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Unit 01 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines anterior? A) Toward or on the back of the body B) Toward or on the front of the body C) Away from the head or toward the tail D) Toward the body surface; closer to the skin ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines posterior? A) Toward or on the back of the body B) Away from the body surface; further away from the skin C) Away from the head or toward the tail D) Toward the body surface; closer to the skin ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines superior? A) Away from the body surface; further away from the skin B) Toward or on the back of the body C) Away from the head or toward the tail D) Toward the head or away from the tail ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines inferior? TEScloser TBAto NKthe SEskin LLER.COM A) Toward the body surface; B) Toward or on the back of the body C) Away from the head or toward the tail D) Away from the body surface; further away from the skin ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines proximal? A) Toward the body surface; closer to the skin B) Away from the head or toward the tail C) Closer to the point of origin, generally of a limb D) Toward or on the front of the body ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines distal? A) Toward the body surface; closer to the skin B) Away from the body surface; further away from the skin C) Closer to the point of origin, generally of a limb D) Away from the point of origin, generally of a limb ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines superficial? A) Toward the body surface; closer to the skin
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B) Away from the head or toward the tail C) Toward or on the front of the body D) Away from the body surface; further away from the skin ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines deep? A) Toward the body surface; closer to the skin B) Away from the body surface; further away from the skin C) Toward the torso of the body D) Away from the point of origin, generally of a limb ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines posterior body cavity? A) On the distal side of the body; contains the heart and lungs B) On the anterior side of the body; contains the nerves and spine C) On the inferior side of the body; contains the intestines D) On the posterior side of the body; contains the cranial and spinal cavities ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines anterior body cavity? A) On the anterior side of the body; contains the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities B) On the anterior side of the body; contains the cranial nerves and spine C) On the inferior side of the body; contains the stomach and intestines D) On the posterior side of the body; contains the heart and lungs ANS: A
ELLE R.01 COPre-Lab M PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines serous membrane (parietal and
visceral layers)? A) Double-layered membrane that produces serous fluid to lubricate the organs in the cavity B) Membrane surrounding the heart C) Membrane surrounding the lungs D) Membrane surrounding the abdominopelvic cavity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines sagittal plane? A) Divides the body into an anterior part and a posterior part; section made parallel to
the body's longitudinal axis B) Divides the body into right and left parts; section made parallel to the body's
longitudinal axis C) Divides the body into superior/proximal and inferior/distal parts D) Divides the body into top and bottom halves; section made through the center of
the body ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines frontal (coronal) plane? A) Divides the body into an anterior part and a posterior part; section made parallel to
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the body's longitudinal axis B) Divides the body into top and bottom halves; section made perpendicular to the body's longitudinal axis C) Divides the body into right and left parts; section made parallel to the body's longitudinal axis D) Divides the body into superior and inferior parts; section made parallel to the body's longitudinal axis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines transverse plane? A) Divides the body into front and back parts; section made perpendicular to the
body's longitudinal axis B) Divides the body along an angle C) Divides the body into superior and inferior parts; section made parallel to the
body's longitudinal axis D) Divides the body into a superior part and an inferior part; section made
perpendicular to the body's longitudinal axis ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 1.1 Body cavities. 15. In Figure 1.1, identify number 1. A) Mediastinum
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B) Cranial cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Peritoneal cavity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. In Figure 1.1, identify number 2. A) Mediastinum B) Cranial cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Peritoneal cavity ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. In Figure 1.1, identify number 3. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Posterior cavity C) Anterior cavity D) Cranial cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Diaphragm ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
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18. In Figure 1.1, identify number 4. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Posterior cavity C) Anterior cavity D) Cranial cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Diaphragm ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. In Figure 1.1, identify number 5. A) Mediastinum B) Thoracic cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 1.1, identify number 6. A) Mediastinum B) Pericardial cavity C) Anterior cavity
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D) Thoracic cavity E) Posterior cavity F) Pleural cavity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 1.1, identify number 7. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Pericardial cavity C) Anterior cavity D) Thoracic cavity E) Mediastinum F) Diaphragm ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 1.1, identify number 8. A) Abdominopelvic cavity B) Serous membranes C) Diaphragm D) Thoracic cavity E) Pericardial cavity F) Peritoneal cavity ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 1.1, identify number 9. A) Vertebral cavity TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Thoracic cavity C) Pericardial cavity D) Anterior cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Serous membranes ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 1.1, identify number 10. A) Mediastinum B) Thoracic cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Abdominal cavity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 1.1, identify number 11. A) Pelvic cavity B) Anterior cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Posterior cavity
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F) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 1.1, identify number 12. A) Mediastinum B) Thoracic cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 1.1, identify number 13. A) Abdominopelvic cavity B) Pericardial cavity C) Mediastinum D) Vertebral cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Diaphragm ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 1.1, identify number 14. A) Pelvic cavity B) Anterior cavity C) Diaphragm TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Vertebral cavity E) Posterior cavity F) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 1.1, identify number 15. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Thoracic cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Serous membranes F) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 1.1, identify number 16. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Thoracic cavity C) Diaphragm D) Vertebral cavity E) Serous membranes F) Abdominopelvic cavity
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. Which of the following best describes anatomical position? A) Body facing forward, toes pointing forward, palms facing backward B) Body, toes, and palms facing backward C) Body facing forward, arms at the sides, palms facing forward D) Body facing backward and palms facing outward ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
32. Which of the following statements accurately defines distal? A) Toward the back of the body B) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) C) Closer to the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) D) Away from the body's midline E) Toward the head F) Away from the head/toward the tail ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
33. Which of the following statements accurately defines lateral? A) Toward the back of the body B) Closer to the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) C) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) D) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior E) Away from the body's midline F) Toward the body's midline ANS: E
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
34. Which of the following statements accurately defines anterior? A) Toward the back of the body B) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior C) Closer to the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) D) Toward the head E) Away from the head/toward the tail F) Toward the front of the body ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
35. Which of the following statements accurately defines proximal? A) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) B) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior C) Closer to the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) D) Away from the body's midline E) Toward the body's midline F) Toward the surface/skin ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
36. Which of the following statements accurately defines inferior? A) Away from the head/toward the tail
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B) Toward the back of the body C) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) D) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior E) Away from the body's midline F) Toward the surface/skin ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
37. Which of the following statements accurately defines deep? A) Toward the body's midline B) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) C) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior D) Away from the body's midline E) Closer to the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) F) Toward the front of the body ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
38. Which of the following statements accurately defines superficial? A) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) B) Closer to the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) C) Away from the body's midline D) Toward the body's midline E) Toward the front of the body F) Toward the surface/skin ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
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39. Which of the following statements accurately defines posterior? A) Toward the back of the body B) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) C) Toward the surface/skin D) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior E) Away from the body's midline F) Away from the head/toward the tail ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
40. Which of the following statements accurately defines medial? A) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) B) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior C) Away from the body's midline D) Toward the body's midline E) Away from the head/toward the tail F) Toward the surface/skin ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
41. Which of the following statements accurately defines superior? A) Farther from the point of origin (e.g., of a limb) B) Away from the surface/toward the body's interior C) Away from the body's midline
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D) Toward the head E) Toward the body's midline F) Toward the front of the body ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
42. Which of the following is a correct use of a directional term? A) The ankle is inferior to the knee. B) The sternum is superior to the abdomen. C) The bone is deep to the muscle. D) The ear is lateral to the mouth. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
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Figure 1.15 Anterior and posterior views of the body. 43. In Figure 1.15, identify number 1. A) Arm B) Forearm C) Axillary region D) Brachial region E) Antecubital region F) Carpal region G) Sternal region
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
44. In Figure 1.15, identify number 2. A) Leg B) Femoral region C) Tarsal region D) Otic region E) Patellar region F) Thigh G) Popliteal region ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
45. In Figure 1.15, identify number 3. A) Buccal region B) Occipital region C) Cervical region D) Nuchal region E) Otic region F) Tarsal region G) Orbital region ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
46. In Figure 1.15, identify number 4. A) Digital region B) Axillary region TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Carpal region D) Scapular region E) Nuchal region F) Brachial region G) Sternal region ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
47. In Figure 1.15, identify number 5. A) Brachial region B) Carpal region C) Digital region D) Sternal region E) Nuchal region F) Scapular region G) Axillary region ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
48. In Figure 1.15, identify number 6. A) Tarsal region B) Brachial region C) Axillary region D) Carpal region
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E) Digital region F) Sternal region G) Otic region ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
49. In Figure 1.15, identify number 7. A) Inguinal region B) Popliteal region C) Femoral region D) Leg E) Thigh F) Patellar region G) Pubic region ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
50. In Figure 1.15, identify number 8. A) Carpal region B) Digital region C) Crural region D) Sural region E) Lower limb F) Plantar region G) Tarsal region ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
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51. In Figure 1.15, identify number 9. A) Cervical region B) Lumbar region C) Occipital region D) Orbital region E) Thoracic region F) Mental region G) Otic region ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
52. In Figure 1.15, identify number 10. A) Brachial region B) Antebrachial region C) Vertebral region D) Cervical region E) Lumbar region F) Thoracic region G) Axillary region ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
53. In Figure 1.15, identify number 11. A) Antebrachial region
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B) Tarsal region C) Manual region D) Carpal region E) Forearm F) Axillary region G) Brachial region ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
54. In Figure 1.15, identify number 12. A) Popliteal region B) Pedal region C) Carpal region D) Tarsal region E) Lower limb F) Leg G) Thigh ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
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Figure 1.16 Body cavities. 55. In Figure 1.16, identify number 1. A) Mediastinum B) Peritoneal cavity C) Cranial cavity D) Dorsal cavity E) Pleural cavity F) Ventral cavity G) Abdominopelvic cavity
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
56. In Figure 1.16, identify number 2. A) Vertebral cavity B) Mediastinum C) Dorsal cavity D) Peritoneal cavity E) Thoracic cavity F) Ventral cavity G) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
57. In Figure 1.16, identify number 3. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Dorsal cavity C) Pleural cavity D) Mediastinum E) Thoracic cavity F) Pericardial cavity G) Ventral cavity ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
58. In Figure 1.16, identify number 4. A) Ventral cavity B) Dorsal cavity TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Pelvic cavity D) Pericardial cavity E) Peritoneal cavity F) Pleural cavity G) Thoracic cavity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
59. In Figure 1.16, identify number 5. A) Pericardial cavity B) Dorsal cavity C) Pleural cavity D) Abdominal cavity E) Ventral cavity F) Peritoneal cavity G) Thoracic cavity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
60. In Figure 1.16, identify number 6. A) Ventral cavity B) Abdominal cavity C) Pericardial cavity D) Dorsal cavity
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E) Abdominopelvic cavity F) Thoracic cavity G) Peritoneal cavity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
61. In Figure 1.16, identify number 7. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Ventral cavity C) Thoracic cavity D) Pericardial cavity E) Dorsal cavity F) Pelvic cavity G) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
62. In Figure 1.16, identify number 8. A) Dorsal cavity B) Pericardial cavity C) Thoracic cavity D) Ventral cavity E) Peritoneal cavity F) Pleural cavity G) Abdominopelvic cavity ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
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63. The outer layer of a serous membrane is called the _______ layer, and the inner layer of
the serous membrane is called the _______ layer. A) superior, inferior B) peritoneal, pericardial C) parietal, visceral D) vertebral, pleural ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
64. The midsagittal plane divides the body or body part into A) anterior and posterior parts. B) equal right and left halves. C) unequal right and left parts. D) superior and inferior (or proximal and distal) parts. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
65. The frontal plane divides the body or body parts into A) anterior and posterior parts. B) equal right and left halves. C) unequal right and left parts. D) superior and inferior (or proximal and distal) parts. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
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66. The following organs belong to the _______ system: spleen, lymph nodes, and thymus. A) integumentary B) reproductive C) lymphatic D) digestive ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
67. The following organs belong to the _______ system: gallbladder, liver, and esophagus. A) digestive B) urinary C) endocrine D) cardiovascular ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Recall
68. The figure below is not in anatomical position. Indicate all of the deviations from
anatomical position.
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Figure 1.17 Figure not in anatomical position. A) Figure is facing backward B) Head is turned C) Palms are at sides D) Feet are not shoulder-width apart E) All of the above F) None of the above ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
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69. In the figure below, a wound is marked with the letter X. Which statement most accurately
describes the location of the wound?
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 1.18A Anterior view of the body. A) The wound is located on the right dorsal, medial sural region, 10 centimeters distal to the tarsal region. B) The wound is located in the right superior, posterior acromial region. It is 8 centimeters lateral to the vertebral region and 3 centimeters superior to the scapular region. C) The wound is located on the right anterior, medial patellar region, 10 centimeters proximal to the carpal region. D) The wound is located on the right posterior, lateral inguinal region, 10 centimeters medial to the tarsal region. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
70. In the figure below, a wound is marked with the letter X. Which statement most accurately
describes the location of the wound?
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Figure 1.18B Posterior view of the body. A) The wound is located in the right inferior, anterior lumbar region. It is 5 centimeters superior to the gluteal region and 3 centimeters proximal to the vertebral region. B) The wound is located in the left inferior, posterior gluteal region. It is 5 centimeters medial to the patellar region and 3 centimeters lateral to the crural region. TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) The wound is located in the left superior, posterior inguinal region. It is 5 centimeters distal to the gluteal region and 3 centimeters lateral to the abdominal region. D) The wound is located on the left anterior, medial femoral region, 10 centimeters distal to the inguinal region. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
71. You are reading a surgeon's operative report. During the course of the surgery, she made
an incision. Your job is to read her operative report and determine where the incision was made. Which statement most accurately describes the location of the incision made by the surgeon, as indicated in Figure 1.19A?
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Figure 1.19A Anterior and posterior views of the body. A) The incision was made in the right anterior sternal region, 3 centimeters inferior to the cervical region. The cut extended vertically in an inferior direction, ending 2 centimeters superior to the umbilical region. ESthe TBleft ANanterior KSELLcervical ER.COregion, M B) The incision was madeTin 3 centimeters lateral to the trachea. The cut extended vertically 2 centimeters inferior to the occipital region to 3 centimeters inferior to the thoracic region. C) The incision was made in the left anterior cervical region, 3 centimeters lateral to the trachea. The cut extended vertically 2 centimeters inferior to the mental region to 3 centimeters superior to the inguinal region. D) The incision was made in the right anterior frontal region, 3 centimeters medial to the trachea. The cut extended vertically 2 centimeters inferior to the mental region to 3 centimeters inferior to the thoracic region. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
72. You are reading a surgeon's operative report. During the course of the surgery, she made
an incision. Your job is to read her operative report and determine where the incision was made. Which statement most accurately describes the location of the incision made by the surgeon, as indicated in Figure 1.19B?
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Figure 1.19B Anterior and posterior views of the body. A) The incision was made in the right anterior axillary region and extended TEregion. STBAAt NKthe SEsternal LLERregion .COMthe cut turned superiorly to 4 proximally to the sternal centimeters superior to the umbilical region. B) The incision was made in the left anterior umbilical region and extended medially to the sternal region. At the sternal region the cut turned inferiorly to 4 centimeters superior to the axillary region. C) The incision began in the left anterior lateral inguinal region and extended horizontally in a lateral direction for 4 centimeters to the pubic region. At the pubic region, the cut turned and extended vertically in a distal direction for 4 centimeters and ended in the proximal femoral region. D) The incision was made in the right inferior axillary region and extended laterally to the sternal region. At the sternal region the cut turned inferiorly to 4 centimeters inferior to the umbilical region. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
73. You are reading a surgeon's operative report. During the course of the surgery, she made
an incision. Your job is to read her operative report and determine where the incision was made. Which statement most accurately describes the location of the incision made by the surgeon, as indicated in Figure 1.19C?
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Figure 1.19C Anterior and posterior views of the body. A) The incision was made in the left posterior scapular region. The cut was extended medially to 2 centimeters medial to the vertebral region, where it turned superiorly and progressed to 10 centimeters superior to the cervical region. ESthe TBleft ANposterior, KSELLElateral R.COfemoral M B) The incision was madeTin region, 2 centimeters proximal to the popliteal region. The cut extended in a distal direction to 2 centimeters proximal to the tarsal region. C) The incision was made in the right anterior scapular region. The cut was extended medially to 2 centimeters lateral to the vertebral region, where it turned inferiorly and progressed to 1 centimeter superior to the cervical region. D) The incision was made in the left posterior cervical region. The cut was extended medially to 2 centimeters lateral to the vertebral region, where it turned superiorly and progressed to 1 centimeter inferior to the axillary region. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
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Figure 1.20 Anterior and posterior views of the body. 74. In Figure 1.20, wound A is marked with the letter X. Which statement most accurately
describes the location of the wound? A) The wound is on the left anterior axillary region, 1 centimeter lateral to the scapular region and 6 centimeters medial to the orbital region. B) The wound is on the left posterior antecubital region, 4 centimeters lateral to the otic region and 6 centimeters superior to the nasal region. C) The wound is in the right anterior, inferior orbital region. The wound is three TEnasal STBregion, ANKSEtwo LLcentimeters ER.COM superior to the buccal centimeters lateral to the region, and four centimeters lateral to the otic region. D) The wound is on the right anterior buccal region, 12 centimeters proximal to the axillary region and 2 centimeters proximal to the orbital region. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
75. In Figure 1.20, wound B is marked with the letter X. Which statement most accurately
describes the location of the wound? A) The wound is on the right anterior antecubital region, one centimeter lateral to the scapular region and six centimeters medial to the acromial region. B) The wound is on the left anterior, medial brachial region. It is approximately 12 centimeters distal to the acromial region and six centimeters proximal to the antecubital region. C) The wound is in the left anterior, inferior acromial region. The wound is three centimeters lateral to the nasal region, two centimeters superior to the antecubital region, and four centimeters lateral to the brachial region. D) The wound is on the right anterior acromial region, 12 centimeters proximal to the axillary region and two centimeters proximal to the antecubital region. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
76. In Figure 1.20, wound C is marked with the letter X. Which statement most accurately
describes the location of the wound? A) The wound is on the right anterior vertebral region, eight centimeters proximal to
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the axillary region and four centimeters lateral to the scapular region. B) The wound is on the left posterior brachial region, four centimeters superior to the axillary region and one centimeter lateral to the occipital. C) The wound is on the left posterior cervical region, three centimeters distal to the scapular region and six centimeters medial to the scapular region. D) The wound is on the left posterior cervical region, two centimeters lateral to the vertebral region and three centimeters inferior to the occipital region. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
Figure 1.21A Computed topography scan. 77. Identify the plane of section of the medical imaging scan in Figure 1.21A. A) Midsaggital plane B) Frontal plane C) Transverse plane TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Parasagittal plane ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
78. Identify some of the major organs you can see in Figure 1.21A. A) Liver B) Heart C) Large intestine D) Small intestine E) Stomach F) Urinary bladder G) Blood vessels H) Lungs ANS: A, C, D, E, G PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
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Figure 1.21B Computed topography scan. 79. Identify the plane of section of the medical imaging scan in Figure 1.21B. A) Midsaggital plane B) Frontal plane C) Transverse plane D) Parasagittal plane ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
80. Identify some of the major organs you can see in Figure 1.21B. A) Liver B) Heart C) Muscles D) Bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Stomach F) Urinary bladder G) Blood vessels H) Lungs ANS: B, C, D, G, H PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
Figure 1.21C Computed topography scan.
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81. Identify the plane of section of the medical imaging scan in Figure 1.21C A) Midsaggital plane B) Frontal plane C) Transverse plane D) Parasagittal plane ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
82. Identify some of the major organs you can see in Figure 1.21C. A) Liver B) Heart C) Muscles D) Large intestine E) Small intestine F) Bone G) Stomach H) Urinary bladder ANS: A, D, E, F, G, H PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding 83. A female patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in the right
lower quadrant of her abdomen. List the organs and structures that could possibly be involved in causing her pain. ANS:
The organs that could be involved pain the appendix, right kidney, TESTBin ANcausing KSELher LER .Cinclude OM small intestine, ascending colon, urinary bladder, right ovary, right ureter, and right uterine tube. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 01 Check Your Understanding
84. Which of these descriptions does NOT apply to a person in the anatomical position? A) Standing erect B) Head facing forward C) Arms hanging to the sides D) Palms facing toward the thighs ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
85. A term meaning toward or at the body surface is _______________. A) distal B) medial C) superficial D) lateral ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
86. The dorsal cavity contains the _____________.
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A) kidneys B) brain C) spinal cord D) lungs E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
87. The abdominopelvic region contains all of the following EXCEPT the
________________. A) right hypochondriac region B) epigastric region C) pericardial cavity D) right lumbar region ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
88. The thoracic cavity encompasses all of the following EXCEPT the
_____________________. A) pericardial cavity B) mediastinum C) peritoneal cavity D) pleural cavity ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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89. The abdominopelvic cavity is divided into quadrants in order to assist the examiner in
pinpointing the problem area. There are _____ quadrants. A) 4 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12 ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
90. Cavities are associated with specific organs. Which is an incorrect association? A) Pericardial, heart B) Vertebral, spine C) Right upper iliac, liver D) Pelvic, stomach ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
91. The digestive system is not found in the ___________________. A) vertebral cavity B) pelvic cavity C) umbilical region
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D) mediastinum ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
92. The ventral body cavity contains all of the following EXCEPT the
___________________. A) heart B) pancreas C) brain D) lungs ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
93. Which of the following statements accurately defines the response of the effector in the
negative feedback mechanism? A) The response of the effector is to oppose or end the original stimulus. B) The response of the effector is to enhance the original stimulus. C) The response of the effector usually damages the body. D) The response of the effector is to signal the control center. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
94. Which body cavity contains the pituitary gland? A) Abdominal B) Cranial TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Pleural D) Thoracic ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
95. A coronal plane through the head could __________________________________. A) pass through both the nose and the occiput B) pass through both ears C) divide the head into superior and inferior portions D) lie in a horizontal plane ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
96. Which of these organs would not be cut through the midsagittal plane? A) Urinary bladder B) Gallbladder C) Small intestine D) Heart ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
97. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
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A) Homeostasis prevents change within the body. B) Positive feedback is more common than negative feedback in humans. C) Homeostasis occurs in the cells, tissues, and organs. D) Positive feedback is used to regulate blood glucose ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
98. What is the function of an oblique section? A) To divide the body into equal right and left halves B) To allow examination of structures difficult to see with standard angles C) To divide the body into unequal right and left halves D) To divide the body into superior and inferior parts ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
99. A patient lying with his or her face up is in the __________ position. A) proximal B) rostral C) supine D) prone ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
100. The wrist is ________________________ to the elbow. A) medial TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) proximal C) distal D) lateral ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
101. The term “medial surface” defines the area _____________________. A) close to the long axis to the body B) away from the long axis of the body C) away from an attached base D) toward an attached base ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
102. We use the term “acromial region” in order to ____________________________. A) describe a specific area of the leg B) describe a specific area of the shoulder C) enable identification of a large area of the body D) describe a specific area of the chest ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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103. You are examining a patient. You divide the area into (1) a median plane, (2) a frontal
plane, and (3) a transverse plane made at the level of each of the organs listed below. Which organ would not be visible in all three cases? A) Urinary bladder B) Brain C) Heart D) Kidneys E) Small intestine ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
104. The frontal plane is also known as the ____________________ plane, and the transverse
plane is also known as the _________________ plane. A) sagittal, oblique B) oblique, horizontal C) horizontal, coronal D) coronal, horizontal E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
105. A patient complains of pain in the lower right quadrant. Which system is most likely to be
involved? A) Respiratory B) Digestive C) Muscular D) Skeletal E) None of the above
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
106. The position of the heart relative to some of the structures around it would include the
following locations EXCEPT _________________. A) deep to the sternum B) superior to the diaphragm C) inferior to the ribs D) anterior to the vertebral column E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
107. Which organ system would be affected by degenerative cartilage? A) Skeletal B) Nervous C) Lymphatic D) Cardiovascular E) None of the above
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ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
108. A patient in a car accident hits the steering wheel violently and begins to have difficulty
breathing. The diagnosis is a collapsed lung. Which cavity is affected? A) Thoracic B) Pericardial C) Pelvic D) Vertebral E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
109. The correct sequence of levels forming the structural organizational hierarchy is
_____________________. A) organ, organ system, cellular, chemical, tissue, and organismal B) cellular, chemical, tissue, organ system, and organ C) chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, and organ system D) atom, organ system, organ, tissue, cellular, and chemical ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
110. The thoracic cavity encompasses the area ________________. A) including the hypogastric and iliac regions B) including the peritoneal membranes C) including the hypogastric region and region TES TBAN KSparietal ELLER .COM D) encased by the ribs ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
111. Which of the following groupings of the abdominopelvic regions is medial? A) Hypochondriac, hypogastric, umbilical B) Hypochondriac, lumbar, inguinal C) Hypogastric, umbilical, epigastric D) Lumbar, umbilical, hypochondriac ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
112. The chemical transformations that take place in a cell are known as ________________. A) assimilation B) physiology C) metabolism D) digestion ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 01 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 02 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines pH? A) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction B) Degree to which a solute will dissolve in a solvent C) Negative logarithm D) Measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions present in a solution ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines acid? A) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 B) Substance that releases (donates) hydrogen ions; has a pH < 7 C) Substance present in a solution in higher amounts; often a liquid D) Both A and C are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines base? A) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 B) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) Control center of the cell; contains the cell's DNA D) None of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines neutral? TEScontains TBANKthe SEcell's LLEDNA R.COM A) Control center of the cell; B) Chemical that absorbs large swings in the pH of a solution C) Substance or solution with a pH of 7 D) None of the above ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines buffer? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) Chemical that resists large swings in the pH of a solution C) The oxygen concentration in a pH solution D) Chemical that absorbs large swings in the pH of a solution ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines chemical reaction? A) Process during which chemical bonds are broken, formed, or rearranged, or
electrons are exchanged between reactants B) The unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms C) The movement of solute from a high concentration to a low concentration D) Both A and B are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines enzyme?
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A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell C) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction D) Thick protein fiber composed of the protein elastin, which makes a tissue
distensible ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines denatured? A) Unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms. The result is a partial positive
charge on one atom and a partial negative charge on another atom, known as a dipole. B) Interaction between atoms or molecules in which chemical bonds are formed, broken, or rearranged, or electrons are transferred between molecules C) A protein that has lost its shape and, therefore, its function has been denatured D) Equal sharing of electrons, and thus the resulting molecule does not have partial positive or negative ends ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines polar covalent bond? A) Small, membrane-bounded structure that buds off from the plasma membrane or
another membrane-bounded structure B) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) Unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms. The result is a partial positive
TEa Spartial TBANnegative KSELLcharge ER.Con OManother atom, known as a charge on one atom and dipole. D) None of the above ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines nonpolar covalent bond? A) Unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms. The result is a partial positive
charge on one atom and a partial negative charge on another atom, known as a dipole. B) Interaction between atoms or molecules in which chemical bonds are formed, broken, or rearranged, or electrons are transferred between molecules C) Series of membranes; site of lipid and cholesterol synthesis and metabolism; drug and toxin detoxification D) Equal sharing of electrons, and thus the resulting molecule does not have partial positive or negative ends ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines ionic bond? A) Forms between a metal and a nonmetal, and involves a transfer of electrons in
which the metal has donated electrons and thus has a positive charge, and the nonmetal has accepted electrons and thus has a negative charge B) Bond results from the attraction between the positively charged cation and the
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negatively charged anion C) Negative logarithm D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines solute? A) Substance present in a solution in lower amounts; often a solid B) Substance or solution with a pH of 7 C) Substance present in a solution in higher amounts; often a liquid D) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines solvent? A) Substance present in a solution in lower amounts; often a solid B) Substance or solution with a pH of 7 C) Substance present in a solution in higher amounts; often a liquid D) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines solubility? A) Degree to which a solvent will dissolve in a solute B) Measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions present in a solution C) Degree to which a solute will dissolve in a solvent D) None of the above ANS: C
ELLE R.02 COPre-Lab M PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines hydrophilic? A) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 B) Substance or solution with a pH of 7 C) Nonpolar compound or molecule that does not interact with water D) Polar or ionic compound that interacts with water ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines hydrophobic? A) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 B) Substance or solution with a pH of 7 C) Nonpolar compound or molecule that does not interact with water D) Polar or ionic compound that interacts with water ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? A) String of nucleic acids located in the nucleus of all cells; contains instructions for
building every protein in an organism B) Control center of the cell C) The movement of solute from a high concentration to a low concentration D) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. An acidic solution has a pH value of _______, a neutral solution has a pH value of
_______, and a basic (alkaline) solution has a pH value of _______. A) less than 7, 7, greater than 7 B) 7, greater than 7, greater than 7 C) greater than 7, less than 7, 7 D) greater than 7, greater than 7, less than 7 E) 7, greater than 7, less than 7 ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
19. Adding hydrogen ions to a solution will make the solution more ______, and its pH will
_________. A) acidic; increase B) basic; increase C) acidic; decrease D) basic; decrease ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
20. What does a buffer do when hydrogen ions are added to a solution? A) The buffer keeps the pH of a solution neutral. B) The buffer releases base ions. C) The buffer releases additional hydrogen ions. D) The buffer binds the hydrogen ions to remove them from the solution. ANS: D
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.02 COCheck M Your Recall
21. Which of the following statements about chemical reactions is false? A) The rate of a chemical reaction increases when temperature decreases. B) A chemical reaction occurs when chemical bonds are formed, broken, or
rearranged. C) A chemical reaction occurs when electrons are transferred between molecules. D) All of the above are true. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
22. An enzyme that has lost its shape A) is denatured and no longer functional. B) is denatured but still functional. C) is not different from a regular enzyme as shape is not important. D) can be restored by extreme temperatures or pH swings. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
23. Electrons are ________ in an ionic bond, whereas they are ________ in a polar covalent
bond, and ________ in a nonpolar covalent bond. A) transferred, shared equally, shared unequally B) shared equally, transferred, shared unequally C) shared unequally, transferred, shared equally D) transferred, shared unequally, shared equally
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
24. Predict whether LiCl has ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent bonds. A) Ionic B) Polar covalent C) Nonpolar covalent ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
25. Predict whether Cl2 has ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent bonds. A) Ionic B) Polar covalent C) Nonpolar covalent ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
26. Predict whether CHCl3 has ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent bonds. A) Ionic B) Polar covalent C) Nonpolar covalent ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
27. Predict whether C5H10O5 has ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent bonds. A) Ionic B) Polar covalent C) Nonpolar covalent ANS: B
ELLE R.02 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
28. Predict whether KBr has ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent bonds. A) Ionic B) Polar covalent C) Nonpolar covalent ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
29. Predict whether C2H8 has ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent bonds. A) Ionic B) Polar covalent C) Nonpolar covalent ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
30. A substance that dissolves in water is called ________, and a substance that will not
dissolve in water is called _________. A) hydrophobic, hydrophilic B) solute, solvent C) solvent, solute D) hydrophillic, hydrophobic ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
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31. Which of the following molecules would you not expect to dissolve in water? A) Polar molecules B) Ionic compounds C) Nonpolar molecules D) Both a and b are correct E) Both a and c are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
32. How does an enzyme affect the rate of a chemical reaction? ANS:
An enzyme acts as a biological catalyst and increases the rate of a chemical reaction. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Recall
33. The normal pH of the blood is 7.35-7.45. Is this pH acidic, neutral, or basic? Explain. ANS:
A pH above 7 is a basic or alkaline pH. A pH of exactly 7 is neutral, and any pH above that value is basic; any pH below that value is acidic. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
34. Ms. Young presents to the emergency department in respiratory distress. The respiratory
therapist measures the pH of her blood and determines that it is 7.15. Is the pH of her blood more acidic or more basic than normal? Has the number of hydrogen ions in her TESExplain. TBANKSELLER.COM blood increased or decreased? ANS:
The pH of her blood is more acidic than normal. This means that her blood has more hydrogen ions in it than normal, as the pH decreases as the number of hydrogen ions increases. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
35. Your lab partner argues with you that if you add a buffer to a solution, it will make the
solution neutral. Is he correct? What do you tell him? ANS:
No, he isn't correct. A buffer doesn't make a solution neutral. Instead, a buffer helps to resist changes in a solution's pH. A buffered solution at pH 10 is basic and the buffer will help to maintain the pH at around 10 when acid or base is added to the solution. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
36. You may have read about "alkaline diets" that claim that you need to eat only alkaline
foods in order to remain healthy. According to this philosophy, eating acidic foods "acidifies the blood," leading to disease. But our blood has several buffer systems in place. Explain what happens when buffers encounter additional hydrogen ions from foods. Will the pH of the blood decrease?
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ANS:
When hydrogen ions from foods are absorbed into the blood, they bind to buffers such as bicarbonate ions and are removed from solution. When the hydrogen ions are no longer in solution, they cannot affect the pH of the blood, and so it won't decrease. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
37. You take the boiled lipase from Exercise 2-3 and compare its structure to normal, unboiled
lipase. You note that the two structures differ. Why are they different? How does this help to explain your results? ANS:
Boiling denatured the lipase, meaning its structure was changed. This rendered the enzyme nonfunctional, which explains why no lipid digestion occurred with the boiled lipase tube. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
38. An embolus is a piece of a clot that lodges in a blood vessel, blocking the flow of blood
through that vessel. Most emboli are composed of hydrophilic substances that can be dissolved into the water of blood relatively easily. However, two types of emboli--air emboli and fat emboli--are particularly dangerous and difficult to treat because both are composed of hydrophobic substances. Why do you think hydrophobic emboli are more difficult to break apart in the water-based environment of blood? ANS:
Hydrophobic emboli cannot dissolve in the water of blood and instead clump together. TESTBANKSELLER.COM Even if these clumps are broken apart, they will simply come back together because they won't disperse in water. This makes the emboli very difficult to remove from blood vessels. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
39. You could use the same procedure that you used here to extract DNA from any
source--your own cells, your dog, a strawberry, or a bacterial culture. Why would this procedure work with any other living organism? ANS:
The structures of DNA and the plasma membrane are essentially the same among all living organisms on this planet. This allows us to use the same procedure to extract DNA from cells from any living organism. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 02 Check Your Understanding
40. Protons of elements are located in the _______________. A) first energy level B) orbital C) nucleus D) sphere ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions 41. Electrons are found in the ____________. A) nucleus B) shells C) orbitals D) P shells only ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
42. Sodium has ______ protons. A) 11 B) 9 C) 13 D) 12 ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
43. Sodium has ______ electrons. A) 9 B) 13 C) 11 D) 15 ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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44. Sodium has how many shells? A) 9 B) 4 C) 7 D) 3 ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
45. How many electrons are in each orbital? A) 5 B) 2 C) 7 D) 3 ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
46. Chlorine has ____ protons. A) 17 B) 12 C) 15 D) 13
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ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
47. Chlorine has ____ electrons. A) 15 B) 12 C) 17 D) 13 ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
48. Chlorine has how many electrons in its outermost shell? A) 5 B) 12 C) 3 D) 7 ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
49. Which of the statements below best describes the difference between an element and a
molecule? A) An element is composed of atoms; a molecule is not. B) An element is composed of only one kind of atom. C) An element is unstable. D) Elements always have lower atomic weights than molecules. E) Elements exist in nature TEonly STBasAparts NKSof ELmolecules. LER.COM ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
50. An element that contains 10 protons and 10 electrons is likely to ________________. A) form covalent bonds with another element B) form ionic bonds with another element C) be chemically inert (stable) D) be radioactive E) be toxic ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
51. The pH of a 0.1M solution of acetic acid is higher than that of a 0.1M solution of HCl.
Why? A) HCl is a weaker acid than acetic acid. B) The acetic acid does not fully ionize in water, but HCl does. C) HCl does not fully ionize in water, but acetic acid does. D) Acetic acid is a better buffer than HCl. E) Acetate (ionized acetic acid) is a strong base. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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52. The pH of coffee is close to 5 and that of pure water is 7. This means that _____________. A) coffee is more basic than water B) water is more acidic than coffee C) the H+ concentration of coffee is 7/5ths that of water D) the H+ concentration of water is 1/100th that of coffee E) the H+ concentration of water is 100 times that of coffee ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
53. Which of the following statements about chemical reactions is not true? A) Chemical reactions occur when atoms combine or change their bonding partners. B) Energy may be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction. C) Reactions may go to completion. D) Changes in forms of energy may accompany chemical reactions. E) In a chemical reaction, the reactants form the products. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
54. Sodium would most likely _____________. A) lose 2 electrons B) gain 1 electron C) lose 1 electron D) lose no electrons E) A and B ANS: C PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions 55. A chemical reaction known as a synthesis is represented by the following: A) AB + CD → AD + BC B) XY → X + Y C) A + B → AB D) AB + CD = AD + CB E) A and D ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
56. You are working with an oxygen sample, and find that it is heavier than expected after
your experiment. What has happened? A) You have created an isotope of oxygen B) Oxygen has ionized C) Oxygen has become ozone D) You have created a new element ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
57. An important function of water is to _______________________. A) reduce temperature fluctuations
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B) transport substances C) participate in chemical reactions D) serve as a solvent for sugars, salt, and other solutes E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
58. Which of the following molecules contains only single covalent bonds? A) Carbon dioxide B) Formaldehyde (H2CO) C) Oxygen gas D) Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) E) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
59. DNA ______________________________. A) contains uracil B) leaves the nucleus C) is in the shape of a double helix D) contains ribose E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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60. If the cell is placed in a solution and the cell lyses, the solution must have been
____________. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) A and C E) B and C ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
61. Which of the following statements about RNA is false? A) RNA is single-stranded B) RNA can be found in the nucleus and cytosol C) RNA contains the base thymine instead of uracil D) RNA contains the sugar ribose ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
62. ATP is not associated with _____________. A) a basic nucleotide structure B) a high-energy phosphate C) deoxyribose
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D) inorganic phosphate E) a reversible reaction ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
63. Which of the interactions between atoms given below is the strongest? A) Hydrophobic B) Hydrogen C) Covalent D) Van der Walls ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
64. The sum of the protons and neutrons contained in a nucleus is the ____________. A) atomic mass number B) atomic weight C) atomic number D) atomic orbital ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
65. A charged atom having a positive charge is called a(n) ______________. A) anion B) cation C) isotope TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) proton ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
66. When two or more substances are physically combined, the result is a/an A) anion. B) cation. C) isotope. D) mixture. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
67. An enzyme is a __________. A) carbohydrate B) protein C) DNA D) lipid ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
68. Polar covalent bonds are bonds between two _________ with different electronegativities. A) metal atoms
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B) nonmetals C) anions D) oppositely charged ions ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
69. Ionic bonds result from a(n) _______ of ________ between nonmetal and metal atoms. A) exchange, protons B) exchange, electrons C) bonding, electrons D) exchange, charges ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
70. DNA is a(n) _______________. A) protein B) enzyme C) nucleic acid D) nucleotide ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 02 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 03 1. Which statement most accurately describes ocular lens? A) Controls the amount of light that passes through the slide B) The lens through which you look to view the slide C) Lenses of various powers of magnification D) The microscope's light source ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
2. Which statement most accurately describes iris diaphragm? A) Allows fine-tuning of the focus B) Controls the amount of light that passes through the slide C) Moves the stage up and down; provides gross focusing D) Lens under the stage that focuses light from the lamp on the specimen ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
3. Which statement most accurately describes condenser? A) Allows fine-tuning of the focus B) Moves the stage up and down; provides gross focusing C) The surface on which the slide sits D) Lens under the stage that focuses light from the lamp on the specimen ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
4. Which statement most accurately describes objective lens? ESTthat BANpasses KSELthrough LER.C OMslide A) Controls the amount ofTlight the B) The lens through which you look to view the slide C) Lenses of various powers of magnification D) The microscope's light source ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
5. Which statement most accurately describes coarse adjustment knob? A) Moves the stage up and down; provides gross focusing B) Allows fine-tuning of the focus C) Supports the body of the microscope D) Controls the amount of light that passes through the slide ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
6. Which statement most accurately describes stage? A) The surface on which the slide sits B) The lens through which you look to view the slide C) Lens under the stage that focuses light from the lamp on the specimen D) Allows fine-tuning of the focus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
7. Which statement most accurately describes fine adjustment knob? A) The surface on which the slide sits
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B) Allows fine-tuning of the focus C) Moves the stage up and down; provides gross focusing D) Controls the amount of light that passes through the slide ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
8. Which statement most accurately describes lamp? A) Controls the amount of light that passes through the slide B) The lens through which you look to view the slide C) Lenses of various powers of magnification D) The microscope's light source ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
9. Magnification of the ocular lens is usually A) 100X B) 2X C) 10X D) 40X ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
10. The lens that provides 100X magnification is the A) low-power lens. B) medium-power lens. C) high-power lens. D) oil-immersion lens. ANS: D
ELLE R.03 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
11. Before you begin, you should make sure that A) the objective lens is switched to the highest-power magnification. B) the lamp is turned to its full brightness. C) the ocular lens is switched to the highest-power magnification. D) the objective lens is switched to the lowest-power magnification. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
12. Which knob should you use to get the image in focus when using the higher-power
objective lenses? A) The coarse adjustment knob. B) The fine adjustment knob. C) The iris diaphragm. D) The light adjustment dial. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
13. What should you use to clean the lenses? A) Lighter fluid and a paper towel B) Lens paper and lens cleaning solution C) Water and a paper towel D) A paper towel and lens cleaning solution
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
14. What should you do if your slide looks dramatically different from the slide in your lab
manual? A) Change the magnification B) Get a new slide C) Move the slide D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
15. If you are having trouble making out details on your slide, what can you do? A) Adjust the focus with the fine adjustment knob. B) Reduce the amount of light with the iris diaphragm. C) Both a and b. D) Neither a nor b. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
16. What is the first step you should take to focus the image on the slide? A) Begin on low power. B) Refine the focus with the fine adjustment knob. C) Examine the slide with the naked eye. D) Focus with the coarse adjustment knob. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
17. What is the second step you should take to focus the image on the slide? TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Begin on low power. B) Refine the focus with the fine adjustment knob. C) Examine the slide with the naked eye. D) Focus with the coarse adjustment knob. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
18. What is the third step you should take to focus the image on the slide? A) Begin on low power. B) Refine the focus with the fine adjustment knob. C) Examine the slide with the naked eye. D) Focus with the coarse adjustment knob. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
19. What is the last step you should take to focus the image on the slide? A) Begin on low power. B) Refine the focus with the fine adjustment knob. C) Examine the slide with the naked eye. D) Focus with the coarse focus knob. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
20. What is the depth of focus? A) The combined magnification of the ocular lens and the objective lens.
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B) The distance from the objective lens to the specimen. C) The field seen when looking through an ocular lens. D) The thickness of a specimen that is in sharp focus. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 03 Check Your Recall
21. True or False? Light is reflected through the object being viewed through the ocular lens. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
22. True or False? The area of the slide visible through the ocular lens is called the field of
vision. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
23. True or False? Low power will render the image within the field of vision at a 10X
magnification. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
24. True or False? Oil immersion is used to view a small specimen under low magnification. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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25. An organism viewed under high power would have a magnification of _______________. A) 40X B) 50X C) 100X D) 400X ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
26. What is the total magnification produced by a microscope using a 10X ocular lens and a
10X objective lens? A) 10 B) 20 C) 100 D) 1,000 ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
27. Turning which of the following knobs moves the objective lenses the greatest vertical
distance? A) Coarse focus knob B) Fine focus knob C) Resolution focusing knob
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D) A and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
28. True or False? Resolution is the ability to see two objects as separate. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
29. The large knob on the microscope is used for ____________. A) resolution B) low power C) gross focusing D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
30. What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10X ocular lens and a 45X
objective lens? A) 10X B) 45X C) 450X D) 4,500X ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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31. Cells are differentiated after which step in the Gram stain procedure? A) Safranin B) Alcohol-acetone C) Iodine D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
32. Identify which type of microscope would be used to view intracellular detail. A) Fluorescence microscope B) Phase contrast microscope C) Dark field microscope D) DIC microscope ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
33. The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the _____. A) condenser B) fine adjustment C) wavelength of light D) diaphragm
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
34. What is the total magnification of bacteria if you use a light compound microscope and
20X objective lens? A) 100X B) 200X C) 400X D) 210X ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
35. The purpose of the ocular lens is to ___________. A) improve resolution B) magnify the image from the objective lens C) decrease the refractive index D) increase the light ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
36. Under the microscope, the appearance of the “e” appears ______________. A) vertical B) horizontal C) upside down D) right side up
ELLE R.COM ANS: C PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions 37. If you move the “e” from the center to the left, under the microscope the “e” will be
oriented _______________. A) downward B) upward C) to the left of the field of vision D) to the right of the field of vision ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
38. If you place three different-colored threads of varying depths on a slide, under medium
power, use the __________. A) coarse adjustment B) fine adjustment C) higher magnification D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
39. If you open the iris diaphragm completely, the amount of light will __________. A) illuminate the specimen
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B) show details in the specimen C) wash out the specimen D) B and C ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
40. If you were to estimate the field of vision, you must use a micrometer measurement unit.
One micrometer is equivalent to __________. A) 0.001 mm B) 0.00001 mm C) 0.01 mm D) 0.1 mm ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
41. When using a microscope, low power should always be used initially in order to A) make viewing easier on yourself. B) focus in on the desired area of the section. C) scroll through a large area of the slide. D) avoid damaging the objective lenses. E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
42. If your field of vision's diameter was 1,500 micrometers under low power 10X, what
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would the diameter be for high power 40X? A) 500 m B) 525 m C) 375 m D) 400 m E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
43. If a specimen measures 600 m wide under low power, how many millimeters wide is the
specimen? A) 0.006 mm B) 0.06 mm C) 0. 6 mm D) 0.003 mm E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
44. If a specimen, measuring 600 m wide under low power, is viewed under a high-power
lens, what will happen to the size in micrometers of this specimen? A) No change other than field of view
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B) Size increases 2X C) Size decreases by 0.5 D) 0.25 increase E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
45. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Fluorescence microscope—uses fluorescent light source B) Bright field microscope—used to view stained specimens C) Confocal microscope—produces a three-dimensional image D) Scanning electron microscope—used to view surface of specimen E) Scanning tunneling microscope—used to view DNA ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
46. Which type of microscope is best to view a 300 nm virus? A) Confocal microscope B) Phase contrast microscope C) Electron microscope D) Compound light microscope E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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47. In the field of vision of high power the focus is controlled with the ____________. A) diaphragm B) coarse resolution C) magnification D) fine resolution E) B and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 03 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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Unit 04 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines plasma membrane? A) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction B) Unequal sharing of electrons between two atoms. The result is a partial positive
charge on one atom and a partial negative charge on another atom, known as a dipole. C) Boundary between the cell and the external environment; regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell; composed of a phospholipid bilayer and many other components D) Measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions present in a solution ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines cytoplasm? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Substance that releases (donates) hydrogen ions; has a pH < 7 C) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines nucleus? A) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 B) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) Control center of the cell; TEScontains TBANKthe SEcell's LLEDNA R.COM D) Area within the nucleus that is responsible for RNA and ribosome production ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines nucleolus? A) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 B) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) Control center of the cell; contains the cell's DNA D) Area within the nucleus that is responsible for RNA and ribosome production ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines mitochondrion? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) Chemical that resists large swings in the pH of a solution C) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles D) Site of most of the cell's ATP production ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines ribosome? A) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell B) Site of protein synthesis
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C) Negative logarithm D) Control center of the cell; contains the cell's DNA ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines peroxisome? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or use in the cell C) Contains enzymes that detoxify chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide D) Thick protein fiber composed of the protein elastin, which makes a tissue distensible ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A) Series of membranes B) Site of lipid and cholesterol synthesis and metabolism C) Drug and toxin detoxification D) All of the above are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines rough endoplasmic reticulum? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Series of membranes; modifies TESTBAproteins NKSELmade LERby .Cthe OMribosomes C) Series of membranes; site of lipid and cholesterol synthesis and metabolism; drug
and toxin detoxification D) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines Golgi apparatus (or complex)? A) Group of membrane-bounded sacs B) Modifies and packages proteins for export or use in the cell C) Portion of the cell cycle during which growth is initiated and DNA is replicated D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines lysosome? A) String of nucleic acids located in the nucleus of all cells; contains instructions for
building every protein in an organism B) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell C) Vesicular organelle that contains digestive enzymes that break down different
substances within the cell D) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
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12. Which of the following statements accurately defines centriole? A) Paired organelles composed primarily of microtubules that appear to be
microtubule organizing centers and are important in facilitating the assembly and disassembly of microtubules B) Single organelles composed primarily of microtubules that appear to be microtubule organizing centers and are important in facilitating the assembly and disassembly of microtubules C) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or use in the cell D) Membrane-bounded sac; modifies and packages proteins for export or use in the cell ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines cilia? A) Hairlike extensions from the plasma membrane that propel substances past the cell B) String of nucleic acids located in the nucleus of all cells; contains instructions for
building every protein in an organism C) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles D) The bond results from the attraction between the positively charged cation and the
negatively charged anion ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines flagella? A) The movement of solute from a high concentration to a low concentration STthat BAN KSELthe LEcell R.Citself OM B) Single extension from T aE cell propels C) Site of protein synthesis D) Cell taller than it is wide with a round nucleus generally located near the base of
the cell ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines vesicle? A) Measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions present in a solution B) Substance present in a solution in higher amounts; often a liquid C) Substance present in a solution in lower amounts; often a solid D) Small, membrane-bounded structure that buds off from the plasma membrane or
another membrane-bounded structure ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines diffusion? A) The degree to which a solute will dissolve in a solvent B) The movement of solute from a high concentration to a low concentration C) Substance that accepts hydrogen ions; has a pH > 7 D) Equal sharing of electrons, and thus the resulting molecule does not have partial
positive or negative ends ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
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17. Which of the following statements accurately defines osmosis? A) String of nucleic acids located in the nucleus of all cells; contains instructions for
building every protein in an organism B) Control center of the cell C) The movement of solute from a high concentration to a low concentration D) The movement of solvent from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a
solution with a higher solute concentration through a selectively permeable membrane ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines tonicity? A) Comparative measure of the osmotic pressure of two solutions B) The movement of solvent from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a
solution with a higher solute concentration through a selectively permeable membrane C) The ability of one solution to cause water movement by osmosis from another solution D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines cell cycle? A) Continual process of growth and replication of cells B) Cell with approximately the same width, depth, and height with a round central
nucleus C) Central area of the cell containing centrioles TESTthe BAcell NKSand ELthe LEexternal R.COMenvironment; regulates the D) Creates a boundary between
movement of substances in and out of the cell; composed of a phospholipid bilayer and many other components ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines interphase? A) Small, membrane-bounded structure that buds off from the plasma membrane or
another membrane-bounded structure B) A flat cell with a flattened nucleus C) Portion of the cell cycle during which growth is initiated and DNA is replicated D) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina; the tissue appears
stratified because of the locations of the cell's nuclei ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines mitosis? A) Type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each with half the
chromosome number of the parent cell B) Portion of the cell cycle during which the cell divides its organelles, cytosol, and
replicated DNA among two identical daughter cells C) Gelatinous component of the extracellular matrix that contains water, proteoglycans, and many other molecules D) None of the above
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 4.1 Plasma membrane. 22. In Figure 4.1, identify number 1. A) Lipid B) Peripheral protein C) Carbohydrate TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Cytosol E) Integral proteins F) Cholesterol ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 4.1, identify number 2. A) Lipid B) Peripheral protein C) Protein D) Extracellular fluid E) Integral proteins F) Cholesterol ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 4.1, identify number 3. A) Integral proteins B) Peripheral protein C) Carbohydrate D) Cytosol E) Polar head (hydrophilic) F) Cholesterol ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
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25. In Figure 4.1, identify number 4. A) Integral proteins B) Lipid bilayer C) Carbohydrate D) Fatty acid tails (hydrophobic) E) Cytosol F) Intermediate filaments ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 4.1, identify number 5. A) Integral proteins B) Polar head (hydrophilic) C) Integral (transmembrane) proteins D) Cytosol E) Actin filaments of cytoskeleton F) Cholesterol ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 4.1, identify number 6. A) Integral proteins B) Peripheral protein C) Protein D) Cytosol E) Lipid TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Cholesterol ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 4.1, identify number 7. A) Lipid B) Extracellular fluid C) Integral proteins D) Phospholipid bilayer E) Carbohydrates F) Actin filaments of cytoskeleton ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 4.1, identify number 8. A) Cholesterol B) Peripheral protein C) Extracellular fluid D) Cytosol E) Integral proteins F) Protein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 4.1, identify number 9.
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A) Lipid B) Integral proteins C) Actin filaments of cytoskeleton D) Phospholipid bilayer E) Peripheral protein F) Cholesterol ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 4.1, identify number 10. A) Phospholipid bilayer B) Peripheral protein C) Integral proteins D) Cytosol E) Carbohydrate F) Actin filaments of cytoskeleton ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 4.1, identify number 11. A) Lipid B) Peripheral protein C) Carbohydrate D) Actin filaments of cytoskeleton E) Integral proteins F) Polar head (hydrophilic) ANS: C
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.04 COPre-Lab M
33. In Figure 4.1, identify number 12. A) Carbohydrate B) Cytosol C) Lipid D) Polar head (hydrophilic) E) Protein F) Cholesterol ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 4.1, identify number 13. A) Lipid B) Peripheral protein C) Carbohydrate D) Cytosol E) Integral proteins F) Extracellular fluid ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 4.1, identify number 14. A) Lipid B) Extracellular fluid
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C) Carbohydrate D) Cytosol E) Integral proteins F) Cholesterol ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 4.2 Generalized cell. 36. In Figure 4.2, identify number 1. A) Secretory vesicle B) Microtubules C) Golgi complex D) Nuclear envelope E) Actin filaments ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 4.2, identify number 2. A) Plasma membrane B) Microtubules C) Actin filaments D) Microvilli E) Intermediate filament ANS: B
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 4.2, identify number 3. A) Plasma membrane B) Microtubules
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C) Actin filaments D) Microvilli E) Intermediate filament ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 4.2, identify number 4. A) Mitochondrion B) Centrioles C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Nucleolus E) Intermediate filaments ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 4.2, identify number 5. A) Plasma membrane B) Microtubule C) Actin filament D) Microvilli E) Intermediate filament ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 4.2, identify number 6. A) Actin filament B) Chromatin C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum E) Cytoplasm (cytosol and organelles) ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 4.2, identify number 7. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Ribosome C) Chromatin D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum E) Nucleolus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 4.2, identify number 8. A) Microvilli B) Microtubules C) Chromatin D) Peroxisome E) Ribosome ANS: D
PTS: 1
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44. In Figure 4.2, identify number 9. A) Plasma membrane
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B) Peroxisome C) Mitochondrion D) Nuclear envelope E) Centrioles ANS: C
PTS: 1
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45. In Figure 4.2, identify number 10. A) Chromatin B) Ribosomes C) Actin filaments D) Lysosomes E) Peroxisomes ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 4.2, identify number 11. A) Centrioles B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) Cytoplasm (cytosol and organelles) E) Mitochondrion ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 4.2, identify number 12. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Chromatin TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Golgi apparatus D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum E) Cytoplasm (cytosol and organelles) ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 4.2, identify number 13. A) Mitochondrion B) Ribosomes C) Peroxisomes D) Cytoplasm (cytosol and organelles) E) Nuclear pores ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 4.2, identify number 14. A) Plasma membrane B) Cytoplasm (cytosol plus organelles) C) Chromatin D) Ribosomes E) Nuclear pores ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 4.2, identify number 15.
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A) Nucleolus B) Plasma membrane C) Pericentriolar material D) Chromatin E) Ribosome ANS: A
PTS: 1
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51. In Figure 4.2, identify number 16. A) Chromatin B) Plasma membrane C) Golgi apparatus D) Nuclear envelope E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 4.2, identify number 17. A) Ribosome B) Chromatin C) Lysosome D) Mitochondrion E) Peroxisome ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 4.2, identify number 18. A) Vesicle TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Actin filament C) Golgi apparatus D) Cytoplasm (cytosol plus organelles) E) Nuclear pore ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 4.2, identify number 19. A) Intermediate filaments B) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosomes D) Ribosomes E) Centrioles ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
55. During this phase of the cell cycle, the cell grows, synthesizes proteins, and is very
metabolically active. A) S B) M C) G1 D) G2 ANS: C
PTS: 1
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56. During this phase of the cell cycle, the cell replicates its DNA. A) S B) M C) G1 D) G2 ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. This cell cycle phase is characterized by the cell undergoing final preparations for cell
division. The cell manufactures enzymes and other proteins necessary for cell division to occur. A) S B) M C) G1 D) G2 ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. This phase is where the cell undergoes mitosis, or cell division. The replicated DNA is
doled out to two new daughter cells, each of which is identical to the original cell. A) S B) M C) G1 D) G2 ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 4.13 Generalized cell. 59. In Figure 4.13, identify number 1. A) Nuclear envelope B) Microvillus C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
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D) Golgi apparatus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
60. In Figure 4.13, identify number 2. A) Nucleolus B) Nuclear pore C) Mitochondrion D) Centrioles ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
61. In Figure 4.13, identify number 3. A) Plasma membrane B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Nuclear envelope D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
62. In Figure 4.13, identify number 4. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Plasma membrane C) Golgi apparatus D) Mitochondrion ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
TEST5.BANKSELLER.COM 63. In Figure 4.13, identify number A) Plasma membrane B) Golgi apparatus C) Chromatin D) Mitochondrion ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
64. In Figure 4.13, identify number 6. A) Chromatin B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Nuclear envelope D) Plasma membrane ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
65. In Figure 4.13, identify number 7. A) Nucleolus B) Chromatin C) Plasma membrane D) Microvillus ANS: A
PTS: 1
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66. In Figure 4.13, identify number 8.
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A) Chromatin B) Nuclear pore C) Nucleus D) Nucleolus ANS: B
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67. In Figure 4.13, identify number 9. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Plasma membrane C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Microvillus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
68. In Figure 4.13, identify number 10. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Mitochondrion C) Golgi apparatus D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
69. In Figure 4.13, identify number 11. A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Plasma membrane C) Chromatin D) Mitochondrion TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
70. Which of the following is the primary component of the plasma membrane? A) Cholesterol. B) Glycolipids. C) Phospholipids. D) Integral proteins. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
71. What are the three basic components of most cells? A) The plasma membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm. B) The mitochondrion, the plasma membrane, and the nucleolus. C) The nucleus, the cytoplasm, and the nucleolus D) The plasma membrane, the cytoplasm, and the mitochondrion. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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72. Diffusion is the movement of ____________ from a ____concentration to a ____
concentration. Osmosis is the movement of __________from a __________ concentration to a _________ concentration. A) solvent, high, low, solvent, high solute, low solute. B) solute, low, high, solvent, high solute, low solute C) solute, high, low, solvent, low solute, high solute
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D) solvent, low, high, high solute, low solute. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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73. Which of the following factors influences the rate at which diffusion takes place? A) Size of the particles B) Temperature C) Steepness of the concentration gradient D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
74. Which statement most accurately describes peroxisome? A) Contain(s) digestive enzymes B) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella C) Part of the cytoskeleton located along the plasma membrane D) Vesicular organelle that detoxifies substances, metabolizes fatty acids, and
synthesizes phospholipids ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
75. Which statement most accurately describes smooth ER? A) Series of membrane-enclosed sacs that detoxify substances and synthesize lipids B) Stack of flattened sacs that modify and sort proteins C) Contain(s) digestive enzymes D) Series of membrane-enclosed sacs with ribosomes on the surface ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
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76. Which statement most accurately describes mitochondria? A) The cell's “ribosome factory” B) Granular organelles that are the sites of protein synthesis C) Produce(s) the bulk of the cell's ATP D) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
77. Which statement most accurately describes ribosomes? A) Stack of flattened sacs that modify and sort proteins B) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella C) Part of the cytoskeleton located along the plasma membrane D) Granular organelles that are the sites of protein synthesis ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
78. Which statement most accurately describes rough ER? A) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella B) Stack of flattened sacs that modify and sort proteins C) Series of membrane-enclosed sacs with ribosomes on the surface D) Series of membrane-enclosed sacs that detoxify substances and synthesize lipids ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
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79. Which statement most accurately describes actin filaments? A) Produce(s) the bulk of the cell's ATP B) Part of the cytoskeleton located along the plasma membrane C) Vesicular organelle that detoxifies substances, metabolizes fatty acids, and
synthesizes phospholipids D) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
80. Which statement most accurately describes nucleolus? A) The cell's “ribosome factory” B) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella C) Contain(s) digestive enzymes D) Part of the cytoskeleton located along the plasma membrane ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
81. Which statement most accurately describes lysosome? A) Produce(s) the bulk of the cell's ATP B) Contain(s) digestive enzymes C) Part of the cytoskeleton located along the plasma membrane D) Vesicular organelle that detoxifies substances, metabolizes fatty acids, and
synthesizes phospholipids ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
82. Which statement most accurately describes microtubule? A) Contain(s) digestive enzymes TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Vesicular organelle that detoxifies substances, metabolizes fatty acids, and
synthesizes phospholipids C) Series of membrane-enclosed sacs that detoxify substances and synthesize lipids D) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
83. Which statement most accurately describes Golgi apparatus? A) Stack of flattened sacs that modify and sort proteins B) Part of the cytoskeleton located along the plasma membrane C) Series of membrane-enclosed sacs with ribosomes on the surface D) Cytoskeletal filament found in cilia and flagella ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
84. How do isotonic, hypertonic, and hypotonic solutions differ? A) Isotonic solutions have the same concentrations. A hypertonic solution has a lower
concentration than the cytosol; a hypotonic solution has a higher concentration than the cytosol. B) Isotonic solutions have no concentration gradient. A hypertonic solution has a high concentration gradient; a hypotonic solution has a low concentration gradient. C) Isotonic solutions have the same concentrations. A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration than the cytosol; a hypotonic solution has a lower concentration than the cytosol.
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D) Isotonic solutions have no concentration gradient. A hypertonic solution has a low
concentration gradient; a hypotonic solution has a high concentration gradient. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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85. What happens during the S phase of the cell cycle? A) The cell divides. B) The cell undergoes its final preparation for division. C) The cell undergoes its initial growth phase. D) The cell replicates its DNA. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Figure 4.14 Cells in different stages of the cell cycle. 86. In Figure 4.14, identify number 1. A) Telophase B) Anaphase TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Prophase D) Metaphase ANS: B
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 4.14, identify number 2. A) Metaphase B) Prophase C) Anaphase D) Telophase ANS: B
PTS: 1
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88. In Figure 4.14, identify number 3. A) Telophase B) Anaphase C) Prophase D) Metaphase ANS: A
PTS: 1
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89. In Figure 4.14, identify number 4. A) Telophase B) Prophase C) Interphase
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D) Metaphase ANS: C
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90. In Figure 4.14, identify number 5. A) Telophase B) Prophase C) Interphase D) Metaphase ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
91. The mitotic spindle fibers are composed of A) microtubules. B) microvilli. C) intermediate filaments. D) actin filaments. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Recall
92. A hypothetical poison prevents nucleoli from carrying out their functions. Which
organelles would be affected by this poison? What would the cell be unable to do? Explain. ANS:
This poison would prevent the production of ribosomes, as nucleoli are the sites of ribosome synthesis. A cell without ribosomes would be unable to carry out protein synthesis, as ribosomes are the site of translation, the process in which an mRNA TESTBANKSELLER.COM transcript is translated into a polypeptide chain. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
93. One of the liver's main functions is to detoxify potentially toxic substances. Given this
information, which organelle(s) would you expect liver cells to have in abundance? Explain. ANS:
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum has detoxification reactions as one of its primary functions. For this reason, the cells of the liver would be expected to have an abundance of SER. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
94. Autolysis is a process in which damaged or dying cells digest themselves via reactions
catalyzed by their own digestive enzymes due to rupture of a specific organelle. Which organelle do you think is involved in autolysis? Explain. ANS:
Lysosomes house digestive enzymes in the cell, so autolysis occurs when lysosomes rupture and their digestive enzymes are free to catalyze reactions that break down cell components.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
95. Your patient has a severe infection, and you want to get an antibiotic into his system as
quickly as possible. You have two choices for your antibiotic, both of which must be injected into muscle and so must diffuse into his blood: PeniKill'Em, which must be stored in the refrigerator and has a molecular weight of 450 g/mol, or AzithroLyse'Em, which is stored at room temperature and has a molecular weight of 200 g/mol. Which drug will you choose, and why? ANS:
AzithroLyse'Em would be the better choice, as it is a smaller molecule and it is stored at a warmer temperature. Molecules move faster when they are smaller and at higher temperatures. The faster molecules move, the more collisions they have, and they faster diffusion occurs. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
96. Gatorade and other sports drinks are actually hypotonic solutions. How do these drinks
rehydrate their users? ANS:
The hypotonic solution causes water to move into the body cells by osmosis, rehydrating the cells that lost water during exercise. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
97. Your friend notes that Gatorade has electrolytes like sodium and potassium chloride. He
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figures that if a few electrolytes are good for you, then a lot must be even better. Following this logic, he adds nearly a tablespoonful of salt to his Gatorade. What kind of solution is his Gatorade now (hypotonic, isotonic, or hypertonic)? What will likely happen to his cells if he drinks this liquid? ANS:
The solution is now hypertonic, and will draw water out of his cells by osmosis. This will further dehydrate his cells and cause serious water imbalances. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
98. The anticancer drug paclitaxel (Taxol), derived from the Pacific Yew, has many effects on
mitosis. One of its most powerful effects is that it prevents disassembly of the mitotic spindle, which prevents spindle fibers from shortening. Which phase of mitosis would this directly affect? Why would this stop cell division overall and lead to cell death? ANS:
Spindle fibers begin to shorten during anaphase, so mitosis would stop at metaphase in a cell treated with paclitaxel. A cell stuck in metaphase is unable to carry out normal protein synthesis, as it has two copies of its DNA, the DNA is condensed into chromosomes, and it lacks a nuclear membrane. A cell unable to carry out normal protein synthesis cannot make enzymes and other critical proteins it needs to survive. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 04 Check Your Understanding
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99. Ions and other small water-soluble materials cross the plasma membrane by passing
through a _____________. A) membrane anchor B) channel C) receptor protein D) ligand ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
100. A sequence of three nitrogen bases can specify the identity of a _________________. A) specific peptide chain B) codon C) single amino acid D) specific gene ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
101. The cell membrane is composed mainly of _____________. A) glycolipids B) phospholipids C) fatty acids D) proteins ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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102. Individual cells are usually very small because ____________________. A) small cells contain a greater quantity of enzymes than large cells B) materials move in and out of small cells less efficiently than they do large cells C) the cell membrane encloses the cell and prevents it from increasing in size D) the larger the surface area to volume ratio of a cell, the more efficient it is E) water enters into small cells by osmosis more slowly than into large cells ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
103. A cell plasma membrane would NOT contain _____________. A) phospholipid B) nucleic acid C) protein D) cholesterol E) glycolipid ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
104. A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in ___________. A) secretion B) storage of glycogen
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C) manufacturing ATP D) movement E) detoxification ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
105. The organelle that consists of a stack of 3 to 19 membranous disks associated with vesicles
is known as a ____________. A) mitochondrion B) smooth ER C) Golgi apparatus D) lysosome E) vesicle ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
106. Which statement concerning lysosomes is false? A) They have the same structure and function as peroxisomes. B) They form by budding off the Golgi apparatus. C) They are abundant in phagocytes. D) They contain digestive enzymes to prevent general cytoplasmic damage. E) They are involved in autolysis. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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107. It is impossible to see chromosomes in an interphase cell because __________. A) they must be moved to the center of the spindle before they become visible. B) they are an extended threadlike form called chromatin C) they have left the nucleus D) DNA synthesis has not yet occurred E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
108. A cell's ability to replenish its ATP stores has been diminished by a metabolic poison.
What organelle is most likely to be affected? A) Nucleus B) Plasma membrane C) Centriole D) Microtubule E) Mitochondrion ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
109. Centrioles ________________. A) start to duplicate in G1 B) reside in the centrosome
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C) are made of microtubules D) lie parallel to each other E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
110. Which structure is common to ALL cells? A) Nucleus B) Cell membrane C) Centriole D) Peroxisome E) Flagella ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
111. In mitosis, which condition is most characteristic of metaphase? A) Replication of the cell's DNA B) Reformation of the nuclear envelope C) Positioning of chromosomes on the equatorial plane of the cell D) Separation of pairs of sister chromatids (the two halves of a duplicated
chromosome) E) Movement of the centrioles to the poles of the cell ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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112. The movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is an example of _____________. A) diffusion B) osmosis C) facilitated diffusion and osmosis D) phagocytosis E) pinocytosis only ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
113. Microvilli are created by projections of _______________. A) microtubules and filaments B) microtubules C) actin filaments or microfilaments D) myosin E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
114. The usefulness of microvilli to cells that have them is ___________________. A) to aid in their locomotion B) to help concentrate food particles
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C) for intracellular trafficking of molecules D) to increase their surface area E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
115. Integral membrane proteins are found to ________________. A) be of small molecular weight B) be very soluble in water C) have hydrophobic amino acids on much of their intramembranous surface D) be rare cellular molecules E) contain most of the cholesterol molecules ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
116. Active transport usually moves molecules __________. A) from their high concentration to a lower concentration B) from their low concentration to a higher concentration C) that resist osmosis across the membrane D) with less ATP than might otherwise be necessary to move molecules E) by increasing their diffusion coefficients ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
117. Ribosomes are important because they are the structures where _________________. TES TBANKSELLER.COM A) chemical energy is stored to make ATP B) cell division is controlled C) genetic information is used to make proteins D) lipid molecules are modified E) new organelles are made ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
118. The width of a typical cell is ____________. A) 1 mm B) 20 um C) 1 um D) 10 nm E) 10-10 nm ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
119. The molecules in a membrane that limit its permeability are __________________. A) carbohydrates B) phospholipids C) proteins D) negative ions
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E) water ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
120. The organelle consisting of a series of flattened sacs stacked like pancakes is the
___________. A) mitochondrion B) ribosome C) flagellum D) Golgi apparatus E) cilia ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
121. Chromatin is a series of entangled threads composed of _____________. A) microtubules B) fibrous proteins C) cytoskeleton D) DNA and protein E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
122. Centrioles are ______________________. A) found in animal cells that undergo cell division TESTBcells ANKSELLER.COM B) found in pairs in nondividing C) microtubules arranged in a 9 + 0 pattern D) A and B E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
123. Which organelle absorbs and breaks down fatty acids and other organic compounds? A) Peroxisome B) Proteasome C) Ribosome D) Lysosome ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
124. Ribosomal proteins and RNA are produced primarily in the ____________. A) nucleolus B) nucleus C) endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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125. Most of the energy needed by the cell is produced by the _________. A) nucleus B) nucleolus C) mitochondria D) cytoplasm ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
126. The primary components of the cytoskeleton, which gives the cell strength and rigidity and
anchors the position of major organelles, are: A) microvilli B) microfilaments C) microtubules D) thick filaments ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
127. The process in which RNA polymerase uses the genetic information to assemble a strand
of mRNA is known as __________________. A) duplication B) initiation C) transcription D) translation ANS: C PTS: 1 Easy TESTBANKSDIF: ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions 128. If the DNA triplet is “TAG,” the corresponding codon on the mRNA strand will be
_______. A) ATC B) ATG C) GAT D) AUC ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
129. A __________ is a sequence of three nucleotide bases in mRNA that codes for a single
amino acid. A) template B) intron C) exon D) codon ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 04 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 05 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines ground substance? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes C) Series of membranes; site of lipid and cholesterol synthesis and metabolism; drug
and toxin detoxification D) Gelatinous component of the extracellular matrix that contains water,
proteoglycans, and many other molecules ANS: D
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines collagen fiber? A) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein collagen B) Gives a tissue tensile strength C) Portion of the cell cycle during which growth is initiated and DNA is replicated D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines elastic fiber? A) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein elastin, which makes a tissue
distensible B) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell C) Vesicular organelle that TEcontains STBANdigestive KSELLenzymes ER.COMthat break down different
substances within the cell
D) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes ANS: A
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines reticular fiber? A) Tissue that contains protein fibers as the dominant component; provides strength
for structures that require tensile strength such as tendons, ligaments, joints, and organ capsules B) A thin protein fiber composed of a special type of collagen that forms supportive networks around blood vessels, nerves, and other structures C) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces D) Both A and B are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines simple epithelial tissue? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles C) Boundary between the cell and the external environment; regulates the movement
of substances in and out of the cell; composed of a phospholipid bilayer and many other components D) Two or more layers of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina
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ANS: A
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines stratified epithelial tissue? A) Two or more layers of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) Cell taller than it is wide with a round nucleus generally located near the base of
the cell C) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines pseudostratified epithelial tissue? A) Boundary between the cell and the external environment; regulates the movement
of substances in and out of the cell; composed of a phospholipid bilayer and many other components B) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) A single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina D) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina; the tissue appears stratified because of the locations of the cell's nuclei ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines squamous cell? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) Flat cell with a flattened nucleus C) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes D) Site of most of the cell's ATP production
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ANS: B
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines cuboidal cell? A) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell B) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina; the tissue appears
stratified because of the locations of the cell's nuclei C) Cell with approximately the same width, depth, and height with a round central
nucleus D) Control center of the cell; contains the cell's DNA ANS: C
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TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines columnar cell? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Cell taller than it is wide with a round nucleus generally located near the base of
the cell C) Contains enzymes that detoxify chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide D) Thick protein fiber composed of the protein elastin, which makes a tissue
distensible ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
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11. Which of the following statements accurately defines basement membrane? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina; the tissue appears
stratified because of the locations of the cell's nuclei B) Supportive extracellular matrix consisting of the basal lamina made by epithelial
cells and the reticular lamina made by underlying cells of connective tissue C) A flat cell with a flattened nucleus D) All of the above are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines loose connective tissue? A) Found as part of the basement membrane and in the walls of hollow organs B) String of nucleic acids located in the nucleus of all cells; contains instructions for
building every protein in an organism C) Tissue that contains ground substance as the dominant component D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines dense connective tissue? A) Tissue that contains protein fibers as the dominant component B) Provides strength for structures that require tensile strength such as tendons,
ligaments, joints, and organ capsules C) Both A and B are correct D) None of the above ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
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14. Which of the following statements accurately defines cartilage? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Supportive extracellular matrix consisting of the basal lamina made by epithelial
cells and the reticular lamina made by underlying cells of connective tissue C) Substance present in a solution in lower amounts; often a solid D) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines bone? A) Site of protein synthesis B) Hard, dense connective tissue that consists of calcium salts, ground substance, and
collagen fibers C) Hairlike extensions from the plasma membrane that propel substances past the cell D) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein elastin, which makes a tissue
distensible ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines blood? A) Connective tissue consisting of cells called erythrocytes and leukocytes and an
extracellular matrix called plasma B) Control center of the cell
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C) A thin protein fiber composed of a special type of collagen that forms supportive
networks around blood vessels, nerves, and other structures D) Gelatinous component of the extracellular matrix that contains water,
proteoglycans, and many other molecules ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines striated? A) Tissue made of long, tubular, and striated muscle fibers with multiple nuclei B) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes C) Having a striped appearance D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines skeletal muscle tissue? A) Tissue made of short, branching, striated muscle fibers located in the heart B) Cell with approximately the same width, depth, and height with a round central
nucleus C) Muscle fibers are linked by special junctions called intercalated disks D) Tissue made of long, tubular, and striated muscle fibers with multiple nuclei ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines cardiac muscle tissue? A) Muscle fibers are linked by special junctions called intercalated disks B) Tissue made of short, branching, striated muscle fibers located in the heart C) Single layer of epithelial the underlying TEcells STBand ANK SE LLER.Cbasal OM lamina; the tissue appears
stratified because of the locations of the cell's nuclei
D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines smooth muscle tissue? A) Type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each with half the
chromosome number of the parent cell B) Tissue made of flat, smooth muscle cells that lack striations and contain one
nucleus C) Gelatinous component of the extracellular matrix that contains water,
proteoglycans, and many other molecules D) None of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines neuron? A) Subatomic particle of about the same mass as a proton but without an electric
charge B) Stable subatomic particle with a charge of negative electricity, found in all atoms
and acting as the primary carrier of electricity C) Cells responsible for sending and receiving messages within the nervous system D) Stable subatomic particle occurring in all atomic nuclei, with a positive electric
charge equal in magnitude to that of an electron
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. Which of the following statements accurately defines neuroglial cell? A) Small supportive cells in nervous tissue that significantly outnumber neurons B) A flat cell with a flattened nucleus C) Single extension from a cell that propels the cell itself D) Portion of the cell cycle during which the cell divides its organelles, cytosol, and
replicated DNA among two identical daughter cells ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13A.
Figure 5.13A Unknown tissue. A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Stratified squamous epithelium E) Hyaline cartilage ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
24. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13B.
Figure 5.13B Unknown tissue. A) Osseous (bone) tissue B) Hyaline cartilage C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D) Stratified squamous epithelium E) Simple cuboidal epithelium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
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25. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13C.
Figure 5.13C Unknown tissue. A) Simple cuboidal epithelium B) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D) Stratified squamous epithelium E) Skeletal muscle tissue ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
26. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13D.
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Figure 5.13D Unknown tissue. A) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue B) Hyaline cartilage C) Osseous (bone) tissue D) Skeletal muscle tissue E) Stratified squamous epithelium ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
27. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13E.
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Figure 5.13E Unknown tissue. A) Osseous (bone) tissue B) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Simple cuboidal epithelium E) Hyaline cartilage ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
28. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13F.
Figure 5.13F Unknown tissue. A) Skeletal muscle tissue B) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Osseous (bone) tissue D) Stratified squamous epithelium E) Nervous tissue ANS: C
ELLE R.05 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
29. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13G.
Figure 5.13G Unknown tissue. A) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Stratified squamous epithelium D) Skeletal muscle tissue E) Nervous tissue ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
30. Identify the tissue in Figure 5.13H.
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Figure 5.13H Unknown tissue. A) Nervous tissue B) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Simple cuboidal epithelium D) Osseous (bone) tissue E) Hyaline cartilage ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
31. All tissues consist of two main components: ____________ and ___________. A) cells, ground substance B) protein fibers, extracellular substance C) cells, extracellular matrix D) cells, basement membrane ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
TEconsists STBAN ELLER.substance COM 32. Extracellular matrix (ECM) ofKaSgelatinous called ____________ and numerous different ____________ A) ground substance, glycoproteins B) ground substance, protein fibers C) basal lamina, protein fibers D) ions, proteins ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
33. An epithelial tissue that has one layer of rectangular cells would be classified as: A) stratified squamous epithelium. B) simple cuboidal epithelium. C) stratified columnar epithelium. D) simple columnar epithelium. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
34. True or False? Adipocytes contain a large lipid droplet in their cytoplasm. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
35. True or False? The primary element in dense regular collagenous connective tissue is
ground substance. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
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36. True or False? Bundles of collagen fibers are arranged parallel to one another in dense
irregular collagenous connective tissue. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
37. True or False? Loose connective tissue contains all three protein fiber types. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
38. True or False? Fibrocartilage has a smooth, glassy appearance due to a large amount of
ground substance and few visible protein fibers. A) True B) False ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
39. Which of the following best characterizes the extracellular matrix (ECM) of bone tissue? A) Bone tissue ECM consists of only calcium hydroxyapatite crystals. B) Bone tissue ECM consists of calcium hydroxyapatite crystals and collagen fibers. C) Bone tissue ECM consists of only collagen fibers. D) Bone tissue ECM consists of collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
40. What is the function of intercalated discs? A) Divide skeletal muscles electrically and physically and enable articulation. B) Divide cardiac musclesTelectrically physically ESTBANKand SEL LER.COand M enable the heart to contract
as a unit.
C) Unite cardiac muscle cells electrically and physically and enable the heart to
contract as a unit. D) Unite skeletal muscles electrically and physically and enable articulation. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
41. Nervous tissue is composed of ___________ and two types of cells: ___________ and
___________. A) basal lamina, Nissl bodies, dendrites B) extracellular matrix, cell bodies, organelles C) mesenchyme, axons, gland cells D) extracellular matrix, neurons, neuroglial cells ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
42. Where is simple squamous epithelium found in the body? A) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus B) Air sacs of the lungs C) Tendons and ligaments D) Spleen and lymph nodes E) In the heart ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
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43. Where is transitional epithelium found in the body? A) Spleen and lymph nodes B) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus C) Lining hollow organs, in the skin, in the eye, and surrounding many glands D) Air sacs of the lungs E) Urinary bladder ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
44. Where is loose CT found in the body? A) Part of the basement membrane, walls of hollow organs B) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus C) Tendons and ligaments D) Lining hollow organs, in the skin, in the eye, and surrounding many glands E) Spleen and lymph nodes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
45. Where is cardiac muscle found in the body? A) Air sacs of the lungs B) Brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves C) In the heart D) Part of the basement membrane, walls of hollow organs E) Spleen and lymph nodes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
46. Where is nervous tissue found the TESinTB ANbody? KSELLER.COM A) Air sacs of the lungs B) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus C) Brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves D) Spleen and lymph nodes E) In the heart ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
47. Where is stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium found in the body? A) Spleen and lymph nodes B) Joints, connecting the ribs to the sternum, nose C) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus D) Tendons and ligaments E) Brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
48. Where is hyaline cartilage found in the body? A) Brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves B) Joints, connecting the ribs to the sternum, nose C) Part of the basement membrane, walls of hollow organs D) Urinary bladder E) Tendons and ligaments
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
49. Where is smooth muscle found in the body? A) Part of the basement membrane, walls of hollow organs B) Air sacs of the lungs C) In the heart D) Lining hollow organs, in the skin, in the eye, and surrounding many glands E) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
50. Where is dense regular collagenous CT found in the body? A) Urinary bladder B) Lining hollow organs, in the skin, in the eye, and surrounding many glands C) Air sacs of the lungs D) Part of the basement membrane, walls of hollow organs E) Tendons and ligaments ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
51. Where is reticular CT found in the body? A) Air sacs of the lungs B) Lining hollow organs, in the skin, in the eye, and surrounding many glands C) Oral cavity, pharynx, vagina, anus D) Spleen and lymph nodes E) Tendons and ligaments ANS: D
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.05 COCheck M Your Recall
52. Which of the following characteristics apply to skeletal muscle tissue? A) Striated. B) Nonstriated. C) Multinucleate. D) Uninucleate. E) Contains intercalated discs. F) Voluntary. G) Involuntary. H) Autorhythmic. ANS: A, C, F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
53. How do pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and transitional epithelium differ
from other types of epithelia? ANS:
Both types aren't easily classified by their cell shape/number of cell layers. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium has only a single layer of cells but appears to be stratified. Transitional epithelium has apical cells that can change shape from cuboidal or dome-shaped to squamous, depending upon the degree of stretch imposed on the organ. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Recall
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54. The structure in the lungs known as the respiratory membrane is where gases are
exchanged--oxygen leaves the lungs and enters the blood, and carbon dioxide leaves the blood and enters the lungs. The respiratory membrane is composed of two extremely thin layers of simple squamous epithelium. Explain how the structure of the respiratory membrane follows its function ANS:
The very thin structure of the respiratory membrane allows gases to diffuse across it very rapidly, facilitating its function of gas exchange. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Understanding
55. Predict what you think might happen if the respiratory membrane were instead composed
of two layers of stratified squamous epithelium. Explain. ANS:
If the respiratory membrane were composed of stratified squamous epithelium, gases would diffuse across it very slowly, and might not actually make it all of the way across the epithelium at all if it is thick enough. This would prevent it from performing its function of gas exchange. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Understanding
56. The condition Marfan syndrome results from the production of abnormal elastin, the main
protein component of elastic fibers. Predict the potential consequences of defective elastic fibers. (Hint: Consider the organs and tissues in which elastic fibers are found. How would defective elastic fibers impair the TES TBAN KSfunctions ELLERof .Cthese OM organs and tissues?) ANS:
Elastic fibers make a tissue distensible, meaning that they can be stretched and that they will return to their original shape/size after the stretching force is removed. Defective elastic fibers prevent this latter process from happening, causing tissues and organs to be abnormally distended. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Understanding
57. Collagenopathies, conditions characterized by the production of one or more types of
defective collagen proteins, are in a group of disorders called connective tissue diseases. Many collagenopathies feature arthritis or other joint problems as part of the symptoms of the disorder. Why would defective collagen proteins affect an individual's joints? ANS:
Collagen fibers are an important part of the ECM of hyaline and fibrocartilage, giving it the tensile strength needed to resist mechanical stresses. Defective collagen fibers make the cartilage less resistant to tension and more prone to damage, leading to arthritis. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Understanding
58. When muscle tissue dies, it usually is replaced with dense irregular collagenous connective
tissue. How do these tissues differ in structure? Will the muscle be able to function normally? Why or why not?
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ANS:
Dense irregular collagenous CT contains primarily collagen fibers instead of contractile muscle fibers and is therefore unable to perform the functions of muscle tissue. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Understanding
59. A hypothetical organ has the following functional requirements: (1) the ability to resist
surface abrasion and mechanical stresses; (2) the ability to contract involuntarily when stimulated by cells of the nervous system; and (3) the ability to resist tension in many different planes of force. The organ needs one tissue to carry out each of these requirements, and it also needs one tissue to "glue" all other tissues together, and one tissue to stimulate the contracting cells. What are the five tissues that will make up this hypothetical organ? Justify your choices. ANS:
1. Stratified squamous epithelium, which has many layers of cells to resist mechanical stresses and abrasion on the surface. 2. Smooth muscle, which consists of smooth muscle cells that contract when stimulated by the nervous system but are not under conscious control. 3. Dense irregular collagenous CT, which has collagen fibers arranged in all three planes to resist tension in all directions of force. 4. Loose CT, which has abundant ground substance to "glue" the tissue layers together. 5. Nervous tissue, which consists of neurons that stimulate the smooth muscle cells. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 05 Check Your Understanding
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60. Glandular epithelia contain cells that produce ______________________. A) secretions released from goblet cells only B) exocrine or endocrine secretions C) endocrine secretions D) exocrine only ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
61. Which unicellular gland is typically found in mucosal epithelium? A) Neuroepithelia cell B) Myoepithelia cell C) Goblet cell D) Merkel cell ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
62. The three basic components of connective tissue are ______________. A) secretions of several layers of cells above the basement membrane B) satellite cells, cardiocytes, and osteocytes C) specialized cells, extracellular protein fibers, and ground substance D) free exposed surface, exocrine secretions, and endocrine secretions ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
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TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions 63. Scar tissue is a type of ____________________. A) epithelium B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) nervous tissue E) reticular tissue ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
64. In which of the following tissue types might you expect to find goblet cells? A) Simple cuboidal B) Simple columnar C) Simple squamous D) Stratified squamous E) Transitional ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
65. Mesothelium is found in the ___________________. A) kidney tubules B) mucous membranes C) serosae D) liver E) lining of cardiovascular system TE STBAorgans NKSELLER.COM ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
66. Which type of cell secretes histamine and heparin? A) Macrophage B) Mast cell C) Reticular cell D) Fibroblast E) Histiocyte ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
67. Resistance to longitudinally applied stress is best provided by the
_____________________ tissue. A) fibrocartilage B) elastic connective C) reticular connective D) dense regular connective E) areolar connective ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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68. What kind of connective tissue acts as a sponge, soaking up fluid when edema occurs? A) Areolar connective B) Adipose connective C) Dense irregular connective D) Reticular connective E) Vascular tissue ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
69. When this tissue is viewed through the microscope, most of the cells appear with only a
rim of cytoplasm. A) Reticular connective B) Adipose connective C) Areolar connective D) Osseous tissue E) Hyaline cartilage ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
70. The major function of the reticular connective tissue is ____________. A) nourishment B) insulation C) stroma formation D) protection E) movement
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
71. Which type of connective tissue prevents muscles from pulling away from bones during a
contraction? A) Dense areolar B) Dense regular C) Areolar D) Elastic E) Hyaline cartilage ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
72. Which type of connective tissue provides flexibility to the vertebral column? A) Dense irregular B) Fibrocartilage C) Reticular D) Areolar E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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73. Examples of GAG include __________________________. A) chondroitin sulfate B) hyaluronic acid C) laminin D) heparin E) A, B, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
74. The matrix of the connective tissue consists of _________________________. A) cells, fibers, and ground substance B) cells and fibers C) fibers and ground substance D) cells and ground substance E) cells, elastic fibers, and ground substance ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
75. Which of these is NOT a pair of antagonist muscle tissue pairs? A) Biceps brachii and brachialis B) Biceps brachii and triceps brachii C) Supinator and pronator teres D) Internal intercostals and external intercostals E) All are antagonistic muscles ANS: A PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Hard ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions 76. Which of these is NOT a principal function of muscle? A) Reproduction B) Heat production C) Movement D) Posture and body support E) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
77. The fine sheet of connective tissue that covers a single muscle fiber is known as
___________________. A) endomysium B) fascicle C) fascia D) perimysium E) epimysium ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
78. A muscle is fatigued when it has ______________________.
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A) broken all the myosin/actin attachments B) run out of ATP C) stopped functioning because of lactic acid buildup D) Stopped receiving nerve impulses E) B and D ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
79. Iso ______ muscle contraction results in the visible shortening of the muscle. In contrast,
iso ______ muscle contraction results in no visible shortening of the muscle. A) metric/tonic B) volumic/tonic C) tonic/contractile D) tonic/metric E) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
80. The fascia is ____________ of varying thickness that covers the muscle. A) a fibrous connective tissue B) modified epithelial cells C) a mixture of adipose and collagen fibers D) an extension of the dermis E) aponeurosis ANS: A PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Hard ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions 81. Tetanus toxin causes convulsive paralysis by ____________________. A) binding to the acetylcholine receptor and blocking acetylcholine B) inhibiting acetylcholine esterase C) causing massive acetylcholine release from motor neurons D) blocking nearly all acetylcholine release from motor neurons E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
82. Parallel bundles of collagen fibers provide strength in the __________________ of a
tendon. A) adipose connective tissue B) dense regular connective tissue C) areolar connective tissue D) dense irregular connective tissue ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
83. ______________ tissue stores fat. A) Adipose
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B) Dense regular connective C) Dense irregular connective D) Elastic connective ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
84. This tissue is the hardest of our skull. A) Bone tissue B) Areolar connective tissue C) Dense regular connective tissue D) Dense irregular connective tissue ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
85. The skin dermis is composed of ________________________. A) elastic connective tissue B) dense irregular connective tissue C) adipose connective tissue D) fibrocartilage tissue ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
86. This muscle type is voluntarily controlled. A) Skeletal B) Smooth TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Cardiac D) Transitional ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
87. The four primary tissue types are _________________________. A) adipose, elastic, reticular, and cartilage B) cardiac, smooth, skeletal, and muscle C) epithelial, connective, muscle, and neural D) squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and glandular ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
88. The type of tissue that covers exposed surfaces and lines internal passageways and body
cavities is ____________________. A) connective B) muscle and tendon C) neural mucosa D) epithelial ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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89. The type of epithelial tissue found lining the urinary bladder is known as
__________________. A) stratified cuboidal B) squamous columnar C) transitional epithelial D) stratified columnar ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 05 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 06 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines epidermis? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) Hard, dense bone tissue found on the outer surface of a bone C) Outer, protective layer of the skin composed of stratified squamous keratinized
epithelial tissue D) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein collagen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines keratinocyte? A) Middle layer of the epidermis that consists of keratinocytes with keratin granules B) Produces the protein keratin C) The most common cell type of the epidermis D) Both B and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines melanocyte? A) Cell in the deep part of the epidermis that produces the pigment melanin B) Deepest layer of the epidermis C) Houses actively dividing keratinocytes and melanocytes D) A thin protein fiber composed of a special type of collagen that forms supportive
networks around blood vessels, nerves, and other structures ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines stratum corneum? A) Superficial layer of dead, keratinized cells B) Deeper layer of the skin composed of loose connective tissue and dense irregular
collagenous connective tissue C) Function in protection D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines stratum lucidum? A) Cell in the deep part of the epidermis that produces the pigment melanin B) Thin layer of cells found only in thick skin that appears clear on sections C) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein elastin, which makes a tissue
distensible D) Connective tissue ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines stratum granulosum? A) Middle layer of the epidermis that consists of keratinocytes with keratin granules B) Site of melanin accumulation and phagocytic cells C) Outer, protective layer of the skin composed of stratified squamous keratinized
epithelial tissue D) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines stratum spinosum? A) Thin layer of cells found only in thick skin that appears clear on sections B) Fourth layer of the epidermis (in thick skin); site of melanin accumulation and
phagocytic cells C) Gland associated with hair follicles that secretes sebum, an oily substance that
protects and softens skin and hair D) Both B and C are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines stratum basale? A) Produces the protein keratin B) House capillary loops and touch receptors C) Deepest layer of the epidermis; houses actively dividing keratinocytes and
melanocytes D) Site of melanin accumulation and phagocytic cells ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines dermis? A) Outer, protective layer of the skin composed of stratified squamous keratinized
epithelial tissue B) Produces the protein keratin C) Tissue that contains ground substance as the dominant component; found as part of
the basement membrane TEand STin BAthe NKwalls SELof LEhollow R.COorgans M D) Deeper layer of the skin composed of loose connective tissue and dense irregular collagenous connective tissue ANS: D
PTS: 1
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10. Which of the following statements accurately defines dermal papillae? A) Projections of the dermis that indent the overlying epidermis B) Layer of adipose tissue deep to the skin C) House capillary loops and touch receptors D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
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11. Which of the following statements accurately defines lamellated corpuscle? A) Nerve endings in the dermis that function as deep pressure receptors B) Hard, dense connective tissue that consists of calcium salts, ground substance, and
collagen fibers C) Connective tissue consisting of cells called erythrocytes and leukocytes and an
extracellular matrix called plasma D) Both A and B are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
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12. Which of the following statements accurately defines tactile corpuscle? A) Deepest layer of the epidermis
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B) Portion of the epidermis that dips down into the dermis from which new hair
grows C) Nerve endings in the dermis that function in discriminative touch D) Cell with approximately the same width, depth, and height with a round central
nucleus ANS: C
PTS: 1
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13. Which of the following statements accurately defines arrector pili muscle? A) Muscles surrounding the shoulder joint B) Muscles located between the ribs C) Small band of smooth muscle that pulls the hair into an upright position D) Muscle that crosses over the anterior thigh from lateral to medial ANS: C
PTS: 1
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14. Which of the following statements accurately defines hypodermis? A) Fourth layer of the epidermis B) Layer of adipose tissue deep to the skin C) Deepest layer of the epidermis D) A single layer of epithelial cells ANS: B
PTS: 1
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15. Which of the following statements accurately defines sweat gland? A) A single layer of epithelial cells B) Nerve endings in the dermis that function in discriminative touch C) Outermost layer of theTsac heart ESsurrounding TBANKSEthe LLE R.COM D) Gland in the dermis that produces sweat and functions in thermoregulation and
excretion ANS: D
PTS: 1
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16. Which of the following statements accurately defines sebaceous gland? A) Gland associated with hair follicles that secretes sebum, an oily substance that
protects and softens skin and hair B) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart C) Nerve endings in the dermis that function as deep pressure receptors D) Gland in the dermis that produces sweat and functions in thermoregulation and
excretion ANS: A
PTS: 1
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17. Which of the following statements accurately defines hair follicle? A) Gland located in the superolateral orbit that produces tears B) Portion of the epidermis that dips down into the dermis from which new hair
grows C) Flexible structure that focuses light onto the retina D) None of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
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18. Which of the following statements accurately defines nails?
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A) Canals that lie perpendicular to the osteon and carry blood vessels into the bone
from the periosteum B) Mature osteoblasts that reside in lacunae C) Thin, curved bone on the fingers and toes D) Hard, keratinized cells that cover and protect the distal parts of fingers and toes ANS: D
PTS: 1
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 6.1 Skin section. 19. In Figure 6.1, identify number 1. A) Epidermis B) Papillary layer of dermis C) Stratum corneum D) Reticular layer of dermis ANS: A
PTS: 1
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20. In Figure 6.1, identify number 2. A) Hypodermis B) Epidermis C) Papillary layer of dermis D) Reticular layer of dermis ANS: C
PTS: 1
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21. In Figure 6.1, identify number 3. A) Adipose tissue B) Stratum corneum C) Reticular layer of dermis D) Papillary layer of dermis
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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22. In Figure 6.1, identify number 4. A) Sebaceous gland B) Lamellated corpuscle C) Free nerve endings D) Tactile corpuscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
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23. In Figure 6.1, identify number 5. A) Sebaceous gland B) Hair bulb C) Hair shaft D) Hair follicle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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24. In Figure 6.1, identify number 6. A) Arrector pili muscle B) Sweat gland C) Dermal papillae D) Hair root ANS: D
PTS: 1
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25. In Figure 6.1, identify number 7. A) Hair follicle TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Hair bulb C) Sweat pore D) Hair papilla ANS: D
PTS: 1
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26. In Figure 6.1, identify number 8. A) Sweat gland B) Hair follicle C) Hair bulb D) Sweat duct ANS: C
PTS: 1
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27. In Figure 6.1, identify number 9. A) Arrector pili muscle B) Sweat gland C) Blood vessels D) Tactile corpuscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
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28. In Figure 6.1, identify number 10. A) Tactile corpuscle
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B) Lamellated corpuscle C) Blood vessels D) Free nerve endings ANS: D
PTS: 1
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29. In Figure 6.1, identify number 11. A) Tactile corpuscle B) Blood vessels C) Dermal papillae D) Lamellated corpuscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
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30. In Figure 6.1, identify number 12. A) Stratum corneum B) Dermal papillae C) Arrector pili muscle D) Hypodermis ANS: D
PTS: 1
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31. In Figure 6.1, identify number 13. A) Hair follicle B) Root of hair C) Dermal papillae D) Sweat gland ANS: D
ELLE R.06 COPre-Lab M PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise
32. In Figure 6.1, identify number 14. A) Stratum corneum B) Dermal papillae C) Arrector pili muscle D) Hypodermis ANS: B
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 6.1, identify number 15. A) Stratum basale B) Lamellated corpuscle C) Stratum corneum D) Tactile corpuscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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34. In Figure 6.1, identify number 16. A) Stratum basale B) Dermal papillae C) Arrector pili muscle D) Stratum corneum ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
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35. In Figure 6.1, identify number 17. A) Hypodermis B) Stratum basale C) Stratum corneum D) Epidermis ANS: C
PTS: 1
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36. In Figure 6.1, identify number 18. A) Hair follicle B) Sweat pore C) Sebaceous gland D) Sweat duct ANS: D
PTS: 1
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37. In Figure 6.1, identify number 19. A) Sweat pore B) Sweat gland C) Sweat duct D) Tactile corpuscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 6.1, identify number 20. A) Hair follicle B) Sweat pore TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Sebaceous gland D) Hair shaft ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 6.1, identify number 21. A) Sweat duct B) Sebaceous gland C) Sweat gland D) Hair shaft ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 6.2 Accessory structures of the skin: (A) nail anatomy; (B) hair structure. 40. In Figure 6.2, identify number 1. A) Proximal nail fold B) Hyponychium C) Nail matrix D) Phalanx ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 6.2, identify number 2. A) Lateral nail fold TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Nail matrix C) Hyponychium D) Eponychium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 6.2, identify number 3. A) Lunula B) Nail matrix C) Phalanx D) Lateral nail fold ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 6.2, identify number 4. A) Eponychium B) Lunula C) Lateral nail fold D) Proximal nail fold ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 6.2, identify number 5. A) Nail matrix B) Nail plate
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C) Phalanx D) Hyponychium ANS: B
PTS: 1
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45. In Figure 6.2, identify number 6. A) Nail matrix B) Free edge C) Lateral nail fold D) Proximal nail fold ANS: B
PTS: 1
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46. In Figure 6.2, identify number 7. A) Nail matrix B) Nail plate C) Dermis D) Lunula ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 6.2, identify number 8. A) Phalanx B) Hyponychium C) Lateral nail fold D) Eponychium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
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48. In Figure 6.2, identify number 9. A) Nail matrix B) Phalanx C) Lunula D) Eponychium ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 6.2, identify number 10. A) Lateral nail fold B) Nail plate C) Nail matrix D) Free edge ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 6.2, identify number 11. A) Lunula B) Nail plate C) Hyponychium D) Free edge ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
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51. In Figure 6.2, identify number 12. A) Phalanx B) Nail matrix C) Lunula D) Eponychium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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52. In Figure 6.2, identify number 13. A) Epidermis B) Dermis C) Lunula D) Hyponychium ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 6.2, identify number 14. A) Eponychium B) Dermis C) Epidermis D) Lunula ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 6.2, identify number 15. A) Dermis B) Hair shaft C) Phalanx TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Hair root ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
55. In Figure 6.2, identify number 16. A) Arrector pili muscle B) Connective tissue sheath C) Epidermis D) Sebaceous gland ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 6.2, identify number 17. A) Arrector pili muscle B) Hyponychium C) Phalanx D) Sebaceous gland ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 6.2, identify number 18. A) Lunula B) Hair shaft C) Hair root D) Arrector pili muscle
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. In Figure 6.2, identify number 19. A) Epidermis B) Lunula C) Phalanx D) Connective tissue sheath ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 6.2, identify number 20. A) Hair bulb B) Hair follicle C) Eponychium D) Hair papilla ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
60. In Figure 6.2, identify number 21. A) Sebaceous gland B) Hyponychium C) Hair bulb D) Hair root ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
61. In Figure 6.2, identify number 22. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Hair papilla B) Arrector pili muscle C) Hair bulb D) Phalanx ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 6.11 Skin section. 62. In Figure 6.11, identify number 1. A) Sweat gland B) Sebaceous gland C) Arrector pili muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Hair follicle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
63. In Figure 6.11, identify number 2. A) Dermis B) Dermal papillae C) Epidermis D) Hypodermis ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
64. In Figure 6.11, identify number 3. A) Dermis B) Dermal papillae C) Epidermis D) Hypodermis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
65. In Figure 6.11, identify number 4. A) Hair follicle B) Hair papilla C) Sebaceous gland
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D) Hair shaft ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
66. In Figure 6.11, identify number 5. A) Hair follicle B) Arrector pili muscle C) Hair shaft D) Hair papilla ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
67. In Figure 6.11, identify number 6. A) Sweat gland B) Hair shaft C) Hair papilla D) Hair follicle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
68. In Figure 6.11, identify number 7. A) Arrector pili muscle B) Dermal papillae C) Epidermis D) Sebaceous gland ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
TEST8.BANKSELLER.COM 69. In Figure 6.11, identify number A) Arrector pili muscle B) Sweat pore C) Dermal papillae D) Sebaceous gland ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
70. In Figure 6.11, identify number 9. A) Hypodermis B) Dermal papillae C) Sebaceous gland D) Dermis ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
71. In Figure 6.11, identify number 10. A) Arrector pili muscle B) Hair shaft C) Sweat pore D) Sweat gland ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
72. In Figure 6.11, identify number 11.
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A) Sweat gland B) Hair follicle C) Cutaneous blood vessels D) Sweat pore ANS: C
PTS: 1
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73. The primary protein produced by the main cell type in skin is the A) actin. B) melanin. C) keratin. D) collagen. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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74. In which layer of the epidermis are melanocytes found? A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum basale D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum spinosum ANS: C
PTS: 1
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75. From where do the cells of the epidermis obtain oxygen and nutrients? A) From blood vessels in the epidermis B) Diffusion from blood vessels in the dermis C) Diffusion from the air TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) From blood vessels in other epithelial tissues ANS: B
PTS: 1
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76. Which statement most accurately describes papillary layer? A) Deep layer of the dermis; dense irregular collagenous connective tissue B) Superficial layer of the dermis; loose connective tissue C) Projections of the dermis that indent the epidermis D) Pressure receptor in the dermis ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
77. Which statement most accurately describes sebaceous gland? A) Secretes product through a pore B) Sheath of epithelial and connective tissue around a hair C) Secretes sebum (oil) D) Deep layer of the dermis; dense irregular collagenous connective tissue ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
78. Which statement most accurately describes lamellated corpuscle? A) Pressure receptor in the dermis B) Secretes sebum (oil) C) Portion of the hair that projects from the skin's surface D) Secretes product through a pore
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
79. Which statement most accurately describes hair follicle? A) Sheath of epithelial and connective tissue around a hair B) Projections of the dermis that indent the epidermis C) Pressure receptor in the dermis D) Portion of the hair that projects from the skin's surface ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
80. Which statement most accurately describes dermal papillae? A) Pressure receptor in the dermis B) Deep layer of the dermis; dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Projections of the dermis that indent the epidermis D) Superficial layer of the dermis; loose connective tissue ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
81. Which statement most accurately describes hair shaft? A) Projections of the dermis that indent the epidermis B) Secretes product through a pore C) Sheath of epithelial and connective tissue around a hair D) Portion of the hair that projects from the skin's surface ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
82. Which statement most accurately describes reticular layer? TEthat STBindent ANKSthe ELepidermis LER.COM A) Projections of the dermis B) Deep layer of the dermis; dense irregular collagenous connective tissue C) Sheath of epithelial and connective tissue around a hair D) Superficial layer of the dermis; loose connective tissue ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
83. Which statement most accurately describes sweat gland? A) Secretes sebum (oil) B) Pressure receptor in the dermis C) Secretes product through a pore D) Projections of the dermis that indent the epidermis ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
84. __________ corpuscles in the dermis detect pressure, whereas __________ corpuscles in
the dermis detect fine touch A) Myelinated; unmyelinated B) Unmyelinated; myelinated C) Tactile; Lamellated D) Lamellated; tactile ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
85. Eccrine sweat is released into a ___________, and sebum is released into a ___________.
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A) a duct; a hair follicle B) a hair follicle; a blood vessel C) a duct; a blood vessel D) a hair follicle; a duct ANS: A
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86. Which layers of the epidermis contain living cells? (Mark all that apply.) A) Stratum lucidum B) Stratum basale C) Stratum corneum D) Stratum spinosum E) Stratum granulosum ANS: B, D, E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Recall
87. Which of the following are characteristics of thick skin? (Mark all that apply.) A) Located over the palms and the soles of the feet B) Contains hair and arrector pili muscles C) Contains sweat glands D) Very thick stratum corneum E) Contains sebaceous glands F) Contains a stratum lucidum ANS: A, C, D, F
PTS: 1
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88. True or False? An arrector pili muscle is composed of skeletal muscle tissue. ANS: F
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89. True or False? The dividing cells of a nail are located in the eponychium. ANS: F
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90. True or False? Both hairs and nails are composed primarily of dead keratinocytes. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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91. True or False? A hair follicle is composed of epithelium and connective tissue. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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92. You develop a callus, which is a thickening of the epidermis, from a pair of ill-fitting
shoes.To treat the callus, you decide to shave off some of the excess epidermis. While doing this, you notice that there is no pain or bleeding. Why wouldn't it cause pain to remove only the superficial part of the epidermis? Why wouldn't it bleed? ANS:
The superficial part of the epidermis, the stratum corneum, consists entirely of dead cells and has no pain receptors. The epidermis also lacks blood vessels. It would therefore cause no pain or bleeding to remove part of the epidermis.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
93. You develop a callus, which is a thickening of the epidermis, from a pair of ill-fitting
shoes. To treat the callus, you decide to shave off some of the excess epidermis. While doing this, you unfortunately go a bit overboard and feel a sudden pinch, after which you are bleeding. What has happened? Are you still in the epidermis? ANS:
At this point, you have cut through the epidermis and entered the dermis, which has pain receptors and is richly supplied with blood vessels. This explains the feeling of pain and the bleeding. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
94. Shampoos and hair conditioners often claim to have nutrients and vitamins your hair must
have to grow and be healthy. What is the composition of the hair shaft onto which shampoos and conditioners are applied? ANS:
Hair is composed of dead, keratinized cells. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
95. Shampoos and hair conditioners often claim to have nutrients and vitamins your hair must
have to grow and be healthy. Taking into account the composition of the hair shafts, do you think these vitamins and nutrients will be beneficial? Why or why not?
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ANS:
As hair consists of dead cells, and dead cells don't grow or metabolize, the nutrients and vitamins are unlikely to be of any benefit. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
96. Would you have expected to have found more tactile corpuscles and Merkel disks on the
palm or on the posterior shoulder? Why? ANS:
We would expect to find more on the palm because this part of the body requires greater nerve sensitivity. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
97. A treatment for ingrown nails is to remove the nail and apply a chemical such as phenol to
the cells of the nail matrix, which kills the cells. What effect will killing the cells of the nail matrix have on the nail? Explain. ANS:
Killing the cells of the nail matrix will prevent the nail from regrowing, as this is the location at which cell division occurs. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
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98. Carcinomas are cancers of epithelial tissue, and sarcomas are cancers of connective tissue.
Are epidermal cancers carcinomas or sarcomas? What about dermal cancers? Explain. ANS:
Cancers of the epidermis are carcinomas, as they involve the stratified squamous keratinized epithelium. Cancers of the dermis are sarcomas, as they involve either loose CT or dense irregular collagenous CT. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
99. In which areas of the body would you expect to find the most Merkel disks and tactile
corpuscles? Why? ANS:
The fingertips, lips, and face have the most fine touch receptors because of their functions of differentiating shape, texture, and so on. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
100. You're discussing a forensic crime scene show with your roommate, who insists that
fingerprints are left behind due to the sebum on our fingertips. What do you tell him? (Hint: What kind of skin is on the fingertips?) ANS:
Fingerprints cannot be left behind due to sebum, because sebaceous glands release sebum into hair follicles. Fingertips have thick skin, which lack hair, and so also lack sebaceous TESTBANKSELLER.COM glands. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 06 Check Your Understanding
101. Production of new hairs is the responsibility of the __________. A) arrector pili B) cortex of the hair C) cuticle of the hair D) matrix cells E) papilla of the hair ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
102. Sebaceous glands usually secrete their products into the _________. A) blood B) necks of hair follicles C) peaks of epidermal ridges D) melanosomes E) external auditory canal ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
103. Nails consist of the _________.
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A) nail root B) nail body C) free edge D) A and C only E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
104. Which of the following parts of a nail is not normally visible in an intact finger? A) Nail matrix B) Lunula C) Nail plate D) Eponychium ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
105. Which of the following associations is INCORRECT? A) Keratinocytes; found in the stratum spinosum B) Islets of Langerhans cells; immune cells C) Melanocytes; typically found in the stratum corneum D) Adipocytes; fat cells E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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106. Which of the following would be the thickest in a sample of epidermis from the sole of the
foot? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum germinativum C) Stratum lucidum D) Stratum spinosum E) Stratum granulosum ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
107. Keratinization involves skin cells moving to the surface that have _________________. A) lost water and nuclei B) lost fat and increased mitochondria C) lost the stratum basale D) lost the stratum lucidum and increased the amount of protein, keratin E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
108. Which is not the function of the dermis layer? A) Regulates temperature by sweat glands and blood vessel dilation or constriction B) Responds to pressure, pain, and temperature with the use of sensory nerves
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C) Produces Vitamin D upon exposure to UV light D) Covers and protects the epidermis E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
109. What function do fibroblasts serve in connective tissue? A) Carry on phagocytosis B) Secrete heparin to prevent blood clotting C) Secrete proteins that become fibers in the connective tissue matrix D) Release histamine associated with allergies and inflammation E) C and D ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
110. Choose the correct body response to raise body temperature only when the others listed
have failed. A) Constrict blood vessels B) Inactivate sweat glands C) Contract skeletal muscle slightly D) Full-body shivering E) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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111. A(n) _________________ is the transplanting of one's own skin from an unburned region
of the body to a burned area. A) autograft B) homograft C) holograft D) zenograft E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
112. Which statement is true about a tan and tanning? A) Sunning for the purpose of tanning produces healthier skin. B) A tan indicates sun damage to the skin. C) Tans last even if the skin is not exposed to the sun for months. D) Tanning promotes skin with a more youthful appearance. E) B and C ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
113. The strength of the dermis is mainly a result of the _____. A) amount of blood vessels B) distribution of elastic fibers
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C) presence of collagen fibers D) thickness of the layers E) keratinization of the skin ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
114. What is one important function of melanin? A) Causes the skin to become cooler B) Increases the amount of blood vessels C) Strengthens the skin or eyes D) Absorbs harmful radiation E) Resets the diurnal biological clock ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
115. Which of the following are unique to each individual, even identical twins? A) Dermal papillae B) The islands and dots C) The patterns of the epidermal ridges D) The ridge ending E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
116. A major function of the skin is protection from ______. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) abrasion B) ultraviolet light C) entry of a microorganism D) dehydration E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
117. The layer of the skin composed of connective tissue that has projections known as papillae
is the ____________. A) dermis B) hypodermis C) stratum corneum D) stratum basale ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
118. Striae occur as a result of ____________. A) pimples B) overstretching the dermis C) loss of hair follicles D) too many fibers in the hypodermis
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
119. Which layer contains loose connective tissue and has about half of the body's stored fat? A) Dermis B) Hypodermis C) Stratum corneum D) Stratum basale ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
120. The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from capillaries in the ___________. A) epidermis B) reticular layer of the dermis C) papillary layer of the dermis D) hypodermis ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
121. Cell division occurs in which layer of the epidermis? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy ESTBANKSELLER.COM TOP: Unit 06 SupplementalTQuestions 122. In which layer of the epidermis do the nucleus and other organelles disintegrate and the
cells die? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum corneum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
123. The _________ consists of many layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by lipids. A) dermis B) hypodermis C) stratum corneum D) stratum basale ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
124. Most of the cells of the epidermis are ________________. A) fibroblasts B) keratinocytes C) islets of Langerhans cells
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D) macrophages ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
125. Which of the following is NOT a component of the epidermis thin skin? A) Melanocytes B) Keratinized cells C) Capillaries D) Keratin ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
126. Cyanosis is a condition caused by ___________. A) consuming large amounts of carotene B) increased blood flow to the skin C) albinism D) exposure to ultraviolet light E) a decrease in blood oxygen ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
127. Sebaceous glands are located in the __________, are associated with the __________, and
secrete ________. A) papillary layer, skin cells, oil B) dermis, nail bed, sebum ESTBANKSELLER.COM C) epidermis, hair follicle,Tsebum D) dermis, hair follicle, sebum E) epidermis, hair follicle, oil ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
128. Hair and nails are modifications of the _______. A) melanocytes B) hypodermis C) sudoriferous glands D) epidermis E) dermis ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
129. The blood vessels nourishing a hair follicle are located in the ______________. A) arrector pili B) cortex of the hair C) cuticle of the hair D) matrix of the cells E) papilla of the hair ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
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TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions 130. Fingernails are ________. A) a modification of the epidermis B) identical to hair but contain 10 times as much keratin C) extensions of the carpal bones D) nothing to do with the skin E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 06 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 07 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines compact bone? A) Immovable joint B) Hard, dense bone tissue found on the outer surface of a bone C) An oval articular surface that fits into an oval depression in another bone D) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines spongy bone? A) Freely movable joint B) The movable attachment of a muscle C) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber D) Bone found on the inside of a bone; composed of a lattice-like network of bone
spicules ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines osteon? A) Amphiarthrotic joints consisting of bones united by cartilage rather than fibrous
connective tissue B) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion C) Densely packed subunits of compact bone D) One of two general types of bones found in the skull that encase the brain ANS: C
PTS: 1
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines lamellae? A) Concentric rings of bone matrix B) A joint where the articular surfaces fit together as a saddle C) The end of one bone fits into a “ring” of bone or tissue of another bone, allowing
rotation of the bone about its own axis D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
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5. Which of the following statements accurately defines central canal? A) Canals that lie perpendicular to the osteon and carry blood vessels into the bone
from the periosteum B) Canal found in the center of each osteon C) Contains blood vessels and nerves D) Both B and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
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6. Which of the following statements accurately defines perforating canal? A) Canal found in the center of each osteon; contains blood vessels and nerves B) A small potential space that contains serous fluid; located between the two layers
of the serous pericardium C) Canals that lie perpendicular to the osteon and carry blood vessels into the bone
from the periosteum
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D) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion ANS: C
PTS: 1
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7. Which of the following statements accurately defines lacunae? A) Mature osteoblasts that reside in lacunae B) Small cavities containing osteocytes located between concentric lamellae C) Tiny canals connecting neighboring lacunae D) All of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
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8. Which of the following statements accurately defines osteocytes? A) Mature osteoblasts that reside in lacunae B) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils C) Tiny canals connecting neighboring lacunae D) Bowed, flat bones attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines canaliculi? A) Muscles located between the ribs B) Muscles located between the shoulder blades C) Tiny canals connecting neighboring lacunae D) Skeletal muscles that move the upper limb ANS: C
PTS: 1
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10. Which of the following statements accurately defines periosteum? A) A fatty sheath found around certain axons that increases the speed of conduction of
a nerve impulse B) Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue that surrounds a bone C) Houses bone-forming cells (osteoblasts), bone-destroying cells (osteoclasts), and
numerous blood vessels D) Both B and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines endosteum? A) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers B) Connective tissue membrane covering internal bone surfaces C) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces D) A modified smooth endoplasmic reticulum that wraps around the myofibrils and
stores calcium ions ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines long bone? A) Bones that are longer than they are wide B) An irregularly shaped bone located between two skull bones C) Triangular, superficial chest muscle D) Bones that are relatively flat
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ANS: A
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13. Which of the following statements accurately defines short bone? A) Flat bone on the posteroinferior, superficial back B) Superficial triangular bone on the posterosuperior back C) Bones that are about as long as they are wide D) None of the above is correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines flat bone? A) Large, deep bones composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh B) Posterior bones over the buttock C) Triangular, superficial chest bones D) Bones that are relatively flat ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines irregular bone? A) The eight short bones found in the wrist B) Bones whose shape does not fit any other classification C) Bones that are longer than they are wide D) Bones located within a tendon ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines sesamoid bone? ESfingers TBANK SEthe LLtoes ER.COM A) Fourteen long bones inTthe and B) Bones whose shape does not fit any other classification C) Bones that are longer than they are wide D) Bones located within a tendon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines sutural bone? A) Muscles of the anterior forearm B) The ends of a long bone C) An irregularly shaped bone located between two skull bones D) The shaft of the long bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines diaphysis? A) Muscles of the anterior forearm B) The ends of a long bone C) An irregularly shaped bone located between two skull bones D) The shaft of the long bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
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19. Which of the following statements accurately defines epiphysis? A) The shaft of the long bone
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B) The ends of a long bone C) Group of bones surrounded by the perimysium D) Both A and B are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
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20. Which of the following statements accurately defines epiphyseal plate/line? A) A band of hyaline cartilage from which long bones grow in length B) Found near the junction of the epiphysis and the diaphysis C) Calcifies to become the epiphyseal line when longitudinal bone growth ceases D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines medullary cavity? A) A hollow area inside the diaphysis of a long bone B) Diarthrotic joints consisting of two bones whose articular ends are covered with
hyaline cartilage; the bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity C) Large, deep muscle composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh D) Joints consisting of two bones whose articular ends are covered with hyaline
cartilage; the bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. Which of the following statements accurately defines bone marrow? A) Series of events during which actin and myosin bind and detach cyclically,
resulting in the generation of tension during a contraction B) Tissue responsible for T the ESproduction TBANKSof ELblood LERcells .COM C) Gelatinous component of the extracellular matrix that contains water,
proteoglycans, and many other molecules D) A modified smooth endoplasmic reticulum that wraps around the myofibrils and stores calcium ions ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 7.1 Microscopic anatomy of compact bone.
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 23. In Figure 7.1, identify number 1. A) Periosteum B) Interstitial lamellae C) Osteons D) Concentric lamellae ANS: B
PTS: 1
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24. In Figure 7.1, identify number 2. A) Osteon B) Endosteum C) Circumferential lamellae D) Central canal ANS: A
PTS: 1
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25. In Figure 7.1, identify number 3. A) Interstitial lamellae B) Periosteum C) Circumferential lamellae D) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
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26. In Figure 7.1, identify number 4. A) Endosteum B) Periosteum C) Osteon D) Central canal ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 7.1, identify number 5. A) Endosteum B) Periosteum C) Osteon D) Central canal ANS: A
PTS: 1
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28. In Figure 7.1, identify number 6. A) Endosteum B) Capillary C) Venule D) Perforating canal ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 7.1, identify number 7. A) Arteriole B) Artery C) Venule TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Osteons ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 7.1, identify number 8. A) Vein B) Arteriole C) Artery D) Periosteum ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. In Figure 7.1, identify number 9. A) Vein B) Interstitial lamellae C) Artery D) Arteriole ANS: A
PTS: 1
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32. In Figure 7.1, identify number 10. A) Central canal B) Venule C) Periosteum D) Osteon
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 7.1, identify number 11. A) Osteon B) Circumferential lamellae C) Arteriole D) Concentric lamellae ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 7.1, identify number 12. A) Capillary B) Circumferential lamellae C) Venule D) Perforating canal ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 7.1, identify number 13. A) Arteriole B) Artery C) Venule D) Circumferential lamellae ANS: C
PTS: 1
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36. In Figure 7.1, identify number 14. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Periosteum B) Arteriole C) Trabeculae of spongy bone D) Circumferential lamellae ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Figure 7.2 Adult long bone: the femur. 37. In Figure 7.2, identify number 1. A) Articular cartilage TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Compact bone C) Diaphysis D) Epiphyseal line(s) E) Distal epiphysis F) Medullary cavity G) Periosteum H) Red bone marrow ANS: A
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 7.2, identify number 2. A) Articular cartilage B) Distal epiphysis C) Perforating fibers D) Proximal piphysis E) Periosteum F) Red bone marrow G) Spongy bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
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39. In Figure 7.2, identify number 3. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis
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C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Proximal epiphysis E) Periosteum F) Site of endosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 7.2, identify number 4. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Distal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Site of endosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 7.2, identify number 5. A) Articular cartilage B) Perforating fibers C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Proximal Epiphysis E) Periosteum F) Distal epiphysis G) Yellow bone marrow
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
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42. In Figure 7.2, identify number 6. A) Articular cartilage B) Perforating fibers C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Proximal epiphysis E) Distal epiphysis F) Periosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 7.2, identify number 7. A) Articular cartilage B) Perforating fibers C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Distal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
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44. In Figure 7.2, identify number 8. A) Diaphysis B) Epiphyseal line(s) C) Proximal epiphysis D) Periosteum E) Red bone marrow F) Site of endosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 7.2, identify number 9. A) Articular cartilage B) Compact bone C) Diaphysis D) Distal epiphysis E) Periosteum F) Red bone marrow G) Spongy bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 7.2, identify number 10. A) Compact bone B) Diaphysis C) Distal epiphysis D) Medullary cavity TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Periosteum F) Spongy bone G) Red bone marrow ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 7.2, identify number 11. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Distal epiphysis E) Periosteum F) Site of endosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 7.2, identify number 12. A) Articular cartilage B) Compact bone C) Diaphysis D) Distal epiphysis E) Periosteum F) Spongy bone
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G) Proximal epiphysis ANS: A
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49. In Figure 7.2, identify number 13. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line(s) D) Distal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Red bone marrow G) Proximal epiphysis ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 7.2, identify number 14. A) Articular cartilage B) Compact bone C) Diaphysis D) Proximal epiphysis E) Periosteum F) Site of endosteum G) Spongy bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 7.2, identify number 15. A) Proximal epiphysis TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Compact bone C) Diaphysis D) Epiphyseal line(s) E) Distal epiphysis F) Spongy bone G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 7.10 Microscopic anatomy of compact bone tissue. 52. In Figure 7.10, identify number 1. A) Canaliculi B) Central canal C) Concentric lamellae D) Lacunae with osteocytes TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Osteon F) Perforating canal G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
53. In Figure 7.10, identify number 2. A) Canaliculi B) Central canal C) Concentric lamellae D) Lacunae with osteocytes E) Osteon F) Perforating canal G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
54. In Figure 7.10, identify number 3. A) Endosteum B) Canaliculi C) Periosteum D) Concentric lamellae E) Lacunae with osteocytes F) Perforating canal
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G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: A
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55. In Figure 7.10, identify number 4. A) Periosteum B) Canaliculi C) Central canal D) Concentric lamellae E) Osteon F) Perforating canal G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
56. In Figure 7.10, identify number 5. A) Canaliculi B) Perforating canal C) Interstitial lamellae D) Lacunae with osteocytes E) Endosteum F) Central canal G) Periosteum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
57. In Figure 7.10, identify number 6. A) Interstitial lamellae TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Canaliculi C) Central canal D) Concentric lamellae E) Lacunae with osteocytes F) Osteon G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
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58. In Figure 7.10, identify number 7. A) Endosteum B) Canaliculi C) Central canal D) Concentric lamellae E) Lacunae with osteocytes F) Perforating canal G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
59. In Figure 7.10, identify number 8. A) Canaliculi B) Central canal C) Concentric lamellae
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D) Lacunae with osteocytes E) Osteon F) Perforating canal G) Interstitial lamellae ANS: A
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60. In Figure 7.10, identify number 9. A) Periosteum B) Canaliculi C) Central canal D) Concentric lamellae E) Lacunae with osteocytes F) Osteon G) Trabeculae of spongy bone ANS: E
PTS: 1
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61. In Figure 7.10, identify number 10. A) Osteon B) Concentric lamellae C) Lacunae with osteocytes D) Interstitial lamellae E) Trabeculae of spongy bone F) Endosteum G) Periosteum ANS: G
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62. The extracellular matrix of bone consists of A) collagen fibers. B) calcium hydroxyapatite crystals. C) ground substance. D) Choices a and b only are correct. E) Choices a, b, and c are correct. ANS: E
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63. Osteocytes are located in ____________________ and function to
____________________. A) lacunae; maintain and monitor the bone ECM B) the periosteum; maintain and monitor the bone ECM C) lacunae; build bone matrix D) the periosteum; build bone matrix ANS: A
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64. What is the general function of a bone projection? A) It provides a pathway along which blood vessels or nerves travel. B) It provides a point of attachment for tendons or ligaments. C) It houses or protects structures such as blood vessels or sensory organs. D) It allows two bones to come together to form a joint.
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ANS: B
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65. Examples of short bones include A) the phalanges (bones of the fingers). B) the sternum. C) ankle bones. D) Both a and b are correct. E) Both a and c are correct. ANS: C
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66. Long bones are A) named for their length. B) about as long as they are wide. C) irregular in shape. D) longer than they are wide. ANS: D
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Figure 7.11 Adult long bone: the femur. 67. In Figure 7.11, identify number 1. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line
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D) Proximal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: A
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68. In Figure 7.11, identify number 2. A) Diaphysis B) Yellow bone marrow C) Distal epiphysis D) Red bone marrow E) Articular cartilage F) Perforating fibers G) Proximal epiphysis ANS: D
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 7.11, identify number 3. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line D) Red bone marrow E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: C
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.07 COCheck M Your Recall
70. In Figure 7.11, identify number 4. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line D) Distal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: E
PTS: 1
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71. In Figure 7.11, identify number 5. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line D) Distal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: G
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72. In Figure 7.11, identify number 6.
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A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line D) Red bone marrow E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: F
PTS: 1
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73. In Figure 7.11, identify number 7. A) Perforating fibers B) Periosteum C) Distal epiphysis D) Proximal epiphysis E) Epiphyseal lines F) Red bone marrow G) Medullary cavity ANS: A
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74. In Figure 7.11, identify number 8. A) Periosteum B) Articular cartilage C) Distal epiphysis D) Diaphysis E) Proximal epiphysis TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Epiphyseal lines G) Medullary cavity ANS: E
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75. In Figure 7.11, identify number 9. A) Red bone marrow B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line D) Proximal epiphysis E) Distal epiphysis F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow ANS: B
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76. In Figure 7.11, identify number 10. A) Articular cartilage B) Diaphysis C) Epiphyseal line D) Distal epiphysis E) Medullary cavity F) Periosteum G) Yellow bone marrow
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ANS: D
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77. The epiphyseal line is A) the structure from which long bones grow in length. B) a remnant of the structure from which long bones grow in length. C) composed of hyaline cartilage. D) found lining the surface of the epiphysis. ANS: B
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78. In the zone of ossification of the epiphyseal plate A) chondrocytes are actively dividing. B) chondrocytes are maintained in a reserve to divide if needed. C) chondrocytes begin to enlarge in their lacunae as they mature. D) chondrocytes are calcified and abut the diaphysis with osteoblasts. ANS: D
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79. True or False? The periosteum contains osteocytes and osteoclasts. ANS: F
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80. True or False? Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix. ANS: F
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81. True or False? Compact bone is the hard, outer bone. ANS: T
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82. True or False? Spongy bone is composed of spicules called trabeculae. ANS: T
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83. True or False? Spongy bone houses red and yellow bone marrow. ANS: T
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TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
84. True or False? Circumferential lamellae are located between osteons. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Recall
85. Explain how the following structure relates to its function: Compact bone. ANS:
Concentric rings of bone matrix make compact bone hard and strong and able to withstand tensile and compressive forces. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
86. Explain how the following structure relates to its function: Spongy bone.
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ANS:
Thin bone spicules provide a framework to house and support bone marrow. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
87. Explain how the following structure relates to its function: A long bone. ANS:
A long bone has an outer collar of compact bone that makes it quite strong to support the weight of the body and act as a lever for skeletal muscles. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
88. A bone tumor disrupts the normal structure of osteons, replacing the organized rings with
disorganized, irregular masses of bone. How will this affect the ability of a bone to perform its functions? ANS:
The “tree-ring” type structure of osteons makes compact bone hard and very resistant to mechanical stresses. When this structure is disrupted, the bone strength is compromised, and the bone will be more likely to fracture under normal stresses. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
89. The maintenance of healthy bone depends upon the balance of osteoblast and osteoclast
activity. Predict what would happen if osteoblast activity exceeded osteoclast activity.
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ANS:
When osteoblast activity is greater, there is net bone deposition. In theory, this is good for growing bones and for preventing bone loss, especially in women. However, if the osteoblast activity is too great, it could decrease plasma calcium ion levels and cause bones to become abnormally dense. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
90. The maintenance of healthy bone depends upon the balance of osteoblast and osteoclast
activity. Predict what would happen if osteoclast activity exceeded osteoblast activity. ANS:
When osteoclast activity is greater, there is net bone resorption. This can increase plasma calcium ion concentration and weaken bones, leading to osteoporosis and an increased risk for fractures. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
91. The disease osteoporosis often results from insufficient intake of dietary calcium salts. Of
the three samples of bone you tested in Exercise 7-2, which is the most similar to the bones in osteoporosis? What symptoms would you expect to find in this disease? ANS:
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Osteoporosis is most similar to the bone treated with nitric acid, which dissolves the calcium salts in the bone ECM. You would expect the bone to be weak and prone to fractures, as it would be unable to resist compression forces. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
92. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital condition in which collagen synthesis is defective.
Of the three samples of bone you tested in Exercise 7-2, which is most similar to the bones in osteogenesis imperfecta? What symptoms would you expect to find in this disease? ANS:
The bone in osteogenesis imperfecta resembles the heated bone, as heat destroys the organic component of the bone ECM. It is brittle and breaks easily because of diminished tensile strength. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
93. The disease scurvy, caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, leads to an inability to synthesize
the protein collagen. Would prescribing calcium salts help to treat the bone problems in this disease? Why or why not? ANS:
As in osteogenesis imperfecta, scurvy causes a deficiency in the organic component of the bone ECM. Calcium salts are part of the inorganic component of the bone ECM. While strengthening the inorganic component of bone with calcium salts could help increase bone strength somewhat, they will not treat the primary problem, which is in the organic component. TESTBANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 07 Check Your Understanding
94. The diaphysis is the _______ of the _______ bone. A) body, long B) shaft, short C) shaft, long D) collar, medullary E) C and D ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
95. The epiphysis consists of _____ bone surrounded by _____ bone. A) compact, spongy B) spongy, compact C) trabecular, Haversian D) osteons, spongy E) osteons, compact ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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96. Which of the following is found inferior to the maxilla and has a posterior articulation with
the temporal bone? A) Zygomatic arch B) Sphenoid bone C) Parietal bone D) Mandible E) Palatine bone ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
97. The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains ______________. A) chondroitin sulfate B) hydroxyapatite C) osteoblasts D) blood vessels E) synovial fluid ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
98. The epiphyseal line is ________. A) composed of bone marrow B) a suture line C) a healed fracture D) the remnant of the epiphyseal plate ANS: D PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Hard ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions 99. The medullary layer contains _____________ in an adult. A) cartilage B) yellow marrow C) only osteocytes D) only osteoblasts E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
100. A bone with approximately the same width, length, and height is most likely a
_________________. A) long bone B) short bone C) flat bone D) medullary E) A and B ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
101. Sites of hematopoiesis include all EXCEPT ____________________.
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A) the trabecular cavities of spongy bone B) the diploë of flat bones C) the medullary cavities in the long bones of infants D) the medullary cavities in the long bones of a healthy adult E) C and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
102. The remodeling of bone is a function of _________________. A) chondrocytes and osteocytes B) osteoblasts and osteoclasts C) chondroblasts and osteoclasts D) osteoblasts and osteocytes E) chondrocytes only ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
103. The congenital disorder in which collagen synthesis is defective is known as
___________________________. A) osteomalacia B) osteoporosis C) Paget's disease D) rickets E) osteogenesis imperfecta ANS: E PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Hard ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions 104. An osteon has _____________________. A) a central canal carrying blood vessels B) concentric lamellae C) osteocytes in lacunae D) canaliculi that connect lacunae to the central canal E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
105. The flat bones of the skull develop from ___________________. A) areolar tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) fibrous connective tissue D) compact bone E) A and D ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
106. Which structure is part of the frontal bone? A) Infraorbital foramen
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B) Crista galli C) Supraorbital foramen (notch) D) Optic foramen E) Petrous portion ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
107. All of the following articulate with the maxilla EXCEPT the ______________. A) nasal bone B) frontal bone C) mandible D) palatine E) zygomatic bone ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
108. All of the following describe the skeleton of the thorax EXCEPT: A) It is formed by 12 pairs of ribs and costal cartilages, sternum, and 12 thoracic
vertebrae. B) It protects the internal chest organs as well as the liver and part of the stomach. C) It is roughly cone-shaped. D) It aids in support of the bones of the iliac girdle. E) It aids in the support of the bones of the shoulder girdle. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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109. Which of the following cell types is responsible for synthesizing the organic component of
bone matrix? A) Chondrocytes B) Osteoblasts C) Osteocytes D) Chondroblasts ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
110. Which of the following hormones acts to stimulate osteoclast activity and thus increase
bone resorption? A) Growth hormone B) Parathyroid hormone C) Calcitonin D) Insulin ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
111. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bone (organ)? A) Periosteum B) Calcium phosphate crystals
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C) Lacunae that contain two to four cells each D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
112. Which two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and tensile strength of
bone? A) Osteoclasts and collagen B) Mineralized salts and osteocytes C) Mineralized salts and collagen D) Collagen and elastic fibers E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
113. Chondroblasts synthesize ______________________. A) basement membranes B) bone matrix C) cartilage matrix D) mesothelium ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
114. The skeletal system includes the following: A) Bone, cartilage, ligaments, adipose, epithelia, and nerves TESHaversian TBANKSsystem, ELLERosteons, .COM and endomysium B) Bone, cartilage, ligaments, C) Bone, tendons, adipose, ramus, meatus, and sulcus D) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
115. A condyle is a _____________________. A) slender and pointed projection B) canal-like passageway C) passageway for blood and nerves D) rounded prominence that articulates with another bone ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
116. Which of the following can be found in cartilage and bone tissue? A) Lacunae B) Protein fibers C) Ground substance D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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117. Which of the following statements about osteoblasts is TRUE? A) Osteoblasts are inactive bone cells stuck within the bone matrix. B) Osteoblasts secrete osteoid, which contains only the organic component of bone
matrix. C) Osteoblasts increase their activity in response to parathyroid hormone. D) Osteoblasts maintain contact with each other via cytoplasmic processes known as
canaliculi. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
118. ______________ are located in bone tissue. A) Chondroblasts B) Osteocytes C) Fibroblasts D) Chondrocytes ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
119. The _____________ forms the lower jaw. A) maxilla B) mandible C) zygomatic D) occipital ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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120. Which of the following is true? A) Spongy bone is found at the ends of the long bones and inside flat and irregular
bones. B) A microscope slide labeled compact bone will show osteons (Haversian system). C) Short bones consist entirely of compact bone composed of osteons. D) Spongy bone consists of interlacing bone spicules called trabeculae. E) A, B, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
121. The Volkmann's canals ____________. A) are spongy bone B) are passageways for osteocytes C) carry blood vessels from the periosteum into the bone D) are also known as central canals E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
122. Spongy bone is composed of ____________________. A) sponges
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B) latticework of trabeculae (spicules) C) yellow marrow D) osteons E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
123. Long bones ____________________. A) are wider than their length B) include all limb bones excluding wrists and ankles C) include the clavicles and sternum D) Include the ribs and sternum E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 07 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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Unit 08 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines cranial bones? A) One of two general types of bones found in the skull that form the framework for
the face and house sense organs B) Hard, dense bone tissue found on the outer surface of a bone C) An oval articular surface that fits into an oval depression in another bone D) One of two general types of bones found in the skull that encase the brain ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines facial bones? A) One of two general types of bones found in the skull that form the framework for
the face and house sense organs B) Composed of a lattice-like network of bone spicules C) An irregularly shaped bone located between two skull bones D) Bone found on the inside of a bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines suture? A) Freely movable joint B) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion C) An immovable joint between cranial bones D) One of two general types of bones found in the skull that encase the brain ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines hyoid bone? A) U-shaped bone in the superior neck B) A joint where the articular surfaces fit together as a saddle C) The end of one bone fits into a “ring” of bone or tissue of another bone, allowing
rotation of the bone about its own axis D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines vertebrae? A) Bones whose shape does not fit any other classification B) Irregular bones that make up the vertebral column; 24 total C) Bones that are relatively flat D) Both B and C are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines ribs? A) Irregular bones that make up the vertebral column B) Bowed, flat bones attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae C) Bones that are longer than they are wide D) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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7. Which of the following statements accurately defines sternum? A) Bones that are relatively flat B) Small cavities containing osteocytes located between concentric lamellae C) Flat bone lying in the anterior midline of the thorax D) Both B and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines pectoral girdle? A) The two bones that frame the shoulder B) Bowed, flat bones attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae C) The scapula and the clavicle D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines clavicle? A) Thin, curved bone that extends horizontally across the superior thorax; articulates
with the scapula laterally and sternum medially B) Bowed, flat bones attached posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae C) U-shaped bone in the superior neck D) Thin, triangular, flat bones lying on the posterior surface of the rib cage ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines scapula? A) Thin, triangular, flat bones lying on the posterior surface of the rib cage TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Thin, curved bone that extends horizontally across the superior thorax C) Articulates with the scapula laterally and sternum medially D) Both B and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines humerus? A) The largest, longest bone of the upper limb B) The only bone of the arm C) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines radius? A) The lateral bone of the forearm B) An irregularly shaped bone located between two skull bones C) The medial bone of the forearm D) Bones that are relatively flat ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines ulna? A) Flat bone on the posteroinferior, superficial back B) Superficial triangular bone on the posterosuperior back
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C) The medial bone of the forearm D) The lateral bone of the forearm ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines carpals? A) Large, deep bones composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh B) Posterior bones over the buttock C) Triangular, superficial chest bones D) The eight short bones found in the wrist ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines metacarpals? A) The eight short bones found in the wrist B) The five long bones in the hand C) Bones that are longer than they are wide D) A bone located within a tendon ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines phalanges? A) Fourteen long bones in the fingers and the toes B) Bones whose shape does not fit any other classification C) Bones that are longer than they are wide D) A bone located within a tendon ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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17. Which of the following statements accurately defines pelvic girdle? A) Articulates with the scapula laterally and sternum medially B) The ends of a long bone C) Thin, curved bone that extends horizontally across the superior thorax D) The paired coxal bones, which attach the lower limbs to the axial skeleton ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines femur? A) The single bone of the thigh B) The ends of a long bone C) An irregularly shaped bone located between two skull bones D) The shaft of the long bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines tibia? A) The shaft of the long bone B) The ends of a long bone C) The medial bone of the leg D) Both A and B are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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20. Which of the following statements accurately defines fibula? A) A band of hyaline cartilage from which long bones grow in length B) Found near the junction of the epiphysis and the diaphysis C) Calcifies to become the epiphyseal line when longitudinal bone growth ceases D) The lateral bone of the leg ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines tarsals? A) A hollow area inside the diaphysis of a long bone B) The seven bones making up the foot and ankle C) The five long bones in the hand D) The bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. Which of the following statements accurately defines metatarsals? A) The five long bones of the foot B) Fourteen long bones in the fingers and the toes C) The eight short bones found in the wrist D) The five long bones in the hand ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 8.1A Skull: anterior view. 23. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 1. A) Temporal bone B) Parietal bone C) Lacrimal bone
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D) Perpendicular plate E) Frontal bone F) Zygomatic bone G) Nasal bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 2. A) Zygomatic bone B) Nasal bone C) Frontal bone D) Parietal bone E) Temporal bone F) Maxilla G) Lacrimal bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 3. A) Nasal bone B) Lacrimal bone C) Frontal bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Temporal bone G) Maxilla ANS: E
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26. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 4. A) Nasal bone B) Lacrimal bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Ethmoid bone G) Zygomatic bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 5. A) Frontal bone B) Nasal bone C) Lacrimal bone D) Temporal bone E) Ethmoid bone F) Zygomatic bone G) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 6.
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A) Frontal bone B) Nasal bone C) Lacrimal bone D) Temporal bone E) Parietal bone F) Zygomatic bone G) Ethmoid bone ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 7. A) Nasal bone B) Lacrimal bone C) Temporal bone D) Ethmoid bone E) Zygomatic bone F) Middle nasal concha G) Alveolar margin of mandible and maxilla ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 8. A) Infraorbital foramen B) Inferior orbital fissure C) Mental foramen D) Supraorbital foramen E) Optic canal TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Ethmoid bone G) Middle nasal concha ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 9. A) Nasal bone B) Zygomatic bone C) Maxilla (zygomatic process) D) Perpendicular plate E) Alveolar margin of mandible and maxilla F) Ethmoid bone G) Middle nasal concha ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 10. A) Alveolar margin of mandible and maxilla B) Lacrimal bone C) Mandible D) Nasal bone E) Parietal bone F) Supraorbital margin G) Maxilla
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 11. A) Glabella B) Alveolar margin of mandible and maxilla C) Inferior orbital fissure D) Infraorbital foramen E) Maxilla F) Supraorbital margin G) Vomer ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 12. A) Ethmoid bone B) Maxilla (zygomatic process) C) Parietal bone D) Zygomatic bone E) Temporal bone F) Frontal bone G) Nasal bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 13. A) Glabella B) Lacrimal bone C) Supraorbital margin TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Vomer E) Middle nasal concha F) Anterior nasal spine G) Temporal bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
36. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 14. A) Infraorbital foramen B) Inferior orbital fissure C) Middle nasal concha D) Supraorbital foramen E) Superior orbital fissure F) Glabella G) Mental foramen ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 15. A) Superior orbital fissure B) Glabella C) Supraorbital foramen D) Vomer E) Inferior orbital fissure
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F) Mental foramen G) Supraorbital margin ANS: G
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 16. A) Superior orbital fissure B) Glabella C) Supraorbital foramen D) Vomer E) Inferior orbital fissure F) Mental foramen G) Optic canal ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 17. A) Glabella B) Optic canal C) Inferior nasal concha D) Middle nasal concha E) Inferior orbital fissure F) Vomer G) Supraorbital margin ANS: B
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 8.1A, identify number TEST18. BANKSELLER.COM A) Inferior orbital fissure B) Optic canal C) Inferior nasal concha D) Middle nasal concha E) Superior orbital fissure F) Vomer G) Supraorbital margin ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 19. A) Nasal bone B) Perpendicular plate C) Middle nasal concha D) Supraorbital margin E) Inferior nasal concha F) Vomer G) Anterior nasal spine ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 20. A) Anterior nasal spine B) Glabella
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C) Maxilla D) Nasal bone E) Perpendicular plate F) Middle nasal concha G) Inferior nasal concha ANS: E
PTS: 1
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43. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 21. A) Middle nasal concha B) Superior orbital fissure C) Glabella D) Vomer E) Nasal bone F) Inferior nasal concha G) Inferior orbital fissure ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 22. A) Glabella B) Anterior nasal spine C) Vomer D) Inferior nasal concha E) Nasal bone F) Perpendicular plate G) Middle nasal concha
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 23. A) Vomer B) Inferior nasal concha C) Perpendicular plate D) Middle nasal concha E) Anterior nasal spine F) Nasal bone G) Mandible ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 24. A) Alveolar margin of mandible and maxilla B) Mandible C) Parietal bone D) Maxilla E) Mandibular body F) Ethmoid bone G) Zygomatic bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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47. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 25. A) Supraorbital foramen B) Alveolar margin of mandible and maxilla C) Infraorbital foramen D) Mandible E) Temporal bone F) Mental foramen G) Glabella ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 26. A) Glabella B) Mandibular body C) Vomer D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Lacrimal bone G) Maxilla ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 8.1A, identify number 27. A) Parietal bone B) Ethmoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Supraorbital margin TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Temporal bone F) Zygomatic bone G) Glabella ANS: B
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TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 8.1B Skull: lateral view. 50. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 1. A) Lambdoid suture B) External acoustic meatus TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Coronal suture D) Lacrimal fossa E) Alveolar margins F) Squamous suture G) Mental foramen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 2. A) Frontal bone B) Zygomatic bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Lacrimal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Parietal bone G) Occipital bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 3. A) Lambdoid suture B) External acoustic meatus C) Coronal suture D) Lacrimal fossa
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E) Alveolar margins F) Squamous suture G) Mental foramen ANS: F
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53. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 4. A) Lambdoid suture B) External acoustic meatus C) Coronal suture D) Lacrimal fossa E) Alveolar margins F) Squamous suture G) Mental foramen ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 5. A) Frontal bone B) Zygomatic bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Temporal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Parietal bone G) Occipital bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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55. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 6. A) Frontal bone B) Zygomatic process C) Ethmoid bone D) Temporal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Parietal bone G) Occipital bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 7. A) Occipital bone B) Styloid process C) Mastoid process D) Mandibular condyle E) Zygomatic process F) Alveolar margins G) Coronoid process ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 8. A) Lacrimal fossa
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B) External acoustic meatus C) Mandibular condyle D) Alveolar margins E) Mandibular ramus F) Mental foramen G) Styloid process ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 9. A) Lacrimal bone B) Styloid process C) Mastoid process D) Mandibular condyle E) Zygomatic process F) Alveolar margins G) Coronoid process ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 10. A) Styloid process B) Mandibular ramus C) Mastoid process D) Mandibular condyle E) Zygomatic process F) Alveolar margins TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Coronoid process ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
60. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 11. A) Mandibular condyle B) Mandibular ramus C) Coronoid process D) Mandibular angle E) Mandibular notch F) Mandibular body G) Alveolar margins ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
61. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 12. A) Mandibular condyle B) Mandibular ramus C) Coronoid process D) Mandibular angle E) Mandibular notch F) Mandibular body G) Temporomandibular joint ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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62. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 13. A) Mandibular condyle B) Mandibular ramus C) Coronoid process D) Mandibular angle E) Mandibular notch F) Mandibular body G) Temporomandibular joint ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
63. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 14. A) Mandibular condyle B) Mandibular ramus C) Coronoid process D) Mandibular angle E) Mandibular notch F) Mandibular body G) Temporomandibular joint ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
64. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 15. A) Mandibular condyle B) Mandibular ramus C) Coronoid process TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Mandibular angle E) Mandibular notch F) Mandibular body G) Temporomandibular joint ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
65. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 16. A) Parietal bone B) Temporal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Lacrimal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Frontal bone G) Occipital bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
66. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 17. A) Parietal bone B) Temporal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Lacrimal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing)
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F) Frontal bone G) Occipital bone ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
67. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 18. A) Parietal bone B) Temporal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Lacrimal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Temporomandibular joint G) Occipital bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
68. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 19. A) Parietal bone B) Temporal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Lacrimal bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Temporomandibular joint G) Occipital bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
69. In Figure 8.1B, identify number TEST20. BANKSELLER.COM A) Temporomandibular joint B) Lacrimal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Zygomatic bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Nasal bone G) Maxilla bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
70. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 21. A) Lacrimal fossa B) Styloid process C) External acoustic meatus D) Lambdoid suture E) Mandibular ramus F) Alveolar margins G) Coronoid process ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
71. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 22. A) Temporomandibular joint B) Lacrimal bone
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C) Ethmoid bone D) Zygomatic bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Nasal bone G) Maxilla bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
72. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 23. A) Temporomandibular joint B) Lacrimal bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Zygomatic bone E) Sphenoid bone (greater wing) F) Nasal bone G) Maxilla bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
73. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 24. A) Zygomatic bone B) Coronoid process C) Mastoid process D) Alveolar margins E) Maxilla F) Mandibular condyle G) Mandibular ramus
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
74. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 25. A) Mandibular angle B) Mandibular ramus C) Maxilla D) Coronoid process E) Styloid process F) Mastoid process G) Alveolar margins ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
75. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 26. A) Mandibular condyle B) Mandibular ramus C) Coronoid process D) Mandibular angle E) Mandibular notch F) Mandibular body G) Alveolar margins ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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76. In Figure 8.1B, identify number 27. A) Mandibular ramus B) Mental foramen C) Alveolar margin D) Styloid process E) Lacrimal fossa F) Squamous suture G) Zygomatic process ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 8.1C Skull: midsagittal section. 77. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 1. A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
78. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 2. A) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone B) Squamous suture C) Crista galli D) Coronal suture E) Alveolar margins F) Lambdoid suture
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G) Sphenoid sinus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
79. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 3. A) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone B) Squamous suture C) Crista galli D) Coronal suture E) Alveolar margins F) Lambdoid suture G) Sphenoid sinus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
80. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 4. A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
81. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 5. A) Parietal bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
82. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 6. A) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone B) Squamous suture C) Crista galli D) Coronal suture E) Alveolar margins F) Lambdoid suture G) Sphenoid sinus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
83. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 7. A) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone B) Squamous suture C) Crista galli
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D) Coronal suture E) Alveolar margins F) Internal acoustic meatus G) Sphenoid sinus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
84. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 8. A) Foramen magnum B) Frontal sinus C) Sphenoid sinus D) Mandibular ramus E) Internal acoustic meatus F) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone G) Crista galli ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
85. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 9. A) Palatine process of maxilla B) Mandibular condyle C) Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone D) Maxilla E) Internal acoustic meatus F) Crista galli G) External occipital protuberance ANS: G
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86. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 10. A) Palatine process of maxilla B) Mandibular condyle C) Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone D) Maxilla E) Internal acoustic meatus F) Crista galli G) External occipital protuberance ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
87. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 11. A) Sphenoid sinus B) Foramen magnum C) Frontal sinus D) Crista galli E) External occipital protuberance F) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone G) Mandibular ramus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
88. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 12.
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A) Palatine process of maxilla B) External occipital protuberance C) Mandibular ramus D) Foramen magnum E) Mandibular condyle F) Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone G) Crista galli ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
89. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 13. A) Palatine process of maxilla B) External occipital protuberance C) Mandibular ramus D) Foramen magnum E) Mandibular condyle F) Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone G) Crista galli ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
90. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 14. A) Palatine process of maxilla B) External occipital protuberance C) Mandibular ramus D) Sphenoid bone E) Mandibular condyle TESTBbone ANKSELLER.COM F) Pterygoid process of sphenoid G) Crista galli ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
91. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 15. A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
92. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 16. A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
93. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 17. A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
94. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 18. A) Frontal sinus B) Crista galli C) Mandibular ramus D) Maxilla E) Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone F) Internal acoustic meatus G) Sella turcica of sphenoid bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
95. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 19. A) Parietal bone B) Sphenoid bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Palatine bone F) Occipital bone G) Crista galli ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
96. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 20. A) Vomer B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Nasal bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone (perpendicular plate) ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
97. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 21. A) Vomer B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Nasal bone
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F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone (perpendicular plate) ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
98. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 22. A) Vomer B) Sphenoid bone C) Frontal bone D) Temporal bone E) Nasal bone F) Occipital bone G) Ethmoid bone (perpendicular plate) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
99. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 23. A) Mandibular condyle B) External occipital protuberance C) Palatine process of maxilla D) Nasal bone E) Maxilla F) Ethmoid bone G) Pterygoid process of sphenoid bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
100. In Figure 8.1C, identify number TEST24. BANKSELLER.COM A) Mandibular ramus B) Vomer C) Crista galli D) Maxilla E) Alveolar margins F) Mandibular condyle G) Mandibular body ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
101. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 25. A) Mandibular ramus B) Vomer C) Crista galli D) Maxilla E) Alveolar margins F) Mandibular condyle G) Mandibular body ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
102. In Figure 8.1C, identify number 26. A) Mandibular ramus B) Vomer
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C) Crista galli D) Maxilla E) Alveolar margins F) Mandibular condyle G) Mandibular body ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 8.2 Skeleton: (A) anterior view; (B) posterior view. 103. In Figure 8.2, identify number 1. A) Ilium B) Clavicle C) Patella D) Sacrum E) Skull F) Sternum G) Phalanges ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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104. In Figure 8.2, identify number 2. A) Ilium B) Clavicle C) Patella D) Sacrum E) Humerus F) Sternum G) Pubis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
105. In Figure 8.2, identify number 3. A) Ilium B) Pubis C) Patella D) Sacrum E) Humerus F) Sternum G) Phalanges ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
106. In Figure 8.2, identify number 4. A) Clavicle B) Sternum C) Cranium D) Patella TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Sacrum F) Ischium G) Coccyx ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
107. In Figure 8.2, identify number 5. A) Sternum B) Humerus C) Ischium D) Femur E) Phalanges F) Patella G) Facial bones ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
108. In Figure 8.2, identify number 6. A) Sternum B) Ilium C) Scapula D) Clavicle E) Phalanges F) Sacrum
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G) Coccyx ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
109. In Figure 8.2, identify number 7. A) Sternum B) Ilium C) Scapula D) Clavicle E) Phalanges F) Sacrum G) Rib ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
110. In Figure 8.2, identify number 8. A) Sternum B) Ilium C) Scapula D) Clavicle E) Phalanges F) Sacrum G) Rib ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
111. In Figure 8.2, identify number 9. A) Sternum TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Ilium C) Scapula D) Clavicle E) Phalanges F) Sacrum G) Rib ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
112. In Figure 8.2, identify number 10. A) Sternum B) Ilium C) Scapula D) Clavicle E) Humerus F) Sacrum G) Radius ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
113. In Figure 8.2, identify number 11. A) Vertebra B) Sternum C) Scapula
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D) Clavicle E) Humerus F) Sacrum G) Radius ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
114. In Figure 8.2, identify number 12. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
115. In Figure 8.2, identify number 13. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: C
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116. In Figure 8.2, identify number 14. A) Carpals B) Patella C) Phalanges D) Metatarsals E) Metacarpals F) Tarsals G) Sacrum ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
117. In Figure 8.2, identify number 15. A) Carpals B) Patella C) Phalanges D) Metatarsals E) Metacarpals F) Tarsals G) Sacrum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
118. In Figure 8.2, identify number 16.
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A) Carpals B) Patella C) Phalanges D) Metatarsals E) Metacarpals F) Tarsals G) Sacrum ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
119. In Figure 8.2, identify number 17. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
120. In Figure 8.2, identify number 18. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
121. In Figure 8.2, identify number 19. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
122. In Figure 8.2, identify number 20. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
123. In Figure 8.2, identify number 21. A) Carpals B) Patella C) Phalanges D) Metatarsals E) Metacarpals F) Tarsals G) Sacrum ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
124. In Figure 8.2, identify number 22. A) Carpals B) Patella C) Phalanges D) Metatarsals E) Metacarpals F) Tarsals G) Sacrum ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
125. In Figure 8.2, identify number 23. A) Carpals B) Patella TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Phalanges D) Metatarsals E) Metacarpals F) Tarsals G) Sacrum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
126. In Figure 8.2, identify number 24. A) Patella B) Skull C) Clavicle D) Sternum E) Cranium F) Ilium G) Ischium ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
127. In Figure 8.2, identify number 25. A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Clavicle D) Pubis E) Sternum
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F) Sacrum G) Coccyx ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
128. In Figure 8.2, identify number 26. A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Clavicle D) Pubis E) Sternum F) Sacrum G) Coccyx ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
129. In Figure 8.2, identify number 27. A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Clavicle D) Pubis E) Sternum F) Sacrum G) Coccyx ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
130. In Figure 8.2, identify number TES28. TBANKSELLER.COM A) Scapula B) Ilium C) Cranium D) Patella E) Sacrum F) Clavicle G) Ischium ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
131. In Figure 8.2, identify number 29. A) Scapula B) Ilium C) Sternum D) Patella E) Sacrum F) Clavicle G) Ischium ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
132. In Figure 8.2, identify number 30. A) Scapula B) Ilium
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C) Sternum D) Patella E) Sacrum F) Clavicle G) Ischium ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
133. In Figure 8.2, identify number 31. A) Sternum B) Clavicle C) Scapula D) Rib E) Ilium F) Phalanges G) Coccyx ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
134. In Figure 8.2, identify number 32. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
135. In Figure 8.2, identify number 33. A) Cranium B) Humerus C) Rib D) Vertebra E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
136. In Figure 8.2, identify number 34. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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137. In Figure 8.2, identify number 35. A) Tibia B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur E) Patella F) Ulna G) Fibula ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
138. In Figure 8.2, identify number 36. A) Carpals B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals D) Sacrum E) Metatarsals F) Patella G) Phalanges ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
139. In Figure 8.2, identify number 37. A) Carpals B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals D) Sacrum TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Metatarsals F) Patella G) Phalanges ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
140. In Figure 8.2, identify number 38. A) Carpals B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals D) Sacrum E) Metatarsals F) Patella G) Phalanges ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
141. In Figure 8.2, identify number 39. A) Tibia B) Femur C) Radius D) Humerus E) Ulna F) Patella
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G) Fibula ANS: B
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142. In Figure 8.2, identify number 40. A) Tibia B) Femur C) Radius D) Humerus E) Ulna F) Patella G) Fibula ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
143. In Figure 8.2, identify number 41. A) Tibia B) Femur C) Radius D) Fibula E) Ulna F) Humerus G) Patella ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
144. In Figure 8.2, identify number 42. A) Carpals TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals D) Sacrum E) Metatarsals F) Patella G) Phalanges ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
145. In Figure 8.2, identify number 43. A) Carpals B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals D) Sacrum E) Metatarsals F) Patella G) Phalanges ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
146. In Figure 8.2, identify number 44. A) Carpals B) Tarsals C) Metacarpals
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D) Sacrum E) Metatarsals F) Patella G) Phalanges ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 8.32 Anterior view of the skeleton. 147. In Figure 8.32, identify number 1. A) Clavicle B) Fibula C) Ilium D) Pubis E) Radius F) Sternum G) Ulna ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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148. In Figure 8.32, identify number 2. A) Clavicle B) Ilium C) Metacarpals D) Pubis E) Radius F) Sternum G) Tarsals ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
149. In Figure 8.32, identify number 3. A) Clavicle B) Femur C) Humerus D) Ilium E) Radius F) Sternum G) Ulna ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
150. In Figure 8.32, identify number 4. A) Clavicle B) Fibula C) Ilium D) Pubis TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Radius F) Sternum G) Tibia ANS: F
PTS: 1
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151. In Figure 8.32, identify number 5. A) Clavicle B) Fibula C) Humerus D) Ilium E) Radius F) Tibia G) Ulna ANS: C
PTS: 1
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152. In Figure 8.32, identify number 6. A) Femur B) Fibula C) Humerus D) Radius E) Sternum F) Tibia
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G) Ulna ANS: G
PTS: 1
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153. In Figure 8.32, identify number 7. A) Femur B) Fibula C) Humerus D) Radius E) Sternum F) Tibia G) Ulna ANS: D
PTS: 1
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154. In Figure 8.32, identify number 8. A) Femur B) Humerus C) Ilium D) Metacarpals E) Radius F) Tarsals G) Ulna ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
155. In Figure 8.32, identify number 9. A) Clavicle TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Femur C) Fibula D) Humerus E) Radius F) Tibia G) Ulna ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
156. In Figure 8.32, identify number 10. A) Femur B) Fibula C) Humerus D) Radius E) Sternum F) Tibia G) Ulna ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
157. In Figure 8.32, identify number 11. A) Femur B) Fibula C) Humerus
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D) Radius E) Sternum F) Tibia G) Ulna ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
158. In Figure 8.32, identify number 12. A) Clavicle B) Fibula C) Metacarpals D) Radius E) Sternum F) Tarsals G) Tibia ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
TESTBANKSELLER.COM
Figure 8.33A Skull: anterior view. 159. In Figure 8.33A, identify number 1. A) Ethmoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Occipital bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Temporal bone G) Vomer ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
160. In Figure 8.33A, identify number 2. A) Ethmoid bone
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B) Inferior nasal concha C) Lacrimal bone D) Nasal bones E) Palatine bone F) Parietal bone G) Sphenoid bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
161. In Figure 8.33A, identify number 3. A) Inferior nasal concha B) Lacrimal bone C) Nasal bones D) Occipital bone E) Palatine bone F) Sphenoid bone G) Vomer ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
162. In Figure 8.33A, identify number 4. A) Ethmoid bone B) Mandible C) Maxilla D) Occipital bone E) Palatine bone F) Sphenoid bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Vomer ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
163. In Figure 8.33A, identify number 5. A) Frontal bone B) Mandible C) Occipital bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Temporal bone G) Zygomatic bone ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.33B Skull: lateral view. 164. In Figure 8.33B, identify number 1. A) Frontal bone B) Mandible C) Occipital bone D) Parietal bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Sphenoid bone F) Temporal bone G) Zygomatic bone ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
165. In Figure 8.33B, identify number 2. A) Frontal bone B) Mandible C) Occipital bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Temporal bone G) Zygomatic bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
166. In Figure 8.33B, identify number 3. A) Frontal bone B) Mandible C) Occipital bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Temporal bone
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G) Zygomatic bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
167. In Figure 8.33B, identify number 4. A) Ethmoid bone B) Lacrimal bone C) Palatine bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Vomer G) Zygomatic bone ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
168. In Figure 8.33B, identify number 5. A) Ethmoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Lacrimal bone D) Maxilla E) Nasal bones F) Palatine bone G) Zygomatic bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.33C Skull: midsagittal section. 169. In Figure 8.33C, identify number 1. A) Ethmoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Palatine bone D) Parietal bone
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E) Sphenoid bone F) Vomer G) Zygomatic bone ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
170. In Figure 8.33C, identify number 2. A) Ethmoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Palatine bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Vomer G) Zygomatic bone ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
171. In Figure 8.33C, identify number 3. A) Ethmoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Palatine bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Vomer G) Zygomatic bone ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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172. In Figure 8.33C, identify number 4. A) Ethmoid bone B) Frontal bone C) Palatine bone D) Parietal bone E) Sphenoid bone F) Vomer G) Zygomatic bone ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.34A Skull: lateral view. 173. In Figure 8.34A, identify number 1. A) Optic canal B) Jugular foramen C) Mastoid process D) Palatine process of maxilla E) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Sella turcica G) Styloid process ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
174. In Figure 8.34A, identify number 2. A) Optic canal B) Jugular foramen C) Mastoid process D) Palatine process of maxilla E) Styloid process F) Sella turcica G) Coronoid process ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
175. In Figure 8.34A, identify number 3. A) Coronoid process B) Jugular foramen C) Mastoid process D) Palatine process of maxilla E) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone F) Sella turcica G) Sphenoid sinus
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
Figure 8.34B Skull: midsagittal section. 176. In Figure 8.34B, identify number 1. A) Cribriform plate B) Pterygoid process TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Palatine process of maxilla D) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone E) Sphenoid sinus F) Styloid process G) Mastoid process ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
177. In Figure 8.34B, identify number 2. A) Cribriform plate B) Pterygoid process C) Palatine process of maxilla D) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone E) Sphenoid sinus F) Styloid process G) Coronoid process ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
178. In Figure 8.34B, identify number 3. A) Cribriform plate B) Pterygoid process C) Palatine process of maxilla D) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
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E) Sphenoid sinus F) Styloid process G) Optic canal ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
179. In Figure 8.34B, identify number 4. A) Cribriform plate B) Frontal sinus C) Palatine process of maxilla D) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone E) Sphenoid sinus F) Styloid process G) Jugular foramen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.34C Skull: internal view. 180. In Figure 8.34C, identify number 1. A) Cribriform plate B) Coronoid process C) Foramen magnum D) Pterygoid process E) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone F) Sella turcica G) Styloid process ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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181. In Figure 8.34C, identify number 2. A) Cribriform plate B) Coronoid process C) Foramen magnum D) Optic canal E) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone F) Sella turcica G) Styloid process ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
182. In Figure 8.34C, identify number 3. A) Cribriform plate B) Mastoid process C) Palatine process of maxilla D) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone E) Sella turcica F) Styloid process G) Optic canal ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
183. In Figure 8.34C, identify number 4. A) Cribriform plate B) Coronoid process C) Jugular foramen TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Optic canal E) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone F) Sella turcica G) Styloid process ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.35 Vertebral column. 184. In Figure 8.35, identify number 1. A) Thoracic curvature B) Thoracic vertebrae C) Cervical curvature D) Lumbar curvature E) Sacral curvature F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Cervical vertebrae ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
185. In Figure 8.35, identify number 2. A) Cervical curvature B) Cervical vertebrae C) Thoracic vertebrae D) Lumbar vertebrae E) Thoracic curvature F) Lumbar curvature G) Sacral curvature
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
186. In Figure 8.35, identify number 3. A) Sacral curvature B) Thoracic curvature C) Cervical vertebrae D) Thoracic vertebrae E) Lumbar curvature F) Cervical curvature G) Lumbar vertebrae ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
187. In Figure 8.35, identify number 4. A) Cervical vertebrae B) Lumbar vertebrae C) Sacral curvature D) Lumbar curvature E) Thoracic vertebrae F) Thoracic curvature G) Cervical curvature ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
188. In Figure 8.35, identify number 5. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Atlas D) Coccyx E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
189. In Figure 8.35, identify number 6. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae C) Atlas D) Coccyx E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
190. In Figure 8.35, identify number 7. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae C) Atlas D) Coccyx
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E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
191. In Figure 8.35, identify number 8. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae C) Atlas D) Coccyx E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
192. In Figure 8.35, identify number 9. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae C) Atlas D) Coccyx E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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193. In Figure 8.35, identify number 10. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae C) Atlas D) Coccyx E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
194. In Figure 8.35, identify number 11. A) Axis B) Cervical vertebrae C) Atlas D) Coccyx E) Sacrum F) Lumbar vertebrae G) Thoracic vertebrae ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.36A Axial skeleton: thoracic cage. 195. In Figure 8.36A, identify number 1. A) Coccyx B) False ribs C) Floating ribs TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Manubrium E) Sacrum F) True ribs G) Xiphoid process ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
196. In Figure 8.36A, identify number 2. A) Coccyx B) False ribs C) Floating ribs D) Manubrium E) Sacrum F) True ribs G) Xiphoid process ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
197. In Figure 8.36A, identify number 3. A) Coccyx B) False ribs C) Floating ribs D) Manubrium E) Sacrum F) True ribs
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G) Xiphoid process ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
198. In Figure 8.36A, identify number 4. A) Coccyx B) False ribs C) Floating ribs D) Manubrium E) Sacrum F) True ribs G) Xiphoid process ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
199. In Figure 8.36A, identify number 5. A) Coccyx B) False ribs C) Floating ribs D) Manubrium E) Sacrum F) True ribs G) Xiphoid process ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.36B Axial skeleton: a typical vertebra, superior and lateral views. 200. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 1. A) Pedicle B) Superior articular process and facet C) Inferior articular process and facet D) Transverse process E) Vertebral body F) Spinous process G) Lamina
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
201. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 2. A) Spinous process B) Inferior articular process and facet C) Pedicle D) Lamina E) Tranverse process F) Superior articular process and facet G) Vertebral body ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
202. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 3. A) Lamina B) Vertebral body C) Spinous process D) Pedicle E) Inferior articular process and facet F) Tranverse process G) Superior articular process and facet ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
203. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 4. A) Inferior articular process and facet B) Lamina C) Transverse process TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Pedicle E) Vertebral body F) Superior articular process and facet G) Spinous process ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
204. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 5. A) Lamina B) Vertebral body C) Spinous process D) Transverse process E) Superior articular process and facet F) Pedicle G) Inferior articular process and facet ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
205. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 6. A) Vertebral body B) Superior articular process and facet C) Transverse process D) Inferior articular process and facet E) Spinous process
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F) Pedicle G) Lamina ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
206. In Figure 8.36B, identify number 7. A) Inferior articular process and facet B) Pedicle C) Superior articular process and facet D) Lamina E) Transverse process F) Spinous process G) Vertebral body ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
207. Which of the statements below most accurately describe lumbar vertebrae? A) Thick body, thick, straight spinous process B) Bifid process, thick body C) Bifid spinous process, transverse foramina D) Spinous process points inferiorly, articular facets E) Thick body, thin, curved spinous process ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
208. Which of the statements below most accurately describe cervical vertebrae? A) Thick body, thick, straight spinous process B) Bifid process, thick body TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Bifid spinous process, transverse foramina D) Spinous process points inferiorly, articular facets E) Thick body, thin, curved spinous process ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
209. Which of the statements below most accurately describe thoracic vertebrae? A) Thick body, thick, straight spinous process B) Bifid process, thick body C) Bifid spinous process, transverse foramina D) Spinous process points inferiorly, articular facets E) Thick body, thin, curved spinous process ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.38 Scapula: (A) anterior view; (B) posterior view. 210. In Figure 8.38, identify number 1. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
211. In Figure 8.38, identify number 2. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
212. In Figure 8.38, identify number 3. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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213. In Figure 8.38, identify number 4. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
214. In Figure 8.38, identify number 5. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
215. In Figure 8.38, identify number 6. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
216. In Figure 8.38, identify number 7. A) Acromion B) Supraspinous fossa C) Coracoid process D) Glenoid cavity E) Spine F) Infraspinous fossa G) Subscapular fossa ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.39 Upper limb: (A) arm, anterior view; (B) forearm, anterior view. 217. In Figure 8.39, identify number 1. A) Capitulum B) Deltoid tuberosity C) Greater tubercle TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Humeral head E) Olecranon F) Radial head G) Styloid process ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
218. In Figure 8.39, identify number 2. A) Capitulum B) Coronoid process C) Deltoid tuberosity D) Greater tubercle E) Intertubercular sulcus F) Styloid process G) Trochlear notch ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
219. In Figure 8.39, identify number 3. A) Capitulum B) Coronoid process C) Greater tubercle D) Humeral head E) Intertubercular sulcus
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F) Styloid process G) Trochlear notch ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
220. In Figure 8.39, identify number 4. A) Capitulum B) Deltoid tuberosity C) Greater tubercle D) Humeral head E) Olecranon F) Radial head G) Trochlea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
221. In Figure 8.39, identify number 5. A) Coronoid process B) Deltoid tuberosity C) Intertubercular sulcus D) Radial head E) Styloid process F) Trochlea G) Trochlear notch ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
222. In Figure 8.39, identify number TEST6.BANKSELLER.COM A) Coronoid process B) Deltoid tuberosity C) Intertubercular sulcus D) Olecranon E) Styloid process F) Trochlea G) Trochlear notch ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
223. In Figure 8.39, identify number 7. A) Coronoid process B) Greater tubercle C) Humeral head D) Intertubercular sulcus E) Olecranon F) Radial head G) Trochlear notch ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
224. In Figure 8.39, identify number 8. A) Coronoid process B) Humeral head
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C) Olecranon D) Radial head E) Styloid process F) Trochlea G) Trochlear notch ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
225. In Figure 8.39, identify number 9. A) Capitulum B) Coronoid process C) Greater tubercle D) Olecranon E) Radial head F) Trochlea G) Trochlear notch ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
226. In Figure 8.39, identify number 10. A) Coronoid process B) Deltoid tuberosity C) Greater tubercle D) Olecranon E) Radial head F) Styloid process G) Trochlear notch
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
227. In Figure 8.39, identify number 11. A) Coronoid process B) Deltoid tuberosity C) Greater tubercle D) Intertubercular sulcus E) Olecranon F) Radial head G) Styloid process ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.40 Right coxal bone, lateral view. 228. In Figure 8.40, identify number 1. A) Acetabulum B) Anterior superior iliac spine TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Greater sciatic notch D) Iliac crest E) Ilium F) Ischial tuberosity G) Ischium ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
229. In Figure 8.40, identify number 2. A) Ischial tuberosity B) Anterior superior iliac spine C) Ischium D) Iliac crest E) Posterior superior iliac spine F) Ilium G) Ischial spine ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
230. In Figure 8.40, identify number 3. A) Acetabulum B) Anterior superior iliac spine C) Greater sciatic notch D) Iliac crest
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E) Ischial tuberosity F) Ischium G) Obturator foramen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
231. In Figure 8.40, identify number 4. A) Ilium B) Posterior superior iliac spine C) Greater sciatic notch D) Iliac crest E) Anterior superior iliac spine F) Ischial tuberosity G) Ischial spine ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
232. In Figure 8.40, identify number 5. A) Acetabulum B) Greater sciatic notch C) Iliac crest D) Ilium E) Ischial tuberosity F) Ischium G) Pubis ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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233. In Figure 8.40, identify number 6. A) Acetabulum B) Greater sciatic notch C) Iliac crest D) Ilium E) Ischial tuberosity F) Ischium G) Obturator foramen ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
234. In Figure 8.40, identify number 7. A) Anterior superior iliac spine B) Greater sciatic notch C) Iliac crest D) Ischial tuberosity E) Ischium F) Obturator foramen G) Pubis ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
235. In Figure 8.40, identify number 8. A) Acetabulum
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B) Anterior superior iliac spine C) Greater sciatic notch D) Iliac crest E) Ischial tuberosity F) Ischial spine G) Posterior superior iliac spine ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
236. In Figure 8.40, identify number 9. A) Acetabulum B) Anterior superior iliac spine C) Greater sciatic notch D) Iliac crest E) Ilium F) Ischial tuberosity G) Obturator foramen ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
237. In Figure 8.40, identify number 10. A) Acetabulum B) Greater sciatic notch C) Iliac crest D) Ilium E) Ischium F) Obturator foramen TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Pubis ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
238. In Figure 8.40, identify number 11. A) Acetabulum B) Greater sciatic notch C) Iliac crest D) Ilium E) Ischium F) Obturator foramen G) Pubis ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Figure 8.41A Lower limb: (A) thigh, anterior view. 239. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 1. A) Greater trochanter B) Femoral head TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Lateral malleolus D) Lesser trochanter E) Medial femoral condyle F) Femoral neck G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
240. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 2. A) Greater trochanter B) Femoral head C) Lateral femoral condyle D) Lateral malleolus E) Lesser trochanter F) Medial malleolus G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
241. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 3. A) Greater trochanter B) Lateral femoral condyle C) Lateral malleolus D) Lesser trochanter
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E) Medial femoral condyle F) Intertrochanteric line G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
242. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 4. A) Greater trochanter B) Femoral head C) Lateral femoral condyle D) Lateral malleolus E) Medial femoral condyle F) Femoral neck G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
243. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 5. A) Greater trochanter B) Medial femoral condyle C) Intertrochanteric line D) Tibial tuberosity E) Lateral femoral condyle F) Anterior crest G) Lesser trochanter ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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244. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 6. A) Greater trochanter B) Lateral femoral condyle C) Lateral malleolus D) Lesser trochanter E) Medial femoral condyle F) Medial malleolus G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
245. In Figure 8.41A, identify number 7. A) Greater trochanter B) Lateral femoral condyle C) Intertrochanteric line D) Lesser trochanter E) Medial femoral condyle F) Medial malleolus G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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Unit 08_B
Figure 8.41 Lower limb: (B) leg, anterior view; (C) right foot, superior view.
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246. In Figures 8.41, identify number 1. A) Calcaneus B) Anterior crest C) Lateral malleolus D) Metatarsals E) Talus F) Medial malleolus G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
247. In Figures 8.41, identify number 2. A) Anterior crest B) Calcaneus C) Lateral malleolus D) Talus E) Metatarsals F) Medial malleolus G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
248. In Figures 8.41, identify number 3. A) Lateral malleolus
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B) Tibial tuberosity C) Metatarsals D) Calcaneus E) Medial malleolus F) Anterior crest G) Talus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
249. In Figures 8.41, identify number 4. A) Anterior crest B) Calcaneus C) Lateral malleolus D) Metatarsals E) Talus F) Medial malleolus G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
250. In Figures 8.41, identify number 5. A) Tibial tuberosity B) Talus C) Metatarsals D) Calcaneus E) Lateral malleolus F) Anterior crest TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Medial malleolus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
251. In Figures 8.41, identify number 6. A) Lateral malleolus B) Talus C) Anterior crest D) Metatarsals E) Tibial tuberosity F) Calcaneus G) Medial malleolus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
252. In Figures 8.41, identify number 7. A) Metatarsals B) Talus C) Medial malleolus D) Lateral malleolus E) Calcaneus F) Anterior crest G) Tibial tuberosity ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Recall
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253. A patient has persistent jaw pain after a motor vehicle accident. An X-ray reveals a fracture in
the anterior part of the temporal bone. Why would a fracture in the anterior temporal bone cause jaw pain? ANS:
The anterior portion of the temporal bone contains the mandibular fossa, which forms the temporomandibular joint with the mandibular condyle of the mandible. If this part of the temporal bone is fractured, it could cause pain when there is movement at this joint (i.e., when the jaw is elevated and depressed). PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Understanding
254. Your friend has suffered a “broken nose.” Which bones potentially could be involved in a
fracture involving the nose and the nasal cavity? ANS:
The nasal, ethmoid, vomer, and inferior nasal conchae could be damaged. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Understanding
255. Why do you think a fracture involving the bones of the nasal cavity could affect the cranial
cavity? ANS:
The ethmoid bone forms the roof of the nasal cavity and also part of the anterior cranial fossa. For this reason, a fracture of the ethmoid bone could potentially affect the floor of the cranial ESTBattaches ANKSEtoLL ER .COgalli M of the ethmoid bone, so a fracture cavity. In addition, the duraTmater the crista of the ethmoid bone could tear the dura. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Understanding
256. A gymnast lands badly after a vault and "twists" her ankle. She now has significant pain and
swelling over her lateral ankle area, and her coach is worried that she might have an ankle fracture. Which bone is involved in her injury? What is the specific part of the bone that is injured? ANS:
Her coach is likely worried that she has a fibular fracture, specifically of the lateral malleolus. (Note that technically her medial malleolus could be affected, too, although students aren't expected to know this.) PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Understanding
257. Predict what might happen if the greater sciatic notch of the ilium were abnormally small and
narrow. Explain. (Hint: Consider the function of this notch.) ANS:
The sciatic nerve passes through the greater sciatic notch. If this notch were too narrow, it could pinch the nerve and trap it, leading to pain and other symptoms.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Understanding
258. You are presented the following X-ray from a 6-year-old child (Figure 8.42).
Identify the bones in the X-ray.
Figure 8.36
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ANS:
The bones visible include the radius, the ulna, the 8 carpal bones, 5 metacarpal bones, and 14 phalanges. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 08 Check Your Understanding
259. Your colleague thinks that there may be a fracture present at the arrow in Figure 8.42. What
do you think? Is this a fracture or a normal anatomical feature? Explain. (Hint: Think about bone development in children. What structure is present in many bones at the epiphysis?)
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Figure 8.42 X-ray from six year old child. ANS:
This is not likely to be a fracture. It is simply the child's epiphyseal plate, which is hyaline cartilage and so appears less dense on the x-ray. PTS: 1
TOP: TUnit 08BCheck EST ANKSYour ELLUnderstanding ER.COM
260. What makes bone hard? A) Silica B) Cartilage C) Calcium and phosphorus D) Blood and marrow ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
261. The hollow space in the middle of bones is filled with _______________. A) air B) bone marrow C) bone cells D) blood ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
262. What kind of cartilage tissue is found supporting the tracheal wall? A) Fibrocartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Hyaline cartilage D) All of the above
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
263. What kind of cartilage tissue forms the epiglottis? A) Elastic cartilage B) Hyaline cartilage C) Fibrocartilage D) A and B ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
264. What kind of cartilage tissue is found in the knee menisci? A) Fibrocartilage B) Elastic cartilage C) Hyaline cartilage D) A and C ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
265. When blood calcium levels decrease below their normal levels, ____________ is released. A) calcitonin B) parathyroid hormone C) testosterone D) osteoblastin ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Medium ESTBANKSELLER.COM TOP: Unit 08 SupplementalTQuestions 266. Bone cells that liquefy bone matrix and release calcium to the blood are called ________. A) marrow cells B) parathyroid cells C) osteoclasts D) osteoblasts ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
267. Which term does not belong to this group? A) Osteoid B) Organic matrix C) Calcium salts D) Osteoblast ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
268. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for bone resorption? A) Osteoblasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteoclasts D) Chondrocytes
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E) Chondroblasts ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
269. Bone is unable to withstand ____________ if the organic component of bone matrix is
removed. A) weight-bearing B) compressive forces C) resorption D) changes in temperature E) bending and twisting forces ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
270. The cells located in bone tissue are known as __________________. A) chondroblasts B) osteocytes C) fibroblasts D) chondrocytes E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
271. The yellow marrow consists of _______________. A) osteoprogenitor cells TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) blood cell progenitor cells C) hyaline cartilage cells D) adipose cells E) spongy bone cells ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
272. Which structures are located at the center of compact bone osteons and carry blood vessels
along the bone length? A) Haversian canals B) Canaliculi C) Perforating canals D) Osteocytes E) Lacunae ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
273. The cell type responsible for maintaining bone matrix after it has formed is known as
_____________________. A) osteoclasts B) chondrocytes C) osteocytes
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D) fibroblasts E) osteoblasts ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
274. Which of the following is not a cranial suture? A) Epiphyseal B) Lambdoidal C) Coronal D) Sagittal E) Squamous ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
275. Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are ____________. A) an indication of microcephaly B) frontal sinuses C) epiphyseal plates D) cribriform plates E) fontanels ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
276. Which of the following bones is not part of the cranium? A) Sphenoid TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Ethmoid C) Palatine D) Occipital E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
277. The “Hunchback” of Notre Dame probably suffered from ____________. A) Cleft palate B) Scoliosis C) Kyphosis D) Lordosis E) Spina bifida ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
278. The thickened cartilage cushions found in the knee that absorb compression are known as the
____________. A) menisci B) bursae C) ligaments D) synovial capsules
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E) B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
279. Which part of the mandible articulates with the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone? A) Mandibular condyle B) Coronoid process C) Frontal process D) A and C E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
280. Which of these statements concerning vertebral column curvatures is correct? A) The cervical curve is a primary curve B) The lumbar curve develops after birth. C) The thoracic curve is a secondary curve. D) The sacral region is concave anteriorly, whereas the coccygeal region is convex
anteriorly. E) All of the above. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
281. Which of the following bones or bone parts articulate with the femur? A) Ischial tuberosity TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Pubis C) Patella D) Tibia E) C and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
282. Which pair of ribs inserts on the sternum at the sternal angle? A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
283. Which bone does not form the oral cavity? A) Mandible B) Vomer C) Maxilla D) Sphenoid E) Palatine
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
284. All of these bony features are near or in the hip joint, EXCEPT the __________. A) acetabulum B) sacral promontory C) greater trochanter D) neck of the femur E) A, B, and D ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
285. Which of these bones is part of the axial skeleton? A) Rib B) Clavicle C) Scapula D) Femur ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
286. A small, flattened articular surface is a __________________. A) crest B) facet C) ramus D) tubercle
ELLE R.COM ANS: B PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Easy TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions 287. A general term for a depression in a bone is _____________. A) foramen B) sinus C) fossa D) fissure ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
288. The dense connective tissue covering the outer surface of the bone diaphysis is known as the
_____________. A) perichondrium B) periosteum C) endosteum D) articular cartilage ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
289. A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would indicate a break in the ___________. A) epiphysis B) metaphysic
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C) diaphysis D) epiphyseal plate ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
290. How many named bones are there in the skeletal system? A) 33 B) 206 C) 639 D) 400 ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
291. Which bones protect the brain? A) Appendicular B) Cranial C) Thoracic D) Facial ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 08 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 09 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines synarthrosis? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) A connective tissue sheath covering a whole muscle C) Immovable joint D) Two or more layers of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines amphiarthrosis? A) Boundary between the cell and the external environment; regulates the movement
of substances in and out of the cell; composed of a phospholipid bilayer and many other components B) Biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) Connective tissue sheath surrounding each fascicle D) Joint that allows some motion ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines diarthrosis? A) Freely movable joint B) Another term for a muscle cell C) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines fibrous? A) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion B) Synarthrotic joints consisting of bones joined by short, connective tissue fibers C) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes D) A connective tissue sheath covering a whole muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines cartilaginous? A) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell B) The end of one bone fits into a “ring” of bone or tissue of another bone, allowing
rotation of the bone about its own axis C) Amphiarthrotic joints consisting of bones united by cartilage rather than fibrous
connective tissue D) Long, filamentous proteins that constitute myofibrils ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines synovial? A) Diarthrotic joints consisting of two bones whose articular ends are covered with
hyaline cartilage; the bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity B) Upward movement of the foot so that it approaches the shin C) Rodlike bundle of contractile filaments found in muscle fibers
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D) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines plane? A) Immovable joint B) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion C) A flat cell with a flattened nucleus D) All of the above are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines hinge? A) Joint that allows some motion B) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils C) A modified smooth endoplasmic reticulum that wraps around the myofibrils and
stores calcium ions D) Joints that allow motion in one plane only ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines pivot? A) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein collagen B) Gives a tissue tensile strength C) The end of one bone fits into a “ring” of bone or tissue of another bone, allowing
rotation of the bone about own TESitsTB ANaxis KSELLER.COM D) Both A and B ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines condyloid? A) An oval articular surface fits into an oval depression in another bone B) Point at which the sarcoplasmic reticulum swells where it meets a T-tubule C) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes D) Joint that allows motion in one plane only ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines saddle? A) Tissue that contains protein fibers as the dominant component; provides strength
for structures that require tensile strength such as tendons, ligaments, joints, and organ capsules B) A joint where the articular surfaces fit together as a saddle C) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces D) A motion that increases the angle between two bones ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines ball and socket? A) Found as part of the basement membrane and in the walls of hollow organs B) Movement of a part in a cone-shaped radius
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C) The end of one bone fits into a “ring” of bone or tissue of another bone, allowing
rotation of the bone about its own axis D) The round head of one bone fits into the socket of another ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines flexion? A) A motion that decreases the angle between two bones B) Provides strength for structures that require tensile strength such as tendons,
ligaments, joints, and organ capsules C) A motion that increases the angle between two bones D) None of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines extension? A) Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body B) A motion that increases the angle between two bones C) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils D) The ability of each muscle to stretch and rotate with each movement ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines abduction? A) Dark regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thick and thin
filaments or thick filaments only B) Movement of a limb away the TESfrom TBAthe NKmidline SELLEofR. CObody M C) Light regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thin
filaments only D) Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines adduction? A) Dark regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thick and thin
filaments or thick filaments only B) Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body C) Light regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thin filaments only D) Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines circumduction? A) Movement of a part in a cone-shaped radius B) A joint where the articular surfaces fit together as a saddle C) Having a striped appearance D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
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18. Which of the following statements accurately defines rotation?
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A) Rotating the radius around the ulna so that the palm faces anteriorly B) Tissue made of long, tubular, and striated muscle fibers with multiple nuclei C) Movement of a bone about its own axis D) Movement of the thumb medially across the surface of the palm ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines inversion? A) Muscle fibers are linked by special junctions called intercalated disks B) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils C) Turning the sole of the foot medially D) Turning the sole of the foot laterally ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines eversion? A) Light regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thin
filaments only B) Turning the sole of the foot laterally C) Dark regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thick and thin filaments or thick filaments only D) Turning the sole of the foot medially ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines plantarflexion? A) Downward movement T ofEthe STfoot BAN(pointing KSELLEtoes) R.COM B) Upward movement of the foot (flexing toes) C) Group of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium D) Rotating the radius around the ulna so the palm faces anteriorly ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. Which of the following statements accurately defines dorsiflexion? A) Turning the sole of the foot medially B) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber C) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction D) Upward movement of the foot so it approaches the shin ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. Which of the following statements accurately defines pronation? A) Turning the sole of the foot medially B) A motion that decreases the angle between two bones C) Rotating the radius around the ulna so that the palm faces posteriorly D) The movable attachment of a muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. Which of the following statements accurately defines supination? A) Turning the sole of the foot medially B) Rotating the radius around the ulna so the palm faces anteriorly
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C) Rotating the radius around the ulna so the palm faces posteriorly D) Movement of the thumb medially across the surface of the palm ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. Which of the following statements accurately defines elevation? A) Lifting a body part superiorly B) Superficial, strap-like muscle on the lateral neck C) The height of a person D) Movement of the thumb medially across the surface of the palm ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. Which of the following statements accurately defines depression? A) A medical anomaly that causes a person to decrease in height over time B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) Moving a body part inferiorly D) Movement of the thumb medially across the surface of the palm ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. Which of the following statements accurately defines opposition? A) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers B) A connective tissue sheath covering a whole muscle C) Moving a body part inferiorly D) Movement of the thumb medially across the surface of the palm ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 9.1 Structure of a basic synovial joint. 28. In Figure 9.1, identify number 1. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur
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E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 9.1, identify number 2. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 9.1, identify number 3. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: C
PTS: 1
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31. In Figure 9.1, identify number 4. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 9.1, identify number 5. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: G
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 9.1, identify number 6. A) Articular cartilage
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B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: A
PTS: 1
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34. In Figure 9.1, identify number 7. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Femur E) Joint capsule F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Synovial membrane ANS: B
PTS: 1
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Figure 9.2A Knee joint: anterior view. 35. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 1. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Lateral femoral condyle C) Lateral meniscus D) Medial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Medial femoral condyle
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
36. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 2. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral collateral ligament D) Medial femoral condyle E) Lateral femoral condyle F) Medial meniscus G) Patellar ligament ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 3. A) Fibular collateral ligament B) Tibial collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Medial femoral condyle E) Patella F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 4. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibial collateral ligament TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Fibula D) Lateral meniscus E) Medial femoral condyle F) Patellar ligament G) Fibular collateral ligament ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 5. A) Articular cartilage B) Tibial collateral ligament C) Fibula D) Lateral meniscus E) Medial femoral condyle F) Patellar ligament G) Fibular collateral ligament ANS: C
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 6. A) Fibular collateral ligament B) Fibula C) Lateral meniscus D) Medial meniscus
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E) Lateral femoral condyle F) Posterior cruciate ligament G) Medial femoral condyle ANS: G
PTS: 1
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41. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 7. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Femur D) Lateral femoral condyle E) Medial femoral condyle F) Tibial collateral ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 8. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Medial meniscus C) Lateral femoral condyle D) Lateral meniscus E) Medial femoral condyle F) Tibial collateral ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: F
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43. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 9. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Medial meniscus C) Lateral femoral condyle D) Lateral meniscus E) Medial femoral condyle F) Tibial collateral ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 10. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Femur C) Fibula D) Lateral femoral condyle E) Fibular collateral ligament F) Patella G) Tibia ANS: G
PTS: 1
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45. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 11. A) Anterior cruciate ligament
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B) Lateral femoral condyle C) Lateral meniscus D) Medial femoral condyle E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 12. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Quadriceps femoris tendon (cut) C) Lateral femoral condyle D) Medial meniscus E) Patella F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 9.2A, identify number 13. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Quadriceps femoris tendon (cut) C) Lateral meniscus D) Medial meniscus E) Patella F) Patellar ligament TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 9.2B Knee joint: midsagittal section. 48. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 1. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Femur C) Patella
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D) Patellar ligament E) Posterior cruciate ligament F) Quadriceps femoris tendon G) Tibia ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 2. A) Joint capsule B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Posterior cruciate ligament E) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa F) Suprapatellar bursa G) Joint cavity with synovial fluid ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 3. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Infrapatellar fat pad C) Lateral meniscus D) Patella E) Patellar ligament F) Posterior cruciate ligament G) Quadriceps femoris tendon ANS: F
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51. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 4. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Infrapatellar fat pad C) Lateral meniscus D) Patellar ligament E) Posterior cruciate ligament F) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa G) Quadriceps femoris tendon ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 5. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Lateral meniscus E) Patellar ligament F) Posterior cruciate ligament G) Joint cavity with synovial fluid ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 6.
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A) Deep infrapatellar bursa B) Femur C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Patella E) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa F) Quadriceps femoris tendon G) Tibia ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 7. A) Joint capsule B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Posterior cruciate ligament E) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa F) Suprapatellar bursa G) Joint cavity with synovial fluid ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
55. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 8. A) Infrapatellar fat pad B) Lateral meniscus C) Patellar ligament D) Posterior cruciate ligament E) Suprapatellar bursa TESfluid TBANKSELLER.COM F) Joint cavity with synovial G) Quadriceps femoris tendon ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 9. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Femur C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Patella E) Patellar ligament F) Quadriceps femoris tendon G) Tibia ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 10. A) Joint capsule B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Lateral meniscus E) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa F) Suprapatellar bursa G) Joint cavity with synovial fluid
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 11. A) Joint capsule B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Patellar ligament E) Suprapatellar bursa F) Joint cavity with synovial fluid G) Quadriceps femoris tendon ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 12. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Lateral meniscus E) Patellar ligament F) Posterior cruciate ligament G) Joint cavity with synovial fluid ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
60. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 13. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Lateral meniscus E) Patellar ligament F) Posterior cruciate ligament G) Joint cavity with synovial fluid ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
61. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 14. A) Joint capsule B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Lateral meniscus E) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa F) Suprapatellar bursa G) Quadriceps femoris tendon ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
62. In Figure 9.2B, identify number 15. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Deep infrapatellar bursa C) Infrapatellar fat pad D) Lateral meniscus E) Patellar ligament
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F) Posterior cruciate ligament G) Subcutaneous prepatellar bursa ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 9.3A Shoulder joint: anterior view of the joint capsule. 63. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 1. A) Coracoid process B) Subscapular bursa TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Acromion D) Subacromial bursa ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
64. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 2. A) Coracoid process B) Subscapular bursa C) Acromion D) Subacromial bursa ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
65. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 3. A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Tendon of the subscapularis muscle C) Coracoacromial ligament D) Tranverse humeral ligament ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
66. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 4. A) Joint capsule reinforced by glenohumeral ligaments B) Tendon sheath C) Scapula
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D) Greater tubercle of humerus ANS: D
PTS: 1
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67. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 5. A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Transverse humeral ligament C) Tendon sheath D) Tendon of long head of biceps brachii muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
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68. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 6. A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Tendon of the subscapularis muscle C) Tendon sheath D) Tendon of long head of biceps brachii muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 7. A) Tendon sheath B) Coracohumeral ligament C) Tendon of long head of biceps brachii muscle D) Joint capsule reinforced by glenohumeral ligaments ANS: C
PTS: 1
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TEST8.BANKSELLER.COM 70. In Figure 9.3A, identify number A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Tendon of the subscapularis muscle C) Coracoacromial ligament D) Tranverse humeral ligament ANS: C
PTS: 1
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71. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 9. A) Acromion B) Coracoid process C) Scapula D) Joint capsule reinforced by glenohumeral ligaments ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
72. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 10. A) Joint capsule reinforced by glenohumeral ligaments B) Tendon sheath C) Scapula D) Greater tubercle of humerus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
73. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 11.
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A) Coracoid process B) Subscapular bursa C) Acromion D) Subacromial bursa ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
74. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 12. A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Tendon of the subscapularis muscle C) Coracoacromial ligament D) Tranverse humeral ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
75. In Figure 9.3A, identify number 13. A) Joint capsule reinforced by glenohumeral ligaments B) Tendon sheath C) Scapula D) Greater tubercle of humerus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 9.3B Shoulder joint: posterior view of the musculature. 76. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 1. A) Subacromial bursa B) Acromion C) Clavicle D) Scapula ANS: C
PTS: 1
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77. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 2. A) Subacromial bursa B) Acromion C) Clavicle D) Scapula ANS: B
PTS: 1
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78. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 3. A) Subacromial bursa B) Acromion C) Clavicle D) Scapula ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
79. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 4. A) Tendon of teres minor muscle B) Tendon of infraspinatus muscle C) Tendon of subscapularis muscle D) Tendon of supraspinatus muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
80. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 5. A) Tendon of teres minor muscle B) Tendon of infraspinatus muscle C) Tendon of subscapularis TEmuscle STBANKSELLER.COM D) Tendon of supraspinatus muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
81. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 6. A) Tendon of teres minor muscle B) Tendon of infraspinatus muscle C) Tendon of subscapularis muscle D) Tendon of supraspinatus muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
82. In Figure 9.3B, identify number 7. A) Subacromial bursa B) Acromion C) Clavicle D) Scapula ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Pre-Lab Exercise
83. An amphiarthrosis is defined as a A) joint that allows no motion. B) joint that is freely moveable. C) joint with multiple axes of motion. D) joint that allows some motion.
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
84. The main function of a fibrous joint is to A) allow motion to occur between two bones. B) provide stability between two bones. C) unite two bones with cartilage. D) allow some motion while still providing stability between two bones. E) unite two bones with a synovial cavity. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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85. Synovial joints are surrounded by a/an _______________________, and filled
with_______________________. A) articular disc; serous fluid B) joint capsule; synovial fluid C) articular cartilage; serous fluid D) articular disc; synovial fluid ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
86. Which of the following describes a hinge joint correctly? A) The convex articular surface of one bone fits into a concave articular surface of
another bone. B) One bone rotates around another bone. C) The flat articular surfaces of two bones glide past one another. D) The rounded, ball-like end of one bone fits into a concave depression of another
bone. ANS: A
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87. Which of the following statements accurately defines nonaxial joint? A) Joint in which the bones do not move around an axis B) Joint in which the bones move around multiple axes C) Joint in which the bones move around two axes D) Joint in which the bones move around a single axis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
88. Which of the following statements accurately defines uniaxial joint? A) Joint in which the bones move around multiple axes B) Joint in which the bones move around two axes C) Joint in which the bones do not move around an axis D) Joint in which the bones move around a single axis ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
89. Which of the following statements accurately defines biaxial joint? A) Joint in which the bones move around a single axis B) Joint in which the bones do not move around an axis C) Joint in which the bones move around multiple axes D) Joint in which the bones move around two axes
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
90. Which of the following statements accurately defines multiaxial joint? A) Joint in which the bones move around two axes B) Joint in which the bones move around multiple axes C) Joint in which the bones do not move around an axis D) Joint in which the bones move around a single axis ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
91. Which of the following correctly describes a pivot joint? A) The convex articular surface of one bone fits into a concave articular surface of
another bone. B) One bone rotates around another bone. C) The flat articular surfaces of two bones glide past one another. D) The rounded, ball-like end of one bone fits into a concave depression of another
bone. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
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Figure 9.9 Knee joint. 92. In Figure 9.9, identify number 1. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
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93. In Figure 9.9, identify number 2. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
94. In Figure 9.9, identify number 3. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
95. In Figure 9.9, identify number 4. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: G
PTS: 1
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96. In Figure 9.9, identify number 5. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
97. In Figure 9.9, identify number 6. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus
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F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: E
PTS: 1
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98. In Figure 9.9, identify number 7. A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Fibular collateral ligament C) Lateral meniscus D) Tibial collateral ligament E) Medial meniscus F) Patellar ligament G) Posterior cruciate ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Figure 9.10 Shoulder joint: (A) lateral view; (B) anterior view; (C) posterior view. 99. In Figure 9.10, identify number 1. A) Biceps brachii tendon B) Subscapularis tendon C) Supraspinatus tendon D) Joint capsule
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E) Glenoid labrum F) Coracohumeral ligament G) Infraspinatus tendon ANS: D
PTS: 1
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100. In Figure 9.10, identify number 2. A) Teres minor tendon B) Glenoid labrum C) Infraspinatus tendon D) Biceps brachii tendon E) Joint capsule F) Subscapularis tendon G) Coracohumeral ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
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101. In Figure 9.10, identify number 3. A) Joint capsule B) Teres minor tendon C) Glenoid labrum D) Subscapularis tendon E) Coracohumeral ligament F) Biceps brachii tendon G) Supraspinatus tendon ANS: E
PTS: 1
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102. In Figure 9.10, identify number 4. A) Supraspinatus tendon B) Teres minor tendon C) Biceps brachii tendon D) Coracohumeral ligament E) Infraspinatus tendon F) Subscapularis tendon G) Glenoid labrum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
103. In Figure 9.10, identify number 5. A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Joint capsule C) Supraspinatus tendon D) Infraspinatus tendon E) Biceps brachii tendon F) Subscapularis tendon G) Teres minor tendon ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
104. In Figure 9.10, identify number 6. A) Subscapularis tendon
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B) Glenoid labrum C) Supraspinatus tendon D) Coracohumeral ligament E) Infraspinatus tendon F) Teres minor tendon G) Biceps brachii tendon ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
105. In Figure 9.10, identify number 7. A) Biceps brachii tendon B) Teres minor tendon C) Joint capsule D) Infraspinatus tendon E) Supraspinatus tendon F) Coracohumeral ligament G) Subscapularis tendon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
106. In Figure 9.10, identify number 8. A) Supraspinatus tendon B) Glenoid labrum C) Infraspinatus tendon D) Biceps brachii tendon E) Subscapularis tendon F) Teres minor tendon TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Coracohumeral ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
107. Which of the following statements accurately describes flexion? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Movement around a central axis C) Turning the palm over to face down D) Decreasing the angle between two bones E) Movement of a body part away from the midline F) Increasing the angle between two bones G) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg H) Movement in a circle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
108. Which of the following statements accurately describes circumduction? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Movement around a central axis C) Decreasing the angle between two bones D) Movement of a body part away from the midline E) Increasing the angle between two bones F) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg G) Movement in a circle
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
109. Which of the following statements accurately describes adduction? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Movement around a central axis C) Turning the palm over to face down D) Movement of a body part away from the midline E) Increasing the angle between two bones F) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg G) Movement in a circle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
110. Which of the following statements accurately describes extension? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Turning the palm over to face down C) Decreasing the angle between two bones D) Movement of a body part away from the midline E) Increasing the angle between two bones F) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg G) Movement in a circle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
111. Which of the following statements accurately describes dorsiflexion? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Turning the palm over to face down TESTBtwo ANK SELLER.COM C) Decreasing the angle between bones D) Movement of a body part away from the midline E) Increasing the angle between two bones F) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg G) Movement in a circle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
112. Which of the following statements accurately describes abduction? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Movement around a central axis C) Decreasing the angle between two bones D) Movement of a body part away from the midline E) Increasing the angle between two bones F) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg G) Movement in a circle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
113. Which of the following statements accurately describes rotation? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Movement around a central axis C) Turning the palm over to face down D) Decreasing the angle between two bones E) Movement of a body part away from the midline
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F) Increasing the angle between two bones G) Movement in a circle ANS: B
PTS: 1
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114. Which of the following statements accurately describes pronation? A) Movement of a body part toward the midline B) Movement around a central axis C) Turning the palm over to face down D) Decreasing the angle between two bones E) Movement of a body part away from the midline F) Increasing the angle between two bones G) Movement of the ankle that decreases the angle between the foot and leg ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
115. True or False? The articulating ends of the bones in a synovial joint are covered by a articular
cartilage. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
116. True or False? Bursae improve the fit between two bones in a synovial joint. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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117. True or False? The joint capsule of a synovial joint is lined with a synovial membrane. ANS: T
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.09 COCheck M Your Recall
118. True or False? Articular discs provide a smooth, nearly frictionless surface for articulation. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
119. True or False? Fluid-filled sacs called ligaments often lie between tendons and the joint
capsule of a synovial joint. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Recall
120. How would the function of synovial joints be changed if they lacked joint cavities? Explain. ANS:
The main function of synovial joints is to allow an increased range of motion. The joint cavity is a structure that enables the synovial joint to perform this function; were the bones instead united, as in fibrous or cartilaginous joints, they wouldn't have the same range of motion and wouldn't be able to perform their primary function. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
121. Could a fibrous joint perform its functions if it were a diarthrosis? Explain your reasoning. ANS:
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The primary function of a fibrous joint is to provide stability between two bones. A diarthrosis is a freely moveable joint and so has very little stability. A fibrous joint that was a diarthrosis could therefore not effectively perform its function. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
122. Which class of synovial joint do you think would be the most stable? Which class would be
the least stable? Explain your choices. ANS:
Joints with the least motion tend to be the most stable, and those with the most motion are the least stable. Plane joints should therefore be the most stable, as they have the smallest range of motion, and ball-and-socket joints should be the least stable, as they have the greatest range of motion. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
123. In the condition synovitis the synovial membrane secretes excess synovial fluid. How might
this affect the function of a synovial joint? ANS:
Excess synovial fluid fills the joint cavity and decreases the range of motion of the joint. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
124. Your friend is on the basketball court when she is pushed over the leg of a fallen player and
lands on the court on her bent knee. She tries to get up, but immediately realizes something is TEher STknee BANand KSEfinds LLEexcessive R.COM motion with the posterior drawer wrong. The trainer examines test. What has happened? Explain the results of the posterior drawer test. ANS:
She has likely injured her posterior cruciate ligament. The posterior drawer test is positive because the tibia is being allowed to move too far posteriorly on the femur. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
125. When the shoulder joint dislocates, it most commonly dislocates posteriorly, meaning that the
joint capsule tears on the posterior side and the head of the humerus pushes partly out through the capsule. Why do you think the posterior capsule more commonly tears? (Hint: Consider the structure of the capsule and look at the ligaments of the shoulder joint.) ANS:
The majority of the ligaments that reinforce the articular capsule of the shoulder joint are found on the anterior side, which makes the anterior side of the capsule much stronger. The posterior side is therefore more likely to tear, and if the humeral head dislocates from the glenoid cavity, it tends to do so from the posterior side of the articular capsule. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
126. Compare and contrast circumduction and rotation.
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ANS:
Rotation is the twisting movement of a bone around its own axis, whereas circumduction is the movement of a bone through multiple axes in a circular motion. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
127. Give examples of joints where both circumduction and rotation can occur. ANS:
Circumduction and rotation can occur in the shoulder and hip joints. PTS: 1
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128. Give examples of joints where circumduction but not rotation can occur. ANS:
Circumduction can occur in the metacarpophalangeal joints, but they cannot undergo rotation. PTS: 1
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129. Give examples of joints where rotation but not circumduction can occur. ANS:
The atlantoaxial joint can undergo rotation, but it cannot undergo circumduction. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 09 Check Your Understanding
130. The ligament located on the the TEposterior STBANaspect KSELofLE R.knee COMjoint is the _____________. A) fibular collateral B) tibial collateral C) patellar ligament D) posterior cruciate E) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
131. Which of the following is correlated with gouty arthritis of the joints? A) High levels of antibodies B) Hyperuricemia C) Hypouricemia D) Hammertoe E) A and C ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
132. Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion? A) Wrist B) Shoulder C) Elbow D) Hip
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E) B and C ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
133. What is gliding? A) Turning the foot medially B) Lifting or raising a body part, such as moving the shoulders C) Slight displacement or slipping of bones that might occur between the carpals of
the wrist D) Moving the hand into a palm-up or forward position E) Common angular movements ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
134. Hip and shoulder joints are classified as ____________ joints. A) hinge B) pivot C) ball-and-socket D) saddle E) plane ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
135. Describe the characteristics of hinge joints. A) The elbow is an example. ESTfits BAinto NKSconcave ELLERsurface .COMof another bone. B) Convex surface of oneTbone C) Uniaxial. D) All of the above. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
136. What type of joint normally allows for multiaxial movement? A) Gliding B) Hinge C) Ball-and-socket D) Pivot E) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
137. The only movement allowed in a pivot joint is ______________________. A) flexion B) biaxial movement C) extension D) uniaxial rotation E) B and D ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Hard
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TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions 138. An immovable joint found only between skull bones is known as a _____________. A) suture B) fontanel C) condyle D) foramen E) fissure ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
139. Bending of the elbow occurs at a _______ joint and exhibits a _____________ movement. A) pivot, rotational B) ball-and-socket, adduction C) hinge, flexion D) plane, inversion E) gliding, inversion ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
140. The cruciate ligaments of the knee ______________________. A) tend to run parallel to each other B) are also termed collateral ligaments C) prevent hyperextension of the knee D) allow for 360 degrees range of motion of the knee joint E) B and C TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
141. When a ballerina points her toes toward the floor, this is known as _____________. A) dorsiflexion B) plantar flexion C) circumduction D) pronation E) sole hyperflexion ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
142. Turning the sole of one's foot medially occurs at a _________ joint and exhibits a
_____________ movement. A) pivot, rotational B) ball-and-socket, adduction C) hinge, flexion D) plane, inversion E) hinge, hyperflexion ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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143. The term “double-jointed” refers to ________________________________. A) circumduction B) individuals who have an abnormally large range of motion in a joint C) a weakness in the ligaments surrounding the joint D) the presence of a second joint E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
144. Examples of angular movements include __________________________________. A) rotation of the head and neck B) pronation and supination C) supination only D) extension and flexion at the knee E) A and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
145. The type of joint distinguished by having a fluid-filled joint cavity is a _____________ joint. A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial D) suture ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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146. A ______________ is a type of cushioning joint that allows limited movement and is found
both in the pubic symphysis and in intervertebral disks. A) gomphosis B) symphysis C) synchondrosis D) syndesmosis ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
147. An epiphyseal plate is which type of joint, even though it is temporary? A) suture B) symphysis C) synchondrosis D) syndesmosis ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
148. Within certain synovial joints, the fibrocartilaginous pads that cushion and guide the
articulating bones are called ________________________. A) articular cartilages B) bursae
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C) synovial membranes D) menisci ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
149. ____________ joints are capable of only side-to-side and back-and-forth movements, with
little to no rotation. A) Hinge B) Gliding C) Pivoting D) Condyloid ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
150. Which of the following is TRUE? A) Articular cartilage can be either hyaline or elastic cartilage. B) Synovial fluid is formed from blood. C) Ligaments are found only in symphyses. D) Synovial joints never contain hyaline cartilage. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
151. The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a __________________. A) condyloid joint B) hinge joint TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) pivot joint D) synarthrotic joint ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
152. As joint activity increases, the viscosity of synovial fluid will ________________. A) increase B) decrease C) increase and decrease D) stay the same ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
153. Which of the following does NOT describe synovial joints? A) Bones held together by cartilage B) Joint surfaces covered with articulating cartilage C) Presence of a joint cavity D) Double-layered joint capsule ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
154. Plane joints allow _______________.
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A) pronation B) flexion C) rotation D) gliding ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
155. Which structure(s) is/are located outside of the synovial joint's articular capsule? A) Bursae B) Articular cartilage C) Tendon sheath D) Capsular ligaments E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
156. Joints that contain fibrocartilage include the ________________. A) symphysis pubis B) knee C) acromioclavicular D) atlanto-occipital E) A and B ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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157. The temporomandibular joint is capable of what kind of movement? A) Elevation B) Protraction C) Hyperextension D) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
158. Synovial fluid ________________. A) is similar to blood plasma without the proteins B) is secreted by the synovial membrane C) thickens as it warms D) nourishes and lubricates E) A, B, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
159. Cartilaginous joints include _______________. A) syndesmoses B) symphyses C) synostoses D) synchondroses
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E) B and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 09 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 10 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines origin? A) Event in which the resting membrane potential becomes more negative than it is
normally at rest because of the continued outward flow of cations B) A connective tissue sheath covering a whole muscle C) An oval articular surface fits into an oval depression in another bone D) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines insertion? A) Freely movable joint B) The movable attachment of a muscle C) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber D) Junction between neurons and target cells ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines muscle action? A) The resulting movement of a muscle contraction B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) Another term for a muscle cell D) The movable attachment of a muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 10.1A Human musculature: anterior view. 4. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 1. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oris muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 2. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oris muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle
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E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 3. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oris muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 4. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oris muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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8. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 5. A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Sartorius muscle D) External oblique muscle E) Pectoralis major muscle F) Serratus anterior muscle G) Rectus abdominis muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 6. A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) External oblique muscle D) Pectoralis major muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Rectus abdominis muscle G) Sartorius muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 7. A) Brachialis muscle
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B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Rectus sheath D) Pectoralis major muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Rectus abdominis muscle G) Sartorius muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 8. A) External oblique muscle B) Flexor retinaculum muscle C) Pectineus muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Rectus sheath F) Tensor fasciae latae muscle G) Sartorius muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 9. A) External oblique muscle B) Flexor retinaculum muscle C) Pectineus muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Rectus sheath F) Tensor fasciae latae muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Sartorius muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 10. A) Fibularis longus muscle B) Gastrocnemius muscle C) Gracilis muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Soleus muscle F) Tibialis anterior muscle G) Vastus medialis muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 11. A) Fibularis brevis muscle B) Fibularis longus muscle C) Tibialis anterior muscle D) Gracilis muscle E) Gastrocnemius muscle F) Soleus G) Rectus femoris muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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15. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 12. A) Fibularis longus muscle B) Gracilis muscle C) Rectus femoris muscle D) Soleus muscle E) Gastrocnemius muscle F) Tibialis anterior muscle G) Vastus medialis muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 13. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oris muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 14. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oris muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 15. A) Deltoid muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oculi muscle D) Pectoralis major muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Trapezius muscle G) Zygomaticus muscles ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 16. A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Deltoid muscle D) Masseter muscle E) Pectoralis major muscle
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F) Serratus anterior muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 17. A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Deltoid muscle D) Masseter muscle E) Pectoralis major muscle F) Serratus anterior muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 18. A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Deltoid muscle D) Masseter muscle E) Pectoralis major muscle F) Serratus anterior muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 10.1A, identify number TESTB19. ANKSELLER.COM A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) External oblique muscle D) Pectoralis major muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Rectus abdominis muscle G) Umbilicus muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 20. A) Brachialis muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) External oblique muscle D) Pectoralis major muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Rectus abdominis muscle G) Sartorius muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 21. A) Sartorius muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle
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C) Brachialis muscle D) Brachioradialis muscle E) Flexor carpi radialis muscle F) Flexor retinaculum muscle G) Palmaris longus muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 22. A) Sartorius muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Brachialis muscle D) Brachioradialis muscle E) Flexor carpi radialis muscle F) Flexor retinaculum muscle G) Palmaris longus muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 23. A) Sartorius muscle B) Biceps brachii muscle C) Brachialis muscle D) Brachioradialis muscle E) Flexor carpi radialis muscle F) Flexor retinaculum muscle G) Palmaris longus muscle
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 24. A) External oblique muscle B) Flexor retinaculum muscle C) Gracilis muscle D) Pectineus muscle E) Rectus abdominis muscle F) Rectus sheath G) Tensor fasciae latae muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 25. A) Adductor longus muscle B) Gracilis muscle C) Pectineus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Sartorius muscle F) Tensor fasciae latae muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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29. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 26. A) Adductor longus muscle B) Gracilis muscle C) Pectineus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Sartorius muscle F) Tensor fasciae latae muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 27. A) Adductor longus muscle B) Gracilis muscle C) Pectineus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Sartorius muscle F) Tensor fasciae latae muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 28. A) Extensor digitorum longus muscle B) Sartorius muscle C) Fibularis longus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Tibialis anterior muscle F) Vastus lateralis muscle G) Vastus medialis muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 29. A) Extensor digitorum longus muscle B) Sartorius muscle C) Fibularis longus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Tibialis anterior muscle F) Vastus lateralis muscle G) Vastus medialis muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
33. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 30. A) Extensor digitorum longus muscle B) Sartorius muscle C) Fibularis longus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Tibialis anterior muscle F) Vastus lateralis muscle
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G) Vastus medialis muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 10.1A, identify number 31. A) Extensor digitorum longus muscle B) Fibularis brevis muscle C) Fibularis longus muscle D) Rectus femoris muscle E) Tibialis anterior muscle F) Vastus lateralis muscle G) Vastus medialis muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 10.1B Human musculature: posterior view.
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35. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 1. A) External abdominal oblique muscle B) Infraspinatus muscle C) Latissimus dorsi muscle D) Occipitalis muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Teres minor muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
36. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 2. A) External abdominal oblique muscle B) Latissimus dorsi muscle C) Occipitalis muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Teres major muscle F) Teres minor muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 3. A) Infraspinatus muscle B) Latissimus dorsi muscle C) Occipitalis muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Teres major muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Teres minor muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 4. A) External oblique muscle B) Infraspinatus muscle C) Latissimus dorsi muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Teres major muscle F) Teres minor muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 5. A) External oblique muscle B) Infraspinatus muscle C) Latissimus dorsi muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Teres major muscle F) Teres minor muscle
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G) Trapezius muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 6. A) External oblique muscle B) Infraspinatus muscle C) Latissimus dorsi muscle D) Occipitalis muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Teres major muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 7. A) External oblique muscle B) Infraspinatus muscle C) Latissimus dorsi muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Teres major muscle F) Teres minor muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 8. A) Adductor magnus muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Gluteus maximus muscle C) Gluteus medius muscle D) Gracilis muscle E) Lateral head of gastrocnemius muscle F) Semitendinosus muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 9. A) Adductor magnus muscle B) Gluteus maximus muscle C) Gluteus medius muscle D) Gracilis muscle E) Semitendinosus muscle F) Short head of biceps femoris muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 10. A) Adductor magnus muscle B) Gluteus maximus muscle C) Gluteus medius muscle
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D) Gracilis muscle E) Long head of biceps femoris muscle F) Semimembranosus muscle G) Semitendinosus muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 11. A) Adductor magnus muscle B) Gluteus medius muscle C) Gracilis muscle D) Lateral head of gastrocnemius muscle E) Medial head of gastrocnemius muscle F) Semimembranosus muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 12. A) Adductor magnus muscle B) Lateral head of gastrocnemius muscle C) Long head of biceps femoris muscle D) Medial head of gastrocnemius muscle E) Semimembranosus muscle F) Semitendinosus muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: E
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.10 COPre-Lab M
47. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 13. A) External abdominal oblique muscle B) Infraspinatus muscle C) Latissimus dorsi muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Teres major muscle F) Teres minor muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 14. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Deltoid muscle C) Biceps femoris muscle D) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle E) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle F) Long head of triceps brachii muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 15.
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A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Deltoid muscle C) Dorsal interosseous muscle D) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle E) Long head of triceps brachii muscle F) Medial head of triceps brachii muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 16. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Dorsal interosseous muscle C) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle D) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle E) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle F) Long head of triceps brachii muscle G) Medial head of triceps brachii muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 17. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle C) Extensor digitorum muscle D) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle E) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle TESTmuscle BANKSELLER.COM F) Long head of triceps brachii G) Medial head of triceps brachii muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 18. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Dorsal interosseous muscle C) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle D) Biceps femoris muscle E) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle F) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle G) Medial head of triceps brachii muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 19. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Dorsal interosseous muscle C) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle D) Extensor digitorum muscle E) Biceps femoris muscle F) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle G) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 20. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Dorsal interosseous muscle C) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle D) Extensor digitorum muscle E) Biceps femoris muscle F) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle G) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
55. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 21. A) Brachioradialis muscle B) Dorsal interosseous muscle C) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle D) Extensor digitorum muscle E) Biceps femoris muscle F) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle G) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 22. A) Deltoid muscle B) Dorsal interosseous muscle ESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Extensor carpi ulnaris T muscle D) Extensor digitorum muscle E) Biceps femoris muscle F) Long head of triceps brachii muscle G) Medial head of triceps brachii muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 23. A) Semitendinosus muscle B) Extensor carpi ulnaris muscle C) Extensor digitorum muscle D) Biceps femoris muscle E) Flexor carpi ulnaris muscle F) Lateral head of triceps brachii muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 24. A) Adductor magnus muscle B) Lateral head of gastrocnemius muscle C) Long head of biceps femoris muscle D) Medial head of gastrocnemius muscle E) Semitendinosus muscle
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F) Short head of biceps femoris muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 25. A) Adductor magnus muscle B) Gracilis muscle C) Lateral head of gastrocnemius muscle D) Popliteal fossa E) Semimembranosus muscle F) Short head of biceps femoris muscle G) Vastus lateralis muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
60. In Figure 10.1B, identify number 26. A) Lateral head of gastrocnemius muscle B) Long head of biceps femoris muscle C) Medial head of gastrocnemius muscle D) Popliteal fossa E) Semitendinosus muscle F) Soleus muscle G) Tendo calcaneus (Achilles tendon) ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 10.1C Human musculature: lateral view of the head and neck. 61. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 1. A) Buccinator muscle B) Frontalis muscle C) Occipitalis muscle D) Orbicularis oris muscle
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E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Temporalis muscle G) Risorius muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
62. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 2. A) Frontalis muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Occipitalis muscle D) Sternocleidomastoid muscle E) Temporalis muscle F) Risorius muscle G) Zygomaticus major muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
63. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 3. A) Buccinator muscle B) Frontalis muscle C) Masseter muscle D) Occipitalis muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Temporalis muscle G) Risorius muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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64. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 4. A) Frontalis muscle B) Platysma muscle C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle D) Temporalis muscle E) Risorius muscle F) Zygomaticus major muscle G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
65. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 5. A) Buccinator muscle B) Frontalis muscle C) Masseter muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Orbicularis oris muscle F) Platysma muscle G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
66. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 6. A) Buccinator muscle
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B) Frontalis muscle C) Masseter muscle D) Orbicularis oculi muscle E) Platysma muscle F) Sternocleidomastoid muscle G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
67. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 7. A) Buccinator muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oculi muscle D) Orbicularis oris muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Temporalis muscle G) Zygomaticus major muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
68. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 8. A) Buccinator muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Occipitalis muscle D) Orbicularis oris muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Zygomaticus major muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
69. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 9. A) Buccinator muscle B) Masseter muscle C) Orbicularis oculi muscle D) Orbicularis oris muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Zygomaticus major muscle G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
70. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 10. A) Masseter muscle B) Occipitalis muscle C) Orbicularis oculi muscle D) Orbicularis oris muscle E) Temporalis muscle F) Zygomaticus major muscle G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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71. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 11. A) Buccinator muscle B) Frontalis muscle C) Masseter muscle D) Occipitalis muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Temporalis muscle G) Zygomaticus major muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
72. In Figure 10.1C, identify number 12. A) Buccinator muscle B) Platysma muscle C) Orbicularis oculi muscle D) Orbicularis oris muscle E) Sternocleidomastoid muscle F) Risorius muscle G) Zygomaticus minor muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 10.1D Human musculature: abdominal muscles. 73. In Figure 10.1D, identify number 1. A) External oblique muscle B) Internal oblique muscle C) Pectoralis major muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Transversus abdominis muscle G) Trapezius muscle
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
74. In Figure 10.1D, identify number 2. A) External oblique muscle B) Internal oblique muscle C) Pectoralis major muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Transversus abdominis muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
75. In Figure 10.1D, identify number 3. A) External oblique muscle B) Internal oblique muscle C) Pectoralis major muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Transversus abdominis muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
76. In Figure 10.1D, identify number 4. A) External oblique muscle B) Internal oblique muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Pectoralis major muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Transversus abdominis muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
77. In Figure 10.1D, identify number 5. A) External oblique muscle B) Internal oblique muscle C) Pectoralis major muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Transversus abdominis muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
78. In Figure 10.1D, identify number 6. A) External oblique muscle B) Internal oblique muscle C) Pectoralis major muscle D) Rectus abdominis muscle
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E) Serratus anterior muscle F) Transversus abdominis muscle G) Trapezius muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 10.1E Human musculature: posterior torso. 79. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 1. A) Scapular spine B) Rhomboid minor muscle C) Trapezius muscle D) Erector spinae muscle group ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
80. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 2. A) Erector spinae muscle group B) Scapular spine C) Rhomboid minor muscle D) Trapezius muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
81. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 3. A) Triceps brachii muscle B) Deltoid muscle C) Rhomboid major muscle
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D) Teres major muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
82. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 4. A) Triceps brachii muscle B) Teres minor muscle C) Teres major muscle D) Rhomboid minor muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
83. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 5. A) External oblique muscle B) Latissimus dorsi muscle C) Thoracolumbar fascia D) Gluteus medius muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
84. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 6. A) External oblique muscle B) Latissimus dorsi muscle (cut and reflected) C) Thoracolumbar fascia D) Erector spinae muscle group ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTB7.ANKSELLER.COM 85. In Figure 10.1E, identify number A) Latissimus dorsi muscle (cut and reflected) B) Internal oblique muscle C) Gluteus medius muscle D) Gluteus maximus muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
86. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 8. A) External oblique muscle B) Erector spinae muscle group C) Gluteus medius muscle D) Gluteus maximus muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
87. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 9. A) Rhomboid major muscle B) Rhomboid minor muscle C) Trapezius muscle D) Teres major muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
88. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 10.
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A) Triceps brachii muscle B) Deltoid muscle C) Rhomboid major muscle D) Rhomboid minor muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
89. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 11. A) Triceps brachii muscle B) Rhomboid major muscle C) Teres major muscle D) Rhomboid minor muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
90. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 12. A) Trapezius muscle B) Erector spinae muscle group C) Rhomboid major muscle D) Rhomboid minor muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
91. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 13. A) Latissimus dorsi muscle (cut and reflected) B) Iliocostalis muscle C) Spinalis muscle D) Erector spinae muscle T group ESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
92. In Figure 10.1E, identify number 14. A) External oblique muscle B) Latissimus dorsi muscle (cut and reflected) C) Thoracolumbar fascia D) Erector spinae muscle group ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Pre-Lab Exercise
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 10.24 Facial musculature, anterior and lateral views. 93. In Figure 10.24, identify number 1. A) Buccinator m. B) Frontalis m. C) Masseter m. D) Platysma m. E) Orbicularis oculi m. F) Orbicularis oris m. G) Temporalis m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
94. In Figure 10.24, identify number 2. A) Buccinator m. B) Frontalis m. C) Masseter m. D) Platysma m. E) Orbicularis oculi m. F) Orbicularis oris m. G) Zygomaticus major m.
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
95. In Figure 10.24, identify number 3. A) Buccinator m. B) Masseter m. C) Risorius m. D) Orbicularis oris m. E) Sternocleidomastoid m. F) Temporalis m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
96. In Figure 10.24, identify number 4. A) Buccinator m. B) Zygomaticus minor m. C) Masseter m. D) Risorius m. E) Sternocleidomastoid m. F) Temporalis m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
97. In Figure 10.24, identify number 5. A) Frontalis m. B) Masseter m. TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Risorius m. D) Orbicularis oculi m. E) Orbicularis oris m. F) Temporalis m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
98. In Figure 10.24, identify number 6. A) Buccinator m. B) Risorius m. C) Orbicularis oculi m. D) Orbicularis oris m. E) Sternocleidomastoid m. F) Temporalis m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
99. In Figure 10.24, identify number 7. A) Buccinator m. B) Masseter m. C) Platysma m. D) Orbicularis oculi m. E) Sternocleidomastoid m.
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F) Temporalis m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
100. In Figure 10.24, identify number 8. A) Buccinator m. B) Masseter m. C) Orbicularis oculi m. D) Orbicularis oris m. E) Sternocleidomastoid m. F) Temporalis m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
101. In Figure 10.24, identify number 9. A) Masseter m. B) Zygomaticus major m. C) Platysma m. D) Sternocleidomastoid m. E) Buccinator m. F) Risorius m. G) Orbicularis oris m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
102. In Figure 10.24, identify number 10. TESTB ANKSELLER.COM A) Buccinator m. B) Frontalis m. C) Masseter m. D) Platysma m. E) Orbicularis oculi m. F) Sternocleidomastoid m. G) Zygomaticus major m. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
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Figure 10.25 Muscles of the trunk, anterior view. 103. In Figure 10.25, identify number 1. A) Internal oblique m. B) External intercostal m. C) Internal intercostal m. D) Diaphragm m. E) Serratus anterior m. F) Pectoralis minor m. G) External oblique m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
104. In Figure 10.25, identify number 2. A) Serratus anterior m. B) Internal oblique m. C) Diaphragm m. D) Pectoralis minor m. E) External oblique m.
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F) Internal intercostal m. G) External intercostal m. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
105. In Figure 10.25, identify number 3. A) Pectoralis minor m. B) Serratus anterior m. C) Diaphragm m. D) Rectus abdominis m. E) Internal intercostal m. F) Transversus abdominis m. G) Internal oblique m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
106. In Figure 10.25, identify number 4. A) Internal intercostal m. B) Pectoralis minor m. C) External oblique m. D) Diaphragm m. E) Serratus anterior m. F) External intercostal m. G) Internal oblique m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
107. In Figure 10.25, identify number 5.ANKSELLER.COM TESTB A) External oblique m. B) Iliac crest C) Internal oblique m. D) Longissimus m. E) Rectus abdominis m. F) Serratus anterior m. G) Transversus abdominis m. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
108. In Figure 10.25, identify number 6. A) External oblique m. B) Iliac crest C) Internal oblique m. D) Longissimus m. E) Rectus abdominis m. F) Serratus anterior m. G) Transversus abdominis m. ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
109. In Figure 10.25, identify number 7. A) External oblique m. B) Iliac crest
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C) Internal oblique m. D) Longissimus m. E) Rectus abdominis m. F) Serratus anterior m. G) Transversus abdominis m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
110. In Figure 10.25, identify number 8. A) External oblique m. B) Iliac crest C) Internal oblique m. D) Longissimus m. E) Rectus abdominis m. F) Serratus anterior m. G) Transversus abdominis m. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
111. In Figure 10.25, identify number 9. A) External oblique m. B) Iliac crest C) Internal oblique m. D) Longissimus m. E) Rectus abdominis m. F) Serratus anterior m. G) Transversus abdominis m.
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
Figure 10.26 Muscles of the trunk, posterior view. 112. In Figure 10.26, identify number 1.
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A) Deltoid m. B) Iliocostalis m. C) Longissimus m. D) Rhomboid major and minor mm. E) Latissimus dorsi m. F) Spinalis m. G) Trapezius m. ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
113. In Figure 10.26, identify number 2. A) Deltoid m. B) Iliocostalis m. C) Latissimus dorsi m. D) Rhomboid major and minor mm. E) Spinalis m. F) Longissimus m. G) Trapezius m. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
114. In Figure 10.26, identify number 3. A) Deltoid m. B) Iliocostalis m. C) Spinalis m. D) Latissimus dorsi m. E) Longissimus m. TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Trapezius m. G) Rhomboid major and minor mm. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
115. In Figure 10.26, identify number 4. A) Iliocostalis m. B) Gluteus maximus m. C) Rhomboid major and minor mm. D) Trapezius m. E) Latissimus dorsi m. F) Longissimus m. G) Spinalis m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
116. In Figure 10.26, identify number 5. A) Iliocostalis m. B) Spinalis m. C) Longissimus m. D) Latissimus dorsi m. E) Rhomboid major and minor mm. F) Trapezius m. G) Deltoid m.
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
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117. In Figure 10.26, identify number 6. A) Deltoid m. B) Spinalis m. C) Iliocostalis m. D) Latissimus dorsi m. E) Longissimus m. F) Trapezius m. G) Rhomboid major and minor mm. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
118. In Figure 10.26, identify number 7. A) Rhomboid major and minor mm. B) Longissimus m. C) Gluteus maximus m. D) Spinalis m. E) Latissimus dorsi m. F) Iliocostalis m. G) Deltoid m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
119. In Figure 10.26, identify number 8. A) Deltoid m. B) Longissimus m. TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Spinalis m. D) Iliocostalis m. E) Rhomboid major and minor mm. F) Trapezius m. G) Latissimus dorsi m. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
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Figure 10.27 Muscles of the and views. TEupper STBlimb, ANKSanterior ELLER .Cposterior OM 120. In Figure 10.27, identify number 1. A) Biceps brachii m. B) Brachioradialis m. C) Pectoralis major m. D) Rectus femoris m. E) Sartorius m. F) Tibialis anterior m. G) Vastus medialis m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
121. In Figure 10.27, identify number 2. A) Biceps brachii m. B) Brachioradialis m. C) Gracilis m. D) Pectoralis major m. E) Rectus femoris m. F) Sartorius m. G) Tibialis anterior m. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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122. In Figure 10.27, identify number 3.
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A) Biceps brachii m. B) Brachioradialis m. C) Gracilis m. D) Pectoralis major m. E) Sartorius m. F) Vastus lateralis m. G) Vastus medialis m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
123. In Figure 10.27, identify number 4. A) Biceps brachii m. B) Brachioradialis m. C) Supraspinatus m. D) Pectoralis major m. E) Infraspinatus m. F) Teres major m. G) Triceps brachii m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
124. In Figure 10.27, identify number 5. A) Brachoradialis m. B) Pectoralis major m. C) Infraspinatus m. D) Biceps brachii m. E) Teres major m. TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Supraspinatus m. G) Triceps brachii m. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
125. In Figure 10.27, identify number 6. A) Biceps brachii m. B) Triceps brachii m. C) Infraspinatus m. D) Extensor digitorum m. E) Brachioradialis m. F) Teres major m. G) Supraspinatus m. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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126. In Figure 10.27, identify number 7. A) Infraspinatus m. B) Triceps brachii m. C) Teres major m. D) Biceps brachii m. E) Extensor digitorum m. F) Brachoradialis m. G) Supraspinatus m.
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
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127. In Figure 10.27, identify number 8. A) Infraspinatus m. B) Brachioradialis m. C) Biceps brachii m. D) Triceps brachii m. E) Extensor digitorum m. F) Teres major m. G) Flexor digitorum m. ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
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Figure 10.28 Muscles of the lower limb, anterior and posterior views. 128. In Figure 10.28, identify number 1. A) Biceps brachii m. B) Gracilis m. C) Rectus femoris m. D) Sartorius m. E) Tibialis anterior m. F) Vastus lateralis m. G) Vastus medialis m.
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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129. In Figure 10.28, identify number 2. A) Biceps brachii m. B) Gracilis m. C) Pectoralis major m. D) Rectus femoris m. E) Tibialis anterior m. F) Vastus lateralis m. G) Vastus medialis m. ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
130. In Figure 10.28, identify number 3. A) Brachioradialis m. B) Gracilis m. C) Rectus femoris m. D) Sartorius m. E) Tibialis anterior m. F) Vastus lateralis m. G) Vastus medialis m. ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
131. In Figure 10.28, identify number 4. A) Biceps femoris m. B) Gastrocnemius m. C) Gluteus maximus m. TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Semimembranosus m. E) Semitendinosus m. F) Sartorius m. G) Pectineus m. ANS: G
PTS: 1
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132. In Figure 10.28, identify number 5. A) Brachioradialis m. B) Gracilis m. C) Pectoralis major m. D) Rectus femoris m. E) Sartorius m. F) Tibialis anterior m. G) Vastus medialis m. ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Recall
133. In Figure 10.28, identify number 6. A) Biceps femoris m. B) Gastrocnemius m. C) Gluteus maximus m. D) Semimembranosus m. E) Semitendinosus m.
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F) Soleus m. G) Triceps brachii m. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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134. In Figure 10.28, identify number 7. A) Biceps femoris m. B) Gastrocnemius m. C) Gluteus maximus m. D) Semimembranosus m. E) Semitendinosus m. F) Soleus m. G) Triceps brachii m. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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135. In Figure 10.28, identify number 8. A) Biceps femoris m. B) Gastrocnemius m. C) Gluteus maximus m. D) Semimembranosus m. E) Semitendinosus m. F) Soleus m. G) Triceps brachii m. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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136. In Figure 10.28, identify number 9.ANKSELLER.COM TESTB A) Gluteus minimus m. B) Piriformis m. C) Gluteus maximus m. D) Semimembranosus m. E) Semitendinosus m. F) Pectineus m. G) Gluteus medius m. ANS: G
PTS: 1
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137. In Figure 10.28, identify number 10. A) Biceps femoris m. B) Gastrocnemius m. C) Gluteus maximus m. D) Semimembranosus m. E) Semitendinosus m. F) Soleus m. G) Triceps brachii m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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138. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm at the elbow joint? A) Brachioradialis m. B) Triceps brachii m.
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C) Biceps brachii m. D) Brachialis m. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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139. Which of the following muscles flexes the thigh at the hip? A) Iliopsoas m. B) Biceps femoris m. C) Vastus intermedius m. D) Gluteus medius m. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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140. What is the main action of the deltoid muscle? A) Adduction of the arm at the shoulder joint. B) Retraction of the scapula. C) Depression of the scapula. D) Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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141. What is the main action of the rectus abdominis muscle? A) Rotation of the trunk. B) Flexion of the trunk. C) Extension of the trunk. D) Lateral flexion of the trunk. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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142. How do a muscle's origin and insertion differ? ANS:
The origin of a muscle is the attachment that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction, while the insertion is the movable attachment. PTS: 1
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143. Muscle strain, or “pulling a muscle,” may result from overuse injuries or from trauma.
Typically muscle strain results in pain around the muscle with movement and with pressure. Predict which muscle or muscles may be strained from pain in the medial thigh. ANS:
Adductor muscle group, gracilis m. PTS: 1
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144. Muscle strain, or “pulling a muscle,” may result from overuse injuries or from trauma.
Typically muscle strain results in pain around the muscle with movement and with pressure. Predict which muscle or muscles may be strained from pain in the anterior arm. ANS:
Biceps brachii m., brachialis m.
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PTS: 1
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145. Muscle strain, or “pulling a muscle,” may result from overuse injuries or from trauma.
Typically muscle strain results in pain around the muscle with movement and with pressure. Predict which muscle or muscles may be strained from pain in the posterior neck. ANS:
Trapezius m., scalene mm., parts of the erector spinae muscle group, semispinalis capitis m. PTS: 1
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146. Muscle strain, or “pulling a muscle,” may result from overuse injuries or from trauma.
Typically muscle strain results in pain around the muscle with movement and with pressure. Predict which muscle or muscles may be strained from pain in the lateral abdomen (the "side"). ANS:
External oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis mm. PTS: 1
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147. Muscle strain, or “pulling a muscle,” may result from overuse injuries or from trauma.
Typically muscle strain results in pain around the muscle with movement and with pressure. Predict which muscle or muscles may be strained from pain in the posterolateral leg.
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ANS:
Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, flexor hallucis longus, parts of the soleus mm. PTS: 1
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148. Muscle strain, or “pulling a muscle,” may result from overuse injuries or from trauma.
Typically muscle strain results in pain around the muscle with movement and with pressure. Predict which muscle or muscles may be strained from pain in the lateral lumbar region of the back. ANS:
Latissimus dorsi, iliocostalis lumborum, quadratus lumborum mm. PTS: 1
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149. A stroke, caused by a clot in a blood vessel of the brain, may lead to a loss of function of
certain muscles. Which motions would an individual be unable to perform if the buccinator muscle lost function? ANS:
A person would have difficulty pulling the cheeks inward and performing sucking or whistling movements.
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PTS: 1
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150. A stroke, caused by a clot in a blood vessel of the brain, may lead to a loss of function of
certain muscles. Which motions would an individual be unable to perform if the latissimus dorsi muscle lost function? ANS:
A person would have difficulty extending, adducting, and rotating the arm, although some of these actions would be performed by the teres major and pectoralis major muscles. PTS: 1
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151. A stroke, caused by a clot in a blood vessel of the brain, may lead to a loss of function of
certain muscles. Which motions would an individual be unable to perform if the biceps femoris muscle lost function? ANS:
A person would have weaker thigh extension and leg flexion, but the semitendinosus and semimembranosus muscles would enable a person to continue performing the actions overall. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Understanding
152. Predict the location, appearance, and function of the flexor carpi radialis longus muscle by
looking only at its name. ANS:
TES TBANalong KSEL LE R.CO M This should be a long muscle located the lateral forearm (along the radius), that inserts into the carpal bones, and that has flexion of the hand as a primary function. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Understanding
153. The serratus anterior muscle normally originates from the first nine ribs and inserts into
the medial border of the scapula. Predict its action from this information. ANS:
Based on the insertion of the serratus anterior muscle, it should pull the scapula anteriorly (protraction) and rotate it superiorly when it contracts. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Understanding
154. When a person is in respiratory distress, the origin and insertion of the serratus anterior
muscle may actually switch, and the part of the muscle attached to the medial border of the scapula acts as the origin. How will this change the muscle's action? ANS:
Now the muscle will elevate the rib cage with the scapula fixed instead of moving the scapula. This will make them accessory muscles of inspiration, assisting in inflating the lungs. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Understanding
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155. Neuromuscular diseases may lead to a condition called drop foot, in which a patient is
unable to dorsiflex his or her foot. Which muscle(s) do you think would be involved in this condition? Which muscles may have to compensate for lack of dorsiflexion during walking? Explain. ANS:
The tibialis anterior is one of the main muscles affected by drop foot. Generally the thigh flexors compensate by lifting the whole leg to clear the ground during walking. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 10 Check Your Understanding
156. Rotator cuff muscles include the ___________________. A) supraspinatus B) infraspinatus C) teres minor and subscapularis D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
157. Muscles that help stabilize the scapula and shoulder joint include the _____________. A) triceps brachii B) biceps brachii C) trapezius and rhomboids D) All of the above ANS: C PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions 158. Which of these muscles is NOT used for mastication (chewing)? A) Masseter B) Temporalis C) Medial pterygoid D) Orbicularis oculis ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
159. The trapezius, levator scapulae, and _______________ are the three posterior thoracic
muscles of the pectoral girdle. A) serratus anterior B) pectoralis minor C) subclavius D) rhomboideus ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
160. Which muscle is strap-like and flexes and rotates the head and neck? A) Sternocleidomastoid B) Splenius capitis
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C) Semispinalis capitis D) Trapezius ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
161. Which of these muscles is an adductor? A) Gluteus medius B) Tensor fascia lata C) Pectineus D) Iliacus ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
162. Which of the following muscles does NOT insert on the orbicularis oris muscle? A) Zygomaticus major B) Levator labii superioris C) Buccinator D) Mentalis E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
163. Which of the following is part of the thin myofilament? A) ATP binding site B) Myosin TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Globular actin D) Sarcolemma E) Calcium ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
164. Factors involved in calcium release and uptake during contraction and relaxation include
________________________. A) calsequestrin B) T-tubules C) SR and sarcolemma D) Terminal cisternae E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
165. Which statement is TRUE about rigor mortis? A) The depletion of ATP is absolute. B) The contraction is weak. C) Muscle cramping is a result of the depletion of electrolytes. D) The neuromusculature has been affected. E) B and C
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ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
166. Factors affecting force of contraction include the _____________. A) number of motor units stimulated B) cross-sectional area of the muscle/muscle fibers C) stretching of a series of elastic elements D) type of muscle fibers stimulated E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
167. The rectus muscles, which lie between the vertebral spine and the ventral midline, are
important ____________________. A) sphincters of the rectum B) extensors of the spine C) flexors of the spine D) rotators of the spinal column E) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
168. Tim is a new father and is not used to changing diapers. He grimaces and purses his lips
when he changes his son's diapers. Which collection of muscles is he using to contort his mouth this way? A) Inferior and medial rectus TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Frontal occipitofrontalis C) Zygomaticus minor and major D) Orbicularis oris and risorius E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
169. The most important muscle for chewing is the ___________________. A) pterygoid B) buccinator C) zygomaticus D) masseter E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
170. Which of the following muscles is synergistic with the diaphragm during inspiration? A) Pectoralis minor B) Internal intercostal C) External intercostal D) Rectus abdominus E) All of the above
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
171. Pat is a sprinter who pulled a hamstring before the big race. Which of Pat's muscles was
not injured? A) Semitendinosus B) Biceps femoris C) Semimembranosus D) Rectus femoris E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
172. Which of the following is a voluntary muscle? A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Visceral D) Smooth ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
173. Which of the following has the smallest motor units relative to its size? A) Flexor pollicis longus B) Rectus femoris C) Soleus TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Latissimus dorsi ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
174. Which muscle has the largest motor units? A) Fibularis brevis B) Gluteus maximus C) Frontalis D) Platysma ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
175. Which of the following muscles attaches to the hip bones? A) Transversus abdominus B) Vastus medialis C) Longissimus group of erector spinae D) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
176. Muscles that attach to the rib cage include the _________________. A) scalene
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B) trapezius C) psoas major D) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
177. Which muscle is part of the pelvic diaphragm? A) Superficial transverse perineal muscle B) Deep transverse perineal muscle C) Levator ani D) External urethral sphincter ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
178. Hip adductors include the __________________. A) sartorius B) gracilis C) vastus medialis D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
179. Which muscles are in the posterior compartment of the leg? A) Flexor digitorum longus B) Fibularis longus TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Extensor digitorum longus D) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
180. Which of the following muscles insert distal to the tarsus? A) Soleus B) Tibialis anterior C) Extensor hallucis longus D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
181. The main muscles used when doing chin-ups are _________________. A) triceps brachii and pectoralis major B) infraspinatus and biceps brachii C) serratus anterior and external oblique D) latissimus dorsi and brachialis ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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182. The motion of walking utilizes which two lower limb muscles to keep the legs moving
forward and the foot from dragging on the ground? A) Pronator teres and popliteus B) Flexor digitorum longus and popliteus C) Adductor longus and abductor digitori minimi in foot D) Rectus femoris and tibialis anterior ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
183. The major muscles used in doing push-ups are _____________________. A) biceps brachii and brachialis B) supraspinatus and subscapularis C) coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi D) triceps brachii and pectoralis major ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
184. An individual who sticks out a thumb to hitch a ride is _____ the thumb. A) extending B) abducting C) adducting D) opposing ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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185. Which are ways in which muscle names have been derived? A) Attachments B) Size and function C) Location D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 10 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 11 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines epimysium? A) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina B) A connective tissue sheath covering a whole muscle C) An oval articular surface fits into an oval depression in another bone D) Two or more layers of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina ANS: B
PTS: 1
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2. Which of the following statements accurately defines fascicle? A) Freely movable joint B) Another term for a muscle cell C) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber D) Group of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium ANS: D
PTS: 1
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3. Which of the following statements accurately defines perimysium? A) Connective tissue sheath surrounding each fascicle B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber D) The movable attachment of a muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines muscle fiber? TESallow TBAgliding NKSELmotion LER.COM A) Flat articular surfaces that B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) Another term for a muscle cell D) A connective tissue sheath covering a whole muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines endomysium? A) Muscles of the face responsible for facial expressions; insert into skin and muscle B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) Amphiarthrotic joints consisting of bones united by cartilage rather than fibrous
connective tissue D) Long, filamentous proteins that constitute myofibrils ANS: B
PTS: 1
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6. Which of the following statements accurately defines sarcolemma? A) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction B) A small potential space that contains serous fluid; located between the two layers
of the serous pericardium C) Rodlike bundle of contractile filaments found in muscle fibers D) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
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7. Which of the following statements accurately defines T-tubule? A) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils B) Flat articular surfaces that allow gliding motion C) A flat cell with a flattened nucleus D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
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8. Which of the following statements accurately defines sarcoplasmic reticulum? A) Dome-shaped muscle located between the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities B) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils C) A modified smooth endoplasmic reticulum that wraps around the myofibrils and
stores calcium ions D) Flat muscle over the anterior, superficial abdomen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines terminal cisternae? A) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein collagen B) Point at which the sarcoplasmic reticulum swells where it meets a T-tubule C) Superficial, strap-like muscle on the lateral neck D) Skeletal muscles that move the upper limb ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately TESTBA NKSELLdefines ER.Cmyofibril? OM A) Rodlike bundle of contractile filaments found in muscle fibers B) Joints that allow motion in one plane only C) Point at which the sarcoplasmic reticulum swells where it meets a T-tubule D) Series of membranes; modifies proteins made by the ribosomes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines myofilament? A) Myofilament composed of the contractile protein myosin B) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber C) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces D) Long, filamentous proteins that constitute myofibrils ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines thick filament? A) Found as part of the basement membrane and in the walls of hollow organs B) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils C) Myofilament composed of the contractile protein myosin D) Deep postural back muscles that run along the vertebral column ANS: C
PTS: 1
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13. Which of the following statements accurately defines thin filament?
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A) Triangular-shaped muscle over the shoulder B) Myofilament composed of the contractile protein actin and the regulatory proteins
troponin and tropomyosin C) Large, deep muscle composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh D) None of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines A band? A) Large, deep muscle composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh B) Posterior muscles over the buttock C) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils D) Dark regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thick and thin
filaments or thick filaments only ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines I band? A) Dark regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thick and thin
filaments or thick filaments only B) Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body C) Light regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thin
filaments only D) Movement of a limb toward the midline of the body ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
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16. Which of the following statements accurately defines Z disc? A) Dark regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thick and thin
filaments or thick filaments only B) Line consisting of different proteins that bisects the I band C) Light regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thin
filaments only D) Line consisting of different proteins that bisects the A band ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines H zone? A) Muscles of the anterior forearm B) Large, deep muscle composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh C) The lighter region in the midsection of each A band that consists of thick filaments
only D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines M line? A) Muscle fibers that are linked by special junctions called intercalated disks B) Tissue made of long, tubular, and striated muscle fibers with multiple nuclei C) A line consisting of different proteins that bisects the H zone D) Movement of the thumb medially across the surface of the palm
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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19. Which of the following statements accurately defines action potential? A) A rapid series of changes in the membrane potential of the muscle fiber
sarcolemma B) An extension of the sarcolemma that dives into the muscle fiber and surrounds
myofibrils C) Branching process of the neuron that carries information toward the cell body D) Turning the sole of the foot laterally ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines crossbridge cycle? A) Light regions of the striations in skeletal muscle tissue that consist of thin
filaments only B) The movement of blood through the light regions of the striations in muscle tissue C) Muscle tissue in the lower abdomen in a cross stitch pattern D) Series of events during which actin and myosin bind and detach cyclically,
resulting in the generation of tension during a contraction ANS: D
PTS: 1
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21. Which of the following statements accurately defines excitation-contraction coupling? A) The amount of tension generated by a contraction is influenced by how much the
thick and thin filaments overlap when the muscle fiber is at rest B) Excitation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron leading to the release of calcium
ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum TEST BANKSand ELLthe ERinitiation .COM of a contraction
C) Event in which the resting membrane potential becomes more negative than it is
normally at rest because of the continued outward flow of cations D) Diarthrotic joints consisting of two bones whose articular ends are covered with
hyaline cartilage; the bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity ANS: B
PTS: 1
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22. Which of the following statements accurately defines sliding filament mechanism? A) Series of events during which actin and myosin bind and detach cyclically,
resulting in the generation of tension during a contraction B) Amphiarthrotic joints consisting of bones united by cartilage rather than fibrous
connective tissue C) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction D) Mechanism by which muscles contract during which the thick and thin filaments
slide past one another ANS: D
PTS: 1
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23. Which of the following statements accurately defines length-tension relationship? A) The amount of tension generated by a contraction is influenced by how much the
thick and thin filaments overlap when the muscle fiber is at rest B) Muscles surrounding the shoulder joint whose tendons reinforce the rotator cuff of
the shoulder C) Rotating the radius around the ulna so that the palm faces posteriorly
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D) Deep, posterior calf muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
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Figure 11.1 Skeletal muscle structural levels of organization. 24. In Figure 11.1, identify number 1. A) Fascia B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium G) Tendon ANS: G
PTS: 1
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25. In Figure 11.1, identify number 2. A) Fascia B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium G) Tendon ANS: A
PTS: 1
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26. In Figure 11.1, identify number 3. A) Fascia B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium
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G) Tendon ANS: C
PTS: 1
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27. In Figure 11.1, identify number 4. A) Fascia B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium G) Tendon ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 11.1, identify number 5. A) Fascia B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium G) Tendon ANS: B
PTS: 1
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29. In Figure 11.1, identify number 6. A) Fascia TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium G) Tendon ANS: E
PTS: 1
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30. In Figure 11.1, identify number 7. A) Fascia B) Endomysium C) Epimysium D) Fascicle E) Muscle fiber F) Perimysium G) Tendon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 11.2 Skeletal muscle fiber. 31. In Figure 11.2, identify number 1. A) A band B) Mitochondria C) Myofibril D) Zone of overlap E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) Terminal cisternae G) Thick filament ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 11.2, identify number 2. A) A band B) Nucleus C) Mitochondria TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Myofibril E) Sarcolemma F) Zone of overlap G) Thin filament ANS: E
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 11.2, identify number 3. A) A band B) Nucleus C) Mitochondria D) Myofibril E) Sarcolemma F) Zone of overlap G) Thin filament ANS: B
PTS: 1
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34. In Figure 11.2, identify number 4. A) H zone B) Myofibril C) Sarcolemma D) Zone of overlap E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
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F) Terminal cisternae G) Thin (actin) filament ANS: D
PTS: 1
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35. In Figure 11.2, identify number 5. A) A band B) H zone C) I band D) M line E) Terminal cisternae F) Triad G) Z disc ANS: G
PTS: 1
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36. In Figure 11.2, identify number 6. A) A band B) H zone C) M line D) T-tubules E) Thick filament F) Thin filament G) Z disc ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 11.2, identify number TEST7.BANKSELLER.COM A) A band B) I band C) M line D) Myofibril E) Sarcolemma F) Thin filament G) Triad ANS: C
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 11.2, identify number 8. A) H zone B) Myofibril C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum D) Terminal cisternae E) Thick (myosin) filament F) Thin (actin) filament G) Z disc ANS: G
PTS: 1
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39. In Figure 11.2, identify number 9. A) H zone B) Mitochondria
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C) Myofibril D) T-tubules E) Terminal cisternae F) Thick filament G) Nucleus ANS: C
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 11.2, identify number 10. A) A band B) I band C) M line D) Myofibril E) Terminal cisternae F) Thick filament G) Nucleus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 11.2, identify number 11. A) A band B) H zone C) I band D) M line E) Myofibril F) Thick filament G) Z disc
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
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42. In Figure 11.2, identify number 12. A) A band B) H zone C) I band D) M line E) T-tubules F) Sarcomere G) Thin filament ANS: C
PTS: 1
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43. In Figure 11.2, identify number 13. A) A band B) H zone C) M line D) Sarcomere E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) Thick filament G) Thin filament ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
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44. In Figure 11.2, identify number 14. A) A band B) H zone C) M line D) Sarcomere E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) Thick filament G) Thin filament ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 11.2, identify number 15. A) A band B) H zone C) Mitochondria D) Sarcoplasm E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) Thick filament G) Triad ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 11.2, identify number 16. A) A band B) Mitochondria C) Myofibril D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) T-tubules F) Terminal cisternae G) Triad ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 11.2, identify number 17. A) A band B) Mitochondria C) Myofibril D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum E) T-tubules F) Terminal cisternae G) Triad ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 11.2, identify number 18. A) H zone B) Mitochondria C) Myofibril D) Sarcoplasm E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) Thick filament
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G) Sarcomere ANS: E
PTS: 1
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49. In Figure 11.2, identify number 19. A) Mitochondria B) Myofibril C) Sarcolemma D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum E) T-tubules F) Terminal cisternae G) Triad ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 11.3 Neuromuscular junction. 50. In Figure 11.3, identify number 1. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Myofibril D) Motor end plate E) T-tubule F) Mitochondrion ANS: C
PTS: 1
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51. In Figure 11.3, identify number 2. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Mitochondrion D) Motor end plate E) T-tubule F) Myofibril ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
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52. In Figure 11.3, identify number 3. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Mitochondrion D) Motor end plate E) Synaptic cleft F) T-tubule ANS: F
PTS: 1
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53. In Figure 11.3, identify number 4. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Mitochondrion D) Motor end plate E) Synaptic cleft F) Synaptic vesicle with acetylcholine molecules ANS: F
PTS: 1
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54. In Figure 11.3, identify number 5. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Synaptic cleft D) Motor end plate E) Mitochondrion F) Synaptic vesicle with acetylcholine molecules
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
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55. In Figure 11.3, identify number 6. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Mitochondrion D) Motor end plate E) Synaptic cleft F) Synaptic vesicle with acetylcholine molecules ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 11.3, identify number 7. A) Acetylcholine receptor B) Axon terminal C) Mitochondrion D) Motor end plate E) Synaptic cleft F) Synaptic vesicle with acetylcholine molecules ANS: E
PTS: 1
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57. In Figure 11.3, identify number 8. A) Acetylcholine receptor
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B) Axon terminal C) Mitochondria D) Motor end plate E) Synaptic cleft F) Synaptic vesicle with acetylcholine molecules ANS: D
PTS: 1
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 11.13 Skeletal muscle structural levels of organization. 58. In Figure 11.13, identify number 1. A) Perimysium B) Fascia C) Fascicle D) Epimysium E) Tendon F) Muscle fiber ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
59. In Figure 11.13, identify number 2. A) Fascicle B) Fascia C) Muscle fiber D) Epimysium E) Tendon F) Perimysium ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
60. In Figure 11.13, identify number 3.
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A) Fascicle B) Fascia C) Muscle fiber D) Perimysium E) Tendon F) Epimysium ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
61. In Figure 11.13, identify number 4. A) Epimysium B) Fascia C) Fascicle D) Perimysium E) Tendon F) Muscle fiber ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
62. In Figure 11.13, identify number 5. A) Epimysium B) Fascia C) Muscle fiber D) Perimysium E) Tendon F) Fascicle ANS: C
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.11 COCheck M Your Recall
63. In Figure 11.13, identify number 6. A) Perimysium B) Epimysium C) Fascia D) Fascicle E) Tendon F) Muscle fiber ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
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Figure 11.14 Skeletal muscle fiber. 64. In Figure 11.14, identify number 1. A) Mitochondrion B) Myofibril C) Nucleus D) Sarcolemma E) Sarcomere F) Sarcoplasmic reticulum G) T-tubule ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
65. In Figure 11.14, identify number 2. A) A band B) Myofibril C) Nucleus D) Sarcolemma E) Sarcomere F) Sarcoplasmic reticulum G) T-tubule ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
66. In Figure 11.14, identify number 3. A) I band B) Myofibril TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Nucleus D) Sarcolemma E) Sarcomere F) Sarcoplasmic reticulum G) Z disk ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
67. In Figure 11.14, identify number 4. A) Z disk B) Mitochondrion C) Sarcolemma D) Sarcomere E) Nucleus F) T-tubule G) Sarcoplasmic reticulum ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
68. In Figure 11.14, identify number 5. A) A band B) Mitochondrion C) Nucleus D) Sarcolemma
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E) Sarcomere F) Sarcoplasmic reticulum G) T-tubule ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
69. In Figure 11.14, identify number 6. A) A band B) I band C) M line D) Sarcomere E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) T-tubule G) Z disk ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
70. In Figure 11.14, identify number 7. A) A band B) I band C) M line D) Nucleus E) Sarcolemma F) Sarcomere G) Z disk ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
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71. In Figure 11.14, identify number 8. A) A band B) I band C) Sarcolemma D) Sarcomere E) Sarcoplasmic reticulum F) T-tubule G) Z disk ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
72. In Figure 11.14, identify number 9. A) Sarcolemma B) I band C) Sarcomere D) Z disk E) A band F) M line G) T-tubule ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
73. In Figure 11.14, identify number 10. A) A band
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B) I band C) M line D) Sarcolemma E) Sarcomere F) T-tubule G) Z disk ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
74. In Figure 11.14, identify number 11. A) Mitochondrion B) T-tubule C) Myofibril D) Nucleus E) Sarcolemma F) Sarcomere G) Sarcoplasmic reticulum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
75. Which of the following proteins make(s) up a thick filament? A) Myosin. B) Actin. C) Troponin. D) Tropomyosin. E) Choices b, c, and d are correct. ANS: A
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.11 COCheck M Your Recall
76. A transverse (T) tubule A) stores sodium ions. B) forms from inward extensions of the sarcolemma. C) stores calcium ions. D) is made of contractile proteins. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
77. Fill in the blanks: The neuromuscular junction consists of three parts: (1) the ______ terminal,
which contains synaptic vesicles with the neurotransmitter ________; (2) the _________; and (3) the _______. A) synaptic cleft; acetylcholine; axon; motor end plate B) acetylcholine; axon; motor end plate; synaptic cleft C) motor end plate; synaptic cleft; acetylcholine; axon D) axon; acetylcholine; synaptic cleft; motor end plate ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
78. Excitation-contraction coupling refers to A) the action potential of a neuron triggering the release of neurotransmitters from
synaptic vesicles. B) the relationship between length of the sarcomere and the tension generated. C) the sliding of thick and thin filaments past one another.
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D) the relationship between excitation at the sarcolemma and release of calcium ions
from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
79. Number the following events of skeletal muscle contraction in the proper order, with number
1 for the first event and number 6 for the last event. 1. The terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum release calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. 2. Calcium ions bind to troponin, which pulls tropomyosin away from actin. 3. The energy from ATP hydrolysis “cocks” the myosin head into an upright position. 4. The myosin head binds to an actin subunit. 5. A power stroke occurs as myosin moves into its relaxed position and pulls the thin filament toward the M line. 6. ATP breaks the actin-myosin attachment, after which ATP is hydrolyzed and myosin is recocked. A) 3, 5, 6, 4, 1, 2, B) 5, 6, 3, 1, 2, 4 C) 6, 3, 4, 5, 2, 1 D) 5, 2, 6, 4, 3, 1 ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
80. Maximal tension in a skeletal muscle contraction is generated A) when the sarcomeres are at about 100 to 120 percent of their natural length. B) when the muscle fiber is stretched before the contraction. C) when the muscle fiber is shortened before the contraction, and there is a maximal
TESTBANKSELLER.COM zone of overlap. D) when the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases fewer calcium ions. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
81. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The primary function is to
generate tension” apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: A, B, C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
82. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The tissue lines hollow organs”
apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
83. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells are uninucleate” apply?
Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: C, D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
84. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells are involuntary” apply?
Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: A, C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
85. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells are autorhythmic”
apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: A, F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
86. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells must be stimulated by a
neuron to contract” apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: B, F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
87. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells are striated in
appearance” apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac
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E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: A, B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
88. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells lack striations and
sarcomeres” apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
89. To which of the following muscle types does the statement “The cells are multinucleate”
apply? Mark all that apply. A) Cardiac B) Skeletal C) Smooth D) Some cardiac E) Some skeletal F) Some smooth ANS: B, D
PTS: 1
90. What is a sarcomere?
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ANS:
A sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction. It is the section of a myofibril that extends from one Z disc to the next, and includes one full A band and two half I bands. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Recall
91. Would a skeletal muscle fiber still have striations if it lacked thin filaments? Explain. ANS:
No, a skeletal muscle fiber would lack striations if it did not have thin filaments because the striations are due to the overlapping arrangement of the thick and thin filaments within the myofibrils. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
92. Latrotoxin, produced by widow spiders, causes several effects, one of which is to increase the
release of ACh at the synaptic cleft. What effect do you think this action would have on muscle fibers? Why? ANS:
An increase in release of ACh at the synaptic cleft would cause continual stimulation of the muscle fiber. This would lead to sustained muscle contractions (muscle spasms).
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
93. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system produces
antibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptor on the motor end plate. What symptoms would you expect with this disease? Explain. ANS:
The disease makes it more difficult for the muscle fiber to respond to nervous system stimulation. This results in muscle weakness and, eventually, paralysis. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
94. The ATP solution that you used in your muscle contraction procedure contains magnesium
ions, which increase the strength of contraction in glycerinated muscle. In living muscle cells, magnesium ions compete with calcium ions for binding sites on troponin molecules. In the condition of hypermagnesemia--a high concentration of magnesium ions in the body fluids-magnesium ions can prevent calcium ions from binding troponin. Would this strengthen, weaken, or have no effect on the muscle contraction? Explain. ANS:
This could weaken or even prevent muscle contractions from taking place. If calcium ions do not bind troponin, then it cannot move tropomyosin away from the active sites of actin. This would prevent actin and myosin from binding, and so prevent a muscle contraction from taking place. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
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95. Your patient, Ms. Young, presents to physical therapy for evaluation and treatment of painful
muscle spasms (sustained muscle contractions) in the muscles of her right shoulder. You notice upon evaluation that Ms. Young has decreased strength in her right shoulder when compared to her left shoulder, which has no muscle spasms. Explain this finding. (Hint: Is a muscle in spasm at its natural length?) ANS:
The muscle that is in spasm is shortened, and so not able to generate as much tension as the muscles surrounding her left shoulder, which are at their natural length (per the length-tension relationship). PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
96. Suppose a poison were able to block the gap junctions in the intercalated discs of cardiac
muscle cells. How would this affect the ability of cardiac muscle tissue to perform its functions? ANS:
Cardiac muscle cells must contract as a unit to perform their functions. If they were not electrically coupled by gap junctions, they would not be able to contract as a unit, and so would not be able to perform their functions. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
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97. When you walk outside into the bright daylight, the muscle cells of the irises in your eyes
contract, constricting your pupils so that less light enters your eyes. Would you expect these muscle cells to be striated or smooth? Explain your reasoning. ANS:
These muscle cells would be smooth. You can deduce this because they contract involuntarily, so are not skeletal muscle, and are not located in the heart, and so are not cardiac muscle. This leaves only smooth muscle tissue, which is, of course, composed of smooth muscle cells. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 11 Check Your Understanding
98. Motor units __________________. A) are found only in cardiac cells B) are the largest in muscles responsible for delicate movement C) consist of a muscle fiber and all the nerves that supply it D) consist of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies E) are the same as neuromuscular junctions ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
99. The sarcolemma can best be described as the ___________________________. A) extracellular matrix B) cytoplasm C) plasma membrane wrapping skeletal muscle cells D) ectomysium E) myelin sheath cells
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
100. In muscle tissue, neurotransmitter receptors are located __________________. A) in synaptic vesicles B) in the synaptic cleft C) on the motor neuron axon terminals D) on the motor end plate ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
101. An action potential is _________________. A) a migrating region where the electrochemical potential of a membrane undergoes
reversal B) a flow of electrons from one cell to another C) an electrically charged molecule such as sodium or potassium ions D) a region where the electrochemical gradient of a membrane causes acetylcholine
production ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
102. Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle?
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A) Vasoconstriction B) Vasodilation C) Pupillary dilation D) Eye movement E) Heartbeat ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
103. Which of the following does NOT occur in a muscle during contraction? A) Thick and thin filaments interact B) Muscle fibers stretch C) Thick and thin filaments slide past one another D) Muscle fibers shorten E) A and D ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
104. This chemical process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after a contraction. A) Ca2+ is released from intracellular storage sites. B) Motor neurons send electrical signals to muscle fibers. C) Acetylcholinesterase synthesizes acetylcholine. D) Troponin binds Ca2+. E) None of the above. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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105. Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in __________. A) excessive, continuous stimulation of muscle fiber B) relaxation of the muscle fiber C) increased Na+ synthesis by the muscle fiber D) inability of a motor neuron to conduct further action potentials E) B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
106. Curare is a toxin that inhibits acetylcholine receptors on the muscle. If acetylcholine were
blocked, the result would be _______________________. A) increased stimulation of the muscle fiber B) increased strength in the contractile muscle fiber C) nonconsecutive eccentric contradictions D) inability of a motor neuron to conduct further action potentials E) inability of muscle to respond to the motor neuron stimulus ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
107. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron,
_____________.
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A) calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber B) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft C) acetylcholinesterase is released into the synaptic cleft D) physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
108. What effect do jogging, running, and swimming have on skeletal muscle tissue? A) An increase in the number of mitochondria per muscle fiber B) An increase in the number of muscle fibers C) An increase in the number of motor units D) An increase in the number of skeletal muscles E) B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
109. The disease myasthenia gravis is _____________________. A) autoimmune B) caused by an increase in the number of muscle fibers C) a disease in which the immune system produces antibodies that attack the
acetylcholine receptor on the motor end plate D) caused by an increase in the number of mitochondria per muscle fiber E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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110. Which of the following are characteristics of skeletal muscle fibers? A) Short, wide, and branching B) Multiple nuclei located next to the sarcolemma C) Long and thin D) Usually have a single, large nucleus located among the myofibrils E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
111. A muscle fascicle is a bundle of _____________. A) myofibrils B) myofibers C) myofilaments D) fascia ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
112. The connective tissue wrapping around a muscle that is continuous with tendons is the
__________________. A) perimysium B) endomysium
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C) epimysium D) sarcolemma ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
113. Which of the following is NOT a major function of muscle tissue? A) Producing body heat B) Moving the body C) Moving substances through the body D) Storing neurotransmitters ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
114. Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT ________________. A) striated B) voluntary C) multinucleated D) autorhythmic ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
115. The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue: A) Striated B) Skeletal C) Cardiac TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Smooth ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
116. Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle tissue? A) It is involuntary. B) It contains multinucleated cells. C) It has intercalated disks. D) It contains smooth muscle tissue. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
117. What approximate percentage of body heat is generated by muscle tissue? A) 15% B) 30% C) 55% D) 85% ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
118. The epimysium can best be described as a ____________________. A) bundle of myofibrils
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B) connective tissue sheath covering the muscle C) bundle of muscle cells D) muscle cell ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
119. Thick myofilaments are ________________. A) muscle cells B) the contractile units of muscle C) composed of myosin D) composed of actin ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
120. The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are ____________. A) myosin and tropomyosin B) myosin and actin C) actin and troponin D) troponin and tropomyosin ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
121. This process aids in skeletal muscle relaxation after a contraction: A) Calcium is released from intracellular storage sites. B) Motor neurons send an electrical signal to muscle. TESTBacetylcholine. ANKSELLER.COM C) Acetylcholinesterase degrades D) Troponin binds calcium. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
122. The stiffness of muscle tissue in rigor mortis partially results from _____________. A) excessive acetylcholine activity on muscle B) excessive calcium release in muscle C) excessive lactic acid buildup D) excessive contraction of the fibers ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
123. A single motor neuron may innervate as few as three to five fibers in muscles of the
__________. A) upper arms B) legs C) eye D) heart E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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124. The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a ______________. A) sarcomere B) motor unit C) synapse D) A and B ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
125. In skeletal muscle, a triad refers to which of the following? A) A T-tubule sandwiched between two dilated cisternae of the sarcoplasmic
reticulum. B) A Z line flanked by two A bands. C) An A band flanked by two I bands. D) An H zone flanked by two A bands. E) A Z line flanked by two sarcomeres. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
126. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the name given to which of the following? A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum in smooth muscle cells B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in cells of the epimysium C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in all muscle cells D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle cells E) A and C
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
127. The overlapping of actin and myosin filaments will occur in the _____________. A) A band B) I band C) Z line D) H band E) M line ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 11 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 12 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines neuron? A) Control center of the cell; contains the cell's DNA B) The cells of nervous tissue that generate and transmit action potentials C) Central area of the cell containing centrioles D) A fatty sheath found around certain axons that increases the speed of conduction of
a nerve impulse ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines neuroglial cell? A) The biosynthetic center of the neuron B) Cells of nervous tissue that surround and support neurons C) A fatty sheath found around certain axons that increases the speed of conduction of
a nerve impulse D) Central area of the cell containing centrioles ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines cell body? A) The biosynthetic center of the neuron B) Continual process of growth and replication of cells C) Hairlike extensions from the plasma membrane that propel substances past the cell D) Junction between neurons and target cells ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines axon? A) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the
cytosol and organelles B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) Site of protein synthesis D) Process of the neuron that generates and transmits action potentials ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines dendrite? A) Hairlike extensions from the plasma membrane that propel substances past the cell B) Cell taller than it is wide with a round nucleus generally located near the base of
the cell C) Branching process of the neuron that transmits electrical potentials toward the cell
body D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines myelin sheath? A) Connective tissue consisting of cells called erythrocytes and leukocytes and an
extracellular matrix called plasma B) A fatty sheath found around certain axons that increases the speed of conduction of
an action potential
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C) Fluid-filled space at a synapse through which neurotransmitters diffuse D) Two or more layers of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines Node of Ranvier? A) Tissue that contains ground substance as the dominant component; found as part of
the basement membrane and in the walls of hollow organs B) A small potential space that contains serous fluid; located between the two layers of the serous pericardium C) An electrical impulse conducted along the neuron membrane D) Spaces between segments of the myelin sheath ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines synapse? A) Junction between neurons and target cells B) The neuron that receives the message C) The neuron that sends the message D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines axon terminal? A) A vesicle containing neurotransmitters in the axon terminal of a neuron B) Swollen area found at the end of each telodendrion that contains synaptic vesicles C) Series of membranes D) Sites of lipid and cholesterol TESTsynthesis BANKSEand LLmetabolism; ER.COM drug and toxin
detoxification
ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines synaptic vesicle? A) Event in which the resting membrane potential becomes less negative because of
an influx of cations; the beginning stage of an action potential B) Contains enzymes that detoxify chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide C) Group of membrane-bounded sacs; modifies and packages proteins for export or
use in the cell D) A vesicle containing neurotransmitters in the axon terminal of a neuron ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines synaptic cleft? A) Fluid-filled space at a synapse through which neurotransmitters diffuse B) Supportive extracellular matrix consisting of the basal lamina made by epithelial
cells and the reticular lamina made by underlying cells of connective tissue C) Single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina; the tissue appears
stratified because of the locations of the cell's nuclei D) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein collagen; gives a tissue tensile strength ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
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12. Which of the following statements accurately defines presynaptic neuron? A) The neuron that receives the message B) Contains the cell's DNA C) Proteins made by the ribosomes D) The neuron that sends the message; its axon terminals contain synaptic vesicles
with neurotransmitters ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines postsynaptic neuron? A) The neuron that sends the message B) Contains the cell's DNA C) Proteins made by the ribosomes D) The neuron that receives the message; its plasma membrane contains receptors for
neurotransmitters ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 12.1 Multipolar neuron. 14. In Figure 12.1, identify number 1. A) Axon B) Dendritic branches C) Mitochondrion D) Neurofibrils E) Synaptic cleft F) Telodendria ANS: B
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15. In Figure 12.1, identify number 2. A) Nucleolus B) Initial segment of axon
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C) Golgi apparatus D) Axon hillock E) Nissl bodies (RER and free ribosomes) F) Telodendria ANS: E
PTS: 1
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16. In Figure 12.1, identify number 3. A) Synaptic cleft B) Presynaptic membrane C) Dendritic branches D) Telodendrion E) Axon hillock F) Neurofibrils ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. In Figure 12.1, identify number 4. A) Axon hillock B) Dendrite C) Initial segment of axon D) Mitochondrion E) Neurofibrils F) Telodendrion ANS: A
PTS: 1
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18. In Figure 12.1, identify number TEST5.BANKSELLER.COM A) Dendrite B) Mitochondrion C) Axon D) Initial segment of axon E) Nucleolus F) Neurofibrils ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. In Figure 12.1, identify number 6. A) Dendrite B) Axon C) Golgi apparatus D) Mitochondrion E) Neurofibrils F) Telodendrion ANS: B
PTS: 1
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20. In Figure 12.1, identify number 7. A) Axon terminals B) Dendritic branches C) Golgi apparatus D) Nissl bodies (RER and free ribosomes)
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E) Mitochondrion F) Telodendria ANS: F
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21. In Figure 12.1, identify number 8. A) Axon terminals B) Dendritic branches C) Golgi apparatus D) Nissl bodies (RER and free ribosomes) E) Mitochondrion F) Telodendria ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 12.1, identify number 9. A) Dendrite B) Nucleolus C) Mitochondrion D) Axon hillock E) Nissl bodies (RER and free ribosomes) F) Telodendria ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 12.1, identify number 10. A) Axon B) Dendrite TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Nucleolus D) Golgi apparatus E) Neurofibrils F) Nucleus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 12.1, identify number 11. A) Golgi apparatus B) Dendritic branches C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Nucleolus E) Telodendria F) Nissl bodies (RER and free ribosomes) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 12.1, identify number 12. A) Axon B) Dendrite C) Nucleus D) Endoplasmic reticulum E) Neurofibrils F) Telodendrion
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 12.1, identify number 13. A) Axon B) Dendrite C) Nucleolus D) Golgi apparatus E) Neurofibrils F) Nucleus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 12.9 Neuron. 27. In Figure 12.9, identify number 1. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral D) Cell body E) Dendrites F) Nissl bodies G) Neurofibrils ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
28. In Figure 12.9, identify number 2. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral D) Cell body E) Dendrites F) Nissl bodies G) Neurofibrils ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
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29. In Figure 12.9, identify number 3. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral D) Cell body E) Dendrites F) Nissl bodies G) Telodendria ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
30. In Figure 12.9, identify number 4. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral D) Dendrites E) Nissl bodies F) Neurofibrils G) Telodendria ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
31. In Figure 12.9, identify number 5. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Cell body E) Dendrites F) Neurofibrils G) Telodendria ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
32. In Figure 12.9, identify number 6. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Axon collateral D) Cell body E) Dendrites F) Neurofibrils G) Telodendria ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
33. In Figure 12.9, identify number 7. A) Axon B) Axon hillock C) Telodendria D) Cell body E) Dendrites
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F) Nissl bodies G) Neurofibrils ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
34. In Figure 12.9, identify number 8. A) Axon hillock B) Axon collateral C) Cell body D) Dendrites E) Nissl bodies F) Neurofibrils G) Telodendria ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
35. The neuron pictured in Figure 12.9 is a A) pseudounipolar neuron. B) bipolar neuron. C) multipolar neuron. D) unipolar neuron. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
36. The main function of an axon is to A) generate EPSPs or IPSPs when neurotransmitters bind their membranes. B) generate and transmit signals in the form of action potentials. C) function as the biosynthetic ofSthe TESTcenter BANK ELneuron. LER.COM D) form the myelin sheath. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
37. Where are synaptic vesicles located? A) Axon terminals. B) Dendrites. C) Cell body. D) Both a and b are correct. E) All of the above. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
38. Which statement below most accurately describes the function of oligodendrocytes? A) Create the myelin sheath in the PNS B) Ciliated cells in the CNS that form and circulate cerebrospinal fluid C) Surround the cell bodies of neurons in the PNS D) Anchor neurons and blood vessels, maintain extracellular environment around
neurons, assist in the formation of the blood-brain barrier E) Phagocytic cells of the CNS F) Form the myelin sheath in the CNS ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
39. Which statement below most accurately describes the function of astrocytes?
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A) Create the myelin sheath in the PNS B) Ciliated cells in the CNS that form and circulate cerebrospinal fluid C) Surround the cell bodies of neurons in the PNS D) Anchor neurons and blood vessels, maintain extracellular environment around
neurons, assist in the formation of the blood-brain barrier E) Phagocytic cells of the CNS F) Form the myelin sheath in the CNS ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
40. Which statement below most accurately describes the function of microglial cells? A) Create the myelin sheath in the PNS B) Ciliated cells in the CNS that form and circulate cerebrospinal fluid C) Surround the cell bodies of neurons in the PNS D) Anchor neurons and blood vessels, maintain extracellular environment around
neurons, assist in the formation of the blood-brain barrier E) Phagocytic cells of the CNS F) Form the myelin sheath in the CNS ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
41. Which statement below most accurately describes the function of Schwann cells? A) Create the myelin sheath in the PNS B) Ciliated cells in the CNS that form and circulate cerebrospinal fluid C) Surround the cell bodies of neurons in the PNS D) Anchor neurons and blood vessels, maintain extracellular environment around
neurons, assist in the formation of the blood-brain barrier
ESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Phagocytic cells of theTCNS F) Form the myelin sheath in the CNS ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
42. Which statement below most accurately describes the function of satellite cells? A) Create the myelin sheath in the PNS B) Ciliated cells in the CNS that form and circulate cerebrospinal fluid C) Surround the cell bodies of neurons in the PNS D) Anchor neurons and blood vessels, maintain extracellular environment around
neurons, assist in the formation of the blood-brain barrier E) Phagocytic cells of the CNS F) Form the myelin sheath in the CNS ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
43. Which statement below most accurately describes the function of ependymal cells? A) Create the myelin sheath in the PNS B) Ciliated cells in the CNS that form and circulate cerebrospinal fluid C) Surround the cell bodies of neurons in the PNS D) Anchor neurons and blood vessels, maintain extracellular environment around
neurons, assist in the formation of the blood-brain barrier E) Phagocytic cells of the CNS F) Form the myelin sheath in the CNS
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
Figure 12.10 Myelin sheath. 44. In Figure 12.10, identify number 1. A) Axon B) Internode C) Myelin D) Neurilemma E) Node of Ranvier F) Oligodendrocyte G) Schwann cell ANS: G
ELLE R.12 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
45. In Figure 12.10, identify number 2. A) Axon B) Internode C) Myelin D) Neurilemma E) Node of Ranvier F) Oligodendrocyte G) Schwann cell ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
46. In Figure 12.10, identify number 3. A) Axon B) Internode C) Myelin D) Neurilemma E) Node of Ranvier F) Oligodendrocyte G) Schwann cell ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
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47. In Figure 12.10, identify number 4. A) Axon B) Internode C) Myelin D) Neurilemma E) Node of Ranvier F) Oligodendrocyte G) Schwann cell ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
48. In Figure 12.10, identify number 5. A) Axon B) Internode C) Myelin D) Neurilemma E) Node of Ranvier F) Oligodendrocyte G) Schwann cell ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
49. In Figure 12.10, identify number 6. A) Axon B) Internode C) Myelin D) Neurilemma TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Node of Ranvier F) Oligodendrocyte G) Schwann cell ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
Figure 12.11 Structure of a neuronal synapse.
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50. In Figure 12.11, identify number 1. A) Synaptic vesicle B) Neurotransmitter receptor C) Neurotransmitters D) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron E) Synaptic cleft F) Voltage-gated calcium ion channel G) Postsynaptic neuron ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
51. In Figure 12.11, identify number 2. A) Synaptic cleft B) Postsynaptic neuron C) Voltage-gated calcium ion channel D) Neurotransmitters E) Synaptic vesicle F) Neurotransmitter receptor G) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
52. In Figure 12.11, identify number 3. A) Neurotransmitter receptor B) Neurotransmitters C) Voltage-gated calcium ion channel D) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron E) Postsynaptic neuron TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Synaptic vesicle G) Synaptic cleft ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
53. In Figure 12.11, identify number 4. A) Synaptic cleft B) Voltage-gated calcium ion channel C) Synaptic vesicle D) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron E) Neurotransmitters F) Postsynaptic neuron G) Neurotransmitter receptor ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
54. In Figure 12.11, identify number 5. A) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron B) Neurotransmitter receptor C) Voltage-gated calcium ion channel D) Postsynaptic neuron E) Neurotransmitters F) Synaptic vesicle
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G) Synaptic cleft ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
55. In Figure 12.11, identify number 6. A) Neurotransmitters B) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron C) Synaptic vesicle D) Postsynaptic neuron E) Neurotransmitter receptor F) Synaptic cleft G) Voltage-gated calcium ion channel ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
56. In Figure 12.11, identify number 7. A) Synaptic cleft B) Synaptic vesicle C) Postsynaptic neuron D) Neurotransmitters E) Neurotransmitter receptor F) Voltage-gated calcium ion channels G) Axon terminal of presynaptic neuron ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
57. An action potential is generated at the A) trigger zone of the axon. TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) postsynaptic membrane. C) cell body. D) axon terminal. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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58. What triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicles? A) Arrival of a local potential at the cell body B) Hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane C) Neurotransmitters binding to the postsynaptic membrane D) The influx of calcium ions into the axon terminal ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
59. What is the difference between an excitatory postsynaptic potential and an inhibitory
postsynaptic potential? ANS:
An excitatory postsynaptic potential creates a local depolarization in the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron that brings it closer to threshold. An inhibitor postsynaptic potential does the opposite--it hyperpolarizes the membrane and brings it farther away from threshold. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Recall
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60. You are examining a neuronal process and you find that it generates action potentials. Is this
an axon or a dendrite? How can you tell? ANS:
This must be an axon, because by definition only axons generate action potentials. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
61. You are examining another neuron, and find that it has two processes, both of which generate
action potentials. What is the structural class of this neuron? How did you come to this conclusion? ANS:
This is a pseudounipolar neuron, in which it has two axons, a central process and a peripheral process. Both processes are capable of generating action potentials, and so both are axons. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
62. A damaged axon in the PNS may be able to regenerate only if the cell body is intact. Why do
you think that the cell body must be intact for regeneration to occur? (Hint: Think about the function of the organelles and other structures located in the cell body.) ANS:
The cell body contains the nucleus and most of the other cellular machinery necessary for protein synthesis. In addition, organelles like the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, which synthesizes membrane phospholipids, are located in the cell body. Unless these structures are intact, a neuron cannot make new cellular parts to repair itself.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
63. Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease, in which the patient's immune system attacks
and destroys the cells that form the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. What types of symptoms would you expect from such a disease? Why? Would Schwann cells or oligodendrocytes be affected? Explain. ANS:
The myelin sheath increases the speed of action potential conduction within the CNS. As MS results in the destruction of the myelin sheath, it causes slowing of action potential conduction. This causes muscle weakness and eventual paralysis and can cause cognitive impairment. MS affects oligodendrocytes. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
64. The bacterium Clostridium tetani produces a toxin called tetanospasmin, the causative agent
of the disease tetanus. The toxin prevents the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS and so blocks the resulting IPSPs they would normally generate. What are some of the functions of inhibitory synapses? Considering this, what symptoms would you expect from the disease tetanus, and why? (Hint: Imagine trying to stand up if all of the muscles in your lower limb contracted at the same time.) ANS:
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Inhibitory synapses perform several functions, including preventing antagonist muscles from contracting while agonist muscles are simultaneously contracting. When inhibitory synapses are prevented by tetanospasmin, antagonist and agonist muscles contract at the same time. This leads to painful muscle contractures, a situation in which all muscles are in spasm and movement is impossible. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
65. Certain inhaled anesthetic agents are thought to open Cl– channels in the membranes of
postsynaptic neurons in the brain, an effect that causes IPSPs. Why might this action put a person “to sleep” during anesthesia? ANS:
The inhibitory potentials summate, which prevents action potentials from being generated in affected neurons, effectively putting them “to sleep.” PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
66. Predict what would happen if the calcium ion channels in the axon terminal were blocked.
Explain. ANS:
Blocking calcium ion channels in the axon terminal would inhibit exocytosis of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. This would shut off synaptic transmission between two neurons. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 12 Check Your Understanding
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67. A neuron that excites skeletal muscle cells in your biceps muscles is functionally a(n)
_________ neuron and structurally a(n) ______ neuron. A) motor, bipolar B) motor, multipolar C) sensory, unipolar D) sensory, bipolar ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
68. Neurons that reside entirely within the CNS are _______ neurons. Structurally, most of these
neurons belong to the ______ classification. A) sensory, unipolar B) motor, bipolar C) inter, multipolar D) motor, multipolar ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
69. A neuron with many short dendrites and a single long axon is a _______________. A) multipolar neuron B) bipolar neuron
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C) unipolar neuron D) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
70. Which of the following cells is responsible for myelin formation in the central nervous
system? A) Astrocytes B) Oligodendrocytes C) Schwann cells D) Microglial cells ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
71. ____________ neurons function as sensory neurons. A) Unipolar B) Bipolar C) Multipolar D) Efferent E) A and B ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
72. Gray matter primarily contains ________________. A) myelinated fibers TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) neuron cell bodies C) Schwann cells D) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
73. Axons within nerves may have which of the following associated with them? A) Schwann cells B) Nodes of Ranvier C) Oligodendrocytes D) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
74. An inhibitory neuron could affect the neuron with which it synapses by _______________. A) producing an IPSP within the neuron B) hyperpolarizing the neuron C) increasing K+ efflux from the neuron D) increasing Cl– influx into the neuron E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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75. Which of the following organelles is responsible for the appearance of Nissl bodies in the cell
bodies of motor neurons? A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) Basal bodies ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
76. Positively charged ions are known as _____________, whereas negatively charged ions are
known as _________. A) charged atoms, neutrons B) cations, anions C) positrons, electrons D) protons, electrons E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
77. The Na+/K+ pump operates by pumping _______________ ions out of the cell while pumping
________ ions into the cell. A) 3 Na+, 2 K+ B) 2 Na+, 2 Cl+ C) 1 Na+, 3 K+ D) 3 K+, 2 Cl– TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
78. What would result from inhibition of a neuron's sodium-potassium pump? A) The membrane would lose its polarity. B) Potassium would undergo a net movement to the cell's interior. C) Cytoplasmic anions would diffuse out of the cell. D) Sodium would accumulate outside of the cell. E) A and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
79. Impulse propagation is associated with __________________. A) graded potentials B) chemically gated ion channels C) hyperpolarization D) voltage-gated sodium channels E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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80. Hyperpolarization results from _________________. A) sodium flux into the cell B) chloride flux into the cell C) potassium flux into the cell D) potassium flux out of the cell E) B and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
81. Which of the following is involved with a positive feedback cycle? A) Na+/K+ pump B) Chemically gated channels C) Voltage-gated sodium channels D) Resting membrane potential E) C and D ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
82. Which is not a characteristic of a chemical synapse? A) Abundant gap junctions B) Voltage-gated channels in the presynaptic membrane C) Unidirectional communication D) Synaptic delay E) A and C ANS: A PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Hard ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions 83. An IPSP is associated with _____________. A) the opening of chemically gated channels for K+ B) hyperpolarization C) reduced excitability D) depolarization E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
84. If the following receptors were stimulated simultaneously, which signal would reach the brain
first? A) Pain receptors in the skin of the toe B) Sensory receptors in a nearby blood vessel wall C) Small touch receptors in a nearby blood vessel wall D) Pressure receptors found in the toe's musculature ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
85. What do myelin sheath membranes lack that makes them good insulators? A) Lipids
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B) Carbohydrates C) Channel and carrier proteins D) Close contact with adjacent membranes E) A and C ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
86. Sensory neurons ______________. A) transmit impulses to the brain and spinal cord B) transmit impulses to the brain only C) transmit impulses to the muscle only D) transmit impulses to the spinal cord only E) A and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
87. Nissl bodies are ________________. A) found in the neuron's cell body B) another name for the rough endoplasmic reticulum C) involved in neurotransmitter production D) A and C E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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88. The neural impulse is the ___________ of a neuron's _______ that moves along the cell's
_______. A) action potential, voltage change, axon B) voltage change, Na+/K+ pump, dendrites C) action potential, Na+/K+ pump, dendrites D) action potential, Na+/K+ pump, neurolemma E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
89. The cell type that most sends and receives messages in the nervous system is the
_________________________. A) neuron B) microglia C) astrocyte D) oligodendrocyte ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
90. Which of the following neuroglial types would be classified as epithelium? A) Astrocyte B) Ependymal cells
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C) Oligodendrocyte D) Microglia ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
91. Cell types with an abundance of smooth ER include __________________. A) neurons B) Schwann cells C) astrocytes D) oligodendrocytes E) B and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
92. The region of a neuron with voltage-gated sodium channels is the ____________. A) axon hillock B) soma C) dendrite D) perikaryon ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
93. Which of the following would be a direct result of destruction of a neuron's neurofilaments? A) Cessation of protein synthesis B) Loss of normal cell shape TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Inhibition of impulse transmission D) Interference with intracellular transport E) A and D ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
94. Where might a gray matter nucleus be located? A) Alongside the vertebral column B) Within the brain C) Within the spinal cord D) In the sensory receptor E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
95. Under the microscope, the histological examination of a slice of neural tissue reveals a bundle
of nerve fibers held together by cells with multiple processes wrapped around several fibers and forming a myelin sheath. The specimen is likely to be a ______________________. A) nucleus B) ganglion C) nerve D) tract
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ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
96. The action potential of a nerve is generated at the _______________ of the axon. A) nerve cell membrane B) nucleus C) hillock D) receptors E) terminal endings ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 12 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 13 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines cerebral hemispheres? A) The most superior portion of the brainstem B) One of two general types of bones found in the skull that encase the brain C) Superior part of the brain accounting for the great majority of its mass D) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines cerebral cortex? A) The outer 2 mm of the cerebrum B) Consists of gray matter C) The plasma membrane of the brain D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines basal nuclei? A) Site of protein synthesis B) Site of most of the cell's ATP production C) Another term for a muscle cell D) Nuclei in the cerebrum that initiate voluntary motor functions and inhibit
inappropriate movement ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBA NKSELLdefines ER.Ccorpus OM callosum? 4. Which of the following statements accurately A) Peripheral nerves that originate from the brain B) Parts of a peripheral nerve C) Large tract of cerebral white matter that connects the right and left cerebral hemisphere D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines diencephalon? A) The spaces between the two layers of the dura mater that drain cerebrospinal fluid
and venous blood from the brain B) Central core of the brain located deep to the cerebral hemispheres that contains the
thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus C) Thin mucous membrane covering the anterior eyeball and internal surface of the
eyelids D) Largely involuntary branch of the PNS charged with maintaining many aspects of
homeostasis ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines thalamus? A) Terminal end of the spinal cord B) Areas of the gray matter in the spinal column C) Spaces between segments of the myelin sheath
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D) Egg-shaped mass of gray and white matter that serves as the gateway for
information going into the cerebrum; largest component of the diencephalon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines hypothalamus? A) Anteroinferior portion of the diencephalon responsible for maintaining the
homeostasis of many physiologic variables and vital processes B) The spaces between the two layers of the dura mater that drain cerebrospinal fluid and venous blood from the brain C) Structures of the spinal cord D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines midbrain? A) The most superior portion of the brainstem B) Bundle of nerves in the center of the brain C) Deep postural brain muscles that run along the vertebral column D) The senses of smell and taste ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines pons? A) Small structure that carries out many of the body's homeostatic functions;
anteroinferior portion of the diencephalon B) The spaces between the two layers of the dura mater that drain cerebrospinal fluid
and venous blood fromTthe ESbrain TBANKSELLER.COM C) The innermost of the three meninges covering the brain D) Portion of the brainstem lying inferior to the midbrain and superior to the medulla oblongata ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines medulla oblongata? A) A fatty sheath found around certain axons that increases the speed of conduction of
a nerve impulse B) Dark regions of the striations in the brain tissue that consist of thick and thin filaments or thick filaments only C) The most inferior portion of the brainstem D) The innermost of the three meninges covering the brain ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines cerebellum? A) Extracellular matrix surrounding brain fibers B) Posterior portion of the brain that monitors ongoing movement C) Tough but flexible tissue resistant to tension, stretching, and compressive forces D) The outer 2 mm of the cerebrum; consists of gray matter ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines dura mater?
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A) The middle meninx covering the brain B) The innermost of the three meninges covering the brain C) The outermost of the three meninges covering the brain D) The most inferior portion of the brainstem ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines arachnoid mater? A) The innermost of the three meninges covering the brain B) Posterior portion of the brain that monitors ongoing movement C) Portion of the brain that recognizes fear and releases endorphins D) The middle meninx covering the brain ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines pia mater? A) Nuclei in the cerebrum that monitor voluntary motor functions B) The innermost of the three meninges covering the brain C) The outermost of the three meninges covering the brain D) The most superior portion of the brainstem ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines ventricles? A) Cavities in the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid B) A small potential space that contains serous fluid; located between the two layers
of the serous pericardium C) Three-cusped structureTbetween and ESTBAthe NKright SELatrium LER.C OMright ventricle that prevents
the flow of blood back into the right atrium
D) Large vein that carries blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines dural sinuses? A) Cerebral white matter that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres B) The spaces between the two layers of the dura mater that drain cerebrospinal fluid
and venous blood from the brain C) Portion of the brainstem lying inferior to the midbrain and superior to the medulla oblongata D) Egg-shaped mass of gray and white matter that serves as the gateway for information going into the cerebrum; largest component of the diencephalon ANS: B
PTS: 1
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17. Which of the following statements accurately defines gray matter horns (anterior, posterior,
lateral)? A) Areas of the gray matter in the spinal column B) Cerebral white matter that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres C) Superior part of the brain accounting for the great majority of its mass D) Columns of white matter found in the spinal cord ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Pre-Lab Exercise
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18. Which of the following statements accurately defines funiculi (anterior, posterior, lateral)? A) Areas of the gray matter in the spinal column B) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart C) Columns of white matter found in the spinal cord D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
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19. Which of the following statements accurately defines conus medullaris? A) The innermost of the three meninges covering the brain B) Tuft of nerve roots extending from the conus medullaris C) Group of muscle fibers surrounded by the perimysium D) Terminal end of the spinal cord ANS: D
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20. Which of the following statements accurately defines filum terminale? A) Cavities in the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid B) Long, thin, fibrous extension from the spinal cord C) Terminal end of the spinal cord D) A small potential space that contains serous fluid ANS: B
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21. Which of the following statements accurately defines cauda equina? A) Tuft of nerve roots extending from the conus medullaris B) Cavities in the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid C) Nuclei in the cerebrumTthat voluntary ESTmonitor BANKS ELLERmotor .COMfunctions D) Long, thin, fibrous extension from the spinal cord ANS: A
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Figure 13.1 Brain, lateral view.
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22. In Figure 13.1, identify number 1. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Pons G) Temporal lobe ANS: B
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23. In Figure 13.1, identify number 2. A) Central sulcus B) Cerebellum C) Lateral sulcus D) Parietal lobe E) Parieto-occipital sulcus F) Postcentral gyrus G) Precentral gyrus ANS: G
PTS: 1
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24. In Figure 13.1, identify number 3. A) Central sulcus B) Lateral sulcus C) Occipital lobe D) Parieto-occipital sulcus TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Postcentral gyrus F) Precentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: A
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25. In Figure 13.1, identify number 4. A) Central sulcus B) Lateral sulcus C) Occipital lobe D) Parieto-occipital sulcus E) Postcentral gyrus F) Precentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: E
PTS: 1
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26. In Figure 13.1, identify number 5. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Gyri
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G) Temporal lobe ANS: E
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27. In Figure 13.1, identify number 6. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Parieto-occipital sulcus F) Postcentral gyrus G) Precentral gyrus ANS: E
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28. In Figure 13.1, identify number 7. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Transverse fissure F) Sulci G) Pons ANS: F
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29. In Figure 13.1, identify number 8. A) Cerebellum TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Transverse fissure F) Sulci G) Pons ANS: D
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30. In Figure 13.1, identify number 9. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Transverse fissure F) Sulci G) Pons ANS: E
PTS: 1
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31. In Figure 13.1, identify number 10. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata
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D) Occipital lobe E) Transverse fissure F) Sulci G) Pons ANS: A
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32. In Figure 13.1, identify number 11. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Transverse fissure F) Sulci G) Pons ANS: C
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33. In Figure 13.1, identify number 12. A) Cerebellum B) Frontal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Transverse fissure F) Sulci G) Pons ANS: G
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34. In Figure 13.1, identify number 13. A) Frontal lobe B) Parietal lobe C) Gyri D) Occipital lobe E) Parieto-occipital sulcus F) Pons G) Temporal lobe ANS: G
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35. In Figure 13.1, identify number 14. A) Central sulcus B) Cerebellum C) Lateral sulcus D) Gyri E) Parieto-occipital sulcus F) Postcentral gyrus G) Precentral gyrus ANS: C
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36. In Figure 13.1, identify number 15.
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A) Central sulcus B) Cerebellum C) Lateral sulcus D) Gyri E) Parieto-occipital sulcus F) Postcentral gyrus G) Precentral gyrus ANS: D
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 13.2 Brain, superior view. 37. In Figure 13.2, identify number 1. A) Left occipital lobe B) Left parietal lobe C) Left frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Left hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Longitudinal fissure ANS: C
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38. In Figure 13.2, identify number 2. A) Left occipital lobe B) Left parietal lobe C) Left frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Left hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Longitudinal fissure ANS: E
PTS: 1
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39. In Figure 13.2, identify number 3. A) Right occipital lobe B) Right parietal lobe C) Right frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Right hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Longitudinal fissure ANS: E
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 13.2, identify number 4. A) Right parietal lobe B) Central sulcus C) Right frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Right hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Longitudinal fissure ANS: G
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41. In Figure 13.2, identify number 5. A) Right parietal lobe B) Central sulcus C) Right frontal lobe D) Right occipital lobe TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Right hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Postcentral gyrus ANS: C
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42. In Figure 13.2, identify number 6. A) Right parietal lobe B) Central sulcus C) Right frontal lobe D) Right occipital lobe E) Right hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Postcentral gyrus ANS: F
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43. In Figure 13.2, identify number 7. A) Right parietal lobe B) Central sulcus C) Right occipital lobe D) Precentral gyrus E) Right hemisphere
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F) Postcentral gyrus G) Postcentral gyrus ANS: B
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44. In Figure 13.2, identify number 8. A) Right parietal lobe B) Right occipital lobe C) Right frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Right hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Postcentral gyrus ANS: D
PTS: 1
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45. In Figure 13.2, identify number 9. A) Right parietal lobe B) Right hemisphere C) Right frontal lobe D) Central sulcus E) Postcentral gyrus F) Precentral gyrus G) Right occipital lobe ANS: A
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46. In Figure 13.2, identify number TEST10. BANKSELLER.COM A) Right parietal lobe B) Right hemisphere C) Right frontal lobe D) Central sulcus E) Postcentral gyrus F) Precentral gyrus G) Right occipital lobe ANS: G
PTS: 1
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47. In Figure 13.2, identify number 11. A) Left occipital lobe B) Left parietal lobe C) Left frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Left hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Longitudinal fissure ANS: A
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48. In Figure 13.2, identify number 12. A) Left occipital lobe B) Left parietal lobe
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C) Left frontal lobe D) Postcentral gyrus E) Left hemisphere F) Precentral gyrus G) Longitudinal fissure ANS: B
PTS: 1
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TESsection. TBANKSELLER.COM Figure 13.3 Brain, midsagittal 49. In Figure 13.3, identify number 1. A) Lateral ventricle B) Hypothalamus C) Infundibulum D) Corpus callosum E) Choroid plexus F) Mammillary body G) Pituitary gland ANS: D
PTS: 1
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50. In Figure 13.3, identify number 2. A) Frontal lobe B) Parietal lobe C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Cerebellum F) Lateral ventricle G) Temporal lobe ANS: A
PTS: 1
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51. In Figure 13.3, identify number 3. A) Fornix B) Pons C) Medulla oblongata D) Occipital lobe E) Hypothalamus F) Lateral ventricle G) Temporal lobe ANS: F
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52. In Figure 13.3, identify number 4. A) Central canal B) Hypothalamus C) Choroid plexus D) Midbrain E) Infundibulum F) Thalamus G) Pituitary gland ANS: B
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53. In Figure 13.3, identify number 5. A) Mammillary body B) Corpus callosum C) Midbrain D) Arbor vitae TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Fornix F) Pons G) Intermediate mass of the thalamus ANS: A
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54. In Figure 13.3, identify number 6. A) Thalamus B) Arbor vitae C) Cerebral aqueduct D) Infundibulum E) Intermediate mass of the thalamus F) Midbrain G) Fornix ANS: D
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55. In Figure 13.3, identify number 7. A) Cerebellum B) Choroid plexus C) Corpus callosum D) Fornix E) Mammillary body F) Pituitary gland
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G) Thalamus ANS: F
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56. In Figure 13.3, identify number 8. A) Lateral ventricle B) Fourth ventricle C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe E) Temporal lobe F) Parietal lobe G) Medulla oblongata ANS: E
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57. In Figure 13.3, identify number 9. A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Pons D) Midbrain E) Occipital lobe F) Thalamus G) Pituitary gland ANS: C
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58. In Figure 13.3, identify number 10. A) Cerebellum TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Medulla oblongata C) Pons D) Midbrain E) Occipital lobe F) Thalamus G) Pituitary gland ANS: B
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59. In Figure 13.3, identify number 11. A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Pons D) Choroid plexus E) Spinal cord F) Thalamus G) Central canal ANS: G
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60. In Figure 13.3, identify number 12. A) Fornix B) Medulla oblongata C) Pons
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D) Choroid plexus E) Spinal cord F) Infundibulum G) Central canal ANS: E
PTS: 1
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61. In Figure 13.3, identify number 13. A) Cerebellum B) Hypothalamus C) Medulla oblongata D) Pineal body/gland (part of epithalamus) E) Pituitary gland F) Fourth ventricle G) Pons ANS: A
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62. In Figure 13.3, identify number 14. A) Corpus callosum B) Arbor vitae C) Parieto-occipital sulcus D) Mammillary body E) Lateral ventricle F) Choroid plexus G) Thalamus ANS: F
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63. In Figure 13.3, identify number 15. A) Frontal lobe B) Occipital lobe C) Midbrain D) Fourth ventricle E) Pineal body/gland (part of epithalamus) F) Lateral ventricle G) Medulla oblongata ANS: D
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64. In Figure 13.3, identify number 16. A) Choroid plexus B) Mammillary body C) Cerebral aqueduct D) Hypothalamus E) Intermediate mass of the thalamus F) Infundibulum G) Arbor vitae ANS: G
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65. In Figure 13.3, identify number 17.
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A) Choroid plexus B) Mammillary body C) Cerebral aqueduct D) Hypothalamus E) Intermediate mass of the thalamus F) Infundibulum G) Arbor vitae ANS: C
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66. In Figure 13.3, identify number 18. A) Mammillary body B) Parieto-occipital sulcus C) Midbrain D) Pons E) Hypothalamus F) Intermediate mass of the thalamus G) Thalamus ANS: C
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67. In Figure 13.3, identify number 19. A) Frontal lobe B) Fourth ventricle C) Lateral ventricle D) Medulla oblongata E) Occipital lobe TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Parietal lobe G) Temporal lobe ANS: E
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68. In Figure 13.3, identify number 20. A) Infundibulum B) Mammillary body C) Pineal gland (part of epithalamus) D) Parieto-occipital sulcus E) Cerebral aqueduct F) Arbor vitae G) Choroid plexus ANS: C
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69. In Figure 13.3, identify number 21. A) Thalamus B) Mammillary body C) Pineal gland (part of epithalamus) D) Parieto-occipital sulcus E) Cerebral aqueduct F) Fornix G) Choroid plexus
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ANS: D
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70. In Figure 13.3, identify number 22. A) Thalamus B) Pons C) Pineal gland (part of epithalamus) D) Parieto-occipital sulcus E) Pituitary gland F) Fornix G) Arbor vitae ANS: A
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71. In Figure 13.3, identify number 23. A) Cerebral aqueduct B) Parieto-occipital sulcus C) Hypothalamus D) Thalamus E) Mammillary body F) Fornix G) Choroid plexus ANS: G
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72. In Figure 13.3, identify number 24. A) Cerebral aqueduct B) Central canal TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Hypothalamus D) Thalamus E) Mammillary body F) Fornix G) Choroid plexus ANS: F
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73. In Figure 13.3, identify number 25. A) Occipital lobe B) Medulla oblongata C) Parietal lobe D) Fourth ventricle E) Cerebellum F) Frontal lobe G) Temporal lobe ANS: C
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74. In Figure 13.3, identify number 26. A) Fornix B) Intermediate mass of the thalamus C) Mammillary body D) Pituitary gland E) Thalamus
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F) Midbrain G) Choroid plexus ANS: B
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Figure 13.4 Brain and meninges, frontal and parasagittal section. 75. In Figure 13.4, identify number 1. A) Arachnoid mater B) Dura mater C) Subarachnoid space TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Falx cerebri E) Pia mater F) Subdural space G) Superior sagittal sinus ANS: F
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76. In Figure 13.4, identify number 2. A) Arachnoid mater B) Subarachnoid space C) Dura mater D) Falx cerebri E) Superior sagittal sinus F) Pia mater G) Subdural space ANS: B
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77. In Figure 13.4, identify number 3. A) Arachnoid mater B) Subarachnoid space C) Dura mater D) Falx cerebri E) Superior sagittal sinus
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F) Pia mater G) Subdural space ANS: E
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78. In Figure 13.4, identify number 4. A) Arachnoid granulation B) Arachnoid mater C) Dura mater D) Falx cerebri E) Superior sagittal sinus F) Pia mater G) Periosteum ANS: A
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79. In Figure 13.4, identify number 5. A) Arachnoid granulation B) Arachnoid mater C) Dura mater D) Falx cerebri E) Superior sagittal sinus F) Pia mater G) Periosteum ANS: D
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80. In Figure 13.4, identify number TEST6.BANKSELLER.COM A) Arachnoid granulation B) Blood vessel C) Bone of skull D) Dura mater E) Meningeal layer F) Periosteum G) Skin of scalp ANS: G
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81. In Figure 13.4, identify number 7. A) Arachnoid mater B) Bone of skull C) Dura mater D) Periosteum E) Periosteal layer F) Pia mater G) Skin of scalp ANS: D
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82. In Figure 13.4, identify number 8. A) Arachnoid granulation B) Bone of skull
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C) Falx cerebri D) Periosteum E) Periosteal layer F) Pia mater G) Skin of scalp ANS: B
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83. In Figure 13.4, identify number 9. A) Arachnoid granulation B) Arachnoid mater C) Falx cerebri D) Meningeal layer E) Periosteum F) Periosteal layer G) Pia mater ANS: F
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84. In Figure 13.4, identify number 10. A) Falx cerebri B) Arachnoid mater C) Dura mater D) Meningeal layer E) Periosteum F) Periosteal layer G) Pia mater
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ANS: D
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85. In Figure 13.4, identify number 11. A) Dura mater B) Falx cerebri C) Arachnoid mater D) Meningeal layer E) Periosteum F) Periosteal layer G) Pia mater ANS: C
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86. In Figure 13.4, identify number 12. A) Dura mater B) Falx cerebri C) Arachnoid mater D) Meningeal layer E) Periosteum F) Periosteal layer G) Pia mater ANS: G
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 13.4, identify number 13. A) Arachnoid granulation B) Blood vessel C) Falx cerebri D) Periosteum E) Subarachnoid space F) Subdural space G) Superior sagittal sinus ANS: B
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88. In Figure 13.4, identify number 14. A) Arachnoid mater B) Dura mater C) Meningeal layer D) Periosteum E) Periosteal layer F) Pia mater G) Falx cerebri ANS: B
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Figure 13.5A Spinal cord: brain and spinal cord, posterior view. 89. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 1. A) Cauda equina
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B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement ANS: B
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90. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 2. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement ANS: E
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91. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 3. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement ANS: H
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92. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 4. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement ANS: D
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93. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 5. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone
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E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement ANS: C
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94. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 6. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement ANS: A
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95. In Figure 13.5A, identify number 7. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Foramen magnum of the occipital bone E) Dura and arachnoid mater F) Falx cerebri G) Filum terminale H) Lumbar enlargement TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: G
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Figure 13.5B Spinal cord: spinal cord, transverse section in the vertebral column showing spinal meninges and associated spaces. 96. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 1. A) Pia mater
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B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Dura mater D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Arachnoid mater G) Body of vertebra ANS: C
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97. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 2. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Dura mater D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Arachnoid mater G) Body of vertebra ANS: F
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98. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 3. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Dura mater D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Arachnoid mater TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Body of vertebra ANS: A
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99. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 4. A) Arachnoid mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Dura mater D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Pia mater G) Subarachnoid space (contains CSF) ANS: D
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100. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 5. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Posterior root ganglion D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Arachnoid G) Denticulate ligament ANS: G
PTS: 1
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101. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 6. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Posterior root ganglion D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Arachnoid G) Denticulate ligament ANS: C
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102. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 7. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Posterior root ganglion D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Arachnoid G) Body of vertebra ANS: B
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103. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 8. A) Arachnoid mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Dura mater TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Pia mater G) Subarachnoid space (contains CSF) ANS: E
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104. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 9. A) Arachnoid mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Dura mater D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space F) Pia mater G) Subarachnoid space (contains CSF) ANS: G
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105. In Figure 13.5B, identify number 10. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space (contains fat) C) Body of vertebra D) Spinal meninges E) Subdural space
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F) Arachnoid G) Denticulate ligament ANS: C
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Figure 13.19 Brain, lateral view. 106. In Figure 13.19, identify number 1. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Postcentral gyrus G) Precentral gyrus ANS: G
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TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
107. In Figure 13.19, identify number 2. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Precentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
108. In Figure 13.19, identify number 3. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Postcentral gyrus
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F) Precentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: C
PTS: 1
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109. In Figure 13.19, identify number 4. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Parietal lobe E) Postcentral gyrus F) Precentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
110. In Figure 13.19, identify number 5. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Postcentral gyrus G) Precentral gyrus ANS: A
PTS: 1
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111. In Figure 13.19, identify number 6.ANKSELLER.COM TESTB A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Postcentral gyrus F) Precentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
112. In Figure 13.19, identify number 7. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Postcentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
113. In Figure 13.19, identify number 8. A) Central sulcus B) Frontal lobe
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C) Lateral sulcus D) Occipital lobe E) Parietal lobe F) Postcentral gyrus G) Temporal lobe ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Figure 13.20 Brain, midsagittal section. 114. In Figure 13.20, identify number 1. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Midbrain F) Pineal gland G) Thalamus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
115. In Figure 13.20, identify number 2. A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Midbrain F) Pons G) Thalamus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
116. In Figure 13.20, identify number 3. A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum
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C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Midbrain F) Pineal gland G) Pons ANS: E
PTS: 1
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117. In Figure 13.20, identify number 4. A) Cerebellum B) Hypothalamus C) Medulla oblongata D) Midbrain E) Pineal gland F) Pons G) Thalamus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
118. In Figure 13.20, identify number 5. A) Cerebellum B) Hypothalamus C) Medulla oblongata D) Midbrain E) Pineal gland F) Pons G) Thalamus
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
119. In Figure 13.20, identify number 6. A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Pineal gland F) Pons G) Thalamus ANS: G
PTS: 1
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120. In Figure 13.20, identify number 7. A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Midbrain F) Pineal gland G) Thalamus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
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121. In Figure 13.20, identify number 8. A) Cerebellum B) Corpus callosum C) Hypothalamus D) Medulla oblongata E) Pineal gland F) Pons G) Thalamus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
Figure 13.21 Brain, left lateral TESview. TBANKSELLER.COM 122. In Figure 13.21, identify number 1. A) Central canal B) Cerebral aqueduct C) Fourth ventricle D) Lateral ventricle E) Third ventricle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
123. In Figure 13.21, identify number 2. A) Central canal B) Cerebral aqueduct C) Fourth ventricle D) Lateral ventricle E) Third ventricle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
124. In Figure 13.21, identify number 3. A) Central canal B) Cerebral aqueduct C) Fourth ventricle D) Lateral ventricle
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E) Third ventricle ANS: B
PTS: 1
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125. In Figure 13.21, identify number 4. A) Central canal B) Cerebral aqueduct C) Fourth ventricle D) Lateral ventricle E) Third ventricle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
126. In Figure 13.21, identify number 5. A) Central canal B) Cerebral aqueduct C) Fourth ventricle D) Lateral ventricle E) Third ventricle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
127. Which of the following is not one of the four main regions of the brain? A) Cerebrum (cerebral hemispheres) B) Brainstem C) Cerebral aqueduct D) Cerebellum E) Diencephalon TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C
PTS: 1
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128. Gray matter consists of A) cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons. B) myelinated axons. C) unmyelinated axons. D) myelinated cell bodies, dendrites, and axons. ANS: A
PTS: 1
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129. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the A) ventricles of the brain. B) arachnoid granulations. C) dural sinuses. D) choroid plexuses. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
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Figure 13.22 Spinal cord, posterior view.
TESTB 130. In Figure 13.22, identify number 1.ANKSELLER.COM A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Filum terminale E) Lumbar enlargement ANS: B
PTS: 1
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131. In Figure 13.22, identify number 2. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Filum terminale E) Lumbar enlargement ANS: E
PTS: 1
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132. In Figure 13.22, identify number 3. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Filum terminale E) Lumbar enlargement
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
133. In Figure 13.22, identify number 4. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Filum terminale E) Lumbar enlargement ANS: A
PTS: 1
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134. In Figure 13.22, identify number 5. A) Cauda equina B) Cervical enlargement C) Conus medullaris D) Filum terminale E) Lumbar enlargement ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
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Figure 13.23 Spinal cord, transverse section in the vertebral column showing spinal meninges and associated spaces. 135. In Figure 13.23, identify number 1. A) Pia mater B) Dura mater C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Posterior horn F) Subarachnoid space G) Posterior root ganglion ANS: B
PTS: 1
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136. In Figure 13.23, identify number 2. A) Pia mater
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B) Dura mater C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Posterior horn F) Subarachnoid space G) Posterior root ganglion ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
137. In Figure 13.23, identify number 3. A) Pia mater B) Dura mater C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Posterior horn F) Subarachnoid space G) Posterior root ganglion ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
138. In Figure 13.23, identify number 4. A) Pia mater B) Dura mater C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Posterior horn F) Subarachnoid space G) Posterior root ganglionTESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
139. In Figure 13.23, identify number 5. A) Central canal B) Subarachnoid space C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Pia mater F) Epidural space G) Posterior horn ANS: A
PTS: 1
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140. In Figure 13.23, identify number 6. A) Central canal B) Subarachnoid space C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Pia mater F) Epidural space G) Posterior horn ANS: F
PTS: 1
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141. In Figure 13.23, identify number 7. A) Central canal B) Subarachnoid space C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Pia mater F) Epidural space G) Posterior horn ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
142. In Figure 13.23, identify number 8. A) Central canal B) Subarachnoid space C) Arachnoid mater D) Anterior horn E) Pia mater F) Epidural space G) Posterior horn ANS: B
PTS: 1
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143. In Figure 13.23, identify number 9. A) Pia mater B) Epidural space C) Arachnoid mater TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Anterior horn E) Posterior horn F) Subarachnoid space G) Posterior root ganglion ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
144. The spinal cord extends from the __________ of the occipital bone to the __________
vertebra. It terminates as the __________ and gives off a bundle of nerve roots called the __________. A) conus medullaris, 1st/2nd lumbar, foramen magnum, cauda equina B) 1st/2nd lumbar, conus medullaris, foramen magnum, cauda equina C) cauda equina, 1st/2nd lumbar, foramen magnum, conus medullaris D) foramen magnum, 1st/2nd lumbar, conus medullaris, cauda equina ANS: D
PTS: 1
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145. Which of the following spaces around the spinal cord is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A) Epidural space B) Subdural space C) Subarachnoid space D) All of the above. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
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146. The diencephalon consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
147. The outer, tough meninx around the brain is the dura mater. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
148. The cerebellum monitors ongoing movement to reduce motor error. ANS: T
PTS: 1
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149. The cerebral cortex is the outer 2 mm of white matter of the cerebrum. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
150. The corpus callosum is a large tract of white matter that connects the right and left cerebral
hemispheres. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Recall
151. Agenesis of the corpus callosum is a rare birth defect characterized by a lack of development
of the corpus callosum. What sort of functional impairment would you expect from such a defect? Explain. ANS:
The corpus callosum connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres, enabling them to ESTBANdoesn't KSELdevelop, LER.CO M two hemispheres will be unable to communicate. If the corpusTcallosum the communicate, leading to symptoms such as poor motor coordination and cognitive deficits. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
152. Predict the effects of injuries to the cerebellum. ANS:
Problems coordinating ongoing movement, difficulty learning new motor skills, problems with fine motor control PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
153. Predict the effects of injuries to the pons. ANS:
Breathing impairment, inability to move (other than the eyes), disruption of consciousness PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
154. Predict the effects of injuries to the thalamus. ANS:
Problems with sensory perception, movement disorders, sleep-wake cycle dysfunction
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
155. Predict what might happen if the choroid plexuses produced excessive CSF, in amounts
greater than the dural venous sinuses were able to absorb. ANS:
The accumulation of CSF would put pressure on the brain. This leads to a variety of symptoms including headache, vision changes, mental changes, and motor impairment. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
156. A common way to deliver anesthesia for surgery and childbirth is to inject the anesthetic agent
into the epidural space (epidural anesthesia). Why do you think the anesthetic is injected into the epidural space instead of the subarachnoid space? ANS:
Injecting into the subarachnoid space puts the needle right next to the spinal cord and makes it easier to accidentally injure it. Injecting into the epidural space doesn't require inserting the needle next to the spinal cord, nor does it require piercing any of the meninges, so it is a safer procedure. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
157. During a procedure called a lumbar puncture, CSF surrounding the meninges is withdrawn
with a needle. This procedure generally is performed between L3 and L5. Why do you think the fluid is withdrawn here rather than from higher up in the vertebral column? (Hint: Think about the structure and location of the spinal cord.)
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ANS:
CSF is withdrawn here to avoid injuring the spinal cord, which ends at L1-L2. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
158. During a procedure called a lumbar puncture, CSF surrounding the meninges is withdrawn
with a needle. Often, the sampled CSF is tested for bacteria or viruses if a brain infection is suspected. Why would CSF sampled from the spinal cord give you information about the condition of the brain? ANS:
CSF in the spinal cord is continuous with that of the brain; therefore, viruses/bacteria in the fluid surrounding the brain will also be in the fluid surrounding the spinal cord. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
159. During a procedure called a lumbar puncture, CSF surrounding the meninges is withdrawn
with a needle. Would you withdraw CSF if the needle were accidentally inserted into the epidural space instead of the subarachnoid space? Why or why not? ANS:
No CSF is present in the epidural space, which contains only fat. CSF is found only in the subarachnoid space.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
160. An individual sustains injuries to only the ascending tracts of the spinal cord. Will this person
experience deficits in movement, sensation, both, or neither? Explain. ANS:
The ascending tracts are the sensory tracts that carry sensory stimuli from the PNS to the CNS. Damage to these tracts will prevent sensory stimuli from being delivered to the CNS from the PNS, and the individual will therefore experience deficits in sensory perception. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 13 Check Your Understanding
161. When neurons in Wernick's area send impulses to neurons in Broca's area, the white matter
tracts utilized are _____________. A) commissural fibers B) projection fibers C) association fibers D) anterior funiculus ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
162. The basal nuclei include the _____________. A) hippocampus B) thalamus C) lentiform nucleus D) mammillary bodies TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
163. The three types of meninges are known as _______________. A) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater B) pia mater, arachidonic mater, and durham mater C) Pia mater, arachane mater, and dural mater D) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, and durol mater E) pia mater and dura mater ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
164. Which of the brain areas listed below is involved in normal voluntary muscle activity? A) Amygdala B) Putamen C) Medullary pyramids D) Insula ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
165. The spinal cord extends from the ___________.
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A) 1st cervical vertebra to the 5th lumbar vertebra B) brainstem to the 5th lumbar vertebra C) middle of the brainstem to the 5th lumbar vertebra D) medulla oblongata to the 2nd lumbar vertebra ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
166. Cranial nerves with their nuclei in the pons include the ______________ nerve. A) oculomotor B) vagus C) trigeminal D) trochlear E) cranial XII ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
167. Summation in the brain __________________. A) is caused by combining of several local potentials B) can occur when two action potentials arrive simultaneously at two different
presynaptic terminals C) can occur when two action potentials arrive in very close succession at single
presynaptic terminals D) is caused by multipolar motor neurons E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Hard ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions 168. A convergent circuit _________________. A) is a positive feedback system that produces many action potentials B) is a negative feedback system that produces IPSPs C) occurs when multiple neurons synapse onto a few neurons D) cannot be affected by a sodium channel blocker E) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
169. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the perineurium? A) It is a fascia surrounding many bundles of nerve fibers. B) It is a layer of connective tissue surrounding a single bundle (fascicle). C) It is a thin layer of reticular fibers covering individual nerve fibers. D) It is an artery-rich fascia covering the external layer of nerves. E) It is an artery-rich fascia covering the internal layer of nerves. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
170. Which function of the hypothalamus is FALSE? A) Cardiovascular regulation
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B) Regulation of sleeping and waking C) Houses the pneumotaxic area D) Sexual response E) Controls satiety ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
171. Cerebral gyri and cerebral sulci form the convolutions of the ______ matter within the
___________. A) gray, cerebral cortex B) white, cerebral cortex C) gray, cerebellum D) white, limbic E) A and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
172. Myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system are formed by _______, A) Schwann cells B) astrocytes C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia E) ependymal cell ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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173. Three nuclei within the medulla oblongata function as vital centers for controlling heart rate,
blood pressure, and _____________. A) rate and depth of breathing B) emotions C) body temperature D) water and electrolyte balance E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
174. True or False? The primary somatosensory area of the cerebral hemisphere(s) is found in the
precentral gyrus. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
175. True or False? The cortical area involved in audition is found in the occipital lobe. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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176. True or False? The primary motor area in the temporal lobe is involved in the initiation of
voluntary movements. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
177. True or False? The specialized motor speech area is located at the base of the precentral gyrus
in a location known as Wernick's area. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
178. True or False? The right cerebral hemisphere receives sensory output from the right side of the
body. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
179. The main visceral autonomic center of the brain, which regulates body temperature, water
balance, and pain, is known as the __________. A) pons B) hypothalamus C) cerebellum D) thalamus E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: Unit 13 SupplementalTQuestions ESTBANKSELLER.COM 180. The longitudinal fissure separates the _______________________. A) cerebral aqueduct B) frontal and occipital lobes of the brain C) right and left hemispheres of the brain D) sulci E) anterior and posterior hemispheres of the brain ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
181. Which area of the brain is responsible for the regulation of posture and coordination of
skeletal muscle movements? A) Hypothalamus B) Pons C) Medulla oblongata D) Cerebellum E) Pineal body ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
182. Which area of the brain is known as the relay station for afferent fibers traveling to the
sensory cortex for interpretation of the impulse signal?
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A) Hypothalamus B) Pons C) Medulla oblongata D) Pineal body E) Thalamus ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
183. Which area of the brain contains the autonomic centers that regulate blood pressure and
respiratory rhythm, such as coughing and sneezing centers? A) Hypothalamus B) Pons C) Medulla oblongata D) Pineal body E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
184. The secondary brain vesicle that is least developed in the adult brain is the ____________. A) telencephalon B) mesencephalon C) metencephalon D) rhombencephalon ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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185. Identify the incorrect association of a given region of the brain and the ventricle. A) Mesencephalon, third ventricle B) Cerebral hemisphere, lateral ventricle C) Pons, fourth ventricle D) Medulla, fourth ventricle E) B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
186. Which of the following is not part of the brainstem? A) Medulla B) Cerebellum C) Pons D) Midbrain ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
187. Connecting a ventricle to the subarachnoid space is the function of the ______________. A) interventricular foramen B) cerebral aqueduct C) lateral aperture
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D) median aperture E) C and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
188. Which of the following is NOT associated with the frontal lobe? A) Olfaction B) Motor control of the eyes C) Prefrontal cortex D) Skilled motor program E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 13 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 14 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines peripheral nerve? A) Process of the neuron that carries a nerve impulse away from the cell body toward
the target cell B) Small structure that carries out many of the body's homeostatic functions C) Superior part of the brain accounting for the great majority of its mass D) Bundles of axons that travel together in a common connective tissue sheath ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines cranial nerve? A) Peripheral nerves that attach to the brain B) Gland in the dermis that produces sweat and functions in thermoregulation and
excretion C) Nerve endings in the dermis that function in discriminative touch D) Peripheral nerves that originate from the ventricles ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines spinal nerve? A) Peripheral nerves that attach to the spinal cord B) An electrical impulse conducted along the neuron membrane C) Cell in the deep part of the epidermis that produces the pigment melanin D) Nerve endings in the dermis that function as deep pressure receptors ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines nerve plexus? A) Peripheral nerves that originate from the brain B) Parts of a peripheral nerve C) Spinal nerve plexuses D) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the same body region ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines autonomic nervous system? A) The branch of the ANS that adapts the body for rest and digestion B) Bundles of axons grouped together and bound by the perineurium C) Largely involuntary branch of the PNS charged with maintaining the homeostasis
of many regulated physiologic variables D) A vesicle containing neurotransmitters in the axon terminal of a neuron ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines sympathetic nervous system? A) The branch of the ANS that adapts the body for stress and exercise B) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the same body region C) The branch of the ANS that adapts the body for emotion D) The branch of the ANS that adapts the body for rest and digestion ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
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7. Which of the following statements accurately defines parasympathetic nervous system? A) Bundles of axons that travel together in a common connective tissue sheath B) The branch of the ANS that adapts the body for rest and digestion C) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the same body region D) None of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines fascicle? A) Peripheral nerves that originate from the spinal cord B) Bundle of nerves in the center of the brain C) Bundles of axons grouped together and bound by the perineurium D) Found at the end of each telodendria, they contain synaptic vesicles ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines axon? A) Neuronal process that generates and transmits action potentials B) Found at the end of each telodendria, they contain synaptic vesicles C) Process that travels toward the neuron cell body D) Both A and C ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines epineurium? A) The CT sheath that binds together the groups of fascicles, blood vessels, and
lymphatic vessels in a T peripheral ESTBANnerve KSELLER.COM
B) The branch of the ANS that adapts the body for rest and digestion C) A vesicle containing neurotransmitters in the axon terminal of a neuron D) Fluid-filled space at a synapse through which neurotransmitters diffuse ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines perineurium? A) Extracellular matrix surrounding brain fibers B) The CT sheath that surrounds each individual fascicle C) The CT sheath that binds together the groups of fascicles, blood vessels, and
lymphatic vessels in a peripheral nerve D) The CT sheath that surrounds each individual axon ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines endoneurium? A) The CT sheath that surrounds each individual axon B) The CT sheath that surrounds each individual fascicle C) The CT sheath that binds together the groups of fascicles, blood vessels, and
lymphatic vessels in a peripheral nerve D) The most inferior portion of the brainstem ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines cervical plexus?
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A) The ventral rami of L1–L4 that serve the pelvis and lower limb B) The CT sheath that binds together the groups of fascicles, blood vessels, and
lymphatic vessels in a peripheral nerve C) Portion of the brain that recognizes fear and releases endorphins D) The ventral rami of C1–C4 (and a small contribution from C5) that serve the head
and neck ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines brachial plexus? A) The ventral rami of C1–C4 B) The ventral rami of C5–T1 that serve the upper limb C) A nerve fiber D) The most superior portion of the brainstem ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines lumbar plexus? A) Cavities in the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid B) Irregular bones that make up the vertebral column C) The ventral rami of L1–L4 that serve the pelvis and lower limb D) Superficial triangular muscle on the posterosuperior back ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines sacral plexus? A) The ventral rami of L4–S4 that serve the pelvis and lower limb B) The ventral rami of C1–C4 (and TEST BAaNsmall KSELcontribution LER.COMfrom C5) that serve the head
and neck
C) The ventral rami of C5–T1 that serve the upper limb D) The ventral rami of L1–L4 that serve the pelvis and lower limb ANS: A
PTS: 1
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Figure 14.1 Anatomy of a peripheral nerve.
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17. In Figure 14.1, identify number 1. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Nerve F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: E
PTS: 1
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18. In Figure 14.1, identify number 2. A) Axon B) Blood vessels C) Endoneurium D) Epineurium E) Fascicle F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: D
PTS: 1
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19. In Figure 14.1, identify number 3. A) Axon B) Blood vessels C) Endoneurium TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Epineurium E) Fascicle F) Nerve G) Perineurium H) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: G
PTS: 1
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20. In Figure 14.1, identify number 4. A) Axon B) Blood vessels C) Endoneurium D) Fascicle E) Nerve F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: G
PTS: 1
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21. In Figure 14.1, identify number 5. A) Axon B) Blood vessels C) Endoneurium D) Epineurium
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E) Nerve F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: A
PTS: 1
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22. In Figure 14.1, identify number 6. A) Axon B) Blood vessels C) Endoneurium D) Epineurium E) Nerve F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: C
PTS: 1
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23. In Figure 14.1, identify number 7. A) Axon B) Blood vessels C) Endoneurium D) Epineurium E) Fascicle F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: B
PTS: 1
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24. In Figure 14.1, identify number 8. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Nerve F) Perineurium G) Schwann cell (myelin sheath) ANS: D
PTS: 1
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 14.2A Nerve plexuses and the anterior rami of the spinal nerves. 25. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 1. A) Axillary nerve B) Digital branch of the median nerve C) Median nerve D) Muscular branch of the median nerve E) Musculocutaneous nerve F) Radial nerve G) Ulnar nerve ANS: A
PTS: 1
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26. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 2. A) Axillary nerve B) Humerus C) Median nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve E) Radial nerve F) Radius G) Ulna ANS: B
PTS: 1
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27. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 3. A) Axillary nerve B) Ulna C) Median nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve E) Radial nerve F) Radius G) Ulnar nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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28. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 4. A) Axillary nerve B) Ulna C) Median nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve E) Radial nerve F) Radius G) Ulnar nerve ANS: D
PTS: 1
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29. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 5. A) Median nerve B) Humerus C) Musculocutaneous nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Radius E) Radial nerve F) Ulnar nerve G) Ulna ANS: G
PTS: 1
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30. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 6. A) Axillary nerve B) Humerus C) Median nerve D) Radial nerve E) Radius F) Ulna G) Ulnar nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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31. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 7. A) Humerus B) Median nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Radial nerve E) Radius
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F) Ulnar nerve G) Ulna ANS: F
PTS: 1
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32. In Figure 14.2A, identify number 8. A) Axillary nerve B) Humerus C) Median nerve D) Radial nerve E) Radius F) Ulna G) Ulnar nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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Figure 14.2B Nerve plexuses and the anterior rami of the spinal nerves. 33. In Figure 14.2B, identify number 1. A) Femoral nerve B) Iliohypogastric nerve C) Ilioinguinal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Saphenous nerve
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
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34. In Figure 14.2B, identify number 2. A) Femoral nerve B) Iliohypogastric nerve C) Ilioinguinal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Saphenous nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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35. In Figure 14.2B, identify number 3. A) Femoral nerve B) Iliohypogastric nerve C) Ilioinguinal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Saphenous nerve ANS: A
PTS: 1
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36. In Figure 14.2B, identify number 4. A) Femoral nerve B) Iliohypogastric nerve C) Ilioinguinal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Obturator nerve F) Saphenous nerve ANS: D
PTS: 1
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37. In Figure 14.2B, identify number 5. A) Femoral nerve B) Iliohypogastric nerve C) Ilioinguinal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Saphenous nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 14.2B, identify number 6. A) Femoral nerve B) Iliohypogastric nerve C) Ilioinguinal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Saphenous nerve ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Figure 14.2C Nerve plexuses and the anterior rami of the spinal nerves. 39. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 1. A) Brachial plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Intercostal nerves D) Cardiac plexus E) Lumbar plexus F) Sacral plexus ANS: B
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 2. A) Axillary plexus B) Brachial plexus C) Cervical plexus D) Intercostal nerves E) Lumbar plexus F) Sacral plexus
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
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41. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 3. A) Axillary plexus B) Brachial plexus C) Cervical plexus D) Intercostal nerves E) Cardiac plexus F) Lumbar plexus ANS: F
PTS: 1
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42. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 4. A) Axillary plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Intercostal nerves D) Cardiac plexus E) Lumbar plexus F) Sacral plexus ANS: F
PTS: 1
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43. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 6. A) Axillary nerve B) Brachial plexus C) Median nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Phrenic nerve F) Radial nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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44. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 7. A) Axillary nerve B) Brachial plexus C) Cervical plexus D) Median nerve E) Phrenic nerve F) Radial nerve ANS: A
PTS: 1
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45. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 8. A) Axillary nerve B) Median nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Phrenic nerve E) Femoral nerve F) Radial nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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46. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 9. A) Brachial plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Femoral nerve D) Intercostal nerves E) Lumbar plexus F) Pudendal nerve ANS: D
PTS: 1
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47. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 10. A) Common fibular nerve B) Intercostal nerves C) Phrenic nerve D) Pudendal nerve E) Radial nerve F) Ulnar nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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48. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 11. A) Musculocutaneous nerve B) Phrenic nerve C) Pudendal nerve D) Radial nerve E) Femoral nerve F) Ulnar nerve
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
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49. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 12. A) Axillary nerve B) Median nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Radial nerve E) Saphenous nerve F) Ulnar nerve ANS: B
PTS: 1
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50. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 13. A) Common fibular nerve B) Femoral nerve C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve E) Ulnar nerve F) Axillary nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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51. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 14. A) Axillary nerve
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B) Common fibular nerve C) Femoral nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Ulnar nerve F) Sciatic nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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52. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 15. A) Common fibular nerve B) Femoral nerve C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve E) Sciatic nerve F) Axillary nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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53. In Figure 14.2C, identify number 16. A) Common fibular nerve B) Femoral nerve C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Sciatic nerve E) Ulnar nerve F) Axillary Nerve ANS: A
PTS: 1
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Figure 14.14 Anatomy of a peripheral nerve. 54. In Figure 14.14, identify number 1. A) Axon
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B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve G) Perineurium ANS: F
PTS: 1
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55. In Figure 14.14, identify number 2. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve G) Perineurium ANS: D
PTS: 1
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56. In Figure 14.14, identify number 3. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Perineurium ANS: C
PTS: 1
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57. In Figure 14.14, identify number 4. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve G) Perineurium ANS: G
PTS: 1
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58. In Figure 14.14, identify number 5. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve G) Perineurium ANS: B
PTS: 1
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59. In Figure 14.14, identify number 6. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve G) Perineurium ANS: E
PTS: 1
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60. In Figure 14.14, identify number 7. A) Axon B) Endoneurium C) Epineurium D) Fascicle E) Myelin sheath F) Nerve G) Perineurium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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61. The structure where the optic nerves meet and partially exchange axons is called the A) optic tract. B) optic bulb. C) oculomotor nerve. TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) optic chiasma. ANS: D
PTS: 1
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62. Which of the following cranial nerves is a purely motor nerve? A) Optic nerve. B) Glossopharyngeal nerve. C) Hypoglossal nerve. D) Facial nerve. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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63. What is the main function of CN I? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Hearing and equilibrium D) Olfaction (smell) E) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue F) Motor to one-sixth extraocular muscles (superior oblique muscle) G) Motor to the tongue ANS: D
PTS: 1
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64. What is the main function of CN II? A) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and
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abdominal viscera B) Hearing and equilibrium C) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue D) Vision E) Olfaction (smell) F) Motor to the tongue G) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue ANS: D
PTS: 1
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65. What is the main function of CN III? A) Hearing and equilibrium B) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue C) Motor to one of six extrinsic muscles (superior oblique muscle) D) Motor to the tongue E) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue F) Motor to four of six extrinsic eye muscles, dilates the pupil, opens the eye, changes
the shape of the lens G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and
abdominal viscera ANS: F
PTS: 1
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66. What is the main function of CN IV? A) Motor to one of six extrinsic eye muscles (superior oblique muscle) ESsternocleidomastoid TBANKSELLER.muscles COM B) Motor to the trapezius T and C) Motor to four of six extrinsic eye muscles, dilates the pupil, opens the eye, changes
the shape of the lens D) Hearing and equilibrium E) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue F) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and abdominal viscera ANS: A
PTS: 1
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67. What is the main function of CN V? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Hearing and equilibrium D) Olfaction (smell) E) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue F) Motor to the tongue G) Vision ANS: A
PTS: 1
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68. What is the main function of CN VI?
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A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue C) Motor to one of six extrinsic eye muscles (superior oblique muscle) D) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue E) Motor to four of six extrinsic muscles, dilates the pupil, opens the eye, changes the
shape of the lens F) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and
abdominal viscera G) Motor to one of six extrinsic eye muscles (lateral rectus muscle) ANS: G
PTS: 1
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69. What is the main function of CN VII? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Olfaction (smell) D) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue E) Vision F) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and abdominal viscera ANS: F
PTS: 1
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70. What is the main function of CN VIII? TEStoTB ANmuscles KSELL R.COM A) Sensory to the face, motor the ofEmastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Hearing and equilibrium D) Olfaction (smell) E) Motor to one of six extrinsic eye muscles (superior oblique muscle) F) Motor to the tongue G) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue ANS: C
PTS: 1
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71. What is the main function of CN IX? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Hearing and equilibrium D) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue E) Motor to the tongue F) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and
abdominal viscera ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
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72. What is the main function of CN X? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Hearing and equilibrium D) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue E) Motor to the tongue F) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and abdominal viscera ANS: G
PTS: 1
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73. What is the main function of CN XI? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles C) Hearing and equilibrium D) Olfaction (smell) E) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue F) Motor to the tongue G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and
abdominal viscera ANS: B
PTS: 1
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74. What is the main function of CN XII? A) Sensory to the face, motor to the muscles of mastication ESsternocleidomastoid TBANKSELLER.muscles COM B) Motor to the trapezius T and C) Motor to the muscles of swallowing; taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue D) Motor to the tongue E) Vision F) Motor to the muscles of facial expression, taste to the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue G) Motor to the muscles of swallowing and speaking, motor to the thoracic and
abdominal viscera ANS: D
PTS: 1
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75. Which main structure does the radial nerve supply? A) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin B) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh C) Diaphragm muscle D) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand E) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand F) Abdominal muscles, skin of the abdomen G) Gluteus maximus muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
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76. Which main structure does the inferior gluteal nerve supply? A) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin B) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh C) Diaphragm muscle D) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand E) Gluteus maximus muscle F) Anterior thigh muscles, skin on anterior and medial thigh and leg G) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand ANS: E
PTS: 1
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77. Which main structure does the obturator nerve supply? A) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin B) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh C) Diaphragm muscle D) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand E) Gluteus maximus muscle F) Anterior thigh muscles, skin on anterior and medial thigh and leg G) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that extend the hand, skin on lateral hand ANS: E
PTS: 1
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78. Which main structure does the phrenic nerve supply? ESTBAand NKSskin ELLER.COM A) Anterior and lateral legTmuscles B) Abdominal muscles, skin of the abdomen C) Diaphragm muscle D) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand E) Gluteus maximus muscle F) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh G) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand ANS: C
PTS: 1
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79. Which main structure does the common fibular nerve supply? A) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin B) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh C) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand D) Abdominal muscles, skin of the abdomen E) Gluteus maximus muscle F) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand G) Anterior thigh muscles, skin on anterior and medial thigh and leg ANS: A
PTS: 1
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80. Which main structure do the intercostal nerves supply? A) Abdominal muscles, skin of the abdomen B) Gluteus maximus muscle C) Diaphragm muscle D) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand E) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand F) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin G) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh ANS: A
PTS: 1
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81. Which main structure does the femoral nerve supply? A) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin B) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh C) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on
medial hand D) Gluteus maximus muscle E) Abdominal muscles, skin of the abdomen F) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand G) Anterior thigh muscles, skin on anterior and medial thigh and leg ANS: G
PTS: 1
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ESulnar TBANnerve KSEsupply? LLER.COM 82. Which main structure doesTthe A) Anterior and lateral leg muscles and skin B) Abdominal muscles, skin of the abdomen C) Muscles of the forearm that flex the hand, most intrinsic hand muscles, skin on medial hand D) Diaphragm muscle E) Medial thigh muscles, skin of the superomedial thigh F) Muscles on the posterior arm that extend the forearm, muscles of the forearm that
extend the hand, skin on lateral hand G) Anterior thigh muscles, skin on anterior and medial thigh and leg ANS: C
PTS: 1
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83. Put the events of a reflex arc in order from the first event through the last event.
1. CNS sends output via motor neurons to an effector. 2. Sensory neurons bring the stimulus to the CNS. 3. The muscle contracts. 4. CNS processes and integrates the information. 5. Sensory receptor detects the stimulus. A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 B) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 C) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 D) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 E) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Figure 14.15A Nerve plexuses and the anterior rami of the spinal nerves. 84. In Figure 14.15A, identify number 1. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Brachial plexus B) Intercostal nerves C) Cervical plexus D) Median nerve E) Musculocutaneous nerve F) Radial nerve G) Ulnar nerve ANS: F
PTS: 1
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85. In Figure 14.15A, identify number 2. A) Cervical plexus B) Intercostal nerves C) Median nerve D) Musculocutaneous nerve E) Radial nerve F) Brachial plexus G) Ulnar nerve ANS: D
PTS: 1
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86. In Figure 14.15A, identify number 3. A) Intercostal nerves B) Median nerve
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C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Ulnar nerve E) Saphenous nerve F) Radial nerve G) Brachial plexus ANS: D
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 14.15A, identify number 4. A) Intercostal nerves B) Median nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Radial nerve E) Brachial plexus F) Ulnar nerve G) Obturator nerve ANS: B
PTS: 1
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Figure 14.15B Nerve plexuses and the anterior rami of the spinal nerves. 88. In Figure 14.15B, identify number 1.
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A) Brachial plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Intercostal nerves D) Lumbar plexus E) Median nerve F) Musculocutaneous nerve G) Ulnar nerve ANS: B
PTS: 1
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89. In Figure 14.15B, identify number 2. A) Brachial plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Intercostal nerves D) Lumbar plexus E) Radial nerve F) Sacral plexus G) Median nerve ANS: A
PTS: 1
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90. In Figure 14.15B, identify number 3. A) Brachial plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Lumbar plexus D) Median nerve E) Saphenous nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Radial nerve G) Sacral plexus ANS: C
PTS: 1
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91. In Figure 14.15B, identify number 4. A) Brachial plexus B) Cervical plexus C) Intercostal nerves D) Lumbar plexus E) Obturator nerve F) Sacral plexus G) Brachial plexus ANS: F
PTS: 1
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92. In Figure 14.15B, identify number 5. A) Intercostal nerves B) Median nerve C) Musculocutaneous nerve D) Radial nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Brachial plexus G) Ulnar nerve
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ANS: A
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Figure 14.16A Nerve plexuses of the lower limb: anterior view. 93. In Figure 14.16A, identify number 1. A) Tibial nerve B) Pudendal nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Femoral nerve E) Common fibular nerve F) Obturator nerve G) Sciatic nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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94. In Figure 14.16A, identify number 2. A) Tibial nerve B) Pudendal nerve C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Femoral nerve E) Common fibular nerve F) Obturator nerve G) Sciatic nerve ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
95. In Figure 14.16A, identify number 3. A) Femoral nerve B) Common fibular nerve C) Superior gluteal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
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E) Obturator nerve F) Sciatic nerve G) Pudendal nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
Figure 14.16B Nerve plexuses of the lower limb: (B) posterior view.
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96. In Figure 14.16B, identify number 1. A) Femoral nerve B) Common fibular nerve C) Superior gluteal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Sciatic nerve G) Pudendal nerve ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
97. In Figure 14.16B, identify number 2. A) Tibial nerve B) Pudendal nerve C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Femoral nerve E) Common fibular nerve F) Obturator nerve G) Sciatic nerve ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
98. In Figure 14.16B, identify number 3.
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A) Femoral nerve B) Common fibular nerve C) Superior gluteal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve F) Sciatic nerve G) Pudendal nerve ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
99. In Figure 14.16B, identify number 4. A) Tibial nerve B) Pudendal nerve C) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve D) Femoral nerve E) Common fibular nerve F) Obturator nerve G) Sciatic nerve ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
100. In Figure 14.16B, identify number 5. A) Femoral nerve B) Common fibular nerve C) Superior gluteal nerve D) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve E) Obturator nerve TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Sciatic nerve G) Pudendal nerve ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
101. Is increased blood pressure an effect of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or the
parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
102. Is constriction of the pupils an effect of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or the
parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
103. Is changing the shape of the lens for near vision an effect of the sympathetic nervous
system (SNS) or the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
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104. Is dilation of the bronchioles an effect of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or the
parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
105. Is decreased secretion from digestive glands an effect of the sympathetic nervous system
(SNS) or the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
106. Is storage of fats and glucose an effect of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or the
parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
107. Is increased micturition an effect of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or the
parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
TESTofBthe ANsympathetic KSELLER.nervous COM system (SNS) or the 108. Is decreased heart rate an effect parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
109. Is constriction of blood vessels serving skin and abdominal viscera an effect of the
sympathetic nervous system (SNS) or the parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)? A) Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) B) Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
110. What are the three branches given off by a spinal nerve, and where do they travel? ANS:
The posterior rami serve the skin, joints, and musculature of the posterior trunk. The meningeal branches serve the spinal structures in the vertebral cavity. The anterior rami travel anteriorly to supply the trunk and upper and lower limbs. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Recall
111. Damage to which cranial nerve(s) might produce the inability to see? A) CN IV
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B) CN VI, XII C) CN II D) CN X E) CN XI F) CN III, X G) CN XII ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
112. Damage to which cranial nerve(s) might produce the inability to masticate (chew food)? A) CN V, VII B) CN VI, VII, XII C) CN VII, IX D) CN X, XII E) CN V F) CN X, XI G) CN XII ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
113. Damage to which cranial nerve(s) might produce the inability to swallow? A) CN VI B) CN VI, XII C) CN VII D) CN XI, XII E) CN IV, VI F) CN IX, X TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) CN XII ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
114. Damage to which spinal nerve(s) might produce the inability to extend the forearm and
hand? A) Axillary n. B) Phrenic n. C) Musculocutaneous n. D) Radial n. E) Sciatic n. and branches F) Median n. G) Tibial n. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
115. Damage to which spinal nerve(s) might produce the inability to breathe? A) Common fibular n. B) Phrenic n. C) Musculocutaneous n. D) Femoral n. E) Obturator n. F) Lateral femoral cutaneous n. G) Saphenous n.
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
116. Damage to which spinal nerve(s) might produce the inability to feel the skin over the
anterolateral thigh? A) Ulnar n. B) Obturator n. C) Musculocutaneous n. D) Lateral femoral cutaneous n. E) Sciatic n. and branches F) Tibial n. G) Saphenous n. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
117. Damage to which spinal nerve(s) might produce the inability to dorsiflex the foot? A) Obturator n. B) Phrenic n. C) Musculocutaneous n. D) Femoral n. E) Common fibular n. F) Median n. G) Tibial n. ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
118. Damage to which cranial nerve(s) might produce the inability to move the tongue? A) CN III TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) CN IV C) CN VI, VII D) CN IX E) CN X F) CN XI G) CN XII ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
119. Sometimes the terms “neuron” and “nerve” are mistakenly used interchangeably. Explain
the difference between the two structures. ANS:
A neuron is a cell that communicates with other cells via action potentials propagated down their axons. A nerve is a bundle of axons and surrounding connective tissue sheaths. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
120. Dave was playing a hockey game when he was hit in the face by a puck. He suffered a
broken nose during the injury and now finds that his sense of smell has diminished. What is likely causing this? ANS:
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The fracture likely affected the cribriform plate, through which the fibers of CN I pass on their way to synapse on the olfactory bulb. The fracture of the plate likely damaged some of the axons of CN I, which has resulted in his diminished sense of smell. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
121. Your patient, Mr. Pratchett, is unable to open his eyelid. On examination, you find that his
pupil is dilated, and he is unable to move his affected eye in any direction except laterally and downward, indicating that only his lateral rectus and superior oblique extrinsic eye muscles are functioning. Based on this information, which cranial nerve do you think is involved in Mr. Pratchett's condition? Explain your reasoning. ANS:
The cranial nerve likely involved is cranial nerve III, the oculomotor nerve. This nerve innervates the four extrinsic eye muscles that are not functioning, and it also innervates the muscle that constricts the pupil, which could explain why his pupil is dilated. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
122. Marta is an editor and she spends a great deal of time typing on her computer. She begins
to feel numbness and tingling in her anterior and lateral hands and weakness in the muscles of her forearm that flex her hand. What nerve is likely involved in her problem, and what do you think has happened? Explain her symptoms. ANS:
She likely has carpal tunnel syndrome, in which the median nerve is compressed by the flexor retinaculum due to overuse. ofOthe TESTBThe ANKcompression SELLER.C M nerve is causing weakness in the muscles supplied by the median nerve and sensory deficits in the parts of the skin that it innervates. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
123. The herbal supplement bitter orange, also known as synephrine, mimics the effects of the
neurotransmitters of the SNS on the heart and blood vessels serving the abdominal viscera and skin. What effect do you think this would have on blood pressure? Considering this, do you think this drug should be given to people with hypertension (high blood pressure)? ANS:
Synephrine causes an increase in the rate and force of contraction of the heart and constriction of the blood vessels supplying the abdominal viscera and skin. This raises blood pressure, and so would not be recommended for people with hypertension. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 14 Check Your Understanding
124. Identify the term that does NOT belong in the group. A) External genitalia B) Sympathetic tone C) Dilated blood vessels D) Penis erection ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions 125. True or False? Most autonomic disorders reflect the abnormal control of adrenal medulla
activity. ANS: F PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
126. True or False? The cause of Raynaud's disease is thought to be an intense vasoconstriction
in response to exposure to cold or emotional stress. ANS: T PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
127. To experience vasodilation in the patient with a severe case of Raynaud's disease, a
parasympathectomy could be a suggested therapeutic intervention. A) True B) False ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
128. Which best describes ANS control? A) Completely under control of the cerebral cortex B) Completely under control of the brainstem C) Entirely controls itself D) Major control by the hypothalamus and spinal reflexes
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ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
129. Which of these characteristics describes the somatic motor nervous system? A) There is one neuron between the CNS and skeletal muscle. B) The effect can be excitatory or inhibitory. C) The cell bodies are in the lateral part of the spinal cord. D) The receptor molecules can be nicotinic or muscarinic. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
130. Sympathetic preganglionic axons enter the chain ganglia through the ___________. A) white ramus communicans B) splanchnic nerve C) afferent neuron D) postganglionic neuron ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
131. Which of these characteristics is correct for the parasympathetic division of the ANS? A) Preganglionic cell bodies in the brainstem and lateral parts of spinal cord gray
matter B) Chain ganglia and collateral ganglia present
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C) Many postganglionic neurons for each preganglionic neuron D) Short preganglionic neurons, long postganglionic neurons ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
132. Splanchnic nerves innervate the _______________________. A) smooth muscle in blood vessels B) walls of organs and glands in the abdomen C) pancreas, liver, and prostate gland D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
133. At least 75% of all parasympathetic axons are located in the _______________. A) facial nerve (VII) B) glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) C) oculomotor nerve (III) D) vagus nerve (X) ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
134. When norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors, ________. A) Na+ ion channels open B) G proteins are activated C) K+ channels open D) chloride channels openTESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
135. Which of these functions is NOT affected by parasympathetic stimulation? A) Secretion of tears B) Secretion of sweat C) Secretion of insulin from the pancreas D) Secretion of thin, watery saliva ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
136. The parasympathetic division ________________________. A) decreases blood flow to the skin B) mediates many reflexes that regulate the digestive, urinary, and reproductive
systems C) is responsible for the fight-or-flight response D) causes an increase in metabolism ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
137. Which of the following is true of the autonomic, but not somatic, nervous system?
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A) Neurotransmitters are acetylcholine B) Axons are myelinated C) Effectors are muscle cells D) The motor neuron is located in the ganglia ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
138. Adrenal medulla development involves ____________________. A) neural crest cells B) nerve growth factor C) sympathetic preganglionic axons D) parasympathetic preganglionic axons E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
139. Emotions sometimes are used to describe the heart breaking. If your heart were breaking,
where would you experience your heartache? A) Left arm B) Head C) Gluteal region D) Abdomen E) Right arm ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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140. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system __________________. A) causes the pupils to dilate B) increases the flow of watery saliva C) stimulates peristaltic contractions of the intestinal system D) slows heartbeat and lowers blood pressure E) allows the body to relax rather than prepare for fight or flight ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
141. The parasympathetic nervous system includes the ________________. A) cranial and thoracic nerves B) thoracic and lumbar nerves C) lumbar and sacral nerves D) cervical and lumbar nerves E) cranial and sacral nerves ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
142. The autonomic subdivision of the vertebrate nervous system innervates all but which of
the following? A) Intestinal muscles
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B) Skeletal muscles C) Heart D) Pancreas E) Liver ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
143. One example of a simple reflex involves the _________________. A) contraction of a muscle when it is stretched B) conscious message to move part of the body C) receptor, the brain, and the effector D) contraction of an antagonistic muscle when its opposite muscle relaxes E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
144. The sympathetic nervous system includes the _______________. A) cranial and thoracic nerves B) thoracic and lumbar nerves C) lumbar and sacral nerves D) cervical and lumbar nerves E) cranial and sacral nerves ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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145. The part of the central nervous system composed of parts antagonistic to each other is the
________________. A) autonomic nervous system, composed of the sympathetic and parasympathetic subsystems B) central nervous system, composed of the brain and spinal cord C) peripheral nervous system, composed of the cranial and spinal nervous system D) muscular system, the only system with antagonistic subsets E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
146. Some of the nerves that innervate the lymph nodes have been discovered to be adrenergic;
this suggests that the ______________. A) parasympathetic nervous system influences lymph node activity B) parasympathetic nervous system does NOT influence lymph node activity C) sympathetic nervous system exerts the only nervous control over lymph nodes D) sympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity E) somatic nervous system is the only control of lymph node activity ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
147. Sympathetic stimulation of the iris causes _______________.
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A) astigmatism B) pupillary constriction C) pupillary dilatation D) vitreous secretion E) a glucose reduction in the iris smooth muscle ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
148. In the autonomic nervous system the preganglionic neuron will synapse with
postganglionic neurons in the __________________________. A) autonomic ganglia B) brainstem C) spinal cord D) dorsal root ganglia ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
149. Identify the term that does NOT belong in the group. A) Skeletal muscle B) Cholinergic receptor C) Acetylcholine D) Norepinephrine ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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150. Identify the term that does NOT belong in the group. A) Norepinephrine B) Usually stimulatory C) Nicotinic receptor D) Adrenergic receptor ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
151. Identify the term that does NOT belong in the group. A) Beta receptor B) Cardiac muscle C) Slowing heart rate D) Norepinephrine ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
152. Identify the term that does NOT belong in the group. A) Blood pressure control B) Sympathetic tone C) Parasympathetic tone D) Partially constricted blood vessels ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions 153. Identify the term that does NOT belong in the group. A) Parasympathetic tone B) Urinary tract C) Digestive tract D) Rapid heart rate ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 14 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 15 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines conjunctiva? A) Thin mucous membrane covering much of the anterior eyeball and internal surface
of the eyelids B) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors C) Flexible structure that focuses light onto the retina D) Irritation and redness of the conjunctiva ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines lacrimal gland? A) Gland in the dermis that produces sweat and functions in thermoregulation and
excretion B) Highly vascularized layer in the posterior part of the uvea C) Gland located in the superolateral orbit that produces tears D) Gland associated with hair follicles that secretes sebum, an oily substance that
protects and softens skin and hair ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines sclera? A) The anterior, clear part of the fibrous tunic that refracts light coming into the eye B) An electrical impulse conducted along the neuron membrane C) Cell in the deep part of the epidermis that produces the pigment melanin D) The posterior part of the fibrous tunic that makes up the white part of the eyeball ANS: D
ELLE R.15 COPre-Lab M PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines cornea? A) Nerves that originate from the brain B) The posterior part of the fibrous tunic that makes up the white part of the eyeball C) The anterior, clear part of the fibrous tunic that refracts light coming into the eye D) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the same body region ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines iris? A) Flexible structure that focuses light onto the retina B) Visible pigmented portion of the eye, most anterior portion of the vascular tunic C) Highly vascularized layer in the posterior part of the uvea D) Thin mucous membrane covering the anterior eyeball and internal surface of the
eyelids ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines pupil? A) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors B) Opening in the center of the iris that controls the amount of light entering the eye C) Junction between neurons and target cells D) Layer of adipose tissue deep to the skin
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines lens? A) Photoreceptors responsible for color and high-acuity vision in bright light B) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors C) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the retina D) Flexible crystalline structure that focuses light onto the retina ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines ciliary body? A) Photoreceptors responsible for vision in dim light and for peripheral vision B) Bundle of nerves in the center of the brain C) Structure composed of smooth muscle that controls the shape of the lens D) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines choroid? A) Highly vascularized layer in the posterior part of the fibrous tunic B) The senses of smell and taste C) A nerve fiber D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines retina? A) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Photoreceptors responsible for color and high-acuity vision in bright light C) Visible pigmented portion of the eye, most anterior portion of the uvea D) The anterior, clear part of the fibrous tunic that refracts light coming into the eye ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines rods? A) Photoreceptors responsible for color and high-acuity vision in bright light B) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors C) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the retina D) Photoreceptors responsible for vision in dim light and for peripheral vision ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines cones? A) Photoreceptors responsible for vision in dim light and for peripheral vision B) Bundle of nerves in the center of the brain C) Photoreceptors responsible for color and high-acuity vision in bright light D) Thin, delicate structure in the sensory tunic containing photoreceptors ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines auricle? A) Shell-shaped potion of the outer ear made of elastic cartilage B) The senses of smell and taste
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C) A nerve fiber D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines external auditory canal? A) 2.5 centimeter long passage in the temporal bone from the auricle to the tympanic
membrane B) Bony cavity of the inner ear that houses the structures responsible for equilibrium C) Small patch of tissue in the roof of the nasal cavity containing olfactory receptor cells D) Spiral bony canal in the inner ear that houses the organ of Corti, responsible for transmitting sound impulses ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines tympanic membrane? A) Extracellular matrix surrounding brain fibers B) Bony cavity of the inner ear that houses the structures responsible for equilibrium C) Thin membrane that vibrates when struck by sound waves D) Outer ear made of elastic cartilage ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines auditory ossicles? A) 2.5 centimeter long structure from the auricle to the tympanic membrane B) Bony cavities of the inner ear that house the structures responsible for equilibrium C) Bony cavities in the inner TESear TBthat ANhouse KSELthe LEsemicircular R.COM ducts and the ampulla
and function with other organs of the inner ear to maintain equilibrium
D) Tiny bones of the middle ear that transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane
to the inner ear ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines pharyngotympanic tube? A) Passage that connects the middle ear to the pharynx B) Photoreceptors responsible for color and high-acuity vision in bright light C) Spiral bony canal in the inner ear that houses the organ of Corti, responsible for
transmitting sound impulses D) Thin membrane that vibrates when struck by sound waves ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines vestibule? A) Two cavities lying between the floor of the cranium and the roof of the mouth and
extending from the face to the pharynx B) Bony cavity of the inner ear that houses the structures responsible for equilibrium C) The opening that connects a sinus to the nasal cavity itself D) Tubelike passage through which sound enters the ear ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines semicircular canals?
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A) Spiral bony canals in the inner ear that house the organ of Corti, responsible for
transmitting sound impulses B) Tubes that connect the middle ear to the pharynx C) Bony cavities in the inner ear that house the semicircular ducts and the ampulla
and function with other organs of the inner ear to maintain equilibrium D) Tiny bones of the middle ear that transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane
to the inner ear ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines cochlea? A) Spiral bony canal in the inner ear that houses the organ of Corti, responsible for
transmitting sound impulses B) Contains nerve endings that control sound recognition C) Outer ear made of elastic cartilage D) Highly vascularized layer in the posterior part of the uvea ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines chemosenses? A) Projections from the tongue housing taste buds B) Responsible for transmitting sound impulses C) Outer ear made of elastic cartilage D) The senses of smell and taste ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. Which of the following statements accurately epithelium? TESTBA NKSELLdefines ER.Colfactory OM A) Spiral bony canal in the inner ear that houses the organ of Corti, responsible for
transmitting sound impulses B) Small patch of tissue in the roof of the nasal cavity containing olfactory receptor cells C) Bony cavity of the inner ear that houses the structures responsible for equilibrium D) Tiny bones of the middle ear that transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. Which of the following statements accurately defines tongue papillae? A) Projections from the tongue housing taste buds B) The senses of smell and taste C) Olfactory receptor cells D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 15.1 Eyeball, sagittal section. 24. In Figure 15.1, identify number 1. A) Anterior chamber of the anterior cavity B) Cornea C) Iris D) Posterior cavity (containing vitreous humor) E) Anterior cavity (containing aqueous humor) F) Pupil G) Sclera ANS: E
ELLE R.15 COPre-Lab M PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise
25. In Figure 15.1, identify number 2. A) Anterior chamber of the anterior cavity B) Cornea C) Iris D) Lens E) Optic disc F) Pupil G) Retina ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 15.1, identify number 3. A) Choroid B) Cornea C) Iris D) Lens E) Optic disc F) Pupil G) Retina ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 15.1, identify number 4.
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A) Cornea B) Iris C) Lens D) Optic disc E) Optic nerve F) Pupil G) Sclera ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 15.1, identify number 5. A) Choroid B) Cornea C) Iris D) Lens E) Optic nerve F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 15.1, identify number 6. A) Anterior cavity (containing aqueous humor) B) Choroid C) Macula lutea D) Optic disc E) Posterior cavity (containing vitreous humor) TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Iris G) Sclera ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 15.1, identify number 7. A) Choroid B) Macula lutea C) Cornea D) Iris E) Optic disc F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 15.1, identify number 8. A) Choroid B) Macula lutea C) Cornea D) Optic nerve E) Posterior cavity (containing vitreous humor) F) Retina G) Sclera
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 15.1, identify number 9. A) Choroid B) Macula lutea C) Optic disc D) Optic nerve E) Posterior cavity (containing vitreous humor) F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: G
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 15.1, identify number 10. A) Choroid B) Macula lutea C) Optic disc D) Optic nerve E) Pupil F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 15.1, identify number 11. A) Choroid B) Lens TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Optic disc D) Optic nerve E) Posterior cavity (containing vitreous humor) F) Macula lutea G) Sclera ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 15.1, identify number 12. A) Macula lutea B) Choroid C) Cornea D) Lens E) Posterior cavity (containing vitreous humor) F) Pupil G) Sclera ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 15.2A External structures of the eye: anterior view. 36. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 1. A) Lacrimal canals B) Lateral canthus C) Lacrimal caruncle D) Lacrimal gland E) Lacrimal sac TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Medial canthus G) Nasolacrimal duct ANS: D
PTS: 1
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37. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 2. A) Lacrimal canals B) Lateral canthus C) Lacrimal caruncle D) Lacrimal gland E) Lacrimal sac F) Medial canthus G) Nasolacrimal duct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 3. A) Inferior palpebra B) Lacrimal canals C) Lateral canthus D) Lacrimal caruncle E) Lacrimal gland F) Medial canthus G) Superior palpebra
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 4. A) Inferior palpebra B) Lacrimal canals C) Lateral canthus D) Lacrimal gland E) Lacrimal sac F) Nasolacrimal duct G) Superior palpebra ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 5. A) Inferior palpebra B) Lacrimal canals C) Lateral canthus D) Lacrimal caruncle E) Lacrimal gland F) Lacrimal sac G) Superior palpebra ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 6. A) Lacrimal canals B) Lateral canthus TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Lacrimal caruncle D) Lacrimal gland E) Lacrimal sac F) Medial canthus G) Nasolacrimal duct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 15.2A, identify number 7. A) Inferior palpebra B) Lateral canthus C) Lacrimal caruncle D) Lacrimal gland E) Lacrimal sac F) Medial canthus G) Superior palpebra ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 15.2 A, identify number 8. A) Inferior palpebra B) Lacrimal canals C) Lateral canthus D) Lacrimal caruncle
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E) Lacrimal gland F) Lacrimal sac G) Medial canthus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 15.2 A, identify number 9. A) Inferior palpebra B) Lateral canthus C) Lacrimal caruncle D) Lacrimal gland E) Medial canthus F) Nasolacrimal duct G) Superior palpebra ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 15.2B External structures of the eye: lateral view. 45. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 1. A) Inferior palpebra B) Orbicularis oculi muscle C) Inferior palpebra D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 2. A) Superior palpebra B) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva
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C) Inferior palpebra D) Eyelashes E) Orbicularis oculi muscle F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Eyebrow ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 3. A) Inferior palpebra B) Orbicularis oculi muscle C) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 4. A) Inferior palpebra B) Palpebral conjunctiva C) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 5. A) Inferior palpebra B) Palpebral conjunctiva C) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 6. A) Inferior palpebra B) Palpebral conjunctiva C) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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51. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 7. A) Superior palpebra B) Inferior palpebra C) Palpebral conjunctiva D) Eyelashes E) Orbicularis oculi muscle F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Eyebrow ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 8. A) Inferior palpebra B) Orbicularis oculi muscle C) Inferior palpebra D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 9. A) Inferior palpebra B) Orbicularis oculi muscle C) Inferior palpebra D) Tarsal gland TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 10. A) Inferior palpebra B) Orbicularis oculi muscle C) Inferior palpebra D) Tarsal gland E) Tarsal plate F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Superior palpebra ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
55. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 11. A) Superior palpebra B) Palpebral conjunctiva C) Inferior palpebra D) Eyelashes E) Orbicularis oculi muscle F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle
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G) Eyebrow ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 12. A) Superior palpebra B) Tarsal gland C) Inferior palpebra D) Palpebral conjunctiva E) Orbicularis oculi muscle F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 15.2 B, identify number 13. A) Superior palpebra B) Tarsal gland C) Inferior palpebra D) Palpebral conjunctiva E) Orbicularis oculi muscle F) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle G) Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 15.3 Extrinsic eye muscles. 58. In Figure 15.3, identify number 1. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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59. In Figure 15.3, identify number 2. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
60. In Figure 15.3, identify number 3. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
61. In Figure 15.3, identify number 4. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle TESTmuscle BANKSELLER.COM D) Levator palpebrae superioris E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
62. In Figure 15.3, identify number 5. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
63. In Figure 15.3, identify number 6. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle
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F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
64. In Figure 15.3, identify number 7. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
65. In Figure 15.3, identify number 8. A) Inferior oblique muscle B) Inferior rectus muscle C) Lateral rectus muscle D) Levator palpebrae superioris muscle E) Medial rectus muscle F) Superior oblique muscle G) Superior rectus muscle ANS: B
PTS: 1
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Figure 15.4 Ear. 66. In Figure 15.4, identify number 1. A) Cochlea B) Inner ear C) Malleus D) Middle ear E) Outer ear
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F) Stapes G) Vestibule ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
67. In Figure 15.4, identify number 2. A) Cochlea B) Incus C) Inner ear D) Malleus E) Middle ear F) Outer ear G) Vestibule ANS: E
PTS: 1
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68. In Figure 15.4, identify number 3. A) Cochlea B) Incus C) Inner ear D) Malleus E) Middle ear F) Outer ear G) Vestibule ANS: C
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 15.4, identify number TEST4.BANKSELLER.COM A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Inner ear E) Middle ear F) Stapes G) Vestibule ANS: A
PTS: 1
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70. In Figure 15.4, identify number 5. A) Auricle B) External auditory canal C) Inner ear D) Middle ear E) Round window F) Stapes G) Vestibule ANS: B
PTS: 1
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71. In Figure 15.4, identify number 6. A) Cochlea B) Incus
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C) Malleus D) Middle ear E) Semicircular canals F) Stapes G) Vestibule ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
72. In Figure 15.4, identify number 7. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Malleus D) Middle ear E) Round window F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: G
PTS: 1
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73. In Figure 15.4, identify number 8. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Cochlear nerve D) Malleus E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibular nerve G) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
74. In Figure 15.4, identify number 9. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Cochlear nerve D) External auditory canal E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibular nerve G) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
75. In Figure 15.4, identify number 10. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Cochlear nerve D) External auditory canal E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibular nerve G) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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76. In Figure 15.4, identify number 11. A) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Malleus E) Round window F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
77. In Figure 15.4, identify number 12. A) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Malleus E) Round window F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
78. In Figure 15.4, identify number 13. A) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube B) Auricle C) External auditory canal D) Middle ear TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Round window F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: A
PTS: 1
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79. In Figure 15.4, identify number 14. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Incus E) Malleus F) Stapes G) Tympanic membrane ANS: F
PTS: 1
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80. In Figure 15.4, identify number 15. A) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Incus E) Malleus F) Stapes
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G) Tympanic membrane ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
81. In Figure 15.4, identify number 16. A) Cochlea B) External auditory canal C) Incus D) Malleus E) Stapes F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: D
PTS: 1
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82. In Figure 15.4, identify number 17. A) Cochlea B) External auditory canal C) Incus D) Malleus E) Stapes F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 15.9A Eyeball: sagittal section. 83. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 1.
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A) Choroid B) Ciliary body C) Cornea D) Iris E) Optic nerve F) Sclera G) Suspensory ligaments ANS: B
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84. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 2. A) Choroid B) Cornea C) Pupil D) Lens E) Optic nerve F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: C
PTS: 1
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85. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 3. A) Ciliary body B) Cornea C) Iris D) Lens E) Retina TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Sclera G) Pupil ANS: B
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86. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 4. A) Ciliary body B) Cornea C) Iris D) Lens E) Optic nerve F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: D
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 5. A) Choroid B) Ciliary body C) Cornea D) Optic nerve E) Posterior cavity F) Retina G) Sclera
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
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88. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 6. A) Choroid B) Ciliary body C) Cornea D) Pupil E) Retina F) Sclera G) Suspensory ligaments ANS: F
PTS: 1
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89. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 7. A) Choroid B) Ciliary body C) Cornea D) Optic nerve E) Posterior cavity F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: E
PTS: 1
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90. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 8. A) Choroid B) Ciliary body TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Cornea D) Lens E) Optic nerve F) Retina G) Sclera ANS: F
PTS: 1
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91. In Figure 15.19A, identify number 9. A) Choroid B) Ciliary body C) Optic nerve D) Posterior cavity E) Retina F) Sclera G) Suspensory ligaments ANS: C
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Figure 15.19B Eyeball: external structures. 92. In Figure 15.19B, identify number 1. A) Superior rectus muscle B) Lateral rectus muscle C) Tarsal gland D) Inferior palpebra E) Conjunctiva F) Iris ANS: C
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93. In Figure 15.19B, identify number 2. A) Superior rectus muscle B) Lateral rectus muscle C) Tarsal gland D) Inferior palpebra E) Conjunctiva F) Iris ANS: F
PTS: 1
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94. In Figure 15.19B, identify number 3. A) Superior rectus muscle B) Lateral rectus muscle C) Tarsal gland D) Inferior palpebra E) Conjunctiva F) Iris ANS: D
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95. In Figure 15.19B, identify number 4. A) Superior rectus muscle B) Lateral rectus muscle
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C) Tarsal gland D) Inferior palpebra E) Conjunctiva F) Iris ANS: A
PTS: 1
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96. In Figure 15.19B, identify number 5. A) Superior rectus muscle B) Lateral rectus muscle C) Tarsal gland D) Inferior palpebra E) Conjunctiva F) Iris ANS: E
PTS: 1
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97. In Figure 15.19B, identify number 6. A) Superior rectus muscle B) Lateral rectus muscle C) Tarsal gland D) Inferior palpebra E) Conjunctiva F) Iris ANS: B
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98. The fluid in the anterior cavity known TESisTB ANKSasE__________ LLER.COM, whereas the fluid in the posterior
cavity is known as __________. A) aqueous humor; vitreous humor B) vitreous humor; aqueous humor; C) tears; mucus D) mucus; tears ANS: A
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99. The rods are responsible for __________, whereas the cones are responsible for __________. A) peripheral and dim light vision; high-acuity color vision B) high-acuity color vision; peripheral and dim light vision C) peripheral and color vision; high-acuity and dim light vision D) high-acuity and dim light vision; peripheral and color vision ANS: A
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100. The pharyngotympanic tube connects the _____________ to the _____________. A) middle ear; inner ear B) external auditory canal; middle ear C) inner ear; pharynx D) middle ear; pharynx ANS: D
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101. The structures of the cochlea are responsible for ___________, whereas the structures of the
saccule and utricle are responsible for __________ equilibrium, and semicircular ducts and ampulla are responsible for __________equilibrium. A) olfaction; rotational; static B) hearing; static; rotational C) olfaction; static; rotational D) hearing; rotational; static ANS: B
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102. The axons of the olfactory nerve synapse on neurons located in the A) olfactory bulb. B) olfactory epithelium. C) cranial nerve I. D) olfactory tract. ANS: A
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Figure 15.20A Anatomy of the ear. 103. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 1. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Pharyngotympanic tube E) Stapes F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: A
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104. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 2. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) External auditory canal D) Pharyngotympanic tube E) Tympanic membrane
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F) Vestibule G) Vestibulocochlear nerve ANS: C
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105. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 3. A) Auricle B) Saccule C) Incus D) Malleus E) Stapes F) Tympanic membrane G) Round window ANS: D
PTS: 1
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106. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 4. A) Cochlea B) Incus C) Malleus D) Stapes E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibule G) Vestibulocochlear nerve ANS: E
PTS: 1
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107. In Figure 15.20A, identifyTnumber 5.NKSELLER.COM ESTBA A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Malleus D) Pharyngotympanic tube E) Semicircular canals F) Stapes G) Tympanic membrane ANS: F
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108. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 6. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Incus D) Round window E) Stapes F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: C
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109. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 7. A) Cochlear duct B) Cochlea
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C) Incus D) Malleus E) Semicircular canals F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: E
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110. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 8. A) Cochlear duct B) External auditory canal C) Pharyngotympanic tube D) Utricle E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibule G) Vestibulocochlear nerve ANS: F
PTS: 1
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111. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 9. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Incus D) Malleus E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibule G) Vestibulocochlear nerve
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ANS: G
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112. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 10. A) Auricle B) Cochlea C) Incus D) Malleus E) Stapes F) Tympanic membrane G) Vestibule ANS: B
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113. In Figure 15.20A, identify number 11. A) Cochlea B) External auditory canal C) Pharyngotympanic tube D) Semicircular canals E) Tympanic membrane F) Vestibule G) Vestibulocochlear nerve ANS: C
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Figure 15.20B Anatomy of the ear. 114. In Figure 15.20B, identify number 1. A) Round window B) External auditory canal C) Pharyngotympanic tube D) Utricle E) Saccule F) Vestibule G) Cochlear duct ANS: D
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ESTB2. ANKSELLER.COM 115. In Figure 15.20B, identify T number A) Round window B) External auditory canal C) Pharyngotympanic tube D) Utricle E) Saccule F) Vestibule G) Cochlear duct ANS: E
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116. In Figure 15.20B, identify number 3. A) Round window B) External auditory canal C) Pharyngotympanic tube D) Utricle E) Saccule F) Vestibule G) Cochlear duct ANS: A
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117. In Figure 15.20B, identify number 4. A) Round window B) External auditory canal
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C) Pharyngotympanic tube D) Utricle E) Saccule F) Vestibule G) Cochlear duct ANS: G
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118. Which of the following types of papillae of the tongue does not house taste buds? A) Fungiform papillae. B) Filiform papillae. C) Circumvallate papillae. D) Foliate papillae. ANS: B
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119. You would expect the error of localization and the two-point discrimination threshold to be
highest on the A) back. B) lip. C) fingertip. D) palm ANS: A
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120. True or False? Sensorineural hearing loss results from damage to the inner ear or the
vestibulocochlear nerve. ANS: T
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121. True or False? The auditory ossicles transmit vibrations through the round window. ANS: F
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122. True or False? Astigmatism refers to irregularities in the surface of the retina. ANS: F
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123. True or False? The six extrinsic muscles move the eyeball. ANS: T
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124. True or False? Smell and taste are considered visceral senses ANS: F
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125. True or False? Accommodation is the adjustment of the lens necessary for near vision. ANS: T
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TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Recall
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126. A person who visits the eye doctor is often given eye drops containing the drug atropine to
dilate the pupils. A side effect of this drug is paralysis of the ciliary muscle, an effect called cycloplegia. Will a person with cycloplegia have difficulty with near vision or distance vision? Explain. ANS:
Cycloplegia causes difficulty with near vision. A paralyzed ciliary body cannot contract, which prevents the lens from "rounding up" in order to accommodate for viewing near objects. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
127. The disease macular degeneration is characterized by a gradual loss of vision as a result of
degeneration of the macula lutea. Considering the type of cells located in the macula lutea, which type of vision do you think a sufferer of macular degeneration would lose? Why? ANS:
Cones are located in the macula lutea and are responsible for color and high-acuity vision. Patients with this condition lose color vision and are unable to see objects clearly. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
128. LASIK, or laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis, is a surgical procedure on the eye that
millions of people have undergone to improve visual acuity. It involves the use of a laser is to reshape the cornea in individuals suffering from astigmatism, near-sightedness (myopia), or far-sightedness (hyperopia). How could changing the shape of the cornea affect one's visual acuity? TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS:
The cornea is the eye's main refractive medium, especially when viewing distant objects. Changing its shape will change the amount that it is able to bend light, which alters where it focuses the light. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
129. Explain why infectious otitis media (inflammation of the middle ear) may result in a
simultaneous pharyngitis (inflammation of the throat). ANS:
The two structures are connected by the pharyngotympanic tube, and pathogens can easily travel between the two locations. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
130. A standard hearing aid functions by amplifying the sound conducted through the external
auditory canal. Explain why this type of hearing aid is effective for conductive hearing loss, but not sensorineural hearing loss. ANS:
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Amplifying the sound waves will increase the transmission of the vibrations through the outer ear, middle ear, and temporal bone to the inner ear, which helps individuals with conduction deafness. However, sensorineural deafness makes one unable to detect the vibrations, so amplifying them will not help these individuals. (Note: Standard hearing aids can be effective in certain kinds of sensorineural hearing loss in which the loss isn't complete.) PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
131. The most common cause of hearing loss is exposure to loud noise such as music, which can
permanently damage the hair cells of the cochlea. Would you expect this to result in conductive or in sensorineural hearing loss? What results would you expect from the Rinne and Weber tests in an individual with noise-induced hearing loss? ANS:
Noise-induced hearing loss results in sensorineural deafness, as the hair cells can no longer transmit action potentials along the cochlear nerve. The results from the Rinne test should show lateralization to the good (non-deaf) ear, assuming the deafness is not bilateral. The results from the Weber test should show that air-conducted sound is heard longer than boneconducted sound, although both are likely to be very diminished in the deaf ear. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
132. Your patient is in a car accident and several days later complains of a loss of smell. An X-ray
reveals a fracture of the cribriform plate. What structures specifically have been damaged? How has this interfered with your patient's sense of smell? ANS:
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The fracture of the cribriform plate likely damaged cranial nerve I, as the axons of the olfactory neurons pass through the cribriform plate on their way from the olfactory epithelium to their synapses on the olfactory bulb. With damage to these neurons, they are unable to transmit olfactory stimuli to the central nervous system, and so the patient is unable to detect odors. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
133. Kevin presents to your office after a mountain biking accident last weekend during which he
fell on his left elbow. He says that since the accident, his forearm alternates between periods of numbness and feeling "like he has hit his funny bone." You test the two-point discrimination on Kevin's left fifth digit and find that it is 6 mm. On his right fifth digit, however, it is less than 1 mm. You also find that his forearm muscles that flex his hand on the left side are very weak, as are most of the intrinsic muscles of his left hand. What has likely happened? How does this explain the results of the two-point discrimination test? (Hint: You may want to refer to Unit 14 for help.) ANS:
Kevin likely damaged his ulnar nerve, which supplies the skin on his fifth digit. The damage has decreased the sensitivity in this location, making the two-point discrimination on his left side greater than on his right side. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 15 Check Your Understanding
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134. Which structure is the receptor site for the sense of equilibrium? A) Pinna B) Vestibule C) Anvil D) Stirrup E) A and B ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
135. Which structure transfers vibrations from the stirrup to the fluid in the inner ear? A) Pinna B) Cochlea C) Oval window D) Anvil E) A and B ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
136. The fluid in the bony labyrinth and surrounding the membranous labyrinth is known as the
__________. A) cochlea B) perilymph C) endolymph D) semicircular canal fluid E) C and B
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
137. Which of the following conditions pertain to the eye's dark adaptations? A) Cones are active B) Rods are active C) Rhodopsin is broken down rapidly D) Pupils dilate E) B and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
138. Which of the following regulatory reactions pertain to dark adaptations? A) Rhodopsin accumulates B) Retinal sensitivity increases C) Visual acuity decreases D) Pupils constrict E) A, B, and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
139. The gustatory and olfactory senses rely on the ________ for a signal to taste.
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A) saliva B) roof of the mouth for sensing texture C) taste receptors D) limbic system E) hypothalamus ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
140. The pathway for the sense of smell travels through the _______ system. A) thalamus B) limbic C) oral cavity D) hypothalamus E) pituitary ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
141. Identify the brain region(s) in which the olfactory tract fibers project. A) Hypothalamus B) Pituitary C) Amygdala D) Thalamus E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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142. Which cells in the olfactory bulbs inhibit the mitral cells? A) Integrator cells B) Granule cells C) Basal cells D) Vagal cells E) A and B ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
143. When moving from darkness to bright light, __________________. A) rhodopsin breakdown accelerates B) adaptation inhibits cones C) retinal sensitivity declines D) visual acuity increases E) A, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
144. Which of the following statements apply to rhodopsin? A) Rhodopsin consists of opsin and retinal. B) Rhodopsin is identical to the visual pigment in the cones.
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C) The concentration of rhodopsin increases in the rods during dark adaptation. D) A solution of rhodopsin looks reddish-purple but becomes colorless after
illumination. E) A, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
145. The vestibular apparatus ________________. A) responds to changes in linear acceleration B) responds to unchanging acceleratory stimuli C) does not usually contribute to conscious awareness of its activity D) is helpful, but not crucial to maintaining balance E) A, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
146. Vitamin A deficiency leads to depletion of _______________. A) retinal B) rhodopsin C) scotopsin D) photopsins E) A and B ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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147. Convergence ______________. A) requires contractions of the medial rectus muscles of both eyes B) is needed for near vision C) is a result of the Rinne test D) involves transmission of impulses along the abducens nerves E) A, B, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
148. Focusing for far vision requires the _______________. A) lens to be at its thinnest B) ciliary muscles to contract C) light rays to be nearly parallel D) A and B E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
149. Which of the following is paired incorrectly? A) Cochlear duct, cupula B) Saccule, macula C) Ampulla, otoliths
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D) Semicircular duct, ampulla E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
150. Modified sebaceous glands are embedded in the tarsal plate's ____________. A) ciliary glands B) conjunctival sac C) lacrimal glands D) tarsal glands ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
151. The connective tissue sheet that supports the eyelid internally is known as the ___________. A) ciliary glands B) tarsal glands C) conjunctival sac D) carbuncle ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
152. The fleshy elevation at the medial canthus is known as the __________. A) lateral canthus B) tarsal glands C) tarsal plate TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) carbuncle ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
153. The recess at the junction of palpebral and ocular conjunctivae is known as the
______________. A) canthus B) tarsal glands C) conjunctival sac D) ciliary glands ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
154. The angular point where the eyelids meet is known as the ____________. A) conjunctival sac B) tarsal plate C) tarsal gland D) canthus ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
155. Another name for the eyelid is the ______________.
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A) carbuncle B) tarsal plates C) palpebra D) canthus ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
156. Which part of the eye secures the lens to the ciliary body? A) Cornea B) Ciliary muscle C) Iris D) Retina ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
157. The fluid that fills the anterior segment of the eye and provides nutrients to the lens and
cornea is known as the __________. A) canal of Schlemm B) iris C) aqueous fluid D) sclera ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
158. The white, opaque portion of the fibrous layer is known as the ________. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) cornea B) optic disc C) retina D) sclera ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
159. The area of the retina that lacks photoreceptors is known as the ________. A) choroid B) fovea centralis C) optic disc D) canal of Schlemm ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
160. The ear structures NOT involved with hearing are known as the _________. A) vestibule B) semicircular canals C) tympanic membrane D) cochlea E) A and B ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Medium
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TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions 161. Which structure allows the middle ear pressure to be equalized with atmospheric pressure? A) Anvil B) Pharyngotympanic tube C) Cochlea D) Pinna E) Tympanic membrane ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
162. Which structure transmits sound vibrations in the ossicles? A) Pharyngotympanic membrane B) Vestibule C) Hammer D) Tympanic membrane E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
163. Which structure contains the organ of Corti? A) Pinna B) Cochlea C) Anvil D) Stirrup E) A and B TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 15 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 16 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines endocrine organ (gland)? A) A homeostatic mechanism in which a deviation in a physiologic variable triggers a
response that restores the variable to its set point; when the set point is restored, the response decreases B) Diverse ductless glands that play a major role in maintaining the body's homeostasis through the secretion of hormones into the bloodstream C) Series of highly branching passages that conduct air to the structures for gas exchange D) The inferior diencephalon; releases hormones that stimulate or inhibit the anterior pituitary and two hormones (ADH and oxytocin) that are stored in the posterior pituitary ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines hormone? A) Largest/most active during infancy and childhood when secreting thymosin and
thymopoietin B) Bundles of axons grouped together and bound by the perineurium C) Chemical messengers secreted into the bloodstream by endocrine glands that
initiate a change in a target cell D) Superficial region of the adrenal gland that consists of glandular tissue and secretes
steroid hormones ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
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3. Which of the following statements accurately defines target tissue? A) The genetic makeup of an organism or what a cell contains in its DNA B) A variant form of a gene C) Tissue that contains the cells with contain receptors for a particular hormone D) Inner layer of the pleural membrane that adheres tightly to the lung ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines negative feedback? A) The inferior diencephalon; releases hormones that stimulate or inhibit the anterior
pituitary and two hormones (ADH and oxytocin) stored in the posterior pituitary B) A mechanism in which a deviation in a physiologic variable triggers a response that restores the variable to its set point; when the set point is restored, the response decreases C) Gland located on anteroinferior neck; composed of thyroid follicles that produce thyroid hormone and calcitonin D) Both A and C are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines hypothalamus? A) Releases hormones that stimulate or inhibit the anterior pituitary and two
hormones (ADH and oxytocin) stored in the posterior pituitary B) Each lung is divided into sections called lobes
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C) The inferior portion of the diencephalon D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines anterior pituitary? A) Secretes hormones that largely affect other glands B) Stores ADH and oxytocin produced by the hypothalamus C) Anterior portion of the pituitary gland D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines posterior pituitary? A) Anterior portion of the pituitary gland; secretes hormones that largely affect other
glands B) Gland located on anteroinferior neck; composed of thyroid follicles that produce
thyroid hormone and calcitonin C) Located on the posterior thyroid gland; secrete parathyroid hormones that maintain
calcium homeostasis D) Posterior portion of the pituitary gland; stores ADH and oxytocin produced by the
hypothalamus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines thyroid gland? A) Gland located in the anteroinferior neck; composed of thyroid follicles that
produce thyroid hormone and TES TBcalcitonin ANKSELLER.COM B) Modified sweat glands that produce milk for offspring C) Bundles of axons grouped together and bound by the perineurium D) A small gland that surrounds the neck of the bladder and urethra ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines parathyroid glands? A) Three to five small glands located on the posterior thyroid gland B) Secrete parathyroid hormones that maintain calcium homeostasis C) Secrete melatonin in response to decreased light levels D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines pineal gland? A) Branches off of the primary bronchi that each serve one lobe of the lung B) Gland located on anteroinferior neck; composed of thyroid follicles that produce
thyroid hormone and calcitonin C) Small gland located in the posterior/superior diencephalon; secretes melatonin in
response to decreased light levels D) Diverse ductless gland that plays a major role in regulating the body's homeostasis through the secretion of hormones into the bloodstream ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
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11. Which of the following statements accurately defines thymus? A) Gland located in the superior mediastinum; largest/most active during infancy and
childhood when secreting thymosin and thymopoietin B) Endocrine and exocrine gland that secretes insulin and glucagon from pancreatic
islets C) Male reproductive organs that produce testosterone D) A structure within the ovary where developing oocytes are encased within cells ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines pancreas? A) Superficial region of the adrenal gland that consists of glandular tissue and secretes
steroid hormones B) The first event in human development; takes place in the uterine tube when sperm
cells encounter a secondary oocyte C) Endocrine and exocrine gland that secretes insulin and glucagon from pancreatic
islets D) The area located posterior to the lung cavity ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines adrenal cortex? A) Superficial region of the adrenal glad B) Consists of glandular tissue that secretes steroid hormones C) A homeostatic mechanism in which a deviation in a physiological variable triggers
a response that restores the variable to its set point D) Both A and B are correct
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines adrenal medulla? A) Secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to sympathetic stimulation B) The deep region of the adrenal gland that consists of modified sympathetic neurons C) A homeostatic mechanism in which a deviation in a physiological variable triggers
a response that restores the variable to its set point D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines ovaries? A) Male reproductive organs that produce testosterone B) Female reproductive organs that produce estrogens and progesterone C) Extraembryonic membrane formed by trophoblast D) Leukocyte lacking cytoplasmic granules ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines testes? A) Male reproductive organs that produce testosterone B) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair C) The process of oocyte formation that takes place in the ovary and the uterine tube D) Both B and C are correct
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 16.1 Organs and tissues of the endocrine system. 17. In Figure 16.1, identify number TEST1.BANKSELLER.COM A) Adrenal glands B) Infundibulum C) Larynx D) Parathyroid glands E) Pineal gland F) Thymus G) Thyroid gland ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. In Figure 16.1, identify number 2. A) Adrenal cortex B) Anterior pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Isthmus of thyroid gland E) Parathyroid glands F) Thymus G) Thyroid gland ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. In Figure 16.1, identify number 3. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal glands
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C) Anterior pituitary D) Infundibulum E) Pancreas F) Pineal gland G) Thymus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 16.1, identify number 4. A) Adrenal glands B) Infundibulum C) Isthmus of thyroid gland D) Ovary E) Pancreas F) Pancreatic acini G) Thyroid gland ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 16.1, identify number 5. A) Adrenal medulla B) Anterior pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Infundibulum E) Ovary F) Pancreas G) Testis
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 16.1, identify number 6. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Hypothalamus D) Infundibulum E) Ovary F) Pancreas G) Testis ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 16.1, identify number 7. A) Adrenal cortex B) Hypothalamus C) Infundibulum D) Isthmus of thyroid gland E) Parathyroid glands F) Pineal gland G) Posterior pituitary ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
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24. In Figure 16.1, identify number 8. A) Anterior pituitary B) Hypothalamus C) Infundibulum D) Isthmus of thyroid gland E) Pancreatic acini F) Pineal gland G) Posterior pituitary ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 16.1, identify number 9. A) Adrenal cortex B) Anterior pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Infundibulum E) Isthmus of thyroid gland F) Pineal gland G) Posterior pituitary ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 16.1, identify number 10. A) Adrenal medulla B) Alpha cells of pancreas C) Anterior pituitary D) Beta cells of pancreas TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Infundibulum F) Pineal gland G) Posterior pituitary ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 16.1, identify number 11. A) Alpha cells of pancreas B) Anterior pituitary C) Beta cells of pancreas D) Infundibulum E) Pineal gland F) Posterior pituitary G) Thyroid gland ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 16.1, identify number 12. A) Anterior pituitary B) Beta cells of pancreas C) Infundibulum D) Isthmus of the thyroid gland E) Parathyroid glands F) Pineal gland
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G) Trachea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 16.1, identify number 13. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Alpha cells of pancreas D) Beta cells of pancreas E) Isthmus of thyroid gland F) Left lobe of thyroid gland G) Right lobe of thyroid gland ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 16.1, identify number 14. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Beta cells of pancreas D) Isthmus of thyroid gland E) Left lobe of thyroid gland F) Right lobe of thyroid gland G) Parathyroid glands ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 16.1, identify number 15. A) Adrenal glands TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Hypothalamus C) Infundibulum D) Larynx E) Parathyroid glands F) Pineal gland G) Trachea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 16.1, identify number 16. A) Adrenal medulla B) Infundibulum C) Parathyroid glands D) Pineal gland E) Posterior pituitary F) Thymus G) Trachea ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
33. In Figure 16.1, identify number 17. A) Adrenal cortex B) Infundibulum C) Larynx
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D) Parathyroid glands E) Pineal gland F) Thyroid gland G) Trachea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 16.1, identify number 18. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Hypothalamus D) Infundibulum E) Parathyroid glands F) Thymus G) Thyroid gland ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 16.1, identify number 19. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Hypothalamus D) Infundibulum E) Parathyroid glands F) Thymus G) Thyroid gland ANS: B
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.16 COPre-Lab M
36. In Figure 16.1, identify number 20. A) Alpha cells of pancreas B) Beta cells of pancreas C) Hypothalamus D) Pancreatic acini E) Pancreatic islet F) Parathyroid glands G) Thymus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 16.1, identify number 21. A) Alpha cells of pancreas B) Beta cells of pancreas C) Hypothalamus D) Pancreatic acini E) Pancreatic islet F) Parathyroid glands G) Thymus ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 16.1, identify number 22.
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A) Adrenal cortex B) Alpha cells of pancreas C) Beta cells of pancreas D) Pancreatic acini E) Pancreatic islet F) Pineal gland G) Thymus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 16.1, identify number 23. A) Adrenal medulla B) Alpha cells of pancreas C) Beta cells of pancreas D) Pancreatic acini E) Pancreatic islet F) Pineal gland G) Thymus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 16.10 Endocrine system. 40. In Figure 16.10, identify number 1. A) Adrenal gland B) Ovary C) Hypothalamus D) Pancreas
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E) Parathyroid glands F) Posterior pituitary G) Thyroid gland ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
41. In Figure 16.10, identify number 2. A) Adrenal gland B) Hypothalamus C) Ovary D) Pancreas E) Parathyroid glands F) Testis G) Thyroid gland ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
42. In Figure 16.10, identify number 3. A) Adrenal gland B) Hypothalamus C) Ovary D) Pancreas E) Parathyroid glands F) Testis G) Thyroid gland ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
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43. In Figure 16.10, identify number 4. A) Anterior pituitary B) Hypothalamus C) Ovary D) Pancreas E) Parathyroid glands F) Testis G) Thyroid gland ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
44. In Figure 16.10, identify number 5. A) Adrenal gland B) Pancreas C) Anterior pituitary D) Hypothalamus E) Pancreatic islet F) Parathyroid glands G) Posterior pituitary ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
45. In Figure 16.10, identify number 6. A) Adrenal gland
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B) Anterior pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Pancreatic islet E) Parathyroid glands F) Posterior pituitary G) Thyroid gland ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
46. In Figure 16.10, identify number 7. A) Adrenal gland B) Anterior pituitary C) Hypothalamus D) Pancreas E) Pancreatic islet F) Parathyroid glands G) Posterior pituitary ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
47. In Figure 16.10, identify number 8. A) Adrenal gland B) Ovary C) Anterior pituitary D) Hypothalamus E) Pancreatic islet F) Parathyroid glands TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Posterior pituitary ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
48. In Figure 16.10, identify number 9. A) Adrenal gland B) Ovary C) Anterior pituitary D) Pancreatic islet E) Parathyroid glands F) Posterior pituitary G) Thyroid gland ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
49. In Figure 16.10, identify number 10. A) Adrenal gland B) Ovary C) Anterior pituitary D) Hypothalamus E) Pancreatic islet F) Parathyroid glands G) Posterior pituitary ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
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50. A hormone is best described as a A) chemical released into the extracellular fluid that affects neighboring cells. B) chemical released by a neuron directly onto a target cell. C) chemical released into the bloodstream that typically acts on distant targets. D) All of the above describe hormones. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
51. The hypothalamus communicates with the ________________________ via the
hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system. A) pineal gland B) anterior pituitary gland C) posterior pituitary gland D) parathyroid gland ANS: B
PTS: 1
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Figure 16.11 Thyroid gland. 52. In Figure 16.11, identify number 1. A) Thyroid follicle B) Colloid C) Follicle cells D) Isthmus E) Parafollicular cells ANS: D
PTS: 1
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53. In Figure 16.11, identify number 2. A) Thyroid follicle B) Colloid C) Follicle cells D) Isthmus E) Parafollicular cells
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
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54. In Figure 16.11, identify number 3. A) Thyroid follicle B) Colloid C) Follicle cells D) Isthmus E) Parafollicular cells ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
55. In Figure 16.11, identify number 4. A) Thyroid follicle B) Colloid C) Follicle cells D) Isthmus E) Parafollicular cells ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
56. In Figure 16.11, identify number 5. A) Thyroid follicle B) Colloid C) Follicle cells D) Isthmus E) Parafollicular cells ANS: A
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.16 COCheck M Your Recall
Figure 16.12A Adrenal gland. 57. In Figure 16.12A, identify number 1. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Adrenal capsule D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa
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F) Zona reticularis ANS: C
PTS: 1
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58. In Figure 16.12A, identify number 2. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Adrenal capsule D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa F) Zona reticularis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
59. In Figure 16.12A, identify number 3. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Adrenal capsule D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa F) Zona reticularis ANS: B
PTS: 1
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Figure 16.12B Adrenal gland. 60. In Figure 16.12B, identify number 1. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Adrenal capsule D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa F) Zona reticularis
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
61. In Figure 16.12B, identify number 2. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Adrenal capsule D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa F) Zona reticularis ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
62. In Figure 16.12B, identify number 3. A) Adrenal cortex B) Adrenal medulla C) Adrenal capsule D) Zona fasciculata E) Zona glomerulosa F) Zona reticularis ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
63. Which of the following sets of hormones are antagonists? A) Insulin and glucagon B) Calcitonin and cortisol C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Growth hormone and thyroxine ANS: A
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PTS: 1
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64. Which hormone does the pineal gland secrete? A) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B) Insulin and glucagon C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone F) Melatonin G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
65. Which hormone does the thyroid gland secrete? A) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B) Aldosterone and cortisol C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone F) Melatonin G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
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66. Which hormone does the pancreas secrete? A) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B) Insulin and glucagon C) Aldosterone and cortisol D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine E) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin F) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
67. Which hormone does the thymus secrete? A) Insulin and glucagon B) Aldosterone and cortisol C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone F) Melatonin G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
68. Which hormone does the hypothalamus secrete? A) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B) Insulin and glucagon C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin TESTBgrowth ANKSEhormone LLER.COM E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, F) Melatonin G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
69. Which hormone does the adrenal cortex secrete? A) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B) Insulin and glucagon C) Aldosterone and cortisol D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine E) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin F) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
70. Which hormone does the anterior pituitary secrete? A) Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B) Insulin and glucagon C) Aldosterone and cortisol D) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone F) Melatonin
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G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: E
PTS: 1
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71. Which hormone does the adrenal medulla secrete? A) Insulin and glucagon B) Aldosterone and cortisol C) Epinephrine and norepinephrine D) Thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone, growth hormone F) Melatonin G) Thymosin and thymopoietin ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
72. Which of the following is true regarding endocrine organ histology? A) The thyroid gland consists of rings of stratified cuboidal follicle cells surrounding
colloid. B) The pancreas has an exocrine portion consisting of pancreatic islets and an
endocrine portion consisting of acinar cells. C) The adrenal cortex has three zones of cells that secrete steroid hormones. D) The adrenal medulla is modified nervous tissue of the parasympathetic nervous
system. ANS: C
PTS: 1
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73. In a negative feedback loop, you would expect secretion from an endocrine gland to
______________ after homeostasis TESTBAhas NKbeen SELrestored. LER.COM A) decrease B) increase C) remain the same ANS: A
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74. True or False? Insulin triggers actions that raise the concentration of glucose in the blood. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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75. True or False? Interstitial cells within the testes produce testosterone. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
76. True or False? Aldosterone is the adrenal hormone responsible for the stress response. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
77. True or False? Parathyroid hormone triggers actions that lower the concentration of calcium
ions in the blood. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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78. True or False? The posterior pituitary produces no hormones of its own.
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ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Recall
79. How does the way in which the hypothalamus communicates with the anterior and posterior
pituitary glands differ? How does this reflect the functional differences of the anterior and posterior pituitary glands? ANS:
The hypothalamus secretes releasing and inhibiting hormones into capillaries, which travel to the anterior pituitary through the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system. These hormones stimulate or inhibit hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary. This reflects the fact that the anterior pituitary is an actual gland that manufactures its own hormones. Hypothalamic axons travel through the infundibulum to the posterior pituitary where axon terminals reside. This reflects the fact that the posterior pituitary is neural tissue that doesn't make its own hormones, and instead stores hypothalamic hormones in the axon terminals. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
80. Tumors of the parathyroid gland often result in secretion of excess parathyroid hormone.
Considering the function of this hormone, predict the effects of such a tumor. How would the effects change if the tumor secreted calcitonin instead? ANS:
Excess parathyroid hormone results in hypercalcemia and weakened bones, which leads to bone fractures. The hypercalcemia affects skeletal muscles, the heart, and neurons. If the tumor secreted calcitonin, it would increase bone deposition and could result in hypocalcemia, which primarily affects theTnervous ESTBAsystem. NKSELLER.COM PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
81. A pheochromocytoma (fee-uh-kroh-muh-sy-TOH-muh) is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that
secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. Predict the symptoms that you might see from this condition. ANS:
A pheochromocytoma leads to excessive sympathetic nervous system stimulation, which causes symptoms such as an elevated heart rate and blood pressure. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
82. The disease diabetes mellitus is due to either destruction of the cells that produce insulin or a
decrease in sensitivity of target cells to circulating insulin. How would this affect the level of glucose in the blood? Why? ANS:
This increases the level of glucose in the blood, because normally insulin would cause glucose uptake into cells. Without insulin to trigger glucose uptake, the glucose remains in the blood, causing hyperglycemia. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
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83. A type of tumor in the pancreas called a glucagonoma produces and releases excess glucagon
into the blood. How would this affect the level of glucose in the blood? Would the overall effect on blood glucose differ from that of type I diabetes mellitus? Why or why not? ANS:
Glucagon increases blood glucose through gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. When excess glucagon is secreted, it causes hyperglycemia, just as we see with diabetes mellitus, because the cells are only able to take in so much of the extra glucose that has been released. The remaining glucose stays in the blood, causing hyperglycemia. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
84. In the condition hyperthyroidism, patients have elevated levels of both T3 and T4 due to a
malfunction of the immune system that causes the thyroid gland to overproduce thyroid hormones. Do you think the negative feedback loops would lead to high levels of TSH or low levels of TSH? Explain. ANS:
Hyperthyroidism leads to a low level of TSH. The elevated levels of T3 and T4 cause feedback inhibition to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, which decreases TSH production. This is the body's attempt to lower thyroid stimulation and so lower T3 and T4 levels. The reason it doesn't work is because it is the malfunctioning immune system, not TSH, that is causing the thyroid gland to overproduce thyroid hormones. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
85. In case 3 of Exercise 16-4 T (p. 437), that ES TBAwe NKsaw SEL LEProfessor R.COM Purple had insufficient antidiuretic
hormone (ADH). However, the opposite condition can also occur in which excess ADH is present, called syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. Predict the symptoms of this condition. ANS:
Producing excess ADH leads to abnormal water retention from the kidneys. This causes the plasma to become too dilute, leading to symptoms associated with overhydration. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 16 Check Your Understanding
86. Which factor is a direct cause of rheumatoid arthritis symptoms? A) Prostaglandin B) Cortisone C) Cortisol D) Arachidonic acid ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
87. Which of the following is a property of prostaglandin? A) Affects blood pressure B) Affects digestive function C) Involved in childbirth D) All of the above
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ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
88. Which of the following is an example of feedback inhibition? A) Insulin lowers blood sugar. B) GH causes osteoblast division. C) PTH raises blood calcium levels. D) Low blood sugar inhibits insulin. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
89. Releasing hormones are produced by the _____. A) thyroid B) hypothalamus C) parathyroid D) adrenal cortex ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
90. Which hormone controls the ability to produce milk? A) ACTH B) PRL C) FSH D) Melanocyte ANS: B PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions 91. Graves' disease can cause all of the following EXCEPT ___________________. A) exophthalmos B) a positive autoimmune test C) general edema D) intolerance to heat ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
92. Which gland is assessed by the use of radioactive iodine? A) Parathyroid B) Thyroid C) Ovarian D) Hypothalamus ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
93. The substance ______ directly antagonizes the effect of calcitonin. A) thyroxine B) parathormone C) insulin
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D) glucocorticoid ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
94. Which of the following is given as a drug to reduce inflammation? A) Epinephrine B) Cortisol C) ADH D) Aldosterone E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
95. Imbalances of which hormones affect neural function? A) Thyroxine B) Parathormone C) Insulin D) Aldosterone E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
96. Hypothyroidism can cause ____________. A) myxedema B) cretinism C) Cushing's syndrome TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) exophthalmos E) A and B ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
97. Which of the following are direct or indirect effects of growth hormone? A) Stimulates cells to take in amino acids B) Increases synthesis of chondroitin sulfate C) Increases blood levels of fatty acids D) Decreases utilization of glucose by most body cells E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
98. A hormone that regulates mineral levels is ________. A) calcitonin B) aldosterone C) atrial natriuretic peptide D) glucagon E) A, B, and C ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Hard
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TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions 99. What is the most active form of vitamin D? A) 7-dehydrocholesterol B) Hydroxycholecalciferol C) Cholecalciferol D) Dihydroxycholecalciferol E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
100. What is the final factor in the synthesis of the active form of vitamin D? A) Kidney function B) Diet C) Intestinal conversion D) Sunlight on the skin E) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
101. The _____ gland is important for producing immunity. A) thyroid B) pituitary C) thymus D) pancreas E) None of the above TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
102. Prostaglandins are ___________ substances that regulate neighboring cells. A) endocrine B) paracrine C) eccrine D) glycoprotein E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
103. Which of these is NOT produced by the anterior pituitary gland? A) ACTH B) Follicle-stimulating hormone C) Somatostatin D) Somatotropin E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
104. The endocrine system ________________.
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A) regulates body activities through the production of hormones B) involves the secretion of hormones via ductless glands C) directs long-term regulation D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
105. The endocrine and nervous systems are similar because both _______________. A) maintain homeostasis B) release chemicals that bind specifically to certain cells C) control the activities of other organs D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
106. Endocrine glands differ from exocrine glands ___________. A) because one has local effects and the other has organismal effects B) by their means of transport C) by the length of their effect D) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
107. G protein activation causes ________________. A) activation of adenylate cyclase TESTCBopening ANKSEcalcium LLER.channels COM B) activation of phospholipase C) inhibition of adenylate cyclase and other cellular activities D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
108. Hormones alter cellular operations by ______________. A) modifying the rate of transcription of a particular enzyme B) turning enzymes on and off C) stimulating the synthesis of a specific protein D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
109. The hypothalamus _________________. A) is the highest level of endocrine control B) integrates the activities of the endocrine and nervous systems C) secretes regulatory hormones D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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110. The region of the pituitary that releases seven hormones that control other endocrine organs
and tissues is the _______________. A) posterior pituitary B) infundibulum C) pars nervosa D) adenohypophysis ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
111. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized in the hypothalamus and is released at the
_____________. A) anterior pituitary B) adenohypophysis C) thalamus D) neurohypophysis ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
112. The _____ system includes the glands that release their secretions directly into the blood. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) circulatory D) excretory ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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113. Which of the following glands does NOT belong to the endocrine system? A) Pituitary B) Thyroid C) Parathyroid D) Salivary ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
114. Which of the following is NOT a chemical class of hormones? A) Protein B) Steroid C) Glycoprotein D) Carbohydrate ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
115. Which of the following is NOT a steroid? A) Adrenalin B) Cholesterol C) Progesterone D) Cortisone
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ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 16 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 17 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines fibrous pericardium? A) The first heart sound, caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the
beginning of ventricular systole B) Three-cusped structure between the right atrium and right ventricle that prevents
the flow of blood back into the right atrium C) Outermost layer of the sac surrounding the heart that anchors the heart to the surrounding structures D) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular systole ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines serous parietal pericardium? A) Outermost layer of the sac surrounding the heart that anchors the heart to the
surrounding structures B) The inner layer of the serous membrane around the heart that is part of the heart
wall (also called the epicardium) C) The outermost layer of the serous membrane around the heart that is functionally fused to the fibrous pericardium D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines serous visceral pericardium? A) Outermost layer of theTsac heart ESsurrounding TBANKSEthe LLE R.Cthat OManchors the heart to the
surrounding structures
B) The inner layer of the serous membrane around the heart that is part of the heart
wall (also called the epicardium) C) The outermost layer of the serous membrane around the heart that is functionally
fused to the fibrous pericardium D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that
prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines pericardial cavity? A) A small potential space located between the two layers of the serous pericardium
that contains serous fluid B) Large vein that carries blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium C) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular diastole D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines myocardium? A) The second heart sound, caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
at the beginning of ventricular diastole B) Fibrous structures attached to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves that anchor
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the cusps to the papillary muscles C) Artery that carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs D) The layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue and a fibrous skeleton ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines endocardium? A) Point on the body where an artery can be palpated with the fingertips to determine
the rate, rhythm, and regularity of the heart B) Muscles in the ventricular walls that pull the chordae tendineae taut to prevent prolapse of the cusps of the atrioventricular valves C) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle D) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines atria (right and left)? A) Small superior chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins B) Large inferior chambers of the heart that eject blood into the arteries C) Large vein that carries blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium D) Large vein that carries blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines ventricles (right and left)? A) Large vein that carriesTblood the ESTfrom BANK SElower LLEhalf R.CofOthe M body to the right atrium B) Large inferior chambers of the heart that eject blood into the arteries C) Large vein that carries blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium D) Small superior chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines tricuspid valve? A) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that
prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle B) Three-cusped structure between the left ventricle atrium and aorta that prevents the flow of blood back into the left ventricle C) Three-cusped structure between the right atrium and right ventricle that prevents the flow of blood back into the right atrium D) Fibrous structure attached to the cusp of the atrioventricular valve that anchors the cusp to the papillary muscles ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines mitral (bicuspid) valve? A) The second heart sound, caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
at the beginning of ventricular diastole B) The “backup” pacemaker of the heart; located in the lower right atrium C) Transmits impulses from the AV bundle down either side of the interventricular
septum
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D) Two-cusped structure between the left atrium and left ventricle that prevents the
flow of blood back into the left atrium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines pulmonary valve? A) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart B) Three-cusped structure between the right atrium and right ventricle that prevents
the flow of blood back into the right atrium C) Three-cusped structure between the left ventricle atrium and aorta that prevents the
flow of blood back into the left ventricle D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that
prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines aortic valve? A) Two-cusped structure between the left atrium and left ventricle that prevents the
flow of blood back into the left atrium B) Three-cusped structure between the right atrium and right ventricle that prevents the flow of blood back into the right atrium C) Three-cusped structure between the left ventricle atrium and aorta that prevents the flow of blood back into the left ventricle D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: C
PTS: 1
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13. Which of the following statements accurately defines chordae tendineae? A) Extracellular matrix surrounding atrioventricular fibers B) Fibrous cords attached to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves that anchor the
cusps to the papillary muscles C) The process of listening to heart sounds D) Point on the body where an artery can be palpated with the fingertips to determine
the rate, rhythm, and regularity of the heart ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines papillary muscles? A) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular diastole B) Muscular projections from the ventricular walls that pull the chordae tendineae taut
to prevent prolapse of the cusps of the atrioventricular valves C) Small chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins D) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular systole ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines superior vena cava? A) Large vein that carries blood from the superior half of the body to the right atrium B) Large chambers of the heart that eject blood into the arteries C) Small chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins D) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines inferior vena cava? A) Fibrous structures attached to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves that anchor
the cusps to the papillary muscles B) Large chambers of the heart that eject blood into the arteries C) Small chambers of the heart that receive blood from veins D) Large vein that carries blood from the inferior half of the body to the right atrium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines pulmonary trunk? A) Veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium B) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular systole C) Artery that carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs D) The process of listening to heart sounds ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines pulmonary veins? A) Veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium B) Transmit impulses from the AV bundle down either side of the interventricular
septum C) Specialized muscle fibers in the ventricular walls that conduct electrical impulses D) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular systole ANS: A
PTS: 1
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM 19. Which of the following statements accurately defines aorta? A) The main pacemaker of the heart; located in the upper right atrium B) Veins that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium C) Small group of fibers in the interatrial septum and interventricular septum that
transmits impulses from the AV node to the ventricles D) Largest artery in the body that carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle into
systemic circulation ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 17.1 Thoracic cavity. 20. In Figure 17.1, identify number 1. A) Parietal pleura (cut) B) Mediastinum C) Pulmonary trunk D) Superior vena cava E) Aorta ANS: D
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.17 COPre-Lab M
21. In Figure 17.1, identify number 2. A) Right lung B) Fibrous pericardium C) Mediastinum D) Parietal pleura (cut) E) Pericardial sac (cut) ANS: A
PTS: 1
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22. In Figure 17.1, identify number 3. A) Parietal pleura (cut) B) Pericardial sac (cut) C) Atrioventricular sulcus D) Fibrous pericardium E) Mediastinum ANS: C
PTS: 1
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23. In Figure 17.1, identify number 4. A) Mediastinum B) Pericardial sac (cut) C) Atrioventricular sulcus D) Apex of heart
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E) Fibrous pericardium ANS: B
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24. In Figure 17.1, identify number 5. A) Apex of heart B) Diaphragm C) Mediastinum D) Atrioventricular sulcus E) Pericardial sac ANS: C
PTS: 1
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25. In Figure 17.1, identify number 6. A) Fibrous pericardium B) Mediastinum C) Parietal pleura D) Aorta E) Pulmonary trunk ANS: D
PTS: 1
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26. In Figure 17.1, identify number 7. A) Apex of heart B) Aorta C) Superior vena cava D) Pericardial sac E) Pulmonary trunk TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: E
PTS: 1
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27. In Figure 17.1, identify number 8. A) Interventricular sulcus B) Aorta C) Superior vena cava D) Pericardial sac E) Atrioventricular sulcus ANS: A
PTS: 1
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28. In Figure 17.1, identify number 9. A) Apex of heart B) Superior vena cava C) Interventricular sulcus D) Right lung E) Fibrous pericardium ANS: E
PTS: 1
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29. In Figure 17.1, identify number 10. A) Pericardial sac B) Apex of heart C) Aorta
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D) Atrioventricular sulcus E) Diaphragm ANS: B
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30. In Figure 17.1, identify number 11. A) Superior vena cava B) Fibrous pericardium C) Atrioventricular sulcus D) Fibrous pericardium E) Diaphragm ANS: E
PTS: 1
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Figure 17.2 Heart: anterior view. 31. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 1. A) Right pulmonary artery B) Right atrium C) Aortic arch D) Ascending aorta E) Superior vena cava F) Pulmonary trunk G) Right ventricle ANS: E
PTS: 1
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32. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 2. A) Pulmonary trunk B) Ascending aorta
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C) Superior aorta D) Aortic arch E) Ligamentum arteriosum F) Superior vena cava G) Right atrium ANS: B
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 3. A) Apex of heart B) Pulmonary trunk C) Aortic arch D) Superior vena cava E) Branches of right pulmonary artery F) Right pulmonary veins G) Left pulmonary vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
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34. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 4. A) Auricle of right atrium B) Auricle of left atrium C) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle E) Superior vena cava F) Thoracic aorta G) Inferior vena cava
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
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35. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 5. A) Left pulmonary veins B) Right coronary artery C) Branches of right pulmonary artery D) Pulmonary trunk E) Marginal artery F) Right pulmonary veins G) Right atrium ANS: F
PTS: 1
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36. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 6. A) Marginal artery B) Left ventricle C) Right atrium D) Aortic arch E) Left coronary artery F) Right ventricle G) Apex of heart ANS: C
PTS: 1
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37. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 7. A) Auricle of right atrium B) Right coronary artery C) Trabeculae carneae D) Ligamentum arteriosum E) Circumflex artery F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Left coronary artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
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38. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 8. A) Anterior interventricular artery B) Left coronary artery C) Trabeculae carneae D) Ligamentum arteriosum E) Circumflex artery F) Marginal artery G) Right coronary artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
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39. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 9. A) Pulmonary trunk B) Branches of right pulmonary artery C) Aortic arch D) Right atrium TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Small cardiac vein F) Right pulmonary veins G) Left pulmonary veins ANS: E
PTS: 1
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40. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 10. A) Right coronary artery B) Apex of heart C) Left ventricle D) Right atrium E) Auricle of left atrium F) Aortic arch G) Right ventricle ANS: G
PTS: 1
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41. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 11. A) Ligamentum arteriosum B) Auricle of right atrium C) Pulmonary trunk D) Inferior vena cava E) Aortic arch F) Ascending aorta
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G) Superior vena cava ANS: D
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42. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 12. A) Abdominal aorta B) Superior vena cava C) Pulmonary trunk D) Inferior vena cava E) Great cardiac vein F) Circumflex artery G) Thoracic aorta ANS: G
PTS: 1
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43. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 13. A) Superior vena cava B) Ascending aorta C) Inferior vena cava D) Right coronary artery E) Aortic arch F) Pulmonary trunk G) Left coronary artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
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44. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 14. A) Small cardiac vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Marginal artery C) Ligamentum arteriosum D) Pulmonary trunk E) Ascending aorta F) Apex of heart G) Aortic arch ANS: C
PTS: 1
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45. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 15. A) Superior vena cava B) Marginal artery C) Circumflex artery D) Inferior vena cava E) Pulmonary trunk F) Small cardiac vein G) Left coronary artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
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46. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 16. A) Right pulmonary veins B) Auricle of left atrium C) Auricle of right atrium
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D) Left pulmonary veins E) Left coronary vein F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Circumflex artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
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47. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 17. A) Right pulmonary veins B) Auricle of left atrium C) Auricle of right atrium D) Left pulmonary veins E) Left coronary vein F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Circumflex artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
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48. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 18. A) Abdominal aorta B) Superior vena cava C) Pulmonary trunk D) Inferior vena cava E) Great cardiac vein F) Circumflex artery G) Thoracic aorta ANS: F
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49. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 19. A) Right pulmonary veins B) Auricle of left atrium C) Auricle of right atrium D) Left pulmonary veins E) Left coronary artery F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Circumflex artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
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50. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 20. A) Abdominal aorta B) Superior vena cava C) Pulmonary trunk D) Inferior vena cava E) Great cardiac vein F) Circumflex artery G) Thoracic aorta ANS: E
PTS: 1
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51. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 21.
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A) Thoracic artery B) Auricle of left atrium C) Anterior interventricular artery D) Right coronary artery E) Great cardiac vein F) Circumflex artery G) Left coronary artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
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52. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 22. A) Right coronary artery B) Apex of heart C) Left ventricle D) Right atrium E) Auricle of left atrium F) Aortic arch G) Right ventricle ANS: C
PTS: 1
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53. In Figure 17.2A, identify number 23. A) Small cardiac vein B) Marginal artery C) Ligamentum arteriosum D) Pulmonary trunk E) Ascending aorta TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Apex of heart G) Aortic arch ANS: F
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Figure 17.2B Heart: posterior view.
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54. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 1. A) Superior vena cava B) Left pulmonary artery C) Ascending aorta D) Aortic arch E) Apex F) Great cardiac vein G) Inferior vena cava ANS: D
PTS: 1
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55. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 2. A) Right pulmonary artery B) Great cardiac vein C) Left atrium D) Pulmonary trunk E) Left pulmonary artery F) Right pulmonary vein G) Coronary sinus ANS: E
PTS: 1
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56. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 3. A) Great cardiac vein B) Left pulmonary veins C) Middle cardiac vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Right pulmonary arteries E) Right pulmonary veins F) Coronary sinus G) Left pulmonary arteries ANS: B
PTS: 1
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57. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 4. A) Right ventricle B) Coronary sinus C) Right ventricle D) Left ventricle E) Right atrium F) Left atrium G) Apex ANS: F
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58. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 5. A) Middle cardiac vein B) Left atrium C) Apex D) Right ventricle E) Left ventricle
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F) Posterior interventricular artery (in posterior interventricular sulcus) G) Auricle of left atrium ANS: G
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59. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 6. A) Great cardiac vein B) Left pulmonary veins C) Middle cardiac vein D) Right pulmonary arteries E) Right pulmonary veins F) Coronary sinus G) Left pulmonary arteries ANS: A
PTS: 1
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60. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 7. A) Great cardiac vein B) Left pulmonary veins C) Middle cardiac vein D) Right pulmonary arteries E) Right pulmonary veins F) Coronary sinus G) Left pulmonary arteries ANS: C
PTS: 1
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61. In Figure 17.2B, identify number TESTB8.ANKSELLER.COM A) Right ventricle B) Coronary sinus C) Auricle of left atrium D) Left ventricle E) Right atrium F) Left atrium G) Apex ANS: D
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62. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 9. A) Auricle of left atrium B) Coronary sinus C) Right ventricle D) Left ventricle E) Right atrium F) Left atrium G) Apex ANS: G
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63. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 10. A) Right atrium B) Superior vena cava
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C) Great cardiac vein D) Middle cardiac vein E) Right pulmonary artery F) Coronary sinus G) Apex ANS: B
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64. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 11. A) Right atrium B) Superior vena cava C) Great cardiac vein D) Middle cardiac vein E) Right pulmonary artery F) Coronary sinus G) Apex ANS: E
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65. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 12. A) Great cardiac vein B) Left pulmonary veins C) Middle cardiac vein D) Right pulmonary arteries E) Right pulmonary veins F) Coronary sinus G) Left pulmonary arteries
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
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66. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 13. A) Auricle of right atrium B) Auricle of left atrium C) Left ventricle D) Coronary sinus E) Apex F) Right ventricle G) Right atrium ANS: G
PTS: 1
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67. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 14. A) Coronary sinus B) Circumflex vein C) Aortic arch D) Inferior ven cava E) Posterior interventricular artery (in posterior interventricular sulcus) F) Great cardiac vein G) Middle cardiac vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
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68. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 15. A) Aortic arch B) Great cardiac vein C) Inferior vena cava D) Coronary sinus E) Superior vena cava F) Posterior interventricular artery (in posterior interventricular sulcus) G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 16. A) Coronary sinus B) Posterior interventricular artery (in posterior interventricular sulcus) C) Middle cardiac artery D) Circumflex artery E) Right pulmonary artery F) Coronary artery G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
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70. In Figure 17.2B, identify number 17. A) Right ventricle B) Left ventricle C) Left atrium D) Right atrium TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Apex F) Auricle of left atrium G) Right pulmonary artery ANS: A
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Figure 17.2C Heart: frontal section. 71. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 1. A) Left pulmonary vein B) Superior vena cava C) Right pulmonary artery D) Right pulmonary vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Inferior vena cava F) Aortic arch G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
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72. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 2. A) Mitral valve B) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum C) Pulmonary valve D) Interatrial septum E) Tricuspid valve F) Opening of the superior vena cava G) Inventricular septum ANS: F
PTS: 1
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73. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 3. A) Left pulmonary veins B) Right pulmonary arteries C) Pulmonary trunk D) Right pulmonary veins E) Great cardiac vein F) Pectinate muscles
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G) Left pulmonary arteries ANS: F
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74. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 4. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic arch D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Trabeculae carneae G) Papillary muscle ANS: A
PTS: 1
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75. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 5. A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium E) Left pulmonary veins F) Right pulmonary veins G) Left pulmonary arteries ANS: F
PTS: 1
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76. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 6. A) Right atrium TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Right ventricle C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium E) Left pulmonary vein F) Right pulmonary vein G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: A
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77. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 7. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Visceral pericardium (epicardium) D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Pulmonary valve G) Aortic valve ANS: G
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78. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 8. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Visceral pericardium (epicardium)
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D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Pulmonary valve G) Aortic valve ANS: B
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79. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 9. A) Right ventricle B) Left ventricle C) Myocardium D) Left atrium E) Right atrium F) Endocardium G) Visceral pericardium (epicardium) ANS: A
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80. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 10. A) Endocardium B) Visceral pericardium (epicardium) C) Trabeculae carneae D) Pectinate muscle E) Myocardium F) Chordae tendinae G) Mitral valve ANS: E
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81. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 11. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic arch D) Inferior vena cava E) Mitral valve F) Trabeculae carneae G) Papillary muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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82. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 12. A) Great cardiac vein B) Inferior vena cava C) Aortic arch D) Pulmonary trunk E) Superior vena cava F) Interventricular septum G) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum ANS: C
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83. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 13.
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A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium E) Pulmonary valve F) Pulmonary trunk G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: F
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84. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 14. A) Mitral valve B) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum C) Pulmonary valve D) Pectinate muscles E) Tricuspid valve F) Opening of the superior vena cava G) Inventricular septum ANS: C
PTS: 1
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85. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 15. A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium E) Left pulmonary vein F) Right pulmonary vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: G
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86. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 16. A) Left pulmonary veins B) Right pulmonary arteries C) Pulmonary trunk D) Right pulmonary veins E) Great cardiac vein F) Great cardiac artery G) Left pulmonary arteries ANS: A
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87. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 17. A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium E) Left pulmonary veins F) Right pulmonary veins G) Left pulmonary arteries
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ANS: D
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88. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 18. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic arch D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Trabeculae carneae G) Papillary muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
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89. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 19. A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left ventricle D) Left atrium E) Pulmonary valve F) Pulmonary trunk G) Left pulmonary artery ANS: C
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90. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 20. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Aortic arch D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Trabeculae carneae G) Papillary muscle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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91. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 21. A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic arch D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Trabeculae carneae G) Papillary muscle ANS: G
PTS: 1
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92. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 22. A) Endocardium B) Visceral pericardium (epicardium) C) Trabeculae carneae D) Pectinate muscle E) Myocardium
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F) Chordae tendinae G) Mitral valve ANS: A
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93. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 23. A) Endocardium B) Visceral pericardium (epicardium) C) Trabeculae carneae D) Pectinate muscle E) Myocardium F) Chordae tendinae G) Mitral valve ANS: B
PTS: 1
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94. In Figure 17.2C, identify number 24. A) Endocardium B) Visceral pericardium (epicardium) C) Trabeculae carneae D) Pectinate muscle E) Myocardium F) Chordae tendinae G) Mitral valve ANS: C
PTS: 1
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95. In Figure 17.2C, identify number TESTB25. ANKSELLER.COM A) Fossa ovalis in the interatrial septum B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic arch D) Chordae tendinae E) Mitral valve F) Interventricular septum G) Papillary muscle ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Figure 17.13 Heart, anterior view. 96. In Figure 17.13, identify number 1. A) Aorta B) Circumflex artery C) Inferior vena cava TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Pulmonary trunk E) Pulmonary veins F) Right coronary artery G) Superior vena cava ANS: G
PTS: 1
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97. In Figure 17.13, identify number 2. A) Anterior interventricular arteries B) Circumflex arteries C) Inferior vena cava D) Pulmonary trunk E) Superior vena cava F) Pulmonary veins G) Right coronary arteries ANS: F
PTS: 1
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98. In Figure 17.13, identify number 3. A) Pulmonary veins B) Right coronary artery C) Inferior vena cava D) Circumflex artery E) Pulmonary trunk
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F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Aorta ANS: B
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99. In Figure 17.13, identify number 4. A) Aorta B) Pulmonary veins C) Superior vena cava D) Inferior vena cava E) Pulmonary trunk F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Right coronary artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
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100. In Figure 17.13, identify number 5. A) Pulmonary veins B) Aorta C) Superior vena cava D) Pulmonary trunk E) Anterior interventricular artery F) Right coronary artery G) Circumflex artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
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101. In Figure 17.13, identify number 6.ANKSELLER.COM TESTB A) Right coronary artery B) Circumflex artery C) Inferior vena cava D) Pulmonary trunk E) Superior vena cava F) Aorta G) Pulmonary veins ANS: D
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102. In Figure 17.13, identify number 7. A) Circumflex artery B) Pulmonary veins C) Inferior vena cava D) Pulmonary trunk E) Superior vena cava F) Anterior interventricular artery G) Right coronary artery ANS: A
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103. In Figure 17.13, identify number 8. A) Pulmonary trunk B) Circumflex artery
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C) Superior vena cava D) Right coronary artery E) Anterior interventricular artery F) Pulmonary veins G) Inferior vena cava ANS: E
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 17.14 Frontal dissection of the heart. 104. In Figure 17.14, identify number 1. A) Chordae tendineae B) Left atrium C) Left ventricle D) Papillary muscles E) Right atrium F) Right ventricle ANS: E
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105. In Figure 17.14, identify number 2. A) Interventricular septum B) Right atrium C) Chordae tendineae D) Right ventricle E) Left atrium F) Left ventricle ANS: D
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106. In Figure 17.14, identify number 3.
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A) Interventricular septum B) Right atrium C) Chordae tendineae D) Right ventricle E) Left atrium F) Left ventricle ANS: E
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107. In Figure 17.14, identify number 4. A) Left ventricle B) Right atrium C) Papillary muscles D) Right ventricle E) Left atrium F) Interventricular septum ANS: A
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108. In Figure 17.14, identify number 5. A) Left atrium B) Chordae tendineae C) Papillary muscles D) Right atrium E) Left ventricle F) Interventricular septum ANS: B
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109. In Figure 17.14, identify number 6. A) Right atrium B) Chordae tendineae C) Right ventricle D) Left atrium E) Papillary muscle F) Interventricular septum ANS: E
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110. In Figure 17.14, identify number 7. A) Chordae tendineae B) Left ventricle C) Right ventricle D) Interventricular septum E) Pulmonary valve F) Papillary muscles ANS: D
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Figure 17.15 Transverse section of the heart showing all four valves. 111. In Figure 17.15, identify number 1. A) Pulmonary valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Mitral valve D) Aortic valve ANS: B
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112. In Figure 17.15, identify number 2. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Pulmonary valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Mitral valve D) Aortic valve ANS: D
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113. In Figure 17.15, identify number 3. A) Pulmonary valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Mitral valve D) Aortic valve ANS: A
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114. In Figure 17.15, identify number 4. A) Pulmonary valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Mitral valve D) Aortic valve ANS: C
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115. Which phrase most accurately describes the myocardium? A) Layer of the heart composed of cardiac muscle tissue
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B) Outer layer of the serous pericardium C) Fibrous cord(s) that attach(es) to valves D) Inner layer of the serous pericardium ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
116. Which phrase most accurately describes the parietal pericardium? A) Located between the left ventricle and the aorta B) Layer of the heart composed of cardiac muscle tissue C) Outer layer of the serous pericardium D) Inner layer of the serous pericardium ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
117. Which phrase most accurately describes the tricuspid valve? A) Located between the left ventricle and the aorta B) Located between the left atrium and left ventricle C) Bring(s) oxygenated blood to the left atrium from the lungs D) Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
118. Which phrase most accurately describes the aortic valve? A) Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle B) Largest artery of the systemic circuit C) Located between the left ventricle and the aorta D) Located between the left atrium and left ventricle ANS: C
ELLE R.17 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
119. Which phrase most accurately describes the papillary muscles? A) Fingerlike muscular projections from the ventricles B) Fibrous cord(s) that attach(es) to valves C) Inner layer of the serous pericardium D) Outer layer of the serous pericardium ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
120. Which phrase most accurately describes the pulmonary veins? A) Located between the left atrium and left ventricle B) Bring(s) oxygenated blood to the left atrium from the lungs C) Bring(s) deoxygenated blood to the lungs D) Largest vein of the coronary circulation ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
121. Which phrase most accurately describes the mitral valve? A) Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle B) Located between the left atrium and left ventricle C) Bring(s) deoxygenated blood to the lungs D) Located between the left ventricle and the aorta ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
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122. Which phrase most accurately describes the visceral pericardium? A) Layer of the heart composed of cardiac muscle tissue B) Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle C) Outer layer of the serous pericardium D) Inner layer of the serous pericardium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
123. Which phrase most accurately describes the pulmonary trunk? A) Located between the left ventricle and the aorta B) Bring(s) oxygenated blood to the left atrium from the lungs C) Bring(s) deoxygenated blood to the lungs D) Largest vein of the coronary circulation ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
124. Which phrase most accurately describes the chordae tendineae? A) Fibrous cord(s) that attach(es) to valves B) Located between the left atrium and left ventricle C) Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle D) Fingerlike muscular projections from the ventricles ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
125. The arteries of the systemic circuit carry ______________ blood, and the arteries of the
pulmonary circuit carry ______________ blood. A) oxygenated; deoxygenated TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) oxygenated; oxygenated C) deoxygenated; deoxygenated D) deoxygenated; oxygenated ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
126. The tricuspid and mitral valves are known as the A) chordae tendineae. B) semilunar valves. C) coronary valves. D) atrioventricular (AV) valves. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
127. The function of the papillary muscles is to A) pull open the semilunar valves. B) pull the chordae tendineae taut. C) pull open the atrioventricular valves. D) pull the semilunar valves closed. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
128. The two main branches of the left coronary artery are the __________ and the __________. A) superior vena cava; anterior interventricular artery B) superior vena cava; inferior vena cava
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C) circumflex artery; inferior vena cava, D) anterior interventricular artery; circumflex artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
129. The main vein that drains the coronary circulation is the A) superior vena cava. B) pulmonary vein. C) small cardiac vein. D) coronary sinus. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
130. Cardiac muscle cells are also known as __________. Adjacent cells are joined together by
__________, which allow the heart to __________. A) cardiac myocytes; intercalated discs; expand as a unit B) intercalated discs; cardiac myocytes; contract as a unit C) intercalated discs; cardiac myoctes; expand as a unit D) cardiac myocytes; intercalated discs; contract as a unit ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Recall
131. When the pericardium fills with blood, it produces a condition called cardiac tamponade,
which can be rapidly lethal. Why is this condition so dangerous? (Hint: Consider the structure of the fibrous pericardium.) ANS:
The fibrous pericardium is not distensible, which causes the blood to put pressure on the heart, TESTBANKSELLER.COM constricting it and reducing its ability to contract. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
132. A condition known as pulmonary hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure in the
pulmonary circuit. Which chamber of the heart would this condition most directly affect, and why? ANS:
It would most directly affect the right ventricle, as this chamber is pumping into the pulmonary circuit. The higher pressure in the pulmonary circuit makes the right ventricle have to pump harder, and can cause it to enlarge and fail as a result. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
133. Ms. F. visited her physician for a routine physical. During the exam, she explained that over
the last two weeks, she had been feeling much more tired than normal and occasionally felt short of breath. Knowing that women usually present with atypical symptoms of a heart attack, her physician ran some diagnostic tests, and found that Ms. F. was indeed having a heart attack. Imaging studies showed that Ms. F. had blockages in both her right marginal artery and her anterior interventricular artery. What parts of the heart would be affected by these blockages? ANS:
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These blockages would affect the anterior right and left ventricles (the anterior interventricular artery) and the lateral part of the right atrium and right ventricle (the marginal artery). PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
134. Ms. F. visited her physician for a routine physical. During the exam, she explained that over
the last two weeks, she had been feeling much more tired than normal and occasionally felt short of breath. Knowing that women usually present with atypical symptoms of a heart attack, her physician ran some diagnostic tests, and found that Ms. F. was indeed having a heart attack. Ms. F.'s heart attack damaged one of her papillary muscles. What is the normal function of a papillary muscle? Predict the consequences of a malfunctioning papillary muscle. ANS:
The papillary muscles pull the chordae tendineae taut during ventricular contraction, which prevents prolapse of the atrioventricular valves into the atria. Dysfunction of a papillary muscle would prevent some of the chordae from functioning properly, which could lead to valvular prolapse. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
135. In the heart dissection you performed, you noted the muscular walls of the ventricles. The
walls of the atria, however, were much thinner. Why do you think the ventricular walls are so much thicker than the atrial walls? ANS:
Much of the blood from the atria drains TE STB ANKinto SELthe LEventricles R.COM simply by the force of gravity. As a result, there isn't much muscular force needed to push blood from the atria to the ventricles. In contrast, the ventricles are pumping against gravity and into higher-resistance blood vessels, so they need to generate more force when they contract. This causes them to have greater muscle mass. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
136. The condition known as ventricular septal defect is characterized by the presence of a hole in
the interventricular septum. How would this condition affect the normal pattern of blood flow? What effect would this have on the oxygenation of the blood? ANS:
Some of the blood could flow directly from the right ventricle to the left ventricle instead of flowing into the pulmonary trunk. This would cause some of the blood to bypass the lungs and so not become oxygenated. As a result, the blood that the left ventricle pumps into the aorta, and out to the systemic circuit, is only partially oxygenated. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
137. While in the hospital recovering from her heart attack Ms. F. developed a condition known as
atrial fibrillation, in which the myocytes of the atria depolarize and contract individually. How are the cells of the heart supposed to contract? (Hint: Think about the functions of the intercalated discs.) Why would it impair the functions of the heart as a whole to have cardiac myocytes contracting individually?
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ANS:
Cardiac myocytes should contract as a unit, first in the atria, then in the ventricles. The intercalated discs couple cardiac myocytes electrically and physically, which allows them to contract simultaneously. This is important, as it allows the chambers to form a unified contraction that will eject blood. When individual myocytes contract, there is no unified contraction, and blood is not ejected from the chamber. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 17 Check Your Understanding
138. The skeleton of the heart ______________. A) electrically insulates the atria from the ventricles B) is composed of bone and cartilage C) is the location of the pacemaker D) is composed of calcified cardiac muscle ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
139. The group of modified cardiac muscle cells that delays action potentials between the atria and
the atrioventricular bundle is known as the ____________. A) Purkinje fibers B) SA node C) bundle branches D) AV node ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: Unit 17 SupplementalTQuestions ESTBANKSELLER.COM 140. Which of these statements about the heart is correct? A) It is about the size of a fist. B) It lies in the mediastinum. C) It consists of two chambers. D) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
141. If the SA node is damaged and nonfunctional, which of these responses will most likely
occur? A) The heart will stop. B) The ventricles will contract, but the atria will stop. C) Another part of the heart, possibly the AV node, will become the pacemaker. D) The heart will beat faster. E) The atria will keep contracting, but the ventricles will stop. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
142. Action potentials pass rapidly from one cardiac muscle cell to another because of the
_____________. A) intercalated discs and numerous gap junctions
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B) large nerves with branches going to each cardiac muscle cell C) large voltage of cardiac action potentials D) plateau phase of the action potential E) open Ca2+ channels ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
143. Which of these conditions occurs in the cardiac muscle cell during the final repolarization
phase? A) Voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels are open. B) Voltage-gated K+ ion channels are open. C) Voltage-gated Na+ ion channels are open. D) B and C E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
144. Unlike other cardiac muscle cells, the movement of _______ into the pacemaker cells is
primarily responsible for the depolarization phase of the action potential. A) Ca2+ ions B) K+ ions C) Na+ ions D) Cl– ions E) A and C ANS: A PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions 145. In an EKG, the P wave represents ______________. A) depolarization of the atria B) repolarization of the atria C) depolarization of the ventricles D) repolarization of the ventricles E) B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
146. During the period of ejection in the cardiac cycle, the atrioventricular valves are ______, and
the semilunar valves are ___________. A) closed; closed B) closed; open C) open; closed D) open; open E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
147. Blood flows neither into nor out of the ventricles during the ______________.
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A) period of isovolumic contraction B) systolic phase C) diastolic phase D) A and B ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
148. At the end of __________, the ventricles are 70% filled. A) active ventricular filling B) passive ventricular filling C) ventricular diastole D) ventricular systole E) atrial systole ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
149. The second heart sound, described as “dub,” is actually the sound of the _____________. A) atria contracting B) ventricle contracting C) atrioventricular valves closing D) semilunar valves closing E) heart hitting the liver and lungs upon contraction ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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150. Parasympathetic nerve fibers ____________. A) are carried to the heart through the accessory nerve (XI) B) extend to terminal ganglia within the wall of the heart C) release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine D) result in an increased heart rate if stimulated E) greatly increase stroke volume if stimulated ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
151. In heart failure, venous return is slowed. Edema results because _______. A) blood volume increases B) venous pressure increases C) osmotic pressure increases D) All of the above E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
152. Soon after the onset of ventricular systole, the ________. A) AV valves close B) semilunar valves open C) first heart sound is heard
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D) aortic pressure increases E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
153. The condition known as cardiac tamponade exhibits which of the following? A) Interventricular septal opening B) Cyanosis C) An electrical abnormality D) The pericardium fills with blood E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
154. The ________ delivers _________ blood to the lungs. A) pulmonary vein; oxygenated B) pulmonary vein; poorly oxygenated C) aorta; oxygenated D) right circumflex artery; oxygenated E) pulmonary artery; poorly oxygenated ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
155. What effect would compressing the inferior vena cava below the diaphragm have on cardiac
function? TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Stroke volume would decrease. B) Cardiac output would decrease. C) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would eventually increase. D) Heart rate would increase. E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
156. Generally, an increase in extracellular Ca2+ ions causes __________ force of contraction. A) decreased B) unchanged C) increased D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
157. Which of the heart layers are vascularized? A) Myocardium B) Endothelium of the endocardial layer C) Mesothelium of the epicardium D) Connective tissue layers of both the endocardium and epicardium E) A and D
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ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
158. Occlusion of which of the following arteries would damage primarily the right ventricle? A) Marginal artery B) Posterior interventricular artery C) Circumflex artery D) Anterior interventricular artery E) A or C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
159. Atrioventricular valves are held closed by ______________. A) papillary muscles B) trabeculae carneae C) pectinate muscles D) chordae tendineae E) A and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
160. During atrial systole _____________. A) atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure B) 70% of ventricular filling occurs C) AV valves are open D) valves prevent backflow the TEinto STB ANgreat KSEveins LLER.COM E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
161. Which of the following will occur first after the T wave on the EKG? A) Increase in ventricular volume B) Decrease in atrial volume C) Closure of the semilunar valves D) Decrease in ventricular pressure E) A and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
162. Having one centrally located nucleus is a characteristic of ____________ cells. A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
163. Which of the following cells exhibits more mitochondria per cell?
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A) Cardiac muscle B) Skeletal muscle C) Smooth muscle D) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
164. Which of these descriptions of the heart's location is correct? A) The heart lies obliquely in the mediastinum. B) The heart's base is directed anteriorly and slightly superiorly. C) The heart's apex is directed posteriorly and slightly inferiorly. D) Two-thirds of the heart's mass lies to the right of the midline of the sternum. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
165. The epicardium is _________________. A) also known as the parietal pericardium B) a layer of cardiac muscle C) the visceral pericardium D) lining the heart chambers ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
166. The heart valves have a double layer of __________ with a layer of __________ in between. A) epicardium; myocardium TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) epicardium; endocardium C) myocardium; endocardium D) endocardium; connective tissue ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
167. The valve located between the left atrium and left ventricle is the _______. A) aortic semilunar valve B) bicuspid (mitral) valve C) pulmonary semilunar valve D) tricuspid valve ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
168. Strong connective tissue strings attached to papillary muscles and to the cusps of the
atrioventricular valves are known as the ___________. A) musculi pectinati B) chordae tendineae C) trabeculae carneae D) skeleton of the heart ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 17 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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Unit 18
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Figure 18.1A Major arteries of the body. In Figure 18.1A, identify number 1. Temporal artery Vertebral artery Right subclavian artery Right internal carotid artery Right external carotid artery Right common carotid artery Left common carotid artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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In Figure 18.1A, identify number 2. Right subclavian artery Right external carotid artery Temporal artery Left common carotid artery Vertebral artery Right common carotid artery Right internal carotid artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 3. Right subclavian artery Right common carotid artery Right external carotid artery Left common carotid artery Right internal carotid artery Left subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 4. Right subclavian artery Right external carotid artery Left subclavian artery Left common carotid artery ESTBANKSELLER.COM Right common carotid T artery Brachiocephalic trunk Right internal carotid artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 5. Ascending aorta Aortic arch Descending aorta Abdominal aorta Axillary artery Pulmonary trunk Celiac trunk ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 6. Abdominal aorta Aortic arch Pulmonary trunk Celiac trunk Axillary artery Descending aorta
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Ascending aorta ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 7. Left subclavian artery Right subclavian artery Radial artery Brachiocephalic trunk Axillary artery Brachial artery Ulnar artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 8. Abdominal aorta Diaphragm Suprarenal artery Celiac trunk Superior mesenteric artery Descending aorta Renal artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 9. Brachial artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Brachiocephalic trunk Axillary artery Radial artery Aortic arch Ulnar artery Pulmonary trunk ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 10. Superior mesenteric artery Descending aorta Ascending aorta Celiac trunk Aortic arch Abdominal aorta Middle suprarenal artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 11. Renal artery Middle suprarenal artery Superior mesenteric artery
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Common iliac artery Celiac trunk Inferior mesenteric artery Gonadal artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 12. Radial artery Brachiocephalic trunk Ulnar artery Brachial artery Femoral artery Aortic arch Dorsalis pedis artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 13. Brachial artery Radial artery Ulnar artery Aortic arch Dorsalis pedis artery Femoral artery Brachiocephalic trunk ANS: C
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.18CPre-Lab OM Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 14. Deep femoral artery External iliac artery Superior mesenteric artery Common iliac artery Internal iliac artery Femoral artery Inferior mesenteric artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 15. Anterior tibial artery Small saphenous artery Popliteal artery Great saphenous artery Femoral artery Posterior tibial artery Dorsalis pedia artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 16.
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Small saphenous artery Anterior tibial artery Great saphenous artery Brachial artery Radial artery Posterior tibial artery Popliteal artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 17. Posterior tibial artery Radial artery Popliteal artery Anterior tibial artery Small saphenous artery Great saphenous artery Brachial artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 18. Vertebral artery Right common carotid artery Left common carotid artery Basilic artery Temporal artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Right external carotid artery Right internal carotid artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 19. Left common carotid artery Right subclavian artery Right external carotid artery Right internal carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk Left subclavian artery Right common carotid artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 20. Left common carotid artery Right internal carotid artery Left subclavian artery Right subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk Right common carotid artery Right external carotid artery
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 21. Right internal carotid artery Left common carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk Right subclavian artery Right external carotid artery Left subclavian artery Right common carotid artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 22. Right subclavian artery Right internal carotid artery Left subclavian artery Right external carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk Left common carotid artery Right common carotid artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 23. Pulmonary trunk Celiac trunk TESTBANKSELLER.COM Abdominal aorta Aortic arch Ascending aorta Descending aorta Superior mesenteric artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 24. Lateral thoracic artery Diaphragm Ascending aorta Anterior intercostal artery Descending aorta Internal thoracic artery Posterior intercostal artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 25. Middle suprarenal artery Superior mesenteric artery Internal iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Common iliac artery
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Renal artery External iliac artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 26. Inferior mesenteric artery Right common iliac artery Superior mesenteric artery External iliac artery Left common iliac artery Gonadal artery Internal iliac artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 27. Internal iliac artery External iliac artery Superior mesenteric artery Right common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Left common iliac artery Gonadal artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number TES28. TBANKSELLER.COM Superior mesenteric artery Gonadal artery Right common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery External iliac artery Left common iliac artery Internal iliac artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 29. Internal iliac artery Common iliac artery Femoral artery Inferior mesenteric artery Deep femoral artery External iliac artery Gonadal artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 30. Internal iliac artery External iliac artery
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Inferior mesenteric artery Common iliac artery Deep femoral artery Gonadal artery Femoral artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 31. Femoral artery Great saphenous artery Small saphenous artery Deep femoral artery Internal iliac artery Popliteal artery External iliac artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 32. Deep femoral artery External iliac artery Popliteal artery Great saphenous artery Internal iliac artery Femoral artery Small saphenous artery
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1A, identify number 33. Plantar arch Digital artery Dorsalis pedis artery Anterior tibial artery Deep artery of foot Femoral artery Deep femoral artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.1B Major arteries of the body: right arm and thorax. In Figure 18.1B, identify number 1. Brachial artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Radial artery Common carotid artery Vertebral artery Right subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk Ulnar artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 2. Brachial artery Radial artery Common carotid artery Vertebral artery Right subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk Ulnar artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 3. Brachial artery Radial artery Common carotid artery
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Vertebral artery Right subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk Ulnar artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 4. Brachial artery Radial artery Common carotid artery Vertebral artery Right subclavian artery Brachiocephalic trunk Ulnar artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 5. Common carotid arteries Thoracic aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Brachiocephalic trunk Right subclavian artery Left subclavian artery Vertebral artery ANS: A
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.18CPre-Lab OM Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 6. Common carotid arteries Abdominal aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Thoracic aorta Brachiocephalic trunk Left subclavian artery Right subclavian artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 7. Common carotid arteries Thoracic aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Brachiocephalic trunk Right subclavian artery Left subclavian artery Vertebral artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 8.
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Common carotid arteries Thoracic aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Brachiocephalic trunk Right subclavian artery Left subclavian artery Vertebral artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 9. Common carotid arteries Thoracic aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Brachiocephalic trunk Right subclavian artery Left subclavian artery Vertebral artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 10. Common carotid arteries Abdominal aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Thoracic aorta Brachiocephalic trunk Left subclavian artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Right subclavian artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1B, identify number 11. Common carotid arteries Abdominal aorta Posterior intercostal arteries Thoracic aorta Brachiocephalic trunk Left subclavian artery Right subclavian artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.1C Major arteries of the body: brain. In Figure 18.1C, identify number 1. Middle cerebral artery Anterior communicating artery Posterior cerebral artery Cerebral arterial circle Anterior cerebral artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Posterior communicating artery Pituitary gland ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 2. Basilar artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Anterior communicating artery Pituitary gland Anterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 3. Basilar artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Anterior communicating artery Pituitary gland Anterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 4. Basilar artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Anterior communicating artery Pituitary gland Anterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 5. Basilar artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Anterior communicating artery Pituitary gland Anterior cerebral artery Vertebral artery Middle cerebral artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 6. Vertebral artery Internal carotid artery (cut) TESTBANKSELLER.COM Basilar artery Anterior communicating artery Anterior cerebral artery Pituitary gland Middle cerebral artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 7. Internal carotid artery (cut) Middle cerebral artery Posterior cerebral artery Basilar artery Vertebral artery Cerebral arterial circle Posterior communicating artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 8. Posterior communicating artery Cerebral arterial circle Posterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery
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Vertebral artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Basilar artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 9. Posterior communicating artery Cerebral arterial circle Posterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Vertebral artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Basilar artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1C, identify number 10. Posterior communicating artery Cerebral arterial circle Posterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Vertebral artery Internal carotid artery (cut) Basilar artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.1D Major arteries of the body: abdomen. In Figure 18.1D, identify number 1. Splenic artery Thoracic aorta Common hepatic artery
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Celiac trunk Abdominal aorta Left gastric artery Middle suprarenal artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 2. Middle suprarenal artery Common hepatic artery Gonadal artery Left gastric artery Renal artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 3. Pancreas Stomach Spleen Gallbladder Liver Small intestine Kidney ANS: E
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.18CPre-Lab OM Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 4. Gonadal artery Renal artery Superior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Inferior mesenteric artery Common hepatic artery Middle suprarenal artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 5. Descending aorta Left gastric artery Celiac trunk Common hepatic artery Thoracic aorta Abdominal aorta Splenic artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 6.
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Sigmoid colon Transverse colon Descending colon Appendix Small intestine Ascending colon Cecum ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 7. Right internal iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Right external iliac artery Left common iliac artery Right common iliac artery Left external iliac artery Left internal iliac artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 8. Left external iliac artery Left common iliac artery Right common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Left internal iliac artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Right internal iliac artery Right external iliac artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 9. Abdominal aorta Descending aorta Left gastric artery Celiac trunk Thoracic aorta Common hepatic artery Splenic artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 10. Small intestine Stomach Liver Gallbladder Kidney Pancreas Spleen
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 11. Common hepatic artery Renal artery Superior mesenteric artery Left gastric artery Splenic artery Gonadal artery Inferior mesenteric artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 12. Common hepatic artery Gonadal artery Renal artery Right gastric artery Left gastric artery Superior mesenteric artery Middle suprarenal artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 13. Middle suprarenal artery Renal artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Left gastric artery Superior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Inferior mesenteric artery Gonadal artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 14. Spleen Small intestine Pancreas Stomach Liver Kidney Gallbladder ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 15. Gonadal artery Renal artery Superior mesenteric artery Middle suprarenal artery Left gastric artery
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Common hepatic artery Middle suprarenal artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 16. Spleen Stomach Liver Small intestine Gallbladder Kidney Pancreas ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 17. Gonadal artery Inferior mesenteric artery Middle suprarenal artery Left gastric artery Superior mesenteric artery Renal artery Common hepatic artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number TES18. TBANKSELLER.COM Superior mesenteric artery Gonadal artery Left common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Left internal iliac artery Splenic artery Left external iliac artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 19. Renal artery Gonadal artery Left common iliac artery Superior mesenteric artery Inferior mesenteric artery Left internal iliac artery Left external iliac artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 20. Small intestine Sigmoid colon
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Transverse colon Descending colon Appendix Ascending colon Cecum ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.1D, identify number 21. Cecum Small intestine Transverse colon Descending colon Sigmoid colon Appendix Ascending colon ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.2A Major veins of the body. In Figure 18.2A, identify number 1. Vertebral vein Dural sinuses Temporal vein Basilic vein External jugular vein Occipital vein Internal jugular vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 2.
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Temporal vein Internal jugular vein Occipital vein Dural sinuses Basilic vein External jugular vein Vertebral vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 3. Internal jugular vein Temporal vein Vertebral vein Subclavian vein Brachiocephalic vein External jugular vein Axillary vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 4. Brachiocephalic vein Cephalic vein Subclavian vein Superior vena cava Internal jugular vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Axillary vein External jugular vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 5. Cephalic vein Subclavian vein Brachiocephalic vein Axillary vein Basilic vein Brachial vein Superior vena cava ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 6. Brachiocephalic vein Cephalic vein Basilic vein Axillary vein Brachial vein Median cubital vein Subclavian vein
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 7. Basilic vein Median cubital vein Brachiocephalic vein Axillary vein Brachial vein Subclavian vein Cephalic vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 8. Basilic vein Brachial vein Cephalic vein Radial vein Ulnar vein Median cubital vein Median antebrachial vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 9. Median antebrachial vein Radial vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Ulnar vein Brachial vein Basilic vein Cephalic vein Median cubital vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 10. Brachial vein Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Radial vein Median antebrachial vein Basilic vein Ulnar vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 11. Radial vein Basilic vein Median antebrachial vein Median cubital vein Ulnar vein
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Brachial vein Cephalic vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 12. Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Radial vein Median antebrachial vein Basilic vein Ulnar vein Brachial vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 13. Posterior tibial vein Superficial femoral vein Small saphenous vein Popliteal vein Great saphenous vein Femoral vein Anterior tibial vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number TES14. TBANKSELLER.COM Small saphenous vein Great saphenous vein Superficial femoral vein Posterior tibial vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein Posterior fibular vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 15. Femoral vein Small saphenous vein Popliteal vein Posterior fibular vein Great saphenous vein Subclavian vein Superior vena cava ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 16. External jugular vein Axillary vein
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Temporal vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Subclavian vein Internal jugular vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 17. Intercostal veins Cephalic veins Brachiocephalic veins Jugular veins Venae cavae Subclavian veins Axillary veins ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 18. Thoracic vein Inferior vena cava Intercostal vein Celiac trunk Brachiocephalic vein Superior vena cava Pulmonary trunk
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 19. Lumbar veins Intercostal veins Thoracic veins Hemiazygos veins Cervical veins Accessory hemiazygos veins Azygos veins ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 20. Descending vena cava Superior vena cava Azygos vein Celiac trunk Inferior vena cava Abdominal vena cava Superior mesenteric vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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In Figure 18.2A, identify number 21. Renal vein Infrarenal vein Descending vena cava Suprarenal vein Superior mesenteric vein Gonadal vein Inferior vena cava ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 22. Left and right external iliac veins Posterior fibular veins Left and right common iliac veins Lumbosacral veins Superior and inferior mesenteric veins Left and right internal iliac veins Sacral veins ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 23. Internal iliac vein Lumbosacral vein Common iliac vein Hepatic vein Posterior fibular vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM External iliac vein Sacral vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 24. Hepatic vein Internal iliac vein Deep femoral vein Lumbosacral vein External iliac vein Sacral vein Common iliac vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 25. Deep vein of leg Popliteal vein Great saphenous vein Superficial femoral vein Femoral vein Small saphenous vein
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Posterior fibular vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 26. Posterior tibial vein Anterior fibular vein Popliteal vein Small saphenous vein Anterior tibial vein Posterior fibular vein Great saphenous vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2A, identify number 27. Popliteal vein Posterior tibial vein Anterior fibular vein Anterior tibial vein Great saphenous vein Small saphenous vein Posterior fibular vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.2B Major veins of the body: right arm and thorax. In Figure 18.2B, identify number 1.
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Cephalic veins Brachiocephalic veins Subclavian veins Venae cavae Jugular veins Azygos veins Axillary veins ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 2. Left subclavian vein Internal jugular vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Cephalic vein Axillary vein Right subclavian vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 3. Brachiocephalic vein Left subclavian vein External jugular vein Right subclavian vein Axillary vein Internal jugular vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Cephalic vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 4. Brachial vein Basilic vein Humeral vein Cephalic vein Basilar vein Axillary vein Brachiocephalic vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 5. Brachial vein Axillary vein Brachiocephalic vein Humeral vein Basilar vein Basilic vein Cephalic vein
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 6. Basilar vein Humeral vein Brachial vein Cephalic vein Brachiocephalic vein Basilic vein Axillary vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 7. Median antebrachial vein Basilic vein Radial vein Cephalic vein Median cubital vein Ulnar vein Brachial vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 8. Basilic vein Radial vein Median cubital vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Brachial vein Ulnar vein Cephalic vein Median antebrachial vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 9. Basilar vein Basilic vein Cephalic vein Ulnar vein Radial vein Median antebrachial vein Median cubital vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 10. Median cubital vein Basilic vein Radial vein Cephalic vein Basilar vein
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Median antebrachial vein Ulnar vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 11. Ulnar vein Cephalic vein Radial vein Median antebrachial vein Basilar vein Basilic vein Median cubital vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 12. Ulnar vein Median antebrachial vein Basilic vein Cephalic vein Basilar vein Median cubital vein Radial vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number TES13. TBANKSELLER.COM External jugular vein Left subclavian vein Axillary vein Internal jugular vein Right subclavian vein Brachiocephalic vein Superior vena cava ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 14. External jugular vein Right subclavian vein Axillary vein Brachiocephalic vein Left subclavian vein Superior vena cava Internal jugular vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 15. Axillary vein Superior vena cava
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External jugular vein Right subclavian vein Internal jugular vein Left subclavian vein Brachiocephalic vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 16. Inferior vena cava Superior vena cava Ascending vena cava Right subclavian vein Brachiocephalic vein Descending vena cava Left subclavian vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 17. Hemiazygos vein Lateral thoracic vein Accessory hemiazygos vein Posterior intercostal vein Internal thoracic vein Anterior intercostal vein Azygos vein
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 18. Posterior intercostal vein Accessory hemiazygos vein Hemiazygos vein Anterior intercostal vein Azygos vein Internal thoracic vein Lateral thoracic vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 19. Azygos vein Posterior intercostal vein Lateral thoracic vein Accessory hemiazygos vein Hemiazygos vein Internal thoracic vein Anterior intercostal vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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In Figure 18.2B, identify number 20. Posterior intercostal veins Anterior intercostal vein Azygos vein Accessory hemiazygos vein Hemiazygos vein Internal thoracic vein Lateral thoracic vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2B, identify number 21. Abdominal vena cava Inferior vena cava Ulnar vein Radial vein Hemiazygos vein Accessory hemiazygos vein Superior vena cava ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.2C Major veins of the body: head and neck. In Figure 18.2C, identify number 1. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Internal jugular vein Superior vena cava
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2C, identify number 2. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Internal jugular vein Superior vena cava ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2C, identify number 3. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Internal jugular vein Superior vena cava ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2C, identify number 4. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Internal jugular vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Superior vena cava ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2C, identify number 5. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Internal jugular vein Superior vena cava ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2C, identify number 6. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein Internal jugular vein Superior vena cava ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.2D Major veins of the body: abdomen and hepatic portal system.
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 1. Descending vena cava Left gastric vein Abdominal vena cava Esophagus Superior mesenteric vein Inferior vena cava Hepatic portal vein
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 2. Superior mesenteric vein Splenic veins Hepatic portal veins Hepatic veins Inferior mesenteric vein Gastric veins Gastroduodenal veins ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 3. Stomach Spleen Pancreas Gallbladder Kidney Small intestine Liver ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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In Figure 18.2D, identify number 4. Left gastric vein Inferior mesenteric vein Hepatic vein Superior mesenteric vein Right gastric vein Hepatic portal vein Splenic vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 5. Spleen Small intestine Pancreas Gallbladder Liver Stomach Kidney ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 6. Inferior mesenteric vein Intestinal vein Inferior vena cava Superior mesenteric vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Splenic vein Left gastric vein Right gastric vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 7. Ascending colon Descending colon Appendix Sigmoid colon Transverse colon Cecum Small intestine ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 8. Descending colon Cecum Sigmoid colon Small intestine Appendix Ascending colon
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Transverse colon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 9. Cecum Stomach Ileum Esophagus Duodenum Trachea Jejunum ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 10. Esophagus Stomach Duodenum Cecum Ileum Jejunum Trachea ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 11. Right gastric vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM Hepatic vein Gastroduodenal vein Hepatic portal vein Left gastric vein Splenic vein Superior mesenteric vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 12. Gastroduodenal vein Left gastric vein Splenic vein Hepatic vein Superior mesenteric vein Hepatic portal vein Right gastric vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 13. Liver Spleen Pancreas
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Stomach Small intestine Kidney Gallbladder ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 14. Superior mesenteric vein Left gastric vein Hepatic vein Right gastric vein Gastroduodenal vein Splenic vein Hepatic portal vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 15. Inferior mesenteric vein Superior mesenteric vein Inferior vena cava Splenic vein Intestinal vein Right gastric vein Left gastric vein ANS: A
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.18CPre-Lab OM Exercise
In Figure 18.2D, identify number 16. Cecum Appendix Ascending colon Descending colon Sigmoid colon Transverse colon Small intestine ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 18.26A Arteries of the head, neck, and brain. In Figure 18.26A, identify number 1. Cerebral arterial circle Internal carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk External carotid artery Right common carotid artery Vertebral artery ANS: F
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.18CCheck OM Your Recall
In Figure 18.26A, identify number 2. Cerebral arterial circle Internal carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk External carotid artery Right common carotid artery Vertebral artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.26A, identify number 3. Cerebral arterial circle Internal carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk External carotid artery Right common carotid artery Vertebral artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.26A, identify number 4. Cerebral arterial circle Internal carotid artery
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Brachiocephalic trunk External carotid artery Right common carotid artery Vertebral artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.26A, identify number 5. Cerebral arterial circle Internal carotid artery Brachiocephalic trunk External carotid artery Right common carotid artery Vertebral artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.26B Arteries of the head, neck and brain. In Figure 18.26B, identify number 1. Cerebral arterial circle Basilar artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior communicating artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.26B, identify number 2. Cerebral arterial circle Basilar artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior communicating artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.26B, identify number 3. Cerebral arterial circle
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Basilar artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior communicating artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.26B, identify number 4. Cerebral arterial circle Basilar artery Middle cerebral artery Posterior communicating artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.27A Arteries of the upper and lower limb. In Figure 18.27A, identify number 1. Left common carotid artery Subclavian artery Brachial artery Ulnar artery Radial artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.27A, identify number 2. Left common carotid artery Subclavian artery Brachial artery Ulnar artery Radial artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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In Figure 18.27A, identify number 3. Left common carotid artery Subclavian artery Brachial artery Ulnar artery Radial artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.27A, identify number 4. Left common carotid artery Subclavian artery Brachial artery Ulnar artery Radial artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.27A, identify number 5. Left common carotid artery Subclavian artery Brachial artery Ulnar artery Radial artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.27B Arteries of the upper and lower limb.
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In Figure 18.27B, identify number 1. Femoral artery Posterior tibial artery Ulnar artery Dorsalis pedis artery Radial artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.27B, identify number 2. Femoral artery Posterior tibial artery Ulnar artery Dorsalis pedis artery Radial artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.27B, identify number 3. Femoral artery Posterior tibial artery Ulnar artery Dorsalis pedis artery Radial artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.28 Arteries of the abdomen. In Figure 18.28, identify number 1. Renal artery Common iliac artery
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Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.28, identify number 2. Renal artery Common hepatic artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.28, identify number 3. Renal artery Common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.28, identify number 4. Renal artery Common hepatic artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.28, identify number 5. Renal artery Common hepatic artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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In Figure 18.28, identify number 6. Renal artery Common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.28, identify number 7. Renal artery Common hepatic artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.28, identify number 8. Renal artery Common iliac artery Inferior mesenteric artery Splenic artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM Superior mesenteric artery Celiac trunk External iliac artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.29A Veins of the head and neck and the dural sinuses. In Figure 18.29A, identify number 1. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.29A, identify number 2. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.29A, identify number 3. Subclavian vein External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.29A, identify number 4. Subclavian vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM External jugular vein Brachiocephalic vein Vertebral vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
Figure 18.29B Veins of the head and neck and the dural sinuses. In Figure 18.29 B, identify number 1. Inferior sagittal sinus
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Internal jugular vein External jugular vein Superior sagittal sinus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.29 B, identify number 2. Inferior sagittal sinus Internal jugular vein External jugular vein Superior sagittal sinus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.29 B, identify number 3. Inferior sagittal sinus Internal jugular vein External jugular vein Superior sagittal sinus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.30A Veins of the upper and lower limb. In Figure 18.30A, identify number 1. Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Axillary vein Basilic vein Brachial vein
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.30A, identify number 2. Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Axillary vein Basilic vein Brachial vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.30A, identify number 3. Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Axillary vein Basilic vein Brachial vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.30A, identify number 4. Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Axillary vein Basilic vein Brachial vein ANS: D
ELLUnit ER.18CO M Your Recall PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: Check
In Figure 18.30A, identify number 5. Median cubital vein Cephalic vein Axillary vein Basilic vein Brachial vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.30B Veins of the upper and lower limb. In Figure 18.30B, identify number 1. Great saphenous vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein External iliac vein Internal iliac vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.30B, identify number 2. Great saphenous vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein External iliac vein Internal iliac vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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In Figure 18.30B, identify number 3. Great saphenous vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein External iliac vein Internal iliac vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.30B, identify number 4. Great saphenous vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein External iliac vein Internal iliac vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.30B, identify number 5. Great saphenous vein Femoral vein Popliteal vein External iliac vein Internal iliac vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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Figure 18.31A Veins of the abdomen. In Figure 18.31A, identify number 1. Ulnar veins Renal veins Suprarenal vein Common iliac vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.31A, identify number 2. Ulnar veins
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Renal veins Suprarenal vein Common iliac vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.31A, identify number 3. Ulnar veins Renal veins Suprarenal vein Common iliac vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 18.31B Veins of the abdomen. In Figure 18.31B, identify number 1. Hepatic portal vein Hepatic veins Inferior mesenteric vein Renal vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.31B, identify number 2. Hepatic portal vein Hepatic veins Superior mesenteric vein Renal vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
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In Figure 18.31B, identify number 3. Hepatic portal vein Hepatic veins Inferior mesenteric vein Superior mesenteric vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.31B, identify number 4. Hepatic portal vein Hepatic veins Inferior mesenteric vein Renal vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.31B, identify number 5. Hepatic portal vein Hepatic veins Superior mesenteric vein Renal vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
In Figure 18.31B, identify number 6. Hepatic portal vein Hepatic veins Inferior mesenteric vein Superior mesenteric vein Splenic vein Left gastric vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
The middle layer of the blood vessel wall is the ______________ and contains _______________. tunica interna; smooth muscle tunica externa; endothelium tunica media; endothelium tunica interna; endothelium tunica media; smooth muscle ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
Which of the following is not a common pulse point? Subclavian artery.
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Femoral artery. Brachial artery. Dorsalis pedis artery. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
True or False? The three major circuits of blood flow in the body are the systemic, cerebral, and pulmonary circuits. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
True or False? The external carotid arteries and vertebral arteries supply blood to the brain. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
True or False? Blood is drained from the brain by a set of dural sinuses. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
True or False? Venous blood from the spleen, digestive tract, and pancreas drains into the inferior vena cava. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
What is the purpose of the hepatic portal system? ANS: The hepatic portal system processes and nutrient-rich TESTBA NKdetoxifies SELLER .COM blood from the digestive tract.
It also processes blood from the spleen, pancreas, and large intestine. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Recall
David has an ultrasound of his common carotid arteries, which shows that his right common carotid artery is nearly 90 percent blocked. He wonders how the right side of his brain is getting enough blood if this artery is so occluded. What do you tell him? ANS:
There are alternate routes of circulation to the brain to protect against occlusion of one vessel. He is receiving blood from his right vertebral artery, and also from blood redistributed to the right side of his brain from the cerebral arterial circle. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
Your patient presents with severe abdominal pain. Your team orders a CT scan and discovers a large blood clot lodged in the celiac trunk. What organs could this blood clot potentially affect? Why do you think the clot is causing abdominal pain? ANS:
A clot in the celiac trunk could affect blood flow to the liver, stomach, pancreas, and spleen. It is causing abdominal pain because it is blocking the delivery of oxygenated blood to these organs, and the cells are dying because of lack of oxygen.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
Certain drugs cannot be taken by mouth because the entire dose of the drug is destroyed in the liver before it ever reaches the general circulation. Explain why these same drugs can be given by injection, either intravenously or intramuscularly. (Hint: Consider the hepatic portal system.) ANS:
The drug given by IV or IM reaches the tissues via capillary beds before it is destroyed in the hepatic portal system. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
A blood clot that forms along the wall of a blood vessel is called a thrombus. An embolus is piece of a thrombus that breaks off and flows through the blood until its gets stuck in a small blood vessel downstream from the original thrombus. Trace the pathway an embolus that broke off from a thrombus in the femoral artery would take (assume it gets stuck in the arterioles, before it reaches capillary beds). ANS:
Femoral artery --> popliteal artery --> anterior tibial artery --> dorsalis pedis artery -> arterioles in foot --> stuck PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
A blood clot that forms along the wall of a blood vessel is called a thrombus. An embolus is piece of a thrombus that breaks off and flows through the blood until its gets stuck in a TESTBANKSELLER.COM small blood vessel downstream from the original thrombus. Trace the pathway an embolus that broke off from a thrombus in the femoral vein would take (assume it gets stuck in the arterioles, before it reaches capillary beds). ANS:
Femoral vein --> external iliac vein --> common iliac vein --> inferior vena cava --> right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary trunk --> pulmonary artery --> pulmonary arterioles --> stuck PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
Yasmin was diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, which means that part of the wall of her abdominal aorta was ballooning out abnormally. Her physician performed surgery to correct the aneurysm, and sent a sample of the vessel wall to pathology. The pathology report stated that Yasmin's tunica media had very few elastic fibers and her tunica externa had few collagen fibers. How does this explain why she developed the aneurysm? ANS:
Elastic fibers are needed to allow large vessels like the aorta to recoil after having been stretched during systole. Having few elastic fibers makes the aorta less able to recoil. Collagen fibers in the externa are needed to resist excessive stretching forces placed on the vessel. Having few collagen fibers weakened the vessel wall. A vessel that does not effectively recoil and that has a weak wall is more likely to develop an aneurysm.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
You are working as a medic at a gymnastics competition, and one of the gymnasts has a bad landing after a vault, injuring her leg. Her leg is bent at an awkward angle and her tibia and fibula are obviously fractured. You palpate her posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses on her non-injured limb and they are 2/4. However, on her injured limb, they are 0/4. You also notice that her injured limb is becoming pale and cold to the touch distal to the injury. What has likely happened? Explain. ANS:
It seems likely that the displacement of her tibia and fibula has compromised the blood flow to her leg and foot distal to the injury by compressing or damaging the anterior tibial and posterior tibial arteries. The resulting lack of blood flow has resulted in absent pulses and the skin feeling pale and cold to the touch. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 18 Check Your Understanding
Which of these areas is drained by the thoracic duct? Lower limbs Abdomen Left thorax Left side of the head All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
ESTBfluid ANKtoSE LLEthe R.capillary, COM and ________ causes fluid to At the capillary, __________Tcauses leave enter the capillary. blood pressure; osmosis osmosis; blood pressure blood pressure; lymphatic pressure lymphatic pressure; blood pressure vasoconstriction; vasodilation ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
Which condition occurs as a result of increased angiotensin II production? Vasodilation in arterioles Decreased peripheral resistance Decreased venous return Increased aldosterone secretion Increased renin secretion ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
Which of these mechanisms results in decreased blood pressure? Increased production of angiotensin II Increased secretion of aldosterone Increased vasopressin secretion
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Increased secretion of atrial natriuretic hormone Increased secretion of epinephrine ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
The __________ vein receives blood from the arm via the axillary vein. radial ulnar subclavian brachiocephalic None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
The longest superficial vein of the body is the _______ vein. femoral great saphenous anterior tibial posterior tibial subclavian ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
The three veins that form or empty into the hepatic portal vein are the __________________. splenic, inferior mesenteric, and superior mesenteric TES TBsuperior ANKSEmesenteric LLER.COM inferior mesenteric, renal, and gastric, superior mesenteric, and femoral great saphenous, renal, and superior mesenteric gastric, great saphenous, and femoral ANS: A PTS: 1 Unit 18 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Medium
The vein that drains the dural sinuses of the brain is the _________. internal jugular brachiocephalic cephalic superior vena cava B and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
In comparing a parallel artery and vein, you could find that the _______. artery wall is thicker artery diameter is greater artery lumen is smaller artery endothelium is thicker A and C
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DIF:
Hard
Which two arteries supply the circle of Willis? Brachiocephalic and common iliac Digital and brachiocephalic Internal carotid and basilar Internal carotid and left subclavian None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Hard
A pulse would be palpable in the ______________. anterior cerebral artery hepatic portal vein carotid artery inferior vena cava None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
The inner layer of blood vessels, consisting of endothelium, basement membrane, lamina propria, and internal elastic membrane, is known as the _____________. tunica externa tunica interna tunica media TESTBANKSELLER.COM tunica muscularis tunica intermedius ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
Which of these vessels contain the most valves? Elastic arteries near the heart Small arteries in the upper extremities Venules in the feet Medium veins in the arms Medium veins in the legs ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
A stroke that occludes a posterior cerebral artery will most likely affect ___________. hearing vision smell speech higher thought processes ANS: B PTS: 1 Unit 18 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Hard
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The circulatory system pathway that carries blood from the digestive tract toward the liver is known as the ________. coronary circuit cerebral circuit hepatic portal circuit pulmonary circuit renal circuit ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
Which of the following statements best describes arteries? All arteries carry oxygenated blood toward the heart. All arteries contain valves to prevent backflow of blood. All arteries carry blood away from the heart. Only large arteries are lined with endothelium. None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 Unit 18 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Hard
Smooth muscle cells that regulate blood flow from the thoroughfare channel into capillaries are known as ___________. arterial capillaries metarterioles precapillary sphincters venous capillaries TESTBANKSELLER.COM sinusoids ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
The walls of most blood vessels are innervated by _________________. myelinated motor neurons unmyelinated sensory neurons unmyelinated motor neurons unmyelinated parasympathetic neurons ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
A condition in which a fat-like substance containing cholesterol is deposited in the walls of arteries to form plaque is called ___________. arteriosclerosis atherosclerosis aneurysm anastomosis ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
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Vasoconstriction and vasodilation have the least effect on _____________. arterioles elastic arteries muscular arteries small arteries ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
Veins greater than 2 mm in diameter have ____________. no tunica adventitia thicker walls than arteries valves no endothelial lining ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
The first branch that leads from the aortic arch is the ____________. brachiocephalic artery left common carotid artery right subclavian artery left subclavian artery ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
Choose the arteries in the order that an erythrocyte passes through traveling from the aorta to TE(2) STBrachiocephalic BANKSELLEartery, R.CO(3) M Circle of Willis, (4) Right the brain: (1) Basilar artery, subclavian artery, and (5) Right vertebral artery. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 4, 2, 1, 3, 5 ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
Which of these arteries is unpaired? Hepatic artery Gonadal artery Renal artery Suprarenal artery ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
The posterior intercostal arteries branch from the _________, whereas the anterior intercostal arteries branch from the _______________. aorta; subclavian arteries aorta; internal thoracic arteries subclavian arteries; aorta
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internal thoracic arteries; aorta ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
The artery that supplies blood to the small intestine and upper portion of the colon is known as the ______________. celiac trunk common iliac artery superior mesenteric artery posterior intercostal artery ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
Which of these veins is a deep vein? Basilic Brachial Cephalic Median cubital Great saphenous ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
If each of these factors is doubled, which has the greatest influence on blood flow? Blood viscosity Radius of the blood vessel TESTBANKSELLER.COM Length of the blood vessel Pressure gradient None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 18 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 19 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines auscultation? A) The process of listening to heart sounds B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) Anchors the heart to the surrounding structures D) Artery that carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines S1? A) The second heart sound, caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
at the beginning of ventricular diastole B) Large vein that carries blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium C) The first heart sound, caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the
beginning of ventricular systole D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that
prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines S2? A) The second heart sound, caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
at the beginning of ventricular diastole B) Vein that carries blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium C) The first heart sound, caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the
beginning of ventricular TEsystole STBANKSELLER.COM D) Three-cusped structure between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk that prevents the flow of blood back into the right ventricle ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines tachycardia? A) Point on the body where an artery can be palpated with the fingertips to determine
the rate, rhythm, and regularity of the heart B) A heart rate of greater than 100 bpm C) A heart rate of fewer than 60 bpm D) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines bradycardia? A) The sounds of turbulent blood flow resuming during a blood pressure reading B) A heart rate of greater than 100 bpm C) A heart rate of fewer than 60 bpm D) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines pulse point? A) Large vein that carries blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium B) Fibrous structures attached to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves that anchor
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the cusps to the papillary muscles C) Muscles in the ventricular walls that pull the chordae tendineae taut to prevent prolapse of the cusps of the atrioventricular valves D) Point on the body where an artery can be palpated with the fingertips to determine the rate, rhythm, and regularity of the heart ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines systolic pressure? A) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular systole B) The pressure of the blood in the circulatory system C) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular diastole D) Measured by means of a sphygmomanometer and reported in millimeters of
mercury as a fraction ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines diastolic pressure? A) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular systole B) The pressure of the blood in the circulatory system C) The pressure in the arteries during ventricular diastole D) Measurement of the pressure exerted from the large chambers of the heart that
ejects blood into the arteries ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines sounds of Korotkoff? A) The sounds (heard by auscultation aL stethoscope) TESTBANKwith SEL ER.COM of turbulent blood flow
resuming during a blood pressure reading
B) An abnormal sound of the heart C) Sign of abnormal function of the heart valves D) A sudden and sometimes fatal occurrence of coronary thrombosis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines sinoatrial node? A) A collection of pacemaker cells in the superior portion of the right atrium that acts
as the normal pacemaker of the heart B) The final series of pacemaker cells in the superior portion of the right atrium that
acts as the backup pacemaker of the heart C) A collection of pacemaker cells located posterior and medial to the tricuspid valve
that acts as the backup pacemaker of the heart D) The final series of pacemaker cells that connects the atria to the ventricles and fans
out to the ventricular myocytes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines atrioventricular node? A) A collection of pacemaker cells in the superior portion of the right atrium that acts
as the normal pacemaker of the heart B) The final series of pacemaker cells in the superior portion of the right atrium that acts as the backup pacemaker of the heart
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C) A collection of pacemaker cells located posterior and medial to the tricuspid valve
that acts as the backup pacemaker of the heart D) The final series of pacemaker cells that connects the atria to the ventricles and fans
out to the ventricular myocytes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines purkinje fiber system? A) A collection of pacemaker cells in the superior portion of the right atrium that acts
as the normal pacemaker of the heart B) The final series of pacemaker cells in the superior portion of the right atrium that acts as the backup pacemaker of the heart C) A collection of pacemaker cells located posterior and medial to the tricuspid valve that acts as the backup pacemaker of the heart D) The final series of pacemaker cells that connects the atria to the ventricles and fans out to the ventricular myocytes ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines electrocardiogram? A) A recording of the changes that occur in the electrical activity of cardiac muscles
cells over a period of time B) The sounds (heard by auscultation with a stethoscope) of turbulent blood flow
resuming during a blood pressure reading C) The process of listening to heart sounds D) A disturbance in the normal rhythm of the heart ANS: A
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.19 COPre-Lab M
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines P wave? A) A disturbance in the normal rhythm of the heart B) A wave on the ECG that represents the repolarization of the right and left
ventricles C) A series of waves on the ECG that represent the depolarization of the right and left
ventricles D) A wave on the ECG that shows the depolarization of the right and left atria ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines QRS complex? A) A disturbance in the normal rhythm of the heart B) A wave on the ECG that represents the repolarization of the right and left
ventricles C) A series of waves on the ECG that represent the depolarization of the right and left
ventricles D) A wave on the ECG that shows the depolarization of the right and left atria ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines T wave? A) A disturbance in the normal rhythm of the heart B) A wave on the ECG that represents the repolarization of the right and left
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ventricles C) A series of waves on the ECG that represent the depolarization of the right and left ventricles D) A wave on the ECG that shows the depolarization of the right and left atria ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines dysrhythmia? A) A disturbance in the normal rhythm of the heart B) A wave on the ECG that represents the repolarization of the right and left
ventricles C) A series of waves on the ECG that represent the depolarization of the right and left
ventricles D) A wave on the ECG that shows the depolarization of the right and left atria ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. The heart sounds S1 and S2 are caused by A) contraction of the ventricles. B) closing of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves. C) opening of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves. D) contraction of the atria and the ventricles. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
19. Which of the following terms refers to an abnormally elevated heart rate? A) Tachycardia. B) Murmur. TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Dysrhythmia. D) Bradycardia. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
20. What takes place at capillary beds? A) Gas exchange B) Waste exchange C) Nutrient exchange D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
21. The amount of blood that flows to a tissue through capillary beds is called A) bruits. B) microcirculation. C) tissue perfusion. D) capillary refill. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
22. Blood pressure is determined by three factors: (1) ________, which is a product of heart rate
and ________, or the amount of blood pumped with each beat; (2) ________, or any impedance to blood flow, which is determined largely by the degree of ________ or ________in the systemic blood vessels; and (3) the ________.
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A) peripheral resistance; vasodilation; vasoconstriction; blood volume; stroke volume;
cardiac output B) vasoconstriction; vasodilation; peripheral resistance; stroke volume; blood volume;
cardiac output C) cardiac output; blood volume; peripheral resistance; vasoconstriction; vasodilation;
stroke volume D) cardiac output; stroke volume; peripheral resistance; vasoconstriction;
vasodilation; blood volume ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
23. The pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracting is the A) cardiac pressure. B) osmotic pressure. C) diastolic pressure. D) systolic pressure. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
24. The actions of the sympathetic nervous system __________ blood pressure, and the actions of
the parasympathetic nervous system __________ blood pressure. A) increase; decrease B) increase; increase C) decrease; increase D) decrease; decrease ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
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25. The T wave on an ECG represents A) depolarization of the atria. B) repolarization of the atria. C) depolarization of the ventricles. D) repolarization of the ventricles. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
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Figure 19.10 Anatomy of the cardiac conduction system. 26. In Figure 19.10, identify number 1. A) Left bundle branch B) Sinoatrial node C) Terminal branches D) Atrioventricular bundle E) Right bundle branch F) Atrioventricular node
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
27. In Figure 19.10, identify number 2. A) Left bundle branch B) Sinoatrial node C) Terminal branches D) Atrioventricular bundle E) Right bundle branch F) Atrioventricular node ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
28. In Figure 19.10, identify number 3. A) Left bundle branch B) Sinoatrial node C) Terminal branches D) Atrioventricular bundle E) Right bundle branch F) Atrioventricular node ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
29. In Figure 19.10, identify number 4. A) Left bundle branch
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B) Sinoatrial node C) Terminal branches D) Atrioventricular bundle E) Right bundle branch F) Atrioventricular node ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
30. In Figure 19.10, identify number 5. A) Left bundle branch B) Sinoatrial node C) Terminal branches D) Atrioventricular bundle E) Right bundle branch F) Atrioventricular node ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
31. In Figure 19.10, identify number 6. A) Left bundle branch B) Sinoatrial node C) Terminal branches D) Atrioventricular bundle E) Right bundle branch F) Atrioventricular node ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
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Figure 19.11 ECG tracing. 32. In Figure 19.11, identify number 1. A) P-R interval B) P wave
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C) QRS complex D) T wave E) Q-T interval F) S-T segment ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
33. In Figure 19.11, identify number 2. A) P-R interval B) P wave C) QRS complex D) T wave E) Q-T interval F) S-T segment ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
34. In Figure 19.11, identify number 3. A) P-R interval B) P wave C) QRS complex D) T wave E) Q-T interval F) S-T segment ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
35. In Figure 19.11, identify number TEST4. BANKSELLER.COM A) P-R interval B) P wave C) QRS complex D) T wave E) Q-T interval F) S-T segment ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
36. In Figure 19.11, identify number 5. A) P-R interval B) P wave C) QRS complex D) T wave E) Q-T interval F) S-T segment ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
37. In Figure 19.11, identify number 6. A) P-R interval B) P wave C) QRS complex D) T wave
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E) Q-T interval F) S-T segment ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Recall
38. What might it mean if a pulse were normal (grade 2/4) on the right limb and absent (grade
0/4) on the left limb? ANS:
It could indicate an anatomical anomaly (such as normal anatomical variation), a blocked artery, or vascular disease. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
39. Palpation of both carotid arteries at the same time initiates a reflex known as the baroreceptor
reflex. If this reflex is initiated in a healthy person with normal blood pressure, the person may temporarily lose consciousness. Explain why this happens, considering the effects of the baroreceptor reflex. ANS:
The sudden, abnormal drop in blood pressure deprives the brain of blood temporarily, which results in a loss of consciousness. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
40. You are auscultating your patient's chest, and you notice that the S2 sound seems to be “split,”
meaning that you can hear two separate sounds. You can also hear a noticeable murmur during TEatrioventricular STBANKSELvalves LER.or COthe M semilunar valves? How do you S2. Is the abnormality in the know? Explain. ANS:
The abnormality is in the semilunar valves. We know this because it is the closure of the semilunar valves that causes S2. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
41. What might it mean if the capillary refill time measures 10 seconds in the digits of one hand
and 2 seconds in the digits of the other hand? What might it mean if the capillary refill time measures 10 seconds in all digits? ANS:
If the capillary refill time were longer in the digits of one hand than the other, this could indicate a vascular problem (such as arterial disease) with that particular limb. If the capillary refill time were 10 seconds in all digits, this could indicate bilateral vascular disease or damage to the microcirculation. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
42. Your patient has been admitted to the emergency room with an occupational injury from an
industrial saw. He has lost significant volumes of blood. What effect has this blood loss likely had on his blood pressure, and why?
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ANS:
The blood loss will decrease his blood volume, and this will cause a drop in blood pressure. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
43. Predict the effects of a drug that blocks the sympathetic nervous system on blood pressure and
heart rate. How would this drug affect the three factors that determine blood pressure? ANS:
Such a drug would decrease cardiac output and peripheral resistance, which would decrease blood pressure. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
44. Predict the effects of a drug that blocks the parasympathetic nervous system on blood pressure
and heart rate. How would this drug affect the three factors that determine blood pressure? ANS:
The main effect of such a drug would be to allow the sympathetic nervous system to function unopposed. This would cause an increase in cardiac output and peripheral resistance, and so an increase in blood pressure. (Note: Over the long term, this could hypothetically increase blood volume slightly, but such an effect doesn't occur with parasympathetic-blocking drugs such as atropine.) PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
TESof TBECGs ANKS LLEfirst R.Cday OMof your cardiology rotation, and are 45. You are presented with a stack onEyour given a single instruction: "Read them." As you progress through the pile, you note the following abnormalities. Explain from where in the heart or cardiac conduction system this abnormality might have come: Absent P waves. ANS:
This indicates a problem in the sinoatrial node, as it is not generating the depolarization that spreads through the atria to lead to the P wave. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
46. You are presented with a stack of ECGs on your first day of your cardiology rotation, and are
given a single instruction: "Read them." As you progress through the pile, you note the following abnormalities. Explain from where in the heart or cardiac conduction system this abnormality might have come: Abnormally long QRS complex. ANS:
This indicates that the depolarization is taking an abnormally long time to spread through the ventricles. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
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47. You are presented with a stack of ECGs on your first day of your cardiology rotation, and are
given a single instruction: "Read them." As you progress through the pile, you note the following abnormalities. Explain from where in the heart or cardiac conduction system this abnormality might have come: Abnormally long P-R interval. ANS:
This interval includes the AV node delay. If it is too long, it shows that there is an abnormally long delay at the AV node. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
48. You are presented with a stack of ECGs on your first day of your cardiology rotation, and are
given a single instruction: "Read them." As you progress through the pile, you note the following abnormalities. Explain from where in the heart or cardiac conduction system this abnormality might have come: Extra QRS complexes. ANS:
An extra QRS indicates an extra ventricular depolarization that was initiated from somewhere other than the SA node. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 19 Check Your Understanding
49. Which vessels actively supply their associated capillary networks with increased blood flow
when the body is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic division? A) Femoral artery B) Superior mesenteric artery C) Coronary arteries TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
50. Which of the following is part of a capillary bed? A) Precapillary sphincter B) Metarteriole C) Thoroughfare channel D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
51. Kupffer cells are ________________________________. A) true capillary endothelium B) found throughout the body C) macrophages in the liver D) macrophages in the spleen ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
52. Fenestrated capillaries occur in the ________________________. A) liver
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B) kidney C) intestinal mucosa D) B and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
53. The condition known as AV block is characterized by ________________. A) slow conduction of the action potentials through the AV node to the atria B) slow conduction of the action potentials through the AV node to the ventricles C) ventricular diastole D) ventricular systole ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
54. Structures that are avascular are the ________________________. A) skin B) cornea C) articular surfaces of long bones D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
55. In which of the following blood vessels would you expect to find the systolic blood pressure? A) Systemic artery B) Pulmonary vein C) Arteriole in the arm TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Capillary in the leg ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
56. Pulse pressure is increased by ______________________________. A) an increase in diastolic pressure B) an increase in systolic pressure C) an equivalent increase in both systolic and diastolic pressures D) vasoconstriction ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
57. The capillary refill is 10 seconds in the left hand and 1–2 seconds in the right hand. Is this a
normal amount of time for the hands to refill? A) This is perfectly normal refill for both hands. B) There is diminished circulation in the right hand. C) There is diminished circulation in the left hand. D) It is normal for the right hand only. E) The blood is inadequately perfusing the body. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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58. The QRS complex represents the _______________. A) repolarization of the right and left ventricles B) depolarization of the right and left ventricles C) repolarization of the right and left atria D) depolarization of the right and left atria E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
59. During the period of ejection, the left ventricular pressure reaches a high point of
approximately _________________. A) 20 mmHg B) 60 mmHg C) 80 mmHg D) 100 mmHg E) 120 mmHg ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
60. The average end-diastolic volume of the ventricles is about __________, whereas the end-
systolic volume is about __________. A) 125 mL; 55 mL B) 125 mL; 0 mL C) 0 mL; 55 mL D) 0 mL; 125 mL TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) 5 mL; 125 mL ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
61. The structure of a capillary wall differs from that of a vein or artery because
_______________________________________. A) capillaries have two tunics, whereas veins have three B) capillaries have more smooth muscle C) capillaries have only a tunica intima D) capillaries have one-way valves E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
62. Which of these statements about veins is inaccurate? A) They possess less elastic and smooth muscle tissue than arteries. B) They possess more fibrous connective tissue than arteries. C) Most have one-way valves. D) They always carry deoxygenated blood. E) They are constructed of three tunics. ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Hard
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TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions 63. At the arteriole end of a capillary, O2 is being delivered to the interstitial fluid/tissue cells, as
are essential nutrients such as amino acids and glucose. At the venule end of the same capillary, CO2 is being picked up from the interstitial fluid/tissue cells, as is ammonia. This capillary bed is probably part of ___________. A) the systemic circuit B) the pulmonary circuit C) either the systemic or the pulmonary circuit D) the alveolar wall E) C and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
64. The predominant driving force that moves blood back to the heart in the veins is
___________. A) active transport B) passive transport C) the closing of one-way valves D) venodilation E) skeletal muscle contractions ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
65. In the pulmonary circuit, the __________ half of the heart pumps __________ blood to the
alveoli of the lungs, and then flows TE_____________ STBANKSELLblood ER.C OM back to the heart. A) right; deoxygenated; oxygenated B) right; oxygenated; deoxygenated C) left; deoxygenated; oxygenated D) left; oxygenated; deoxygenated E) A and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
66. In the systemic circuit, the _____________ half of the heart pumps __________ blood to all
body tissues, and then _________ blood flows back to the heart. A) right; deoxygenated; oxygenated B) right; oxygenated; deoxygenated C) left; deoxygenated; oxygenated D) left; oxygenated; deoxygenated E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
67. Expansion and recoil of an artery during the cardiac cycle is called ____________________. A) a pulse B) cardiac output C) blood pressure
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D) peripheral resistance ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
68. The points on the body surface where the pulse can be felt are called the _______________. A) pulse points B) aortic area C) auscultation points D) wrist ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
69. The site where blood pressure determinations are normally made is the ______________. A) superior vena cava B) aorta C) carotid artery D) brachial artery ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
70. Sounds heard over a blood vessel when the vessel is partially compressed are
______________. A) sounds of the aortic valves closing B) sounds of Korotkoff C) sounds of the constriction of the arterioles TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
71. The blood pressure during heart contraction involves _________________. A) pressure by the blood exerted against the heart wall B) diastolic blood pressure C) systolic blood pressure D) cardiac output ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
72. Which of these blood pressure regulatory chemicals target the kidney? A) Angiotensin II B) ADH C) Aldosterone D) ANP E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
73. Chemical factors that increase blood pressure include __________________.
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A) endothelin B) NO C) ADH D) A and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
74. Blood volume is altered by _______________________. A) vasodilation B) edema C) increased salt intake D) polycythemia ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
75. Collateral circulation occurs in the ________________________. A) joint capsule B) brain C) heart D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
76. The single-most important factor in blood pressure regulation is _______________. A) feedback from chemoreceptors TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) renal compensatory mechanisms C) regulation of cardiac output D) short-term changes in blood vessel diameter ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
77. Venous return to the right atrium is increased by _______________________. A) increasing rate of respiration B) vigorous walking C) a decrease in cardiac output D) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 19 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 20 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines erythrocyte? A) A type of leukocyte that contains cytoplasmic granules that are visible with
staining B) Interstitial fluid collected into the lymphatic system C) An anucleate blood cells filled with hemoglobin that transports oxygen through the
body D) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the red dye eosin; less
numerous than neutrophils ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines leukocyte? A) A type of blood cell that plays various roles in the immune system B) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the dark purple stain
hematoxylin; least numerous of the leukocytes C) A type of leukocyte that contains cytoplasmic granules that are visible with
staining D) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes; each antibody type binds to a specific antigen ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines granulocyte? A) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the red dye eosin; less
numerous than neutrophils B) Thin-walled structuresTthat EScarry TBANlymph KSELfrom LERthe .Csmall OM lymphatic capillaries to the
larger lymph trunks
C) Unencapsulated clusters of lymphatic tissue found throughout the body's mucous
membranes D) A type of leukocyte that contains cytoplasmic granules that are visible with
staining ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines neutrophil? A) A type of granulocyte B) Light, violet-colored cytosol with granules that do not take up either the acidic or
basic stain C) Heavily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria D) All of the above. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines eosinophil? A) Leukocyte with bilobed nuclei and red-stained granules that are involved in allergy
responses and fighting parasitic infections B) Granulocyte with bilobed nuclei and red-stained granules these cells are involved
in allergy responses and fighting parasitic infections C) Leukocyte lacking cytoplasmic granules D) Granulocyte lacking cytoplasmic granules
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines basophil? A) A type of granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the red dye eosin; less
numerous than neutrophils B) A type of granulocyte with bilobed nuclei and dark purple-stained granules; these
cells are involved in mediating inflammation C) A type of granulocyte whose granules do not interact strongly with the dyes eosin
or hematoxylin; most numerous type of leukocyte D) Agranulocyte that is the largest of the leukocytes; features a “u”-shaped nucleus
and is third most numerous type of leukocyte ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines agranulocyte? A) Organ of the lymphatic system where T lymphocytes mature B) Leukocyte containing cytoplasmic granules C) Leukocyte lacking visible cytoplasmic granules D) Small cellular fragments involved in blood clotting ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines T lymphocyte? A) A type of granulocyte with bilobed nuclei and red-stained granules that are
involved in allergy responses and fighting parasitic infections B) A type of agranulocyte with horseshoe-shaped nuclei that mature into
macrophages, which are phagocytes. TEvery STBactive ANKS ELLER.COM
C) A type of agranulocyte that facilitates other functions of the immune response, kills
cancer cells, and kills infected host cells. D) A type of agranulocyte that secretes antibodies when activated ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines B lymphocyte? A) A type of granulocyte with bilobed nuclei and red-stained granules that are
involved in allergy responses and fighting parasitic infections B) A type of agranulocyte with horseshoe-shaped nuclei that mature into
macrophages, which are very active phagocytes. C) A type of agranulocyte that facilitates other functions of the immune response, kills
cancer cells, and kills infected host cells. D) A type of agranulocyte that secretes antibodies when activated ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines monocyte? A) A type of agranulocyte with horseshoe-shaped nuclei that mature into
macrophages, which are very active phagocytes. B) A solution containing antibodies that bind with specific antigens C) A type of leukocyte that contains cytoplasmic granules that are visible with
staining D) An anucleate blood cell filled with hemoglobin that transports oxygen through the
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body ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines platelets? A) Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found at the base of the tongue, in the
nasopharynx, and the oropharynx B) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes; each antibody type binds to a specific antigen C) Small cellular fragments involved in blood clotting D) Features a "u"-shaped nucleus and is third most numerous type of leukocyte ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines antigen? A) The component of the immune response that reacts in the same manner to any
invading organism or cellular injury B) Unique glycoprotein on the surface of all cells and present on most biological
molecules C) The component of the immune system that reacts to foreign cells and molecules
with a unique set of cells and molecules for each antigen D) Molecules secreted by plasma cells to bind to antigens and facilitate their
destruction or neutralization ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines antiserum? A) Leukocyte lacking cytoplasmic granules B) A solution containing antibodies that TESTBAN KSbind ELLwith ER.specific COM antigens C) The component of the immune system that reacts to foreign cells and molecules
with a unique set of cells and molecules for each antigen D) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the red dye eosin; less numerous than neutrophils ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines antibody? A) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes; each antibody type binds to a specific antigen B) Unique chemical markers on the surface of all cells and many molecules such as
toxins and allergens C) Encapsulated lymphoid organs found along the lymphatic vessels that filter lymph and remove pathogens, toxins, and cells D) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the red dye eosin; less numerous than neutrophils ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines universal donor? A) AB+ blood has erythrocytes with A, B, and Rh antigens and so lacks anti-A, anti-
B, and anti-Rh antibodies B) A person with type AB+ blood can accept all blood types without triggering an
immune response C) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes
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D) Type O- blood, which does not have A, B, or Rh antigens on the surface of its
cells, so it can be accepted by a person of almost any blood type without triggering an immune response ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines universal recipient? A) O- blood does not have A, B, or Rh antigens on the surface of its cells, so it can be
accepted by a person of almost any blood type without triggering an immune response B) A person that can accept all blood types without triggering an immune response C) A person with AB+ blood who has erythrocytes with A, B, and Rh antigens and so lacks anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies D) Both B and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 20.7 Peripheral blood smear. 17. In Figure 20.7, identify number 1. A) Eosinophil B) Erythrocyte C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Platelet ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
18. In Figure 20.7, identify number 2. A) Eosinophil B) Erythrocyte C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte E) Platelet
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
19. In Figure 20.7, identify number 3. A) Eosinophil B) Erythrocyte C) Monocyte D) Neutrophil E) Platelet ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
20. In Figure 20.7, identify number 4. A) Eosinophil B) Erythrocyte C) Monocyte D) Neutrophil E) Platelet ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
21. In Figure 20.7, identify number 5. A) Eosinophil B) Erythrocyte C) Monocyte D) Neutrophil E) Platelet ANS: E
ELLE R.20 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
22. Erythrocytes carry_________ on the protein ___________. A) antiserum; antibody B) oxygen; hemoglobin C) oxygen; antibody D) antiserum; hemoglobin ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
23. Which of the following is not an antigen that may be found on the surface of an erythrocyte? A) A antigen B) B antigen C) O antigen D) Rh antigen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
24. Which antigens are present on the surface of erythrocytes of blood type A–? A) A antigen B) B antigen C) Rh antigen D) No antigens E) Both B and Rh antigens F) A, B, and Rh antigens
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
25. Which antigens are present on the surface of erythrocytes of blood type O–? A) A antigen B) B antigen C) Rh antigen D) Both A and Rh antigens E) Both B and Rh antigens F) No antigens ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
26. Which antigens are present on the surface of erythrocytes of blood type AB+? A) A antigen B) B antigen C) Rh antigen D) Both A and Rh antigens E) No antigens F) A, B, and Rh antigens ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
27. Which antigens are present on the surface of erythrocytes of blood type B+? A) A antigen B) B antigen C) Rh antigen D) Both A and Rh antigens TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Both B and Rh antigens F) No antigens ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
28. Antibodies are produced by __________ and bind to specific _______ on erythrocytes,
causing _________________, or clumping of erythrocytes. A) antigens; agglutination, B lymphocytes B) B lymphocytes; agglutination; antigens C) B lymphocytes; antigens; agglutination D) agglutination; B lymphocytes; antigens ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
29. A person with type A– blood has which of the following antibodies? (Assume the person has
been exposed to Rh antigens.) A) Anti-A antibodies B) Anti-B antibodies C) Anti-Rh antibodies D) No antibodies E) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies F) Both anti-A and anti-Rh antibodies G) Both anti-B and anti-Rh antibodies ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
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30. Which blood type is considered the universal donor? Why can this blood type be given to all
other blood types? A) O+ is considered the universal donor because it lacks the A and B antigens. For this reason, it will not react to a recipient's antibodies. B) O– is considered the universal donor because this blood type has none of the A, B, and Rh antigens on the surface of its erythrocytes. Therefore, it cannot bind to any recipient's antibodies. C) AB– is considered the universal donor because this blood type has none of the A, B, and Rh antigens on the surface of its erythrocytes. Therefore, it cannot bind to any recipient's antibodies. D) AB+ is considered the universal donor because this blood type has none of the A, B, and Rh antigens on the surface of its erythrocytes. Therefore, it cannot bind to any recipient's antibodies. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
31. Which blood type is considered the universal recipient? Why can people with this blood type
receive blood from all other blood types? A) O+ is considered the universal recipient because it lacks the A and B antigens. For this reason, it will not react to a donor's antibodies. B) O– is considered the universal recipient because it lacks the A, B, and Rh antigens. For this reason, it will not react with a donor's antibodies. C) AB– is considered the universal recipient because it lacks the anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies. For this reason, it will not react with a donor's A, B, and/or Rh antigens. D) AB+ is considered the T universal this ESTBArecipient NKSELLbecause ER.CO M blood type has all three antigens on the surface of its erythrocytes. Therefore, it has none of the antibodies and so will not react to any of the other antigens on any blood type. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
32. Choose all that apply: A person with type O blood has A) anti-A antibodies. B) anti-B antibodies. C) anti-O antibodies. D) no antibodies. ANS: A, B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
33. True or False? The liquid portion of blood is known as plasma. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
34. True or False? Erthrocytes are generally involved in some aspect of the immune system. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
35. True or False? The granulocytes include the neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
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36. True or False? Eosinophils are involved in mediating responses to parasitic worms and
allergies. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
37. True or False? Lymphocytes leave the blood and become macrophages, very active
phagocytes. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Recall
38. From which blood types could a person with type A– blood receive, assuming the recipients
have been exposed to Rh antigens? A) O–, B–, A–, AB– B) O+, O– C) O+, O–, B+, B– D) O–, A– ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
39. From which blood types could a person with type AB– blood receive, assuming the recipients
have been exposed to Rh antigens? A) O–, B–, A–, AB– B) O+, O– C) O+, O–, B+, B– D) O–, A– ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 40. To which blood types could a person with type A– blood donate, assuming the recipients have
been exposed to Rh antigens? A) AB+ B) A+, B+, AB+, O+ C) B+, B–, AB+, AB– D) A+, A–, AB+, AB– ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
41. To which blood types could a person with type O+ blood donate, assuming the recipients have
been exposed to Rh antigens? A) AB+ B) A+, B+, AB+, O+ C) B+, B–, AB+, AB– D) A+, A–, AB+, AB– ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
42. To which blood types could a person with type AB+ blood donate, assuming the recipients
have been exposed to Rh antigens? A) AB+ B) A+, B+, AB+, O+ C) B+, B–, AB+, AB– D) A+, A–, AB+, AB–
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
43. To which blood types could a person with type B– blood donate, assuming the recipients have
been exposed to Rh antigens? A) AB+ B) A+, B+, AB+, O+ C) B+, B–, AB+, AB– D) A+, A–, AB+, AB– ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
44. From which blood types could a person with type O+ blood receive, assuming the recipients
have been exposed to Rh antigens? A) O–, B–, A–, AB– B) O+, O– C) O+, O–, B+, B– D) O–, A– ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
45. From which blood types could a person with type B+ blood receive, assuming the recipients
have been exposed to Rh antigens? A) O–, B–, A–, AB– B) O+, O– C) O+, O–, B+, B– D) O–, A– ANS: C
ELLE R.20 COCheck M Your Understanding PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
46. Your hospital patient has been admitted for a cough, fever, and shortness of breath. Lab
analysis of blood work shows an elevated leukocyte count with, specifically, a high neutrophil count. The nurse practitioner says that based on this information the patient likely has a bacterial infection, although he needs further information to confirm the diagnosis. What led him to conclude that the patient has a bacterial infection, and why? ANS:
The high leukocyte count indicates that the body is fighting inflammation, and the other signs and symptoms point to that inflammation being caused by an infection. Neutrophils are the main cells that ingest bacteria, and their numbers tend to elevate during bacterial infections. For this reason, the NP has concluded that the patient likely has a bacterial infection until more information is available. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
47. A common consequence of many cancer chemotherapy drugs is destruction of bone marrow
cells. This leads to a decrease in the number of circulating erythrocytes and leukocytes, resulting in conditions called anemia and leukopenia, respectively. Predict the consequences of anemia and leukopenia, considering the function of these types of cells. ANS:
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Erythrocytes carry oxygen through the body. Symptoms of anemia result from decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues and include weakness, fatigue, easy bruising, and decreased ability to heal from injury or infection. A decrease in the number of circulating leukocytes will result in a diminished ability to respond to cellular injury, particularly infection. This can make what would otherwise be a simple infection potentially lethal. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
48. The poison ricin, derived from the castor bean plant, interferes with protein synthesis. Which
formed elements of blood would ricin affect directly? Are there any formed elements in the blood that ricin would not affect? Explain. (Hint: Where does the first part of protein synthesis take place?) ANS:
Ricin would affect leukocytes and immature blood cells of the bone marrow because these cells contain nuclei and are capable of synthesizing proteins. Mature erythrocytes and platelets would not be directly affected by ricin because these cells/cell fragments lack nuclei and therefore cannot carry out protein synthesis. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
49. The disease erythroblastosis fetalis (also called hemolytic disease of the newborn) develops in
a fetus or a newborn infant with Rh-positive blood and an Rh-negative mother. Symptoms result when maternal anti-Rh antibodies cross the placenta and interact with the fetus' erythrocytes. Why are the children of Rh-positive mothers not at risk for this disease? Why are Rh-negative fetuses not at risk for this disease?
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ANS:
Rh-positive mothers will not produce anti-Rh antibodies, so Rh-positive fetuses will not be at risk for the diseases. Similarly, Rh-negative fetuses do not have the Rh antigen, so even if the mother has anti-Rh antibodies, there are no antigens to agglutinate, so the fetus is not at risk. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
50. Explain why a person who is blood type O– can donate blood to any blood type but can only
receive blood from individuals who are also blood type O–. ANS:
An individual with type O– blood has anti-A, anti-B, and anti-Rh antibodies present in their blood (assuming exposure to the Rh antigen). However, blood type O– lacks all three antigens. This lack of antigens is the reason such an individual can donate to someone of any blood type. However, the fact that they have all three antibodies means that only another person that lacks all three antigens will be able to donate to people with O– blood. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 20 Check Your Understanding
51. The universal blood donors for the ABO system are type _____________. A) A B) B C) O D) AB
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
52. An individual's ABO blood type is normally determined by __________. A) genetic inheritance and environmental influences during life B) environmental influences alone C) inheritance of one of three possible alleles (A, B, or O) from each parent D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
53. In determining the phenotype for the ABO blood system, ______________. A) O is dominant over A B) B is dominant over A C) O is recessive D) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
54. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be accepted as legal proof of paternity? A) HLA type evidence B) ABO blood type evidence C) DNA sequence evidence D) All are equally likely to be accepted. ANS: B PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions 55. Which of the following statements is TRUE about blood components? A) Specific ABO blood types are known to be linked with increased or decreased
susceptibility to particular diseases. B) Antibodies to foreign antigens in the ABO group may be present in one's body
prior to the first contact with blood of a different ABO type. C) Antibodies to the Rh factor are formed only after exposure to the antigen. D) All of the above are correct. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
56. Which of the following does NOT affect the resistance found in the arteries? A) Presence of valves B) Vessel length C) Vessel diameter D) Viscosity of blood ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
57. The cycling of water from the capillaries through the peripheral tissues and lymphatic system,
then back to the bloodstream, ________________.
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A) assists in the transport of insoluble lipids and tissue proteins B) accelerates the distribution of nutrients, hormones, and dissolved gases throughout
the tissues C) ensures that the plasma and interstitial fluid are in constant communication D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
58. Mean arterial pressure _______ as the arterial branches become smaller. A) stabilizes B) increases C) decreases D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
59. The process by which materials leave the capillary at the arterial end is known as ______; in
contrast, the entry of materials into the capillary at the venous end is known as _____. A) active transport; passive transport B) diffusion; osmosis C) filtration; reabsorption D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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60. Erythroblastosis fetalis ________________________. A) is also known as hemolytic disease of the newborn B) has no symptoms C) occurs with an Rh-positive infant and an Rh-negative mother D) A and B E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
61. The poison ricin __________. A) is from the lima bean plant B) interferes with protein synthesis C) prevents coagulation D) All of the above E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
62. Agranulocytes ______. A) include monocytes B) include lymphocytes C) are neither lymphocytes nor monocytes
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D) lack visible cytoplasmic granules E) A, B, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
63. The laboratory test performed to determine the frequency of leukocytes is known as a
_______. A) white blood cell count B) red blood cell count C) peripheral blood smear D) differential white blood cell count E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
64. ___________ is (are) used to determine the antigens present on the surface of an erythrocyte. A) Platelets B) Antiserum C) Serum D) Red blood cell count E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
65. A blood type is named based upon ______________. TESTBonANthe KScell ELsurface LER.COM A) which antibody is not present B) which antibody is present on the cell surface C) which antigen is not present on the cell surface D) which antigen is present on the cell surface E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
66. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a transfusion reaction? A) It can be fatal. B) It can lead to kidney failure. C) It results in hemolysis. D) All of the above E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
67. The amount of hemoglobin in the blood is measured with a(n) _______________. A) antiserum B) hemoglobinometer C) Tallquist paper D) B and C
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E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
68. Normal range of a WBC count is _________. A) 1,000–1,500/mm3 B) 500–1,000/mm3 C) 4,000–11,000/mm3 D) 2,000–3,000/mm3 E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
69. A normal RBC count is __________. A) 6.2–6.5 million/mm3 B) 2.3 million/mm3 C) 3.4–4.1 million/mm3 D) 4.2–5.9 million/mm3 E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
70. Erythrocytes are also known as ____________. A) white blood cells B) macrophages TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) red blood cells D) platelets ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
71. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning human blood? A) The blood of all normal humans contains red and white cells, platelets, and plasma. B) Some human populations normally lack the ability to produce plasma. C) Proteins are not normal components of human blood. D) Serum is the same as plasma. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
72. Which of the following blood components provides the major body defense against invading
bacteria and viruses? A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets D) Plasma ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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73. The relatively clear liquid medium that carries the other blood cells is known as
____________. A) lipid B) plasma C) antibodies D) serum ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
74. Which of the following is likely to increase in quantity when the body is under attack from
bacteria? A) Basophils B) Neutrophils C) Eosinophils D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
75. When blood clumps or forms visible islands in liquid plasma, the process is known as
______________. A) clotting B) agglutination C) thrombus D) embolism ANS: B PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Easy ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions 76. Antigens for the circulatory system are ___________. A) found on the surface of red blood cells B) found on the surface of macrophages C) oligopolysaccharides D) proteins used to engulf bacteria ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
77. Which of the following statements is TRUE of antigen-antibody interactions? A) They are used by our bodies only to identify blood types. B) They identify and reject microorganisms that invade our bodies, such as viruses
and bacteria. C) They are the way our blood clots when we are bleeding from an open wound. D) A and B ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
78. Most of the volume of normal human blood is composed of _____________. A) red blood cells B) hemoglobin
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C) plasma D) white blood cells ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
79. The ABO blood group system consists of the following blood types: A) A and B B) A, B, and O C) A, B, AB, and O D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
80. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the ABO blood system? A) Individuals who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A
antibody. B) Individuals who are type AB normally produce both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. C) The only ABO blood type that normally does not have either A or B antigens is AB. D) The only ABO blood type that has both A and B antigens is O. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 20 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 21 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines lymphatic capillary? A) Encapsulated lymphoid organs found along the lymphatic vessels that filter lymph
and remove pathogens, toxins, and cells B) Small, blind-ended vessels that collect interstitial fluid and deliver it to lymph-
collecting vessels C) Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found at the base of the tongue, in the nasopharynx, and the oropharynx D) Agranulocyte; the largest of the leukocytes; features a “u”-shaped nucleus and is the third most numerous type of leukocyte ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines lymph? A) Leukocyte containing cytoplasmic granules B) Endothelium that lines the chambers and valves of the heart C) Interstitial fluid located in the lymphatic vessels D) Component of the specific response mediated by T lymphocytes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines lymph-collecting vessel? A) The largest lymph vessels, from which lymph returns to the blood B) Lymphatic organ that filters the blood and houses phagocytes C) Granulocyte whose granules do not interact strongly with the dyes eosin or
hematoxylin; most numerous ofSleukocyte TESTBtype ANK ELLER.COM D) Thin-walled structures that carry lymph from the small lymphatic capillaries to the larger lymph trunks ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines lymph trunk? A) Larger lymph vessels that transport lymph from many lymph-collecting vessels to
one of two lymph ducts B) Encapsulated lymphoid organs found along the lymphatic vessels that filter lymph
and remove pathogens, toxins, and cells C) Large lymph vessel that drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side
of the head, neck, and mediastinum D) Thin-walled structures that carry lymph from the small lymphatic capillaries to the
larger lymph trunks ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines thoracic duct? A) Larger lymph vessels that transport lymph from many lymph-collecting vessels to
one of two lymph ducts B) Encapsulated lymphoid organs found along the lymphatic vessels that filter lymph
and remove pathogens, toxins, and cells C) Large lymph vessel that drains lymph from both limbs; the left upper limb; the left side of the head, neck, and mediastinum; and the abdomen
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D) Thin-walled structures that carry lymph from the small lymphatic capillaries to the
larger lymph trunks ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines right lymphatic duct? A) Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found at the base of the tongue, in the
nasopharynx, and the oropharynx B) Large lymph vessel that drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head, neck, and mediastinum C) Organ of the lymphatic system where T lymphocytes mature D) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the red dye eosin; less numerous than neutrophils ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines thymus? A) A nonspecific response characterized by redness and heat production because of
local vasodilation, pain, and edema as a result of increased capillary permeability B) Unique chemical markers on the surface of all cells and many molecules such as toxins and allergens C) A flat cell with a flattened nucleus D) Organ of the lymphatic system where T lymphocytes mature ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines lymph node? A) Granulocyte whose granules TESTinteract BANKSstrongly ELLERwith .COthe M red dye eosin; less
numerous than neutrophils
B) A group of cells that plays various roles in the immune system C) Small cellular fragments involved in blood clotting D) Encapsulated lymphoid organs found along the lymphatic vessels that filter lymph
and remove pathogens, toxins, and cells ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines spleen? A) Lymphatic organ that filters the blood and houses phagocytes B) A small organ that contains serous fluid; located between the two layers of the
serous pericardium C) Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found at the base of the tongue, in the
nasopharynx, and the oropharynx D) Portion of the respiratory bronchiole made up exclusively of alveoli ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines mucosal-associated lymphatic tissue? A) Unencapsulated clusters of lymphatic tissue found throughout the body's mucous
membranes B) Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found at the base of the tongue, in the
nasopharynx, and the oropharynx C) Organ of the lymphatic system where T lymphocytes mature
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D) Portion of the respiratory bronchiole made up exclusively of alveoli ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines tonsil? A) Small, blind-ended vessels responsible for collecting interstitial fluid and
delivering it to lymph-collecting vessels B) Passageways smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter that control airflow to the structures
for gas exchange C) Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found at the base of the tongue, in the
nasopharynx, and the oropharynx D) Agranulocyte; the largest of the leukocytes; features a “u”-shaped nucleus and is
the third most numerous type of leukocyte ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines innate immunity? A) A nonspecific response characterized by redness and heat production because of
local vasodilation, pain, and edema as a result of increased capillary permeability B) The component of the immune response that reacts in the same manner to any invading organism or cellular injury C) The component of the immune system that reacts to foreign cells and molecules with a unique set of cells and molecules for each antigen D) Component of the specific response mediated by antibodies secreted by activated B lymphocytes (plasma cells) ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
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13. Which of the following statements accurately defines inflammation? A) Layer of connective tissue deep to the mucosa that houses blood vessels, nerves,
lymphatics, and elastic fibers B) Contains two layers of smooth muscle C) A reaction to cellular injury characterized by redness and heat production because
of local vasodilation, pain, and edema as a result of increased capillary permeability D) Small cellular fragments involved in blood clotting ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines adaptive immunity? A) The component of the immune system that reacts to foreign cells and molecules
with a unique set of cells and molecules for each antigen B) Unique chemical markers on the surface of all cells and many molecules such as
toxins and allergens C) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes; each antibody type binds to a specific antigen D) None of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines antigen? A) Agranulocyte; the largest of the leukocytes; features a “u”-shaped nucleus and is
third most numerous type of leukocyte
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B) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the dark purple stain
hematoxylin; least numerous of the leukocytes C) Unique chemical markers on the surface of all cells and many molecules such as
toxins and allergens D) Anucleate cells filled with hemoglobin, which transports oxygen through the body ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity? A) Component of the adaptive response mediated by antibodies secreted by activated
B lymphocytes (plasma cells) B) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes; each antibody type binds to a specific antigen C) Molecules secreted by plasma cells to bind to antigens D) Both A and C are correct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines antibody? A) Proteins secreted by plasma cells to bind to antigens and facilitate their destruction
or neutralization B) A solution containing antibodies that bind with specific antigens C) Unique glycoprotein on the surface of all cells and present on most biological
molecules D) Lymphatic organ that filters the blood and houses phagocytes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately immunity? TESTBA NKSELLdefines ER.Ccell-mediated OM A) Agranulocyte; the second most numerous type of leukocyte with a large, spherical
nucleus B) Component of the adaptive response mediated by T lymphocytes C) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the dark purple stain hematoxylin; least numerous of the leukocytes D) A group of cells that plays various roles in the immune system ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 21.1A Lymphoid organs: overview of the lymphatic organs and vessels.
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19. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 1. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Mesenteric lymph nodes E) Inguinal lymph nodes F) Thoracic duct G) Tonsil ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 2. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Mesenteric lymph nodes E) Inguinal lymph nodes F) Thoracic duct G) Tonsil ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 3. A) Axillary lymph nodes
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B) Right subclavian trunk C) Right bronchomediastinal trunk D) Right jugular trunk E) Right lymphatic duct F) Intestinal trunk G) Right lumbar trunk ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 4. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cisterna chyli C) Inguinal lymph nodes D) Mesenteric lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Right subclavian trunk G) Thoracic duct ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 5. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cisterna chyli C) Cubital lymph nodes D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Lymph node F) Right lymphatic duct TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Thoracic duct ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 6. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Cervical lymph nodes E) Thoracic duct F) Right lymphatic duct G) Mesenteric lymph nodes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 7. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Right subclavian trunk C) Right bronchomediastinal trunk D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Intestinal trunk G) Right lumbar trunk ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
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26. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 8. A) Cisterna chyli B) Cubital lymph nodes C) Left subclavian vein D) Right lymphatic duct E) Right subclavian vein F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 9. A) Cisterna chyli B) Axillary lymph nodes C) Cervical lymph nodes D) Lymph node E) Spleen F) Thymus G) Tonsil ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 10. A) Cervical lymph nodes B) Cisterna chyli C) Axillary lymph nodes TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Mesenteric lymph nodes E) Intestinal trunk F) Appendix G) Thoracic duct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 11. A) Cervical lymph nodes B) Cisterna chyli C) Axillary lymph nodes D) Mesenteric lymph nodes E) Intestinal trunk F) Appendix G) Thoracic duct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 12. A) Cervical lymph nodes B) Cisterna chyli C) Axillary lymph nodes D) Mesenteric lymph nodes E) Intestinal trunk
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F) Appendix G) Thoracic duct ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 13. A) Spleen B) Cisterna chyli C) Large intestine D) Intestinal trunk E) Small intestine F) Appendix G) Thymus ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 14. A) Spleen B) Cisterna chyli C) Large intestine D) Intestinal trunk E) Small intestine F) Appendix G) Thymus ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
33. In Figure 21.1A, identify number TESTB15. ANKSELLER.COM A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Right subclavian trunk C) Right bronchomediastinal trunk D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Intestinal trunk G) Right lumbar trunk ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 16. A) Spleen B) Cisterna chyli C) Large intestine D) Intestinal trunk E) Small intestine F) Appendix G) Thymus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 17. A) Cisterna chyli B) Inguinal lymph nodes
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C) Intestinal lymph nodes D) Left subclavian trunk E) Lymph trunks F) Lymphatic nodules G) Right lymphatic duct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
36. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 18. A) Cisterna chyli B) Axillary lymph nodes C) Cervical lymph nodes D) Lymph node E) Spleen F) Thymus G) Tonsil ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 21.1A, identify number 19. A) Cisterna chyli B) Axillary lymph nodes C) Cervical lymph nodes D) Lymph node E) Spleen F) Thymus G) Tonsil
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 21.1B Lymphoid organs: overview of the lymphatic organs and vessels. 38. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 1. A) Thymic lobule TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Adipose tissue C) Cortex D) Right lobe E) Left lobe ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 2. A) Thymic lobule B) Adipose tissue C) Cortex D) Right lobe E) Left lobe ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 3. A) Thymic lobule B) Adipose tissue C) Cortex D) Right lobe E) Left lobe ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
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41. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 4. A) Thymic lobule B) Adipose tissue C) Cortex D) Right lobe E) Left lobe ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 5. A) Afferent lymphatic vessel B) Efferent lymphatic vessel C) Splenic vein D) Direction of blood flow E) Splenic artery ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 6. A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Capsule D) Germinal center E) Cortex ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 21.1B, identify number TESTB7.ANKSELLER.COM A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Capsule D) Germinal center E) Cortex ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 8. A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Capsule D) Germinal center E) Cortex ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 9. A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Trabeculae D) Valve E) Cortex
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 10. A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Trabeculae D) Valve E) Cortex ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 11. A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Capsule D) Germinal center E) Cortex ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 12. A) Afferent lymphatic vessels B) Efferent lymphatic vessels C) Splenic vein D) Direction of blood flow E) Splenic artery ANS: A
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.21 COPre-Lab M
50. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 13. A) Lymphoid follicle B) Medulla C) Trabeculae D) Valve E) Cortex ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 14. A) Afferent lymphatic vessel B) Efferent lymphatic vessel C) Splenic vein D) Direction of blood flow E) Splenic artery ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 15. A) Afferent lymphatic vessel B) Efferent lymphatic vessel C) Splenic vein D) Direction of blood flow
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E) Splenic artery ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 16. A) Afferent lymphatic vessel B) Efferent lymphatic vessel C) Splenic vein D) Direction of blood flow E) Splenic artery ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 21.1B, identify number 17. A) Splenic vein B) Spleen C) Thymus D) Splenic artery E) Adipose tissue ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 21.1C Lymphoid organs: the tonsils. 55. In Figure 21.1C, identify number 1. A) Lingual tonsil B) Uvula C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) E) Nasopharynx ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 21.1C, identify number 2. A) Lingual tonsil B) Uvula C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) E) Nasopharynx
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 21.1C, identify number 3. A) Lingual tonsil B) Uvula C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) E) Nasopharynx ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. In Figure 21.1C, identify number 4. A) Lingual tonsil B) Uvula C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) E) Nasopharynx ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 21.1C, identify number 5. A) Lingual tonsil B) Palate C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid) E) Nasopharynx ANS: A
ELLE R.21 COPre-Lab M PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise
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Figure 21.10 Overview of the lymphatic organs and vessels.
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60. In Figure 21.10, identify number 1. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
61. In Figure 21.10, identify number 2. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
62. In Figure 21.10, identify number 3.
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A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
63. In Figure 21.10, identify number 4. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
64. In Figure 21.10, identify number 5. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Spleen G) Thoracic duct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
65. In Figure 21.10, identify number 6. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Inguinal lymph nodes E) Right lymphatic duct F) Spleen G) Thoracic duct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
66. In Figure 21.10, identify number 7. A) Cervical lymph nodes B) Cisterna chyli C) Inguinal lymph nodes D) Right lymphatic duct E) Spleen F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
67. In Figure 21.10, identify number 8. A) Axillary lymph nodes B) Cervical lymph nodes C) Cisterna chyli D) Right lymphatic duct E) Spleen F) Thoracic duct G) Thymus ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
TESTBtonsils. ANKSELLER.COM Figure 21.11A Lymphatic organs: 68. In Figure 21.11A, identify number 1. A) Lingual tonsil B) Palate C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
69. In Figure 21.11A, identify number 2. A) Lingual tonsil B) Palate C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
70. In Figure 21.11A, identify number 3. A) Lingual tonsil B) Palate C) Palatine tonsil D) Pharyngeal tonsil ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
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Figure 21.11B Lymphatic organs: lymph node. 71. In Figure 21.11B, identify number 1. A) Germinal center B) Medulla C) Cortex D) Lymphoid follicle ANS: A
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit ELLE R.21 COCheck M Your Recall
72. In Figure 21.11B, identify number 2. A) Germinal center B) Medulla C) Cortex D) Lymphoid follicle ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
73. In Figure 21.11B, identify number 3. A) Germinal center B) Medulla C) Cortex D) Lymphoid follicle ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
74. In Figure 21.11B, identify number 4. A) Germinal center B) Medulla C) Cortex D) Lymphoid follicle ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
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75. Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system? A) Maintaining blood glucose levels B) Absorbing dietary fats C) Activating the immune system D) Transporting excess interstitial fluid back to the heart ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
76. What is the function of the thymus? A) Traps pathogens in lymph. B) Filters the blood. C) Mediates inflammation. D) Serves as the site of T lymphocyte maturation. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
77. Lymph from the intestinal lymph trunks drains into the ______________________ and
contains ____________________. A) lymphatic capillaries; fats B) cisterna chyli; fats C) lacteal; proteins D) blood capillaries; proteins ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
78. Which most accurately describes the components and functions of the three lines of immune
defense? A) The first line of defense TEincludes STBANsurface KSELbarriers LER.Cthat OMprevent the entry of pathogens into the body. The second line of defense includes the nonspecific responses of innate immunity, which includes antibodies and the cell-mediated response. The third line of defense includes the specific responses of adaptive immunity, which includes phagocytes and the inflammatory response. B) The first line of defense includes surface barriers, which include antibodies and the cell-mediated response. The second line of defense includes the nonspecific responses of innate immunity, which includes phagocytes and the inflammatory response. The third line of defense includes the specific responses of adaptive immunity that prevent the entry of pathogens into the body. C) The first line of defense includes surface barriers, which include phagocytes and the inflammatory response . The second line of defense includes the nonspecific responses of innate immunity that prevent the entry of pathogens into the body. The third line of defense includes the specific responses of adaptive immunity, which includes antibodies and the cell-mediated response. D) The first line of defense includes surface barriers that prevent the entry of pathogens into the body. The second line of defense includes the nonspecific responses of innate immunity, which includes phagocytes and the inflammatory response. The third line of defense includes the specific responses of adaptive immunity, which includes antibodies and the cell-mediated response. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
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79. Which phrase most accurately describes how the terms innate immunity and adaptive
immunity differ? A) Innate immunity recognizes and binds individual, unique antigens, whereas adaptive immunity does not recognize antigens and so responds the same to any cellular injury B) Adaptive immunity recognizes and binds individual, unique antigens, whereas innate immunity does not recognize antigens and so responds the same to any cellular injury. C) Innate immunity is faster than adaptive immunity. D) Innate immunity is more accurate than adaptive immunity. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
80. Which phrase most accurately describes how the terms cell-mediated immunity and humoral
immunity differ? A) Cell-mediated immunity is brought about by B cells and antibodies; humoral immunity is brought about by T cells. B) Cell-mediated immunity is a specific immune response; humoral immunity is a nonspecific response. C) Cell-mediated immunity is a nonspecific immune response; humoral immunity is a nonspecific response. D) Cell-mediated immunity is brought about by T cells; humoral immunity is brought about by B cells and antibodies. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
81. Which of the following is not a part of adaptive immunity? TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Inflammation and fever B) Antibodies C) Cell-mediated immunity D) B lymphocytes E) Humoral immunity ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
82. When tissues are damaged, macrophages release inflammatory mediators that cause
__________, __________, and __________. Certain inflammatory mediators called __________ increase the hypothalamus' “set point” for temperature and cause fever. A) vasoconstriction; increased capillary permeability; fever; macrophages B) vasodilation; increased capillary permeability; pain; pyrogens C) vasoconstriction; decreased capillary permeability; fever; pyrogens D) vasodilation; decreased capillary permeability; pain; macrophages ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
83. True or False? The thoracic duct drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of
the head, neck, and thorax. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
84. True or False? The spleen filters lymph, whereas lymph nodes filter blood.
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
85. True or False? Lymph capillaries surround blood capillaries and pick up excess interstitial
fluid to return it to the blood. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
86. True or False? Tonsils are specialized MALT that are partially encapsulated. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Recall
87. Nilesh has Hodgkin's lymphoma, a cancer that primarily involves lymphocytes. As part of his
treatment plan, he is undergoing surgery to remove his spleen, a procedure called a splenectomy, and several affected cervical lymph nodes. How does the role of the spleen differ from the role of lymph nodes? ANS:
The spleen filters the blood, the lymph nodes filter lymph. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
88. Nilesh has Hodgkin's lymphoma, a cancer that primarily involves lymphocytes. As part of his
treatment plan, he is undergoing surgery to remove his spleen, a procedure called a splenectomy, and several affected cervical lymph nodes. What potential complications might Nilesh face without a spleen? Explain. ANS:
ESTBANKSto ELviral LERinfections .COM and other types of infections that There is a slight increase inTsusceptibility spread primarily by the blood. This is because the spleen plays an important role in removing virally-infected cells from the blood as they filter through its sinusoids. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
89. Nilesh has Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a cancer that primarily involves lymphocytes. As part of his
treatment plan, he is undergoing surgery to remove several affected cervical lymph nodes. What potential complications might Nilesh face with the removal of multiple cervical lymph nodes? ANS:
Lymph nodes return excess interstitial fluid to the blood and filter pathogens from lymph. Patients could suffer from a slightly higher risk of infection, particularly risks from bacteria, as bacteria are often filtered out of lymph by lymph nodes. (Do note, however, that patients with lymph nodes removed are not typically at a significantly higher risk of infection because there are large numbers of nodes along lymphatic vessels.) PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
90. The condition aplastic anemia is characterized by complete failure of the bone marrow to
produce formed elements of the blood due to damaged hematopoietic stem cells. Explain how aplastic anemia would affect the immune response.
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ANS:
With aplastic anemia, no leukocytes of any type will be produced. This will completely eliminate the third line of defense (adaptive immunity) and the vast majority of the second line of defense (innate immunity). PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
91. Explain why blockage or removal of the lymphatic vessels can result in significant edema
(accumulation of fluid in a limb or body part). ANS:
Lymphatic vessels drain excess interstitial fluid. Removal of these vessels causes the fluid to accumulate, leading to edema. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
92. Juliet is a 42-year-old patient who is preparing to undergo surgery to remove her thymus
gland, which has a tumor (a thymoma). She has read about the thymus and its functions and is concerned that her immune system will be much weaker after the surgery. What do you tell her, and why? ANS:
The thymus is mostly active in childhood. In adults, it atrophies significantly, is largely nonfunctional, and consists mostly of adipose and other connective tissue. Juliet will thus not experience any decrease in her immune function after the surgery. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
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93. As you learned, the tonsils are only partially encapsulated. How does this better enable them
to perform their function? How does this also place them at greater risk for infection? ANS:
The lack of a capsule leaves them open so that they can more easily trap pathogens. However, the ability to trap pathogens also makes it easier for pathogens to invade and cause infection. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
94. Nilesh has Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a cancer that primarily involves lymphocytes. As part of his
treatment plan, his spleen was surgically removed in a procedure called a splenectomy. After his surgery, Nilesh developed a fever. Prior to the surgery, he had been undergoing chemotherapy with drugs that are known to kill healthy bone marrow cells as well as cancerous cells. Considering this, why do you think Nilesh’s fever is of particular concern to his medical team? ANS:
The chemotherapy that killed much of his bone marrow led to a decreased leukocyte count. This means that if he has an infection (which is suggested by his fever), his ability to fight it will be severely impaired. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
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95. You are running an ELISA on a sample to test for the presence of antigens from the influenza
A virus. When it comes time to add the antibody, you realize that you only have antibodies for the influenza B virus. Would these antibodies give you accurate results? Why or why not? ANS:
Antibodies are specific for individual antigens. The antigens on influenza B will not be identical to those on influenza A, so the antibodies will be unlikely to bind to any influenza antigens present in the sample. For this reason, the results of the ELISA will not be accurate. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 21 Check Your Understanding
96. The process that increases the chance of a neutrophil or monocyte engulfing an invader is
____. A) phagocytosis B) neutralization C) complement fixation D) opsonization ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
97. Tumors are most likely destroyed by _____ cells. A) B B) helper C) cytotoxic D) suppressor ANS: C PTS: T1ESTBANKS DIF: Medium ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions 98. The increase in antibody levels in a second antigen exposure is a result of the _____. A) memory B cells B) T cells C) helper T cells D) B clones ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
99. Which of these is NOT a function of lymph nodes? A) House lymphocytes and macrophages B) Filter lymph C) Produce red blood cells D) Produce lymphocytes ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
100. What is the role of the thymus in protecting the body against disease? A) It houses decaying lymphocytes, recycling the nutrients within them. B) It is the site of maturation of T lymphocytes and the production of thymosin. C) It is the site of production and maturation of B lymphocytes.
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D) Macrophages and monocytes are produced here and migrate to other tissues of the
body. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
101. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the spleen? A) The spleen filters the lymph in much the same way as the lymph nodes filter the
blood. B) The spleen harbors eosinophils waiting for parasites to attack the body. C) The spleen is the major site of red and white blood cell production in the adult. D) The spleen filters the blood in much the same way as the lymph nodes filter the
lymph. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
102. Which parts of an antibody molecule are different for an IgG antibody in contrast to those for
an IgM antibody that attacks the same antigen? A) Heavy chain constant region B) Heavy chain variable region C) Light chain constant region D) Light chain variable region E) A and C ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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103. Which of the following is important for activation of a B cell during the antigen challenge? A) The antigen B) A helper T cell C) Chemicals that stimulate the lymphocytes to divide D) Interleukin 2 E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
104. Antibodies secreted in mother's milk ___________. A) are IgG antibodies B) are IgA antibodies C) provide natural active immunity D) provide natural passive immunity E) B and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
105. A condition for which passive artificial immunity is the treatment of choice is ___________. A) measles B) botulism C) rabies
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D) venomous snake bites E) B, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
106. In the primary immune response _____________. A) B cells are cloned B) plasma cell exocytosis is at a high level beginning about six days after exposure C) IgM antibodies initially outnumber IgG antibodies D) plasma cell life span is about five days E) All of the above ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
107. The binding and clustering of B cell receptors by a multivalent antigen is required for
___________. A) clonal selection B) antigen endocytosis C) activation D) degranulation E) opsonization ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
108. Class I MHC proteins are found on the membranes of __________________. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) all nucleated body cells B) macrophages C) activated B lymphocytes D) some T cells E) B, C, and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
109. Effector T cells secrete _______________. A) tumor necrosis factor B) histamine C) perforin D) interleukin 2 E) A, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
110. Which of these is NOT a nonspecific defense against disease? A) Species resistance B) Phagocytosis C) Interferon D) Hair color and texture
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E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
111. What would happen if the pectoral lymph nodes were removed during a surgical procedure? A) Cancer would develop in the area. B) Infections would spread. C) The area would dehydrate. D) Edema would develop distally. E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
112. The _____ vessel drains the arm. A) intercostal trunk B) bronchomediastinal C) subclavian trunk D) jugular trunk ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
113. The lymphatic ducts empty directly into the _____. A) heart B) subclavian veins C) thoracic vein D) brachiocephalic vein TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
114. What is one major force that causes interstitial fluid to enter lymphatic capillaries? A) Blood osmotic pressure B) Blood hydrostatic pressure C) Tissue osmotic pressure D) Tissue hydrostatic pressure ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
115. The main activity that causes fluid to flow through lymphatic vessels is _____. A) muscle contraction B) hydrostatic pressure C) osmotic pressure D) blood pressure ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
116. The white pulp of the spleen functions to _____. A) produce lymphocytes in response to infection
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B) remove worn out blood cells C) store platelets D) phagocytize blood borne pathogens ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
117. The lymphatic system works with the gastrointestinal system to __________. A) aid in muscle contraction B) absorb fats C) control osmotic pressure D) control blood pressure ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
118. Fats are not absorbed into the blood capillaries directly because they __________. A) are too small to enter the capillaries B) cannot cross the enterocyte plasma membrane C) are too large to enter the small vessels D) B and C ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
119. The fact that humans usually cannot contract monkey pneumonia is explained by the theory of
_____. A) mechanical barriers B) enzyme action C) interferon D) species resistance
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ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
120. A nonspecific class of chemicals that can inhibit viruses and cancer cell growth is _____. A) antibodies B) peptides C) interferon D) antigens ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
121. Which of the following is an enzyme capable of destroying foreign bacteria? A) salivary amylase B) lysozyme C) pancreatic lipase D) fibrin ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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122. Which is the most common immunoglobulin for allergies? A) IgA B) IgE C) IgD D) IgG ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
123. Erythrocytes clump together because of a(n) _____ process. A) clotting B) agglutination C) complement D) precipitin ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
124. Which of the following processes can be initiated by any type of antibody fixation? A) complement B) neutralization C) lysis phenomena D) antibodies ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 21 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 22 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines respiratory tract? A) Cartilage-framed region of the respiratory tract within the neck that houses the
vocal cords B) The area located posterior to the nasal cavity C) Series of highly branching passages that conducts air to the structures for gas
exchange D) Attachment of a muscle that generally remains fixed during muscular contraction ANS: C
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2. Which of the following statements accurately defines parietal pleura? A) Peripheral nerves that originate from the spinal cord B) Bundles of axons grouped together and bound by the perineurium C) Portion of the respiratory tract in the inferior neck and mediastinum that connects
the larynx with the bronchi D) Outer layer of the pleural membrane that lines the interior of the thoracic cavity
and the superior surface of the diaphragm ANS: D
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3. Which of the following statements accurately defines visceral pleura? A) Area within the skull framed by cartilage and bone B) Intersecting groups of nerves that serve the same body region C) Laboratory device used to measure respiratory volumes D) Inner layer of the pleural that TEmembrane STBANKS ELadheres LER.Ctightly OM to the lung ANS: D
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4. Which of the following statements accurately defines pleural cavity? A) The area located posterior to the nasal cavity B) Parts of a peripheral nerve C) Very thin potential space between the parietal and visceral pleura that contains a
thin layer of serous fluid D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
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5. Which of the following statements accurately defines lungs and lobes? A) Lungs are organs composed of elastic connective tissue and tiny air sacs called
alveoli B) Each lung is divided into sections called lobes C) Each lung has different lobes, three in the right lung and two in the left lung D) All of the above ANS: D
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6. Which of the following statements accurately defines nasal cavity? A) Area within the skull framed by cartilage and bone that extends from the anterior
nares to the posterior nares B) Cartilage-framed region of the respiratory tract within the neck that houses the
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vocal cords C) Filters, warms, and moistens inhaled air D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
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7. Which of the following statements accurately defines pharynx? A) The area located posterior to the nasal cavity (the nasopharynx), the oral cavity
(the oropharynx), and the larynx (the laryngopharynx) B) Portion of the respiratory tract in the inferior neck and mediastinum that connects
the larynx with the bronchi C) Passageways smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter that control airflow to the structures
for gas exchange D) All of the above ANS: A
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8. Which of the following statements accurately defines larynx? A) Cartilage-framed region of the respiratory tract within the neck that houses the
vocal cords B) Portion of the respiratory bronchiole made up exclusively of alveoli C) Bundles of axons grouped together and bound by the perineurium D) Bundles of axons that travel together in a common connective tissue sheath ANS: A
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9. Which of the following statements accurately defines trachea? A) Small structure that carries many functions; TESout TBA NKSofELthe LEbody's R.COhomeostatic M
anteroinferior portion of the diencephalon
B) The spaces between the two layers of the dura mater that drain cerebrospinal fluid
and venous blood from the brain C) Passageways smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter that control airflow to the structures
for gas exchange D) Portion of the respiratory tract in the inferior neck and mediastinum that connects
the larynx with the bronchial tree ANS: D
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10. Which of the following statements accurately defines primary bronchi? A) Branches off of the primary bronchi that each serve one lobe of the lung B) Small branches off of the terminal bronchioles that have alveoli in their walls C) The initial branches off the trachea that each serve one lung D) Exocrine and endocrine gland that sits posterior and inferior to the stomach ANS: C
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11. Which of the following statements accurately defines secondary bronchi? A) Branches off the primary bronchi that each serve one lobe of the lung B) Small branches off of the terminal bronchioles that have alveoli in their walls C) The initial branches off of the trachea that each serve one lung D) Terminal structures of the respiratory tract
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ANS: A
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12. Which of the following statements accurately defines terminal bronchioles? A) Portion of the respiratory bronchiole made up exclusively of alveoli B) Portion of the respiratory tract in the inferior neck and mediastinum that connects
the larynx with the bronchi C) Passageways smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter that control airflow to the structures
for gas exchange D) The area located posterior to the nasal cavity ANS: C
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13. Which of the following statements accurately defines respiratory bronchioles? A) The physical movement of air into and out of the lungs B) Largely involuntary branch of the PNS charged with maintaining many aspects of
homeostasis C) Branches off of the primary bronchi that each serve one lobe of the lung D) Small branches off the terminal bronchioles that have alveoli in their walls ANS: D
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14. Which of the following statements accurately defines alveolar ducts? A) Consist primarily of thin simple squamous epithelium, through which gases are
exchanged with the blood B) Portion of the respiratory bronchiole made up exclusively of alveoli C) Process that travels away from the neuron cell body; also called a nerve fiber D) Leukocyte lacking cytoplasmic granules ANS: B
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15. Which of the following statements accurately defines alveoli? A) Cavities in the lungs that contain fluid B) Terminal structures of the respiratory tract C) Consist primarily of thin simple squamous epithelium through which gases are
exchanged with the blood D) Both B and C are correct ANS: D
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 22.1A Structures of the respiratory system: anatomy of the lungs and respiratory tract. 16. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 1. A) Pleural cavity B) Oblique fissure C) Horizontal fissure D) Pharynx E) Nasal cavity F) Parietal pleura G) Larynx ANS: E
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17. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 2. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Trachea D) Pharynx E) Esophagus F) Parietal pleura G) Larynx
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
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18. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 3. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Trachea D) Pharynx E) Esophagus F) Parietal pleura G) Larynx ANS: C
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19. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 4. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Apex of lung C) Larynx D) Esophagus E) Pharynx F) Right lung, upper lobe G) Trachea ANS: F
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20. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 5. A) Oblique fissure B) Secondary bronchus C) Diaphragm muscle TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Left middle lobe E) Horizontal fissure F) Tertiary bronchus G) Left lung upper lobe ANS: E
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21. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 6. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Left primary bronchus C) Parietal pleura D) Pleural cavity E) Oblique fissure F) Horizontal fissure G) Visceral pleura ANS: G
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22. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 8. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Left primary bronchus C) Parietal pleura D) Pleural cavity E) Oblique fissure
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F) Horizontal fissure G) Visceral pleura ANS: C
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23. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 9. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Left primary bronchus C) Parietal pleura D) Pleural cavity E) Oblique fissure F) Horizontal fissure G) Visceral pleura ANS: D
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24. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 10. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Horizontal fissure D) Left lower lobe E) Diaphragm muscle F) Cardiac notch G) Right lower lobe ANS: G
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25. In Figure 22.1A, identify number TESTB11. ANKSELLER.COM A) Base of lung B) Oblique fissure C) Horizontal fissure D) Left lower lobe E) Diaphragm muscle F) Right middle lobe G) Right lower lobe ANS: F
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26. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 12. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Horizontal fissure D) Left lower lobe E) Diaphragm muscle F) Cardiac notch G) Right lower lobe ANS: F
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27. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 13. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung
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C) Horizontal fissure D) Left lower lobe E) Diaphragm muscle F) Cardiac notch G) Right lower lobe ANS: A
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28. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 14. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Horizontal fissure D) Left lower lobe E) Diaphragm muscle F) Cardiac notch G) Right lower lobe ANS: E
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29. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 15. A) Oblique fissure B) Base of lung C) Diaphragm muscle D) Left middle lobe E) Horizontal fissure F) Left lower lobe G) Right lower lobe
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ANS: A
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30. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 16. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Trachea D) Pharynx E) Esophagus F) Parietal pleura G) Larynx ANS: D
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31. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 17. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Trachea D) Pharynx E) Esophagus F) Parietal pleura G) Larynx ANS: E
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32. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 18. A) Base of lung B) Apex of lung C) Trachea D) Pharynx E) Esophagus F) Parietal pleura G) Larynx ANS: B
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33. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 19. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Apex of lung C) Larynx D) Esophagus E) Pharynx F) Right lung, upper lobe G) Trachea ANS: A
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34. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 20. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Left primary bronchus C) Parietal pleura D) Pleural cavity E) Secondary bronchus TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Tertiary bronchus G) Visceral pleura ANS: B
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35. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 21. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Left primary bronchus C) Parietal pleura D) Pleural cavity E) Secondary bronchus F) Tertiary bronchus G) Visceral pleura ANS: E
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36. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 22. A) Left lung, upper lobe B) Left primary bronchus C) Parietal pleura D) Pleural cavity E) Secondary bronchus F) Tertiary bronchus
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G) Visceral pleura ANS: F
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37. In Figure 22.1A, identify number 23. A) Oblique fissure B) Base of lung C) Diaphragm muscle D) Left middle lobe E) Horizontal fissure F) Left lower lobe G) Right lower lobe ANS: F
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Figure 22.1B Structures of the respiratory system: the larynx, anterior view. 38. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 1. A) Cricothyroid ligament B) Laryngeal prominence C) Cricoid cartilage D) Hyoid bone E) Thyroid cartilage F) Cartilage ring G) Epiglottis ANS: G
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39. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 2.
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A) Cricoid cartilage B) Cartilage ring C) Epiglottis D) Laryngeal prominence E) Hyoid bone F) Thyroid cartilage G) Cricothyroid ligament ANS: E
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40. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 3. A) Epiglottis B) Cricothyroid ligament C) Cricoid cartilage D) Thyroid cartilage E) Laryngeal prominence F) Cartilage ring G) Hyoid bone ANS: D
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41. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 4. A) Laryngeal prominence B) Thyroid cartilage C) Cartilage ring D) Epiglottis E) Cricothyroid ligament TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Hyoid bone G) Cricoid cartilage ANS: A
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42. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 5. A) Trachea B) Cartilage ring C) Cricoid cartilage D) Laryngeal prominence E) Hyoid bone F) Cricothyroid ligament G) Thyroid cartilage ANS: F
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43. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 6. A) Thyroid cartilage B) Cartilage ring C) Laryngeal prominence D) Cricoid cartilage E) Trachea F) Hyoid bone G) Cricothyroid ligament
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ANS: D
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44. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 7. A) Cartilage ring B) Trachea C) Cricoid cartilage D) Thyroid cartilage E) Hyoid bone F) Cricothyroid ligament G) Laryngeal prominence ANS: B
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45. In Figure 22.1B, identify number 8. A) Hyoid bone B) Thyroid cartilage C) Laryngeal prominence D) Cricothyroid ligament E) Cartilage rings F) Cricoid cartilage G) Trachea ANS: E
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Figure 22.1C Structures of the respiratory system: (C) the larynx, midsagittal section. 46. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 1.
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A) Arytenoid cartilage B) Hyoid bone C) Fat pad D) Epiglottic cartilage E) Epiglottis F) Corniculate cartilage G) Cuneiform cartilage ANS: E
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47. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 2. A) Epiglottis B) Fat pad C) Epiglottic cartilage D) Cuneiform cartilage E) Arytenoid cartilage F) Hyoid bone G) Corniculate cartilage ANS: F
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48. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 3. A) Epiglottic cartilage B) Arytenoid cartilage C) Thyroid cartilage D) Hyoid bone E) Corniculate cartilage TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Epiglottis G) Cuneiform cartilage ANS: A
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49. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 4. A) Thyroid cartilage B) Cuneiform cartilage C) Corniculate cartilage D) Fat pad E) Epiglottic cartilage F) Arytenoid cartilage G) Epiglottis ANS: D
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50. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 5. A) False vocal fold B) Thyroid cartilage C) Corniculate cartilage D) Arytenoid cartilage E) Cuneiform cartilage F) True vocal cord G) Epiglottic cartilage
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ANS: B
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51. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 6. A) Cricoid cartilage B) Corniculate cartilage C) Epiglottic cartilage D) Tracheal cartilage E) Arytenoid cartilage F) Thyroid cartilage G) Cuneiform cartilage ANS: G
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52. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 7. A) Epiglottic cartilage B) Tracheal cartilage C) Thyroid cartilage D) Cricoid cartilage E) Cuneiform cartilage F) Corniculate cartilage G) Arytenoid cartilage ANS: F
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53. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 8. A) Thyroid cartilage B) Arytenoid cartilage C) Cuneiform cartilage TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Tracheal cartilage E) Cricoid cartilage F) Epiglottic cartilage G) Corniculate cartilage ANS: B
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54. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 9. A) Corniculate cartilage B) Cuneiform cartilage C) False vocal fold D) Cricoid cartilage E) Thyroid cartilage F) True vocal cord G) Arytenoid cartilage ANS: C
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55. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 10. A) Cricoid cartilage B) Tracheal cartilage C) Arytenoid cartilage D) True vocal cord E) Corniculate cartilage
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F) False vocal fold G) Cuneiform cartilage ANS: A
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56. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 11. A) Epiglottic cartilage B) Thyroid cartilage C) Arytenoid cartilage D) Cricoid cartilage E) Tracheal cartilage F) Cuneiform cartilage G) Corniculate cartilage ANS: E
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57. In Figure 22.1C, identify number 12. A) Arytenoid cartilage B) Cuneiform cartilage C) Cricoid cartilage D) True vocal cord E) Corniculate cartilage F) Thyroid cartilage G) False vocal fold ANS: D
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Figure 22.1D Structures of the respiratory system: bronchiole and alveolar sac. 58. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 1.
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A) Primary bronchus B) Terminal bronchiole C) Secondary bronchus D) Bronchiole E) Respiratory bronchiole F) Alveolar duct G) Tertiary bronchus ANS: B
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59. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 2. A) Terminal bronchiole B) Respiratory bronchiole C) Pulmonary venule D) Lymphatic vessel E) Pulmonary arteriole F) Pulmonary capillary beds G) Nerve ANS: G
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60. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 3. A) Pulmonary venule B) Pulmonary capillary beds C) Respiratory bronchiole D) Pulmonary arteriole E) Terminal bronchiole TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Nerve G) Lymphatic vessel ANS: D
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61. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 4. A) Alveoli B) Connective tissue C) Elastic fibers D) Alveolar sac E) Pulmonary capillary beds F) Alveolar duct G) Visceral pleura ANS: C
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62. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 5. A) Pulmonary venule B) Terminal bronchiole C) Lymphatic vessel D) Pulmonary arteriole E) Pulmonary capillary beds F) Respiratory bronchiole G) Nerve
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ANS: A
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63. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 6. A) Bronchiole B) Smooth muscle C) Nerve D) Visceral pleura E) Parietal pleura F) Connective tissue G) Lymphatic vessel ANS: F
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64. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 7. A) Parietal pleura B) Parietal pericardium C) Pleural cavity D) Visceral pericardium E) Visceral pleura F) Connective tissue G) Alveoli ANS: E
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65. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 8. A) Nerve B) Pulmonary venule C) Respiratory bronchioleTESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Pulmonary arteriole E) Terminal bronchiole F) Pulmonary capillary beds G) Lymphatic vessel ANS: F
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66. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 9. A) Pulmonary venule B) Alveoli C) Elastic fibers D) Alveolar sac E) Alveolar duct F) Pulmonary capillary beds G) Connective tissue ANS: B
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67. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 10. A) Smooth muscle B) Respiratory bronchiole C) Pulmonary capillary beds D) Bronchiole E) Terminal bronchiole
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F) Pulmonary venule G) Pulmonary arteriole ANS: D
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68. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 11. A) Bronchiole B) Pulmonary arteriole C) Terminal bronchiole D) Pulmonary venule E) Respiratory bronchiole F) Elastic fibers G) Smooth muscle ANS: G
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69. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 12. A) Terminal bronchiole B) Lymphatic vessel C) Pulmonary arteriole D) Pulmonary venule E) Nerve F) Respiratory bronchiole G) Pulmonary capillary beds ANS: B
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70. In Figure 22.1D, identify number TESTB13. ANKSELLER.COM A) Respiratory bronchiole B) Alveolar duct C) Bronchiole D) Pulmonary capillary beds E) Pulmonary arteriole F) Terminal bronchiole G) Pulmonary venule ANS: A
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71. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 14. A) Alveoli B) Bronchiole C) Respiratory bronchiole D) Alveolar duct E) Terminal bronchiole F) Bronchiole G) Alveolar sac ANS: D
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72. In Figure 22.1D, identify number 15. A) Connective tissue B) Alveolar duct
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C) Elastic fibers D) Alveoli E) Pulmonary capillary beds F) Alveolar sac G) Respiratory bronchiole ANS: F
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Figure 22.12A Respiratory structures: anatomy of the lungs and respiratory tract. 73. In Figure 22.12A, identify number 1. A) Right primary bronchus TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Left primary bronchus C) Pleural cavity D) Oblique fissure E) Secondary bronchi F) Horizontal fissure ANS: A
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74. In Figure 22.12A, identify number 2. A) Right primary bronchus B) Left primary bronchus C) Pleural cavity D) Oblique fissure E) Secondary bronchi F) Horizontal fissure ANS: F
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75. In Figure 22.12A, identify number 3. A) Horizontal fissure B) Oblique fissure C) Left primary bronchus D) Pleural cavity E) Right primary bronchus
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F) Secondary bronchus ANS: D
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76. In Figure 22.12A, identify number 4. A) Right primary bronchus B) Horizontal fissure C) Pleural cavity D) Oblique fissure E) Left primary bronchus F) Secondary bronchus ANS: E
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77. In Figure 22.12A, identify number 5. A) Horizontal fissure B) Oblique fissure C) Left primary bronchi D) Pleural cavity E) Right primary bronchi F) Secondary bronchi ANS: F
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78. In Figure 22.12A, identify number 6. A) Horizontal fissure B) Oblique fissure C) Left primary bronchi TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Pleural cavity E) Right primary bronchi F) Secondary bronchi ANS: B
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Figure 22.12B Respiratory structures: the larynx, anterior view. 79. In Figure 22.12B, identify number 1.
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A) Cricoid cartilage B) Cricothyroid ligament C) Cuneiform cartilage D) Epiglottis E) Hyoid bone F) Thyroid cartilage G) Trachea ANS: E
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80. In Figure 22.12B, identify number 2. A) Trachea B) Thyroid cartilage C) Cuneiform cartilage D) Epiglottis E) Hyoid bone F) Cricoid cartilage G) Cricothyroid ligament ANS: D
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81. In Figure 22.12B, identify number 3. A) Trachea B) Thyroid cartilage C) Cricothyroid ligament D) Epiglottis E) Hyoid bone F) Cuneiform cartilage TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Cricoid cartilage ANS: B
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82. In Figure 22.12B, identify number 4. A) Thyroid cartilage B) Trachea C) Cricothyroid ligament D) Cuneiform cartilage E) Hyoid bone F) Epiglottis G) Cricoid cartilage ANS: G
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Figure 22.13 Bronchiole and alveolar sac. 83. In Figure 22.13, identify number 1. A) Alveolar duct B) Lymphatic vessel C) Pulmonary arteriole D) Pulmonary capillaries TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Terminal bronchiole F) Respiratory bronchiole G) Pulmonary venule ANS: E
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84. In Figure 22.13, identify number 2. A) Pulmonary venule B) Alveolar duct C) Lymphatic vessel D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Terminal bronchiole F) Pulmonary capillaries G) Pulmonary arteriole ANS: G
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85. In Figure 22.13, identify number 3. A) Pulmonary capillaries B) Alveolar duct C) Pulmonary arteriole D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Terminal bronchiole F) Pulmonary venule
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G) Nerve ANS: F
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86. In Figure 22.13, identify number 4. A) Alveolar duct B) Pulmonary capillaries C) Alveolus D) Pulmonary arteriole E) Alveolar sac F) Pulmonary venule G) Elastic fibers ANS: B
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87. In Figure 22.13, identify number 5. A) Terminal bronchiole B) Alveoli C) Elastic fibers D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Alveolar sac F) Pulmonary capillaries G) Alveolar duct ANS: B
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88. In Figure 22.13, identify number 6. A) Pulmonary capillaries TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Pulmonary arteriole C) Terminal bronchiole D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Alveolar duct F) Pulmonary venule G) Lymphatic vessel ANS: D
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89. In Figure 22.13, identify number 7. A) Alveolar duct B) Pulmonary arteriole C) Terminal bronchiole D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Alveolar sac F) Pulmonary venule G) Pulmonary capillaries ANS: A
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90. In Figure 22.13, identify number 8. A) Terminal bronchiole B) Pulmonary arteriole C) Pulmonary venule
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D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Alveolar sac F) Pulmonary capillaries G) Alveolar duct ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
Figure 22.14 Midsagittal section of the head and neck. 91. In Figure 22.14, identify number 1. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Nasal cavity D) Larynx E) Laryngopharynx F) Nasal conchae ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
92. In Figure 22.14, identify number 2. A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Nasal cavity D) Larynx E) Laryngopharynx F) Nasal conchae ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
93. In Figure 22.14, identify number 3. A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Nasal cavity D) Larynx
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E) Laryngopharynx F) Nasal conchae ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
94. In Figure 22.14, identify number 4. A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Nasal cavity D) Larynx E) Laryngopharynx F) Nasal conchae ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
95. In Figure 22.14, identify number 5. A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx C) Nasal cavity D) Larynx E) Laryngopharynx F) Nasal conchae ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
96. In Figure 22.14, identify number 6. A) Nasopharynx B) Oropharynx TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Nasal cavity D) Larynx E) Laryngopharynx F) Nasal conchae ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
97. Which is the proper order of the structures of the respiratory tract? The structure that comes
into contact with oxygenated air first should be first, and the structures where gas exchange takes place should be last. A) Oropharynx, trachea, nasal cavity, bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolar sac, larynx, nasopharynx, bronchi, terminal bronchiole, laryngopharynx, respiratory bronchiole. B) Nasal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, laryngopharynx, trachea, bronchiole, terminal bronchiole, respiratory bronchiole, bronchi, alveolar duct, alveolar sac. C) Nasal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchiole, terminal bronchiole, respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, alveolar sac. D) Nasopharynx, nasal cavity, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea, respiratory bronchiole, terminal bronchiole, bronchiole, bronchi, alveolar duct, alveolar sac. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
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98. The structure that seals off the nasopharynx during swallowing is called the A) uvula. B) false vocal cord. C) true vocal cord. D) epiglottis. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
99. The first passages of the respiratory zone, which have alveoli in their walls, are called A) terminal bronchioles. B) respiratory bronchioles. C) alveolar ducts. D) alveolar sacs. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
100. Respiratory epithelium is best defined as A) simple squamous epithelium with goblet cells. B) stratified squamous epithelium without goblet cells. C) ciliated simple columnar epithelium without goblet cells. D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
101. What takes place across the respiratory membrane? A) Inhaled air is warmed, filtered, and humidified. B) Oxygen diffuses from the air in the alveolus across the respiratory membrane into
the blood in the pulmonary capillary. TEST BANKSELLER.COM C) Carbon dioxide from the blood in the pulmonary capillary diffuses across the respiratory membrane into the air in the alveolus. D) B and C ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
102. Which of the following is not a trend we find within the respiratory tract? A) The epithelium gets progressively shorter in the lower passages. B) The amount of hyaline cartilage gradually increases as we move to smaller
passages. C) The amount of smooth muscle increases in the smaller passages. D) The amount of elastic fibers increases in the smaller passages. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
103. Where is the pleural cavity located? What is its function? ANS:
The pleural cavity is located between the parietal and visceral pleurae. The pleural fluid helps to reduce friction during inspiration. It also creates a slight vacuum effect that keeps the lungs partially inflated during expiration. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Recall
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104. Certain viral or bacterial infections can cause inflammation of the epiglottis, a condition
known as epiglottitis, which is considered a medical or surgical emergency. Why do you think epiglottitis is so dangerous? ANS:
The epiglottis is the superior part of the larynx that closes off the larynx during swallowing. When it is inflamed, it can block off the larynx when not swallowing, preventing a person from breathing. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
105. The condition pulmonary edema, in which fluid collects around alveoli, increases the
thickness of the respiratory membrane. Predict the effect this would have on the efficiency of gas exchange. Explain your reasoning. ANS:
Efficient gas exchange depends upon the presence of an extremely thin respiratory membrane. Anything that increases the thickness of the respiratory membrane increases the distance that gases must diffuse, which makes gas exchange much less efficient. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
106. When a patient has a procedure called a tracheostomy, a hole is cut into the trachea and a tube
is inserted through which the patient breathes. This allows the air to bypass the upper respiratory tract and enter the trachea directly. Could this have potential negative consequences for the patient? Explain. (Hint: Consider the function of the nasal cavity and other upper airways.) TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS:
Normally much of the debris and pathogenic material that we inhale is filtered out in the nasal cavity by the turbulent air flow, the vibrissae, and the cilia-lined mucus membrane. When air bypasses the nasal cavity and other parts of the upper respiratory tract, it will have more debris and potential pathogens, increasing the potential for infection and obstructions. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
107. A pulmonary embolus is a piece of a blood clot, adipose tissue, or other substance that lodges
somewhere in the pulmonary circuit. Henry has a pulmonary embolus lodged in one of his pulmonary arterioles. Trace the pathway of blood flow from his inferior vena cava to the pulmonary arteriole where the embolus is lodged. ANS:
Inferior vena cava --> right atrium --> right ventricle --> pulmonary trunk --> pulmonary artery --> pulmonary arteriole PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
108. How will the embolus affect gas exchange in Henry's pulmonary capillaries? Be specific. ANS:
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The embolus will decrease the perfusion to pulmonary capillaries and so decrease the amount of gas exchange that can take place. This will lead to decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide in the blood. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
109. Explain how the epithelium in the nasal cavity is adapted so its form follows its function. ANS:
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium; cilia and goblet cells filter the inspired air and remove debris; the taller epithelium provides some protection from abrasion PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
110. Explain how the epithelium in the bronchiole is adapted so its form follows its function. ANS:
simple columnar to cuboidal epithelium with few goblet cells and no cilia; by the time the air reaches the bronchioles, the vast majority of dust and debris has been removed from the air, so few goblet cells (and no cilia) are needed to produce mucus. Also, the epithelium gets progressively shorter, reflecting the fact that the passage itself is getting progressively smaller. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
111. Explain how the epithelium in the alveolus is adapted so its form follows its function. ANS:
TEwith STBno ANgoblet KSELcells; LERthe .Csquamous OM simple squamous epithelium cells are very thin to facilitate diffusion of gases PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
112. Cilia lining the nasal cavity and nasopharynx beat in unison to propel mucus and debris
inferiorly. Cilia lining the respiratory tract inferior to the true vocal cords beat in unison to propel mucus and debris superiorly. Explain the reason for this functional difference. ANS:
Cilia in the nasal cavity and nasopharynx propel mucus and debris inferiorly so that it may be swallowed. Cilia inferior to the vocal cords propel mucus and debris superiorly to brush it out of the nasal cavity and into the laryngopharynx where it can move down into the esophagus. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
113. You have just performed an emergency cricothyroidotomy and inserted an endotracheal tube.
Your partner has begun ventilating the patient, when you notice that only the right side of the patient's chest is rising and falling with each breath. When you auscultate the patient's chest, you hear breath sounds in the right lung, but not the left lung. What has likely happened during the procedure? How can the mistake be fixed? ANS:
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The endotracheal tube has likely gone down into the right primary bronchus. The mistake can be fixed by simply backing the tube out slightly so that it sits in the trachea instead of the right primary bronchus. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 22 Check Your Understanding
114. Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperventilation? A) Low pH B) High pH C) Anxiety D) High carbon dioxide ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
115. Which of the following is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere? A) Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide C) Argon D) Nitrogen ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
116. Structures that are part of the respiratory zone include the __________. A) terminal bronchioles B) respiratory bronchioles C) alveolar ducts TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
117. Which of the following has a respiratory function? A) Olfactory mucosa B) Adenoids C) Vibrissae D) Auditory tubes ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
118. Which structure is associated with the production of speech? A) Glottis B) Arytenoid cartilage C) Pharynx D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
119. The skeleton of the external nose consists of ________________. A) cartilage and bone
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B) bone only C) hyaline cartilage only D) elastic cartilage only ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
120. Which of the following is not part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system? A) Pharynx B) Alveolar sac C) Trachea D) Lobar bronchi ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
121. The mucous sheets that cover the inner surface of the nasal cavity and bronchi are secreted by
which cells? A) Serous cells in the tubuloacinar glands B) Mucous cells in the tubuloacinar glands and epithelial goblet cells C) Ciliated cells D) Alveolar type II cells ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
122. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the true vocal cords? A) They are the same as the vocal folds. TESTcartilages BANKSEvia LLthe ERvocal .COM B) They attach to the arytenoid ligaments. C) Exhaled air flowing through the glottis vibrates them to produce the sound. D) They are also called vestibular folds. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
123. Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the respiratory system? A) Producing sound B) Producing a large surface area for gas exchange C) Removing carbon dioxide from the blood D) Processing olfactory stimuli E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
124. There are __________ lobes in the right lung and __________ lobes in the left lung. A) four; two B) three; two C) five; three D) four; three E) None of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF: Hard
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TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions 125. Which statement is FALSE with regard to the pleura? A) The pleural membrane consists of two layers called the visceral and parietal pleura. B) The pleural pressure will rise above the intrapulmonary during forceful inspiration. C) The pleural fluid provides lubrication to the lungs and decreases the friction with
movement. D) A procedure called a thoracentesis allows a physician to examine the pleural fluid. E) B and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
126. Put the following structures in order: (1) Bronchiole, (2) Respiratory bronchiole, (3) Primary
bronchus, (4) Tertiary bronchus, (5) Secondary bronchus, and (6) Alveoli. A) 5, 4, 1, 2, 6, 3 B) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6 C) 3, 5, 6, 1, 2, 4 D) 3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2 E) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2, 6 ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
127. Alveolar capillaries are primary sources of ______________. A) antidiuretic hormone B) angiotensin-converting enzyme C) insulin TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) All of the above E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
128. Surfactant ______________. A) makes breathing more difficult B) increases surface tension C) decreases surface tension D) has no effect on surface tension E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
129. The walls of the primary, secondary, and tertiary bronchi contain progressively ______
cartilage and ________ smooth muscle. A) more; more B) less; more C) less; less D) more; less E) None of the above
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
130. An alveolar sac ______________. A) is an alveolus B) relates to an alveolus like a bunch of grapes relates to one grape C) is a huge, saclike alveolus in an emphysema patient D) is the same as the alveolar duct E) B and D ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
131. Sympathetic stimulation leads to ______ of the bronchiole. A) no change B) dilation C) increased resistance D) constriction E) A and B ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
132. Parasympathetic stimulation leads to __________ of the bronchioles. A) no change B) dilation C) constriction D) resistance TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) A and D ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
133. Which of the following is part of the upper respiratory tract? A) Lungs B) Trachea C) Bronchi D) Pharynx ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
134. The internal nares open into the _____. A) trachea B) nasopharynx C) oropharynx D) nasal cavity ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
135. The olfactory nerves pass through openings in the _____. A) vomer
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B) cribriform plate C) superior conchae D) nasal septum ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
136. Most of the respiratory passage surface is lined with _____ epithelium. A) pseudostratified B) cuboidal C) simple squamous D) simple stratified ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
137. The tissue lining the alveoli is _____ epithelium. A) pseudostratified columnar B) cuboidal C) simple squamous D) stratified squamous ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
138. How many alveoli are there in the lungs of an average adult? A) 100,000 B) 1,000,000 TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) 300,000,000 D) 50,000 ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
139. Gas is exchanged in the alveoli by a process of _____. A) simple diffusion B) active transport C) facilitated diffusion D) filtration ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
140. What is the entrance into the lungs called? A) Carina B) Apex C) Lobule D) Hilus ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
141. The pleural cavity is the space between the lung and the _____.
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A) visceral pleura B) thoracic wall C) parietal pleura D) mediastinum ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
142. Which of these is NOT a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? A) Emphysema B) Asthma C) Lung cancer D) Bronchitis ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
143. Which mechanism prevents overinflation of the lungs? A) Surfactant secretion B) Blood pH levels C) Chemoreceptor reflexes D) Hering-Breuer reflex ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 22 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 23 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines pulmonary ventilation? A) Measures the volume of air exchanged with each inhalation and exhalation;
includes TV, ERV, IRV, and RV B) The physical movement of air into and out of the lungs C) The force exerted by the weight of air in the atmosphere D) Expelling of air from the lungs ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines pulmonary gas exchange? A) The diffusion of gases across the respiratory membrane B) Continual process of growth and replication of gas exchange C) The diffusion of gases between the blood and the tissues D) Basic respiratory processes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines gas transport? A) The force exerted by the weight of the air within the lungs B) The physical movement of air into and out of the lungs C) Movement of air into the lungs D) The movement of gases through the blood ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBA NKSELLdefines ER.Ctissue OM gas exchange? 4. Which of the following statements accurately A) An increase in the rate and depth of ventilation B) The sum of two or more respiratory volumes C) The diffusion of gases between the blood and the tissues D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines inspiration? A) The force exerted by the weight of the air within the lungs B) Movement of air into the lungs C) Passageways smaller than 0.5 mm in diameter that control airflow to the structures
for gas exchange D) Two or more layers of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines expiration? A) Found as part of the basement membrane and in the walls of hollow organs B) System by which carbonic acid and bicarbonate buffer the blood and resist changes
in pH C) An electrical impulse conducted along the neuron membrane to control gas
exchange D) Expelling of air from the lungs
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines Boyle's law? A) Principle stating that the pressure and volume of a container are inversely
proportional—as pressure increases, volume decreases, and vice versa B) System by which carbonic acid and bicarbonate buffer the blood and resist changes
in pH C) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the dark purple stain hematoxylin; least numerous of the leukocytes D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines intrapulmonary pressure? A) The force exerted by the weight of air in the atmosphere B) The force exerted by the weight of the air within the lungs C) Series of membranes that maintain structure in the lungs throughout the gas
exchange process D) Site of lipid and cholesterol synthesis and metabolism; drug and toxin detoxification ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines atmospheric pressure? A) The force exerted by the weight of the air within the lungs B) An increase in the rate and depth of ventilation C) A decrease in the rate and depth of ventilation TEweight STBAof NKairSEinLthe LEatmosphere R.COM D) The force exerted by the ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines spirometer? A) Laboratory device used to measure respiratory volumes B) Chemicals produced from fatty acid oxidation found in the urine when fatty acids
are rapidly catabolized C) An instrument measuring atmospheric pressure D) A thick protein fiber composed of the protein collagen; gives a tissue tensile
strength ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines respiratory volume? A) Measures of the volumes of air exchanged with quiet and forced inhalation and
exhalation B) The sum of two or more respiratory volumes C) Includes TV, ERV, IRV, and RV D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines respiratory capacity? A) The sum of two or more respiratory volumes
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B) Gas transport and external respiration terms C) Basic respiratory processes D) The force exerted by the weight of the air within the lungs ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer
system? A) System by which carbonic acid and bicarbonate buffer the blood and resist changes in pH B) Region between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane that contains the cytosol and organelles C) Principle stating that the pressure and volume of a container are inversely proportional D) None of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines carbonic anhydrase? A) Catalyzes the reverse reaction B) An electrical impulse conducted along the neuron membrane C) Enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of water and carbon dioxide into carbonic
acid D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately TESTBA NKSELLdefines ER.Chyperventilation? OM A) Catalyzes the reverse reaction B) An increase in the rate and depth of ventilation C) Enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of water and carbon dioxide into carbonic
acid D) A decrease in the rate and depth of ventilation ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines hypoventilation? A) Catalyzes the reverse reaction B) An increase in the rate and depth of ventilation C) Urinalysis measurement of the concentration of specific waste products D) A decrease in the rate and depth of ventilation ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 23.1 Respiratory volumes and capacities. 17. In Figure 23.1, identify number 1. A) Expiration B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Functional residual capacity D) Inspiratory capacity E) Inspiratory reserve volume F) Tidal volume G) Total lung capacity TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. In Figure 23.1, identify number 2. A) End of record B) Expiration C) Expiratory reserve volume D) Inspiration E) Inspiratory reserve volume F) Start of record G) Tidal volume ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. In Figure 23.1, identify number 3. A) Expiration B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Functional residual capacity D) Inspiration E) Inspiratory reserve volume F) Residual volume G) Tidal volume ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
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20. In Figure 23.1, identify number 4. A) Expiration B) Functional residual capacity C) Inspiratory capacity D) Inspiratory reserve volume E) Residual volume F) Tidal volume G) Vital capacity ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 23.1, identify number 5. A) End of record B) Expiration C) Expiratory reserve volume D) Functional residual capacity E) Inspiratory reserve volume F) Residual volume G) Start of record ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 23.1, identify number 6. A) End of record B) Expiration C) Functional residual capacity TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Inspiration E) Residual volume F) Start of record G) Tidal volume ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 23.1, identify number 7. A) End of record B) Expiration C) Inspiration D) Inspiratory capacity E) Residual volume F) Start of record G) Vital capacity ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 23.1, identify number 8. A) End of record B) Expiration C) Functional residual capacity D) Inspiration E) Inspiratory reserve volume
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F) Start of record G) Tidal volume ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 23.1, identify number 9. A) Expiratory reserve volume B) Functional residual capacity C) Inspiratory capacity D) Inspiratory reserve volume E) Start of record F) Total lung capacity G) Vital capacity ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 23.1, identify number 10. A) Expiratory reserve volume B) Functional residual capacity C) Inspiratory capacity D) Inspiratory reserve volume E) Residual volume F) Total lung capacity G) Vital capacity ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 23.1, identify number TEST11. BANKSELLER.COM A) Expiratory reserve volume B) Functional residual capacity C) Inspiratory capacity D) Start of record E) Tidal volume F) Total lung capacity G) Vital capacity ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 23.1, identify number 12. A) End of record B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Functional residual capacity D) Inspiratory capacity E) Start of record F) Total lung capacity G) Vital capacity ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. Pulmonary ventilation is best defined as A) the movement of gases across the respiratory membrane. B) the exchange of gases between the blood in the systemic capillaries and the tissues.
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C) the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs. D) the movement of gases through the blood. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
30. How are pressure and volume related, according to Boyle's law? A) As the volume of a container decreases, its pressure increases. B) As the volume of a container increases, its pressure decreases. C) As the volume of a container decreases, its pressure decreases. D) As the volume of a container increases, its pressure increases. E) Both A and B ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
31. Air moves out of the lungs when A) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. C) blood pressure is greater than intrapulmonary pressure. D) blood pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
32. Passive expiration is achieved primarily by the A) contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. B) decrease in intrapulmonary pressure. C) increase in atmospheric pressure. D) elastic recoil of the lungs. ANS: D
ELLE R.23 COCheck M Your Recall PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit
33. What phrase most accurately defines total lung capacity? A) Volume of air in the lungs after a tidal expiration B) Total amount of exchangeable and nonexchangeable air in the lungs C) Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled with a forced inspiration D) Maximum amount of exchangeable air that can be ventilated with forced
inspiration and expiration ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
34. What phrase most accurately defines residual volume? A) Volume of air forcibly expired after a tidal expiration B) Volume of air forcibly inspired after a tidal inspiration C) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration D) Volume of air exchanged with normal, quiet breathing ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
35. What phrase most accurately defines functional residual capacity? A) Volume of air in the lungs after a tidal expiration B) Total amount of exchangeable and nonexchangeable air in the lungs C) Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled with a forced inspiration D) Maximum amount of exchangeable air that can be ventilated with forced
inspiration and expiration
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
36. What phrase most accurately defines vital capacity? A) Volume of air in the lungs after a tidal expiration B) Total amount of exchangeable and nonexchangeable air in the lungs C) Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled with a forced inspiration D) Maximum amount of exchangeable air that can be ventilated with forced
inspiration and expiration ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
37. What phrase most accurately defines inspiratory reserve volume? A) Volume of air forcibly expired after a tidal expiration B) Volume of air forcibly inspired after a tidal inspiration C) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration D) Volume of air exchanged with normal, quiet breathing ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
38. What phrase most accurately defines tidal volume? A) Volume of air forcibly expired after a tidal expiration B) Volume of air forcibly inspired after a tidal inspiration C) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration D) Volume of air exchanged with normal, quiet breathing ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
TEdefines STBANinspiratory KSELLER .COM 39. What phrase most accurately capacity? A) Volume of air in the lungs after a tidal expiration B) Total amount of exchangeable and nonexchangeable air in the lungs C) Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled with a forced inspiration D) Maximum amount of exchangeable air that can be ventilated with forced inspiration and expiration ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
40. What phrase most accurately defines expiratory reserve volume? A) Volume of air forcibly expired after a tidal expiration B) Volume of air forcibly inspired after a tidal inspiration C) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration D) Volume of air exchanged with normal, quiet breathing ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
41. A restrictive disease generally causes difficulty with ____________ , whereas an obstructive
disease generally causes difficulty with ____________ . A) expiration; respiration B) inspiration; expiration C) expiration; inspiration D) respiration; inspiration ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
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42. What is the inspiratory capacity for a patient with the following respiratory volumes?
Tidal Volume: 550 mL Expiratory Reserve Volume: 1,200 mL Inspiratory Reserve Volume: 2,100 mL Residual Volume: 1,100 mL A) 2,750 mL B) 2,650 mL C) 4,550 mL D) 3,450 mL ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
43. What is the vital capacity for a patient with the following respiratory volumes?
Tidal Volume: 550 mL Expiratory Reserve Volume: 1,200 mL Inspiratory Reserve Volume: 2,100 mL Residual Volume: 1,100 mL A) 3,850 mL B) 5,150 mL C) 4,550 mL D) 3,450 mL ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
44. What is the total lung capacity for a patient with the following respiratory volumes?
Tidal Volume: 550 mL TE1,200 STBA NKSELLER.COM Expiratory Reserve Volume: mL Inspiratory Reserve Volume: 2,100 mL Residual Volume: 1,100 mL A) 5,750 mL B) 4,950 mL C) 4,550 mL D) 3,450 mL ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
45. Carbon dioxide is transported through the blood primarily as A) dissolved gas. B) bicarbonate. C) carbonic anhydrase. D) carbaminohemoglobin. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
46. The enzyme that converts carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid is called A) bicarbonate dehydrogenase. B) adenosine deaminase. C) carbonic anhydrase. D) hemoglobin carboxylase. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
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47. True or False? Hyperventilation causes a retention of carbon dioxide and an increase in the
hydrogen ion concentration of the blood. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
48. True or False? When the pH of the blood falls (i.e., the blood becomes more acidic), a
negative feedback loop is triggered that increases the rate and depth of ventilation to remove carbon dioxide from the blood. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
49. True or False? The two main muscles of inspiration are the diaphragm muscle and internal
intercostal muscles. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
50. True or False? The muscles of inspiration increase the pressure inside of the lungs above
atmospheric pressure in order to cause inspiration. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Recall
51. The condition pulmonary fibrosis is caused by the replacement of elastic fibers in the lung
with inelastic collagen fibers, which decreases the lungs' distensibility (the ability to stretch outward). Would pulmonary fibrosis make inspiration or expiration difficult? Explain. ANS:
TEaffects STBAN KSELLEas R.the COlungs M are unable to stretch and Pulmonary fibrosis primarily inspiration, sufficiently increase pulmonary volume. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
52. Certain chest deformities prevent normal expansion of the chest. Explain why this makes
ventilation difficult in terms of pressure and volume. ANS:
Expansion of the chest is required to increase the volume of the lungs and decrease their pressure below the level of atmospheric pressure. If the chest is unable to expand adequately, it will be very difficult for the inspiratory muscles to increase the lungs' volume enough to produce a deep breath. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
53. A male patient presents with the following respiratory volumes and capacities: TV = 500 mL,
ERV = 600 mL, IRV = 2,700 mL. What is this patient's VC? Are these values normal? If not, are they more consistent with an obstructive or restrictive disease pattern? Explain. ANS:
This patient's VC is 3,800 mL, lower than normal for males. Tidal volume is normal but VC and ERV are much lower than normal, and IRV is slightly lower than normal. This is consistent with an obstructive disease pattern because the ERV is greatly diminished.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
54. The condition influenza is caused by a virus that infects the epithelium of the respiratory tract.
The virus can cause severe inflammation of the airways, death of the epithelial cells, and excess secretion of mucus. Is influenza likely to show an obstructive disease pattern or a restrictive disease pattern? Predict the values you would expect to see on spirometry for a patient with influenza. ANS:
Influenza is an obstructive disease because all airway inflammation and excess mucus obstruct airflow through the respiratory tract. One would expect to see a decreased ERV and VC and an increased RV and FRC with patients who have influenza. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
55. A patient with influenza will have decreased pulmonary gas exchange occurring in the alveoli.
What effect is this likely to have on the pH of a patient's blood? Explain. ANS:
The decreased pulmonary gas exchange will lead to a retention of carbon dioxide, which will lower the pH of the blood and cause respiratory acidosis. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
56. Leda presents after an episode of food poisoning that caused prolonged vomiting. You notice
during the exam that her respiratory rate is fairly low at 8 breaths per minute. You run some TEof STher BAblood NKSE LER.COMalkaline (basic), a condition called lab tests and find that the pH isLabnormally metabolic alkalosis. Are her respiratory rate and blood pH related? If so, how and why? ANS:
Her respiratory rate is low because her respiratory centers are attempting to compensate for the elevated pH of her blood. Hypoventilating will cause retention of carbon dioxide, which will decrease the pH of the blood, possibly back to the normal value. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
57. Why does the ventilatory rate increase during exercise? ANS:
There are many reasons the ventilatory rate increases during exercise. One of the primary reasons is the production of more carbon dioxide. This decreases the pH of the blood, which triggers centers in the brain to increase the rate of ventilation to blow off the excess carbon dioxide and restore the blood pH. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 23 Check Your Understanding
58. What is the normal PCO2 of the venous blood? A) 0.05 mmHg B) 45 mmHg C) 40 mmHg
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D) 104 mmHg ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
59. The primary force responsible for air moving into the lungs during inhalation is
_________________. A) atmospheric pressure B) molecular contraction C) reduced surface tension inside the lungs D) muscular relaxation ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
60. Which of the following is NOT a property of the mucous lining of the respiratory tract? A) Warms incoming air B) Contains microvilli C) Contains cilia D) Traps particles ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
61. The main function of the pleural membranes is to _____. A) maintain pressure B) increase thoracic pressure C) remove foreign particles TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) reduce friction ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
62. The movement of air within the respiratory system is correctly referred to as _____. A) breathing B) inhalation C) exhalation D) ventilation ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
63. During inspiration, the intra-alveolar pressure reaches _____. A) 760 mmHg B) 759 mmHg C) 761 mmHg D) 0 ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
64. The amount of air that cannot be expelled is known as the _____. A) total lung capacity
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B) expiratory reserve volume C) functional residual capacity D) residual volume ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
65. The total amount of inspired air that cannot be exchanged because it cannot reach the aveoli is
known as the _____. A) anatomical dead space B) physiological dead space C) residual volume D) functional reserve capacity ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
66. Disorders classified as COPD include ____________________________. A) pneumonia B) emphysema C) bronchitis D) sleep apnea E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
67. An increase in blood flow rate through the pulmonary capillaries so that blood is in the
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capillaries for about 0.5 second instead of 0.75 second ____________. A) decreases the rate of oxygenation B) reduces oxygenation of the blood C) does not change the level of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin D) increases the rate of oxygen diffusion E) decreases the rate of oxygen diffusion ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
68. Relatively high alveolar PO2 coupled with low PCO2 triggers ____________. A) dilation of the supplying bronchiole B) constriction of the supplying bronchiole C) dilation of the supplying arteriole D) constriction of the supplying arteriole E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
69. In blood flowing through systemic veins of a person at rest, the ____________. A) hemoglobin is about 75% saturated B) blood is carrying about 20% oxygen C) Bohr effect has reduced hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen
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D) average hemoglobin molecule is carrying two oxygen molecules E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
70. Which of the following is TRUE concerning CO2 transport in systemic venous blood in an
exercising person? A) The level of bicarbonate ion is higher than resting values. B) Because of the Haldane effect, the amount of carbaminohemoglobin is increased. C) The pH of the blood is higher. D) The chloride shift is greater. E) A, B, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
71. Which of the following stimulates inspiration? A) Dorsal respiratory group B) Lung irritant receptors C) Lung stretch receptors D) Medullary chemoreceptors E) A and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
72. The factor that has the greatest effect on the medullary chemoreceptors is _______________. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) acute hypercapnia B) hypoxia C) chronic hypercapnia D) arterial pH E) B and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
73. Adjustment in high altitude includes ____________. A) an increase in minute respiratory volume B) hyposecretion of erythropoietin C) dyspnea D) an increase in hemoglobin saturation E) A and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
74. Arrested development of the respiratory system during the fifth week affects formation of the
__________________. A) olfactory placodes B) olfactory pits C) laryngotracheal bud
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D) stroma of lungs E) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
75. Compared with the interstitial fluid bathing active muscle fibers, blood in the arteries serving
those fibers has a ___________ content. A) higher PO2 B) higher PCO2 C) higher HCO D) higher H+ E) A and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
76. During inspiration, the intrapulmonary pressure is ______________. A) greater than the atmospheric pressure B) less than the atmospheric pressure C) greater than the intrapleural pressure D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
77. Lung collapse is prevented by __________. A) high surface tension of the alveolar fluid ESpleural TBANK SELLER.COM B) high surface tension ofTthe fluid C) negative intrapleural pressure D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
78. Accessory muscles of inspiration include the ______________. A) abdominal muscles B) scalene and pectoralis minor C) internal and external intercostals D) latissimus dorsi muscles ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
79. Vital capacity is reduced in which of the following disorders? A) Asthma B) Cystic fibrosis C) Kyphosis D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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80. What is the alveolar ventilation rate in a female with a tidal volume of 400 mL, a respiratory
rate of 20 breaths per minute, and a dead space volume? A) 8,000 mL/min. B) 5,200 mL/min. C) 10,800 mL/min. D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
81. Which of the following changes accompanies the loss of elasticity associated with aging? A) Increase in tidal volume B) Increase in the inspiratory reserve volume C) Increase in residual volume D) Increase in vital capacity ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
82. Pulmonary surfactant is a ________________. A) polar molecule B) hydrophobic molecule C) polysaccharide D) mixture of lipids and proteins ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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83. Resistance is increased by __________________. A) parasympathetic stimulation B) inflammatory chemicals C) contraction of the trachealis muscle D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
84. Adult hemoglobin has an oxygen affinity __________ that of fetal hemoglobin. A) lower than B) higher than C) equal to D) A and B ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
85. What percentage of carbon dioxide molecules is bound to hemoglobin? A) 80% B) 98% C) 50% D) 23% ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions 86. Because the partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs is greater than the partial pressure of
carbon dioxide in the lungs, __________ oxygen should dissolve in the blood __________. A) less; more rapidly B) more; more rapidly C) an equal amount of; rapidly D) less; less rapidly ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 23 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 24 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines alimentary canal
(gastrointestinal tract)? A) Exocrine and endocrine gland that sits posterior and inferior to the stomach; its exocrine functions are digestive whereas its endocrine functions are metabolic B) Organ located on the right side of the abdominal cavity consisting of four lobes C) An oval articular surface D) A passage extending from the mouth to the anus through which food travels as it is digested; it includes the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and intestines ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines accessory organ? A) Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, pancreas, and liver B) Organs that assist in mechanical or chemical digestion C) Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, and intestines D) Both A and B are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines peritoneal cavity? A) A cavity located between a double-layered serous membrane that secretes
serous fluid, allowing organs to slide over each other without friction; much of the alimentary canal and many accessory organs reside here B) Section of the large intestine containing four divisions (ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid TEcolon); STBAitNextends KSELLtoERthe .Crectum OM C) Exocrine and endocrine gland that sits posterior and inferior to the stomach; its exocrine functions are digestive whereas its endocrine functions are metabolic D) Sac-like organ located under the liver's right lobe that stores the liver's bile; when stimulated by certain hormones, it will contract and eject bile into the cystic duct to aid in digestion ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines gastroesophageal sphincter? A) Accessory organs around the mouth that secrete saliva, which contains substances
such as water, salivary amylase, antibodies, and lysozyme B) Ring of smooth muscle located between the pylorus of the stomach and the duodenum that controls passage of chyme into the small intestine C) Produces bile for digestion; detoxifies, processes, and eliminates toxins in blood before it enters circulation in body D) Ring of smooth muscle located at the inferior end of the esophagus that prevents contents of the stomach from regurgitating up into the esophagus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines pyloric sphincter? A) Accessory organs around the mouth that secrete saliva, which contains substances
such as water, salivary amylase, antibodies, and lysozyme B) Ring of smooth muscle located between the pylorus of the stomach and the
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duodenum that controls passage of chyme into the small intestine C) Produces bile for digestion; detoxifies, processes, and eliminates toxins in blood before it enters circulation in body D) Ring of smooth muscle located at the inferior end of the esophagus that prevents contents of the stomach from regurgitating up into the esophagus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines duodenum? A) Located between a double-layered serous membrane that secretes serous fluid,
allowing organs to slide over each other without friction B) Extracellular matrix surrounding muscle fibers C) First part of the small intestine D) Last part of the small intestine ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines jejunum? A) Middle part of the small intestine; between the duodenum and the ileum B) Last part of the small intestine C) First part of the small intestine D) Accessory organs around the mouth that secrete saliva ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines ileum? A) Section of the large intestine that contains four divisions B) Last part of the small intestine; the TESTBbetween ANKSEL LEjejunum R.COMof the small intestine and
the cecum of the large intestine
C) Produces bile for digestion; detoxifies, processes, and eliminates toxins in
blood before it enters circulation in body D) All of the above ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines colon? A) Organ located on the right side of the abdominal cavity consisting of four lobes;
produces bile for digestion; detoxifies, processes, and eliminates toxins in blood before it enters the general circulation in the body B) Hexagonal plates of cells that have a vein in the center of each lobule that eventually drains into hepatic veins C) Section of the large intestine that contains four divisions (ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon); it extends to the rectum D) Outer connective tissue layer partially composed of the visceral peritoneum found throughout much of the alimentary canal ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines salivary glands? A) Accessory organs around the mouth that secrete saliva, which contains substances
such as water, salivary amylase, antibodies, and lysozyme B) Projections from the tongue housing taste buds
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C) Small patch of tissue in the roof of the nasal cavity containing olfactory
receptor cells D) The senses of smell and taste ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines pancreas? A) Its exocrine functions are digestive whereas its endocrine functions are metabolic B) Composed of simple columnar epithelium overlying the lamina propria and a layer
of muscularis mucosa C) Exocrine and endocrine gland that sits posterior and inferior to the stomach D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines liver? A) Detoxifies, processes, and eliminates toxins in blood before it enters the general
circulation in the body B) Organ located on the right side of the abdominal cavity consisting of four lobes C) Produces bile for digestion D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines gallbladder? A) Sac-like organ located under the liver's right lobe that stores the liver's bile;
when stimulated by certain hormones, it will contract and eject bile into the cystic duct to aid in digestion TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Detoxifies, processes, and eliminates toxins in blood before it enters circulation in body C) Last part of the small intestine D) Organ located on the right side of the abdominal cavity consisting of four lobes ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines mucosa? A) The inner epithelial tissue lining of the alimentary canal that is composed of
simple columnar epithelium overlying the lamina propria and a layer of muscularis mucosa B) Outer connective tissue layer partially composed of the visceral peritoneum found throughout much of the alimentary canal C) Exocrine cells of the pancreas that produce and secrete pancreatic juice D) None of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines submucosa? A) Large, deep muscle composed of two parts in the pelvis and proximal thigh B) Posterior muscles over the buttock C) Layer of connective tissue deep to the mucosa that houses blood vessels, nerves,
lymphatics, and elastic fibers D) Hexagonal plates of cells that have a vein in the center of each lobule that
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eventually drains into hepatic veins ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines muscularis externa? A) Contains two layers of smooth muscle (inner circular and outer longitudinal) that
contract alternately producing rhythmic contractions of peristalsis B) Movement of a limb away from the midline of the body C) Light regions of the striations in muscle tissue that consist of thin filaments only D) Muscles whose tendons reinforce the abdomen ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines serosa? A) Enzymes produced by organs of the digestive system that catalyze reactions that
break food down chemically into smaller molecules B) The first step in the process of lipid digestion, it breaks up the fat globules into
smaller pieces with the help of bile salts C) Outer layer of organs of the alimentary canal that is partially composed of the
visceral peritoneum found throughout much of the alimentary canal D) Line consisting of different proteins that bisects the A band ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines acinar cells? A) Small structure that carries out many of the body's homeostatic functions B) Exocrine cells of the pancreas that produce and secrete pancreatic juice (i.e.,
digestive enzymes, bicarbonate, TESTBAand NKwater) SELLinto ER.ducts COM C) Pyramid-shaped structures of the renal medulla that contain portions of the nephron and collecting system D) Hairlike extensions from the plasma membrane that propel substances past the cell ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines pancreatic islet? A) Minor calyces drain urine from papillary ducts into major calyces, which drain
into the renal pelvis B) Endocrine cells of the pancreas that secrete hormones such as insulin into the bloodstream C) Functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and removing waste products from the blood D) Process by which the chemical bonds between food molecules are broken in chemical reactions ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines liver lobule? A) Hexagonal plates of cells that have a vein in the center of each lobule that
eventually drains into hepatic veins; at each lobule's six corners there are three vessels called portal triads B) Fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder that contains bile salts, amphipathic molecules that emulsify fats in the small intestine and aid in their
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digestion C) Blood vessels surrounding the components of the renal tubule that receive
substances reabsorbed from the renal tubule and collecting system D) Segment of the renal tubule consisting of a descending loop that dives into the
renal medulla and an ascending limb that travels back to the renal cortex ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines digestive enzyme? A) The first step in the process of lipid digestion B) Enzymes produced by organs of the digestive system that catalyze reactions that
break food down chemically into smaller molecules C) Breaks up the fat globules into smaller pieces with the help of bile salts D) Fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder that contains bile salts ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. Which of the following statements accurately defines chemical digestion? A) The process by which the nephron and collecting ducts remove substances from
the blood and add them to the filtrate B) A biological catalyst that speeds up a specific chemical reaction C) Process by which the chemical bonds between food molecules are broken in
chemical reactions D) Blood vessels surrounding the components of the renal tubule that receive
substances reabsorbed from the renal tubule and collecting system ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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23. Which of the following statements accurately defines emulsification? A) Organs that assist in mechanical or chemical digestion, including the teeth, tongue,
salivary glands, pancreas, and liver B) Functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and removing
waste products from the blood C) The glomerular endothelial cells, the basal lamina, and podocytes in the glomerulus that filter water, glucose, amino acids, electrolytes, and waste products out of the blood to become filtrate D) The first step in the process of lipid digestion, it breaks up the fat globules into smaller pieces with the help of bile salts ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. Which of the following statements accurately defines bile? A) Fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder that contains bile salts,
which are amphipathic molecules that emulsify fats in the small intestine and aid in their digestion B) Process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the proximal tubule C) The fluid that results after tubular reabsorption and secretion have taken place D) Chemicals produced from fatty acid oxidation found in the urine when fatty acids are rapidly catabolized ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 24.1 Anatomy of the digestive system. 25. In Figure 24.1, identify number 1. A) Larynx B) Oral cavity C) Parotid gland D) Haustra E) Sublingual gland F) Submandibular gland G) Tongue ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 24.1, identify number 2. A) Larynx B) Oral cavity C) Parotid gland D) Oropharynx E) Sublingual gland F) Submandibular gland G) Tongue ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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27. In Figure 24.1, identify number 3. A) Larynx B) Oral cavity C) Parotid gland D) Oropharynx E) Sublingual gland F) Submandibular gland G) Tongue ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 24.1, identify number 4. A) Larynx B) Esophagus C) Parotid gland D) Oropharynx E) Sublingual gland F) Submandibular gland G) Tongue ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 24.1, identify number 5. A) Duodenum B) Gallbladder C) Haustra D) Lesser omentum TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Pancreas F) Stomach G) Taeniae coli ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 24.1, identify number 6. A) Duodenum B) Gallbladder C) Haustra D) Liver E) Pancreas F) Stomach G) Taeniae coli ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 24.1, identify number 7. A) Cecum B) Duodenum C) Haustra D) Lesser omentum E) Liver F) Pharynx
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G) Taeniae coli ANS: B
PTS: 1
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32. In Figure 24.1, identify number 8. A) Duodenum B) Gallbladder C) Haustra D) Lesser omentum E) Parotid gland F) Stomach G) Taeniae coli ANS: C
PTS: 1
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33. In Figure 24.1, identify number 9. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Lesser omentum E) Sigmoid colon F) Taeniae coli G) Transverse colon ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 24.1, identify number 10. A) Ascending colon of large TEintestine STBANKSELLER.COM B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Lesser omentum E) Small intestine F) Taeniae coli G) Transverse colon ANS: F
PTS: 1
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35. In Figure 24.1, identify number 11. A) Cecum B) Small intestine C) Appendix D) Sigmoid colon E) Taeniae coli F) Rectum G) Descending colon ANS: A
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36. In Figure 24.1, identify number 12. A) Cecum B) Small intestine C) Appendix
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D) Sigmoid colon E) Taeniae coli F) Rectum G) Descending colon ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 24.1, identify number 13. A) Larynx B) Esophagus C) Oral cavity D) Sublingual gland E) Submandibular gland F) Oropharynx G) Parotid gland ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 24.1, identify number 14. A) Larynx B) Oropharynx C) Parotid gland D) Haustra E) Sublingual gland F) Submandibular gland G) Tongue ANS: B
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39. In Figure 24.1, identify number 15. A) Larynx B) Oral cavity C) Parotid gland D) Haustra E) Sublingual gland F) Submandibular gland G) Tongue ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 24.1, identify number 16. A) Duodenum B) Esophagus C) Gallbladder D) Pancreas E) Stomach F) Taeniae coli G) Transverse colon ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 24.1, identify number 17.
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A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Lesser omentum E) Sigmoid colon F) Small intestine G) Transverse colon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 24.1, identify number 18. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Haustra E) Sigmoid colon F) Stomach G) Transverse colon ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 24.1, identify number 19. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Pancreas E) Sigmoid colon TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Small intestine G) Transverse colon ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 24.1, identify number 20. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Pancreas E) Sigmoid colon F) Small intestine G) Transverse colon ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 24.1, identify number 21. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Pancreas E) Sigmoid colon F) Small intestine G) Transverse colon
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 24.1, identify number 22. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Rectum E) Sigmoid colon F) Small intestine G) Transverse colon ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 24.1, identify number 23. A) Ascending colon of large intestine B) Cecum C) Descending colon D) Pancreas E) Sigmoid colon F) Rectum G) Transverse colon ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 24.1, identify number 24. A) Cecum B) Small intestine TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Appendix D) Sigmoid colon E) Taeniae coli F) Rectum G) Descending colon ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 24.2 Structure of the stomach. 49. In Figure 24.2, identify number 1. A) Body B) Circular muscle layer C) Duodenum D) Esophagus E) Longitudinal muscle layer F) Oblique muscle layer G) Rugae TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 24.2, identify number 2. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Gastroesophageal sphincter E) Pyloric sphincter F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 24.2, identify number 3. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Oblique muscle layer E) Pylorus F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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52. In Figure 24.2, identify number 4. A) Circular muscle layer B) Fundus C) Longitudinal muscle layer D) Oblique muscle layer E) Pylorus F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 24.2, identify number 5. A) Circular muscle layer B) Fundus C) Greater curvature (lateral surface) D) Lesser curvature (medial surface) E) Longitudinal muscle layer F) Oblique muscle layer G) Pyloric antrum ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 24.2, identify number 6. A) Circular muscle layer B) Fundus C) Gastroesophageal sphincter TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Pyloric sphincter E) Pylorus F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: D
PTS: 1
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55. In Figure 24.2, identify number 7. A) Body B) Circular muscle layer C) Duodenum D) Lesser curvature (medial surface) E) Longitudinal muscle layer F) Oblique muscle layer G) Pyloric antrum ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 24.2, identify number 8. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Pyloric sphincter E) Pylorus
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F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: E
PTS: 1
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57. In Figure 24.2, identify number 9. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Pyloric sphincter E) Pylorus F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
58. In Figure 24.2, identify number 10. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Lesser curvature (medial surface) E) Pylorus F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae ANS: C
PTS: 1
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59. In Figure 24.2, identify number TEST11. BANKSELLER.COM A) Circular muscle layer B) Fundus C) Greater curvature (lateral surface) D) Longitudinal muscle layer E) Oblique muscle layer F) Pyloric sphincter G) Rugae ANS: A
PTS: 1
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60. In Figure 24.2, identify number 12. A) Body B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Greater curvature (lateral surface) E) Longitudinal muscle layer F) Oblique muscle layer G) Pylorus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
61. In Figure 24.2, identify number 13. A) Circular muscle layer B) Fundus
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C) Greater curvature (lateral surface) D) Lesser curvature (medial surface) E) Longitudinal muscle layer F) Oblique muscle layer G) Pylorus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
62. In Figure 24.2, identify number 14. A) Body B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Greater curvature (lateral surface) E) Lesser curvature (medial surface) F) Longitudinal muscle layer G) Oblique muscle layer ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
63. In Figure 24.2, identify number 15. A) Cardia B) Fundus C) Gastroesophageal sphincter D) Pyloric sphincter E) Pylorus F) Pyloric antrum G) Rugae
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
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Figure 24.3 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the small intestine. 64. In Figure 24.3, identify number 1. A) Brush border B) Enterocytes
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C) Intestinal crypt D) Microvilli E) Muscle layers F) Circular folds ANS: E
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65. In Figure 24.3, identify number 2. A) Brush border B) Lacteal C) Lumen D) Microvilli E) Circular folds F) Submucosa ANS: C
PTS: 1
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66. In Figure 24.3, identify number 3. A) Blood capillaries B) Brush border C) Intestinal crypt D) Lumen E) Circular folds F) Submucosa ANS: E
PTS: 1
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67. In Figure 24.3, identify number TEST4.BANKSELLER.COM A) Brush border B) Intestinal crypt C) Microvilli D) Muscle layers E) Submucosa F) Villi ANS: F
PTS: 1
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68. In Figure 24.3, identify number 5. A) Blood capillaries B) Intestinal crypt C) Lacteal D) Circular folds E) Submucosa F) Villi ANS: F
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 24.3, identify number 6. A) Blood capillaries B) Enterocytes C) Intestinal crypt D) Lacteal
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E) Microvilli F) Submucosa ANS: B
PTS: 1
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70. In Figure 24.3, identify number 7. A) Blood capillaries B) Brush border C) Duodenal gland D) Enterocytes E) Microvilli F) Submucosa ANS: A
PTS: 1
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71. In Figure 24.3, identify number 8. A) Blood capillaries B) Duodenal gland C) Goblet cell D) Intestinal crypt E) Lacteal F) Lumen ANS: C
PTS: 1
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72. In Figure 24.3, identify number 9. A) Duodenal gland B) Enterocytes TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Intestinal crypt D) Microvilli E) Circular folds F) Submucosa ANS: C
PTS: 1
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73. In Figure 24.3, identify number 10. A) Blood capillaries B) Duodenal gland C) Enterocytes D) Goblet cell E) Lacteal F) Submucosa ANS: B
PTS: 1
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74. In Figure 24.3, identify number 11. A) Blood capillaries B) Duodenal gland C) Intestinal crypt D) Lacteal E) Lumen F) Submucosa
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
75. In Figure 24.3, identify number 12. A) Brush border B) Enterocytes C) Goblet cell D) Lumen E) Muscle layers F) Submucosa ANS: F
PTS: 1
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76. In Figure 24.3, identify number 13. A) Blood capillaries B) Enterocytes C) Goblet cell D) Lacteal E) Muscle layers F) Circular folds ANS: B
PTS: 1
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77. In Figure 24.3, identify number 14. A) Brush border B) Duodenal gland C) Enterocytes D) Intestinal crypt TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Lacteal F) Lumen ANS: A
PTS: 1
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78. In Figure 24.3, identify number 15. A) Goblet cell B) Intestinal crypt C) Lumen D) Microvilli E) Muscle layers F) Submucosa ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 24.4 Structure of the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and duodenum. 79. In Figure 24.4, identify number 1. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Left hepatic duct F) Right hepatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: F
PTS: 1
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80. In Figure 24.4, identify number 2. A) Common hepatic duct B) Diaphragm C) Duodenum D) Falciform ligament E) Hepatopancreatic ampulla F) Left hepatic duct G) Right hepatic duct ANS: B
PTS: 1
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81. In Figure 24.4, identify number 3. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Falciform ligament E) Hepatopancreatic ampulla
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F) Left hepatic duct G) Pancreatic duct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
82. In Figure 24.4, identify number 4. A) Common bile duct B) Diaphragm C) Duodenum D) Falciform ligament E) Gallbladder F) Hepatopancreatic ampulla G) Pancreas ANS: E
PTS: 1
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83. In Figure 24.4, identify number 5. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Falciform ligament E) Left hepatic duct F) Pancreatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: A
PTS: 1
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84. In Figure 24.4, identify number TEST6.BANKSELLER.COM A) Diaphragm B) Duodenum C) Falciform ligament D) Gallbladder E) Hepatopancreatic ampulla F) Mucosa of duodenum G) Right lobe of liver ANS: B
PTS: 1
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85. In Figure 24.4, identify number 7. A) Common hepatic duct B) Stomach C) Duodenum D) Falciform ligament E) Gallbladder F) Hepatopancreatic ampulla G) Pancreas ANS: G
PTS: 1
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86. In Figure 24.4, identify number 8. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct
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C) Cystic duct D) Stomach E) Left hepatic duct F) Pancreatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: F
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 24.4, identify number 9. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Stomach E) Left hepatic duct F) Pancreatic duct G) Right hepatic duct ANS: D
PTS: 1
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88. In Figure 24.4, identify number 10. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Left hepatic duct F) Pancreatic duct G) Right hepatic duct
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
89. In Figure 24.4, identify number 11. A) Stomach B) Falciform ligament C) Hepatopancreatic ampulla D) Left hepatic duct E) Left lobe of liver F) Mucosa of duodenum G) Right hepatic duct ANS: E
PTS: 1
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90. In Figure 24.4, identify number 12. A) Common bile duct B) Diaphragm C) Falciform ligament D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Mucosa of duodenum F) Pancreatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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91. In Figure 24.4, identify number 13. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Left hepatic duct F) Right hepatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
92. In Figure 24.4, identify number 14. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Hepatopancreatic ampulla D) Left hepatic duct E) Mucosa of duodenum F) Pancreatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: E
PTS: 1
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93. In Figure 24.4, identify number 15. A) Common hepatic duct B) Cystic duct C) Falciform ligament D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Left hepatic duct F) Mucosa of duodenum G) Pancreatic duct ANS: D
PTS: 1
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94. In Figure 24.4, identify number 16. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Hepatopancreatic ampulla D) Left hepatic duct E) Mucosa of duodenum F) Pancreatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
95. In Figure 24.4, identify number 17. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Hepatopancreatic ampulla D) Left hepatic duct E) Mucosa of duodenum F) Pancreatic duct
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G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: F
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96. In Figure 24.4, identify number 18. A) Common hepatic duct B) Cystic duct C) Hepatopancreatic ampulla D) Left hepatic duct E) Mucosa of duodenum F) Pancreatic duct G) Sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 24.28A Organs of the digestive system: overview of the digestive system. 97. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 1. A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver F) Cecum G) Gallbladder ANS: A
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TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
98. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 2.
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A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver F) Cecum G) Gallbladder ANS: G
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99. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 3. A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver F) Cecum G) Gallbladder ANS: B
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TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
100. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 4. A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Cecum G) Gallbladder ANS: E
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TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
101. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 5. A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver F) Cecum G) Gallbladder ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
102. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 6. A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver F) Cecum G) Gallbladder
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ANS: C
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103. In Figure 24.28A, identify number 7. A) Esophagus B) Lesser omentum C) Vermiform appendix D) Rectum E) Liver F) Cecum G) Gallbladder ANS: D
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Figure 24.28B Organs of the digestive system: interior view of abdomen. 104. In Figure 24.28B, identify number 1. A) Mesentery B) Greater omentum C) Sigmoid colon D) Transverse colon ANS: B
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105. In Figure 24.28B, identify number 2. A) Mesentery B) Greater omentum C) Sigmoid colon D) Transverse colon ANS: D
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106. In Figure 24.28B, identify number 3. A) Mesentery B) Greater omentum
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C) Sigmoid colon D) Transverse colon ANS: A
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107. In Figure 24.28B, identify number 4. A) Mesentery B) Greater omentum C) Sigmoid colon D) Transverse colon ANS: C
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Figure 24.28C Organs of the TEdigestive STBANKsystem: SELLsalivary ER.COglands. M 108. In Figure 24.28C, identify number 1. A) Parotid gland B) Thyroid gland C) Submandibular gland D) Sublingual gland ANS: A
PTS: 1
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109. In Figure 24.28C, identify number 2. A) Parotid gland B) Thyroid gland C) Submandibular gland D) Sublingual gland ANS: C
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110. In Figure 24.28C, identify number 3. A) Parotid gland B) Thyroid gland C) Submandibular gland D) Sublingual gland ANS: D
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Figure 24.29 Anatomy of the stomach. 111. In Figure 24.29, identify number 1. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Duodenum D) Fundus E) Gastroesophageal sphincter F) Pyloric sphincter G) Rugae ANS: E
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PTS: 1
112. In Figure 24.29, identify number 2. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Duodenum D) Body E) Fundus F) Gastroesophageal sphincter G) Pyloric sphincter ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
113. In Figure 24.29, identify number 3. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Duodenum D) Fundus E) Gastroesophageal sphincter F) Pyloric sphincter G) Pylorus ANS: F
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114. In Figure 24.29, identify number 4. A) Cardia B) Duodenum C) Body D) Fundus E) Gastroesophageal sphincter F) Pyloric sphincter G) Pylorus ANS: B
PTS: 1
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115. In Figure 24.29, identify number 5. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Gastroesophageal sphincter E) Pyloric sphincter F) Pylorus G) Rugae ANS: F
PTS: 1
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116. In Figure 24.29, identify number 6. A) Body B) Cardia C) Duodenum D) Fundus TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Gastroesophageal sphincter F) Pylorus G) Rugae ANS: D
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117. In Figure 24.29, identify number 7. A) Body B) Circular muscle layer C) Duodenum D) Fundus E) Gastroesophageal sphincter F) Pylorus G) Rugae ANS: A
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118. In Figure 24.29, identify number 8. A) Body B) Cardia C) Circular muscle layer D) Fundus E) Gastroesophageal sphincter F) Pyloric sphincter
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G) Rugae ANS: C
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119. In Figure 24.29, identify number 9. A) Cardia B) Circular muscle layer C) Fundus D) Gastroesophageal sphincter E) Pyloric sphincter F) Pylorus G) Rugae ANS: G
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120. Which of the following organs is not an accessory organ of digestion? A) Salivary glands B) Gallbladder C) Cecum D) Pancreas ANS: C
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121. Bile is produced by the __________________ and stored and concentrated in the
_______________. A) liver; gallbladder B) gallbladder; liver C) pancreas; pancreatic duct TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) pancreatic duct; pancreas ANS: A
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Figure 24.30A Accessory organs of the digestive system: anterior and posterior view of the liver. 122. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 1. A) Faliciform ligament B) Right lobe of liver C) Left lobe of liver D) Porta hepatis E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: B
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123. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 2. A) Faliciform ligament B) Round ligament C) Left lobe of liver D) Right lobe of liver E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: C
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124. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 3. A) Faliciform ligament B) Round ligament C) Left lobe of liver D) Right lobe of liver E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: A
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PTS: 1
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125. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 4. A) Gallbladder B) Porta hepatis C) Round ligament D) Faliciform ligament E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: C
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126. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 5. A) Faliciform ligament B) Gallbladder C) Left lobe of liver D) Porta hepatis E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: B
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127. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 6. A) Faliciform ligament B) Round ligament C) Left lobe of liver
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D) Right lobe of liver E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: E
PTS: 1
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128. In Figure 24.30A, identify number 7. A) Faliciform ligament B) Gallbladder C) Left lobe of liver D) Porta hepatis E) Caudate lobe of liver ANS: D
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Figure 24.30B Accessory organs of the digestive system: liver and associated accessory organs. 129. In Figure 24.30B, identify number 1. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Pancreas E) Hepatopancreatic ampulla F) Pancreatic duct ANS: C
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130. In Figure 24.30B, identify number 2. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct
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C) Cystic duct D) Pancreas E) Hepatopancreatic ampulla F) Pancreatic duct ANS: A
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131. In Figure 24.30B, identify number 3. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Pancreas F) Pancreatic duct ANS: D
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132. In Figure 24.30B, identify number 4. A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Pancreas F) Pancreatic duct ANS: B
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133. In Figure 24.30B, identify T number 5.NKSELLER.COM ESTBA A) Common bile duct B) Common hepatic duct C) Cystic duct D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Pancreas F) Pancreatic duct ANS: F
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134. In Figure 24.30B, identify number 6. A) Common hepatic duct B) Cystic duct C) Common bile duct D) Hepatopancreatic ampulla E) Pancreas F) Pancreatic duct ANS: E
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Figure 24.31 Tissue layers of the alimentary canal. 135. In Figure 24.31, identify number 1. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: G
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
136. In Figure 24.31, identify number 2. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
137. In Figure 24.31, identify number 3. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
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138. In Figure 24.31, identify number 4. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
139. In Figure 24.31, identify number 5. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
140. In Figure 24.31, identify number 6. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
141. In Figure 24.31, identify number 7. A) Circular layer of smooth muscle B) Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle C) Lumen D) Mucosa E) Muscularis mucosae F) Serosa G) Submucosa ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
142. Which is the most accurate description of salivary amylase? A) Clusters of bile salts and digested lipids B) Digestive enzyme(s) associated with the enterocytes of the small intestine C) Emulsifies/emulsify fats D) Begin(s) carbohydrate digestion in the mouth E) The structure(s) into which lipids are absorbed ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
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143. Which is the most accurate description of bile salts? A) Clusters of bile salts and digested lipids B) Digestive enzyme(s) associated with the enterocytes of the small intestine C) Emulsifies/emulsify fats D) Begin(s) carbohydrate digestion in the mouth E) The structure(s) into which lipids are absorbed ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
144. Which is the most accurate description of micelles? A) Clusters of bile salts and digested lipids in the small intestine B) Digestive enzyme(s) associated with the enterocytes of the small intestine C) Emulsifies/emulsify fats D) Begin(s) carbohydrate digestion in the mouth E) The structure(s) into which lipids are absorbed ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
145. Which is the most accurate description of pepsin? A) Enzyme(s) that digest(s) lipids into free fatty acids and monoglycerides B) Protein-coated lipid droplets that are absorbed C) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the stomach D) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the pancreas E) Required to activate pepsinogen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
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146. Which is the most accurate description of chylomicrons? A) Enzyme(s) that digest(s) lipids into free fatty acids and monoglycerides B) Protein-coated lipid droplets that are absorbed C) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the stomach D) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the pancreas E) Required to activate pepsinogen ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
147. Which is the most accurate description of pancreatic lipase? A) Enzyme(s) that digest(s) lipids into free fatty acids and monoglycerides B) Protein-coated lipid droplets that are absorbed C) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the stomach D) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the pancreas E) Required to activate pepsinogen ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
148. Which is the most accurate description of hydrochloric acid? A) Enzyme(s) that digest(s) lipids into free fatty acids and monoglycerides B) Protein-coated lipid droplets that are absorbed C) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the stomach D) Protein-digesting enzyme(s) produced by the pancreas E) Required to activate pepsinogen
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
149. Which is the most accurate description of lacteal? A) Clusters of bile salts and digested lipids B) Digestive enzyme(s) associated with the enterocytes of the small intestine C) Emulsifies/emulsify fats D) Begin(s) carbohydrate digestion in the mouth E) Structure(s) into which lipids are absorbed ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
150. Folds of the small intestinal mucosa are known as A) microvilli. B) circular folds. C) intestinal crypts. D) villi. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
151. Which statement accurately explains the importance of emulsification in lipid digestion. A) Emulsification physically breaks apart lipids into smaller droplets to give
pancreatic lipase a smaller surface area on which to work as it catalyzes lipid breakdown. B) Emulsification physically breaks apart lipids into smaller droplets to give pancreatic lipase a greater surface area on which to work as it catalyzes lipid breakdown. C) Emulsification physically combines lipids into larger droplets to give pancreatic TESTBANKSELLER.COM lipase a greater surface area on which to work as it catalyzes lipid breakdown. D) Emulsification physically combines lipids into smaller droplets to give pancreatic lipase a smaller surface area on which to work as it catalyzes lipid breakdown. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
152. True or False? The peritoneal cavity is located between the visceral peritoneum and
the mesentery. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
153. True or False? The shortest segment of the small intestine is the duodenum. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
154. True or False? Filiform papillae are keratinized projections from the tongue that
help physically break down food. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
155. True or False? Pancreatic islets are the exocrine portion of the pancreas. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
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156. True or False? The ileocecal valve regulates flow from the stomach to the duodenum. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
157. True or False? The vermiform appendix is a blind-ended sac that contains lymphoid follicles. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Recall
158. Eva has been diagnosed with gallstones, which are lumps of cholesterol and other
components of bile. One of the gallstones is blocking her cystic duct, preventing the release of bile from the gallbladder. Will the gallstones prevent bile from being produced and released into the duodenum? Why or why not? ANS:
Bile is produced by the liver, not the gallbladder, so it will be produced even if the gallbladder is removed. As long as the common bile duct is intact, bile will continue to be released into the duodenum via the common hepatic duct. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
159. Eva has been diagnosed with gallstones, which are lumps of cholesterol and other
components of bile. One of the gallstones is blocking her cystic duct, preventing the release of bile from the gallbladder. Predict what might happen if a gallstone were to block Eva's pancreatic duct, preventing the release of pancreatic juice into the duodenum. ANS:
This would lead to various digestive issues, as the majority of digestive enzymes and TESTBjuice. ANKS ELLE .COMalso cause some of the enzymes bicarbonate ions are in pancreatic (Note: ItRwould to catalyze digestion of the pancreas itself, leading to pancreatitis.) PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
160. The condition known as appendicitis is an acute inflammation of the appendix, usually due
to bacterial infection. What anatomical or histological feature does the appendix contain that makes it at risk for this type of condition? How does its location and shape complicate this? Explain. ANS:
The appendix contains numerous lymphatic nodules that can trap bacteria, leading to infection and inflammation. Due to the narrow shape and small size of the appendix, when it becomes inflamed, it does not drain. This causes it to be at risk for rupture. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
161. If the ileocecal valve fails to close properly, the contents of the cecum can reflux back into
the ileum. Why might this cause problems? (Hint: What is found in the large intestine that is not normally found in the small intestine?) ANS:
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The large intestine houses large numbers of bacteria, but the small intestine is normally sterile. When the bacteria-filled contents of the large intestine reflux into the small intestine, it can cause infection and inflammation of the ileum. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
162. If you go into your local grocery store, you are bound to find a host of gluten-free products made
with synthetic proteins instead of the natural wheat-based protein gluten. About 1–3% of the population is sensitive to gluten. The most severe form of gluten intolerance is the autoimmune disease celiac disease (note that it is not caused by gluten, and you cannot get it from eating gluten). In individuals with celiac disease, the immune response to gluten antigens causes the flattening of the villi in the small intestine. How would this affect the ability of the small intestine to function? Predict the symptoms you would expect to see from celiac disease. ANS: The villi increase surface area for chemical digestion and absorption in the small intestine. When the villi become flattened, nutrient absorption and chemical digestion of certain nutrients decreases significantly. In addition, absorption of water, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals decreases. This leads to nutrient deficiencies, dehydration, diarrhea, and vomiting. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
163. Sadaf has an ulcer of her large intestine that has perforated, meaning that it has developed a
hole that has gone through all tissue layers. Through which tissue layers would the ulcer have had to pass to perforate completely? ANS:
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The ulcer would have had to pass through the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa (the taenia coli), and the serosa. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
164. Sadaf has an ulcer of her large intestine that has perforated, meaning that it has developed a
hole that has gone through all tissue layers. A major concern with large intestine perforation is peritonitis, or infection of the peritoneal fluid. Why is this a particular concern with the large intestine? ANS:
The high bacterial content of the large intestine creates a very high risk of infection in the peritoneal cavity. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
165. Sadaf has an ulcer of her large intestine that has perforated, meaning that it has developed a
hole that has gone through all tissue layers. Why could peritonitis have wide-ranging effects on Sadaf's other organs of the abdomen and digestive system? Are there any organs that would be unlikely to be directly affected by peritonitis? Explain. ANS:
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Peritonitis could affect any organs within the peritoneal cavity, including the stomach, liver, part of the pancreas, transverse colon, spleen, sigmoid colon, ileum, jejunum, and part of the duodenum. Organs that would not be directly affected include retroperitoneal organs, such as the kidneys, adrenal glands, ascending and descending colon, and ureters. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
166. Many dietary supplements contain digestive enzymes the manufacturers claim are
necessary to digest food properly. What will happen to these enzymes in the stomach? (Hint: Enzymes are proteins.) Will the enzymes continue to function once they have reached the small intestine? Why or why not? ANS:
The enzymes will be destroyed by the pepsin in the stomach, rendering them useless and a fantastic waste of money. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 24 Check Your Understanding
167. The mesentery that hangs like an apron from the lateral and inferior portion of the stomach
is the ____________. A) lesser omentum B) greater omentum C) falciform ligament D) mesentery proper ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 168. Concentrated crystals of minerals and salts in the gallbladder produce ___________. A) calculi B) a condition called gout C) a condition called cholelithiasis D) alkali ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
169. The large intestine absorbs which of the following vitamins from colonic bacteria? A) Vitamin B5, or pantothenic acid B) Vitamin K C) Biotin D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
170. Fat-soluble vitamins move across the intestinal mucosa by _______________. A) facilitated diffusion B) cotransport C) diffusion D) active transport
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
171. Villi ______________________. A) are composed of both mucosa and submucosa B) contain lacteals and capillaries C) contain muscle fibers that rhythmically contract to propel lymph through
the lacteals D) are largest in the duodenum E) B, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
172. The portal triad includes the __________________. A) branch of the hepatic artery B) central vein C) branch of the hepatic portal vein D) bile duct E) A, C, and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
173. Which of the following is/are in greater abundance in the hepatic vein than in the
hepatic portal vein? A) Urea B) Aging RBC C) Fat-soluble vitamins D) Plasma proteins E) A and D
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ANS: E PTS: 1 Unit 24 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Hard
174. Jaundice may be the result of ___________________. A) hepatitis B) blockage of enterohepatic circulation C) biliary calculi in the common bile duct D) removal of the gallbladder E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
175. Release of CCK leads to __________________. A) contraction of smooth muscle in the duodenal papilla B) decreased activity of hepatocytes C) activity of the muscularis of the gallbladder D) exocytosis of zymogenic granules in pancreatic acini E) C and D
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
176. Diverticulitis results from _____________. A) too much bulk in the diet B) too little bulk in the diet C) gluten intolerance D) lactose intolerance E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
177. The two structures that produce alkaline secretions that neutralize the acidic stomach
chyme as it enters the duodenum are the ______________. A) intestinal flora and gastric glands B) gastric glands and gastric pits C) lining epithelium of the intestine and paneth cells D) pancreatic ducts and duodenal glands E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
178. Which of the following cells occur in the stomach mucosa, contain mitochondria and
many microvilli, and pump hydrogen ions? A) Absorptive cells B) Parietal cells C) Goblet cells D) Mucous neck cells E) B and C
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ANS: B PTS: 1 Unit 24 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Hard
179. A 3-year-old girl was rewarded with a hug because she was now completely toilet
trained. Which muscle has she learned to control? A) Levator muscle B) Internal anal sphincter C) Internal and external obliques D) External anal sphincter E) C and D ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
180. A peristaltic rush that results in a failure to absorb enough colon water results in _____. A) constipation B) diarrhea C) cramps D) flatus E) B and C
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
181. Which intestinal layer accounts for the action of the peristaltic waves? A) Serosa B) Muscularis C) Submucosa D) Mucosa ANS: B PTS: 1 Unit 24 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Easy
182. The alimentary tube is approximately _____ meters long. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 9 ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
183. The _____ nervous system division usually stimulates and promotes digestion. A) somatic B) sympathetic C) central D) parasympathetic ANS: D PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS DIF: ELLEasy ER.COM TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions 184. The process of chewing is referred to as _____. A) churning B) mastication C) peristalsis D) deglutition ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
185. Gastric enzymes are secreted by the _____ cells. A) chief B) goblet C) parietal D) oxyntic ANS: A PTS: 1 Unit 24 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Easy
186. Which of the following enzymes initiates protein digestion? A) Lactase B) Pepsin C) Hydrochloric acid
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D) Lipase ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
187. Parasympathetic impulses to the stomach cause all of the following EXCEPT the ________. A) secretion of somatostatin B) inhibition of somatostatin C) secretion of gastrin D) secretion of histamine ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
188. Gastrin secretion will stop when the stomach pH reaches _____. A) 7.0 B) 4.5 C) 1.5 D) 3.0 ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
189. The alkaline tide occurs when _____ is secreted into the blood. A) HCl B) H+ C) bicarbonate D) phosphate ions
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
190. The _____ duct directly receives the fluids from the gallbladder. A) cystic B) common bile C) hepatic D) common pancreatic ANS: A PTS: 1 Unit 24 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Easy
191. The ampulla of Vater is the area that joins the common bile duct to the _____ duct. A) hepatic B) pancreatic C) cystic D) bile ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
192. Which of the following is a function of the digestive tract? A) Excretion B) Digestion
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C) Absorption D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
193. The outermost to the innermost layers of the digestive tract are ______________. A) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa B) submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa, and mucosa C) muscularis externa, serosa, submucosa, and mucosa D) serosa, muscularis externa, submucosa, and mucosa ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
194. The movements of the muscularis externa are coordinated by the __________. A) dorsal root ganglia B) myenteric plexus C) suprarenal glands D) sympathetic ganglia ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
195. Waves of smooth muscle contraction that propel materials along the digestive tract are
known as __________. A) plicae B) peristalsis C) crawling D) segmentation
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ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 24 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 25 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines renal cortex? A) The most superficial region of the kidney; contains many blood vessels that
serve the nephrons B) The kidney's innermost region; serves as a basin for collecting urine C) Muscular hollow organ that contracts via peristalsis to propel urine from the renal
pelvis to the urinary bladder D) Segment of the renal tubule consisting of a descending loop that dives into the
renal medulla and an ascending limb that travels back to the renal cortex ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines renal medulla? A) Extensions of the renal cortex into the renal medulla that contain blood vessels B) Distensible organ that stores urine and contracts to expel it during micturition C) The kidney's middle region; consists of medullary pyramids and renal columns D) Functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and removing
waste products from the blood ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines renal pyramid? A) The glomerular endothelial cells, the basal lamina, and podocytes in the
glomerulus that filter water, glucose, amino acids, electrolytes, and waste products out of the blood to become filtrate B) Wedge-shaped structure ofSthe nephron loops and TE TBrenal ANKmedulla SELLEthat R.Ccontains OM parts of the collecting system C) Product of bilirubin production found in urine; can indicate abnormal conditions or disorders if found in urine outside of normal range D) Outer connective tissue layer partially composed of the visceral peritoneum found throughout much of the alimentary canal ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines renal column? A) Muscular hollow organ that contracts via peristalsis to propel urine from the renal
pelvis to the urinary bladder B) Extensions of the renal cortex into the renal medulla that contain blood vessels C) Chemicals produced from fatty acid oxidation found in the urine when fatty acids are rapidly catabolized D) Both A and C are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines renal pelvis? A) The kidney's innermost region; serves as a basin for collecting urine B) A ball-shaped capillary bed that is the site of blood filtration in the kidneys C) Exocrine cells of the pancreas that produce and secrete pancreatic juice (i.e.,
digestive enzymes, bicarbonate, and water) into ducts D) Both A and B are correct
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines major and minor calyces? A) Muscular hollow organs that contract via peristalsis to propel urine from the renal
pelvis to the urinary bladder B) Segments of the renal tubule consisting of a descending loop that dives into the renal medulla and an ascending limb that travels back to the renal cortex C) Products of bilirubin production found in urine; can indicate abnormal conditions or disorders if found in urine outside of normal range D) Structures that drain urine ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines ureter? A) Hollow organ that drains urine from the urinary bladder to outside the body during
micturition B) Segment of the renal tubule consisting of a descending loop that dives into the
renal medulla and an ascending limb that travels back to the renal cortex C) Muscular hollow organ that contracts via peristalsis to propel urine from the renal
pelvis to the urinary bladder D) Tubules that collect filtrate from several distal tubules ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines urinary bladder? A) Contracts to expel urine during micturition B) Distensible organ TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Stores urine D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines urethra? A) Rays that project from the renal cortex into the renal medulla B) Hollow organ that drains urine from the urinary bladder to outside the body during
micturition C) Muscular hollow organ that contracts via peristalsis to propel urine from the renal
pelvis to the urinary bladder D) Tubules that collect filtrate from several distal tubules ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines nephron? A) Blood vessels surrounding the components of the renal tubule that receive substances reabsorbed from the renal tubule and collecting system B) Final segment of the renal tubule C) Functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering and removing
waste products from the blood D) Protein secreted by B lymphocytes; each antibody type binds to a specific antigen ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
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11. Which of the following statements accurately defines glomerulus? A) Product of bilirubin production found in urine; can indicate abnormal conditions
or disorders if found in urine outside of normal range B) A ball-shaped capillary that is the site of blood filtration in the kidneys C) Fluid that results from glomerular filtration D) Molecules secreted by plasma cells to bind to antigens and facilitate their
destruction or neutralization ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines peritubular capillaries? A) Process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the proximal tubule B) The process by which the nephron and collecting ducts remove substances from
the blood and add them to the filtrate C) Product of bilirubin production found in urine; can indicate abnormal conditions
or disorders if found in urine outside of normal range D) Blood vessels surrounding most of the renal tubule and collecting system that
receive reabsorbed substances and the provide cells with oxygen and nutrients ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines proximal tubule? A) Initial segment of the renal tubule B) First part of the small intestine C) Final segment of the renal tubule D) Last part of the small intestine ANS: A
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.25CPre-Lab OM Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines nephron loop? A) Process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the proximal tubule B) The most superficial region of the kidney, consisting mainly of blood vessels
that serve the nephrons C) Segment of the renal tubule that consists of a descending limb that dives into the renal medulla and an ascending limb that travels back to the renal cortex D) The process by which the nephron and collecting ducts return water and solutes to the blood ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines distal tubule? A) Initial segment of the renal tubule B) First part of the small intestine C) Last part of the small intestine D) Final segment of the renal tubule ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines cortical collecting duct? A) The part of the collecting system located in the renal cortex that receives filtrate
from distal tubules B) The inner epithelial tissue lining of the alimentary canal; composed of simple
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columnar epithelium overlying the lamina propria and a layer of muscularis mucosa C) The part of the collecting system located in the renal medulla D) The part of the collecting system that drains into a minor calyx ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines medullary collecting duct? A) The part of the collecting system located in the renal cortex that receives filtrate
from distal tubules B) The inner epithelial tissue lining of the alimentary canal; composed of simple columnar epithelium overlying the lamina propria and a layer of muscularis mucosa C) The part of the collecting system located in the renal medulla D) The part of the collecting system that drains into a minor calyx ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines papillary collecting duct? A) The part of the collecting system located in the renal cortex that receives filtrate
from distal tubules B) The inner epithelial tissue lining of the alimentary canal; composed of simple columnar epithelium overlying the lamina propria and a layer of muscularis mucosa C) The part of the collecting system located in the renal medulla D) The part of the collecting system that drains into a minor calyx ANS: D
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.25CPre-Lab OM Exercise
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Figure 25.1 Right kidney, frontal section. 19. In Figure 25.1, identify number 1. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Renal cortex B) Major calyces C) Minor calyces D) Renal medulla E) Renal pelvis F) Renal pyramid G) Ureter
ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 25.1, identify number 2. A) Renal cortex B) Renal capsule C) Minor calyces D) Renal medulla E) Renal pelvis F) Renal pyramid G) Major calyces
ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 25.1, identify number 3. A) Renal cortex B) Renal papilla
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C) Major calyx D) Renal medulla E) Renal column F) Renal pelvis G) Renal capsule ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 25.1, identify number 4. A) Renal cortex B) Renal capsule C) Minor calyx D) Renal medulla E) Renal column F) Renal pyramid G) Renal vein
ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 25.1, identify number 5. A) Renal cortex B) Major calyx C) Minor calyx D) Renal medulla E) Renal column F) Renal pelvis G) Renal pyramid
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 25.1, identify number 6. A) Renal papilla B) Major calyx C) Minor calyx D) Renal medulla E) Renal column F) Renal pelvis G) Renal pyramid
ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 25.1, identify number 7. A) Renal cortex B) Minor calyx C) Renal medulla D) Renal artery E) Renal column F) Renal pelvis G) Renal vein
ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
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26. In Figure 25.1, identify number 8. A) Renal cortex B) Renal papilla C) Major calyx D) Minor calyx E) Renal medulla F) Renal column G) Renal pyramid ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 25.1, identify number 9. A) Minor calyx B) Renal pyramid C) Renal artery D) Renal pelvis E) Renal medulla F) Renal vein G) Ureter ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 25.1, identify number 10. A) Renal cortex B) Minor calyx C) Renal artery D) Renal column TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Renal pelvis F) Renal vein G) Ureter
ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 25.1, identify number 11. A) Renal cortex B) Major calyx C) Minor calyx D) Renal medulla E) Renal column F) Renal pelvis G) Renal pyramid
ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 25.1, identify number 12. A) Renal cortex B) Major calyx C) Minor calyx D) Renal artery E) Renal pelvis F) Renal vein
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G) Ureter ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 25.2 Organs of the urinary system: (A) anterior view; (B) posterior view. 31. In Figure 25.2, identify number 1. A) Abdominal aorta TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Diaphragm C) 11th and 12th ribs D) Renal artery E) Renal vein F) Ureter G) Vertebra L2 ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 25.2, identify number 2. A) Abdominal aorta B) Adrenal gland C) Diaphragm D) 11th and 12th ribs E) Inferior vena cava F) Ureter G) Vertebra L2 ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
33. In Figure 25.2, identify number 3. A) Abdominal aorta B) Adrenal gland C) Diaphragm
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D) Inferior vena cava E) Ureter F) Urethra G) Urinary bladder ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 25.2, identify number 4. A) Abdominal aorta B) Inferior vena cava C) Kidney D) Renal artery E) Renal vein F) Ureter G) Urinary bladder ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 25.2, identify number 5. A) Abdominal aorta B) Adrenal gland C) Inferior vena cava D) Renal artery E) Renal vein F) Ureter G) Vertebra L2 ANS: E
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36. In Figure 25.2, identify number 6. A) Abdominal aorta B) Diaphragm C) Inferior vena cava D) Kidney E) Urethra F) Urinary bladder G) Vertebra L2 ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 25.2, identify number 7. A) Adrenal gland B) Diaphragm C) 11th and 12th ribs D) Inferior vena cava E) Renal artery F) Ureter G) Vertebra L2 ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 25.2, identify number 8.
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A) Abdominal aorta B) Adrenal gland C) Inferior vena cava D) Renal artery E) Renal vein F) Ureter G) Urethra ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 25.2, identify number 9. A) Abdominal aorta B) Adrenal gland C) Diaphragm D) Inferior vena cava E) Renal artery F) Ureter G) Urethra ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 25.2, identify number 10. A) Abdominal aorta B) Adrenal gland C) Inferior vena cava D) Renal artery E) Ureter TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Urethra G) Urinary bladder ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 25.2, identify number 11. A) Adrenal gland B) Diaphragm C) Renal artery D) Renal vein E) Ureter F) Urethra G) Urinary bladder ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 25.2, identify number 12. A) Adrenal gland B) Diaphragm C) Renal artery D) Renal vein E) Ureter F) Urethra G) Urinary bladder
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Figure 25.3A Microanatomy of the kidney: structure of the nephron and collecting system. 43. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 1. A) Afferent arteriole B) Arcuate artery C) Distal tubule TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Efferent arteriole E) Interlobular artery F) Nephron loop G) Proximal tubule ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 2. A) Afferent arteriole B) Arcuate vein C) Distal tubule D) Efferent arteriole E) Glomerulus F) Nephron loop G) Proximal tubule ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 3. A) Arcuate artery B) Distal tubule C) Efferent arteriole D) Interlobular artery E) Interlobular vein
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F) Nephron loop G) Arcuate vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
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46. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 4. A) Arcuate vein B) Arcuate artery C) Glomerulus D) Efferent arteriole E) Afferent arteriole F) Interlobular artery G) Interlobular vein ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 5. A) Afferent arteriole B) Arcuate artery C) Arcuate vein D) Efferent arteriole E) Glomerulus F) Interlobular artery G) Interlobular vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
48. In Figure 25.3A, identify number TESTB6.ANKSELLER.COM A) Afferent arteriole B) Ascending limb C) Medullary collecting duct D) Descending limb E) Distal tubule F) Interlobular artery G) Interlobular vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 7. A) Arcuate artery B) Ascending limb C) Cortical collecting duct D) Descending limb E) Efferent arteriole F) Nephron loop G) Medullary collecting duct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 8. A) Arcuate artery B) Distal tubule
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C) Efferent arteriole D) Interlobular artery E) Interlobular vein F) Nephron loop G) Cortical collecting duct ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 9. A) Arcuate artery B) Ascending limb C) Capsular space D) Descending limb E) Distal tubule F) Cortical collecting duct G) Proximal tubule ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 10. A) Afferent arteriole B) Arcuate artery C) Distal tubule D) Efferent arteriole E) Glomerulus F) Nephron loop G) Arcuate vein
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
53. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 11. A) Ascending limb B) Cortical collecting duct C) Descending limb D) Distal tube E) Parietal layer of glomerular capsule F) Medullary collecting duct G) Proximal tubule ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 12. A) Arcuate artery B) Ascending limb C) Efferent arteriole D) Glomerulus E) Interlobular artery F) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule G) Proximal tubule ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
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55. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 13. A) Capsular space B) Cortex C) Distal tubule D) Cortical collecting duct E) Medulla F) Parietal layer of glomerular capsule G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 14. A) Arcuate artery B) Capsular space C) Collecting duct D) Distal tubule E) Glomerulus F) Parietal layer of glomerular capsule G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: B
PTS: 1
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57. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 15. A) Capsular space B) Cortical collecting duct C) Efferent arteriole D) Glomerulus TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Interlobular artery F) Parietal layer of glomerular capsule G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: F
PTS: 1
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58. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 16. A) Ascending limb B) Interlobular artery C) Descending limb D) Arcuate artery E) Efferent arteriole F) Interlobular vein G) Arcuate vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 17. A) Capsular space B) Collecting duct C) Cortex D) Glomerulus E) Medulla F) Parietal layer of glomerular capsule
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G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: C
PTS: 1
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60. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 18. A) Capsular space B) Collecting duct C) Cortex D) Glomerulus E) Medulla F) Parietal layer of glomerular capsule G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: E
PTS: 1
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61. In Figure 25.3A, identify number 19. A) Cortical collecting duct B) Medulla C) Capsular space D) Descending limb E) Distal tubule F) Medullary collecting duct G) Proximal tubule ANS: F
PTS: 1
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Figure 25.3B Microanatomy of the kidney: structure of the renal corpuscle and filtration. 62. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 1. A) Erythrocyte B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole D) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule E) Filtration slit F) Basal lamina
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G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: D
PTS: 1
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63. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 2. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Fenestrations in endothelium C) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Foot processes of podocytes ANS: D
PTS: 1
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64. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 3. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Water and small solutes C) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Foot processes of podocytes ANS: A
PTS: 1
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65. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 4. A) Proximal tubule cells TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Foot processes of podocytes C) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Erythrocyte ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
66. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 5. A) Erythrocyte B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole D) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule E) Filtration slit F) Basal lamina G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: C
PTS: 1
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67. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 6. A) Erythrocyte B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole
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D) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule E) Filtration slit F) Basal lamina G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: B
PTS: 1
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68. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 7. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Afferent arteriole C) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Foot processes of podocytes ANS: G
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 8. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Foot processes of podocytes C) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Efferent arteriole ANS: F
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.25CPre-Lab OM Exercise
70. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 9. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) C) Basal lamina D) Water and small solutes E) Foot processes of podocytes F) Endothelial cells of the glomerulus G) Fenestrations in endothelium ANS: E
PTS: 1
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71. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 10. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) C) Basal lamina D) Water and small solutes E) Foot processes of podocytes F) Endothelial cells of the glomerulus G) Fenestrations in endothelium ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
72. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 11.
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A) Erythrocyte B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole D) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule E) Filtration slit F) Basal lamina G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
73. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 12. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Erythrocyte C) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Foot processes of podocytes ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
74. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 13. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Podocytes (visceral layer of glomerular capsule) C) Basal lamina D) Water and small solutes E) Foot processes of podocytes ESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Endothelial cells of theTglomerulus G) Fenestrations in endothelium ANS: G
PTS: 1
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75. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 14. A) Erythrocyte B) Afferent arteriole C) Efferent arteriole D) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule E) Filtration slit F) Basal lamina G) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
76. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 15. A) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule B) Foot processes of podocytes C) Endothelial cell of the glomerulus D) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Basal lamina
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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77. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 16. A) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule B) Foot processes of podocytes C) Endothelial cell of the glomerulus D) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Basal lamina ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
78. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 17. A) Parietal layer of the glomerular capsule B) Foot processes of podocytes C) Endothelial cell of the glomerulus D) Visceral layer of glomerular capsule E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Basal lamina ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
79. In Figure 25.3B, identify number 18. A) Proximal tubule cells B) Foot processes of podocytes TEofST BANKSEcapsule) LLER.COM C) Podocytes (visceral layer glomerular D) Glomerular capillaries covered by podocytes E) Filtration membrane F) Capsular space G) Foot processes of podocytes ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 25.17 Right kidney, frontal section. 80. In Figure 25.17, identify number 1. A) Major calyx B) Renal artery C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal medulla F) Renal pelvis TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Renal pyramid
ANS: C
PTS: 1
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81. In Figure 25.17, identify number 2. A) Major calyx B) Minor calyx C) Renal capsule D) Renal column E) Renal cortex F) Renal medulla G) Renal pelvis
ANS: E
PTS: 1
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82. In Figure 25.17, identify number 3. A) Major calyx B) Minor calyx C) Renal capsule D) Renal column E) Renal cortex F) Renal medulla G) Renal pyramid
ANS: A
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83. In Figure 25.17, identify number 4. A) Major calyx B) Renal capsule C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal medulla F) Renal pelvis G) Renal pyramid
ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Recall
84. In Figure 25.17, identify number 5. A) Minor calyx B) Renal capsule C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal medulla F) Renal pelvis G) Renal pyramid
ANS: G
PTS: 1
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85. In Figure 25.17, identify number 6. A) Minor calyx B) Renal capsule C) Renal column TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Renal cortex E) Renal medulla F) Renal pelvis G) Renal pyramid
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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86. In Figure 25.17, identify number 7. A) Major calyx B) Minor calyx C) Renal capsule D) Renal column E) Renal cortex F) Renal medulla G) Renal pyramid
ANS: B
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 25.17, identify number 8. A) Major calyx B) Renal artery C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal pelvis
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F) Renal vein G) Ureter ANS: B
PTS: 1
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88. In Figure 25.17, identify number 9. A) Major calyx B) Renal artery C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal pelvis F) Renal vein G) Ureter ANS: F
PTS: 1
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89. In Figure 25.17, identify number 10. A) Major calyx B) Renal artery C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal pelvis F) Renal vein G) Ureter ANS: E
PTS: 1
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90. In Figure 25.17, identify number 11. TESTB ANKSELLER.COM A) Minor calyx B) Renal artery C) Renal column D) Renal cortex E) Renal pelvis F) Renal vein G) Ureter ANS: G
PTS: 1
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Figure 25.18 Structure of the nephron. 91. In Figure 25.18, identify number 1. A) Afferent arteriole B) Cortical collecting duct C) Distal tubule D) Efferent arteriole TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Glomerulus F) Nephron loop G) Proximal tubule ANS: G
PTS: 1
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92. In Figure 25.18, identify number 2. A) Afferent arteriole B) Cortical collecting duct C) Efferent arteriole D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Glomerular capsule G) Proximal tubule ANS: D
PTS: 1
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93. In Figure 25.18, identify number 3. A) Afferent arteriole B) Cortical collecting duct C) Efferent arteriole D) Glomerular capsule E) Glomerulus F) Nephron loop G) Distal tubule
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ANS: C
PTS: 1
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94. In Figure 25.18, identify number 4. A) Afferent arteriole B) Cortical collecting duct C) Distal tubule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Glomerular capsule G) Proximal tubule ANS: C
PTS: 1
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95. In Figure 25.18, identify number 5. A) Cortical collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Efferent arteriole D) Glomerular capsule E) Nephron loop F) Afferent arteriole G) Proximal tubule ANS: A
PTS: 1
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96. In Figure 25.18, identify number 6. A) Afferent arteriole B) Cortical collecting ductTESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Distal tubule D) Efferent arteriole E) Nephron loop F) Glomerular capsule G) Proximal tubule ANS: F
PTS: 1
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97. In Figure 25.18, identify number 7. A) Cortical collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Efferent arteriole D) Afferent arteriole E) Glomerulus F) Nephron loop G) Proximal tubule ANS: D
PTS: 1
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98. In Figure 25.18, identify number 8. A) Nephron loop B) Cortical collecting duct C) Distal tubule D) Efferent arteriole
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E) Glomerulus F) Glomerular capsule G) Proximal tubule ANS: A
PTS: 1
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Figure 25.19 Organs of the male and female urinary systems, sagittal section: (A) male; (B) female. 99. In Figure 25.19, identify number 1. A) Ureter B) Prostatic urethra C) Membranous urethra D) External urethral orificeTESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Pelvic (urogenital) diaphragm F) Spongy urethra ANS: A
PTS: 1
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100. In Figure 25.19, identify number 2. A) Pelvic (urogenital) diaphragm B) Prostatic urethra C) Urinary bladder D) External urethral orifice E) Ureter F) Spongy urethra ANS: C
PTS: 1
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101. In Figure 25.19, identify number 3. A) Ureter B) Prostatic urethra C) Membranous urethra D) External urethral orifice E) Pelvic (urogenital) diaphragm F) Spongy urethra ANS: B
PTS: 1
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102. In Figure 25.19, identify number 4. A) Ureter B) Prostatic urethra C) Membranous urethra D) External urethral orifice E) Pelvic (urogenital) diaphragm F) Spongy urethra ANS: C
PTS: 1
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103. In Figure 25.19, identify number 5. A) Ureter B) Prostatic urethra C) Membranous urethra D) External urethral orifice E) Pelvic (urogenital) diaphragm F) Spongy urethra ANS: F
PTS: 1
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104. In Figure 25.19, identify number 6. A) Spongy urethra B) Prostatic urethra C) Urinary bladder D) External urethral orifice E) Ureter F) Membranous urethra TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: D
PTS: 1
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105. In Figure 25.19, identify number 7. A) Ureter B) Prostatic urethra C) Membranous urethra D) External urethral orifice E) Pelvic (urogenital) diaphragm F) Spongy urethra ANS: E
PTS: 1
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106. The blood flow through the kidney is special because A) its first capillary beds drain into arterioles. B) its second capillary beds drain into arterioles. C) it is supplied by three renal arteries. D) it contains no capillary beds. ANS: A
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107. Which of the following is the correct order from the formation of the filtrate to the point
it drains into the renal pelvis? A) minor calyx, major calyx, proximal tubule, medullary collecting duct, cortical
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collecting duct, capsular space, nephron loop--descending limb, nephron loop-ascending limb, papillary duct, distal tubule B) capsular space, proximal tubule, nephron loop--descending limb, nephron loop-ascending limb, distal tubule, cortical collecting duct, medullary collecting duct, papillary duct, minor calyx, major calyx C) proximal tubule, distal tubule, medullary collecting duct, cortical collecting duct, papillary duct, capsular space, nephron loop--descending limb, nephron loop-ascending limb, minor calyx, major calyx D) capsular space, proximal tubule, distal tubule, nephron loop--descending limb, nephron loop--ascending limb, minor calyx, major calyx, papillary duct, cortical collecting duct, medullary collecting duct ANS: B
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108. Urine drains from the urinary bladder via the A) ureteral orifices. B) papillary calyces. C) ureters. D) urethra. ANS: D
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109. Glomeruli are located in the A) renal cortex. B) renal medulla. C) renal pelvis. D) Both a and b are correct.
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ANS: A
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110. The smooth muscle layer of the urinary bladder is also called the _________________
muscle. A) trigone B) detrusor C) levator ani D) rugae ANS: B
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111. The urinary bladder and ureters are lined by A) simple squamous epithelium. B) transitional epithelium. C) pseudostratified columnar epithelium. D) stratified cuboidal epithelium. ANS: B
PTS: 1
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112. True or False? The kidneys regulate erythrocyte formation through the production of
the hormone glucagon. ANS: F
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113. True or False? Renal corpuscles are confined to the renal medulla ANS: F
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114. True or False? Renal columns are extensions of the renal cortex into the renal medulla. ANS: T
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115. True or False? The renal tubule consists of the proximal tubule, nephron loop, distal
tubule, and the collecting system. ANS: F
PTS: 1
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116. Extreme starvation can lead to a loss of fat from the adipose capsule of the kidney. This
leads to drooping of the affected kidney, a condition called nephroptosis. Explain why a loss of the adipose capsule can lead to nephroptosis. ANS:
The adipose capsule helps to wedge to wedge the kidneys against the body wall, holding it in place. When the adipose capsule shrinks, there is insufficient adipose tissue to hold the kidney against the posterior body wall. This causes the kidney to droop. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
117. Ana has advanced kidney disease. As part of her routine lab work, her physician monitors her
complete blood count to check the number of erythrocytes in her blood. The most recent test demonstrated that Ana had a much lower erythrocyte count than normal, leading her TESanemia. TBANKWhat SELL R.relationship COM physician to diagnose her with isEthe between Ana's kidney disease and her anemia? ANS:
The kidneys produce the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates the production and maturation of erythrocytes. When the kidneys are failing, erythropoietin production declines, which can result in anemia. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
118. Your lab partner wonders how the cells of the renal tubules and ducts of the collecting
system obtain oxygen and nutrients when their capillary bed is located only in the renal corpuscle. What is your lab partner misunderstanding about the blood flow in the kidney? Explain his mistake to him. ANS:
The kidneys have two capillary beds, the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries. Filtration occurs in the glomerulus, and reabsorption, secretion, and gas/nutrient exchange takes place in the peritubular capillaries. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
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119. Female patients suffer urinary tract infections, or bacterial infections of the urethra
and urinary bladder, more frequently than do male patients. Why do you think this is so, considering the anatomy of the female and male urinary tracts? ANS:
The female urethra is much shorter than the male urethra, which makes it easier for bacteria to gain access to the urinary bladder. The female urethra is also anatomically closer to the anus, where a large number of bacteria reside. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
120. The condition interstitial cystitis is characterized by insufficient mucus production by the
mucosa and submucosa of the urinary bladder. What signs and symptoms would you expect to see with interstitial cystitis? Why? ANS:
The mucus produced by these tissue layers helps protect the underlying cells from damage as a result of the solutes in urine. Insufficient mucus production could lead to ulceration of the mucosa and submucosa, leading to pain and difficulty with urination. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
121. Would the renal tubule and ducts of the collecting system be able to perform their functions
if their epithelium were stratified rather than simple? Why or why not? ANS:
Large volumes of water and solutes must be rapidly reabsorbed (and some solutes secreted) TESTBANKSELLER.COM across the epithelium of the renal tubule and collecting system. Thick stratified epithelium would make this happen too slowly, and so would prevent the epithelium from performing its function. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
122. Predict how the functioning of the kidney might be affected if the microvilli in the
proximal and distal tubules were destroyed. Explain your reasoning. ANS:
A huge amount of reabsorption takes place in the renal tubule, especially in the proximal tubule. Microvilli are needed to increase surface area so that this reabsorption takes place efficiently. If microvilli were absent, far fewer solutes and far less water would be reabsorbed, leading to fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base imbalances. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 25 Check Your Understanding
123. Juxtaglomerular nephrons _____________. A) account for 85% of all nephrons B) produce the medullary osmotic gradient C) produce creatinine D) A and B ANS: B
PTS: 1
DIF:
Medium
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TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions 124. Renal corpuscle consists of the __________. A) glomerulus and Bowman's capsule B) renal pelvis and papillae C) proximal and distal convoluted tubules D) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Medium
125. The collecting tubular system ____________. A) transports fluid to the renal pelvis B) adjusts the concentration and the amount of urine C) is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D) transports fluid to the renal pelvis and adjusts concentration and composition of
urine ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
126. The term “countercurrents” refers to the _____________. A) lack of exchange between two fluids B) exchange between fluids moving in the same direction C) exchange between fluids moving in the opposite direction D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Medium T E S T B A N K S ELLER.COM Unit 25 Supplemental Questions TOP: 127. The mucosa of the urinary bladder consists of ___________. A) detrusor muscle B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) stratified squamous epithelium D) transitional epithelium ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
128. Which portion of the nephron contains cuboidal cells with microvilli? A) Bowman's capsule B) Glomerulus C) Loop of Henle D) Proximal convoluted tubule ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
129. The hilum of the kidney is NOT the _________. A) prominent indentation B) point of entry of the renal artery and renal nerves C) site of adrenal glands D) All of the above
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ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Medium
130. Which of the following encloses both the kidney and adrenal glands? A) Renal fascia B) Peritoneal fat capsule C) Fibrous capsule D) Visceral peritoneum ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Medium
131. Structures composed at least partly of simple squamous epithelium include the ________. A) collecting tubules B) glomerulus and its capsule C) loop of Henle D) B and C
ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Medium
132. Which structures are freely permeable to water? A) Distal convoluted tubules B) The thick segment of the ascending loop of Henle C) The descending limb of the loop of Henle D) Proximal convoluted tubules E) C and D
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ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Hard
133. Cells with large numbers of mitochondria are found in the ___________. A) thick segment of the loop of Henle B) proximal convoluted tubule C) distal convoluted tubule D) collecting tubule E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Hard
134. Low-pressure capillary beds include the ________. A) glomerulus B) vasa recta C) peritubular capillaries D) renal plexus E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Hard
135. Which statement is TRUE concerning the JG apparatus?
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A) The macula densa secretes renin. B) The granular cells are part of the renal corpuscle. C) The macula densa monitors filtrate concentration. D) The granular cells are mechanoreceptors. E) C and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
136. The barriers in the filtration membrane consist of _____________. A) a fenestrated endothelium that excludes blood cells B) a basement membrane that acts as a barrier against positively charged proteins C) filtration slits that exclude the passage of large proteins like albumin D) a “molecular sieve” that excludes nutrients E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Hard
137. The GFR will be increased by a ______________. A) glomerular hydrostatic pressure of 70 mm Hg B) glomerular osmotic pressure of 35 mm Hg C) sympathetic stimulation of the afferent arteriole D) secretion of aldosterone E) A and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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138. The glomerulus is the same as the ______. A) renal corpuscle B) uriniferous tubule C) nephron D) glomerular capillaries E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
139. Urine passes through the ureters by which mechanism? A) Ciliary action B) Peristalsis C) Gravity D) Suction E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
140. Jim is standing at a urinal in a crowded public restroom, and a long line is forming.
Despite Jim's best efforts, he cannot urinate. What is happening? A) His external urethral sphincter is constricted and will not relax.
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B) His internal urethral sphincter is constricted and will not relax. C) His detrusor muscle is contracting and will not relax. D) He almost certainly has a burst bladder. E) C and D ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
141. A condition that can either be congenital or develop later in life is known as _______. A) hypospadias B) polycystic kidney C) exstrophy D) cystocele E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
142. The kidneys are located in the _____ space. A) pelvic B) peritoneal C) abdominal D) retroperitoneal ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
143. The entrance into the kidney is called the _____. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) sinus B) renal pelvis C) renal column D) hilum ANS: D PTS: 1 Unit 25 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Easy
144. Which structure is the first to collect urine? A) Pelvis B) Calyx C) Ureter D) Urethra ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
145. Each minor calyx receives urine from the _____. A) renal papillae B) pelvis C) ureter D) columns ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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146. Which blood vessel conveys blood out of the nephron? A) Efferent arteriole B) Vasa recta C) Peritubular capillary D) Interlobular vein ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
147. Which blood vessels surround the loops of Henle? A) Vasa recta B) Peritubular capillaries C) Interlobular arteries D) Efferent arterioles ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
148. Which process is most affected by blood pressure? A) Tubular secretion B) Tubular reabsorption C) Glomerular filtration D) Loop of Henle diffusion ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
TESfound TBAN SEglomerular LLER.Cfiltrate? OM 149. Which of the following is NOT inKthe A) Glucose B) Protein C) Uric acid D) Creatinine ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
150. Which muscle metabolism waste product is eliminated by the kidneys? A) Urea B) Uric acid C) Creatine D) Creatinine ANS: D PTS: 1 Unit 25 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Easy
151. Renal secretion of a compound usually occurs from the _____ into the distal
convoluted tubule. A) loop of Henle B) glomerulus C) peritubular capillaries D) vasa recta
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
152. The compound used to assess the function of the kidney at the level of the glomerulus is
_____. A) creatine B) inulin C) creatinine D) B and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 25 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 26 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines glomerular filtration? A) Process by which the nephron and collecting ducts return water and solutes to the
blood B) Process by which the nephron and collecting ducts remove substances from the
blood and add them to the filtrate C) Process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the proximal tubule D) Urinalysis measurement of the concentration of specific waste products ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? A) Fluid that results from glomerular filtration B) The rate at which the glomeruli produce filtrate (avg. 120 mL/min) C) The fluid that results after tubular reabsorption and secretion have taken place D) Both A and B are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines filtration membrane? A) A ball-shaped capillary bed; site of blood filtration in the kidneys B) Ring of smooth muscle located at the inferior end of the esophagus that prevents
contents of the stomach from regurgitating up into the esophagus C) The structure that filters water, glucose, amino acids, electrolytes, and waste
products out of the blood to become filtrate; composed of the glomerular endothelial cells, the basal TESlamina, TBANKand SEpodocytes LLER.COM D) Both A and C are correct ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines filtrate? A) Product of bilirubin production found in urine B) Fluid that results from glomerular filtration C) Rays that project from the renal cortex into the renal medulla D) Fluid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder that contains bile salts ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines tubular reabsorption? A) Process by which the nephron and collecting ducts remove substances from the
blood and add them to the filtrate B) Diagnostic tests performed on urine that assess for the presence and amounts of
certain solutes and other characteristics of the urine C) A solution containing antibodies that bind with specific antigens D) Process by which the nephron and collecting ducts return water and solutes to the
blood ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines tubular secretion? A) Process by which the chemical bonds between food molecules are broken in
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chemical reactions B) First step in the process of lipid digestion C) Chemicals produced from fatty acid oxidation found in the urine when fatty acids are rapidly catabolized D) Process by which the nephron and collecting ducts add substances to the filtrate ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines urine? A) The fluid that results after tubular reabsorption and secretion have taken place B) Measurement of the concentration of specific waste products C) Product of bilirubin production found in urine D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines urinalysis? A) Diagnostic tests performed on urine that assess the presence and amounts of
certain solutes and other characteristics of the urine B) Measurement of the concentration of specific waste products C) Laboratory device used to measure respiratory volumes D) Fluid that results from glomerular filtration ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines specific gravity? A) The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a standard B) Measurement of the weight TESTofBbodily ANKSfluids ELLER.COM C) A weight-to-height ratio that determines how much force it will take to lift a
person from the ground D) Urinalysis measurement of the concentration of specific waste products ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines urobilinogen? A) Muscular hollow organ that contracts via peristalsis to propel urine from the renal
pelvis to the urinary bladder B) The first step in the process of lipid digestion, it breaks up the fat globules into smaller pieces with the help of bile salts C) Product of bilirubin production found in urine that can indicate abnormal conditions or disorders if found in urine outside of the normal range D) Granulocyte whose granules interact strongly with the dark purple stain hematoxylin; least numerous of the leukocytes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines ketones? A) A catalyst to bring about a specific biochemical reaction B) Chemicals produced from fatty acid oxidation found in the urine when fatty acids
are rapidly catabolized C) A conjugated protein having a carbohydrate component D) A single layer of epithelial cells and the underlying basal lamina
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 26.1 Nephron and collecting duct. 12. In Figure 26.1, identify number 1. A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) TEcapsule STBANKSELLER.COM D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. In Figure 26.1, identify number 2. A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are absorbed in number 3? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) 65% of the water, Na+, K+, and Cl–, all of the glucose and amino acids, most of the
HCO3– D) H+, NH4+, creatinine, some drugs, uric acid
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E) K+, H+, possibly HCO3– F) NaCl, Ca2+, water, possibly H+ G) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, water ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are secreted in number 4? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) 65% of the water, Na+, K+, and Cl–, all of the glucose and amino acids, most of the
HCO3– D) H+, NH4+, creatinine, some drugs, uric acid E) K+, H+, possibly HCO3– F) NaCl, Ca2+, water, possibly H+ G) Urea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are absorbed in number 5? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) 65% of the water, Na+, K+, and Cl–, all of the glucose and amino acids, most of the
HCO3– D) H+, NH4+, creatinine, some drugs, uric acid E) NaCl, Ca2+, water, possibly H+ F) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, water G) Urea
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are secreted in number 6? A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. In Figure 26.1, identify number 7. A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
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19. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are absorbed in number 8? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) 65% of the water, Na+, K+, and Cl–, all of the glucose and amino acids, most of the
HCO3– D) H+, NH4+, creatinine, some drugs, uric acid E) K+, H+, possibly HCO3– F) NaCl, Ca2+, water, possibly H+ G) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, water ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 26.1, identify number 9. A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are absorbed in number 10? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) 65% of the water, Na+, K+, and Cl–, all of the glucose and amino acids, most of the
TESTBANKSELLER.COM HCO3– + + D) H , NH4 , creatinine, some drugs, uric acid E) K+, H+, possibly HCO3– F) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, water G) Urea ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
22. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are secreted in number 11? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) H+, NH4+, creatinine, some drugs, uric acid D) K+, H+, possibly HCO3– E) NaCl, Ca2+, water, possibly H+ F) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, water G) Urea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 26.1, which substance(s) are absorbed in number 12? A) 20–25% of the NaCl and K+ B) 20–25% of the water C) 65% of the water, Na+, K+, and Cl–, all of the glucose and amino acids, most of the
HCO3–
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D) H+, NH4+, creatinine, some drugs, uric acid E) K+, H+, possibly HCO3– F) NaCl, Ca2+, water, possibly H+ G) NaCl, urea, HCO3–, water ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 26.1, identify number 13. A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 26.1, identify number 14. A) Collecting duct B) Distal tubule C) Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule D) Glomerulus E) Nephron loop F) Proximal tubule G) Urea ANS: A
PTS: T1ESTBANKS TOP: Unit Exercise ELLE R.26 COPre-Lab M
26. The pressure in the glomerulus that tends to favor filtration is known as the
_______________, and the two pressures that oppose filtration are the _______________ and the _______________. A) capsular hydrostatic pressure; glomerular hydrostatic pressure; colloid osmotic pressure B) glomerular hydrostatic pressure; capsular hydrostatic pressure; colloid osmotic pressure C) colloid osmotic pressure; glomerular hydrostatic pressure; capsular hydrostatic pressure D) capsular hydrostatic pressure; colloid osmotic pressure; glomerular hydrostatic pressure ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
27. The overall force that drives glomerular filtration is known as the A) glomerular osmotic pressure. B) capsular hydrostatic pressure. C) glomerular filtration pressure. D) net filtration pressure. ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
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28. The rate of filtrate formation is known as the __________ and averages about
__________. A) filtrate formation rate; 60 mL/min B) glomerular filtration rate; 120 mL/min C) filtrate formation rate; 120 mL/min D) glomerular filtration rate; 60 mL/min ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
29. What is the purpose of tubular reabsorption? A) To remove substances in the blood and place them into the filtrate B) To reclaim 99 percent of the water from the filtrate C) To reclaim electrolytes, glucose, and amino acids from the filtrate D) Both b and c are correct. E) Both a and b are correct. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
30. Which is the correct pathway that a substance takes when it is reabsorbed from the filtrate? A) Filtrate --> between or through tubule cells --> interstitial fluid --> blood in
peritubular capillaries. B) Blood in peritubular capillaries --> interstitial fluid --> between or through tubule
cells --> filtrate. C) Filtrate --> between or through tubule cells --> interstitial fluid --> blood in
glomerular capillaries. D) Filtrate --> interstitial fluid --> cytosol of tubule cells --> blood in glomerular
capillaries. ANS: A
TESTBANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
31. Which of the following is not a component of the filtration membrane? A) Glomerular endothelial cells B) Podocytes C) Smooth muscle D) Basal lamina ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
32. Why do you find glucose in the filtrate but not formed elements of the blood (erythrocytes,
leukocytes, and platelets)? A) The smooth muscle of the filtration membrane prevents substances from entering the filtrate. B) Formed elements of the blood are too large to fit through the filtration slits of the filtration membrane. Glucose is a very small molecule that can easily fit through the filtration sits, and so it is found in the filtrate. C) Glucose is too large of a molecule to fit through the filtration slits of the filtration membrane. Formed elements of the blood are small enough to easily fit through the filtration slits, and so they are found in the filtrate. D) None of the above. ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
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33. Urinalysis can tell you A) if there is an infection in the kidney or urinary tract. B) if blood sugar is elevated. C) if a person is dehydrated. D) if a person's kidneys function normally. E) All of the above. ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
34. Which of the following substances would you not expect to find in significant amounts in
normal urine? A) Sodium ions B) Proteins C) Urea D) Hydrogen ions ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
35. True or False? The fluid and solutes in the filtrate have been removed from the blood and
are located in the renal tubule. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
36. True or False? The third and finest filter in the filtration membrane is created by the
podocytes and their filtration slits. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 37. True or False? Nephron tubules can reabsorb large proteins and cells that enter the filtrate. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
38. True or False? Substances such as glucose, proteins, and hydrogen ions are secreted into
the filtrate. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Recall
39. Why didn't all of the substances exit your model kidney to enter the “filtrate”? ANS:
The pores in the dialysis tubing were too small to allow cells and most proteins to exit the tube. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
40. What other substances would you expect to find in the “filtrate” surrounding your model
kidney? Explain. ANS:
You would expect to find electrolytes, amino acids, urea, and other small solutes in the “filtrate” surrounding your model kidney.
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PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
41. Dialysis tubing comes in a variety of pore sizes. The size that you used in your experiment
is relatively close to the filtration slits in the filtration membrane. How would your results have changed if you had used dialysis tubing with a pore size about 1,000 times larger than the tubing that you used? Why? ANS:
Such a large pore size (around 7,000 nm) would permit proteins and possibly formed elements to exit the blood. This would have given positive results for protein and possibly blood. (Note: Most leukocytes are still too large to exit at this size.) PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
42. Calculate the net filtration pressure if the glomerular hydrostatic pressure measures 46
mmHg, the colloid osmotic pressure 34 mmHg, and the capsular hydrostatic pressure 10 mmHg. Does this differ from the normal value? If so, how? What effect, if any, would this have on the GFR? ANS:
These conditions result in a NFP of only 2 mmHg, which is extremely low, considering the normal value is 10 mmHg. The low value is due to a decreased GHP and an elevated COP. The low NFP would decrease the amount of fluid filtered at the glomerulus and therefore decrease the GFR. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
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43. Mr. Yien reports to the clinic after having passed reddish-colored urine this morning. He
reports that he has been feeling very fatigued for several weeks and hasn't been urinating as much as usual. He also tells you that three years ago he had a kidney transplant. You order a urinalysis, which is positive for large amounts of blood and protein. What is potentially causing Mr. Yien's problems, given his medical history? Explain. ANS:
This is a concerning sign considering his history of kidney transplant, as he shouldn't have blood and protein in his urine. He could simply have an infection, but it's more likely that he is experiencing renal failure due to pathological damage to his glomeruli. The damaged glomeruli are not effectively filtering the blood and are allowing substances into the filtrate that cannot be reabsorbed such as erythrocytes and proteins. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
44. Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, which results in high blood glucose, often causes
glucose to be found in the urine. Explain this finding. ANS:
Hyperglycemia leads to excess glucose in the filtrate. When the amount of glucose in the filtrate exceeds the transport maximum of the proximal tubule's transporters, it cannot all be reabsorbed. This causes the glucose to be lost to the urine. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
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45. In Exercise 26-3, you traced items that were filtered at the glomerulus. Now consider a
hydrogen ion that is not filtered but is instead secreted from the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate at the distal tubule. Trace the pathway this hydrogen ion would take from the afferent arteriole to the point at which it exits the body of a male in the urine. ANS:
Start: Afferent arteriole --> glomerulus --> efferent arteriole --> peritubular capillary --> distal tubule --> cortical collecting duct --> medullary collecting duct --> papillary duct --> minor calyx --> major calyx --> renal pelvis --> ureter --> urinary bladder --> prostatic urethra --> membranous urethra --> spongy urethra --> external urethral orifice --> Exits the body in the urine. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 26 Check Your Understanding
46. What can an increase in the presence of blood and protein in the urine indicate? A) Urea is being synthesized in the liver B) Urea is being excreted by the liver into the gallbladder C) Inflammation of the glomerulus D) Inflammation of the medullary collecting duct ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
47. Which of the following hormones plays a major role in mediating fluid and electrolyte
balance? A) Both atrial natriuretic peptide and aldosterone TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Aldosterone C) Renin D) Lasix ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
48. When the amount of water you gain each day is equal to the amount you lose to the
environment, you are in ________. A) potassium-sodium pump balance B) acid-base balance C) fluid balance D) bicarbonate balance ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
49. Treatment for hyperkalemia includes _________________. A) a low potassium diet B) administration of sodium bicarbonate C) administration of diuretics D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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50. During acidosis, which of the following is excreted instead of bicarbonate? A) Ca2+ B) Cl– C) K+ D) Na+ ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
51. Renal handling of which ions is chiefly excretory? A) Na+ B) Bicarbonate C) K+ D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
52. Which of these ions accompanies Na+ reabsorption under normal circumstances? A) Bicarbonate B) K+ C) H+ D) Ca2+ ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
STBAflow NKSinEthe LLE R.CisO________. M 53. A major ionic determinantTofEwater body + A) K B) Ca2+ C) Mg2+ D) Na+ ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
54. Which of the following is a normal percent of water to body weight of a middle-aged
man? A) 73% B) 50% C) 45% D) 60% ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
55. The chloride ion concentration in plasma is ______________. A) equal to intercellular fluid B) equal to intercellular plasma C) equal to the sodium concentration in plasma D) less than that in interstitial fluid
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E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
56. Inhibition of ADH ______________. A) is caused by alcohol consumption B) results in edema C) is caused by diarrhea D) is triggered by hyponatremia E) A and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
57. Sodium retention is “uncoupled” from water retention by the action of which hormone? A) Aldosterone B) Atrial natriuretic peptide C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Estrogen E) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
58. The average pH of urine is ____________. A) 4.0 B) 2.0 TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) 8.0 D) 6.0 E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
59. There are instances when some waste molecules are recycled, such as ____________. A) glucose and Na+ recycled through loops of Henle B) urea recycled through the medullary collecting ducts to return to filtrate C) urea recycled through the distal convoluted tubule D) urea recycled through the cortical collecting ducts to return to plasma E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
60. Tubular reabsorption is necessary in order to ______________. A) remove substances from the blood and secrete into the filtrate B) reabsorb 99% of water from the filtrate C) reabsorb 99% of water from the urine D) reabsorb important electrolytes, glucose, and amino acids E) B and D ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF: Hard
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TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions 61. The rate of glomerular filtration is _____________. A) 50 mL/hour B) 120 mL/minute C) 110 mL/hour D) 120 mL/hour E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
62. The pressure mechanisms involved with glomerular filtration rates are __________. A) GHP + COP B) GHP + COP + CHP C) GHP + CHP only D) COP + CHP E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
63. In order for the body to remain properly hydrated, ________________. A) most water enters the body via cellular breakdown B) most water is filtered through the glomerulus C) water is ingested through food and liquids only D) most water enters the body through ingested liquids and food, but is also produced
by cellular metabolismTESTBANKSELLER.COM E) A and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
64. Which of the following substances could appear in the urine from dieting or the utilization
of excess lipids? A) Urea B) Ketone C) Uric acid D) Glucose ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
65. Vigorous exercise could release high amounts of _____ into the urine. A) glycine B) uric acid C) albumin D) vitamin C ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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66. Juxtaglomerular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete _______________ when
_______________. A) angiotensin-converting enzyme; blood pressure increases B) potassium; chloride concentration declines C) renin; blood pressure drops D) atrial natriuretic peptide; blood volume drops ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
67. The kidney secretes _____ for the purpose of stimulating bone marrow activity. A) renin B) aldosterone C) erythropoietin D) somatomedin ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
68. What is the function of the renal system? A) Maintain blood pH B) Regulate blood pressure C) Control blood concentration D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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69. Which of the following has the highest concentration in the urine? A) Glucose B) Sodium C) Uric acid D) Phosphate ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
70. Which ion is secreted in exchange for sodium? A) Chloride B) Potassium C) Calcium D) Magnesium ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
71. Which of the following is NOT usually found in the urine? A) Magnesium B) Urea C) Uric acid D) Glucose ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions 72. How much urine is formed in 24 hours? A) 12 liters B) 100 mL C) 1.5 L D) 3,000 cc ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
73. Inflammation of the glomerulus is indicated by the presence of _________ in the urine. A) glucose B) blood and protein C) albumin D) ketones ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
74. Which of the following occurs by active transport? A) Albumin in the urine B) Creatine in the urine C) Reabsorption of water at the proximal tubule D) Reabsorption of amino acids ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 26 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 27 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines testes? A) Male gonads that produce the male gametes and hormones B) First segment of the male duct system where sperm migrate to finish maturation C) Early stage of the conceptus that consists of an inner cell mass and an outer
trophoblast D) Modified sweat glands that produce milk for offspring ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines seminiferous tubules? A) Duct that transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct in
the prostate gland B) Hollow extensions from the superolateral uterus through which oocytes travel
from the ovary to the uterus C) Tightly coiled tubules in the testes where spermatogenesis takes place D) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines epididymis? A) Tubular structure that carries the ductus deferens and the testicular artery, pampiniform plexus, and testicular nerve from the pelvic cavity to the testis B) First segment of the male duct system where sperm migrate to finish maturation C) Glands located on the posterior urinary bladder that produce part of the volume of
semen
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D) Two chambers of spongy tissue that run along the length of the penis;
open vascular spaces fill with blood during erection ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines ductus deferens? A) Male gonads that produce the male gametes and hormones B) Duct that transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct in
the prostate gland C) Chemicals produced from fatty acid oxidation found in the urine when fatty
acids are rapidly catabolized D) Both A and C are correct ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines spermatic cord? A) Tubular structure that carries the ductus deferens and the testicular artery, pampiniform plexus, and testicular nerve from the pelvic cavity to the testis B) A median column of spongy tissue that surrounds the urethra and enlarges
distally to form the glans penis; fills with blood during erection C) A small gland that surrounds the neck of the bladder and urethra; produces seminal
fluid D) Both A and B are correct
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines seminal vesicle? A) Hollow extensions from the superolateral uterus through which oocytes travel
from the ovary to the uterus B) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair C) The process and formation of sperm that takes place in the seminiferous tubules of the testes D) Glands located on the posterior urinary bladder that produce part of the volume of semen ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines prostate gland? A) A small gland that surrounds the neck of the bladder and urethra B) The process of oocyte formation that takes place in the ovary and the uterine tube C) Produces seminal fluid D) Both A and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines corpus spongiosum? A) A median column of spongy tissue that surrounds the urethra B) Fills with blood during erection C) Enlarges distally to form the glans penis D) All of the above ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise TESTBANKS ELLER.COM
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines corpora cavernosa? A) Rays that project from the renal cortex into the renal medulla B) Two chambers of spongy tissue that run along the length of the penis C) Open vascular spaces fill with blood during erection D) Both B and C are correct ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines ovaries? A) Hollow extensions from the superolateral uterus through which oocytes travel
from the ovary to the uterus B) The lower, narrow portion of the uterus C) Female gonads that produce female gametes and hormones D) External female genitalia that consist of the labia majora, labia minora, the clitoris, and the urethral and vaginal orifices ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines ovarian follicles? A) A small gland that surrounds the neck of the bladder and urethra; produces seminal
fluid B) Structures within the ovary where developing oocytes are encased within cells C) The lower, narrow portion of the uterus
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D) Modified sweat glands that produce milk for offspring ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines uterine tube? A) Female sex organ that extends from the cervix to the external vaginal orifice B) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair C) The lower, narrow portion of the uterus D) Hollow extensions from the superolateral uterus through which oocytes travel
from the ovary to the uterus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines uterus? A) Hollow organ of the female reproductive system into which a fertilized
blastocyst implants B) External female genitalia that consist of the labia majora, labia minora, the clitoris,
and the urethral and vaginal orifices C) Female sex organ that extends from the cervix to the external vaginal orifice D) The process of oocyte formation that takes place in the ovary and the uterine tube ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines cervix? A) Process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the proximal tubule B) Conceptus from the second until the ninth week after fertilization; consists of the
three germ layers and developing organ systems C) The inferior, narrow portion uterus TESTofBthe ANK SELLER.COM D) Anterior portion of the pituitary gland; secretes hormones that largely affect
other glands ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
15. Which of the following statements accurately defines vagina? A) External female genitalia that consist of the labia majora, labia minora, the clitoris,
and the urethral and vaginal orifices B) Hollow organ of the female reproductive system into which a fertilized
blastocyst implants C) The innermost extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the conceptus and
suspends it in amniotic fluid D) Female sex organ that extends from the cervix to the external vaginal orifice ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. Which of the following statements accurately defines vulva? A) External female genitalia that consist of the labia majora, labia minora, the clitoris,
and the urethral and vaginal orifices B) In superior mediastinum; largest/most active during infancy and childhood when
secreting thymosin and thymopoietin C) Female reproductive organs that produce estrogens and progesterone D) Stores ADH and oxytocin produced by the hypothalamus
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. Which of the following statements accurately defines mammary glands? A) Modified sweat glands that produce milk for offspring B) Located on the posterior thyroid gland; secrete parathyroid hormones that
maintain calcium homeostasis C) Female sex organ that extends from the cervix to outside the body D) Located in the posterior/superior diencephalon; secretes melatonin in response to
decreased light levels ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. Which of the following statements accurately defines meiosis I? A) The process by which a cell divides to produce two daughter cells with two
copies of one member of each homologous pair of chromosomes B) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair C) The process by which the resulting sister chromatids from meiosis I are divided
equally into four cells D) The process of oocyte formation that takes place in the ovary and the uterine tube ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. Which of the following statements accurately defines meiosis II? A) Process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the proximal tubule B) The process by which a cell divides to produce two daughter cells with two
copies of one member of each homologous pair of chromosomes C) The process by which the resulting sister chromatids from meiosis I are divided
equally into four cells TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Anterior portion of the pituitary gland; secretes hormones that largely affect
other glands ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. Which of the following statements accurately defines haploid? A) The innermost extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the conceptus and
suspends it in amniotic fluid B) Early stage of the conceptus that consists of an inner cell mass and an outer trophoblast C) Chemical messengers secreted into the bloodstream by endocrine glands that initiate a change in a target cell D) A cell that has only one member of each homologous chromosome pair ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. Which of the following statements accurately defines spermatogenesis? A) The process and formation of sperm, which takes place in the seminiferous tubules
of the testes B) A variant form of a gene C) Inherited traits determined by genes specifically located in the sex chromosomes D) Stores ADH and oxytocin produced by the hypothalamus ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
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22. Which of the following statements accurately defines oogenesis? A) The process by which the glomeruli produce the filtrate that enters the
proximal tubule B) The process by which a cell divides to produce two daughter cells with two copies of one member of each homologous pair of chromosomes C) The process of oocyte formation, which takes place in the ovary and the uterine tube D) The process and formation of sperm, which takes place in the seminiferous tubules of the testes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 27.1A Male reproductive organs: midsagittal section of the male pelvis. 23. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 1. A) Seminal vesicle B) Epididymis C) Liver D) Corpora spongiosum E) Parietal peritoneum F) Peritoneal cavity G) Corpora cavernosa ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 2. A) Corpora spongiosum B) Epididymis C) Peritoneal cavity D) Seminal vesicle E) Parietal peritoneum F) Liver
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G) Corpora cavernosa ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 3. A) Epididymis B) Urinary bladder C) Parietal peritoneum D) Prostate gland E) Peritoneal cavity F) Pelvic diaphragm G) Ductus deferens
ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 4. A) Prostatic urethra B) Prostate gland C) Ejaculatory duct D) Ductus deferens E) Urinary bladder F) Pelvic diaphragm G) Seminal vesicle
ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 5. A) Ejaculatory duct TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Seminal vesicle C) Prostatic urethra D) Prostate gland E) Pelvic diaphragm F) Ductus deferens G) Urinary bladder
ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 6. A) Ductus deferens B) Seminal vesicle C) Prostatic urethra D) Membranous urethra E) Ejaculatory duct F) Prostate gland G) Spongy urethra
ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
29. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 7. A) Spongy urethra B) Prostatic urethra C) Pelvic diaphragm
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D) Ejaculatory duct E) Membranous urethra F) Corpora cavernosa G) Corpora spongiosum ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 8. A) Spongy urethra B) Prostatic urethra C) Membranous urethra D) Urinary bladder E) Pelvic diaphragm F) Seminal vesicle G) Ductus deferens ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
31. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 9. A) Corpora cavernosa B) Pelvic diaphragm C) Membranous urethra D) Corpora spongiosum E) Prostatic urethra F) Spongy urethra G) Ejaculatory duct ANS: C
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: ELLUnit ER.27CPre-Lab OM Exercise
32. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 10. A) Pelvic diaphragm B) Corpora spongiosum C) Prostatic urethra D) Corpora cavernosa E) Ejaculatory duct F) Spongy urethra G) Membranous urethra ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
33. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 11. A) Seminal vesicle B) Ductus deferens C) Epididymis D) Prostatic urethra E) Pelvic diaphragm F) Spongy urethra G) Membranous urethra ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 12.
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A) Epididymis B) Testis C) Seminal vesicle D) Ductus deferens E) Scrotum F) Pelvic diaphragm G) Ejaculatory duct ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 13. A) Rete testis B) Epididymis C) Testis D) Spermatic cord E) Scrotum F) Glans penis G) Pampiniform venous plexus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
36. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 14. A) Scrotum B) Testis C) Tunica vaginalis D) Epididymis E) Pampiniform venous plexus TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Rete testis G) Tunica albuginea ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 15. A) Spongy urethra B) Ductus deferens C) Membranous urethra D) Seminal vesicle E) External urethral orifice F) Ejaculatory duct G) Prostatic urethra ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 16. A) Corpora cavernosa B) Glans penis C) Epididymis D) Testis E) Corpora spongiosum F) Scrotum G) Spongy urethra
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ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 17. A) Corpora cavernosa B) Membranous urethra C) Ejaculatory duct D) Corpus spongiosum E) Spongy urethra F) Glans penis G) Prostatic urethra ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 27.1A, identify number 18. A) Ejaculatory duct B) Corpora spongiosum C) Glans penis D) Spongy urethra E) Prostatic urethra F) Membranous urethra G) Corpora cavernosa ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 27.1B Male reproductive organs: midsagittal section through the testis. 41. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 1. A) Testicular nerve B) Rete testis C) Spermatic cord D) Pampiniform venous plexus E) Seminal vesicle F) Ductus deferens G) Testicular artery ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 2. A) Epididymis (head) B) Epididymis (tail) C) Seminiferous tubules D) Rete testis E) Ductus deferens F) Testicular artery G) Epididymis (body) ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 3. A) Epididymis (head) B) Epididymis (tail) C) Seminiferous tubules TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Rete testis E) Ductus deferens F) Testicular artery G) Epididymis (body) ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 4. A) Ductus deferens B) Rete testis C) Seminal vesicle D) Ejaculatory duct E) Testicular sac F) Testicular artery G) Spermatic cord ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
45. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 5. A) Testicular veins B) Rete testis C) Testicular nerve D) Testicular artery
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E) Pampiniform venous plexus F) Ductus deferens G) Spermatic cord ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
46. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 6. A) Ductus deferens B) Testicular arteriole C) Spermatic cord D) Testicular artery E) Testicular vein F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Testicular nerve ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
47. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 7. A) Testicular nerve B) Ductus deferens C) Testicular vein D) Spermatic cord E) Testicular artery F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Testicular arteriole ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
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48. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 8. A) Epididymis (tail) B) Tunica vaginalis C) Tunica albuginea D) Epididymis (head) E) Tunica testicularis F) Seminiferous tubules G) Rete testis ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
49. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 9. A) Epididymis (body) B) Rete testis C) Epididymis (tail) D) Tunica testicularis E) Seminiferous tubules F) Tunica albuginea G) Epididymis (head) ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
50. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 10. A) Tunica testicularis
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B) Epididymis (tail) C) Epididymis (head) D) Seminiferous tubules E) Tunica vaginalis F) Rete testis G) Tunica albuginea ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
51. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 11. A) Rete testis B) Seminiferous tubules C) Epididymis (head) D) Tunica albuginea E) Epididymis (tail) F) Tunica vaginalis G) Tunica testicularis ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
52. In Figure 27.1B, identify number 12. A) Epididymis (head) B) Epididymis (tail) C) Seminiferous tubules D) Rete testis E) Ductus deferens F) Testicular artery TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Epididymis (body) ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
Figure 27.2A Female reproductive tract: midsagittal section of the female pelvis. 53. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 1. A) Uterine tube
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B) Fimbriae C) Ovary D) Ovarian follicle E) Broad ligament F) Round ligament G) Suspensory ligament of ovary ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
54. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 2. A) Parietal peritoneum B) Fundus of uterus C) Urinary bladder D) Uterus E) Endometrium F) Peritoneal cavity G) Cervix of uterus
ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
55. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 3. A) Uterus B) Cervical os C) Vaginal orifice D) Fundus of uterus E) Vaginal canal F) Lumen (cavity) of uterus TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Fornix
ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
56. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 4. A) Fundus of uterus B) Lumen (cavity) of uterus C) Cervical os D) Vaginal canal E) Fornix F) Vaginal orifice G) Uterus
ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
57. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 5. A) Labium minus B) Clitoris C) Vaginal orifice D) Labium major E) Vaginal tube F) Vaginal canal G) Rectum
ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
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58. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 6. A) Vaginal orifice B) Cervical os C) Urethra D) Vaginal tube E) External urethral opening F) Rectum G) Vaginal canal ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
59. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 7. A) Labium major B) Vaginal canal C) External urethral opening D) Clitoris E) Labium minus F) Urethra G) Vaginal orifice ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
60. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 8. A) External urethral opening B) Labium major C) Urethra TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Clitoris E) Vaginal orifice F) Vaginal canal G) Labium minus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
61. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 9. A) Ovary B) Suspensory ligament of ovary C) Ovarian follicle D) Round ligament E) Broad ligament F) Uterine tube G) Fimbriae ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
62. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 10. A) Fimbriae B) Broad ligament C) Ovary D) Suspensory ligament of ovary E) Ovarian follicle
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F) Uterine tube G) Round ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
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63. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 11. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Rectum C) Infundibulum D) Fimbriae E) Suspensory ligament of ovary F) Round ligament G) Parietal peritoneum ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
64. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 12. A) Peritoneal cavity B) Fornix C) Infundibulum D) Parietal peritoneum E) Suspensory ligament of ovary F) Round ligament G) Fimbriae ANS: D
PTS: 1
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65. In Figure 27.2A, identify number TESTB13. ANKSELLER.COM A) Peritoneal cavity B) Rectum C) Infundibulum D) Parietal peritoneum E) Suspensory ligament of ovary F) Round ligament G) Fimbriae ANS: A
PTS: 1
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66. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 14. A) Uterus B) Urinary bladder C) Cervical os D) Vaginal canal E) Cervix F) Vaginal orifice G) Fornix ANS: E
PTS: 1
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67. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 15. A) Uterus B) Urinary bladder
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C) Cervical os D) Vaginal canal E) Cervix F) Vaginal orifice G) Rectum ANS: B
PTS: 1
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68. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 16. A) External urethral opening B) Uterine tube C) Vaginal canal D) Urethra E) Cervical os F) Vaginal tube G) Vaginal orifice ANS: D
PTS: 1
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69. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 17. A) Vaginal orifice B) Labium major C) Urethra D) Vaginal canal E) Clitoris F) External urethral opening G) Labium minor
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
70. In Figure 27.2A, identify number 18. A) Clitoris B) Urethra C) External urethral opening D) Vaginal orifice E) Labium minus F) Vaginal canal G) Labium major ANS: C
PTS: 1
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Figure 27.2B Female reproductive tract: posterior view of the female reproductive organs in a frontal section. 71. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 1. A) Uterosacral ligament B) Infundibulum C) Broad ligament D) Ovarian blood vessels and nerves E) Round ligament F) Suspensory ligament of ovary TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Ovarian ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
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72. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 2. A) Mesovarium B) Ovarian ligament C) Ovarian blood vessels and nerves D) Mesometrium E) Ovary F) Suspensory ligament of ovary G) Mesosalpinx ANS: C
PTS: 1
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73. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 3. A) Ovarian ligament B) Mesovarium C) Round ligament D) Broad ligament E) Mesosalpinx F) Uterine ligament G) Mesometrium ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
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74. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 4. A) Mesometrium B) Ovarian blood vessels and nerves C) Mesosalpinx D) Round ligament E) Ovarian ligament F) Mesovarium G) Broad ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
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75. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 5. A) Mesovarium B) Mesometrium C) Ovarian ligament D) Round ligament E) Uterine ligament F) Broad ligament G) Mesosalpinx ANS: B
PTS: 1
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76. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 6. A) Ovarian ligament B) Endometrium C) Broad ligament TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Myometrium E) Uterine ligament F) Round ligament G) Perimetrium ANS: C
PTS: 1
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77. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 7. A) Perimetrium B) Fundus of uterus C) Myometrium D) Wall of uterus E) Endometrium F) Uterus G) Body of uterus ANS: G
PTS: 1
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78. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 8. A) Fornix B) Cervical canal C) Wall of uterus D) Cervix E) Body of uterus
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F) Vagina G) Cervical os ANS: D
PTS: 1
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79. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 9. A) Perimetrium B) Fundus of uterus C) Suspensory ligament of ovary D) Body of uterus E) Mesometrium F) Ovarian ligament G) Uterosacral ligament ANS: G
PTS: 1
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80. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 10. A) Ovary B) Mesometrium C) Uterosacral ligament D) Mesosalpinx E) Suspensory ligament of ovary F) Broad ligament G) Mesovarium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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81. In Figure 27.2B, identify number TESTB11. ANKSELLER.COM A) Round ligament B) Ampulla C) Isthmus D) Broad ligament E) Uterine tube F) Infundibulum G) Ovarian ligament ANS: E
PTS: 1
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82. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 12. A) Broad ligament B) Uterosacral ligament C) Round ligament D) Ovarian ligament E) Mesometrium F) Suspensory ligament of ovary G) Mesovarium ANS: D
PTS: 1
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83. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 13. A) Wall of uterus B) Fundus of uterus
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C) Isthmus D) Endometrium E) Perimetrium F) Myometrium G) Body of uterus ANS: B
PTS: 1
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84. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 14. A) Round ligament B) Ampulla C) Infundibulum D) Ovarian follicle E) Isthmus F) Uterine tube G) Fimbriae ANS: E
PTS: 1
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85. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 15. A) Ovarian follicle B) Round ligament C) Infundibulum D) Uterine tube E) Isthmus F) Fimbriae G) Ampulla
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ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Pre-Lab Exercise
86. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 16. A) Isthmus B) Uterine tube C) Ampulla D) Ovarian follicle E) Infundibulum F) Fimbriae G) Round ligament ANS: E
PTS: 1
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87. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 17. A) Ovarian follicle B) Fimbriae C) Round ligament D) Infundibulum E) Uterine tube F) Ampulla G) Isthmus ANS: B
PTS: 1
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88. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 18. A) Uterine tube B) Infundibulum C) Ovarian follicle D) Ampulla E) Isthmus F) Round ligament G) Fimbriae ANS: A
PTS: 1
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89. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 19. A) Ovarian ligament B) Mesometrium C) Uterine ligament D) Mesovarium E) Round ligament (on anterior side of uterus) F) Broad ligament G) Mesosalpinx ANS: E
PTS: 1
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90. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 20. A) Fundus of uterus B) Myometrium C) Wall of uterus D) Endometrium TESTBANKSELLER.COM E) Mesometrium F) Perimetrium G) Fornix ANS: D
PTS: 1
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91. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 21. A) Wall of uterus B) Mesometrium C) Myometrium D) Fornix E) Mesosalpinx F) Perimetrium G) Endometrium ANS: C
PTS: 1
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92. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 22. A) Myometrium B) Fornix C) Endometrium D) Wall of uterus E) Mesometrium F) Perimetrium
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G) Mesovarium ANS: F
PTS: 1
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93. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 23. A) Endometrium B) Wall of uterus C) Myometrium D) Body of uterus E) Perimetrium F) Fundus of uterus G) Round ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
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94. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 24. A) Cervical canal B) Cervix C) Myometrium D) Endometrium E) Fornix F) Vagina G) Cervical os ANS: E
PTS: 1
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95. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 25. A) Vagina TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) Cervix C) Wall of uterus D) Cervical os E) Body of uterus F) Fornix G) Cervical canal ANS: G
PTS: 1
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96. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 26. A) Cervical os B) Cervix C) Wall of uterus D) Cervical canal E) Vagina F) Fornix G) Endometrium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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97. In Figure 27.2B, identify number 27. A) Cervical canal B) Cervical os C) Cervix
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D) Vagina E) Fornix F) Wall of uterus G) Body of uterus ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Figure 27.22 Male reproductive anatomy. 98. In Figure 27.22, identify number 1. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Cremaster muscle E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: C
PTS: 1
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99. In Figure 27.22, identify number 2. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring D) Cremaster muscle E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: E
PTS: 1
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100. In Figure 27.22, identify number 3. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring D) Cremaster muscle
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E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: D
PTS: 1
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101. In Figure 27.22, identify number 4. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring D) Cremaster muscle E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: B
PTS: 1
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102. In Figure 27.22, identify number 5. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring D) Cremaster muscle E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: F
PTS: 1
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103. In Figure 27.22, identify number 6. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring D) Cremaster muscle E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: G
PTS: 1
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104. In Figure 27.22, identify number 7. A) Testicular artery B) Scrotum C) External inguinal ring D) Cremaster muscle E) Spermatic cord F) Pampiniform venous plexus G) Ductus deferens ANS: A
PTS: 1
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Figure 27.23 Midsagittal section through the testis. 105. In Figure 27.23, identify number 1. A) Rete testis B) Tunica vaginalis C) Tunica albuginea TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Epididymis (head) E) Seminiferous tubules F) Epididymis (tail) ANS: F
PTS: 1
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106. In Figure 27.23, identify number 2. A) Seminiferous tubules B) Epididymis (head) C) Epididymis (tail) D) Tunica albuginea E) Vas (ductus) deferens F) Tunica vaginalis ANS: B
PTS: 1
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107. In Figure 27.23, identify number 3. A) Tunica albuginea B) Epididymis (tail) C) Tunica vaginalis D) Epididymis (head) E) Seminiferous tubules F) Rete testis ANS: C
PTS: 1
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108. In Figure 27.23, identify number 4. A) Epididymis (tail) B) Rete testis C) Epididymis (head) D) Tunica albuginea E) Tunica vaginalis F) Seminiferous tubules ANS: D
PTS: 1
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109. In Figure 27.23, identify number 5. A) Tunica vaginalis B) Epididymis (tail) C) Rete testis D) Tunica albuginea E) Seminiferous tubules F) Epididymis (head) ANS: E
PTS: 1
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110. In Figure 27.23, identify number 6. A) Tunica albuginea B) Epididymis (tail) C) Seminiferous tubules D) Epididymis (head) E) Rete testis TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Tunica vaginalis ANS: E
PTS: 1
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Figure 27.24 Midsagittal section through the male pelvis. 111. In Figure 27.24, identify number 1.
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A) Membranous urethra B) Corpora cavernosa C) Spongy urethra D) External urethral orifice E) Seminal vesicle F) Prostate gland G) Corpus spongiosum ANS: E
PTS: 1
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112. In Figure 27.24, identify number 2. A) Membranous urethra B) Corpora cavernosa C) Spongy urethra D) External urethral orifice E) Seminal vesicle F) Prostate gland G) Corpus spongiosum ANS: C
PTS: 1
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113. In Figure 27.24, identify number 3. A) Corpora cavernosa B) External urethral orifice C) Corpus spongiosum D) Prostate gland E) Seminal vesicle TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Spongy urethra G) Membranous urethra ANS: D
PTS: 1
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114. In Figure 27.24, identify number 4. A) Corpus spongiosum B) Corpora cavernosa C) Glans penis D) Membranous urethra E) Spongy urethra F) Seminal vesicle G) Prostate gland ANS: D
PTS: 1
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115. In Figure 27.24, identify number 5. A) Corpus spongiosum B) Corpora cavernosa C) Glans penis D) Membranous urethra E) Spongy urethra F) Seminal vesicle G) Prostate gland
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ANS: A
PTS: 1
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116. In Figure 27.24, identify number 6. A) Glans penis B) Corpora cavernosa C) Spongy urethra D) Corpus spongiosum E) Prostate gland F) Seminal vesicle G) Membranous urethra ANS: B
PTS: 1
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117. In Figure 27.24, identify number 7. A) Seminal vesicle B) Corpora cavernosa C) Glans penis D) Corpus spongiosum E) Ejaculatory duct F) Membranous urethra G) Spongy urethra ANS: C
PTS: 1
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118. In Figure 27.24, identify number 8. A) Bulbourethral gland B) Corpora cavernosa TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Prostate gland D) External urethral orifice E) Membranous urethra F) Corpus spongiosum G) Seminal vesicle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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Figure 27.25 Posterior view of the female reproductive organs. 119. In Figure 27.25, identify number 1. A) Broad ligament B) Uterine tube C) Fimbriae D) Myometrium E) Ovarian ligament F) Perimetrium TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Endometrium ANS: B
PTS: 1
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120. In Figure 27.25, identify number 2. A) Perimetrium B) Broad ligament C) Fimbriae D) Endometrium E) Fundus of uterus F) Myometrium G) Ovarian ligament ANS: B
PTS: 1
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121. In Figure 27.20, identify number 3. A) Ovarian ligament B) Endometrium C) Fimbriae D) Cervix E) Myometrium F) Fornix G) Perimetrium ANS: D
PTS: 1
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122. In Figure 27.20, identify number 4. A) Ovarian ligament B) Endometrium C) Fimbriae D) Cervix E) Myometrium F) Broad ligament G) Perimetrium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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123. In Figure 27.25, identify number 5. A) Cervix B) Broad ligament C) Perimetrium D) Endometrium E) Fundus of uterus F) Myometrium G) Fimbriae ANS: E
PTS: 1
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124. In Figure 27.25, identify number 6. A) Fimbriae B) Broad ligament C) Uterine tube TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Cervical os E) Fundus of uterus F) Ovarian ligament G) Endometrium ANS: A
PTS: 1
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125. In Figure 27.25, identify number 7. A) Myometrium B) Broad ligament C) Perimetrium D) Cervical os E) Fimbriae F) Fundus of uterus G) Endometrium ANS: G
PTS: 1
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126. In Figure 27.25, identify number 8. A) Cervix B) Endometrium C) Perimetrium D) Fundus of uterus E) Fimbriae
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F) Myometrium G) Broad ligament ANS: F
PTS: 1
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127. In Figure 27.25, identify number 9. A) Fornix B) Endometrium C) Perimetrium D) Broad ligament E) Cervix F) Myometrium G) Fimbriae ANS: C
PTS: 1
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128. In Figure 27.25, identify number 10. A) Fornix B) Endometrium C) Perimetrium D) Cervix E) Fundus of uterus F) Myometrium G) Fimbriae ANS: A
PTS: 1
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129. In Figure 27.25, identify number 11. TESTB ANKSELLER.COM A) Vaginal canal B) Myometrium C) Cervical os D) Endometrium E) Fornix F) Perimetrium G) Cervix ANS: C
PTS: 1
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130. In Figure 27.25, identify number 12. A) Vaginal canal B) Myometrium C) Cervical os D) Endometrium E) Fornix F) Perimetrium G) Cervix ANS: A
PTS: 1
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Figure 27.26 Structure of the lactating mammary gland. 131. In Figure 27.26, identify number 1. A) Lactiferous sinus B) Nipple C) Lobe(s) D) Adipose tissue E) Areola F) Lactiferous duct ANS: D
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132. In Figure 27.26, identify number 2. A) Lactiferous sinus B) Nipple C) Lobe(s) D) Adipose tissue E) Areola F) Lactiferous duct ANS: C
PTS: 1
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133. In Figure 27.26, identify number 3. A) Lactiferous sinus B) Nipple C) Lobe(s) D) Adipose tissue E) Areola F) Lactiferous duct ANS: E
PTS: 1
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134. In Figure 27.26, identify number 4. A) Lactiferous sinus B) Nipple
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C) Lobe(s) D) Adipose tissue E) Areola F) Lactiferous duct ANS: B
PTS: 1
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135. In Figure 27.26, identify number 5. A) Lactiferous sinus B) Nipple C) Lobe(s) D) Adipose tissue E) Areola F) Lactiferous duct ANS: A
PTS: 1
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136. In Figure 27.26, identify number 6. A) Lactiferous sinus B) Nipple C) Lobe(s) D) Adipose tissue E) Areola F) Lactiferous duct ANS: F
PTS: 1
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137. Which is the proper order T ofEevents spermatogenesis, STBAofNK SELLER.COMwith number 1 being the first
event and number 5 being the final event? 1. Primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to produce two secondary spermatocytes. 2. Spermatids migrate to the epididymis to undergo spermiogenesis. 3. The two secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II to produce four haploid spermatids. 4. Spermatogonia divide into more spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes. 5. Spermatogonia undergo repeated rounds of mitosis. A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1 D) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 ANS: D
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138. Describe the way in which oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis. A) The number of oocytes a female will produce is determined before birth. B) Oogenesis begins during the fetal period and is arrested in prophase I. C) Spermatogenesis begins during puberty and will continue throughout the
lifespan of the male. D) Oogenesis results in the formation of one ovum and two polar bodies (meiosis II only completes if fertilization occurs). E) Spermatogenesis results in the formation of four spermatids. F) All of the above. ANS: F
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139. The endocrine organ that forms from the ruptured vesicular follicle is called the A) corpus albicans. B) polar body. C) corpus luteum. D) stereocilium.
ANS: C
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Figure 27.27 Ovary and ovarian follicles. 140. In Figure 27.27, identify number 1. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle ANS: D
PTS: 1
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141. In Figure 27.27, identify number 2. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle ANS: C
PTS: 1
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142. In Figure 27.27, identify number 3. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte
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E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle ANS: G
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143. In Figure 27.27, identify number 4. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle
ANS: A
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144. In Figure 27.27, identify number 5. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle
ANS: B
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145. In Figure 27.27, identify number 6. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle
ANS: F
PTS: 1
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146. In Figure 27.27, identify number 7. A) Corpus luteum B) Corpus albicans C) Vesicular follicle D) Secondary oocyte E) Primary oocyte F) Primary follicle G) Secondary follicle
ANS: E
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147. True or False? Gametes result from two rounds of cell division.
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ANS: T
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148. True or False? Meiosis results in diploid cells. ANS: F
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149. True or False? Homologous chromosomes overlap at points called chiasmata or crossover. ANS: T
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150. True or False? The DNA replicates prior to the start of meiosis II. ANS: F
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151. During a vasectomy, the ductus deferens is sectioned and cauterized. How does this
procedure render a male effectively sterile? ANS:
The ductus deferens transports sperm from the seminiferous tubules/epididymis, where they are produced, to the ejaculatory duct. If the ductus deferens is severed, sperm can no longer be transported to the urethra and the male is effectively sterile. PTS: 1
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152. During a vasectomy, the ductus deferens is sectioned and cauterized. Does a vasectomy
stop sperm from being produced? Why or why not? ANS:
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Sperm will continue to be produced because the procedure does nothing to the seminiferous tubules, where sperm production takes place. PTS: 1
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153. The condition benign prostatic hypertrophy, in which the prostate is enlarged, often results
in urinary retention—the inability to completely empty the bladder. Considering the anatomy of the male genitourinary tract, explain this symptom. ANS:
The prostate gland surrounds a portion of the urethra. When enlarged, it can compress the urethra and make the flow of urine irregular, which leads to incomplete emptying of the bladder. PTS: 1
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154. Circe has been unable to get pregnant for two years in spite of fertility treatments, and so she is
undergoing an exploratory surgical procedure to look for possible anatomical causes of her infertility. During the procedure, Circe's physician notes that her fimbriae are extremely short and face laterally rather than surrounding the ovaries. How does this explain her infertility? ANS:
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The fimbriae normally surround the ovary so that they can “catch” the secondary oocyte when it is ovulated, after which it is transported to the uterine tube. If they are short and facing laterally, they will be unable to catch the oocyte, and it will not end up in the uterine tube where it can be fertilized. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Check Your Understanding
155. One of the most common complaints of pregnant women is the need to urinate often.
Explain this, considering the arrangement of the pelvic organs. ANS:
The uterus sits atop the urinary bladder. When the uterus enlarges, it compresses the organs around it, including the bladder. This decreases the amount of urine the bladder can store and necessitates frequent urination. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Check Your Understanding
156. What would happen if DNA replication occurred again before meiosis II? Explain. ANS:
If DNA replication occurred again before meiosis II, the sister chromatids would be replicated and the cells would have four copies of 23 individual chromosomes. At the end of meiosis II, the resulting haploid cell would have two copies of 23 individual chromosomes, a condition that is incompatible with life. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Check Your Understanding
TE STBis ANgenerally KSELLcaused ER.CO 157. The condition epididymitis, which byMa bacterial infection, can result in damage to and scarring of the epididymis. Explain why this can lead to infertility. ANS:
Spermatids migrate to the epididymis to undergo spermiogenesis, which is the process by which they become mature sperm. A scarred epididymis could prevent spermiogenesis from taking place. In addition, it could simply provide a mechanical barrier; the scar tissue could prevent the sperm from moving into the ductus deferens. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Check Your Understanding
158. If a sperm fertilized a polar body, do you think this would result in a viable offspring? Why
or why not? ANS:
In the vast majority of cases it wouldn't result in a viable offspring. The ovum has a large volume of cytoplasm because this must provide nutrients for a conceptus until it has implanted in the endometrium. A polar body is essentially just a bundle of DNA surrounded by a plasma membrane, and has little cytoplasm to sustain it. For this reason, they typically degenerate soon after they form. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 27 Check Your Understanding
159. Which of the following is NOT part of the clitoris?
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A) Corpora cavernosa B) Crura C) Glans D) Corpus spongiosum ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
160. The female Bartholin glands correspond to the male _____. A) prostate B) Cowper's gland C) seminal vesicle D) glans ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
161. Which hormone thickens the lining of the uterus? A) FSH B) Estrogen C) LH D) Progesterone ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
162. Which hormone causes the uterus to increase glycogen secretion? A) Progesterone TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) FSH C) LH D) Estrogen ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
163. The shedding and bleeding of the decidua during menses is directly caused by low levels of
_____. A) FSH B) LH C) sex steroids D) GnRH ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
164. Which of the following is NOT a result of menopause? A) Loss of hormones B) Reduction in breast mass C) Increase in calcium deposition D) Psychological changes ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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165. Specifically, where are sperm cells formed within the testes? A) Within the tunica albuginea B) Within the mediastinum testes C) Within the seminiferous tubules D) In association with interstitial cells ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
166. Which of the following structures is the source of the male sex hormones? A) Epididymis B) Ductus (vas) deferens C) Seminiferous tubules D) Interstitial cells ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
167. The approximate area between the anus and clitoris in the female is known as the ________. A) peritoneum B) perineum C) vulva D) labia E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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168. A test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the uterus and cervix is known as a ________. A) pyelogram B) Pap smear C) laparoscopy D) None of the above E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
169. Separation of the cells at the two-cell stage following fertilization may lead to the
production of twins that in this case would be _________. A) of different sexes B) identical C) fraternal D) dizygotic E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Hard
170. Human ova and sperm are similar because _________. A) about the same number of each is produced per month
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B) they have the same degree of motility C) they are about the same size D) they have the same number of chromosomes E) they are in the meiotic stage of division ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
171. A person who has had this type of mastectomy will have great difficulty adducting the
arms during push-ups. A) Radical mastectomy B) Single mastectomy C) Lumpectomy D) A and B E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 Unit 27 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Hard
172. The embryonic paramesonephric duct gives rise to the __________. A) uterus and uterine tubes B) epididymis and ductus (vas) deferens C) ovaries D) urethra E) sperm ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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173. Which of the following terms are mismatched? A) Vagina-penis B) Testis-ovary C) Labia majora–scrotum D) Oviduct–ductus (vas) deferens E) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
174. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle _____________. A) degenerates B) becomes a corpus luteum C) sloughs off as waste material D) mends and produces another oocyte E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
175. Which of the following statements is false concerning the uterine cervix? A) It is the most superior part of the uterus. B) Its entire mass projects into and lies within the vagina.
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C) Its cervical glands secrete mucus. D) It contains the cervical canal. E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
176. Which cells in the ovaries and testes respond to follicle-stimulating hormone? A) Granulosa cells and sustentacular cells B) Oogonia and spermatogonia C) Theca and interstitial cells D) Germinal epithelium and tunica vaginalis E) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
177. Where do the testes originate in a fetus? A) Scrotal sac B) Pelvic cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Retroperitoneal space ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
178. When do the testes begin to descend? A) At birth B) Two months after birthTESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Two months prior to birth D) In the fifth month of pregnancy ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
179. The failure of testes to descend is referred to as _____. A) inguinal hernia B) strangulated hernia C) vaginal process D) cryptorchidism ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
180. Spermatogenesis is a function of the _____. A) tunica albuginea B) rete teste C) seminiferous tubule D) seminal vesicle ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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TESTBANKSELLER.COM 181. The process of capacitation usually occurs in the _____. A) female reproductive tract B) testis C) prostate D) epididymis ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
182. Which of the following terms includes the other listed terms? A) spermatozoa B) alkaline mucus C) semen D) fructose ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
183. The urethra passes through the _____ of the penis. A) tunica albuginea B) prepuce C) corpus spongiosum D) corpora cavernosa ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
184. Which of the following is NOT compatible with penile erection? TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Parasympathetic stimulation B) Arterial dilation C) Venous compression D) Blood leaving the erectile tissue ANS: D PTS: 1 Unit 27 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Easy
185. Which hormone initiates the changes in puberty? A) FSH B) ICSH C) Testosterone D) GnRH ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
186. Which of the following terms includes the other listed terms? A) Labia B) Clitoris C) Vulva D) Vestibular glands ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
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187. Which of the following female structures corresponds to the scrotum in the male? A) Labia majora B) Labia minora C) Pudendal cleft D) Mons pubis ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
188. The _____ is the space between the labia minora. A) vulva B) vestibule C) vaginal orifice D) pudendal cleft ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 27 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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Unit 28 1. Which of the following statements accurately defines fertilization? A) The first stage of human development B) A fertilized ovum C) The first event in human development; takes place in the uterine tube when sperm
cells encounter a secondary oocyte D) Conceptus from the second until the ninth week after fertilization; consists of the
three germ layers and developing organ systems ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
2. Which of the following statements accurately defines zygote? A) A single cell that results when a sperm and ovum unite B) Conceptus from the ninth week of gestation until birth C) The innermost extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the conceptus and
suspends it in amniotic fluid D) Characterized by progressive organ development and growth ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
3. Which of the following statements accurately defines blastocyst? A) Consists of the three germ layers and developing organ systems B) Fibrous structures attached to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves that anchor
the cusps to the papillary muscles C) Characterized by progressive organ development and growth D) Early stage of the conceptus inner TESTthat BAconsists NKSELof LEanR. COMcell mass and an outer
trophoblast ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
4. Which of the following statements accurately defines embryo? A) Conceptus from the second until the ninth week after fertilization; consists of the
three germ layers and developing organ systems B) Conceptus from the ninth week of gestation until birth C) The first event in human development; takes place in the uterine tube when sperm
cells encounter a secondary oocyte D) Characterized by progressive organ development and growth ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
5. Which of the following statements accurately defines fetus? A) Conceptus from the ninth week of gestation until birth; characterized by
progressive organ development and growth B) Conceptus from the second until the ninth week after fertilization C) Consists of the three germ layers and developing organ systems D) Early stage of the conceptus that consists of an inner cell mass and an outer trophoblast ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
6. Which of the following statements accurately defines chorion?
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A) The innermost extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the conceptus and
suspends it in amniotic fluid B) A temporary organ that allows the transfer of oxygen and nutrients from
the mother to the developing conceptus C) Extraembryonic membrane formed by trophoblast when placenta begins to form at day 11 D) Inherited traits determined by genes specifically located in the sex chromosomes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
7. Which of the following statements accurately defines amnion? A) A temporary organ that allows the transfer of oxygen and nutrients from
the mother to the developing conceptus B) Male reproductive organs that produce testosterone C) The deep region of the adrenal gland that consists of modified sympathetic neurons that secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to sympathetic stimulation D) The innermost extraembryonic membrane that surrounds the conceptus and suspends it in amniotic fluid ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
8. Which of the following statements accurately defines placenta? A) Superficial region of the adrenal gland that consists of glandular tissue and
secretes steroid hormones B) Gland located on anteroinferior neck; composed of thyroid follicles that produce
thyroid hormone and calcitonin
ESTBthe ANtransfer KSELLofER .COMand nutrients from C) A temporary organ thatTallows oxygen the mother to the developing conceptus D) The process and formation of sperm that takes place in the seminiferous tubules
of the testes ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
9. Which of the following statements accurately defines allele? A) The genetic makeup of an organism or what a cell contains in its DNA B) A variant form of a gene C) Inherited traits determined by genes specifically located in the sex chromosomes D) The physical expression of a specific trait, such as hair color or blood type ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
10. Which of the following statements accurately defines phenotype? A) An allele only expressed if two copies of the allele are present B) The physical expression of a specific trait, such as hair color or blood type C) An allele expressed if only one copy of the allele is present D) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
11. Which of the following statements accurately defines genotype? A) The process by which the resulting sister chromatids from meiosis I are divided
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equally into four cells B) The process by which a cell divides to produce two daughter cells with two copies of one member of each homologous pair of chromosomes C) The process of oocyte formation that takes place in the ovary and the uterine tube D) The genetic makeup of an organism, or what a cell contains in its DNA ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
12. Which of the following statements accurately defines autosomal dominant? A) An allele only expressed if two copies of the allele are present B) Inherited traits determined by genes specifically located in the sex chromosomes C) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair D) An allele expressed if only one copy of the allele is present ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
13. Which of the following statements accurately defines autosomal recessive? A) An allele only expressed if two copies of the allele are present B) Inherited traits determined by genes specifically located in the sex chromosomes C) A cell that has only one member of each chromosome pair D) An allele expressed if only one copy of the allele is present ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
14. Which of the following statements accurately defines sex-linked trait? A) Largest/most active during infancy and childhood when secreting thymosin
and thymopoietin B) The process and formation sperm, takes TESofTB ANKSwhich ELLE R.Cplace OM in the seminiferous tubules
of the testes
C) The genetic makeup of an organism or what a cell contains in its DNA D) Inherited traits determined by genes specifically located in the sex chromosomes ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
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Figure 28.1 Embryo in membranes: (A) embryo in uterus; (B) chorionic villi. 15. In Figure 28.1, identify number 1. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Lumen of uterus D) Placenta E) Placental sinus F) Umbilical cord G) Yolk sac ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
16. In Figure 28.1, identify number 2. A) Amnion B) Amniotic fluid in amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Lumen of uterus F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
17. In Figure 28.1, identify number 3. A) Amnion TEScavity TBANKSELLER.COM B) Amniotic fluid in amniotic C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Lumen of uterus F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
18. In Figure 28.1, identify number 4. A) Amnion B) Amniotic fluid in amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Lumen of uterus F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
19. In Figure 28.1, identify number 5. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi
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D) Lumen of uterus E) Placental sinus F) Umbilical cord G) Yolk sac ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
20. In Figure 28.1, identify number 6. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Lumen of uterus D) Umbilical arteries E) Umbilical cord F) Umbilical vein G) Yolk sac ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
21. In Figure 28.1, identify number 7. A) Amnion B) Amniotic fluid in amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Lumen of uterus E) Placental sinus F) Umbilical cord G) Yolk sac ANS: B
PTS: T 1 ESTBANKS TOP: Pre-Lab Exercise ELLUnit ER.28CO M
22. In Figure 28.1, identify number 8. A) Amnion B) Chorionic villi C) Maternal artery D) Maternal vein E) Umbilical arteries F) Umbilical cord G) Umbilical vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
23. In Figure 28.1, identify number 9. A) Amnion B) Chorionic villi C) Maternal artery D) Maternal vein E) Umbilical arteries F) Umbilical cord G) Umbilical vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
24. In Figure 28.1, identify number 10.
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A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi D) Lumen of uterus E) Placental sinus F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
25. In Figure 28.1, identify number 11. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi D) Maternal artery E) Maternal vein F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
26. In Figure 28.1, identify number 12. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Maternal vein D) Placenta E) Placental sinus TESTBANKSELLER.COM F) Umbilical cord G) Umbilical vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
27. In Figure 28.1, identify number 13. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Lumen of uterus D) Maternal vein E) Umbilical arteries F) Umbilical cord G) Umbilical vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
28. In Figure 28.1, identify number 14. A) Amniotic fluid in amniotic cavity B) Chorion C) Lumen of uterus D) Placental sinus E) Umbilical arteries F) Umbilical cord G) Yolk sac
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ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
TESTBANKSELLER.COM Figure 28.2 Fetal cardiovascular anatomy. 29. In Figure 28.2, identify number 1. A) Abdominal aorta B) Aortic arch C) Ductus arteriosus D) Ductus venosus E) Pulmonary veins F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilicus ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
30. In Figure 28.2, identify number 2. A) Abdominal aorta B) Aortic arch C) Ductus arteriosus D) Inferior vena cava E) Pulmonary trunk F) Superior vena cava G) Umbilical cord ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
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31. In Figure 28.2, identify number 3. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Aortic arch E) Inferior vena cava F) Pulmonary trunk G) Umbilical vein
ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
32. In Figure 28.2, identify number 4. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Inferior vena cava E) Pulmonary trunk F) Pulmonary veins G) Superior vena cava
ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
33. In Figure 28.2, identify number 5. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus venosus C) Aortic arch TESTBANKSELLER.COM D) Inferior vena cava E) Pulmonary trunk F) Pulmonary veins G) Superior vena cava
ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
34. In Figure 28.2, identify number 6. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Foramen ovale E) Inferior vena cava F) Pulmonary trunk G) Superior vena cava
ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
35. In Figure 28.2, identify number 7. A) Ductus arteriosus B) Ductus venosus C) Foramen ovale D) Inferior vena cava E) Liver
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F) Placenta G) Superior vena cava ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
36. In Figure 28.2, identify number 8. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Aortic arch E) Inferior vena cava F) Pulmonary trunk G) Superior vena cava ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
37. In Figure 28.2, identify number 9. A) Aortic arch B) Inferior vena cava C) Placenta D) Umbilical arteries E) Umbilical cord F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilicus ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
38. In Figure 28.2, identify number 10. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) Ductus arteriosus B) Ductus venosus C) Aortic arch D) Umbilical arteries E) Umbilical cord F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilicus
ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
39. In Figure 28.2, identify number 11. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Aortic arch D) Inferior vena cava E) Pulmonary trunk F) Superior vena cava G) Umbilical vein
ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
40. In Figure 28.2, identify number 12. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus
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C) Ductus venosus D) Aortic arch E) Inferior vena cava F) Superior vena cava G) Umbilical cord ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
41. In Figure 28.2, identify number 13. A) Aortic arch B) Inferior vena cava C) Superior vena cava D) Umbilical arteries E) Umbilical cord F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilicus ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
42. In Figure 28.2, identify number 14. A) Aortic arch B) Inferior vena cava C) Placenta D) Umbilical arteries E) Umbilical cord F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilicus
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ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
43. In Figure 28.2, identify number 15. A) Aortic arch B) Inferior vena cava C) Placenta D) Umbilical arteries E) Umbilical cord F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilicus ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Pre-Lab Exercise
44. Which phrase most accurately describes the term chorion? A) The early tissues that will go on to form all tissues in the body B) The fetal membrane that contributes to the placenta C) The innermost fetal membrane D) The period that extends from the mother's last menstrual period to birth ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
45. Which phrase most accurately describes the term blastocyst? A) A hollow sphere of cells that implants into the endometrium B) The fetal membrane that contributes to the placenta
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C) A single-celled structure formed after fertilization D) The innermost fetal membrane ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
46. Which phrase most accurately describes the term fetus? A) A hollow sphere of cells that implants into the endometrium B) The early tissues that will go on to form all tissues in the body C) The conceptus from two weeks to eight weeks of development D) The conceptus from nine weeks after fertilization to birth ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
47. Which phrase most accurately describes the term acrosome? A) The fetal membrane that contributes to the placenta B) The early tissues that will go on to form all tissues in the body C) A hollow sphere of cells that implants into the endometrium D) The end of a sperm that contains digestive enzymes ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
48. Which phrase most accurately describes the term zygote? A) A 16-cell ball that reaches the uterus B) The conceptus from two weeks to eight weeks of development C) A single-celled structure formed after fertilization D) A hollow sphere of cells that implants into the endometrium ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
TESTBANKSELLER.COM 49. Which phrase most accurately describes the term morula? A) A single-celled structure formed after fertilization B) A 16-cell ball that reaches the uterus C) The conceptus from nine weeks to birth D) The conceptus from two weeks to eight weeks of development ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
50. Which phrase most accurately describes the term amnion? A) The fetal membrane that contributes to the placenta B) The period that extends from the mother's last menstrual period to birth C) The early tissues that will go on to form all tissues in the body D) The innermost fetal membrane ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
51. Which phrase most accurately describes the term embryo? A) The conceptus from nine weeks to birth B) The conceptus from two weeks to eight weeks of development after fertilization C) A 16-cell ball that reaches the uterus D) A single-celled structure formed after fertilization ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
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52. Explain how oxygen, nutrients, and wastes are exchanged between maternal and fetal
blood via the placenta. A) Maternal blood fills the placental sinuses. Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from the
blood in the placental sinuses into the blood in the chorionic villi. Waste products in the chorionic villi diffuse in the opposite direction--into the maternal blood. B) Maternal blood fills the placental sinuses. Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from the blood in the placental sinuses into the blood in the chorionic villi. Waste products in the maternal blood diffuse into the chorionic villi. C) Maternal blood fills the placental sinuses. Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from the blood in the placental sinuses into the blood in the chorionic villi. Waste products in the placental sinuses diffuse into the maternal blood. D) Maternal blood fills the placental sinuses. Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from the blood in the chorionic villi into the blood in the placental sinuses. Waste products in the chorionic villi diffuse in the opposite direction--into the maternal blood. ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
53. The outermost germ layer is the _________; the middle germ layer is the _________; and
the innermost germ layer is the _________. A) ectoderm; mesoderm; endoderm B) mesoderm; endoderm; ectoderm C) ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm D) endoderm; mesoderm; ectoderm ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
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Figure 28.11 Fetal cardiovascular anatomy. 54. In Figure 28.11, identify number 1. A) Placenta B) Aortic arch C) Superior vena cava D) Inferior vena cava E) Ductus venosus F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilical arteries ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
55. In Figure 28.11, identify number 2. A) Placenta B) Aortic arch C) Superior vena cava D) Inferior vena cava
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E) Ductus venosus F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilical arteries ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
56. In Figure 28.11, identify number 3. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Foramen ovale E) Placenta F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
57. In Figure 28.11, identify number 4. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Foramen ovale E) Placenta F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
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58. In Figure 28.11, identify number 5. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Foramen ovale E) Placenta F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
59. In Figure 28.11, identify number 6. A) Placenta B) Aortic arch C) Superior vena cava D) Inferior vena cava E) Ductus venosus F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilical arteries ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
60. In Figure 28.11, identify number 7. A) Placenta
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B) Aortic arch C) Superior vena cava D) Inferior vena cava E) Ductus venosus F) Umbilical vein G) Umbilical arteries ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
61. In Figure 28.11, identify number 8. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Foramen ovale E) Placenta F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
62. In Figure 28.11, identify number 9. A) Abdominal aorta B) Ductus arteriosus C) Ductus venosus D) Foramen ovale E) Placenta F) Umbilical arteries TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Umbilical vein ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
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Figure 28.12 Embryo in membranes. 63. In Figure 28.12, identify number 1. A) Amnion B) Amniotic cavity TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
64. In Figure 28.12, identify number 2. A) Amnion B) Amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: E
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
65. In Figure 28.12, identify number 3. A) Amnion B) Amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi
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E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
66. In Figure 28.12, identify number 4. A) Amnion B) Amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
67. In Figure 28.12, identify number 5. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi D) Maternal arteries and veins E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Umbilical vein ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
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68. In Figure 28.12, identify number 6. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi D) Maternal arteries and veins E) Placental sinus F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
69. In Figure 28.12, identify number 7. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi D) Maternal arteries and veins E) Placenta F) Umbilical arteries G) Umbilical vein ANS: D
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
70. In Figure 28.12, identify number 8. A) Amnion
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B) Amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: B
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
71. In Figure 28.12, identify number 9. A) Amnion B) Amniotic cavity C) Chorion D) Chorionic villi E) Placenta F) Placental sinus G) Yolk sac ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
72. In Figure 28.12, identify number 10. A) Amnion B) Chorion C) Chorionic villi D) Maternal arteries and veins E) Placental sinus F) Umbilical arteries TESTBANKSELLER.COM G) Umbilical vein ANS: G
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
73. The passing of traits from parents to offspring is known as A) genotype. B) phenotype. C) heredity. D) dominance. ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
74. The ________ is the genetic makeup of an organism, and the ________ is the
physical manifestation of a trait. A) genotype; amnion B) amnion; genotype C) genotype; phenotype D) phenotype; genotype ANS: C
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
75. What is an allele? A) A variant form of a gene. B) A single cell that results when a sperm and ovum unite C) Early stage of the conceptus that consists of an inner cell mass and an outer
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trophoblast. D) All of the above ANS: A
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
76. True or False? The umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood to the conceptus. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
77. True or False? The ductus arteriosus is a vascular shunt from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta.
ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
78. True or False? The ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale bypass the fetal lungs. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
79. True or False? The ductus venosus is a vascular bridge between the umbilical artery and
the inferior vena cava. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
80. True or False? Sex-linked disorders tend to affect males more than females. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
81. True or False? The X and Y chromosomes are called autosomes.
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ANS: F
PTS: 1
82. True or False? A person with two different alleles is homozygous for that trait. ANS: F
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
83. True or False? Blood typing cannot be used to conclusively prove paternity. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
84. True or False? A dominant allele will mask or suppress a recessive allele. ANS: T
PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Recall
85. Explain why diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA are inherited
exclusively from one's mother. ANS: All of a zygote's cytoplasm comes from the ovum; the sperm's only contribution is DNA. Mitochondria are part of the cytoplasm, and so offspring have only maternal mitochondria. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
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86. When the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth, it results in a condition called
patent ductus arteriosus. Predict the signs and symptoms an infant would experience from this condition, and explain your reasoning. ANS: In the fetus, the ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta. However, in the newborn, the pressure is so high in the aorta that it pushes blood backward into the pulmonary trunk and into the lungs. This increases the work of the right side of the heart and increases the pressure in the pulmonary circuit, leading to shortness of breath. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
87. Placental abruption is a condition in which the placenta is pulled away and separated from the
wall of the uterus. Why could this prove life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus? ANS: It could prove life-threatening for the fetus because the placenta is its source of oxygen and nutrients. If the placenta is pulled away from the wall of the uterus, it is no longer in contact with the maternal arteries from which it gets oxygen and nutrients. For the mother, she has a significant amount of blood flowing to the placenta. If it is pulled away from the wall of the uterus, leaving the maternal arteries to simply bleed freely, she could easily hemorrhage. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
88. Active labor generally is considered to begin about the time the “water breaks.” What is
the “water,” and which membranes rupture to release it? What could be the potential consequences if the membranes rupture TESTwere BANtoKS ELLEtoo R.early? COM ANS:
The “water” is the amniotic fluid, and the membrane is the amnion. If the membrane ruptures too early, the protective effect of the amniotic fluid is lost, and the risk of infection and fetal trauma increases. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
89. Further investigation has revealed that Ms. Magenta is in fact not Ms. Rose's mother.
Because of a freak baby-switching accident, Mrs. Feather is really Ms. Rose's biological mother. Mrs. Feather's blood type is determined to be B–. Col. Lemon, Professor Purple, and Mr. Olive remain Ms. Rose's potential fathers. What is Mrs. Feather's phenotype? What are her possible genotypes? ANS:
Phenotype: B-. Genotypes: BB--, BO-PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
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90. In 1943, actor Charlie Chaplin was sued in court for child support by an actress named Joan
Barry, who claimed Chaplin was the father of her child. Blood evidence was presented at the trial: Chaplin was blood type O, Barry was blood type A, and the child was blood type B (the Rh factor was not tested). Presented with this evidence, the jury ruled in favor of Barry, and ordered Chaplin to pay child support until the child's 21st birthday. Did the jury make the right decision? Why or why not? ANS:
The jury made a bad decision. The child needed a B allele from her father, and Chaplin had only O alleles to give. He therefore could not have been the father. PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
91. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
respiratory system. Amy undergoes genetic testing and finds that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the father's phenotype? ANS:
Non-cystic fibrosis PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
92. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
respiratory system. Amy undergoes testing TESTBAgenetic NKSEL LER.and COfinds M that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is Amy's phenotype? ANS:
Non-cystic fibrosis PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
93. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
respiratory system. Amy undergoes genetic testing and finds that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the probability Amy and Rory's offspring will be homozygous dominant? ANS:
50% PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
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94. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
respiratory system. Amy undergoes genetic testing and finds that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the probability Amy and Rory's offspring will be heterozygous? ANS:
50% PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
95. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
respiratory system. Amy undergoes genetic testing and finds that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the probability Amy and Rory's offspring will be homozygous recessive? ANS:
0% PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
96. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
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respiratory system. Amy undergoes genetic testing and finds that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the probability Amy and Rory's offspring will have cystic fibrosis? ANS:
0% PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
97. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder that primarily manifests in the
respiratory system. Amy undergoes genetic testing and finds that she is a carrier of the recessive gene (f, which codes for cystic fibrosis), meaning that she is heterozygous (Ff). Her husband Rory undergoes testing as well and learns that he is homozygous dominant (FF--F does not code for cystic fibrosis). They are seeking genetic counseling to find out their probability of having a child with cystic fibrosis. What is the probability Amy and Rory's offspring will not have cystic fibrosis? ANS:
100% PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
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98. You have just tested two patients' color vision, one male and one female, and found that
both have color blindness. Can you conclusively determine the male's genotype? Can you conclusively determine the female's genotype? Explain why or why not for both patients. What are each patient's potential genotypes? ANS:
You can determine both individuals' genotypes because only one genotype will lead to those two phenotypes. This is because color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait, so the male needs only one copy of the gene to express the trait (XbY) and the female needs two copies of the gene to express it (XbXb). PTS: 1
TOP: Unit 28 Check Your Understanding
99. Chromosomes 1–22 are known as ____________. A) ribosomes B) autosomes C) sex chromosomes D) alleles E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
100. Hemophilia is more common in males than in females because ____________. A) males require two copies of the recessive allele B) males require only one copy of the recessive allele TESofTB ANrecessive KSELLallele ER.COM C) females require two copies the D) females require only one copy of the recessive allele E) B and C ANS: E PTS: 1 Unit 28 Supplemental Questions TOP:
DIF: Hard
101. An example of a sex-linked trait is _______. A) color blindness B) eye color C) hair color D) None of the above E) All of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
102. An allele expressed as the phenotype is _____________. A) a recessive allele B) a dominant allele C) represented with an uppercase letter D) A and C E) B and C
ANS: E
PTS: 1
DIF:
Hard
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TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions 103. An example of a homozygous genotype is ________. A) AA B) inheritance of different alleles from both parents C) inheritance of the same allele from both parents D) A and B E) A and C ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
104. When discussing traits, the two properties of a cell are __________. A) DNA and gene B) DNA and allele C) phenotype and genotype D) recessive and dominant E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
105. Fertilization is the fusion of two __________ cells, each containing __________
chromosomes. A) haploid, half B) diploid, half C) haploid, diploid D) None of the above
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ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
106. The zygote contains __________ chromosomes. A) 46 B) 23 C) 96 D) 92 ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
107. In general, a male with a sperm count of less than __________ million per milliliter
is considered infertile. A) 10 B) 20 C) 5 D) 100 ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
108. The fusion of the male pronucleus with the female pronucleus is known as ______. A) amphimixis
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B) homeostasis C) cytokinesis D) spermiogenesis ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
109. Gestation can be divided into __________, each about three months long. A) trimesters B) seasons C) quarters D) stages ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
110. During the first trimester, __________________. A) the testes descend in the male fetus B) rudiments of major organ systems appear C) major organs become functional D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
111. During embryonic development, __________ primary germ cell layers develop. A) five B) three TESTBANKSELLER.COM C) four D) two
ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
112. The yolk sac contains contributions from the __________ germ cell layer. A) morula B) epiblast C) inner cell mass D) hypoblast ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
113. The amnion contains contributions from the __________ germ cell layer. A) morula B) epiblast C) inner cell mass D) hypoblast ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF:
Easy
114. Which of the following is produced by the placenta?
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A) Placental prolactin B) Relaxin C) Progesterone D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
115. Before gestation, the uterus weighs about _______. A) 2 grams B) 1 pound C) 2 ounces D) 2 pounds ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
116. Delivery of the fetus is known as _____________. A) matriculation B) embryogenesis C) peristalsis D) parturition ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
117. The process of implantation is generally complete by the ____________. A) first week TESTBANKSELLER.COM B) second week C) first month D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
118. Near the end of a full-term pregnancy, the calming effect of progesterone is counteracted by
____________. A) increasing estrogen levels B) prostaglandin production C) increasing oxytocin levels D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
119. In cases of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, the trophoblast ______________. A) divides excessively and spreads to other tissues, behaving much like a cancer B) adheres itself to the uterine tube, resulting in nondevelopment of the embryo C) fails to divide, and a spontaneous abortion occurs D) adheres to the cervix, increasing the chances of a difficult or failed pregnancy ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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120. Growth ceases at _______. A) puberty B) adolescence C) senescence D) maturity ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
121. A person who is heterozygous for a trait has ___________. A) two identical alleles for a given gene B) no alleles for a given gene and will thus not be able to phenotypically express the
trait C) two different alleles for a given gene D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
122. The trigger for the change in shape of red blood cells to a sickle shape in a person with
sickle-cell anemia is a _____________. A) decrease of oxygen in the internal organs B) decrease in the PCO2 in the lungs C) decrease in the PO2 in peripheral capillaries D) All of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Medium TESTBANKSELLER.COM TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
123. Which of the following statements about Down syndrome is correct? A) The syndrome is caused by an error in meiosis. B) The affected individual has three copies of chromosome 21. C) A degree of mental disability as well as distinct physical features will be present. D) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
124. Which of the following trisomy conditions exhibits a degree of mental disability as well
as distinct physical features? A) Down syndrome B) Klinefelter syndrome C) Patau syndrome D) A and C E) All of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
125. Which of the following statements about amniocentesis is correct? A) Only a few disorders can be diagnosed by examining the placental sample.
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B) It is performed routinely in all pregnancies. C) Sampling of the placenta occurs within the second trimester. D) B and C E) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
126. Placenta previa occurs when the _______________. A) ductus arteriosus closes prematurely B) active labor begins C) placenta is too high in the uterus D) placenta is too low in the uterus E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
127. Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus can occur during the seventh to ninth month
of pregnancy from taking certain medications including ________________. A) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories B) antidepressants C) ibuprofen D) A and C E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 28 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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Unit 29 1. The __________ nervous system controls the cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) central D) A and B ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
2. When each ear of a rabbit is scratched separately, the animal is relaxed. When the ears are
scratched at the same time, the animal becomes irritable. Is this a temporal or spatial summation of impulse stimulation? A) Spatial B) Temporal C) A and B D) None of the above ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
3. Carrots contain a hormone that opens potassium channels in neurons. What effect do you
think eating carrots would have on irritability in rabbits? A) Opening the K+ channel would hypopolarize the membrane, causing the cells' Vm to move from threshold. B) Opening the K+ channel would hyperpolarize the membrane, causing the cells' Vm TESTBANKSELLER.COM to move from threshold. C) Opening the K+ channel would have no effect on the membrane. D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
4. What kind of behavioral or cognitive problems would you expect to observe in patients
with damage to the medulla oblongata? A) Inability to control breathing rate B) Inability to speak C) Inability to control blood pressure D) A and C ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
5. What kind of behavioral or cognitive problems would you expect to observe in patients
with damage to the cerebellum? A) Loss of heart rate control B) Loss of breathing control C) Loss of hunger drive D) Loss of control of body movement ANS: D
PTS: 1
DIF: Easy
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TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions 6. What kind of behavioral or cognitive problems would you expect to observe in patients
with damage to the superior colliculus? A) Inability to focus B) Inability to gaze C) Inability to blink D) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
7. Some of the nerves that innervate lymph nodes have been discovered to be adrenergic (i.e.,
they release norepinephrine). This suggests that the ______. A) parasympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity B) parasympathetic nervous system does NOT influence lymph node activity C) sympathetic nervous system must exert the only nervous control of lymph nodes D) sympathetic nervous system may influence the nervous control of lymph nodes ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
8. ____________ is a CNS disease in which the _________ of motor neurons is degenerating
or being destroyed, which interferes with neuronal impulses. A) Multiple sclerosis, myelin sheath B) ALS, twitching C) Senility, impulse D) None of the above TESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
9. You administer ACh to a patient, and observe the change in heart rate. You then
administer hexamethonium (a nicotinic antagonist) followed by the same dose of Ach, and observe no change in the original response to the ACh. Why not? A) Inhibition of nicotinic receptors B) Inhibition of muscarinic receptors C) Small stimulation of nicotinic receptors D) Stimulation of muscarinic receptors ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
10. During a fight-or-flight response, the diameter of the pupil of the eye will _____________. A) stay the same B) decrease C) increase D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Easy
11. The scalene and sternocleidomastoid are predominantly involved in _______________.
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A) active inspiration B) active expiration C) quiet inspiration D) quiet expiration ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
12. If John's vital capacity is 4.5 L and his tidal volume is 525 cc, what is his inspiratory
reserve volume? A) 3,975 mL B) 2,075 mL C) 1,050 mL D) Not enough information to determine ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
13. An individual with type B+ blood has which of the following antibodies in his blood? A) Anti-A and anti-O B) Anti-B and anti-Rh C) Anti-A D) Anti-B ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
14. An individual who has blood type AB-negative _______________. ESTBANKSELLER.COM A) can receive any blood T type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen B) can donate to all blood types in moderate amounts C) can receive A, B, and AB but not type O D) can donate A, B, and AB but not to type O ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
15. If Fred's blood type is AB+, which of the following is TRUE about Fred's blood type? A) There are no antibodies to antigens A, B, or Rh in the plasma. B) The red blood cells have A and B antigens on their nuclei. C) Fred's blood totally lacks the Rh factor. D) Fred cannot receive blood from anyone with O-negative blood type. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
16. Which of the following would have the most anti-B antibodies? A) An adult male with B+ blood B) An adult male with O– blood C) An adult female with B– blood D) A female child with AB+ blood ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
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17. Why is vitamin B12 necessary for erythropoiesis? A) It is necessary for the ejection of the RBC nuclei. B) It is necessary for DNA synthesis. C) It is essential for protein aggregation. D) It is essential for oxygen's nucleophilic reaction with hemoglobin. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
18. After receiving a transfusion of type AB blood, the plasma bilirubin level of a blood type
A patient will _____________________. A) decrease B) stay at the same level C) increase D) None of the above ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
19. If a cardiac patient's dietary vitamin K level decreases below the recommended minimum
dosage, blood clotting time ___________________. A) decreases B) increases C) remains stable D) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 Medium TESTBANKSDIF: ELLE R.COM TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions 20. Ingesting a medication that inhibits Na+ reabsorption by the proximal convoluted tubules
(PCT) will result in ___________. A) increased urinary output B) decreased urinary output C) decreased plasma bilirubin and jaundice D) decreased fat absorption and grey-white feces ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Medium
21. Aldosterone causes __________________. A) decreased K+ in the urine B) increased Na+ in the urine C) increased urinary output D) decreased urinary output E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
22. What is a function of glucocorticoids? A) Increased inflammatory response
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B) Increased blood glucose level C) Decreased lipolysis D) Increased creatinine hydrolysis by osteocytes E) Increased osteoclastic activity ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
23. If a meal consisted of 25 sugar cubes and a liter of Mountain Dew, which hormone might
be secreted in large amounts as a result? A) Insulin B) Glucagon C) Prolactin D) GnRH E) Somastinin ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
24. When the lungs have insufficient oxygen intake, what will the kidneys detect? A) Increased blood sodium levels B) Increased blood glucose levels C) Decreased partial pressure of oxygen in the blood D) Increased dehydration E) Increased ketoacidosis ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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25. A patient with a hypothalamic tumor has a hypersecretion of ADH. Which of the
following BP readings would this patient have? A) 95/65 B) 115/80 C) 120/60 D) 165/100 E) None of the above ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
26. Human chorionic gonadotropin ________________. A) begins to be produced four months after fertilization B) is produced by the prostate C) is produced by the corpus luteum D) is present when there is a successful fertilization E) signals that endometriosis has begun ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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27. Mr. Stevens, a cardiac patient, was diagnosed with a severe infection that required high
doses of antibiotics. These antibiotics can destroy the flora of the large intestine. What other side effects can affect Mr. Stevens? A) Reduced protein absorption B) Reduced blood clotting C) Increased bone resorption D) Loss of respiratory control E) All of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
28. An infant is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of projectile vomiting after each
feeding. The examination reveals that the infant has a thickened pyloric sphincter and is suffering from gastric juice losses. The baby's blood shows signs of __________________. A) acidosis B) alkalosis C) increased leukocytes D) excessively low pH E) excessive proteinuria ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
29. Mrs. Jones was in need of an IV medication for her sluggish colon. The nurse administered
the _________ antagonist to ________ intestinal motility and secretion. TESTBANKSELLER.COM A) parasympathetic, decrease B) sympathetic, increase C) muscarinic, increase D) adrenergic, decrease E) None of the above ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
30. If an astronaut stayed for 180 days in a weightless space station, upon returning to Earth,
he would experience ___________________. A) greatly increased bone mass B) moderately increased bone mass C) greatly decreased muscle mass D) moderately decreased bone mass E) C and D ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: Unit 29 Supplemental Questions
DIF: Hard
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