANS: A Page: 113
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Effective teams need to have a process in place for sharing information. This is incorrect. Team members should understand both their own role and the roles of others. This is incorrect. Members should work together to create and achieve patient goals. This is incorrect. Patient diversity does not indicate effectiveness of the team. However, the team should all have a common group of patients.
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14. Which of the following is a good recommendation for effective communication between shifts? A. Always end with identifying the patient and health-care provider. B. Consistently use the same process for hand-off communication. C. Use a worksheet to keep track of data provided during hand-off communication. D. Use walking rounds to facilitate communication during hand-offs. ANS: C Page: 106
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Begin hand-off communications with identifying the patient, room number, age, gender, and health-care provider. This is incorrect. Not every unit uses the same process so it is better to organize the details into a worksheet. This is correct. Using a worksheet provides a reference for later and it ensures no important safety information is missed. This is incorrect. Walking rounds may be useful on some units, but larger units may find them to be inefficient.
15. An RN calls the health-care provider to report a change in patient condition. During the conversation the RN describes what has already been done for the patient. Which section of the ISBARR communication does this best describe? A. Situation B. Assessment C. Background D. Recommendation ANS: C Page: 110
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The situation section briefly describes the current problem. This is incorrect. The assessment section provides current assessment data. This is correct. The background section includes medical, nursing, and family information relevant to the problem, including what steps have already been taken. This is incorrect. The recommendation section provides recommendations for future interventions.
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Chapter 8: Resolving Problems and Conflicts 1. Which of the following is a positive side to conflict? A. Identifying roadblocks to progress B. Alleviation of stress symptoms C. Recognition of the differences in individuals D. Development of constructive methods of communication Answer:
2. Which of the following is an example of a relationship conflict? A. A registered nurse (RN) who reports to the nurse manager that another staff member has refused an assignment B. A discussion of how current policies restrict implementing evidence-based practice C. A disagreement about continuity of care for high acuity patients D. An issue with tardiness that is being handled through the creation of new policies Answer:
3. Which of the following most accurately describes bullying? A. Bullying involves an individual becoming overly demanding over another. B. Bullying involves an individual trying to exert power over another. C. Bullying only occurs laterally. D. Bullies often have multiple targets. Answer:
4. Which of the following is a cause of work intensification? A. Inequities in care delivery B. Physicians disregarding input from other team members C. Behaviors intended to exert power over others D. Emphasis on cost reduction Answer:
5. An RN is caring for a 93-year-old patient who has a living will, but whose children have decided their parent should be a full code. The patient has coded twice. The other staff members do not seem to have any issues with the situation, but the RN feels distressed. Which of the following best describes this source of conflict? A. Scarcity, safety, and security B. Competition between groups
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C. Ethical conflict D. Cultural differences Answer:
6. Which of the following is true regarding conflict resolution? A. The purpose of conflict resolution is to improve team efficiency. B. Compromise is the intent of conflict resolution. C. If one side wins, the other side loses. D. When a full-blown conflict occurs, problem-solving is necessary. Answer:
7. Which of the following is a reason why it can be difficult to get to the bottom of an issue? A. Issues are emotionally charged. B. Listening carefully will make what other people are saying clear. C. Sometimes the parties involved are uncertain about what the problem really is. D. A clearly defined scope of practice may be missing. Answer:
8. Which of the following is a good recommendation to assist a team to generate possible solutions? A. Discuss solutions that have worked in the past. B. Brainstorm individually and then discuss possible solutions. C. Generate new ideas and then define the problem. D. Ensure individual solutions take priority. Answer:
9. Which of the following correctly describes a step in the problem-solving process? A. Assessment requires patience to determine if a solution may be workable. B. Evaluation requires reviewing the issue after implementation of the selected recommendation to determine if the problem has been fully resolved. C. Implementation requires taking the time to fully define the problem. D. Evaluation requires the team to discuss each recommendation and arrive at the best option. Answer:
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10. In order to best understand the scope of the situation, which of the following questions should be asked? A. What caused the problem? B. Who is involved in the problem? C. What solutions have been recommended? D. What problems am I likely to encounter? Answer:
11. The unit manager is negotiating a conflict between the staff RNs and nursing assistants. The manager talked to everyone involved and created a list of the main issues. Which step in the negotiation process does this best describe? A. Manage the emotions. B. Set ground rules. C. Clarify the problem. D. Perform an opening move. Answer:
12. During a meeting to resolve staffing issues and tardiness on a unit, the manager invites the staff to each take a turn speaking and asks that everyone listen respectfully and avoid making personal or professional disparaging remarks about one another. Which step in the negotiation process does this best describe? A. Set ground rules. B. Clarify the problem. C. Perform an opening move. D. Continue the negotiation. Answer:
13. Which of the following is the best description of formal negotiation? A. An RN explains to the unit manager why a raise is deserved. B. A unit manager justifies a request for more equipment to the chief nursing officer. C. A charge RN makes assignments for the staff. D. A group of RNs work together for collective bargaining. Answer:
14. Which of the following is a management issue usually covered by the contract with collective bargaining? A. Grievance processes B. Sick leave
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C. Length of the workday D. Standards of care Answer:
15. Which of the following is a practice issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining? A. Promotions B. Holidays C. Overtime D. Adequate staffing Answer:
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Chapter 8: Resolving Problems and Conflicts—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following is a positive side to conflict? A. Identifying roadblocks to progress B. Alleviation of stress symptoms C. Recognition of the differences in individuals D. Development of constructive methods of communication ANS: D Page: 118
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Successful conflict resolution leads to individuals seeing one another as having similar needs rather than as roadblocks to progress. This is incorrect. One negative side of conflict is the development of stress symptoms. This is incorrect. Successful conflict management leads to seeing the similarities between individuals and finding commonalities. This is correct. Successful conflict management leads to the development of constructive methods of communication.
2. Which of the following is an example of a relationship conflict? A. A registered nurse (RN) who reports to the nurse manager that another staff member has refused an assignment B. A discussion of how current policies restrict implementing evidence-based practice C. A disagreement about continuity of care for high acuity patients D. An issue with tardiness that is being handled through the creation of new policies ANS: A Page: 118
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Relationship conflicts are related to personal and social issues. This is incorrect. Work-related issues, such as hospital policies, are task-related conflicts. This is incorrect. Work-related issues, such as coordination of workflow, are task-related conflicts. This is incorrect. Work-related issues, such as new policies, are task-related conflicts.
3. Which of the following most accurately describes bullying? A. Bullying involves an individual becoming overly demanding over another. B. Bullying involves an individual trying to exert power over another. C. Bullying only occurs laterally.
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D. Bullies often have multiple targets. ANS: B Page: 118
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Bullying is more than being overly demanding. This is correct. Bullying involves behaviors that exert power over others. This is incorrect. Bullying can be horizontal or lateral. This is incorrect. Bullies often single out just one target.
4. Which of the following is a cause of work intensification? A. Inequities in care delivery B. Physicians disregarding input from other team members C. Behaviors intended to exert power over others D. Emphasis on cost reduction ANS: D Page: 119
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Inequities in care delivery are one example of disparity. This is incorrect. Differences in perceived status and authority can cause physicians to disregard input from other team members. This is incorrect. Bullying includes behaviors intended to exert power over others. This is correct. Staff shortages and emphasis on cost reduction cause work intensification.
5. An RN is caring for a 93-year-old patient who has a living will, but whose children have decided their parent should be a full code. The patient has coded twice. The other staff members do not seem to have any issues with the situation, but the RN feels distressed. Which of the following best describes this source of conflict? A. Scarcity, safety, and security B. Competition between groups C. Ethical conflict D. Cultural differences ANS: C Page: 120
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. Scarcity, safety, and security are sources of conflict when the emphasis on cost savings results in possible layoffs for employees.
Test Bank, Chapter 8 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
B. C. D.
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This is incorrect. Competition between groups occurs when some team members feel they have authority over others. This is correct. Moral distress occurs when an RN is faced with a situation that violates the RN’s personal or professional ethics. This is incorrect. Cultural differences include language differences, attitudes, and biases that make communication a challenge and create conflict.
6. Which of the following is true regarding conflict resolution? A. The purpose of conflict resolution is to improve team efficiency. B. Compromise is the intent of conflict resolution. C. If one side wins, the other side loses. D. When a full-blown conflict occurs, problem-solving is necessary. ANS: A Page: 120
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. The purpose of conflict resolution is not winning arguments, but to work together more efficiently. This is incorrect. The fixed pie myth of conflict resolution is that winning can be split in equal amounts. This is incorrect. The devaluation reaction myth of conflict resolution is the belief that when one side gets what they want, it will be bad for the other side. This is incorrect. When a full-blown conflict occurs, negotiation of a settlement is necessary. Problem-solving may be enough to settle disagreements when they first arise.
7. Which of the following is a reason why it can be difficult to get to the bottom of an issue? A. Issues are emotionally charged. B. Listening carefully will make what other people are saying clear. C. Sometimes the parties involved are uncertain about what the problem really is. D. A clearly defined scope of practice may be missing. ANS: C Page: 121
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Not all issues are emotionally charged, and when they are not the participants are better able to give a direct answer. This is incorrect. It can be time consuming to get to the bottom of a problem because people may be vague about their real concerns. This is correct. The individuals involved may genuinely be uncertain about what the problem really is. This is incorrect. When scope of practice is not clearly defined, issues can be difficult to
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resolve.
8. Which of the following is a good recommendation to assist a team to generate possible solutions? A. Discuss solutions that have worked in the past. B. Brainstorm individually and then discuss possible solutions. C. Generate new ideas and then define the problem. D. Ensure individual solutions take priority. ANS: B Page: 122
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Old solutions should not be used for new problems. This is correct. First, each team member should brainstorm individually. Then, the ideas can be discussed as a group. This is incorrect. The problem should be clearly defined and then ideas for solutions discussed. This is incorrect. Individual brainstorming can be done first, but the group should work together for a solution.
9. Which of the following correctly describes a step in the problem-solving process? A. Assessment requires patience to determine if a solution may be workable. B. Evaluation requires reviewing the issue after implementation of the selected recommendation to determine if the problem has been fully resolved. C. Implementation requires taking the time to fully define the problem. D. Evaluation requires the team to discuss each recommendation and arrive at the best option. ANS: B Page: 121
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Implementation may require patience to ensure a good solution is not discarded prematurely. This is correct. Evaluation means taking the time to see if the implemented solution really solved the problem. This is incorrect. Assessment requires taking the time to fully identify the problem. This is incorrect. Reviewing suggested problems and selecting the best option comes before implementation. Evaluation is the final step.
10. In order to best understand the scope of the situation, which of the following questions should be asked?
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A. What caused the problem? B. Who is involved in the problem? C. What solutions have been recommended? D. What problems am I likely to encounter? ANS: D Page: 123
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The three questions for determining scope of the problem are: What am I trying to achieve; what is the environment in which I am operating; and what problems am I likely to encounter? This is incorrect. The three questions for determining scope of the problem are: What am I trying to achieve; what is the environment in which I am operating; and what problems am I likely to encounter? This is incorrect. The three questions for determining scope of the problem are: What am I trying to achieve; what is the environment in which I am operating; and what problems am I likely to encounter? This is correct. What problems am I likely to encounter is one question to determine the scope of the situation.
11. The unit manager is negotiating a conflict between the staff RNs and nursing assistants. The manager talked to everyone involved and created a list of the main issues. Which step in the negotiation process does this best describe? A. Manage the emotions. B. Set ground rules. C. Clarify the problem. D. Perform an opening move. ANS: C Page: 125
A.
B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Managing emotions requires the manager to first get his or her own emotions under control and then find out why emotions are high and refocus the discussion on the main issues. This is incorrect. Setting ground rules allows everyone involved a chance to speak and be heard. The manager should also remind staff to speak for themselves and not to criticize or make personal remarks. This is correct. Clarifying the problem includes listing the issues and finding a common theme or cause. This is incorrect. The opening statement sets the stage for the negotiation process.
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12. During a meeting to resolve staffing issues and tardiness on a unit, the manager invites the staff to each take a turn speaking and asks that everyone listen respectfully and avoid making personal or professional disparaging remarks about one another. Which step in the negotiation process does this best describe? A. Set ground rules. B. Clarify the problem. C. Perform an opening move. D. Continue the negotiation. ANS: A Page: 125
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Setting ground rules allows everyone involved a chance to speak and be heard. The manager should also remind staff to speak for themselves and not to criticize or make personal remarks. This is incorrect. Clarifying the problem includes listing the issues and finding a common theme or cause. This is incorrect. The opening statement sets the stage for the negotiation process. This is incorrect. After the opening statements, each side’s concerns can be discussed further.
13. Which of the following is the best description of formal negotiation? A. An RN explains to the unit manager why a raise is deserved. B. A unit manager justifies a request for more equipment to the chief nursing officer. C. A charge RN makes assignments for the staff. D. A group of RNs work together for collective bargaining. ANS: D Page: 16
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Formal bargaining processes are governed by laws and contracts. A raise for an individual employee is not governed by laws. This is incorrect. Formal bargaining processes are governed by laws and contracts. Justifying an equipment request is not covered by law. This is incorrect. Formal bargaining processes are governed by laws and contracts. Making assignments is a daily task and is not covered by laws. This is correct. Collective bargaining is highly formalized because it involves contracts and laws.
14. Which of the following is a management issue usually covered by the contract with collective bargaining?
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A. Grievance processes B. Sick leave C. Length of the workday D. Standards of care ANS: A Page: 126
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Grievance procedures are management issues discussed in the contract during collective bargaining. This is incorrect. Sick leave is an economic issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining. This is incorrect. Length of the workday is an economic issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining. This is incorrect. Standards of care is a practice issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining.
15. Which of the following is a practice issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining? A. Promotions B. Holidays C. Overtime D. Adequate staffing ANS: D Page: 126
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Promotions are a management issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining. This is incorrect. Holidays are an economic issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining. This is incorrect. Overtime is an economic issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining. This is correct. Adequate staffing is a practice issue addressed in the contract during collective bargaining.
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Chapter 9: Organizations, Power, and Professional Empowerment 1. A new registered nurse (RN) with an organization is learning the layout of patient rooms. Which of the following organizational levels does this best describe? A. Artifact level B. Espoused beliefs C. Underlying assumptions D. Organizational culture Answer:
2. An organization focuses on improving interdisciplinary collaboration. Which of the following most likely is the focus of the organization? A. Culture of safety B. Care environment C. Excellence D. Meaningfulness Answer:
3. Which of the following components of the care environment involves understanding and valuing the work individuals do? A. Excellence B. Meaningfulness C. Regard D. Learning and growth Answer:
4. In a health-care organization, all employees are ranked according to their level of authority. Which characteristic of a bureaucracy does this best describe? A. Division of labor B. Hierarchy C. Rules and regulations D. Technical competence Answer:
5. An organization works hard to be the best in the market and drive out competition. This describes which of the following organizational goals? A. Growth B. Profit
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C. Status D. Dominance Answer:
6. In which of the following types of networks is the main focus of supervisors on planning and providing resources? A. Organic B. Bureaucratic C. Traditional D. Innovative Answer:
7. A new RN asks a peer how the peer always seems to get timely responses from the laboratory department. The experienced RN explains the process she uses. This is most likely an example of which of the following? A. Formal processes B. Informal processes C. Authority D. Reward Answer:
8. The ability of an RN to conduct research, collect data, interpret it, and utilize it best describes which source of power? A. Authority B. Reward C. Control of information D. Coercion Answer:
9. An RN has joined the practice council at the hospital network. The RN is able to have some say regarding nursing practice in the network and now feels as if network administration is listening to the RN’s recommendations. Which of the following components of empowerment does this scenario best describe? A. Meaning and decision making B. Self-determination and autonomy C. Impact and autonomy D. Impact and decision making
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Answer:
10. Which of the following is true regarding nursing practice councils? A. Practice councils are a form of shared governance, giving nurses the ability to participate in levels of decision making for the unit. B. Practice councils give nurses the authority to control all aspects of their practice. C. Genuine sharing of decision making occurs when managers retain control. D. A nursing practice council works best for an organization when it is the only practice council in place. Answer:
11. A new RN in the critical care unit joined the professional organization for critical care nurses. The new RN took advantage of webinars and journal articles that offered continuing education credits. The new RN attended the national conference and began studying for the certification examination. Which benefit of professional organizations does this scenario best describe? A. Collegiality B. Commitment to improved patient outcomes C. Recognition of achievement D. Enhancement of nursing competence Answer:
12. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of collective bargaining? A. To provide protection to employers B. To promote cooperation C. To equalize power between employees and employers D. To promote a clinical ladder for staff Answer:
13. Which of the following is the best way a nurse manager can work with leaders of collective bargaining units? A. Focus on staffing goals B. Focus on a clinical ladder to support staff expertise C. Focus on patient outcomes D. Focus on shared goals Answer:
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14. For nurses to participate in decision making, they need to have the authority to make decisions without asking permission. Which source of power does this best describe? A. Resources B. Support C. Information D. Opportunity Answer:
15. Which of the following best describes power? A. Power increases with each step up in hierarchy. B. Power is directly related to the amount of authority one has in an organization. C. Those at the bottom of the hierarchy have no sources of power. D. Sources of power exist at all levels of the hierarchy. Answer:
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Chapter 9: Organizations, Power, and Professional Empowerment—Answers and Rationale 1. A new registered nurse (RN) with an organization is learning the layout of patient rooms. Which of the following organizational levels does this best describe? A. Artifact level B. Espoused beliefs C. Underlying assumptions D. Organizational culture ANS: A Page: 135
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. The artifact level of organizational culture includes visible characteristics, such as the layout of patient rooms. This is incorrect. The espoused beliefs of organizational culture include written goals and the philosophy of the organization. This is incorrect. The underlying assumptions of organizational culture are beliefs and feelings of those in the organization. This is incorrect. The organizational culture is a set of shared values, beliefs, and assumptions, and includes the artifact level, espoused beliefs, and underlying assumptions.
2. An organization focuses on improving interdisciplinary collaboration. Which of the following most likely is the focus of the organization? A. Culture of safety B. Care environment C. Excellence D. Meaningfulness ANS: A Page: 136
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. A culture of safety involves a commitment to consistent and safe operations, including an emphasis on interdisciplinary collaboration. This is incorrect. The environment in which care is provided should be healthy and supportive of nursing work in order to promote safe, high quality patient care. This is incorrect. Excellence, a component of the care environment, is the act of always striving to do better. This is incorrect. Meaningfulness, a component of the care environment, requires making the purpose of the organization very clear.
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3. Which of the following components of the care environment involves understanding and valuing the work individuals do? A. Excellence B. Meaningfulness C. Regard D. Learning and growth ANS: C Page: 136
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Excellence means always striving to do better. This is incorrect. Meaningfulness requires making the purpose of the organization clear. This is correct. Regard requires understanding and valuing the work of individuals. This is incorrect. Learning and growth means providing mentors, guidance, and opportunities for individuals to learn and grow.
4. In a health-care organization, all employees are ranked according to their level of authority. Which characteristic of a bureaucracy does this best describe? A. Division of labor B. Hierarchy C. Rules and regulations D. Technical competence ANS: B Page: 138
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Division of labor means specific components of a job are assigned to specific individuals. This is correct. Hierarchy is the ranking of each employee according to his or her level of authority. This is incorrect. Rules and regulations are the acceptable and unacceptable behaviors and ways to carry out specific tasks. This is incorrect. An emphasis on technical competence means individuals with specific skills and knowledge are hired for specific tasks.
5. An organization works hard to be the best in the market and drive out competition. This describes which of the following organizational goals? A. Growth B. Profit C. Status D. Dominance
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ANS: D Page: 137
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. An organization’s goal for growth may include expanding into new territories, adding new services, and bringing in new patients. This is incorrect. An organization’s goal for profit includes being able to pay bills, avoid debt, and maintain expensive medical equipment. This is incorrect. An organization’s goal for status includes its reputation as being the best in its field. This is correct. An organization’s goal for dominance goes beyond growth to the point of attempting to drive competition out of the market.
6. In which of the following types of networks is the main focus of supervisors on planning and providing resources? A. Organic B. Bureaucratic C. Traditional D. Innovative ANS: A Page: 140
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Organic networks shift decision making to the individuals who implement the decisions, rather than the supervisors. This leaves the supervisors free to focus on planning and providing resources. This is incorrect. Bureaucracy is one form of traditional organization in which decisions are made in the upper levels of the hierarchy. This is incorrect. Traditional networks are focused on the hierarchy of organizational structure. This is incorrect. Innovative organizations focus on making the best use of all individuals. More specifically, within organic networks is where supervisors focus on planning and providing resources.
7. A new RN asks a peer how the peer always seems to get timely responses from the laboratory department. The experienced RN explains the process she uses. This is most likely an example of which of the following? A. Formal processes B. Informal processes C. Authority D. Reward ANS: B
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Page: 141
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Formal processes include written policies and procedures. This is correct. Informal processes are not written processes and may not even be discussed, but are often much simpler and easier to navigate than the formal processes. This is incorrect. Authority is a source of power where that power is granted to an individual according to the position the individual holds. This is incorrect. Reward is a source of power that is the promise of goods, services, recognition, or resources.
8. The ability of an RN to conduct research, collect data, interpret it, and utilize it best describes which source of power? A. Authority B. Reward C. Control of information D. Coercion ANS: C Page: 141
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Authority is the power given to an individual because of his or her position. This is incorrect. Reward is power in the form of the ability to provide financial or other benefits to others. This is correct. Control of information is power that stems from the special knowledge an individual is believed to possess. This is incorrect. Coercion is power held by an individual because of the threat of economic, physical, or psychological harm.
9. An RN has joined the practice council at the hospital network. The RN is able to have some say regarding nursing practice in the network and now feels as if network administration is listening to the RN’s recommendations. Which of the following components of empowerment does this scenario best describe? A. Meaning and decision making B. Self-determination and autonomy C. Impact and autonomy D. Impact and decision making ANS: D Page: 142
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A.
B.
C.
D.
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Feedback This is incorrect. Decision making is control regarding nursing practice within an organization, but meaning occurs when an RN cares about his or her work, takes it seriously, and enjoys it. This is incorrect. Self-determination occurs when an RN feels free to decide how to do his or her work and autonomy means the RN is able to act on his or her own knowledge and experience. This is incorrect. Impact occurs when an RN feels he or she can make a difference because others listen to his or her ideas. However, autonomy means the RN is able to act on his or her own knowledge and experience. This is correct. Impact occurs when an RN feels he or she can make a difference because others listen to his or her ideas. Decision making is control regarding nursing practice within an organization. Joining a practice council empowers the RN through impact and decision making.
10. Which of the following is true regarding nursing practice councils? A. Practice councils are a form of shared governance, giving nurses the ability to participate in levels of decision making for the unit. B. Practice councils give nurses the authority to control all aspects of their practice. C. Genuine sharing of decision making occurs when managers retain control. D. A nursing practice council works best for an organization when it is the only practice council in place. ANS: A Page: 143
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Shared governance is a nursing practice structure that gives nurses the authority to participate in decision making for the unit through practice councils. This is incorrect. Practice councils have some control regarding nursing practice and decision making, but the amount of control depends upon the amount of shared authority given to the practice council. This is incorrect. Sharing of decision making is very difficult when managers do not want to relinquish any control. This is incorrect. Shared governance requires all professions to have a voice in decision making.
11. A new RN in the critical care unit joined the professional organization for critical care nurses. The new RN took advantage of webinars and journal articles that offered continuing education credits. The new RN attended the national conference and began studying for the certification examination. Which benefit of professional organizations does this scenario best describe? A. Collegiality B. Commitment to improved patient outcomes
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C. Recognition of achievement D. Enhancement of nursing competence ANS: D Page: 144
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Collegiality is the opportunity to work with peers on issues that are important to the nurse’s specialty. This is incorrect. Commitment to improved patient outcomes means being concerned with the health and well-being of one’s patients. Although improving individual competence does impact patient outcomes, it more specifically addresses the nurse’s own competence. This is incorrect. Recognition of achievement would include certification. The new RN has begun studying for the certification examination, but must meet certain practice experience requirements before taking the examination. This is correct. Through publications, conferences, and continuing education, professional organizations enhance an individual nurse’s competence.
12. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of collective bargaining? A. To provide protection to employers B. To promote cooperation C. To equalize power between employees and employers D. To promote a clinical ladder for staff ANS: C Page: 144
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Collective bargaining protects employees. This is incorrect. Collective bargaining may result in conflict rather than cooperation. This is correct. The purpose of collective bargaining is for an equalization of power between employees and employers. This equalization leads to improved working conditions, increased job security, and pay raises. This is incorrect. Collective bargaining units often focus on pay equity.
13. Which of the following is the best way a nurse manager can work with leaders of collective bargaining units? A. Focus on staffing goals B. Focus on a clinical ladder to support staff expertise C. Focus on patient outcomes D. Focus on shared goals ANS: D
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Page: 145
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although staffing goals are important, it is essential to find common ground and establish shared goals. This is incorrect. Supporting staff expertise is important, but it is more important to find common ground and establish shared goals. This is incorrect. Patient outcomes are essential, but greater impact on patient outcomes can be seen through establishing shared goals. This is correct. Through respect for differences and finding common ground, shared goals can be established that will be mutually beneficial.
14. For nurses to participate in decision making, they need to have the authority to make decisions without asking permission. Which source of power does this best describe? A. Resources B. Support C. Information D. Opportunity ANS: B Page: 143
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Resources include financial, material, and human needs to accomplish work. This is correct. Support is the authority to take action without asking permission. This is incorrect. Information includes patient care expertise and knowledge about the organization’s culture and goals. This is incorrect. Opportunity means having a chance to participate in decision making.
15. Which of the following best describes power? A. Power increases with each step up in hierarchy. B. Power is directly related to the amount of authority one has in an organization. C. Those at the bottom of the hierarchy have no sources of power. D. Sources of power exist at all levels of the hierarchy. ANS: D Page: 142
A. B.
Feedback This is incorrect. Power is the ability to influence others despite resistance. This does not necessarily increase with hierarchy. This is incorrect. Power is not only related to authority, but to the sources of power one
Test Bank, Chapter 9 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
C. D.
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has. This is incorrect. All stakeholders have sources of power, no matter where they fall in the hierarchy. This is correct. Sources of power exist at all levels of the hierarchy.
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Chapter 10: Organizations, People, and Change 1. Which of the following is an example of a macro-level change? A. Policy changes B. Adjustments to shift change report C. Implementing a new evidence-based practice (EBP) D. Quality improvement changes Answer:
2. Management on a nursing unit has decided to upgrade to new beds in an effort to decrease occurrences of skin breakdown on the unit. The manager begins the staff in-service on the new beds by reviewing the recent incidence of skin breakdown and comparing it with statistics from similar units. Which stage of the change process is the manager addressing? A. Change B. Refreezing C. Unfreezing D. None of the above Answer:
3. Which of the following is a way to appeal to feelings in order to increase receptivity for a change? A. Present statistics on the number of patients with catheter-associated urinary tract infections during the next staff meeting. B. Share a patient’s story of how a catheter-associated urinary tract impacted him personally. C. Provide staff with a report of infection control measures and their effectiveness. D. Inform staff about the cost of individual supplies. Answer:
4. A nursing unit updated their barcode scanners because the batteries of the old ones were not replaceable and stopped holding charge. The proposed new scanners are wired so that batteries are not required. However, the registered nurses (RNs) resist this change because the placement of the scanners could make it difficult to reach the patients if they were not in bed. Which of the following most likely describes the source of the resistance? A. Design flaws B. Practical reasons C. Personal needs D. Position and power Answer:
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5. Nurses on a unit have prepared a presentation for their administrators on a proposal for a change in practice based on current evidence. They begin the presentation with a description of the current practice and evidence of why it is inefficient. This is an example of lowering resistance through which method? A. Sharing information B. Providing psychological safety C. Dictating change D. Disconfirming currently held beliefs Answer:
6. An RN is considering returning to school for a bachelor of science in nursing (BSN) degree. The RN realizes the knowledge gained will improve his practice and could impact patient outcomes. However, the RN is not sure about when to start the process. The RN’s manager shares her own story with the RN, explaining why the manager decided to return to school and how this has impacted her professional life and personal life. Which of the following stages of change is the RN most likely in? A. Contemplation B. Preparation C. Precontemplation D. Action Answer:
7. Which of the following is true about behavior changes? A. Crisis is a powerful motivation for change. B. Change is motivated by fear. C. Individuals who are active and engaged can learn to make a change. D. Small changes are easier to make and sustain. Answer:
8. The first step in change is to plan carefully. Which of the following questions should be asked during the design stage of change? A. Does everyone agree on the change? B. Is the change really needed? C. How difficult is the change to make? D. How quickly should the change be made? Answer:
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9. Which of the following is a good recommendation when planning change? A. Appoint a champion even for small changes. B. Not all effective leadership skills are needed for effecting change. C. Small changes do not require involving people who may be affected. D. Motivating people may be required even for small changes. Answer:
10. A nurse manager is planning for implementation of a change in practice based on current evidence. When planning for implementation, which of the following is the priority consideration? A. Is this the only change taking place? B. Will the change work on this unit? C. Is the change necessary? D. Where have past changes failed? Answer:
11. A nurse manager reflects on current practice and notes that a recent change has become a part of daily practice. Which stage of change does this scenario best describe? A. Implementation B. Design C. Planning D. Integration Answer:
12. Which of the following best describes a reason why radical changes are often easier to maintain than relatively smaller changes? A. Information is more abundant with radical changes. B. Support groups for radical changes deal with emotional aspects of change. C. It takes much longer to feel a difference. D. Fear is often the motivation for making radical changes. Answer:
13. Which of the following is true about personal change? A. The most effective leaders focus on improving the team, rather than themselves. B. Radical changes are more important for leaders than small changes. C. The process of personal change may follow the same steps as organizational change.
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D. Small personal changes do not require much effort. Answer:
14. To increase the number of baccalaureate-prepared RNs on the unit, the manager has proposed starting a cohort of RNs in a BSN program at one time. The manager has scheduled an information session for all who are interested. During the session, six RNs sign up for assistance with the application process. Which stage of change are these RNs most likely in? A. Precontemplation B. Preparation C. Contemplation D. Action Answer:
15. Which of the following will provide psychological safety when making a major change? A. Provide opportunities for individuals to ask questions. B. Allow individuals to agree to the change without consequences when they do not implement the change right away. C. Provide details about why the change is necessary. D. Recognize resistance and work to eliminate it. Answer:
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Chapter 10: Organizations, People, and Change—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following is an example of a macro-level change? A. Policy changes B. Adjustments to shift change report C. Implementing a new evidence-based practice (EBP) D. Quality improvement changes ANS: A Page: 150
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Policy changes occur at the state or federal level and impact every health-care facility. This is incorrect. Adjustments to the shift change report impact only one unit or possibly one system. This is incorrect. EBP implementation is typically limited to one unit or facility. This is incorrect. Quality improvement changes are typically limited to one unit or facility.
2. Management on a nursing unit has decided to upgrade to new beds in an effort to decrease occurrences of skin breakdown on the unit. The manager begins the staff in-service on the new beds by reviewing the recent incidence of skin breakdown and comparing it with statistics from similar units. Which stage of the change process is the manager addressing? A. Change B. Refreezing C. Unfreezing D. None of the above ANS: C Page: 151
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The change stage is the implementation, when the change actually takes effect. This is incorrect. During the refreezing stage, the change becomes a part of everyday life. This is correct. During the unfreezing stage, the reason for the change is discussed and it includes other actions that create a readiness for change. This is incorrect. The scenario describes the unfreezing stage of change.
3. Which of the following is a way to appeal to feelings in order to increase receptivity for a change?
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A. Present statistics on the number of patients with catheter-associated urinary tract infections during the next staff meeting. B. Share a patient’s story of how a catheter-associated urinary tract impacted him personally. C. Provide staff with a report of infection control measures and their effectiveness. D. Inform staff about the cost of individual supplies. ANS: B Page: 152
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Rather than presenting statistics, a patient story will impact feelings. This is correct. Sharing a patient story or visual presentation impacts feelings. This is incorrect. To make infection control more meaningful, a petri dish of swabs from equipment will make more of an impact. This is incorrect. Rather than telling staff about the cost, demonstrate through a visual presentation.
4. A nursing unit updated their barcode scanners because the batteries of the old ones were not replaceable and stopped holding charge. The proposed new scanners are wired so that batteries are not required. However, the registered nurses (RNs) resist this change because the placement of the scanners could make it difficult to reach the patients if they were not in bed. Which of the following most likely describes the source of the resistance? A. Design flaws B. Practical reasons C. Personal needs D. Position and power ANS: B Page: 152
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Design flaw concerns are typically centered on whether the change is a good idea. Design flaws are a technical concern and should be thoroughly researched. This is correct. Practical reasons for resistance result from a question of whether the change can realistically be implemented without needing to have workarounds created. This is incorrect. Resistance because of personal needs usually results from a risk that is not perceived as positive. This is incorrect. Resistance can occur when an individual views a change as a threat to his or her position or power, even if it is a perceived threat.
5. Nurses on a unit have prepared a presentation for their administrators on a proposal for a change in practice based on current evidence. They begin the presentation with a description
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of the current practice and evidence of why it is inefficient. This is an example of lowering resistance through which method? A. Sharing information B. Providing psychological safety C. Dictating change D. Disconfirming currently held beliefs ANS: D Page: 154
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Sharing information about the proposed change can clear up any misunderstandings, but does not change the thinking of current practice. This is incorrect. Providing psychological safety may include recognizing the skills and interest of those involved, assuring staff that no one will lose positions because of implementation of the change, involving staff in the decision making, and other ideas. This is incorrect. Dictating change occurs when people in authority require a change to be made. This is correct. The scenario describes disconfirming currently held beliefs that the current practice is efficient. This sets the stage for the reason why a change is needed and will decrease resistance.
6. An RN is considering returning to school for a bachelor of science in nursing (BSN) degree. The RN realizes the knowledge gained will improve his practice and could impact patient outcomes. However, the RN is not sure about when to start the process. The RN’s manager shares her own story with the RN, explaining why the manager decided to return to school and how this has impacted her professional life and personal life. Which of the following stages of change is the RN most likely in? A. Contemplation B. Preparation C. Precontemplation D. Action ANS: A Page: 158
A.
B. C.
Feedback This is correct. During the contemplation stage, the individual intends to make a change. It is during this stage that a compelling leader can use emotional persuasion to encourage a change. This is incorrect. The preparation stage occurs when a change has been decided upon and date set for action. This is incorrect. During the precontemplation stage, the individual does not see a need for change and most likely will not be influenced by others trying to make him or her change.
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D.
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This is incorrect. During the action stage, the change is implemented.
7. Which of the following is true about behavior changes? A. Crisis is a powerful motivation for change. B. Change is motivated by fear. C. Individuals who are active and engaged can learn to make a change. D. Small changes are easier to make and sustain. ANS: C Page: 159
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Crisis is not necessarily a motivating factor. This is evidenced by the number of individuals who undergo coronary bypasses and still do not sustain changes in their lives. This is incorrect. Fear can cause people to deny that bad things could happen. This is correct. People can continue learning and implementing changes throughout their lives, as long as they remain active and engaged. This is incorrect. Major changes may be easier because the benefits are quickly seen.
8. The first step in change is to plan carefully. Which of the following questions should be asked during the design stage of change? A. Does everyone agree on the change? B. Is the change really needed? C. How difficult is the change to make? D. How quickly should the change be made? ANS: B Page: 156
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Not everyone may agree on the change, but it is important to encourage discussion about the change and any doubts anyone may have. This is correct. It is important to ascertain if there is a better way of doing things and if the change is really necessary. This is incorrect. Determining the difficulty in making the change is a question to ask when considering complexity in the implementation stage. This is incorrect. Determining pace is one of the considerations during the implementation stage of change.
9. Which of the following is a good recommendation when planning change? A. Appoint a champion even for small changes.
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B. Not all effective leadership skills are needed for effecting change. C. Small changes do not require involving people who may be affected. D. Motivating people may be required even for small changes. ANS: D Page: 156
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Champions are best for large-scale changes. This is incorrect. Effective leadership skills are extremely beneficial when planning change. This is incorrect. Involving people in the decisions that affect them is important for all changes, no matter how small. This is correct. Even small changes require effective leadership skills, such as motivating people.
10. A nurse manager is planning for implementation of a change in practice based on current evidence. When planning for implementation, which of the following is the priority consideration? A. Is this the only change taking place? B. Will the change work on this unit? C. Is the change necessary? D. Where have past changes failed? ANS: A Page: 156
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Considering whether other changes are also occurring can assist the manager in gauging stress, a factor to consider when implementing change. This is incorrect. Considering whether a change will work should be completed during the design stage of change. This is incorrect. Considering whether a change is necessary should be completed during the design stage of change. This is incorrect. Considering prior changes should occur during the planning stage of change.
11. A nurse manager reflects on current practice and notes that a recent change has become a part of daily practice. Which stage of change does this scenario best describe? A. Implementation B. Design C. Planning D. Integration
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ANS: D Page: 157
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Implementation of a change occurs when the change is introduced into practice. This is incorrect. The design stage of change is the first stage, when a change is considered. This is incorrect. Planning occurs when it is determined that a change should occur. This is correct. Integration is the refreezing phase, when a change has become a part of practice.
12. Which of the following best describes a reason why radical changes are often easier to maintain than relatively smaller changes? A. Information is more abundant with radical changes. B. Support groups for radical changes deal with emotional aspects of change. C. It takes much longer to feel a difference. D. Fear is often the motivation for making radical changes. ANS: B Page: 157
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Information alone is often not enough to implement and maintain a change. The emotional aspect must be dealt with. This is correct. Knowledge alone is often not enough. Support groups, meditation, yoga, relaxation, and aerobic exercise can deal with the emotional aspects of change. This is incorrect. With radical changes, individuals often feel a difference much quicker. This is incorrect. Radical changes often change the motivation for change from fear to joy.
13. Which of the following is true about personal change? A. The most effective leaders focus on improving the team, rather than themselves. B. Radical changes are more important for leaders than small changes. C. The process of personal change may follow the same steps as organizational change. D. Small personal changes do not require much effort. ANS: C Page: 18
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. To become a more effective leader, personal change may be necessary.
Test Bank, Chapter 10 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
B. C. D.
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This is incorrect. Even small changes that improve a leader’s effectiveness are important. This is correct. Personal changes follow a similar process as organizational changes. This is incorrect. Small changes often require as much or more effort than radical changes.
14. To increase the number of baccalaureate-prepared RNs on the unit, the manager has proposed starting a cohort of RNs in a BSN program at one time. The manager has scheduled an information session for all who are interested. During the session, six RNs sign up for assistance with the application process. Which stage of change are these RNs most likely in? A. Precontemplation B. Preparation C. Contemplation D. Action ANS: B Page: 158
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. During the precontemplation stage, the RNs would not see a reason to obtain a BSN. This is correct. The RNs are planning to make a change and have set a goal time for starting the change. This is incorrect. During contemplation, the RNs would consider the possibilities of making a change. In the scenario, the RNs have made a decision and signed up to start the enrollment process. This is incorrect. During the action stage of change, these RNs will be taking classes to fulfill the BSN requirements.
15. Which of the following will provide psychological safety when making a major change? A. Provide opportunities for individuals to ask questions. B. Allow individuals to agree to the change without consequences when they do not implement the change right away. C. Provide details about why the change is necessary. D. Recognize resistance and work to eliminate it. ANS: A Page: 155
A. B.
Feedback This is correct. Providing an opportunity for individuals to ask questions and express themselves will increase psychological safety. This is incorrect. Agreeing to the change and then failing to act is a form of passive
Test Bank, Chapter 10 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
C. D.
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resistance. This is incorrect. Providing information is a good recommendation and will lower resistance, but does not directly impact psychological safety. This is incorrect. One way to eliminate or reduce resistance is to provide for psychological safety, but this is not the only way.
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Chapter 11: Quality and Safety 1. Which of the following best describes safety in health care? A. A registered nurse (RN) who made a major medication error was terminated. B. After a medication error, a team works to prevent similar errors in the future. C. An organization focuses on efficiency on the nursing units. D. Safety indicators are reported regularly. Answer:
2. Which of the following best describes the characteristic of effective quality in health care? A. Frequent assessments of patients with soft wrist restraints B. Including the patient in planning care C. Using current evidence to improve practice D. Responding to call lights quickly Answer:
3. Which of the following best describes the characteristic of efficient quality in health care? A. Opening only the supplies that are necessary B. Utilizing the CAUTI bundle to prevent urinary tract infections when placing indwelling urinary catheters C. Using an interpreter for patients who do not speak the health-care provider’s language D. Working to reduce wait times in the emergency department Answer:
4. Which of the following is true regarding patient safety and prevention of harm? A. Medication errors are adverse events. B. Errors of execution are usually intentional and occur because of time or resource constraints. C. As many as 90% of medication errors are preventable. D. Poorly coordinated care and nosocomial infections are examples of errors. Answer:
5. An RN receives a patient with a diagnosis of thrombotic stroke from the emergency department. The pharmacy alerts the RN that the dose of tPA must be administered within the next 15 minutes and sends the medication to the RN. The usual practice is for tPA to be administered in the emergency department before admission to the unit. The RN checks the medication administration record, noting there is no indication that the tPA was administered
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in the emergency department. The RN calls down to the emergency department to speak with the nurse who cared for the patient. The previous nurse failed to document administration of the medication and corrects the documentation with a late entry note. This scenario best describes which of the following? A. Medication error B. Adverse event C. Near miss D. Risk management Answer:
6. A nurse is completing the morning assessment on a new patient. As the nurse approaches the IV pole, the nurse’s foot gets stuck to the floor and the nurse falls to the ground, injuring his knee. It was discovered that an IV bag containing dextrose had leaked onto the floor and was not properly cleaned up. The nurse suffered a sprain and returned to work 1 week later. Which of the following does this best describe? A. Serious incident B. Service occurrence C. Minor injury D. Sentinel event Answer:
7. A patient suffered a hemolytic transfusion reaction after being given packed red blood cells with an incompatible blood type. The patient recovered. Which of the following types of safety events does this scenario best describe? A. Serious incident B. Never event C. Minor injury D. Sentinel event Answer:
8. Which of the following is true regarding an incident report? A. The incident report is completed in the affected patient’s chart. B. The incident report is not available during litigation. C. The incident report should be complete, accurate, and contain the nurse’s impressions of the event. D. The incident report is kept with internal hospital correspondence. Answer:
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9. Which of the following recommendations promotes safe, quality, patient-centered care? A. Focus on tasks B. Establish patient goals with the care team C. Communicate the care plan with the care team D. Evaluate outcomes at the end of the shift Answer:
10. A chief nursing officer is working to develop a culture of safety. Which of the following recommendations should be implemented? A. When sentinel events occur, study what happened in order to learn from the consequences. B. Determine who was most responsible for an error that occurred. C. Identify what errors occur for mandatory reports. D. Eliminate the cause of errors. Answer:
11. Which of the following is true regarding a root cause analysis? A. The goal of a root cause analysis is to find the one root cause of an error. B. Finding the root cause may not always be possible. C. Determine the necessary and sufficient influences at the beginning of the root cause analysis. D. Focus on the direct cause of the error. Answer:
12. An RN identifies safety concerns on an inpatient unit. The RN implements changes in order to improve patient outcomes. Which of the following best describes this scenario? A. Apply quality improvement. B. Utilize informatics. C. Employ evidence-based practice. D. Provide patient-centered care. Answer: 13. A nurse leader is involved with establishing the organization’s quality improvement plan. Which of the following should be included in the plan? A. Educate the managers in the organization about quality improvement. B. Establish a quality council to set goals according to organizational values. C. Link quality improvement goals to the organization’s strategic plan. D. Encourage individuals to think about quality improvement.
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Answer:
14. Which of the following is a way in which nursing can impact quality and safety? A. Pay attention to detail in daily activities. B. Advocate for shift change communication to occur with the patient’s medical record opened and under review. C. Encourage the patient to ask questions of the health-care team and follow the team’s recommendations. D. Acknowledge the power of individuals within the profession of nursing. Answer:
15. Improvement of patient care outcomes is a focus of all health-care providers. Which of the following is a method for nurses to improve patient care outcomes? A. Focus on improving patient teaching. B. Encourage nurses to further their education. C. Evaluate only when patient teaching fails. D. Nurse leaders should control decision making. Answer:
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Chapter 11: Quality and Safety—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following best describes safety in health care? A. A registered nurse (RN) who made a major medication error was terminated. B. After a medication error, a team works to prevent similar errors in the future. C. An organization focuses on efficiency on the nursing units. D. Safety indicators are reported regularly. ANS: B Page: 164
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Determining why errors occur and working to eliminate them is the best way to promote safety. This is correct. Determining why an error was made and how to prevent it in the future promotes a culture of safety. This is incorrect. Focusing on efficiency does not necessarily promote safety. This is incorrect. Reporting safety indicators may be required, but analyzing the information collected and using it to make improvements will better promote safety.
2. Which of the following best describes the characteristic of effective quality in health care? A. Frequent assessments of patients with soft wrist restraints B. Including the patient in planning care C. Using current evidence to improve practice D. Responding to call lights quickly ANS: C Page: 164
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Frequent assessments of patients with soft wrist restraints best describes safety as a characteristic of quality in health care. This is incorrect. Including the patient in care planning best describes patient-focused as a characteristic of quality in health care. This is correct. Utilizing evidence-based practice fits with the characteristic of effectiveness in providing quality health care. This is incorrect. Timely response to patient needs describes the characteristic of timeliness in quality health care.
3. Which of the following best describes the characteristic of efficient quality in health care? A. Opening only the supplies that are necessary B. Utilizing the CAUTI bundle to prevent urinary tract infections when placing indwelling urinary catheters
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C. Using an interpreter for patients who do not speak the health-care provider’s language D. Working to reduce wait times in the emergency department ANS: A Page: 164
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Efficiency in health care includes avoiding waste. This is incorrect. Avoiding injury to patients because of the care provided to them is the characteristic of safety in quality health care. This is incorrect. Equitable care is provided by ensuring all patients receive the same care, regardless of patient characteristics. This is incorrect. Reduction of wait times is addressing the characteristic of timeliness in quality health care.
4. Which of the following is true regarding patient safety and prevention of harm? A. Medication errors are adverse events. B. Errors of execution are usually intentional and occur because of time or resource constraints. C. As many as 90% of medication errors are preventable. D. Poorly coordinated care and nosocomial infections are examples of errors. ANS: D Page: 165
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Adverse events are errors that cause harm or death. Not all medication errors lead to adverse events. This is incorrect. Errors of execution are failures of planned action to be completed as intended. Errors are usually unintentional. This is incorrect. According to the Agency for Healthcare Quality and Research (AHRQ, 2017b) as many as 50% of adverse drug events were preventable. This is correct. Medical errors may be the result from poorly coordinated care, medication errors, health care-acquired infections, hand-off errors, falls, and diagnostic or surgical errors.
5. An RN receives a patient with a diagnosis of thrombotic stroke from the emergency department. The pharmacy alerts the RN that the dose of tPA must be administered within the next 15 minutes and sends the medication to the RN. The usual practice is for tPA to be administered in the emergency department before admission to the unit. The RN checks the medication administration record, noting there is no indication that the tPA was administered in the emergency department. The RN calls down to the emergency department to speak with the nurse who cared for the patient. The previous nurse failed to document administration of
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the medication and corrects the documentation with a late entry note. This scenario best describes which of the following? A. Medication error B. Adverse event C. Near miss D. Risk management ANS: C Page: 165
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A medication error would have occurred had the RN given the medication, duplicating the dose. This is incorrect. An adverse event occurs when there is injury to the patient. This is correct. An example of a near miss is catching a medication error before the medication is administered. This is incorrect. Risk management is a process involving identification, analysis, treatment, and evaluation of both real and potential hazards.
6. A nurse is completing the morning assessment on a new patient. As the nurse approaches the IV pole, the nurse’s foot gets stuck to the floor and the nurse falls to the ground, injuring his knee. It was discovered that an IV bag containing dextrose had leaked onto the floor and was not properly cleaned up. The nurse suffered a sprain and returned to work 1 week later. Which of the following does this best describe? A. Serious incident B. Service occurrence C. Minor injury D. Sentinel event ANS: A Page: 166
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. A serious incident occurs when a patient or employee suffers injury without the threat of death. This is incorrect. A service occurrence is an error that does not result in harm or a significant interruption in clinical services. This is incorrect. A minor injury occurs when medical intervention for a patient or employee is needed outside of the admission reason. Minor physical or psychological harm occurred. This is incorrect. A sentinel event results in death or serious permanent injury.
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7. A patient suffered a hemolytic transfusion reaction after being given packed red blood cells with an incompatible blood type. The patient recovered. Which of the following types of safety events does this scenario best describe? A. Serious incident B. Never event C. Minor injury D. Sentinel event ANS: B Page: 166
A.
B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A serious incident occurs when a patient or employee suffers injury without the threat of death. A hemolytic transfusion reaction after being transfused with incompatible blood is a serious event with threat of death. It should never occur. This is correct. A hemolytic transfusion reaction resulting from being given incompatible blood components is a shocking event that should never occur, regardless of the patient outcome. This is incorrect. A hemolytic transfusion reaction is not a minor injury. This is incorrect. A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence that results in death or serious permanent injury. A hemolytic transfusion reaction caused by incompatible blood is a shocking event that should never occur.
8. Which of the following is true regarding an incident report? A. The incident report is completed in the affected patient’s chart. B. The incident report is not available during litigation. C. The incident report should be complete, accurate, and contain the nurse’s impressions of the event. D. The incident report is kept with internal hospital correspondence. ANS: D Page: 167
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The incident report does not become a part of the patient’s medical record. This is incorrect. The incident report may be subpoenaed by the plaintiff’s attorney. This is incorrect. The incident report should not contain subjective information, such as the nurse’s impressions. The incident report should be objective, complete, and accurate. This is correct. In the event a paper incident report is completed, a single copy should be kept with hospital correspondence.
9. Which of the following recommendations promotes safe, quality, patient-centered care?
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A. Focus on tasks. B. Establish patient goals with the care team. C. Communicate the care plan with the care team. D. Evaluate outcomes at the end of the shift. ANS: C Page: 167
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Focusing on outcomes rather than tasks is an important component in managing resources. This is incorrect. Care objectives and long-term goals should be discussed with the patient during introductory rounds to ensure the entire team is working toward the same goals. This is correct. The full care plan, objectives, and each team member’s role should be discussed with the care team. This is incorrect. Outcomes should be evaluated throughout the shift so that revisions can be made as necessary.
10. A chief nursing officer is working to develop a culture of safety. Which of the following recommendations should be implemented? A. When sentinel events occur, study what happened in order to learn from the consequences. B. Determine who was most responsible for an error that occurred. C. Identify what errors occur for mandatory reports. D. Eliminate the cause of errors. ANS: A Page: 168
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. A root cause analysis should be completed for sentinel events. This is incorrect. A blame-free environment promotes safety. This is incorrect. It is important to identify why and how errors occur in order to establish a culture of safety. This is incorrect. The focus should be on identifying the cause of errors and improve practice so that similar errors can be avoided.
11. Which of the following is true regarding a root cause analysis? A. The goal of a root cause analysis is to find the one root cause of an error. B. Finding the root cause may not always be possible. C. Determine the necessary and sufficient influences at the beginning of the root cause analysis. D. Focus on the direct cause of the error.
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ANS: B Page: 168
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. There are often multiple root causes for errors. This is correct. Whenever feasible, the root cause should be found. This is incorrect. Determining the necessary and sufficient influences should occur at every level of the process. This is incorrect. Focus on all the factors that influenced the error, not only the direct cause.
12. An RN identifies safety concerns on an inpatient unit. The RN implements changes in order to improve patient outcomes. Which of the following best describes this scenario? A. Apply quality improvement. B. Utilize informatics. C. Employ evidence-based practice. D. Provide patient-centered care. ANS: A Page: 170
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Quality improvement involves identification of errors and safety hazards, as well as designing and implementing interventions to change processes and improve safety. This is incorrect. Utilizing informatics involves using information technology to communicate, manage knowledge, mitigate error, and support decision making. This is incorrect. Evidence-based practice involves integrating current best practices, research, and clinical expertise into practice. This is incorrect. Patient-centered care means the patient’s preferences, values, and thoughts are considered. The patient is educated on care provided and decision making is shared.
13. A nurse leader is involved with establishing the organization’s quality improvement plan. Which of the following should be included in the plan? A. Educate the managers in the organization about quality improvement. B. Establish a quality council to set goals according to organizational values. C. Link quality improvement goals to the organization’s strategic plan. D. Encourage individuals to think about quality improvement. ANS: C Page: 170
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A. B.
C. D.
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Feedback This is incorrect. All levels should be educated about quality improvement. This is incorrect. A quality council should be developed and the organization should be included. The organization’s strategic plan should be incorporated into the quality improvement goals. This is correct. The organization’s strategic plan should be taken into consideration when setting quality improvement goals. This is incorrect. Process improvement teams should be formed.
14. Which of the following is a way in which nursing can impact quality and safety? A. Pay attention to detail in daily activities. B. Advocate for shift change communication to occur with the patient’s medical record opened and under review. C. Encourage the patient to ask questions of the health-care team and follow the team’s recommendations. D. Acknowledge the power of individuals within the profession of nursing. ANS: D Page: 176
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Attention to detail is a start, but the nurse must then act to effect change to promote safety. This is incorrect. Advocating for bedside reporting at shift change improves communication and reduces errors. This is incorrect. Shared decision making between the care team and patient improves quality and safety. This is correct. It is important for professional nurses to acknowledge their power within the profession.
15. Improvement of patient care outcomes is a focus of all health-care providers. Which of the following is a method for nurses to improve patient care outcomes? A. Focus on improving patient teaching. B. Encourage nurses to further their education. C. Evaluate only when patient teaching fails. D. Nurse leaders should control decision making. ANS: B Page: 177
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. Patient teaching alone may not improve patient care outcomes because other factors can impact its success.
Test Bank, Chapter 11 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
B. C. D.
This is correct. Increasing education of nurses improves patient outcomes. This is incorrect. Both successes and failures should be evaluated. This is incorrect. The entire team should be involved in decision making.
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Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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Chapter 12: Maintaining a Safe Work Environment 1. Which of the following organizations is primarily responsible for developing and enforcing workplace safety policies? A. National Safety Council (NSC) B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) D. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Answer:
2. Nurses face threats to safety in their daily work experiences. According to an American Nurses Association (ANA) study in 2011, which of the following is currently the greatest threat to safety of nurses in the workplace? A. Sharps injuries B. Patient assaults C. Stress D. Lifting injuries Answer:
3. Which of the following organizations partners with other agencies in an effort to conduct research and implement prevention strategies to promote safe and healthy work environments? A. The Joint Commission B. American Nurses Association C. Institute of Medicine D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Answer:
4. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to inform workers of potential risks and health hazards. Which of the following organizations should a nurse leader monitor to best learn of new and emerging health hazards? A. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health B. Institute of Medicine C. American Nurses Association D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration Answer:
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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5. A nurse manager is developing a safety program for the unit. Which of the following steps should be included during the third step of creating the plan? A. Recognize potential safety hazards. B. Calculate the costs of the plan. C. Assess the amount of risk involved. D. Provide the necessary safety supplies and equipment. Answer:
6. A nurse manager of a busy emergency department is working to reduce the potential for violence on the unit. Which of the following will most likely reduce the potential for violence? A. Decrease the number of visible security guards to avoid antagonizing patients. B. Implement procedures to speed up the discharge process for mentally ill patients. C. Propose a plan to expand and update the waiting room. D. Ensure post-assaultive treatment and support is available to all staff. Answer:
7. A nurse recently started working in a busy hospital in a high-crime neighborhood. Which of the following recommendations will best help the nurse to prevent violent behavior? A. Acknowledge the feelings of others. B. Monitor patients for increased alcohol consumption. C. Ensure all individuals enter the building through a metal detector. D. Report outages in the parking lot lights. Answer:
8. Nurses in one hospital noticed a sharp increase in violent behaviors during an economic downturn that dramatically impacted the community. There have been multiple incidences of violence during the last 3 months, including several cases involving weapons. The staff has suggested metal detectors be installed; however, the organization-stated funding was not available. Last week a health-care worker was seriously injured when a patient fired a gun, and since that time there has been a sharp increase of staff calling in sick. Which of the following is the best step to take next? A. Report the violence to the supervisor. B. Call security. C. Get involved in policy making at the state level. D. Contact the local collective bargaining unit. Answer:
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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9. Which of the following is true regarding needlestick injuries? A. The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act has been so effective that needlestick injuries are no longer a concern. B. The ANA has recently promoted the inclusion of nurses in the selection of safety devices. C. OSHA standards require the use of longer needles with caps to prevent needlesticks. D. The Joint Commission surveyors routinely ask about treatment of nurses who have suffered needlestick injuries. Answer:
10. Which of the following should be included in training for the prevention of needlestick injuries and other exposures to health risks? A. Clean all contaminated work surfaces according to established guidelines. B. Recap needles before disposal to avoid accidental pricks when emptying containers. C. Staff should be treated within 3 hours of a needlestick injury. D. Although sharps injuries have significantly declined in most areas, emergency departments are still the most at risk when it comes to needlestick injuries. Answer:
11. Which of the following is true regarding ergonomic injuries? A. Ergonomic injuries do not occur when safe patient handling technology is used. B. Unexpected patient movements during transfers can cause back injuries to nurses. C. Health-care facilities are required to attempt to keep workplaces free from ergonomic hazards. D. Nurses are not at risk for repetitive stress injuries. Answer:
12. Shift work disorder results in a greater risk for accidents, ulcers, heart disease, and chronic fatigue. Which of the following recommendations can prevent or lessen the risk of shift work disorder for those on night shift? A. If driving home during the morning sunlight, wear sunglasses. B. Schedule some day shifts and some night shifts during the scheduling period to allow for more nighttime sleep periods. C. Change days scheduled off to allow for more days off at one time. D. Take naps whenever possible during time off. Answer:
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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13. Nurses are advocates for their patients and have a duty to report any behaviors that may negatively impact patient outcomes. Which of the following is true regarding reporting quality and safety issues? A. Whistleblower laws protect nurses from reprisals by employers. B. An organization may terminate employment of a nurse who reports quality and safety issues. C. The state nurses practice act will have information if there are whistleblower laws in the state to protect nurses. D. As long as nurses do the right thing for their patients, they will be protected. Answer:
14. Which of the following federal laws requires employers to create affirmative action plans to hire and promote individuals with disabilities? A. Title VII B. Equal Pay Act of 1963 C. Vocation Rehabilitation Act of 1973 D. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 Answer:
15. Which of the following is an OSHA requirement regarding handling of hazardous chemicals? A. Use air filtration systems to keep the air cleaner. B. Minimize the use of toxic disinfectants. C. Avoid the use of mercury-containing products. D. Provide Material Data Safety Sheets. Answer:
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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Chapter 12: Maintaining a Safe Work Environment—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following organizations is primarily responsible for developing and enforcing workplace safety policies? A. National Safety Council (NSC) B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) D. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ANS: B Page: 183
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The NSC holds employers and employees responsible for safety in the workplace. This is correct. OSHA, part of the U.S. Department of Labor, develops and enforces workplace safety policies and health regulations. This is incorrect. NIOSH, part of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, supports research, education, and training to promote workplace safety. This is incorrect. One part of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services is the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health, which is charged with supporting research, education, and training for workplace safety.
2. Nurses face threats to safety in their daily work experiences. According to an American Nurses Association (ANA) study in 2011, which of the following is currently the greatest threat to safety of nurses in the workplace? A. Sharps injuries B. Patient assaults C. Stress D. Lifting injuries ANS: C Page: 182
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Sharps injuries have declined because of the use of protective devices. This is incorrect. Policy changes and protective devices have decreased the number of patient assaults on nurses. This is correct. Stress from being overworked and increased shift lengths is a major safety concern. This is incorrect. Devices for assisting with lifting and transferring patients reduced the number of ergonomic injuries to nurses.
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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3. Which of the following organizations partners with other agencies in an effort to conduct research and implement prevention strategies to promote safe and healthy work environments? A. The Joint Commission B. American Nurses Association C. Institute of Medicine D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention ANS: D Page: 183
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The Joint Commission’s purpose is to provide accreditation through an extensive on-site review of an organization, including workplace safety. This is incorrect. The American Nurses Association monitors and disseminates current information about workplace safety and provides advocacy for nurses. This is incorrect. The Institute of Medicine researches broad topics related to improving the health of all people, including workplace safety concerns. This is correct. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention works with other agencies to conduct research, implement prevention strategies, and promote safe and healthy work environments.
4. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to inform workers of potential risks and health hazards. Which of the following organizations should a nurse leader monitor to best learn of new and emerging health hazards? A. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health B. Institutes of Medicine C. American Nurses Association D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration ANS: A Page: 183
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Initial warnings usually come from the CDC, NIOSH, or federal, state, and local agencies, who are charged with monitoring potential threats. This is incorrect. The Institute of Medicine primarily researches topics of health concern. This is incorrect. The ANA primarily advocates for and shares information regarding workplace safety for nurses. This is incorrect. OSHA develops and enforces workplace safety policies.
5. A nurse manager is developing a safety program for the unit. Which of the following steps should be included during the third step of creating the plan?
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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A. Recognize potential safety hazards. B. Calculate the costs of the plan. C. Assess the amount of risk involved. D. Provide the necessary safety supplies and equipment. ANS: B Page: 185
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The first step in developing a workplace safety program is to recognize potential safety hazards. This is correct. During creation of the plan, the costs of the plan should be calculated. This is incorrect. The second step in developing a workplace safety program is to assess the amount of risk involved. This is incorrect. Providing the necessary safety supplies and equipment is part of the final step in developing a workplace safety program, implementation.
6. A nurse manager of a busy emergency department is working to reduce the potential for violence on the unit. Which of the following will most likely reduce the potential for violence? A. Decrease the number of visible security guards to avoid antagonizing patients. B. Implement procedures to speed up the discharge process for mentally ill patients. C. Propose a plan to expand and update the waiting room. D. Ensure post-assaultive treatment and support is available to all staff. ANS: C Page: 185
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Poor security results in higher levels of violence. This is incorrect. Releasing acute and chronic mentally ill patients without proper follow-up plans in place increases the risk for violence. This is correct. Overcrowded and uncomfortable waiting rooms increase the risk for violence. This is incorrect. Although it is important to provide post-assaultive support and treatment, this will not directly lead to a decrease in the risk for violence.
7. A nurse recently started working in a busy hospital in a high-crime neighborhood. Which of the following recommendations will best help the nurse to prevent violent behavior? A. Acknowledge the feelings of others. B. Monitor patients for increased alcohol consumption. C. Ensure all individuals enter the building through a metal detector. D. Report outages in the parking lot lights.
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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ANS: A Page: 186
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Acknowledging the feelings of others is a behavior that helps to defuse anger. This is incorrect. The nurse should review diagnoses or histories suggestive of violent behavior or the risk for violent behavior, such as drug or alcohol intoxication. This is incorrect. Although using a metal detector may assist with preventing weapons from entering the building, it will not prevent other violent behaviors. This is incorrect. Reporting outages in lights in the parking lot is important and provides for safety in the parking lot, but will not necessarily prevent violent behaviors outside of the parking lot.
8. Nurses in one hospital noticed a sharp increase in violent behaviors during an economic downturn that dramatically impacted the community. There have been multiple incidences of violence during the last 3 months, including several cases involving weapons. The staff has suggested metal detectors be installed; however, the organization-stated funding was not available. Last week a health-care worker was seriously injured when a patient fired a gun, and since that time there has been a sharp increase of staff calling in sick. Which of the following is the best step to take next? A. Report the violence to the supervisor. B. Call security. C. Get involved in policy making at the state level. D. Contact the local collective bargaining unit. ANS: D Page: 187
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. When violence or threats occur, it should be reported immediately to the supervisor. This is incorrect. Security should be called immediately when violence is threatened. This is incorrect. Changes in policy often take time to result in changes in individual organizations. This is correct. When the problem persists and there is a safety concern, the local collective bargaining unit, the state nurses association, or OSHA can push for change at the organizational level to improve workplace safety.
9. Which of the following is true regarding needlestick injuries? A. The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act has been so effective that needlestick injuries are no longer a concern. B. The ANA has recently promoted the inclusion of nurses in the selection of safety devices.
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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C. OSHA standards require the use of longer needles with caps to prevent needlesticks. D. The Joint Commission surveyors routinely ask about treatment of nurses who have suffered needlestick injuries. ANS: B Page: 188
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Much progress has been made in preventing needlestick injuries; however, there is still work to do. This is correct. A recent consensus statement from the ANA recommends including nurses in determining which safety devices will be used to prevent needlestick injuries. This is incorrect. The OSHA Blood Borne Pathogen standard requires employers to consider safer needle devices that protect from needlestick injuries. This is incorrect. Although The Joint Commission surveyors may ask about treatment, the biggest concern is prevention. These surveyors routinely ask nurse managers about their knowledge of and adherence to the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act.
10. Which of the following should be included in training for the prevention of needlestick injuries and other exposures to health risks? A. Clean all contaminated work surfaces according to established guidelines. B. Recap needles before disposal to avoid accidental pricks when emptying containers. C. Staff should be treated within 3 hours of a needlestick injury. D. Although sharps injuries have significantly declined in most areas, emergency departments are still the most at risk when it comes to needlestick injuries. ANS: A Page: 188
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Guidelines have been established regarding cleaning of contaminated surfaces with an intent to prevent needlestick injuries and exposure to health risks. This is incorrect. Recapping and similar practices should be prohibited. This is incorrect. Employees who have suffered a needlestick injury should be treated within 2 hours and given a free hepatitis B vaccine. This is incorrect. Although needlestick injuries have declined in most areas, the surgical setting still presents a risk for needlestick injuries.
11. Which of the following is true regarding ergonomic injuries? A. Ergonomic injuries do not occur when safe patient handling technology is used. B. Unexpected patient movements during transfers can cause back injuries to nurses.
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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C. Health-care facilities are required to attempt to keep workplaces free from ergonomic hazards. D. Nurses are not at risk for repetitive stress injuries. ANS: B Page: 190
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. When equipment is not easily accessible, too heavy or clumsy, or staff is not properly trained, it may not be used. This is correct. Unexpected movements or resistance from patients during transfers can throw a nurse off balance and result in a back injury. This is incorrect. Health-care facilities are required to keep workplaces free from ergonomic hazards, rather than simply trying not to do so. This is incorrect. Nurses may be at risk for repetitive stress injuries.
12. Shift work disorder results in a greater risk for accidents, ulcers, heart disease, and chronic fatigue. Which of the following recommendations can prevent or lessen the risk of shift work disorder for those on night shift? A. If driving home during the morning sunlight, wear sunglasses. B. Schedule some day shifts and some night shifts during the scheduling period to allow for more nighttime sleep periods. C. Change days scheduled off to allow for more days off at one time. D. Take naps whenever possible during time off. ANS: A Page: 191
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Wear sunglasses if driving home during the bright morning sunlight. This is incorrect. Schedule the same shifts rather than rotating between days and nights in order to avoid disturbing the circadian rhythm. This is incorrect. Scheduling consistent days off establishes a routine. This is incorrect. Schedule a continuous block of sleep time regularly.
13. Nurses are advocates for their patients and have a duty to report any behaviors that may negatively impact patient outcomes. Which of the following is true regarding reporting quality and safety issues? A. Whistleblower laws protect nurses from reprisals by employers. B. An organization may terminate employment of a nurse who reports quality and safety issues. C. The state nurses practice act will have information if there are whistleblower laws in the state to protect nurses. D. As long as nurses do the right thing for their patients, they will be protected.
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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ANS: B Page: 193
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. There may be some level of protection, but often these laws are designed to protect state employees or other specific workers. This is correct. Doing the right thing does not ensure protection. This is incorrect. The state nurses association, not the state nurse practice act, will have information on whether whistleblower laws exist or if they are pending. This is incorrect. Reporting quality and safety issues may result in reprisals from employers.
14. Which of the following federal laws requires employers to create affirmative action plans to hire and promote individuals with disabilities? A. Title VII B. Equal Pay Act of 1963 C. Vocation Rehabilitation Act of 1973 D. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 ANS: C Page: 184
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Title VII requires employers to avoid discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. This is incorrect. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 requires employers to provide equal pay for equal work, regardless of gender. This is correct. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 requires employers who receive federal monies to avoid discrimination against individuals with disabilities and to develop plans to hire and promote individuals with disabilities. This is incorrect. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 requires employers to make reasonable accommodations for physically or mentally disabled employees.
15. Which of the following is an OSHA requirement regarding handling of hazardous chemicals? A. Use air filtration systems to keep the air cleaner. B. Minimize the use of toxic disinfectants. C. Avoid the use of mercury-containing products. D. Provide Material Data Safety Sheets. ANS: D Page: 191
Test Bank, Chapter 12 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
A. B. C. D.
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Feedback This is incorrect. Air filtration systems will reduce inside air pollution, but are not an OSHA requirement for handling hazardous chemicals. This is incorrect. Minimizing the use of toxic disinfectants will reduce inside air pollution, but is not an OSHA requirement for handling hazardous chemicals. This is incorrect. Avoiding the use of mercury whenever possible will reduce inside air pollution, but is not an OSHA requirement for handling hazardous chemicals. This is correct. Employers are required to clearly label and provide Material Data Safety Sheets for all hazardous chemicals.
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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Chapter 13: Promoting a Healthy Work Environment 1. Which of the following is an example of incivility in the workplace? A. Giving one nurse, who is suffering a family crisis, a light assignment, which means the other nurses have to do more B. Discussing an error that occurred with a group of nurses on the unit C. Reprimanding a nurse who made an error in front of staff so that everyone can learn from the mistake D. Workgroup cohesion Answer:
2. Which of the following is true regarding horizontal violence? A. Horizontal violence is a sentinel event. B. Horizontal violence is rare on nursing units. C. Bullying only occurs as horizontal violence. D. New graduates often experience incivility from their superiors. Answer:
3. Which of the following is the best way to address bullying behaviors? A. Report bullying to the bully’s nurse manager. B. Establish a minimal tolerance policy for incivility. C. Avoid confronting bullies. D. Look to managers to model appropriate behavior. Answer:
4. Which of the following is true regarding sexual harassment? A. Men are not harassed by women. B. Quid pro quo is the most common sexual harassment claim. C. Sexual harassment is prohibited by the Civil Rights Act of 1964. D. A work environment must be proven to be psychologically injurious to be considered hostile. Answer:
5. If a nurse is the victim of sexual harassment, which of the following must be done within 180 days of the incident? A. Documentation B. Confronting the harasser C. Reporting the incident up the chain of command
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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D. Reporting the incident to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission Answer:
6. Which of the following scenarios most likely is sexual harassment? A. Asking a coworker out on a date B. Commenting on a coworker’s gender C. Telling jokes D. Asking about a coworker’s family Answer:
7. A new nurse on a busy intensive care unit thinks constantly about potential mistakes and has started dreading going to work. This nurse uses alcohol to relax. Which of the following is most likely true? A. The nurse’s stress level is too high. B. The nurse is a victim of bullying. C. The nurse is a victim of sexual harassment. D. The nurse is unprepared to be on a high acuity unit. Answer:
8. Which of the following can help a nurse cope with high stress at work? A. Increasing sleep time B. Work toward a higher degree C. Work hard at completing everything asked of him or her D. Teach others how to treat themselves Answer:
9. Which of the following best describes why health care is stressful? A. Outside demands can be a major source of stress. B. Continued intensive contact occurs with noncompliant patients. C. Most nurses learn how to manage stress. D. Small stressors may accumulate quickly. Answer:
10. Which of the following is a way a nurse manager can reduce stress for the nursing team? A. Use cognitive behavioral training. B. Address the staff member’s spiritual concerns.
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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C. Provide directions for exercise routines. D. Establish peer support groups. Answer:
11. A nurse in an adult step-down unit at a small community hospital has noticed increased stress in the staff’s work life. The hospital has been seeing patients with increased acuity ever since an economic downturn in the community. Which of the following is the most likely reason? A. Dealing with inexperienced medical residents B. The death of young patients C. Aggression from patients D. Increased frequency of patients needing resuscitation Answer:
12. Which of the following is the best way for a nurse to become a culturally competent practitioner? A. Immerse himself or herself in other cultures. B. Reflect on one’s own culture, values, and biases. C. When assigned a patient with a different culture, take some time to read about the culture. D. Promote minority representation at all levels of the organization. Answer:
13. A nurse develops a relationship with a patient through respect. The nurse uses culturally appropriate touch and eye contact. Which of the following factors in understanding cultural diversity is this nurse demonstrating? A. Social organization B. Space C. Internal control D. Communication Answer:
14. Which of the following is a way to assist the health-care team to manage stress effectively? A. Create a peaceful breakroom far from the unit. B. Provide a private room away from the hearing of patients and families, but nearby for nurses to collaborate with one another. C. Encourage new nurses to quickly move into the mentor role. D. Remind the team they are in control.
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
Answer:
15. Which of the following best contributes to job satisfaction? A. Efforts to achieve a peaceful end of life for patients B. Teaching patients behaviors that promote health C. Pay and advancement opportunities in the profession D. Learning to manage stress Answer:
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Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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Chapter 13: Promoting a Healthy Work Environment—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following is an example of incivility in the workplace? A. Giving one nurse, who is suffering a family crisis, a light assignment, which means the other nurses have to do more B. Discussing an error that occurred with a group of nurses on the unit C. Reprimanding a nurse who made an error in front of staff so that everyone can learn from the mistake D. Workgroup cohesion ANS: C Page: 199
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Other nurses helping out provides a supportive work environment. Forcing someone to do another’s work would be an example of incivility. This is incorrect. Discussing an error and finding its root cause will lead to brainstorming solutions to prevent the error from occurring again. This is correct. Reprimanding an employee in front of others is an example of incivility. This is incorrect. Workgroup cohesion prevents incivility.
2. Which of the following is true regarding horizontal violence? A. Horizontal violence is a sentinel event. B. Horizontal violence is rare on nursing units. C. Bullying only occurs as horizontal violence. D. New graduates often experience incivility from their superiors. ANS: A Page: 199
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Horizontal violence is considered to be a sentinel event because it is a threat to patient safety. This is incorrect. Horizontal violence and bullying are not rare. This is incorrect. Bullies can be anywhere in the organizational chart, including superiors, subordinates, and coworkers. This is incorrect. New graduates experience incivility from coworkers more often than from superiors.
3. Which of the following is the best way to address bullying behaviors? A. Report bullying to the bully’s nurse manager. B. Establish a minimal tolerance policy for incivility. C. Avoid confronting bullies. D. Look to managers to model appropriate behavior.
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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ANS: D Page: 200
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Bullying should be reported to your nurse manager. This is incorrect. A zero-tolerance policy should be established. This is incorrect. Confront bullying and belittling behaviors. This is correct. Administrators, supervisors, and managers should model appropriate behavior.
4. Which of the following is true regarding sexual harassment? A. Men are not harassed by women. B. Quid pro quo is the most common sexual harassment claim. C. Sexual harassment is prohibited by the Civil Rights Act of 1964. D. A work environment must be proven to be psychologically injurious to be considered hostile. ANS: C Page: 200
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Men and women can both be the victims or the one doing the harassment. This is incorrect. A hostile work environment is the most common sexual harassment claim. This is correct. Sexual harassment is prohibited by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. This is incorrect. If a work environment is proven to be hostile or abusive there is no need for further proof that it is psychologically injurious.
5. If a nurse is the victim of sexual harassment, which of the following must be done within 180 days of the incident? A. Documentation B. Confronting the harasser C. Reporting the incident up the chain of command D. Reporting the incident to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission ANS: D Page: 201
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. Documentation should occur immediately after the incident while
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
B. C. D.
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details are still fresh in mind. This is incorrect. It should be immediately and clearly made known to the harasser that such attention is unwanted. This is incorrect. The incident should be immediately reported to the victim’s supervisor. This is correct. If the issue is not resolved it should be reported to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission; however, this must be done within 180 days of the incident.
6. Which of the following scenarios most likely is sexual harassment? A. Asking a coworker out on a date B. Commenting on a coworker’s gender C. Telling jokes D. Asking about a coworker’s family ANS: B Page: 200
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. However, continuing to ask for a date after the other person has expressed disinterest could be sexual harassment. This is correct. Commenting on an individual’s gender or body most likely is sexual harassment. This is incorrect. However, if the jokes were sexual in nature it could be sexual harassment. This is incorrect. However, asking about a coworker’s sexual activities or preferences could be sexual harassment.
7. A new nurse on a busy intensive care unit thinks constantly about potential mistakes and has started dreading going to work. This nurse uses alcohol to relax. Which of the following is most likely true? A. The nurse’s stress level is too high. B. The nurse is a victim of bullying. C. The nurse is a victim of sexual harassment. D. The nurse is unprepared to be on a high acuity unit. ANS: A Page: 204
A. B.
Feedback This is correct. Another sign of a high stress level is avoiding coworkers, patients, or assignments. This is incorrect. The signs are those of a high stress level and not of being a victim of
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
C. D.
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bullying. This is incorrect. The signs are those of a high stress level and not of being a victim of sexual harassment. This is incorrect. The signs are more likely signs of a high stress level.
8. Which of the following can help a nurse cope with high stress at work? A. Increasing sleep time B. Work toward a higher degree C. Work hard at completing everything asked of him or her D. Teach others how to treat themselves ANS: D Page: 205
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The nurse should take time to do something for himself or herself, such as a hobby or other interest. This is incorrect. The nurse should increase his or her professional knowledge, but this can be done in multiple ways. This is incorrect. The nurse should know when to say no, and not exceed his or her limits. This is correct. The nurse should recognize that he or she can teach others how to treat themselves.
9. Which of the following best describes why health care is stressful? A. Outside demands can be a major source of stress. B. Continued intensive contact occurs with noncompliant patients. C. Most nurses learn how to manage stress. D. Small stressors may accumulate quickly. ANS: B Page: 203
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although it is true that outside demands can be major stressors, this is not unique to nursing. This is correct. Noncompliance in patients is a major source of stress. Additionally, nurses are in continual, intensive, and intimate contact with individuals who are seriously ill. This is incorrect. Managing stress reduces it. This is incorrect. Although it is true that small stressors can accumulate and build up to major stress, this is not unique to nursing.
Test Bank, Chapter 13 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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10. Which of the following is a way a nurse manager can reduce stress for the nursing team? A. Use cognitive behavioral training. B. Address the staff member’s spiritual concerns. C. Provide directions for exercise routines. D. Establish peer support groups. ANS: D Page: 204
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Cognitive behavioral training is done by an individual as he or she works to screen out negative thoughts. This is incorrect. Addressing spiritual concerns is part of caring for oneself. This is incorrect. Giving attention to exercise is part of caring for oneself. This is correct. A nurse manager can establish peer support groups as a method for reducing stress.
11. A nurse in an adult step-down unit at a small community hospital has noticed increased stress in the staff’s work life. The hospital has been seeing patients with increased acuity ever since an economic downturn in the community. Which of the following is the most likely reason? A. Dealing with inexperienced medical residents B. The death of young patients C. Aggression from patients D. Increased frequency of patients needing resuscitation ANS: D Page: 203
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Medical residents are not likely to be present in a small community hospital. This is incorrect. Although acuity has increased, nothing indicates death rates have increased. Additionally, the patient is on an adult unit. The death of young patients is more likely to cause stress on pediatric units. This is incorrect. Although patient acuity has increased, there is no specific indication of increased aggression. This is correct. The acuity of patients has increased; therefore, it is reasonable to believe that the frequency of patients needing resuscitation has also increased.
12. Which of the following is the best way for a nurse to become a culturally competent practitioner? A. Immerse himself or herself in other cultures. B. Reflect on one’s own culture, values, and biases.
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C. When assigned a patient with a different culture, take some time to read about the culture. D. Promote minority representation at all levels of the organization. ANS: B Page: 202
A.
B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Immersion may assist a nurse to speak a language and learn about one culture, but it does not specifically assist in becoming a culturally competent practitioner. This is correct. Taking the time to reflect on one’s own values and biases will increase sensitivity to culture and enable one to become a more culturally competent practitioner. This is incorrect. It may not be practical to take time away from patient care to read about a culture. The better method of learning about a patient’s cultural preferences is to ask the patient or family. This is incorrect. Promoting minority representation at all levels of the organization will improve an organization’s diversity fitness, but does not directly impact a nurse’s personal cultural competence.
13. A nurse develops a relationship with a patient through respect. The nurse uses culturally appropriate touch and eye contact. Which of the following factors in understanding cultural diversity is this nurse demonstrating? A. Social organization B. Space C. Internal control D. Communication ANS: D Page: 202
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Social organization is the place assigned to family, work, and national causes. It is what is most important in a patient’s life. This is incorrect. Space is the distance from another person the patient is most comfortable with. Personal space is the area surrounding a person’s body. This is incorrect. Internal control is the belief that one can influence and determine his or her own outcomes. This is correct. Communication involves touch, eye contact, body posture, pronunciation, vocabulary, intonation, and other factors.
14. Which of the following is a way to assist the health-care team to manage stress effectively? A. Create a peaceful breakroom far from the unit.
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B. Provide a private room away from the hearing of patients and families, but nearby for nurses to collaborate with one another. C. Encourage new nurses to quickly move into the mentor role. D. Remind the team they are in control. ANS: B Page: 204
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The breakroom should be close to the unit or nurses may not use it. This is correct. Providing a space for nurses to get some downtime and speak with coworkers out of the hearing of patients and families will foster peer support and reduce stress. This is incorrect. New nurses should be provided with mentors. The mentors should be experienced and well prepared. This is incorrect. Ultimately, individuals are in control of their decisions and the stress they cause, not necessarily teams.
15. Which of the following best contributes to job satisfaction? A. Efforts to achieve a peaceful end of life for patients B. Teaching patients behaviors that promote health C. Pay and advancement opportunities in the profession D. Learning to manage stress ANS: D Page: 204
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. These efforts are not always successful, creating significant stress. This is incorrect. When patients return to destructive behaviors, it causes stress. This is incorrect. Human service professionals, such as nurses, may experience lower pay and inadequate advancement opportunities for women and minorities. This is correct. Learning to manage stress directly increases job satisfaction for nurses.
Test Bank, Chapter 14 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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Chapter 14: Launching Your Career 1. Which of the following is true regarding a career in nursing? A. Nurses are always needed and will never be out of a job. B. Well-paying jobs are available without advancing your education. C. A nurse who is good at his or her job will never lose it. D. The responsibility for career advancement is solely on the individual nurse. Answer:
2. What is the purpose of a new nurse graduate completing a SWOT analysis? A. To determine what weaknesses to improve during his or her year on the medical/surgical floor B. To determine what career path to follow C. To identify ways in which requirements of a job have been met D. To decide whether or not to pursue further education Answer:
3. A new nurse graduate is working on a SWOT analysis. The nurse is considering the influences that could hinder career planning, such as changes in policies and regulations. Which of the following is most likely the section of the SWOT analysis under consideration? A. Threats B. Opportunities C. Strengths D. Weaknesses Answer:
4. A nurse new to the intensive care unit wants to become certified in adult critical care. The nurse considers the qualifications for certification and sets a goal to be ready to take the examination once those qualifications are met. Setting the goal for completion after the qualifications have been met falls under which category of goal setting? A. Specific B. Measurable C. Achievable D. Timely Answer:
5. A graduate nurse is using the results of a test for personality patterns to help determine which career path would be best. Which of the following is a test for personality patterns?
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A. Strong Interest Inventory B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C. SWOT analysis D. SMART Answer:
6. When obtaining details about a position before applying, which of the following questions is important to answer? A. Does the schedule work for me? B. Is there a match between my skills and interests and the position? C. Is the pay adequate? D. How do I contact human resources? Answer:
7. Which of the following is a good recommendation for a nurse who is searching for a job using the Internet? A. Use short paragraphs. B. Be sure to remove your address and phone number and replace it with your e-mail because your résumé will be on the Internet. C. Save your résumé in .docx format. D. Copy and paste your résumé into the e-mail. Answer: 8. Which of the following is a good reason to prepare a résumé? A. It lets your future employer know what weaknesses you are working to improve. B. It answers questions for the job interview. C. It demonstrates your potential. D. It should be used for job applications only. Answer:
9. A new nurse graduate is about to go on her first interview. Which of the following is a good recommendation for the new nurse graduate? A. Place your portfolio containing your résumé on the interviewer’s desk. B. Chew gum to keep your breath fresh. C. When asked about weaknesses, do not directly answer the question. D. Ask questions about the position and the facility. Answer:
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10. Which of the following is most important to research before applying for a job? A. Check the current news for articles about the organization. B. Research how prior employees feel about the organization. C. Look on the facility’s website to find out about nursing culture. D. Carefully take into consideration all negative information about the organization current employees reveal. Answer: 11. Which of the following is the best recommendation for résumé writing? A. Limit the résumé to one page. B. State what you will be able to do for the organization. C. List your highest degree earned. D. Write an objective that is specific to the position, but broad enough for any organization. Answer:
12. An experienced nurse has moved to a new state and is applying for a position. The nurse has moved several times in the past few years and held several different positions. Which of the following résumé types is most appropriate? A. Standard B. Chronological C. Functional D. Combination Answer:
13. Which of the following questions is most important to ask yourself in order to write a clear objective statement? A. When do I want to start? B. How am I a good fit? C. Where do I see myself in 5 years? D. What level of responsibility do I want? Answer:
14. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a cover letter? A. Reemphasize your qualifications B. An introduction to your résumé and to you
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C. Provide supplemental information D. Explain any gap in fit between the position and your career interests Answer:
15. A new nurse is preparing for a job interview. Knowing that the interviewer may ask about weaknesses, the nurse is prepared to address the lack of experience and explain how prior skills learned will assist in the position. Asking about weaknesses best falls under which of the following interview categories? A. Background questions B. Personal questions C. Professional questions D. Appearance Answer:
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Chapter 14: Launching Your Career—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following is true regarding a career in nursing? A. Nurses are always needed and will never be out of a job. B. Well-paying jobs are available without advancing your education. C. A nurse who is good at his or her job will never lose it. D. The responsibility for career advancement is solely on the individual nurse. ANS: D Page: 216
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A nurse who performs poorly will not be successful at keeping a job, no matter what the demand is for nursing. This is incorrect. Many organizations are requiring advanced degrees for nurses to have opportunities for career advancement. This is incorrect. Even nurses could face downsizing because of economic downturns. This is correct. The responsibility for career advancement rests with the employee, not the employer.
2. What is the purpose of a new nurse graduate completing a SWOT analysis? A. To determine what weaknesses to improve during his or her year on the medical/surgical floor B. To determine what career path to follow C. To identify ways in which requirements of a job have been met D. To decide whether or not to pursue further education ANS: C Page: 217
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. As the health-care system changes, the first step for new nurses may not always be the medical/surgical floor. This is incorrect. Some new graduates may have already chosen a career path, but should still complete a SWOT analysis. This is correct. A SWOT analysis will help a new nurse graduate identify his or her accomplishments and activities that demonstrate how he or she has met the requirements of a job or position. This is incorrect. Nursing is a career choice that requires lifelong learning to keep current with skills and evidence-based practice.
3. A new nurse graduate is working on a SWOT analysis. The nurse is considering the influences that could hinder career planning, such as changes in policies and regulations. Which of the following is most likely the section of the SWOT analysis under consideration?
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A. Threats B. Opportunities C. Strengths D. Weaknesses ANS: A Page: 217
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. External threats may hinder job searches and career planning. This is incorrect. External opportunities may assist with job searches and career planning. This is incorrect. Internal strengths are the activities and accomplishments that assist an individual with job searches and career planning. This is incorrect. Internal weaknesses help an individual to identify gaps in qualifications for job searches or career planning.
4. A nurse new to the intensive care unit wants to become certified in adult critical care. The nurse considers the qualifications for certification and sets a goal to be ready to take the examination once those qualifications are met. Setting the goal for completion after the qualifications have been met falls under which category of goal setting? A. Specific B. Measurable C. Achievable D. Timely ANS: C Page: 217
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Obtaining certification is specific. However, waiting until all qualifications have been met does not necessarily make the goal specific. This is incorrect. Passing a certification examination is measurable. However, waiting until all qualifications have been met does not necessarily make the goal measurable. This is correct. The goal is not achievable until all qualifications have been met. This is incorrect. Timely would be setting a date or goal date to take the examination.
5. A graduate nurse is using the results of a test for personality patterns to help determine which career path would be best. Which of the following is a test for personality patterns? A. Strong Interest Inventory B. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C. SWOT analysis D. SMART
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ANS: B Page: 217
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The Strong Interest Inventory compares the interests of the individual with interests of multiple individuals successful in specific occupations. This is correct. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator identifies personality patterns. This is incorrect. The SWOT analysis identifies internal strengths and weaknesses and external sources of opportunity and threats. This is incorrect. The SMART acronym is helpful when setting career goals.
6. When obtaining details about a position before applying, which of the following questions is important to answer? A. Does the schedule work for me? B. Is there a match between my skills and interests and the position? C. Is the pay adequate? D. How do I contact human resources? ANS: B Page: 219
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Determining the schedule will be done later. This is correct. Before applying, it is important to determine if the position matches your own skills and interests. This is incorrect. Determining pay will be done later. This is incorrect. When possible, it is best to speak directly to the person who is looking for a nurse, as human resources may reject an application on a technicality that a nurse manager would know does not impact the candidate’s ability to do the job.
7. Which of the following is a good recommendation for a nurse who is searching for a job using the Internet? A. Use short paragraphs. B. Be sure to remove your address and phone number and replace it with your e-mail because your résumé will be on the Internet. C. Save your résumé in .docx format. D. Copy and paste your résumé into the e-mail. ANS: A Page: 225
A.
Feedback This is correct. Use short paragraphs and keep the e-mail short or it may not be read.
Test Bank, Chapter 14 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
B. C. D.
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This is incorrect. You should provide your standard contact information along with your e-mail. Take safety measures to make your résumé “cyber safe.” This is incorrect. Do not assume everyone is using the same program. Instead, save your document in HTML or ASCII format. This is incorrect. Be sure to properly format your e-mail. The body of the e-mail is a letter of introduction.
8. Which of the following is a good reason to prepare a résumé? A. It lets your future employer know what weaknesses you are working to improve. B. It answers questions for the job interview. C. It demonstrates your potential. D. It should be used for job applications only. ANS: C Page: 220
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The résumé should focus on your strong points. This is incorrect. The résumé serves as a reminder, adds to your self-confidence during the interview, serves as an introduction, and provides a guide for the interviewer. This is correct. The résumé demonstrates your potential and credits your achievements. This is incorrect. Your résumé can be distributed to anyone willing to assist you in your job search.
9. A new nurse graduate is about to go on her first interview. Which of the following is a good recommendation for the new nurse graduate? A. Place your portfolio containing your résumé on the interviewer’s desk. B. Chew gum to keep your breath fresh. C. When asked about weaknesses, do not directly answer the question. D. Ask questions about the position and the facility. ANS: D Page: 225
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Your purse, briefcase, portfolio, or other items should be placed on your lap or on the floor, not on the interviewer’s desk. This is incorrect. Do not chew gum or smoke. This is incorrect. Do not be evasive, even when asked about weaknesses. This is correct. Asking questions about the position and facility demonstrates interest.
10. Which of the following is most important to research before applying for a job?
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A. Check the current news for articles about the organization. B. Research how prior employees feel about the organization. C. Look on the facility’s website to find out about nursing culture. D. Carefully take into consideration all negative information about the organization current employees reveal. ANS: A Page: 225
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Check the library for newspaper or magazine articles about the organization. This is incorrect. Although asking questions of current and past employees of the organization may provide information, it is important to avoid gossip and half-truths. This is incorrect. The facility’s website will provide information about the organization’s mission, philosophy, and services. This is incorrect. Negative information from current or past employees should be investigated.
11. Which of the following is the best recommendation for résumé writing? A. Limit the résumé to one page. B. State what you will be able to do for the organization. C. List your highest degree earned. D. Write an objective that is specific to the position, but broad enough for any organization. ANS: B Page: 219
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The résumé should be limited to one or two pages. This is correct. Employers want to know your potential for success within the organization. This is incorrect. All educational experiences should be itemized on the résumé. This is incorrect. The objective statement should be tailored to the institution and position for which you are applying.
12. An experienced nurse has moved to a new state and is applying for a position. The nurse has moved several times in the past few years and held several different positions. Which of the following résumé types is most appropriate? A. Standard B. Chronological C. Functional D. Combination
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ANS: C Page: 221
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A standard résumé organizes information by topic and is most appropriate for first-time employees or recent graduates. This is incorrect. A chronological résumé lists work experience in order of time and is used for showing stable work experience without gaps or many job changes. This is correct. The functional résumé lists work experience in order of importance according to the objective. This is incorrect. The combination résumé lists work experience directly related to the position, but in chronological order.
13. Which of the following questions is most important to ask yourself in order to write a clear objective statement? A. When do I want to start? B. How am I a good fit? C. Where do I see myself in 5 years? D. What level of responsibility do I want? ANS: D Page: 222
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. You should ask yourself what position you want. This is incorrect. You should ask yourself what patients you want to work with. This is incorrect. You should ask yourself where you want to work and for whom. This is correct. You should ask yourself what level of responsibility you want to work at.
14. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a cover letter? A. Reemphasize your qualifications B. An introduction to your résumé and to you C. Provide supplemental information D. Explain any gap in fit between the position and your career interests ANS: B Page: 223
A.
Feedback This is incorrect. The thank-you letter should reemphasize your qualifications after an interview.
Test Bank, Chapter 14 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
B. C. D.
Page 1 of 11
This is correct. The purpose of the cover letter is to introduce yourself and your résumé and generate interest in hiring you. This is incorrect. The thank-you letter should provide any supplemental information that was not previously stated. This is incorrect. A rejection letter should explain any gap between the position and your career objectives and interests.
15. A new nurse is preparing for a job interview. Knowing that the interviewer may ask about weaknesses, the nurse is prepared to address the lack of experience and explain how prior skills learned will assist in the position. Asking about weaknesses best falls under which of the following interview categories? A. Background questions B. Personal questions C. Professional questions D. Appearance ANS: C Page: 226
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Background questions generally are related to your résumé. This is incorrect. Personal questions are related to personality and motivation. This is correct. Professional questions are related to the skills and knowledge needed for the position. This is incorrect. Appearance is how you should dress for the interview, which should support a professional image.
Test Bank, Chapter 15 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
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Chapter 15: Advancing Your Career 1. A new nurse is undergoing the transition from student to nurse. Which of the following is true regarding the transition? A. Although the “professional self” has already been developed, the new nurse must now work on technical skills. B. A new nurse is expected to provide leadership to ancillary staff. C. A new nurse will find skills learned in nursing school are valued by employers, such as detailed care plans, looking up medications in detail, and spending plenty of time on discharge. D. A new nurse will find his or her first real job similar to clinicals without a preceptor and longer shifts. Answer:
2. Which of the following is the best recommendation to assist a new nurse to become accustomed to his or her new position? A. Work in a health-care setting while going to school. B. Independent study opportunities give students an opportunity to try out different experiences. C. Find an experienced nurse to be a mentor. D. Participate in formal mentoring programs. Answer:
3. Which of the following is true regarding internship and residency programs for new nurses? A. Nurses enrolled in residency programs are often paid more. B. Internship and residency programs last up to 2 years. C. Residency programs teach new nurses clinical leadership skills. D. All programs require nurses to be licensed. Answer:
4. Which of the following is true about most orientation programs? A. Orientation programs are best when consistent preceptors are utilized. B. Orientation programs are most effective when they provide standardized content. C. Orientation programs are traditionally longer than residency programs. D. Orientation programs are usually on-unit training. Answer:
5. Which of the following recommendations is true regarding the transition to practice?
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A. Avoid challenges that can cause loss of confidence. B. Spend your time learning the profession of nursing, rather than about organizations. C. Do not try to change everything at once; focus on a few key areas. D. Expect that if you work hard, the transition to practice will occur quickly. Answer:
6. If you want to learn more about the issues related to nursing practice and health-care policy and participate in active discussions about these issues, which organization should you focus on? A. American Nurses Association B. National League for Nursing C. Organization for Associate Degree Nursing D. American Academy of Nursing Answer:
7. The purpose of which of the following organizations is to use nursing knowledge to advance health policy and practice? A. Canadian Nurses Association B. American Academy of Nursing C. National Institute for Nursing Research D. National Student Nurses Association Answer:
8. A student nurse is looking for opportunities to develop leadership skills and prepare for initial licensing. Which of the following professional organizations should the student nurse join? A. American Nurses Association B. National Student Nurses Association C. American Academy of Nurses D. National Institute for Nursing Research Answer:
9. An experienced registered nurse (RN) is reflecting over the chosen career path. The RN has recently passed the certification examination for his or her chosen specialty. Which of the following career stages is the RN most likely in? A. Momentum phase B. Promise phase C. Harvest phase
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D. None of the above Answer:
10. As nurses grow in their profession, it is important to have a career-building toolbox. Which of the following is a professional activity to consider for the toolbox? A. Share experience with new nurses. B. Obtain formal recognition for advanced knowledge and skill. C. Join a committee at work. D. Attend conferences in your specialty. Answer:
11. A nurse is working hard to stay up-to-date on current practice and continuing to grow in skill and knowledge for his specialty. The nurse is not looking to advance his career, but to remain in his current position. Which of the following phases of the nursing career is this nurse most likely in? A. Harvest phase B. Promise phase C. Momentum phase D. None of the above Answer:
12. Which of the following organizations focuses on providing nurses with evidence-based practice, trends in the field, and standards of specialty practice? A. National Institute for Nursing Research B. American Nurses Association C. Specialty organizations D. American Academy of Nursing Answer:
13. Which of the following is a reason why all nurses should join the American Nurses Association? A. Specialty organizations enable nurses to present a united front to advocate for nursing issues. B. The American Nurses Association promotes individual efforts to identify and promote the unique, autonomous role of nursing. C. The American Nurses Association works to promote health-care workers, such as the registered care technician, to assist with the nursing shortage.
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D. The American Nurses Association lobbies legislators to promote the passage of laws affecting the practice of nursing. Answer:
14. Which of the following is the most effective method of coping with the transition from student to nurse? A. Modify your professional ideals to put the organization’s needs above your own. B. Rather than give up your professional ideals, consider pursuing a different job. C. If you find that a career in nursing is not for you, pursue a different profession. D. Identify nurses who were able to make the transition successfully and discuss work-related issues with them. Answer:
15. Which of the following is a challenge some new nurses may face when transitioning from student to nurse? A. Nursing education and nursing practice are very similar, preparing nurses for the issues they will face in practice. B. Employers expect new nurses to be able to provide safe care and set work priorities right from the first day. C. Nursing school provides fundamental knowledge and skills and a foundation for future practice. D. Employers expect nurses to take the time they need to provide good care. Answer:
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Chapter 15: Advancing Your Career—Answers and Rationales 1. A new nurse is undergoing the transition from student to nurse. Which of the following is true regarding the transition? A. Although the “professional self” has already been developed, the new nurse must now work on technical skills. B. A new nurse is expected to provide leadership to ancillary staff. C. A new nurse will find skills learned in nursing school are valued by employers, such as detailed care plans, looking up medications in detail, and spending plenty of time on discharge. D. A new nurse will find his or her first real job similar to clinicals without a preceptor and longer shifts. ANS: B Page: 236
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The new nurse is expected to have a sufficient knowledge of technical skills, but is often working on developing his or her “professional self.” This is correct. A new nurse is expected to provide leadership to ancillary staff. This is incorrect. Some skills learned in nursing school are not valued by employers, such as taking time to craft detailed care plans, putting off other duties to look up medications, and spending extra time on discharge instructions. This is incorrect. A new nurse will find his or her first job to be very different from most clinicals in shift length, number of patients, and days in a row.
2. Which of the following is the best recommendation to assist a new nurse to become accustomed to his or her new position? A. Work in a health-care setting while going to school. B. Independent study opportunities give students an opportunity to try out different experiences. C. Find an experienced nurse to be a mentor. D. Participate in formal mentoring programs. ANS: D Page: 238
A. B. C.
Feedback This is incorrect. This may not be the best recommendation, as the student should ensure working does not interfere with schoolwork. This is incorrect. This may not be the best recommendation, as independent study opportunities should match preferences for future employment. This is incorrect. This may not be the best recommendation, as the best mentoring relationships are the result of formal programs. These programs should include orientation, support workshops, and ongoing support.
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Test Bank, Chapter 15 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
D.
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This is correct. Mentors support the clinical success, job satisfaction, and retention of new nurses.
3. Which of the following is true regarding internship and residency programs for new nurses? A. Nurses enrolled in residency programs are often paid more. B. Internship and residency programs last up to 2 years. C. Residency programs teach new nurses clinical leadership skills. D. All programs require nurses to be licensed. ANS: C Page: 238
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Some employers offer lower salaries to offset the cost of the residence program. This is incorrect. These programs usually last between 6 months and 1 year. This is correct. These programs may include content covering specialty patient care skills, organization skills, clinical leadership skills, and communication skills. This is incorrect. Some programs may require licensure before acceptance, but not all.
4. Which of the following is true about most orientation programs? A. Orientation programs are best when consistent preceptors are utilized. B. Orientation programs are most effective when they provide standardized content. C. Orientation programs are traditionally longer than residency programs. D. Orientation programs are usually on-unit training. ANS: A Page: 238
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. The most effective orientation programs use consistent preceptors or mentors. This is incorrect. Orientation programs are most effective when the content is tailored to the learner’s needs. This is incorrect. Traditional orientation programs are shorter than residency programs. This is incorrect. Orientation programs combine classroom, online, and on-unit training.
5. Which of the following recommendations is true regarding the transition to practice? A. Avoid challenges that can cause loss of confidence. B. Spend your time learning the profession of nursing, rather than about organizations. C. Do not try to change everything at once; focus on a few key areas.
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D. Expect that if you work hard, the transition to practice will occur quickly. ANS: C Page: 239
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Take advantage of opportunities to challenge your competence, as this will lead to confidence and prepare you for transition to practice. This is incorrect. Learning about how organizations operate will prepare you for transition to practice. This is correct. Use your energy wisely. Recognize that implementing change requires time and energy, so choose your areas to change carefully. This is incorrect. Give yourself time to make the transition to practice. Be patient and do not expect it to happen overnight.
6. If you want to learn more about the issues related to nursing practice and health-care policy and participate in active discussions about these issues, which organization should you focus on? A. American Nurses Association B. National League for Nursing C. Organization for Associate Degree Nursing D. American Academy of Nursing ANS: A Page: 240
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. The American Nurses Association focuses on profession-wide engagement, nurse-focused innovation, and nurse-to-consumer relations. This is incorrect. The National League for Nursing provides a voice for nursing education in dealing with issues of importance to nursing. This is incorrect. The purpose of the Organization for Associate Degree Nursing is to maintain eligibility for graduates of nursing associate degrees to obtain licensure and to interact with other nursing organizations. This is incorrect. The purpose of the American Academy of Nursing is to advance health policy and practice through generating, synthesizing, and disseminating nursing knowledge.
7. The purpose of which of the following organizations is to use nursing knowledge to advance health policy and practice? A. Canadian Nurses Association B. American Academy of Nursing C. National Institute for Nursing Research D. National Student Nurses Association
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ANS: B Page: 244
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The purpose of the Canadian Association of Nurses is to contribute to the health of Canadians and advancement of nursing. This is correct. The purpose of the American Academy of Nursing is to advance health policy and practice through generating, synthesizing, and disseminating nursing knowledge. This is incorrect. The purpose of the National Institute for Nursing Research is to support and conduct basic clinical research. This is incorrect. The purpose of the National Student Nurses Association is to provide opportunities for student nurses to network with peers, prepare for initial licensing, develop leadership skills, build a career plan, and advocate for high quality, affordable, and accessible health care.
8. A student nurse is looking for opportunities to develop leadership skills and prepare for initial licensing. Which of the following professional organizations should the student nurse join? A. American Nurses Association B. National Student Nurses Association C. American Academy of Nurses D. National Institute for Nursing Research ANS: B Page: 244
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The American Nurses Association focuses on profession-wide engagement, nurse-focused innovation, and nurse-to-consumer relations. This is correct. The purpose of the National Student Nurses Association is to provide opportunities for student nurses to network with peers, prepare for initial licensing, develop leadership skills, build a career plan, and advocate for high quality, affordable, and accessible health care. This is incorrect. The purpose of the American Academy of Nursing is to advance health policy and practice through generating, synthesizing, and disseminating nursing knowledge. This is incorrect. The purpose of the National Institute for Nursing Research is to support and conduct basic clinical research.
9. An experienced registered nurse (RN) is reflecting over the chosen career path. The RN has recently passed the certification examination for his or her chosen specialty. Which of the following career stages is the RN most likely in? A. Momentum phase
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B. Promise phase C. Harvest phase D. None of the above ANS: A Page: 245
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is correct. During the momentum phase, the individual has achieved mastery in his or her chosen specialty and is recognized for his or her expertise. This is incorrect. During the promise phase, the individual identifies personal strengths and builds his or her knowledge and skill base. This is incorrect. During the harvest phase, the individual has reached his or her prime in his or her career, but should continue to grow and develop in order to retain his or her position and status. This is incorrect. The scenario describes the momentum phase.
10. As nurses grow in their profession, it is important to have a career-building toolbox. Which of the following is a professional activity to consider for the toolbox? A. Share experience with new nurses. B. Obtain formal recognition for advanced knowledge and skill. C. Join a committee at work. D. Attend conferences in your specialty. ANS: C Page: 245
A. B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Sharing your experience with new nurses is a good activity to include in your career-building toolbox, but it is a mentoring activity. This is incorrect. Achieving formal recognition for basic or advanced levels in your specialty is a good activity for the career-building toolbox, but this is a certification activity. This is correct. Joining a committee at work that focuses on practice issues such as patient safety, design of a new unit, or a quality improvement project is a professional activity. This is incorrect. Attending local or national conferences is a good activity for the career-building toolbox, but it is a continuing education activity.
11. A nurse is working hard to stay up-to-date on current practice and continuing to grow in skill and knowledge for his specialty. The nurse is not looking to advance his career, but to remain in his current position. Which of the following phases of the nursing career is this nurse most likely in? A. Harvest phase
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B. Promise phase C. Momentum phase D. None of the above ANS: A Page: 245
A.
B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. During the harvest phase, nurses have reached their prime. They need to continue to grow and develop in order to retain their position and status. They may also start thinking about the legacy they will leave in nursing. This is incorrect. During the promise phase, nurses identify strengths and build their knowledge and skill base. This is incorrect. During the momentum phase, nurses achieve mastery in their specialty and are recognized for their expertise. This is incorrect. The scenario described the harvest phase of the nursing career.
12. Which of the following organizations focuses on providing nurses with evidence-based practice, trends in the field, and standards of specialty practice? A. National Institute for Nursing Research B. American Nurses Association C. Specialty organizations D. American Academy of Nursing ANS: C Page: 244
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The purpose of the National Institute for Nursing Research is to support and conduct basic clinical research. This is incorrect. The American Nurses Association focuses on profession-wide engagement, nurse-focused innovation, and nurse-to-consumer relations. This is correct. Specialty organizations are focused on practice areas or special interest groups. Their purpose is to provide nurses with evidence-based practice, trends in the field, and standards of specialty practice. This is incorrect. The purpose of the American Academy of Nursing is to advance health policy and practice through generating, synthesizing, and disseminating nursing knowledge.
13. Which of the following is a reason why all nurses should join the American Nurses Association? A. Specialty organizations enable nurses to present a united front to advocate for nursing issues.
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B. The American Nurses Association promotes individual efforts to identify and promote the unique, autonomous role of nursing. C. The American Nurses Association works to promote health-care workers, such as the registered care technician, to assist with the nursing shortage. D. The American Nurses Association lobbies legislators to promote the passage of laws affecting the practice of nursing. ANS: D Page: 242
A.
B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Specialty organizations focus on individual specialties, often contributing to fragmentation and making it difficult for nurses to present a united front to advocate for nursing issues. This is incorrect. The American Nurses Association provides a way for nurses to work together to identify and promote the unique, autonomous role of nursing. This is incorrect. In the 1980s the American Medical Association proposed the creation of a new category of health-care workers, the health-care technician, to address the nursing shortage. The American Nurses Association successfully lobbied against the new category to protect the autonomy of nursing. This is correct. The American Nurses Association lobbies legislators in an effort to promote the passage of laws impacting nursing practice and the safety of consumers.
14. Which of the following is the most effective method of coping with the transition from student to nurse? A. Modify your professional ideals to put the organization’s needs above your own. B. Rather than give up your professional ideals, consider pursuing a different job. C. If you find that a career in nursing is not for you, pursue a different profession. D. Identify nurses who were able to make the transition successfully and discuss work-related issues with them. ANS: D Page: 239
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Abandoning professional ideals in order to eliminate conflict is an ineffective coping strategy and not a satisfactory resolution. This is incorrect. Finding a different position may be necessary; however, it would not be an effective coping method to leave the job or profession. This is incorrect. Abandoning the profession is not an effective coping method. Instead, give yourself time to make the transition. This is correct. Developing a support network will help make the transition easier, and you can work together to improve the organization.
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15. Which of the following is a challenge some new nurses may face when transitioning from student to nurse? A. Nursing education and nursing practice are very similar, preparing nurses for the issues they will face in practice. B. Employers expect new nurses to be able to provide safe care and set work priorities right from the first day. C. Nursing school provides fundamental knowledge and skills and a foundation for future practice. D. Employers expect nurses to take the time they need to provide good care. ANS: B Page: 237
A.
B.
C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. There is a gap between nursing education and nursing practice that results in a new nurse graduate encountering some difficulties during the transition from student to nurse. This is correct. Employers expect new graduates to come to the work setting with the ability to provide safe care, organize their work, set priorities, and provide leadership to ancillary personnel. This is incorrect. Experienced nurses say nursing school provides a foundation for practice, but this is not a reason why nurses may face challenges when transitioning from student to nurse. This is incorrect. Employers expect nurses to provide safe, effective care in an efficient manner.
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Chapter 16: What the Future Holds 1. Which of the following most accurately describes a current concern in health care today? A. Health care-associated (nosocomial) infections are continuing to expand, despite being limited to health-care settings. B. Despite preventable deaths increasing from the opioid crisis, the life expectancy in the United States has risen slightly during the last 2 years. C. Although adverse drug events continue, medication errors have been eliminated through the use of electronic medication administration records. D. Gun violence has become a rising public health concern. Answer:
2. Which of the following is a benefit of the U.S. health-care system? A. With cost savings from technology, there are very few Americans now with no health-care insurance. B. Quality of care has improved in the United States. C. Care in the United States has shifted to a prevention focus, rather than an illness focus. D. The use of technology is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes. Answer:
3. Which of the following is a change enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act? A. Creation of national health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage B. Expansion of school-based health centers C. Free preventative services for all D. Medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding Answer:
4. Which of the following is a nursing issue of concern today? A. Safe staffing B. Low workloads C. Increasing professional autonomy D. Improving salaries Answer:
5. Which of the following is the best argument for lower nurse-to-patient ratio?
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A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs. B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality. C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections. D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates. Answer:
6. Although there is projected to be a small surplus of nurses by 2030, some states will continue to see nursing shortages. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation? A. Health-care legislation that impacts nursing salaries in some states B. Workforce availability C. Aging of the baby boomers, which means a younger nursing workforce D. Population declines Answer:
7. Which of the following is expected to most likely be true in the near future? A. Quality improvement projects will decline because of cost cutting measures. B. Alternative and complementary approaches will continue to be shunned by medical practice. C. Care will primarily remain in the hospital setting. D. Increased focus on care transitions will involve nursing. Answer:
8. A new model for health care in the future would be best to include which of the following? A. Community-centered care B. Care that encourages a healthy environment C. Accessible care that is affordable for most D. A focus on local health concerns Answer:
9. Which of the following best describes the public image of nurses today? A. Nurses are assistants to physicians. B. Nurses view the person within the family and community. C. Nurses are different from other health-care providers. D. Nurses are closely involved in shaping the health care of the future. Answer:
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10. Which of the following is the best way to improve nursing’s image? A. Uniforms should express your personality. B. Introduce yourself with your full name. C. Determine what professional behavior means to you, within your personality. D. Take every opportunity to speak to the public about nursing. Answer:
11. Which of the following is the best way for a nurse to improve quality of care? A. Recognize that physicians are the other health-care professionals interested in improving quality of care. B. Work with patients and families to improve health care. C. Collaborate with other health-care professionals, patients, and their families. D. Recognize that physicians have the greatest numbers of professionals in health care. Answer:
12. Which of the following is the best action an individual nurse can take to exert leadership in supporting the profession of nursing? A. Join your local professional organization. B. Talk about health-care issues to everyone who will listen, including legislators. C. Register to vote. D. Learn about the health-care system. Answer:
13. Which of the following is true regarding the Affordable Care Act? A. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of interest to nursing without controversy. B. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads for nurses. C. The Affordable Care Act provided a new patient-centered model for health care. D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many of the issues of interest to nursing, but came with much controversy. Answer:
14. Which of the following new opportunities might a new nurse see in the future? A. Transitional care
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B. Traditional care C. Hospital-based care D. Care based on cost Answer:
15. Which of the following best describes a major concern about the health-care system in the United States? A. Focus on disease prevention B. Quality of care C. Collaborative care D. Decrease in hospital-acquired drug-resistant infections Answer:
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Chapter 16: What the Future Holds—Answers and Rationales 1. Which of the following most accurately describes a current concern in health care today? A. Health care-associated (nosocomial) infections are continuing to expand, despite being limited to health-care settings. B. Despite preventable deaths increasing from the opioid crisis, the life expectancy in the United States has risen slightly during the last 2 years. C. Although adverse drug events continue, medication errors have been eliminated through the use of electronic medication administration records. D. Gun violence has become a rising public health concern. ANS: D Page: 252
A. B.
C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Nosocomial infections can now be found in the community. This is incorrect. In 2016, life expectancy in the United States declined for the second year in a row because of the rise of preventable deaths from opioid overdoses. In addition, the number of deaths from heart disease has stayed steady, rather than declining. This is incorrect. Medication administration errors continue to be a major concern. This is correct. Gun violence, as well as injury and death caused by the misuse of firearms, is an increasing public health concern.
2. Which of the following is a benefit of the U.S. health-care system? A. With cost savings from technology, there are very few Americans now with no health-care insurance. B. Quality of care has improved in the United States. C. Care in the United States has shifted to a prevention focus, rather than an illness focus. D. The use of technology is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes. ANS: D Page: 253
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. More than 50 million Americans are still uninsured. This is incorrect. Quality of care continues to be a major concern. One reason is because of the number of hospital-acquired drug-resistant infections each year. This is incorrect. Despite efforts, care in the U.S. continues to have an illness focus, rather than a prevention focus. This is correct. The use of technology and electronic health records is projected to decrease health-care costs and improve clinical outcomes, quality, and safety.
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3. Which of the following is a change enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act? A. Creation of national health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage B. Expansion of school-based health centers C. Free preventative services for all D. Medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding ANS: B Page: 255
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The Affordable Care Act created state health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage. This is correct. The Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers. This is incorrect. The Affordable Care Act created free preventative services for women including HIV screening, contraceptive, breastfeeding, and domestic violence services. This is incorrect. The Affordable Care Act has provisions for nurse-managed clinics to be eligible for federal funding.
4. Which of the following is a nursing issue of concern today? A. Safe staffing B. Low workloads C. Increasing professional autonomy D. Improving salaries ANS: A Page: 256
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Safe staffing, along with high workloads, mandatory overtime, and workplace violence, is a major concern in nursing today. This is incorrect. Low workloads are not a concern. The bigger concern is high workloads causing unsafe staffing. This is incorrect. A lack of professional autonomy contributes to the concerns in nursing today. This is incorrect. Nursing salaries may be increasing, but this is a positive development and not a cause for concern.
5. Which of the following is the best argument for lower nurse-to-patient ratio? A. The more patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs. B. Greater patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality. C. Adequate nurse levels do not impact the prevalence of urinary tract infections.
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D. Community nursing ratios do not impact Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) rates. ANS: B Page: 256
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. The fewer patients a nurse has, the better the nurse will be at catching early warning signs. This is correct. Lower patient-to-nurse ratios decrease patient mortality. This is incorrect. Adequate nurse levels decrease the prevalence of urinary tract infections. This is incorrect. An increase in nursing interventions, as seen with decreased patient-tonurse ratios, in the community leads to decreased MRSA rates.
6. Although there is projected to be a small surplus of nurses by 2030, some states will continue to see nursing shortages. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation? A. Health-care legislation that impacts nursing salaries in some states B. Workforce availability C. Aging of the baby boomers, which means a younger nursing workforce D. Population declines ANS: B Page: 256
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Health-care legislation impacts insurance coverage and reimbursement. This is correct. Workforce availability impacts the number of nurses available in certain states. This is incorrect. Changing demographics impact this trend, including the aging of the baby boomers and of the nursing workforce itself. This is incorrect. Population growth and shifts, not population decline, lead to nursing shortages in some states.
7. Which of the following is expected to most likely be true in the near future? A. Quality improvement projects will decline because of cost cutting measures. B. Alternative and complementary approaches will continue to be shunned by medical practice. C. Care will primarily remain in the hospital setting. D. Increased focus on care transitions will involve nursing. ANS: D Page: 257
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Test Bank, Chapter 16 Weiss, Essentials of Nursing Leadership and Management, 7e
A. B. C. D.
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Feedback This is incorrect. Quality improvement efforts will increase along with the drive for patient safety. This is incorrect. Alternative and complementary approaches will be integrated into standard medical and nursing practices. This is incorrect. As often as possible, care will be in the community setting, rather than in the hospital setting. This is correct. Nursing will be more involved in preparing patients for care transitions.
8. A new model for health care in the future would be best to include which of the following? A. Community-centered care B. Care that encourages a healthy environment C. Accessible care that is affordable for most D. A focus on local health concerns ANS: B Page: 257
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Holistic, person-centered care is needed for health care in the future. This is correct. Health care of the future should create a healthy environment, including green buildings and elimination of pollution. This is incorrect. Care that is accessible and affordable for all is needed. This is incorrect. Attention should be given to global health concerns.
9. Which of the following best describes the public image of nurses today? A. Nurses are assistants to physicians. B. Nurses view the person within the family and community. C. Nurses are different from other health-care providers. D. Nurses are closely involved in shaping the health care of the future. ANS: A Page: 257
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. Based on impressions from the media, the public views nurses as assistants to physicians. This is incorrect. Although it is true nurses view the whole person, within the family and community, this is not a common public image of nursing today. This is incorrect. Although it is true that nurses think differently from other health-care providers, this is not a common public image of nursing today. This is incorrect. Although it is true that nurses are closely involved in shaping the
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health care of the future, this is not a common public image of nursing today. 10. Which of the following is the best way to improve nursing’s image? A. Uniforms should express your personality. B. Introduce yourself with your full name. C. Determine what professional behavior means to you, within your personality. D. Take every opportunity to speak to the public about nursing. ANS: D Page: 258
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Professional appearance should be appropriate to the workplace. This is incorrect. Introduce yourself as a registered nurse. This is incorrect. Define professional behavior and enforce it. This is correct. Take advantage of every opportunity to discuss professional nursing with the public.
11. Which of the following is the best way for a nurse to improve quality of care? A. Recognize that physicians are the other health-care professionals interested in improving quality of care. B. Work with patients and families to improve health care. C. Collaborate with other health-care professionals, patients, and their families. D. Recognize that physicians have the greatest numbers of professionals in health care. ANS: C Page: 258
A. B. C.
D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Physicians are members of the health-care team interested in improving quality care, but they are not the only ones. This is incorrect. Working with patients and family to improve health care is a good idea, but they are not the only stakeholders that nurses should work with. This is correct. Nurses should collaborate with other members of the health-care team, including patients and their families and other health-care professionals to improve quality of care. This is incorrect. Nurses are the largest professional group in health care in terms of numbers.
12. Which of the following is the best action an individual nurse can take to exert leadership in supporting the profession of nursing? A. Join your local professional organization.
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B. Talk about health-care issues to everyone who will listen, including legislators. C. Register to vote. D. Learn about the health-care system. ANS: B Page: 259
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Joining the local professional organization is a good start, but the individual must also support their efforts to make a difference. This is correct. Talking about health-care issues to everyone who will listen is an effective action to support the profession of nursing. This is incorrect. Registering to vote is a good start, but then the individual must carry through with voting. This is incorrect. Learning about the health-care system is a good start, but then the individual must do something with that knowledge to make a difference.
13. Which of the following is true regarding the Affordable Care Act? A. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of interest to nursing without controversy. B. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads for nurses. C. The Affordable Care Act provided a new patient-centered model for health care. D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many of the issues of interest to nursing, but came with much controversy. ANS: D Page: 259
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. Although the Affordable Care Act attempted to address these issues, it also created much controversy. This is incorrect. Issues related to nurses themselves need to be addressed. This is incorrect. A new policy providing a patient-centered model for health care is needed. This is correct. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address these issues, but also created much controversy.
14. Which of the following new opportunities might a new nurse see in the future? A. Transitional care B. Traditional care C. Hospital-based care D. Care based on cost
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ANS: A Page: 255
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is correct. In the future, new nurses may see opportunities in transitional care. This is incorrect. In the future, new nurses may have opportunities in nontraditional care. This is incorrect. In the future, new nurses may have opportunities in community-based care. This is incorrect. In the future, new nurses may have opportunities to provide patientcentered care.
15. Which of the following best describes a major concern about the health-care system in the United States? A. Focus on disease prevention B. Quality of care C. Collaborative care D. Decrease in hospital-acquired drug-resistant infections ANS: B Page: 258
A. B. C. D.
Feedback This is incorrect. A major concern today is the focus on disease treatment rather than prevention. This is correct. A major concern today is quality of care. This is incorrect. A major concern today is fragmented, impersonal care. This is incorrect. A major concern today is an increase in hospital-acquired drugresistant infections.