Gynecologic Health Care: With an Introduction to Prenatal and Postpartum Care 4E Schuiling | TEST BA

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following best defines the term “gender” as used in this text?

A. A person’s sex B. A person’s sex as defined by society C. A societal response to a person’s self-representation as a man or woman D. A person’s biological presentation as defined by himself or herself Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 1

2. Which factor bears most on women’s health care today?

A. The complexity of women’s health B. Women’s status and position in society C. Population growth D. The economy Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Women’s Health Care and Gynecologic Health Subject: Chapter 1

3. Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies?

A. The multiplicity of minority groups complicates the issue.

B. The availability of health care makes acknowledgment more difficult.

C. The diversity of the news media clouds the issue.

D. Affluence and increased opportunities mask oppression.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: What is Feminism?

Subject: Chapter 1

4. Which of the following most accurately defines “oppression” as used in the text?

A. Not having a choice B. Not having a voice

C. An act of tyranny D. A feeling of being burdened Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: What is Feminism?

Subject: Chapter 1

5. In what way does a model of care based on a feminist perspective contrast sharply with a biomedical model?

A. It provides a forum for the exploration of gender issues.

B. It seeks equal distribution of power within the healthcare interaction.

C. It emphasizes women’s rights.

D. It opens new avenues for women’s health care.

Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: A Model of Care Based on a Feminist Perspective Subject: Chapter 1

6. Sex/gender is shaped by ___________and expressed through____________.

A. society, biology B. self-representation, societal expectations C. biology, appearance and behavior D. biology, hormones Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 1

7. Women’s health risks, treatments, and approaches are not always based in science and biology because: A. they are often based on outdated treatments and approaches.

B. they are determined by social expectations and gender assumptions.

C. they often rely on alternative treatments and approaches.

D. scientific research often fails to take women into consideration.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate

Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 1

8. What is a chief failing of the biomedical model in regard to women’s health care?

A. Its reliance on studies comprised exclusively of males B. Its consideration of women as central the model C. Its emphasis on science and medicine D. Its limited definition of “health” as “the absence of disease” Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Social Models versus Biomedical Models of Health Subject: Chapter 1

9. Which feminist strategy is used for analyzing health to expose blind spots in investigations into the scientific basis of women’s health?

A. Look for what has been left out B. Consider the social construction of sex/gender C. Explore the precise ways in which sex/gender defines or affect power relationships D. Consider the risks and benefits of generalizations Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Health Subject: Chapter 1

10. What term refers to the unique combination of multiple identities based on race, class, and gender as well as the compounded experience of oppression based on these identities?

A. Discrimination B. Intersectionality C. Medicalization D. Feminist considerations Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Intersectionality Subject: Chapter 1

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following best defines the term “health disparities” as used in this text?

A. Differences in health experienced by people of color and immigrants to this country B. Differences in health that adversely affect communities that are socially and/or economically disadvantaged C. Differences in health that affect the deaths and morbidity of millions of people D. Differences in health experienced by a person throughout his or her lifespan Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Key Concepts and Definitions Subject: Chapter 2

2. Which of the following best explains why the concept of race was first developed?

A. The concept of race was used to identify specific biological and genetic markers.

B. The U.S. census developed the concept of race to group people more easily into census categories.

C. Slave traders developed the concept of race to justify and support the African slave trade.

D. U.S. colonies and early states developed the concept of race for use in the developing legal system.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: History Subject: Chapter 2

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of the role racism has played in the health and medical treatment of people of color in the United States?

A. Laws enacted to control and abuse the reproductive rights of enslaved women B. Medical research conducted on people of color without receiving their full informed consent C. Criminalization of pregnant people who use drugs D. The need to conduct research on ethnic differences in health outcomes Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: History Subject: Chapter 2

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4. Which of the following is NOT a core tenet of the Critical Race Theory?

A. Race is a factor that must be considered when addressing health disparities.

B. Race is a social construct.

C. Racism preferentially benefits white people over people of color.

D. Racism is a common and everyday experience for people of color.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories and Related Concepts Subject: Chapter 2

5. Which of the following statements is most accurate about social determinants of health?

A. These are the educational papers and research studies that promote evolving understanding of health.

B. These are the social, political, and economic factors that are mostly responsible for health inequities.

C. These are data points that can be used to guide medical responses in times of public health crises.

D. These have been studied by public health administrators and sociologists to address health disparities.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories and Related Concepts Subject: Chapter 2

6. Which of the following helps to explain how one’s health over their lifetime is impacted by biological and social events?

A. World Health Organization B. Structural competency C. Critical race theory D. Lifecourse Health Development Model Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Theories and Related Concepts Subject: Chapter 2

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7. Which of the following skill sets of structural competency recognizes that one can never fully understand how economic, social, and political forces impact another’s life?

A. Recognize the structures that shape clinical interactions.

B. Develop structural humility.

C. Imagine structural intervention.

D. Rearticulate cultural presentations in structural terms.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 2

8. What is suggested by the numerous studies that find an increased allostatic load in Black people as compared to white people?

A. Prolonged exposure to stressors leads to greater adaptation to overall stress levels in those with an increased allostatic load.

B. Black people may have lowered risk for mortality as well as decreased physical and cognitive function.

C. Black people may be better able to manage their stress than white people.

D. Persistent racial differences in health may be influenced by living in a race-conscious society.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: How Racism Impacts Physiology Subject: Chapter 2

9. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for the disparity in breast cancer mortality rates for Black and white women?

A. Black women were less likely to have their mammograms read by a trained specialist.

B. Black women were more likely to have a digital mammogram.

C. White women self-report higher screening mammogram rates than Black women.

D. White women are more likely to exert social pressure on friends and family members to receive screening mammograms.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Inequity in Gynecologic Health Subject: Chapter 2

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10. Which of the following is the most important intervention to address health disparities related to race?

A. Law and policy B. Community expertise C. Workplace diversification D. Reducing implicit bias Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Addressing Racism and Race-Associated Disparities Subject: Chapter 2

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Multiple Choice

1. How does Erick Erikson’s grand theory of human development differ for females?

A. It recognizes achieving autonomy as a primary focus.

B. It assumes only men desire autonomy.

C. It assumes female dependence on another in order to achieve a sense of self.

D. It assumes females desire dependence on others.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3

2. What is true about human development theories published before the 1970s?

A. They are based on interviews conducted only with men.

B. They assume androcentric models can be applied correctly to women.

C. They frame women’s development as flawed in comparison to the standard.

D. All of these are correct.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3

3. What is the intention of the newer feminist models of development?

A. To offer a new model within the traditional biomedical focus B. To offer alternatives to the constrained and previously misapplied models C. To replace male generalist models with female generalist models D. To present a contrast to privileged, white male-based models Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3

4. What is a key limitation of prevailing developmental models for women?

A. The influence of culture, economic status, social interactions and qualitative aspects of how individuals live their lives are not considered.

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B. They present conflicting and misapplied models.

C. Gender differences are assumed to be socially prescribed.

D. The similarities between male and female.

Answer: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Women’s Growth and Development Across the Life Span Subject: Chapter 3

5. What event in female development marks the beginning of a tension between biologic changes and the social context?

A. Turning 18 years old B. The onset of menses C. Onset of puberty as related to body fat mass D. Pregnancy Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3

6. How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity?

A. 3 stages B. 5 stages C. 6 stages D. 8 stages Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3

7. What is the median age for the onset of menstruation for adolescent girls in the United States?

A. 9.8 B. 10.8 C. 12.8 D. 13.8 Answer: C Complexity: Easy

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Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3

8. What factor influences a woman’s affective and behavioral experiences across the lifespan?

A. Failure to take into account social and cultural norms B. The inability to move through the world with credibility and respect C. Poverty D. Difficulty in managing the developmental tasks of adolescence successfully Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3

9. What narrow term is often used to refer to the period of Early Adulthood?

A. Productive years B. Reproductive years C. Young adulthood D. Adolescence Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Early Adulthood Subject: Chapter 3

10. Erikson identified the phases of the life span that encompass the midlife years for women as: A. Intimacy versus isolation B. Integrity versus despair C. Lifestyle consolidation versus emptiness D. Generativity versus self-absorption Answer: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Midlife Subject: Chapter 3

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Multiple Choice

1. What concern prompted the initiation of the modern EBP movement in health care?

A. That clinicians often failed to evaluate the effectiveness of their own care B. That expert opinion was valued over scientific evidence C. That scientific evidence was valued over expert opinion D. That patients were demanding more evidence to support care decisions Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The History of Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4

2. Quine’s (1952) concept of a web of interconnecting beliefs and knowledge supports: A. the inferiority of quantitative research.

B. a multiple-method approach to examining phenomena.

C. the superiority of qualitative research.

D. the difficulties of establishing best practices.

Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: The History of Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4

3. Why are multiple approaches needed to identify best clinical practices?

A. To reflect the multiple variables within clinical settings B. To offer alternatives to poorly functioning practices C. To address the complexity of the human condition D. To ensure that no single approach dominates Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: The History of Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4

4. What is the third part of the clinical decision-making triad that includes clinical experience and patient preference?

A. An investigation of treatment pathways

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B. A consultation with clinical management C. An evaluation of current clinical research D. Establishing research methodology Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Research Evidence Subject: Chapter 4

5. How many classifications are used by the U.S. Preventative Service Task Force to gauge the strength of recommendations for using research evidence in clinical practice?

A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4

6. What are the corresponding clinical terms for Type I and Type II errors in quantitative research?

A. “false positive” and “false negative” B. “negativity” and “positivity” C. “bias I” and “bias II” D. “evidence flaw” and “process flaw” Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4

7. What key factor shapes the methodology of qualitative research?

A. A person’s view of the world B. The ability to establish control over variables C. The ability to establish cause and effect D. A well-conducted meta-analysis Answer: A

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Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4

8. What field of study informs qualitative research?

A. Anthropology B. Ecological psychology C. Sociolinguistics D. All of these are correct.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4

9. The Cochrane Collaboration, PubMed, and the Joanna Briggs Institute are examples of: A. Resources that set guidelines for evaluating healthcare research B. Frameworks used in Translation/Implementation Research C. Sources that provide the clinician with an ability to locate and review relevant research and best evidence efficiently D. Qualitative methods Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Barriers to Achieving Quality Evidence-Based Practice Subject: Chapter 4

10. What type of research relies on the integration of quantitative and qualitative research, patient-oriented research, quality improvement studies and population-based research to improve health outcomes?

A. Interactionism B. Translational C. Naturalistic D. Grounded Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4

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Multiple Choice

1. What approach does Health People 2020 use to achieve its goals and objectives?

A. Social determinants of health B. Evidence-based determinants of health C. Quality-of-life determinants of health D. Longevity promotion determinants of health Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5

2. What percentage of the nation’s gross domestic product was spent on health care in 2017?

A. .9 percent B. 7.9 percent C. 17.9 percent D. 27.9 percent Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5

3. Which of the following is a new focus area added for Healthy People 2020?

A. Lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender health B. Maternal, infant, and child health C. Nutrition and weight status D. Family planning Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5

4. Which two risk factors resulted in annual medical expenses of more than $325 billion in the United States?

A. Lack of preventive care and physical activity

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B. Heart disease and stroke C. Smoking and obesity D. Nutrition and weight status Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Promotion: A National Initiative Subject: Chapter 5

5. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), which is true about the presence of a disease state?

A. It necessitates prompt medical attention.

B. It excludes a person from being considered healthy.

C. It does not exclude a person from being considered healthy.

D. It classifies a person as in poor health.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Health Subject: Chapter 5

6. Which approach to health promotion comes closest to that advocated by the text?

A. Is determined primarily by the clinician B. Pays close attention to cost effectiveness C. Focuses on the absence of disease D. Considers the patient and his or her cultural perceptions Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Health Subject: Chapter 5

7. Which of the following is considered primary prevention?

A. Targeted immunization B. Services that limit an existing disability C. Routine laboratory screening D. Rehabilitation Answer: A Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Defining Prevention Subject: Chapter 5

8. What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women?

A. Motor vehicle accidents B. Falls C. Domestic violence D. All of these are correct Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Effective Counseling Interventions for Healthy, Asymptomatic Women Subject: Chapter 5

9. ACA-compliant insurance policies must cover which of the following preventive service(s)?

A. Well-woman physical exams B. Contraceptives C. Breastfeeding support, maternity and newborn care D. All of these Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Preventive Health Service for Women Under the Affordable Care Act Subject: Chapter 5

10. In the delivery of services aimed at prevention, secondary prevention focuses on which of the following?

A. Health education, counseling, and lifestyle modification B. Early detection of disease and prompt treatment C. Limiting disability and promoting recovery D. All of these Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Defining Prevention Subject: Chapter 5

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Multiple Choice

1. A major contributor to pelvic stability is: A. the coccyx.

B. the pubis.

C. the ilium and its ligaments.

D. the sacrum.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pelvic Anatomy Subject: Chapter 6

2. How many different fiber sections subdivide the levator ani muscular sheet?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pelvic Anatomy Subject: Chapter 6

3. Which arteries supply blood to the clitoris?

A. Arcuate arteries B. Dorsal and clitoral cavernosal arteries C. Two ovarian arteries D. Coiled arteries Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Female Genitalia Subject: Chapter 6

4. What is the approximate number of ovarian follicles at the initiation of puberty?

A. 100,000 B. 200,000

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C. 400,000 D. 600,000 Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Female Genitalia Subject: Chapter 6

5. The four segments of a fallopian tube are the pars interstitialis, the isthus, the ampulla, and the: A. infundibulum.

B. medulla.

C. hilum.

D. myometrium.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Female Genitalia Subject: Chapter 6

6. About how many openings are in the nipple?

A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 15 D. 15 to 20 Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Breast Anatomy and Physiology Subject: Chapter 6

7. What is one of the most frequent reasons women visit their clinician?

A. Changes in menstruation B. Family planning C. Pregnancy D. Prevention and wellness Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology

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Subject: Chapter 6

8. The two hormones responsible for gynecologic organ activities synthesized by the anterior pituitary are: A. Follicle-stimulating hormone and Luteinizing hormone B. Adrenocorticotropin and Follicle-stimulating hormone C. Luteinizing hormone and Melanocyte-stimulating hormone D. Adrenocorticotropin and Prolactin Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Ovarian Axis Subject: Chapter 6

9. During which phase of the ovarian cycle do the follicle’s granulosa cells that are left in the ruptured follicle become enlarged, undergo luteinization, and form the corpus luteum?

A. Follicular B. Proliferative C. Luteal D. Ovulatory Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The Ovarian Cycle Subject: Chapter 6

10. Which statement best describes the evolving care of individuals who are born intersex?

A. The term “disorders of sex development” as a classification method is accepted by intersex individuals.

B. There is no consensus on whether all individuals should receive a gender assignment.

C. Long-term management is not necessary.

D. Today birth certificates do not reflect intersex status.

Answer: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Considerations Subject: Chapter 6

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Multiple Choice

1. What is the primary purpose of taking a health history?

A. To learn about a woman’s health concerns B. To establish a relationship with a woman while learning about her health C. To identify any unresolved/latent health issues D. To ensure that a woman’s healthcare records are up to date Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health History Subject: Chapter 7

2. Which skills are valued in a clinician taking a health history?

A. Respectful attention B. Empathy C. Trust-building D. All of these are correct.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health History Subject: Chapter 7

3. Which one of the following best illustrates trauma-informed care?

A. The clinician advises the patient that she can accept or decline any examination.

B. The clinician knows which examinations are needed, and the patient is expected to comply.

C. A basic assumption is that most patients have not experienced trauma.

D. The patient is expected to respect the clinician’s superior healthcare knowledge.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Context and Approach: Trauma-Informed Care Subject: Chapter 7

4. In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: A. term births.

B. terminal pregnancies.

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C. total number of pregnancies.

D. type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean).

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health History Subject: Chapter 7

5. In a complete physical examination in the ambulatory gynecology setting, it is customary to: A. evaluate major organ systems briefly and carefully, but not exhaustively.

B. ask the woman which physical examination maneuvers should be performed.

C. evaluate major organ systems thoroughly.

D. palpate the precordium.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7

6. How should the order of examination proceed?

A. Head to toe B. Toe to head C. By major organ system D. By concern presented Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7

7. Where may supernumerary occur?

A. Anywhere from the neck to the ankle unilaterally B. Anywhere on the torso C. Anywhere along a vertical line from the axilla to the inner thigh D. Anywhere on the breast tissue, including the tall of Spence Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7

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8. Where in the breast do most malignancies develop?

A. Upper inner quadrant B. Upper outer quadrant C. Lower outer quadrant D. Lower inner quadrant Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7

9. At the completion of Sally’s examination, Dr. Smith was unsure of the degree of severity of a finding. As part of summing up the visit, how should Dr. Smith address this issue?

A. Dr. Smith should not discuss any findings of which he doesn’t know the full implications.

B. Dr. Smith should tell Sally he doesn’t have time to review the examination findings now but will be in touch if anything comes up.

C. Dr. Smith should follow a scripted summation giving the same level of detail to all patients.

D. Dr. Smith should review both normal and abnormal exam findings assuring Sally of prompt follow-up.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conclusion: Summing Up and Documenting Findings Subject: Chapter 7

10. Why are vaginal secretions collected during the speculum examination?

A. For cytology screening B. For microscopy to aid in the diagnosis of vaginal and sexually transmitted infections C. For gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis testing D. Due to concern for a Bartholin cyst or a history of recurrent abscesses Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Appendix 7-C Subject: Chapter 7

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Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is part of the male internal genitalia?

A. Scrotum B. Testes C. Penis D. Vas deferens Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive Anatomy Subject: Chapter 8

2. Which of the following is part of the male external genitalia?

A. Urethra B. Prostrate C. Epididymis D. Seminal vesicles Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive Anatomy Subject: Chapter 8

3. Which of the following refers to the formation of sperm?

A. Erection B. Spermatogenesis C. Circumcision D. Reproduction Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive Physiology Subject: Chapter 8

4. What is the function of the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal (HPG) axis?

A. Regulates reproductive development and functioning B. Formation of sperm

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C. Metabolization of testosterone D. Increases production of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive Physiology Subject: Chapter 8

5. Which of the following statements is NOT typically part of the physical examination during a male SRH visit?

A. Oral examination B. Neurological examination C. Genital examination D. Anal and rectal examination Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual and Reproductive Health Assessment Subject: Chapter 8

6. Which of the following is the preferred testing method for chlamydia?

A. First-catch urine test B. Urethral specimen test C. Blood test D. Rectal testing Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexually Transmitted Infections Subject: Chapter 8

7. What characteristic do all sexual dysfunctions have in common?

A. They are lifelong conditions.

B. They do not develop until after puberty.

C. They cause distress to the person experiencing them.

D. They can be remedied by the HPV vaccination.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Male Sexual Dysfunction

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Subject: Chapter 8

8. Which of the following form of male contraception is intended to be permanent and is more effective than female contraception?

A. Abstinence B. Coitus interruptus C. Condoms D. Vasectomy Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Contraception Subject: Chapter 8

9. Why do neither the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force nor the American Cancer Society recommend that all men perform regular testicular self-examinations?

A. They may be performed incorrectly and lead to a missed diagnosis.

B. Most men are uncomfortable performing testicular self-examinations.

C. It is critical that only trained medical professionals evaluate for testicular irregularities.

D. They do not lead to earlier diagnosis or improved outcomes.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Testicular Cancer Subject: Chapter 8

10. Which of the following is a reason that data on health status and health-related behaviors for gay and bisexual men are sparse and challenging to collect, according to the text?

A. Men are less likely than women to be forthcoming about their sexual preferences and encounters.

B. Sexuality terminology and definitions are not universally agreed on.

C. Medical examinations tend not to ask about sexual identification.

D. Until recently, there has been inadequate care provided to gay and bisexual men.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gay and Bisexual Men’s Health Subject: Chapter 8

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Multiple Choice

1. What does a service grade of D represent in the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommendations?

A. Service carries insufficient evidence to recommend it B. Service is found to be beneficial C. Service is found to be either of no benefit or potentially harmful D. Service should not be routinely provided Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Maintenance: A National Priority Subject: Chapter 9

2. Which statement best defines “risk factor”?

A. Any factor which increases the need for medical attention B. Any behavior which places an individual at risk for illness C. The probability that an individual will develop a medical condition D. An attribute or exposure associated causally with an increased probability of a disease or injury Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Health Maintenance: A National Priority Subject: Chapter 9

3. The USPSTF assigns a certainty level to assess the net benefit of a preventive service based on: A. the nature of the overall evidence available.

B. the cost-effectiveness of a service.

C. known health outcomes.

D. select studies in a limited primary care population.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health Maintenance: A National Priority Subject: Chapter 9

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4. What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer?

A. Screening women age 76 to 85 based on risk factors B. Screening only for those women at increased risk C. Screening for all women starting at age 50 D. Against routine screening in adults age 76 and over Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

5. What is the screening recommendation by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists for intimate partner violence (IPV)?

A. Routinely ask all women direct, specific questions about abuse. Refer to community-based services when identified.

B. Insufficient evidence to recommend for or against routine screening.

C. No screening recommendation.

D. Remain alert for signs of family violence at every patient encounter.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

6. Alcohol consumption is considered hazardous for a woman who has: A. either 5 or more drinks in one week or 3 per occasion.

B. either 7 or more drinks in one week or 3 per occasion.

C. either 9 or more drinks in one week or 4 per occasion.

D. either 10 or more drinks in one week or 5 per occasion.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

7. What is the Task Force recommendation grade assigned to screening all adults for depression?

A. B B. A C. C D. D

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Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

8. How is being overweight defined on the BMI table?

A. 18 to 29.9 B. 20 to 29.9 C. 25 to 29.9 D. 30 or greater Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

9. How is screening for the rubella immunity accomplished?

A. By asking the patient B. By obtaining a history of vaccination or by ordering serologic studies C. By ordering serologic studies D. By obtaining vaccination records Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

10. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to screening all adults for tobacco use?

A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9

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11. Your patient is an asymptomatic 56-year-old woman who quit smoking 10 years ago. When would it be appropriate to recommend lung cancer screening?

A. If she smoked one pack per day for 20 years B. If she smoked two packs per day for 10 years C. If she smoked two packs per day for 15 years D. If she was a social smoker Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Special Populations Subject: Chapter 9

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Multiple Choice

1. If your patient’s health history includes bariatric surgery, why should you educate her about the importance of following up with her bariatric surgeon during her annual gynecological visit?

A. Adherence to the surgeon’s recommendations avoids preventable complications.

B. Advice from the surgeon is needed to maintain a healthy weight.

C. It is important to provide the surgeon with feedback.

D. The surgeon can offer appropriate contraceptive options.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Patient Education Subject: Chapter 10

2. How is body mass index (BMI) calculated?

A. Weight in pounds divided by height in feet squared B. Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared C. Height in meters divided by weight in kilograms squared D. Weight in kilograms squared divided by height in meters Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Description Subject: Chapter 10

3. Bariatric surgery is considered a valid treatment when: A. a person’s BMI is between 35 and 40 and is accompanied by a high-risk comorbid disease.

B. a person’s BMI is more than 25 and is accompanied by hypertension.

C. a person’s BMI is more than 40 and is accompanied by cardiovascular disease.

D. a person’s BMI is between 25 and 29.9 and is accompanied by a high-risk comorbid disease.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Description Subject: Chapter 10

4. Which statement about women who have had bariatric surgery is false?

A. Her record of weight lost should not be included in her health history.

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B. Obesity has been shown to evoke negative responses from clinicians.

C. Subtle, unintentional bias often manifests against these women.

D. Clinicians need to strive to be nonjudgmental regardless of the patient’s body habitus.

Answer: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 10

5. Which is not a complication following bariatric surgery?

A. Hernia formation B. Anemia C. Hearing loss D. Cholelithiasis Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 10

6. Where does iron and calcium absorption primarily occur?

A. Stomach B. Duodenum C. Upper intestine D. Lower intestine Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 10

7. What is the recommended waiting period between bariatric surgery and pregnancy?

A. 6 to 12 months B. 12 to 24 months C. 24 months to three years D. Three to four years Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations

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Subject: Chapter 10

8. Estrogen-containing contraceptive pills are known to increase the incidence of: A. kidney disease.

B. kidney stones.

C. gallstones.

D. Addison’s disease.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10

9. Which one of the following best explains how quality of life improvement is a positive mental health benefit after bariatric surgery?

A. Bariatric surgery is an increasingly popular weight-loss method for women with severe obesity.

B. Weight loss reduces pain and fatigue.

C. Researchers have found the surgery cures eating disorders.

D. Future research is needed to develop tools to evaluate pre- and postoperative mental state.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10

10. What is the recommended prenatal weight gain if a woman’s BMI is 25 to 29.9 (overweight)?

A. 8 to 11 pounds B. 11 to 15 pounds C. 15 to 25 pounds D. 25 to 30 pounds Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10

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Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is the definition of the term gender identity?

A. People who respond erotically to both sexes B. One’s inner understanding of themselves in regard to gender C. People who are similar in age, class, and sexual status D. A label for behavior not usually associated with one’s natal sex Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender and Sexuality Concepts Subject: Chapter 11

2. Which of the following terms refers to the belief that heterosexuality is the best and most normal sexual orientation and that all people should be heterosexual?

A. Lesbianism B. Homophobia C. Heterosexism D. Psychosocialism Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social and Political Context Subject: Chapter 11

3. Which of the following provides a useful lens for examining the impact of homophobia and transphobia experienced by previous generations within the healthcare system?

A. Binary gender construct B. Minority stress C. Microaggressions D. Historical trauma Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Culturally Responsive Care Subject: Chapter 11

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4. Which of the following is NOT a way that clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for LBQ and TNB patients?

A. Arrange the physical environment to include and welcome LBQ and TNB patients.

B. Ensure intake forms are inclusive and provide options relevant to these patients.

C. Assume no data are available to help answer patient questions.

D. Determine and use patients’ preferred name and pronouns.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Culturally Responsive Care Subject: Chapter 11

5. Which of the following statements reflects the finding of a national survey of gay, LBQ, and TNB people, conducted by the Pew Research Center in 2013?

A. Institutionalized homophobia and heterosexism directly impact the economic stability of all gay, LBQ, and TNB people.

B. LBQ women have found significant support from their families, communities, and places of worship.

C. Gay, LBQ, and TNB people historically have had the same rights regardless of geographic location.

D. Violence among LBQ women is at a lower rate than their heterosexual counterparts.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Social Determinants of Health Affecting Lesbian, Bisexual, and Queer Women Subject: Chapter 11

6. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding barriers to health care for lesbian, bisexual, and queer women?

A. People who experience multiple forms of oppression have increased difficulty in accessing care.

B. Lack of understanding of the specific needs of LBQ women is a significant barrier to health care.

C. LBQ women are more likely to have insurance than their heterosexual and cisgender peers.

D. Bisexual women are more likely than lesbian women to delay health care.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Barriers to Health Care for Lesbian, Bisexual, and Queer Women Subject: Chapter 11

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7. Which of the following statements about family building among LBQ women is accurate?

A. LBQ women cannot experience unplanned pregnancy.

B. Most insurance will cover insemination and assisted reproductive technology for LBQ women.

C. Options for LBQ women to become parents include adoption, fostering, or the use of gestational carriers.

D. Fewer LBQ women currently intend to become parents than those in previous generations.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health Disparities Among Lesbian, Bisexual, and Queer Women Subject: Chapter 11

8. Which of the following gender-affirming interventions are unlikely to have associated health risks?

A. Use of prosthetics B. Binding and tucking C. Hormone therapy D. Hair implants Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gender-Affirming Care for Transgender and Nonbinary Individuals Subject: Chapter 11

9. Which of the following statements about vaginal and sexually transmitted infections in TNB people is accurate?

A. Transmasculine people on gender-affirming hormone therapy have been proven to be more susceptible to STIs and HIV. B. Sexual behavior rather than sexual identity is of greater clinical concern when assessing risk for vaginal and sexually transmitted infections.

C. HPV infections cannot occur within a surgically constructed vagina.

D. TNB people are more likely to be screened for HIV infection.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Health Disparities Among Transgender and Nonbinary Individuals Subject: Chapter 11

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10. What is a particular concern regarding gynecologic health for people with disabilities?

A. People with disabilities may engage in developmentally appropriate experimentation but may lack the cognitive skill to discuss this with their clinician.

B. People with disabilities may be reluctant to discuss gynecologic health due to fears of bullying, verbal harassment, or physical assault.

C. Some clinicians may assume people with disabilities have fewer fears or questions about gynecologic health.

D. Some clinicians may assume people with disabilities are asexual and therefore they do not discuss sexuality with these people.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 11

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Multiple Choice

1. A woman’s sexual self-knowledge is: A. is expressed fully only during her middle years.

B. layers and layers that build over the course of a person’s lifetime.

C. associated with youth.

D. reported precisely to clinicians during assessments.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Sexual Self-Knowledge Subject: Chapter 12

2. What are the levels of intervention outlined in the PLISSIT model of addressing sexual function?

A. rapport, history, specific topics, recommendations B. positive tone, privacy, comfort, referral C. permission, limited information, specific suggestions, intensive therapy D. sexual history, concerns, acknowledgment, treatment Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment of Sexual Health Subject: Chapter 12

3. Masters and Johnson and Kaplan, when modified to include element of consent, described the traditional female response cycle as: A. sexual fantasy, thoughts, awareness and arousal B. desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution C. anticipation, physiologic response, pleasure and relaxation D. stimuli, appraisal, arousal and satisfaction Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual Self-Knowledge Subject: Chapter 12

4. The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives,

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including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s: A. sexual health.

B. gender identity.

C. gender role behaviors.

D. psychosocial orientation.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Definitions of Key Terms Subject: Chapter 12

5. Which one of the following general statements about a woman’s healthy sexual functioning is true?

A. Compared to men, women have a stronger biologic urge to be sexual for the release of sexual tension.

B. Unlike men, women experience “drive,” or a sexual desire independent of context.

C. Unlike men, a woman’s sexual arousal is a subjective mental excitement that may or may not be associated with genital awareness.

D. Just like men, orgasmic release of sexual tension in women always occurs in the same way.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual Self-Knowledge Subject: Chapter 12

6. The current cultural emphasis on youth, beauty, and thinness contributes to the prevailing societal misperception of women aged ______ as asexual.

A. 12 to 16 B. 20 to 40 C. 40 to 60 D. 65 and over Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 12

7. Which one of the following statements about clinicians who provide satisfactory sexual health care is false?

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A. They are comfortable with their own sexuality, aware of their own biases, and have a sincere desire to assist their patients.

B. They perform a sexual health assessment that includes physiologic, psychologic, and sociocultural evaluations.

C. They know how various health problems, diseases, and their treatment affect sexual functioning and sexuality.

D. They make assumptions about a woman’s sexual attitudes, values, feelings, and behavior.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment of Sexual Health Subject: Chapter 12

8. In what way can a clinician’s ability to actively listen and ask open-ended focused questions positively impact a woman’s negative conditioning about sex?

A. By assisting her in recognizing personal values about sexuality leading to more conscious choices.

B. By discreetly encouraging her to see things the way the highly educated clinician does.

C. By enforcing the most frequently sexual lifestyles and relationship patterns for women.

D. By helping her to recognize the importance more positive thoughts to please her partner.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual Agency Subject: Chapter 12

9. A restrictive family upbringing that contributes to a woman’s inability to express herself sexually is an example of: A. sexual agency.

B. self-disclosure.

C. cultural influence.

D. sexual guilt.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 12

10. Which question below is an example of a question that should not be included in a sexual health assessment?

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A. How many times a week do you have sex?

B. Is sex pleasurable for you?

C. Are you having sex of any kind with anyone?

D. Do you feel comfortable initiating sex?

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment of Sexual Health Subject: Chapter 12

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Multiple Choice

1. Most research studies on methods of contraception use the term efficacy to refer to: A. the rate of success in those who are spacing their pregnancies.

B. the likelihood of pregnancy when a method is used exactly as prescribed.

C. the number of pregnancies when a method is used improperly or inconsistently.

D. the likelihood of user failure or typical-use failure rates in different populations.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Contraceptive Efficacy and Effectiveness Subject: Chapter 13

2. Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates?

A. None B. Some C. All D. All except sterilization Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Contraceptive Efficacy and Effectiveness Subject: Chapter 13

3. All of the following are physiologic methods of nonhormonal contraception except: A. abstinence.

B. lactational amenorrhea.

C. coitus interruptus.

D. spermicide.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nonhormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

4. Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they: A. can help protect against STIs, including HIV.

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B. are coitus dependent and require planning.

C. are nonallergenic and male controlled.

D. involve the use of hormones.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nonhormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

5. Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as: A. the women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services.

B. a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease.

C. a high likelihood of complications and side effects.

D. the surgery is not covered by insurance.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Nonhormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

6. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are among the most extensively studied medications available. Which one of the following statements about their use has been found to be true?

A. Broad-spectrum antibiotics may enhance their efficacy.

B. They do not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

C. They decrease the relative risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers.

D. Among possible side effects are acne, hirsuitism, and benign breast conditions.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Hormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

7. Compared to COCs, the combined contraceptive patch and vaginal ring: A. have the same theoretical efficacy.

B. offer more opportunity for user error.

C. have lower failure rates in obese women.

D. are available in a larger variety of formulations.

Answer: A

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Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Hormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

8. Progestin-only pills (POPs): A. have no possible side effects.

B. suppress ovulation as reliably as COCs. C. may be taken earlier or later than prescribed.

D. in combination with lactation are nearly 100% effective.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Hormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

9. Sperm can live up to ____ days in the female reproductive tract.

A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 5 Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Hormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13

10. Which one of the following statements about the subdermal progestin implant is false?

A. It is associated with the development of benign follicular cysts.

B. After removal, its contraceptive effects last 10 more months on average.

C. Based on worldwide data, it appears to be as safe as other progestin-only methods.

D. The shortage of research due to its only recent availability is a possible disadvantage.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Long-Acting Reversible Contraception Subject: Chapter 13

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Multiple Choice

1. The North American Menopause Society (NAMS) current position on the use of HT in menopausal women includes: A. HT is indicated for the sole purpose of preventing cardiovascular disease.

B. ET for less than 5 years has significant effect on the risk for breast cancer.

C. HT is recommended for prevention of cognitive aging or dementia.

D. The best risk-to-benefit ratio for HT is among asymptomatic women younger than 60.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Natural Menopause Subject: Chapter 14

2. What type(s) of estrogen are usually present in a woman’s body in the postmenopausal years?

A. Estrone (E1) and estradiol (E2) B. Estrone (E1) and estriol (E3) C. Estradiol (E2) only D. None; women do not produce estrogen after menopause.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Natural Menopause Subject: Chapter 14

3. In general, natural menopause occurs for most women between the ages of _____ years.

A. 40 and 50 B. 44 and 46 C. 40 and 58 D. 39 and 47 Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Natural Menopause Subject: Chapter 14

4. Which one of the following statements about menopause is false?

A. A diagnosis is based on the absence of menses for 6 consecutive months.

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B. Controlling diabetes and hypertension can reduce the severity of symptoms.

C. Similar symptoms may be caused by arrhythmia, thyroid disorders, or tumors.

D. Diagnosis requires a thorough history, a physical exam, and laboratory testing.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Natural Menopause Subject: Chapter 14

5. Which one of the following statements about menopause is true?

A. Symptoms usually begin in the postmenopausal period.

B. Women most frequently report central nervous system symptoms.

C. Hot flashes can last well beyond the first 5 to 7 years following menopause.

D. Women typically experience the most severe symptoms during perimenopause.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Presentation and Variation of the Menopause Experience Subject: Chapter 14

6. Among the midlife health issues of women, the number one cause of mortality in the United States is: A. primary osteoporosis.

B. cardiovascular disease.

C. overweight and obesity.

D. cancer (of the lung and bronchus, breast, and colon).

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Midlife Health Issues Subject: Chapter 14

7. Lifestyle approaches to postmenopausal symptom management include: A. sleeping more than 8 hours per night.

B. avoiding monosodium glutamate, coffee, chocolate, and alcohol.

C. decreasing levels of physical activity.

D. more than 1,000 international units/day of vitamin E. Answer: B Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Patient Education for Lifestyle Approaches to Manage Menopause-Related Symptoms Subject: Chapter 14

8. The standard for managing moderate to severe menopausal symptoms is: A. lifestyle changes, such as dieting and exercising.

B. nonhormone products, such as anticonvulsive medications.

C. alternative care, such as acupuncture, combined with organic herbs.

D. prescription systemic hormone products, such as estrogen and progestogen.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pharmacologic Options for Menopause-Related Symptom Management Subject: Chapter 14

9. When HT is prescribed for relief of the vasomotor symptoms of menopause, patients should: A. find that their symptoms begin to resolve within 2 to 6 weeks.

B. be told that they ought not to experience side effects if they follow directions.

C. return for follow-up with the clinician within one year after the initial dose.

D. initially be given ET or EPT at higher than standard doses.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pharmacologic Options for Menopause Symptom Management Subject: Chapter 14

10. The use of complementary and alternative medicines (CAM): A. by women is on the downturn in the United States.

B. is usually reported to the patient’s primary care clinician.

C. must be taken into account by clinicians for proper patient assessment and care.

D. is scientifically proven to be effective in the management of menopausal symptoms.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Complementary and Alternative Medicine Options for Menopause Symptom Management Subject: Chapter 14

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Multiple Choice

1. Which one of the following statements about intimate partner violence (IPV) is false?

A. It refers to an escalating pattern of abuse.

B. It includes emotional abuse, such as disregarding what a woman wants.

C. It includes using physical force to make a woman engage in a sexual act against her will.

D. It refers to a current or former spouse or dating partner of the opposite sex, not someone of the same sex.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15

2. Which of the following terms refers to a type of intimate partner violence in which the perpetrator limits access to their victim’s family and friends and excessively monitors their whereabouts and communications?

A. Gaslighting B. Psychological aggression C. Coercive control D. Stalking Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15

3. Which of the following phases in the cycle of abuse includes verbal insults and increased arguing by the batterer?

A. Tension-building phase B. Acute battering incident C. Reconciliation phase D. Calm or loving phase Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories of Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15

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4. Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to a woman’s risk of IPV victimization?

A. Lower education levels B. Participation in counseling or therapy C. History of abuse suffered by oneself or one’s family member(s) D. Infidelity (real or perceived) Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Risk Factors Subject: Chapter 15

5. Which of the following is NOT a method a clinician should use to ensure patients feel safe and comfortable in order to disclose abuse during screening?

A. Invite family members, friends, and/or staff members to join the screening visit to share information about any abuse they have witnessed.

B. Ensure the screening visit occurs in a private and supporting environment and ensure there is informed consent given for the screening.

C. Use language that is nonjudgmental and avoid victim-blaming statements or phrases.

D. Discourage the patient’s children from accompanying the patient during the screening portion of the exam.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Evaluation of the Patient Experiencing IPV Subject: Chapter 15

6. Which of the following is NOT an example of a red flag indicator of IPV? A. Patient history that does not match the presenting injury B. Frequent unscheduled, walk-in medical appointments C. Lack of personal awareness or responsibility for one’s actions D. A partner who is overly involved in the patient’s medical examination Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Evaluation of the Patient Experiencing IPV Subject: Chapter 15

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7. Which of these injuries is characterized by swelling or a mass of blood confined to an organ, tissue, or space?

A. Bruise B. Laceration C. Cut D. Hematoma Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Blunt Force Injuries Subject: Chapter 15

8. Which element of the documentation of an injury in a patient’s medical record provide more information to assist with visualization of where injuries occurred on the patient’s body?

A. Written narrative B. Body diagram C. Photo documentation D. Medical journal research Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Documentation Subject: Chapter 15

9. Which of the following specific populations have been recognized by clinicians for being at increased risk for becoming first-time victims of IPV or for experiencing an increase in severity of the violence in their relationship?

A. Women who are elderly B. Women veterans C. Women who are pregnant D. Teenagers and adolescents Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 15

10. Why is it important to begin education about IPV during early school years before children experience their first dating relationship?

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A. Teaching children about healthy relationships and how to reduce teen dating violence may lead to lasting attitudes and beliefs that can reduce the violence.

B. Informing children about the potential for teen dating violence may encourage them to delay entry into their first dating relationship, allowing time for potential partners to mature.

C. Equipping individuals with strategies and tools to break the pattern of abuse has been shown to be less effective if done after puberty.

D. Preventing intimate partner violence is most effectively accomplished when individuals are supported across their life cycle.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Preventing Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15

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Multiple Choice

1. There is no one legal definition of rape, which means: A. clinicians must learn their own state’s definitions and statutes.

B. it is easier to monitor the incidence of sexual violence in the nation.

C. it may be considered a social problem, not a public health problem.

D. measuring risk and identifying protective measures is a simple task.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Definitions Subject: Chapter 16

2. According to Basile et al. (2014), an example of “noncontact sexual abuse,” which is an unwanted sexual experience, is: A. an attempted but not completed sex act.

B. intentional exposure of an individual to exhibitionism.

C. contact between the penis and anus involving penetration.

D. intentional touching of the genitalia through clothing.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Definitions Subject: Chapter 16

3. According to NISVS, (National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey), which statistic below represents those who have experienced some form of contact sexual violence: A. 1 in 4 women and 1 in 10 men B. 1 in 25 women and 1 in 30 men C. 1 in 3 women and 1 in 6 men D. 1 in 3 women and 1 in 4 men Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Epidemiology Subject: Chapter 16

4. Which one of the following statements about genital trauma associated with rape is false?

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A. No method currently available can differentiate genital trauma caused by rape from tampon use.

B. There is a clear need for studies to determine specific patterns of genital injury.

C. Few victims sustain significant genital trauma as a result of a sexual assault.

D. The absence of genital trauma proves consent.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinical Presentation and Concerns Following Sexual Assault Subject: Chapter 16

5. If the patient desires to report the assault, or if a clinician is mandated by law to report, all of the following clinician’s actions are important except: A. a private and quiet area should be provided to take the report.

B. the clinician should be available to provide support.

C. the clinician should explain the legal differences between various forms of forced sexual contact.

D. the clinician should make the patient aware that law enforcement agencies are not bound by same confidentiality standards.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Evaluation of the Sexual Assault Patient Subject: Chapter 16

6. A National Protocol for Sexual Assault Medical Forensic Examinations: Adults/Adolescents, published by the Department of Justice in 2013, recommends that the: A. clinician needs to only address injuries and health concerns.

B. clinician should not inform the patient that information obtained during the exam may be used to prosecute a crime.

C. clinician who cares for sexual assault patients needs no specialized education and training.

D. clinician must collect evidence, follow jurisdictional reporting procedures, and potentially testify in a legal setting.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Evaluation of the Sexual Assault Patient Subject: Chapter 16

7. The clinician’s role in the care of an adult sexual assault victim should:

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A. encompass all aspects of the biopsychosocial needs of the patient.

B. include testing for all sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

C. avoid discussion of vulnerability to future abuse.

D. only focus on the related physical trauma.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 16

8. Regarding medical follow-up of the sexual assault victim, the Department of Justice 2013 study recommends: A. informing a female victim she can follow up as needed.

B. medical follow-up should occur within 1 month.

C. the clinician should contact the victim within 24 to 48 hours following evaluation.

D. all of these.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Medical Follow-Up Subject: Chapter 16

9. When evaluating sexual assault victims, special consideration should be given to children and elderly for all of the following vulnerabilities except: A. they may exhibit a sense of loyalty to the abuser.

B. they may not have opportunities to report sexual violence.

C. they may typically display a distrust of law enforcement.

D. they may be physically unable to leave the situation.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 16

10. To have an impact on the incidence of sexual violence, clinicians must: A. seek out specialized proper education and training on their own continually.

B. apply the sufficient academic education received in medical school to increase awareness.

C. expect the organization to provide all needed and additional sexual violence training.

D. continue practice as usual because the clinician will encounter victims of sexual violence routinely.

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Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Prevention Subject: Chapter 16

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Multiple Choice

1. Cyclic mastalgia: A. more likely causes unilateral, localized pain that is sharp or burning in nature.

B. has an increased risk of occurrence in women whose diets are low in fat.

C. occurs most frequently in women who are 18 to 30 years old.

D. is caused by hormonal changes associated with menstruation.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Mastalgia Subject: Chapter 17

2. The possibility of cancer is associated with mastalgia when the pain: A. occurs in perimenopausal women who are receiving HT. B. is accompanied by skin changes or palpable abnormality.

C. is felt in both breasts equally and is related to a cyclic pattern.

D. is reproducible with palpation of the chest wall.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Mastalgia Subject: Chapter 17

3. Effective for 85% of women who have mild or moderate symptoms of mastalgia, the first line of treatment is: A. reassurance.

B. reduction mammoplasty.

C. isoflavones, or naturally occurring phytoestrogens.

D. 2% lidocaine injection and 40 mg of methyl prednisone.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Mastalgia Subject: Chapter 17

4. Mammary duct ectasia: A. is one of the most common causes of milky nipple discharge.

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B. like intraductal papilloma, is typically unilateral and uniductal.

C. usually occurs in women 20 to 35 years of age.

D. discharge may be green, brown, or black in color.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nipple Discharge Subject: Chapter 17

5. If a woman is complaining of bilateral, milky nipple discharge, the clinician is to first: A. perform a pregnancy test.

B. perform a mammogram and an ultrasound of the breasts.

C. assess the sella turcica with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

D. obtain a serum prolactin level and a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) measurement.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nipple Discharge Subject: Chapter 17

6. The most common benign breast masses are: A. galactoceles.

B. hamartomas.

C. fibroadenomas and cysts.

D. lipomas and phyllodes tumors.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Benign Breast Masses Subject: Chapter 17

7. Which breast tissue sampling procedure is best to use when density or calcification is seen on a mammogram in a location that cannot be effectively assessed with a core biopsy?

A. Fine-needle aspiration B. MRI-guided needle biopsy C. Needle-localized breast biopsy D. Excisional breast biopsy Answer: C Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Benign Breast Masses Subject: Chapter 17

8. Among women aged 55 years and older: A. macromastia is the most common cause of breast masses.

B. breast masses are presumed malignant until proven otherwise.

C. most breast masses decrease in size over time and many resolve completely.

D. diagnostic imaging of a breast mass and tissue sampling should be deferred.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Benign Breast Masses Subject: Chapter 17

9. A woman’s lifetime risk of being diagnosed with breast cancer is: A. 1 in 3.

B. 1 in 8.

C. 1 in 29.

D. 1 in 233.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17

10. No risk factors other than age are identifiable in ______ percent of women with breast cancer.

A. 100 B. 85 C. 60 D. 24 Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17

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Multiple Choice

1. A national study with 31,581 respondents found that ________ percent of women reported having some type of sexual problem, such as orgasm difficulties.

A. 67 B. 44 C. 22.3 D. 10 Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Scope of the Problem Subject: Chapter 18

2. A woman’s sexual complaint may be attributed to: A. physical or mental health factors.

B. sociocultural influences.

C. normal variations of sexuality.

D. All of these are correct.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Etiology Subject: Chapter 16

3. Which one of the following statements about androgen supplementation is false?

A. Adverse effects of its use include acne, liver damage, and decreased levels of HDL cholesterol.

B. There are no androgen therapies approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in women.

C. Correlations between testosterone levels and sexual dysfunction have been found to be consistent across numerous studies.

D. Transdermal preparations are frequently used in women, though dosing is difficult because they are packaged in doses appropriate for men.

Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Further Assessment and Management of Specific Types of Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18

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4. By the time the FDA approved the first medication to address a female sexual desire disorder, how many medications were already on the market to address the same concerns for a man?

A. nearly 30 B. nearly 10 C. between 40 and 50 D. 5 Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 18

5. Management of sexual arousal disorders in women may include any one of the following except: A. treatments that decrease blood flow to the genital tissues.

B. the use of vaginal lubricants to increase stimulation.

C. use of the Eros-CTD, a clitoral therapy device.

D. localized estrogen therapy.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Further Assessment and Management of Specific Types of Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18

6. In a randomized controlled trial, women who used _______, had significantly greater mean improvement in the desire and arousal domains of the FSFI compared to women who used placebo.

A. Yohimbine, an extract from the bark of an African tree B. L-Arginine, one of the ingredients in a nutritional supplement C. Zestra, a topical formulation that contains botanical oils and extracts D. None of these is correct.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Further Assessment and Management of Specific Types of Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18

7. For the woman who has never experienced orgasm, the clinician should:

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A. diagram and describe female genital anatomy to her.

B. recommend Kegel exercises to help inhibit orgasmic response.

C. suggest psychotherapy before suggesting any self-help measures.

D. explain that most women achieve orgasm only through penetration of the vagina.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Further Assessment and Management of Specific Types of Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18

8. A biopsychosocial model takes into account all of the following except: A. sociocultural.

B. interpersonal influences.

C. multiple etiologic factors.

D. resolution.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Models of Sexual Response Subject: Chapter 18

9. Which of the following is true regarding definitions of female sexual dysfunction?

A. Definitions are consistent across organizations.

B. Definitions are inconsistent across organizations.

C. Most well-known sexual health research contains current terminology.

D. DSM-5 contains six categories of female sexual dysfunction.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Definitions of Female Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18

10. Clinicians who see women with sexual dysfunction: A. should continue conducting routine exams and not focus on the dysfunction.

B. should not encourage the woman to address those issues separate from the clinician.

C. should be aware of specialized counseling resources and circumstances that warrant referral.

D. have no responsibility to consult the patient about relevant specialized areas.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy

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Ahead: Referral to Therapists Specializing in Sexual Dysfunctions Subject: Chapter 18

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Multiple Choice

1. All of the following are ways to determine gestational age except: A. patient’s menstrual and sexual history.

B. bimanual examination.

C. ultrasound.

D. blood serum test.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 19

2. Which of the following does not necessarily predict a person’s reaction to a pregnancy diagnosis or their decision about its resolution?

A. individual-level patient care B. gestational age C. intention D. complexity of women’s reproductive experiences Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinically and Ethically Competent Care in the Pregnancy Discovery, Decision-Making, and Resolution Process Subject: Chapter 19

3. When a patient’s decision about a pregnancy causes an irreconcilable conflict between a clinician’s personal beliefs and professional responsibilities, the clinician should: A. make sure the patient understands what those personal beliefs are.

B. continue to work in settings where such conflicts occur frequently.

C. deny comprehensive pregnancy options counseling to the patient.

D. refer the patient to a colleague or to a different setting entirely.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinically and Ethically Competent Care in the Pregnancy Discovery, Decision-Making, and Resolution Process Subject: Chapter 19

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4. All of the alternatives that follow are included in pregnancy options counseling except: A. discontinue the pregnancy.

B. carry the pregnancy and parent the child.

C. assess the need for additional attention after abortion.

D. carry the pregnancy and place the infant for adoption.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pregnancy Options Counseling Subject: Chapter 19

5. Women who present for pregnancy options counseling: A. understand the time-sensitive nature of the decision-making process.

B. should be made aware of the gestational age of the pregnancy.

C. have made their decision and do not need to discuss it.

D. need no further resources to establish a plan of action.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pregnancy Options Counseling Subject: Chapter 19

6. The most recent data on the timing of abortions indicate that __________ percent are performed prior to 13 weeks’ gestation.

A. 99 B. 91.1 C. 77 D. 66 Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Options for Resolving Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 19

7. The methods of abortion used in the United States—in order, with the most common method listed first—are: A. aspiration, medication, induction, surgical.

B. medication, induction, aspiration, surgical.

C. surgical, induction, medication, aspiration.

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D. induction, aspiration, surgical, medication.

Answer: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Options for Resolving Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 19

8. In the United States, approximately ________ women under the age of 20 became pregnant in 2013.

A. 740,000 B. 425,000 C. 1 million D. 75,000 Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 19

9. Unintended pregnancy has been associated with: A. later entry into prenatal care.

B. increased likelihood of breastfeeding.

C. increased mental and physical health.

D. average birth weight.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pregnancy Intention Subject: Chapter 19

10. Professional organizations have created statements of the clinician’s responsibility to the patient. Which of the following do all statements have in common?

A. They do not provide the ethical and legal bases to ensure patient access to health services.

B. Healthcare providers have a duty to uphold patient rights and autonomy.

C. They provide no advice on complex moral situations.

D. They do not consider the uniqueness of the individual patient.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Clinically and Ethically Competent Care in the Pregnancy Discovery, Decision-Making, and Resolution Process Subject: Chapter 19

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Multiple Choice

1. For women younger than 35, infertility is defined as failure to achieve a successful pregnancy after __________ of regular unprotected intercourse.

A. 6 weeks B. 6 months C. 12 weeks D. 12 months Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Scope of the Condition Subject: Chapter 20

2. For a woman older than 35, the clinician will consider infertility treatment after six months of attempting a pregnancy because: A. fecundity begins to increase gradually at age 28.

B. there is a higher risk of pregnancy loss in the older woman.

C. the older woman is not as frivolous as a younger woman might be.

D. conditions that impair fertility decline after age 35.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Scope of the Condition Subject: Chapter 20

3. Certain _________ may protect future fertility by decreasing the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease.

A. contraceptive methods B. caffeinated products C. extremes in BMI D. alcohol intake Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Prevention of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

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4. Among the causes of infertility in women are all of the following except: A. endometriosis.

B. a luteal-phase deficiency.

C. a bicornuate or septate uterus.

D. tubal scarring as a result of an STI. Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Etiologies of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

5. The fertility test that involves radiologic imaging of an injection of a water- or oil-soluble contrast traveling through a women’s reproductive system is called: A. transvaginal ultrasound and hysteroscopy.

B. hysterosalpingogram.

C. semen analysis.

D. laparoscopy.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

6. All of the following diagnostic testing and procedures are now infrequently performed in clinical practice except: A. hysterosalpingogram.

B. sperm penetration assay.

C. the postcoital test (PCT).

D. endometrial biopsy (EMB).

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

7. The infertility evaluation is an opportune time to suggest health promotion behaviors that may specifically improve fertility, including: A. achieving a BMI in the range of 30 to 35 if the woman is under- or overweight.

B. that there is no safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy C. reducing caffeine consumption to no more than 350 mg per day.

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D. None of these is correct.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

8. The form of assisted reproductive technology that requires fertilization to occur within a patent fallopian tube, instead of a laboratory dish, is called: A. intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

B. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).

C. zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT).

D. in vitro fertilization (IVF).

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

9. For women and men with infertility, an option that involves a sperm or egg donor is called: A. assisted reproductive technology (ART).

B. third-party reproduction.

C. child-free living.

D. adoption.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20

10. An ethical question that is specifically about pre-implantation testing with ART has to do with: A. ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced.

B. a surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant.

C. genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders.

D. the implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman.

Answer: C Complexity: Difficult

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Ahead: Additional Considerations Subject: Chapter 20

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Multiple Choice

1. What is the major source of normal vaginal secretions?

A. Bartholin’s glands B. Apocrine glands C. Sebaceous glands D. Cervical mucosa Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Vaginal Microbiome Subject: Chapter 21

2. What is the most important step in preventing vaginal infections?

A. Good personal hygiene B. Healthy diet C. Scented sanitary products D. Douching Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Vaginal Microbiome Subject: Chapter 21

3. What is the term for the inflammation of the vagina characterized by an increased vaginal discharge containing numerous white blood cells?

A. Vaginitis B. Vaginosis C. Cystitis D. Vaginal mucosa Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vaginitis, Vaginosis, and Vulvovaginitis Subject: Chapter 21

4. How does vaginosis differ from vaginitis?

A. It must be treated with metronidazole.

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B. The discharge does not contain white blood cells.

C. The discharge does not have an odor.

D. It causes itching and/or burning.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vaginitis, Vaginosis, and Vulvovaginitis Subject: Chapter 21

5. Which of the following is the most common vaginal infection worldwide?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Vulvovaginitis candidiasis D. Desquamative inflammatory vaginitis Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Bacterial Vaginosis Subject: Chapter 21

6. What is the most common symptom of bacterial vaginosis?

A. Vaginal itching and/or burning B. Cottage cheese-like discharge C. Fishy odor D. Yeasty odor Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Bacterial Vaginosis Subject: Chapter 21

7. What is the most common symptom of vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A. Fishy odor B. Fever C. Thin, grayish-white discharge D. Vulvar pruritis Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

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Subject: Chapter 21

8. Which organism causes vulvovaginal candidiasis in women?

A. Candida tropicalis B. Candida albicans C. Candida glabrata D. Candida krusei Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vulvovaginal Candidiasis Subject: Chapter 21

9. Which population of women are most likely to have desquamative inflammatory vaginitis?

A. Women who are elderly B. Women from a lower socioeconomic status C. Women who are pregnant, premenopausal, or postmenopausal D. Women who are teenagers/adolescents Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Desquamative Inflammatory vaginitis Subject: Chapter 21

10. Which of the following describes a severe illness with an acute onset that includes fever, low blood pressure, a body rash, and end-organ damage?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Toxic Shock Syndrome C. Vulvovaginitis D. Atrophic vaginitis Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Toxic Shock Syndrome Subject: Chapter 21

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Multiple Choice

1. Approximately how many Americans will contract one or more sexually transmitted infections during their lifetime?

A. 50 percent B. 25 percent C. 40 percent D. 60 percent Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 22

2. Why is it often more difficult to detect STIs in women than in men?

A. Men are two times more likely to transmit STIs to women than the reverse.

B. The risk of a woman contracting an STI is much higher than a man’s risk.

C. The anatomy of women’s genital tracts makes examination more difficult.

D. Women tend to have fewer sexual partners than men do.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Transmission of Sexually Transmitted Infections Subject: Chapter 22

3. Who should be screened regularly for STIs? A. Women who have more than one sexual partner B. Women over the age of 21 C. Women who are sexually active D. Women over the age of 15 Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexually Transmitted Infection Screening and Detection Subject: Chapter 22

4. Of the more than 100 known serotypes of human papillomavirus (HPV), approximately how many can infect the genital tract?

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A. 80 B. 60 C. 20 D. 40 Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Papillomavirus and Genital Warts Subject: Chapter 22

5. Routine HPV vaccination is recommended for girls of what age?

A. 8 to 9 B. 13 to 14 C. 6 to 7 D. 11 to 12 Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Human Papillomavirus and Genital Warts Subject: Chapter 22

6. An initial or primary genital herpes infection characteristically lasts about: A. one week.

B. three weeks.

C. one month.

D. six weeks.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Genital Herpes Subject: Chapter 22

7. How do systemic antiviral drugs treat genital herpes?

A. They can control the symptoms.

B. They can reduce the frequency of recurrences after discontinuation.

C. They can prevent transmission to sexual partners.

D. They can prevent secondary infection.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Genital Herpes Subject: Chapter 22

8. Which of the following is caused by an anaerobic one-celled protozoan that commonly lives in the vagina?

A. Trichomoniasis B. Chlamydia C. Gonorrhea D. Syphilis Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Trichomoniasis Subject: Chapter 22

9. The prevalence of chlamydia is how many times higher in black women than in white women?

A. Two times B. Three times C. Five times D. Four times Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Chlamydia Subject: Chapter 22

10. The second most commonly reported STI after chlamydia is: A. gonorrhea.

B. pelvic inflammatory disease.

C. syphilis.

D. hepatitis B. Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gonorrhea Subject: Chapter 22

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Multiple Choice

1. Half of all women have experienced a urinary tract infection (UTI) by age: A. 18.

B. 24.

C. 40.

D. 32.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Scope of the Problem Subject: Chapter 23

2. How does women’s anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? A. Asymptomatic UTIs do not resolve themselves without treatment.

B. Women tend to get UTIs when they are pregnant.

C. There is a longer distance between the urethra and anus.

D. Their urethras are shorter.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Etiology Subject: Chapter 23

3. What is the most common type of UTI that affects women?

A. Acute bacterial cystitis B. Pyelonephritis C. Asymptomatic bacteruria D. Pyelitis Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Urinary Tract Infections Subject: Chapter 23

4. Uncomplicated acute bacterial cystitis occurs in women who: A. are pregnant.

B. have no signs of upper tract infection.

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C. have a high fever.

D. have had recent antibiotics.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Urinary Tract Infections Subject: Chapter 23

5. What distinguishes pyelonephritis from cystitis?

A. The infection has descended to the bladder.

B. The infection has ascended to the kidneys.

C. The infection is caused by E. coli bacteria.

D. The infection occurs only in pregnant women.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Urinary Tract Infections Subject: Chapter 23

6. An inexpensive screening tool that can be used to confirm a UTI diagnosis if the history is ambiguous is the: A. urine culture.

B. sensitivity test.

C. urine dipstick.

D. empiric culture.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 23

7. Any woman with a complicated cystitis or symptoms of upper tract disease needs a urine culture and: A. sensitivity test.

B. blood culture.

C. urine dipstick.

D. parenteral culture.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 23

8. Fever associated with pyelonephritis will usually resolve within how many hours of treatment with antibiotics?

A. 24 hours B. 12 hours C. 72 hours D. 48 hours Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Differential Diagnoses Subject: Chapter 23

9. What has changed in terms of recommended antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated lower UTIs? A. Seven-day regimens are now recommended.

B. Three times a day of oral antibiotics are now recommended.

C. Three-day regimens are now recommended.

D. A single dose is now recommended.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 23

10. What do current studies suggest as to how cranberry products can reduce UTIs? A. The hippuric acid in cranberries inhibits the growth of E. coli bacteria.

B. Evidence does not support recommending cranberry products as a UTI-preventive measure.

C. Well-designed studies support cranberry products’ effectiveness.

D. Cranberry is effective as a prophylaxis for UTI due to its D-mannose content.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 23

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Multiple Choice

1. In order to maintain continence, bladder pressure must be: A. higher than urethral pressure.

B. equal to the pressure of the urethral sphincter.

C. higher than the pressure of the levator ani.

D. lower than urethral pressure.

Answer: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Scope of the Problem Subject: Chapter 24

2. In women, the urethra rests on the anterior vaginal wall, which is supported by a muscle that is known as the pelvic floor muscle or: A. Kegel muscle.

B. urethral sphincter.

C. striated muscle.

D. intra-abdominal sphincter.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Scope of the Problem Subject: Chapter 24

3. What is the recommended interval target between urinations?

A. 30-45 minutes B. 3-4 hours C. 1-2 hours D. 4-5 hours Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 24

4. What is an age-related anatomic change that can lead to UI? A. The shortening of the urethra

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B. The reduction in bladder capacity C. The increase in habitual preventative emptying of the bladder D. The decline in number of urethral striated muscle fibers Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Scope of the Problem Subject: Chapter 24

5. Women with BMIs higher than what number were found to be more than twice as likely to experience UI compared to women with lower BMIs? A. 35 B. 40 C. 20 D. 25 Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Scope of the Problem Subject: Chapter 24

6. What is the name for a pelvic muscle contraction that is strategically timed to increase intraurethral pressure just before and after the event that causes UI? A. Kegel contraction B. Detrusor maneuver C. Reverse bladder contraction D. Knack skill Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 24

7. An example of an important holistic tool that can be used as a first step to assess UI and provide valuable data to the clinician is: A. palpatory assessment.

B. filling cystometrogram.

C. voiding diary.

D. quantified standing stress test.

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Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 24

8. Which answer best describes why the diagnosis of UI requires the clinician to also define the specific type of UI? A. There are different causation factors for stress incontinence versus urgency incontinence.

B. Clarification of the underlying factors of each woman’s experience determines treatment priorities.

C. Diagnosis of UI does not require the clinician to make further assessments.

D. Scope and standards of practice for clinicians have yet to be developed.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Differential Diagnoses Subject: Chapter 24

9. In the Diabetes Prevention Program Outcomes Study, researchers found a 47% decrease in the occurrence of UI when this lifestyle change was achieved: A. Avoiding high-dosage caffeine consumption B. Performing pelvic muscle exercises daily C. Attaining a 5-10% body weight reduction D. Managing diabetes effectively Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Prevention Subject: Chapter 24

10. Which of the following should be part of patient educational counseling regarding healthy bladder behaviors: A. Correcting misinformation or myths B. Referral to a urogynecologist C. Discussion of yoga and Pilates D. Recommending certain herbal medications Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Patient Education

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Subject: Chapter 24

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Multiple Choice

1. Why shouldn’t symptoms such as bloating and breast tenderness be considered disordered perimenstrual symptoms?

A. Because only a small minority of women have these symptoms.

B. Because these symptoms affect the majority of women.

C. Because these symptoms do not affect women’s moods.

D. Because it is not possible to quantify these symptoms.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Premenstrual-Cycle Syndrome and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25

2. How is secondary dysmenorrhea defined?

A. Absence of menstruation due to an underlying pathology B. Painful menstruation in the absence of pathology C. An underlying pathology causing pain symptoms during menstrual flow D. Painful menstruation that occurs in women after the age of 35 Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Dysmenorrhea Subject: Chapter 25

3. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the International Classification of Diseases, 11th Revision (ICD-11)?

A. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder B. Premenstrual magnification C. Dysmenorrhea D. Emotional lability Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Premenstrual-Cycle Syndrome and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25

4. Which of the following is one of the key criteria for a diagnosis of PMS?

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A. The symptoms markedly interfere with relationships with others.

B. One of the symptoms is depressed mood, anxiety, or irritability.

C. Exclusion of other diagnoses that may better explain the symptoms.

D. The DRSP tool confirmed symptoms over at least two menstrual cycles.

Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Premenstrual-Cycle Syndrome and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25

5. Many menstruating women report that which type of symptoms is prevalent during menses?

A. Muscular B. Gastrointestinal C. Incontinence D. Skeletal Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Premenstrual-Cycle Syndrome and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25

6. Treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has proven effective in improving symptoms of: A. secondary dysmenorrhea.

B. pelvic inflammatory disease.

C. primary dysmenorrhea.

D. dyspareunia.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Etiology and Pathophysiology Subject: Chapter 25

7. What is theorized about excessive or imbalanced levels of prostanoids secreted by the endometrium during menstruation?

A. High or excessive levels of prostanoids lower the levels of prostaglandins found throughout the body causing a decrease in pain signaling.

B. High or excessive levels of prostanoids secreted during menstruation do not have any influence on dysmenorrhea symptoms.

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C. High or excessive levels of prostanoids allow prostaglandins to cause lower amplitude contractility of the uterine muscle and decreased myometrial tone.

D. High or excessive levels of prostanoids affects the prostaglandins, which stimulate nociceptors throughout the body causing increased pain signaling.

Answer: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Etiology and Pathophysiology Subject: Chapter 25

8. A detailed assessment history, physical exam and pelvic imaging are tools needed by a clinician to: A. differentiate between primary dysmenorrhea and secondary dysmenorrhea.

B. distinguish between contradictory research findings related to possible risk factors.

C. monitor decreased progesterone levels that act on the uterine muscle.

D. diagnose an adolescent who is not at risk for sexually transmitted infections.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Etiology and Pathophysiology Subject: Chapter 25

9. When assessing an adolescent with endometriosis, you may choose to offer a nonpharmacologic treatment option that helps decrease symptoms of dysmenorrhea such as acupuncture and heat. These treatments are referred to as: A. moxibustion.

B. alternative therapies.

C. herbal medicines.

D. aromatherapy.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Etiology and Pathophysiology Subject: Chapter 25

10. Research has shown that ________ is a risk factor for increased suicidal ideation and attempts.

A. PMS B. PMDD C. dysmenorrhea

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D. SSRIs Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Premenstrual Cycle Syndromes and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25

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Multiple Choice

1. What is the best definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)?

A. Uterine bleeding for which no pelvic pathology is found B. Uterine bleeding that is irregular during a woman’s menstrual cycle C. Uterine bleeding that is irregular in amount or frequency D. Uterine bleeding that is related to systemic conditions Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 26

2. What is a good first question to ask women who present with a concern about abnormal bleeding?

A. What is a normal pattern for you?

B. How long has this persisted?

C. What was your last menstrual cycle like?

D. How many times has this occurred?

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Normal Uterine Bleeding Subject: Chapter 26

3. In women of reproductive age, the most common cause of a bleeding pattern that is suddenly different is: A. an increase in estrogen.

B. a reaction to a change in eating or exercise habits.

C. adrenal hyperplasia.

D. a complication of pregnancy.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The Objective Evaluation Subject: Chapter 26

4. Progesterone breakthrough bleeding is sometimes seen in women who:

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A. have polycystic ovary syndrome.

B. are obese.

C. use progesterone-only contraception.

D. have ceased progesterone therapy.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Differential Diagnosis of AUB Subject: Chapter 26

5. The least variation in menses occurs during the ages of: A. 30 to 50.

B. 40 to 50.

C. 12 to 20.

D. 20 to 40.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Differential Diagnosis of AUB Subject: Chapter 26

6. A subclassification using an oncology staging system must be determined when a clinician makes an _______ diagnosis?

A. AUB-P B. AUB-M C. AUB-L D. AUB-A Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Differential Diagnosis of AUB Subject: Chapter 26

7. Exercise-induced amenorrhea is probably due to the combination of low body fat and decreased secretion of: A. estrogen.

B. prolactin.

C. progesterone.

D. GnRH.

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Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Differential Diagnosis of AUB Subject: Chapter 26

8. When is a pelvic examination unnecessary for a woman who is experiencing AUB? A. If she is not sexually active B. If she has recently begun menstruating C. If her bleeding is extremely heavy D. If she also has anemia Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Objective Evaluation Subject: Chapter 26

9. In the current standardized definitions system related to Abnormal Uterine Bleeding, PALMCOEIN, the acronym COEIN describes: A. discreet, structural entities that can be measured visually.

B. entities that can be evaluated using imaging techniques.

C. entities that are not defined by imaging or histopathology.

D. distinction of what constitutes acute versus chronic AUB. Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: AUB Nomenclature Subject: Chapter 26

10. For management of AUB, NSAIDs are an effective treatment option for people who have: A. both heavy and painful menstrual bleeding.

B. been diagnosed with von Willebrand disease.

C. a co-occurring diagnosis of ulcers and HMD. D. a history of bronchospastic lung disease.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Plans Subject: Chapter 26

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Multiple Choice

1. Hyperandrogenism in reproductive-age women is most frequently associated with: A. hyperthyroidism.

B. polycystic ovary syndrome.

C. ovarian cancer.

D. diabetes.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Description of Hyperandrogenic Disorders Subject: Chapter 27

2. What is the hormone responsible for the clinical expression of androgen stimulation in androgen-sensitive tissues, such as skin and hair follicles?

A. Reductase B. DHEA C. DHT D. Testosterone Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Description of Hyperandrogenic Disorders Subject: Chapter 27

3. What is the term for excessive terminal hair growth in women?

A. Hirsutism B. Alopecia C. PCOS D. Metformin Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Clinical Presentation Subject: Chapter 27

4. Which of the following might be a sign of hyperandrogenism?

A. Irritable bowel syndrome

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B. Decreased sebum secretion in the skin C. Decreased muscle mass D. Acne associated with menstrual dysfunction Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinical Presentation Subject: Chapter 27

5. What is the most common type of menstrual dysfunction related to hyperandrogenism?

A. Painful menstruation B. Absence of menses C. Irregular bleeding D. Early menopause Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinical Presentation Subject: Chapter 27

6. Approximately what percentage of patients with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is obese?

A. 50 percent B. 25 percent C. 75 percent D. 40 percent Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Clinical Presentation Subject: Chapter 27

7. Why are women with PCOS at a threefold increased risk of developing endometrial cancer?

A. The reduction in estrogen causes excess progesterone to build up.

B. Menstrual bleeding is irregular and unpredictable.

C. Insulin resistance stimulates the production of androgens.

D. Estrogen regularly stimulates the endometrium.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Clinical Presentation

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Subject: Chapter 27

8. What medicine has been associated with causing hyperandrogenism?

A. Combined oral contraceptives B. Antiandrogens C. Analgesics D. Anabolic steroids Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 27

9. How can weight loss specifically control symptoms of PCOS? A. It decreases SHBG. B. It increases insulin resistance.

C. It decreases androgen levels.

D. It increases estrogen levels.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 27

10. A first-line recommended treatment for women with PCOS is: A. photoepilation.

B. anabolic steroids.

C. analgesics.

D. combined oral contraceptives.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 27

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Multiple Choice

1. What is the definitive diagnostic technique for vulvar dermatoses?

A. Pap test B. Biopsy C. Colposcopy D. Physical exam Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conditions of the Vulva Subject: Chapter 28

2. Lichen sclerosus is a benign, chronic, progressive disease of the skin in which a common symptom is: A. severe pruritus.

B. vaginal discharge.

C. postcoital bleeding.

D. dyspareunia.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conditions of the Vulva Subject: Chapter 28

3. Although some pathologists recommend that all cervical polyps be removed, which type of cervical polyps should be removed for histology?

A. Asymptomatic polyps B. Atypical polyps C. Erosive polyps D. Hypertrophic polyps Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conditions of the Uterus and Cervix Subject: Chapter 28

4. The incidence of uterine fibroids:

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A. increases with age.

B. decreases with age.

C. is often caused by early menopause.

D. is related to the age of first menses.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conditions of the Uterus and Cervix Subject: Chapter 28

5. Why is adenomyosis frequently underdiagnosed?

A. It cannot be detected via an ultrasound.

B. It is almost always asymptomatic.

C. It is most common in adolescents.

D. It has similar symptoms to other pelvic pain conditions.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conditions of the Uterus and Cervix Subject: Chapter 28

6. Outside of the uterus, endometrial implants: A. are rarely found in other sites.

B. are found exclusively in the ovaries.

C. are found in multiple diverse sites.

D. are never found in the vagina.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conditions of the Uterus and Cervix Subject: Chapter 28

7. Which of the following is associated with increased risk of endometriosis?

A. Late menarche B. Long menstrual cycles C. Early menarche D. Late menopause Answer: C Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Conditions of the Uterus and Cervix Subject: Chapter 28

8. Which two factors are essential for a fibroid treatment to be considered optimal?

A. Modify symptoms and temporarily shrink fibroids.

B. Long-term size reduction and fertility preservation.

C. Short-term size reduction and minimal side effects.

D. Modify symptoms and permanent size reduction.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conditions of the Uterus and Cervix Subject: Chapter 28

9. Most functional ovarian cysts will resolve within: A. six months.

B. three months.

C. six weeks.

D. one year.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conditions of the Adnexa Subject: Chapter 28

10. What is not a likely symptom of ovarian cysts?

A. Irregular menstrual cycle B. Increase in blood pressure C. Heart rate increase D. Fever Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conditions of the Adnexa Subject: Chapter 28

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Multiple Choice

1. In the past decade, what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50?

A. 50 to 60 percent B. 60 to 70 percent C. 70 to 80 percent D. 20 to 30 percent Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vulvar Cancers Subject: Chapter 29

2. What is the widely used carcinoma classification system that provides a way of describing the size, location, and spread of a tumor?

A. The SLS classification B. The CCS classification C. The TSL classification D. The TNM classification Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Vulvar Cancers Subject: Chapter 29

3. Which of the following is a preventive measure for vulvar cancer?

A. Avoiding exposure to HIV B. Not smoking C. Both avoiding exposure to HIV and not smoking D. There is no way to prevent it.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vulvar Cancers Subject: Chapter 29

4. What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer?

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A. PCOS B. Vulvar cancer C. Herpes simplex D. HPV Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vulvar Cancers Subject: Chapter 29

5. When assessing for cervical cancer, what is the most commonly occurring symptom?

A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding B. Abnormal vaginal discharge C. Pelvic pain D. Ectopic pregnancy Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Cervical Cancer Subject: Chapter 29

6. Abnormal changes in the cervix can be readily detected by a: A. colposcopy.

B. STI test.

C. Pap test.

D. LEEP. Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Cervical Cancer Subject: Chapter 29

7. Type I endometrial cancer is caused by: A. an excess of estrogen exposure.

B. polyps in the endometrium.

C. heredity.

D. infertility treatments.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate

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Ahead: Endometrial Cancer Subject: Chapter 29

8. A risk factor that could lead to endometrial cancer is: A. early menopause.

B. late menopause.

C. high blood pressure.

D. cervical cancer.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Endometrial Cancer Subject: Chapter 29

9. What screening test can be used to detect endometrial cancer?

A. STI test B. Colposcopy C. Pap test D. There is no screening test that detects it.

Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Endometrial Cancer Subject: Chapter 29

10. For a patient who has a strong family history of breast and ovarian cancer and tested positive for BRCA mutation, which is most appropriate with respect to prevention?

A. The clinician should counsel the patient about additional distinct symptoms of ovarian cancer.

B. The clinician should facilitate a proven approach to risk factor reduction for all patients.

C. The clinician should advise the patient that breastfeeding increases ovarian cancer risk.

D. The clinician should suggest the use of oral contraceptives for cancer prophylaxis.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Ovarian Cancer Subject: Chapter 29

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Multiple Choice

1. What is the term for pain that is in the pelvis or lower abdomen and is less than three months’ duration?

A. Terminal pelvic pain B. Cyclic pelvic pain C. Chronic pelvic pain D. Acute pelvic pain Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Description and Definition Subject: Chapter 30

2. What gastrointestinal disorder is diagnosed in 60 percent of women who are referred to gynecologists for complaints of chronic pelvic pain?

A. Genitourinary B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Diverticulitis D. Intestinal obstruction Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gastrointestinal Causes of Pelvic Pain Subject: Chapter 30

3. Why is it imperative that a clinician aggressively diagnose and treat chronic pelvic pain in adolescents?

A. To avoid future reproductive health issues leading to infertility.

B. To find any significant associations with dysmenorrhea.

C. To alleviate the associated symptoms of depression and sleep disorder.

D. To determine if laparoscopy should be recommended.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 30, Page 614

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4. What type of pain results from tissue injury and is experienced as acute pain?

A. Superficial pain B. Visceral pain C. Inflammatory pain D. Neuropathic pain Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Description and Definition Subject: Chapter 30

5. In the mnemonic “OLD CAARTS” that helps to perform a pain history, what does the “S” stand for?

A. Severity B. Scale C. Somatic D. Superficial Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 30

6. What is used when pelvic pathology is unable to be detected by physical examination or other testing?

A. Biopsy B. Laparoscopy C. Colposcopy D. Palpation Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 30

7. What is one of the most common gynecological-related causes of chronic pelvic pain?

A. Cervical cancer B. Amenorrhea C. Dysmenorrhea D. Endometriosis

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Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 30

8. Which condition can result from treatment for infertility?

A. Ovarian remnant syndrome B. Ovarian retention syndrome C. Ovarian neuropathic syndrome D. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Differential Diagnoses Subject: Chapter 30

9. Pharmacological treatment for chronic pelvic pain frequently begins with: A. high-dose progestins.

B. GnRH. C. oral analgesics.

D. COCs. Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 30

10. Why should psychotherapy always be considered for women with chronic pelvic pain?

A. Chronic pelvic pain is often psychosomatic.

B. Acute pelvic pain is often caused by depression.

C. Physical abuse is a significant cause of pelvic pain.

D. Dysmenorrhea is a common symptom.

Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 30

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Multiple Choice

1. Unintended pregnancy is one of the most significant factors that presents a barrier to providing effective preconception health care. Which of the following groups reports unintended pregnancies at the highest rates?

A. Women with pre-existing medical conditions B. Women who have experience childhood sexual assault C. Women of high school and college age D. Women of low socioeconomic status Answer: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 31

2. Which of the following is NOT a goal of preconception care?

A. To provide education regarding nutrition and prenatal vitamins and supplements B. To put in place changes that can impact fertility or early fetoplacental development C. To screen for risks and prevention opportunities D. To begin pregnancy as healthy and prepared as possible Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 31

3. What is the optimal diet for preconception?

A. Vegan or vegetarian diet B. Mediterranean diet C. Low-carb or keto diet D. Raw food diet Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Lifestyle and Behavioral Factors Subject: Chapter 31

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4. Why is it important for women to take folate supplements immediately preceding and following contraception?

A. It is one step of several that can be taken to improve nutritional habits of expecting mothers.

B. It can boost the immune system and help to avoid infections.

C. It can decrease the risk of neural tube defects, preterm birth, and newborns with low birth weight.

D. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle, leading to better tracking of ovulation.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Lifestyle and Behavioral Factors Subject: Chapter 31

5. Which of the following has shown no impact on fertility in several studies?

A. Opioids B. Marijuana C. Alcohol D. Tobacco Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Lifestyle and Behavioral Factors Subject: Chapter 31

6. What is the leading cause of infertility in women?

A. Obesity B. Thyroid disease C. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome D. Diabetes Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment of Health Conditions and Medications That May Impact Fertility or Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 31

7. Which of the following statements about the use of antidepressant medications by pregnant women is true?

A. Pregnant women should be strongly counseled against the use of antidepressant medications.

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B. These medications are known to cause neural tube defects and developmental delays when taken in high doses.

C. Clinicians should oversee a gradual stepping down of these medications prior to conception.

D. Several meta-analyses have found no increased risk of birth defects when these medications are taken in the first trimester.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment of Health Conditions and Medications That May Impact Fertility or Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 31

8. What is the optimal pregnancy spacing interval according to research?

A. 12-18 months B. 18-60 months C. 24-48 months D. 60-84 months Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Perinatal History Subject: Chapter 31

9. What is the goal of preconception care for men?

A. To provide counseling for how they can care for their pregnant partners B. To teach basic first aid and medical care they can use for common pregnancy-related conditions C. To counsel on pregnancy timing, address possible fertility issues, and support a healthy pregnancy D. To encourage and support men who may be nervous about fathering a child Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Perinatal History Subject: Chapter 31

10. Why is it important for a practitioner to do a comprehensive screening to learn the personal and family history of women who are trying to conceive?

A. Several health conditions can affect fertility and the health of a potential pregnancy, so these must be identified and managed.

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B. Some women may be reluctant to share details of their medical histories, so the screening can identify details they may not otherwise share.

C. Practitioners have an obligation to treat the whole person, so doing a comprehensive screening allows for a more balanced medical plan for pregnancy.

D. Pregnancy is an optimal time to counsel pregnant women towards healthier lifestyle, behavior changes, and long-term health.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Perinatal History Subject: Chapter 31

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Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following factors suppresses a woman’s production of breastmilk until after delivery of her infant?

A. An increase in human placental lactogen (hPL) B. A decrease in estrogen and progesterone C. An increase in estrogen and prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) D. A decrease in prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Breast Changes Subject: Chapter 32

2. Which of the following are considered probable (or objective) signs of pregnancy?

A. Uterine enlargement and integumentary pigment changes B. Amenorrhea and palpable fetal outline C. Nausea and Goodell sign D. Fetal heart rate auscultated by fetoscope and increased urinary frequency Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 32

3. At 16 weeks’ gestation, the uterine wall is its thickest at: A. 10 mm.

B. 15 mm.

C. 25 mm.

D. 30 mm.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive System Changes Subject: Chapter 32

4. In the last month of pregnancy, lightening typically occurs in which the height of the __________ drops slightly.

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A. alveoli B. cervix C. umbilicus D. fundus Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive System Changes Subject: Chapter 32

5. The cervix shows Goodell’s sign when __________; and it shows Chadwick’s sign when __________.

A. it thickens; the mucus plug forms B. it turns bluish in color; the mucus plug forms C. it softens; it turns bluish in color D. hyperplasia occurs; it becomes firm to palpation Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive System Changes Subject: Chapter 32

6. Increasing levels of progesterone and relaxin during pregnancy: A. stimulate the production of milk.

B. soften the ligaments and muscles of the pelvic floor.

C. cause hemorrhoids.

D. None of these is correct.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive System Changes Subject: Chapter 32

7. Striae gravidarum (stretch marks): A. may appear on the breasts and abdomen.

B. may appear deep red to purple in color during pregnancy.

C. cannot be prevented.

D. All of these are correct.

Answer: D

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Complexity: Easy Ahead: Integumentary System Changes Subject: Chapter 32

8. Dyspepsia during pregnancy results from: A. constipation.

B. altered esophageal sphincter.

C. increased cholesterol saturation.

D. displacement of the intestines by the gravid uterus.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gastrointestinal Changes Subject: Chapter 32

9. Cardiac output in pregnancy __________ and peaks during __________.

A. increases 10 to 25 percent; the first trimester B. increases 30 and 50 percent; the third trimester C. increases 50 percent; delivery D. decreases 10 to 15 percent; the first trimester Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Cardiovascular and Hematologic Changes Subject: Chapter 32

10. The expansion of blood volume during pregnancy results in which of the following situations?

A. A decrease in red cell volume occurs.

B. The occurrence of leukocytosis is reduced.

C. Hemodilution is typical.

D. Systemic vascular resistance is a danger.

Answer: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Cardiovascular and Hematologic Changes Subject: Chapter 32

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Multiple Choice

1. Regarding nonprescription and substance use counseling during pregnancy, which one of the following is NOT correct?

A. Rapid discontinuation of opioids can have negative effects on maternal and fetal health.

B. CDC guidelines advise complete cessation of alcohol consumption during pregnancy.

C. Smoking decreases placental perfusion and exposes the woman and fetus to harmful chemicals.

D. Ample research suggests no correlation between marijuana use and poor neonatal outcomes.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 33

2. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom associated with pregnancy in the early weeks?

A. Breast tenderness B. Extreme fatigue C. Migraine headaches D. Nausea and vomiting Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 33

3. Quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) test is most valuable in determining viable pregnancies if the test can be repeated in: A. 2 weeks.

B. 48 hours.

C. 4 days.

D. 24 hours.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: First-Trimester Bleeding Subject: Chapter 33

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4. In the formula to estimate gestational age, a woman is considered pregnant from: A. the first day of the last menstrual period.

B. the date of conception.

C. the first day of a missed menstrual period.

D. the last day of the last menstrual period.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 33

5. What step can a clinician take to learn more about any chemicals used in a woman’s workplace?

A. Contact OSHA (the Occupational Health and Safety Administration).

B. Contact the woman’s workplace and inquire about chemicals used.

C. Ask the woman to obtain her workplace Safety Data Sheets.

D. Conduct research on the OSHA website.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 33

6. Women with a history of preterm birth (birth before 37 weeks’ gestation), will need: A. a quick referral for abdominal versus transvaginal ultrasound for evaluation.

B. to take 81 mg of aspirin daily beginning at 12 weeks of pregnancy to reduce risk.

C. to understand self-care behaviors and cognitive therapies as coping strategies.

D. a referral to begin progesterone supplementation at 16 to 20 weeks’ gestation.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 33

7. Of the following vaccines, ________ should be given only if the woman is at risk.

A. influenza B. hepatitis B C. measles D. diphtheria

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Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 33

8. Regarding nutritional counseling during pregnancy, which of the following is an accurate recommendation: A. calorie increase of 550 per day after the first trimester B. with normal BMI, a 15 to 25-pound weight gain C. caffeine limited to no more than 200 mg daily D. no concerns regarding nutritional supplements Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 33

9. A should a woman be evaluated for an ectopic pregnancy: A. when she has pelvic or lower abdominal pain in the first trimester.

B. when she is experiencing nausea and vomiting.

C. when quickly rising hCG levels that double within 2 days are found.

D. only when a risk factor such as pelvic inflammatory disease is present.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: First-Trimester Bleeding Subject: Chapter 33

10. Optimal pregnancy care: A. means recognizing one standard of care that meets the average woman’s needs.

B. means recognizing pregnancy as a normal process, and for most routine care is adequate.

C. requires addressing each woman’s physical, social and emotional needs.

D. involves coordinating prompt social services referrals for low-risk women.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Planning for Pregnancy Care Subject: Chapter 33

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Multiple Choice

1. In which of the following ways does pregnancy affect the antigen–antibody response?

A. The response between the two becomes less active.

B. The relationship between the two is altered.

C. It triggers a highly active cell-mediated response.

D. They reduce any maternal risk of developing an infection.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34

2. Group B Streptococcus and Escherichia coli are the primary causes of ____________ during pregnancy.

A. urinary tract infections B. miscarriage C. toxoplasmosis D. vaginal bleeding Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34

3. The alterations that occur in the immune system during pregnancy mean that: A. pregnancy protects the mother from infections.

B. the fetus cannot contract infections from the mother.

C. a fetus is highly susceptible to all pathogens.

D. gestation is not considered to be an immunocompromised state.

Answer: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34

4. Toxoplasmosis, caused by a parasite, is: A. best prevented by good hand washing and hygienic practices.

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B. an infection for which the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends prenatal screening.

C. least dangerous to the fetus during the first trimester.

D. transferred from fetus to a mother who has been in contact with cat feces.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34

5. Sexually transmitted infections can create serious risk to: A. maternal, but not fetal, health.

B. newborns, but not to a fetus.

C. maternal and fetal health during pregnancy.

D. newborns, but not to a fetus nor to the mother.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34

6.__________ is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States.

A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. Chlamydia D. Human papillomavirus Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34

7. Hyperemesis gravidarium is more commonly referred to as: A. quickening.

B. morning sickness.

C. weight loss.

D. miscarriage.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy

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Ahead: First-Trimester Complications Subject: Chapter 34

8. An ectopic pregnancy is: A. also known as a spontaneous abortion.

B. a greater risk for women with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease.

C. rarely even noticed by the woman.

D. the same thing as a molar pregnancy.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: First-Trimester Complications Subject: Chapter 34

9. The period of organogenesis occurs during: A. the first trimester.

B. the second trimester.

C. the third trimester.

D. any period of the pregnancy.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Second-Trimester Complications Subject: Chapter 34

10. In many cases where placenta previa is diagnosed: A. a mother experiences dangerously high blood pressure.

B. a woman is in danger of miscarriage.

C. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

D. the low-lying placenta will grow toward the uterine fundus.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Third-Trimester Complications Subject: Chapter 34

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Multiple Choice

1. A woman’s total blood volume returns to its pre-pregnant state: A. immediately after delivery of the placenta.

B. within 24 hours after delivery of the placenta.

C. by 1 week postpartum.

D. by 2 months postpartum.

Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Postpartum Physiology Subject: Chapter 35

2. A uterus returns to a pre-pregnant state in a process called: A. involution.

B. deciduation.

C. dilation.

D. adaptation.

Answer: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Postpartum Physiology Subject: Chapter 35

3. The purpose of most postpartum cultural traditions is: A. to accommodate an infant’s adaptation.

B. to protect a woman from current as well as long-term illness.

C. a stereotypical accommodation of a woman’s role.

D. medical restoration.

Answer: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Care Subject: Chapter 35

4. A woman’s transition to motherhood is typically: A. gradual.

B. immediate.

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C. different for everyone.

D. complete with bonding.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Assessment Subject: Chapter 35

5. Immediately after birth, the release of _________ facilitates a peaceful, loving feeling in the woman that can influence the mother’s reaction.

A. human chorionic gonadotropin B. follicle-stimulating hormone C. progesterone D. oxytocin Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Assessment Subject: Chapter 35

6. To avoid opportunity for thromboembolism, postpartum women should: A. ambulate soon after birth.

B. avoid fatigue.

C. breastfeed the child.

D. engage in abdominal exercises.

Answer: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Examinations Subject: Chapter 35

7. What is the purpose of Kegel exercises?

A. To reduce uterine bleeding B. To encourage uterine contractions C. To strengthen vaginal musculature D. To strengthen abdominal muscles Answer: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Postpartum Examinations

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Subject: Chapter 35

8. Women who are breastfeeding frequently, without supplementation and without occurrence of menses after childbirth, experience a natural form of contraception, known as: A. a barrier method.

B. venous thromboembolism.

C. diaphoresis.

D. lactation amenorrhea.

Answer: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Examinations Subject: Chapter 35

9. Women who experience lactation mastitis should: A. decrease their intact of fluids.

B. discontinue breastfeeding until the mastitis is gone.

C. apply moist heat as part of their treatment.

D. avoid completely emptying their breasts during nursing.

Answer: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Breastfeeding Complications Subject: Chapter 35

10. Some women experience mood swings, irritability, or tearfulness in the first two weeks after giving birth. These symptoms are known as: A. post-traumatic stress disorder.

B. postpartum blues.

C. postpartum psychosis.

D. None of these is correct.

Answer: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Selected Postpartum Complications Subject: Chapter 35

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Gynecologic Health Care: With an Introduction to Prenatal and Postpartum Care, 4th Edition

Chapter: Midterm

Multiple Choice

1. The biomedical model of health places the focus of health on: A) the absence of disease.

B) the individual.

C) environmental conditions.

D) scientific research.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Social Models versus Biomedical Models of Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 6

2. Which question below supports the strategy: “Consider the risks and benefits of generalizations and speaking in terms of groups versus individuals”?

A) “Are ‘all women’ the same?”

B) “Why do you care about the issue?”

C) “Are women really victims or are they acting with agency?”

D) “Who has a choice within the context of health?”

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Women’s Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 8

3. Why were large-scale medical research populations composed largely of men into the 1990s?

A) Cultural norms made men easier to study.

B) Common health promotion measures were assumed to be true for both men and women.

C) There was a lack of research related to gynecology.

D) Common health promotion measures assumed what was true for women would not apply to men.

Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Women’s Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 7

4. Which of the following terms is used to refer to differences in health that adversely affect communities that are socially and/or economically disadvantaged?

A) Biological markers B) Health disparities C) Implicit bias D) Structural intervention Ans: B Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Complexity: Easy Ahead: Key Concepts and Definitions Subject: Chapter 2, Page 13

5. Which of the following skill sets of structural competency considers how economic, social, and political forces impact the patient’s presentation and health history and the interaction between the patient and clinician?

A) Recognize the structures that shape clinical interactions B) Develop structural humility C) Imagine structural intervention D) Rearticulate cultural presentations in structural terms Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 2, Pages 24

6. Which of the following is a criticism of the Cass Identity Model?

A) It relies too heavily on sociocultural factors.

B) The linear model does not account for individuals who may not go through every stage.

C) The social stigma associated with lesbian and gay identity has not changed as the model predicted.

D) The research participants were predominantly women.

Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3, Page 45

7. Which factor has the greater effect on the mood changes many women in midlife suffer?

A) Deficiencies of estrogen B) Psychological transitions C) Cultural beliefs and expectations D) Psychosocial factors Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Early Adulthood Subject: Chapter 3, Page 47

8. Which research question most closely exemplifies a quantitative approach?

A) Why do some women experience postpartum depression?

B) How does physical exercise affect menopause?

C) How does the death of a child affect the mother?

D) Does a specific method of contraception cause weight gain?

Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Moving from Best Evidence to Best Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 59

Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

9. In the Stetler (2001) model of research utilization, which phase examines and critiques the evidence?

A) Preparation phase B) Validation phase C) Translation Application phase D) Evaluation phase Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Moving from Best Evidence to Best Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 65

10. One common barrier to using EBP in clinical settings is the lack of time to find studies. The second is: A) the lack of confidence in critiquing research studies.

B) the lack of willing colleagues.

C) the lack of support from management.

D) the lack of protocol in using EBP. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Barriers to Using Research Evidence in Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 67

11. What is the leading cause of death for women in the United States?

A) Motor vehicle accidents B) Heart disease C) Obesity D) Alcoholism Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Counseling Interventions for Women with Additional Risk Factors Subject: Chapter 5, Page 80

12. Which vaccine is not recommended for women over the age of 26?

A) Human papillomavirus (HPV) B) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) C) Pneumococcal (polysaccharide) D) Varicella Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Immunization Guidelines and Recommendations Subject: Chapter 5, Page 84

13. What is the objective of the ovarian cycle?

A) To emulate the activities of the ovaries B) To produce an ovum C) To reach the menstruation phase D) To prepare a site to nourish and maintain the ovum Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Subject: Chapter 6, Page 95

14. What is responsible for the changes in the follicle selected during ovulation?

A) Enzyme activity B) Progesterone C) Prostaglandins D) LH surge Ans: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 96

15. During which phase of the endometrial cycle does ovulation begin?

A) Proliferative phase B) Secretory phase C) Menstrual phase D) Ovulatory phase Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 96

16. At what phase is the cervical mucus clear, copious, and elastic?

A) After menstruation B) During the late follicular phase C) After ovulation D) After implantation Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 97

17. Which type of speculum is best used to examine most parous women?

A) Standard Graves B) Pederson C) Large Graves D) Pediatric Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7, Page 115

18. Healthy ______ are not palpable but will elicit notable pain if inflamed.

A) Bartholin’s glands B) Skene’s glands C) endocervical glands Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

D) perineal muscles Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7, Page 115

19. Which of the following is part of the male internal genitalia?

A) Scrotum B) Testes C) Epididymis D) Prostrate Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive Anatomy Subject: Chapter 8, Page 133

20. Which of the following statements best explains why an oral examination is part of the physical examination during a male SRH visit?

A) A full physical examination should be conducted at this visit.

B) Some sexually transmitted infections can have oral manifestations.

C) Sexual dysfunction may be symptomatic of other health problems.

D) Cancer screening should be part of the physical examination.

Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual and Reproductive Health Assessment Subject: Chapter 8, Page 137

21. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to screening adults 18 and older for unhealthy alcohol use?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 151

22. What recommendation grade does the Task Force assign to screening all women aged 21 to 65 for cervical cancer?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for All Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 155 Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

23. USPSTF assigns a “B” recommendation for osteoporosis screening women age 65 and older and younger women who have an increased risk. Which one of the following is not identified as a risk factor?

A) cigarette smoking B) low body weight C) a sedentary lifestyle D) a family history of osteoporosis Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for Older Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 159

24. The USPSTF now recommends screening women between the ages of _______ for type 2 diabetes if her BMI is greater than 25.

A) 40 and 70 B) 20 and 50 C) 45 and 64 D) 16 and 70 Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Special Populations Subject: Chapter 9, Page 161

25. A screening mammography every two years receives a “C” recommendation before and a “B” recommendation after what age?

A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60 Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for Older Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 156

26. Which bariatric surgical procedure is the most commonly performed in the United States?

A) Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) B) Sleeve gastrectomy C) Adjustable gastric banding D) Biliopancreatic bypass Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Description Subject: Chapter 10, Page 165

27. Increased risk for suicide among patients following bariatric surgery has been associated with: A) coexisting alcohol use disorders.

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B) weight gain.

C) lack of adherence to dietary guidelines.

D) nutrient deficiencies.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10, Page 170

28. Which of the following terms recognizes only two mutually exclusive gender identifies of male and female?

A) Binary gender construct B) Gender affirmation C) Intersex D) Sex Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Culturally Responsive Care Subject: Chapter 11, Page 174

29. Which of the following terms refers to the societal institutionalization of a dichotomy in which heterosexuals are valued while other groups are devalued and oppressed?

A) Microaggressions B) Homophobia C) Heteronormativity D) Psychosocialism Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social and Political Context Subject: Chapter 11, Page 176-177

30. The Declaration of Sexual Rights was issued in 1999, and subsequently revised in 2014, by which organization?

A) World Association for Sexual Health B) World Health Organization C) U.S. Department of Health and Human Services D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Definitions of Key Terms Subject: Chapter 12, Page 211

31. The modern movement toward an understanding of the sexual response cycle was begun by: A) Masters and Johnson.

B) Basson.

C) Kaplan.

D) Bartholin.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Ahead: Sexual Self-Knowledge Subject: Chapter 12, Page 217

32. The most effective way to avoid pregnancy is: A) abstinence.

B) spermicide.

C) withdrawal.

D) condom.

Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Nonhormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13, Page 252

33. Which of the following is a highly effective but temporary form of contraception?

A) Lactational Amenorrhea Method (LAM) B) Implanon C) Sterilization D) Abstinence Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Nonhormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13, Page 253

34. Which of the following methods of contraception has also shown positive noncontraceptive health benefits?

A) Breastfeeding B) Coitus interruptus C) Fertility awareness D) Cervical caps Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Nonhormonal Methods Subject: Chapter 13, Page 253

35. NAMS concluded that short-term use of soy isoflavones is: A) effective in reducing heart disease risk because significant research findings have been identified.

B) ineffective as a cardio protective method and may be harmful for breast cancer survivors.

C) ineffective for vasomotor symptoms, and the effects on endometrium and breast are unknown.

D) effective for vasomotor symptoms and does not induce harmful effects on endometrium or breast.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Complementary and Alternative Medicine Options for Menopause-Related Symptom Management Subject: Chapter 14, Page 291

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36. Fatigue and hot flashes are often associated with perimenopause/menopause but can also be symptoms of: A) diabetes.

B) anemia.

C) hypothyroidism.

D) arrhythmias.

Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Diagnosing Menopause Subject: Chapter 14, Page 272

37. Which of the following terms refers to a type of intimate partner violence in which the perpetrator exhibits a pattern of repeated and unwanted attention and contact with the victim?

A) Gaslighting B) Psychological aggression C) Coercive control D) Stalking Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15, Pages 295

38. Which of the following phases in the cycle of abuse includes sexual assault, physical assault, or the use of weapons?

A) Tension-building phase B) Acute battering incident C) Reconciliation phase D) Calm or loving phase Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories of Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15, Page 296

39. In the Steenkamp and colleagues’ 2012 study, what percentage of women who had been sexually assaulted demonstrated high levels of probable post-traumatic stress disorder two months later?

A) 78 percent B) 41 percent C) 67 percent D) 48 percent Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Clinical Presentation and Concerns Following Sexual Assault Subject: Chapter 16, Page 316

40. Clinicians are required to report all incidents of sexual assault: A) by state law in all 50 states.

B) by state law, but only in some states.

C) by federal law if a gun is used.

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D) by federal law and applying to all states.

Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Evaluation of the Sexual Assault Patient Subject: Chapter 16, Page 319

41. The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic mutations account for ______ percent of all breast cancer cases.

A) 5 to 10 B) 20 to 30 C) 50 D) almost 90 Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17, Page 344

42. According to recent studies, which of the following is not a protective factor against developing breast cancer?

A) vitamin intake B) breastfeeding C) physical activity D) maintaining a healthy weight Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17, Page 344

43. Which of the following is no longer performed because it does not offer any survival advantage?

A) radical mastectomy B) lumpectomy C) partial mastectomy D) simple mastectomy Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17, Page 347

44. The first model of sexual response was proposed by: A) Kinsey.

B) Masters and Johnson.

C) Kaplan.

D) Basson.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Models of Sexual Response Subject: Chapter 18, Page 353

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45. Who believes that many women are motivated to initiate sexual activity for reasons other than a desire for sexual gratification?

A) Kinsey B) Masters and Johnson C) Kaplan D) Basson Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Models of Sexual Response Subject: Chapter 18, Page 354

True/False

1. True or False: The concept of race was first developed by slave traders to justify and support the African slave trade.

A) True B) False Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: History Subject: Chapter 2, Page 15

2. True or False? Because females are socialized to be oriented to others, the risk-taking behaviors of female adolescents are often influenced by a desire to maintain important relationships.

A) True B) False Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Adolescence Subject: Chapter 3, Page 45

3. True or False? Clinicians who work in practices located in high-prevalence areas should consider all sexually active women in nonmonogamous relationships to be at increased risk of STIs. A) True B) False Ans: True Complexity: Easy Ahead: Counseling Interventions for Women with Additional Risk Factors Subject: Chapter 5, Page 81 4. True or False: Spermatogenesis refers to the formation of sperm, which begins at puberty and continues throughout adult life.

A) True B) False Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Ahead: Reproductive Physiology Subject: Chapter 8, Page 135

5. True or False? It is vitally important for all bariatric surgery patients to receive postoperative follow up that includes psychological assessments with questions related to self-harm.

Ans: True Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10, Page 170

6. True or False: Clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for LBQ and TNB patients by ensuring intake forms are inclusive and provide options relevant to these patients.

A) True B) False Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Culturally Responsive Care Subject: Chapter 11, Page 179

7. True or False? Definitions of sexual health and sexual practices are clear cut and universally defined and are not subject to different interpretations.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Sexual Practices and Behaviors Subject: Chapter 12, Page 213

8. True or False? Although its efficacy is questioned, hormone replacement therapy is considered safe for all postmenopausal women.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: The Medicalization of Menopause: a Historical Perspective Subject: Chapter 14, Page 269

9. True or False: A laceration can result from blunt force or other similar injuries that causes the skin to separate.

A) True B) False Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Blunt Force Injuries Subject: Chapter 15, Page 302

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10. True or False? The terms sexual assault and rape can be used interchangeably.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Definitions Subject: Chapter 16, Page 313

11. True or False? The inability to achieve orgasm is considered a sexual dysfunction, even if the woman still considers the relationship satisfying.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Introduction Subject: Chapter 18, Page 353

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Chapter: Final

Multiple Choice

1. The social model of health places the focus of health on: A) the community.

B) the individual.

C) environmental conditions.

D) scientific research.

Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Social Models versus Biomedical Models of Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 6

2. Which question supports the strategy: “Identify a person’s agency in the midst of social constraint and the biomedical paradigm”?

A) “Are ‘all women’ the same?”

B) “Why do you care about the issue?”

C) “Are people really victims or are they acting with agency?”

D) “Who has a choice within the context of health?”

Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 8

3. What had been a significant problem in medical research well into the 1990s?

A) The focus on randomized clinical trials over epidemiological investigations B) The lack of representation of women in research trials C) The lack of research related to gynecology D) The focus on randomized clinical trials over observational research Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 7

4. Gender differences in heart disease can be found in: A) diagnosis.

B) treatment.

C) identification of symptoms.

D) All of these are correct.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Feminist Strategies for the Analysis of Health Subject: Chapter 1, Page 7

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5. What opportunities are created by applying feminist strategies to gynecologic health?

A) Better insight into research methods related to gynecology B) Better access to the populations affected by gynecologic health C) Better understandings from a wellness-oriented, person-centered framework D) Better understandings of the social construction of gender Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Why a Text on Gynecology?

Subject: Chapter 1, Page 10

6. Which of the following concepts was first developed by slave traders to justify and support the African slave trade?

A) Race B) Health disparities C) Implicit bias D) Lifecourse Health Development Model Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: History Subject: Chapter 2, Page 15

7. Which of the following skill sets of structural competency develops the capacity to recognize and describe a clinical presentation in structural terms, especially when faced with a presentation that would typically be framed as cultural?

A) Recognize the structures that shape clinical interactions B) Develop structural humility C) Imagine structural intervention D) Rearticulate cultural presentations in structural terms Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Gender Subject: Chapter 2, Pages 24

8. Why have women’s changing roles come at a cost to their health?

A) Increases in caregiving expectations compromise health.

B) Balancing competing demands increases stress.

C) Less attention is being placed on health care.

D) Men’s roles have not changed in relation to the change in women’s roles.

Ans: B Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Early Adulthood Subject: Chapter 3, Page 46

9. How do Franz and White (1985) expand Erikson’s theory of development?

A) By proposing a two-pathway process that includes both individuation and capacity for attachment B) By refining Erikson’s single pathway to include capacity for attachment C) By expanding issues around career and lifestyle Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

D) By expanding issues around identity Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Early Adulthood Subject: Chapter 3, Page 46

10. What factors affect the mood changes many women in midlife suffer?

A) Deficiencies of estrogen B) Psychological transitions C) Cultural beliefs and expectations D) All of these are correct.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Midlife Subject: Chapter 3, Page 47

11. As bodies age and change, the biologic and physiologic impacts lead to: A) changes that inevitably lead to chronic diseases.

B) a set chronological timetable with few intervening factors.

C) changes that are well-researched and understood.

D) changes that do not inevitably lead to chronic diseases.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Older Women Subject: Chapter 3, Page 48

12. Which research question most closely exemplifies a qualitative approach?

A) Why do some women experience postpartum depression?

B) How does physical exercise affect menopause?

C) How does Kegel exercise affect a woman’s perinatal outcomes?

D) Does a specific method of contraception cause weight gain?

Ans: A Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 62

13. What is a recognized limitation of EBP? A) Emphasis on the routinization of practice B) Over-reliance on RCT-derived results C) The challenge of staying abreast of current research D) All of these are correct.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Moving from Best Evidence to Best Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 66

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14. What is the purpose of the Stetler (2001) model of research utilization?

A) To weigh the risks and benefits of EBP B) To supply methods for critiquing evidence C) To encourage a synthesis of all research methods D) To help move best evidence into the clinical practice setting Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Research Methods to Inform Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 65

15. One common barrier to using EBP in clinical settings is the lack of confidence in critiquing research studies. The second is: A) the lack of time to find studies.

B) the lack of willing colleagues.

C) the lack of support from management.

D) the lack of protocol in using EBP. Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Barriers to Using Research Evidence in Clinical Practice Subject: Chapter 4, Page 67

16. What is the single most important action a clinician can take to advance EBP in the clinical setting?

A) Employ quantitative research methods B) Employ qualitative research methods C) Question everything D) Consult with management Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conclusion Subject: Chapter 4, Page 67

17. Which type of counseling results in a statistically significant reduction in STIs? A) Abstinence-only education B) Counseling delivered in multiple individual or group sessions totaling more than 2 hours C) Remote counseling via Internet or phone D) Brief, individual sessions in the primary care setting Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Counseling Interventions for Women with Additional Risk Factors Subject: Chapter 5, Page 81

18. What is the leading preventable cause of death across all populations in the United States?

A) Motor vehicle accidents B) Tobacco C) Obesity D) Alcoholism Ans: B Complexity: Easy Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Ahead: Effective Counseling Interventions for Healthy, Asymptomatic Women Subject: Chapter 5, Page 81

19. What percentage of adults aged 65 and over experience a fall each year?

A) 10 percent B) 50 percent C) 30 percent D) 60 percent Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Effective Counseling Interventions for Healthy, Asymptomatic Women Subject: Chapter 5, Page 78

20. What is the objective of the endometrial cycle?

A) To emulate the activities of the ovaries B) To produce an ovum C) To reach the menstruation phase D) To prepare a site to nourish and maintain the ovum Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 95

21. Ovulation is dependent on an increased level of: A) enzyme activity.

B) progesterone.

C) prostaglandins.

D) estrogen and the LH surge.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 96

22. What initiates contractions of the uterine muscle leading to menstruation?

A) Lysosomal enzymes B) Vascular thrombosis C) Rupture of the basal arterioles D) Prostaglandins Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 97

23. Why does the cervical mucus become thick, viscous, and opaque after ovulation?

A) To make an hospitable environment for the sperm B) To promote stromal vascularization Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

C) To relax the myometrial fibers that supply the cervix D) To reduce the risk of ascending infection at the time of implantation Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Menstrual Cycle Physiology Subject: Chapter 6, Page 97

24. Which type of speculum is best used to examine nulliparous women?

A) Small Graves B) Pederson C) Large Graves D) Pediatric Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7, Page 115

25. What is the preferred maneuver order of the pelvic examination?

A) Bimanual, external inspection and palpation, speculum B) External inspection and palpation, bimanual, speculum C) External inspection and palpation, speculum, bimanual D) Speculum, bimanual, external inspection and palpation Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7, Pages 113-119

26. Under what conditions is a rectovaginal examination most useful?

A) Under all conditions B) If screening for colorectal cancer is indicated C) If the uterus is anteverted or anteflexed D) If the uterus is retroflexed or retroverted Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Physical Examination for a Gynecologic Visit Subject: Chapter 7, Page 123

27. A clinician should present a therapeutic plan to the patient based on: A) the individual woman’s desire for information and the degree of severity of the finding.

B) consultation with another health professional.

C) the examining clinician’s findings and assessments.

D) the individual woman’s cultural sensitivities and level of education.

Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Conclusion: Summing Up and Documenting Findings Subject: Chapter 7, Page 123

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28. Which of the following is part of the male external genitalia?

A) Scrotum B) Prostrate C) Urethra D) Seminal vesicles Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Reproductive Anatomy Subject: Chapter 8, Page 133

29. Which of the following explains why a first-catch urine test is the preferred testing method for chlamydia?

A) No other specimens have high sensitivity (greater than 90%).

B) This method has been historically proven to be more accurate than other methods.

C) Male reproduction impacts are less likely when using this method.

D) This method is less invasive than other methods.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexually Transmitted Infections Subject: Chapter 8, Page 138

30. What is the Task Force recommendation regarding the efficacy of digital mammography or MRI versus the standard film mammography?

A) Evidence exists that all screens are equally beneficial.

B) Film mammography is recommended as the best screen.

C) Digital mammography or MRI is recommended as the best screen.

D) Not enough evidence exists to assess benefits and risks as to which provides the best screen.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for Older Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 156

31. What recommendation grade does the USPSTF assign to the use of low-to-moderate dose statins to prevent cardiovascular disease for all adults age 40 to 75?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for Older Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 158

32. Which of the following factors associated with increased risk for developing osteoporosis appears to be the best predictor of risk?

A) Smoking B) Age Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

C) Low body weight D) Family history Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Grade A and B Screening Recommendations for Older Women Subject: Chapter 9, Page 159

33. Which of the following are screening tests for type 2 diabetes?

A) Fasting plasma glucose B) Two-hour post load plasma glucose C) Hemoglobin A1C D) All of these are correct.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Special Populations Subject: Chapter 9, Page 161

34. Research has shown that many patients who present for bariatric surgery have a: A) vitamin deficiency.

B) suspected psychiatric illness.

C) substance abuse issue.

D) preexisting eating disorder.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10, Page 170

35. Mental health assessments after bariatric surgery may take the form of: A) directing the woman to answer a questionnaire focused on mental health status.

B) asking the woman questions during the history and physical examination.

C) observing the woman’s affect, mood, and appearance during the visit.

D) All of these are correct.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 10, Page 171

36. Which of the following statement is true regarding barriers to health care for lesbian, bisexual, and queer women?

A) People who experience multiple forms of oppression have increased difficulty in accessing care.

B) Increased understanding of the specific needs of LBQ women has reduced barriers to health care.

C) LBQ women are more likely to have insurance than their heterosexual and cisgender peers.

D) Specific insurance requirements and regulations for LBQ women may delay their access health care.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Barriers to Health Care for Lesbian, Bisexual, and Queer Women Subject: Chapter 11, Page 182-183

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37. Which of the following gender-affirming interventions is an example of a social intervention?

A) Rhinoplasty B) Binding and tucking C) Hormone therapy D) Use of prosthetics Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gender-Affirming Care for Transgender and Nonbinary Individuals Subject: Chapter 11, Pages 190

38. The female desire: A) is neither well defined nor well researched.

B) is well defined and heavily researched.

C) relies on a sense of emotional craving or heightened subtle sense of excitement.

D) centers on providing positive feedback to a partner while minimizing critical feedback.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual Desire Subject: Chapter 12, Page 214

39. Sexual agency is the concept that: A) an individual has control over her or his own sexuality.

B) satisfied individuals do not experience spontaneous sexual desire.

C) sexual response involves both capacity and activity.

D) a woman’s understanding of her own sexual anatomy is an important precursor to communicating her needs to her partner(s).

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Sexual Agency Subject: Chapter 12, Page 218

40. Of the five intrauterine contraceptive devices currently available in the United States, which one is effective for at least 10 years?

A) Liletta B) Mirena C) copper IUD (T380, Paragard) D) Kyleena Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Long-Acting Reversible Contraception Subject: Chapter 13, Page 239

41. Emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) can: A) cause an abortion.

B) delay ovulation.

C) harm an established pregnancy.

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D) offer protection from STIs, including HIV. Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Emergency Contraception Subject: Chapter 13, Page 252

42. Knowledge of the risks and benefits of HT continue to evolve. Which statement best summarizes the NAMS 2017 position statement for menopause hormone therapy use for women over 60?

A) There is more risk than benefit.

B) There is more benefit than risk.

C) There is lowered risk of stroke.

D) There is lowered risk of heart disease.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: The Medicalization of Menopause: A Historical Perspective Subject: Chapter 14, Page 269

43. Which of the following terms refers to a type of intimate partner violence in which the perpetrator plays mind games with the victim with the intent of making the victim doubt their own memory and perception?

A) Gaslighting B) Psychological aggression C) Coercive control D) Stalking Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15, Pages 296 44. Which of the following phases in the cycle of abuse includes apologies and repentance for abusive actions by the batterer?

A) Tension-building phase B) Acute battering incident C) Reconciliation phase D) Calm or loving phase Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Theories of Intimate Partner Violence Subject: Chapter 15, Page 297

45. Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims: A) are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws.

B) may have difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms.

C) require the same equipment for proper examination that others do.

D) have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Evaluation of Sexual Assault Patient Subject: Chapter 16, Page 319

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46. Which one of the following statements about sex trafficking is false?

A) Sex trafficking is the fastest growing criminal activity worldwide.

B) 87 percent of victims present to the healthcare system while being trafficked.

C) Sex trafficking is a violation of human rights and considered modern-day slavery.

D) Consent for adults is applicable even when coercion and deception are involved.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 16, Page 328 47. The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic mutations account for 5 to 10 percent of all _______ cancer cases.

A) breast B) ovarian C) uterine D) pancreatic Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17, Page 344

48. The most common sites of metastatic spread of invasive breast cancer include all of the following except: A) bones.

B) lungs.

C) pituitary.

D) brain.

Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Breast Cancer Subject: Chapter 17, Page 345

49. Female sexual dysfunction requires _______ for a diagnosis of sexual dysfunction.

A) patient distress B) lack of desire C) lack of orgasm D) poor emotional intimacy Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Definitions of Female Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18, Page 354

50. Which of the following should not be considered in evaluating sexual interest disorder?

A) Reliance on vibrators B) Motivation for sexual relations C) Duration of the concern D) Frequency of sexual activity Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Further Assessment and Management of Specific Types of Sexual Dysfunction Subject: Chapter 18, Page 358

51. In 2011, 45 percent of all pregnancies in the United States were considered unintended and occur most frequently in women who: A) are married or divorced.

B) have finished high school.

C) are between the ages of 18 and 24.

D) are members of the majority group.

Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Pregnancy Intention Subject: Chapter 19, Page 378

52. The medical definition of infertility is the inability “to achieve a successful pregnancy after ______ or more of regular unprotected intercourse.”

A) 12 months B) 18 months C) 2 years D) 6 months Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Scope of the Condition Subject: Chapter 20, Page 383

53. Which of the following is considered an uncommon cause of female infertility?

A) Ovulatory dysfunction B) Tubal and peritoneal pathology C) Uterine pathology D) Primary gonadal disorder Ans: C Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Etiologies of Infertility Subject: Chapter 20, Page 385

54. Why is wearing cotton or silk undergarments recommended for promoting vaginal health?

A) They help avoid introduction of anorectal bacteria to the vaginal area.

B) They do not encourage yeast growth like synthetic fabrics do.

C) They increase the temperature near the vulva.

D) They are less likely to retain moisture.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Promoting and Maintaining Vaginal Health Subject: Chapter 21, Pages 402

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55. When is toxic shock syndrome most likely to occur?

A) During adolescence B) During menstruation C) During menopause D) During pregnancy Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Toxic Shock Syndrome Subject: Chapter 21, Page 425

56. Why do adolescents have the highest risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A) They have the highest risk for bacterial vaginosis.

B) They are the least at risk for developing other STIs. C) They are the most sexually active.

D) They have decreased immunity to infectious organisms.

Ans: D Complexity: Difficult Ahead: Pelvic Inflammatory Disease Subject: Chapter 22, Page 456

57. What is different about syphilis as compared to other bacterial STIs? A) The incidence in women is much higher than in men.

B) The rates are higher for white women than for Black women.

C) It cannot be spread by kissing.

D) If left untreated, it can lead to a serious systemic disease.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Syphilis Subject: Chapter 22, Page 458

58. What has contributed to the decreased incidence of Hepatitis B over the past 20 years?

A) The decrease in PID B) The HBV vaccination C) The increase in condom use D) More precise screening methods Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Hepatitis B Subject: Chapter 22, Page 461

59. Patients presenting for STI treatment should be screened for HIV: A) at each visit.

B) at the end of treatment.

C) at the beginning of treatment.

D) each year.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Ahead: HIV Subject: Chapter 22, Page 464

60. The most common type of UTI affecting women is: A) acute bacterial cystitis.

B) asymptomatic bacteriuria.

C) pyelonephritis.

D) pyelitis.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Types of Urinary Tract Infections Subject: Chapter 23, Page 470

61. What is the recommended number of Kegel contractions per day for women whose pelvic muscles are weak?

A) 10 B) 50 C) 30 D) 70 Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 24, Page 488

62. What type of behavioral intervention is recommended for women with urge UI who have no urge sensation until the bladder is excessively full and signals a strong and uncomfortable urge?

A) Electrical stimulation B) The Knack skill C) Reverse bladder retraining D) Kegel exercises Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 24, Page 487

63. When assessing urinary incontinence and urgency, which of the following is not a factor the clinician must keep in mind: A) The patient’s view and experience of her most problematic symptom B) A narrow array of symptom presentation focused on actual leakage C) Previous treatments, medications and coexisting diseases D) Presence, frequency, severity, bother and impact on quality of life Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment Subject: Chapter 24, Page 482

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64. What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? A) To increase the capacity of the bladder B) To increase pressure on the vaginal walls C) To support and strengthen the levator ani D) To support and stabilize the urethra Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 24, Page 489

65. ___________ and its main metabolite, allopregnanolone, peak during the luteal phase and decrease rapidly with menses, mirroring the timing of PMD symptoms.

A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Sertraline D) Fluoxetine Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Premenstrual Cycle syndromes and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25, Page 500

66. Which dietary supplement has been shown to help treat PMS? A) Calcium B) Magnesium C) Fish oil D) Iron Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Premenstrual-Cycle Syndrome and Dysphoric Disorder: An Overview Subject: Chapter 25, Page 504

67. Secondary causes of dysmenorrhea include all of the following except: A) endometriosis.

B) musculoskeletal disorders.

C) fibromyalgia.

D) pregnancy.

Ans: C Complexity: Easy Ahead: Etiology and Pathophysiology Subject: Chapter 25, Page 497

68. What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing AUB as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes?

A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test B) Nucleic acid amplification test C) Complete blood count D) Prolactin level test Ans: D Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Complexity: Difficult Ahead: The Objective Evaluation Subject: Chapter 26, Page 515

69. Gonadotropin hormone-releasing agonists are recommended for only short-term use to treat heavy bleeding due to: A) their many side effects, such as hot flashes.

B) the fact that they cause amenorrhea.

C) the fact that they are poorly understood.

D) their poor interaction with hormonal contraception.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Plans Subject: Chapter 26, Page 522

70. What treatment was introduced in the 1990s as a less invasive alternative to hysterectomy?

A) Myomectomy B) NSAIDs C) Endometrial ablation D) LNG-INS Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Plans Subject: Chapter 26, Page 522

71. What is the definition of primary amenorrhea?

A) The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months B) The failure to begin menses by age 14 C) The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction D) The failure to begin menses by age 16 Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Differential Diagnosis of AUB Subject: Chapter 26, Page 519

72. What should be used for women whose hirsutism remains refractory after 6 months of combined oral contraceptive use?

A) Antiandrogens B) Progestogens C) Metformin D) GnRH Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 27, Page 537

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73. How does topical application of eflornithine treat facial hirsutism?

A) It slows the rate of hair growth.

B) It reduces androgen levels.

C) It reduces incidences of alopecia.

D) It inhibits gonadotropin secretion.

Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 27, Page 538

74. Which of the following is a chronic, relapsing inflammatory disorder of the hair follicles that can have a similar appearance to sebaceous cysts in its early stages?

A) Hidradenitis suppurativa B) Sebaceous gland cysts C) Folliculitis D) Vulvar dermatoses Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conditions of the Vulva Subject: Chapter 28, Page 546

75. Which of the following is a chronic mucocutaneous disorder that is characterized by inflammation, epithelial thinning and depigmentation, and dermal changes, which often include agglutination of the labia minora?

A) Lichen sclerosus B) Lichen planus C) Lichen simplex chronicus D) Psoriasis Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Conditions of the Vulva Subject: Chapter 28, Page 548

76. Which cancer has the highest mortality rate of all gynecological cancers?

A) Vulvar cancer B) Endometrial cancer C) Cervical cancer D) Ovarian cancer Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: Ovarian Cancer Subject: Chapter 29, Page 589

77. Why are the majority of cases of ovarian cancer diagnosed when the disease has already reached an advanced stage?

A) Women are not routinely screened for it.

B) The symptoms are the same as those for cervical cancer.

C) The symptoms are vague.

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D) The disease usually affects women over the age of 50.

Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Ovarian Cancer Subject: Chapter 29, Page 589

78. What is one factor that can reduce the risk for the development of ovarian cancer?

A) Multiple pregnancies B) Transvaginal ultrasounds C) Identification of recurrence D) Weight loss Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Ovarian Cancer Subject: Chapter 29, Page 590

79. What is a common nongynecologic cause of chronic pelvic pain?

A) Irritable bowel syndrome B) Myofascial pain C) Insulin resistance D) Urinary incontinence Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Description and Definition Subject: Chapter 30, Page 601

80. Pelvic pain in adolescents is almost always: A) chronic.

B) gynecological.

C) psychosocial.

D) musculoskeletal.

Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Considerations for Specific Populations Subject: Chapter 30, Page 614

81. What is a recommended action a woman can take immediately before and following conception to decrease the risk of neural tube defects, preterm birth, and newborns with low birth weight?

A) Begin a yoga or meditation practice B) Change her exercise routine to include only low-impact exercise C) Research current medical recommendations D) Take folate supplementation Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Lifestyle and Behavioral Factors Subject: Chapter 31, Page 657

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82. Why is it important to continue to screen women for type 2 diabetes even after they have given birth if they have a history of gestational diabetes?

A) Gestational diabetes can lead to a higher incidence of secondary infertility.

B) Women with a history of gestational diabetes are seven times more likely to develop type 2 diabetes.

C) A high percentage of women who experienced gestational diabetes have difficulty regulating their insulin levels later in life.

D) The body produces hormones during pregnancy that impede the body’s natural ability to regulate blood glucose levels.

Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Assessment and Counseling Related to Perinatal History Subject: Chapter 31, Page 671

83. Fundal height typically reaches the umbilicus at ____ weeks’ gestation.

A) 20 B) 16 C) 28 D) 28 Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive System Changes Subject: Chapter 32, Page 677

84. During pregnancy, blood volume increases by 30 percent to 50 percent, or 1,100 to 1,600 mL, and peaks at _____________ weeks’ gestation.

A) 30 to 34 B) 20 to 24 C) 36 to 38 D) 12 to 16 Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Cardiovascular System and Hematologic Changes Subject: Chapter 32, Page 679

85. The majority of early pregnancy losses are due to: A) infection.

B) substance abuse.

C) unknown causes.

D) chromosomal abnormalities.

Ans: D Complexity: Easy Ahead: First-Trimester Bleeding Subject: Chapter 33, Page 693

86. What is the leading differential diagnosis when a woman has lower abdominal pain in the firsttrimester that could result in maternal death?

A) Ectopic pregnancy Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

B) Complications from prior gynecologic surgeries C) Abortion D) Complications from unresolved STIs Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: First-Trimester Bleeding Subject: Chapter 33, Page 693

87. A common prenatal care model in which women’s prenatal care visits are in a group setting is called: A) HolisticBirthing.

B) Midwifery.

C) CenteringPregnancy.

D) PathologyCare Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Planning for Pregnancy Care Subject: Chapter 33, Page 694

88. Sulfonamides, which increase the likelihood of hyperbilirubinemia in the fetus, should be avoided: A) during the first trimester.

B) during the second trimester.

C) during the third trimester.

D) throughout the entire pregnancy.

Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34, Page 697

89. Caused by a parasite, ______ can be foodborne or transmitted from animals to humans.

A) toxoplasmosis B) fifth disease C) cytomegalovirus D) rubella Ans: A Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34, Page 698

90. Chlamydia is transmitted from mother to baby: A) transplacentally.

B) through breastmilk.

C) during birth from exposure to the infected cervix.

D) through maternal circulation during the first trimester.

Ans: C Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Infections Commonly Diagnosed During Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 34, Page 702

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91. At which lochia stage is the color lighter red?

A) Rubra B) Serosa C) Alba D) Nulliparous Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Physiology Subject: Chapter 35, Page 714

92. As of 2015, breastfeeding initiation rates had risen to: A) 73.9 percent.

B) 58 percent.

C) 26.5 percent.

D) 83 percent.

Ans: D Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Postpartum Examinations Subject: Chapter 35, Page 720

True/False

1. True or False: The term “health disparities” refers to differences in health experienced by people of color and immigrants to this country.

A) True B) False Ans: B Complexity: Easy Ahead: Key Concepts and Definitions Subject: Chapter 2, Page 13

2. True or False: The primary function of the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal (HPG) axis is the formation of sperm.

A) True B) False Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Reproductive Physiology Subject: Chapter 8, Page 135

3. True or False: Sexual orientation and gender identity are the same.

A) True B) False Ans: B Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Gender and Sexuality Concepts Subject: Chapter 11, Page 173

4. True or False? Postmenopausal women do not produce any estrogen but do produce androgens.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Easy Ahead: Natural Menopause Subject: Chapter 14, Page 269

5. True or False: The clinician must accurately document all findings from the patient assessment and evaluation, including a written narrative, a body diagram, and photo documentation.

A) True B) False Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Documentation Subject: Chapter 15, Page 303

6. True or False? Women answer questions related to pregnancy intention the same at different stages of a pregnancy, and the intendedness they report is generally static.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Pregnancy Intention Subject: Chapter 19, Page 378

7. True or False: Vaginosis differs from vaginitis because the discharge has no odor.

A) True B) False Ans: B Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Vaginitis, Vaginosis, and Vulvovaginitis Subject: Chapter 21, Page 403

8. True or False? When treating a UTI, clinicians should prescribe the least expensive and widestspectrum antibiotic.

A) True B) False Ans: False Complexity: Moderate Ahead: Management Subject: Chapter 23, Page 472 Copyright © 2021 by Jones & Bartlett Learning, LLC, an Ascend Learning Company ScholarFriends.com

9. True or False: Polycystic Ovary Syndrome is the leading cause of infertility in women.

A) True B) False Ans: A Complexity: Easy Ahead: Assessment of Health Conditions and Medications That May Impact Fertility or Pregnancy Subject: Chapter 31, Page 667

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