Introducing Psychology, 5th Edition by Daniel; Gilbert; Wegner and Nock

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Chap 01_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Today, psychologists believe that thoughts and feelings: a. arise from electrical and chemical activities of the brain. b. arise from a nonphysical mind interacting with the pineal gland in the brain. c. are not proper subject matter for scientific research. d. are not adaptive in helping us function effectively in the world. 2. When 4-year-old Isabel hears the sound of the ice cream truck's music, she runs outside in hopes of getting an ice cream bar. The ice cream bar is a(n) _____ running outside when she hears the music. a. response to b. stimulus eliciting c. reinforcement for d. unconscious force triggering 3. Camila notices that she's not as focused during her volleyball competitions as she'd like to be. She should ask a(n) _____ for help. a. sports psychologist b. cognitive neuroscientist c. school psychologist d. industrial/organizational psychologist 4. Consumer psychology is to _____ as industrial/organizational psychology is to _____. a. helping athletes train and compete; developing and marketing new products b. maximizing employees' performance; assisting courts in dealing with crime c. developing and marketing new products; maximizing employees' performance d. guiding students; assisting courts in dealing with crime 5. As an elementary school student, Xu met with a psychologist who helped him with speech and reading. Which type of psychologist did Xu see? a. experimental psychologist b. cognitive neuroscientist c. social psychologist d. school psychologist 6. The first African American to receive a PhD in psychology was: a. Francis Cecil Sumner. b. Kenneth Clark. c. Mamie Phipps Clark. d. Margaret Floy Washburn. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 7. The modern view that the subjective experience of having a mind is the result of brain activity can be traced to which philosopher? a. Hobbes b. Kant c. Descartes d. Locke 8. Andre studies if altruism varies as a function of individualistic or collectivist societies. He pays particular attention to differences in values between the two types of societies. What type of psychologist is Andre? a. evolutionary b. cultural c. cognitive d. Gestalt 9. Which topic is LEAST likely to be studied by cognitive psychologists? a. attention b. memory c. decision making d. unconscious conflicts 10. Who was the first African American to receive a PhD in psychology? a. Francis Cecil Sumner b. Kenneth Clark c. Mamie Phipps Clark d. Mary Whiton Calkins 11. According to cognitive psychologists, computer software is to hardware as: a. brain is to mind. b. mind is to brain. c. mind is to language. d. language is to mind. 12. Which psychologist established functionalism as an approach to psychology? a. James b. Skinner c. Wundt d. Watson

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Chap 01_5e 13. William James argued that the job of psychologists is to: a. figure out the function of consciousness. b. determine the building blocks of consciousness. c. research only observable behavior. d. use introspection to study consciousness. 14. The observation that people of different nations pay attention to different aspects of visual images is in accordance with: a. behaviorism. b. evolutionary psychology. c. developmental psychology. d. cultural psychology. 15. In Pavlov's research, a tone was sounded prior to delivering food to hungry dogs. After a number of trials, what did Pavlov notice? a. The dogs salivated prior to the tone being sounded. b. The dogs salivated to the sound of the tone alone. c. The dogs salivated only after the food was presented. d. The dogs began doing spontaneous tricks as soon as the tone sounded. 16. Which definition BEST describes hysteria? a. the emergence of multiple personalities as the result of an extreme stressor such as child abuse b. a major depressive episode triggered by a major life event such as divorce c. a temporary loss of cognitive or motor functioning with no obvious physical origin d. generalized anxiety due to daily stressors 17. The advent of computers in 1945 had an enormous conceptual impact on the development of _____ psychology. a. behavioral b. Gestalt c. cognitive d. social 18. In the 1950s, the advent of computers had an enormous influence on how psychologists conceptualized the mind. In this conceptualization, the mind is analogous to: a. computer hardware. b. computer software. c. an electrical source. d. data-storage devices.

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Chap 01_5e 19. Clementine reports that after a heated argument with her boss, her right arm has become paralyzed, although there is no medical cause. In the late 1800s, French physicians Charcot and Janet would probably have: a. diagnosed Clementine with hysteria. b. tried to use classical conditioning to treat the paralyzed arm. c. used introspection to determine the building blocks of movement. d. approached the treatment using a cultural psychology perspective. 20. Which psychologist is associated with the development of cumulative recorders that record the frequency of responses in real time? a. John Watson b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. B. F. Skinner 21. Sam is a modern scholar of psychological science. Sam is MOST likely to believe that: a. the scientific method cannot be applied to the study of thinking and emotion. b. thoughts, feelings, and behaviors arise from electrical and chemical events in the brain. c. psychologists should confine their analyses to the study of observable behavior. d. mental processes are the only subject matter worthy of study in psychology. 22. Frederic Bartlett believed that: a. memory is an unobservable construct that cannot be empirically studied. b. memory operates like a recording device. c. the mind is irrelevant for studies of memory. d. memory is constructed by the mind using theories of how the world works. 23. William James's school of functionalism was MOST influenced by the works of: a. John Watson. b. Wilhelm Wundt. c. Charles Darwin. d. Noam Chomsky. 24. If you believe that the results of a study on conformity conducted on college students in the United States may differ considerably had the study involved older adults in Asia, you are thinking like a(n): a. evolutionary psychologist. b. behaviorist. c. neuroscientist. d. cultural psychologist.

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Chap 01_5e 25. Dr. Vance is a clinical psychologist who often uses psychoanalysis with his clients. Which techniques is he MOST likely to use? a. free association and classical conditioning b. classical conditioning and introspection c. free association and dream analysis d. dream analysis and introspection 26. Isabella is currently experiencing hysteria and reports that she can remember very few events from her traumatic childhood. Freud would suggest that she undergo treatment using: a. fMRI scans. b. free association. c. introspection. d. conditioning techniques. 27. "The goal of scientific psychology should be to predict and control behavior that benefits society." This statement is associated with which psychologist? a. Freud b. James c. Watson d. Wundt 28. Which approach to psychology links behavior to activities in the brain? a. cognitive neuroscience b. cognitive psychology c. behavioral neuroscience d. evolutionary psychology 29. Piaget concluded that small children view the world in a fundamentally different way than adults do because: a. children cannot form memories. b. children cannot learn stimulus-response relationships. c. children's theories of the relationship between the size and mass of objects are different than those of adults. d. children cannot use introspection. 30. Dirk researches whether anxiety manifests itself in the same way regardless of where one lives. Dirk is MOST likely a: a. cultural psychologist. b. behaviorist. c. neuroscientist. d. Gestalt psychologist. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 31. Which demographic represents a majority of American Psychological Association members? a. Latinx b. African American c. male d. female 32. The research of Kurt Lewin contributed to the birth of _____ psychology. a. social b. evolutionary c. cultural d. Gestalt 33. Six-year-old Michael eats teriyaki chicken for the first time at a Japanese restaurant and shortly thereafter becomes nauseous during the car ride home. The sickness is actually due to his catching a virus from his older brother Patrick. Michael is MOST likely to associate the sickness with: a. Patrick. b. the teriyaki flavor. c. the sign outside the Japanese restaurant. d. riding in the car. 34. Manny believes that the goal of psychologists should be to determine the function of consciousness. His belief is MOST similar to that of: a. James. b. Ebbinghaus. c. Skinner. d. Darwin. 35. Values, traditions, and beliefs that are shared by a particular group of people are called: a. customs. b. ceremonies. c. culture. d. backgrounds. 36. Olivia turns on the air conditioning when it gets too hot in the house. Olivia's actions are a _____ controlled by the _____ of heat. a. response; stimulus b. stimulus; response c. response; reinforcer d. stimulus; reinforcer

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Chap 01_5e 37. According to cognitive psychologists, computer hardware is to software as: a. brain is to mind. b. mind is to brain. c. mind is to language. d. language is to mind. 38. Which early philosopher believed that certain kinds of knowledge are innate rather than acquired? a. Descartes b. Kant c. Hobbes d. Locke 39. In his theory of _____, Darwin proposed that attributes that are most adaptive become more prevalent in the population. a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism 40. The scientific study of human information processing is called: a. behavioral neuroscience. b. physiology. c. cognitive psychology. d. mental psychology. 41. Samuel believes that his mind is fundamentally different than his brain, a belief consistent with: a. dualism. b. materialism. c. idealism. d. nativism. 42. When was the American Psychological Association founded? a. 1930 b. 1988 c. 1892 d. 1963

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Chap 01_5e 43. Although all of the founding members of the American Psychological Association were White and male, today the majority of all APA members are: a. Latinx. b. people of color. c. African American. d. female. 44. Which question would a cognitive neuroscientist be LEAST interested in? a. What brain areas are active when remembering an event? b. What brain areas are necessary for learning a new language? c. What brain areas are damaged by drug use? d. What brain areas are active when imagining the rotation of an object? 45. Which of these is LEAST likely define a culture? a. occupation b. religion c. diversity d. sexual orientation 46. Amaya believes that certain kinds of knowledge are innate or inborn. This is a theory known as: a. dualism. b. nativism. c. materialism. d. behaviorism. 47. Bringing unconscious material into conscious awareness is the goal of: a. psychoanalysis. b. behaviorism. c. introspection. d. neuroscience. 48. _____ demonstrated that the ease with which associations are learned can be influenced by an organism's evolutionary history. a. Noam Chomsky b. John Garcia c. Paul Broca d. Sigmond Freud

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Chap 01_5e 49. Kant advocated the philosophical views of: a. empiricism and idealism. b. nativism and idealism. c. dualism and realism. d. materialism and idealism. 50. Karl Lashley's early neuroscientific research sought to identify the specific brain region: a. underlying grammar rules. b. involved in speech production. c. responsible for rats learning to navigate a maze. d. responsible for visual perception. 51. Two boats sank in the Indian Ocean in World War II. In 1998, John Dunn and Kim Kirsner used _____ research on memory to analyze survivors' memories and locate the wreckage. a. Wundt's b. Piaget's c. Bartlett's d. Kirsner's 52. In a book entitled Cognitive Psychology (1967), who summarized the dramatic shift in psychology's orientation away from behaviorism? a. John Garcia b. Noam Chomsky c. Kurt Lewin d. Solomon Asch 53. Which psychologist's theories addressed the underlying causes of hysteria and other nervous disorders? a. Lewin b. Skinner c. Watson d. Freud 54. Piaget showed children equally small mounds of clay and then broke one mound into little pieces. He then asked children to identify which had more clay. Until the age of _____, children typically identified the unbroken mound as containing more clay. a. 1 year b. 3 to 4 years c. 6 to 7 years d. 9 to 10 years

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Chap 01_5e 55. _____ believed that the mind at birth is a tabula rasa. a. Hobbes b. Descartes c. Locke d. Kant 56. A behavioral account of language development, entitled Verbal Behavior (1957), was written by: a. B. F. Skinner. b. Noam Chomsky. c. John Watson. d. Ulric Neisser. 57. A train is passing by, but Jean's view of it is partially obstructed by traffic. According to Gestalt psychologists, he nevertheless perceives a unified single train because: a. a long train conjures repressed sexuality in the unconscious. b. in the past, he has been reinforced for perceiving in this way. c. the train stimulus evoked this evolutionarily adaptive sensory response. d. the mind creates a whole image from the parts that it perceives. 58. Most modern psychologists would agree with which statement concerning mental processes such as attention and memory? a. The scientific method cannot be applied to the study of attention and memory. b. Mental processes cannot be explained in terms of brain functioning. c. Mental processes are produced by physical processes in the brain. d. Mental processes are the only subject matter worthy of study in psychology. 59. Xue does not believe that we have a nonphysical mind. Rather, he believes that the mind is what the brain does. His views are MOST similar to those of: a. Locke. b. Kant. c. Ryle. d. Hobbes. 60. Which of these is NOT a key difference between a psychologist and a psychiatrist? a. A psychiatrist obtains a medical doctor degree. b. Only a psychologist can treat psychological disorders. c. Only a psychiatrist can prescribe medications. d. A psychologist goes to graduate school.

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Chap 01_5e 61. Which scenario represents the principle of reinforcement? a. doing the same thing over and over again regardless of the consequences b. blinking when a particle lands in your eye c. studying hard because it results in good grades d. introspecting about a pleasurable experience in your life 62. Kaiya believes that her spirituality is rooted in a specific area of the brain. Her belief is similar to that of: a. Ryle. b. Descartes. c. Hobbes. d. Locke. 63. Chloe seeks to understand the brain functions associated with coordinated movement. Chloe is MOST likely a(n): a. behaviorist. b. evolutionary psychologist. c. cognitive neuroscientist. d. behavioral neuroscientist. 64. Which early psychologist is associated with psychoanalysis? a. Freud b. Watson c. Skinner d. James 65. Wertheimer, a Gestalt psychologist, used _____ to show how perception of a whole object or scene can influence judgments about its individual elements. a. illusory motion b. introspection c. reinforcement d. dream analysis 66. Which statement about visual processing in Eastern and Western cultures is true? a. Easterners tend to process visual information analytically. b. Both cultures process visual information the same way. c. Westerners tend to process visual information analytically. d. Westerners tend to process visual information holistically.

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Chap 01_5e 67. Freud called the _____ the part of the mind that operates outside of conscious awareness but influences conscious thoughts, feelings, and actions. a. preconscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. subconscious 68. Which of these recent PhDs represents the MOST common subfield in psychology? a. Cai, a social psychologist researching political affiliation b. Shannon, a sports psychologist working with NBA athletes c. Malik, a therapist specializing in depression d. Camila, a cognitive neuroscientist researching the brain areas involved in memory 69. In the work of past psychologists, the goal of introspection was to: a. reduce patients' hysteria. b. discover the building blocks of subjective experience. c. condition new behaviors. d. promote organisms' reproductive fitness. 70. Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist, is BEST known for his experiments: a. conditioning a salivation response in dogs to environmental stimuli. b. measuring the speed at which a bell can be perceived in a dog's auditory cortex. c. demonstrating the effectiveness of positive reinforcement in dogs. d. investigating salivation in dogs when the olfactory bulb is surgically removed. 71. In his best-selling book Beyond Freedom and Dignity, B. F. Skinner argued that behavior is: a. the result of the unconscious mind. b. partly the result of a limited free will that has evolved as a result of natural selection. c. completely determined by genetic factors, and free will is an illusion. d. determined largely by its consequences, and free will is an illusion. 72. Jeremiah thinks it would be beneficial for his employees to attend a seminar on how to become more productive at work. Which type of psychologist would conduct this seminar? a. therapist b. industrial/organizational psychologist c. school psychologist d. cognitive psychologist

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Chap 01_5e 73. Based on his research, Broca: a. confirmed predictions made by behaviorism. b. uncovered evidence consistent with dualism. c. conceptualized mental processes in terms of both nature and nurture. d. attributed the cause of mental processes to brain activity. 74. In Pavlov's research, dogs' salivation is an example of a: a. stimulus. b. response. c. reward. d. reinforcer. 75. Which factor is LEAST likely to define a culture? a. age b. religion c. sexual orientation d. diversity 76. Which research question would cognitive psychologists be MOST interested in studying? a. Why do people conform in social settings? b. What is the evolutionary basis for food preferences? c. How do life events become stored in memory? d. How does the school a child attends influence her social development? 77. Which question would a cognitive neuroscientist be MOST interested in? a. What brain areas are active during learning? b. What brain areas are damaged by drug use? c. What brain areas are important for physical growth? d. What brain areas secrete hormones that control hunger? 78. A cognitive psychologist who argued that it wasn't an environmental stimulus, but rather the subjective experience, or construal, of the stimulus that led to behavior, was: a. Karl Lashley. b. John Watson. c. Kurt Lewin. d. Noam Chomsky.

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Chap 01_5e 79. Sigmund Freud is to William James as _____ is to _____. a. behaviorism; psychoanalysis b. psychoanalysis; behaviorism c. humanism; functionalism d. psychoanalysis; functionalism 80. The first woman to receive a PhD in psychology was: a. Mary Whiton Calkins. b. Margaret Floy Washburn. c. Mamie Phipps Clark. d. Bärbel Inhelder. 81. The mind is _____, while behavior is _____. a. a set of public events; a set of private events b. thoughts; feelings c. things we say; things we do d. unobservable events; observable events 82. Laila is a PhD student in cognitive neuroscience. Which area would she be MOST likely to study? a. brain mechanisms underlying memory formation b. brain mechanisms underlying sleep c. brain mechanisms underlying reinforcement d. brain mechanisms underlying aging 83. Psychology is the scientific study of: a. mind and body. b. mind and behavior. c. mood and behavior. d. mood and body. 84. One piece of evidence that supports materialism is: a. firsthand accounts from people who have near-death experiences. b. memory is ultimately explainable in terms of the physical processes that produce it. c. brain activity produces consciousness. d. both genetic and environmental factors influence human behavior.

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Chap 01_5e 85. _____ calculated the speed at which nerves transmit information. a. Hermann von Helmholtz b. Kurt Lewin c. Noam Chomsky d. Wilhelm Wundt 86. Wundt believed that scientific psychology should focus on analyzing: a. decision making. b. observable behavior. c. consciousness. d. brain functioning. 87. According to Kurt Lewin, a construal is: a. a physical property of the stimulus. b. an observable response to the stimulus. c. a perceptual illusion that commonly occurs to visual stimuli. d. the subjective meaning of the stimulus. 88. The theory known as _____ posits that traits that help organisms survive and reproduce are more likely to be passed on to subsequent generations. a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism 89. Skinner's rat is to _____ as Pavlov's dog is to _____. a. nurture; nature b. active; passive c. stimulus; response d. response; reinforcer 90. Deiondre believes that philosophical idealism drives perception. He is MOST likely to assert that: a. your perceptions of this page are a result of the light bouncing from the page into your eye only. b. the pictures of this page produced by the eye accurately depict the world. c. the light bouncing from this page into your eye is irrelevant to your perception of this page. d. the light bouncing from the page into your eye and other information your brain has about the world combine to create a full perception of this page.

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Chap 01_5e 91. _____ is the private inner experience of perception, thoughts, memories, and feelings. a. The mind b. Dualism c. Behavior d. Empiricism 92. Which research question would be of MOST interest to social psychologists? a. Why do people support and join terrorist organizations? b. What are the necessary steps in language development? c. Which areas of the brain are active during dreaming? d. How does generational poverty affect rates of depression and anxiety? 93. Which pioneer of cognitive psychology conducted research on memory in which he asked participants to read stories and then try to remember what they had read after varying amounts of time had passed? a. Frederic Bartlett b. Jean Piaget c. B. F. Skinner d. Max Wertheimer 94. Structuralism, functionalism, and psychoanalysis all are similar in that advocates of each position: a. sought to identify the building blocks of consciousness. b. believed that consciousness was best described metaphorically as a flowing river. c. attempted to understand the inner workings of the mind. d. believed that human behavior was determined largely by unconscious forces. 95. Alexandra touches a mug of coffee, and interprets a warm sensation. She believes that her perception of the temperature of the mug is due to her brain's interpretation of information from her sensory organs. This is MOST consistent with: a. philosophical idealism. b. philosophical realism. c. dualism. d. materialism. 96. Research participants are asked to rotate a three-dimensional object in their minds. William James would be MOST interested in which research question? a. What are the subjective experiences of the participants as they do this task? b. In what ways does the ability to manipulate objects in the mind aid problem solving in the real world? c. At what age does this ability develop? d. What are the unconscious processes underlying this task?

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Chap 01_5e 97. Psychologists spend an average of _____ years in graduate school before attaining their PhDs. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10 98. A memory expert testifies in court for the defense that the eyewitness testimony should be given less importance because memory is constructed by the mind. The expert is articulating the position FIRST advanced by: a. Max Wertheimer. b. Hermann Ebbinghaus. c. Jean Piaget. d. Frederic Bartlett. 99. Jordan is conducting an experiment using introspection. If he is successful, his experiment will result in: a. reductions of patients' hysteria. b. conditioning. c. reinforcement. d. discovery of the building blocks of subjective experience. 100. An early approach to psychology that focused on how mental processes enable people to adapt to their environment is called: a. structuralism. b. nativism. c. functionalism. d. behaviorism. 101. Solomon Asch was a social psychologist whose research interests were shaped, in part, by: a. the American civil rights movement. b. the development of computers. c. Gestalt psychology. d. theories of language development. 102. In the 1950s, the advent of computers had an enormous influence on how psychologists conceptualized the mind. In this conceptualization, the brain is analogous to: a. computer hardware. b. computer software. c. an electrical source. d. programming language.

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Chap 01_5e 103. Freud emphasized that his patients' hysterical symptoms could be traced to: a. effects of painful childhood experiences that could not be remembered. b. failures of otherwise adaptive cognitive processes. c. classical conditioning. d. maladaptive patterns of behavior that could be observed during infancy. 104. In _____, trained observers are asked to report on their "raw" sensory experience in response to a stimulus. a. inspection b. circumspection c. retrospection d. introspection 105. _____ pioneered the Gestalt psychology movement. a. Max Wertheimer b. B. F. Skinner c. Jean Piaget d. Sigmond Freud 106. Based on his functionalist views, William James might be MOST interested to know which information about sleep? a. the percentage of people who dream b. the average number of hours a night people sleep c. the importance of sleep in forming long-term memories d. the changes in brain electrical activity that co-occur with sleep stages 107. Which type of psychologists assist attorneys and courts in dealing with crime? a. social psychologists b. industrial/organizational psychologists c. forensic psychologists d. health psychologists 108. B. F. Skinner's Verbal Behavior (1957) attempts to provide a(n) _____ account of language. a. cognitive b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. sociocultural

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Chap 01_5e 109. Marvel studies why people commit evil acts when ordered to do so by a totalitarian regime. Marvel is MOST likely a: a. cultural psychologist. b. behavioral neuroscientist. c. social psychologist. d. developmental psychologist. 110. Early psychologists using structuralist methods in the study of psychology attempted to: a. use free association to gain insight into the unconsciousness. b. analyze conscious experience into its most basic parts. c. use reaction-time measures to map or structure neural networks in the brain. d. identify the adaptive functions of mental activity. 111. Beginning in the 1950s, behaviorism began to receive intense criticism. Which statement is NOT one of the criticisms against behaviorism? a. It ignores the mental processes underlying behavior. b. It uses subjective measures in its research. c. It ignores the role of evolutionary history on behavior. d. It presents an inadequate account of language development. 112. Which topic would NOT be of interest to social psychologists? a. the contents of the unconscious b. racial prejudice c. leadership and communication d. how people draw inferences about others 113. Within psychology, psychoanalysis had its greatest influence on: a. cognitive psychologists. b. clinicians. c. behaviorists. d. experimental psychologists. 114. A cognitive psychologist who studied the perceptual and cognitive errors of children to gain insight into the nature and development of the human mind was: a. Jean Piaget. b. Frederic Bartlett. c. Kurt Lewin. d. Max Wertheimer.

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Chap 01_5e 115. A teacher praises a student for asking a good question. Which psychologist would state that the effect of praise on subsequent behavior depends on the student's subjective experience of it? a. B. F. Skinner b. Kurt Lewin c. Jean Piaget d. Sigmund Freud 116. Psychologists work in a wide variety of settings, but the LARGEST percentage work in: a. business. b. clinical settings. c. academia. d. governmental agencies. 117. After suffering a stroke, Aliyah was able to understand what people said to her but was unable to speak to them. The stroke probably damaged: a. her hypothalamus. b. Broca's area. c. the nodes of Ranvier. d. her cerebellum. 118. Watson criticized the introspective methods of the structuralists and functionalists primarily because: a. the use of these methods necessitated a belief in the existence of mental events. b. introspection cannot produce replicable and objective measures required by science. c. the stimulus–response introspective model was overly simplistic. d. reaction time was an unreliable dependent measure. 119. Solomon Asch's primacy effect describes why: a. people draw inferences about others based on first impressions. b. people continuously adjust their theories of others based on all of the information they have. c. people ignore the first information they learn about others. d. people do not form theories about other people. 120. Studies have demonstrated that we attend to only a fraction of the sensory information the brain receives. Based on this information, William James would be MOST interested in which research question? a. What are the basic elements of sensory information? b. Do unattended sensory experiences exist in the unconscious? c. Will more information be perceived if participants are reinforced by cash incentives for better attention? d. Why might it be advantageous for the mind to filter out most sensory information?

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Chap 01_5e 121. Which early neuropsychologist trained rats to run a maze, surgically removed parts of their brains, and then measured how well they could run the maze again? a. Noam Chomsky b. Karl Lashley c. Jean Piaget d. Paul Broca 122. Which cultural difference can be found in just about every corner of the world? a. wealth disparities b. racial differences c. religious differences d. language differences 123. Kyrah suffered a stroke and experienced damage to Broca's area. Kyrah will have problems: a. speaking. b. reading. c. moving her arm. d. recognizing objects. 124. Julie believes that the society in which one grows up does not affect psychological issues. Which approach BEST fits her view? a. social psychology b. behaviorism c. cultural psychology d. Gestalt psychology 125. Which statement is NOT true of psychoanalysis? a. The goal of psychanalysis is to access the conscious mind. b. Sigmund Freud used psychoanalysis. c. Dream analysis was used in therapeutic sessions. d. Free associations were often used in psychoanalysis. 126. Dae-Ho has recently been hired as the chief executive officer (CEO) of a major company. His main goal for his first few months of work is to maximize employee performance. He is likely to contact a(n) _____ psychologist to help employees. a. industrial/organizational b. cognitive c. sports d. health

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Chap 01_5e 127. In Pavlov's research, the tone was a _____ for the dogs to salivate. a. reinforcer b. response c. reward d. stimulus 128. Kolby believes that her mood is directly attributable to activity in her brain. Her belief is MOST consistent with which philosophical view? a. idealism b. materialism c. nativism d. dualism 129. The FIRST laboratory devoted exclusively to psychology as an independent field of study opened: a. in Paris in 1859. b. in Leipzig in 1879. c. in Berlin in 1889. d. at Cornell University in 1909. 130. Psychologist Kurt Lewin believed that stimulus–response psychology was too simplistic to predict human behavior. In his theories, he proposed that responses were dependent on the: a. subjective construal of the stimulus. b. structure of the stimulus. c. reinforcement by the stimulus. d. informational value of the stimulus. 131. John Watson is to _____ as B. F. Skinner is to _____. a. reinforcers; free will b. emotions; reinforcers c. stimuli; mental processes d. stimuli; consequences 132. What technique did psychologists who studied structuralism use? a. conditioning b. introspection c. psychoanalysis d. hypnosis

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Chap 01_5e 133. Cliff has been prescribed Xanax to treat his anxiety, probably by a: a. counseling psychologist. b. industrial/organizational psychologist. c. psychiatrist. d. school psychologist. 134. One practical application of Bartlett's research occurred in 1998, when John Dunn and Kim Kirsner: a. used sonar to detect the wreckage of two ships that sank in World War II. b. used analysis of survivor's memories to make a prediction about where the wreckage of two ships might be. c. used introspection to assess perceptual experiences during a crisis. d. used stories about two ships to recreate the size and shape of the ships. 135. According to evolutionary psychology, jealousy: a. hindered reproduction in our ancestors through a decrease in "jealous genes." b. can be understood by examining how ancient hunter-gatherers coped with the challenges of survival and reproduction. c. facilitates reproductive success today. d. hinders the ability to attract but facilitates the ability to keep a mate today. 136. Mary Whiton Calkins was NOT awarded a PhD because: a. she failed to complete graduation requirements. b. she left the field of psychology. c. she was a woman. d. she failed her PhD examination. 137. A participant seated in an otherwise dark room stares at the flickering of a lit candle and reports on his subjective experiences, such as the visual experience of the candle flickering and the haptic sensation of warmth. The method used in this experiment is: a. reaction time test. b. natural selection. c. introspection. d. classical conditioning. 138. Damage to which brain region impairs the production of speech? a. the pineal gland b. Broca's area c. the hippocampus d. the temporal lobe

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Chap 01_5e 139. John Watson was interested in how _____ behavior, and B. F. Skinner focused on how _____ control(s) behavior. a. reinforcers strengthen; free will b. emotions trigger; reinforcers c. stimuli produce; mental processes d. stimuli elicit; consequences 140. Among the first to struggle with how the mind works were: a. philosophers. b. psychologists. c. structuralists. d. functionalists. 141. Why did behaviorism gain popularity as an approach to psychology? a. It was a reaction to the pessimistic view of human nature espoused by psychoanalytic theory. b. Psychoanalysts had failed to develop effective treatments. c. It advocated for nurturing and developing the mind by rewarding healthy patterns of thinking. d. It is difficult to know what is going on in people's minds. 142. Thomas reports that he just has become blind in his left eye, although there is no physical cause. In the late 1800s, French physicians Charcot and Janet would probably have: a. diagnosed Thomas with hysteria. b. tried to use classical conditioning to treat the blindness. c. used introspection to determine the building blocks of sight. d. approached the treatment using a cultural psychology perspective. 143. Piaget showed children two equally small mounds of clay and then broke one mound into little pieces. He then asked children to identify which had more clay—the intact mound or the collection of little pieces. If we replicated this experiment, which participant would we expect to correctly identify the mound and collection of pieces as having equal amounts of clay? a. 9-month-old Aisha b. 3-year-old Sam c. 5-year-old Amida d. 8-year-old Sydney 144. The amount of time between the onset of a stimulus and a response can be used to calculate: a. the subjective response to the stimulus. b. the speed at which nerves transmit information. c. learning. d. the stimulus time. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 145. Dr. Blake studies how people form stereotypes. Which area of psychology does her research BEST represent? a. evolutionary psychology b. social psychology c. Gestalt psychology d. cognitive neuroscience 146. Research in psychological science has shown all of these EXCEPT: a. cognitive behavioral therapy is an effective treatment for depression. b. the DARE antidrug program is ineffective. c. one stereotype threat intervention reduced the achievement gap by 40%. d. scared straight interventions are effective. 147. _____ advocates the scientific study of objectively observable behavior. a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 148. Which statement about John Watson is correct? a. He completely denied the existence of mental events. b. He believed that genetic factors were the largest influence on behavior. c. He believed that environmental factors were the most important influences on behavior. d. He believed that nature was more important than nurture in determining behavior. 149. Sports psychology is to _____ as consumer psychology is to _____. a. helping athletes train and compete; developing and marketing new products b. maximizing employees' performance; assisting courts in dealing with crime c. developing and marketing new products; maximizing employees' performance d. guiding students; assisting courts in dealing with crime 150. Leslie thinks that we learn to act in certain ways because of the consequences of our behavior. Her belief is probably influenced by the findings of: a. Noam Chomsky. b. Sigmund Freud. c. B. F. Skinner. d. Paul Broca.

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Chap 01_5e 151. A college student taking introductory psychology decides to test Piaget's theories of mental development on his 10-year-old sister, who loves hot dogs and is very hungry. He shows her two hot dogs. Then, while she is watching, he breaks one of the hot dogs in half. He asks if she would like one hot dog (the intact hot dog) or two hot dogs (the hot dog cut in half). Consistent with Piaget's findings, the girl probably will: a. select the intact hot dog. b. select the hot dog cut in half. c. state that both choices are the same. d. become confused and have trouble deciding. 152. Historians generally credit the emergence of psychology as a science to: a. Wundt. b. Darwin. c. Kant. d. Chomsky. 153. The major limitation of the works of early philosophers to an understanding of human behavior is that: a. the works tended to underestimate the role of nature in determining human behavior. b. the forces that govern human behavior have changed considerably since their time. c. the works tended to underestimate the role of nurture in shaping human behavior. d. philosophers did not develop ways to test their theories. 154. A college student taking introductory psychology decides to test Piaget's theories of mental development on her 3-year-old brother, who loves hot dogs and is very hungry. She shows him two hot dogs. Then, while he is watching, she breaks one of the hot dogs in half. She asks if he would like one hot dog (the intact hot dog) or two hot dogs (the hot dog cut in half). Consistent with Piaget's findings, the child: a. selects the intact hot dog. b. selects the hot dog cut in half. c. says she is silly because both are the same. d. becomes confused and starts crying. 155. The research of which psychologist gave birth to the field of social psychology? a. Jean Piaget b. Kurt Lewin c. Max Wertheimer d. John Watson

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Chap 01_5e 156. In his best-selling book Beyond Freedom and Dignity, _____ argued that behavior is determined by its consequences and that free will is an illusion. a. Max Wertheimer b. B. F. Skinner c. Noam Chomsky d. Sigmund Freud 157. Freud believed that the mind: a. is largely hidden from view. b. is always understandable. c. is not the source of hysteria. d. does not require analysis. 158. Sandy's children would accidentally drop pieces of food under the table during family dinners, so Sandy's dog, Lola, learned to sit under the dinner table. Lola's behavior has been influenced by: a. consciousness. b. reinforcement. c. punishment. d. reaction time. 159. After teaching the first course in scientific or "experimental" psychology, _____ wrote the world's first psychology book, Principles of Physiological Psychology, in 1874. a. Helmholtz b. Wundt c. Ebbinghaus d. James 160. Research using scanning technology of the brain has demonstrated that when a person who has been deaf from birth learns American Sign Language at an early age, that person uses _____ hemisphere when communicating with American Sign Language. a. the left b. the right c. both the right and the left d. neither the right nor the left

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Chap 01_5e 161. When Helena runs with her running group, she runs faster than when she runs by herself. Which field of psychology would be most interested in studying this behavior? a. behavioral neuroscience b. cultural psychology c. social psychology d. evolutionary psychology 162. Descartes believed that: a. the mind and body aren't fundamentally different at all. b. perceptions of the physical world are produced entirely by information from the sensory organs. c. the body is made of a material substance, while the mind is made of an immaterial substance. d. perceptions of the physical world are the brain's interpretation of information from the sensory organs. 163. The functionalist approach was MOST influenced by the theory of: a. empiricism. b. materialism. c. natural selection. d. dualism. 164. Which of these is NOT a flaw of introspective methods? a. There is a lack of consistency between observers. b. Scientists have difficulty agreeing on the building blocks of subjective experience. c. There is no way to tell if an observer's description of her inner experience is accurate. d. Observers are exposed to many different stimuli. 165. Gestalt psychologist Max Wertheimer demonstrated that: a. visual illusions are caused by unconscious processes. b. perception of a whole image influences judgements about the parts. c. images are produced in different parts of the brain. d. illusory motion is caused by reinforcement of visual behavior. 166. What does PhD stand for? a. doctor of psychology b. doctor of philosophy c. doctor of psychiatry d. doctor of physics

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Chap 01_5e 167. Response is to stimulus as the: a. firing of a gun at the start of a race is to running. b. tone is to salivation for Pavlov's dogs. c. pressing of the brakes is to a red traffic light. d. ringing of the alarm clock is to rolling out of bed. 168. "You don't know what she thinks, but you know how she acts." This statement characterizes which approach? a. psychoanalysis b. humanism c. behaviorism d. Gestalt theories 169. Kerrie wants to understand how perceptions, beliefs, and memories activate different regions in the brain. Which field of psychology would you suggest Kerrie explore? a. cognitive psychology b. behavioral neuroscience c. evolutionary psychology d. cognitive neuroscience 170. When you go to a movie theater that uses film projection, you might see the fast movement of a superhero flying through the air. What you are really seeing is a series of still photographs flashed quickly onto the screen. What area of psychology studied this phenomenon? a. cultural psychology b. Gestalt psychology c. developmental psychology d. behaviorism 171. William James is to _____ as Wilhelm Wundt is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism 172. Angel is interested in studying how media coverage of racially charged events affects implicit biases or prejudices. Angel is MOST likely a: a. psychoanalyst. b. behavioral neuroscientist. c. social psychologist. d. evolutionary psychologist. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 173. Nature is to nurture as nativism is to: a. empiricism. b. realism. c. dualism. d. idealism. 174. After training rats to successfully navigate a maze, Karl Lashley sought to determine the precise spot in the brain where the learning occurred by: a. surgically damaging different sections of the brain and then retesting the rats. b. giving the rats experimental drugs that target specific brain areas and then retesting the rats. c. studying differences in the thickness of various brain regions under a microscope after the rats' death. d. studying the rats running the maze while connected to a recorder that measured brain electrical activity. 175. An approach advocating that psychologists restrict themselves to the scientific study of observable behavior is called: a. psychoanalysis. b. behaviorism. c. functionalism. d. structuralism. 176. In their research, Gestalt psychologists demonstrated that: a. illusory motion occurs due to sensory input from physical stimuli alone. b. physical stimuli alone are responsible for the perceptual experience. c. the mind imposes organization on what it perceives. d. illusory motion is unrelated to the mind. 177. Research in psychological science has NOT shown that: a. cognitive behavioral therapy is an ineffective treatment for depression. b. the DARE antidrug program is ineffective. c. scared straight programs designed to prevent at-risk teens from engaging in criminal behavior are ineffective. d. critical incident stress debriefing interventions are ineffective. 178. As a PhD student in cognitive neuroscience, Jerome is MOST likely to study: a. brain mechanisms underlying language formation. b. brain mechanisms underlying sexual attraction. c. brain mechanisms underlying stimulus–response learning. d. evolutionarily adaptive brain mechanisms.

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Chap 01_5e 179. Which early psychologist used the metaphor of a flowing stream to describe consciousness? a. Hermann von Helmholtz b. William James c. Charles Darwin d. John Watson 180. Psychoanalysis focuses on: a. the adaptability of certain psychological disorders. b. deconstructing consciousness into its component parts. c. bringing unconscious material into conscious awareness. d. ways to banish anxiety into the unconscious. 181. Hermann von Helmholtz is to _____ as Wilhelm Wundt is to _____. a. introspection; functionalism b. reaction time; structuralism c. reaction time; functionalism d. introspection; structuralism 182. Response is to stimulus as: a. an email notification is to checking your messages. b. being startled is to a loud noise. c. a red light is to hitting the brakes. d. a funny story is to a smile. 183. Hermann von Helmholtz is remembered for: a. developing a technique of "systematic self-observation" known as introspection. b. becoming the first to earn a PhD in psychology. c. measuring the speed of a nerve impulse. d. developing an approach to psychology that emphasizes the adaptive significance of mental processes. 184. Akemi suffered a stroke that led to damage to Broca's area. Akemi will have problems: a. understanding stimulus–response relationships. b. distinguishing faces. c. remembering her childhood. d. producing speech.

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Chap 01_5e 185. In the late 1800s, a temporary loss of cognitive or motor function with no obvious physical origin was termed: a. agoraphobia. b. hysteria. c. neurosis. d. generalized anxiety. 186. Who invented a conditioning chamber in which rats pressed levers to earn food rewards? a. Ivan Pavlov b. B. F. Skinner c. John Watson d. G. Stanley Hall 187. Jamir has advised his football-playing clients that they should develop pregame rituals to increase their focus on the field. Jamir is most likely a(n): a. sports psychologist. b. cognitive neuroscientist. c. school psychologist. d. industrial/organizational psychologist. 188. The psychological approach emphasizing that the mind is a collection of specialized components that are designed to overcome problems that our ancestors faced over millions of years is: a. psychoanalysis. b. existential psychology. c. cultural psychology. d. evolutionary psychology. 189. Dr. Smith observes that a newborn appears to have some knowledge of the laws of physics. Her observation is MOST consistent with: a. nativism. b. idealism. c. empiricism. d. behaviorism. 190. Carrie is working with a patient to uncover the patient's early experiences as well as to try to bring unconscious anxieties and conflicts into awareness. Carrie's work is based on which approach? a. introspection b. psychoanalytic c. behaviorist d. structuralist Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 191. Two people observe a toddler throwing a temper tantrum at a toy store. The first comments quietly, "What an annoying little beast!" The second, noticing that the mother of the toddler just gave the boy a toy to calm him down, states, "It's not his fault. He's behaving exactly as _____ would predict." a. William James b. B. F. Skinner c. Ivan Pavlov d. John Watson 192. How many members does the American Psychological Association (APA) currently have? a. almost 900,000 b. around 30,000 c. approximately 150,000 d. more than 75,000 193. According to Chomsky, which observation of language in children challenges a behavioral account? a. Children can generate new grammatically correct sentences. b. Young children tend to repeat what they just heard. c. If you give a child a cookie every time he says "please," he will say "please" more often. d. Grammar rules are highly individualistic and the result of childhood learning experiences. 194. Seamus is interested in the body mutilation and blood-letting rituals in mountainous tribes of New Guinea. Seamus is MOST likely a: a. cognitive neuroscientist. b. cultural psychologist. c. evolutionary psychologist. d. cognitive psychologist. 195. Jorge is the head of marketing at a large software corporation. He wants to develop and market a new smartphone app that helps people spend less time on social media. Jorge should probably seek help from a(n): a. psychiatrist. b. organizational psychologist. c. health psychologist. d. consumer psychologist.

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Chap 01_5e 196. Raymond wants to learn the most effective techniques to make a favorable first impression in a large group. Raymond might want to take a course in _____ psychology. a. developmental b. cultural c. evolutionary d. social 197. Who was one of the seven psychologists to start the American Psychological Association? a. Hermann von Helmholtz b. John Watson c. Wilhelm Wundt d. William James 198. Which topic would an evolutionary psychologist be MOST interested in studying? a. the parts of the brain involved in memory storage b. how memories are repressed c. how people select their ideal mate d. the way culture affects how people view images 199. Sara is measuring the amount of time that passes between when her father's cell phone buzzes and when he picks it up. Sara is measuring: a. classical conditioning. b. introspection. c. reaction time. d. reinforcement. 200. Salim believes in philosophical empiricism. Which evidence is he MOST likely to use in support of his belief? a. Children given reading lessons learn to read. b. Knowledge of the laws of physics seem to be innate. c. Infants seem to have knowledge of mathematics. d. Differences in temperament in infants persist into childhood. 201. Rats are more likely to form a smell–sickness association than a light–sickness association, suggesting that rats have: a. an inability to associate a light with any consequence. b. evolved to not associate lights with smell. c. learned some associations more easily than others because of natural selection. d. evolved to easily associate sickness with any stimulus in their environment.

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Chap 01_5e 202. Professor Malone believes that much of human behavior is governed by unconscious sexual desires. Her conceptual framework is MOST consistent with: a. behaviorism. b. psychoanalysis. c. structuralism. d. idealism. 203. Who was the first woman to receive a PhD in psychology? a. Mary Whiton Calkins b. Margaret Floy Washburn c. Mamie Phipps Clark d. Bärbel Inhelder 204. Rats are more likely to form a smell–sickness association than a light–sickness association, suggesting that: a. genetic factors are a relatively unimportant component of learning. b. rats have evolved to not associate lights with smell. c. behavior is, in part, the product of the learning experiences of our ancestors. d. rats have had more learning opportunities to associate smell with sickness. 205. John's best friend Rion tells him about someone that he might be interested in dating. Rion explains that this person is "charming, good-looking, ambitious, short-tempered, and critical." John will MOST likely form a(n) _____ impression of her. a. neutral b. bad c. good d. indifferent 206. According to John Watson, the goal of scientific psychology is to: a. examine stimulus and response. b. understand both the structure and function of consciousness. c. determine the neural mechanisms underlying behavior and thought. d. ease psychological distress and help people reach their fullest potential. 207. After becoming a trained observer, Jose reports on his moment-to-moment responses to several different shades of the color blue. Jose is using a technique known as: a. reaction time testing. b. psychoanalysis. c. behaviorism. d. introspection.

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Chap 01_5e 208. Freud believed that patients' _____ and _____ offered a glimpse into their unconscious minds. a. dreams; free associations b. dreams; behavior c. free associations; behavior d. behavior; hypnotic trances 209. Which piece of evidence is most consistent with Kant's ideas of nativism? a. Infants appear to have some basic knowledge of the laws of physics. b. Infants may begin to reproduce sounds typical of the language they are exposed to during the 1st year of development. c. Infants develop color perception after birth. d. Children who are exposed to books learn about books. 210. In Pavlov's research, the sound of a tone was a _____ for salivating. a. stimulus b. response c. reward d. reinforcer 211. What is the difference between a psychologist and a psychiatrist? a. A psychologist can only work in schools. b. A psychiatrist has an MD degree, whereas a psychologist may have a PhD, PsyD, or MEd degree. c. Only a psychologist can prescribe medication. d. A psychiatrist goes to graduate school for many more years than a psychologist does. 212. _____ was the FIRST to identify a specialized brain region involved in the production of speech. a. Broca b. Garcia c. Cosmides d. Symons 213. Which psychologist was part of the psychoanalytic movement? a. Sigmund Freud b. Noam Chomsky c. John Watson d. William James

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Chap 01_5e 214. William James is to _____ as John Watson is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism 215. The major reason structuralism ultimately failed as a school of psychology was that: a. by associating itself with Darwin, it drew harsh criticism from some religious authorities. b. there was no evidence suggesting that Freud's theories were accurate. c. the methods used by structuralists did not produce replicable observations. d. reaction time is unrelated to activity in the brain. 216. What does PsyD stand for? a. doctor of psychology b. doctor of philosophy c. doctor of psychiatry d. doctor of physics 217. Dr. Ramirez is currently conducting a research study to examine how adolescents create identities based on their friend groups. Which area of psychology does her research BEST represent? a. Gestalt psychology b. social psychology c. clinical psychology d. evolutionary psychology 218. Dr. O'Leary believes that most young men prefer to choose young, healthy women for their life partners because doing so boosts their chances for producing healthy offspring. This outlook illustrates the _____ perspective. a. Gestalt b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. developmental 219. Solomon Asch's _____ describes why early information about a person changes the interpretation of later information. a. primacy effect b. Gestalt psychology approach c. theory of mind d. behavioristic theory

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Chap 01_5e 220. Today, more than 70% of individuals receiving their PhDs in psychology are: a. White males. b. males. c. people of color. d. females. 221. Frederic Bartlett's research on memory demonstrated that people tend to remember: a. what actually happened instead of what should have happened. b. what they expected to happen instead of what actually happened. c. nonsense syllables with more accuracy than meaningful words. d. meaningful words with more accuracy than nonsense syllables. 222. When the light comes on in his car indicating that his gas is low, Jason drives to the nearest gas station. The indicator light is an example of a: a. reinforcer. b. sensation. c. stimulus. d. response. 223. Kant believed that humans are born with pre-existing knowledge of: a. space, time, causality, and number. b. space, time, physics, and language. c. language, time, causality, and number. d. language, physics, causality, and number. 224. William James viewed consciousness as being similar to: a. a flowing stream. b. the parts of an atom. c. explanatory fiction. d. the parts of a clock. 225. When Tori's smartphone beeps, she checks it. Checking her phone at the sound of the beep is an example of a: a. response. b. sensation. c. stimulus. d. reinforcer.

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Chap 01_5e 226. According to Chomsky, which observation of language challenges a behavioral account? a. It is more difficult to learn a second language as one ages. b. Deficits in speech production in developing children can be overcome with an intense individualized education plan. c. Different languages are spoken around the world. d. Speech that has never before been reinforced nevertheless occurs frequently. 227. Michael believes that our nonphysical mind is distinct from our brain and directs the actions of our brain and body. His beliefs are MOST similar to those of which philosopher? a. Descartes b. Kant c. Hobbes d. Locke 228. Gestalt psychologists believe that: a. visual illusions are caused by unconscious processes. b. the whole is greater than the sum of its parts. c. images are produced in different parts of the brain. d. hallucinations are the result of a chemical imbalance in the brain. 229. Kant believed that each of these bits of knowledge are preprogrammed for humans EXCEPT: a. space. b. time. c. number. d. language. 230. Which psychologist is MOST associated with stimulus–response psychology? a. Sigmund Freud b. William James c. John Watson d. Wilhelm Wundt 231. Which school of psychology did William James found? a. structuralism b. behaviorism c. functionalism d. psychoanalysis

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Chap 01_5e 232. The study of the causes and consequences of sociality is called: a. cultural psychology. b. cognitive psychology. c. sociobiology. d. social psychology. 233. Which topic is LEAST likely to be studied by cognitive psychologists? a. attention b. memory c. unconscious desires d. perception 234. Social psychologists would be interested in all of these topics EXCEPT: a. repressed conflict within the unconscious. b. how people persuade each other. c. leadership and communication. d. how identities are formed within groups. 235. We perceive the lights on a quickly blinking neon sign to be in motion, a phenomenon studied by which psychologists? a. Gestalt b. evolutionary c. cultural d. behaviorist 236. A field that attempts to understand the links between cognitive processes and brain activity is: a. cognitive neuroscience. b. psychoanalysis. c. developmental psychology. d. evolutionary psychology. 237. Wundt believed that scientific psychology should focus on analyzing the basic elements comprising consciousness, an approach his students later termed: a. psychoanalysis. b. functionalism. c. consciousness. d. structuralism.

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Chap 01_5e 238. Dr. Rivera believes that psychological disorders arise largely from unconscious processes. In his work with clients, he tries to pull repressed memories out of the unconscious and into the light of day, where they can be resolved. Dr. Rivera's work is based on that of: a. behaviorists. b. Gestalt psychologists. c. psychoanalysts. d. cognitive psychologists. 239. Malik claims that he remembers the first day of class exactly as it happened. However, based on the research findings of Frederic Bartlett, it is more likely that: a. he has no memory of the first day of class. b. his memory is heavily influenced by his expectations of the first day. c. his memory was as accurate as a recording device. d. he initially filled in incorrect details, but as time has passed, he remembers the day with more accuracy. 240. Jean Piaget attempted to gain insight into the nature and development of the human mind by studying: a. how memories are contaminated by prior knowledge. b. the perceptual and cognitive errors of children. c. the rate at which forgetting occurs. d. perceptual illusions in adults. 241. William James is to _____ as John Watson is to _____. a. Charles Darwin; Ivan Pavlov b. Wilhelm Wundt; B. F. Skinner c. Edward Titchener; Rosalie Rayner d. B. F. Skinner; Margaret Floy Washburn 242. An acupuncturist asks you to verbally respond as soon as you feel a pinprick as she stimulates your upper thigh, calf, ankle, and toe with a needle. Based on Helmholtz's research, you will react MOST quickly when the _____ is stimulated. a. upper thigh b. calf c. ankle d. toe

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Chap 01_5e 243. Descartes is to _____ as Hobbes is to _____. a. structuralism; nativism b. dualism; materialism c. nativism; dualism d. dualism; idealism 244. Psychology is the _____ study of mind and behavior. a. materialistic b. idealistic c. scientific d. philosophical 245. In terms of its subject matter for analysis, which school of psychology MOST differs from the others? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. psychoanalysis d. behaviorism 246. Amy notes that her 10K time is significantly faster when she runs it with others than when she runs by herself. Amy's observation would be of most interest to: a. social psychologists. b. behavioral neuroscientists. c. developmental psychologists. d. cultural psychologists. 247. Which early school of psychology was most concerned with the adaptive importance of mental processes? a. structuralism b. functionalism c. behaviorism d. empiricism 248. How might an evolutionary psychologist explain the fact that people tend to enjoy high-fat food? a. When food was scarce in our ancestral past, people who ate high-fat food tended to obtain the calories that they needed to survive and, ultimately, reproduce. b. High-fat food activates areas in the brain corresponding to reward. c. Over one's lifetime, many interpersonal relationships revolve around eating these "comfort" food items. d. Although eating high-fat food resulted in great mortality rates among our ancestors, the availability of medication today allows people to consume larger amounts of high-fat food.

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Chap 01_5e 249. After suffering a stroke, Irma could no longer produce speech, although she clearly understood what others were saying to her. The stroke probably damaged: a. her hippocampus. b. her amygdala. c. Wernicke's area. d. Broca's area. 250. Dr. Dahl adopts a psychoanalytic approach to therapy. Which techniques is she MOST likely to use? a. free association and classical conditioning b. classical conditioning and introspection c. free association and dream analysis d. dream analysis and introspection 251. Based on his functionalist views, William James might be MOST interested in which research question related to test-taking anxiety? a. Is test-taking anxiety related to generalized anxiety disorder? b. Does anxiety provide motivation to enhance performance? c. What do participants report when they introspect about failing an exam? d. What brain regions are active when anxiety is experienced? 252. In the late 1800s, Charcot and Janet noted that symptoms of hysteria were eliminated when patients: a. were paid for not exhibiting those symptoms. b. received electroconvulsive shock therapy. c. were hypnotized. d. introspected on the causes of their hysteria. 253. Which philosopher advocated dualism? a. Hobbes b. Locke c. Kant d. Descartes 254. Psychology is the scientific study of mind and behavior. Behavior refers to: a. perceptions, thoughts, memories, and feelings. b. explanations. c. urges. d. observable actions of human and nonhuman animals.

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Chap 01_5e 255. Nativism is reflected in psychological views that emphasize the effect of _____ on behavior. a. nurture b. intuition c. schemas d. nature 256. Which topic would be of LEAST interest to an evolutionary psychologist? a. gender differences in sexual promiscuity b. how people select their ideal mate c. how the timing of a reinforcer influences behavior d. the types of stimuli easily associated with sickness 257. Cultural psychology is the study of: a. changes in culture due to mental life. b. the unconscious mind. c. the relationship between the brain and the mind. d. how culture influences mental life. 258. The research of Broca: a. established behaviorism as a true science. b. confirmed Descartes's belief that the mind and body are linked via the pineal gland. c. is consistent with the view of the mind held by Thomas Hobbes. d. demonstrated that mental processes can occur independently of brain activity. 259. Which field of psychology is interested in studying the way in which the mind creates perceptual experience? a. behaviorism b. Gestalt psychology c. psychoanalysis d. functionalism. 260. Which research question is MOST relevant to behavioral neuroscience? a. What processes are involved in complex decision making? b. What brain mechanisms underlie reinforcement and punishment? c. What situational variables contribute to enhanced long-term memory? d. What are some evolutionary adaptations of the brain?

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Chap 01_5e 261. The lack of consistency in perceptual experiences between individuals using introspective techniques contributed to the decline of: a. dualism. b. nativism. c. behaviorism. d. structuralism. 262. Which research question would be of MOST interest to social psychologists? a. Will a light stimulus yield a fear response after several pairings of the light with a loud sound? b. Which area of the brain is active when participants are asked to remember a crime they committed? c. Why do otherwise decent people commit evil acts when ordered to do so by a totalitarian regime? d. Is the fear response adaptive? 263. Which research question would cognitive psychologists be MOST interested in studying? a. Can children's behavior be modified through intermittent reinforcement? b. What is the evolutionary basis for the fear of snakes? c. How does gesture improve memory retention? d. What part of the brain processes rewards? 264. Which topic would an evolutionary psychologist be MOST interested in studying? a. the way people shift attention from one task to another b. the nature of unconscious conflict c. gender differences in sexual promiscuity d. the parts of the brain involved in language formation 265. Dr. Mamie Phipps Clark and Dr. Kenneth Clark studied: a. the psychological effects of segregation on children. b. stimulus–response relationships. c. the brain areas responsible for speech production. d. the contents of the unconscious mind. 266. The advent of _____ in 1945 had an enormous conceptual impact on the development of cognitive psychology. a. statistical programming b. television c. conditioning chambers d. computers

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Chap 01_5e 267. Kayla doesn't know it yet, but she has just contracted a stomach virus from her roommate, Beverly. Kayla puts on a new dress and goes on a first date with Jermaine, where they eat oysters. Later that night, Kayla becomes violently ill. Kayla is MOST likely to associate the sickness with: a. the oysters. b. Beverly. c. Jermaine. d. her new dress. 268. Hector doesn't believe that mental processes can be studied scientifically because they are too subjective. Rather, psychological studies that constrain themselves only to what people actually do appeal to him. Hector's views are consistent with which approach? a. psychoanalysis b. structuralism c. functionalism d. behaviorism 269. When people are randomly assigned to think of themselves as upper class, these people behave more _____ than do people in a control group. a. aggressively b. charitably c. selfishly d. altruistically 270. Forensic psychology is to _____ as school psychology is to _____. a. assisting courts in dealing with crime; guiding students, parents, and teachers b. maximizing employees' performance; assisting courts in dealing with crime c. helping athletes train and compete; maximizing employees' performance d. guiding students; helping athletes train and compete 271. Which linguist published a devastating critique of Skinner's theory of language development? a. George Miller b. Noam Chomsky c. John Garcia d. Solomon Asch 272. In the late 1800s, Charcot and Janet found that _____ eliminated signs of hysteria in their patients. a. amnesia b. neurosis c. introspection d. hypnosis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 273. If you are having trouble finding your cat, you may try shaking the can that contains its treats. The sound of the treats as you shake the can would be a: a. response. b. stimulus. c. reaction. d. reinforcer. 274. Tona works in a psychology lab. She asks participants to press a button after they hear a brief tone. Tona records _____, the amount of time that passes between the sounding of the tone and the button press. a. reaction time b. unconscious activity c. reinforced behavior d. systematic self-observation 275. Which research question is MOST relevant to behavioral neuroscience? a. How does children's language develop? b. What brain mechanisms are changed by repeated drug use? c. Why are people more likely to comply with large requests after they agree to smaller requests? d. How does distraction affect working memory? 276. Beginning in the 1950s, behaviorism began to receive intense criticism. Which statement is NOT one of the criticisms against behaviorism? a. It proved inadequate in predicting and controlling behavior. b. It ignored cognitive events underlying behavior. c. It underestimated the role of genetic factors on behavior. d. It had difficulty explaining the development of language in humans. 277. Based on his research, Piaget concluded that: a. children have no memories before the age of 10. b. small children view the world in a fundamentally different way than adults do. c. small children can learn stimulus–response relationships. d. children and adults think similarly about relationships between the size and mass of objects. 278. Imani makes the observation that dogs have better night vision than humans. According to Darwin's principle of natural selection, which explanation best fits Imani's observation? a. Dogs have different distributions of visual receptors than humans. b. Night vision must have been a more adaptive attribute for ancient dogs than humans. c. There must have been a use for the evolved consciousness of all animals. d. Visual perception involves different learning processes for dogs and humans.

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Chap 01_5e 279. When Tori's smartphone beeps, she checks it. The beep is an example of a: a. response. b. sensation. c. stimulus. d. reinforcer. 280. Which statement presents a characteristic of Skinner's cumulative recorder? a. It noted the cumulative effects of stimuli. b. It recorded the frequency of responses in real time. c. It provided immediate feedback as to whether a behavior would be rewarded. d. It did not result in important experimental insights. 281. After conducting repeated experiments in which he first trained rats to navigate a maze and then removed tiny sections of their brains to see if that brain region eliminated learning, Lashley reported that: a. the maze learning could be erased by removing a tiny section of Broca's area. b. the memory of the maze was localized in the right hemisphere of the brain. c. the memory of the maze was localized in the left hemisphere of the brain. d. no one brain region seemed to uniquely and reliably eliminate maze learning. 282. Aki explains that humans with ancestry in northern Europe have adapted to digest dairy products more easily because the harsh winters in that area required their ancestors to develop an ability to eat non-plant-based foods. Aki's explanation is most in line with which theory? a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism 283. Darwin's theory of _____ refers to the process by which the specific attributes that promote an organism's survival and reproduction become more prevalent in the population over time. a. structuralism b. nativism c. natural selection d. functionalism 284. Frederic Bartlett is BEST known for research involving: a. illusory motion. b. participants' false memories of stories. c. a conditioning chamber. d. cognitive errors in children.

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Chap 01_5e 285. The French physician Paul Broca discovered a brain region that was associated with the: a. production and understanding of speech. b. production of speech. c. understanding of speech. d. ability to understand novel speech. 286. Wilhelm Wundt is to _____ as William James is to _____. a. functionalism; behaviorism b. functionalism; structuralism c. structuralism; behaviorism d. structuralism; functionalism 287. All of these professionals might call themselves a psychologist EXCEPT: a. Esmin, who has obtained a PhD in social psychology and works at a university conducting research on undergraduate dating behaviors. b. Holly, a PsyD graduate who works as a therapist at the local prison. c. Elsa, who completed a master of education (MEd) and provides counseling in schools. d. Junie, who just graduated with a bachelor's degree in psychology. 288. _____ is the amount of time between the onset of a stimulus and a response to that stimulus. a. Natural selection b. Introspection c. Reaction time d. Stimulus time 289. What type of psychology explains mind and behavior in terms of the adaptive value of abilities that are preserved over time by natural selection? a. behaviorism b. physiological psychology c. evolutionary psychology d. cognitive neuroscience 290. Chen's mother tells her about someone that she might be interested in dating. Her mother explains that this person is "critical, short-tempered, ambitious, good-looking, and charming." Chen will MOST likely form a(n) _____ impression of him. a. neutral b. bad c. good d. indifferent

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Chap 01_5e 291. The behaviorism of John Watson has been described as _____ psychology. a. animal b. stimulus–response c. subjective d. humanistic 292. The _____ approach to psychology links observable behavior to activities in the brain. a. cognitive neuroscience b. evolutionary c. behavioral neuroscience d. Gestalt 293. _____ restricts scientific study to observable behavior only. a. Functionalism b. Structuralism c. Behaviorism d. Psychoanalysis 294. Along with six other psychologists, _____ started the American Psychological Association. a. Karl Lashley b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. John Watson 295. Amanda seeks to understand the brain functions underlying mate selection in quail. Amanda is MOST likely a: a. developmental psychologist. b. social psychologist. c. cognitive neuroscientist. d. behavioral neuroscientist. 296. Which statement about visual processing in Eastern and Western cultures is true? a. Easterners tend to process visual information by attending to relationships and context. b. There is no difference in visual processing in Easterners and Westerners. c. Westerners tend to process visual information by attending to relationships and context. d. Easterners attend primarily to objects in the foreground.

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Chap 01_5e 297. Veronica wants to learn if opposites really do attract. She might want to take a course in the causes and consequences of sociality, otherwise known as: a. cognitive neuroscience. b. evolutionary psychology. c. cognitive psychology. d. social psychology. 298. Brice travels to remote places and examines how the people live. He pays particular attention to their values and traditions. What type of psychologist is Brice? a. evolutionary b. cultural c. social d. Gestalt 299. The theory that emphasizes the importance of unconscious mental processes in shaping feelings, thoughts, and behaviors is called: a. Gestalt theory. b. structuralism. c. functionalism. d. psychoanalytic theory. 300. Dr. White believes that humans are biologically prepared to fear snakes. This outlook illustrates the _____ perspective. a. cultural b. evolutionary c. behavioral d. developmental

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Chap 01_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 27. c 28. c 29. c 30. a 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. d 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 55. c 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. d 80. b 81. d 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 83. b 84. b 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. b 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. b 97. c 98. d 99. d 100. c 101. c 102. a 103. a 104. d 105. a 106. c 107. c 108. c 109. c 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 111. b 112. a 113. b 114. a 115. b 116. b 117. b 118. b 119. a 120. d 121. b 122. a 123. a 124. b 125. a 126. a 127. d 128. b 129. b 130. a 131. d 132. b 133. c 134. b 135. b 136. c 137. c

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Chap 01_5e 138. b 139. d 140. a 141. d 142. a 143. d 144. b 145. b 146. d 147. c 148. c 149. a 150. c 151. c 152. a 153. d 154. b 155. b 156. b 157. a 158. b 159. b 160. c 161. c 162. c 163. c 164. d 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 166. b 167. c 168. c 169. d 170. b 171. b 172. c 173. a 174. a 175. b 176. c 177. a 178. a 179. b 180. c 181. b 182. b 183. c 184. d 185. b 186. b 187. a 188. d 189. a 190. b 191. b 192. d 193. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 194. b 195. d 196. d 197. d 198. c 199. c 200. a 201. c 202. b 203. b 204. c 205. c 206. a 207. d 208. a 209. a 210. a 211. b 212. a 213. a 214. a 215. c 216. a 217. b 218. b 219. a 220. d 221. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 222. c 223. a 224. a 225. a 226. d 227. a 228. b 229. d 230. c 231. c 232. d 233. c 234. a 235. a 236. a 237. d 238. c 239. b 240. b 241. a 242. a 243. b 244. c 245. d 246. a 247. b 248. a

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Chap 01_5e 249. d 250. c 251. b 252. c 253. d 254. d 255. d 256. c 257. d 258. c 259. b 260. b 261. d 262. c 263. c 264. c 265. a 266. d 267. a 268. d 269. c 270. a 271. b 272. d 273. b 274. a 275. b 276. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e 277. b 278. b 279. c 280. b 281. d 282. c 283. c 284. b 285. b 286. d 287. d 288. c 289. c 290. b 291. b 292. c 293. c 294. b 295. d 296. a 297. d 298. b 299. d 300. b

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Gestalt psychology was influenced by the work of Ivan Pavlov. a. True b. False 2. Wilhelm Wundt first used reaction time to measure the speed of a nervous impulse. a. True b. False 3. The advent of computers led, in part, to the rise of cognitive psychology. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An essay concerning human understanding. Batoche. https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690/2001), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them . . . One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 4. (Scenario 1.3) The psychologist B. F. Skinner believed that language is acquired through experience, specifically from patterns of reinforcements and punishments that follow vocal utterances. With respect to language acquisition, Skinner's views are _____ with the views espoused by John Locke and reflect philosophical _____. a. consistent; empiricism b. consistent; nativism c. inconsistent; empiricism d. inconsistent; nativism 5. Currently, the majority of people earning a PhD in psychology from an American university are women. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 6. To date, evolutionary psychologists have applied the theory of natural selection to a relatively small number of psychological topics. a. True b. False 7. John Watson was largely influenced by the work of Ivan Pavlov. a. True b. False 8. The results of Kenneth Clark's research on the developmental effects of prejudice, discrimination, and segregation on children was cited by the U.S. Supreme Court in the landmark case Brown v. Board of Education, decided in 1954. a. True b. False 9. The pioneering studies by Solomon Asch led to much research on how individuals draw inferences about one another. a. True b. False 10. Gestalt psychologists believe that the mind imposes organization on what it perceives. a. True b. False 11. Functionalists depended on introspection to study subjective observations of personal experience. a. True b. False 12. Helmholtz developed introspection as a tool for understanding the structure of consciousness. a. True b. False 13. B. F. Skinner focused on the consequences of behavior as determinants of whether it would reoccur. a. True b. False 14. A psychiatrist has a medical degree. a. True b. False 15. Wilhelm Wundt opened the first psychology laboratory in Leipzig in 1879. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Use Scenario 1.1 to answer the following question(s). Piff, P. K., Stancato, D. M., Côté, S., Mendoza-Denton, R., & Keltner, D. (2012). Higher social class predicts increased unethical behavior. PNAS Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences of the United States of America, 109(11), 4086–4091. doi:10.1073/pnas.1118373109 Piff and colleagues (2012) used naturalistic observation techniques to determine if wealthy people behaved more or less ethically than people who were not wealthy. In one study, observers stood at a busy intersection and recorded the make, model, and year of each approaching car. They also noted if the car cut off other cars or pedestrians at this intersection. Major findings of Piff et al. (2012) are presented in Figure 1.1. This figure shows the percentage of times vehicles cut off another driver (upper panel) or pedestrians (lower panel) as a function of the social status of the vehicles (with more expensive cars ranked higher in social status). Figure 1.1

16. (Scenario 1.1) Consider only the top panel in Figure 1.1. These results underscore the importance of: a. studying a wide range of values, rather than just a few, when trying to determine if two variables are related. b. using random assignment to create equivalent groups. c. making testable predictions and then refining the theory based on the data. d. generalizing laboratory results to real-world settings.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 17. Philosophical empiricists believe that certain knowledge is innate. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An essay concerning human understanding. Batoche. https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690/2001), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them . . . One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 18. (Scenario 1.3) Locke's argument that ideas come into the mind through experience reflects an underlying philosophical _____ between mind and body. a. nativism b. realism c. dualism d. materialism

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20. (Scenario 1.1) A psychologist believes that driving expensive cars and not taking into account the rights of others are both the product of feelings of sexual inferiority banished to the unconscious. The psychologist has a _____ approach. a. Gestalt b. social or cultural c. humanistic d. psychoanalytic

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 21. Behaviorists believe that the behavior of nonhuman animals—not human behavior—is the proper subject matter of psychology. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An essay concerning human understanding. Batoche. https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690/2001), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them . . . One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 22. (Scenario 1.3) In arguing that the mental world can be changed by physical experience, Locke is advancing a position most similar to the one espoused by: a. Rene Descartes. b. Thomas Hobbes. c. Charles Darwin. d. John Watson.

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23. (Scenario 1.1) Consider both panels in Figure 1.1. Which statement describes a result shown in this figure? a. Drivers were more likely to yield to pedestrians than to other cars. b. Small changes in car social status in the middle-class range nevertheless predicted if drivers would cut off another car. c. Small increases in the value of a car had relatively large effects on whether a driver would cut off a pedestrian. d. Small changes in car social status in the middle-class range had no predictive value in determining if people would yield to pedestrians.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 24. Freud believed that unconscious mental processes shape feelings, thoughts, and behaviors. a. True b. False 25. With the advent of computers, cognitive psychologists began conceptualizing the mind as hardware and the brain as software. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.2 introduces material from the following publications: Bowlby, J. (1969/1982). Attachment and loss, Vol. 1: Attachment. New York: Basic Books. Preckel, K., Scheele, D., Eckstein, M., Maier, W., & Hurlemann, R. (2015). The influence of oxytocin on volitional and emotional ambivalence. Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(7), 987–993. doi:10.1093/scan/nsu147 Catherine is a college freshman who is shocked at the intensity of the jealousy expressed by her roommate's boyfriend. Interested in understanding the relationship between Tara and Will, she becomes fascinated to learn in introductory psychology that jealousy has been studied from a variety of perspectives. She goes to the library and begins researching this topic. 26. (Scenario 1.2) Which psychologist might explain Will's jealousy as an unconscious projection of his own banished sexual inadequacies and desire for infidelity? a. B. F. Skinner b. Sigmund Freud c. Max Wertheimer d. Kurt Lewin 27. The founder of behaviorism was William James. a. True b. False 28. B. F. Skinner believed that humans did not have free will. a. True b. False 29. The work of William James was largely influenced by Darwin's theory of natural selection. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 30. John Garcia demonstrated that it is easier for rats to form associations between lights and sickness than scents and sickness. a. True b. False 31. With rats pressing levers for food, John Watson developed the concept of reinforcement. a. True b. False 32. Wilhelm Wundt believed that consciousness could be broken down into its component parts. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An essay concerning human understanding. Batoche. https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690/2001), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them . . . One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 33. (Scenario 1.3) The linguist Noam Chomsky believes that humans are unique in that we have an innate language acquisition device that allows us to quickly acquire language and speak grammatically. This position is _____ with the views espoused by John Locke and reflects philosophical _____. a. consistent; empiricism b. consistent; nativism c. inconsistent; empiricism d. inconsistent; nativism

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34. (Scenario 1.1) Based on the results shown in Figure 1.1, it is NOT known if: a. people driving higher-class cars were less likely to yield to pedestrians. b. drivers in general were more likely to yield to another car than to a pedestrian. c. wealth caused people to care more about themselves than about others. d. wealth was associated with selfish driving behavior. 35. Mary Calkins was the first female president of the American Psychological Association. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 36. Behavioral neuroscience is a field of psychology that attempts to understand the links between the mind and the brain. a. True b. False 37. Culture can influence one's visual perception. a. True b. False 38. Someone with damage to Broca's area has trouble producing, but can understand, spoken words. a. True b. False 39. Wilhelm Wundt was most interested in how consciousness is an adaptive feature of the human existence. a. True b. False

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40. (Scenario 1.1) Consider only the bottom panel in Figure 1.1. These results demonstrate that: a. wealth makes people care more about themselves than they do others, to the point of ignoring the rights of pedestrians. b. driving a more expensive car gives one a false sense of security, and this causes people to be more aggressive drivers. c. people driving higher-class cars are more likely than not to cut off a pedestrian in an intersection. d. people driving a more expensive car fail to yield to pedestrians more than do people who drive less expensive cars.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 41. Gestalt psychologists believe that the entirety of a perceptual experience can be greater than the sum of its component parts. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.2 introduces material from the following publications: Bowlby, J. (1969/1982). Attachment and loss, Vol. 1: Attachment. New York: Basic Books. Preckel, K., Scheele, D., Eckstein, M., Maier, W., & Hurlemann, R. (2015). The influence of oxytocin on volitional and emotional ambivalence. Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(7), 987–993. doi:10.1093/scan/nsu147 Catherine is a college freshman who is shocked at the intensity of the jealousy expressed by her roommate's boyfriend. Interested in understanding the relationship between Tara and Will, she becomes fascinated to learn in introductory psychology that jealousy has been studied from a variety of perspectives. She goes to the library and begins researching this topic. 42. (Scenario 1.2) Other psychological theorists point to the consequences of jealousy as the reason for its continued occurrence. Catherine tends to agree. Every time Will goes into a jealous rage when Tara wants to go out with her friends, Tara capitulates and stays in with him instead. Consistent with a _____ approach to psychology, Catherine believes that Tara is _____ her boyfriend's jealousy. a. cognitive; construing b. behavioral; reinforcing c. humanistic; actualizing d. evolutionary; selecting 43. Jean Piaget demonstrated that even toddlers grasp the concept that the mass of an object remains constant even if it is divided. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Use Scenario 1.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An essay concerning human understanding. Batoche. https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690/2001), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them . . . One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 44. (Scenario 1.3) Which statement would John Locke MOST likely agree with? a. The capacity to form an idea does not require sensory experience. b. People are born with bits of preprogrammed knowledge. c. Certain types of ideas are innate in the mind. d. The mind is a blank slate on which experience writes its story.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Use Scenario 1.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.2 introduces material from the following publications: Bowlby, J. (1969/1982). Attachment and loss, Vol. 1: Attachment. New York: Basic Books. Preckel, K., Scheele, D., Eckstein, M., Maier, W., & Hurlemann, R. (2015). The influence of oxytocin on volitional and emotional ambivalence. Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(7), 987–993. doi:10.1093/scan/nsu147 Catherine is a college freshman who is shocked at the intensity of the jealousy expressed by her roommate's boyfriend. Interested in understanding the relationship between Tara and Will, she becomes fascinated to learn in introductory psychology that jealousy has been studied from a variety of perspectives. She goes to the library and begins researching this topic. 45. (Scenario 1.2) Bowlby's (1969/1982) attachment theory posits that infants form either secure or insecure attachments with their primary caregiver. These attachment styles are relatively stable across life, and more recent research has found that individuals with insecure attachments are more likely to exhibit jealously in romantic relationships. Catherine wonders what kind of relationship her roommate's boyfriend has with his mother and thinks she needs to read more about this _____ approach to the study of jealousy. a. developmental b. humanistic c. psychoanalytic d. evolutionary 46. By studying how quickly rats navigated a maze before and after surgery that removed parts of their brains, Karl Lashley was successful in discovering the precise spot where learning had occurred. a. True b. False 47. Behaviorism focused on the scientific study of objectively observable behavior. a. True b. False 48. To test his theories, B. F. Skinner raised his daughter in a conditioning chamber, or Skinner box and conducted experiments on her. a. True b. False 49. Noam Chomsky was an outspoken supporter of B. F. Skinner's theory of language. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Use Scenario 1.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.2 introduces material from the following publications: Bowlby, J. (1969/1982). Attachment and loss, Vol. 1: Attachment. New York: Basic Books. Preckel, K., Scheele, D., Eckstein, M., Maier, W., & Hurlemann, R. (2015). The influence of oxytocin on volitional and emotional ambivalence. Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(7), 987–993. doi:10.1093/scan/nsu147 Catherine is a college freshman who is shocked at the intensity of the jealousy expressed by her roommate's boyfriend. Interested in understanding the relationship between Tara and Will, she becomes fascinated to learn in introductory psychology that jealousy has been studied from a variety of perspectives. She goes to the library and begins researching this topic. 50. (Scenario 1.2) Preckel and colleagues (2015) reported that giving male participants an oxytocin nasal spray shortly before having them imagine their partners engaged in infidelity reduced activity in brain regions associated with jealousy. Catherine further reads that oxytocin is a neurotransmitter found naturally in the brain and then wonders if Will has naturally _____ levels of it. The research by Preckel and colleagues advances a(n) _____ approach to the study of jealousy. a. low; cognitive neuroscience b. high; behavioral neuroscience c. low; evolutionary psychology d. high; social psychology 51. Karl Lashley discovered that by removing small sections of a rat's brain, he could completely erase its memory of a previously learned maze. a. True b. False 52. An evolutionary psychologist would argue that traits such as jealousy exist because they are reinforced at an early age. a. True b. False

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53. (Scenario 1.1) The researchers who conducted this study are MOST likely _____ psychologists. a. cognitive behavioral b. social or cultural c. humanistic d. industrial/organizational 54. Cultural psychology began to emerge as a strong force in psychology in the early 1900s. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 55. The American Psychological Association existed for nearly 100 years before it elected a woman as president. a. True b. False 56. Behavioral measures typically are more subjective than introspective measures. a. True b. False 57. René Descartes believed that the brain and the mind are fundamentally the same thing. a. True b. False 58. Frederic Bartlett demonstrated that our expectancies play a large role in the accuracy of our memories. a. True b. False

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59. (Scenario 1.1) A psychologist believes that people in higher and lower social classes learn norms that then affect their behavior in many different settings. One such norm is that people in higher social classes tend to view themselves as more important than others. As such, the psychologist is not surprised that people driving expensive cars are more likely to disregard the rights of others. This _____ psychologist would predict that _____. a. humanistic; selfishness results in wealth b. humanistic; wealth makes people selfish c. cultural; selfishness results in wealth d. cultural; wealth makes people selfish Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 60. Cognitive neuroscience is a field of psychology that attempts to understand the links between brain activity and mental processes. a. True b. False 61. Frederic Bartlett conceptualized memory as a photographic representation of a past experience. a. True b. False 62. The goal of psychoanalysis is to banish unwanted feelings and memories to the unconscious. a. True b. False 63. If a behavior is reinforced, it is more likely to occur again. a. True b. False Use Scenario 1.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.3 introduces material from the following publication: Locke, J. (1690/2001). An essay concerning human understanding. Batoche. https://ebookcentral.proquest.com/lib/cofc/detail.action?docID=3117747 In his Essay on Human Understanding (1690/2001), English philosopher John Locke argued the following: If we will attentively consider new-born children, we shall have little reason to think that they bring many ideas into the world with them . . . One may perceive how, by degrees, afterwards, ideas come into their minds; and that they get no more, nor other, than what experience, and the observation of things that come in their way, furnish them with; which might be enough to satisfy us that they are not original characters stamped on the mind. 64. (Scenario 1.3) Locke's position on how knowledge is acquired best reflects which position? a. philosophical nativism b. philosophical empiricism c. philosophical materialism d. philosophical idealism 65. Social psychology began as a rejection of Gestalt psychology. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 66. Noam Chomsky believes the reinforcement theory cannot account for the use of grammar. a. True b. False 67. William James did not believe that consciousness could be broken down into basic elements. a. True b. False

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68. (Scenario 1.1) A psychologist believes that selfishness is a genetically based trait that confers advantages in terms of resource acquisition. As such, the psychologist is not surprised in the least that selfish people drive expensive cars. This _____ would predict that _____. a. evolutionary psychologist; selfishness results in wealth b. evolutionary psychologist; wealth makes people selfish c. cognitive neuroscientist; selfishness results in wealth d. cognitive neuroscientist; wealth makes people selfish

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Use Scenario 1.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 1.2 introduces material from the following publications: Bowlby, J. (1969/1982). Attachment and loss, Vol. 1: Attachment. New York: Basic Books. Preckel, K., Scheele, D., Eckstein, M., Maier, W., & Hurlemann, R. (2015). The influence of oxytocin on volitional and emotional ambivalence. Social Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(7), 987–993. doi:10.1093/scan/nsu147 Catherine is a college freshman who is shocked at the intensity of the jealousy expressed by her roommate's boyfriend. Interested in understanding the relationship between Tara and Will, she becomes fascinated to learn in introductory psychology that jealousy has been studied from a variety of perspectives. She goes to the library and begins researching this topic. 69. (Scenario 1.2) In analyzing behavioral and evolutionary accounts of jealousy, Catherine is surprised to learn that these very different approaches both emphasize the importance of adaptive consequences. The difference is that a behavioral approach emphasizes the reinforcing consequences of the jealous behavior _____, and the evolutionary account emphasizes the adaptive consequences of jealousy _____. a. in reducing it; in strengthening it b. for the individual; for the individual's ancestors c. in an S–R model; within a cognitive model d. for the relationship; for the individual 70. The greatest contribution of psychoanalysis was the research in experimental psychology that it generated. a. True b. False 71. Humans have a tendency to be afraid of the dark. Provide an explanation of this phenomenon within the framework of both behaviorism and evolutionary psychology. Are the two explanations necessarily incompatible?

72. Describe Skinner's ideas about the forces that control behavior. What would contribute to your behavior related to studying, according to Skinner?

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 73. Discuss some benefits that behaviorism brought to the field of psychology. Then discuss some problems associated with behaviorism.

74. How might an evolutionary psychologist explain human behavior that is largely detrimental to the individual or the culture, such as aggression or a preference for a high-fat diet?

75. Differentiate between a structuralist and a functionalist approach to understanding consciousness. Identify the founders of both approaches and the earlier influences that gave rise to these schools of psychology.

76. A team of psychologists is working on a project to learn more about consumption of sweet foods. The team includes a cultural psychologist, a behavioral neuroscientist, a social psychologist, and a developmental psychologist. First, describe the type of work each team member engages in. Then write one research question that each would be interested to answer.

77. Discuss Sigmund Freud's influence on the field of psychology. What are the contributions and critiques of psychoanalytic theory?

78. Discuss how technological advancements, along with work in the field of linguistics, advanced cognitive psychology and ultimately led to the downfall of behaviorism as the dominant field within psychology.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 79. Contrast the views of Locke's realism with Kant's idealism. What position do modern psychologists take on this issue?

80. Discuss the growing impact on psychology of women and people of color, and identify some pioneering women and people of color within psychology.

81. Why would John Watson disagree with the definition of psychology as stated in the textbook?

82. Compare and contrast Freud's and Skinner's ideas about the forces that control behavior.

83. Describe four nonresearch career specializations within psychology.

84. Describe philosophical dualism and philosophical materialism. Most modern-day psychologists embrace materialism, but which branch of modern-day psychology explicitly uses this approach in its study of the mind?

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 85. Describe three types of mental health professionals who may work in a private practice. What type of degree would each have?

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. a 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. d 41. a 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. b

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 71. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Humans tend not to see well at night. As such, we are prone to accidents when navigating in the dark. In addition, we are at a disadvantage if surrounded by large nocturnal animals that could possibly harm us. In contrast, hunkering down and sleeping in small groups at night provides some measure of safety. (2) Behaviorists would focus on the learning that occurs within an individual's lifetime. For example, the last time Bob went hunting at night, he broke his ankle and almost got eaten by a lion. Hunting at night, then, has been punished by its consequences. Conversely, seeking a safe shelter is reinforced with warmth, safety, and companionship. As a result of these learning experiences, Bob fears the dark and would rather stay inside. (3) Evolutionary psychologists would note that during the course of mammalian evolution, our ancestors who ventured outside in the dark tended not to reproduce in great numbers, perhaps because they fell off cliffs or got eaten by crocodiles. Those ancestors, who just so happened to be leery of the dark, lived to pass on their genes. Thus, we are left with the genes of those who did not particularly enjoy nightly jaunts through the forest. (4) On the surface, the two explanations are very different. While behaviorists do not deny the role of genetics, they point to the environment as the major determinant of behavior. As such, a behaviorist would first seek to understand the learning experiences that shaped an individual's fear of the dark. On the other hand, an evolutionary psychologist will focus on differential reproductive success as a result of the behavior of our ancestors. We are left with their genes, and thus, their behavior patterns. (5) The two explanations are not incompatible, but rather represent different levels of analysis. For example, early mammals might learn to avoid the dark through natural consequences within their lifetime. Principles of reinforcement and punishment from a behavioral account would explain this behavior. These are the mammals that live to reproduce and pass on their genes. To the extent that susceptibility to reinforcement is, in part, genetically based, we are genetically predisposed to fear the dark due to the learning experiences of our remote ancestors. 72. Skinner believed that consequences control behavior. His principle of reinforcement stated that any behavior that is rewarded will be repeated and any behavior that isn't rewarded won't. Therefore, when students study hard, they may be rewarded with good grades and approval from teachers, parents, and peers. These students' studying behaviors will be reinforced and are more likely to occur in the future. 73. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Behaviorists highlighted the need for psychologists to study phenomena that were objectively observable. This advanced the science of psychology. (2) The research of Ivan Pavlov and John Watson demonstrated how associations between stimuli and responses are formed. (3) Using rats, B. F. Skinner developed a methodology demonstrating that the consequences of behavior determine its future occurrence. This work has taught psychologists how people, not just rats, learn. His principle of reinforcement pervades modern psychology. (4) By focusing their study only on observable behavior, however, behaviorists neglected important areas of study such as perception, memory, cognitive and brain processes, and language. As a result, most psychologists ultimately shifted away from the behaviorist approach. 74. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Evolutionary psychologists believe that human behavior is the product of millions of years of natural selection. Although these behaviors are largely detrimental today, they were adaptive in the environment of our ancestors. (2) Our ancestors who aggressively procured food and sexual partners tended to be the ones who lived and passed on their genes. (3) In an ancestral environment where food was scarce, those ancestors who had a preference for high-fat foods obtained the calories that they needed to survive. (4) In today's environment where food is abundant and behaving aggressively can send one to prison, these behaviors are largely detrimental. But we are stuck with the genes of our ancestors. To the extent that these behaviors are, in part, biologically determined, we will continue to have a propensity to engage in these behaviors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 75. The answer should indicate that Wilhelm Wundt began structuralism and was greatly influenced by the physiological research of Helmholtz, for whom he was a research assistant. Structuralism attempts to identify the basic elements that constitute the mind by deconstructing the conscious experience through techniques such as introspection. William James began functionalism. He did not believe that consciousness can be broken down into basic elements; rather, he believed consciousness was more like a flowing stream than a collection of components. Functionalism sought to identify the adaptive significance, or functions, of consciousness, rather than deconstructing it into elements. James was highly influenced by Darwin's theory of natural selection. 76. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Developmental psychologists study the ways psychological phenomena change over the life span. The developmental psychologist may be interested in asking "Does consumption of sweet foods change as people age?" (2) Social psychologists study the causes and consequences of sociality. The social psychologist might ask, "Does consumption of sweet foods change when the social environment changes?" (3) Behavioral neuroscientists study the relationship between brain and behavior, and therefore might ask, "How does the brain change as a result of consumption of sweet foods?" (4) Cultural psychology is the study of how culture influences mental life. The cultural psychologist may be interested in studying how culture impacts preferences for sweets or the amount of sweet consumption. 77. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Though many people disagree with Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, he is one of the most influential psychologists ever. (2) Freud had been educated as a physician and noticed that patients were coming into his office with problems that had no physical justification. Freud decided to talk with these patients about their psychosomatic symptoms, which were termed hysteria in Freud's day. Over time, he developed a therapy called psychoanalysis. (3) Freud developed a theory of how the mind works and how people may be governed by forces of which they are unaware. This idea of an unconscious has had a tremendous impact on psychology, literature, and art. It also formed the basis of psychoanalysis, which involves bringing unconscious motivations, desires, and thoughts into the conscious mind. (4) One limitation of psychoanalytic theory is that it does not lend itself to testable predictions. Because there is little empirical support for Freud's theories, his influence has diminished over the decades. Another criticism of psychoanalytic theory is that it portrayed the human condition pessimistically, positing that human behavior was governed by rather dark forces that were outside of our conscious awareness. 78. The answer should indicate that the advent of the computer gave psychologists a useful model of mental processes. For example, both computers and people seem to register, store, and retrieve information. This computer model inspired much research in the field of cognitive psychology. This growing field of cognitive psychology studied important processes that behaviorists largely ignored, such as perception, memory, and attention, and ultimately supplanted behaviorism as the dominant theoretical position within psychology. Contributing to the downfall of behaviorism was Noam Chomsky's scathing review of B. F. Skinner's Verbal Behavior. Skinner believed that language (he called it verbal behavior) was essentially the product of reinforcement. For example, if saying please is reinforced, that person may become more polite. Chomsky charged that Skinner's theory of language was overly simplistic. Children use grammar rules that are not explicitly taught and generate novel phrases that were never explicitly reinforced.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 79. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Locke argued that perceptions of the physical world are produced entirely by information from the sensory organs. (2) Kant argued that perceptions of the world involve both information from the sensory organs and the brain's interpretations of that information. (3) Modern psychologists agree that our perception of the world is an inference of our brain's best guess at what is there. 80. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Today, women and people of color play leading roles in all areas of psychology. (2) Kenneth Clark, an African American who became the first president of the American Psychological Association in 1970, and Mamie Phipps Clark worked extensively on the self-image of African American children and argued that segregation of the races created great psychological harm. Their research was fundamental and contributed to the Supreme Court's 1954 ruling (Brown v. Board of Education) to outlaw segregation in public schools. Kenneth Clark's interest in psychology was sparked by taking a course taught by Francis Cecil Sumner, the first African American to receive a PhD in psychology in 1920. (3) In 1894, Margaret Floy Washburn became the first woman to receive a PhD in psychology. (4) Mary Calkins, the first woman elected as president of the APA in 1905, was mentored by William James and advanced a theory of the role of self in psychology. She argued that self is a single unit that cannot be broken down. (5) Women now earn the majority of PhD degrees granted in psychology. In addition, people of color earn approximately 30% of the PhDs granted in psychology. 81. The answer should indicate that psychology can be defined as the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. John Watson was the founder of behaviorism. He believed that mental processes could not be studied scientifically because they were not objectively observable. He believed that if psychology was to be a science, it should confine its subject matter to objectively observable behavior. For this reason, Watson would disagree with the definition of psychology as presented in the textbook. In fairness to Watson, however, he lived before modern brain-scanning devices allowed psychologists to make objective observations of the neurological processes underlying cognition. 82. Freud believed that behavior was controlled by the unconscious, or the part of the mind that contains information of which people are not aware. Freud thought that you needed to understand the contents of the unconscious to understand the person, so he used free association and dream analysis to study the unconscious. Skinner believed that consequences control behavior. His principle of reinforcement stated that any behavior that is rewarded will be repeated and any behavior that isn't rewarded won't. Both Freud and Skinner believed that humans do not have free will over their behavior. Both Freud's and Skinner's ideas contributed not only to the field of psychology but also beyond psychology. 83. The answer should provide four of the following points: (1) Clinical psychologists (also called therapists) assess and treat people with psychological disorders. They work closely with psychiatrists, who have a medical degree and can prescribe medication. (2) Counseling psychologists assist people dealing with career issues or common personal problems such as divorce, unemployment, or the loss of a loved one. (3) School psychologists work in educational settings and provide guidance to students, parents, and teachers. (4) Industrial/organizational psychologists work in business and industry, and focus on issues such as improving productivity, developing effective planning strategies, and dealing with change. (5) Sports psychologists help athletes train and compete. (6) Forensic psychologists assist attorneys and courts in dealing with crime. (7) Consumer psychologists help companies develop and market new products.

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Chap 01_5e_Essay Questions 84. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Philosophical dualism is the view that the mind and body are fundamentally different things. (2) Philosophical materialism is the view that all mental phenomena are reducible to physical phenomena. (3) In their work, cognitive neuroscientists study the relationship between the brain and the mind. Because cognitive neuroscientists assume that the brain and the mind are related, they use a materialist approach. 85. The answer should provide three of the following points: (1) Psychiatrists, who have earned an MD, assess and may prescribe medications for patients. (2) Clinical psychologists (also called therapists) assess and treat people with psychological disorders. (3) Counseling psychologists (or counselors) may have earned a master's level degree. (4) Psychologists with a PsyD or a MEd degree may also provide therapy in a private practice setting.

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Chap 02_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Trinity has a(n) _____ that humans perceive some stimuli without conscious knowledge of doing so. a. naturalistic observation b. operational definition c. hypothesis d. theory 2. If an experiment is internally valid, then one can infer that: a. manipulating the independent variable caused the changes in the dependent variable. b. the independent and dependent variables were correlated but not necessarily causally related. c. the variables were defined optimally in terms of validity. d. the same results would be obtained if we replicated the experiment in a different population. 3. According to the American Psychological Association (APA) Code of Ethics, which statement about risk– benefit analysis is TRUE? a. Participants may not be asked to take small risks. b. Participants may be asked to accept large risks. c. Participants may not be asked to accept large risks. d. Participants may not be asked to take any risks. 4. How is the psychological code of ethics enforced? a. by the honor system (self-regulation) b. by institutional review boards (IRBs) c. by international inspectors from the UN Task Force on Human Rights d. through the tenure and promotion system at colleges and universities 5. Xavier wants to know how many licks it takes to get to the center of his all-day sucker. He tells his friends that "one full gyration of the tongue around the outer surface of the lollipop" is what constitutes a "lick." In an informal way, Xavier is offering a(n) _____ but lacks a reliable _____ to answer the question. a. operational definition; theory b. hypothesis; instrument c. hypothesis; theory d. operational definition; detector

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Chap 02_5e 6. An archaeologist discovers new evidence suggesting humans inhabited a particular area long before it was originally believed to be inhabited. If the archaeologist is critically thinking, she should first: a. look for flaws in the work of other archaeologists who argue the opposite. b. contact her professional colleagues who share her views and spread the good news. c. conduct additional tests on the evidence in an attempt to falsify her results. d. contact the press and begin publicizing her findings. 7. Dr. Gomez is investigating a new drug designed to reduce anxiety. Patients with an anxiety disorder are treated with either the drug or a sugar pill (placebo) for some time, and Dr. Gomez records their anxiety levels at weekly appointments. If a double-blind procedure is used, who will know if a placebo or drug was administered? a. the patients but not Dr. Gomez b. Dr. Gomez but not the patients c. neither Dr. Gomez nor the patients d. both Dr. Gomez and the patients 8. What is the only way to determine a causal relationship between two variables? a. observation b. correlation c. measurement d. experimentation 9. Which statement presents an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Professor Smith is much more passionate and engaging with his class when he knows that his teaching is being evaluated. b. Tyler eliminates dairy from his diet to determine whether he has dairy allergies. c. Sydney plays tennis at a park she's never played at because the park she usually plays at is closed. d. Chin is required to take a foreign language as part of his liberal arts education. 10. What is one reason naturalistic observation alone cannot solve the problem of demand characteristics? a. Some things of interest to psychologists do not occur naturally. b. It is impossible not to be detected. c. People become angry if they discover that someone has been watching them. d. Recording devices are too expensive for scientists to purchase. 11. Which statement regarding deception in psychological research is TRUE? a. Deception cannot be used. b. Deception is a standard practice to minimize demand characteristics and does not need to be justified. c. Deception cannot be used if it puts participants at risk of harm or pain. d. Deception involving exposure to harm or pain is a justified risk only if debriefing is provided. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 12. What are the two key features of an experiment? a. manipulation and random assignment b. manipulation and correlation c. random assignment and correlation d. manipulation and predictability 13. _____ are derived from _____. a. Hypotheses; theories b. Theories; hypotheses c. Empirical observations; theories d. Empirical observations; hypotheses 14. Methods of observation is to _____ as methods of explanation is to _____. a. how; when b. what; why c. how; why d. what; when 15. People's beliefs influence which evidence they consider in all of these ways EXCEPT: a. people tend to surround themselves with others who have different beliefs. b. people preferentially search for evidence that confirms their beliefs. c. when people find evidence that confirms their beliefs, they tend to stop looking. d. people continue looking for evidence if their initial findings don't support their beliefs. 16. The Belmont Report principle that research should be beneficent suggests that: a. risks and benefits should be distributed fairly to participants. b. participants should not be exposed to risk. c. researchers should attempt to maximize the benefits and minimize the risks of their research. d. researchers should obtain informed consent from participants. 17. When the _____ variable is manipulated, at LEAST _____ group(s) is/are created. a. dependent; one b. dependent; two c. independent; one d. independent; two

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Chap 02_5e 18. A(n) _____ is an instrument or device that can detect the events to which an operational definition refers. a. empirical method b. observer bias c. demand characteristic d. detector 19. Aaron trusts what he himself observes, not claims by others. Aaron takes a(n) _____ approach to knowledge acquisition. a. correlational b. dogmatic c. empirical d. parsimonious 20. _____ involves holding onto previous assumptions and beliefs about the world, whereas _____ involves basing beliefs on objective observations of the world. a. Methodology; empiricism b. Dogmatism; empiricism c. Empiricism; dogmatism d. Empiricism; methodology 21. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test, and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. Participants in the quiet room tended to recall more items correctly than those in the room with the loud noise. This suggests that: a. people with better memories prefer quiet environments. b. a loud environment prevents memories from forming. c. a quiet environment causes better memory performance. d. there is no relationship between environmental noise and memory. 22. In an experiment conducted to determine the effects of alcohol on driving behavior, researchers administered varying amounts of alcohol to each participant before asking them to use a driving simulator. In this experiment, the amount of alcohol is: a. positively correlated. b. the third-variable problem. c. negatively correlated. d. manipulated.

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Chap 02_5e 23. In the context of an experiment, the independent variable is the variable that is: a. eliminated. b. held constant. c. manipulated. d. measured. 24. The extent to which the event being measured adequately characterizes a property is referred to as: a. reliability. b. construct validity. c. power. d. measurement. 25. Terry is interested in whether it is possible for a person to hold more than seven items in working memory at a time. Terry measures memory storage in volunteers who sign up for the study. What rationale would Terry give for NOT using random sampling? a. Sometimes generality does not matter. b. Sometimes generality cannot be determined. c. Sometimes generality can be determined. d. Sometimes generality is best determined by nonrandom sampling. 26. Scientists do not fully know how the 100 billion interconnected neurons within the human brain work together to create consciousness. This illustrates that people are highly: a. complex. b. reactive. c. predictable. d. simple. 27. Which of these is NOT a way that people's beliefs influence which evidence they consider? a. People tend to surround themselves with others who have similar beliefs. b. People preferentially search for evidence that confirms their beliefs. c. When people find evidence that confirms their beliefs, they tend to stop looking. d. People discontinue looking for evidence if their initial findings don't support their beliefs. 28. Which of these is NOT part of APA's code of rights for nonhuman participants? a. Psychologists must make efforts to minimize infection and illness. b. Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in laboratory animal care must oversee all procedures involving nonhuman animals. c. Psychologists may not cause stress or pain to nonhumans. d. Psychologists must perform all surgical procedures under appropriate anesthesia.

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Chap 02_5e 29. Correlations observed in the world around us are termed: a. natural experiments. b. independent variables. c. case studies. d. natural correlations. 30. Which statement accurately summarizes the way psychologists gather research participants? a. Psychologists usually use random samples of the population. b. Psychologists typically use volunteers, often drawn from a college population. c. Psychologists typically select participants at random from the phone book. d. Psychologists select only those participants who outwardly appear to be of average intelligence. 31. A _____ correlation is associated with a less-is-more relationship. a. negative b. positive c. strong d. weak 32. Which statement presents an attribute of a good theory? a. It can be proved right. b. It cannot be tested. c. It makes falsifiable predictions. d. It makes nonspecific predictions. 33. Aleskey's research yielded results that are consistent with a hypothesis derived from a cognitive account of language development. Which conclusion is CORRECT regarding the hypothesis? a. The hypothesis is strengthened. b. The hypothesis is proven. c. The hypothesis is unfalsified. d. The hypothesis is statistically significant. 34. The statement "Eating less spinach is associated with a shorter life span" is an example of: a. a correlation. b. a causal relationship. c. variation. d. an estimate.

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Chap 02_5e 35. If researchers measure how some American children behave after playing a violent video game for 2 hours and then replicate the experiment with Asian, European, and African children and then with teenagers, the researchers would be using which justification of nonrandom sampling? a. Sometimes generality does not matter. b. Sometimes generality is the cause of the effect. c. Sometimes generality cannot be determined. d. Sometimes generality can be assumed. 36. When every member of a population has an equal chance of being included in a sample, the sample is said to be _____ the population. a. representative of b. replicable to c. statistically significant to d. internally valid to 37. Seamus wants to see if room size affects happiness. He invites participants to the laboratory, where half are seated for 20 minutes in a small room, and the other half are seated for 20 minutes in a room that is twice the size but otherwise identical. Seamus then asks members of each group to rate their level of happiness. What is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. number of participants b. elapsed time c. size of the rooms d. rating of happiness 38. According to the textbook, the first rule of critical thinking is to: a. be skeptical of everything. b. trust only what you observe. c. doubt your own conclusions. d. believe information published in scientific journals. 39. The results from the classic experiment involving psychology students randomly assigned to work with either "fast-learner" rats or "slow-learner" rats suggest that: a. labeling students as "gifted" has negative effects on their social lives. b. students identified as "not gifted" actually may work harder academically due to increased motivation. c. labeling students as "gifted" actually has unintended negative consequences on academic performance. d. students labeled as "gifted" do better in school because teachers treat them differently.

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Chap 02_5e 40. Which of these is NOT a necessary principle that all research involving human participants must follow? a. respect for people b. maximize benefits and reduce risks to participant c. distribute benefits and risks equally to participants d. use operational definitions that are internally valid 41. David engages in unethical research practices and changes the result of a statistical test from an otherwise ethically conducted study. David is engaged in: a. data fabrication. b. data falsification involving fudging the results. c. suppressing data inconsistent with the study's goals. d. willfully ignoring principles of beneficence and justness. 42. A local government is considering a construction project that will cost taxpayers a large amount of money. Residents on both sides of the debate have strong views. In an attempt to educate the public, the city arranges several informational sessions in which the pros and cons of the project are discussed. Which result is consistent with the psychological literature? a. Residents' original attitudes toward the project would be strengthened by attending the informational sessions. b. Residents' original attitudes toward the project would be weakened slightly by attending the informational sessions. c. The majority of the residents would change their minds after hearing evidence on both sides of the debate. d. The informational sessions would have no effect whatsoever on residents' attitudes toward the project. 43. The three steps of experimentation are: a. correlate, compare, and manipulate. b. compare, correlate, and measure. c. manipulate, measure, and compare. d. correlate, concentrate, and manipulate. 44. Which ethical code was developed as a reaction to Nazi atrocities during World War II? a. Nuremberg Code b. Belmont Report c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. APA Code of Ethics

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Chap 02_5e 45. An empirical method is: a. the logical steps by which a hypothesis is derived from a theory. b. a set of rules and techniques for observation. c. the process of theory falsification. d. a collection of statistical techniques that can be applied to a data set. 46. Scientists encourage critical thinking by: a. critically evaluating the work of other scientists with beliefs similar to their own. b. inviting anyone to examine their evidence and challenge their conclusions. c. discontinuing research once their beliefs are confirmed. d. ignoring what they do not see. 47. No one truly knows whether there is a "replication crisis" in psychology. Which of these is a reason the replication rate of experiments in psychology is so hard to determine? a. Research teams conducting replications often fail to use the same methods as the original study. b. Psychological experiments are impossible to replicate perfectly. c. The use of different samples among replications leads to different results each time. d. The odds of random assignment failure are too high with an accepted p-value of 0.05. 48. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the aggressiveness in the children. The fact that the researchers arranged for some children to watch violence on television and others to not is an example of: a. variability. b. the third-variable problem. c. correlation. d. manipulation. 49. If researchers are interested in the average time it takes to press a button when a green light flashes on a screen, and they simply measure the reaction times of volunteers who sign up for the study, what rationale would the researchers give for NOT using random sampling? a. Sometimes generality does not matter. b. Sometimes generality cannot be determined. c. Sometimes generality is the cause of the effect. d. Sometimes generality can be assumed.

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Chap 02_5e 50. People routinely _____ the likelihood of coincidences happening by chance. a. underestimate b. overestimate c. fail to guess d. guess accurately 51. What is the BEST way to make it less likely that people will be influenced by demand characteristics? a. pay them for their participation b. randomly select them from the population c. require that they sign their name to each survey that they complete d. keep them from knowing the true purpose of the observation 52. Margot wonders if people behave more aggressively when there is a full moon. To attempt to find out, she categorizes arrest records and emergency department admissions by the cycle of the moon. Margot is taking a(n) _____ approach to the question. a. empirical b. dogmatic c. hypothetical d. theoretical 53. In a classic experiment, psychology students were assigned to work with either "fast-learner" rats or "slowlearner" rats, described as such by the experimenter. After a series of tests, the students' results showed that the fast-learner rats had outperformed the slow-learner rats. However, in fact, all the rats were of the same strain and breed; there were no preexisting differences between the groups. What caused the difference in their performance? a. By chance, the rats in one group actually were brighter than those in the other group. b. Demand characteristics in the experiment cued the rats about how to perform in the mazes. c. The students' expectations about the rats' performance influenced their observations and behaviors. d. The students looked at average scores, rather than at each rat's individual score.

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Chap 02_5e 54. Darley and Gross (1983) showed participants a video of a girl taking a reading test. Some participants were told that the girl was from an affluent family and others were told that she was from a poor family. Then participants were asked to rank the girl's academic abilities. Which statement regarding the findings of this experiment is true? a. Ratings were unaffected by knowledge of the girl's socioeconomic status as long as she was dressed similarly in both videos. b. Ratings were unaffected by knowledge of the girl's socioeconomic status as long as the girl performed equally well on the reading test in both videos. c. Ratings were higher if they thought the girl was affluent relative to poor, but participants could not justify these ratings with evidence from the video. d. Ratings were higher if they thought the girl was affluent relative to poor and participants could justify these ratings with evidence from the video. 55. Which statement is an unfalsifiable psychological claim? a. Teenagers are more sexually active than their parents tend to believe they are. b. People are less likely to help a stranger in need as the number of other bystanders increases. c. The hippocampus is a brain structure critically involved in the formation of long-term memories. d. Part of the human unconscious is the id, an unobservable entity that governs basic human drives. 56. Why does legal scholar Cass Sunstein defend public spending on psychological research? a. Psychological research keeps us entertained. b. Expenditures on psychological research are an investment that pays for itself. c. Psychological research allows the government to study its people. d. Expenditures on psychological research are helpful in only in the treatment of mental illness. 57. Which of these is NOT an obligation psychologists have when writing reports of their studies and publishing them in academic journals? a. reporting truthfully on what they did and what they found b. sharing credit fairly by including people who contributed to the work as co-authors c. sharing their data with the scientific community d. reporting back to their institutional review boards (IRBs) on their findings 58. If Dr. White wants to determine whether cocaine increases hyperactivity, what research strategy should be used? a. experiment b. natural correlation c. matched-pairs correlation d. case study method

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Chap 02_5e 59. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test, and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. What is the dependent variable? a. number of items recalled b. noise level during the encoding task c. time interval between encoding and recall d. probability of being assigned to the two groups 60. The belief that one can obtain accurate knowledge about the causes of human behavior by observing people behaving in different situations exemplifies: a. pragmatism. b. dogmatism. c. empiricism. d. parsimony. 61. A population is a _____ collection of people, while a sample is a _____ collection of people. a. complete; partial b. partial; complete c. distributed; consistent d. consistent; distributed 62. Carolina wants to determine if preschoolers are more or less likely to initiate play with same- or oppositegender peers. She is trying to devise a plan in which the children will not know that they are being observed. Carolina seeks a(n): a. empirical method. b. theory. c. hypothesis. d. research question. 63. The theory that ancient aliens seeded the planet with life millions of years ago and then disappeared is: a. unfalsifiable. b. completely falsifiable. c. necessarily correct. d. necessarily incorrect.

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Chap 02_5e 64. If researchers are interested in whether it is physically possible for a person to have a reaction time less than 0.05 second, what rationale would the researchers give for NOT using random sampling? a. Sometimes generality does not matter. b. Sometimes generality cannot be determined. c. Sometimes generality can be determined. d. Sometimes generality is best determined by nonrandom sampling. 65. When evidence is replicated easily and often, we can conclude that: a. two variables are definitely causally related. b. two variables are likely to be causally related. c. the same sample was used in all replications. d. the research teams chose samples from the same populations. 66. A set of rules and techniques for observation is termed an empirical: a. theory. b. study. c. definition. d. method. 67. Before measuring a specific property of an object, scientists must _____ the property and it must be _____. a. define; detectable b. identify; researchable c. detect; measurable d. define; vague 68. Researchers wanted to see if adults were actually afraid of the dark by exposing them to different levels of light in a room while measuring their heart rates. In this experiment, what are the heart rates of the participants? a. the dependent variable b. the independent variable c. the operational definition d. the third variable

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Chap 02_5e 69. A researcher wants to assess the effects of varying amounts of marijuana on reaction time. Three groups of people are given a low, moderate, or high dose of the drug. A fourth group is given an inactive dose. After consuming their dose, each participant completes a reaction time task. In this experiment, the independent variable is: a. the number of groups. b. the drug dose. c. the time it takes for subjects to feel the effects of the drug. d. reaction time. 70. Research has shown that there is a correlation between the amount of violence a child sees on TV and the aggressiveness of the child's behavior. One explanation of this correlation is that children who watch a great deal of violence on television have a lack of adult supervision. This explanation is an example of what kind of correlation? a. matched sample b. matched pair c. positive d. third-variable 71. A researcher wants to assess the effects of varying amounts of marijuana on reaction time. Three groups of people are given a low, moderate, or high dose of the drug. A fourth group is given an inactive dose. After consuming their dose, each participant completes a reaction time task. In this experiment, the dependent variable is: a. the number of groups. b. the drug dose. c. the time it takes to feel the effects of the drug. d. reaction time. 72. Innessa wants to determine whether students use their phones more in the library or in the cafeteria. She is undecided about whether she should observe their actions or ask questions to participants about this topic using a survey. Innessa is trying to decide on the best _____ to address her research question. a. statistical technique b. theory c. hypothesis d. empirical method

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Chap 02_5e 73. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What is/are the dependent variable(s)? a. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month b. the amount of violence watched on television c. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month and the amount of violence watched on television d. the children 74. The _____ is BEST defined as a procedure for finding facts by using empirical evidence. a. introspective technique b. scientific method c. double-blind control d. dogmatic approach 75. Roger wants to study whether level of personal income predicts happiness. He operationally defines income as "the gross amount of money a person earns in a calendar year." He operationally defines happiness as "the ability of that person to stand on one leg for longer than 3 minutes." What is glaringly wrong with Roger's study? a. It lacks construct validity; income can be measured, but happiness cannot. b. It lacks reliability; the operational definitions of the properties under study produce inconsistent measurements. c. It lacks construct validity; the operational definition of happiness is unrelated to the underlying property of happiness. d. It lacks reliability; it is difficult to precisely measure both income and happiness. 76. Consistent with psychological research, politicians tend to surround themselves with advisors who: a. like to play devil's advocate and challenge the politicians' beliefs on policy issues. b. validate the politicians' beliefs on most policy issues. c. present both sides of a policy issue in a fair and balanced way. d. spend more time objectively considering evidence that opposes the politicians' beliefs. 77. In a classic experiment, psychology students were assigned to work with either "fast-learner" rats or "slowlearner" rats, described as such by the experimenter. In one task involving maze-running speed, students working with fast-learner rats were more likely to stop timing early, as soon as the rat approached the goal box. This unintentional measurement error illustrates how: a. expectations can influence observations. b. observations can influence measurement. c. expectations can influence reality. d. observations can influence reality.

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Chap 02_5e 78. As a feature of ethical research, the term just is related to which statement? a. Risks and benefits should be distributed fairly to participants. b. Deception should not be used. c. Researchers should attempt to maximize the benefits and minimize the risks to participants. d. Researchers should obtain informed consent from participants. 79. In a replication, which of these is different from the experiment that is being replicated? a. procedure b. sample c. population d. method 80. A clinical psychologist is evaluating a client recovering from a substance abuse disorder to evaluate his likelihood of relapse. Which measure is LEAST susceptible to demand characteristics? a. measuring differences in blood pressure when exposed to drug paraphernalia b. asking the client if he has used alcohol or drugs since their last session c. asking the client to rate the severity of his daily cravings on a 10-point scale d. showing the client pictures of drug paraphernalia and asking him if the pictures are triggering cravings 81. Which of these is NOT part of APA's code of rights for nonhuman participants? a. Psychologists must make efforts to minimize discomfort. b. Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in laboratory animal care must oversee all procedures involving nonhuman animals. c. Psychologists must get approval for nonhuman animal research from an institutional review board (IRB). d. Psychologists may use procedures that cause pain, stress, or privation only when alternative procedures are not available or justified by the value of the study. 82. Issa suspects that the prefrontal cortex is involved in self-control. She asks participants to choose between $1 now or $30 after 30 minutes while intermittently inactivating the prefrontal cortex. She makes the specific prediction that inactivating the prefrontal cortex will increase choice of $1 delivered now. This testable prediction is termed a(n): a. experiment. b. empirical method. c. hypothesis. d. theory.

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Chap 02_5e 83. Humans have a natural tendency to: a. notice evidence that is inconsistent with their beliefs. b. ignore what we can't see. c. engage in critical thinking as a default cognitive strategy. d. give undue importance to events that are contrary to their wishes or desires. 84. A social psychologist is constantly evaluating his program of research to make sure that the benefits of the research in terms of knowledge about human behavior outweigh the risks associated with mild deception. The psychologist is evaluating whether his research: a. is externally valid. b. shows concern for the welfare of his participants. c. is just. d. involves respect for persons. 85. Which statement presents an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Xavier enjoys bowling on the weekends. b. Tim acts more polite than normal while on a date. c. Dae buys a certain brand of cookies because there are only a few of that brand left. d. Suzanne speeds so that she won't be late to work. 86. The _____ was developed in response to the barbaric experiments on human subjects conducted by Nazi doctors in World War II. a. Nuremberg Code b. Belmont Report c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. APA Code of Ethics 87. Researchers wanted to see if adults were actually afraid of the dark by exposing them to different levels of light in a room while measuring their heart rates. In this experiment, heart rate is both the _____ and the _____. a. third variable; dependent variable b. operational definition of fear; independent variable c. third variable; independent variable d. operational definition of fear; dependent variable

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Chap 02_5e 88. When participating in psychological research, participants sometimes report not their true beliefs but rather what they feel to be the socially acceptable answer. This illustrates that people can be highly _____ when studied. a. predictable b. variable c. complex d. reactive 89. Informed consent: a. must be obtained before individuals participate in an experiment. b. is strongly recommended but not mandatory for individuals participating in an experiment. c. is not necessary unless painful stimuli are involved. d. is mandatory only for participants over 18 years of age. 90. Which statement about the role of missing evidence in decision making is true? a. People have a natural tendency to seek out informational gaps to arrive at the best possible decision. b. People usually overvalue the importance of missing evidence. c. People usually ignore missing evidence. d. People have a strong tendency to actively seek missing information if what is missing would challenge their existing beliefs. 91. Which statement about an institutional review board (IRB) is FALSE? a. It is a federal agency that monitors research with humans. b. The board contains community members, researchers, and university staff. c. The board enforces the psychological code of ethics. d. A psychological study cannot be conducted until the IRB has reviewed and approved it. 92. Williams and Ceci (2015) sought to determine if gender biases exist in academic hiring practices. They studied almost 1,000 professors in a mock hiring situation in which each professor read the files of several job applicants and then rank-ordered the applicants in terms of most to least qualified. What the professors did not know was that the gender of the job applicants was randomly assigned to the professors. That is, if one professor read that job applicant A was a woman, another professor read that the same job applicant A was a man. As a result, an average rating of each applicant could be compared when that applicant was presented as a male and as a female. In this study, what is the dependent variable? a. number of professors b. rank-order of applicants c. gender of the applicants d. number of applicants

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Chap 02_5e 93. _____ occurs when participants are assigned to a condition by chance. a. Self-selection b. Random assignment c. Double-blind experimentation d. Random sampling 94. What is the major problem associated with self-selection as a way to assign participants to different conditions? a. Participants will choose the condition that they want to be in based on demand characteristics. b. The two groups probably will differ on many variables in addition to whether they received the treatment. c. Self-selection violates the requirement for informed consent. d. Self-selection prevents the manipulation of the independent variable and measurement of the dependent variable. 95. The public is excited about a new cancer-fighting drug that has saved the lives of more than 1,000 people diagnosed with terminal cancer in just the past year. People may misjudge the effectiveness of the drug, primarily because they rarely ask which question? a. Does the expense of the drug make its use impractical? b. What are the side effects of the drug? c. Is the drug more effective than not obtaining any treatment? d. How many people took the drug and nevertheless died? 96. The closer an experiment is to arranging circumstances similar to the real world, the more psychologists can claim it has: a. internal validity. b. external validity. c. reliability. d. power. 97. What does the term manipulation mean in the context of performing an experiment? a. the ability to design an experiment so that participants react in certain predetermined ways b. the ability to change a variable to determine its causal powers c. the ability to hold third variables constant d. the ability to control the responses of research participants

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Chap 02_5e 98. When measuring a property, it is important to generate an operational definition that has: a. reliability. b. power. c. construct validity. d. consistency. 99. The tendency for a detector to produce different results when the quantity measured changes only slightly is known as: a. differentiation. b. power. c. validity. d. reactivity. 100. Researchers have found that ADHD symptoms are correlated with more hours of TV watching per day in children. Based on this, which of these CANNOT be concluded? a. TV watching causes ADHD symptoms in children. b. Parents of kids with ADHD turn on the TV more frequently to distract kids who are hyperactive. c. Parents of kids with ADHD may also have ADHD symptoms, resulting in greater use of TV in the home. d. Kids with ADHD may use TV viewing as a coping mechanism. 101. Methods of _____ are used to study what people do, while methods of _____ are used to determine why people do the things that they do. a. empiricism; dogmatism b. observation; explanation c. explanation; observation d. dogmatism; empiricism 102. An archaeologist discovers new evidence suggesting humans inhabited a particular area long before it was originally believed to be inhabited. Because these results are so novel, if the archaeologist is critically thinking, she should first: a. critically evaluate the work of other archaeologists who argue the opposite. b. contact archaeologists who oppose this viewpoint and ask them to evaluate her evidence. c. begin writing a book on her findings. d. contact the press and begin publicizing her findings.

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Chap 02_5e 103. Marcella wants to know how many licks it takes to get to the center of her all-day sucker. She tells her friends that "one full gyration of the tongue around the outer surface of the lollipop" is what constitutes a "lick." Unfortunately, she has not developed a reliable, mechanized way to measure licks. Marcella's problem deals with: a. definition. b. demand characteristics. c. observer bias. d. detection. 104. When looking an ice cube, it is impossible to know how many water molecules it contains. This is an example of how everyday observations can be: a. reliable. b. incomplete. c. inconsistent. d. valid. 105. Carina's psychology professor says that if she does not participate in psychology research, she will fail psychology. Thus, participation in the research is required. What ethical principle has the instructor violated? a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm 106. A researcher using naturalistic observation will gather scientific information by: a. measuring participants on at least two variables. b. unobtrusively watching people in their normal environments. c. manipulating a variable and then measuring any effect on behavior. d. administering surveys to participants that ask questions about their daily lives. 107. A double-blind study: a. necessarily has sufficient power to detect group differences. b. usually lacks reliability. c. minimizes observer bias. d. cannot be used to determine cause and effect. 108. Psychologists usually select participants for study based on: a. convenience. b. random sampling. c. random assignment. d. operational definitions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 109. According to the textbook, what three things make people especially difficult to study? a. shyness, moodiness, and unpredictability b. complexity, reactivity, and unpredictability c. variability, reactivity, and complexity d. reactivity, variability, and stubbornness 110. A sample is: a. a property that can take on different values. b. the average value of all measurements. c. a partial collection of people, animals, or things drawn from a population. d. an everyday observation. 111. The less children watch violent television programming, the less aggressive children will tend to be. This is an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. cause and effect. d. an experiment. 112. Juanita participates in research studies conducted by her psychology professor. After she participates, she is fully informed about the nature of the study. This describes: a. debriefing. b. informed consent. c. demand characteristics. d. risk–benefit analysis. 113. Bydale Health has developed a new cancer-fighting drug. The company tests the effectiveness of the drug by conducting research using people of all age groups. The participants are segregated into groups, and each group is given a different dosage of the same drug. In this scenario, the dependent variable is the: a. progression of the disease. b. amount of money spent in developing the drug. c. number of participants in each group. d. dosage of the drug given to each group.

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Chap 02_5e 114. The chair of the Psychology department wants to determine the average GPA of all psychology majors at the college. She compiles a list of the GPAs of all the psychology majors and calculates the average. The chairperson is working with data from a(n): a. experiment. b. population. c. sample. d. case study. 115. If the variables in an experiment have been operationally defined in a normal, typical, or realistic way, the experiment has: a. reliability. b. power. c. internal validity. d. external validity. 116. A _____ correlation is associated with a more-is-more relationship. a. negative b. positive c. strong d. weak 117. _____ is a procedure for gathering scientific information from a single individual. a. Experimentation b. The case method c. Self-selection d. The double-blind technique 118. Anne has a(n) _____ that memory for childhood events is stored in a different place in the brain than memory for movement. a. naturalistic observation b. operational definition c. hypothesis d. theory 119. An operational definition is: a. a description of a property in measurable terms. b. the way sciences tend to operate when forming hypotheses. c. the consensus scientists reach when defining their terms. d. a set of rules and techniques for making observations.

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Chap 02_5e 120. When it gets really hot outside, Sam becomes tired and Charlie becomes angry. Their different reactions to the heat illustrate the challenge of _____ to the study of human behavior. a. confounds b. variability c. complexity d. reactivity 121. Holding to the Church's theory that the earth is the center of the universe, despite contradictory observations made by Galileo upon the invention of the telescope, illustrates: a. hypothesis testing. b. dogmatism. c. empiricism. d. experimentation. 122. Müller and Schwarz (2018) found a correlation between the number of hate crimes and hate posts on Facebook. How were they able to eliminate the third-variable problem? a. There was no identifiable third variable that affected both hate posts and hate crimes. b. The hate posts always occurred before the hate crimes. c. Facebook service was randomly and intermittently interrupted, allowing for measure of hate crimes with and without Facebook. d. Correlational research always reveals causation. 123. Williams and Ceci (2015) sought to determine if gender biases exist in academic hiring practices. They studied almost 1,000 professors in a mock hiring situation in which each professor read the files of several job applicants and then rank-ordered the applicants in terms of most to least qualified. What the professors did not know was that the gender of the job applicants was randomly assigned to the professors. That is, if one professor read that job applicant A was a woman, another professor read that the same job applicant A was a man. As a result, an average rating of each applicant could be compared when that applicant was presented as a male and as a female. In this study, what is the independent variable? a. number of professors b. rank-order c. gender of the applicants d. number of applicants 124. Which technique is NOT used to reduce demand characteristics? a. ensuring participant anonymity b. studying behavior not under voluntary control c. concealing the true purpose of the study to participants d. asking participants to respond in front of a group

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Chap 02_5e 125. The ethical principle of _____ requires a verbal description of the true purpose and nature of a study after it is over. a. risk–benefit analysis b. debriefing c. protection from harm d. confidentiality 126. Dr. Sardonicus learned of a woman whose tongue turned a bright shade of green whenever she felt stressed. Although this is a rare event in the general population, Dr. Sardonicus nonetheless interviewed the woman at great length and made detailed observations about her behavior. Dr. Sardonicus used _____ to gather data. a. naturalistic observation b. the case method c. random sampling d. the law of large numbers 127. An instructor makes it clear to his psychology students that if they do not participate in his research, they will receive a failing grade. What ethical principle has the instructor violated? a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm 128. Which statement is TRUE about the scientific method? a. The scientific method takes a dogmatic approach to knowledge acquisition. b. The scientific method limits empirical observations to those consistent with a theory. c. The scientific method emphasizes the importance of nonempirical sources of information when constructing new theories. d. The scientific method uses empirical evidence to uncover new facts about the world. 129. In the context of an experiment, participants who receive different manipulations are said to be in different: a. variables. b. experiments. c. conditions. d. correlations.

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Chap 02_5e 130. A psychiatrist is interested in comparing two different drugs to treat depression in a sample of patients. Because the drugs may differ in terms of both their effectiveness and side effects, patients are randomly assigned to the two drug conditions. Randomly assigning patients to groups satisfies which feature of ethical research? a. protection from harm b. confidentiality c. being just d. debriefing 131. A falsifiable prediction is one that: a. is always incorrect. b. does not tell us what we should observe if the prediction is true. c. tells us what we should observe if the prediction is true. d. cannot be evaluated using the scientific method. 132. The representativeness of a study's results can be empirically determined in a(n): a. natural correlation. b. experimental design. c. case method. d. direct replication with a new sample. 133. Doubting one's own conclusions is: a. inconsistent with the scientific method. b. a vital component of critical thinking. c. an adaptive psychological tendency that results from our evolutionary past. d. a maladaptive pattern of thinking that is taught to us at an early age. 134. The belief that accurate knowledge of the world requires observations of it is called: a. empiricism. b. methodology. c. dogmatism. d. pragmatism. 135. Humans have a natural tendency to: a. notice evidence that is inconsistent with their beliefs. b. see what we expect and want to see. c. engage in critical thinking as a default cognitive strategy. d. give undue importance to events that are contrary to their wishes or desires.

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Chap 02_5e 136. Most experiments in psychology lack: a. external validity. b. internal validity. c. randomization. d. manipulation. 137. _____ involves making direct observations of the world, whereas _____ involves relying on assumptions and beliefs about the world. a. Methodology; empiricism b. Dogmatism; empiricism c. Empiricism; dogmatism d. Empiricism; methodology 138. A psychologist discovers an important research finding in her laboratory that is seemingly inconsistent with what other researchers have found. Her new results have profound implications to our understanding of human behavior. If the psychologist is critically thinking, she should first: a. critically evaluate previous research, looking for flaws in other researchers' ideas. b. attempt to replicate her own findings and rule out alternative explanations for her results. c. consider how general her findings are to people living in other cultures. d. contact the press and begin publicizing her findings. 139. Simon's research yielded results that are consistent with his hypothesis. Which conclusion is INCORRECT regarding the hypothesis? a. The hypothesis is proven. b. The hypothesis is supported. c. The hypothesis may be refuted by other investigators. d. The hypothesis may be disproven by subsequent research. 140. Which measure lacks both reliability and validity? a. scholastic aptitude as measured by the score on an SAT test b. happiness as measured by heart beats per minute c. intelligence as measured in terms of birth order d. class performance as measured by randomly picking a grade out of a hat 141. What is the MOST significant limitation in natural correlation research? a. Natural correlations tell us nothing about the relationship between two variables. b. A causal relationship cannot be inferred. c. Natural correlations have no predictive power. d. Most of the time, natural correlations are too complicated to determine.

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Chap 02_5e 142. One way scientists encourage critical thinking is that they: a. critically evaluate the work of other scientists with beliefs similar to their own. b. invite anyone to examine their evidence and challenge their conclusions. c. believe all claims published in scientific journals. d. do not see what they want to see. 143. What do the following have in common: a microphone concealed in the ceiling of a laboratory, filler items on a psychological survey meant to distract from a study's true purpose, and a misleading explanation told to participants about the purpose of a study? a. They all are forms of experimenter bias. b. They all are examples of unethical research. c. They all are examples of naturalistic observation. d. They all are ways of avoiding demand characteristics. 144. If a prediction is NOT falsifiable, then it: a. is always incorrect. b. does not tell us what we should observe if the prediction is true. c. tells us what we should observe if the prediction is true. d. can be carefully evaluated using the scientific method. 145. A _____ is an experiment that uses the same procedures as a previous experiment but with a new sample from the same population. a. replication b. repetition c. case method d. natural correlation 146. Participants in psychological research are free to end their participation at any time, with no threat of retribution or punishment. This freedom is consistent with which feature of ethical research? a. external validity b. concern for welfare c. being just d. respect for persons

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Chap 02_5e 147. Seamus wants to see if room size affects happiness. He invites participants to the laboratory, where half are seated for 20 minutes in a small room, and the other half are seated for 20 minutes in a room that is twice the size but otherwise identical. Seamus then asks members of each group to rate their level of happiness. What is the independent variable in this experiment? a. number of participants b. elapsed time c. size of the rooms d. rating of happiness 148. The major problem associated with self-selection is that: a. participants will choose the condition that they want to be in based on demand characteristics. b. the two groups probably will differ on many variables in addition to whether they received the treatment. c. self-selection violates the requirement for informed consent. d. self-selection prevents the manipulation of the independent variable and measurement of the dependent variable. 149. Describing happiness as 20 smiles per hour is an example of a(n): a. casual observation. b. demand characteristic. c. operational definition. d. reactive observation. 150. An archaeologist discovers new evidence suggesting humans inhabited a particular area long before it was originally believed to have been inhabited. Because these results are so novel, if the archaeologist is critically thinking, she should first: a. critically evaluate the work of other archaeologists who argue the opposite. b. contact archaeologists who share her views and ask them to evaluate her evidence. c. begin writing a book on her findings. d. look for additional evidence that may still be missing that humans inhabited the area. 151. In the unethical _____, African American males were denied treatment for syphilis in order to study the progression of the disease. a. Nuremberg Code b. Tuskegee experiment c. Belmont Report d. World War II experiments

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Chap 02_5e 152. What is the BEST way to make it less likely that people will be influenced by demand characteristics? a. measure their involuntary behavior b. randomly select them from the population c. require that they sign their name to each survey that they complete d. tell them the true purpose of the observation 153. The public gets suckered into buying the latest weight-loss supplement from television infomercials featuring many testimonials that the supplement is effective, precisely because they rarely consider which question? a. How expensive will this supplement be to use long term? b. Do the side effects of the supplement outweigh the weight-loss benefits? c. How many people have taken the supplement and not lost weight? d. Is the supplement more effective than diet and exercise? 154. A procedure for gathering scientific information from a single individual is called: a. experimentation. b. the case method. c. self-selection. d. the double-blind technique. 155. Which technique is NOT used to reduce demand characteristics? a. allowing participants to respond privately b. studying involuntary behavior c. concealing the true purpose of the study to participants d. telling participants the study's hypothesis in advance 156. Darley and Gross (1983) showed participants a video of a girl taking a reading test. They then asked participants to rate the girl's academic ability. These researchers found that participants rated her academic ability higher if they thought that she: a. was from an affluent family. b. was from an extremely religious family. c. had struggled to overcome her family's poverty. d. was 10 years of age instead of 12 years of age.

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Chap 02_5e 157. Jennifer wants to see if the color of the testing room causes test anxiety. She asks 100 participants to come to a modified classroom, and as they walk in, she asks each person to choose either a testing cubicle painted bright red or a testing cubicle painted off white. On the basis of their choices, participants spend 20 minutes in one or the other cubicle solving challenging math problems. Then they complete a survey asking them questions about how anxious they were during the math test. What's wrong with Jennifer's experiment? a. She didn't use self-selection. b. She didn't measure a dependent variable. c. She didn't use random assignment. d. She didn't expose participants to both colors. 158. People are difficult to study because they often behave differently when they know that they are being observed, a phenomenon known as: a. unpredictability. b. variability. c. complexity. d. reactivity. 159. Increased life expectancy is associated with increased risk of degenerative disease. This is an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. cause and effect. d. an unreliable measure. 160. From 1932 to 1972, the U.S. government conducted the Tuskegee experiment, an example of unethical research in which African American males were denied treatment for _____ in order to study the time course of the disease. a. cancer b. syphilis c. schizophrenia d. high blood pressure 161. Many researchers have found that children who watch televised violence tend to act aggressively. What can be concluded based on these findings? a. There is no third-variable problem in this line of research. b. Exposure to televised aggression is an independent variable. c. Exposure to televised aggression is a dependent variable. d. Exposure to televised aggression and aggression levels of children are positively correlated.

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Chap 02_5e 162. Jill decides to participate in research studies conducted by professors in the Psychology department. Before a study begins, she is given what looks like a contract that describes the study, as well as the risks and benefits of participating. This describes: a. debriefing. b. informed consent. c. demand characteristics. d. research instructions. 163. A kitchen scale always reads 4 pounds, no matter the amount of flour placed on it. As a measure of weight, the broken scale lacks: a. reliability. b. construct validity. c. demand characteristics. d. power. 164. Because males are more _____ than are females on a wide range of cognitive abilities, they tend to be _____ among great scientists. a. variable; overrepresented b. variable; underrepresented c. complex; overrepresented d. reactive; underrepresented 165. A technique for gathering scientific information by unobtrusively watching people in their normal environments is termed: a. the case study approach. b. descriptive statistics. c. naturalistic observation. d. experimentation. 166. When aspects of a setting cause participants to behave the way they think an observer wants them to behave, the problem of _____ is present. a. demand characteristics b. complexity c. validity d. variability

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Chap 02_5e 167. According to the Belmont Report, research involving human participants must be all of these EXCEPT: a. respectful of people. b. beneficial. c. just. d. internally valid. 168. In the context of an experiment, the dependent variable is the variable that is: a. eliminated. b. held constant. c. manipulated. d. measured. 169. Dr. Carr just published a paper but left off the names of the students that contributed to the work. Which statement is true regarding the ethics of this situation? a. Dr. Carr is engaged in data fabrication. b. Dr. Carr's behavior is unethical because he has an obligation to share credit fairly. c. This is in line with ethical recommendations. d. Dr. Carr is misleading by omission. 170. An educational psychologist is constantly evaluating her program of research to make sure that the benefits of the research in terms of insight into effective educational practices outweigh the risks associated with sometimes studying an ineffective teaching technique. The psychologist is evaluating whether her research: a. is externally valid. b. is beneficent. c. is just. d. involves respect for persons. 171. Natural correlations are: a. correlations that can be observed under strict laboratory conditions. b. strong-to-perfect correlations. c. correlations observed in the real world. d. perfect correlations. 172. Which statement presents an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Carmen weighs the pros and cons of breaking up with her boyfriend. b. Adelaide has a hard time getting out of bed on rainy mornings. c. Dylan is asked by his new partner if he enjoys the meal his partner made. d. Roberto's dog barks every time a person walks by the window.

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Chap 02_5e 173. When participants decide which condition to receive, a problem called _____ arises. a. self-selection b. random assignment c. informed consent d. random sampling 174. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to loud noise during a memory-encoding task. The room was quiet for the other half of the participants. Later, all participants were given a memory test, and the number of correct items recalled was obtained for each participant. What is the independent variable? a. number of items recalled b. noise level during the encoding task c. time interval between encoding and recall d. probability of being assigned to the two groups 175. The ethical analysis and reporting of scientific results is regulated by: a. the U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare. b. the American Psychological Association (APA). c. institutional review boards (IRBs). d. the honor system. 176. The statement "Class absences are associated with lower grades" is an example of a(n): a. correlation. b. causal relationship. c. normal distribution. d. experiment. 177. When considering the role of missing evidence in decision making, research has shown that people: a. have a natural tendency to seek out informational gaps to arrive at the best possible decision. b. usually overvalue the importance of missing evidence. c. usually ignore missing evidence. d. have a strong tendency to actively seek missing information if what is missing would challenge their existing beliefs.

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Chap 02_5e 178. A psychologist poses as a groundskeeper at a local golf course and records any instances of cheating. She finds that golfers in twosomes are less likely to cheat then golfers in foursomes. What type of research is the psychologist conducting? a. double-blind observation b. naturalistic observation c. an experiment d. a case study 179. To be a critical thinker, you must: a. be skeptical of everything and trust only what is directly observed. b. ignore evidence that is counter to what is expected and surround yourself with people who have similar beliefs. c. consider what you don't see and doubt your own conclusions. d. believe information published in scientific journals and consider what you don't see. 180. A property with a value that can vary or change is called a(n): a. variable. b. modifier. c. adaptation. d. outlier. 181. A description of a property in concrete measurable terms is a(n): a. theory. b. naturalistic observation. c. operational definition. d. hypothesis. 182. Which statement about critical thinking is true? a. Humans have a natural tendency to evaluate evidence critically. b. Courses designed to increase critical thinking usually are effective. c. Decisions based on empirical data necessarily involve critical thinking. d. Most humans have trouble determining whether we have evaluated the evidence in an unbiased way. 183. If Dr. Xu's experiment examining the effects of environment on songbird mate selection is internally valid, then one can infer that: a. manipulating the environment caused the changes in the songbird mate selection. b. the environment and songbird mate selection were correlated but not necessarily causally related. c. the variables were defined optimally in terms of validity. d. the same results would be obtained if we replicated the experiment in a different population.

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Chap 02_5e 184. Amelia notices that the flowers in her garden appear to be bright blue during the day, but appear dark purple at dusk. This is an example of how everyday observations can be: a. reliable. b. valid. c. inconsistent. d. incomplete. 185. In a class of 35 students, the odds that two people in the group share a birthday are: a. 2%. b. 10%. c. 20%. d. 85%. 186. Which statement does NOT present an attribute of a good theory? a. It can be proven correct. b. It makes specific predictions about what we can observe. c. It leads to hypotheses. d. It makes falsifiable predictions. 187. An educational psychologist is interested in comparing two educational techniques in a sample of preschool children. In part because she believes that one technique might be more effective than the other, children are randomly assigned to the two techniques so that every child has the same opportunity to be assigned to the more effective technique. Randomly assigning students to groups satisfies which feature of ethical research? a. freedom from coercion b. protection from harm c. being just d. informed consent 188. To develop your critical thinking skills, you should: a. try to avoid being skeptical of new evidence. b. surround yourself with people who do not share your views. c. believe everything published in quality scientific journals. d. not base decisions on missing evidence. 189. It is unethical to coerce people into participating in research, even if the research is ultimately beneficial, because doing so violates which feature of ethical research? a. external validity b. concern for welfare c. being just d. respect for persons Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 190. If a replication yields results similar to the original study, we can conclude that: a. two variables are definitely causally related. b. two variables are likely to be causally related. c. the same sample was used in both studies. d. the research teams chose samples from the same populations. 191. Which statement regarding deception in psychological research is true? a. Deception cannot be used. b. Deception is a standard practice to minimize demand characteristics and does not need to be justified. c. Deception can be used only when alternative procedures are not available and the study has applied or scientific value. d. Deception can be used whenever it results in answers to an important scientific question. 192. Darnell believes that happiness increases as a result of spending time outside. He makes a specific prediction that people who spend 2 hours per day outside for a month will be happier than those who did not spend time outside. This testable prediction is termed a(n): a. experiment. b. conclusion. c. theory. d. hypothesis. 193. A bathroom scale cannot detect the difference in weights between Jorge and Carlos, because the two men differ by only 0.2 pound. As a measure of weight, the scale is limited in terms of its: a. reliability. b. validity. c. consistency. d. power. 194. Institutional research boards (IRBs) ensure that data are ethically: a. collected. b. analyzed. c. interpreted. d. published. 195. In the context of an experiment, the variable that is measured is termed the _____ variable. a. independent b. dependent c. third d. predictor

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Chap 02_5e 196. Valentina wants to examine whether taking practice quizzes before an exam increases exam scores. She considers several methods for assigning groups. Which method does NOT use random assignment to assign participants to groups? a. basing group assignment on a coin flip b. basing group assignment on a dice roll c. basing group assignment on the outcome of a random number generator d. basing group assignment on which psychology class they are currently taking 197. An experiment in which the true purpose is hidden from the researcher as well as from the participant is called a: a. blind experiment. b. double-blind experiment. c. controlled experiment. d. correlational study. 198. Müller and Schwarz (2018) examined the relationship between hate crimes and hate posts on Facebook. The main conclusion of their research was that: a. hate posts on Facebook motivated real-life hate crime. b. hate crimes occurred before hate posts. c. hate posts and hate crimes are not correlated. d. there are no third variables underlying both hate posts and hate crimes. 199. Which statement presents an example of a demand characteristic in everyday life? a. Self-report measures of everyday mood tend to fluctuate unsystematically. b. People tend to evaluate physically attractive strangers as more positive on a plethora of dimensions than they do less attractive strangers. c. College students who receive good grades in a course tend to rate that course higher than do students who receive low grades in the course. d. Schoolchildren are much less rowdy on the bus after a noticeable video camera is mounted at the front of the bus. 200. A testable prediction derived from a theory is termed a(n): a. experiment. b. operational definition. c. hypothesis. d. valid measure.

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Chap 02_5e 201. A reliable detector is one that: a. tends to produce the same result whenever it is used to measure the same thing. b. tends to differentiate between accurate and inaccurate data. c. compensates for a weak operational definition of a property under study. d. is an accurate measure of an underlying property. 202. _____ is defined as a hypothetical explanation of a natural phenomenon. a. Theory b. Science c. Hypothesis d. Logic 203. Eyes and ears are to _____ as knowledge from elders is to _____. a. hypothesis; theory b. theory; hypothesis c. dogmatism; empiricism d. empiricism; dogmatism 204. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What is/are the independent variable(s)? a. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month b. the amount of violence watched on television c. the level of aggressiveness at the end of the month and the amount of violence watched on television d. the children 205. Which authority is charged with ensuring that the research claims made by scientists respect the truth? a. institutional research boards (IRBs) b. the U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare c. the American Psychological Association (APA) d. no one 206. If an investigator wants to determine if playing violent video games causes aggression, what research strategy should be used? a. naturalistic observation b. natural correlation c. matched-pairs correlation d. experiment

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Chap 02_5e 207. Increases in illegal drug use are associated with a higher risk of contracting HIV/AIDS. This is MOST clearly an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. an experiment. d. the double-blind technique. 208. The Belmont Report principle that research should be just suggests that: a. risks and benefits should be distributed fairly to participants. b. participants should not be exposed to risk. c. researchers should attempt to maximize the benefits and minimize the risks of their research. d. researchers should obtain informed consent from participants. 209. In a classic experiment, psychology students were assigned to work with either "fast-learner" rats or "slowlearner" rats, described as such by the experimenter. In a task involving learning a maze, rats arbitrarily labeled as "bright" learned the maze faster than did rats arbitrarily labeled as slow-learner. The experimenter suspected that the psychology students with fast-learner rats took the learning task more seriously, and this was reflected in their rats' performance. This finding illustrates how: a. expectations can influence observations. b. observations can influence measurement. c. expectations can influence reality. d. observations can influence reality. 210. Psychologists may use a procedure that subjects an animal to pain, stress, or privation: a. whenever they decide it is necessary. b. no matter the goals of the study. c. when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the procedure is justified by the study's value. d. even if alternative procedures are available. 211. In an experiment, researchers exposed half of the participants to a high-intensity exercise program three times per week. The other half of the participants were told not to exercise at all. Three months later, the body mass index (BMI) of all participants was measured. The researchers found that those who had exercised three times per week had lower BMI scores than those who did not exercise at all. This suggests that: a. there is no relationship between exercise and BMI. b. people who do not exercise have higher BMI. c. people with higher BMI do not enjoy exercise. d. high-intensity exercise causes lower BMI.

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Chap 02_5e 212. Random assignment involves randomly: a. selecting participants for inclusion into the experiment. b. determining which variable will be manipulated and which will be measured. c. determining how many levels of the independent variable will be investigated. d. placing participants into the different conditions of the experiment. 213. A consumer psychologist seeks to determine which of several product prototypes might be most preferred by consumers. The psychologist shows these prototypes to a group of participants. Which measure is LEAST susceptible to demand characteristics? a. participants' rank-order of the products in terms of interest b. participants' estimate of the likelihood that they would purchase the product c. participants' pupil dilation during inspection of the products d. participants' change in attitude toward the product before and after interacting with each 214. Which description is the BEST example of naturalistic observation research methodology? a. a 2nd-grade teacher manipulating reading materials to determine which promotes the greatest literacy b. a psychologist measuring symptoms of depression using a survey c. an inconspicuous economist observing the buying habits of shoppers at a grocery store d. a professor evaluating the degree of student learning through exam performance 215. A synchronous pattern of variation between two variables, each of which has been measured several times, is referred to as: a. variance. b. power deviation. c. a correlation. d. an operational definition. 216. Throughout most of human history, people have tended to trust _____ to answer important questions. a. logic b. science c. authority d. philosophers 217. When every member of a population has an equal chance of being included in a sample, what sampling process is being used? a. reliability sampling b. random assignment c. random sampling d. convenience sampling

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Chap 02_5e 218. Dr. Rodriguez is deciding between two research methodologies for her next experiment. She ultimately decides to choose the methodology that has the least risk to participants. Dr. Rodriguez is following which ethical principle? a. confidentiality b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm 219. What is the main advantage of experimentation over correlation in determining causal relationships? a. Experimentation offers the possibility of controlling for all potential third variables at once. b. Experimentation involves multiple variables, whereas correlation involves only two variables. c. Experimentation systematically controls third variables one at a time, in sequence. d. Experimentation uses the matched pairs and matched samples techniques to control for specific third variables. 220. Manipulation and random assignment are two key features of: a. naturalistic observation. b. matched-samples correlational designs. c. an experiment. d. natural correlations. 221. No one truly knows whether there is a "replication crisis" in psychology. Which of these is a reason the replication rate of experiments in psychology is so hard to determine? a. The studies that researchers choose to replicate are often not representative of the field of psychology as a whole. b. Psychological experiments are impossible to replicate perfectly. c. The use of different samples among replications leads to different results each time. d. The odds of random assignment failure are too high with an accepted p-value of 0.05. 222. Two important steps in the measurement of a property are to operationally _____ the property and reliably _____ the property. a. define; detect b. detect; define c. validate; characterize d. characterize; validate

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Chap 02_5e 223. What aspects of a study are psychologists obligated to keep confidential? a. the purpose of the study b. the true nature of a study c. private or personal information obtained from participants d. the study's hypothesis 224. An educational psychologist seeks to determine how studying duration is related to standardized test scores. She realizes that IQ is a possible third variable that could cause both studying and test score. What could be true of her results? a. IQ could underlie a relationship between studying duration and standardized test scores. b. Longer study duration causes higher standardized test scores. c. Higher IQ causes longer study duration. d. IQ causes higher standardized test scores. 225. Based on the ethical principle of _____, research participants are given enough information about a study to make a reasonable decision about whether to participate. a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm 226. The chair of the Psychology department wants to determine the average GPA of all the psychology majors in the United States. She randomly selects 50 colleges and universities and compiles a list of the GPAs of all the psychology majors at those institutions. This list represents a(n): a. experimental group. b. population. c. sample. d. case study. 227. Jeff must find four sources for a term paper he is writing on corporal punishment (e.g., spanking). Jeff's family spanked him when he misbehaved as a child, and Jeff believes that it is a useful behavioral modification technique. If Jeff fails to think critically, he probably will: a. find four studies suggesting that corporal punishment is effective and relatively harmless. b. find four studies suggesting that corporal punishment is dangerous but then attempt to discredit this research. c. review two studies on each side of the debate in a fair and balanced way. d. change his mind once he has reviewed the evidence on both sides of the debate.

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Chap 02_5e 228. April must find four sources for a term paper she is writing on the effectiveness of public assistance such as welfare in combating poverty. April tends to oppose welfare on philosophical grounds. April probably will: a. summarize four studies suggesting that welfare is actually effective in order to consciously guard against her known biases. b. find four studies suggesting that welfare is effective but then attempt to discredit this research. c. review two studies on each side of the debate in a fair and balanced way. d. summarize four studies suggesting that welfare is ineffective at combating poverty. 229. Which type of risks are unethical to ask participants to take? a. small risks b. large risks c. any risk d. uncertain risks 230. In an experiment, researchers exposed half the children to 2 hours of violence on television every day for a month and made sure the other half saw no violence on television at all. At the end of the month, they measured the level of aggressiveness in the children. What were the two conditions of the experiment? a. the independent and dependent variables b. manipulation and random assignment c. high aggressiveness and low aggressiveness d. watching violence on television and seeing no violence on television 231. What are psychologists obligated to do with any private or personal information obtained from participants? a. keep it confidential b. share it with other participants c. share it only with other scientists d. include it with the data when writing up the study report 232. If there are two different research methodologies that both would answer a particular research question, psychologists are obligated to use whichever methodology minimizes risk to participants. This illustrates which ethical principle? a. freedom from coercion b. informed consent c. debriefing d. protection from harm

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Chap 02_5e 233. _____ is a characteristic of an experiment that establishes the causal relationship between variables. a. Power b. Reliability c. Internal validity d. External validity 234. Which scenario constitutes fabricating the results of a research study? a. purposely making a computational "mistake" to yield favorable statistical results b. suppressing the results of a participant to produce a favorable research outcome c. rounding data in such a way to produce a statistically desirable outcome d. generating fake data to go along with a fictitious study never conducted 235. In the context of an experiment, the variable that is manipulated is termed the _____ variable. a. independent b. dependent c. third d. predictor 236. Vanessa and Jenny take a reaction time test. Vanessa's reaction time is 0.23 second, and Jenny's reaction time is 0.25 second. Suppose that the stopwatch the psychologist used only measured to a tenth of a second. The psychologist concludes that Vanessa and Jenny have equal reaction times of 0.2 second. As a measure of reaction time, the stopwatch lacks: a. reliability. b. validity. c. power. d. reactivity. 237. The characteristic of an experiment that establishes the causal relationship between variables is termed: a. power. b. reliability. c. internal validity. d. external validity. 238. Random _____ allows psychologists to generalize from the _____ to the _____. a. selection; population; sample b. selection; sample; population c. assignment; population; sample d. assignment; sample; population

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Chap 02_5e 239. Psychologists rarely measure the properties of a(n) _____; instead, they try to measure the properties of a(n) _____. a. population; sample b. object; person c. variable; observation d. sample; population 240. When measuring a property, it is important to generate a(n) _____ that has construct validity. a. detector b. operational definition c. consistent observation d. complete observation 241. When presented with information that is inconsistent with their attitudes or beliefs, people generally ask themselves which question? a. Is there any evidence here that would make me reconsider my opinion? b. Is this evidence stronger than the evidence consistent with my beliefs? c. What would be the social repercussions if I change my mind on this issue? d. Is this information flawed or limited in some way? 242. Dara is curious about how many older drivers versus younger drivers shake the handle of the gas pump after they finish fueling their automobiles. Dara walks through the gas station store while casually looking out the window and recording the pump behavior of the drivers at the fueling stations. What type of research is Dara conducting? a. double-blind observation b. naturalistic observation c. an experiment d. a case study 243. Müller and Schwarz (2018) found a correlation between the number of hate crimes and hate posts on Facebook. They were able to find evidence that increased numbers of hate posts caused hate crimes because: a. there was no third variable that affected both hate posts and hate crimes. b. the hate posts occurred before the hate crimes. c. Facebook service was randomly and intermittently interrupted, allowing for causal measurement. d. correlational research always reveals causation.

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Chap 02_5e 244. Jill participates in research studies conducted by her psychology professors. After she participates, she is debriefed, during which: a. the researchers attempt to put her in a good mood prior to her leaving the study. b. she is informed whether the scientific merits learned from her participation outweigh her right to confidentiality. c. she is told the true purpose of the study and an attempt is made to undo any emotional changes that occurred as a result of her participation. d. she is informed of both the risks and the benefits of participating in the research. 245. People are more critical of new evidence that is: a. consistent with common sense. b. consistent with their attitudes or beliefs. c. inconsistent with their attitudes or beliefs. d. presented using emotionally charged language. 246. Correlation is to _____ as experimentation is to _____. a. measurement of variables; manipulation of variables b. single variables; multiple variables c. manipulation of variables; measurement of variables d. unobtrusiveness; correlation 247. In an experiment, researchers gave half the participants a new experimental drug and the other half a placebo (sugar pill). After 2 weeks, they measured participants' level of depression. What were the two conditions of the study? a. the independent and dependent variables b. manipulation and random assignment c. receiving the experimental drug and receiving the placebo d. high level of depression and low level of depression 248. The tendency for a detector to produce the same result whenever it is used to measure the same thing is known as: a. consistency. b. power. c. construct validity. d. reliability.

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Chap 02_5e 249. Externally invalid experiments are not problematic when the goal of the research is to: a. model a real-world phenomenon. b. generalize research findings to different cultures. c. make naturalistic observations. d. test hypotheses derived from theories. 250. Two things the textbook says we ought to do to become critical thinkers are: a. be skeptical of everything and trust only what you observe. b. trust only what you observe and surround yourself with people who have similar beliefs. c. consider what you don't see and doubt your own conclusions. d. believe information published in scientific journals and consider what you don't see. 251. On a wide range of cognitive abilities, males are more _____ than are females. a. empirical b. variable c. complex d. reactive 252. Which of these is NOT one of the three steps of experimentation? a. manipulate b. measure c. compare d. correlate 253. Jamal is researching observer bias. In his experiment, each participant was given a piece of chocolate. Half of these participants were told that their chocolate was rated 95 out of 100 points by an expert, while the other half was told that their chocolate was rated 64 out of 100 points. Jamal should expect that those who were told that their chocolate was rated more highly are MOST likely to: a. think that the chocolate tasted better. b. believe that the other group of tasters is inferior. c. report no difference compared to the other group. d. give a better critique of the chocolate. 254. Psychologists tend to measure the properties of _____ more often than _____. a. populations; observations b. objects; people c. variables; observations d. samples; populations

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Chap 02_5e 255. _____ occurs when participants decide which condition to receive. a. Self-selection b. Random assignment c. Informed consent d. Random sampling 256. Sharina submits the results of a portion of her most recent study to a scientific journal because this portion of the results supported her hypothesis. She doesn't mention the portion of the study that did not support her hypothesis. What is true of Sharina's behavior? a. She is engaged in data fabrication. b. She is engaged in data falsification. c. Her behavior is in line with ethical recommendations. d. She is misleading by omission. 257. Ideally, a detector should have reliability and _____ to be useful to scientists. a. definition b. accuracy c. power d. consistency 258. External validity means that: a. an experiment used reliable measures of the independent variable. b. a correlation was established between an independent and a dependent variable. c. an experiment has been verified by a group of scientists not associated with the study. d. the variables in an experiment have been defined in a normal, typical, or realistic way. 259. Tabatha wonders if 1st-year college students spend more time in the library than 3rd-year college students. After obtaining university approval, Tabatha develops and administers a survey to a random sample of students in an attempt to answer this question. Tabatha is taking a(n) _____ approach to the question. a. empirical b. dogmatic c. hypothetical d. theoretical 260. According to the textbook, the second rule of critical thinking is to: a. be skeptical of everything. b. trust only what you observe. c. consider what you don't see. d. believe information published in scientific journals.

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Chap 02_5e 261. Kids who watch excessive amounts of TV show reductions in gray matter in the brain. This is an example of: a. a positive correlation. b. a negative correlation. c. cause and effect. d. an experiment. 262. Drugs of abuse activate the reward pathway in the brain. This pathway consists of multiple brain structures, many neurotransmitters, and millions of interconnected neurons. Determining the brain changes that underlie the transition from casual drug use to addiction is a difficult process due to the _____ of the system. a. reliability b. confounds c. complexity d. reactions 263. The theory that God created the universe is: a. unfalsifiable. b. falsifiable. c. necessarily correct. d. necessarily incorrect. 264. Correlations detect: a. the power of a measure. b. patterns of variation in a series of measurements. c. patterns of selection in a varied population. d. sources of unsystematic error in a data set. 265. Anna's research yielded results that are consistent with a hypothesis derived from a behavioral theory of substance abuse. Which conclusion is CORRECT regarding the theory? a. The theory is supported. b. The theory is proven. c. The theory is unfalsified. d. The theory is statistically significant.

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Chap 02_5e 266. College administrators are presented with mixed evidence that a recent initiative to increase 1st-year success among its students is effective. Based on results from the psychological literature, the administrators probably will decide to: a. discontinue the program in the absence of clear evidence of effectiveness. b. reduce funding for the program as a result of the ambiguous evidence. c. continue to fund the program fully for one additional year with the intent to discontinue the program if the data next year are inconclusive. d. continue to fund the program as a result of perceived encouraging evidence of effectiveness. 267. Which statement presents a negative correlation? a. Stress levels decrease with increased aerobic activity. b. Personal debt increases with increased alcohol consumption. c. A greater time spent studying is associated with higher grades. d. People who make less eye contact have fewer friends. 268. Describing height as "distance above floor level" is an example of a(n): a. variable response. b. casual observation. c. dogmatic approach. d. operational definition. 269. Dr. Rodriguez is investigating a new drug to reduce depression. Patients with depression are treated with either the drug or a sugar pill (placebo) for 2 months, and Dr. Rodriguez records their levels of depression at weekly appointments. If a double-blind procedure is used, who will know if a placebo or drug was administered? a. the patients but not Dr. Rodriguez b. Dr. Rodriguez but not the patients c. both Dr. Rodriguez and the patients d. neither Dr. Rodriguez nor the patients 270. Which reason is NOT listed in the textbook as one that makes people especially difficult to study? a. complexity b. emotionality c. variability d. reactivity

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Chap 02_5e 271. Kyle asks you what he can do to think critically. You tell him that he could: a. be skeptical of his own conclusions. b. surround himself with people who share his views. c. believe everything published in quality scientific journals. d. not base decisions on missing evidence. 272. A psychologist who studies memory processes by investigating the remarkable ability of Akira Haraguchi to accurately recite pi to 100,000 digits is using: a. experimentation. b. the case method. c. self-selection. d. the double-blind technique. 273. Which statement presents a negative correlation? a. Increased time working in a group is associated with higher grades on a group project. b. Increased time spent in class is associated with fewer hours studying outside of class. c. Increased time studying for an exam is associated with higher exam grades. d. Increased time engaging in psychology extracurriculars is associated with higher scores on a comprehensive psychology exam. 274. Which technique helps reduce observer bias? a. the case method b. double-blind observation c. use of a correlation coefficient d. random sampling 275. Carmello wants to know how many licks it takes to get to the center of his all-day sucker. He tells his friends that "one full gyration of the tongue around the outer surface of the lollipop" is what constitutes a "lick." In an informal way, Carmello is offering a(n): a. casual observation. b. dogmatic approach. c. operational definition. d. naturalistic observation. 276. Which statement about divulging the true purpose of an experiment is TRUE? a. The psychologist need not divulge the true purpose of the experiment. b. The psychologist must divulge the true purpose of the experiment before the subject participates. c. The psychologist must divulge the true purpose of the experiment only after it has been published. d. The psychologist must divulge the true purpose of the experiment after the person participates.

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Chap 02_5e 277. Researchers wanted to see if listening to calm music would reduce heart rates. Half of the research participants sat quietly and listened to calm music, and the other half sat quietly and listened to no music at all. These groups are the experimental: a. variables. b. observations. c. conditions. d. measurements. 278. What does the third-variable problem indicate? a. The three variables are all causally related to one another; each is a cause of the others. b. The correlation between any two of the variables must be established before another correlation can be computed. c. Two of the variables are correlated with each other only because each is causally related to a third variable. d. Changes in one variable are producing changes in another variable. 279. Which of these is NOT a reason the replication rate of experiments in psychology is so hard to determine? a. Research teams conducting replications often fail to use the same methods as the original study. b. The studies that researchers choose to replicate are often not representative of the field of psychology as a whole. c. The use of different samples among replications should lead to different results each time. d. Research teams often choose studies that are easy, or do not require a lot of time or money to replicate. 280. According to the U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare's Belmont Report, research involving humans should do all of these EXCEPT: a. ensure that participants are monetarily compensated for their time. b. show respect for persons and their right to make decisions for and about themselves without coercion. c. show concern for the welfare of participants by maximizing benefits and reducing risks. d. equally distribute the benefits and risks to participants without prejudice. 281. Researchers wanted to see if adults were actually afraid of the dark by exposing them to different levels of light in a room while measuring their heart rates. In this experiment, what are the different levels of light? a. the dependent variable b. the independent variable c. the detector d. the operational definition

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Chap 02_5e 282. Participants in a study were all given a glass of the same wine. Half of these participants were told that their wine was rated 92 out of 100 points by a wine expert, while the other half was told that their wine was rated 72 out of 100 points. Those who were told that their wine was rated more highly are MOST likely to: a. believe that the other group of wine-tasters is inferior. b. pay more for a bottle of the wine. c. report no difference compared to the other group. d. give a better critique of the wine. 283. What is one reason naturalistic observation alone cannot solve the problem of demand characteristics? a. It is impossible not to be detected. b. Some information requires direct interaction with participants. c. People become angry if they discover that someone has been watching them. d. Recording devices are too expensive for scientists to purchase. 284. Researchers wanted to see if listening to calm music would reduce heart rates. Half of the research participants sat quietly and listened to calm music, and the other half sat quietly and listened to no music at all. This is an example of a: a. correlation. b. comparison. c. measurement. d. manipulation. 285. Random assignment to groups helps ensure that: a. demand characteristics in each group are minimized. b. an independent variable is manipulated in each group. c. groups do not differ on variables not of interest. d. a correlation does not exist between the independent and dependent variables. 286. When one manipulates an independent variable, at LEAST how many conditions are created? a. one b. two c. three d. four

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Chap 02_5e 287. Fatima wants to study how ice cream consumption in a school cafeteria is related to aggressive playground behavior during recess. She observes that ice cream consumption is positively correlated with aggressive behavior. Which of these is NOT an example of a third-variable problem? a. Kids are more aggressive and eat more ice cream when the temperature is warmer. b. Kids who come from wealthier families might be more aggressive and be better able to afford an ice cream treat. c. Lack of supervision may underlie both ice cream consumption and aggressive playground behavior. d. Low grades might cause aggressive behavior, but have no effect on ice cream consumption. 288. Random selection allows psychologists to _____ the sample to the population. a. infer causation from b. compare c. generalize from d. remove third variables from 289. Which question is an unfalsifiable research question? a. Are people who pray daily happier than those who do not? b. Does God answer prayers? c. Do people who pray while in the hospital recover faster than those who do not? d. Is prayer associated with charitable giving? 290. Sofia's research yielded results that are consistent with a hypothesis derived from a cognitive account of classical conditioning. Which conclusion is CORRECT regarding the hypothesis? a. The hypothesis is proven. b. The hypothesis may be disproven by subsequent research. c. The hypothesis is unfalsified. d. The hypothesis is statistically significant. 291. After other researchers tried to replicate his work, the physicist Jan Hendrik Schön was found to have fabricated his data. When caught, he was: a. fired from his academic position and had his PhD revoked. b. verbally warned to stop engaging in fraudulent behavior; no further action was taken due to a lack of an enforcement agency. c. forced to retract those publications in which fraudulent data appeared but allowed to keep his academic position. d. fired and sent to prison for 5 years for his fraudulent activities.

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Chap 02_5e 292. Sachiko wants to see if watching movies helps people relax. She asks 100 participants to come to the laboratory, and as they walk in, she asks each person if he or she would like to watch a movie or sit in a silent room. Based on what they've chosen, participants then spend an hour watching a movie or sitting in silence while Sachiko assesses states of alertness and relaxation. What's wrong with this experiment? a. She didn't choose an independent variable. b. She didn't measure a dependent variable. c. She didn't use random assignment. d. She didn't expose participants to both movie and silent conditions. 293. Psychologists can claim an experiment has external validity if the experiment: a. has circumstances similar to the real world. b. measures the properties of a sample. c. can establish causal relationships. d. manipulates variables. 294. Who funds most scientific research? a. private companies b. pharmaceutical companies c. government agencies d. philanthropists 295. Which method does NOT use random assignment to assign participants to groups? a. basing group assignment on a coin flip b. basing group assignment on a dice roll c. basing group assignment on the outcome of a random number generator d. basing group assignment on the order in which participants arrive to be studied 296. The extent to which the frequency of smiling really defines the property called happiness is an issue of: a. reliability. b. construct validity. c. power. d. instrumentation. 297. Cruella would not describe herself as the type of person who cares about animal rights, but when filling out a survey for a psychologist, she says that she does. This illustrates that people can be highly _____ when studied. a. dogmatic b. variable c. complex d. reactive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 298. Which description is the BEST example of naturalistic observation research methodology? a. recording the amount of time groups of students in the cafeteria use cell phones b. asking college students how much time they spend playing games on their phones each day c. surveying college students about the phone features they use most d. randomly assigning participants to use their phones during a meal or not, and then surveying the participants about their meal satisfaction 299. Population is to _____ as sample is to _____. a. complete; partial b. partial; complete c. distributed; consistent d. consistent; distributed 300. Psychological research has discovered all of these EXCEPT: a. text messages to lower-income students reminding them to complete prematriculation tasks increased college enrollment among those students. b. adding a signature to online self-report of sales resulted in increased sales being reported. c. when employers automatically enrolled people in savings programs, they showed increased participation. d. when utility companies enrolled people in green energy programs, there was reduction in greenhouse gas emissions.

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Chap 02_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. c 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. a 51. d 52. a 53. c 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 55. d 56. b 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. d 73. a 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. a 78. a 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 83. b 84. b 85. b 86. a 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. b 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. b 97. b 98. c 99. b 100. a 101. b 102. b 103. d 104. b 105. a 106. b 107. c 108. a 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 111. a 112. a 113. a 114. b 115. d 116. b 117. b 118. d 119. a 120. b 121. b 122. c 123. c 124. d 125. b 126. b 127. a 128. d 129. c 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. b 134. a 135. b 136. a 137. c

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Chap 02_5e 138. b 139. a 140. d 141. b 142. b 143. d 144. b 145. a 146. d 147. c 148. b 149. c 150. d 151. b 152. a 153. c 154. b 155. d 156. a 157. c 158. d 159. a 160. b 161. d 162. b 163. d 164. a 165. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 166. a 167. d 168. d 169. b 170. b 171. c 172. c 173. a 174. b 175. d 176. a 177. c 178. b 179. c 180. a 181. c 182. d 183. a 184. c 185. d 186. a 187. c 188. b 189. d 190. b 191. c 192. d 193. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 194. a 195. b 196. d 197. b 198. a 199. d 200. c 201. a 202. a 203. d 204. b 205. d 206. d 207. a 208. a 209. c 210. c 211. d 212. d 213. c 214. c 215. c 216. c 217. c 218. d 219. a 220. c 221. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 222. a 223. c 224. a 225. b 226. c 227. a 228. d 229. c 230. d 231. a 232. d 233. c 234. d 235. a 236. c 237. c 238. b 239. d 240. b 241. d 242. b 243. c 244. c 245. c 246. a 247. c 248. d

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Chap 02_5e 249. d 250. c 251. b 252. d 253. a 254. d 255. a 256. d 257. c 258. d 259. a 260. c 261. b 262. c 263. a 264. b 265. a 266. d 267. a 268. d 269. d 270. b 271. a 272. b 273. b 274. b 275. c 276. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e 277. c 278. c 279. c 280. a 281. b 282. b 283. b 284. d 285. c 286. b 287. d 288. c 289. b 290. b 291. a 292. c 293. a 294. c 295. d 296. b 297. d 298. a 299. a 300. d

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Identifying a group of children who watch violent television and a group of children who do not is an example of manipulating exposure to violent television. a. True b. False 2. The dependent variable is manipulated by the experimenter. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 2.3 to answer the following question(s). Müller, K., & Schwarz, C. (2018, Nov). Fanning the flames of hate: Social media and hate crime. https://ssrn.com/abstract=3082972 or http://dx.doi.org/10.2139/ssrn.3082972 Müller and Schwarz (2018) measured the frequency of antirefugee Facebook posts on a right-wing, antiimmigrant German Facebook page and the frequency of hate crimes against refugees. The study was conducted in Germany over a 2-year period. Major findings of Müller and Schwarz (2018) are presented in Figure 2.3. Figure 2.3

3. (Scenario 2.3) The authors of this study would have to contend with all of these issues EXCEPT: a. developing a reliable and valid operational definition of an antirefugee Facebook post. b. determining if the results of the study are replicable. c. controlling for participant reactivity that could bias the results. d. determining if the results of the study have external validity. 4. Participants must give their informed consent before participating in psychological research. a. True b. False 5. Empiricists believe that accurate knowledge about the world requires observation of it. a. True b. False

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6. (Scenario 2.3) Based only on the data in Figure 2.3, which is the most appropriate conclusion? a. Hate crimes against refugees are positively associated with hate posts on Facebook. b. Increased hate posts about refugees on Facebook cause violent crimes against refugees. c. Violent crimes against refugees tend to spark a flurry of hate posts on Facebook. d. A third variable, such as an economic downturn, causes both anti-immigrant posts on Facebook and crimes against refugees. 7. Most published psychology experiments are externally valid. a. True b. False 8. Most participants in psychological research are volunteers, as opposed to participants who are selected randomly. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 9. The function of an institutional review board is to help researchers design experiments high in internal and external validity. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 2.2 to answer the question(s) below. A psychologist was interested in the effects of sleep deprivation on performance on a vigilance task. Forty college students served as participants and were placed in either the sleep-deprivation group or the control group by coin flip. Both groups spent the night before the study in a sleep laboratory, but only the control group was allowed to sleep. By the next morning, the sleep-deprived group had been awake for the past 24 hours. At this time, both groups were provided a nutritious breakfast and, shortly thereafter, testing began in sound-attenuating cubicles, each equipped with a computer. The vigilance task consisted of monitoring the computer screen. Participants were instructed that red dots represented allied spacecraft and green dots represented enemy spacecraft. Throughout the 2-hour-long task, red dots moved across the screen in irregular patterns. Occasionally and unpredictably, a green dot would quickly move across the screen in a haphazard pattern. When a green dot appeared, the task of the participant was to move a stylus over the green dot and press a button, "destroying" the enemy spacecraft. The psychologist measured the percentage of these enemy targets that were detected and destroyed. The results of this fictitious experiment are shown in Figure 2.2. Figure 2.2

10. (Scenario 2.2) The purpose of placing participants into one of the two groups by coin flip was to: a. eliminate the demand characteristics operating in the study. b. increase the external validity of the study. c. help ensure that the two groups were equal on all possible third variables. d. minimize experimenter bias.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 11. Critical thinking involves the relentless search for evidence that confirms existing beliefs. a. True b. False 12. Naturalistic observation is a method for determining causal relationships between variables. a. True b. False 13. Random assignment of participants to groups generally is an effective way of eliminating the third-variable problem. a. True b. False 14. The variable that is manipulated in an experiment is the independent variable. a. True b. False 15. Correlation is a method for determining causal relationships between variables. a. True b. False 16. Ethical guidelines allow coercion to force participation in extreme circumstances. a. True b. False 17. The function of an institutional review board is to help ensure that research is in compliance with the law and ethical guidelines. a. True b. False 18. Defining and detecting are the two tasks that allow us to measure properties. a. True b. False

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19. (Scenario 2.2) Participants were placed into groups using: a. random sampling. b. random assignment. c. a double-blind technique. d. the matched groups technique.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

20. (Scenario 2.1) Which pair is LEAST likely to represent variables A and B? a. temperature and hot coffee sales at a sporting event b. amount of debt and stress levels c. frequency of meditation and stress levels d. absences in course and score on final exam 21. A positive correlation between two variables is stronger than a negative correlation between two variables. a. True b. False

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22. (Scenario 2.3) Because Internet access is often unreliable in Germany, Müller and Schwarz (2018) also examined antirefugee incidents as a function of whether the Internet was on or off. This constitutes a natural: a. check of external validity. b. self-selection of participants to groups. c. control for a possible third variable. d. experiment. 23. A negative correlation between income and smoking is evidenced by the fact that people of lower socioeconomic status are more likely to smoke. a. True b. False 24. To conduct an experiment, a variable must be manipulated by the experimenter. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 25. Cause and effect cannot be demonstrated by observing natural correlations. a. True b. False 26. Dogmatism is a desired characteristic of science. a. True b. False 27. When an independent variable is manipulated, at least two conditions are created. a. True b. False

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28. (Scenario 2.3) Müller and Schwarz (2018) also examined antirefugee incidents as a function of whether Germany's Internet was functioning or not functioning. The status of the Internet is analogous to which feature of experimentation? a. random assignment of participants to groups b. self-selection of participants to groups c. manipulation of an independent variable d. measurement of a dependent variable

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

29. (Scenario 2.1) Figure 2.1 illustrates a(n) _____ correlation between variables A and B. a. positive b. negative c. unsynchronized d. variable

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30. (Scenario 2.3) Figure 2.3 illustrates a _____ correlation between antirefugee posts and antirefugee incidents. a. positive b. negative c. third-variable d. manipulated 31. A positive correlation between smoking and mental illness is evidenced by the fact that people who smoke are more likely to have a mental illness. a. True b. False 32. Double-blind observations are a way of controlling for observer bias. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 33. A negative correlation between two variables means that as the score on one variable decreases, the score on the other variable will also decrease. a. True b. False 34. Experts agree that the replication rate within psychology is frighteningly low. a. True b. False

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35. (Scenario 2.3) Because Internet access is often unreliable in Germany, Müller and Schwarz (2018) also examined antirefugee incidents as a function of whether the Internet was on or off. They found that antirefugee incidents decreased during Internet service interruptions. Because these service interruptions were essentially random, the authors could reasonably conclude that: a. crimes against refugees are one cause of spikes in hate speech on social media. b. hate speech on social media plays a causal role in crimes against refugees. c. the third variable of Internet access was responsible for the apparent correlation between antirefugee posts and antirefugee incidents. d. the results of the research are generalizable to other cultures. 36. Reliability is the tendency of an operational definition and a property to have a clear conceptual relation. a. True b. False

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37. (Scenario 2.2) The independent variable was: a. the length of the vigilance task. b. the percentage of enemy targets destroyed. c. the degree of vigilance. d. sleep status.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 38. In a double-blind observation, the researcher, but not the participant, knows the purpose of the study. a. True b. False 39. When participants in an experiment behave in a way they think the experimenter wants them to behave, the problem of demand characteristics develops. a. True b. False Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

40. (Scenario 2.1) Which statement is true given that variables A and B are correlated? a. Variable A causes variable B or variable B causes variable A. b. Knowing the score on variable A provides some information about the score on variable B. c. There is no causal relationship between the two variables. d. A third variable cannot be responsible for the observed association. 41. Institutional review boards help ensure data are analyzed and disseminated ethically. a. True b. False 42. When it comes to reporting data truthfully, scientists use the honor system. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 43. An internally valid experiment means that accurate conclusions can be drawn about the causal relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable. a. True b. False 44. Unobtrusive naturalistic observation helps minimize the problem of demand characteristics. a. True b. False

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45. (Scenario 2.2) The dependent variable was: a. the length of the vigilance task. b. the instructions given. c. the percentage of enemy targets destroyed. d. sleep status.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 46. Most psychological research does not utilize random sampling. a. True b. False 47. When a correlation is observed between two variables, it is possible that one variable is causing the other. a. True b. False 48. If people in favor of the death penalty are given mixed evidence about its effectiveness at deterring crime, they generally become less supportive of it. a. True b. False 49. The third-variable problem means that an observed correlation between two variables might be the result of another variable that causes the observed association. a. True b. False 50. An operational definition is a description of a property in measurable terms. a. True b. False

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51. (Scenario 2.2) Vigilance was measured as the percentage of "enemy targets" destroyed. As a measure of vigilance, this illustrates: a. an operational definition. b. reliability. c. statistical significance. d. a construct. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

52. (Scenario 2.1) Each data point on the scatterplot represents: a. a single participant's score on variables A and B b. a single participant's score on variable B c. the score on variable B at the group mean of variable A d. the score on variable A at the group mean of variable B 53. Random assignment to groups is common when using the case method. a. True b. False 54. Measuring personality in terms of eye color lacks reliability. a. True b. False 55. Deception is not allowed in psychological research. a. True b. False 56. A random sample means that every member of the population has an equal chance of being included for study. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 57. Self-selection by participants to experimental conditions is an effective way of eliminating the third-variable problem. a. True b. False 58. External validity means an experiment defines operational variables in a normal, typical, or realistic way. a. True b. False 59. People typically search for evidence that confirms their existing beliefs. a. True b. False 60. A theory is a testable prediction made by a hypothesis. a. True b. False 61. People are creatures of habit and usually behave the same way, regardless of whether they are being observed in a psychological study. a. True b. False 62. Current ethical guidelines prohibit conducting psychological research on animals that involves pain. a. True b. False 63. In the case method, only one individual is studied. a. True b. False 64. Construct validity is the tendency of a measure to produce the same result whenever it is used to measure the same thing. a. True b. False Use Scenario 2.2 to answer the question(s) below. A psychologist was interested in the effects of sleep deprivation on performance on a vigilance task. Forty college students served as participants and were placed in either the sleep-deprivation group or the control group by coin flip. Both groups spent the night before the study in a sleep laboratory, but only the control group was allowed to sleep. By the next morning, the sleep-deprived group had been awake for the past 24 hours. At this time, both groups were provided a nutritious breakfast and, shortly thereafter, testing began in sound-attenuating cubicles, each equipped with a computer. The vigilance task consisted of monitoring the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay computer screen. Participants were instructed that red dots represented allied spacecraft and green dots represented enemy spacecraft. Throughout the 2-hour-long task, red dots moved across the screen in irregular patterns. Occasionally and unpredictably, a green dot would quickly move across the screen in a haphazard pattern. When a green dot appeared, the task of the participant was to move a stylus over the green dot and press a button, "destroying" the enemy spacecraft. The psychologist measured the percentage of these enemy targets that were detected and destroyed. The results of this fictitious experiment are shown in Figure 2.2. Figure 2.2

65. (Scenario 2.2) Assuming the differences between groups were statistically significant, before concluding that sleep deprivation impairs vigilance, another dependent variable the researchers probably would want to analyze is: a. the effects of longer or shorter periods of sleep deprivation on vigilance. b. the number of times participants incorrectly destroyed an allied spacecraft. c. how well the task resembles real-world instances of sustained vigilance. d. the effect of breakfast on performance on the vigilance task.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

66. (Scenario 2.1) Which pair is MOST likely to represent variables A and B? a. height and weight b. depression level and anxiety level c. intelligence quotient and income d. absences in course and score on final exam 67. Once participants give their informed consent, they are contractually bound to finish their participation; they cannot quit before the completion of the experiment. a. True b. False

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Examine Figure 2.1 and then answer the following question(s).

68. (Scenario 2.1) In a simple correlational design, how would these data be collected? a. measure each participant's score on variables A and B b. randomly assign participants to experience either variable A or variable B c. manipulate variable A and then observe its effects on variable B d. manipulate both variables A and B and observe their effects on the target behavior of interest 69. Kaia believes that spending time outdoors increases happiness. Give an example of an operational definition of happiness that Kaia could use in her study. Discuss whether this measure would have construct validity and reliability.

70. A psychologist theorizes that depression is caused by low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin in the brain. Generate a hypothesis based on this theory.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 71. Describe and give an example of the third-variable problem. What can be done to solve this problem?

72. What two human tendencies interfere with our ability to think critically? Provide examples of each.

73. Dr. Schulz, an experimental psychologist, has just completed a research project. As he analyzes the data and prepares his research for publication, what are his obligations to the truth?

74. List at least three rules of ethics that psychologists must follow to maintain the safety, well-being, and dignity of their participants.

75. A true experiment is defined as having certain characteristics. Deconstruct an experiment into its two essential characteristics, and note how each helps to achieve the overall goal of internal validity.

76. Generate your own example of a measure that is reliable but does not have construct validity and a measure that is neither reliable nor has construct validity.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 77. What is a double-blind study? Why are double-blind studies necessary?

78. What are demand characteristics? Give at least three examples of how to control demand characteristics.

79. Although psychologists and chemists both use the scientific method, discuss three reasons the subject matter of psychology is much more difficult to study than the subject matter of chemistry.

80. Historically, drug addiction has been considered a moral failing. Contrast how a dogmatist and an empiricist might react to new evidence that drug addiction is a brain disease.

81. In the context of experimentation, describe how internal and external validity are established.

82. Self-help guru Louise Hay claims that her self-help DVDs can cure cancer. Describe how you would design an experiment to test this claim. To get you started, suppose that the participants in the experiment are individuals recently diagnosed with cancer who have provided informed consent to participate in a study investigating the power of positive thinking. From here, describe how you would use random assignment and manipulation to test Hay's claim. Be sure to identify the independent and dependent variables.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 83. Explain the difference between a population and a sample. Then discuss the relationship between random sampling and generalizing findings from the sample to the population.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. The answer should provide the following: (1) a definition of the construct in terms of its measure. For example, happiness could be measured in terms of number of smiles or a person's self-assessment of happiness. (2) Construct validity refers to the extent to which a measurement and a property are conceptually related. A valid measure is one that measures what it claims to measure; in other words, the operational definition of a property must overlap with the conceptual definition of that property. A researcher using invalid measures is claiming to measure one thing but is instead measuring something else. An invalid measure here may be something like "score on an IQ test" or "ratings of a person's confidence level." (3) Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement. A reliable measure gives the same kind of results each time it is used. For this answer, consider whether the proposed definition of happiness would necessarily remain constant over time or whether something about that definition would change as the subject repeated the experiment. A researcher using unreliable measures has no basis for knowing that the measurements taken reflect aspects of the property to be measured. 70. The answer should indicate that one hypothesis is that drugs that increase serotonin in the brain should alleviate symptoms of depression. Another hypothesis is that drugs that deplete serotonin levels should exacerbate symptoms of depression.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 71. The answer should indicate that the third-variable problem occurs because two variables may be correlated only because they are both caused by a third variable. The third-variable problem is encountered often in observations of natural correlations. Because of the third-variable problem, two variables being correlated does not necessarily mean that one is causing the other to occur. An example of the third-variable problem involves the correlation between watching violent television programming and childhood aggression. From this correlation alone, we cannot say that watching violent television programming causes aggression. It may be that a third variable—for example, lack of parental supervision—causes both television viewing and aggression. The third-variable problem always exists in correlation studies; no matter how much we control for relevant third variables, another always exists. To avoid the third-variable problem, carefully designed experiments involve manipulation and random assignment. 72. The answer should indicate that humans have the tendency to see what they expect or want to see and usually fail to consider what they cannot see. (1) Expectancies can alter our perceptions. Consider an example where participants watch a video of a young girl reading aloud. If the participants were first told that the girl came from an affluent family, they rated her reading ability higher than if told she came from a family of lower socioeconomic status. (2) Biases can alter our perceptions. For example, when you watch a presidential debate, you rarely note the flubs of your favorite candidate but are quick to point out those of the other candidate. (3) Our beliefs and expectations also affect the sources of information at our disposal. We tend to expose ourselves only to information that is already consistent with our beliefs. For example, conservatives watch conservative cable news networks, and liberals expose themselves to more liberal media. (4) In making decisions, people often fail to consider that the most important piece of information might be the one that is absent. For example, suppose a burglary has been committed. Amateur detectives might focus all of their attention on scouring the crime scene, gathering physical evidence. A trained detective would also consider that which is missing, asking questions such as "Why are there no signs of forced entry?" and "Why didn't the dog bark?" 73. The answer should discuss: (1) Dr. Schulz is obligated to report truthfully on what he did and what he found. He may not fabricate data (by claiming to have performed studies that he didn't perform) or fudge results (by changing data that were actually collected). He may also not mislead by omission. (2) He must share credit fairly by including as co-authors other people who contributed to the work and mentioning other scientists who have done related work. (3) He is obligated to share data with other scientists who want to verify findings through reanalysis of the data. 74. The answer should discuss three of the following concepts: informed consent, freedom from coercion, protection from harm, risk–benefit analysis, deception, debriefing, and confidentiality. (1) Informed consent: a written agreement to participate in a study made by a person who has been informed of all the risks of participation. (2) Freedom from coercion: Researchers cannot force people to participate unwillingly in an experiment. (3) Protection from harm: Psychologists will use the safest methods possible. (4) Risk–benefit analysis: Participants may not be asked to accept large risks. (5) Deception can be used only if adequately justified, no alternative is available, and the act of deception will not increase risk to participants. (6) Debriefing: a verbal description of the true nature and purpose of a study that psychologists provide to people after they have participated in the study. (7) Confidentiality: Private and personal data obtained during a study should be kept confidential.

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 75. The answer should provide the following information: (1) An experiment must include manipulation and random assignment. (2) Manipulation, controlled by the experimenter, involves changing the pattern of variation to which the participants are exposed. Rather than observing natural correlations, the experimenter makes systematic changes in the levels of a property. The property thus manipulated is called an independent variable. For example, an experimenter might expose members of one group (the experimental group) to an aversive noise as they try to complete anagrams and members of the other group (the control group) to silence while they complete the same task. The variation—silence to noise—is controlled, produced, and manipulated by the experimenter. (3) Random assignment means that participants are assigned to either the experimental or control group by chance. This has the effect of reducing the possibility that any third variables "lump up" in either group and thereby offer a compelling alternative explanation for the findings. By making sure, through random assignment, that both groups have roughly the same amount of smart, motivated, dumb, attention-paying, tall, hefty, short, myopic, claustrophobic, sensationseeking, aggressive, retiring, bald, female, male, and so on participants, there's less chance that any of those unwanted attributes can act as a third variable. (4) Both manipulation and random assignment contribute to internal validity. By manipulating the independent variable, the researcher knows that it is the only thing that systematically differs between the groups. By randomly assigning participants to conditions, no other preexisting differences should be able to cause differences in the dependent variable. 76. The answer should provide the following information: (1) for example, defining intelligence in terms of how long someone can hold his or her hand in a bucket of ice, measured precisely with a stopwatch. The key is that the measure might produce similar results each time, but it does not conceptually relate to the construct. (2) For example, defining intelligence in terms of the combined score obtained from rolling 20 dice. Not only is the measure not conceptually related to the construct of intelligence (no validity), but the results will change considerably each time the measurement is taken, thus demonstrating a lack of reliability. 77. A double-blind study is a study in which neither the researcher nor the participant knows how the participants are expected to behave. Double-blind studies are necessary to avoid observer bias, which is the tendency for observers' expectations to influence both what they believe they observed and what they actually observed. 78. The answer should indicate that demand characteristics are aspects of an observational setting that cause people to behave as they think an observer wants or expects them to behave. Examples of how to control demand characteristics: (1) Observe participants in natural environment unobtrusively. If people do not know that they are being observed, they will behave normally. (2) Ensure participant anonymity. (3) Do not reveal the true purpose of the study until after the study has been completed. (4) Measure behavior that is not susceptible to demand characteristics, such as reflexes. (5) Use a double-blind observation or measurement to eliminate the effects of researchers' expectations. 79. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Complexity: The human brain may be the most complex system in the universe. When two chemicals react, we have precise equations that will accurately predict the outcome. Judging from the proliferation of online dating sites, we aren't that good at predicting what will happen when two people meet! (2) Variability: No two people are the same. Just because a psychologist learns something about person A does not necessarily mean that it will be applicable to person B. By comparison, all the atoms of gold on the planet are identical. (3) Reactivity: People behave differently when they know that they are being observed. A chemical reaction will proceed in the same way, regardless of who is watching it!

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Chap 02_5e_TF + Essay 80. The answer should indicate that dogmatists often acquire knowledge from authority and then are reluctant to change their beliefs, even if the evidence does not support them. Dogmatists who believe that drug addiction is caused by a person's free will might consider people who are addicted morally weak and not be swayed by data suggesting genetic predispositions, brain changes associated with drug use, and so on. Empiricists who believe that people who are addicted are morally weak, however, might change their opinion on the issue when confronted with these data. Empiricists base their knowledge on observations of the world and may change their opinions when confronted with new data. 81. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Internal validity is a characteristic of an experiment that allows us to draw accurate inferences about the causal relationship between an independent and a dependent variable. Rules of validity for an internally valid experiment: An independent variable has been effectively manipulated. Participants have been randomly assigned to the control and experimental groups. A dependent variable has been measured in an unbiased way, with a valid and reliable measure. A correlation has been observed between the pattern of variation created in the independent variable and the pattern of variation measured in the dependent variable. (2) If an experiment has been conducted properly (as described above), then we can be confident that the observed changes in the dependent variable were caused by our manipulation of the independent variable. (3) External validity: characteristic of an experiment in which the independent variables are operationally defined in a normal, typical, or realistic way. For example, if we operationally define violent television programming and childhood aggression in realistic ways, then we can feel somewhat confident in generalizing the results of our study to similar children watching similar television shows. 82. The answer should indicate that the participants with cancer are randomly assigned to one of two groups. Participants in one group watch the self-help DVDs every day. Participants in the other group watch a DVD of similar duration but without Hay's message (placebo). The independent variable is the type of DVD watched (selfhelp or placebo). The experiment might last 6 months, and the dependent variable is the number of cases in which the cancer goes into remission. If Hay's claims are correct, participants who receive the self-help DVDs should show a higher rate of remission. 83. The answer should provide the following information: (1) A population is all members of a group who potentially could be measured. All students currently enrolled at your school would be a population. All residents of your city in 1900 would also be a population. All girls who, in January 2008, were between the ages of 13 and 17, had blonde hair, and were taller than 5′ 0 would also be a population. (2) A sample is a smaller group drawn from a larger population. If the sample is randomly drawn from the population, and large enough, it will resemble the population on all variables. Therefore, when they study a random sample, psychologists can generalize their results to the population.

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Chap 03_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The nodes of Ranvier are the: a. spaces in which one neuron receives information from another neuron. b. spaces between sections of myelin on an axon. c. sections of myelin covering the axon. d. "jumping" of the electrical signal. 2. Felippe studies the midbrain. Which of these structures would be of MOST interest to him? a. tegmentum b. pons c. cerebellum d. amygdala 3. In all _____, the central nervous system is organized into a hierarchy. a. protozoa b. vertebrates c. invertebrates d. flatworms 4. The executive office of a company engages in a variety of processes to ensure its survival in a competitive market. The executive office is the metaphorical _____ of the company. a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. terminal branch 5. The movement of an electrical signal from one neuron to the next across the synapse is termed: a. polarization. b. transmission. c. conduction. d. potentiation. 6. Which statement does NOT present a neuromyth? a. We use only 10% of our brain. b. Environments rich in stimuli improve the brains of preschool children. c. Truly impoverished and unnatural environments lead to poorer developmental outcomes. d. Individuals learn better when they receive information in their preferred learning style.

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Chap 03_5e 7. Mirror neurons are active in an animal that: a. performs an action. b. observes an action. c. both performs and observes an action. d. imagines its own actions. 8. Which statement about the cerebral cortex is FALSE? a. It is visible to the naked eye. b. It is divided into two hemispheres. c. It contains the thalamus and hypothalamus. d. It is the outermost layer of the brain. 9. At rest, there is a higher concentration of _____ inside the cell membrane of the neuron and a higher concentration of _____ outside. a. Na+; K+ b. K+; Na+ c. Na+; Ca++ d. Na+; Cl– 10. In the split-brain procedure, the _____ is severed, usually to stop the spread of debilitating seizures. a. frontal cortex b. corpus callosum c. amygdala d. hippocampus 11. The major advantage of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) over fMRI is that TMS: a. does not expose people to radioactive material. b. can determine cause and effect between brain functioning and behavior. c. provides a higher-resolution image of brain structure. d. produces permanent changes in brain functioning. 12. The _____ nervous system connects the central nervous system to the body's organs and muscles. a. peripheral b. somatic c. sympathetic d. parasympathetic

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Chap 03_5e 13. After trauma to the head, Harriet has trouble initiating voluntary movement. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. somatosensory cortex b. primary visual cortex c. motor cortex d. temporal lobe 14. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is mainly involved in processing auditory information? a. temporal b. occipital c. frontal d. parietal 15. Mirror neurons are MOST activated when we: a. watch someone perform a purposeful behavior. b. stare at our reflection. c. recall a grocery list committed to memory. d. trace an object using our nondominant hand. 16. Which technique does NOT use structural imaging? a. electroencephalography b. computerized axial tomography c. magnetic resonance imaging d. diffusion tensor imaging 17. The _____ relays and filters information from the senses and transmits the information to the cerebral cortex. a. thalamus b. pituitary gland c. hippocampus d. basal ganglia 18. The amygdala is located next to the: a. hippocampus. b. thalamus. c. pons. d. tectum.

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Chap 03_5e 19. Which statement is NOT true of the spinal cord? a. The spinal cord is divided into four main sections. b. Damage higher on the spinal cord usually means greater impairment. c. Voluntary movement is initiated in the spinal cord and does not involve the brain. d. The spinal cord is important for breathing and responding to pain. 20. _____ are parts of a cell membrane that receive neurotransmitters and either initiate or prevent a new electrical signal. a. Vesicles b. Receptors c. Neurotransmitters d. Glia 21. Which sequence shows the correct order of the firing of a neuron? a. threshold, resting potential, refractory period, action potential b. resting potential, threshold, action potential, refractory period c. action potential, resting potential, refractory period, threshold d. resting potential, threshold, refractory period, action potential 22. A(n) _____ is a drug that blocks the action of a neurotransmitter. a. depressant b. inhibitor c. agonist d. antagonist 23. The electrical charge inside of the neuron relative to the outside reaches _____ approximately millivolts during an action potential. a. –70 b. 0 c. +40 d. +70 24. One way neurotransmitters can leave the synapse is through breakdown by: a. enzymes. b. receptors. c. glial cells. d. vesicles.

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Chap 03_5e 25. Ronnie consciously decides to move his leg. This movement is accomplished by the _____ subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. autonomic 26. In a CT scan, the cortex appears: a. white. b. dark. c. red. d. gray. 27. L-Dopa works to stimulate the production of dopamine in the body. In this way, the drug acts as a(n): a. agonist. b. antagonist. c. synaptic transmitter. d. reuptake inhibitor. 28. Lesions to particular areas of the _____ may lead to a loss of control over food intake, resulting in either overeating or not eating at all. a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. hippocampus d. amygdala 29. The _____ receive information; the _____ transmit information. a. axons; cell bodies b. axons; dendrites c. dendrites; axons d. dendrites; glia 30. _____ receive information from the external world and convey information through the spinal cord. a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Purkinje cells d. Pyramidal neurons

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Chap 03_5e 31. You're in the state finals for basketball, and the next play will determine who wins the game. Your heart races due to activation of the _____ nervous system. a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. central 32. Which animal's brain has the LARGEST forebrain? a. cat b. rat c. alligator d. rhesus monkey 33. _____ are cells in the nervous system that communicate with one another to perform information-processing tasks. a. Glia b. Oligodendrocytes c. Mitochondria d. Neurons 34. Which animal has the MOST developed cerebral cortex? a. hawk b. rat c. rattlesnake d. frog 35. Which structure is part of the midbrain? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. tectum d. amygdala 36. A technique used to record the electrical activity in the brain is the: a. electroencephalography. b. computerized axial tomography scanning. c. functional magnetic resonance imaging. d. positron emission tomography.

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Chap 03_5e 37. In a lock-and-key analogy of synaptic transmission, the _____ is the lock and the _____ is the key. a. synapse; receptor b. vesicle; autoreceptor c. receptor; neurotransmitter d. neurotransmitter; vesicle 38. When walking home alone late one night, you are startled by a moving shadow that you glimpse out of the corner of your eye. The _____ division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes your body's defenses. When you see that the shadow is just the neighbor's cat, the _____ division begins to lessen your physiological arousal. a. sympathetic; parasympathetic b. peripheral; somatic c. somatic; peripheral d. parasympathetic; sympathetic 39. Phineas Gage, a railroad foreman, suffered damage to a large part of the brain responsible for emotion regulation, planning, and decision making—namely, the _____ lobe. a. temporal b. parietal c. occipital d. frontal 40. Andy is walking down the street when suddenly a car honks its horn. Andy immediately swings his head in the direction of the sound, primarily as a result of the functioning of his: a. medulla. b. tectum. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. 41. The hindbrain does NOT control: a. emotion and motivation. b. respiration. c. blood circulation. d. wakefulness and arousal.

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Chap 03_5e 42. You are walking alone on a dark city street when you hear footsteps approaching you from behind. Which nervous system would be MOST active in your response to this scene? a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. autonomic 43. Shannon wishes to study the regions of the brain that are active while looking at faces of friends on social media. What brain-imaging technique would she MOST likely employ? a. MRI b. DTI c. PET d. fMRI 44. The spaces between sections of myelin on an axon are termed the: a. nodes of Ranvier. b. synaptic gaps. c. terminal buttons. d. receptors. 45. The genes of a child will have the MOST in common with the genes of a(n): a. sibling. b. parent. c. identical twin. d. fraternal twin. 46. The area of the brain that coordinates information coming into and out of the spinal cord is termed the: a. occipital lobe. b. hindbrain. c. cerebral cortex. d. hypothalamus. 47. Which situation is analogous to the firing of a single neuron? a. Smoke triggers the alarm on a smoke detector. b. The pressure of the water stream increases as the faucet handle is turned. c. Greater tension on a rubber band causes a paper ball to be launched with greater velocity. d. Wi-Fi strength depends on how close you are to the modem.

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Chap 03_5e 48. During saltatory conduction, the electrical charge: a. hops across the synapse from one neuron to the next. b. jumps from one node to the next down an axon. c. flows like water through the neuron. d. radiates in pulses from the cell body. 49. After a stroke, Feng had difficulty hearing and understanding what others were saying. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe 50. The electrochemical action of neurons proceeds in two stages, _____ followed by _____. a. polarization; transmission b. conduction; transmission c. transmission; conduction d. conduction; repolarization 51. Women with low estrogen levels resulting in loss of sexual interest have abnormalities in the functioning of the: a. endocrine system. b. basal ganglia. c. cerebral cortex. d. thalamus. 52. _____ has been shown to boost aspects of memory and motor skills by increasing the number of synapses and even promoting the development of new neurons in the hippocampus. a. Reading b. Physical exercise c. Active listening d. Meditation 53. To prevent accidents on the road, truck drivers must maintain vigilance and concentration on the road ahead of them. The activity of _____ underlies this vigilance. a. GABA b. endorphins c. glutamate d. norepinephrine

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Chap 03_5e 54. The basal ganglia send outputs to motor centers in the: a. hypothalamus. b. hippocampus. c. cerebral cortex. d. brainstem. 55. Insulation surrounding pipes carrying hot water can be compared to a(n) _____ surrounding a(n) _____. a. myelin sheath; dendrites b. myelin sheath; axon c. axon; nucleus d. dendrites; nucleus 56. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is involved in understanding language? a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital 57. Which drug would NOT be considered a drug agonist? a. one that mimics a neurotransmitter b. one that blocks the functioning of a neurotransmitter c. one that blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter d. one that stimulates neurotransmitter release 58. Which animal has the MOST developed cerebral cortex? a. cat b. eagle c. newt d. parrot 59. A split-brain patient is shown the word clock only in her left visual field. That patient will be able to: a. state that she just saw the word clock. b. write the word clock with her right hand. c. reach behind a screen with her right hand and choose a clock from a group of distractor objects. d. draw a picture of a clock with her left hand.

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Chap 03_5e 60. Neurotransmitter is to receptor as: a. key is to lock. b. lock is to key. c. glove is to hand. d. account is to password. 61. When walking home, a neighbor's large, aggressive dog gets loose and begins chasing you. You begin running to flee from the dog, scanning for the best possible escape route as you do so. What division of the nervous system is LEAST active during this flight? a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. central 62. Agonist is to antagonist as: a. diminish is to increase. b. mimic is to block. c. interfere is to enhance. d. stimulant is to depressant. 63. One difference in the nervous systems of vertebrates and invertebrates is that: a. invertebrates have a larger cerebral cortex. b. the nervous system of vertebrates has a hierarchical structure. c. invertebrates lack a central nervous system. d. vertebrates lack a spinal column. 64. The _____ is responsible for the most complex aspects of perception, emotion, movement, and thought. a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. cerebral cortex d. cerebellum 65. The _____ is located at the tip of each horn of the hippocampus. a. tegmentum b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. pituitary gland

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Chap 03_5e 66. The _____ of the neuron houses chromosomes. a. synapse b. glial cells c. myelin sheath d. nucleus 67. Humans have _____ pairs of chromosomes. a. 13 b. 16 c. 23 d. 46 68. Ty is the victim of a robbery. During the robbery, it is likely that Ty's _____ stimulates his _____ to remember the details of the robbery. a. basal ganglia; tegmentum b. amygdala; hippocampus c. hippocampus; thalamus d. thalamus; hypothalamus 69. The actor Michael J. Fox suffers from Parkinson's disease, and John Nash, subject of the movie A Beautiful Mind, suffered from schizophrenia. The brains of both men can be expected to have _____ levels of dopamine. a. extremely high b. extremely low c. normal d. abnormal 70. The peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system to the: a. spinal cord. b. pituitary gland. c. body's organs and muscles. d. prefrontal cortex. 71. The _____ of the neuron coordinates the information-processing tasks and keeps the cell alive. a. soma b. dendrites c. myelin sheath d. axon

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Chap 03_5e 72. Which neurotransmitter is MOST closely associated with emotional arousal and associating actions with rewards? a. norepinephrine b. GABA c. dopamine d. acetylcholine 73. When Jasmine was removing cookies from the oven, her fingers accidentally slipped through a hole in her oven mitt, and she touched the hot cookie sheet. She immediately pulled back her hand, a result of activation of: a. the brain. b. the sympathetic nervous system. c. a spinal reflex. d. the somatic nervous system. 74. _____ cells are support cells found in the nervous system. a. Teratogenic b. Mitochondrial c. Glial d. Neural 75. The difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of a neuron's cell membrane is the: a. difference potential. b. refractory period. c. resting potential. d. action potential. 76. PET scans differ from CT and MRI scans in that PET scans: a. produce clearer images of brain structure. b. show which regions of the brain are active as a person performs certain tasks. c. do not involve exposing people to injections of radioactive substances. d. can better identify the presence of a brain tumor. 77. Which brain-imaging technique is commonly used to assess structural damage to the cortex after a stroke? a. DTI b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI

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Chap 03_5e 78. The first neurons appeared in simple invertebrates, such as: a. protozoa. b. flatworms. c. jellyfish. d. lizards. 79. At rest, there is a _____ concentration of _____ ions outside of a neuron relative to the inside. a. high; positively charged sodium b. high; positively charged potassium c. low; positively charged sodium d. high; negatively charged protein 80. When an emotional situation arises, the _____ stimulates the _____ to remember the details surrounding the situation. a. basal ganglia; tegmentum b. amygdala; hippocampus c. hippocampus; thalamus d. thalamus; hypothalamus 81. The electrical charge of a neuron at rest is largely the result of a chemical "pump" that transports _____ from inside to outside the neuron and _____ from outside to inside the neuron. a. potassium; sodium b. protein ions; chloride c. sodium; potassium d. sodium; chloride 82. What part of the neuron coordinates information-processing tasks? a. cell body b. myelin sheath c. axon d. dendrites 83. The _____ is an extension of the spinal cord into the skull that controls respiration, heart rate, and blood circulation. a. cerebellum b. tectum c. reticular formation d. medulla

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Chap 03_5e 84. An informant brings a tip to a police department about suspicious activity at the docks. After detectives meet and process this information, they decide that the best course of action is to send undercover officers to the scene. If the police department were a neural network, the detectives would be functioning as: a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. dendrites. d. interneurons. 85. The genes of a child will have the LEAST in common with the genes of a(n): a. sibling. b. parent. c. grandparent. d. fraternal twin. 86. What was the first organism to have what we consider a true central nervous system? a. octopus b. flatworm c. jellyfish d. protozoa 87. The electrical charge of a neuron at rest is largely the result of a chemical "pump" that pulls _____ from outside to inside the neuron, and _____ from inside to outside the neuron. a. potassium; sodium b. protein ions; sodium c. sodium; potassium d. sodium; chloride 88. _____ stimulate(s) the release of norepinephrine and dopamine, and also blocks their reuptake. a. Amphetamine b. Opioids c. L-Dopa d. Acetylcholine 89. Side effects of opioids include all of these EXCEPT: a. depressed breathing. b. addiction. c. death. d. increased heart rate.

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Chap 03_5e 90. The _____ contains structures that orient you toward or away from pleasurable or threatening stimuli in the environment. a. cerebellum b. pons c. midbrain d. medulla 91. Which film analogy BEST describes epigenetics? a. two different movies based on different scripts by the same writer b. a single movie based on the works of multiple screenwriters c. two different movies based on a common script d. a movie sequel starring the same actors 92. A neuron that sends information is a(n) _____ neuron; a neuron that receives information is a _____ neuron. a. postsynaptic; presynaptic b. presynaptic; postsynaptic c. a priori; post hoc d. sensory; motor 93. The idea that genes express themselves within an environment is a central component of: a. mirror neurons. b. epigenetics. c. heritability. d. brain evolution. 94. The nervous system of _____ has a _____ structure. a. invertebrates; linear b. vertebrates; linear c. vertebrates; hierarchal d. invertebrates; hierarchal 95. Jellyfish have a neural system that includes: a. sensory neurons for touch. b. collections of neurons in the head. c. sensory neurons for vision and taste. d. a pair of tracts emerging from the head that form a spinal cord.

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Chap 03_5e 96. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn LARGEST? a. knee b. toes c. arm d. tongue 97. Which brain structure functions as a relay station between the cerebellum and other brain structures? a. medulla b. cerebral cortex c. reticular formation d. pons 98. _____ are strands of DNA wound around another in a double-helix configuration. a. Chromosomes b. Genes c. mRNAs d. Bipolar cells 99. Motor neurons carry signals from the: a. sense organs to the spinal cord. b. sense organs to the muscles. c. spinal cord to the brain. d. spinal cord to the muscles. 100. Amphetamine does all of these EXCEPT: a. stimulates the release of dopamine. b. blocks reuptake of dopamine. c. stimulates the release of norepinephrine. d. blocks the uptake of GABA. 101. Serotonin influences all of these EXCEPT: a. aggression. b. eating. c. motor behavior. d. wakefulness.

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Chap 03_5e 102. Which of these is/are the sexually reproductive gland(s) in men? a. testosterone glands b. penis c. pineal gland d. testes 103. The name of which hindbrain structure is Latin for "little brain"? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebellum d. reticular formation 104. We would expect Jesus's mirror neurons to be MOST activated when he: a. observes songbirds at a feeder. b. imagines himself as a superhero from his favorite movie. c. watches a classmate take notes. d. writes an essay about his favorite topic in psychology. 105. Marco has been experiencing blurry vision, and his physician suggests he may have damaged his occipital cortex. Which technique would BEST discover structural damage in Marco's occipital cortex? a. EEG b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI 106. The major unit of hereditary transmission is the: a. gene. b. DNA. c. chromosome. d. sperm cell. 107. Which structure(s) is/are involved in directing intentional movement? a. basal ganglia b. medulla c. pituitary gland d. hypothalamus

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Chap 03_5e 108. _____ help integrate information processed in various areas of the cortex to produce meaningful understanding. a. Commissures b. Primary areas c. Overlapping regions d. Association areas 109. Danny closes his bike lock and soon after realizes that he does not have the key for the lock. He finds a paperclip, which he uses to pick the lock. The paperclip is functioning in a manner similar to the _____ functions of a drug _____. a. mimicking; antagonist b. mimicking; agonist c. blocking; agonist d. blocking; antagonist 110. After the action potential reaches its maximum membrane potential, all of these occur EXCEPT: a. sodium channels become inactive. b. potassium channels open. c. potassium ions rush out of the neuron. d. sodium channels open. 111. How are brain size and intelligence related? a. Brain size is unrelated to intelligence. b. There is a negative correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. c. There is a positive correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. d. Brain size and academic success are positively correlated. 112. The activation of _____ allows a person who touches a hot object to immediately withdraw their hand. a. the brain b. the somatic nervous system c. spinal reflexes d. the parasympathetic nervous system 113. Alek lost his right hand in an industrial accident. Many years later, he still feels the sensation of having a right hand when his: a. left hand is stroked. b. right wrist is poked forcibly. c. right elbow and foot are simultaneously stimulated. d. right cheek and right upper arm are simultaneously stimulated.

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Chap 03_5e 114. _____ are small electrically charged particles that flow into and out of a neuron to create an electrical signal. a. Ions b. Dendrites c. Conductors d. Neurotransmitters 115. A copper wire is to rubber insulation as a(n) _____ is to a(n) _____. a. axon; myelin sheath b. cell body; myelin sheath c. nucleus; glial cell d. myelin sheath; axon 116. The subcortical structure critical for the creation of new memories is the: a. thalamus. b. cerebral cortex. c. hypothalamus. d. hippocampus. 117. Jerry is studying a nervous system that is organized into a hierarchy. Which organism is he MOST likely studying? a. protozoa b. jellyfish c. flatworms d. frog 118. Which of these are the sexually reproductive glands in females? a. estrogen glands b. ovaries c. oxytocin glands d. testes 119. Which of these is NOT an advantage of fMRI over PET technology? a. fMRI does not require any exposure to a radioactive substance. b. fMRI is more useful for analyzing processes that happen extremely quickly. c. Researchers can design fMRI studies to more closely resemble the ones they would carry out in a psychology laboratory than they could with the limitations of PET technology. d. Only fMRI technology enables researchers to localize changes in the brain very accurately.

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Chap 03_5e 120. Adults who suffer damage to their hippocampus will be MOST likely to have problems remembering: a. how to drive a car. b. what to do when the traffic light turns red. c. the meaning of words on a traffic sign. d. where they drove yesterday. 121. The _____ is located _____ the thalamus and regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and sexual behavior. a. pituitary gland; above b. hippocampus; below c. hypothalamus; above d. hypothalamus; below 122. The LARGEST commissure connecting the two hemispheres of the brain is the: a. corpus callosum. b. association area. c. limbic system. d. reticular formation. 123. What is the approximate electrical charge of a neuron at rest? a. 70 mv b. 40 mv c. –40 mv d. –70 mv 124. During times of stress, the pituitary gland secretes the hormone: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. oxytocin. d. ACTH. 125. Ben has a series of X-ray photographs taken from around his head at different angles. A computer program then combines these images into one picture of the brain. Ben has just received a(n) _____ scan. a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI

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Chap 03_5e 126. In the synapse, _____ break down neurotransmitters. a. ions b. enzymes c. autoreceptors d. vesicles 127. When we hear a bold claim, we should ask all of these questions EXCEPT: a. What is the evidence for this claim? b. Is there a study or studies that support the claim? c. Has this finding been replicated? d. Does this fit with my preconceived ideas about the topic? 128. Which sequence CORRECTLY orders the terms from least to most complex? a. chromosome, gene, DNA b. gene, DNA, chromosome c. chromosome, DNA, gene d. gene, chromosome, DNA 129. Which brain-imaging technique is commonly used to detect tumors? a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. fMRI 130. Which of these is NOT part of the pain withdrawal reflex? a. interneuron b. sensory neuron c. hindbrain d. motor neuron 131. The knoblike structures that branch out from an axon are called: a. hormones. b. neurotransmitters. c. terminal buttons. d. synapses.

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Chap 03_5e 132. Which statement about Alzheimer's disease is NOT true? a. Hippocampal volume might be a reliable early indication of Alzheimer's disease in women. b. Hippocampal volume declines faster in women with Alzheimer's disease than men. c. Alzheimer's disease affects more women than men. d. It is not possible to create sex-specific treatments for Alzheimer's disease. 133. The motor cortex is located in the _____ lobe, directly _____ the somatosensory cortex. a. frontal; behind b. frontal; in front of c. parietal; behind d. parietal; in front of 134. Which activity is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? a. constricting pupils b. inhibiting digestive activity c. stimulating secretion of epinephrine d. suppressing response to pain 135. Which hindbrain structure is involved in balancing oneself while riding a bicycle? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebellum d. reticular formation 136. Pups who are raised by "low-grooming" mothers: a. are more fearful as adults when placed in stressful situations. b. are more fearful in stressful situations as adults only if they are the genetic offspring of the mother. c. are less fearful as adults when placed in stressful situations. d. are less fearful in stressful situations as adults only if they are the genetic offspring of the mother. 137. The _____ the damage to the spinal cord, the _____ the prognosis for sensation and movement throughout the body. a. higher; better b. higher; worse c. lower; worse d. more complete; better

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Chap 03_5e 138. A sharpshooter in a combat zone is monitoring a busy street for his enemy target. He will have only one chance to take out his target; thus, he is scanning the street with extreme vigilance. The activity of which neurotransmitter is underlying his alertness? a. GABA b. endorphins c. dopamine d. norepinephrine 139. _____ connect other neurons in circuits. a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Interneurons d. pyramidal neurons 140. Mary lives with her identical twin Carrie, her older brother Larry, her parents Harry and Teri, and her grandfather Jerry. The percentage of genes shared by Mary and Teri is the same as those shared by: a. Carrie and Jerry. b. Mary and Carrie. c. Mary and Jerry. d. Harry and Jerry. 141. Structures in the _____ orient one toward or away from pleasurable or life-threatening environmental stimuli. a. hindbrain b. midbrain c. forebrain d. cerebellum 142. Each neuron has only one: a. axon. b. dendrite. c. terminal button. d. synapse. 143. Which drug would NOT be considered a drug antagonist? a. one that blocks the production of a neurotransmitter b. one that blocks the release of a neurotransmitter c. one that blocks the reuptake of a neurotransmitter d. one that causes depletion of neurotransmitters in vesicles

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Chap 03_5e 144. Lynn suffers from frequent seizures, and doctors suspect that they might be occurring because of unusually high levels of which neurotransmitter? a. glutamate b. endorphins c. dopamine d. GABA 145. Some areas of the brain control basic life functions such as regulation of breathing and heart rate. For this reason, you may not survive damage to your: a. limbic system. b. hindbrain. c. cerebral cortex. d. corpus callosum. 146. _____ and _____ are functional neuroimaging techniques. a. CT; PET b. PET; MRI c. PET; fMRI d. CT; fMRI 147. Which situation would activate the amygdala to the GREATEST extent? a. painting your fingernails b. remembering the names of all the U.S. presidents c. saying goodbye to friends and family before a long-distance move d. feeling tired as you finish a workout 148. Which activity is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? a. dilating pupils b. stimulating digestive activity c. inhibiting bowel movements d. suppressing response to pain 149. In the age-old debate between the influences of nature versus nurture on human behavior, the general consensus is that: a. behavior is almost exclusively the result of genetic factors (nature). b. behavior is almost exclusively the result of environmental factors (nurture). c. behavior is almost exclusively the result of genetic factors (epigenetics). d. both nature and nurture are important determinants of human behavior.

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Chap 03_5e 150. Which activity is NOT a function of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. constricting pupils b. slowing heart rate c. diverting blood flow away from the digestive system d. decreasing activity in the sweat glands 151. _____ is the primary neurotransmitter involved in voluntary motor control. a. Glutamate b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine 152. Vesicle is to neurotransmitter as: a. marble is to countertop. b. light is to classroom. c. backpack is to school supplies. d. car is to stop sign. 153. Which activity is NOT a function of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. slowing respiration b. directing blood flow to the digestive system c. increasing activity in sweat glands d. constricting pupils 154. A split-brain patient is shown the word lockbox, with lock in the left visual field and box in the right visual field. The patient is then asked to draw a picture of the word that she just saw using only her left hand. She will draw a picture of a: a. box with a lock on it. b. box. c. lock. d. key. 155. _____ has been used to show that activity in some parts of the brain is greater during retrieval of accurate compared to inaccurate memories. a. MRI b. fMRI c. CT d. DTI

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Chap 03_5e 156. _____ is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain. a. Glutamate b. GABA c. Serotonin d. Dopamine 157. The word amygdala is Latin for: a. seahorse. b. almond. c. little brain. d. banana. 158. Viktor sustained injuries to the back of his head after an especially rough tackle during a recent football game. After the game, he had difficulty with balance and coordinated movements and experienced problems with walking and riding a bike. Which brain structure was probably damaged? a. corpus callosum b. cerebellum c. pituitary gland d. hypothalamus 159. The likelihood of a monozygotic twin of a person with schizophrenia also having schizophrenia is about: a. 12%. b. 27%. c. 50%. d. 96%. 160. Thomas studies the actions of the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. Which of these would be of MOST interest to him? a. glutamate b. GABA c. serotonin d. dopamine 161. _____ is a functional neuroimaging technique in which a harmless radioactive substance is injected into the bloodstream and then absorbed by brain regions as they require blood flow. a. Electroencephalography b. Computerized axial tomography c. Positron emission tomography d. Functional magnetic resonance imaging

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Chap 03_5e 162. The flow of information within a neuron is _____, whereas the flow of information between neurons is _____. a. mechanical; electrical b. chemical; electrical c. electrical; chemical d. direct current; alternating current 163. The medulla does NOT control: a. heart rate. b. circulation. c. fine motor skills. d. respiration. 164. When is the charge inside a neuron at +40 millivolts? a. at the threshold of excitation b. during the refractory period c. during the resting potential d. during the action potential 165. _____ act(s) as the body's natural painkiller. a. GABA b. Endorphins c. Glutamate d. Morphine 166. The chemical messages released by the endocrine system into the bloodstream are termed: a. neurotransmitters. b. hormones. c. antigens. d. endorphins. 167. The gap between one neuron's axon and a dendrite or cell body of another neuron is the: a. soma. b. synapse. c. myelin. d. glia.

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Chap 03_5e 168. When Sandra was a young child, her right hand was amputated following an accident. Now, as an adult, the somatosensory area originally associated with that hand: a. is associated with the ring finger on her left hand. b. responds to stimulation from the right side of her face. c. is withered due to nonuse. d. causes Sandra to relive the painful accident when it is stimulated. 169. The name of which hindbrain structure is Latin for "bridge"? a. pons b. medulla c. cerebellum d. reticular formation 170. Dopamine is associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. drug addiction. b. pleasure seeking. c. Parkinson's disease. d. Alzheimer's disease. 171. Mirror neurons have been identified in the _____ lobes. a. frontal and temporal b. frontal and parietal c. parietal and temporal d. parietal and occipital 172. Which brain-imaging technique is commonly used to visualize white matter pathways that connect one brain area to another? a. CT b. PET c. MRI d. DTI 173. What are the two specialized extensions of the neuron that allow it to communicate? a. axons and synapses b. dendrites and axons c. dendrites and cell bodies d. axons and myelin

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Chap 03_5e 174. Olfactory receptor neurons in the nose that detect chemical odorants are examples of: a. motor neurons. b. sensory neurons. c. interneurons. d. Purkinje neurons. 175. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex contains areas that interpret the meaning of visual stimuli? a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital 176. The patterns of electrical activity in the brain are identified through the use of: a. electroencephalographs. b. computerized axial tomography scan. c. functional magnetic resonance imaging. d. positron emission tomography. 177. The _____ is/are a set of subcortical structures that direct intentional movement. a. basal ganglia b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. hypothalamus 178. Loss of feeling in the limbs, partial blindness, and difficulty with coordinated movement may indicate a(n) _____ disease such as _____. a. atherosclerotic; epilepsy b. demyelinating; Alzheimer's c. atherosclerotic; Parkinson's d. demyelinating; multiple sclerosis 179. The movement of an electrical signal within a neuron is termed: a. polarization. b. transmission. c. conduction. d. potentiation.

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Chap 03_5e 180. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn SMALLEST? a. hand b. mouth c. genitals d. foot 181. What is the nature of the relationship between brain size and intelligence? a. Brain size is unrelated to intelligence. b. Brain size and fluid intelligence are negatively correlated. c. There is a small, but significant, positive correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. d. There is a large positive correlation between brain size and fluid intelligence. 182. A drug that enhances _____ would be MOST useful in treating seizures. a. GABA b. endorphins c. serotonin d. glutamate 183. When a patient has multiple sclerosis, he or she cannot easily transmit information from neuron to neuron, which leads to difficulties with movement. The transmission of neurons is slowed down as a result of a deteriorating: a. axon. b. synapse. c. myelin sheath. d. cell body. 184. Information registered in the right hemisphere can pass across the _____ and be registered virtually instantaneously in the left hemisphere. a. corpus callosum b. gyrus major c. sulcus major d. reticular formation 185. In what part of the cerebral cortex is the occipital lobe located? a. right side b. left side c. front d. back

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Chap 03_5e 186. Neurotransmitters floating in the synapse may bind to _____ on the postsynaptic neuron. a. vesicles b. receptors c. autoreceptors d. cell bodies 187. The endocrine system is orchestrated by the _____, which release(s) hormones that direct the functions of many other bodily glands. a. hippocampus b. pituitary gland c. adrenal glands d. thalamus 188. At rest, there is a _____ concentration of _____ ions inside of a neuron relative to the outside. a. high; positively charged sodium b. high; positively charged potassium c. similar; positively charged potassium d. low; negatively charged protein 189. Which structure is NOT part of the hindbrain? a. cerebellum b. medulla c. reticular formation d. amygdala 190. Samantha works at a communications firm. Her job is to receive outside information that is pertinent to the firm. Samantha is the metaphorical _____ of the firm. a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. nucleus 191. The amygdala plays a central role in: a. regulating hunger and thirst. b. logic and decision making. c. emotions and emotional memories. d. initiating movement.

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Chap 03_5e 192. Which statement about action potentials is FALSE? a. Action potentials are all or none. b. Electrical stimulation of the dendrites does not always trigger action potentials. c. Activation must exceed a threshold before an action potential will occur. d. The intensity of the stimulus creates a more intense action potential. 193. The endings of _____ in our eyes are sensitive to light. a. interneurons b. motor neurons c. sensory neurons d. pyramidal cells 194. fMRI scans measure _____ in the brain. a. oxygenated hemoglobin b. electrical activity c. radioactive glucose d. tissue density 195. Abby's mirror neurons are MOST activated when she: a. watches a celebrity chef cook a difficult recipe on television. b. watches her neighbor perform jumping jacks in his driveway. c. needs to recall what is in her refrigerator while at the grocery store. d. writes a paragraph about a particularly emotional time in her life. 196. Tanner is part of a relay team. He receives information from one teammate and passes it on to another teammate. Tanner is a metaphorical ___ of his team. a. axon b. nucleus c. myelin sheath d. glial cell 197. High levels of _____ in some brain pathways have been linked to schizophrenia. a. endorphins b. acetylcholine c. dopamine d. norepinephrine

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Chap 03_5e 198. What subdivision of the autonomic nervous system is MOST associated with returning the body to a normal resting state? a. central nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. somatic nervous system 199. The _____ nervous system is LEAST active when you are running a marathon. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. somatic d. central 200. The small space between the terminal button of one neuron and a dendrite of a second neuron is called a(n): a. node of Ranvier. b. synaptic gap. c. autoreceptor. d. receptor site. 201. _____ carry signals from the spinal cord to the muscles. a. Interneurons b. Motor neurons c. Sensory neurons d. Purkinje neurons 202. What subdivision of the autonomic nervous system would be MOST associated with the phrase "fight or flight"? a. central nervous system b. parasympathetic nervous system c. sympathetic nervous system d. somatic nervous system 203. The "bags" of neurotransmitters within an axon ready to be released are called: a. vesicles. b. neurotransmitters. c. terminal buttons. d. synapses.

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Chap 03_5e 204. The hindbrain does NOT control: a. respiration. b. verbal reasoning. c. alertness. d. motor skills. 205. The _____ is a brain structure that plays a role in the regulation of wakefulness, arousal, and sleep. a. cerebellum b. tectum c. reticular formation d. corpus callosum 206. A split-brain patient is shown the word lockbox, with lock in the left visual field and box in the right visual field. The patient is then asked to name the word she saw. She will respond that she saw: a. lockbox. b. boxlock. c. lock. d. box. 207. Who is MOST likely to have overdeveloped association areas in the somatosensory cortex corresponding to the thumb and forefinger? a. a football player b. a professional singer c. a quilter d. a taxi driver 208. Which hindbrain structure is involved in correct finger placement when learning how to hold a pencil? a. thalamus b. hypothalamus c. cerebellum d. tegmentum 209. Presynaptic is to postsynaptic as: a. chemical is to electrical. b. electrical is to chemical. c. sodium is to potassium. d. sending is to receiving.

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Chap 03_5e 210. The _____, or "master gland," is controlled by the _____. a. pituitary gland; hypothalamus b. thyroid gland; pituitary gland c. adrenal gland; pituitary gland d. hypothalamus; pituitary gland 211. Which film analogy BEST describes epigenetics? a. two different productions of Shakespeare's Hamlet b. the Harry Potter movies based on the books c. two different Tom Hanks movies in which he plays similar characters d. two classic movies directed by Alfred Hitchcock that share similar themes 212. The _____ lobe processes information about touch. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal 213. _____ are chemicals that transport information across the synapse to a receiving neuron's dendrites. a. Vesicles b. Axons c. Neurotransmitters d. Glia 214. Genes are sections on a strand of: a. neural tubes. b. DNA. c. chromosomes. d. sperm cells. 215. The _____ is a simple pathway in the nervous system that rapidly generates muscle contractions. a. parasympathetic nervous system b. interneuron c. spinal reflex d. autonomic nervous system

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Chap 03_5e 216. The end of an axon contains many _____, which are filled with _____ for transmitting messages to the neuron on the other side of the synapse. a. transporters; neurotransmitters b. vesicles; receptors c. neurotransmitters; vesicles d. vesicles; neurotransmitters 217. Who is MOST likely to have overdeveloped areas in the hippocampus that are used during spatial navigation? a. a concert pianist b. a soccer player c. a stay at home mom d. a taxi driver 218. During the refractory period, a chemical "pump" moves: a. myelin down the nodes of Ranvier. b. sodium out of the cell. c. potassium out of the cell. d. negatively charged protein ions out of the cell. 219. After sustaining a hard tackle, a football player has sudden paralysis in his right arm and right leg. What is your BEST guess about where a brain injury occurred? a. right hemisphere b. left hemisphere c. cerebellum d. medulla 220. _____ detect how much of a neurotransmitter has been released into the synapse and signal the neuron to stop releasing the neurotransmitter if an excess is present. a. Reuptake inhibitors b. Vesicles c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Autoreceptors 221. Abdullah is interested in discovering the areas of the brain that are active while someone is recognizing a face. What brain-imaging technique would he MOST likely employ? a. MRI b. DTI c. PET d. fMRI Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 222. The reticular formation does NOT regulate: a. hunger. b. wakefulness. c. arousal. d. sleep. 223. Which structure is the MOST complex? a. chromosome b. gene c. methyl group d. DNA 224. A medical artist is drawing a homunculus with body-part size in relation to the size devoted to it in the somatosensory cortex. Which body part should be drawn SMALLEST? a. thumb b. tongue c. toes d. lips 225. The _____ is a network of glands that produce hormones and release them into the bloodstream. a. basal ganglia b. striatum c. endocrine system d. limbic system 226. A split-brain patient is shown the word pen only in her right visual field. That patient will be able to: a. state that she just saw the word pen. b. write the word pen with her left hand. c. reach behind a screen with her left hand and choose a pen from a group of distractor objects. d. draw a picture of a pen with her left hand. 227. Association areas in the temporal lobe: a. register the occurrence of a sound. b. detect the location where a sound originated. c. give a sound meaning. d. detect the pitch but not the loudness of a sound.

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Chap 03_5e 228. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of the cerebral cortex? a. necessary for survival b. outermost layer of the brain c. divided into two hemispheres d. visible to the naked eye 229. _____ have highly developed areas in the _____ for finger control. a. Baseball players; motor cortex b. Concert pianists; somatosensory cortex c. Typists; temporal lobe d. Guitar players; primary auditory cortex 230. Shreya is studying flatworms. What nervous system part will she NOT be able to find? a. neurons in the head b. a pair of tracts that form a spinal cord c. hierarchical organization of the central nervous system d. sensory and motor neurons 231. Which major subdivision of the peripheral nervous system controls the involuntary functioning of blood vessels, body organs, and glands? a. central nervous system b. autonomic nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. sympathetic nervous system 232. Adults who suffer damage to their hippocampus will be MOST likely to have problems remembering: a. what they ate for dinner last night. b. how to drive a car. c. the last sentence in the conversation they are currently having. d. how to solve basic arithmetic problems. 233. A(n) _____ is a drug that increases the action of a neurotransmitter. a. mimicker b. protagonist c. agonist d. antagonist

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Chap 03_5e 234. _____ twins develop from two separate fertilized eggs and share _____ of their genes. a. Monozygotic; 100% b. Monozygotic; 50% c. Dizygotic; 100% d. Dizygotic; 50% 235. In epigenetics, the environment influences gene expression: a. without changing the underlying DNA sequences that constitute the genes themselves. b. by changing the underlying DNA sequences that constitute the genes themselves. c. by decoupling chromosomal pairs. d. by changing the underlying DNA sequences on only one chromosomal pair. 236. Research demonstrates that MOST instances of phantom limb syndrome arise from: a. suggestibility by therapists. b. attention from friends and family. c. brain plasticity. d. hemispheric specialization. 237. Chung is studying drugs that act as agonists for endorphins. Which of these is he MOST likely to work with? a. L-dopa b. amphetamines c. opioids d. norepinephrine 238. Malik is unable to move his arm when he detects a hot temperature on his skin. Which type of neuron is probably affected? a. sensory neurons b. motor neurons c. interneurons d. bipolar neurons 239. _____, a treatment for Parkinson's disease, is an agonist for the neurotransmitter _____. a. L-Dopa; dopamine b. L-Dopa; serotonin c. Choline; acetylcholine d. Guanine; endorphin

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Chap 03_5e 240. The synapse is the junction between the: a. axon and the myelin sheath. b. cell body and the axon. c. cell body of one neuron and the dendrites of another. d. axon of one neuron and the dendrites of another. 241. Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system do humans use to perceive, think, and coordinate their behavior? a. central nervous system b. autonomic nervous system c. somatic nervous system d. parasympathetic nervous system 242. The hypothalamus does NOT regulate: a. body temperature. b. sexual behavior. c. fine motor movements. d. hunger and thirst. 243. The area of research that studies how the environment influences gene expression is termed: a. evolutionary psychology. b. epigenetics. c. heritability. d. genetics. 244. Which type of neuron receives information from the external world and conveys this information to the brain? a. sensory neuron b. motor neuron c. interneuron d. Purkinje neuron 245. Its name derived from the Greek word for "tree," the _____ of a neuron is so called because of its appearance, with several branching processes. a. synapse b. axon c. myelin d. dendrite

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Chap 03_5e 246. The _____ receives sensory information from the ears. a. somatosensory cortex b. parietal lobe c. primary auditory cortex d. occipital lobe 247. The functions of which lobe of the cerebral cortex truly set humans apart from other animals? a. occipital b. frontal c. parietal d. temporal 248. Which structures occur MOST often in the human brain? a. synapses b. neurons c. axons d. glia cells 249. The myelin sheath is an insulating layer of fatty material composed of: a. Purkinje cells. b. vesicles. c. soma. d. glial cells. 250. Pups who are reared by "high-grooming" mothers: a. are more fearful as adults when placed in stressful situations. b. are more fearful in stressful situations as adults only if they are the genetic offspring of the mother. c. are less fearful as adults when placed in stressful situations. d. are less fearful in stressful situations as adults only if they are the genetic offspring of the mother. 251. General anesthetics induce unconsciousness by reducing neural activity in the: a. reticular formation. b. medulla. c. cerebellum. d. tectum.

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Chap 03_5e 252. The iron rod that was driven through the head of Phineas Gage went through the: a. occipital lobes. b. cerebellum. c. pons. d. frontal lobes. 253. The insulating layer of fatty material that covers the axon of many neurons is called the: a. axon sheath. b. myelin sheath. c. glial cover. d. glial insulator. 254. Following a stroke, Abby experienced blindness. Where did the stroke MOST likely occur? a. occipital lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. frontal lobe 255. Diego studies structures within the hindbrain. He studies all of these structures EXCEPT the: a. cerebellum. b. basal ganglia. c. reticular formation. d. pons. 256. Children share a quarter of their genes with each of their: a. cousins. b. parents. c. siblings. d. grandparents. 257. The process by which a neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by the terminal button of the presynaptic neuron is termed: a. reuptake. b. reconstitution. c. deactivation. d. diffusion.

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Chap 03_5e 258. After a stroke, Harold had difficulty interpreting the meaning of visual stimuli and recognizing common objects, such as tables and chairs. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe 259. Why can the thalamus be compared with a network computer server? a. It encodes, stores, and retrieves information. b. It is involved in computing calculations required to solve mathematical problems. c. It receives input from a variety of sources and relays this information to a variety of locations. d. It is critical for the creation of new memories. 260. The myelin covering an axon serves: a. as a special immune defense for the neuron. b. to increase the transmission efficiency of the neuron. c. as a resistor that slows the transmission speed of the neuron. d. no functional purpose. 261. The neurotransmitter that enables muscle action, regulates attention, and acts in learning is called: a. GABA. b. acetylcholine. c. dopamine. d. norepinephrine. 262. The likelihood of a dizygotic twin of a person with schizophrenia also having schizophrenia is about: a. 12%. b. 27%. c. 50%. d. 96%. 263. The tectum and tegmentum are _____ structures. a. limbic b. hindbrain c. midbrain d. forebrain

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Chap 03_5e 264. The majority of the neurons in the nervous system are: a. sensory neurons. b. motor neurons. c. interneurons. d. bipolar neurons. 265. The _____ lobe, which processes visual information, is located at the back of the cerebral cortex. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal 266. Low levels of both _____ and _____ have been implicated as contributory factors in mood disorders. a. norepinephrine; acetylcholine b. endorphins; serotonin c. GABA; serotonin d. norepinephrine; serotonin 267. After his accident, Phineas Gage did NOT suffer from impairments in: a. emotion regulation. b. planning. c. decision making. d. language comprehension. 268. When Darcy's dog barks, Darcy's head immediately swivels in his direction. This action is primarily a result of the functioning of her: a. medulla. b. tectum. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. 269. Someone with damage to the hippocampus may: a. move jerkily. b. not be able to form new memories. c. not exhibit emotion. d. not be able to regulate his or her body temperature.

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Chap 03_5e 270. Which structure(s) is/are part of the central nervous system? a. sensory neurons in the fingertips that detect pressure b. the spinal cord c. motor neurons that connect to the bicep d. the heart 271. At rest, the cell membrane of a neuron can BEST be conceptualized as a: a. traffic signal. b. wire. c. dam. d. telephone. 272. Based on split-brain studies, which statement is NOT true? a. Both hemispheres of the brain perform the same function. b. The hemispheres do not work together after the corpus callosum is severed. c. The two hemispheres of the brain perform different functions. d. Information remains in the hemisphere it entered if the corpus callosum is severed. 273. The communication chemicals that actually cross the synaptic gap between axons and dendrites are: a. hormones. b. neurotransmitters. c. interneurons. d. glial cells. 274. Glial cells do all of these EXCEPT: a. digesting parts of dead neurons. b. providing physical support to neurons. c. forming myelin. d. transporting neurotransmitters across the synapse. 275. Reaching for your coffee cup is accomplished by the _____ subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. a. somatic b. sympathetic c. parasympathetic d. spinal cord

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Chap 03_5e 276. _____ twins develop from the splitting of a single fertilized egg and share _____ of their genes. a. Monozygotic; 100% b. Monozygotic; 50% c. Dizygotic; 100% d. Dizygotic; 50% 277. The two main sections of the forebrain are the: a. cerebral cortex and the subcortical structures. b. cerebral cortex and the cerebellum. c. pons and the subcortical structures. d. cerebral cortex and the neocortex. 278. The stress response involves all of these EXCEPT the: a. pancreas. b. pituitary gland. c. adrenal glands. d. hypothalamus. 279. Safa is looking in a microscope to find neurotransmitters in a neuron that is at resting potential. She is likely to find them: a. in the synapse. b. inside vesicles. c. attached to receptor. d. attached to autoreceptors. 280. The thalamus does NOT receive information from: a. sight. b. sound. c. smell. d. touch. 281. Which basic function does the endocrine system NOT affect? a. metabolism b. growth c. reward learning d. sexual development

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Chap 03_5e 282. In lower vertebrate species, the forebrain: a. does not exist. b. consists only of small clusters of neurons. c. consists of multiple areas that serve a broad range of higher mental functions. d. is similar to the forebrain of monkeys and cats. 283. The somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex has more area devoted to processing: a. larger areas of the body, like the trunk. b. smaller areas of the body, like the toes. c. more sensitive areas of the body, like the mouth. d. more muscular areas of the body, like the legs. 284. Mariana is measuring the change in voltage as the neurons send signals. She notices the voltmeter is not showing a charge of 0 millivolts when the neurons are at rest. What value is the voltmeter MOST likely to display when the cells are not firing? a. –70 millivolts b. 40 millivolts c. 0 millivolts d. 70 millivolts 285. Researchers are beginning to use transcranial magnetic stimulation to: a. identify specific genes related to depression. b. treat depression through magnetic therapy. c. manipulate brain functioning by essentially turning localized areas off and on. d. pinpoint where in the brain memories are stored. 286. The _____ is/are referred to as the "master gland(s)." a. hypothalamus b. thyroid gland c. adrenal glands d. pituitary gland 287. Daniel suffers from Parkinson's disease. Daniel likely has low _____ compared to individuals that do not have Parkinson's disease. a. glutamate b. acetylcholine c. serotonin d. dopamine

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Chap 03_5e 288. The _____ is the time following an action potential during which a new action potential CANNOT be initiated. a. regenerative period b. recovery period c. refractory period d. resting potential 289. After trauma to the head, Juan had difficulty interacting socially with others and planning ahead. In what area of the cerebral cortex do you suspect damage? a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. frontal lobe d. temporal lobe 290. Debbie works as a floor representative at a cellular phone company. Her job is to receive information from potential customers about their needs and interests and enter it into a computer system that passes the information on to the appropriate specialized technician to meet customer needs. The computer system is the metaphorical _____ of the firm. a. axon b. cell body c. dendrite d. nucleus 291. In a neuron, what happens when an action potential reaches the axon terminals of the neuron? a. Since neurons touch one another, the action potential simply travels to an adjoining neuron. b. The action potential stimulates the release of chemical messengers. c. The impulse changes direction, heading back to the cell body. d. An electrical spark forms, which may jump to other neurons. 292. Agonist drugs that increase production of dopamine in the brain have been effective at treating: a. Parkinson's disease. b. mood disorders. c. addiction. d. pain.

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Chap 03_5e 293. While Neil attends an exciting and competitive football game, his heart races and he sweats due to nervousness triggered by the _____ division of his autonomic nervous system. After the game, Neil's bodily arousal slowly returns to a resting state due to the _____ division of his autonomic nervous system. a. sympathetic; parasympathetic b. peripheral; somatic c. somatic; peripheral d. parasympathetic; sympathetic 294. Which technique uses structural imaging? a. electroencephalography b. computerized axial tomography c. functional magnetic resonance imaging d. positron emission tomography 295. Vesicles are analogous to: a. dams. b. gates. c. messengers. d. bags. 296. An electrical signal that is conducted along the length of a neuron's axon to a synapse is called a(n) _____ potential. a. electrostatic b. resting c. action d. equilibrium 297. Scott suffered a concussion during his last rugby match. Following the concussion, Scott suffered from partial blindness, even though his eyes were not physically damaged. Which lobe was MOST likely affected by the concussion? a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal 298. The motor cortex is to the somatosensory cortex as: a. sending is to receiving. b. perception is to sensation. c. left brain is to right brain. d. memory of facts is to memory of emotional events. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 299. Alzheimer's disease is associated with deterioration of _____-producing neurons. a. GABA b. serotonin c. dopamine d. acetylcholine 300. Parkinson's disease damages dopamine production in the _____, which affects functioning in the _____. a. pituitary gland; pons b. midbrain; basal ganglia c. pituitary gland; midbrain d. basal ganglia; midbrain

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Chap 03_5e Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. b 51. a 52. b 53. d 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. a 59. d 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. b 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. c 68. b 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. c 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 83. d 84. d 85. c 86. b 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. a 96. d 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. d 101. c 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. c 106. a 107. a 108. d 109. b 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 111. c 112. c 113. d 114. a 115. a 116. d 117. d 118. b 119. d 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. d 128. b 129. a 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. b 134. a 135. c 136. a 137. b

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Chap 03_5e 138. d 139. c 140. d 141. b 142. a 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. b 149. d 150. c 151. d 152. c 153. c 154. c 155. b 156. a 157. b 158. b 159. c 160. b 161. c 162. c 163. c 164. d 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 166. b 167. b 168. b 169. a 170. d 171. b 172. d 173. b 174. b 175. b 176. a 177. a 178. d 179. c 180. d 181. c 182. a 183. c 184. a 185. d 186. b 187. b 188. b 189. d 190. c 191. c 192. d 193. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 194. a 195. a 196. a 197. c 198. b 199. b 200. b 201. b 202. c 203. a 204. b 205. c 206. d 207. c 208. c 209. d 210. a 211. a 212. d 213. c 214. b 215. c 216. d 217. d 218. b 219. b 220. d 221. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 222. a 223. a 224. c 225. c 226. a 227. c 228. a 229. b 230. c 231. b 232. a 233. c 234. d 235. a 236. c 237. c 238. b 239. a 240. d 241. c 242. c 243. b 244. a 245. d 246. c 247. b 248. a

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Chap 03_5e 249. d 250. c 251. a 252. d 253. b 254. a 255. b 256. d 257. a 258. d 259. c 260. b 261. b 262. b 263. c 264. c 265. b 266. d 267. d 268. b 269. b 270. b 271. c 272. a 273. b 274. d 275. a 276. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e 277. a 278. a 279. b 280. c 281. c 282. b 283. c 284. a 285. c 286. d 287. d 288. c 289. c 290. a 291. b 292. a 293. a 294. b 295. d 296. c 297. a 298. a 299. d 300. b

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action in challenging or threatening situations. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 2. (Scenario 3.3) Amphetamines function as _____ for _____. a. agonists; dopamine and GABA b. agonists; norepinephrine and dopamine c. antagonists; dopamine and glutamate d. antagonists; norepinephrine and serotonin 3. The amygdala is involved in attaching emotional significance to events. a. True b. False 4. The pain withdrawal reflex occurs without any input from the brain. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay Scenario 3.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Caspi, A., Sugden, K., Moffitt, T. E., Taylor, A., Craig, I. W., Harrington, H., McClay, J., Mill, J., Martin, J., Braithwaite, A., & Poulton, R. (2003). Influence of life stress on depression: Moderation by a polymorphism in the 5-HTT gene. Science, 301(5631), 386–389. The serotonin transporter gene codes for the serotonin transporter, a protein that transports serotonin from the synapse to the presynaptic neuron. Several polymorphisms of the gene exist, including a "short" (s) and a "long" (l) variation. Because humans receive one copy of the gene from each parent, people can be grouped into three groups based on this genetic variation: s/s (i.e., two copies of the short gene), s/l, or l/l. Caspi et al. (2003) interviewed participants in each of these groups and asked them a wide range of questions to determine both the degree of exposure to stress and the number of depressive episodes participants had experienced in their lives. Fabricated results consistent with their major findings are shown in Figure 3.1. Figure 3.1

5. (Scenario 3.1) The function of the serotonin transporter protein is to: a. inhibit the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. b. make possible the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. c. facilitate the release of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron. d. impede the release of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 13. (Scenario 3.3) Cocaine floods the synapse with dopamine by blocking its reuptake. Cocaine functions as a(n) _____ on the dopamine system. a. direct agonist b. indirect agonist c. direct antagonist d. indirect antagonist 14. The corpus callosum enables communication between the left and right brain hemispheres. a. True b. False 15. Damage to the temporal lobe can result in partial or complete blindness without any damage to the eyes. a. True b. False 16. The cerebellum coordinates heartbeat, blood circulation, and respiration. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.2 to answer the following question(s). In pioneering research by Sperry and colleagues, split-brain patients were asked to stare at a dot on a screen centered between their eyes while words naming common objects were projected onto the screen either in their left or right visual fields. Subsequently, patients were asked to reach behind a screen with either their left or right hands and identify the object from among other common objects by touch alone. 17. (Scenario 3.2) Based in part on this research, it can be concluded that language processing is: a. largely a right brain hemisphere activity. b. largely a left brain hemisphere activity. c. an activity that requires constant communication between brain hemispheres. d. assigned to the right or left brain hemisphere depending on the content of the information. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 18. The hippocampus is critical for the formation of new memories. a. True b. False 19. If you lose a finger in an accident, the area in the somatosensory cortex corresponding to that finger will become nonfunctional. a. True b. False 20. Neurotransmitters will remain in the synapse until they bind to a receptor on a postsynaptic neuron. a. True b. False 21. L-dopa acts as an antagonist for dopamine. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.2 to answer the following question(s). In pioneering research by Sperry and colleagues, split-brain patients were asked to stare at a dot on a screen centered between their eyes while words naming common objects were projected onto the screen either in their left or right visual fields. Subsequently, patients were asked to reach behind a screen with either their left or right hands and identify the object from among other common objects by touch alone. 22. (Scenario 3.2) A split brain is the result of: a. severing connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system. b. ablating portions of the prefrontal cortex. c. severing the corpus callosum. d. ablating portions of the reticular formation. 23. The resting potential of a neuron is approximately –70 millivolts. a. True b. False 24. fMRI can measure brain activity across briefer periods than can PET. a. True b. False 25. Dendrites are parts of the neuron that receive information from other neurons. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 26. Thinking, planning, and anticipating are activities associated with the frontal lobe. a. True b. False 27. Of the three major types of neurons, the majority of the neurons in the nervous system are interneurons. a. True b. False 28. The spinal cord is the major component of the peripheral nervous system. a. True b. False 29. Interneurons carry signals from the spinal cord to the muscles to activate movement. a. True b. False

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30. (Scenario 3.1) The serotonin transporter protein essentially _____ serotonin. a. recycles b. releases c. synthesizes d. metabolizes 31. fMRI scans can be used to determine cause and effect between brain activity and behavior. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 32. Low levels of dopamine have been linked to schizophrenia. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 33. (Scenario 3.3) Opiate prescription painkillers exert their pain-killing and euphoric effects by binding to the muopioid receptor and functioning similarly to the brain's endogenous endorphins. Opiate prescription painkillers function as: a. direct agonists. b. indirect agonists. c. direct antagonists. d. indirect antagonists.

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34. (Scenario 3.1) Under conditions of low stress: a. persons in the s/s group were more likely than those in the other two groups to experience a depressive episode. b. persons in the l/l group seem to have been protected from experiencing a depressive episode relative to the other groups. c. none of the groups experienced depressive episodes. d. depressive episodes were unrelated to genetic group.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 35. An excess of glutamate activity can cause seizures. a. True b. False 36. A split-brain patient can verbalize a description of something in the right field of vision but cannot point to the object with the left hand. a. True b. False 37. Genes are comprised of chromosomes. a. True b. False 38. One of the functions of the sympathetic nervous system is to increase sensitivity to pain. a. True b. False

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39. (Scenario 3.1) Variation in the serotonin transporter gene was not predictive of depression: a. when life stress was low. b. in people with two copies of the same variation. c. when life stress was high. d. if only the s/s and s/l groups are considered. 40. Dizygotic twins result when a single fertilized egg splits into two. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 41. Amphetamines stimulate the release of norepinephrine and dopamine. a. True b. False 42. One of the functions of the sympathetic nervous system is to dilate the pupils. a. True b. False

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43. (Scenario 3.1) A gene is a segment of _____ that codes for traits. a. chromosome b. neurotransmitter c. DNA d. histone protein 44. Lesions to some areas of the hypothalamus result in overeating. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 45. During the refractory period, ion pumps move sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell. a. True b. False 46. The activation of mirror neurons is vital in allowing us to learn how to imitate the subtle muscle movements of a complex motor skill. a. True b. False 47. During an action potential, potassium gates open, allowing potassium to rush into the cell. a. True b. False 48. The body of the neuron cell containing its nucleus is termed the axon. a. True b. False 49. Dopamine is involved in associating actions with rewards. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.2 to answer the following question(s). In pioneering research by Sperry and colleagues, split-brain patients were asked to stare at a dot on a screen centered between their eyes while words naming common objects were projected onto the screen either in their left or right visual fields. Subsequently, patients were asked to reach behind a screen with either their left or right hands and identify the object from among other common objects by touch alone. 50. (Scenario 3.2) The split-brain surgical procedure effectively prevents communication between the: a. frontal lobe and the limbic system. b. striatum and the cerebellum. c. primary visual cortex and the somatosensory cortex. d. left and right brain hemispheres. 51. The thalamus regulates hunger, thirst, and sexual behavior. a. True b. False

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 3.2 to answer the following question(s). In pioneering research by Sperry and colleagues, split-brain patients were asked to stare at a dot on a screen centered between their eyes while words naming common objects were projected onto the screen either in their left or right visual fields. Subsequently, patients were asked to reach behind a screen with either their left or right hands and identify the object from among other common objects by touch alone. 52. (Scenario 3.2) The split-brain surgical procedure is almost always performed to reduce: a. seizure activity among patients with epilepsy. b. brain swelling after traumatic injury. c. delusions and hallucinations among people with paranoid schizophrenia. d. the spread of cancerous brain tumors. 53. The activity of the pituitary gland is directed by the thalamus. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 54. (Scenario 3.3) Naloxone is used for the treatment of opiate overdoses because it quickly travels to the muopioid receptor, occupies it, and thus blocks opiate drugs such as heroin from binding to the receptor and exerting effects. Naloxone functions as an opiate: a. direct agonist. b. indirect agonist. c. direct antagonist. d. indirect antagonist.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 55. (Scenario 3.3) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of medication used in the treatment of depression. From their name, one can determine that they are _____ that _____ serotonin levels in the synapse. a. direct agonists; block b. indirect agonists; enhance c. direct antagonists; block d. indirect antagonists; enhance 56. EEGs are commonly used to study differences in brain activity during various stages of sleep. a. True b. False

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57. (Scenario 3.1) An individual has two copies of the small variation of the serotonin transporter gene and has been exposed to a high degree of stress over the course of her lifetime. Based on the results shown in the scenario, one could: a. accurately predict that the person probably has experienced an episode of major depression at least once in her life. b. accurately predict that the person is currently depressed. c. justify prescribing antidepressant drugs to the individual. d. conclude that the person carries a risk factor for depression.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 58. Fraternal twins, parents and their children, and siblings share the same degree of relatedness. a. True b. False 59. Jenkins rapidly swivels his head to the sound of a car backfiring down the street, a behavior made possible by his tectum. a. True b. False 60. PET scans and fMRI scans both measure brain function. a. True b. False 61. The first central nervous system appeared in flatworms. a. True b. False

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62. (Scenario 3.1) Which statement is NOT true about the relationship between genetic variation and depression under conditions of high stress? a. Persons in the s/s group were more likely than were those in the other two groups to experience a depressive episode. b. Persons in the l/l group seem to have been protected from experiencing a depressive episode relative to the other groups. c. The vulnerability for depression increased with increases in life stress for all groups. d. A gene × environment interaction was observed.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 63. Multiple sclerosis is associated with the deterioration of the myelin sheath covering the axon. a. True b. False 64. One of the functions of the parasympathetic nervous system is to increase heart rate and respiration. a. True b. False 65. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) uses a magnetic pulse to temporarily "shut off" selected brain regions. a. True b. False 66. Alzheimer's disease is associated with a deterioration of serotonin-producing neurons. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 67. (Scenario 3.3) Ingested as a drug, L-dopa spurs dopaminergic neurons to make more dopamine. L-dopa is thus a(n) _____ agonist on the dopamine system and is commonly prescribed to treat _____. a. direct; schizophrenia b. indirect; schizophrenia c. direct; Parkinson's disease d. indirect; Parkinson's disease

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 3.2 to answer the following question(s). In pioneering research by Sperry and colleagues, split-brain patients were asked to stare at a dot on a screen centered between their eyes while words naming common objects were projected onto the screen either in their left or right visual fields. Subsequently, patients were asked to reach behind a screen with either their left or right hands and identify the object from among other common objects by touch alone. 68. (Scenario 3.2) Using the procedure described in the scenario, split-brain patients are simultaneously shown the word key in the left visual field and the word chain in the right visual field. They are then asked what word was projected onto the screen. Patients will respond that they saw the word: a. key. b. chain. c. key chain. d. chain key. 69. After his corpus callosum was severed to treat a seizure disorder, Phineas Gage experienced a progressive decline in personality and emotional stability. a. True b. False Use Scenario 3.3 to answer the following question(s). Drugs of abuse exert their psychoactive effects by altering neurotransmission in the brain. Broadly speaking, drugs can be classified as either agonists or antagonists on a specific neurotransmitter system. Agonists increase and antagonists decrease the activity of a neurotransmitter system. Drugs can be further classified as either direct or indirect agonists or antagonists. Direct agonists mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and exerting a similar effect. Indirect agonists can enhance the activity of a neurotransmitter system in various ways; for example, by causing an increase in neurotransmitter production. Direct antagonists decrease the effects of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor site and blocking it. Indirect antagonists decrease the functions of a neurotransmitter system in other ways; for example, by increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse. 70. (Scenario 3.3) Increasing the rate of enzymatic deactivation in the synapse: a. increases the amount of neurotransmitter available to bind to its postsynaptic receptor. b. decreases the amount of neurotransmitter available to bind to its postsynaptic receptor. c. blocks postsynaptic receptor sites, thereby decreasing neurotransmission. d. blocks the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron into the synapse.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 71. Discuss the likely impairments associated with damage to the (1) spinal cord, (2) hindbrain, (3) hippocampus, and (4) forebrain.

72. Describe the movement of ions across the neuron wall during an action potential. How does this affect the electrical charge of the neuron?

73. The areas of the cerebral cortex are called lobes. Describe the relative position and major functions of each lobe.

74. Describe the role of norepinephrine and serotonin in the regulation of mood and arousal.

75. Name three areas of the hindbrain and describe the function of each.

76. How does early life stress impact adulthood? Provide evidence from research in rats and humans.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 77. Explain the difference between a drug agonist and antagonist. Describe and give examples of three ways that drugs can function as agonists.

78. Describe the three major types of neurons.

79. When walking home alone late one night, you are startled by a moving shadow that you glimpse out of the corner of your eye. Which division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes your body's defenses? What does it do? Later, when you see that the shadow is just the neighbor's cat, what division of the autonomic nervous system is acting, and how does it lessen your physiological arousal? How do these autonomic divisions differ from the other main division, the somatic?

80. Tell the story of Phineas Gage. How does this story contribute to psychology?

81. Describe three processes by which neurotransmitters leave the synapse.

82. One of your friends casually mentions that she believes the brain is fixed from birth. Refute your friend's theory with evidence.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 83. Describe how research with split-brain patients has advanced our understanding of the differences in processing between the right and left hemispheres of the brain.

84. Several electrical and imaging techniques are now used to compare behavior to the functioning of specific areas of the brain. Describe four of these techniques and suggest the types of research questions they may answer.

85. Draw and label the main parts of a neuron. Describe the function of each part.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. d 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 55. b 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Spinal cord: motor impairments, including paralysis, to those areas of the body below the injury. (2) Hindbrain: Damage to the medulla may result in death because it controls basic survival functions such as heartbeat and breathing. Damage to the reticular formation may produce an irreversible coma. Damage to the cerebellum may severely impair coordinated movement. (3) Hippocampus: impairments in memory formation resulting in amnesia. (4) Forebrain: deficits in emotion regulation, planning, and decision making. 72. The answer should include the following: (1) At resting potential (approximately –70 mV), there is a high concentration of positively charged potassium and larger negatively charged anions inside the cell. There is a large concentration of positively charged sodium and negatively charged chloride ions outside the cell. (2) When the threshold of excitation is reached, sodium channels open and sodium rushes into the cell. The potential of the cell increases to about 40 mV. (3) Sodium channels become inactive and potassium channels open. Potassium rushes out of the neuron, returning the charge of the cell membrane to negative. (4) There is a slight overshoot of the resting potential, and the imbalance in ions is reversed by a pump that moves sodium outside of the axon and potassium inside the axon. (5) The cell returns to its resting potential of approximately –70 mV and can now generate another action potential.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 73. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Frontal lobe: above forehead to top of skull; planning, decision making, motor control. (2) Temporal lobe: areas above ears; auditory processing and language. (3) Parietal lobe: back half of top of skull; sensory processing. (4) Occipital lobe: back of head; visual processing. 74. The answer should indicate that norepinephrine is involved in vigilance, or situations requiring a heightened awareness of danger or concentration. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of sleep and arousal, as well as in the expression of aggressive behavior. Low levels of both neurotransmitters have been linked to mood disorders. 75. The answer should include three of the following: (1) The medulla coordinates heart rate, circulation, and respiration. (2) The pons relays information from the cerebellum to the rest of the brain. (3) The cerebellum controls fine motor skills. (4) The reticular formation regulates sleep, wakefulness, and arousal. 76. Early life stress has long-lasting epigenetic effects in both rats and humans. For example, rats reared by "highgrooming" mothers are much less fearful as adults when placed in stressful situations compared to rats reared by "low-grooming" mothers. This is true whether the rat pups are the offspring of the mothers or not, suggesting that the environmental effects of grooming play a larger role in adult behavior than genetics do. Nurturing by the highgrooming mothers triggered epigenetic changes that reduce the expression of genes mediating stress hormones, which leads to an ability to respond more calmly to stress. Similarly, studies in humans have shown a role for epigenetics in the persistent effects of childhood abuse in adult men. Psychologists have increasingly recognized the importance of epigenetics for psychological disorders in which early life stress is a risk factor, such as depression, schizophrenia, and posttraumatic stress disorder. 77. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Agonists are drugs that increase the actions of a neurotransmitter. Antagonists are drugs that block the functions of a neurotransmitter. (2) An agonist may be structurally similar to a neurotransmitter and mimic its effects. An example is morphine, which mimics the effects of endorphins. An agonist also might cause the release of a neurotransmitter; amphetamine causes the release of norepinephrine and dopamine into the synapse. (3) Agonists also may block the reuptake of the neurotransmitter. As a result, neurotransmitter levels in the synapse increase. For example, amphetamine blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. 78. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The three types of neurons are: sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons. Sensory neurons register sensory information and send it to interneurons in the spinal cord. Interneurons connect sensory neurons to other sensory neurons and motor neurons. Motor neurons initiate muscle contractions. 79. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Sympathetic: Pupils dilate, bronchi relax, digestion is inhibited, epinephrine secretion increases, and heartbeat accelerates and heightens arousal. (2) Parasympathetic: Heartbeat decelerates, pupils narrow, and bronchi tighten to calming levels. (3) The autonomic system regulates activity in the internal organs and glands, whereas the somatic involves voluntary movements of skeletal muscles. 80. Phineas Gage was a railroad worker who had an accident that caused an iron rod to go through his head at high speed. The rod entered his lower left jaw and exited through the top of his head. Gage survived the accident, but his personality underwent a dramatic change. Before the accident, Gage was mild-mannered, quiet, conscientious, and hard-working. Afterward, he became irritable, irresponsible, indecisive, and prone to profanity. This case study was the first that allowed researchers to investigate the hypothesis that the frontal lobe is involved in emotion regulation, planning, and decision making. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 81. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Neurotransmitters may be reabsorbed back into the terminal buttons of the presynaptic neuron, a process termed reuptake. (2) Neurotransmitters may be broken down by enzymes in the synapse. (3) Autoreceptors on the presynaptic neuron monitor synaptic neurotransmitter levels and may signal the neuron to stop releasing the neurotransmitter. 82. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Plasticity is the ability of the brain to adapt to inputs. (2) Evidence from people suffering from phantom limb sensations shows that stimulating areas of the face and upper arm activates an area in the somatosensory cortex that previously would have been activated by a now-missing hand. (2) The continued input from the fingers of concert pianists commands a larger area of representation in the areas for finger control in the brain. (3) There is greater plasticity within the motor cortex of musicians compared to nonmusicians. (4) Quilters have highly developed brain areas for the thumb and forefinger. (5) Taxi drivers have overdeveloped brain areas of the hippocampus that are used for spatial navigation. (6) Research using rats and other nonhuman animals shows exercise can boost memory and motor skills while also increasing the number of synapses and even new neurons in the hippocampus. 83. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Language processing is located in the left hemisphere. (2) The brain hemispheres each control the functions of the opposite side of the body. The left hemisphere processes information from the right side of the body. (3) A band of fibers (corpus callosum) connects the two hemispheres in normal brains. (4) The left and right hemispheres are in constant communication via the corpus callosum. If this is severed, the two hemispheres process information independently. This generally does not cause problems, as long as both hemispheres receive the same information. However, a person would not be able to name an object shown only to the left visual field because language is processed in the left hemisphere and only the right hemisphere received the information. If the object were shown only in the right visual field, the person could name the object but could not reach behind a screen with her left hand and correctly choose the object from a number of objects. This is because the right hemisphere, which controls the left hand, never received the information. 84. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Electroencephalogram (EEG): time-linked patterns of electrical patterns across the active brain; useful in studies of sleeping and waking. (2) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI): pictures of areas of high blood oxygen flow; captures differences in brain use during tasks. For example, what areas on the brain are active when you tell a lie? (3) Positron emission tomography (PET): generates a picture of brain function by measuring the differential absorption of a harmless radioactive material in brain regions. The research questions must involve questions regarding chronic brain functioning (e.g., Does a depressed person have lower activity levels in the frontal lobe?), or the behavioral task under investigation must be sustained for a period of time because PET does not have the power to detect brain processes that change quickly. (4) Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS): delivers a magnetic pulse that passes through the skull and that can temporarily deactivate neurons in the cerebral cortex. The ability to switch on and off cortical regions allows for the determination of cause and effect between brain function and behavior.

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Chap 03_5e_TF + Essay 85. The answer should include the following: (1) The cell body or soma is the part of a neuron that coordinates information-processing tasks and keeps the cell alive. (2) Dendrites receive information from other neurons and relay it to the cell body. (3) The axon is the part of a neuron that carries information to other neurons, muscles, or glands. (4) The myelin sheath is an insulating layer of fatty material around the axon of a neuron. The myelin sheath is composed of glial cells. (5) Neurons typically end in terminal buttons, which are knoblike structures that branch out from the axon. (6) At the end of the axon is a synapse, or area between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites or cell body of another neuron.

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Chap 04_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In a painting of a field of wildflowers, Ayah noticed that the flowers in the foreground were clearly delineated, while the flowers that appeared further away were not. The painting provided a depth cue called: a. interposition. b. linear perspective. c. relative size. d. texture gradient. 2. _____ measures an individual's perceptual sensitivity while also taking noise, expectations, motivation, and goals into account. a. Weber's law b. Signal detection theory c. Just noticeable difference d. Absolute threshold 3. The length of a light wave determines its: a. brightness. b. saturation, or richness of color. c. hue, or color. d. acuity. 4. Olfaction and gustation: a. sense physical changes in or on the body. b. sense light waves outside of the visual spectrum. c. sense extremely small changes in air pressure. d. respond to the molecular structure of substances. 5. People with congenital insensitivity to pain: a. are more likely to live longer than are people with pain perception. b. have impaired A-delta fibers but not C fibers. c. often harm themselves unintentionally. d. value touched objects more so than do people with pain perception. 6. Change blindness is a result of: a. retinal disparity. b. a lack of focused attention. c. illusory conjunctions. d. damage to area VI.

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Chap 04_5e 7. Olivia is walking across a parking lot when she sees something to her left. Thanks to her ventral stream of visual perception, Olivia recognizes that the object is: a. a car. b. to her left. c. moving at a high speed. d. moving in her direction. 8. The loudness of a sound is measured in: a. nanometers. b. decibels. c. newtons. d. hertz. 9. Even new drivers perceive the intersection of two streets as such, rather than the place where four streets meet, illustrating the perceptual grouping rule of: a. similarity. b. common fate. c. continuity. d. closure. 10. The process of converting physical signals from the environment into neural signals sent to the central nervous system is called: a. transduction. b. perception. c. sensation. d. synesthesia. 11. The blind spot is so called because it: a. has cones but no rods. b. has rods but no cones. c. has neither rods nor cones. d. is the area of greatest visual acuity. 12. As you read a piece of paper, your brain gives meaning to the lines and curves on the page. This activity of your brain represents: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction.

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Chap 04_5e 13. When a cool breeze enters the room, thermoreceptors in the skin respond. This represents the process of: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. 14. In 2014, Axl Rose was voted the greatest rock vocalist ever, in part due to his unique raspy voice that is impossible to truly duplicate. Many people find Axl's vocals interesting due to these variations in sound, which are related to the _____ of his vocals. a. loudness b. pitch c. purity d. complexity 15. The _____ is a fluid-filled tube that transduces sound vibrations into neural impulses. a. cochlea b. basilar membrane c. pinna d. oval window 16. Tastant molecules dissolve in saliva and stimulate the _____ at the tips of taste receptor cells. a. microvilli b. taste pores c. papillae d. nerve fibers 17. As you look across a field of corn, you notice that you can see details on the ears of corn that are closest to you, but the corn that is growing farther away appears smoother and more uniform. This example illustrates the depth cue of: a. interposition. b. relative size. c. relative height. d. a texture gradient. 18. Sound causes _____ in the basilar membrane. a. conductive hearing loss b. side to side movement c. up and down movement d. apparent motion

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Chap 04_5e 19. Odorant is to ORN as: a. computer is to password. b. olfactory nerve is to glomerulus. c. key is to lock. d. smell is to memory. 20. Light waves corresponding to colors in the visual spectrum are typically measured in terms of: a. millimeters. b. micrometers. c. nanometers. d. picometers. 21. In localizing the sources of sounds, we rely _____ difference of sounds in our two ears. a. exclusively on the intensity b. exclusively on the timing c. exclusively on the timbre d. on both the intensity and the timing 22. The teacher's desk at the front of the room partially obscures the chalkboard on the wall behind it when students sit at the back of the classroom. Students perceive the desk to be in front of the chalkboard due to the depth cue called: a. interposition. b. relative size. c. linear perspective. d. relative height. 23. Jose's mother walks into the kitchen where he is baking cookies and casually mentions how good the kitchen smells. Due to sensory adaptation: a. she can discriminate up to a trillion odors. b. this smell triggers an immediate positive reaction. c. the smell will fade after she is in the kitchen a few minutes. d. the smell will function as a pheromone. 24. Perception takes place at the level of: a. the brain. b. the spinal cord. c. the sensory neurons. d. specific sensory organs such as the eyes.

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Chap 04_5e 25. The dorsal visual stream is to the ventral visual stream as: a. who is to what. b. what is to who. c. where is to what. d. what is to where. 26. The bending of the _____ generates action potentials in the auditory nerve axons that travel to the brain. a. eardrum b. inner hair cells c. ossicles d. semicircular canals 27. Hair cells fire in time with an incoming sound wave, providing a _____ that allows the brain to perceive pitch by the firing rate of action potentials entering the auditory nerve. a. signal detection theory b. temporal code c. threshold theory d. place code 28. When you read, the written words and the illustrations are perceived as _____; the white of the page itself is perceived as _____. a. near; far b. shape-based; size-based c. images; context d. figures; ground 29. The primary colors of light are: a. red, green, and blue. b. red, blue, and yellow. c. white, black, and red. d. infrared and ultraviolet. 30. Meg orders food at the counter of her favourite fast food restaurant. The employee who takes her order steps aside and another employee then takes Meg's money. Although the two employees look somewhat different, Meg perceives that the same person took both her order and her money. This failure to perceive BEST illustrates _____ blindness. a. change b. inattentional c. visual d. feature Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 31. On a ferry ride from Key West to the Florida mainland, Jason starts to feel motion sick. This is likely a mismatch between: a. visual cues and muscular cues. b. muscular cues and vestibular information. c. vestibular and olfactory cues. d. visual cues and vestibular information. 32. The hole in the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye is termed the: a. fovea. b. blind spot. c. iris. d. optic tract. 33. Benjamin is missing S-cones and, as a result, perceives _____ differently from those who do have S-cones. a. tree trunks b. grass c. bananas d. blueberries 34. The successively flashing lights of a Las Vegas casino produce a perceptual response similar to that of: a. ambiguous edges. b. the Ames room. c. an animated movie. d. seeing green after staring at a patch of red. 35. Which of these would NOT cause sensorineural hearing loss? a. damage to the hair cells b. damage to the ossicles c. genetic disorders d. accumulated damage from sound exposure 36. One reason our lips and fingertips are so sensitive is that they: a. are used much more often than other areas of the body. b. contain a relatively sparse arrangement of touch receptors. c. are connected directly to the receptors in the spinal cord. d. have a large area of representation in the somatosensory cortex.

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Chap 04_5e 37. Most sounds you encounter in real life are: a. simple. b. pure tone. c. complex. d. low frequency. 38. Illusory conjunctions become more common when participants: a. have difficulty paying full attention. b. are completely attending to the task. c. have a liberal decision-making strategy. d. are shown an ambiguous figure and ground. 39. The olfactory bulb is located in the: a. olfactory epithelium. b. brain above the nasal cavity and below the frontal lobes. c. frontal lobes of the brain above the nasal cavity. d. olfactory cortex. 40. We obtain depth information through the difference in the retinal images of the two eyes, which is known as: a. interposition. b. binocular disparity. c. relative height. d. texture gradient. 41. After her fourth ride on the Super Fast Super Spinny Rollercoaster, Shania felt dizzy. What is responsible for her feelings of dizziness? a. the movement of the fluid in Shania's semicircular canals b. Shania's visual system failing to interact with the environment c. the changing air pressure against Shania's eardrums as she spins around d. the movement of Shania's cerebrospinal fluid 42. The brain region that identifies where pain is occurring is the: a. motor cortex. b. somatosensory cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. hypothalamus.

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Chap 04_5e 43. _____ is/are required to bind together the individual features of a stimulus. a. Perceptual constancy b. Attention c. A liberal decision-making strategy d. An unambiguous figure and ground 44. We experience a louder sound as the _____ of a sound wave increases. a. amplitude b. complexity c. repetition rate d. frequency 45. Having two ears MOST helps us to: a. determine timbre. b. perceive loudness. c. determine if a tone is pure or complex. d. locate the source of sounds. 46. Mihil goes to an abstract art exhibit titled "Explorations of Red." After staring intensely at a piece of art, he shifts his gaze to a white wall and momentarily perceives the color: a. red. b. green. c. orange. d. pink. 47. The depth cue of _____ suggests that parallel lines appear to converge when they are distant. a. texture gradient b. interposition c. linear perspective d. retinal disparity 48. When the three primary colors of light are projected onto the same surface, that surface will reflect the color: a. black. b. white. c. yellow. d. blue.

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Chap 04_5e 49. A pilot looks down out of a jet and spots a tiny island in the middle of the vast blue sea. From the perspective of the pilot, what is the figure and what is the (back)ground? a. The island is the figure, and the sea is the ground. b. The sea is the figure, and the island is the ground. c. The island and sea represent a reversible figure–ground relationship. d. The sea is the figure, and the sky is the ground. 50. In addition to taste sensations, _____ contributes to our perception of flavor. a. olfaction b. haptic perception c. bottom-up processing d. audition 51. Staring at a blue spot for several minutes will result in the: a. sensory adaptation of L-cones. b. sensory adaptation of S-cones. c. inactivation of M-cones. d. a change in the image's position relative to the blind spot. 52. Sharon studied an image that could be interpreted in two possible ways. Based on the Gestalt perceptual grouping rule of _____, it can be assumed that her visual system will select the most likely interpretation. a. closure b. continuity c. proximity d. simplicity 53. Which sense involves transducing chemicals dispersed in air? a. vision b. hearing c. smell d. touch 54. Three-dimensional movies are based on which depth cue? a. apparent motion b. binocular disparity c. motion parallax d. optic flow

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Chap 04_5e 55. Feedback from sensory receptors in the legs is primarily responsible for a competitive runner's: a. decision as to when is the best time to begin running faster. b. ability to maintain her balance while running. c. ability to hold a constant gaze while in motion. d. ability to become more efficient with her stride with practice. 56. Principles first recognized by Gestalt psychologists indicating that the brain imposes order on incoming stimuli are called: a. object recognition theories. b. depth perception cues. c. perceptual constancies. d. perceptual grouping rules. 57. In one experiment, Dikembe measures how responsive participants are to faint sounds using _____. In a second experiment, he will measure acuity using _____. a. absolute thresholds; just noticeable differences b. just noticeable differences; Weber's law c. absolute thresholds; sensory adaptation d. Weber's law; absolute thresholds 58. Referred pain is caused by: a. stimulation of two adjacent areas on the skin resulting in activation of the same nerve cells in the spinal cord. b. an activation of the "what" but not "where" pathway in the somatosensory cortex. c. a convergence of sensory information from internal and external sources on the same nerve cells in the spinal cord. d. stimulation of two adjacent areas in the somatosensory cortex. 59. In some instances, damage to sensory areas of the brain interferes with the interpretation of information coming from the senses. Even though the senses are intact, perceptual ability is compromised, indicating that: a. sensation occurs in the brain. b. sensation occurs at the same time as perception. c. sensation and perception are different but related processes. d. the eyes will not sense if cortical areas in the occipital lobe are damaged.

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Chap 04_5e 60. As illustrated by the Ames room illusion, if you perceive that two objects (A and B) are an equal distance from you, yet object A casts a larger image on your retina, you will conclude that object A is _____ object B. a. larger than b. smaller than c. farther away than d. the same size as 61. Using fMRI, researchers have shown that a subregion in the _____ lobe MOST strongly responds to faces compared with almost any other object. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal 62. An advantage of performing cochlear implant surgery on infants rather than older children is that children implanted at younger ages: a. have better spoken language performance. b. have more resistance to surgery-induced infection. c. learn sign language more readily. d. are more vulnerable to language disorders. 63. The perceptual system adapts to: a. constant levels of stimulation faster than it does to variable levels of stimulation. b. changing levels of stimulation faster than it does to constant levels of stimulation. c. unpredictable levels of stimulation faster than it does to predictable levels of stimulation. d. rare occurrences of stimulation faster than it does to frequent occurrences of stimulation. 64. Adella asks her smart speaker to turn down the volume. The speaker says that it will turn the volume down, but Adella doesn't notice a decrease in volume. The speaker's decrease in volume was not enough to meet the: a. absolute threshold. b. minimal threshold. c. just noticeable difference. d. sensory adaptation.

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Chap 04_5e 65. The process by which the lens changes shape to produce a clear image on the retina is called: a. visual acuity. b. accommodation. c. light adaptation. d. phototransduction. 66. You look up into the sky and see a single flock of birds flying south for the winter. That you perceive a single moving object illustrates the principle of: a. closure. b. similarity. c. common fate. d. continuity. 67. Cochlear base is to cochlear tip as: a. a simple tone is to a complex tone. b. a loud noise is to a soft noise. c. high frequency is to low frequency. d. temporal code is to place code. 68. Abed is participating in a study on illusory conjunctions. What is true of his performance on the experimental task? a. Illusory conjunctions will be the result of Abed guessing. b. Illusory conjunctions will occur with a frequency similar to other types of errors. c. When Abed is distracted, more illusory conjunctions will occur. d. When Abed is able to pay full attention, more illusory conjunctions will occur. 69. _____ are photoreceptors that allow us to see in very low light. a. Bipolar cells b. Retinal ganglion cells c. Rods d. Cones 70. Sounds of different frequencies activate different areas of the basilar membrane, a fact critical for the _____ aspect of perceiving pitch. a. signal detection b. temporal code c. threshold d. place code

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Chap 04_5e 71. Transduction involves converting _____ signals from the environment to _____ signals sent to the central nervous system. a. light-wave; chemical b. sensory; perceptual c. chemical; electrical d. physical; neural 72. What is the function of a cochlear implant? a. to transduce sound b. to identify sound c. to produce sound d. to derive meaning from sound 73. Due to the perceptual grouping rule of continuity, we: a. group objects that are similar in color or shape. b. group objects that are close together. c. group edges or contours that have the same orientation. d. fill in the missing elements of a visual scene. 74. Which statement does NOT present a reason sensory adaptation is a useful process? a. An unchanging stimulus is less likely to require immediate action. b. Constantly sensing stimuli that are always in our environment would be highly distracting. c. Stimuli that change frequently usually are of no consequence and therefore not important to sense. d. Sensory adaptation better allows our senses to selectively respond to important changes in stimulation. 75. The total amount of activity of the hair cells signals: a. timbre. b. pitch. c. location. d. loudness. 76. Which activity is LEAST distracting when you are driving? a. talking on a handheld phone b. talking on a hands-free phone c. listening to the radio d. texting

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Chap 04_5e 77. When you stare at a blue spot, initially S-cones will _____, and after several minutes they will _____. a. fire strongly; fatigue b. be silent; fire strongly c. fire strongly; fire strongly d. weekly respond; fatigue 78. From an evolutionary perspective, why is feeling pain adaptive? a. It directly aids reproduction. b. It indicates damage (or potential damage) to tissue. c. Feeling pain demonstrates social dominance. d. Pain is important to the body's autoimmune system. 79. Which sequence of transmission for the sense of smell is correct? a. olfactory receptor neurons, olfactory bulb, olfactory nerve b. olfactory nerve, olfactory bulb, olfactory reception neurons c. olfactory bulb, olfactory receptor neurons, olfactory nerve d. olfactory receptor neurons, olfactory nerve, olfactory bulb 80. When you notice that a new friend has brown eyes, you are noticing the: a. pupils. b. retinas. c. irises. d. corneas. 81. Janelle is at a business luncheon. She is a supertaster, so she will probably find _____ most appetizing. a. broccoli casserole b. spinach artichoke dip c. grilled chicken tenders d. black coffee 82. Which type of sensory receptor does NOT send a signal to the thalamus? a. rods b. hair cells c. olfactory receptor neurons d. thermoreceptors

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Chap 04_5e 83. _____ states that the just noticeable difference of a stimulus is a constant proportion despite variations in intensity. a. Signal detection theory b. Fechner's postulate c. Weber's law d. Gate-control theory 84. S-cones respond BEST to _____ light. a. blue b. red c. yellow d. green 85. In 2015, a picture of a dress became an Internet sensation because people could not agree if it was blue/black or white/gold. Research that followed suggests which group is MOST likely to perceive the dress as white/gold? a. people who had seen the dress before b. men c. older people d. people who are night owls 86. Participants in a perceptual study of illusory conjunction are shown a green square, a blue circle, and a red triangle. Subsequently, which object would they be LEAST likely to report seeing? a. a green circle b. a yellow triangle c. a red square d. a blue circle 87. The primary auditory cortex is located in the _____ cortex. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 88. Dalia is missing L-cones and, as a result, perceives _____ differently from those who do have L-cones. a. strawberries b. spinach c. blueberries d. bats

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Chap 04_5e 89. When tested in a driving simulator, experienced drivers are: a. more distracted by listening to the radio compared to having a phone conversation. b. not at all distracted by listening to the radio or carrying on a phone conversation. c. more distracted by having a phone conversation compared to listening to the radio. d. equally distracted by both listening to the radio and having a phone conversation. 90. The absolute threshold is useful for assessing _____, while the just noticeable difference assesses _____. a. sensitivity; acuity b. acuity; sensitivity c. acuity; sensory adaptation d. Weber's law; sensitivity 91. When Kira watches a football game on TV, she can distinguish one team from their opponents by their uniforms. According to Gestalt principles, Kira groups players by: a. simplicity. b. continuity. c. similarity. d. common fate. 92. The research on inattentional blindness has important implications for: a. hallucinations and the visual system. b. talking on your cell phone while driving. c. everyday choices between eating healthy or unhealthy foods. d. behaving impulsively or with self-control. 93. A woman named DF experienced visual form agnosia. She could: a. not recognize objects by sight but otherwise had memories of those objects. b. not recognize objects by sight and had no memories of those objects. c. recognize an object by sight but could not determine if it was moving or stationary. d. recognize an object by sight but could not remember the last time she saw the object. 94. Neurons in area VI are specialized to detect: a. facial expressions of emotion. b. faces of familiar people. c. edge orientation. d. threats to survival.

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Chap 04_5e 95. Juggling two independent sources of sensory input at the same time is an example of: a. signal detection. b. multitasking. c. sensory adaptation. d. the just noticeable difference. 96. A person with normal taste sense will taste a teaspoon of sugar dissolved in 7.5 liters of water 50% of the time. This illustrates the approximate _____ for taste. a. just noticeable difference b. relative threshold c. psychophysical boundary d. absolute threshold 97. The colors of the visible spectrum in order from longest to shortest wavelength are: a. deep purple, blue, green, yellow, orange, red. b. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, deep purple. c. red, yellow, orange, deep purple, green, blue. d. blue, green, deep purple, orange, yellow, red. 98. Objects in the right visual field: a. stimulate only the right optic nerve. b. are only detected by retinal ganglion cells in the right eye. c. stimulate the left half of each retina. d. are processed in area V1 in the right brain hemisphere. 99. Dorsal is to ventral as: a. down is to up. b. up is to down. c. left is to right. d. right is to left. 100. The ability to distinguish two very similar stimuli is: a. sensitivity. b. accommodation. c. acuity. d. threshold.

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Chap 04_5e 101. The lateral geniculate nucleus is located in: a. the optic chiasm. b. area VI. c. the thalamus. d. the occipital lobe. 102. In 2015, a picture of a dress became an Internet sensation because people could not agree if it was blue/black or white/gold. Research that followed suggests which group is MOST likely to perceive the dress as white/gold? a. people who had seen the dress before b. men c. younger people d. people who perceived more daylight in the photo 103. On a clear, dark night, a person with normal vision can detect a candle flame 48 kilometers away 50% of the time. This illustrates the approximate _____ for vision. a. just noticeable difference b. relative threshold c. psychophysical boundary d. absolute threshold 104. The frequency of a sound wave determines its: a. loudness. b. timbre. c. pitch. d. decibel level. 105. Aiko experiences pain in her right hand. Which of these sensory receptors are MOST active in her right hand? a. thermoreceptors b. haptic receptors c. free nerve endings d. high-frequency vibrator receptors 106. The dorsal visual pathway appears to be crucial for: a. identifying the shape of an object. b. recognizing facial emotions. c. determining what an object actually is. d. guiding movements such as aiming or reaching for an object.

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Chap 04_5e 107. When you read from a physical book, your eyeballs register different patterns of light reflecting off the page. This activity of your eyes represents: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. 108. Neural impulses from the optic nerve end up in area _____ in the brain. a. A1 b. MT c. V1 d. AV 109. When a person with normal vision sees an object in the distance, the lens _____ to focus the image _____ the retina. a. flattens; behind b. flattens; on c. bulges; in front of d. bulges; on 110. Animation and filmmaking depend on _____ because motion pictures flash 24 still frames per second, but humans interpret this as smooth movement on the screen. a. apparent motion b. an illusory conjunction c. inattentional blindness d. the Ames illusion 111. After staring at a red spot in her textbook for about a minute, Janine looks at a solid grey square. She will now notice a greenish afterimage due to the: a. sensory adaptation of L-cones. b. sensory adaptation of S-cones. c. inactivation of M-cones d. image's position relative to her blind spot. 112. Which of these senses does not appear to have distinct "what" and "where" pathways in the brain? a. touch b. vision c. hearing d. smell

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Chap 04_5e 113. The _____ in the visible spectrum will be perceived as violet. a. shortest wavelengths b. longest wavelengths c. shortest amplitudes d. longest amplitudes 114. The just noticeable difference (JND) is the: a. decreasing sensitivity to a stimulus over time. b. minimal change in a stimulus that can just barely be detected. c. minimal intensity needed to just barely detect a stimulus. d. ability to detect a stimulus in the presence of noise. 115. The function of which brain region aids in motivation to escape from a painful stimulus? a. thalamus b. somatosensory cortex c. cerebellum d. amygdala 116. A psychology professor decides to play a practical joke on a colleague in the history department. While the historian is giving a lecture on the first day of class, the psychology professor interrupts and asks to speak with her outside the classroom. While they are conversing, all of the students leave through a back door and are replaced with a completely new group of students. Upon returning, the history professor continues her lecture without noticing that the students are different, thus illustrating: a. change blindness. b. apparent motion. c. absentmindedness. d. inattentional blindness. 117. The reason that peripheral vision is NOT clear is due to: a. the absence of rods in the fovea. b. the absence of cones in the fovea. c. sparsely distributed rods outside of the fovea. d. sparsely distributed cones outside of the fovea. 118. All of these are touch receptors EXCEPT: a. pattern receptors. b. pressure receptors. c. pain receptors. d. medium-frequency vibrator receptors.

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Chap 04_5e 119. Mikhail moved to a new apartment located on a busy, noisy street. According to sensory adaptation, over time, Mikhail would be LEAST likely to notice the noise if traffic: a. patterns remain constant. b. is heavy only during rush hour. c. is unpredictable. d. is heavy during the week and light on the weekends. 120. Which study would constitute one that is psychophysical? a. examining the path that visual information takes in the brain b. studying the differences in transduction of hot and cold sensations c. determining the quietest sound that a person will report hearing d. asking participants to report their perception of classical music 121. _____ are biochemical odorants emitted by other members of an animal's species that can affect its behavior or physiology. a. Pheromones b. Hormones c. Neurotransmitters d. ORNs 122. In terms of taste perception, about half of the population is given the classification of: a. nontaster. b. moderate taster. c. taster. d. supertaster. 123. Flavor is produced by: a. olfactory receptor neurons. b. taste receptors. c. the combination of taste and smell signals. d. the olfactory bulb. 124. Which of these senses is NOT involved in flavor? a. olfaction b. taste c. touch d. proprioception

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Chap 04_5e 125. The outermost layer of the retina consists of: a. rods and cones. b. bipolar cells. c. the cornea. d. retinal ganglion cells. 126. Which is NOT a type of taste receptor? a. salt b. tart c. bitter d. sweet 127. Damage to the _____ stream in the _____ lobe leads to a deficit in motion perception. a. dorsal; temporal b. dorsal; occipital c. ventral; parietal d. ventral; occipital 128. Odorant molecules bind to: a. olfactory bulbs. b. ORNs. c. the olfactory epithelium. d. the glomerulus. 129. Bala loves the savory taste of a medium-rare steak, thanks in part to _____ taste receptors. a. sweet b. umami c. salt d. bitter 130. The combination of red and green light results in: a. blue light. b. white light. c. yellow light. d. an absence of light (black).

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Chap 04_5e 131. Tina has more bumps on her tongue than does Gina. Tina has more visible: a. taste buds. b. microvilli. c. taste receptors. d. papillae. 132. The innermost layer of the retina consists of transparent: a. rods and cones. b. bipolar cells. c. optic nerves. d. retinal ganglion cells. 133. Sensation and perception: a. are basically the same process. b. are two completely different and unrelated processes. c. are related but separate processes. d. occur in the same areas of the brain. 134. Loudness is determined by the _____ of a sound wave. a. amplitude b. frequency c. purity d. timbre 135. _____ predicts that a power lifter cannot detect the difference between 100 and 101 kilograms but can easily detect the difference between 3 and 4 kilograms. a. Weber's law b. Signal detection theory c. Size constancy d. Gestalt theory 136. The axon of a retinal ganglion cell (RGC) joins all other RGC axons to form the: a. basal ganglion. b. occipital lobe. c. bipolar cells. d. optic nerve.

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Chap 04_5e 137. Which eye part is a muscle controlling the size of the pupil? a. fovea b. lens c. iris d. retina 138. The human ear has two mechanisms to encode sound-wave frequency: the _____, based on the relative activity of hair cells, and the _____, based on the timing of the action potentials in the auditory nerve. a. V1 area; A1 area b. A1 area; V1 area c. place code; temporal code d. temporal code; place code 139. Which type of emission has the LONGEST wavelength? a. gamma rays b. radio waves c. ultraviolet waves d. infrared waves 140. Each taste bud contains 50 to 100: a. papillae. b. taste pores. c. taste receptor cells. d. hair cells. 141. All the senses rely on the process of: a. synesthesia. b. transduction. c. accommodation. d. motion parallax. 142. The human eye has more _____ than _____. a. rods; cones b. cones; rods c. retinal ganglion cells; cones d. retinal ganglion cells; rods

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Chap 04_5e 143. Eleanor drew a picture of birds flying through the air. She drew some birds larger and some smaller. An observer of the final picture noted that the larger birds appeared closer than the smaller one, due to a monocular cue called: a. interposition. b. relative size. c. linear perspective. d. texture gradient. 144. Which statement presents an example of referred pain? a. A swimmer feels dull pain in his shoulder after a long practice. b. A runner feels sharp pain after twisting her ankle running on uneven ground. c. A chef touches a hot stove but retracts her hand immediately. d. A heart attack victim feels pain radiating from the left arm. 145. Stimuli that are presented slightly below the absolute threshold will: a. never be detected. b. be detected less than 10% of the time. c. be detected less than 50% of the time. d. be detected between 50 and 99% of the time. 146. From an evolutionary perspective, why is feeling pain adaptive? a. It directly aids reproduction. b. It strengthens the body's immune system. c. Feeling pain demonstrates social dominance. d. It may indicate infections or broken bones. 147. Conductive hearing loss is to sensorineural hearing loss as damage to the: a. cochlea is to damage to the eardrum. b. ossicles is to damage to hair cells. c. auditory nerve is to damage to the ossicles. d. hair cells is to damage to the auditory nerve. 148. Receptors in the muscles, tendons, and joints: a. constitute the vestibular system. b. allow us to perceive head movement. c. are responsible for the maintenance of balance. d. provide information about body position in space.

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Chap 04_5e 149. The pitch of a sound corresponds to our perception of: a. how high or low it sounds. b. the timbre of the sound. c. its loudness. d. its complexity. 150. The back portion of the temporal lobe handles: a. spatial "where" features. b. sound identification "what" features. c. loudness. d. pitch. 151. DF experienced visual form agnosia caused by damage to brain regions in the: a. lateral geniculate nucleus. b. dorsal visual stream. c. ventral visual stream. d. temporal lobe. 152. Which sequence of eye parts through which light passes on its way to the brain is correct? a. pupil, lens, retina, cornea b. cornea, pupil, lens, retina c. iris, lens, retina, pupil d. lens, iris, pupil, retina 153. The axons of the _____ form the optic nerve. a. rods b. bipolar cells c. cones d. retinal ganglion cells 154. Despite the fact that two of the puppies in the litter looked very similar, Lin was able to tell them apart due to: a. perceptual contrast. b. visual reliability. c. distributed representation. d. perceptual constancy.

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Chap 04_5e 155. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are known collectively as the: a. semicircular canals. b. ossicles. c. hair cells. d. basilar membrane. 156. Another term for the frequency of a sound wave is its: a. amplitude. b. repetition rate. c. complexity. d. decibel level. 157. After getting tackled during a football game, Ryder felt a dull pain in his right shoulder. The signal for the dull pain carried by _____ fibers persisted for several days after the game. a. C b. B-alpha c. A-delta d. D 158. A genetic disorder in which one type of cone is missing is called: a. color afterimage. b. color blindness. c. dark adaptation. d. accommodation. 159. Receptor cells that enable us to sense pressure, texture, pattern, and vibration are located: a. in the muscles. b. in the semicircular canals. c. under the skin. d. in the papillae. 160. A mother tells her teenage son to turn down his music. The son tells his mom that he will do so and turns the volume down slightly. A minute later, the mother cannot tell that her son complied with her request, so she yells at him. Apparently, the decrease in volume was not enough to meet the: a. absolute threshold. b. correct rejection criteria. c. just noticeable difference. d. sensory adaptation.

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Chap 04_5e 161. Papillae, the bumps on the tongue, each contain hundreds of _____, the organ of taste transduction. a. glomeruli b. ORNs c. taste buds d. umamis 162. The _____ undulates when vibrations from the ossicles reach the cochlear fluid. a. cochlear membrane b. semicircular canal c. basilar membrane d. eardrum 163. Sound-wave frequency is to pitch as amplitude is to: a. complexity. b. quality of sound. c. timbre. d. loudness. 164. The _____ stream travels across the occipital lobe into the lower levels of the temporal lobe and includes brain areas that represent an object's _____. a. dorsal; location and motion b. dorsal; shape and identity c. ventral; shape and identity d. ventral; location and motion 165. Which of these is NOT true regarding pheromones? a. There is a large body of literature providing support for the existence of human pheromones. b. Pheromones play an important role in reproductive and social behavior in insects. c. Secretions from the glands around the nipples of lactating human mothers can elicit nursing behavior in their infants. d. Studies of pheromones in humans have tended to use small sample sizes. 166. The middle layer of the retina consists of: a. rods and cones. b. bipolar cells. c. the optic nerve. d. retinal ganglion cells.

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Chap 04_5e 167. Sound waves are: a. generated by the vibration of the eardrum. b. the rhythmic firing of hair cells in the basilar membrane. c. changes in air pressure unfolding over time. d. vibrations in environmental stimuli. 168. Which sense involves transducing changes in light? a. vision b. hearing c. smell d. taste 169. Hold your right index finger 2 feet in front of your face, close one eye, and look at your finger. Now alternate eyes, opening and closing each eye rapidly. Your finger jumps back and forth, illustrating which depth cue? a. motion parallax b. optic flow c. binocular disparity d. interposition 170. A single neuron in area VI that fires continuously when a line in the visual field is orientated to the right at 45°: a. also will fire continuously when the line is orientated to the left at 45°. b. will fire at a lower rate when the line is vertical. c. also will fire continuously when the line is vertical. d. will not fire when the line is orientated to the right at 60°. 171. Counting how often the peaks of a sound wave pass a microphone is a measure of the wave's: a. amplitude. b. frequency. c. complexity. d. decibel level. 172. In very low light, an image projected _____ would be MOST easily seen. a. on the optic nerve b. on the fovea c. to the right or left of the fovea d. on the blind spot

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Chap 04_5e 173. Stimuli that are presented at the absolute threshold will be detected _____ of the time. a. 1% b. 10% c. 50% d. 100% 174. Your friend is baking cookies. As you enter the kitchen where they are baking, your nose creates electrical signals from the molecules dispersed in the air. This is the process of: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. 175. The theory that specialized detectors exist in the area of the brain that exclusively responds to faces, landscapes, or other objects represents the _____ view of object recognition. a. modular b. temporal c. Gestalt d. distributed 176. If you hold your nose and bite into an onion, it will—surprisingly—taste like a potato. This BEST illustrates: a. sensory adaptation by the olfactory system. b. a valence-centered approach to taste perception. c. an object-centered approach to taste perception. d. the role of olfaction in the perception of flavor. 177. Signals from rods and cones are collected by: a. rods and cones. b. bipolar cells. c. the optic nerve. d. retinal ganglion cells. 178. The perceptual system is: a. more sensitive to constant levels of stimulation than it is to changes in stimulation. b. more sensitive to changes in stimulation than it is to constant levels of stimulation. c. highly sensitive to both constant and changing stimulation. d. quite insensitive to both constant and changing stimulation.

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Chap 04_5e 179. Which of these individuals has sensorineural hearing loss? a. Simon, who was born without hair cells b. Brittany, who suffered severe ear infections as a child and needed to have tubes inserted in her ear canals in order to hear c. Aisha, whose ossicles were damaged in a car accident d. Martin, whose eardrum was damaged while swimming 180. To perceive motion, the brain must encode information about: a. space and time. b. intention and change. c. time and change. d. space and intention. 181. In a person who is nearsighted, images are focused: a. behind the retina. b. in front of the retina. c. on the retina. d. on the optic chiasm. 182. Synthetic light sources that produce just one wavelength of light have high: a. saturation. b. hue. c. brightness. d. wavelength. 183. When an object is viewed close up, the lens becomes _____ to focus the image _____ the retina. a. flatter; behind b. flatter; on c. rounder; in front of d. rounder; on 184. A moving object stimulates different locations at different time points on a stationary viewer's: a. optic nerve. b. retina. c. cornea. d. lateral geniculate nucleus.

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Chap 04_5e 185. Dina's best friend has an identical twin, but Dina can tell the two sisters apart because of: a. perceptual contrast. b. visual reliability. c. distributed representation. d. perceptual constancy. 186. The light-sensitive tissue lining the back of the eyeball is called the: a. fovea. b. lens. c. iris. d. retina. 187. The specialized receptors in the skin that sense cold and warmth are called: a. thermometers. b. thermodynamic receptors. c. thermoreceptors. d. thermoconductors. 188. Photoreceptors that detect color, operate in daylight, and permit us to focus on fine detail are called: a. cones. b. rods. c. retinal ganglion cells. d. area V1 neurons. 189. Which sequence for the visual pathway from the eye to the brain is correct? a. optic nerve, lateral geniculate nucleus, area V1, optic chiasm b. optic chiasm, optic nerve, area V1, lateral geniculate nucleus c. optic nerve, optic chiasm, lateral geniculate nucleus, area V1 d. optic nerve, area V1, optic chiasm, lateral geniculate nucleus 190. People with brain damage in the _____ often are unable to _____ an object. a. parietal cortex; aim or reach for b. occipital cortex; aim or reach for c. ventral stream; determine the location or movement of d. dorsal stream; correctly identify

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Chap 04_5e 191. Sultan accidentally slammed his hand in his desk. His roommate suggested that he rub it, a suggestion based on the _____ theory. a. proprioception b. gate-control c. receptive field d. referred pain 192. The sound of traffic on a busy street is interesting due to the mix of frequencies produced by various vehicles, which is also known as: a. loudness. b. pitch. c. purity. d. complexity. 193. The _____ portion of the auditory cortex handles sound identification ("what") features, allowing you to identify sound. a. dorsal b. ventral c. anterior d. caudal 194. The timbre of a sound is determined by its: a. amplitude. b. complexity. c. frequency. d. harmony. 195. The dorsal stream travels up from the occipital lobe to the _____ lobes, connecting with brain areas coding an object's _____. a. parietal; location and motion b. parietal; shape and identity c. frontal; shape and identity d. frontal; location and motion 196. The pain pathway involving the _____ determines the location and type of pain. a. amygdala b. somatosensory cortex c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus

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Chap 04_5e 197. Luckily, Cy can spot the fly in his soup and distinguish it from the flecks of pepper also floating in the broth. From Cy's perspective, what is the figure and what is the (back)ground? a. The pepper is the ground, and the broth is the figure. b. The fly is the figure, and the broth is the ground. c. The broth is the figure, and the pepper is the ground. d. The pepper is the figure, and the fly is the ground. 198. In 2014, Axl Rose was voted the greatest rock vocalist ever, in part due to his incredible vocal range. His vocals can range from very low to very high at the same decibel level, illustrating a tremendous ability to vary his: a. loudness. b. pitch. c. timbre. d. resonance. 199. The semicircular canals, located next to the cochlea in the ear, help us to: a. hear high-frequency sounds. b. maintain balance. c. send referred pain from earaches to the brain. d. sense touch or pressure against the ear. 200. Information from the _____ visual field ends up in the _____ hemisphere, and information from the _____ visual field ends up in the _____ hemisphere. a. right; left; left; right b. left; left; right; right c. left; left; left; right d. right; right; left; right 201. Sam's best friend, Aliza, just dyed her hair purple. Sam is still able to recognize Aliza despite her changed appearance because of: a. feature-integration theory. b. visual reliability. c. distributed representation. d. perceptual constancy.

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Chap 04_5e 202. According to _____, the level of stimulation required to detect a stimulus changes based on our expectancies, mood, and current environment. a. the just noticeable difference theory b. Weber's law c. the absolute threshold theory d. signal detection theory 203. Signal detection theory takes _____ in to account when measuring _____. a. expectations; sensitivity b. motivations; acuity c. acuity; sensitivity d. goals; acuity 204. Which taste perception is genetic? a. an aversion to eating meat b. a preference for having your steak prepared well done c. an aversion to extremely bitter leafy green vegetables d. an aversion to a particular food that made you sick 205. Signal detection allows for the study of two independent factors: a. strength of sensory evidence and decision criterion. b. absolute threshold and decision criterion. c. strength of sensory evidence and background noise. d. absolute threshold and just noticeable difference. 206. If you hear a flute play a high note and a tuba play a low note, in comparison with the tuba, the flute would register _____ on the primary auditory cortex. a. toward the back b. toward the front c. further to the right d. further to the left 207. Which sense involves transducing changes in air pressure? a. vision b. hearing c. smell d. taste

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Chap 04_5e 208. The only sense directly connected to the forebrain is: a. vision. b. somatosensation. c. olfaction. d. gustation. 209. Kelly enjoys the savory taste of meats and cheeses, thanks in part to _____ taste receptors. a. sweet b. salt c. umami d. bitter 210. Staring too long at one color fatigues the cones that respond to that color, producing a form of sensory adaptation resulting in: a. visual form agnosia. b. trichromatic color representation. c. color afterimage. d. color mixing. 211. Who is MOST likely to be a supertaster? a. Millie, whose favourite food is broccoli b. Ramona, who loves kale c. Mikkel, who drinks his coffee without cream or sugar d. Kira, who is an extremely picky eater 212. Jordan was born without hair cells and has been deaf since birth. She experiences which type of hearing loss? a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 damage 213. Amelia is at a coffee shop when she hears two people at the table behind her talking about the latest fashion trends. One voice says that jean jackets are "in" next season. Several minutes later, a voice with a comparable pitch says that scarves will also be a stylish accessory. Amelia attributes both statements to the same individual due to the Gestalt principle of: a. proximity. b. simplicity. c. similarity. d. perceptual contrast. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 214. The cochlea resembles a: a. sea horse. b. funnel. c. corkscrew. d. snail. 215. A factor that does NOT help us to determine figure from ground is: a. edges. b. size. c. opponent colors. d. motion. 216. Neuroscientists originally dubbed the dorsal visual stream the _____ pathway; today, it is arguably better conceptualized as the _____ pathway. a. how; what b. what; perception for action c. what; perception for identification d. where; perception for action 217. When two objects cast a retinal image of the same size, the one that is perceived as being _____ will be perceived as _____. a. farther away; larger b. farther away; equivalent in size to the closer object c. closer; larger d. closer; equivalent in size to the more distant object 218. You probably can detect a weight difference between a 30-gram and a 60-gram envelope. But if you pick up a 2-kilogram package, you'd probably need another package that weighs at least 2.5 kilograms before detecting a difference between the first package and the second package. This scenario illustrates: a. Weber's law. b. signal detection theory. c. absolute thresholds. d. perceptual constancy. 219. Wine aficionados rely on taste and _____ in perceiving the flavor of a wine. a. olfaction b. haptic perception c. Gestalt grouping principles d. audition

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Chap 04_5e 220. On a dark night, Carrie reads "We are open" on a neon sign, despite the fact that the lights for the o and p are out. She understands the sign easily because of the Gestalt principle of: a. simplicity. b. closure. c. proximity. d. similarity. 221. Wavelength is to purity as: a. color is to saturation. b. color is to brightness. c. brightness is to color. d. brightness is to saturation. 222. Weber's law states that the just noticeable difference of a stimulus is a(n) _____ proportion, despite variations in intensity. a. inverse b. increasing c. decreasing d. constant 223. _____ cause(s) the eardrum to vibrate. a. Pushing of the ossicles against the oval window b. Sound waves c. Stimulation of inner hair cells d. Movement of the basilar membrane 224. Aran felt a sudden sharp pain in his finger after accidentally slamming a door on it. This immediate, sharp pain was carried to the brain by _____ fibers. a. B-alpha b. D c. C d. A-delta 225. Humans do NOT have distinct cone types to respond to light wavelengths associated with the color: a. red. b. green. c. yellow. d. blue.

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Chap 04_5e 226. Into which part of the ear do people put cotton swabs (e.g., Q-Tips), against the advice of audiologists? a. cochlea b. eardrum c. auditory canal d. ossicles 227. You hear the same note played at the same intensity by a flute and by a trumpet. What do you experience? a. The notes have different sound qualities. b. The note played by the trumpet sounds louder. c. The note played by the flute sounds higher pitched. d. The note played by the trumpet sounds an octave lower. 228. A cold breeze enters the room. Temperature-sensitive neurons in the skin send a signal to the brain. The brain could interpret this signal as annoying or pleasant, indicating the interpretive role of: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. 229. Simple awareness due to the stimulation of a sense organ is called: a. perception. b. sensation. c. transduction. d. synesthesia. 230. Information about balance originates in: a. receptors embedded in the muscles. b. the somatosensory cortex. c. the inner ear. d. our joints moving through space. 231. You're outside stargazing at night when the headlights of an approaching car temporarily blind you. After a few moments, however, the light no longer seems as bright. This is an example of: a. retinal disparity. b. accommodation. c. sensory adaptation. d. sensitization.

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Chap 04_5e 232. The brightness of light is determined by the _____ of light waves. a. amplitude b. length c. purity d. width 233. John does not enjoy his food as much as he used to when he was a younger man. This is MOST likely because: a. haptic perception fades with age. b. he is a nontaster. c. he has become a supertaster. d. taste perception fades with age. 234. The approximate absolute threshold for taste is being able to detect a teaspoon of sugar dissolved in 7.5 liters of water. Given that information, which statements is true? a. All people with normal taste will be able to detect the sugar. b. Fifty percent of people will be able to detect the sugar 100% of the time. c. Weber's law predicts that the same amount of sugar dissolved in 4 liters of water would not be detected. d. A person will not detect the sugar 50% of the time. 235. Which study would constitute one that is psychophysical? a. studying the mechanisms by which rods and cones in the eye transduce light b. determining the lowest-decibel sound that can be reliably detected in humans c. determining if people prefer to drink sweetened or unsweetened tea d. asking participants to report on their conscious experience as they listen to a metronome 236. Janet is _____. She has trouble seeing distant objects because the image is focused _____ the retina. a. nearsighted; in front of b. nearsighted; behind c. farsighted; in front of d. farsighted; behind 237. A tennis player might use feedback from the receptors in her forearm to: a. improve her backhand stroke. b. maintain her balance during a serve. c. keep her eye on the ball as she hits it. d. decide whether to stroke a near-court or cross-court shot.

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Chap 04_5e 238. LASIK surgery works by physically reshaping the: a. iris. b. lens. c. cornea. d. retina. 239. Emma recognizes her car among other cars in a parking lot in both daylight and darkness. This is due to: a. perceptual constancy. b. interposition. c. common fate. d. perceptual contrast. 240. The number of wavelengths that make up light determines its: a. hue, or color. b. brightness. c. saturation, or richness of color. d. spectrum. 241. _____ determines the saturation of a color. a. Purity b. Amplitude c. Wavelength d. Intensity 242. The approximate absolute threshold for hearing is a clock's tick from 6 meters away when all else is quiet. Given that information, which statements is true? a. All people with normal hearing will be able to detect the clock tick. b. Fifty percent of people will be able to detect the clock tick 100% of the time. c. Weber's law predicts that the tick will not be heard from 12 meters away. d. A person will not hear the clock tick 50% of the time. 243. The process of organization, identification, and interpretation of a sensation to form a mental representation is called: a. synesthesia. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction.

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Chap 04_5e 244. The binding problem of perception is concerned with how: a. vision is integrated or bound with hearing to produce a unitary perceptual experience. b. features are linked so that we see unified objects rather than disjointed or miscombined ones. c. both the shape and identity of an object are identified simultaneously. d. fine details are perceived in complex objects. 245. The Rubin vase illusion illustrates: a. the Gestalt principle of similarity. b. a reversible figure–ground relationship. c. an illusory conjunction. d. perceptual constancy. 246. Pam has a cochlear implant. She MOST likely has experienced: a. damage to area A1 in the temporal cortex. b. a loss of hair cells on the basilar membrane. c. damage to the ossicles. d. a punctured eardrum. 247. Color deficiency (also called color blindness) is a result of a disorder in which: a. one type of rod is missing. b. one type of cone is missing. c. the blind spot is larger than normal. d. trauma has occurred to area VI. 248. Participants in a perceptual study are shown a green square and a blue circle. Subsequently, they might report seeing a green circle, illustrating the phenomenon of a(n): a. interposition. b. shape constancy. c. perceptual grouping rule. d. illusory conjunction. 249. The brain region that allows you to determine if a pain is sharp or dull is the: a. amygdala. b. somatosensory cortex. c. hippocampus. d. hypothalamus.

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Chap 04_5e 250. What is the advantage of an increase in the sensation of pain? a. It prevents infections. b. It can motivate people to seek rest. c. It trains the brain to tolerate more pain. d. It can motivate people to exercise more. 251. A(n) _____ psychologist would conceptualize the perceptual experience as more than just the sum of its component parts. a. evolutionary b. cultural c. Gestalt d. behavioral neuroscientist 252. Minnie attempted to remove a bit of sand in her eye by rubbing it. Unfortunately, she ended up scratching her: a. cornea. b. retina. c. pupil. d. lens. 253. Someone wearing night-vision goggles can detect: a. gamma rays. b. radio waves. c. ultraviolet waves. d. infrared waves. 254. After building a snowman in the back yard, Luciana's fingers sense cold due to activation of _____ in the skin conveying sensory information to her brain. a. thermoreceptors b. high-frequency vibrator receptors c. pressure receptors d. free nerve endings 255. Where does auditory transduction occur? a. in the pinna b. in the auditory canal c. in the cochlea d. in area A1

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Chap 04_5e 256. Sensory adaptation explains why: a. humans can discriminate up to a trillion odors. b. some smells cause an immediate positive reaction. c. smells appear to fade a few minutes after the onset of exposure to them. d. pheromones influence social behaviors in animals. 257. A depth cue called _____ is responsible for perception of one object as further away when a second object blocks part of it. a. interposition b. relative size c. texture gradient d. retinal disparity 258. When you are exposed to a flash of light, neurons in the eye that are sensitive to light send a neural signal to the brain. The conversion of light into neural signals is called: a. sensory adaptation. b. sensation. c. perception. d. transduction. 259. Because of the optic chiasm, information from the _____ visual field of _____ ends up in the _____ hemisphere, and information from the _____ visual field of _____ ends up in the _____ hemisphere. a. right; both eyes; left; left; both eyes; right b. left; both eyes; left; right; both eyes; right c. left; the right eye; left; left; the left eye; right d. right; the right eye; right; left; the right eye; right 260. The _____ in the visible spectrum will be perceived as red. a. shortest wavelengths b. longest wavelengths c. shortest amplitudes d. longest amplitudes 261. _____ perception involves touching and exploring objects with our hands. a. Olfactory b. Haptic c. Sensory d. Vestibular

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Chap 04_5e 262. The minimal intensity needed to just barely detect a stimulus is called the: a. just noticeable difference. b. receptive field. c. absolute threshold. d. difference threshold. 263. Sensorineural hearing loss may be caused by damage to the: a. temporal lobe. b. eardrum. c. cochlea. d. ossicles. 264. _____ is the perception of movement as a result of alternating signals appearing in rapid succession in different locations. a. Apparent motion b. An illusory conjunction c. Inattentional blindness d. The Ames illusion 265. Rock musicians often suffer hearing loss due to chronic exposure to high-decibel sounds that damage hair cells. They experience which type of hearing loss? a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 damage 266. Area V1 is located in the: a. optic chiasm. b. prefrontal cortex. c. thalamus. d. occipital lobe. 267. When Ava touches a soft blanket with her left hand, the touch receptors in her hand project sensory signals to the _____ lobe of her brain. a. left parietal b. right parietal c. right frontal d. left temporal

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Chap 04_5e 268. Closer objects cast larger images on the retina than do objects that are farther away, a _____ depth cue known as _____. a. monocular; linear perspective b. monocular; relative size c. binocular; relative size d. binocular; linear perspective 269. College students talking on cell phones while walking through campus were much less likely to notice a clown ride past them on a unicycle than were students not talking on cell phones, which BEST illustrates _____ blindness. a. change b. inattentional c. visual d. feature 270. Olivia's allergies have caused her to have a stuffy nose, and she can barely taste her food. This BEST illustrates: a. the role of Gestalt principles in the perception of flavor. b. the importance of bottom-up processing in taste perception. c. genetic-based determinants of taste perception. d. the role of olfaction in the perception of flavor. 271. There may be a sixth basic taste that is elicited by fatty acids. It is called: a. umami. b. oleogustus. c. sour. d. bitter. 272. Objects that are close together in physical space tend to be grouped together, illustrating which Gestalt perceptual grouping rule? a. proximity b. common fate c. continuity d. similarity 273. Long, straight stretches of highway appear to converge in the distance. This is an example of: a. relative size. b. interposition. c. linear perspective. d. interposition. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 274. Wavelength is to wave amplitude as: a. color is to saturation. b. color is to brightness. c. brightness is to color. d. brightness is to saturation. 275. Which sequence lists the parts of the human ear in the order in which sound waves travel through them from the environment? a. auditory canal, pinna, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea b. pinna, auditory canal, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles c. auditory canal, pinna, eardrum, cochlea, ossicles d. pinna, auditory canal, eardrum, ossicles, cochlea 276. Flavor involves all except WHICH of the senses below? a. olfaction b. taste c. touch d. proprioception 277. A perceptual mistake in which features from multiple objects are INCORRECTLY combined is termed: a. parallel processing. b. a binding problem. c. an illusory conjunction. d. perceptual contrast. 278. Which statement is NOT true of the visual and auditory systems? a. Gestalt rules apply to both vision and sound. b. Total activity of receptors signals intensity of the stimulus. c. Signals reach the thalamus before being sent to other areas of the brain. d. Information about audition is localized to the temporal lobe; information about vision is localized to the occipital lobe. 279. As a result of an injury, the ossicles in Ray's ears have broken. Consequently, the: a. pinna may not function properly. b. auditory canal may be blocked. c. cochlea may not be stimulated. d. eardrum may not vibrate.

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Chap 04_5e 280. Which type of emission has the SHORTEST wavelength? a. gamma rays b. radio waves c. ultraviolet waves d. infrared waves 281. Conductive hearing loss may be caused by damage to the: a. cochlea. b. hair cells. c. auditory nerve. d. eardrum. 282. When Gigi, a 3-month-old infant, explores the world by grasping her toys, she is using _____ perception. a. olfactory b. haptic c. depth d. vestibular 283. Sensation occurs: a. when the brain interprets a perception. b. at the level of the brain. c. as the body interacts with the physical world. d. at the same time as perception. 284. Mateo was born without M-cones and, as a result, perceives _____ differently from those who do have Mcones. a. stop signs b. grass c. yield signs d. blue sky 285. We perceive a complex shape as upward arrow, rather than two different shapes (a rectangle with a triangle on top of it), due to which Gestalt perceptual grouping rule? a. closure b. continuity c. simplicity d. similarity

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Chap 04_5e 286. Reginald used to attend concerts regularly, and enjoyed standing next to the huge speakers at the front of the auditorium. He now has decreased sound sensitivity. Reginald is most likely suffering from _____ hearing loss. a. conductive b. inattentional c. sensorineural d. area A1 287. Aversion to extremely _____ tastes is genetic. a. salty b. bitter c. sour d. sugary 288. About what percentage of the population is classified as supertasters? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 25% 289. The perception of movement as a result of alternating signals appearing in rapid succession in different locations is termed: a. apparent motion. b. an illusory conjunction. c. opponent processes. d. the Ames illusion. 290. Jalisa reports that there are two groups of children playing in different areas of the playground, rather than reporting that there are 30 children on the playground. This illustrates the Gestalt perceptual grouping rule of: a. proximity. b. common fate. c. continuity. d. similarity. 291. Area V1 is part of the _____ that contains the _____ cortex. a. lateral geniculate nucleus; primary visual b. parietal lobe; primary sensory c. occipital lobe; primary visual d. occipital lobe; primary sensory

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Chap 04_5e 292. The fact that we perceive a unified, whole object instead of the sum of its component parts is a fundamental principle of which approach to psychology? a. psychodynamic b. structuralist c. Gestalt d. behaviorist 293. Dr. Jiminez has a PowerPoint slide with "PSYC OLOGY" written on it. Her students perceive the slide as "PSYCHOLOGY" because of the Gestalt principle of: a. simplicity. b. closure. c. proximity. d. similarity. 294. Although it is the area of the retina where vision is clearest, the fovea contains no: a. cones. b. rods. c. retinal ganglia. d. bipolar cells. 295. Vision is clearest when an object is projected onto the: a. fovea. b. optic nerve. c. cornea. d. retina. 296. The colors of the visible spectrum in order from shortest to longest wavelength are: a. deep purple, blue, green, yellow, orange, red. b. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, deep purple. c. red, yellow, orange, deep purple, green, blue. d. blue, green, deep purple, orange, yellow, red. 297. Rods and cones are to vision as _____ is/are to hearing. a. the ossicles b. inner hair cells c. the eardrum d. area A1

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Chap 04_5e 298. In 2015, a picture of a dress became an Internet sensation because people could not agree if it was blue/black or white/gold. This episode illustrates which important point? a. People adopting a liberal decision criterion tend to better perceive warmer colors. b. Difference thresholds vary from individual to individual. c. Color can easily be manipulated using computer software to create illusions. d. Color is not an inherent property of an object. 299. _____ involves transducing changes in the pressure, temperature, or vibration of a surface. a. Vision b. Smell c. Taste d. Touch 300. Humans have about _____ ORN types, permitting us to discriminate up to _____ different odorants. a. 10 billion; 10 million b. 10 trillion; 10,000 c. 350; 10 million d. 350; 1 trillion

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Chap 04_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. a 16. a 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 27. b 28. d 29. a 30. a 31. d 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. d 46. b 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. d 53. c 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 55. d 56. d 57. a 58. c 59. c 60. a 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. c 81. c 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 83. c 84. a 85. c 86. b 87. c 88. a 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. b 93. a 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. b 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. c 102. d 103. d 104. c 105. c 106. d 107. b 108. c 109. b 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 111. a 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. d 116. a 117. d 118. d 119. a 120. c 121. a 122. c 123. c 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. b 129. b 130. c 131. d 132. d 133. c 134. a 135. a 136. d 137. c

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Chap 04_5e 138. c 139. b 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. b 144. d 145. c 146. d 147. b 148. d 149. a 150. a 151. c 152. b 153. d 154. a 155. b 156. b 157. a 158. b 159. c 160. c 161. c 162. c 163. d 164. c 165. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 166. b 167. c 168. a 169. c 170. b 171. b 172. c 173. c 174. d 175. a 176. d 177. b 178. b 179. a 180. a 181. b 182. a 183. d 184. b 185. a 186. d 187. c 188. a 189. c 190. a 191. b 192. d 193. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 194. b 195. a 196. b 197. b 198. b 199. b 200. a 201. d 202. d 203. a 204. c 205. a 206. a 207. b 208. c 209. c 210. c 211. d 212. c 213. c 214. d 215. c 216. d 217. a 218. a 219. a 220. b 221. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 222. d 223. b 224. d 225. c 226. c 227. a 228. c 229. b 230. c 231. c 232. a 233. d 234. d 235. b 236. a 237. a 238. b 239. a 240. c 241. a 242. d 243. c 244. b 245. b 246. b 247. b 248. d

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Chap 04_5e 249. b 250. b 251. c 252. a 253. d 254. a 255. c 256. c 257. a 258. d 259. a 260. b 261. b 262. c 263. c 264. a 265. c 266. d 267. b 268. b 269. b 270. d 271. b 272. a 273. c 274. b 275. d 276. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e 277. c 278. d 279. c 280. a 281. d 282. b 283. c 284. b 285. c 286. c 287. b 288. d 289. a 290. a 291. c 292. c 293. b 294. b 295. a 296. a 297. b 298. d 299. d 300. d

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. When shown an image with an ambiguous figure and ground, such as the Rubin vase, we tend to perceive both possible interpretations simultaneously. a. True b. False 2. Perceptual constancy means that humans are more likely to detect changing environmental stimuli than a constant stimulus. a. True b. False 3. Someone who cannot recognize familiar faces may have suffered damage to the ventral stream of visual processing. a. True b. False Use Scenario 4.2 to answer the following question(s). While we effortlessly identify most objects by sight, the mechanisms underlying how and where we make these identifications are matters of theoretical and empirical debate. According to image-based theories, previously identified objects are stored in memory as templates, which are consulted when identifying current retinal images. In contrast, parts-based theories state that the brain uses the component geometric elements (termed geons) comprising the object, as well as the spatial relationships between these geons, for purposes of identification. Where in the brain these identifications occur also is a matter of debate. Modular theories state that specialized areas, or modules, of the brain code categories of objects, whereas distributed representation theories posit that it is the pattern of brain activity in multiple brain regions that identifies an object. 4. (Scenario 4.2) Image-based theories are to parts-based theories as: a. perception is to sensation. b. comparison is to deconstruction. c. structure is to function. d. global is to local. 5. (Scenario 4.2) Most of the time, we can easily identify objects regardless of their orientation or rotation in space. This fact MOST challenges the validity of _____ theories. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 6. The sensory threshold of being able to detect a teaspoon of sugar dissolved in 2 gallons of water is an example of a difference threshold. a. True b. False 7. When confronted with two or more possible interpretations of an object's shape, we tend to perceive the simplest one. a. True b. False 8. Motion sickness is caused by a mismatch between the information provided by auditory cues and vestibular feedback. a. True b. False Use Scenario 4.2 to answer the following question(s). While we effortlessly identify most objects by sight, the mechanisms underlying how and where we make these identifications are matters of theoretical and empirical debate. According to image-based theories, previously identified objects are stored in memory as templates, which are consulted when identifying current retinal images. In contrast, parts-based theories state that the brain uses the component geometric elements (termed geons) comprising the object, as well as the spatial relationships between these geons, for purposes of identification. Where in the brain these identifications occur also is a matter of debate. Modular theories state that specialized areas, or modules, of the brain code categories of objects, whereas distributed representation theories posit that it is the pattern of brain activity in multiple brain regions that identifies an object. 9. (Scenario 4.2) Most of the time, we can easily distinguish among the faces of our friends, even if they have many facial characteristics in common. This fact MOST challenges the validity of _____ theories. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 4.3 to answer the following question(s). In 2015, a Tumbler user posted a picture of a dress and asked if it was blue and black, or if it was white and gold. The picture went viral, and millions disagreed as to the true colors of the dress. This social media event spawned scientific research on the phenomenon. Researchers identified several factors that influenced color perception. First, by altering the size of the photograph, researchers were able to determine that the larger the photograph of the dress was, the more likely viewers were to perceive it as white and gold. Second, older people and women were more likely to perceive the dress as white and gold than were younger people and men. Finally, the researchers speculated that the lighting condition of the room was ambiguous, which could affect color perception. Daylight is a mixture of both "cool" short wavelength components and "warm" medium wavelengths. Perceiving the lighting of the room to be cool results in assigning the medium wavelengths to the dress, and vice-versa. 10. (Scenario 4.3) In the research described above, which of these is a manipulated independent variable? a. lighting condition of room b. color of dress c. size of the photograph d. gender Use Scenario 4.2 to answer the following question(s). While we effortlessly identify most objects by sight, the mechanisms underlying how and where we make these identifications are matters of theoretical and empirical debate. According to image-based theories, previously identified objects are stored in memory as templates, which are consulted when identifying current retinal images. In contrast, parts-based theories state that the brain uses the component geometric elements (termed geons) comprising the object, as well as the spatial relationships between these geons, for purposes of identification. Where in the brain these identifications occur also is a matter of debate. Modular theories state that specialized areas, or modules, of the brain code categories of objects, whereas distributed representation theories posit that it is the pattern of brain activity in multiple brain regions that identifies an object. 11. (Scenario 4.2) An individual suffers a stroke and loses the ability to identify her friends by their faces. The stroke did not impair her ability to identify other common objects. This occurrence would be MOST supportive of the _____ theory of object recognition. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 4.1 to answer the following question(s). A psychologist interested in studying visual perception manipulates the brightness of a light in the imperceptible to very dim range. Each level of brightness (measured in lumens) is studied for 10 trials, and on each trial, participants are asked if they can detect the light. Figure 4.1 shows hypothetical data from one participant. Figure 4.1

12. (Scenario 4.1) In Figure 4.1, the absolute threshold of light perception is indicated by the letter: a. a. b. b. c. c. d. d. 13. An illusory conjunction occurs when we see a green afterimage immediately after staring at a red image. a. True b. False

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14. (Scenario 4.1) Suppose that a second person is tested and is found to have a lower absolute threshold relative to the first. For this second person, the curve will shift _____ relative to the function shown in the figure. a. leftward b. rightward c. upward d. rightward and upward 15. A single taste bud will contain taste receptor cells for only one of the five main taste receptors. a. True b. False

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26. (Scenario 4.1) To minimize the effects of expectancies and sensory adaptation, the researcher should: a. manipulate brightness in descending, rather than ascending, order. b. manipulate brightness randomly on a trial-by-trial basis. c. deceive participants as to the true purpose of the study. d. increase the number of trials at each level of brightness. 27. Haptic perception is primarily the result of the actions of the vestibular system. a. True b. False 28. The length of a light wave determines the brightness we perceive. a. True b. False 29. You can easily tell the difference between 1 and 2 pounds, but not 200 and 201 pounds, illustrating Weber's law. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 30. Visual information passes through the thalamus before reaching area VI. a. True b. False 31. The basilar membrane lines the auditory canal. a. True b. False 32. Neurons in area VI are specialized for encoding edge orientation. a. True b. False 33. Perception does not begin until transduction has occurred. a. True b. False 34. The visible bumps on the tongue are termed taste buds. a. True b. False

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35. (Scenario 4.1) This scenario is BEST described as research in the area of: a. psychometrics. b. perceptual constancy. c. signal detection. d. psychophysics. 36. Referred pain is the result of A-delta and C fibers converging on the same nerve cells in the spinal cord. a. True b. False 37. When you walk into a dark movie theater, you depend on the cones in your retina to help you find your way to an empty seat. a. True b. False 38. If two objects cast images of the same size on the retina, they necessarily will be perceived as the same size. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 39. Umami taste receptors respond most to sodium chloride. a. True b. False 40. The amplitude of a light wave determines its purity or richness of color. a. True b. False 41. L-cones detect blue light. a. True b. False 42. Damage to the ossicles may result in conductive hearing loss. a. True b. False 43. Sensation and perception occur simultaneously. a. True b. False 44. The closer the object at which you're looking is, the smaller the binocular disparity. a. True b. False 45. Humans have approximately 10,000 types of ORNs. a. True b. False 46. Contrary to marketing claims, peoples' evaluations of scent are almost completely unaffected by the packaging and label that accompanies the scent. a. True b. False 47. Specialized neurons that respond to specific objects such as buildings but not to other objects such as tools provide evidence for the modular view of object recognition. a. True b. False 48. An organism's sensitivity to prolonged stimulation tends to increase over time. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 49. Dull throbbing pain is caused by activation of C fibers. a. True b. False 50. Nearsightedness (myopia) results when images are focused in front of the retina. a. True b. False 51. Papillae are the organs of taste transduction. a. True b. False 52. The lens focuses light on the area of the retina known as the optic nerve. a. True b. False 53. The flashing lights of a Las Vegas casino sign that evoke a sense of motion are an example of apparent motion. a. True b. False 54. Linear perspective is a depth cue that requires only one eye to experience. a. True b. False

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55. (Scenario 4.1) Suppose two people differ in terms of their absolute threshold for light, but this difference is extremely small (1 lumen). Because the projection device can manipulate the lumens only in steps of 5, the researcher concludes that the absolute threshold for the two participants is equivalent. In this case, the measure lacks: a. reliability. b. statistical significance. c. power. d. validity. 56. (Scenario 4.1) What the participants perceive as the brightness of the light is determined by the _____ of the light wave. a. color b. frequency c. amplitude d. purity 57. The dorsal visual stream processes the shape and identity of an object. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 4.3 to answer the following question(s). In 2015, a Tumbler user posted a picture of a dress and asked if it was blue and black, or if it was white and gold. The picture went viral, and millions disagreed as to the true colors of the dress. This social media event spawned scientific research on the phenomenon. Researchers identified several factors that influenced color perception. First, by altering the size of the photograph, researchers were able to determine that the larger the photograph of the dress was, the more likely viewers were to perceive it as white and gold. Second, older people and women were more likely to perceive the dress as white and gold than were younger people and men. Finally, the researchers speculated that the lighting condition of the room was ambiguous, which could affect color perception. Daylight is a mixture of both "cool" short wavelength components and "warm" medium wavelengths. Perceiving the lighting of the room to be cool results in assigning the medium wavelengths to the dress, and vice-versa. 58. (Scenario 4.3) In the research described above, which of these is a dependent variable? a. participant age b. color of dress c. size of the photograph d. gender 59. (Scenario 4.3) Differentially perceiving the lighting conditions as warm would result in assigning medium wavelengths to the _____ and perceiving the dress as _____. a. room; white and gold b. room; blue and black c. dress; white and gold d. dress; blue and black 60. The organ of auditory transduction is the cochlea. a. True b. False 61. The amplitude of a sound wave determines its pitch. a. True b. False 62. Olfactory information is relayed to the olfactory bulb via the thalamus. a. True b. False 63. Transduction occurs for every sense EXCEPT that of smell. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 64. An object presented in the right visual field ultimately will be processed in area V1 of the right occipital lobe. a. True b. False Use Scenario 4.2 to answer the following question(s). While we effortlessly identify most objects by sight, the mechanisms underlying how and where we make these identifications are matters of theoretical and empirical debate. According to image-based theories, previously identified objects are stored in memory as templates, which are consulted when identifying current retinal images. In contrast, parts-based theories state that the brain uses the component geometric elements (termed geons) comprising the object, as well as the spatial relationships between these geons, for purposes of identification. Where in the brain these identifications occur also is a matter of debate. Modular theories state that specialized areas, or modules, of the brain code categories of objects, whereas distributed representation theories posit that it is the pattern of brain activity in multiple brain regions that identifies an object. 65. (Scenario 4.2) A geon is to an object as: a. letters are to words. b. a building is to bricks. c. a letter is to its numerical position within the alphabet. d. a sentence is to the words comprising it. 66. Mixing sound waves of different frequencies results in changes in timbre. a. True b. False 67. Someone with visual form agnosia might recognize an object as a pencil but will not be able to write with it. a. True b. False

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay Use Scenario 4.3 to answer the following question(s). In 2015, a Tumbler user posted a picture of a dress and asked if it was blue and black, or if it was white and gold. The picture went viral, and millions disagreed as to the true colors of the dress. This social media event spawned scientific research on the phenomenon. Researchers identified several factors that influenced color perception. First, by altering the size of the photograph, researchers were able to determine that the larger the photograph of the dress was, the more likely viewers were to perceive it as white and gold. Second, older people and women were more likely to perceive the dress as white and gold than were younger people and men. Finally, the researchers speculated that the lighting condition of the room was ambiguous, which could affect color perception. Daylight is a mixture of both "cool" short wavelength components and "warm" medium wavelengths. Perceiving the lighting of the room to be cool results in assigning the medium wavelengths to the dress, and vice-versa. 68. (Scenario 4.3) The viral photograph of the dress underscores the point that color is a _____, not a _____. a. stimulus; response b. figure; ground c. sensation; feature of the object d. perception; sensation Use Scenario 4.2 to answer the following question(s). While we effortlessly identify most objects by sight, the mechanisms underlying how and where we make these identifications are matters of theoretical and empirical debate. According to image-based theories, previously identified objects are stored in memory as templates, which are consulted when identifying current retinal images. In contrast, parts-based theories state that the brain uses the component geometric elements (termed geons) comprising the object, as well as the spatial relationships between these geons, for purposes of identification. Where in the brain these identifications occur also is a matter of debate. Modular theories state that specialized areas, or modules, of the brain code categories of objects, whereas distributed representation theories posit that it is the pattern of brain activity in multiple brain regions that identifies an object. 69. (Scenario 4.2) Functional magnetic resonance imagining has revealed that recognizing objects from different classes (e.g., means of transportation versus animals) activates different brain regions in the cortex. This fact MOST supports _____ theories of object identification. a. image-based b. parts-based c. modular d. distributed representation

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 70. What are the types of touch receptors located under the skin's surface? Describe how touch is represented in the brain.

71. After a stroke, Mario is unable to identify everyday objects that he encounters. His memory for objects and ability to manipulate objects remains intact. What area of his brain has MOST likely been impacted by the stroke? Describe the neural pathways involved in identifying what an object is, where an object is located in space, and how it can be utilized.

72. Describe four Gestalt perceptual grouping rules.

73. Define sensation and perception. Give an example of each.

74. What are the three properties of sound waves? How does each affect the experience of sound?

75. Mariah is interested in studying college students' absolute thresholds for detecting sound. Design an experiment that will allow her to do so.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 76. Neural signals for pain travel along two pathways in the brain. Where does each pathway go? What information is gained from signals in each pathway?

77. Although your friend has never seen a cherry-red spider, she has no problem detecting that one is currently crawling across her floor. Using this example, describe the processes of sensation and perception of color.

78. Sofia is creating a giant painting of the streets of New York City. List five ways she could create depth in her painting. Are these monocular or binocular cues?

79. Describe the three major structures and functions of the outer, middle, and inner ear.

80. Dr. Liu examines a patient with hearing loss. She notices damage to the eardrum. What type of hearing loss and treatment options does this patient have?

81. Describe the two chemical senses of smell and taste. Include a discussion of the sensory receptors for smell and taste, and a discussion of the pathways by which smell and taste sensations are transmitted.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 82. Describe the flow of visual information from the eye to the primary visual cortex.

83. What is the difference between taste and flavor?

84. What is the difference between change blindness and inattentional blindness? When might you fall victim to each?

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. a 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 55. c 56. c 57. b 58. b 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. b 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. c 70. The answer should indicate that there are several types of touch receptors located under the surface of the skin, including pain, pressure, texture, pattern, and vibration. Touch is represented in the brain in a topographic scheme. Different locations on the body project sensory signals to different locations in the somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe. Just as the visual brain is devoted to foveal vision where acuity is the greatest, the tactile brain is devoted to parts of the skin surface that have greater spatial resolution. For example, the fingertips and lips are good at discriminating fine spatial detail because fingertips and lips have a dense arrangement of touch receptors in the somatosensory cortex. Areas such as the lower back, which have no such arrangement of touch receptors, are quite poor at discriminating spatial detail. 71. The answer should indicate the following information: (1) Mario most likely has suffered damage to the ventral stream or "what" pathway. (2) The ventral stream represents what an object is. This pathway travels across the occipital lobe into the lower levels of the temporal lobe. (3) The dorsal stream travels from the occipital lobe to the parietal lobes. The dorsal stream allows us to perceive spatial relations and is crucial for guiding actions such as aiming, reaching, and tracking with the eyes.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 72. The answer should indicate four of the following: (1) Simplicity: The visual system tends to select the simplest or most likely interpretation. (2) Closure: The missing elements of a visual scene are filled in, allowing us to perceive edges that are separated by an interruption as belonging to complete objects. (3) Continuity: Edges that have the same orientation are grouped together perceptually. (4) Similarity: Regions that are similar in color, lightness, shape, or texture are perceived as belonging to the same object. (5) Proximity: Objects that are close together tend to be grouped together. (6) Common fate: Elements of a visual image that move together are perceived as parts of a single moving object. 73. Sensation is simple stimulation of a sense organ. Perception is the organization, identification, and interpretation of a sensation to form a mental representation. One example of sensation is that the sensory receptors in your eyes are registering different patterns of light coming off the page. Your brain transforms those patterns of light into coherent material in a process called perception. 74. The answer should indicate that the three properties of sound waves are frequency, amplitude, and complexity. The frequency of a sound wave, or its wavelength, depends on how often the peak in air pressure passes the ear. Changes in the physical frequency of a sound wave are perceived by humans as changes in pitch. The amplitude of a sound wave is its height relative to the threshold for human hearing. Amplitude corresponds to loudness, or sound intensity. Differences in the complexity of sound waves or their mixing of frequencies correspond to timbre, a listener's experience of sound quality or resonance. 75. Absolute threshold is the minimal intensity needed to just barely detect a stimulus in 50% of the trials. To measure absolute threshold, Mariah should repeatedly present a tone varying in intensity, and record how often the participant reports hearing the tone at each intensity level. She should create a graph of percentage of times detected as a function of physical intensity of stimulus tone. She can calculate the point at which the participant responds that they can hear the tone 50% of the time, and this will be the absolute threshold. 76. One pathway for pain travels to the thalamus and the somatosensory cortex. This pathway allows for the location and type of pain (i.e., sharp, burning, or dull) to be determined. A second pathway travels to the motivational and emotional areas of the brain, such as the hypothalamus, amygdala, and frontal lobe. The second pathway informs us about the unpleasantness of the pain and motivates us to escape from, or relieve, the pain. 77. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Sir Isaac Newton pointed out that color is not something in light. Nor is it in the object. An apple is not red. Rather, color is our perceptual response to different wavelengths of light. We perceive an apple to be red because it reflects light waves of a particular frequency. (2) Humans have specialized cones to detect short wavelengths (S-cones), medium wavelengths (M-cones), and long wavelengths (L-cones). Activation of these cones corresponds to our perception of bluish, greenish, and reddish colors, respectively. (3) Depending on the pattern of firing among these three types of cones, all the shades of color in the visual spectrum can be perceived.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 78. The answer should indicate the following points. Monocular depth cues are aspects of a scene that yield information about depth when viewed with only one eye. These include relative size, linear perspective, texture gradient, interposition, and relative height. Sofia could paint objects that are in the foreground of the painting larger than those that should be in the background, using relative size. Due to linear perspective, she should make sure that the parallel lines of the streets seem to converge as they recede into the distance. Using a texture gradient, closer objects should appear more detailed, and objects further away should appear smoother. Interposition occurs when one object partly blocks another. Having items in the foreground that block items in the background would provide a depth cue, but this alone will not provide information about how far apart the two objects are. Sofia could use relative height in the image to give clues about depth. She would paint objects that are closer to the viewer lower in a visual scene, and objects that are supposed to be farther from the viewer higher up in the picture. 79. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The outer ear consists of the pinna, the auditory canal, and the eardrum. The pinna funnels sound waves into the auditory canal. Sound waves travel through the canal and vibrate the eardrum. (2) The middle ear contains the three smallest bones in the body, the ossicles: hammer, anvil, and stirrup. Vibrations from the eardrum cause the ossicles to vibrate. (3) The inner ear contains the spiral-shaped cochlea, a fluid-filled tube that is the organ of auditory transduction. The cochlea is divided along its length by the basilar membrane, a structure in the inner ear that undulates when vibrations from the ossicles reach the cochlear fluid. This movement stimulates hair cells, which are specialized auditory receptor neurons embedded in the basilar membrane. Neurotransmitters released from the hair cells initiate the neural signal to the brain via the auditory nerve. 80. The patient has conductive hearing loss, which involves mechanical damage to the point that structures cannot conduct sound waves effectively to the cochlea. Medication or surgery can correct the problem. Sound amplification from a hearing aid can also improve hearing through conduction via the bones around the ear directly to the cochlea. 81. The answer should indicate that the experience of smell is associated with odorant molecules binding to sites on specialized olfactory receptors neurons (ORNs) that converge at the glomerulus within the olfactory bulb. This event, in turn, sends signals to parts of the brain that control drives, emotions, and memories, which explains why smells can sometimes elicit strong emotions and memories. Sensations of taste depend on taste buds, which are distributed across the tongue, roof of the mouth, and upper throat. Each taste bud contains a range of receptor cells that respond to varying chemical components of food: salty, sour, bitter, sweet, and umami. These molecules then dissolve in saliva and stimulate the microvilli that form the tips of the taste receptor cells. Each taste bud is in contact with a branch of a cranial nerve at its base. 82. The answer should indicate the following information: (1) Information is carried from the eye to the brain via the optic nerve. Half of the axons in the optic nerve that leave each eye come from retinal ganglion cells that code information in the right visual field, and the other half code information in the left visual field. (2) The right visual field information is relayed to the left hemisphere of the brain, while the left visual field information is relayed to the right hemisphere. (3) Information first goes to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), which is located in the thalamus of each hemisphere. (4) From the LGN, the visual signals travel to area V1, the part of the occipital lobe that contains the primary visual cortex.

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Chap 04_5e_TF + Essay 83. Food molecules are dissolved in saliva, and can evoke specific, combined patterns of activity in the five taste receptor types. Taste is the patterns of activity in these receptors. Flavor, however, is a complex perception caused by the combination of both taste and smell. 84. Change blindness is the failure to detect changes to the visual details of a scene. Inattentional blindness is a failure to perceive objects that are not the focus of attention. These two concepts highlight the importance of focused attention for detecting changes to objects and scenes. Change blindness is most likely to occur when people fail to focus attention on an object that undergoes a change. Inattentional blindness frequently occurs when people use cell phones. The distraction of cell phones causes people to fail to notice major details in a scene, for example, a clown riding a unicycle through the middle of a college campus.

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Chap 05_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which pair is a correct match of a drug with its class of action? a. alcohol – stimulant b. Valium – hallucinogen c. Nembutal – opiate d. Xanax – minor tranquilizer 2. Dante's EEG shows delta activity. What stage of sleep is he in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep 3. No matter how engaged in conversation parents may be, they probably will quickly notice if their children start crying. This is an example of: a. self-consciousness. b. the rebound effect. c. cognitive unconscious. d. the cocktail-party effect. 4. Which psychological problem is NOT associated with cocaine use? a. insomnia b. paranoia c. schizophrenia d. depression 5. _____ are neurotransmitters that are closely related in chemical structure to opiates. a. Endorphins b. Dopamine agonists c. Cannabinoids d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors 6. The fact that dreams feel unplanned and rambling has been attributed to _____ of the _____. a. inhibition; amygdala b. deactivation; prefrontal cortex c. inhibition; visual association cortex d. activation; amygdala

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Chap 05_5e 7. Which statement about sleepwalking is true? a. Sleepwalkers can hurt themselves while walking. b. It is dangerous to awaken a sleepwalker. c. Sleepwalkers usually walk with their hands outstretched. d. Sleepwalkers typically walk with their eyes closed. 8. Modern _____ theories postulate that the brain has different systems regulating conscious and unconscious information processing. a. Freudian b. psychodynamic c. dual process d. gestalt 9. Which statement about drug addiction is true? a. It refers only to a physical dependence on a drug. b. It is an incurable condition. c. Its definition changes across cultures and time. d. It refers to the recreational, but not medicinal, use of drugs. 10. Chin et al. (2017) used experience-sampling to study boredom. They found that people reported the HIGHEST likelihood of boredom while: a. studying. b. relaxing. c. doing housework. d. working. 11. Which statement about dream consciousness is FALSE? a. People can experience the sensations of smell and touch in their dreams. b. People are notoriously bad at being able to recall their dreams. c. People often dream about mundane topics. d. Conscious concerns rarely appear in dreams. 12. A criticism of Freud's interpretations of Freudian slips is that: a. recent research suggests that slips say nothing about the contents of consciousness. b. in the real world, these types of slips are extremely rare. c. they reflect the after-the-fact interpretation of the listener, instead of the thoughts of the speaker. d. the interpretations do not meet modern standards of statistical significance.

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Chap 05_5e 13. According to Freud, the wishes in a dream are: a. explicitly dreamed about. b. just random neural activity during sleep. c. never sexual in nature. d. expressed in disguised or symbolic form. 14. The _____ theory of alcohol action suggests that the appearance of aberrant behavior while drinking reflects the fact that alcohol hampers attention, resulting in simplistic responses to complex situations. a. negative reinforcement b. positive reinforcement c. expectancy d. myopia 15. The fact that our consciousness can wander like a stream is taken as evidence of the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity 16. The fact that humans can hold only so much information in mind at one time explains why: a. the development of artificial intelligence devices such as Alexa and Siri is so important. b. stream of consciousness style is used so often in books and music. c. people can easily pick up their name being mentioned at a busy party. d. the flow of consciousness is chaotic and ever-changing. 17. Alex frequently works night shifts. When she is not working, she has trouble falling asleep. Alex suffers from: a. secondary insomnia. b. narcolepsy. c. self-induced insomnia. d. sleep apnea. 18. Aditya has smoked marijuana a few times, and is now contemplating trying cocaine. Marijuana is a(n) _____ for Aditya if it increases his risk of trying cocaine. a. agonist b. antagonist c. gateway drug d. narcotic

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Chap 05_5e 19. While campaigning for president, Hillary Clinton said "prisoner" when she meant to say "president." This speech error is an example of: a. a lapse of consciousness. b. repression. c. a rebound effect of thought suppression. d. a Freudian slip. 20. On average, people alternate between REM sleep and slow-wave sleep about every _____ minutes over the course of a night. a. 60 b. 90 c. 120 d. 180 21. Consciousness has _____, which is the quality of being directed toward an object. a. unity b. selectivity c. transience d. intentionality 22. Which type of drug increases the activity of a neurotransmitter? a. antagonist b. agonist c. psychoactive d. mescaline 23. Dual process theories propose all EXCEPT which of these? a. There are two systems in the brain for processing information. b. Separate neural pathways underlie System 1 and System 2. c. Hidden urges underlie decisions made by System 2. d. System 1 is dedicated to unconscious processing. 24. Tyler has an exam and spends the night before it cramming. What is MOST likely true about his test performance? a. He will develop symptoms of test-taking anxiety. b. He will forget the majority of the material soon after the exam. c. He will do worse than will students who do not study at all. d. He will recall more exam material than will students who got a full night of sleep.

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Chap 05_5e 25. Sometimes people experience sensations of falling while _____, a phenomenon termed _____. a. dreaming; REM rebound b. dreaming; hypnopompic levitation c. falling asleep; hypnotic drop d. falling asleep; hypnic jerk 26. Using fMRI, the widespread pattern of brain activity observed when people have nothing specific to which to attend, is termed the: a. current concerns. b. conscious will. c. default network. d. rebound effect. 27. When Brent attends the annual party for his fraternity, he usually begins acting aggressive after just one beer. When he is watching a movie with his girlfriend, however, one beer makes him feel relaxed. Brent's seemingly discrepant behaviors are MOST likely explained by: a. expectancy theory. b. alcohol's effects on the GABA system. c. alcohol myopia. d. alcohol's effects on endogenous opiates. 28. There is evidence that all EXCEPT which of these self-recognizes in a mirror? a. dolphins b. dogs c. chimpanzees d. orangutans 29. The sleep disorder that would be MOST dangerous to drivers is: a. sleep paralysis. b. sleep apnea. c. narcolepsy. d. somnambulism. 30. At a club, Lupita feels giddy, energized, and ready to dance with friends after one drink. When she's at home, listening to music, one drink makes her feel calm and relaxed. Which of these BEST explain the discrepancy in Lupita's behavior? a. expectancy theory b. alcohol's effects on the GABA system c. alcohol myopia d. alcohol's effects on endogenous opiates Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 31. Betsy and Jasmine are arguing about the intellectual abilities of their dog, Amos. Betsy claims that Amos knows that he is supposed to bark on the command "speak." Jasmine agrees that Amos speaks on command but contends that Amos is not aware that he has learned this stimulus–response relation. Betsy and Jasmine are debating whether Amos is _____ of his clever abilities. a. preconscious b. fully conscious c. self-conscious d. transient 32. Carson has depression and has recently had difficulty falling asleep. He likely suffers from: a. secondary insomnia. b. somnambulism. c. self-induced insomnia. d. sleep apnea. 33. A golfer consciously tries not to pull his drive, but a camera goes off during his backswing and he ends up pulling his drive into the trees. Pulling the drive BEST illustrates: a. thought suppression. b. ironic processes of mental control. c. the rebound effect of thought suppression. d. self-consciousness. 34. Which factor is NOT associated with REM sleep? a. dreaming b. sleep walking c. blood flow to the genitals d. increased pulse 35. Self-consciousness occurs when: a. we focus all of our attention on an object. b. our attention is drawn to ourselves as an object. c. we can respond to stimuli in our environments. d. we simplify our lives and stop being fully conscious. 36. New smokers may progress from their first cigarette to smoking a half to a full pack a day in just a few weeks, illustrating: a. drug tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. the placebo effect. d. expectancy effects. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 37. A(n) _____ is a drug whose use increases the risk of the subsequent use of more harmful drugs. a. agonist b. antagonist c. gateway drug d. narcotic 38. While under hypnosis, Jenna begins remembering instances in which she was sexually molested by a neighbor when she was 4 years old. With additional sessions of hypnosis, Jenna can remember what she was wearing, the smell of the cologne worn by the perpetrator, and a song that was playing on the radio. Which statement regarding Jenna's recovered memory is true? a. Detailed memories cannot be fabricated; thus, the memory is true. b. Given the details of the memory, the sexual assault probably occurred. c. Even if Jenna is confident that her memory is accurate, it is not necessarily true. d. Long-term memories do not form at age 4; thus, the claim is necessarily false. 39. Meaidi and colleagues (2014) demonstrated that compared to sighted individuals, those with congenital blindness have _____ auditory impressions and _____ nightmares. a. more; more b. more; fewer c. fewer; more d. fewer; fewer 40. A form of experience that departs significantly from the normal subjective experience of the world and the mind is called: a. an altered state of consciousness. b. a hypnogogic state of consciousness. c. subliminal consciousness. d. the collective unconscious. 41. Which person is MOST likely susceptible to hypnosis? a. Jamir, a math major whose opinions are not easily swayed b. Krystal, who easily becomes convinced to do things that her friends tell her to do c. Kamela, who has strong, unwavering religious beliefs d. Bruce, who believes it is impossible for someone to hypnotize him 42. According to dual process theory, which function would NOT be processed by the "slow" System 2? a. debating about what major a college student should declare b. answering reading-comprehension questions on a standardized college entrance exam c. reading the words to a question on an exam d. considering how best to answer an essay question in the allotted time and space Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 43. The defining feature of consciousness that separates it from unconsciousness is: a. experience. b. activation–synthesis. c. forebrain activity. d. wakefulness. 44. Which statement about hallucinogens is FALSE? a. Hallucinogenic drugs produce profound changes in perception. b. Hallucinogenic drugs do not produce significant dependence. c. The use of hallucinogens is associated with a substantial risk of overdose. d. The psychoactive effects of hallucinogens are dramatic and unpredictable. 45. _____ refers to how things seem to the _____ person. a. Phrenology; unconscious b. Phenomenology; unconscious c. Phrenology; conscious d. Phenomenology; conscious 46. Self-recognition in a mirror is limited to: a. humans over 3 years old, cats, and gorillas. b. humans, dogs, and apes. c. a few animals and children over 18 months old. d. humans over 3 years old. 47. Which statement about night terrors is FALSE? a. They are most common in children. b. Upon awakening suddenly, terrified people will report vivid nightmares. c. They usually occur in non-REM sleep. d. They usually occur early in the sleep cycle. 48. Sleep paralysis is a sleep symptom that is sometimes associated with: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. sleepwalking.

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Chap 05_5e 49. People with sleep apnea: a. often stop breathing for 10 minutes at a time. b. dream vividly all night long. c. usually snore. d. spend most of their night in stage 4 sleep. 50. The stage of sleep characterized by the HIGHEST level of brain activity is _____ sleep. a. stage 4 b. REM c. stage 2 d. stage 1 51. _____ is a sleep disorder associated with an interruption in breathing for short periods of time. a. Sleep apnea b. Snoring c. Sleep asthma d. Hypersomnia 52. Based on EEG records, it appears that sleep can be divided into _____ phases. a. two b. three c. four d. five 53. Ideas that hypnotists mention to the volunteer about what the volunteer will do are termed: a. suggestions. b. implantations. c. triggers. d. sublimations. 54. The psychological approach known as _____ was proposed as a way to make the problem of other minds a nonissue. a. structuralism b. phrenology c. mentalism d. behaviorism

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Chap 05_5e 55. The theory of alcohol myopia suggests that consuming alcohol: a. causes the drinker to become more nearsighted. b. causes people to react in simple ways to complex situations. c. enables the drinker to relax inhibitions. d. leads the drinker to become socially inhibited. 56. Which statement about sleep is true? a. Newborns sleep less than do the elderly. b. REM sleep is most pronounced in the first 30 minutes of sleep. c. Over the course of a night, we usually sleep 2 hours for every hour that we had been awake. d. We sleep less per night as we age. 57. An electroencephalograph (EEG) measures: a. electrical activity in the brain. b. eye movements. c. oxygenated hemoglobin in the brain. d. blood flow to the genitals. 58. Which belief was NOT expressed by René Descartes? a. The mind is not composed of physical matter. b. The mind is what the brain does. c. The mind is a separate entity from the body. d. The human body functions as a machine. 59. Which statement about marijuana is FALSE? a. The addiction potential of marijuana is not strong. b. Psychological dependence is possible. c. Marijuana impairs short-term memory. d. Marijuana improves motor skills and coordination. 60. A baseball pitcher knows that a batter often hits home runs when the pitch is on the inner half of the strike zone. The pitcher consciously tries to pitch to the outer half but, while distracted by a base runner, throws to the inner half and the batter hits a home run. Pitching to the inner half of the strike zone BEST illustrates: a. thought suppression. b. the rebound effect of thought suppression. c. the Freudian unconscious. d. self-consciousness.

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Chap 05_5e 61. Shortly after 10 p.m., Lilly rises and walks while asleep. Which sleep disorder does she MOST likely suffer from? a. narcolepsy b. somnambulism c. sleep terrors d. insomnia 62. _____ is perceived as having experience but not agency. a. A baby b. God c. A robot d. An adult human 63. Which statement about nightmares is true? a. Children have more nightmares than do adults. b. Women have more nightmares than do men. c. People who have experienced traumatic events actually have fewer nightmares than do others. d. Nightmares often involve the perception of pain. 64. Alcohol, like other _____, increases the activity of the neurotransmitter _____. a. stimulants; serotonin b. narcotics; norepinephrine c. depressants; GABA d. hallucinogens; dopamine 65. Which statement about the problem of other minds is true? a. The "consciousness meter" of anesthesiologists has produced tremendous insight into the conscious experiences of other minds. b. You can quickly assess if your roommate is a conscious person by asking her how she feels. c. By studying another person in tremendous detail, psychologists ultimately will be able to truly know what it is like to be that person. d. It cannot be proven if anyone else besides you even experiences consciousness. 66. Research has shown that all but which of these are associated with REM deprivation? a. memory problems b. excessive aggression c. hypersensitivity to muscle pain d. REM rebound once REM sleep is allowed again

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Chap 05_5e 67. Which of these behaviors has NOT been linked to alcohol consumption? a. reduced anxiety b. increased sexual and intimate partner violence c. faster reaction time d. reductions in effectiveness of thought 68. Freud described _____ as a mental process that removes unacceptable thoughts and memories from consciousness. a. thought suppression b. speech errors (or slips) c. the dynamic unconscious d. repression 69. When questioned by her parents about her pattern of late-night activity followed by oversleeping, Meadow might correctly attribute her rest–activity cycle to the fact that she is a _____-hour person living in a _____hour world. a. 23; 24 b. 24; 25 c. 25; 23 d. 25; 24 70. When participants were asked to suppress thoughts of a personal acquaintance for 5 minutes before going to bed: a. they dreamed more about the acquaintance. b. they dreamed less about the acquaintance. c. there was no change in the amount that the participant dreamed about their acquaintance. d. they reported no dreams at all. 71. A recovering alcoholic who hasn't had a drink in more than a year, Tony still sometimes craves a drink when he sees a beer commercial on television. This craving is likely due to: a. psychological dependence. b. physical dependence. c. the placebo effect. d. drug tolerance. 72. The ingestion of _____ plays a role in some Native American religious practices. a. psilocybin b. peyote c. LSD d. ketamine Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 73. The problem of other minds is: a. the difficulty we have in perceiving the consciousness of others. b. the difficulty we have reading others' minds. c. a problem that can be solved by anesthesiologists using measurements of brain activity. d. the assumption that others do not share our consciousness. 74. Which thought is probably NOT part of a college student's default network? a. What am I going to do with my life? b. Do others find me physically attractive? c. Why did my last relationship not work out? d. Do I turn right or left to get to the house party? 75. While reading out loud to his kids, Jin realizes that he doesn't remember what he has just read. Jin was _____ during reading. a. fully conscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. minimally conscious 76. The MOST commonly used depressant drug is: a. caffeine. b. alcohol. c. marijuana. d. heroin. 77. The timing of conscious will was shown to follow which pattern? a. Brain activity begins, a conscious wish to act is experienced, and then behavioral action occurs. b. A conscious wish to act is experienced, brain activity begins, and then behavioral action occurs. c. Behavioral action occurs, brain activity begins, and then a conscious wish to act is experienced. d. A conscious wish to act is experienced, behavioral action occurs, and then brain activity begins. 78. The capacity to recognize one's own mirror image is evident in humans: a. at birth. b. by age 6 months. c. by age 18 months. d. by age 3 years.

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Chap 05_5e 79. Awake is to deep sleep as _____ waves are to _____ waves. a. beta; theta b. beta; delta c. theta; beta d. delta; beta 80. The theory that suggests dreams are the mind's attempt to make sense of random neural activity occurring in the brain during sleep is the _____ model. a. sensory–synthesis b. neural–synthesis c. interpretation–synthesis d. activation–synthesis 81. Consciousness integrates information from all of the bodily senses into a coherent whole, a property of consciousness termed: a. selectivity. b. transience. c. unity. d. intentionality. 82. The cognitive unconscious can BEST be described as a: a. mediator between animal urges and societal norms. b. warehouse stored with repressed thoughts and memories. c. repository filled with the collective experiences of our ancestors. d. rapid automatic information processer. 83. Chin et al. (2016) used experience-sampling to follow 1.1 million people over a 10-day period to examine boredom. Where did people report the HIGHEST level of boredom? a. school b. airport c. restaurant d. outdoors 84. Rita takes a pill at a party and, 30 minutes later, feels a strong, positive emotional connection with the other people there. Which drug did Rita MOST likely take? a. MDMA b. amphetamine c. Xanax d. Oxycontin

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Chap 05_5e 85. If a person is awake and driving a car, a recording of the brain's EEG pattern would probably contain a considerable number of _____ waves. a. beta b. kappa c. alpha d. delta 86. Walter has been taking _____ regularly for a few months now. When he discontinues use, he experiences insomnia, depression, paranoia, and hyperthermia. a. cocaine b. Ecstasy c. marijuana d. nicotine 87. Dreaming is considered to be a(n): a. form of unconsciousness. b. altered state of consciousness. c. normal state of consciousness. d. period during which the brain is turned off. 88. Research demonstrating that some people have clear genetic and neurobiological predispositions to have deficits in the ability to resist the urge to engage in drug use provides evidence that drug addiction is: a. a choice. b. a disease over which a person has little or no control. c. primarily due to social factors. d. a concept with a definition that changes over time. 89. What happened when Randy Gardner ended his world record 264 hours and 12 minutes of sleep deprivation? a. He could not sleep for more than 1 hour at a time. b. He slept for 14 hours 40 minutes and was perfectly fine afterward. c. He had permanent cognitive deficits. d. He had difficulty experiencing REM sleep for months afterward. 90. Cocaine comes from: a. certain strains of sugar cane. b. the coca plant. c. poppy seeds. d. the ma huang plant.

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Chap 05_5e 91. According to Freud, _____ is a mental process that removes unacceptable thoughts and memories from consciousness. a. the cognitive unconscious b. the rebound effect of thought suppression c. the dynamic unconscious d. repression 92. The capacity to include some objects in consciousness but not others is called the _____ of consciousness. a. selectivity b. unity c. inclusivity d. transience 93. René Descartes believed that: a. the human body and mind are both physical machines. b. both human bodies and minds are made of a "thinking substance." c. the human mind is irrelevant to psychology. d. the human body is a physical machine, but the human mind is made of an immaterial "thinking substance." 94. The sleep disorder characterized by walking while asleep is called: a. sleep ambulation. b. narcolepsy. c. hypersomnia. d. somnambulism. 95. René Descartes believed that the mind is made of _____ and the body is made of _____. a. physical matter; physical matter b. physical matter; thinking substance c. thinking substance; physical matter d. thinking substance; thinking substance 96. Huffing refers to: a. forcefully exhaling to induce dizziness. b. snorting a drug powder through a straw. c. sniffing the vapors of glue, gasoline, or propane. d. smoking marijuana that has been laced with PCP.

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Chap 05_5e 97. Which of these is NOT a toxic inhalant? a. alcohol b. glue c. gasoline d. nail polish remover 98. Which statement about sleepwalking is true? a. It typically occurs in the early morning hours. b. It peaks in the teenage years. c. It occurs in the deeper stages of sleep. d. It is not safe to wake a sleepwalker. 99. Humans have difficulty with _____ in dreams. a. emotion b. sensation c. memory d. acceptance 100. The term _____ refers to all chemicals that influence consciousness or behavior by altering the brain's chemical message system. a. teratogens b. psychoactive drugs c. hallucinogens d. inhalants 101. Which process MOST accurately describes the experience-sampling technique of determining the contents of consciousness? a. Participants keep a dream diary at bedside to record their dreams upon awakening. b. Participants keep detailed thought journals and update these journals at least twice a day. c. Participants report what is on their mind when prompted at random times throughout the day. d. Participants talk out loud when something is on their mind, and this is recorded. 102. Studies using the experience-sampling technique suggest that our consciousness tends to be dominated by: a. our own personal feelings. b. unconscious motives. c. feelings of self-consciousness. d. the sensory inputs of our immediate environment.

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Chap 05_5e 103. Phenomenology refers to: a. how things seem to the conscious person. b. how things seem to a person during a dream. c. the comparison of a single phenomenon with a transcendental state. d. the practice of determining traits by examining bumps on the skull. 104. Airi has insomnia and recently began taking sedatives to help her fall asleep. Which statement BEST describes the effectiveness of the sedatives? a. Long-term sedative use will effectively treat her insomnia. b. Sedatives will be useful for brief sleep problems. c. The quality of sleep obtained after taking sedatives is better than that achieved without them. d. Sedatives will be effective for insomnia only when taken over long periods of time. 105. At the end of a long week of exams, Sally asks her roommate how she feels. Her roommate shares feelings of being overwhelmed. From this, Sally: a. can tell that her roommate experiences consciousness. b. has conclusive evidence of her roommate's consciousness. c. could follow up with the conscious meter used by anesthesiologists to conclusively study her roommate's consciousness. d. will never know whether her roommate's experience of consciousness is similar to her own. 106. Research shows that most people struggling with opioid dependence first received opioids from a: a. drug dealer. b. licensed physician. c. friend. d. family member. 107. During REM sleep, the motor cortex is activated, but the body is very still. This pattern occurs because _____ running through the brainstem _____ motor activation. a. dendrites; signal b. neurotransmitters; antagonize c. sensory neurons; inhibit d. spinal neurons; inhibit

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Chap 05_5e 108. Jimmy has a recurring dream about trying to rescue his very attractive neighbor's cat from a tree. Unfortunately, in his dream, the ladder in Jimmy's garage is never tall enough to reach the cat. Freud probably would say that the underlying meaning of this dream revolves around: a. a cat being stuck in a tree. b. Jimmy's desire to behave altruistically. c. Jimmy's sexual insecurities. d. Jimmy's fear of heights. 109. Our stream of consciousness may be transient due to the: a. cocktail-party phenomenon. b. limited capacity of the conscious mind. c. capacity for our consciousness to take in all available information. d. rebound effect. 110. Antianxiety drugs, such as Valium and Xanax, are classified as: a. hallucinogens. b. narcotics. c. stimulants. d. benzodiazepines. 111. Which of these is NOT a result of a few hours of sleep loss in healthy young humans? a. increase in mental acuity b. increase in irritability c. depression d. increase in risk of accidents 112. Lucinda is asked to read out loud to her 2nd-grade class. She is cognizant that she is reading out loud, which means that she is _____ during reading. a. fully conscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. minimally conscious 113. Scientists and policy makers are arguing for all of these fixes for the opioid epidemic EXCEPT: a. implementing physician training to decrease prescription of opioids. b. developing less addictive pain medications. c. initiating public education campaigns that alert communities to the dangers of opioid addiction. d. imprisoning users of illegal opioids.

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Chap 05_5e 114. An example of secondary insomnia is insomnia: a. induced by working late hours. b. that occurs only in REM sleep. c. induced by depression or anxiety. d. with no obvious causes. 115. Which statement about sleeping medications is true? a. Sleeping pills usually are effective for the long-term management of insomnia. b. Sleeping pills reduce the time spent in both REM sleep and the deep stages of sleep. c. Sleeping pills increase the quality of deep sleep but decrease time spent in REM sleep. d. Most sleeping pills are not addictive. 116. The sleep disorder MOST associated with reports of waking up immobilized with perceptions of aliens examining one's body is: a. insomnia. b. sleep paralysis. c. night terrors. d. narcolepsy. 117. Which of these drugs are easily accessible, even to children? a. narcotics b. hallucinogens c. toxic inhalants d. barbiturates 118. In experiments examining conscious will, brain activity was measured while subjects repeatedly decided to move a hand. Based on the results, researchers concluded that: a. the feeling of conscious will exists because the mind directs brain and behavioral processes. b. the feeling of conscious will is the result of brain activity, not the cause of it. c. within 300 milliseconds after willing an action to occur, brain activity has begun to direct behavior. d. conscious will is the result of the mind justifying a behavioral action after the fact. 119. _____ refers to a social interaction in which one person makes suggestions that lead to a change in another person's subjective experience of the world. a. Mesmerism b. Hypnosis c. Meditation d. Hallucination

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Chap 05_5e 120. Which statement about dream consciousness is true? a. People tend to remember the majority of their dreams hours after the dream is over. b. Emotions felt in dreams are of a lower intensity than those felt when awake. c. Dreaming thought is illogical. d. Dreams are exclusively visual; it is impossible to dream an auditory experience. 121. Approximately _____ of people awakened during REM sleep will report dreams. a. 5% b. 20% c. 80% d. 99% 122. Which drug is often called speed on the street? a. cocaine b. amphetamine c. caffeine d. MDMA 123. In Freud's view, dreams represent: a. the current concerns of a person. b. hidden wishes. c. an attempt by the brain to understand random neural activity during sleep. d. universal symbols. 124. Alcohol inhibits the transmission of neural impulses by increasing the activity of: a. GABA. b. norepinephrine. c. serotonin. d. dopamine. 125. Which statement about the theater of the mind is FALSE? a. If we shut our eyes, we can imagine things in this theater. b. The movie projected onto our mental screen can be viewed by others if we so choose. c. Some things presently occurring are not projected onto our mental screen. d. There is only a single seat in the theater.

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Chap 05_5e 126. In an fMRI scan, Jackson's brain's default network is lit up. Jackson is MOST likely: a. performing a task that involves memorizing a list of words. b. actively reading the script of a play. c. asleep. d. remembering last week's game night with his friends. 127. The _____ action of barbiturates makes them useful for inducing _____. a. depressant; sleep b. stimulant; heightened concentration c. depressant; seizures d. stimulant; euphoria 128. Amphetamines such as Methedrine and Dexedrine _____ the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain. a. markedly decrease b. increase c. slightly decrease d. usually do not affect 129. Danette has been asleep for more than 6 hours. What stage of sleep is she LEAST likely experiencing? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep 130. Aadesh rarely gets enough stage 3 and 4 sleep because he works late most nights of the week. It is likely that Aadesh will: a. experience memory problems. b. become aggressive when faced with minor stressors. c. become hypersensitive to muscle pain. d. experience narcolepsy during the day. 131. The presence of _____ when the use of an addictive drug is stopped may result in _____ drug use. a. withdrawal symptoms; suppression of b. euphoria; suppression of c. withdrawal symptoms; further d. drug urges; suppression of

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Chap 05_5e 132. When fear of scoring badly on a math exam dominated his thoughts, David intentionally used _____ to attempt to change his conscious state of mind. a. self-consciousness b. mental control c. repression d. sensory stimuli 133. Stage 2 sleep is associated with: a. sleep spindles. b. beta waves. c. alpha waves. d. delta waves. 134. The largest changes in EEG patterns occur during: a. wakefulness. b. hypnagogic state. c. sleep. d. hypnopompic state. 135. Which of these is NOT a result of extreme sleep loss? a. trouble regulating body temperature b. weight loss c. eating less than normal d. death 136. Dangerous side effects of cocaine use include: a. seizures and convulsions. b. severe flulike symptoms. c. insomnia and depression. d. psychological problems only. 137. Nicotine is classified as a: a. stimulant. b. depressant. c. benzodiazepine. d. narcotic.

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Chap 05_5e 138. A key symptom of hallucinogenic drugs is their capacity to: a. alter sensation and perception. b. block pain. c. alleviate anxiety. d. reverse symptoms of psychosis. 139. The issue of how the mind is related to the brain and body is known as the: a. cocktail-party phenomenon. b. problem of other minds. c. mind–body problem. d. split-brain problem. 140. Reggie rarely gets enough stage 3 and 4 sleep because his roommates stay up late partying most nights of the week. It is likely that Reggie will: a. experience an increase in daydreaming. b. become aggressive when faced with minor stressors. c. experience fatigue during the day. d. experience narcolepsy during the day. 141. Freud described the _____ as an active system encompassing a lifetime of hidden memories, a person's deepest instincts and desires, and that person's inner struggle to control these forces. a. subconscious b. superego c. dynamic unconscious d. ego 142. Which drug is NOT a narcotic? a. opium b. amphetamine c. methadone d. Demerol 143. A key difference between the dynamic unconscious and the cognitive unconscious is that: a. repression is the major function of the cognitive unconscious. b. the cognitive unconscious does not emphasize animal urges and repressed thoughts. c. the dynamic unconscious is more susceptible to subliminal perception. d. slips of speech are important for understanding the cognitive unconscious.

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Chap 05_5e 144. Leon takes a pill but doesn't know what is in it. He begins to feel changes in his perception and is having auditory hallucinations. It is likely that he took: a. LSD. b. amphetamine. c. MDMA. d. Oxycontin. 145. The rebound effect of thought suppression is the tendency of a thought to: a. bounce in and out of consciousness during thought suppression. b. return to consciousness with greater frequency following thought suppression. c. become distorted into a false belief following thought suppression. d. become less likely following prolonged periods of thought suppression. 146. Being deprived of slow-wave sleep results in: a. fatigue and hypersensitivity to pain. b. difficulty processing new information and hyposensitivity to pain. c. excessive aggression and memory problems. d. symptoms of depression and anxiety. 147. The fact that our consciousness has a tendency to change from one moment to the next is termed the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity 148. Which statement about narcolepsy is true? a. It is primarily the result of extreme sleep deprivation. b. There is a genetic component to this disorder. c. Sleep attacks are not accompanied by dreams. d. Medications are not useful in treating this disorder. 149. Which sequence correctly lists animals in terms of their sleep needs from least to most? a. giraffe, human, tiger, brown bat b. tiger, giraffe, brown bat, human c. brown bat, human, giraffe, tiger d. giraffe, tiger, human, brown bat

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Chap 05_5e 150. At a rave, Arjun takes an unknown drug. The drug makes him feel empathetic and close to those around him. He is also having difficulty regulating his body temperature. Which drug has he MOST likely consumed? a. MDMA b. cocaine c. nicotine d. modafinil 151. Freudian theory and the activation–synthesis model: a. both believe that dreams begin with meaning. b. both believe that dreams begin randomly. c. differ in that Freud believed dreams begin with meaning and do not originate randomly. d. differ in that the activation–synthesis model states that dreams begin with meaning and do not originate randomly. 152. Carlos enters the bar with his new partner, and his previous partner notices their entrance. According to the alcohol myopia theory, Carlos's ex might: a. experience inattentional blindness and fail to perceive the new partner. b. casually say, "Hi," and go back to conversing with friends. c. purposefully keep some distance to remain out of sight of the new couple. d. become overly emotional and make a scene. 153. Which person is MOST likely susceptible to hypnosis? a. Andy, who is skeptical of hypnosis b. Jermaine, who is chronically sleep deprived c. Cat, who thinks she might be affected by hypnosis d. Emily, who struggles to quit smoking 154. _____ a stimulant results in _____. a. Withdrawal from; fatigue and negative emotions b. Overuse of; fatigue and anxiety c. Withdrawal from; feelings of intimacy and euphoria d. Overuse of; weight gain 155. According to the activation–synthesis model, a dream begins: a. with an underlying meaning that is subsequently masked by manifest content. b. randomly and never acquires meaning. c. randomly but develops meaning as the mind interprets it. d. with an underlying meaning that the mind then interprets randomly.

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Chap 05_5e 156. The _____ proposes that alcohol hampers attention, leading people to respond in simple ways to complex situations. a. expectancy theory b. theory of alcohol myopia c. positive reinforcement theory d. gateway drug theory 157. Which statement describes current thinking about the mind–body relationship? a. The mind and brain are separate entities. b. The body is made up of physical matter, but the mind is not. c. The mind is what the brain does. d. The mind and brain are not connected. 158. Sustained use of Ecstasy may result in all of these EXCEPT: a. damage to serotonin neurons. b. damage to GABA neurons. c. problems with impulse control. d. problems with attention and memory. 159. The reduction of pain through hypnosis in people who are hypnotically susceptible is called: a. hypnotic amnesia. b. posthypnotic suggestion. c. the hypnotic placebo effect. d. hypnotic analgesia. 160. The _____ is the fundamental problem we have in knowing whether the mental experiences of another person are anything like our own. a. problem of other minds b. mind–body problem c. levels of consciousness issue d. unknown observer issue 161. Insomnia is: a. difficulty in falling asleep or staying asleep. b. arising and walking around while asleep. c. a disorder in which a person stops breathing for brief periods while asleep. d. the experience of waking up unable to move.

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Chap 05_5e 162. An example of self-induced insomnia is insomnia: a. induced by working late hours. b. induced by depression. c. induced by anxiety. d. with no obvious causes. 163. Which statement is true of night terrors? a. Night terrors happen more often in adults than children. b. People who awaken during night terrors report dream content. c. Night terrors happen most often in REM sleep. d. Night terrors occur in about 2% of adults. 164. Which thought is LEAST likely to be part of a person's default network? a. How can I apply the concept learned in class to daily life? b. Do I need to eat a snack? c. Should I be more active? d. When should I go to the grocery store? 165. Dion takes a pill but doesn't know what is in it. He begins to have a feeling of well-being and relaxation. He also notices alleviation of the chronic pain in his ankle. What has he MOST likely taken? a. LSD b. amphetamine c. MDMA d. Oxycontin 166. Users of the drug Ecstasy are highly vulnerable to: a. becoming involved in violent crimes. b. bad trips consisting of nightmarish hallucinations. c. heatstroke and exhaustion. d. profound memory loss. 167. The brain waves associated with deep sleep are called _____ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta

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Chap 05_5e 168. Disapproving of her friend Amy's fiancé, Mindy told her boyfriend that she dreaded going to Amy's funeral when she meant to say "Amy's wedding." This speech error is an example of: a. a lapse of consciousness. b. repression. c. a rebound effect of thought suppression. d. a Freudian slip. 169. Jeremy has no clue that he has unconscious hostile urges to act aggressively against his boss. This is an example of: a. a Freudian slip. b. mental control. c. subliminal perception. d. repression. 170. Drug use is initially motivated by _____ and later motivated by _____. a. physical dependence; craving b. craving; positive reinforcement c. positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement d. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement 171. Among those who are exposed to drugs of addiction, approximately how many will go on to develop an addiction? a. 1% b. 10% c. 50% d. 90% 172. Prose written in the _____ style resembles the experience of consciousness. a. cocktail-party b. minimal consciousness c. stream of consciousness d. dichotic listening 173. Amanda is trying to focus on what her psychology professor is saying, but her mind keeps wandering to other things, like the fact that the lecture hall is cold, her seat is hard, there is a message on her cell phone to check, and whether Kevin is going to be at the party tonight. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 174. _____ are substances that reduce the activity of the central nervous system. a. Agonists b. Hallucinogens c. Depressants d. Amphetamine and cocaine 175. A serious problem with using hypnosis to facilitate memory recall is that: a. hypnosis can help recall of only recent (past 2 years) memories. b. people may make up memories to satisfy hypnotic suggestions. c. memories of criminal acts are unlikely to be recovered during hypnosis. d. memories recalled during hypnosis may relieve physical pain. 176. Aditi has been asleep for less than 1 hour. What stage of sleep is she LEAST likely experiencing? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep 177. Six-year-old Jake awakened from stage 4 sleep with signs of intense arousal, including a racing pulse, rapid respirations, and powerful feelings of fear. Jake has probably experienced: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. sleep paralysis. 178. The drug _____ was once used as an active ingredient in the soft drink known as _____. a. heroin; Dr. Pepper b. nicotine; Pepsi One c. Ecstasy; Tab d. cocaine; Coca-Cola 179. The pain associated with prolonged exercise may be alleviated by the release of _____ by the _____. a. serotonin; liver b. adrenaline; adrenal glands c. acetylcholine; pituitary gland d. endorphins; pituitary gland

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Chap 05_5e 180. The MOST commonly reported sleep disorder is: a. somnambulism. b. insomnia. c. sleep apnea. d. narcolepsy. 181. THC binds to the same receptors in the brain as which naturally occurring neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. anandamide d. adenosine 182. A psychologist studying consciousness is analogous to a(n): a. botanist pondering what it is like to be a daffodil. b. theoretical physicist attempting to determine what happens to objects that enter a black hole. c. meteorologist trying to predict the weather. d. alchemist trying to turn lead into gold. 183. An example of self-induced insomnia is insomnia: a. induced by working night shifts. b. that resolves with long-term use of sleeping pills. c. induced by depression. d. with no obvious causes. 184. In the absence of clocks, miners trapped underground for several weeks probably will adopt a rest–activity cycle that is _____ hours in length. a. less than 23 b. about 24 c. about 25 d. more than 26 185. Barbiturates, such as Seconal and Nembutal, are classified as: a. hallucinogens. b. narcotics. c. depressants. d. stimulants.

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Chap 05_5e 186. When Randy Gardner ended his world record 264 hours and 12 minutes of sleep deprivation, how long did he sleep? a. 7 hours 30 minutes b. 14 hours 40 minutes c. 264 hours d. 25 hours 187. Which drug is NOT classified as a stimulant? a. heroin b. caffeine c. amphetamines d. cocaine 188. Why do hypnic jerks occur? a. No one truly knows. b. The mind is trying to prevent itself from falling asleep too quickly. c. An external stimulus (e.g., noise) is unconsciously perceived and wakes us up. d. The mind is resetting its circadian rhythm. 189. Which drug will animals NOT self-administer? a. morphine b. caffeine c. opiates d. LSD 190. Which behavior is LEAST likely to produce a state of self-consciousness? a. having your photo taken b. thinking about which classes you'll take next term c. giving an oral presentation d. watching a play in a crowded auditorium 191. While watching a competitive basketball game on television, Harry doesn't hear his wife asking for his help. This illustrates which property of consciousness? a. selectivity b. unity c. inclusivity d. transience

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Chap 05_5e 192. At a party, Kai's friend passes out "shrooms." What drug is this? a. PCP b. mescaline c. psilocybin d. ketamine 193. Research involving animals self-administering drugs suggests that which drug or drug class is LEAST likely to cause addiction? a. marijuana b. opiates c. hallucinogens d. nicotine 194. Susceptibility to being hypnotized: a. can easily be predicted by tests of personality. b. is related to boredom susceptibility. c. can be predicted by the person to be hypnotized. d. is negatively related to having a vivid imagination. 195. Because of her insomnia, Mia's physician prescribed sleeping pills to help her fall asleep. Over time, Mia has had to increase the dosage she takes to fall asleep, indicating that she has developed a(n) _____ the medication. a. adverse reaction to b. withdrawal syndrome related to c. tolerance to d. internal neural synthesis of 196. Antony, an expert chess player, is in the middle of an intense match. If asked about his experience, Antony would mention the sight of the chess board, the feel of the chess piece in his hand, and the hush of the crowd. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. unity b. selectivity c. transience d. intentionality

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Chap 05_5e 197. Jin falls asleep mid-conversation. When he wakes 30 seconds later, Jin mentions that he frequently falls asleep mid-conversation. Jin probably has a case of: a. sleep apnea. b. narcolepsy. c. night terrors. d. sleep paralysis. 198. Leslie is busy giving a speech to her English class. When she hears students talking in the hallway outside the classroom, she stops speaking and diverts her attention to the conversation in the hallway. This is an example of: a. thought suppression. b. minimal consciousness. c. self-consciousness. d. the cocktail-party phenomenon. 199. If asked not to think about a snowman, a person will MOST likely: a. think about a snowman much more. b. think about a snowman much less. c. think about a snowman only when engaged in a boring task. d. dream about a snowman. 200. Which drug is an example of a hallucinogen? a. benzodiazepine b. mescaline c. amphetamine d. cocaine 201. Recent research has suggested that Ecstasy might have toxic effects on neurons that produce: a. GABA. b. dopamine. c. serotonin. d. norepinephrine. 202. Which drug is associated with the FEWEST physical withdrawal symptoms? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. marijuana d. morphine

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Chap 05_5e 203. The psychologist who famously described consciousness as flowing like a stream is: a. Sigmund Freud. b. William James. c. John Watson. d. Wilhelm Wundt. 204. Slow-wave sleep is also known as: a. REM sleep. b. hypnopompic sleep. c. stages 3 and 4 sleep. d. stage 5 sleep. 205. The brain region that is very active during a dream is the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. primary visual cortex. c. olfactory bulb. d. amygdala. 206. _____ suggests that alcohol's effects can be produced by a person's beliefs about how alcohol will influence them. a. Expectancy theory b. Alcohol myopia c. Positive reinforcement d. Drug tolerance 207. Bianca's EEG shows sleep spindles and K complexes. What stage of sleep is she in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep 208. Which drug is associated with the FEWEST physical withdrawal symptoms? a. alcohol b. cocaine c. barbiturates d. LSD

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Chap 05_5e 209. The world record for staying awake is about _____ hours. a. 96 b. 170 c. 264 d. 458 210. Which statement is NOT true regarding the evolution of sleep? a. Variations in sleep needs between species are easily explained. b. Sleeping animals are easy prey. c. Sleep would not have developed unless it had significant benefits to overcome the vulnerability that occurs in sleep. d. Theories of sleep have not yet determined why animals have evolved to need sleep. 211. Self-induced insomnia is to secondary insomnia as _____ is/are to _____. a. anxiety; depression b. anxiety; lifestyle choices c. working night shifts; depression d. biological causes; lifestyle choices 212. Iris has just been asked to take a position on her school's student government board. After looking in the mirror, she is MOST likely to decide to: a. say no. b. agree to help. c. write aggressive letters to the president of the board. d. be uncooperative with other members of the group. 213. Being fully awake is to quiet resting as _____ is/are to _____. a. beta-wave activity; delta-wave activity b. sleep spindles; rapid eye movements c. beta-wave activity; alpha-wave activity d. theta-wave activity; beta-wave activity 214. Which type of drug decreases the activity of a neurotransmitter? a. antagonist b. agonist c. psychoactive d. mescaline

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Chap 05_5e 215. The use of _____ is a major cause of auto accidents. a. nicotine b. cocaine c. alcohol d. toxic inhalants 216. The mental technique of thought suppression is: a. the same thing as repression. b. an unconscious technique. c. best for negative emotional thoughts. d. the conscious avoidance of a thought. 217. Jilia is an ER nurse who works the night shift. When she began this job, she had difficulty staying alert at work due to interruption of her: a. hypnogogic state. b. REM sleep pattern. c. circadian rhythm. d. pattern of sleep spindles. 218. Which statement does NOT present evidence used to argue that choice plays a prominent role in addiction? a. Seventy-five percent of those with substance use disorders overcome their addiction. b. Most soldiers, upon returning from Vietnam, quit their heroin addiction. c. There are clear genetic predispositions in the ability to resist drug use. d. Drug users frequently choose $5 over a hit of their drug of choice. 219. When rats have free access to cocaine self-administration, they will NOT: a. learn to press a lever if doing so produces a cocaine injection. b. regulate their cocaine intake at a low rate. c. stop grooming themselves when they have free access to cocaine. d. occasionally binge on cocaine to the point of giving themselves convulsions. 220. The buds and leaves of the _____ plant contain _____, the active ingredient in marijuana. a. cannabis; THC b. coca; MDMA c. poppy; anandamide d. peyote; LSD

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Chap 05_5e 221. Immediately before falling asleep, Deion enters a state where he experiences a hypnic jerk. Deion is in: a. a hypnagogic state. b. REM sleep. c. NREM sleep. d. a fully conscious state. 222. A regular heroin user, Johnny will become very sick if he goes a half day without using. This BEST illustrates: a. drug tolerance. b. physical dependence. c. psychological dependence. d. the role of expectancy effects. 223. Artificial intelligence refers to: a. a low-level kind of sensory awareness and responsiveness that occurs when the mind inputs sensations and may output behavior. b. a person who can talk about experiences and even react to them, but who actually has no inner experience at all. c. the study and use of machines that can independently operate in ways that mimic human intelligence and interactions. d. the belief that we consciously make decisions before our brain activity begins to enact them. 224. Queenie's EEG shows sawtooth waves. What stage of sleep is she in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep 225. When rats are routinely awakened whenever REM activity starts, they show: a. memory problems. b. fatigue. c. hypersensitivity to muscle pain. d. decreased aggression. 226. According to Freud, a college student's dynamic unconscious is LEAST likely to contain: a. feelings of hatred for her parents. b. repressed sexual urges. c. destructive urges toward herself. d. current goals for the semester.

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Chap 05_5e 227. Research has demonstrated that looking in the mirror can briefly make people less: a. self-critical. b. aggressive. c. helpful. d. cooperative. 228. Which drug is an example of a hallucinogen? a. Oxycontin b. morphine c. MDMA d. PCP 229. In an fMRI scan, Jody's brain's default network is lit up. Jody is MOST likely: a. performing a task that involves mentally rotating an object. b. sleeping. c. unconscious. d. thinking about what she will do when she's out of the scanner. 230. The state of consciousness in which a seemingly purposeless flow of thoughts comes to mind is termed: a. daydreaming. b. hypnosis. c. introspection. d. minimal consciousness. 231. Binge drinking is defined as consuming _____ or more alcoholic drinks in succession. a. 5 b. 7 c. 9 d. 12 232. Which statement about sleepwalking is FALSE? a. It is more common in children than it is in adults. b. It occurs during REM sleep. c. It usually occurs earlier in the night. d. It is safe to wake a sleepwalker.

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Chap 05_5e 233. Vanessa is given a drug at a party. She is unsure of what it is and later becomes jittery, anxious, and full of energy. She has been sweating all night and is not sure why. Vanessa has likely ingested a: a. depressant. b. stimulant. c. narcotic. d. hallucinogen. 234. Drugs derived from opium that alleviate pain and induce lethargy are known as: a. hallucinogens. b. depressants. c. stimulants. d. narcotics. 235. Which statement about REM sleep is true? a. REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and always occurs immediately after stage 4 sleep. b. REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and tends to decrease in duration throughout the night. c. REM sleep alternates throughout the night with other stages of sleep and tends to increase in duration throughout the night. d. REM sleep occurs once each night, usually right before you wake up. 236. Peggy cut back on her coffee consumption and quickly developed a headache. This withdrawal symptom BEST illustrates: a. drug tolerance. b. physical dependence. c. psychological dependence. d. caffeine myopia. 237. Participants in a research study are told that they must try not to think about a clown riding a unicycle. According to the theory of ironic processes of mental control: a. participants will devote way too much of their time and energy trying to accomplish this rather simple task. b. participants will successfully repress memories of clowns into their unconscious. c. part of the participants' minds will actively search for this clown. d. in suppressing this thought, participants will do poorly on simple cognitive tests such as addition and subtraction.

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Chap 05_5e 238. The study and use of machines that can independently operate in ways that mimic human intelligence and interactions is known as: a. phenomenology. b. consciousness. c. artificial intelligence. d. machine learning. 239. Which statement about narcolepsy is FALSE? a. It is primarily the result of extreme sleep deprivation. b. There is a genetic component to this disorder. c. Sleep attacks are accompanied by dreams. d. The disorder can be managed effectively with medication. 240. Which statement about dreaming during non-REM (NREM) stages of sleep is true? a. Dreams in these stages are indistinguishable from those that occur in REM. b. Dreaming does not occur during NREM sleep. c. Dreams in NREM sleep actually take place in an instant but are perceived as occurring in real time. d. Dreams in NREM sleep are more like normal thinking. 241. A circadian rhythm is a naturally occurring _____ cycle. a. 8-hour b. 24-hour c. 28-day d. 365-day 242. Which of these classes of drugs is NOT considered a depressant? a. barbiturates b. benzodiazepines c. narcotics d. toxic inhalants 243. _____ usually occurs during REM sleep. a. Sexual arousal b. A decrease in pulse c. Slow-wave brain activity d. Sleep walking

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Chap 05_5e 244. Allison dreamt that she was naked in front of her classmates. Freud would state that the interpretation of this dream is that Allison: a. wishes to be naked in front of her classmates. b. will be naked in front of her classmates sometime in the future. c. feels vulnerable about a new relationship. d. is anxious about her grade in the course. 245. Asia is trying to focus on her reading for psychology class, but her mind keeps wandering to other things, like the music she can hear down the hall, the message on her cell phone, the cold temperature of the room, and the group assignment that is due tomorrow. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. intentionality b. unity c. transience d. selectivity 246. Milo is currently watching a caterpillar crawl across the table in front of him. The _____ of consciousness allows Milo to direct his thoughts and attention to the caterpillar. a. unity b. selectivity c. transience d. intentionality 247. Jacqui hasn't smoked in more than 5 years, but still craves a cigarette every time she enters the bar she frequently smoked in. Jacqui's craving is likely due to: a. psychological dependence. b. physical dependence. c. the placebo effect. d. drug tolerance. 248. A state in which conscious experience can be reported to others is said to be: a. minimal consciousness. b. full consciousness. c. self-consciousness. d. verbal consciousness. 249. Emily sniffs vapors from a bottle of hair spray until she appears to be drunk. This behavior is called: a. forcefully exhaling. b. snorting. c. huffing. d. smoking. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 250. Your ability to watch and listen to your psychology professor as she lectures, rather than watching all the other students in the classroom, illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. inclusivity b. selectivity c. transience d. unity 251. The _____ theory of alcohol action suggests that the appearance of aberrant behavior while drinking reflects the person's beliefs of typical alcohol effects. a. balanced placebo b. expectancy c. myopia d. drug tolerance 252. Which effect is NOT typically associated with benzodiazepines? a. reduced anxiety b. physical dependence c. extreme elevations in heart rate d. psychological dependence 253. Which psychoactive effect is the result of the drug Ecstasy? a. increased aggression b. decreased anxiety c. stupor and lethargy d. enhanced feelings of empathy 254. Another term for endogenous opioids is: a. dopamine. b. serotonin. c. endorphins. d. monoamines. 255. Which statement about nicotine is true? a. It is a benzodiazepine. b. It produces euphoric effects, especially in new users. c. Long-term use produces dizziness and a queasy stomach. d. It is used primarily to avoid withdrawal symptoms.

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Chap 05_5e 256. Our subjective experience of the external world and our mind is called: a. self-perception. b. objective reality. c. consciousness. d. unconscious processing. 257. The brain waves associated with the first stage of sleep are called _____ waves. a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta 258. Which brain region decreases in arousal during REM sleep? a. amygdala b. brain stem c. prefrontal cortex d. visual association area 259. Recent research has indicated that the two dimensions of mind perception are: a. feeling and experience. b. experience and agency. c. agency and self-control. d. planning and memory. 260. The failure to retrieve memories following hypnotic suggestions to forget is termed: a. posthypnotic amnesia. b. hypnogogic amnesia. c. anterograde amnesia. d. hypnotic analgesia. 261. Adolpho is dreaming. Which brain region is likely to be MOST active? a. thalamus b. prefrontal cortex c. amygdala d. pineal gland

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Chap 05_5e 262. As he pulls into his driveway, Roman realizes that he must have zoned out while driving because he doesn't remember his drive home from work. Roman was _____ during the drive. a. autoconscious b. unconscious c. self-conscious d. minimally conscious 263. When he began drinking alcohol, Patrick would drink two beers after work to feel relaxed. Six months later, Patrick needs to drink a six-pack of beer to feel the same level of relaxation. This illustrates: a. drug tolerance. b. withdrawal. c. the placebo effect. d. expectancy effects. 264. Both the expectancy theory and theory of alcohol myopia suggest that people using alcohol will: a. effectively monitor their behavior. b. show little behavioral disruption after drinking large quantities of alcohol. c. limit their alcohol consumption. d. show extreme behavior after consumption of alcohol. 265. Freud thought that dreams represented: a. an accurate retelling of daily events. b. random neural activity. c. hidden wishes that have been repressed. d. foretelling of the future. 266. Current research indicates that a student who stays up all night "cramming" for an exam is MOST likely to: a. develop symptoms of test-taking anxiety. b. forget the majority of the material soon after the exam. c. do worse than will students who do not study at all. d. recall more exam material than will students who got a full night of sleep. 267. Stimulants such as amphetamines _____ the levels of _____ in the brain. a. decrease; norepinephrine and dopamine b. increase; endorphins c. increase; norepinephrine and dopamine d. decrease; endorphins

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Chap 05_5e 268. Which person is MOST likely to suffer from sleep apnea? a. Randy, a teenager with asthma b. Jim, an overweight retired executive c. Colleen, a new mother who is sleep deprived d. Elizabeth, a college student suffering from an anxiety disorder 269. Jenny, the pitcher for her softball team, adjusts her grip on the ball, squints to block the glare of the hot sun, receives a signal from the catcher, and begins her windup as teammates chant in nervous anticipation. If asked, Jenny would report she is experiencing all the sights and sounds of a softball game as a whole scene, rather than experiencing each perception individually. This illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. unity b. selectivity c. transience d. intentionality 270. Fernando's eyes appear to be moving under his eyelids. What stage of sleep is he in? a. REM sleep b. stage 1 sleep c. stage 2 sleep d. stage 4 sleep 271. Alcohol's effects on behavior are: a. remarkably consistent across users. b. highly variable across individuals and circumstances. c. subtle at high doses. d. not dependent on expectations. 272. The primary problem with Freud's approach to dream analysis is that: a. people do not remember their dreams in enough detail for dream analysis to be useful. b. the content of dreams is rarely confusing or obscure. c. people rarely dream about suppressed thoughts. d. the hidden content of a dream can be interpreted in many ways. 273. Alex occasionally has self-doubts about his ability as a baseball player. His sports psychologist advised him that it is extremely important to banish these doubts from consciousness during games. Alex has found, however, that his self-doubts intensify following games. This is an example of: a. the rebound effect of thought suppression. b. mental control. c. the overcompensation effect. d. the dynamic unconscious. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 274. According to dual process theory, which function would NOT be processed by the "fast" System 1? a. identifying the correct answer to challenging multiple-choice questions on an exam b. reading the words to multiple-choice questions on an exam c. walking to class while preoccupied with an exam d. writing your name on an exam 275. The levels of consciousness that psychologists distinguish are defined in terms of: a. objective behavioral observations made by an unbiased observer. b. scores on a wakefulness meter initially developed for surgery patients. c. awareness of the world and self. d. different patterns of brain activity. 276. The _____ includes all the mental processes that are not experienced by a person but that give rise to the person's thoughts, choices, emotions, and behaviors. a. cognitive unconscious b. dynamic unconscious c. Freudian unconscious d. repressed conscious 277. Sleep paralysis typically occurs when people awake during which stage of sleep? a. stage 1 b. stage 2 c. stage 3 or 4 d. REM 278. Which drug is NOT a narcotic? a. codeine b. Demerol c. Oxycontin d. LSD 279. Which statement about sleeping medications is true? a. Sleeping pills usually are effective for the long-term management of insomnia. b. Sleeping pills can be effective for short-term treatment of insomnia. c. The proportion of time spent in REM sleep is increased by sleeping pills. d. Most sleeping pills are not addictive.

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Chap 05_5e 280. A technique in which people are asked to report their conscious experiences at particular times is: a. experience-sampling. b. EEG. c. thought suppression. d. phenomenology. 281. MDMA is also known as: a. Methedrine. b. Ecstasy. c. methamphetamine. d. Ritalin. 282. Consciousness is always directed toward an object, a property of consciousness termed: a. selectivity. b. transience. c. unity. d. intentionality. 283. One difficulty psychologists face when studying consciousness is that one's consciousness is impossible to: a. define. b. change. c. alter. d. share. 284. When participants judged the mental capacities of a robot, the robot was perceived as having: a. agency and experience. b. neither agency nor experience. c. agency but lacking experience. d. experience but lacking agency. 285. Participants told not to think about a white bear during a brief experiment may find themselves thinking about the white bear for the rest of the day. This is an example of: a. the rebound effect of thought suppression. b. mental control. c. the overcompensation effect. d. the dynamic unconscious.

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Chap 05_5e 286. Matthais has been taking cocaine regularly for a few months now. When he discontinues use, he could experience all of these EXCEPT: a. depression. b. aggression. c. narcolepsy. d. heart attack. 287. Dual process System 1 is to dual process System 2 as _____ is to _____. a. positive; negative b. emotional; rational c. subliminal; explicit d. effortless; effortful 288. Meaidi and colleagues (2014) found that compared to sighted individuals, congenitally blind individuals have a higher frequency of all of these EXCEPT: a. nightmares. b. auditory impressions in their dreams. c. tactile impressions in their dreams. d. visual impressions in their dreams. 289. The hypnagogic state of consciousness occurs: a. as we begin to fall asleep. b. while we are dreaming. c. in the deepest stages of sleep. d. as we are waking up. 290. During a dream, the areas of the brain associated with visual _____ are activated. a. sensation b. perception c. illusions d. imagery 291. In one experiment, participants' brain activity was measured using an EEG while participants repeatedly decided to move a hand. Based on the results from this experiment, researchers concluded that the: a. mind directs the brain and behavior. b. mind and brain simultaneously direct behavior. c. brain directs behavior but is not associated with mental processes. d. brain directs the mind and behavior.

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Chap 05_5e 292. Which statement about drug addiction is true? a. The majority of drug abusers overcome their drug problems. b. Recreational drug use inevitably leads to drug addiction. c. Only a small percentage of cigarette smokers will ever be able to quit successfully. d. Large-scale studies have concluded that drug addiction is an incurable disease. 293. The four basic properties of consciousness are: a. selectivity, unity, intentionality, and self-consciousness. b. selectivity, transience, phenomenology, and dichotomy. c. intentionality, unity, selectivity, and transience. d. intentionality, dichotomy, selectivity, and transience. 294. Which behavior is LEAST likely to produce a state of self-consciousness? a. cheering for your favorite baseball team in a crowded stadium b. writing about your values c. presenting your senior thesis to a panel of faculty members d. looking at your photos on your social media accounts 295. Although Alek is clearly sleeping, when Katrina pokes him in the ribs, Alek rolls over. This demonstrates that Alek is: a. minimally conscious. b. fully conscious. c. self-conscious. d. REM conscious. 296. Which statement is the BEST evidence that hypnosis produces an altered state of consciousness? a. Under hypnosis, people can regress in age and think like a very young child. b. Recent research using PET scans has shown that hypnosis is a special case of imagination. c. Hypnosis effectively reduces the perception of pain. d. People can retrieve lost memories while hypnotized. 297. Michael is under hypnosis, and his therapist is telling him to role-play his father. Which statement BEST describes Michael's altered state of consciousness? a. Michael feels like he is voluntarily acting like his father. b. Michael believes that he is his father. c. Michael has no awareness that he is currently acting like his father. d. Michael knows that he is acting like his father but perceives this behavior as outside his conscious will.

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Chap 05_5e 298. The fact that football players often dream of fumbling the ball and actors dream of forgetting their lines underscores the point that dreams involve the return of: a. full consciousness. b. latent sexual inadequacies. c. suppressed thought. d. what occurred earlier in the day. 299. While Theresa is asleep, her roommate places Theresa's hand in a bowl of cold water. Theresa removes her hand from the bowl but remains asleep. Theresa is at which level of consciousness? a. minimal consciousness b. full consciousness c. unconsciousness d. REM consciousness 300. In one study, Stern and colleagues (1977) compared the degree of pain reduction reported by people using different techniques for the treatment of laboratory-induced pain. Based on the results of this study, which statement about the effectiveness of hypnosis to relieve pain is true? a. Hypnosis and placebo were equally effective. b. Hypnosis was less effective than pain-relieving medications. c. Hypnosis was equally effective as pain-relieving medication and acupuncture. d. Hypnosis was more effective than were pain-relieving medication and acupuncture.

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Chap 05_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. c 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. b 48. b 49. c 50. b 51. a 52. d 53. a 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 55. b 56. d 57. a 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. b 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. b 89. b 90. b 91. d 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. a 98. c 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. b 107. d 108. c 109. b 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 111. a 112. a 113. d 114. c 115. b 116. b 117. c 118. b 119. b 120. c 121. c 122. b 123. b 124. a 125. b 126. d 127. a 128. b 129. d 130. c 131. c 132. b 133. a 134. c 135. c 136. c 137. a

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Chap 05_5e 138. a 139. c 140. c 141. c 142. b 143. b 144. a 145. b 146. a 147. c 148. b 149. a 150. a 151. c 152. d 153. c 154. a 155. c 156. b 157. c 158. b 159. d 160. a 161. a 162. a 163. d 164. a 165. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 166. c 167. c 168. d 169. d 170. c 171. b 172. c 173. c 174. c 175. b 176. a 177. c 178. d 179. d 180. b 181. c 182. a 183. a 184. c 185. c 186. b 187. a 188. a 189. d 190. d 191. a 192. c 193. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 194. c 195. c 196. a 197. b 198. d 199. a 200. b 201. c 202. c 203. b 204. c 205. d 206. a 207. c 208. d 209. c 210. a 211. c 212. b 213. c 214. a 215. c 216. d 217. c 218. c 219. b 220. a 221. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 222. b 223. c 224. a 225. a 226. d 227. b 228. d 229. d 230. a 231. a 232. b 233. b 234. d 235. c 236. b 237. c 238. c 239. a 240. d 241. b 242. c 243. a 244. a 245. c 246. d 247. a 248. b

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Chap 05_5e 249. c 250. b 251. b 252. c 253. d 254. c 255. d 256. c 257. d 258. c 259. b 260. a 261. c 262. d 263. a 264. d 265. c 266. b 267. c 268. b 269. a 270. a 271. b 272. d 273. a 274. a 275. c 276. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e 277. d 278. d 279. b 280. a 281. b 282. d 283. d 284. c 285. a 286. c 287. d 288. d 289. a 290. d 291. d 292. a 293. c 294. a 295. a 296. c 297. d 298. c 299. a 300. d

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The default network is the pattern of brain activity that results when participants are given a new problem to solve. a. True b. False Scenario 5.2 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Bègue, L., Bushman, B. J., Zerhouni, O., Subra, B., & Ourabah, M. (2013). "Beauty is in the eye of the beer holder": People who think they are drunk also think they are attractive. British Journal of Psychology, 104(2), 225–234. http://doi.10.1111/j.2044-8295.2012.02114.x Alcohol myopia refers to the fact that people often react to complex situations in simple ways when intoxicated. For example, we might attend to only highly salient stimuli in a complex social situation. One such stimulus is physical attractiveness. While numerous studies have investigated if alcohol makes us perceive others as more attractive, Bègue and colleagues (2013) wondered if alcohol increases the salience of feelings already held about our own self-attractiveness. In their first study (Figure 5.1A), 19 bar patrons completed a questionnaire and were asked to rank their own physical attractiveness on a scale of 0 (very unattractive) to 7 (very attractive). Then the researchers used a breathalyzer test to measure the blood-alcohol level of each of these patrons. In a second experiment, Bègue and colleagues investigated the relative contributions of alcohol and alcohol expectancies in modulating self-attractiveness. Using random assignment, male participants were administered either alcohol or a placebo that smelled and tasted like alcohol. In each group, a random half were told it was alcohol, and the other half were told it was not. All participants were then instructed to create a sales pitch for the beverage that they just consumed. A female experimenter video-recorded the sales pitch. Finally, the participants watched their sales pitch and were asked to rank their self-attractiveness. A set of independent judges—unaware of the condition to which each participant was assigned—also watched every sales pitch and ranked the attractiveness of the participants. Figure 5.1B shows the mean (and standard deviation) self-attractiveness ratings of the participants, and Figure 5.1C shows the mean attractiveness ratings as assessed by the judges. Figure 5.1A (left), 5.1B (middle), and 5.1C (right)

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 2. (Scenario 5.2) What was the purpose of obtaining independent assessments of participant attractiveness in the second study? a. to determine if participants were truthful about feeling more attractive when intoxicated b. to determine if participants were truthful about feeling more attractive when they thought that they had consumed an alcoholic beverage c. to determine if alcohol and/or alcohol expectancies caused participants to behave in ways that really did make them more attractive d. to determine the relative contributions of alcohol and alcohol expectancies in modulating ratings of selfattractiveness 3. Sleepers awakened during REM sleep report having dreams much more often than those awakened during non-REM periods. a. True b. False 4. Psychologists distinguish among different levels of consciousness based solely on differences in brain activity. a. True b. False 5. Valium and Xanax are depressant drugs classified as barbiturates. a. True b. False 6. Research has shown that the content of consciousness is dominated by the immediate environment. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 5.3 is based on the following publication from Meaidi and colleagues (2014). Their major results are reproduced below (Figure 5.2). Meaidi, A., Jennum, P., Ptito, M., & Kupers, R. (2014). The sensory construction of dreams and nightmare frequency in congenitally blind and late blind individuals. Sleep Medicine, 15(5), 586–595. Meaidi and colleagues (2014) were interested in the dream experiences of persons with blindness. Participants were either sighted, blind from birth with some light sensitivity (congenitally blind), or blind later in life. All participants kept a dream journal and recorded their dreams for several weeks. Shown in Figure 5.2 is the frequency of various types of dreams (expressed as a percentage) for each group. Figure 5.2

7. (Scenario 5.3) Congenitally blind participants were most likely to experience nightmares. In an analysis of their content, researchers found that nightmares often involved doing something wrong that was the result of their lack of sight. A(n) _____ account of dreaming would argue that their brains were trying to impose order on random neuronal firing that occurred during sleep. a. activation–synthesis b. psychodynamic c. Freudian d. ironic processes

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 8. (Scenario 5.3) People experience vivid dreaming during which stage of sleep? a. stage 2 b. stage 3 c. stage 4 d. REM Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 9. (Scenario 5.1) The purpose of the participant noting the position of the spot of light was to record when _____ occurred. a. brain activity b. conscious will c. attentional processes d. finger movement

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10. (Scenario 5.3) Which statement about the results in Figure 5.2 is TRUE? a. Congenitally blind participants do not have dreams with visual impressions. b. Every dream of sighted participants contained a visual impression. c. The most common type of dream among congenitally blind participants was a nightmare. d. Nightmares are equally common in all three groups.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 11. (Scenario 5.3) Congenitally blind participants were most likely to experience nightmares. In an analysis of their content, researchers found that nightmares often involved doing something wrong that was the result of their lack of sight. A(n) _____ account of dreaming would argue that this dream content is really a disguised manifestation of unconscious wishes. a. activation–synthesis b. psychodynamic c. Freudian d. ironic processes 12. Sigmund Freud proposed the activation–synthesis theory of dreaming. a. True b. False 13. The modern view of the cognitive unconscious is that it is a place teeming with animalistic urges and repressed thoughts. a. True b. False 14. People remain minimally conscious, even while asleep. a. True b. False 15. In those who are susceptible to hypnosis, pain can be effectively controlled by using hypnosis as an analgesic. a. True b. False 16. Most abusers of cocaine became addicted the very first time they tried the drug. a. True b. False 17. While in the short term it is difficult to suppress a specific thought, in the long term that thought will occur less often, even after one stops trying to suppress it. a. True b. False

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18. (Scenario 5.3) Which statement is TRUE of congenitally blind participants? a. They did not report dreams with visual impressions. b. Their most common type of dream was a nightmare. c. Their least common type of dream was a nightmare. d. Their most common type of dream contained auditory impressions. 19. Over the course of a lifetime, humans require about 1.5 hours of sleep for every 1 hour awake. a. True b. False 20. Laboratory rats will self-administer THC, the active compound in marijuana. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 21. Tobacco use is motivated more by the pleasantness of using than the unpleasantness of quitting. a. True b. False 22. The primary visual cortex responsible for visual perception is active during REM sleep. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 5.2 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Bègue, L., Bushman, B. J., Zerhouni, O., Subra, B., & Ourabah, M. (2013). "Beauty is in the eye of the beer holder": People who think they are drunk also think they are attractive. British Journal of Psychology, 104(2), 225–234. http://doi.10.1111/j.2044-8295.2012.02114.x Alcohol myopia refers to the fact that people often react to complex situations in simple ways when intoxicated. For example, we might attend to only highly salient stimuli in a complex social situation. One such stimulus is physical attractiveness. While numerous studies have investigated if alcohol makes us perceive others as more attractive, Bègue and colleagues (2013) wondered if alcohol increases the salience of feelings already held about our own self-attractiveness. In their first study (Figure 5.1A), 19 bar patrons completed a questionnaire and were asked to rank their own physical attractiveness on a scale of 0 (very unattractive) to 7 (very attractive). Then the researchers used a breathalyzer test to measure the blood-alcohol level of each of these patrons. In a second experiment, Bègue and colleagues investigated the relative contributions of alcohol and alcohol expectancies in modulating self-attractiveness. Using random assignment, male participants were administered either alcohol or a placebo that smelled and tasted like alcohol. In each group, a random half were told it was alcohol, and the other half were told it was not. All participants were then instructed to create a sales pitch for the beverage that they just consumed. A female experimenter video-recorded the sales pitch. Finally, the participants watched their sales pitch and were asked to rank their self-attractiveness. A set of independent judges—unaware of the condition to which each participant was assigned—also watched every sales pitch and ranked the attractiveness of the participants. Figure 5.1B shows the mean (and standard deviation) self-attractiveness ratings of the participants, and Figure 5.1C shows the mean attractiveness ratings as assessed by the judges. Figure 5.1A (left), 5.1B (middle), and 5.1C (right)

23. (Scenario 5.2) Based on the description of the first study and the results depicted in Figure 5.1A, what can be reasonably concluded? a. Increasing blood-alcohol levels cause people to think that they are more attractive. b. Alcohol is not associated with perceptions of self-attractiveness. c. There is a positive correlation between blood-alcohol levels and ratings of self-attractiveness. d. There is a negative correlation between blood-alcohol levels and ratings of self-attractiveness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 24. The cocktail-party phenomenon illustrates the selectivity of consciousness. a. True b. False 25. The proportion of time spent in stage 4 sleep decreases over the course of a night. a. True b. False 26. According to dual process theories, System 2 is at work when we walk a well-learned route to a friend's house. a. True b. False 27. If less and less of a pain medication is required to produce the same amount of relief, a tolerance for the drug has been acquired. a. True b. False 28. Researchers have observed aggression in both humans and rats deprived of REM sleep. a. True b. False 29. The MOST commonly experienced sleep disorder is insomnia. a. True b. False

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30. (Scenario 5.2) In the first study, what was the manipulated independent variable? a. self-attractiveness rating only b. blood-alcohol level only c. self-attractiveness rating and blood-alcohol level d. There was no manipulated independent variable.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 31. The unity of consciousness refers to the fact that consciousness flows like a river from one "right now" to the next. a. True b. False 32. It is impossible to prove or disprove that your neighbor is conscious. a. True b. False Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 33. (Scenario 5.1) A child climbed up onto the kitchen counter. When asked why she did that, the child replied that she had the urge for a cookie and decided to get one. The results of Libet's (1985) experiment suggest that the child: a. was mistaken in her conscious experience of the urge and decision. b. climbed onto the counter before experiencing the urge. c. consciously decided to get a cookie only after the brain had made the decision. d. decided to get a cookie and willed her brain to begin the action of climbing. 34. Memories lost outside of hypnosis but recovered while under hypnosis usually are accurate representations of past events. a. True b. False 35. Alcohol depresses the activity of the neurotransmitter GABA. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 36. (Scenario 5.1) The results of this experiment suggest that: a. behavior precedes cognition. b. decision making precedes brain activity. c. brain activity precedes decision making. d. brain activity and decision making are not related. 37. LSD is extracted from certain types of mushrooms. a. True b. False 38. According to Freud, the dynamic unconsciousness controls well-learned behaviors, freeing your conscious mind to focus on more difficult tasks. a. True b. False 39. Infants under a year old usually cannot recognize themselves in a mirror. a. True b. False 40. Hypnic jerks usually occur during the deepest stages of sleep. a. True b. False

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41. (Scenario 5.3) In addition to measuring dream frequency, the researchers quantified the clarity of dreams with visual impressions. Among blind persons, researchers found that the later in life participants experienced blindness, the more visual clarity they experienced while dreaming. Which statement BEST summarizes this relationship? a. There is a positive correlation between blindness duration and visual clarity during dreams. b. There is a negative correlation between visual clarity during dreams and blindness duration. c. There is a negative correlation between age at which blindness occurred and visual clarity during dreams. d. There is a positive correlation between dreams with visual impressions and blindness duration.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 42. (Scenario 5.1) The results of this experiment cast doubt on traditional notions of: a. the dynamic unconscious. b. thought suppression. c. the unity of consciousness. d. thoughts triggering decision making. 43. An expert hypnotist can hypnotize virtually anyone. a. True b. False 44. Research has shown that staring at oneself in a mirror subsequently makes one less likely to offer help to another for a brief period of time. a. True b. False 45. Experiments by Libet revealed that our brains lead our minds and bodies, instead of our mind directing brain activity and behavior. a. True b. False 46. When asked, people usually report that babies have the capacity for agency but little capacity for experience. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 47. (Scenario 5.1) Brain activity was measured by a(n): a. transcranial stimulation device. b. computerized axial tomography scan. c. electroencephalogram. d. electromyograph. 48. Heroin and codeine are both opiate drugs. a. True b. False 49. It is safe to wake someone who is sleepwalking. a. True b. False

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50. (Scenario 5.2) Based on the results depicted in Figures 5.1B and 5.1C, what can be reasonably concluded? a. Alcohol intoxication increased ratings of self-attractiveness. b. Alcohol expectancies increased ratings of self-attractiveness. c. Both the pharmacological and expectancy effects of alcohol interacted to increase ratings of selfattractiveness. d. Neither alcohol nor alcohol expectancies affected ratings of self-attractiveness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 51. THC binds to the same receptors as the naturally occurring neurotransmitter serotonin. a. True b. False 52. The long-term use of sleeping pills to manage chronic insomnia usually is safe and effective. a. True b. False 53. Phenomenology is the study of the unconscious mind. a. True b. False Scenario 5.2 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Bègue, L., Bushman, B. J., Zerhouni, O., Subra, B., & Ourabah, M. (2013). "Beauty is in the eye of the beer holder": People who think they are drunk also think they are attractive. British Journal of Psychology, 104(2), 225–234. http://doi.10.1111/j.2044-8295.2012.02114.x Alcohol myopia refers to the fact that people often react to complex situations in simple ways when intoxicated. For example, we might attend to only highly salient stimuli in a complex social situation. One such stimulus is physical attractiveness. While numerous studies have investigated if alcohol makes us perceive others as more attractive, Bègue and colleagues (2013) wondered if alcohol increases the salience of feelings already held about our own self-attractiveness. In their first study (Figure 5.1A), 19 bar patrons completed a questionnaire and were asked to rank their own physical attractiveness on a scale of 0 (very unattractive) to 7 (very attractive). Then the researchers used a breathalyzer test to measure the blood-alcohol level of each of these patrons. In a second experiment, Bègue and colleagues investigated the relative contributions of alcohol and alcohol expectancies in modulating self-attractiveness. Using random assignment, male participants were administered either alcohol or a placebo that smelled and tasted like alcohol. In each group, a random half were told it was alcohol, and the other half were told it was not. All participants were then instructed to create a sales pitch for the beverage that they just consumed. A female experimenter video-recorded the sales pitch. Finally, the participants watched their sales pitch and were asked to rank their self-attractiveness. A set of independent judges—unaware of the condition to which each participant was assigned—also watched every sales pitch and ranked the attractiveness of the participants. Figure 5.1B shows the mean (and standard deviation) self-attractiveness ratings of the participants, and Figure 5.1C shows the mean attractiveness ratings as assessed by the judges. Figure 5.1A (left), 5.1B (middle), and 5.1C (right)

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay

54. (Scenario 5.2) Twenty participants were told that they received alcohol and were actually given alcohol. If an equal number of participants were exposed to the other conditions, how many total participants completed the study? a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 160 Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 55. (Scenario 5.1) Some critics of Libet (1985) expressed concern that participants could accurately estimate the timing of their conscious decision by monitoring a spot of light quickly revolving around a circle. This concern pertains to errors in: a. external validity. b. measurement. c. statistical significance. d. replication. 56. The deepest stage of sleep is stage 4 and is associated with delta-wave activity. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 57. The prevalence of nightmares is NOT related to age. a. True b. False 58. According to the activation–synthesis model, a dream begins with an underlying meaning, but this meaning is lost due to the random neural activity of the sleeping brain. a. True b. False Scenario 5.1 is based on the following study: Libet, B. (1985). Unconscious cerebral initiative and the role of conscious will in voluntary action. Behavioural and Brain Sciences, 8, 529–566. Libet (1985) arranged a task in which participants were instructed to move their finger whenever they felt the urge to do so. Sensors on the scalp recorded brain electrical activity, and sensors on the finger recorded movement, both in real time. Participants sat in front of a "clock" consisting of a spot of light revolving around a circle. They were instructed to note the position of the spot of light when they first had the urge to move their finger. This position was ultimately converted to a time. Libet found that brain activity preceded finger movement by about half a second and that brain activity preceded the urge to move by about one-third second. 59. (Scenario 5.1) Movement was measured by a(n): a. behavioral response from the participant. b. revolving spot of light. c. electroencephalogram. d. electromyograph. 60. Descartes believed that the mind is part of the physical world. a. True b. False 61. The theory of alcohol myopia explains why our visual perception of objects becomes fuzzy when we've had too much to drink. a. True b. False 62. Without cues to the time of day, the body will automatically adopt a rest–activity cycle of 8 hours. a. True b. False

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 63. Chimpanzees can usually recognize themselves in a mirror. a. True b. False 64. In a sleep paralysis attack, a person engaged in waking activities will collapse into sleep. a. True b. False 65. Stimulant drugs increase the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain. a. True b. False

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66. (Scenario 5.3) With respect to dreams with tactile experiences, which statement is TRUE? a. Sighted persons do not have tactile experiences in dreams. b. Participants blinded later in life have substantially more dreams with tactile impressions than congenitally blind participants do. c. Dreams with tactile content were less common than nightmares. d. Dreams with tactile impressions were less common than dreams with auditory impressions. 67. Emotions felt during dreams usually are less intense than the same emotions experienced when awake. a. True b. False

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68. (Scenario 5.2) Based on the description of the second study, which statement is FALSE? a. The judges' ratings were manipulated independent variables. b. Self-attractiveness was a measured dependent variable. c. The design allows for determinations of cause and effect. d. The presence or absence of alcohol expectancies was a manipulated independent variable.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 69. Sigmund Freud believed that unwanted thoughts and impulses were banished to the unconscious via the process of repression. a. True b. False 70. Somnambulism, or sleepwalking, is most common among children, peaking between the ages of 4 and 8. a. True b. False 71. Distinguish between nightmares and night terrors.

72. A kicker on a football team misses an important field goal. The coach advises him to actively try to banish the miss from memory. Explain why this approach may be bad advice.

73. Describe three levels of consciousness and describe a situation in which you would experience each.

74. Contrast Freud's theories of dreams with the activation–synthesis model as it pertains to the meaning of dreams.

75. Maria has just consumed a pill containing an unknown drug. Explain how you could use her behavioral symptoms to determine which of the five drug categories the pill came from.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 76. Contrast slow-wave sleep and REM sleep.

77. For each major drug class (depressants, stimulants, narcotics, hallucinogens, and marijuana), discuss the potential for overdose, physical dependence, and psychological dependence.

78. Describe some features of dreams. What is happening in the brain when you dream? Which areas are activated? Which are not?

79. Libet (1985) asked participants to move their fingers at will while measuring brain activity with an EEG. How did this experiment shed light on the mind–body problem?

80. Provide at least three pieces of evidence that sleep is a necessity.

81. Suppose that as a result of not doing well on your psychology exams lately, you decide to look at your approach to studying. Discuss the four basic properties of consciousness (intentionality, unity, selectivity, and transience), relating them to your study habits.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 82. Describe how hypnosis affects human consciousness, discuss individual differences in the susceptibility to hypnosis, and contrast several unproven or disproven effects of hypnosis with proven effects.

83. Define and give a unique example of dual process theories of consciousness.

84. Discuss why sleeping pills are not recommended for the long-term treatment of insomnia.

85. Illustrate the problem of other minds by discussing the difficulties associated with distinguishing a fully conscious person from a person who says and does all of the same things but is not conscious.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. b 36. c 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. b 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. Nightmares occur in both children and adults, though they occur more frequently in children. These dreams can be frightening enough to wake the sleeper, and the dream content is remembered after the sleeper wakes up. Nightmares occur during REM sleep. REM sleep cycles lengthen through the night, with the majority of dreaming taking place in the early hours of the morning. Night terrors, abrupt awakenings with feelings of panic and intense emotional arousal, occur mainly in younger children. They take place most often in non-REM sleep, early in the sleep cycle. The sleeper usually cannot report any dream content. 72. The answer should indicate that the basic issue is that the conscious mind is occupied by current concerns. Some thoughts may result in anxiety (such as missing important field goals), and we may try to reduce the anxiety by avoiding the thought. The problem is that such thought suppression results in greater levels of the thought and may result in an even further rebound after trying to suppress the thought. In this case, by actively trying to forget about the miss, the kicker will actually think about missing kicks much more. Obsessing over suppressing thoughts of misses is like playing a game of "whack-a-mole," where the mole is the memory of the miss. The more the kicker tries to "whack" it from consciousness, the more the memory of the miss pops up. This preoccupation probably will lead to inattention on the field, resulting in more misses due to ironic processes of mental control and fueling a downward spiral that leads to the kicker's unemployment.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 73. Minimal consciousness is a low-level kind of sensory awareness and responsiveness that occurs when the mind inputs sensations and may output behavior. You may experience this when you are poked in your sleep and roll over in response or when you are driving or reading and suddenly realize you don't remember the last few minutes of driving or reading. Full consciousness occurs when you know and are able to report your mental state. If you are aware of and thinking about driving or reading, then you are fully conscious. Full consciousness involves thinking about things as well as thinking about the fact that you are thinking about things. Self-consciousness is a level of consciousness in which the person's attention is drawn to the self as an object. People usually experience self-consciousness when they are embarrassed or find themselves the focus of attention (such as when looking in a mirror or having your picture taken). This also occurs when people are deeply introspective about their thoughts, feelings, or personal qualities. 74. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Freud believed that a dream begins with a hidden meaning, or the latent content of the dream, which is camouflaged by the manifest content of the dream. Freud believed that because dreams grant access to the primal and largely sexual drives in our unconscious, our conscious protects us by presenting these underlying motivations in a disguised form. For example, John may dream that he is driving through a tunnel with his girlfriend Carrie in the passenger seat and his mother in the back seat (manifest content). The hidden meaning, or latent content, might be that forces in John's unconscious are deciding if Carrie is an adequate substitute for the sexual feelings he harbors for his mother. (2) The activation–synthesis theory states that dreams are produced when the brain tries to make sense of the random neural activity that occurs during sleep. When we are fully conscious, we associate neural activity with environmental stimuli to make sense of our world. When we are sleeping, we receive very little input from the outside world, yet neural activity continues. Brain mechanisms involved in assigning meaning to neural activity receive no guidance from the outside world and thus are free to interpret the neural activity in different ways. (3) To contrast, Freud believed that dreams had hidden meanings, whereas the activation–synthesis model suggests that dreams begin randomly and then the mind adds meaning as it interprets the neural firing associated with REM sleep. 75. The answer should indicate that you can tell which class of drug the pill comes from by monitoring her behavior. Depressants have a sedative or calming effect (by decreasing central nervous system activity) and can alter consciousness by inducing sleep. Stimulants increase central nervous system activity and can heighten arousal and alertness. Narcotics relieve pain but can also induce stupor or lethargy and cause relaxation (which can also induce sleepiness). Hallucinogens cause visual and auditory hallucinations. Marijuana also works as a mild hallucinogenic, with euphoric effects. It can affect judgment and impair memory. 76. The answer should indicate that sleep is divided into two major phases: non-REM and REM sleep. Non-REM sleep has four stages that are characterized by slower and slower brain waves (alpha, theta, and delta). The deepest stages of sleep, stages 3 and 4, are associated with delta-wave activity. The sleeper becomes more difficult to awaken. Subsequently, the sleeping person moves back through these stages in reverse order until reaching the fifth stage of sleep. Known as REM sleep, the brain shows an EEG pattern resembling beta waves, consistent with someone who is awake and alert. Nevertheless, the person is asleep. Dreaming is present, but motor activity is inhibited. Eye movements occur, the pulse quickens, blood pressure rises, and there may be signs of sexual arousal during REM sleep.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 77. The answer should provide the following information: (1) An overdose of a drug from any of these classes, except marijuana and some drugs from the hallucinogenic class (such as LSD), may cause death. (2) Physical dependence refers to the development of tolerance, or the need to consume more of the drug to obtain the desired effect, and the presence of withdrawal symptoms when discontinuing use. (3) Psychological dependence involves preoccupation with using the drug and intense drug cravings, even after the body is no longer physically dependent. Physical dependence does not develop with the hallucinogens or marijuana, and psychological dependence is unlikely. The withdrawal symptoms associated with depressant drugs include seizures, convulsions, and hallucinations. The withdrawal symptoms associated with opiates also involve sickness. For both depressants and narcotics, symptoms of psychological withdrawal, evidenced by intense drug cravings, also are present. The withdrawal symptoms associated with the stimulant class consist of fatigue, anxiety, paranoia, depression, and drug cravings. 78. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Many dreams are intensely emotional, suggesting that the amygdala is active during REM sleep. (2) Dreams are visually expressive, but the other senses are virtually absent. In a way, dreaming is very similar to visual imagination. The actual areas associated with sensory perception (including visual perception) are not activated during dreaming. Visual association areas associated with visual imagery, however, are activated during REM sleep. (3) The prefrontal cortex shows less arousal during REM sleep. This area of the brain is associated with planning; dreams often seem unplanned and rambling. (4) During REM sleep, the motor cortex is activated, but spinal neurons running through the brainstem inhibit the expression of this motor activation; therefore, the dreamer remains still. This is fortuitous because acting out our dreams would be dangerous. This also shows that sleepwalkers are not dreaming. 79. The answer should indicate that the mind–body problem is the issue of how the mind is related to the brain and body. Do mental events control brain processes and, subsequently, behavior? Or are mental events the result of brain processes? Libet's experiments showed that brain activity to initiate finger movement began more than 300 milliseconds before the decision to move the finger. Thus, it appears as if mental events such as conscious decision making are actually the result, not the cause, of underlying physical processes in the brain. 80. The answer should indicate three of the following: (1) Sleep is necessary for learning. When people learn a difficult task and then are kept up all night, their learning is wiped out. (2) Extreme sleep loss can cause difficulty regulating body temperature and weight loss, and ultimately death. (3) A few hours of sleep deprivation each night impairs mental acuity and reaction time, while increasing irritability and depression. Sleep loss also increases the risk of accidents and injury. (4) Deprivation of REM sleep causes memory problems and excessive aggression. (5) Slowwave sleep deprivation produces physical effects, such as feeling tired and hypersensitive to pain. (6) Even though sleep is risky, all animals sleep, suggesting that sleep must have significant benefits that make up for this vulnerability.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 81. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Intentionality: Consciousness is always directed at an object. Perhaps you need to direct your consciousness toward psychology on a more frequent basis. The capacity of conscious attention also is limited. This limitation may affect how long you can focus on a reading assignment without being distracted. (2) Unity: Research suggests that if you try to focus on more than one thing at a time, your performance decreases markedly. Therefore, you should stop watching your favorite television show while studying for an exam. (3) Selectivity: While studying, your mind works to filter out sensory information associated with the temperature of the room, the hardness of your seat, and your roommate snoring. It also helps you tune in to information related to its intention (hopefully psychology). While this is enormously helpful for your study, it does have limitations. If you hear your name being discussed down the hall, for example, you may begin to selectively attend to that conversation and filter out visual information you are sensing from your textbook. The best advice is to study in a place where these types of distractions are kept to a minimum. (4) Transience: Conscious attention is constantly changing its focus. This may occur partly because of the limited capacity of working memory. Given that your mind will begin to wander after extended focus on the study material (also see point 1), perhaps the best advice is to take small, frequent breaks from your studies. 82. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Hypnosis is a social interaction in which one person (the hypnotist) makes suggestions that lead to a change in another person's (the participant's) subjective experience of the world. Under hypnosis, a person may feel that his or her behavior is being directed by suggestions from the hypnotist instead of being under conscious control. (2) There is a great deal of individual variability in hypnotic susceptibility, and no test accurately predicts the degree to which someone can be hypnotized. Perhaps the best predictor is the degree to which a person believes he or she can be hypnotized. People with active imaginations who easily become absorbed in books or movies are also more easily hypnotized. (3) Disproven or unproven effects of hypnosis include extravagant claims of physical feats and recall of memories. Hypnosis can produce a state of analgesia, in which a person feels less pain. 83. Dual process theories state that we have two different systems in our brains for processing information: one dedicated to fast, automatic, and unconscious processing, and the other dedicated to slow, effortful, and conscious processing. One example of dual process theory is finding the correct exit while driving on an unfamiliar interstate highway. The effortless processes of steering, staying in your lane, keeping up with traffic, and reading the words on traffic signs are all examples of the first process. Conscious decisions to switch lanes to follow a particular route, get off the interstate at a particular exit, or decide how far you can keep driving before you need gas are all examples of the second process. 84. The answer should indicate that sleeping pills are not an encouraged treatment for the long-term treatment of insomnia because they disrupt the architecture of sleep, robbing sleepers of REM and slow-wave sleep, and producing grogginess and irritability the next day. Moreover, sleeping pills are addictive. Over time, because of the development of tolerance, more and more pills will be required for an individual to fall asleep. Finally, if the sleeping pills are discontinued, the insomnia may return and actually be worse than it was before. To minimize these problems, sleeping pills are recommended only for the short-term treatment of insomnia.

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Chap 05_5e_ TF + Essay 85. The answer should indicate that the problem of other minds refers to the fundamental difficulty we have in perceiving the consciousness of others. To illustrate this problem, imagine a person who behaves just like you. She can talk about experiences, react to stimuli, and even wince in pain when stung by a bee. But the person is completely unconscious; she has no inner experience. This begs the question: How do you know that your roommate (or, for that matter, everyone else) is conscious? Because you have access to your own consciousness, you can make definitive statements about it. But because we do not have access to the consciousness of others, it is impossible to ever really know if they have consciousness. People make the assumption that other people experience consciousness in a way that is similar to themselves, and this assumption has served us well, but we never will know for sure.

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Chap 06_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Relative to semantic encoding, organizational encoding shows more activation of the upper left _____ lobe. a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital 2. The process whereby memories can become vulnerable to disruption when they are recalled, thus requiring them to be consolidated again, is termed: a. reconsolidation. b. reformatting. c. defragmentation. d. deconsolidation. 3. Damage to the hippocampus is LEAST likely to cause a 30-year-old to forget: a. her first childhood pet. b. what she wore yesterday. c. an item on the grocery list she wrote earlier this week. d. an appointment she had scheduled for tomorrow. 4. When studying for an exam, Yuchao relates important psychology terms to his past experiences and knowledge. Which strategy is he using? a. semantic encoding b. visual imagery encoding c. organization encoding d. chunking 5. After reading through the text for his introductory psychology class, Professor Wang can remember the titles of only the first three chapters. This BEST illustrates the _____ effect. a. recency b. primacy c. ordinal position d. state-dependent retrieval 6. Hermann Ebbinghaus studied memory by using: a. nonsense syllables. b. a priming task. c. stories with embedded false information. d. procedures designed to divide attention. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 7. The _____ coordinates the subsystems of working memory along with the episodic buffer. a. sensory memory store b. visuo-spatial sketchpad c. phonological loop d. central executive 8. Which statement regarding the effectiveness of studying the same material twice versus studying once and quizzing yourself once to enhance recall on a memory test is TRUE? a. Studying twice yields higher recall only if the memory test is at least 2 days from the study period. b. Studying and then quizzing will yield higher recall, no matter when the test is given. c. Studying and then quizzing will be more effective, as the time needed to retain the information increases. d. Studying twice is as effective as studying and then quizzing. 9. _____ is the distorting influence of present knowledge, beliefs, and feelings on the recall of previous experiences. a. Memory misattribution. b. Bias c. Source memory d. Persistence 10. Leah had a stroke and was in a coma for 2 weeks. When she wakes up, she cannot remember the names of family and friends, her address, or where she works. She does, however, remember what she ate for breakfast and the name of the nurse who was with her when she woke up. Leah is likely to be diagnosed with: a. short-term memory loss. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retrograde amnesia. d. iconic memory loss. 11. You are taking a biology class. During the lecture, you listen, take notes, and think about how the information is related to you. These are examples of _____ information into memory. When you rehearse this information, you are facilitating _____. During a test, you must remember the information, which is called _____. a. storing; retrieval; encoding b. encoding; retrieval; storage c. storing; encoding; retrieval d. encoding; storage; retrieval

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Chap 06_5e 12. Recent evidence suggests that _____ memory may contribute to divergent creative thinking. a. episodic b. procedural c. implicit d. semantic 13. The _____ plays a critical role in recognizing new words because the task involves the ability to link visual and verbal information. a. visuo-spatial sketchpad b. episodic buffer c. rehearsal executive d. phonological loop 14. At the supermarket, Charlotte finds it much easier to remember the food items she needs when she puts them into the categories of fruits, vegetables, and meat. What encoding process is Charlotte using to create and recall memories? a. organizational b. mnemonic c. semantic d. visual imagery 15. In a typical collaborative memory experiment, participants: a. first encode a list by themselves and then recall those words in small groups. b. encode a list in a small group and then recall those words individually. c. encode and recall a list of words in small groups. d. encode and recall a list of words individually. 16. The effectiveness of retrieval cues demonstrates that information is often _____ but momentarily _____ in memory. a. available; inaccessible b. unavailable; accessible c. unavailable; consolidated d. rehearsed; inaccessible 17. When you successfully remember something, your _____ shows increased activity, whereas when you try but fail to remember something, your _____ shows increased activity. a. hippocampus; left frontal lobe b. hippocampus; right frontal lobe c. left frontal lobe; hippocampus d. right frontal lobe; hippocampus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 18. The process of keeping information in short-term memory by mentally repeating it is called: a. rehearsal. b. chunking. c. memorizing. d. mnemonic storage. 19. The strengthening of synaptic connections with repeated neuronal communication that results in more efficient information processing is known as: a. flashbulb memory. b. long-term potentiation. c. transfer-appropriate processing. d. neural networks. 20. Ashley watches several silent films. The next day, she is asked to answer questions about the stories. The _____ and _____ are MOST responsible for her accurate recall. a. left frontal lobe; the occipital lobe b. left frontal lobe; the temporal lobe c. hippocampus; occipital lobe d. hippocampus; temporal lobe 21. The result of sending a neurotransmitter across a synapse is MOST analogous to: a. throwing a ball in the air. b. moving dishes from the sink into the dishwasher. c. strengthening a new friendship. d. a child coming home after a semester away at college. 22. Aplysia is a(n): a. tapeworm. b. sea slug. c. amoeba. d. rat strain. 23. A son is not paying attention to his father. His father asks sternly, "What did I just say?" and the son can only meekly respond, "You just asked me, 'What did I just say?' " What memory store was encoding this information, despite the son not paying attention? a. auditory memory b. working memory c. iconic memory d. echoic memory

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Chap 06_5e 24. _____ occurs when information learned later impairs memory for information acquired earlier. a. Retroactive interference b. Retrograde amnesia c. Proactive interference d. Anterograde amnesia 25. Finn can easily write his name without purposely thinking about the steps. This capability is an example of _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. procedural d. iconic 26. Janet uses semantic judgment when encoding new terms encountered in her sociology class. fMRI studies reveal that the part of her brain likely to be MOST active during this process is the _____ lobe. a. left temporal b. right frontal c. left parietal d. right occipital 27. A process by which retrieving an item from long-term memory impairs subsequent recall of related items is termed: a. retroactive interference. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. transience. d. retrieval-induced forgetting. 28. Working memory includes subsystems that store and manipulate: a. visual and auditory sensory experiences. b. iconic memories. c. visual images and verbal information. d. organizationally encoded long-term memories. 29. Which statement accurately describes the results of a typical collaborative memory experiment? a. Each individual outperforms the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. b. Most individuals outperform the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. c. The collective performance of the collaborative group is greater than the combined performance of individuals on the recall test. d. The combined performance of individuals is greater than the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 30. Mehreen fondly remembers her college days. When she goes back for a reunion dinner, however, she gets lost trying to find the dining hall. Mehreen is probably experiencing the _____ of memory. a. transience b. blocking c. suggestibility d. bias 31. Which statement accurately summarizes the effects of sleep on long-term storage? a. Sleep facilitates long-term storage because it prevents the occurrence of proactive interference that otherwise might interfere with consolidation. b. Sleep facilitates the consolidation of trivial information that might be discarded as unimportant in the fully conscious state. c. Sleep helps strip memories of their emotionality, thereby aiding in their subsequent clarity. d. Sleep helps us to remember what is important and discard what is trivial. 32. Jerome frequently studies his psychology notes in the same classroom he will take the exam in. Jerome is using _____ to his advantage. a. rehearsal b. suggestibility c. state-dependent storage d. encoding specificity 33. John recalls that Timothy McVeigh was responsible for bombing the federal building in Oklahoma City in 1995, but he has no idea where he originally learned this. What type of memory is failing John? a. source b. prospective c. semantic d. implicit 34. Ricardo, Felicity, and Bilal took part in a trivia game where they worked together on a series of trivia questions related to the content of their social psychology class. What would be the BEST strategy to win the trivia game? a. working on each question together as a team b. working on each question individually and then sharing answers with the team c. assigning each team member a set of distinct questions to work on and then sharing answers with the team d. assigning all questions to the most knowledgeable team member

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Chap 06_5e 35. Information can be kept for hours, days, weeks, or years in the _____ memory store. a. working b. short-term c. sensory d. long-term 36. Generating creative ideas by combining different types of information in new ways is termed _____ creative thinking. a. additive b. episodic c. divergent d. semantic 37. Encoding survival-related information requires all of these types of encoding EXCEPT: a. organizational. b. semantic. c. pleasantness. d. visual imagery. 38. The inability to transfer new information from short-term to long-term memory is: a. normal forgetting. b. retrograde amnesia. c. prograde amnesia. d. anterograde amnesia. 39. Antonella tells you that she is considering signing up for a course that promises to improve overall cognitive performance by training working memory skills. In response, you accurately inform her that: a. more than 50 years of research has clearly demonstrated that training working memory skills increases overall cognitive performance. b. training working memory skills has not been shown to increase cognitive performance on nonmemory-related tasks. c. more research is needed to determine if enhancing working memory leads to increased cognitive performance on non-memory-related tasks. d. efforts to study this research question have been thwarted by the fact that working memory skills cannot be improved with training.

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Chap 06_5e 40. With respect to retrieving memories, hit is to miss as the _____ is to the _____. a. right frontal lobe; hippocampus b. hippocampus; left frontal lobe c. hippocampus; visual cortex d. left frontal lobe; hippocampus 41. Esperanza is deciding between eating at McDonald's and Chipotle. She remembers that she ate at McDonald's last week, so decides to eat at Chipotle this week. Esperanza used _____ memory when making her decision. a. episodic b. prospective c. iconic d. semantic 42. Absentmindedness often involves a failure of _____ memory. a. procedural b. prospective c. semantic d. implicit 43. Combining small pieces of information into larger clusters is known as: a. rehearsal. b. visual encoding. c. elaborative encoding. d. chunking. 44. Ava relates new terms encountered in her philosophy class to logical terms she already knows. fMRI studies reveal that the part of her brain likely to be MOST active during this process is the: a. amygdala. b. frontal lobe. c. parietal lobe. d. hypothalamus. 45. Shruti's friend challenges her to remember a 14-digit number. Shruti uses rehearsal to learn the number, and in doing so: a. gives information 15 to 20 seconds in short-term memory with each repetition. b. increases her short-term memory storage capacity. c. guarantees the information will be consolidated to long-term memory. d. uses her visuo-spatial sketchpad.

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Chap 06_5e 46. Annie, Cierra, and Deidre memorize facts about historical figures in psychology as part of an introductory psychology course. On the day of the exam, the professor informs the three students that they can either take the exam individually or submit one exam from the group. Based on research on collaborative memory, the students should: a. complete the exam as a group. b. submit individually to avoid social loafing. c. first work individually then compile results and submit the exam as a group submission. d. submit individually because the information was encoded individually. 47. Roger was asked "What day is Independence Day?" and "What did you do for Independence Day last year?" To answer both of these questions, Roger will use his _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. implicit d. explicit 48. _____ memory can hold information for hours to years. a. Sensory b. Short-term c. Working d. Long-term 49. Long-term storage is to short-term storage as: a. enhanced neurotransmitter release is to increased neurotransmitter production. b. growth of new synapses is to enhanced neurotransmitter release. c. increased neurotransmitter production is to enhanced neurotransmitter release. d. enhanced neurotransmitter release is to growth of new synapses. 50. When asked to make a complete list of U.S. presidents, Omar can recall the first five presidents and the five most recent presidents, but he has difficulty remembering many of the presidents in between. This is due to the _____ effect. a. state-dependent retrieval b. iconic memory c. ordinal position d. serial position

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Chap 06_5e 51. Johann believes that if information hasn't been used recently, then he probably doesn't need to remember it for the future. Johann's view illustrates a benefit of which memory sin? a. bias b. suggestibility c. misattribution d. transience 52. Sloane's partner suggests that they get takeout from a nearby restaurant, but Sloane immediately remembers a time when she felt sick after eating food from that restaurant. Sloane is using _____ memory. a. semantic b. procedural c. implicit d. episodic 53. Jeremiah listens to brief clips of music from several films. Later, he is asked to listen to and identify which film each clip of music comes from. The _____ and _____ are MOST responsible for his accurate recall. a. left frontal lobe; occipital lobe b. left frontal lobe; parietal lobe c. hippocampus; temporal lobe d. hippocampus; occipital lobe 54. While taking a walk through the park, Maya suddenly has an overwhelming impression that she has taken this walk before but can't remember the details of it. Maya is experiencing: a. a flashbulb memory. b. prospective memory. c. déjà vu. d. suggestibility. 55. Making a new memory is MOST analogous to: a. transforming a written message into binary computer code. b. taking a picture. c. altering a recipe to create a new dish. d. recording a video.

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Chap 06_5e 56. Which statement summarizing research on whether training working memory skills improves cognitive performance on non-memory-related tasks is TRUE? a. More than 50 years of research has clearly demonstrated that training working memory skills increases overall cognitive performance. b. Training working memory skills has not been shown to increase cognitive performance on nonmemory-related tasks. c. More research is needed to determine if enhancing working memory leads to increased cognitive performance on non-memory-related tasks. d. Efforts to study this research question have been thwarted by the fact that working memory skills cannot be improved with training. 57. A retrieval cue is going to be useful only if the information to be recalled is _____ in memory. a. unavailable and inaccessible b. available but currently inaccessible c. available and already accessible d. unavailable and not consolidated 58. In a study of false memory, research participants were asked to remember the time when they were lost in a shopping mall as a child. The researchers confirmed that this never actually happened to any of the participants, but the false memory was: a. implanted in about 25% of the participants. b. implanted in very few participants. c. implanted in all of the participants. d. not implanted in any of the participants. 59. The _____ appears to be critically involved in the formation of new episodic memories. a. hippocampus b. cerebellum c. lower right temporal lobe d. upper right frontal lobe 60. A memory acquired in one situation is more likely to be used in situations with similar encoding and retrieval cues, a phenomenon known as: a. state-dependent encoding. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. organizational encoding. d. suggestibility.

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Chap 06_5e 61. The store of auditory information that decays very rapidly is called _____ memory. a. iconic b. echoic c. short-term d. working 62. The ability to recall information more efficiently when you are in the same state as when the information was encoded is known as: a. state-dependent encoding. b. state-dependent storage. c. state-dependent retrieval. d. transfer-dependent state. 63. A participant studied the following word pairs: fruit–apple, fruit–peach, fruit–pear, vegetable–carrot, vegetable–spinach, and vegetable–celery. Then the participant practiced recalling only the vegetable– carrot pair using the prompt vegetable–car_____. Later, the participant was given a memory test of the words she had originally studied. Of these, which word would MOST likely be forgotten due to retrievalinduced forgetting? a. carrot b. celery c. apple d. peach 64. Jeremiah was sure he recognized the new football coach on the first day of practice. In fact, he had never seen the coach before and was committing a type of memory misattribution known as: a. suggestibility. b. déjà vu. c. change bias. d. false recognition. 65. The memory sin of _____ often results in an increase in our overall sense of contentment. a. bias b. transience c. suggestibility d. persistence

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Chap 06_5e 66. Individuals with amygdala damage: a. show general memory deficits. b. have an inability to recall emotional events. c. remember emotional events more easily than nonemotional events. d. remember emotional events in a manner similar to how they remember nonemotional events. 67. Remembering how to drive a car is an example of _____ memory. a. working b. implicit c. semantic d. episodic 68. When asked to retrieve specific items, the _____ actively works to suppress answers that compete with the desired response. a. frontal lobe b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. temporal lobe 69. After watching a documentary about the civil rights movement of the 1960s, a researcher asks you to name a famous African American. Due to priming, you are most likely to say: a. Barack Obama. b. Martin Luther King Jr. c. Beyonce. d. Katherine Johnson. 70. When researchers applied a brief electrical stimulus to a neural pathway in a rat's _____, they found LTP. a. frontal cortex b. hypothalamus c. hippocampus d. Broca's area 71. Detailed recollections of when and where we heard about shocking events are: a. flashbulb memories. b. memory misattributions. c. source memories. d. blocking.

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Chap 06_5e 72. When attention is divided, what happens in the brain? a. There is less activity in the cerebellum during retrieval. b. There is greater activity in the lower left frontal lobe during encoding. c. There is less activity in the upper right frontal lobe during retrieval. d. There is reduced hippocampal activity during encoding. 73. A failure to retrieve information that is in memory, even though you are trying to produce it, is known as: a. proactive interference. b. blocking. c. retroactive interference. d. transience. 74. Sharon used to smoke a cigarette only when she went to the bar in her neighborhood. She has currently abstained from smoking for 2 years, but when she enters the same bar for the first time since she quit smoking, she immediately feels the urge to smoke. This may be due to: a. transience. b. encoding specificity. c. procedural memory. d. déjà vu. 75. Superior recall of a scenario is often observed when the scenario: a. is pleasant. b. is mildly annoying. c. involves planning. d. involves rhyming. 76. Sarah was at work at a gas station when it was robbed. Right before the robbery occurred, she spoke to a tall man with olive skin and a moustache. When questioned about the suspect in the burglary, she said she was certain that the robber had olive skin and a moustache. In truth, however, the robber had no facial hair and fair skin. What is the psychological term for this false recollection? a. absentmindedness b. misattribution c. transference d. bias 77. A stray cat would be LEAST likely to remember where it last: a. found food. b. encountered a mate. c. found a toy. d. encountered a dangerous predator. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 78. Which statement is NOT true of long-term memory? a. Once memories are consolidated, they cannot be disrupted. b. Each time memories are retrieved, they must be reconsolidated. c. Even our oldest memories can become disrupted when recalled. d. Electrical shocks can disrupt people's recalled memories. 79. Which statement about long-term storage is TRUE? a. Reconsolidation occurs when we fail to retrieve a memory. b. Sleep interferes with long-term storage. c. Once consolidated, memories exist indefinitely in long-term memory. d. Each time a memory is retrieved, it becomes vulnerable to disruption. 80. Memories lose specificity over time, which is a fact associated with the _____ of memory. a. generality b. misattribution c. suggestibility d. transience 81. An fMRI is conducted as a person is primed with a visual word cue. The next time the person sees the cue, a second fMRI will MOST likely reveal _____ activation in the _____ lobe relative to the first time the cue was presented. a. more; occipital b. less; left frontal c. more; lower left temporal d. less; left parietal 82. A 3rd grader must learn multiplication facts (1 × 1 through 12 × 12) over the course of 2 weeks. The BEST advice to give this student is to: a. devote a single day of memorization to each multiplier (e.g., learn 2 × 1 through 2 × 12). b. wait until the day before the test, memorize all of the problems and their answers, and then get a good night of sleep. c. make a list of all of the problems and their answers, and review this information repeatedly each day. d. make flash cards with the problem on the front (e.g., 9 × 7) and the answer on the back (e.g., 63), and quiz yourself repeatedly each day.

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Chap 06_5e 83. Cecilia recalls that the Great Depression took place in the 1920s, but she doesn't remember where she first learned about this event. Cecilia's _____ memory is failing. a. semantic b. prospective c. source d. implicit 84. When looking at photos of the basketball team she played on in high school, Laurenne recognizes almost all of her classmates, even though it's been 30 years since they played together. She can do this by retrieving information from her: a. working memory. b. source memory. c. long-term memory. d. phonological loop. 85. An alum first learned the words to her alma matter long ago at a football game and now tends to remember the words only when attending games. Her ability to recall the words only in the presence of this external context demonstrates the power of: a. encoding specificity. b. suggestibility. c. state-dependent storage. d. transfer-appropriate processing. 86. _____ memory is memory for skills that you have acquired as a result of practice (e.g., typing correctly on a keyboard, writing the alphabet). a. Priming b. Episodic c. Semantic d. Procedural 87. Sensory storage holds information for a maximum of: a. a few seconds. b. a few minutes. c. hours to days. d. days to years.

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Chap 06_5e 88. A participant studied the following word pairs: reptile–snake, reptile–turtle, reptile–lizard, amphibian– frog, amphibian–salamander, and amphibian–newt. Then the participant practiced recalling only the amphibian–salamander pair using the prompt amphibian–sala_____. Later, the participant was given a memory test of the words he had originally studied. Based on retrieval-induced forgetting, which word would MOST be likely forgotten? a. salamander b. frog c. turtle d. lizard 89. Restaurant servers who use organizational encoding to organize orders into groups are essentially: a. chunking the information. b. rehearsing the information. c. utilizing the serial position effect. d. utilizing state-dependent learning. 90. Failures in prospective memory often result in: a. transience. b. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon. c. absentmindedness. d. memory misattribution. 91. Kandel and colleagues stimulated the tail of an Aplysia with a mild electric shock, which caused contraction of its gill. If the investigators were to immediately stimulate the tail of the Aplysia again, the gill would contract more _____, indicating _____ memory of the shock. a. quickly; short-term b. quickly; long-term c. slowly; short-term d. slowly; long-term 92. You learned French in high school 10 years ago. You travel to Paris, and at the airport a customs officer asks you a question in French. You recall the correct answer from your study of the language and answer the officer. This is an example of which function of memory? a. semantics b. encoding c. storage d. retrieval

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Chap 06_5e 93. Transience involves the gradual switch from _____ to _____ memories. a. more general; more specific b. more specific; more general c. explicit; implicit d. implicit; explicit 94. Sperling (1960) flashed a matrix of 12 letters for 1/20th of a second to participants. When asked to recall the letters immediately after, Sperling found that MOST participants recalled: a. none of the letters, given the short presentation time. b. fewer than three letters. c. fewer than half of the letters. d. more than half of the letters. 95. _____ occurs when people consciously or intentionally retrieve past experiences. a. Implicit memory b. Explicit memory c. Priming d. Procedural memory 96. McKayla is asked to think of a word that rhymes with prime. Danielle is asked to think about the mathematical meaning of prime numbers. The next day, both women are asked, "Hey, what was the word that you heard yesterday that rhymes with time?" _____ will be more likely to recall prime because _____. a. McKayla; rhyme judgments almost always result in better encoding than do semantic judgments b. McKayla; the encoding context matched the retrieval context c. Danielle; semantic judgments almost always result in better encoding than do case judgments d. Danielle; the retrieval context was sufficiently dissimilar from the encoding context 97. Making a new memory is MOST analogous to: a. creating a new piece of art. b. typing a dictated script into a computer. c. copying a well-loved book in Braille. d. taking a photograph. 98. Trying to recall an event and successfully recalling one are: a. the same process occurring in the hippocampus and frontal lobe, respectively. b. exactly the same hippocampal process, with differences arising due to differences in environmental retrieval cues. c. different processes occurring in the frontal lobe and hippocampus, respectively. d. different processes occurring in the hippocampus.

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Chap 06_5e 99. You are completing a final exam for your general psychology course. The first question on the exam is "Who was the first female president of the American Psychological Association?" What form of memory will you use to answer this general knowledge question? a. procedural b. priming c. episodic d. semantic 100. Sharon, who worked in New York City in 2001, can vividly describe what she was doing and saying at the moment she learned of the World Trade Center attacks. Her memory of September 11, 2001, is: a. a flashbulb memory. b. transience. c. a semantic memory. d. consistency bias. 101. Whenever Andrea goes to the library to study, she takes a Red Bull energy drink with her and drinks it while she studies. As the semester progresses, she notices that she does considerably better on an exam when she drinks a Red Bull while she is taking it. She MOST likely does better because of: a. caffeine-enhanced sensory storage. b. state-dependent retrieval. c. the transience of retrieval. d. state-dependent storage. 102. Severe cases of name blocking usually result from damage to the: a. prefrontal cortex. b. medial parietal lobe. c. left temporal lobe. d. hippocampus. 103. Collaborative memory refers to: a. the construction of false memories. b. the ability to imagine possible futures based on past experiences. c. how people remember in groups. d. the priming of conceptually related material.

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Chap 06_5e 104. As illustrated by the study referenced in the text in which people first imagined and then falsely remembered spilling punch all over the bride's parents at a wedding, _____ plays a large role in the formation of false memories. a. state-dependent retrieval b. visual imagery c. misattribution d. flashbulb memory 105. Memories are MOST fragile: a. shortly after encoding. b. immediately after consolidation. c. years after consolidation. d. immediately after reconsolidation. 106. The intrusive recollection of events we wish we could forget is known as: a. false recognition. b. persistence. c. retroactive interference. d. source memory. 107. Absentmindedness results from: a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. the passage of time since information encoding. d. a lapse in attention. 108. The process by which we transform what we perceive, think, or feel into an enduring memory is called: a. encoding. b. remembering. c. recalling. d. storing. 109. Memory sins are BEST conceptualized as: a. maladaptive quirks resulting from genetic mutation. b. once adaptive processes that have become maladaptive in the modern world. c. the occasional result of a normally efficient system. d. evidence of a highly inefficient system.

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Chap 06_5e 110. The _____ memory store holds information for a maximum of 15 to 20 seconds in the absence of rehearsal. a. iconic b. echoic c. short-term d. long-term 111. Lucas told his mom everything he remembered about the presentation he gave in his psychology class last week. What part of memory was Lucas using as he spoke to his mother? a. procedural b. explicit c. implicit d. semantic 112. _____ is a type of explicit memory that consists of a collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place. a. Episodic memory b. Semantic memory c. Conceptual priming d. Procedural memory 113. Roediger and Karpicke (2006) studied performance on a memory test in two groups of participants. In one group, participants studied the material twice (study–study). In the other group, participants studied the material once and then were tested on the material (study–test). A final test measuring recall was administered in both groups after various retention intervals. Their main finding was that recall was better in the _____ retention intervals. a. study–test group at all b. study–study group at all c. study–test group at long d. study–test group at short 114. Godden and Baddeley (1975) examined the specificity principle by asking scuba divers to memorize a list of words on land. Subsequently, the divers remembered: a. more words when tested on land. b. more words when tested deep under water. c. more words when tested swimming on the surface of the water. d. the same number of words whether they were tested on land or in water.

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Chap 06_5e 115. Tony has spoken Italian since he was 5 years old. In his high school Spanish class, he regularly replaces Spanish words with Italian words. Tony is experiencing: a. proactive interference. b. state-dependent retrieval. c. retroactive interference. d. retrieval-induced forgetting. 116. If you are in a good mood when you are studying for a test, you will remember the material better on the test day if you: a. are in a good mood. b. study using elaborative encoding. c. take the exam in a new classroom. d. are in a bad mood. 117. The _____ is highly involved in the formation of flashbulb memories. a. amygdala b. hypothalamus c. tectum d. primary visual cortex 118. In a classic memory study by Peterson and Peterson (1959), participants were given consonant strings to remember, such as DBX and HLM, and then were instructed to count backward from 100 by 3s. After a variable amount of time (delay), the participants were asked to recall the consonant strings. Which statement accurately describes the results of the experiment? a. There was no decrease in recall accuracy until the delay reached about 20 seconds. b. A 3-second delay decreased accuracy by almost 80%. c. A 20-second delay decreased accuracy by more than 80%. d. There was no decrease in recall accuracy until the delay reached about 7 seconds. 119. HM's improved performance on a tracking task, despite not consciously remembering having done the task before, is an example of _____ memory. a. explicit b. implicit c. semantic d. procedural

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Chap 06_5e 120. The visuo-spatial sketchpad is a subsystem of working memory that stores and manipulates: a. sensory experiences. b. visual images. c. verbal information. d. numerical information. 121. Active maintenance of information in _____ memory is referred to as _____ memory. a. short-term; long-term b. short-term; working c. working; short-term d. working; long-term 122. The synapse is the space between the _____ another. a. soma of one neuron and the axon on b. vesicle of one neuron and the axon terminal of c. axon of one neuron and the dendrite of d. dendrite of one neuron and the soma of 123. _____ is the enhanced ability to think about a word or object due to a recent exposure to that same word or object. a. Priming b. Iconic memory c. Explicit memory d. Procedural memory 124. Which definition BEST describes a retrieval cue? a. information from the outside world that aids in the encoding of similar information b. neuronal processes that underlie information recall from long-term memory c. state-dependent events that modulate transfer of information between working and long-term memory d. external information that is associated with stored information and helps bring it to mind 125. Sensory information is kept for a few seconds or less in _____ memory. a. rehearsal b. short-term c. sensory d. working

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Chap 06_5e 126. During three separate interviews, experimenters asked students to imagine that they committed a crime as adolescents. They also applied social pressure techniques and found that: a. only a few participants came to believe they had committed a crime. b. participants accurately remembered that they had not committed a crime. c. most participants came to believe they had committed a crime. d. all participants came to believe that they had committed a crime. 127. Faced with a tough decision regarding whether to change careers, Vitomir relies on his _____ memory to imagine the different outcomes associated with staying with or leaving his current position. a. implicit b. semantic c. working d. episodic 128. The brain of a server at a restaurant is studied in an fMRI while she mentally engages in remembering the food and drink orders of a table of six virtual people. Most likely, the MRI will reveal which area of the frontal lobe to be the MOST active? a. upper left b. lower left c. upper right d. lower right 129. Echoic memories last _____ iconic memories. a. slightly longer than b. approximately the same length of time as c. slightly shorter than d. much longer than 130. Nadia sees a classmate at the grocery store. She approaches the classmate but can't remember her name, despite the fact that she absolutely knows it. Nadia is experiencing: a. memory misattribution. b. a failure in prospective memory. c. retroactive interference. d. blocking.

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Chap 06_5e 131. Bob has flashbacks to traumatic events that occurred during his service in Iraq. They cause him considerable anxiety, and he wishes that he could forget them. Bob is experiencing the negative effects of the _____ of memory. a. persistence b. transience c. suggestibility d. permanence 132. Because it was such a shock to her, Janelle clearly remembers exactly where she was and what she was doing the day that Kobe Bryant died. This is an example of a(n) _____ memory. a. flashbulb b. iconic c. implicit d. semantic 133. Which scenario BEST illustrates déjà vécu? a. believing that a life-altering experience is about to happen to you b. mistakenly believing that you have already lived through a specific experience and can remember the details of what happened c. telling the same story to the same person multiple times and thinking that the person has not yet heard the story d. mistakenly thinking that you recognize someone 134. Approximately how many items can short-term memory hold? a. 4 b. 7 c. 11 d. 20 135. Research has shown that different aspects of a single memory are stored in: a. the hippocampus and adjacent areas of the cortex. b. primarily the hippocampus. c. the brain's temporal lobe. d. different places in the cortex throughout the brain. 136. One advantage of encoding survival-related information is that it draws on elements of: a. semantic encoding only. b. semantic and visual imagery encoding only. c. organizational and visual imagery encoding only. d. semantic, visual imagery, and organizational encoding. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 137. Ichiko is taking notes while her psychology professor lectures. She becomes distracted by a noise outside the classroom for about 30 seconds, and when she returns her focus to the classroom, she realizes that she can no longer remember what she was writing down. This is due to the limits of _____ memory. a. short-term b. long-term c. sensory d. iconic 138. Which statement accurately summarizes the effects of sleep on long-term storage? a. Sleep facilitates long-term storage because it protects us from encountering new information that interferes with consolidation. b. Sleep facilitates the consolidation of trivial information that might be discarded as unimportant in the fully conscious state. c. Sleep facilitates the consolidation of important and highly emotional memories. d. Sleep facilitates long-term storage because it decreases emotionality that often interferes with consolidation. 139. Julio, a native Spanish speaker, is currently learning German in college. When he visits his Spanish-speaking family, he frequently inserts German words into his Spanish. This is an example of: a. proactive interference. b. blocking. c. retroactive interference. d. transfer-appropriate processing. 140. People with damage to their _____ lobe are MOST prone to memory misattribution. a. frontal b. occipital c. temporal d. parietal 141. Rae is part of a four-person group that is developing a presentation for psychology class. The group must meet outside of class, so Rae shares her phone number with the group. One member of the group doesn't have a pencil to write the number down, so he repeats the digits in his head until he can pull out his cell phone and store the number. Rae's peer just used _____ to remember her number. a. encoding b. retrieval c. rehearsal d. short-term memory storage

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Chap 06_5e 142. The process of bringing to mind information that has been previously encoded and stored in memory is known as: a. memory. b. encoding. c. storage. d. retrieval. 143. The inability to retrieve information acquired before a particular date, usually the date of brain trauma or surgery, is termed: a. consolidation. b. retrograde amnesia. c. reconsolidation. d. anterograde amnesia. 144. Gavin is asked to remember a list of 20 words. Some of the words are written in blue ink, and some are written in red ink. A week later, he is asked to recall as many words as possible. Gavin will probably do better on the task if, during the encoding phase, he: a. thinks about the color of each word. b. pairs each word on the list with a word with which it rhymed. c. thinks about the meaning of each word. d. spells each word silently to himself. 145. When trying to decide whether to go to Costa Rica or Hawaii on vacation, Jazzmyn relies on her _____ memory to imagine what it would be like in each location. a. semantic b. episodic c. implicit d. working 146. Violeta vividly remembers her first day of college. This is an example of a(n) _____ memory. a. explicit b. semantic c. implicit d. echoic

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Chap 06_5e 147. A participant is shown 100 pictures. Later, she is shown pictures while in an fMRI scanner and asked if they were part of the original set. Which area of the brain would be LEAST active during this task? a. frontal lobe b. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe d. hippocampus 148. _____ memory refers to the gradual acquisition of skills as the result of practice, or "knowing how" to do things. a. Procedural b. Explicit c. Primed d. Semantic 149. _____ memory occurs when past experiences influence later behavior and performance, even without an effort to remember them. a. Implicit b. Explicit c. Semantic d. Episodic 150. College students typically recall more good grades than bad grades when they look back at their high school experiences. This memory phenomenon is known as: a. memory misattribution. b. persistence. c. source memory. d. change bias. 151. Storing information by converting it into mental pictures is known as _____ encoding. a. photographic b. visual imagery c. semantic d. organizational 152. Callie visited a dance club where the songs were "oldies but goodies." Although she had not gone dancing in more than 20 years, Callie remembered the lyrics to most of the songs. This was MOST likely because: a. the hippocampus ages more slowly than does the rest of the brain. b. semantic memories are more easily recalled than are procedural memories. c. the information was stored in her long-term memory. d. the visuo-spatial sketchpad encoded this information. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 153. Brain-imaging studies indicate that the executive functioning underlying working memory is attributable to activity in the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital 154. Research by Hermann Ebbinghaus and others demonstrated that: a. memories of new information fade at a constant rate over time. b. new memories remain strong for up to 4 weeks before they begin to fade. c. most forgetting of new information happens soon after the event in question. d. individuals remember much more than they think they do. 155. Much of what we know about the neurological basis of long-term memory comes from laboratory studies of: a. rats. b. Aplysia. c. mice. d. chimpanzees. 156. Remembering how to ice skate is an example of _____ memory. a. echoic b. semantic c. procedural d. episodic 157. People suffering from the same disorder as patient HM would be LEAST likely to: a. remember how to type on a keyboard with their hands in the correct position. b. remember the name of their first childhood pet. c. remember the name of their server at a restaurant. d. recognize facial emotions. 158. Jason looked up a telephone number on his desktop computer, but his cell phone is in another room. The easiest and perhaps MOST effective technique he can use to remember the number until he can get to his phone is: a. organizational encoding. b. visual imagery encoding. c. state-dependent retrieval. d. rehearsal.

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Chap 06_5e 159. Memories are made by: a. transforming perceptions into sensory experiences. b. combining existing information in the brain with new information from our senses. c. recording information coming in from our senses. d. creating exact duplicates of perceptual experiences in the hippocampus. 160. The serial position effect predicts that when recalling items in a previously learned list, we are MOST likely to forget the items _____ of the list. a. at the beginning b. at the end c. in the middle and at the end d. in the middle 161. As Juan is reading his psychology textbook, his neighbor begins to play loud music and disrupts Juan's perception of the information in the textbook. This will cause Juan to have difficulty with _____ of the information. a. storage b. encoding c. retrieval d. the semantics 162. According to transfer-appropriate processing, we are more likely to recall information when: a. there are strong social norms to know the information. b. the information was originally encoded semantically. c. the information was originally encoded semantically and visually. d. the current situation is similar to that in which the information was originally encoded. 163. Jose, Emily, and Nansi took part in a trivia game where they worked together on a series of trivia questions related to the content of their introductory psychology class. Which statement about their experience is FALSE? a. Retrieval strategies used by Jose may disrupt those used by Nansi. b. The negative effects of collaborative inhibition on memory will persist, even when Emily later tries to recall answers on her own. c. Nansi's memory of the trivia answers will be improved through exposure to answers recalled by other group members. d. The number of items recalled by the group would be greater than the total number of items recalled if Jose, Emily, and Nansi worked alone.

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Chap 06_5e 164. Divided attention is to _____ as the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is to _____. a. transience; absentmindedness b. absentmindedness; transience c. transience; blocking d. absentmindedness; blocking 165. Katie learned how to swim last summer. This summer, she goes to the pool and realizes that she still remembers how to swim. Katie is using _____ memory. a. explicit b. procedural c. semantic d. working 166. In MOST people, the long-term memory store has: a. no known capacity limits. b. a finite capacity of 7 plus or minus 2 gigabytes of information. c. capacity limits for verbal but not visual information. d. considerably less capacity in adolescence relative to adulthood. 167. A witness to a bank robbery was interviewed and asked to provide details about the suspect's race, age, facial characteristics, height, weight, and clothing. Later, the witness was interviewed again and asked to provide additional details. At this second interview, which would the witness be LEAST likely to recall? a. the size of the suspect relative to the average person b. the color of the suspect's eyes c. what was printed on the suspect's T-shirt d. what the suspect said during the robbery 168. With respect to complex long-term memories, the hippocampus can MOST accurately be conceptualized as a(n): a. USB drive that houses saved files. b. index linking separate files in one document c. irrelevant GIF that occasionally pops up uninvited. d. camera that records and stores events as they occur. 169. Recall of when, where, and how information was acquired is called: a. retrieval. b. retrospective memory. c. source memory. d. retroactive memory.

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Chap 06_5e 170. Memory is enhanced for highly emotional events in large part due to the activity of which brain structure? a. basal ganglia b. amygdala c. tegmentum d. primary visual cortex 171. Your best friend was recently in a car accident. When you visit her, she immediately remembers who you are, and the two of you laugh about the fun vacation you took together last year. You mention that you got a new job and that you met a new partner; however, despite you sharing this news several times, your friend doesn't remember. Your friend is probably suffering from _____ as a result of the accident. a. suppression b. anterograde amnesia c. retrograde amnesia d. transience 172. Jean is attending a birthday party for Eleanor, a person that she's known since kindergarten. Jean recalls that Eleanor has always been a close friend. In fact, they didn't become close friends until middle school, but Jean's current mood is affecting her memory. Jean is committing the memory sin of: a. transience. b. bias. c. suggestibility. d. misattribution. 173. It is helpful that local phone numbers are only seven digits long because seven items is the capacity of _____ memory. a. sensory b. iconic c. short-term d. long-term 174. _____ is the tendency to incorporate misleading information from outside sources into personal recollections. a. False recognition b. Misattribution c. Déjà vécu d. Suggestibility

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Chap 06_5e 175. In the 1990s, the large increase in the number of adults reporting recovered decades-old memories of childhood sexual abuse probably was the result of: a. memory misattribution produced by the prevalence of graphic sexuality shown on television. b. egocentric bias. c. the prevalence of psychoactive drugs and the permissive sexual culture in the 1960s, when these individuals were children. d. suggestive techniques used by psychotherapists. 176. Which statement regarding hippocampal activity is TRUE? a. The hippocampus is not active during false recognition. b. The hippocampus is active to a lesser extent during false recognition relative to true recognition. c. The hippocampus is active to a greater extent during false recognition relative to true recognition. d. The hippocampus is about equally active during both false and true recognition. 177. Relying on your computer to help you remember information has advantages and disadvantages similar to those observed with: a. state-dependent retrieval. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. collaborative memory. d. social loafing. 178. Dr. Lin develops a drug that can reduce memories of traumatic experiences during recall of the experience. This drug likely: a. increases forgetting. b. interferes with reconsolidation. c. interferes with encoding. d. increases consolidation. 179. Tona suffered a head injury in a recent car crash. She cannot remember anything that occurred in the minutes leading up to the crash, though the rest of her memory seems to be okay. Tona is suffering a mild form of _____ amnesia, probably due to disrupted memory _____. a. anterograde; consolidation b. anterograde; rehearsal c. retrograde; consolidation d. retrograde; rehearsal

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Chap 06_5e 180. Jerry is asked to think of a word that rhymes with motor. Jimmy is asked to think about how a motor works. The next day, both men are asked, "Hey, what was the word that you heard yesterday that rhymes with voter?" _____ will be more likely to recall motor because _____. a. Jerry; rhyme judgments almost always result in better encoding than do semantic judgments b. Jerry; the encoding context matched the retrieval context c. Jimmy; semantic judgments almost always result in better encoding than do case judgments d. Jimmy; the retrieval context was sufficiently dissimilar from the encoding context 181. A type of explicit memory that consists of a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world is _____ memory. a. episodic b. semantic c. iconic d. implicit 182. Prospective memory involves remembering: a. more positive than negative things about yourself. b. to do things in the future. c. spatial locations and directions. d. name and face associations. 183. Assigning a recollection or an idea to the wrong source is termed: a. memory bias. b. memory misattribution. c. blocking. d. memory misidentification. 184. Trying to recall an event and successfully recalling one are: a. the same process occurring in different parts of the brain. b. exactly the same process, with differences arising due to differences in environmental retrieval cues. c. different processes occurring in the hippocampus. d. different processes occurring in different parts of the brain. 185. Godden and Baddeley (1975) demonstrated that scuba divers who memorized a list of words underwater subsequently remembered more of those words when tested: a. on the deck of a boat. b. underwater. c. swimming on the surface of the water. d. in a classroom with ocean scenery on the walls.

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Chap 06_5e 186. Huin couldn't remember the last item on his grocery list, so he texted his partner for a hint. Once his partner texted back "fruit," Huin immediately remembered that he needed to buy apples. This hint is an example of a(n) _____ cue. a. retrieval b. encoding specificity c. state-dependent d. transfer-appropriate 187. Source memory refers to: a. when, where, and how information was acquired. b. the credibility or accuracy of the information in memory. c. remembering to do something in the future. d. the memories that remain after transience has occurred. 188. Anthony is given a list of 20 objects to memorize in order. Anthony imagines a walk from home to school and pictures one of the objects on each street corner. Which memory technique is Anthony MOST likely using? a. organizational encoding b. chunking c. semantic encoding d. visual imagery encoding 189. In a typical collaborative memory experiment, participants first encode a list of words _____ and then time later attempt to recall those words _____. a. by themselves or with others; with others b. with others; by themselves c. with others; by themselves or with others d. by themselves; with others or by themselves 190. The type of consolidation that occurs over a time scale encompassing years involves the transfer of memory from: a. sensory memory to working memory. b. short-term memory to long-term memory. c. the cortex to the amygdala. d. the hippocampus to the cortex.

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Chap 06_5e 191. Angus is asked to list his last three addresses on a job application. He writes his current address but momentarily blanks on his previous addresses because his current address keeps popping into mind. Angus is experiencing: a. anterograde amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. retroactive interference. d. absentmindedness. 192. Seamus sits in the same seat in his psychology class for lecture every day. On final exam day, he chooses a different seat and finds that he is not able to remember much of the lecture content. If he had chosen his familiar seat, he may have remembered more due to: a. chunking. b. maintenance rehearsal. c. encoding specificity. d. the flashbulb effect. 193. The encoding of survival-related information is effective because it often requires participants to engage in: a. extensive planning. b. constructing a fear hierarchy. c. chunking. d. sensory integration. 194. Sperling (1960) flashed a matrix of letters for 1/20th of a second to participants. Sperling found that the participants: a. attempted to encode the letters from left to right. b. attempted to encode the letters from top to bottom. c. automatically stored the entire matrix of letters, but for only a brief moment. d. automatically stored the entire matrix of letters for up to a minute after the presentation. 195. An instructor studies his class roll for 15 minutes on the first day of class in an attempt to remember student names. The next day, he finds that he can recall only the names at the beginning of the roll. This BEST illustrates the _____ effect. a. recency b. primacy c. ordinal position d. state-dependent retrieval

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Chap 06_5e 196. Sean sits in the same seat in his psychology class for lecture every day. On final exam day, he chooses the same seat, in an effort to recreate the way in which psychology information was initially encoded. He is attempting to use _____ to his benefit. a. chunking b. maintenance rehearsal c. encoding specificity d. the flashbulb effect 197. A lapse in attention that results in memory failure is: a. absentmindedness. b. blocking. c. proactive interference. d. retroactive interference. 198. The phonological loop is a subsystem of working memory that stores and manipulates: a. sensory experiences. b. visual images. c. verbal information. d. numerical information. 199. Some psychologists who study memory believe that the role of the hippocampus is to: a. store sensory experiences that later become long-term memories. b. store long-term memories. c. index the bits and pieces of a single memory that are stored throughout the cortex. d. recover well-remembered old memories such as your first kiss. 200. Jared just completed a course in Chinese history. Based on knowledge about the curve of forgetting, we can predict that: a. most of what Jared will forget about the Chinese dynasties will occur in the first few years after completing the course. b. Jared will forget most of the material at a constant rate over time. c. Jared will experience a sudden spike in forgetting beginning around 4 years after course completion. d. the rate at which Jared forgets the course material will increase over time.

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Chap 06_5e 201. A man and his son were watching Jeopardy on TV. The man correctly answered the questions in the category "World War II," and his son was impressed. The son then told his father that he remembered watching a program on World War II once at a friend's house. The man was using _____ memory, while the son was using _____ memory. a. explicit; semantic b. semantic; implicit c. semantic; episodic d. episodic; semantic 202. In the middle of his lecture, Professor Williams showed 12 letters presented in a grid for only a fraction of a second. He then asked students to write the letters they had just seen, thus testing their _____ memory. a. echoic b. iconic c. working d. short-term 203. The BEST example of the use of a retrieval cue is: a. sitting in your usual desk every day in psychology class except exam day. b. feeling the urge to have a dessert when you enter the cafeteria where you usually eat dessert. c. using drugs to speed recall. d. drinking coffee while studying. 204. There are two types of explicit memory: _____ memory for facts and knowledge, and _____ memory for personally experienced events. a. implicit; semantic b. procedural; implicit c. semantic; episodic d. procedural; priming 205. Jessica held up three rows of four letters on a poster board to her high school psychology class for a fraction of a second. She then removed it and immediately asked the class to name the letters in the top row. Based on previous research, about how many letters in the row would you expect individual students to recall? a. none b. one c. two d. three or four

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Chap 06_5e 206. Blocking of memory is MOST prevalent in: a. adolescents. b. young adults. c. people in their 40s and 50s. d. people in their 60s and 70s. 207. Lin held up three rows of four letters on a poster board to her high school psychology class for a fraction of a second. She then removed it and immediately asked the class to name the 12 letters they had just been shown. Based on previous research, about how many letters would you expect individual students to recall? a. 0 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10 208. The impairment of memory for recently learned information by previously learned information is known as: a. proactive interference. b. anterograde amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. blocking. 209. Dewan recently suffered a brain injury following a bike accident. After the accident, he began to realize that he did not remember anything that happened in the hours leading up to the accident. Dewan is suffering from: a. anterograde amnesia. b. proactive interference. c. memory consolidation. d. retrograde amnesia. 210. Meera, a professional ice skater, struggles to remember the names of the various people she meets as part of her job but has no problem remembering elaborate skating routines. This illustrates the difference between explicit and _____ memory. a. episodic b. flashbulb c. procedural d. semantic

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Chap 06_5e 211. In the absence of rehearsal, research has shown that information can be held in the short-term memory store for _____ seconds or less. a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 20 212. The famous patient HM had a portion of his temporal lobe removed to stop seizure activity and, as a result, could not: a. form new memories. b. remember anything from before his hippocampus was removed. c. use working memory. d. use sensory memory. 213. When attention is divided, what happens in the brain? a. There is less activity in the lower left frontal lobe. b. There is greater activity in the lower left frontal lobe. c. There is less activity in the upper right frontal lobe. d. There is greater hippocampal activity. 214. A participant studied the following word pairs: fruit–apple, fruit–peach, fruit–pear, vegetable–carrot, vegetable–spinach, and vegetable–celery. Then the participant practiced recalling only the fruit–apple pair using the prompt fruit–ap_____. Later, the participant was given a memory test of the words she had originally studied. Of these, which word would MOST likely be forgotten due to retrieval-induced forgetting? a. apple b. carrots c. peach d. celery 215. One limitation of using visual imagery encoding for studying for an exam is that: a. you have to be creative to imagine an image of everything you are studying. b. a great deal of cognitive effort is involved in the successful use of this technique. c. most students don't know how to use this technique. d. it involves relating incoming information to knowledge already in memory. 216. Remembering to do things in the future is called _____ memory. a. prospective b. semantic c. anterograde d. source Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 217. Three weeks ago, Sandra came home to find an armed robber in her house. As she was walking in the door, the man pushed past her and fled the premises. Sandra's sister, Amy, was in the driveway unloading groceries from the car and said she thought the man had wavy black hair. When Sandra later goes in to view a lineup, the man who robbed her is in the lineup. However, Sandra picks a similar-looking man who has wavy black hair instead of the robber's light brown hair. Her mistake illustrates the concept of: a. suggestibility. b. flashbulb memory. c. bias. d. memory misattribution. 218. Keith believes his openness to new experiences has changed drastically as a result of going to college. Actually, it has increased only slightly. Keith's beliefs are attributable to _____ bias. a. flashbulb b. source c. misattribution d. change 219. The seven sins of memory: a. expose long-term memory as a highly unreliable storage system. b. reinforce the notion that almost all memories are distorted. c. are the occasional result of a fairly reliable system. d. are interesting topics for psychologists but usually have no real-world implications. 220. The tendency to incorporate misleading information from outside sources into personal recall of events is called: a. false recognition. b. suggestibility. c. retroactive interference. d. source memory. 221. Which scenario BEST illustrates déjà vu? a. suddenly believing that a life-altering experience is about to happen to you b. suddenly believing that you have been in a situation before, even though you cannot recall any details c. telling the same story to the same person multiple times and thinking that the person has not yet heard the story d. mistakenly thinking that you recognize someone

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Chap 06_5e 222. Forty-year-old Renard suffered a traumatic brain injury that injured his hippocampus. He is LEAST likely to forget: a. what he ate for breakfast this morning. b. the name of his first romantic partner. c. whether he paid his bills last week. d. a work deadline he must meet by tomorrow. 223. Blocking occurs MOST often for: a. occupations. b. names. c. personality traits. d. appearances. 224. Sydney is learning Latin and relates the new Latin vocabulary to words that she already knows in English. If she were doing this while undergoing fMRI, the areas of her brain MOST active would be the: a. amygdala and hippocampus. b. parietal lobe and occipital lobe. c. frontal lobe and temporal lobe. d. hypothalamus and hippocampus. 225. Long-term memory can be broken up into two broad types: memory that does not require conscious recall, referred to as _____ memory, and memory that does require conscious recall, or _____ memory. a. implicit; explicit b. explicit; implicit c. semantic; episodic d. procedural; priming 226. Upon returning to a city in which he lived a decade ago, Omar realizes that he cannot even remember directions to major landmarks. Omar is probably experiencing the _____ of memory. a. blocking b. absentmindedness c. suggestibility d. transience 227. Just as she was about to write down a friend's address, Mariana's phone rang. When she returns to her writing a minute later, she has forgotten the address. Mariana's _____ memory has failed her. a. long-term b. short-term c. sensory d. iconic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 228. The impairment of memory for previously learned information by newly learned information is known as: a. proactive interference. b. retrograde amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. anterograde amnesia. 229. Jennifer is a child who suffered hippocampal damage. It might be predicted that Jennifer will struggle with: a. using a baby blanket as something other than a blanket. b. reading at an age-appropriate level. c. learning how to downhill ski. d. memorizing the names of the 10 Canadian provinces. 230. Transience refers to forgetting that occurs: a. as a result of the limits of working memory. b. when the retrieval context does not match the encoding context. c. due to divided attention. d. simply as the result of the passage of time. 231. Short-term memory is limited in how long it can hold information and in the _____ information it can hold. a. type of b. utility of the c. complexity of the d. amount of 232. Active maintenance of information in short-term memory is referred to as: a. working memory. b. sensory storage. c. active memory. d. labor storage. 233. Forgetting that occurs with the passage of time is known as: a. failure. b. retrieval. c. transience. d. interference.

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Chap 06_5e 234. Monique wanted to find a fun way to help her students prepare for their forthcoming history exam. She decided to create a game show with questions about different countries and their governments. Which type of memory would the students rely on to answer the questions? a. implicit b. explicit c. priming d. procedural 235. Iconic memory is a _____ information. a. fast-decaying store of visual b. fast-decaying store of auditory c. fast-decaying store of touch d. type of memory that holds nonsensory 236. _____ occurs when information learned earlier impairs memory for information acquired later. a. Retroactive interference b. Retrograde amnesia c. Proactive interference d. Anterograde amnesia 237. Categorizing information based on relationships among the items in a series to be remembered is the definition of: a. semantic encoding. b. visual imagery encoding. c. organizational encoding. d. chunking. 238. Emerson, age 8, was in a bad car accident and suffered hippocampal damage. After the accident, Emerson's academic performance was unchanged, but she had difficulty remembering everyday activities and things that had happened to her in the past. She is showing signs of: a. loss of semantic memory. b. blocking. c. retrieval-induced forgetting. d. loss of episodic memory. 239. Which statement about priming is TRUE? a. Damage to the hippocampus substantially reduces the effects of priming. b. Priming is an example of explicit memory. c. Your memory might be currently primed by events that took place years earlier. d. Priming does not occur in people with anterograde amnesia. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 240. A parent was so distracted by the noise of his children in the other room that he forgot about the pediatrician appointment he had scheduled for later that afternoon. This parent has encountered a failure in _____ memory resulting in _____. a. source; absentmindedness b. source; transience c. prospective; transience d. prospective; absentmindedness 241. Andrej is a child who suffered hippocampal damage. It might be predicted that Andrej will struggle with: a. remembering what sound the letter D makes. b. solving addition problems. c. learning how to use a fork. d. using a cardboard box in imaginative ways. 242. Unlike semantic encoding, visual imagery encoding shows activation of the _____ lobe. a. frontal b. temporal c. parietal d. occipital 243. After several days of practice, Jameson knows how to play a D chord effortlessly. Jameson is using _____ memory to play the chord. a. explicit b. iconic c. procedural d. working 244. After a car accident, John's family notices he is unable to recall normal events that occur in daily life. He also seems disoriented and lost most of the time, though he is able to answer questions from his favorite trivia game without any problems. Brain scans show his hippocampus has been damaged. John is suffering from problems with his _____ memory. a. procedural b. implicit c. episodic d. semantic

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Chap 06_5e 245. In a classic memory study by Peterson and Peterson (1959), participants were given consonant strings to remember, such as DBX and HLM, and then were instructed to count backward from 100 by 3s. After a variable amount of time, the participants were asked to recall the consonant strings. Asking participants to count backward effectively prevents: a. sensory storage. b. iconic memory. c. short-term storage. d. rehearsal. 246. Courtney is called to the witness stand to testify as an eyewitness against a man accused of first-degree murder. The lawyer interrogating her asks a series of questions about the alleged murderer. The lawyer throws in a question, asking Courtney to describe the tattoo on the left shoulder of the accused man. This question is false; there is no tattoo. The lawyer is using the question to try to discredit Courtney, who says that the tattoo was small and hard to see in detail. The MOST likely reason for Courtney's mistake is: a. change bias. b. suggestibility. c. false recognition. d. transience. 247. Evelyn, a patient that you meet while working at an assisted living facility, introduces herself to you and asks your name. For the next week, you are assigned to help Evelyn, and you notice that every time you enter the room, she reintroduces herself and again asks your name. She frequently shares stories of her childhood and young adult life with you, though it has been many years since the events she talks about have transpired. You begin to wonder if Evelyn suffers from: a. anterograde amnesia. b. retrograde amnesia. c. retroactive interference. d. proactive interference. 248. Brittany is daydreaming in class when her instructor asks her a question. Brittany finds that even though she was not paying attention, she can replay in her "mind's ear" the instructor's last words, taking advantage of a process called: a. auditory memory. b. visual imagery encoding. c. iconic memory. d. echoic memory.

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Chap 06_5e 249. Short-term memory is to working memory as: a. structure is to dynamic process. b. sensation is to attending. c. dynamic process is to place. d. frontal lobe is to temporal lobe. 250. Retrieval-induced forgetting refers to the: a. loss of memory that occurs when the retrieval context is dissimilar to the encoding context. b. loss of memory that occurs with the passage of time between encoding and retrieval. c. process by which retrieving an item from long-term memory impairs subsequent recall of related items. d. fact that a memory-erasing drug must be given while the particular memory is being retrieved in order for the drug to work. 251. The idea that an external retrieval cue can be an effective reminder when it helps recreate the specific way in which information is initially encoded is termed: a. state-dependent retrieval. b. transfer-appropriate processing. c. the encoding specificity principle. d. state-dependent priming. 252. When you try but fail to remember something, your _____ shows increased activity, whereas when you successfully remember something, your _____ shows increased activity. a. hippocampus; left frontal lobe b. hippocampus; right frontal lobe c. left frontal lobe; hippocampus d. right frontal lobe; hippocampus 253. The negative effect of group recall on memory is termed: a. collaborative inhibition. b. social loafing. c. groupthink. d. collective amnesia. 254. There are two types of explicit memory: _____ memory for personally experienced events and _____ memory for facts and concepts. a. episodic; iconic b. procedural; semantic c. semantic; episodic d. episodic; semantic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 255. The advantage of having a flexible memory that can recombine past events to envision possible futures facilitates which memory sin? a. bias b. transience c. misattribution d. persistence 256. In planning out her day as she arrives at the office, Dr. Vance forgets that she has a meeting later that day with a student. This illustrates _____ due to a failure in _____ memory. a. blocking; prospective b. transience; source c. absentmindedness; prospective d. misattribution; source 257. Which statement regarding the effectiveness of studying the same material twice versus studying once and quizzing yourself once to enhance recall on a memory test is FALSE? a. Studying twice may be slightly more effective if the memory test is administered in the next few minutes. b. Studying and then quizzing will yield higher recall if the memory test is administered 2 days later. c. Studying and then quizzing will be much more effective if the memory test is administered in the next few minutes. d. Studying and then quizzing will yield higher recall if the memory test is administered 1 week later. 258. _____ is the process of maintaining information in memory over time. a. Memory b. Encoding c. Storage d. Retrieval 259. During Monica's appearance on a popular quiz show, the host asked her to name the capital of Russia, and Monica immediately blanked out. She knew that she knew the answer, but she just couldn't recall it. This illustrates: a. proactive interference. b. retroactive interference. c. blocking. d. absentmindedness.

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Chap 06_5e 260. Studies using fMRI have revealed that the second time an object is viewed, there is _____ activity in the visual cortex, suggesting that priming makes perception of the object _____. a. more; easier b. more; more difficult c. less; easier d. less; more difficult 261. Yuhang was about to introduce his girlfriend, Natalia, to a friend but, all of a sudden, he could not remember his friend's name. This is known as: a. a transient state. b. a memory misattribution. c. a tip-of-the-tongue experience. d. retrograde amnesia. 262. Memories are: a. recorded into the brain. b. duplicated by the brain into perceptual experiences. c. transformed by the brain into elemental sensory components. d. constructed by the brain. 263. At her 20-year college reunion, Julia reminisces about the amazing college soccer team she was captain of. In reality, even though Julia remembers the team winning almost every game, the team won only about half of its games. Her false memory is probably due to: a. transience. b. blocking. c. suggestibility. d. bias. 264. We rely heavily on _____ memory to envision the future. a. implicit b. episodic c. iconic d. semantic 265. Retrieving information from the long-term memory store _____ subsequent memory of that information. a. will only improve b. will only impair c. will not improve, impair, or change d. may improve or impair

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Chap 06_5e 266. Pooja is able to learn psychology vocabulary much better when she thinks about the meaning of each term and uses the term in an example. Pooja is using _____ judgments. a. case b. rhyme c. visual imagery d. semantic 267. Yo-Yo Ma, a world-famous musician, left his multimillion-dollar cello in the trunk of a taxi. What might have caused him to forget something so important to him? a. lack of retrieval cues b. blocking c. absentmindedness d. transience 268. Hafa just completed a course in calculus. Based on knowledge about the curve of forgetting, we can predict that: a. most of what Hafa will forget about calculus will occur in the first few years after completing the course. b. Hafa will forget most of the material at a constant rate over time. c. Hafa will experience a sudden increase in forgetting approximately 4 years after finishing the course. d. the rate at which Hafa forgets calculus will increase over time. 269. Which statement accurately describes the results of a typical collaborative memory experiment? a. Each individual outperforms the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. b. Most individuals outperform the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. c. The collective performance of the collaborative group is greater than the individual performance of participants. d. The combined performance of individuals is less than the collective performance of the collaborative group on the recall test. 270. An expert in wilderness survival participates in a memory study in which she is shown a list of words. Later, she is asked to recall these words. Which words is she MOST likely to recall? a. freshwater b. mountaintop c. songbird d. cool breeze

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Chap 06_5e 271. Using social pressure, Shaw and Porter (2015) got a large percentage of the college students in their study to falsely remember _____ as adolescents. a. committing a crime b. breaking their leg c. winning a radio contest d. visiting Mount Rushmore 272. Our increasing reliance on external devices to remind us to carry out future tasks in everyday life is referred to as: a. intention offloading. b. blocking. c. absentmindedness. d. proactive interference. 273. The type of consolidation that occurs over a time scale of seconds to minutes involves the transfer of memory from: a. sensory memory to working memory. b. short-term memory to long-term memory. c. the cortex to the hippocampus. d. the hippocampus to the cortex. 274. Assigning a recollection or an idea to the wrong source is termed: a. memory bias. b. suggestibility. c. absentmindedness. d. memory misattribution. 275. The _____ is the small space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another. a. synapse b. neurotransmitter c. dendrite d. myelin sheath 276. How long does it take for iconic memories to decay? a. 1 second b. 5 seconds c. 1 minute d. 3 minutes

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Chap 06_5e 277. A mother trying to pacify her fussy toddler while paying her bill at the supermarket suddenly realizes that she has forgotten to get the most important item on her list. Forgetting to purchase the item is an example of: a. change bias. b. absentmindedness. c. transience. d. proactive interference. 278. Iconic memory is a fast-decaying store of: a. memory of peoples' names. b. visual memory. c. echoic memory. d. auditory memory. 279. If presented with similar but misleading information about an event during participants' recollection of the event, participants are then more likely to incorporate the misleading information into their future accounts of the event. This is probably due to the fact that the misleading information was presented closely in time with the _____ of the event. a. consolidation b. reconsolidation c. encoding d. rehearsal 280. Andre cannot stop thinking about a near-fatal accident he had while working at a construction site a few months ago. Which memory "sin" is he suffering from? a. suggestibility b. absentmindedness c. persistence d. blocking 281. Which brain region would be MOST involved in visual imagery encoding? a. frontal lobe b. temporal lobe c. parietal lobe d. occipital lobe 282. The _____ is believed to act as an index linking information together. a. frontal lobe b. cerebellum c. hippocampus d. visual cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 283. HM's memory problems were attributed to the removal of his _____ and parts of his temporal lobe. a. hippocampus b. occipital cortex c. thalamus d. pons 284. The ability to store and retrieve information over time is called: a. preservation. b. memory. c. elaboration. d. storage. 285. Semantic encoding is related to an increase of activity in which brain regions? a. lower left frontal lobe and inner part of the left parietal lobe b. lower left frontal lobe and inner part of the left temporal lobe c. lower right frontal lobe and inner part of the left occipital lobe d. lower right frontal lobe and inner part of the right parietal lobe 286. When JaMarion has a lot to do, he categorizes his to-do list based on type of task: homework, job-related tasks, housekeeping tasks, and fun tasks. This type of memorization is _____ encoding. a. semantic b. organizational c. survival d. visual imagery 287. The memory sin that does NOT have benefits similar to those of the other sins in this context is: a. transience. b. absentmindedness. c. bias. d. blocking. 288. One effective form of encoding appears to be linking new information to: a. its appearance in sensory memory. b. how it sounds, such as rhyming words. c. how it relates to other knowledge in memory. d. what follows it in serial position.

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Chap 06_5e 289. A psychologist is questioning Hunter about his childhood memories. Hunter is telling the psychologist the story of his favorite Christmas present, a trip to Disneyland. His memories of the present and the trip itself are very clear; however, Hunter believes that the present came from his uncle Charley, when in fact it was from his aunt Beth. This type of error in memory is known as: a. misattribution. b. false recognition. c. hindsight bias. d. childhood amnesia. 290. Which area of the frontal lobe is activated during organizational encoding? a. upper right b. lower right c. upper left d. lower left 291. There are two broad types of long-term memory: _____ memory occurs when past experiences are intentionally retrieved, and _____ memory occurs when past experiences influence behavior even without an effort to remember them. a. Implicit; explicit b. Explicit; implicit c. Procedural; episodic d. Semantic; priming 292. The exaggeration of differences between what we feel or believe now and what we felt or believed in the past is called: a. suggestibility. b. memory misattribution. c. change bias. d. source memory. 293. With respect to retrieving memories, search is to find as the _____ is to the _____. a. right frontal lobe; hippocampus b. hippocampus; left frontal lobe c. hippocampus; visual cortex d. left frontal lobe; hippocampus

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Chap 06_5e 294. Sonya had difficulty remembering the name of her friend's cat until her friend reminded her that the cat was named after a famous neuroscientist. Sonya realized that the cat's name was Kandel because her friend's prompt functioned as a _____ cue. a. transfer-appropriate b. encoding specificity c. state-dependent d. retrieval 295. Information from the outside world that is associated with stored information and that helps bring it to mind is known as a(n) _____ cue. a. storage b. encoding c. retrieval d. iconic 296. Of the memory sins, one of the primary causes of eyewitness misidentifications is: a. transience. b. memory misattribution. c. persistence. d. absentmindedness. 297. Kandel and colleagues repeatedly stimulated the tail of an Aplysia with a mild electric shock. They demonstrated that learning in Aplysia: a. never occurred. b. is based solely on the growth of new synapses. c. occurs due to short-term changes involving the synapse and growth of new synapses. d. results in memories that only last for minutes. 298. _____ memories are usually well recalled due to their _____ nature. a. Semantic; emotional b. Flashbulb; emotional c. Iconic; cognitive d. Source; cognitive 299. How long does it take echoic memories to decay? a. 1 second b. 5 seconds c. 30 milliseconds d. 60 seconds

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Chap 06_5e 300. Blocking occurs when you: a. fail to remember to do something in the future. b. cannot remember the source of your memory. c. fail to retrieve information that is available in memory, even though you are trying to produce it. d. fail to retrieve information due to divided attention.

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Chap 06_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. d 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. b 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. b 50. d 51. d 52. d 53. c 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 55. c 56. c 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. d 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. c 78. a 79. d 80. d 81. b 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 83. c 84. c 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. b 89. a 90. c 91. a 92. d 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. b 97. a 98. c 99. d 100. a 101. b 102. c 103. c 104. b 105. a 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 111. b 112. a 113. c 114. a 115. a 116. a 117. a 118. c 119. b 120. b 121. b 122. c 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. c 127. d 128. a 129. a 130. d 131. a 132. a 133. b 134. b 135. d 136. d 137. a

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Chap 06_5e 138. c 139. c 140. a 141. c 142. d 143. b 144. c 145. b 146. a 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. d 151. b 152. c 153. a 154. c 155. b 156. c 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. d 161. b 162. d 163. d 164. d 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 166. a 167. d 168. b 169. c 170. b 171. b 172. b 173. c 174. d 175. d 176. d 177. c 178. b 179. c 180. b 181. b 182. b 183. b 184. d 185. b 186. a 187. a 188. d 189. d 190. d 191. c 192. c 193. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 194. c 195. b 196. c 197. a 198. c 199. c 200. a 201. c 202. b 203. b 204. c 205. d 206. d 207. b 208. a 209. d 210. c 211. d 212. a 213. a 214. c 215. b 216. a 217. a 218. d 219. c 220. b 221. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 222. b 223. b 224. c 225. a 226. d 227. b 228. c 229. a 230. d 231. d 232. a 233. c 234. b 235. a 236. c 237. c 238. d 239. c 240. d 241. d 242. d 243. c 244. c 245. d 246. b 247. a 248. d

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Chap 06_5e 249. a 250. c 251. c 252. c 253. a 254. d 255. c 256. c 257. c 258. c 259. c 260. c 261. c 262. d 263. d 264. b 265. d 266. d 267. c 268. a 269. c 270. a 271. a 272. a 273. b 274. d 275. a 276. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e 277. b 278. b 279. b 280. c 281. d 282. c 283. a 284. b 285. b 286. b 287. c 288. c 289. a 290. c 291. b 292. c 293. d 294. d 295. c 296. b 297. c 298. b 299. b 300. c

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The hippocampus is most active when we try, but fail, to retrieve information from long-term memory. a. True b. False 2. The hippocampus is necessary for acquiring new semantic information. a. True b. False 3. If you can consciously recall a memory, it is an explicit memory. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 6.3 is based on and presents data consistent with the following study: Ebbinghaus, H. (1885/1913). Memory: A contribution to experimental psychology (Trans. H. A. Ruger & C. E. Bussenius). Teachers College. In a classic study on forgetting, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized a list of nonsense syllables, for example, three consonants that did not form a word (e.g., HYZ). After memorizing a list until he could recall it perfectly twice, Ebbinghaus put the list away for a period of time termed the retention interval. When the interval elapsed, Ebbinghaus attempted to recall as many nonsense syllables from the list as he could, then recorded his percent accuracy (savings). Using this procedure, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized many lists and recorded his accuracy after a number of different retention intervals. The major results of this experiment are shown in Figure 6.2. Figure 6.2

4. (Scenario 6.3) Ebbinghaus's results illustrate which "sin" of memory? a. absentmindedness b. transience c. misattribution d. blocking 5. Visual imagery encoding activates brain regions in the parietal lobe. a. True b. False 6. Iconic memories decay faster than do echoic memories. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 7. Because he suffered from anterograde amnesia, patient HM was unable to transfer new information from short-term into long-term memory. a. True b. False 8. As time passes, we begin to lose information in our long-term memory store at a faster and faster rate. a. True b. False 9. Blocking results when we try to retrieve information that has faded from memory. a. True b. False 10. When we remember something, our brains create exact duplicates of perceptual experiences. a. True b. False Scenario 6.2 Famous within psychology, patient HM had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus— removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 11. (Scenario 6.2) Which memory processes were severely impaired by the surgery? a. episodic memories from after the surgery b. episodic memories from years before the surgery c. procedural memories from both before and after the surgery d. procedural memories from only after the surgery Scenario 6.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Barber, S. J., Rajaram, S., & Fox, E. B. (2012). Learning and remembering with others: The key role of retrieval in shaping group recall and collective memory. Social Cognition, 30(1), 121–132. http://doi.10.1521/soco.2012.30.1.121 In a typical experiment on collaborative memory, participants first encode information individually and later attempt to recall the information either individually or in a small group (collaboratively). While the recall of the collaborative group is better than that of any individual, the summed recall of individuals typically is better than the recall of the collaborative group. This is a phenomenon termed collaborative inhibition. Barber et al. (2012) investigated this phenomenon during both the encoding and retrieval stages of memory. Participants created sentences out of a word bank, which provided the opportunity to encode this information. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay After completing this task, participants engaged in an unrelated task—solving mazes—for 10 minutes. Then, in a surprise memory test, they were asked to recall as many words from the word bank as possible (retrieval). Participants were randomly assigned to one of four groups. In the first group (Alone–Alone), participants were studied individually during both the encoding and retrieval phases of the experiment. In the second group (Alone–Collaborative), participants were studied individually during the encoding phase and as part of a threemember team (triad) during the retrieval phase. In the third group (Collaborative–Alone), participants were studied in a triad during the encoding phase but individually during the retrieval phase. Finally, in the fourth group (Collaborative–Collaborative), participants completed both phases of the experiment as part of a triad. Fabricated results illustrating the major finding of Barber et al. (2012) are presented in Figure 6.1. This figure shows the percentage of words from the word bank accurately recalled as a function of group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase individually, scores represent the summed retrieval of the individuals comprising the group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase as part of a triad, scores simply represent the collaborative performance. Figure 6.1

12. (Scenario 6.1) This experiment examined which type of memory? a. procedural b. prospective c. explicit d. working

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 13. (Scenario 6.1) One possible explanation of collaborative inhibition is social loafing, or the established phenomenon that people do not exert as much effort on a task when studied as part of a group relative to when studied individually. A careful examination of the procedure and results, however, suggests that social loafing does not explain collaborative inhibition because: a. the performance of the Alone–Alone group suggests participants were highly motivated. b. the maze task successfully disguised the true purpose of the study. c. collaborative inhibition was not observed in the Collaborative–Alone group. d. there is little reason to believe that social loafing would occur to different degrees during encoding and retrieval. 14. Episodic memory allows us to engage in mental time travel. a. True b. False 15. Collaborative recall typically is better than the recall of any individual comprising the group. a. True b. False 16. Retrieval cues always are external stimuli in the environment. a. True b. False Scenario 6.2 Famous within psychology, patient HM had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus— removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 17. (Scenario 6.2) Suppose that researchers attempted to teach a patient with the same condition as HM how to ride a unicycle. Researchers probably would find that the patient would: a. not learn how to ride unless she previously had been taught this skill during childhood. b. learn how to ride but at a much slower rate than those without the condition. c. show learning within a single training session but not across sessions; that is, every session would be like starting over. d. learn how to ride over time but not remember any of her previous training. 18. Predictions based on state-dependent retrieval state that if you are emotionally upset when you are studying for a test, you will remember the material even better if you are in a good mood on the test day. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 19. Sensory storage can hold information for only a few seconds or less. a. True b. False Scenario 6.3 is based on and presents data consistent with the following study: Ebbinghaus, H. (1885/1913). Memory: A contribution to experimental psychology (Trans. H. A. Ruger & C. E. Bussenius). Teachers College. In a classic study on forgetting, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized a list of nonsense syllables, for example, three consonants that did not form a word (e.g., HYZ). After memorizing a list until he could recall it perfectly twice, Ebbinghaus put the list away for a period of time termed the retention interval. When the interval elapsed, Ebbinghaus attempted to recall as many nonsense syllables from the list as he could, then recorded his percent accuracy (savings). Using this procedure, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized many lists and recorded his accuracy after a number of different retention intervals. The major results of this experiment are shown in Figure 6.2. Figure 6.2

20. (Scenario 6.3) Ebbinghaus found that after a 2-day retention interval, almost 70% of the information originally memorized was forgotten. How much of what was retained at the 2-day interval would continue to be recalled after a 6-day retention interval? a. almost none of it b. approximately 10% c. approximately 30% d. almost all of it

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 21. Kelly's memory of the first goal she scored in organized soccer is an example of a semantic memory. a. True b. False 22. Repeatedly retrieving a piece of information from memory produces roughly the same effects on long-term recall as studying the information repeatedly. a. True b. False

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23. (Scenario 6.3) The area beneath the curve in Figure 6.3 provides an index of the: a. amount of information retained. b. amount of information forgotten. c. rate of forgetting. d. correlation between the retention interval and the percent savings. 24. (Scenario 6.3) Although psychologists have subsequently confirmed Ebbinghaus's results in many other participants, because the original study used a single participant, when the study was conducted it could have been criticized on the grounds of: a. a third-variable problem. b. internal validity. c. generalizability. d. reliability. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 6.2 Famous within psychology, patient HM had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus— removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 25. (Scenario 6.2) The hippocampus is crucial for: a. manipulating information in working memory. b. putting new information into the long-term memory store. c. remembering events that occurred many years ago. d. remembering events that occurred in the past 20 seconds. 26. Kandel's work with Aplysia demonstrated that short-term memory involves the growth of new synaptic connections among neurons. a. True b. False 27. Often, semantic encoding occurs without conscious effort. a. True b. False 28. In a typical collaborative memory experiment, participants encode information in small groups and then attempt to recall them on their own. a. True b. False 29. People in long-term romantic relationships tend to exaggerate how much their love grows over time, illustrating change bias. a. True b. False 30. Organizational encoding activates the upper portion of the left temporal lobe. a. True b. False

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31. (Scenario 6.3) Ebbinghaus demonstrated that most new information committed to memory is forgotten: a. at an approximately constant rate. b. at a positively accelerated rate as the retention interval increases. c. soon after committing the information to memory. d. when there is no need to continue to remember the information.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay Scenario 6.2 Famous within psychology, patient HM had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus— removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 32. (Scenario 6.2) Based on the information provided, this scenario BEST illustrates which psychological research method? a. double-blind experiment b. correlational design c. naturalistic observation d. case method 33. Without rehearsal, information cannot be stored in short-term memory beyond about 5 seconds. a. True b. False 34. In correct chronological order, we encode, retrieve, and store memories. a. True b. False 35. Sleep helps memory by facilitating the consolidation of important—but not trivial—information. a. True b. False 36. Emotional events tend to be better remembered than mundane events. a. True b. False 37. The hippocampus and the temporal lobe become activated when Abigail remembers the voice of her deceased grandfather. a. True b. False

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38. (Scenario 6.3) Although psychologists have subsequently replicated Ebbinghaus's results in many research participants, the fact that Ebbinghaus himself served as the participant in the original study raises the concern that results may have been influenced unintentionally by: a. third variables. b. bias. c. measurement error. d. transience. 39. Drugs that block long-term potentiation produce effects similar to severe retrograde amnesia. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 40. New information can be held in short-term storage for several days before it is transferred to long-term memory. a. True b. False 41. Divided attention is associated with an increase in lower left frontal lobe activity. a. True b. False 42. Contestants on quiz shows typically use episodic memory to come up with correct answers. a. True b. False Scenario 6.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Barber, S. J., Rajaram, S., & Fox, E. B. (2012). Learning and remembering with others: The key role of retrieval in shaping group recall and collective memory. Social Cognition, 30(1), 121–132. http://doi.10.1521/soco.2012.30.1.121 In a typical experiment on collaborative memory, participants first encode information individually and later attempt to recall the information either individually or in a small group (collaboratively). While the recall of the collaborative group is better than that of any individual, the summed recall of individuals typically is better than the recall of the collaborative group. This is a phenomenon termed collaborative inhibition. Barber et al. (2012) investigated this phenomenon during both the encoding and retrieval stages of memory. Participants created sentences out of a word bank, which provided the opportunity to encode this information. After completing this task, participants engaged in an unrelated task—solving mazes—for 10 minutes. Then, in a surprise memory test, they were asked to recall as many words from the word bank as possible (retrieval). Participants were randomly assigned to one of four groups. In the first group (Alone–Alone), participants were studied individually during both the encoding and retrieval phases of the experiment. In the second group (Alone–Collaborative), participants were studied individually during the encoding phase and as part of a threemember team (triad) during the retrieval phase. In the third group (Collaborative–Alone), participants were studied in a triad during the encoding phase but individually during the retrieval phase. Finally, in the fourth group (Collaborative–Collaborative), participants completed both phases of the experiment as part of a triad. Fabricated results illustrating the major finding of Barber et al. (2012) are presented in Figure 6.1. This figure shows the percentage of words from the word bank accurately recalled as a function of group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase individually, scores represent the summed retrieval of the individuals comprising the group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase as part of a triad, scores simply represent the collaborative performance. Figure 6.1 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay

43. (Scenario 6.1) If one is interested only in the effects of individual or collaborative encoding on subsequent retrieval, one should examine the: a. average score of the two groups that encoded individually relative to the average score of the two groups that encoded collaboratively. b. average score of the two groups that recalled collaboratively relative to the average score of the two groups that encoded individually. c. difference between the Alone–Alone group and the Collaborative–Collaborative group. d. difference between the Alone–Collaborative group and the Collaborative–Alone group. 44. (Scenario 6.1) It can be inferred that the experimenters inserted the maze task between encoding and recall to: a. enhance retrieval-induced forgetting. b. create a tip-of-the-tongue experience. c. provide time for memory consolidation. d. prevent rehearsal of the information. 45. Collaborative recall typically is better than the combined efforts of the same individuals recalling information on their own. a. True b. False 46. The memory of doing cartwheels with your cousin at a family reunion is an episodic memory. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 47. Many of the same brain regions are activated during false recognition as during true recognition. a. True b. False Scenario 6.3 is based on and presents data consistent with the following study: Ebbinghaus, H. (1885/1913). Memory: A contribution to experimental psychology (Trans. H. A. Ruger & C. E. Bussenius). Teachers College. In a classic study on forgetting, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized a list of nonsense syllables, for example, three consonants that did not form a word (e.g., HYZ). After memorizing a list until he could recall it perfectly twice, Ebbinghaus put the list away for a period of time termed the retention interval. When the interval elapsed, Ebbinghaus attempted to recall as many nonsense syllables from the list as he could, then recorded his percent accuracy (savings). Using this procedure, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized many lists and recorded his accuracy after a number of different retention intervals. The major results of this experiment are shown in Figure 6.2. Figure 6.2

48. (Scenario 6.3) In Ebbinghaus's experiment, what was the independent variable? a. percent savings b. Ebbinghaus himself c. retention interval d. nonsense syllables 49. The hippocampus is highly involved in the priming of memories. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 50. Procedural memory is a type of working memory. a. True b. False Scenario 6.3 is based on and presents data consistent with the following study: Ebbinghaus, H. (1885/1913). Memory: A contribution to experimental psychology (Trans. H. A. Ruger & C. E. Bussenius). Teachers College. In a classic study on forgetting, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized a list of nonsense syllables, for example, three consonants that did not form a word (e.g., HYZ). After memorizing a list until he could recall it perfectly twice, Ebbinghaus put the list away for a period of time termed the retention interval. When the interval elapsed, Ebbinghaus attempted to recall as many nonsense syllables from the list as he could, then recorded his percent accuracy (savings). Using this procedure, Ebbinghaus (1885/1913) memorized many lists and recorded his accuracy after a number of different retention intervals. The major results of this experiment are shown in Figure 6.2. Figure 6.2

51. (Scenario 6.3) A primary reason Ebbinghaus used nonsense syllables instead of words with meaning was to: a. make the task more difficult. b. make the task easier. c. prevent memory misattribution on the recall task. d. eliminate the role of previous associations. Scenario 6.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Barber, S. J., Rajaram, S., & Fox, E. B. (2012). Learning and remembering with others: The key role of retrieval in shaping group recall and collective memory. Social Cognition, 30(1), 121–132. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay http://doi.10.1521/soco.2012.30.1.121 In a typical experiment on collaborative memory, participants first encode information individually and later attempt to recall the information either individually or in a small group (collaboratively). While the recall of the collaborative group is better than that of any individual, the summed recall of individuals typically is better than the recall of the collaborative group. This is a phenomenon termed collaborative inhibition. Barber et al. (2012) investigated this phenomenon during both the encoding and retrieval stages of memory. Participants created sentences out of a word bank, which provided the opportunity to encode this information. After completing this task, participants engaged in an unrelated task—solving mazes—for 10 minutes. Then, in a surprise memory test, they were asked to recall as many words from the word bank as possible (retrieval). Participants were randomly assigned to one of four groups. In the first group (Alone–Alone), participants were studied individually during both the encoding and retrieval phases of the experiment. In the second group (Alone–Collaborative), participants were studied individually during the encoding phase and as part of a threemember team (triad) during the retrieval phase. In the third group (Collaborative–Alone), participants were studied in a triad during the encoding phase but individually during the retrieval phase. Finally, in the fourth group (Collaborative–Collaborative), participants completed both phases of the experiment as part of a triad. Fabricated results illustrating the major finding of Barber et al. (2012) are presented in Figure 6.1. This figure shows the percentage of words from the word bank accurately recalled as a function of group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase individually, scores represent the summed retrieval of the individuals comprising the group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase as part of a triad, scores simply represent the collaborative performance. Figure 6.1

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 52. (Scenario 6.1) Some degree of collaborative inhibition was observed: a. only in the Collaborative–Collaborative group. b. only in the Collaborative–Alone group. c. in the three groups in which collaboration occurred. d. only in the two groups that recalled collaboratively. 53. Source memory refers to general concepts that serve as the building blocks for new memories. a. True b. False 54. Retrieval of a memory may promote forgetting a related memory. a. True b. False Scenario 6.2 Famous within psychology, patient HM had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus— removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 55. (Scenario 6.2) Subsequent research on the hippocampus and memory suggests that the hippocampus functions MOST like a: a. library, holding older explicit memories. b. store, holding fragile new implicit memories. c. bridge between implicit and explicit memories. d. index linking new information into explicit memory. 56. Knowing how to ride a skateboard is an example of a procedural memory. a. True b. False 57. Patient HM's memory loss was primarily due to the removal of a large section of the prefrontal cortex in an attempt to stop seizure activity. a. True b. False 58. The encoding specificity principle states that retrieval cues that induce novel cognitive states are especially powerful at evoking memory retrieval. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 59. A person with only retrograde amnesia cannot remember aspects of his or her past but can form new memories. a. True b. False 60. Long-term potentiation occurs in the hippocampus. a. True b. False 61. The amygdala plays an important role in the formation of flashbulb memories. a. True b. False Scenario 6.1 is based on and presents fabricated data consistent with the following study: Barber, S. J., Rajaram, S., & Fox, E. B. (2012). Learning and remembering with others: The key role of retrieval in shaping group recall and collective memory. Social Cognition, 30(1), 121–132. http://doi.10.1521/soco.2012.30.1.121 In a typical experiment on collaborative memory, participants first encode information individually and later attempt to recall the information either individually or in a small group (collaboratively). While the recall of the collaborative group is better than that of any individual, the summed recall of individuals typically is better than the recall of the collaborative group. This is a phenomenon termed collaborative inhibition. Barber et al. (2012) investigated this phenomenon during both the encoding and retrieval stages of memory. Participants created sentences out of a word bank, which provided the opportunity to encode this information. After completing this task, participants engaged in an unrelated task—solving mazes—for 10 minutes. Then, in a surprise memory test, they were asked to recall as many words from the word bank as possible (retrieval). Participants were randomly assigned to one of four groups. In the first group (Alone–Alone), participants were studied individually during both the encoding and retrieval phases of the experiment. In the second group (Alone–Collaborative), participants were studied individually during the encoding phase and as part of a threemember team (triad) during the retrieval phase. In the third group (Collaborative–Alone), participants were studied in a triad during the encoding phase but individually during the retrieval phase. Finally, in the fourth group (Collaborative–Collaborative), participants completed both phases of the experiment as part of a triad. Fabricated results illustrating the major finding of Barber et al. (2012) are presented in Figure 6.1. This figure shows the percentage of words from the word bank accurately recalled as a function of group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase individually, scores represent the summed retrieval of the individuals comprising the group. For the two groups that experienced the retrieval phase as part of a triad, scores simply represent the collaborative performance. Figure 6.1 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay

62. (Scenario 6.1) Which statement is true? a. Collaborative encoding was just as effective as individual encoding. b. Collaborative inhibition was more evident during retrieval than encoding. c. Collaborative inhibition was more evident during encoding than retrieval. d. Collaborative inhibition occurred equally in both collaborative retrieval groups. 63. Taken together, the seven sins of memory expose human memory as a highly inefficient system. a. True b. False 64. Taj recently changed the password to his email account; now he cannot remember his old password, illustrating the effects of retroactive interference. a. True b. False 65. Kandel's work with Aplysia demonstrated that short-term memory involves enhanced neurotransmitter release. a. True b. False 66. The more times a memory is retrieved, the more accurate it becomes. a. True b. False

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 67. Survival-related information is easily encoded into memory precisely because little or no planning is needed to encode biologically relevant information. a. True b. False Scenario 6.2 Famous within psychology, patient HM had parts of his temporal lobes—including his hippocampus— removed to stop incurable and life-threatening epileptic seizures. The surgery was successful; however, HM was left with a severe case of anterograde amnesia. Subsequent tests found that his short-term and implicit memory systems were not affected by the surgery. 68. (Scenario 6.2) As a result of the surgery, HM could NOT: a. remember a relative's phone number that he had called frequently in the decade preceding the surgery. b. successfully hold a phone number in memory for 15 seconds by mentally rehearsing it. c. remember a phone number called repeatedly an hour ago. d. remember how to use a telephone. 69. Long-term memories tend to be stored in the hippocampus. a. True b. False 70. We can hold about seven meaningful pieces of information in our short-term memory. a. True b. False 71. When he was in college, Paul was enthusiastic about his job prospects, was proud of his work, and enthusiastically supported the college that he attended. Now, however, after 2 years on the job market with no serious prospects, he is less satisfied with his experience. A friend is considering whether to go to Paul's alma mater and asks Paul how he felt about the college while he was there. How might Paul respond to the question? Would he be likely to remember his earlier views accurately? Why or why not?

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 72. People who are old enough most likely remember September 11, 2001, the fateful day that more than 2,000 people died in terrorist attacks on New York City's World Trade Center; the Pentagon in Washington, DC; and in the flight that was aborted in Pennsylvania. Describe the memory effect that explains why people are likely to remember this day.

73. Define implicit memory, explicit memory, and procedural memory, and give an example of each.

74. You are a defense attorney in a murder case involving a carjacking. An eyewitness identifies the accused as the murderer. However, there is solid evidence that the eyewitness filled his gas tank at the same gas station at the same time as the accused, 2 weeks before the carjacking. What arguments might you make to the jury to discredit the eyewitness's account and help your client?

75. Tasia's psychology class is regularly held in the large lecture hall in the basement of her college's science center. She often studies the material for the exams while sitting in her usual seat in the classroom. On the day of the exam, however, there is no power in the science center, and Tasia's class must take the exam in a new classroom in the library. How might this last-minute change affect Tasia's memory?

76. An adult patient has a severe case of anterograde amnesia due to a hippocampal injury suffered at age 25. State if (and why) the person can (a) remember childhood events, (b) remember the names of high school classmates by looking at yearbook pictures, (c) remember a story she read in a magazine 30 minutes ago, (d) learn to surf—something that she had never done before—and get better at it each time she goes to the beach, (e) remember learning to surf, and (f) state "topcoat" when asked to complete the word fragment "top-" after being primed with that word topcoat 30 minutes before the test.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 77. Describe two causes of absentmindedness.

78. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of collaborative recall. What is collaborative inhibition, and why does it occur?

79. Describe three benefits of the memory "sins."

80. Just as you get into your car, your friend calls and asks you to pick up seven other friends and bring them to the party you are heading out to. You don't have anything to write with, and you don't want to leave anyone behind. Their names are Layla, Tony, Ben, Mark, Brent, Amber, and Jody. Discuss two methods you might use to remember the seven names.

81. Provide evidence that memory is involved in imagining the future.

82. Most people believe that information stored in memory slowly fades over time, like an old picture fading with age. Why is this commonsense view of long-term memory not entirely accurate?

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 83. A friend mentions that they have never studied for exams before and are unsure about where to start. Using what you know of memory, list at least three study strategies that will help your friend successfully remember material for their next exam.

84. Describe Sperling's (1960) experiment on sensory storage and discuss how the findings suggest that sensory memory is much like an afterimage that quickly disappears.

85. After a fierce tackle on the line of scrimmage, a football player briefly loses consciousness. When he regains it, the team doctor begins asking him questions. The player knows his name, the date, his team name, and how he got to the game. He also remembers where he lives and events that happened during his childhood. When given a list of seven digits to remember for 15 seconds, he has no trouble doing so. So far, the doctor is relieved. Exerting extra caution, the doctor tells the player to go sit at the end of the bench. Fifteen minutes later, she approaches him again and says, "Let's run through that battery of memory tests again." The player replies, "What memory tests? This is the first time I've seen you today, doc." Based on this information, provide a likely diagnosis. Which parts of the memory and brain systems are working, and which are not?

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. b 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. b 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. c 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 55. d 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. The answer should indicate that consistency bias is reconstructing the past to fit what we presently know or believe. Paul's memories would likely be more in line with what he thinks today than with what he actually believed when he was in college. Instead of reporting his enthusiasm and satisfaction with the college, Paul might report that he's worried that the college doesn't produce successful job candidates. 72. The answer should indicate that for Americans who were alive during and aware of the attacks on 9/11/01, the mere mention of 9/11 triggers flashbulb memories. People remember when they first learned of the attacks, where they were, what they did for the rest of the day (probably watching TV news), and so on. Enhanced recall of flashbulb memories is partially attributed to their high emotional content. We tend to remember emotional content better than information without emotional content. This is, in part, the result of the activity of the amygdala. There is also a cognitive behavioral component to flashbulb memories. Because they are of emotional content, they tend to be of some importance to our life. Therefore, they tend to be discussed. The events of 9/11 were lead stories on the news for months after the attacks. Therefore, there was much opportunity to encode (elaborative and visual imagery), consolidate, and reconsolidate these events as they were discussed.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 73. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Explicit memory: consciously or intentionally retrieving past experiences; example: remembering your high school graduation. (2) Implicit memory: the influence of past experiences that influence later behavior and performance, without conscious awareness; example: Though unaware of any change in her demeanor, a friend seems sad every year around the time of her father's death. (3) Procedural memory: the gradual acquisition of skills as a result of practice—the sense of "knowing how" to do something; example: riding a bicycle. 74. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Memory misattributions often cause eyewitness misidentifications. (2) Source memory: It is common to recognize a person but misattribute the source of this knowledge. In other words, the eyewitness may have seen the defendant at the gas station, not at the scene of the crime. (3) False recognition: a feeling of familiarity about something that hasn't been encountered before. The eyewitness may feel confident in his identification because he recognized the suspect from an earlier time. 75. Tasia may not remember the material as well in the library classroom as she does in the regular classroom due to the encoding-specificity principle. The encoding-specificity principle states that a retrieval cue can serve as an effective reminder when it helps re-create the specific way in which information was initially encoded. Because Tasia sat in the same place while she learned material during lecture and when she studied the material, the location (her seat in the classroom) could be a powerful memory cue. Therefore, when the test is moved to a new environment (the library), she will no longer be able to rely on those cues for retrieval. 76. The answer should indicate the following: (a) Yes, anterograde amnesia involves the inability to form new memories. Existing memories before the hippocampal damage remain intact. (b) Yes, for the same reason as (a). (c) No, new explicit memories cannot be formed. (d) Yes, this is a procedural memory that is not processed in the hippocampus. There is no reason to believe that she could not become an expert surfer. (e) No. Although she will become better and better at surfing, she will perceive that each surfing trip is her first. As she gets better at surfing, she might say things like, "I'm a natural surfer, dude. I'm so good at it, and it's only my first time!" even though it is her 100th time surfing. (f) Yes, priming is an implicit memory not processed in the hippocampus. Interestingly, she won't remember seeing the word topcoat, but she will be primed to report it nonetheless. 77. Two causes of absentmindedness are lack of attention and failure of prospective memory. Attention plays a vital role in encoding information into long-term memory. If you fail to pay attention, material is much less likely to be stored properly and recalled later. Prospective memory is remembering to do things in the future. If you fail to remember that you had planned to do something, you will not do it. 78. The answer should provide content related to the following example: Suppose that Tim, Emily, and Eric first encode a list of words and subsequently are asked to recall them. If asked to work together, the group will recall more words than any one individual. However, had Tim, Emily, and Eric been asked to recall the words individually, their combined efforts would have been greater than that produced by the group. This phenomenon is termed collaborative inhibition. Recent research has suggested that this is not the result of social loafing but rather is due to the fact that the mixture of retrieval strategies used by the collaborative group actually disrupts individual performance. That is, what works best for Tim might not work for Emily. When Emily is exposed to Tim's recall strategies during collaborative recall, his strategies actually impair her own recall. Collaborative recall does have its advantages. Because group recall is better than the recall of any one individual, individuals are exposed to more correct recollections, and this enhances memory if the participants are reassessed individually in the future. In addition, the presence of others helps correct memory errors. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 79. The answer should include three of the following: (1) Transience allows our memory to function more efficiently by getting rid of memories we haven't used recently. (2) Absentmindedness and blocking are side results of our memory's usually successful attempt to sort through incoming information, preserving important details and discarding the rest. (3) Memory misattribution and suggestibility occur because our memories fully record only those details that we may need to use later, so we often fail to recall details of exactly when and where we saw a face or learned a fact. (4) Bias skews our memories so that we depict ourselves in an overly favorable light, which also can contribute to our overall sense of contentment, leading to greater psychological well-being. (5) Persistence may contribute to our memory of threatening or traumatic events that could pose a threat to survival. 80. The answer may include the following information: (1) Visual encoding: Place the people in specific locations in your house and then do a "mental walk" around the house. (2) Organizational encoding: Chunk the names into categories (e.g., men, women). (3) Mental rehearsal: Say the list of names over and over until you reach the first house; then shorten the list. Do the same with the second and later pickups. 81. Episodic memory allows us to travel forward in time. A man with amnesia (KC) could not recollect any specific episodes from his past, and when he was asked to imagine a future episode, he reported a complete "blank." Some individuals with hippocampal amnesia have difficulty imagining new experiences. A core network, including the hippocampus, shows increased activity when people remember the past and imagine the future. Together, this suggests that we rely heavily on episodic memory to envision our personal futures. Episodic memory allows us to recombine elements of past experience in new ways so that we can "try out" different versions of what might happen. 82. The answer should indicate that memories do not seem to fade at a constant rate. In fact, much of the information that we encode into long-term memory is forgotten very quickly! Ebbinghaus demonstrated that most forgetting occurs shortly after the information is encoded. Thereafter, subsequent memory loss slows to a trickle. 83. The answer may include the following information: (1) Study at the same time of day in the same quiet place (e.g., the library) daily for several days before the test. (State-dependent retrieval: Information is better recalled if you are in the same state during encoding and during retrieval.) (2) Relate the information to things you already know (semantic encoding) and—if possible—convert the information to mental pictures (visual imagery encoding). (3) Quiz yourself on the material repeatedly, instead of just studying the material over and over. (4) Get a good night's sleep before the exam. (5) If possible, group or categorize information (organizational encoding).

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Chap 06_5e_ TF + Essay 84. The answer should indicate that participants were shown a 4 × 3 matrix of letters for 1/20th of a second. Immediately thereafter, they were asked to recall as many letters as possible. Most participants could recall fewer than half of the letters. Two possibilities could account for these results. One possibility is that 1/20th of a second was not enough time for all the information to become encoded into sensory memory. The other possibility is that all the information was encoded, but some of the letters were forgotten as participants began to recite everything that they had seen. To evaluate these possibilities, Sperling told the participants that they would hear a tone immediately after the 1/20th-second matrix presentation. A high tone meant that they should recite the top row, a medium tone indicated that they should recite the middle row, and a low tone meant that they should recite the bottom row. The test was then repeated, and most participants could recite individual rows accurately. This pattern of results supports the interpretation that the entire matrix was originally encoded because participants had no way of knowing if they were going to be asked to recite the top, middle, or bottom row. Therefore, the poor performance in trying to recite the entire matrix was probably due to forgetting. Sensory storage of visual information (iconic memory), then, is much like an afterimage. The entire image is faithfully recorded, but it is there for only a split second before disappearing. 85. The answer should indicate that a likely diagnosis is anterograde amnesia, as there is no memory of episodic events since the injury. There is likely damage to the hippocampus and other areas in the temporal and frontal lobes of the brain that is preventing information from being transferred into long-term memory. Information already in long-term memory and working memory appears unaffected by the injury.

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Chap 07_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A pigeon is reinforced for pecking a key whenever a particular tone is sounded but never reinforced if the tone is absent. If pigeons discriminate these stimuli, they will: a. not learn anything under these conditions. b. key peck only when the tone turns off. c. begin key pecking whenever the tone sounds and will continue to peck the key, even when it turns off. d. key peck only in the presence of the tone sounding. 2. Regions in the _____ lobes are thought to be part of the mirror neuron system in humans. a. frontal and temporal b. frontal and parietal c. frontal and occipital d. temporal and occipital 3. A variable-interval, 90-second schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. exactly 90 seconds after the last response. b. on average, every 90 seconds. c. for the first response that occurs after 90 seconds elapse. d. after 90 seconds of continuous responding. 4. A fixed-ratio 25 schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. exactly 25 minutes after the last response. b. on average, every 25 minutes. c. after 25 responses. d. after 25 minutes of continuous responding. 5. Tolman's experiments with rats and mazes strongly suggests that: a. stimulus–response theories of learning are essentially correct. b. there is no functional difference between reinforcement and punishment. c. spatial learning is the primary form of learning in rats. d. there is a cognitive component to operant learning. 6. What was the conditioned response in the Little Albert study? a. crying when exposed to a loud noise b. fear of a white rat c. the gradual decrease in fear as the experiment progressed d. Little Albert's natural temperament of being "stolid and unemotional"

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Chap 07_5e 7. You are observing a species of bird that just learned how to use a stick to dig into soil and unearth insects, a behavior that does not generally occur in this species. Another bird observes this action and also starts to use a stick to dig. What is this scenario an example of? a. positive reinforcement b. implicit learning c. operant learning d. observational learning 8. Which statement regarding practice testing is true? a. It is considerably more effective for learning mathematics than other subject areas. b. It is preferred by students relative to simply rereading the material. c. Its benefits increase with the difficulty of the test. d. It has been shown to be as effective as highlighting and rereading material. 9. Which behavior at first requires explicit learning but, over time, becomes implicit? a. actively recalling memories from your past b. generating ideas for new research c. riding a bicycle d. habituating to a noisy air conditioner 10. Which of these is an essential feature of learning? a. It is the result of genetics. b. It requires language. c. There is a critical window for it to occur. d. It results in a relatively permanent change in behavior. 11. Juanita feels sick when she smells pizza because it reminds her of the time she got food poisoning after eating a slice of pizza. The pizza is a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. 12. A rat's lever presses occasionally produce food. Across conditions, the food is delivered either immediately after a lever press or after some delay. Which statement is true? a. The rate of lever pressing is relatively unaffected by delays ranging from a few seconds to about 30 seconds. b. The rate of lever pressing increases as a function of its delay. c. The rate of lever pressing first increases and then decreases as a function of its delay. d. The rate of lever pressing decreases as a function of its delay. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 13. Not providing a reinforcer every time a response occurs _____ the behavior. a. will negatively punish b. may negatively reinforce c. will always extinguish d. may strengthen 14. A rat was shocked in context A, which has metal floors and walls, and this led to high levels of freezing behavior. When the rat is put in context B, which is very distinct from context A and has white plastic walls and floors, the rat still shows high levels of freezing. Which of these likely occurred to elicit high levels of freezing in both contexts? a. discrimination b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. generalization 15. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards helps explain why it is: a. common for people to behave in ways that maximize their own long-term interests. b. easier to use punishment than reinforcement to control behavior. c. difficult to engage in behaviors that have only long-term benefits. d. relatively easy for most people to save for retirement. 16. Which statement about primary reinforcers is true? a. Primary reinforcers include handshakes, smiles, and trophies. b. Primary reinforcers have little to do with the majority of daily reinforcers and punishers. c. Primary reinforcers acquire value through classical conditioning. d. Primary reinforcers do not help satisfy biological needs. 17. Siri's children have been completing their chores in a timely manner this week. If she would like to reinforce this behavior, which of these would be the MOST effective way to do so? a. ignore the behavior and hope it continues b. pay them extra allowance at the end of the week c. promise to take them on a special outing next month in return for their hard work d. immediately praise their efforts 18. Extinction will proceed MOST rapidly if behavior previously had been maintained under a(n) _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. continuous b. intermittent c. variable-ratio d. variable-interval Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 19. In Pavlov's experiments related to second-order conditioning, dogs were conditioned to salivate at the sight of a black square by: a. pairing it with a tone that previously had been associated with food. b. rewarding the dog with food when it salivated in the presence of the black square. c. presenting food first and then following it with the black square. d. pairing it with an unconditioned stimulus. 20. After implementing a policy where students can earn extra recess time with their good behavior, Miss Hobbes observes that her 1st-grade students have been better behaved. This illustrates which behavioral process? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 21. A conditioned compensatory response is a: a. special type of unconditioned response. b. conditioned response that is of greater intensity than the unconditioned response. c. conditioned response that opposes the unconditioned response. d. stimulus that is reliably associated with drug administration. 22. Imani's jack-in-the box opens when she turns the crank, on average, 10 times. What schedule of reinforcement is her crank-turning behavior maintained by? a. fixed-ratio b. fixed-interval c. variable-interval d. variable-ratio 23. A rat that has been conditioned to fear a tone through its association with shock subsequently has its amygdala surgically damaged. After the rat recovers from surgery, it is tested again. When the rat hears the tone, it will: a. freeze and exhibit increased heart rate and blood pressure. b. not freeze but exhibit increased heart rate and blood pressure. c. freeze but show no autonomic nervous system changes. d. neither freeze nor show changes in the autonomic nervous system.

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Chap 07_5e 24. After surgery, Kaia is in tremendous pain and takes ibuprofen to relieve the pain. For the next few days, every time Kaia is in pain, she takes ibuprofen. Kaia's ibuprofen-taking behavior is: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. 25. The grid floor in an operant chamber is electrified. Each time a rat presses a lever, however, the shock is turned off for 1 minute. The rat quickly learns to press the lever the second that the grid becomes electrified. Lever pressing has been: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. 26. From an evolutionary perspective, which of these is a feature of effective learning to avoid any food that has made you sick in the past? a. food–sickness association formed only after multiple pairings b. learning that is remembered for only very short time intervals c. the development of an aversion to food ingestion, not food smell or taste d. the development of an aversion more often to unfamiliar than to familiar foods 27. What is one major flaw of punishment? a. Punishment does not decrease the undesired behavior. b. Punishment increases the undesired behavior. c. Punishment does not promote learning about the desired behavior. d. Punishment signals that unacceptable behavior has occurred. 28. Amelia is studying for her upcoming mathematics exam by mixing problem types during the same study session. For example, she might do a few route calculations, followed by a proof, followed by a few word problems. This form of studying is termed: a. distributed practice. b. interleaved practice. c. elaborative interrogation. d. practice testing.

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Chap 07_5e 29. Spontaneous recovery suggests that the extinction process: a. occurs without the organism learning anything. b. involves the punishment of the CS–US association. c. weakens but does not eliminate the CS–US association. d. is analogous to forgetting previously learned information. 30. Thorndike found that with continued experience in the puzzle box, effective responses _____, and ineffective responses _____. a. increased; increased b. increased; decreased c. decreased; decreased d. decreased; increased 31. Ama's dog comes running quickly when he hears her open his food storage container, but he does not respond at all when she opens other food containers. Ama's dog is demonstrating: a. extinction. b. generalization. c. acquisition. d. discrimination. 32. A study put rats in a typical T maze that ended in two different directions. The study found that if a rat found food in one arm on the first trial of the day, it typically looked in the other arm on the very next trial. This is BEST explained by: a. the rat's evolutionary preparedness of foraging. b. latent learning in the absence of reinforcement. c. the behaviorist view of operant conditioning. d. the formation of stimulus–response associations. 33. Anita watches as her classmate, Arlene, interacts aggressively with the classroom dolls. Anita would be LEAST likely to imitate Arlene if their teacher: a. joins Arlene in her aggressive play. b. scolds Arlene for her behavior. c. ignores the behavior. d. sends a note home to Arlene's parents so that they will talk to her about her behavior at home.

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Chap 07_5e 34. In classical experiments in mice, researchers paired a tone (CS) with a shock (US) multiple times to elicit high levels of freezing (or fear) during the presentation of the tone alone. With the process of _____, the researchers observed decreased freezing. a. spontaneous recovery b. second-order conditioning c. extinction d. acquisition 35. A variable-ratio 120 schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. exactly 120 minutes after the last response. b. on average, every 120 minutes. c. after exactly 120 responses. d. every 120 responses, on average. 36. A few studies have suggested that observational learning of tool use in chimpanzees can be enhanced by: a. using child human models—instead of adult human models—to illustrate tool use. b. increasing chimpanzees' overall contact with humans. c. studying only chimpanzees raised in the wild. d. using only tools that are foreign to the chimpanzees' natural environment. 37. The case of superstitious behavior illustrates the fact that: a. learning can occur when the reinforcer is delayed. b. learning an association between response and reinforcer does not require a causal relation. c. learning occurs even when the reinforcer is delivered before the response. d. a causal relation between response and reinforcer is required for learning to occur. 38. An experienced user who takes heroin in a new setting has an increased risk of overdose because: a. she may take more drug than intended. b. the conditioned compensatory response becomes stronger. c. changing settings results in added stress. d. the stimulus that triggers the compensatory response is degraded or absent altogether. 39. A challenge to operant accounts, Tolman's experiments demonstrated that latent learning can be established in rats: a. by only using secondary reinforcers. b. by the use of shaping through successive approximations. c. by occasionally punishing an otherwise reinforced response. d. without any obvious reinforcement.

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Chap 07_5e 40. Which of these structures does NOT produce pleasure when stimulated? a. nucleus accumbens b. medial forebrain bundle c. hypothalamus d. hippocampus 41. Lupita is soliciting signatures for a petition. When she approaches people to ask for their signature, she never knows who will agree to sign. She knows that if she asks enough people, she will eventually obtain at least one signature. Lupita's behavior is reinforced on a _____ schedule. a. variable-ratio b. fixed-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval 42. The positive in positive reinforcement and positive punishment indicates that: a. the target behavior increases in frequency. b. an unpleasant stimulus is removed upon the occurrence of the target behavior. c. a stimulus is presented upon the occurrence of the target behavior. d. the target behavior increases or decreases to adaptive levels. 43. Rats that traversed a maze for 10 consecutive days with no reward showed no evidence of learning the maze. When reinforcement was provided beginning on the 11th day, Tolman reported that these rats: a. were unable to effectively master the maze over the next week due to learned helplessness. b. slowly started to learn the maze over the next week, as long as reinforcement was provided each day. c. immediately demonstrated mastery of the maze. d. slowly started to learn the maze over the next week, even if reinforcement was discontinued. 44. After eating peanuts for the first time, Juliet experienced tingling in her mouth and throat, a sign of an allergic reaction. Now the smell of peanuts is enough to elicit a tingling effect in Juliet's mouth and throat. What is the unconditioned response? a. tingling in the mouth and throat b. the taste of peanuts c. the smell of peanuts d. touching peanuts

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Chap 07_5e 45. A reaction that usually resembles the unconditioned response but is produced by a conditioned stimulus is termed a _____ response. a. sensitized b. habituated c. conditioned d. reinforcing 46. Which technique is LEAST effective for learning school-related material? a. rereading b. distributed practice c. practice testing d. self-explanation 47. Positive punishers _____ and negative reinforcers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase 48. Mirror neurons fire when an animal performs an action and: a. when an animal watches someone else perform the same task. b. during formation of classically conditioned emotional responses. c. after performing a similar action. d. during the prediction of future behavior. 49. _____ conducted the Bobo doll study of observational learning. a. Tolman b. Bandura c. Pavlov d. Skinner 50. Research has demonstrated observational learning in: a. humans only. b. primates only, including humans. c. humans and birds only. d. humans and a variety of animals.

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Chap 07_5e 51. Which item is a primary reinforcer? a. an enthusiastic "nicely done!" b. money c. a cookie d. a high grade on a test 52. When 3-year-old Ariel threw a tantrum over the candy she wanted, her mother gave it to her so that Ariel would calm down. Unfortunately, Ariel's temper tantrums probably have been: a. negatively reinforced. b. positively reinforced. c. negatively punished. d. positively punished. 53. Which statement about learning is FALSE? a. Learning is based more on genetics than experience. b. Learning produces changes in an organism. c. The changes produced by learning are relatively permanent. d. Learning may involve the acquisition of a new skill. 54. Anisa just began to learn to drive a car. She frequently reminds herself to look in the rearview mirror while turning. What type of learning would this be characterized as? a. implicit learning b. observational learning c. explicit learning d. diffusion chain 55. When something undesirable has been presented upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is weakened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment 56. Observational learning is: a. an important part of learning our culture. b. not as important as other forms of learning. c. an inefficient means of learning. d. unique to humans.

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Chap 07_5e 57. Nostalgic items lose their ability to elicit warm memories the more frequently they are handled because the items are no longer being actively paired with the person or event that imbued them with meaning. However, putting the items away for some time tends to restore their ability to trigger nostalgic feelings, due to: a. generalization. b. spontaneous recovery. c. positive reinforcement. d. second-order conditioning. 58. A general process in which the presentation of a stimulus leads to an increased response to a later stimulus is termed: a. habituation. b. classical conditioning. c. sensitization. d. association. 59. In the context of John B. Watson's classical conditioning experiments, Little Albert developed a fear of a _____ because it was paired with a(n) _____. a. Santa Claus mask; electric shock b. loud noise; rabbit c. dog; white rat d. white rat; loud noise 60. Bob's Big Burger Barn is your favorite restaurant, and lately you've noticed that every time you walk by on your way to class, you start to salivate. In this incidence of classical conditioning, the sight of the restaurant is the _____, and your salivation is the _____. a. unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response b. conditioned stimulus; conditioned response c. conditioned stimulus; unconditioned response d. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned response 61. When something desirable has been removed upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is weakened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment

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Chap 07_5e 62. Students who earn 10 participation points for each class that they attend are reinforced under a _____ schedule. a. variable-ratio b. fixed-interval c. continuous reinforcement d. intermittent reinforcement 63. Tolman trained rats to run down a straightaway and subsequently make several turns until finally reaching a goal box baited with food. After the rats learned this task, the maze was altered. The main straightaway was blocked. However, there were many alternate paths radiating in all directions from the start box. The goal box remained in the same location relative to the start box, and one of the alternate paths led directly to it. Tolman found that rats: a. selected the path that led directly to the goal box, even though they had never traversed this route before. b. spent an inordinate amount of time clawing at the blocked main straightaway. c. demonstrated generalization and selected the path closest to the main straightaway. d. explored each path systematically, either from right to left or from left to right. 64. After receiving a strong shock, the sea slug Aplysia shows increased gill-withdrawal response to a light touch, a phenomenon known as: a. classical conditioning. b. habituation. c. operant conditioning. d. sensitization. 65. Which item is a primary reinforcer? a. sexual activity b. a good grade on your report card c. concert tickets given to you by a friend d. a handwritten compliment from your professor 66. Which of these is associated with the greatest drug-related conditioned compensatory response when using heroin? a. using heroin for the first time while in a familiar place b. using heroin for the first time while in an unfamiliar place c. using heroin repeatedly in a familiar place d. using heroin repeatedly, but using in this instance in an unfamiliar place

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Chap 07_5e 67. Shabitha is now considered an expert in flying a helicopter, such that she no longer has to think of the sequence of steps. What is this an example of? a. implicit learning b. observational learning c. explicit learning d. diffusion chain 68. Thorndike's work resonated with behaviorists because it was: a. observable. b. linked to brain processes. c. couched in terms of expectancy. d. explained in evolutionary terms. 69. Molly's mail carrier delivers the mail promptly at noon each day. Molly never checks her mailbox in the morning but always checks it at 12:05 p.m. Molly's mail checking is maintained on which type of schedule? a. fixed-interval b. variable-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-ratio 70. In one of his experiments, Skinner put several pigeons in Skinner boxes, set the food dispenser to deliver food every 15 seconds, and left the birds to their own devices. Later, he returned and found the birds engaging in odd, idiosyncratic behaviors, such as pecking aimlessly in a corner or turning in circles. Skinner referred to these behaviors as: a. inadvertent. b. nonsensical. c. unexplainable. d. superstitious. 71. The neurons in the pleasure centers of the brain, especially those in the nucleus accumbens, secrete _____, a neurotransmitter usually associated with positive emotions. a. serotonin b. epinephrine c. norepinephrine d. dopamine

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Chap 07_5e 72. Two-year-old children watched a human model using a tool either efficiently or inefficiently and then interacted with the tool themselves. Which statement is true? a. Only the toddlers observing efficient behavior used the tool, but their use was not efficient. b. Only the toddlers observing efficient behavior used the tool, and their use was efficient. c. Both groups used the tool in the manner that they observed. d. Both groups used the tool but did not differ in their efficiency. 73. Which technique is MOST effective for learning school-related material? a. practice testing b. visual imagery mnemonics c. highlighting important material while reading d. writing summaries of to-be-learned material 74. When 3-year-old Ariel threw a tantrum over the candy she wanted, her mother gave it to her so that Ariel would calm down. Although counterproductive in the long run, in that moment, the mother's behavior was being _____ by _____. a. negatively reinforced; the end of the tantrum b. positively reinforced; the end of the tantrum c. positively reinforced; the candy d. positively punished; continued tantrums 75. Which of these stimuli could be used to condition a taste aversion in birds but NOT rats? a. food with a distinct taste b. food with distinct smell c. food that is highly familiar to the organism d. brightly colored food 76. Nine-month-old Albert cried when a large steel bar was struck with a hammer while he viewed a white rat. In this acquisition phase, the white rat was the: a. unconditioned response. b. conditioned response. c. unconditioned stimulus. d. conditioned stimulus. 77. Secondary reinforcers derive their effectiveness from their associations with primary reinforcers through: a. operant conditioning. b. operant behavior. c. positive reinforcement. d. classical conditioning.

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Chap 07_5e 78. In Pavlov's research, what was the unconditioned response? a. food b. salivating upon food presentation c. a tuning fork d. salivating at the sound of a bell 79. Patients with cancer who experience nausea from chemotherapy often develop taste aversions to foods eaten earlier. Based on the research of Garcia and colleagues mentioned in the text, researchers developed a technique for minimizing this negative effect that involved: a. flashing different pictures of a patient's favorite food on an overhead monitor while the patient underwent treatment. b. giving a patient unusual foods, such as coconut- or root-beer-flavored candy, at the end of their last meal before undergoing treatment. c. administering food to a patient in the middle of the treatment cycle. d. telling a patient to eat samples of favorite foods before entering therapy, thereby ensuring that the patient remembered what the favorite foods were, even after treatment. 80. If children observe their older brothers fighting in the neighborhood, Bandura would suggest that the younger siblings would: a. likely behave aggressively, too. b. learn that aggressive behavior is not always effective. c. imitate the victims of their brothers' aggressive behavior. d. decrease their aggressive behavior when their brothers were nearby. 81. Which statement about implicit learning is true? a. Implicit learning cannot be demonstrated in infants. b. Implicit learning is absent in adults with autism. c. Implicit learning is resistant to disorders known to affect explicit learning. d. People with amnesia have profound deficits in implicit learning. 82. A doctor gives a patient in chronic pain a morphine pump to operate. The doctor tells the patient to press the button whenever she is in pain. The button press will result in a morphine injection, but only if it has been at least 1 hour since the last injection. The morphine pump is operating according to a _____ schedule of reinforcement. a. fixed-ratio b. variable-ratio c. variable-interval d. fixed-interval

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Chap 07_5e 83. Which statement about learning an artificial grammar is true? a. Participants usually can verbally express 60 to 70% of the grammatical rules. b. Learning the grammatical rules is explicit; using them is implicit. c. If participants cannot explicitly state a grammatical rule, they usually violate it. d. Participants implicitly learn artificial grammar without being cognizant of the actual grammatical rules. 84. When the Brelands tried to teach raccoons to drop a coin into a box by using food reinforcement for doing so, the raccoons: a. quickly learned this task via shaping through approximations. b. spent an inordinate amount of time rubbing the coin between their front paws instead of dropping it into the box. c. tended to bury the coin in the ground and then dig it up instead of dropping it into the box. d. failed to learn an association between the coin and food. 85. Judgments of learning are: a. a feature of massed practice. b. a feature of distributed practice. c. examples of subjective assessments. d. scores given by the evaluator on assessments. 86. John Watson's research on Little Albert has been most criticized: a. for lacking a control group. b. for not producing generalizable results. c. on ethical grounds. d. for ignoring the role of instincts. 87. Your friend's mother was always baking ginger-flavored cookies when you were at their house. You loved those cookies and would eat several each time you visited. One day, you noticed that you started to salivate as you walked up the front steps to the house, before you smelled the cookies. The reason for this is that the house has become a(n): a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. 88. A reward prediction error is the difference between the: a. size of two consecutive rewards. b. subjective pleasure associated with two consecutive rewards. c. reward expected and the reward received. d. presence and absence of a reward. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 89. An example of a nonassociative learning process is: a. sensitization. b. classical conditioning. c. operant conditioning. d. observational learning. 90. Which example describes a judgment of learning? a. receiving an 85 on a standardized exam b. deciding to implement distributed practice instead of massed practice c. rereading the text and focusing on only the previously underlined material d. concluding that one has mastered the material to be learned 91. In pioneering research with the sea slug Aplysia, Kandel and colleagues demonstrated that when lightly touched, Aplysia withdraws its gill. With repeated touches, however, the gill withdrawal lessens, demonstrating: a. classical conditioning. b. habituation. c. operant conditioning. d. sensitization. 92. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds, and 5 seconds later, a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the shock b. the tone c. the stress d. the time interval 93. Negative reinforcers _____ and positive punishers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase

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Chap 07_5e 94. Which specific cortical areas are thought to be part of the mirror neuron system in humans? a. Broca's and Wernicke's areas b. areas V1 and MT c. areas 40 and 44 d. areas A1 and V1 95. Accustomed to the sound of an old can opener, a cat still rushes to her food dish, even when she hears the slightly different sound of a new can opener for the first time. This demonstrates: a. second-order conditioning. b. discrimination. c. generalization. d. spontaneous recovery. 96. The law of effect says that which behaviors are likely to be repeated? a. random behaviors b. behaviors producing an unpleasant state of affairs c. unconditioned responses d. behaviors resulting in a satisfying state of affairs 97. A rat presses a lever because doing so turns off an electric shock. The lever press is maintained by a: a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. conditioned reinforcer. d. primary punisher. 98. After eating peanuts for the first time, Juliet experienced tingling in her mouth and throat, a sign of an allergic reaction. Now the smell of peanuts alone is enough to elicit an aversive reaction. What is the CR? a. the aversive reaction b. the taste of peanuts c. the smell of peanuts d. touching peanuts 99. Chimpanzees raised in the wild watched a human model using a tool either efficiently or inefficiently and then themselves interacted with the tool. Which statement is true? a. Only the chimpanzees observing efficient behavior used the tool, but their use was not efficient. b. Only the chimpanzees observing efficient behavior used the tool, and their use was efficient. c. Both groups used the tool in the manner that they observed. d. Both groups used the tool but did not differ in their efficiency.

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Chap 07_5e 100. Using an artificial grammar is one way of studying: a. implicit learning. b. explicit learning. c. biological predisposition. d. observational learning. 101. When a drug of abuse such as heroin is injected, the entire setting (the drug paraphernalia, the room, the lighting, etc.) can become a(n) _____ stimulus and elicit responses _____ the drug. a. unconditioned; similar to b. unconditioned; that counteract c. conditioned; similar to d. conditioned; that counteract 102. On the day that she won more than $300 at the slots, Janice was wearing her favorite sweatshirt. Since then, she has worn that same sweatshirt every time she gambles, a striking example of: a. negative reinforcement. b. classical conditioning. c. intermittent reinforcement. d. superstitious behavior. 103. In classical experiments in mice, researchers paired a tone (CS) with a shock (US) multiple times to elicit high levels of freezing (or fear) during the presentation of the tone alone. Following extinction, animals showed _____, which is the return of freezing after a period of time. a. spontaneous recovery b. second-order conditioning c. extinction d. acquisition 104. In the context of the role of classical conditioning in heroin overdose, the unconditioned stimulus that produces respiratory depression is: a. increased respiration. b. the needle. c. heroin. d. the overall context in which the heroin was administered.

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Chap 07_5e 105. Some research suggests that drugs given to enhance dopamine levels in patients with Parkinson's disease may cause the patients to become more: a. aggressive. b. despondent. c. anxious. d. impulsive. 106. In Pavlov's research, what was the unconditioned stimulus? a. food b. the humming of a tuning fork c. salivating at the sound of a bell d. a tube inserted into the salivary gland 107. Research has demonstrated that there is increased dopamine activity during _____ of reward. a. correct but not incorrect predictions b. positive but not negative prediction errors c. negative but not positive prediction errors d. both positive and negative prediction errors 108. For military veterans suffering from posttraumatic stress syndrome, sights and sounds during service become _____ extreme negative emotions. a. consequences of b. associated with c. reinforcers of d. separated from 109. Positive reinforcers _____ and negative reinforcers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. increase; decrease c. decrease; decrease d. decrease; increase

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Chap 07_5e 110. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 second later a puff of air is delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the puff of air b. the tone c. the time interval d. the blinking 111. Rescorla and Wagner theorized that a stimulus will become a conditioned stimulus only when it is _____ the unconditioned stimulus. a. similar to b. sometimes paired with c. a reliable indicator of d. perceived as 112. As the delay increases between the behavior and the consequence, reinforcers _____ and punishers _____ effectiveness. a. lose; gain b. gain; lose c. gain; gain d. lose; lose 113. What principle describes why the taste and smell stimuli that produce food aversions in rats do NOT work with most species of birds? a. the law of effect b. operant conditioning c. biological preparedness d. extinction 114. Lillian was stung by a wasp while outside in her backyard. Subsequently, she has become fearful of all flying insects. Which process explains Lillian's fear response to all flying insect stimuli, not just the wasp that stung her? a. generalization b. discrimination c. negative reinforcement d. negative punishment

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Chap 07_5e 115. Which brain region's functions are responsible for eyeblink conditioning? a. amygdala b. reticular formation c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus 116. Participants who are studied under a serial reaction time test are shown five boxes on a computer screen. When a box lights up, they are to click it as quickly as possible. The boxes seemingly light up at random, but a pattern exists. Over time, participants respond more _____ on this task _____ of the pattern. a. slowly; and are unaware b. carefully; and become aware c. quickly; but are unaware d. quickly; and become aware 117. Thorndike placed cats in a puzzle box and measured _____ on each trial. a. the number of responses made b. the time to escape c. whether an escape response occurred d. the amount of food consumed 118. Research has shown that students who are led to believe that a lecture will end in a quiz will: a. study over the week prior to the lecture. b. take practice tests the night before the lecture. c. experience less mind wandering during the lecture. d. practice visual imagery and mnemonics during the lecture. 119. Relative insensitivity to delayed rewards helps explain why it is: a. common for people to choose the better of two immediate options. b. common for most people to save their discretionary income, rather than spend it. c. difficult for public officials to mobilize their efforts to thwart an imminent terrorist attack. d. difficult for people to change their behavior to address global warming. 120. Which example BEST describes the learning process? a. blinking when a speck of dirt gets into your eye b. quickly withdrawing your hand when you place it on a hot stove c. adjusting your finger position on guitar frets to play a new chord d. answering the question "What is your name?"

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Chap 07_5e 121. Operant behavior is: a. behavior an organism performs that has some impact on the environment. b. the principle that behaviors that are followed by a "satisfying state of affairs" tend to be repeated. c. a propensity for learning particular kinds of associations over other kinds. d. the acquisition of new knowledge, skills, or responses that results in a relatively permanent change in behavior. 122. A basketball coach is interested in the effectiveness of teaching specific skills by video modeling. Based on current research, what would you advise the coach? a. Video modeling will not be effective, as learning sports-related skills can only be achieved through physical practice. b. Video modeling might be useful to teach concepts such as defensive alignment but is not useful for teaching motor-related behaviors such as shooting technique. c. Video modeling is just as effective as physical practice; this technique should be preferred because it minimizes risk of injury. d. Video modeling is an effective technique and can be used as a supplement to practice. 123. Suppose that a hungry pigeon B watches pigeon A step on a bar to earn food dispensed through a feeder. Pigeon A previously had been shaped to bar press for food. What is the BEST hypothesis of pigeon B's behavior when it is subsequently placed in the operant chamber? a. It will begin stepping on the bar to earn food. b. It will repeatedly peck at the feeder and fail to learn to bar press because pecking is more biologically relevant. c. It will not engage in bar pressing until it is shaped to do so by the experimenter. d. It will engage in superstitious behaviors such as wing flapping. 124. The learning process involves the _____ of new knowledge, skills, or responses. a. acquisition b. storage c. performance d. maintenance 125. Sam, a car salesman, doesn't know how many customers he will have to approach until someone buys a car, but he does know it is possible that the very next customer will buy a car. Sam's sales behavior is reinforced according to which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable-ratio b. fixed-ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable-interval

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Chap 07_5e 126. One day, in the midst of his babbling, baby Chad uttered the sound mama in the presence of his mother. Chad's mother screamed in delight. This noise startled baby Chad; he stopped uttering that sound for quite some time, illustrating the effects of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. 127. In Thorndike's research involving cats in puzzle boxes, when did the puzzle box open, allowing the cat freedom and food? a. after a fixed period of time that the cat had been inside the box b. after escape attempts had been extinguished c. when the cat engaged in a behavior that moved a concealed lever d. 500 milliseconds after a buzzer sounded 128. The Rescorla–Wagner model states that a(n) _____ sets up a(n) _____ that leads to a variety of responses. a. unconditioned stimulus; expectation b. conditioned stimulus; expectation c. expectation; conditioned stimulus d. expectation; unconditioned stimulus 129. Last week, Harry drank too much tequila, and doing so made him vomit. Now just the smell of tequila makes his stomach a bit queasy. Vomiting after drinking too much tequila is an example of a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response. 130. Which oil change business has formalized Web-based active learning techniques into their job training? a. Pep Boys b. Jiffy Lube c. Spee-Dee d. Mobil-1 131. Spontaneous recovery demonstrates that: a. CS–US pairings are not necessary for classical conditioning to occur. b. learning is greater the farther apart CS–US trials are spaced in time. c. a stimulus paired with passage of time can come to elicit a response. d. extinction does not completely erase previous learning.

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Chap 07_5e 132. Because she was once stung, Kimberly experiences a fear reaction every time she sees a bee. Last week, Kimberly saw a flower and began feeling nervous. She found her reaction odd because there wasn't a flower around her on the day that she was stung. The anxiety related to the flower MOST likely occurred because of: a. negative reinforcement. b. second-order conditioning. c. discrimination. d. spontaneous recovery. 133. The school of psychology MOST associated with learning is: a. structuralism. b. functionalism. c. behaviorism. d. psychoanalysis. 134. _____ reinforcers help satisfy biological needs. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Immediate d. Conditioned 135. Most people have little difficulty spotting grammatical errors but cannot articulate which rules of English grammar were violated. Knowing that a sentence is grammatically wrong but being unable to say why illustrates _____ learning. a. explicit b. implicit c. latent d. observational 136. Last week, Elizabeth ate bad shrimp and vomited several hours later. Now just the smell of fish makes her stomach a bit queasy. The nausea Elizabeth experiences upon smelling fish is an example of a(n): a. unconditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. conditioned response.

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Chap 07_5e 137. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 second later a puff of air is delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned stimulus? a. the puff of air b. the tone c. the time interval d. the blinking 138. The radio DJ says, "Sometime this hour, I'll be giving away a pair of tickets to the Ariana Grande concert to one lucky caller." This is an example of which type of reinforcement schedule? a. fixed-interval b. variable-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-ratio 139. A person will keep playing a broken slot machine longer than she would spend money in a broken vending machine due to the _____ effect. a. continuous reinforcement b. intermittent reinforcement c. shaping by approximations d. interval reinforcement 140. An example of a nonassociative learning process is: a. classical conditioning. b. habituation. c. operant conditioning. d. observational learning. 141. Which statement about implicit learning is true? a. Implicit learning can be tested using an artificial grammar and serial reaction time tasks. b. Implicit learning relies on increased use of the prefrontal cortex. c. The rate of implicit learning slows considerably in old age. d. Explicit learning cannot become implicit over time. 142. Extinction in operant conditioning involves: a. presenting the reinforcer when the behavior does not occur. b. no longer presenting the reinforcer when the response occurs. c. repeatedly presenting the CS without the US. d. not presenting the discriminative stimulus, which signals the opportunity to respond. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 143. In the classic Bobo doll experiment, after watching adults get punished for hitting the Bobo doll, children: a. behaved even more aggressively toward the Bobo doll. b. showed no difference in their aggressive behavior toward the Bobo doll. c. behaved less aggressively toward the Bobo doll. d. became scared of the Bobo doll and didn't go near it. 144. What was the conditioned stimulus in the Little Albert study? a. a white rat b. a loud noise c. fear d. anything white and furry 145. When Robert's parents caught him staying out past curfew, they took away his car for a week. Robert is now much less likely to stay out past his curfew, illustrating: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive punishment. d. negative punishment. 146. When children observed the adult models being rewarded for being aggressive toward the Bobo doll, the children: a. were even more aggressive to the Bobo doll. b. were less aggressive to the Bobo doll. c. initially were more aggressive but then became less aggressive toward the Bobo doll. d. did not change their aggressiveness toward the Bobo doll. 147. If Little Albert's _____ were damaged, he would not have been able to form the association between the rat and the loud noise. a. prefrontal cortex b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. hippocampus 148. Chimpanzees who are raised with humans: a. have a greater ability to learn by observing human models. b. do not show any differences in learning from chimpanzees raised in the wild. c. are not as efficient at learning from human models than chimpanzees raised in the wild are. d. do not learn effectively by observing humans.

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Chap 07_5e 149. Most animals that respond to a conditioned stimulus will continue to respond if that stimulus is varied slightly, an adaptive process known as: a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. extinction. d. second-order conditioning. 150. A shy and timid child works up the courage to raise his hand to answer a question in class. The teacher calls on him, and the child delivers an excellent answer. The teacher exclaims, "That is the best answer I have heard all week! Great job! Come up to the front of the room to get a sticker!" Unfortunately, the child found all this attention unpleasant and no longer answers questions in class. His behavior of answering questions was: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. 151. Fear conditioning is to amygdala as a. eyeblink conditioning is to frontal cortex. b. eyeblink conditioning is to cerebellum. c. conditioned aversion is to cerebellum. d. conditioned aversion is to frontal cortex. 152. Upon moving into a new apartment, Talisa noticed the noise from trains on nearby tracks. After a few weeks, however, she no longer noticed these noises due to: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. operant conditioning. d. habituation. 153. Cramming for exams is an example of: a. distributed practice. b. massed practice. c. implicit practice. d. practice testing.

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Chap 07_5e 154. Certain cells in the brain fire both when an animal performs an action and when it watches that action being performed. These cells are called: a. mirror neurons. b. dopaminergic neurons. c. nucleus accumbens. d. motor neurons. 155. Eyeblink conditioning is to _____ as fear conditioning is to _____. a. cerebellum; amygdala b. cerebellum; nucleus accumbens c. nucleus accumbens; amygdala d. amygdala; cerebellum 156. According to B. F. Skinner, the first step in training a rat to press a bar is to: a. place the rat immediately next to the bar. b. deliver a food reward if the rat turns in the direction of the bar. c. place the rat's paw on the bar and reward that movement immediately. d. place the rat in the box with another rat that has already been trained to press the bar. 157. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds, and 5 seconds later, a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned stimulus? a. the shock b. the tone c. the stress d. the time interval 158. Recent research suggests that the role of dopamine in operant conditioning is that dopamine is MOST associated with: a. performing an already learned behavior. b. intense pleasure associated with the reward. c. ratio schedules of reward. d. wanting or expecting a reward.

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Chap 07_5e 159. In second-order conditioning, a neutral stimulus is paired with a: a. stimulus that naturally elicits a response. b. biologically relevant stimulus such as food. c. neutral stimulus such as a black square. d. previously established conditioned stimulus. 160. After serving in combat, John has strong reactions to mild stimuli that remind him of the war zone. John is displaying _____ to these stimuli. a. classical conditioning b. sensitization c. habituation d. operant conditioning 161. A teenager was sent to the principal's office for a disciplinary issue. The principal yelled at the student and then suspended him. Upon his return to school a week later, the student noticed that his heart started racing as he passed the principal's office. The principal's office had become a(n): a. unconditioned response. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. conditioned response. d. conditioned stimulus. 162. Which sequence describes how the intensity of a conditioned response changes during the acquisition phase of classical conditioning? a. starts low, rises rapidly, then decreases sharply b. starts low, rises rapidly, then tapers off c. starts low, rises slowly, then decreases sharply d. starts high, decreases sharply, then tapers off 163. The phase of classical conditioning in which the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli are first presented together is called: a. habituation. b. discrimination. c. acquisition. d. generalization. 164. Any stimulus or event that increases the probability of the behavior that led to it is termed a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. punisher. d. reinforcer. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 165. Jennie ate raw oysters for the first time and 4 hours later became extremely sick to her stomach. Now the smell of oysters makes her stomach queasy. What is the unconditioned stimulus? a. the smell of the oysters b. a bacterium or other toxin that was definitely present in the oysters c. a bacterium or other toxin that may or may not have been in the oysters d. stomach sickness 166. When the Brelands tried to teach pigs and raccoons to drop a coin into a box, the animals: a. learned the trick only if explicit reinforcement was provided for doing so. b. learned the trick if food was used as a reinforcer but did not learn the trick if secondary reinforcement was used. c. had difficulty learning the trick because it competed with their biological tendencies. d. failed to learn the trick, indicating that some animals have evolved to be resistant to operant conditioning. 167. A variable-interval, 3-minute schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. exactly 3 minutes after the last response. b. on average, every 3 minutes. c. for the first response that occurs after 3 minutes elapse. d. after 3 minutes of continuous responding. 168. Which of these is an essential feature of learning? a. It is based on experience. b. It requires language. c. It does not produce a change in the organism. d. It is a unique feature of human behavior. 169. A CS paired with shock in a rat will NOT cause: a. stress hormones to be released into the bloodstream. b. an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. c. decreased respiration. d. a behavioral freezing response. 170. Ted's girlfriend dumps him, walking out of his apartment in the middle of a particular song. Ted is emotionally distraught. A few weeks later, he happens to hear the same song in a friend's car. Assuming classical conditioning occurred, what should happen when he hears the song? a. His stomach clenches and he begins feeling negative emotions. b. He calls his ex-girlfriend and begs her to take him back. c. He begins discussing his relationship problems with his friend. d. He immediately thinks of all the good times that he had with his ex-girlfriend. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 171. Which behavior at first requires explicit learning but, over time, becomes implicit? a. competing on a high school quiz bowl team b. solving new and ever-changing puzzles in a computer game c. habituating to the chimes of a grandfather clock d. typing on a keyboard 172. Which structure is NOT involved in the reward center of the brain? a. cerebellum b. hypothalamus c. medial forebrain bundle d. nucleus accumbens 173. Which of these structures does NOT produce pleasure when stimulated? a. nucleus accumbens b. medial forebrain bundle c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus 174. Which statement accurately summarizes the results of studies that compared tool use in 2-year-old children and chimpanzees who both watched a human model using a tool either efficiently or inefficiently? a. Only the toddlers learned tool use by observation. b. Both the toddlers and the chimpanzees learned tool use, but all participants were markedly inefficient. c. Chimpanzees who watched an efficient human model outperformed toddlers who watched an inefficient human model. d. Toddlers who watched an efficient human model outperformed chimpanzees who also watched an efficient human model. 175. New employees at Jiffy Lube University first receive training: a. through supervised instruction in which they actually work on customers' automobiles. b. for all store positions simultaneously using a virtual reality interface. c. through a Web-based interface that breaks job functions down into smaller parts. d. through a hands-on assessment of basic job functions such as tire rotations and oil changes. 176. In Pavlov's research, what was the conditioned response? a. pricking ears at the sound of the metronome b. salivating upon food presentation c. a bell d. salivating at the sound of a metronome

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Chap 07_5e 177. A fixed-interval, 5-minute schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. every 5 minutes. b. after five responses. c. for the first response that occurs after 5 minutes elapse. d. 5 minutes after a response is emitted. 178. Lin trains a rat to nose-poke (touch its snout) into a small port to receive sugar pellets. What type of conditioning is Lin utilizing? a. classical b. operant c. reinforcement d. secondary 179. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds, and 5 seconds later, a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the unconditioned response? a. the oscillating increases and decreases in heart rate b. the increase in heart rate after the shock c. the increase in heart rate after the tone but before the shock d. the increase in heart rate to either the shock or the tone 180. Which type of reinforcement schedule has the highest rate of response? a. variable-interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-ratio 181. Which statement about learning is true? a. Learning often occurs without input from experience or the environment. b. Simple forms of learning are not applicable to human behavior. c. The changes produced by learning are most often temporary. d. Learning may involve the acquisition of a new skill.

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Chap 07_5e 182. A student closes her textbook, convinced that she has mastered the material. Her conclusion is an example of a(n): a. false belief. b. judgment of learning. c. summarization. d. objective assessment. 183. Research on reward prediction errors suggests that dopamine is involved in the _____ of a reward. a. expectation b. enjoyment c. evaluation d. memory 184. Everett ate broccoli for the first time and shortly thereafter became sick due to a stomach virus. Unfortunately, he formed an association between broccoli and sickness during the _____ phase of classical conditioning and will no longer eat broccoli. a. second-order b. discrimination c. acquisition d. generalization 185. A parrot identified a new fruit that was good to eat. After watching the parrot eat the fruit, the other parrots in the flock also began eating the fruit. The behavior of the flock illustrates: a. operant conditioning. b. latent learning. c. observational learning. d. positive reinforcement. 186. When a neutral stimulus evokes a response after being paired with a stimulus that naturally evokes a response, the result is an example of which phenomenon? a. classical conditioning b. habituation c. sensitization d. operant conditioning

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Chap 07_5e 187. Harold fell into a habit of feeding his dog potato chips while binge-watching shows on Netflix. After a few evenings of this, the dog would get excited, bark, and salivate every time Harold turned on the television. Eventually, Harold ran out of potato chips, so he stopped eating while watching television. After a period of being exposed to television in the absence of food, the dog no longer exhibited excitement when Harold turned on Netflix. The gradual decrease in the dog's excitement is an example of: a. extinction. b. punishment. c. generalization. d. second-order conditioning. 188. Extinction of a conditioned response involves: a. repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. b. repeated presentations of the unconditioned stimulus without the conditioned stimulus. c. repeated presentations of the unconditioned response alone. d. punishing the organism with an electric shock every time the conditioned response occurs. 189. The BEST way for students to guard against incorrect judgments of learning is to base their decisions on: a. a sense of familiarity after massed practice. b. a sense of familiarity after distributive practice. c. results from practice testing. d. the amount of time spent studying the material. 190. When something undesirable has been removed upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is strengthened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment 191. Lydia puts a lemon solution on her daughter's fingernails to try to get her daughter to stop biting her nails. The lemon solution tastes bitter when her daughter tries to bite her nails and after a week, Lydia notices a drastic decrease in nail biting. What is this an example of? a. positive punishment b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. negative reinforcement

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Chap 07_5e 192. Distributed practice is better than massed practice is for: a. college students but not for children. b. matching names to faces but not for remembering facts from textbooks. c. remembering facts from textbooks but not for matching names to faces. d. numerous kinds of materials. 193. A celebrity makes an insensitive tweet and, as a consequence, loses thousands of followers. As a result, he is less likely to make insensitive tweets in the future. This illustrates which behavioral process? a. positive reinforcement b. negative reinforcement c. positive punishment d. negative punishment 194. Dr. Arya presents a loud tone to a mouse in an isolated chamber. Initially the mouse demonstrates a robust startle response out of fear; however, after multiple presentations of the same tone across multiple days, the mouse eventually ignores the tone. The diminished startle response is an example of: a. sensitization. b. habituation. c. classical conditioning. d. associative learning. 195. Learning that takes place largely independent of awareness of both the process and the products of information acquisition is called: a. implicit learning. b. conditioning. c. biological predisposition. d. observational learning. 196. Any stimulus or event that decreases the probability of the behavior that led to it is termed a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. b. unconditioned stimulus. c. punisher. d. reinforcer.

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Chap 07_5e 197. In a study by Cross and colleagues (2009), half of the participants watched videos of specific dance sequences. The other half of participants actually practiced these sequences. All participants were then given a surprise dance test consisting of trained (observed or practiced) and untrained sequences. Participants who only observed videos of dance sequences: a. outperformed the practice group on trained sequences. b. outperformed the practice group on untrained sequences. c. demonstrated inferior performance on all sequences compared with the practice group. d. showed no difference in performance on trained versus untrained sequences. 198. Research is consistent with the success of Jiffy Lube University in that: a. live teaching is effective, whereas online teaching is detrimental. b. online teaching promotes more learning than does live teaching. c. while somewhat effective, online teaching does not add to the effectiveness of live teaching. d. online teaching adds to the effectiveness of live teaching. 199. From an evolutionary perspective, which of these is a feature of effective learning to avoid any food that has made you sick in the past? a. food–sickness association formed only after multiple pairings b. conditioning capable of taking place with only one acquisition trial c. the development of an aversion to food ingestion, not food smell or taste d. the development of an aversion more often to familiar than to unfamiliar foods 200. The learning process involves the _____ of new knowledge, skills, or responses as a function of _____. a. development; time b. growth; maturity c. acquisition; experience d. gradual accumulation; education 201. Students tend to devote more time to studying what they: a. find interesting. b. don't know well. c. understand. d. deem is important. 202. Which school of psychology is MOST associated with pioneering research on learning? a. functionalism b. evolutionary psychology c. cognitive psychology d. behaviorism

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Chap 07_5e 203. A variable-ratio 12 schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. exactly 12 minutes after the last response. b. on average, every 12 minutes. c. after exactly 12 responses. d. every 12 responses, on average. 204. Classical conditioning is the study of behaviors that are _____, whereas operant conditioning studies behaviors that are _____. a. active; reactive b. reactive; involuntary c. voluntary; reactive d. involuntary; voluntary 205. The negative in negative reinforcement and negative punishment indicates that: a. the target behavior increases in frequency. b. a stimulus is removed upon the occurrence of the target behavior. c. an unpleasant stimulus is presented upon the occurrence of the target behavior. d. the target behavior decreases in frequency. 206. A rat in a complicated maze with many arms, some of which are baited with food, will: a. once finding food in an arm, return only to that arm. b. explore the entire maze but often revisit arms that contained food. c. explore the maze in a random, haphazard fashion due to its complexity. d. rarely return to an arm it has previously visited. 207. What was the unconditioned stimulus in the Little Albert study? a. a white rat b. a loud noise c. fear d. anything white and furry 208. Johnny hated going to the doctor because he always received vaccinations. When he entered the doctor's office, he would become anxious and his stomach would hurt. After finishing his course of vaccinations, Johnny no longer received routine injections at the doctor's office. After many trips to the doctor's office with no injections, what probably will happen with Johnny's anxiety and stomachache? a. They should get worse with every visit. b. They should stay the same. c. They should gradually become less severe and eventually disappear. d. They should start occurring before he even enters the doctor's office.

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Chap 07_5e 209. Observational learning is a process in which an organism learns by: a. associating observations with events. b. watching the actions of others. c. stimulus–response relationships. d. intermittent reinforcement. 210. In an artificial grammar task, participants are shown strings of letters labeled "grammatically correct" and "grammatically incorrect." Then they are shown new strings and are asked to classify them as correct or incorrect. Participants usually are: a. unable to do the task, unless explicitly told the grammatical rules. b. unable to do the task, even after being told the grammatical rules. c. quite good at the task and can articulate the grammatical rules. d. quite good at the task but cannot articulate the grammatical rules. 211. Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to a particular tone but not to a buzzer, illustrating the process of: a. sensitization. b. discrimination. c. extinction. d. habituation. 212. The presence of a drug-related conditioned compensatory response produces: a. tolerance. b. a natural high. c. intoxication. d. an overdose. 213. Which statement about the observational learning that occurs when participants watched videos of dance moves relative to actually practicing the dance moves is true? a. Vastly different brain regions were activated between the two scenarios. b. The participants who only observed dance moves exhibited no learning on a surprise dance test. c. Both groups performed equally well on a surprise dance test. d. The participants who actually practiced dancing performed better on the surprise dance task. 214. The special case of presenting reinforcement after each response is called _____ reinforcement. a. intermittent b. immediate c. variable d. continuous

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Chap 07_5e 215. Which example BEST describes the learning process? a. answering the question "How old are you?" b. typing more efficiently after practicing c. becoming ill in response to certain foods d. reading the words in this question 216. Libraries often run summer reading programs in which children are given prizes after they read books. The prizes are meant to be _____ for reading. a. positive punishment b. positive reinforcement c. negative punishment d. negative reinforcement 217. As a child, Waya learned that the high-pitched "birdie birdie birdie" was a bird's chirp. He subsequently believed that all high-pitched noises outside were bird chirps, though he was not explicitly taught which sound came from which bird. Which process explains this phenomenon? a. extinction b. reinforcement c. generalization d. discrimination 218. In operant conditioning, presenting reinforcement upon the occurrence of a response only at regular time periods is called a _____ schedule. a. variable-ratio b. fixed-ratio c. variable-interval d. fixed-interval 219. Which of these does NOT occur in both classical and operant conditioning? a. generalization b. intermittent reinforcement c. discrimination d. extinction 220. The greater potency of immediate versus delayed reinforcers might help explain why: a. smokers have difficulty quitting. b. people prefer one brand of soft drink over another. c. secondary reinforcers are effective. d. terrorism exists.

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Chap 07_5e 221. A mental representation of the physical features of the environment is called a: a. cognitive maze. b. latent map. c. cognitive map. d. mental diagram. 222. When shaping behaviors, researchers reinforce _____ of the final desired behavior. a. latent learning b. superstitions c. successive approximations d. generalizations 223. Implicit learning is considerably impaired in: a. infants. b. people with amnesia. c. children with dyslexia. d. adults with autism. 224. When Lia sees the "good work" sticker that her teacher placed at the top of her homework assignment, she squeals with delight due to: a. positive punishment. b. conditioned compensatory response. c. second-order conditioning. d. spontaneous recovery. 225. James Olds (1956) discovered that rats would ignore food, water, and other life-sustaining necessities for hours if they were able to control stimulation of certain parts of the brain. He called these areas of the brain: a. receptors. b. pleasure centers. c. reinforcers. d. addiction centers. 226. Jiffy Lube University incorporates all these active learning techniques EXCEPT: a. quizzing and feedback. b. distributed practice. c. visual imagery. d. interleaved practice.

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Chap 07_5e 227. From an evolutionary perspective, which feature of effective learning helps avoid any food that has made you sick in the past? a. food–sickness association formed after only a single pairing b. conditioning capable of taking place only after many US–CS pairings c. the development of an aversion to food ingestion, not food smell or taste d. the development of an aversion more often to familiar than to unfamiliar foods 228. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds, and 5 seconds later, a mild skin shock is delivered to the participant. The skin shock results in a stress response consisting of a temporary increase in heart rate. This process is repeated once every 5 minutes. After a number of trials, the participant demonstrates an elevated heart rate when the tone sounds and before the shock is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned response? a. the oscillating increases and decreases in heart rate b. the increase in heart rate after the shock c. the increase in heart rate after the tone but before the shock d. the increase in heart rate to either the shock or the tone 229. Subjects in an experiment were reinforced if they selected paintings by cubist artist Picasso over paintings by French impressionist Monet. After some training, they always chose the Picasso paintings, demonstrating the operant principle of: a. secondary reinforcement. b. interval reinforcement. c. discrimination. d. generalization. 230. Every time a rat presses a lever, it receives a small injection of cocaine. The rat begins pressing the lever more and more, indicating that cocaine is a: a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. positive punisher. d. negative punisher. 231. In eyeblink conditioning, a tone is sounded immediately before air is puffed into a participant's eye. After a number of tone–airpuff pairings, which factor is the conditioned response? a. the perception of the tone b. the airpuff c. blinking when the tone sounds d. blinking when air is puffed into the eye

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Chap 07_5e 232. Skinner's approach to the study of learning focused on _____ and _____. a. reinforcement; reward b. reinforcement; punishment c. punishment; escape d. the mind; behavior 233. Which technique is MOST effective for learning school-related material? a. elaborative interrogation b. visual imagery mnemonics c. highlighting important material while reading d. distributed practice 234. The fact that persons experiencing amnesia do not show deficits in implicit learning suggests that _____ is NOT involved in implicit learning. a. the motor cortex b. the temporal lobe c. the hippocampus d. Broca's area 235. A college instructor implements the following attendance policy. All students are given 20 bonus points at the start of the semester. Each absence will result in the loss of 5 bonus points. The instructor hopes this policy will _____ absences. a. positively reinforce b. negatively reinforce c. positively punish d. negatively punish 236. For military veterans suffering from posttraumatic stress syndrome, sights and sounds during service become associated with negative emotions such that encountering similar stimuli at home results in: a. forgetting. b. negative reinforcement. c. similar emotions. d. positive memories of service.

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Chap 07_5e 237. Marques will not stop crying, and his parents are trying everything to soothe him. In a moment of desperation, his father puts the baby in his car seat and drives around the neighborhood. The vibrations of the car ride soothe Marques, and he stops crying. Marques's father congratulates himself on discovering this solution, which he most definitely will employ the next time Marques cannot be consoled. The father's behavior has thus been: a. positively reinforced. b. negatively reinforced. c. positively punished. d. negatively punished. 238. In the context of the role of classical conditioning in heroin overdose, the conditioned stimulus that triggers the compensatory response is: a. increased respiration. b. decreased respiration. c. heroin. d. the overall context in which the heroin was administered. 239. A rat was shocked in context A, which has metal floors and walls, and this led to high levels of freezing behavior. When the rat is put in context B, which is very distinct from context A and has white plastic walls and floors, the rat shows absolutely zero freezing. Which of these likely occurred? a. discrimination b. extinction c. spontaneous recovery d. generalization 240. Primary reinforcers help satisfy: a. biological needs. b. materialistic needs. c. animal instincts. d. learned cravings. 241. Rescorla and Wagner introduced a(n) _____ component to classical conditioning. a. cognitive b. behavioral c. neural d. emotional

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Chap 07_5e 242. In one study, pigeons watched other pigeons receive reinforcement for either stepping on a bar or pecking at the feeder. When the observer pigeons were later put in the operant chamber, they tended to: a. step on the bar. b. peck at the feeder. c. use whichever technique they had observed. d. alternate between stepping on the bar and pecking at the feeder. 243. Dolphins are MOST likely trained to do amazing tricks through a process called: a. shaping. b. habituation. c. classical conditioning. d. trial and error. 244. Jamie is relaxing on the beach when a gust of wind blows some sand into her eye. She blinks reflexively. The sand is a(n) _____ stimulus. a. conditioned b. unconditioned c. neutral d. second-order 245. A(n) _____ schedule is based on the time between reinforcements. a. interval b. ratio c. joint d. conditional 246. A(n) _____ schedule is based on the number of responses needed to achieve reinforcement. a. interval b. ratio c. joint d. conditional 247. When something desirable is presented upon the occurrence of a behavior, and as a result that behavior is strengthened, _____ has happened. a. positive punishment b. negative reinforcement c. positive reinforcement d. negative punishment

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Chap 07_5e 248. After her apartment was robbed, even barely audible late-night sounds make Kendra anxious, which BEST illustrates the behavioral process of: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. habituation. d. operant conditioning. 249. When Tom's sister burned herself playing with matches, she cried for a long time. A by-product of this experience was that Tom also learned not to play with matches. Tom's learning experience is an example of: a. observational learning. b. classical conditioning. c. operant conditioning. d. intermittent reinforcement. 250. An animal trainer is conditioning an elephant to startle at the sound of a trombone. Every time she plays the trombone, she then shows the elephant a mouse, which startles the elephant. Eventually, the elephant startles at just the sound of the trombone. However, after playing the trombone 30 more times, without a mouse appearing, the elephant exhibits no response. The trainer then gives the elephant an adequate rest period from the trombone. What is MOST likely to occur if the elephant hears the trombone again the following week? a. The elephant will not react. b. The elephant will have a greatly delayed startle reaction. c. The elephant will startle upon hearing the sound. d. The elephant will startle only if it sees a mouse. 251. Shareef's head jerks to his cell phone when it beeps but does not move appreciably when his partner's phone beeps. His responses demonstrate: a. extinction. b. generalization. c. discrimination. d. second-order conditioning. 252. Texting with your thumbs is an example of _____ learning that becomes _____ over time. a. implicit; habituated b. explicit; implicit c. implicit; explicit d. explicit; operant

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Chap 07_5e 253. Reinforcers _____ and punishers _____ the future probability of the behavior that led to these respective consequences. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase 254. In the context of John B. Watson's classical conditioning experiments, how could extinction be used to eliminate Little Albert's fear of a white rat? a. by repeatedly exposing Albert to the loud noise in the absence of the rat b. by giving Albert a piece of candy when he sees the rat c. by punishing Albert when he cries and crawls away from the rat d. by repeatedly presenting a rat to Albert without the loud noise 255. In people as well as in rats and other animals, the _____ is critically involved in emotional conditioning. a. reticular formation b. thalamus c. amygdala d. hippocampus 256. The tendency of a previously extinguished behavior to reoccur following a rest period is called: a. sensitization. b. generalization. c. spontaneous recovery. d. acquisition. 257. A hungry monkey's lever-pressing behavior is reinforced with a banana-flavored treat. Which occurrence would produce the MOST dopamine activity? a. treat delivery after the behavior is learned and the monkey expects the treat b. treat delivery upon the first press, when the monkey does not expect a treat c. an unexpected nondelivery of the treat when the lever press occurs d. expected nondeliveries of treats as the response is extinguished 258. Which brain region was critical for Little Albert to form the association between the rat and the loud noise? a. prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus c. Wernicke's area d. amygdala

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Chap 07_5e 259. A student writes a summary of the information she has just studied. Rereading this summary, she decides that she probably doesn't understand the material well enough. Her conclusion is an example of a(n): a. mnemonic device. b. judgment of learning. c. interleaved practice technique. d. objective assessment. 260. Jacqueline invites friends over for dinner every Friday. She does very little to prepare early in the week, but as the time interval to the dinner draws to a close, she shows a burst of cleaning and cooking. Her behavior is similar to that reinforced on a _____ schedule. a. fixed-interval b. variable-interval c. continuous d. variable-ratio 261. Rescorla and Wagner originated which theory? a. Behavioral responses can be conditioned in animals. b. Classical conditioning occurs only when the animal has learned to set up an expectation. c. Humans, as well as other animals, are capable of undergoing classical conditioning. d. Conditioning works more quickly when the conditioned stimulus is familiar. 262. A type of learning in which the consequences of an organism's behavior determine whether it will be repeated is called _____ conditioning. a. observational b. evolutionary c. operant d. classical 263. Deficits in implicit learning have been linked to: a. autism. b. amnesia. c. dyslexia. d. schizophrenia. 264. Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate at the sound of a bell by following the bell with food. How could Pavlov have used extinction to eliminate salivating to bells? a. present food repeatedly in the absence of the sound of the bell b. repeatedly ring the bell but never follow it with food c. ring the bell then present poison-laced food to induce sickness d. present food only every other time the bell was rung Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 265. Benjamin recently moved to Mexico. Although he did not know how to speak Spanish, within a few weeks, he was speaking grammatically correct sentences, even though he couldn't articulate the grammatical rules. This BEST illustrates: a. implicit learning. b. habituation. c. the cognitive aspects of operant conditioning. d. the acquisition of an artificial grammar. 266. In a study by Fredman and Whitman (2008), mother-raised and human-raised capuchin monkeys watched a human model use a screwdriver to remove a lid from a container and gain access to a food reward. In separate groups of both types of monkeys, the model removed the lid by either sticking the screwdriver in a hole located in the middle of the lid or by prying the lid off from the rim. The investigators found that: a. only the human-raised monkeys learned by observation. b. both groups learned by observation and both preferred sticking the screwdriver into the hole. c. both groups learned by observation, but the human-raised monkeys were much more likely to pry the lid off from the rim. d. both groups learned by observation, but the human-raised monkeys were considerably more likely to imitate the exact method the human model used. 267. The idea that behaviors followed by a "satisfying state of affairs" tend to be repeated and those that produce an "unpleasant state of affairs" are less likely to be repeated is known as: a. Pavlov's law of law of classical conditioning. b. Thorndike's law of effect. c. Garcia's theory of evolutionary conditioning. d. Tolman's theory of latent learning. 268. Which item is NOT an example of a schedule of intermittent reinforcement? a. variable-interval 1 minute b. fixed-interval 2 minute c. fixed-ratio 1 d. variable-ratio 10 269. Observational learning challenges an operant account of learning because: a. discriminative stimuli are absent. b. the learner's behavior is not reflexive. c. the learner's behavior is not reinforced. d. CS–US relations are absent.

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Chap 07_5e 270. When Shana's dog jumps up on her, Shana pets and cuddles the dog. As a result, Shana's dog begins to jump up on every person that visits Shana's house. This illustrates the effects of _____ conditioning. a. observational b. emotional c. classical d. operant 271. In Pavlov's experiments related to second-order conditioning, dogs were conditioned to salivate at the sight of a black square: a. by pairing it with food. b. by rewarding the dog with food when it salivated in the presence of the black square. c. by presenting food first and then following it with the black square. d. even though the black square was never directly associated with food. 272. _____ conducted research with cats in puzzle boxes. a. Tolman b. Skinner c. Lashley d. Thorndike 273. Tiffany is studying for her upcoming Spanish exam by mixing problem types during the same study session. For example, she might do some verb conjugations, followed by reciting vocabulary words, followed by a reading comprehension task. This form of studying is termed: a. distributed practice. b. interleaved practice. c. elaborative interrogation. d. practice testing. 274. _____ in an experiment were reinforced if they selected paintings by cubist artist Picasso over paintings by French impressionist Monet. Subsequently, they demonstrated _____ and selected paintings from another cubist artist, Matisse, over other paintings by Monet. a. Pigeons; discrimination b. Pigeons; generalization c. Children; discrimination d. Children; generalization

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Chap 07_5e 275. In what way did Thorndike's experiments significantly differ from Pavlov's? a. The US occurred on every training trial, no matter what the animal did. b. The CS occurred on every training trial, no matter what the animal did. c. The behavior of the animal determined what happened next. d. The US occurred on alternating trials. 276. _____ is a propensity for learning particular kinds of associations over others. a. Acquisition b. Biological preparedness c. Extinction d. Discrimination 277. A condition in which something is learned but is NOT manifested as a behavioral change until sometime in the future is called: a. latent learning. b. delayed response. c. time-delayed learning. d. second-order conditioning. 278. Interjecting frequent short tests (e.g., pop quizzes) during a lecture is beneficial to learning because it: a. fosters implicit learning. b. increases sympathetic nervous system activity. c. discourages mind wandering. d. encourages massed practice. 279. In an experiment studying classical conditioning, a tone sounds and 0.5 second later a puff of air is delivered to the participant's eye. The participant blinks. This process is repeated once per minute. After a number of trials, the participant blinks as soon as the tone sounds and before the puff of air is actually delivered. Within the context of this example, what is the conditioned response? a. blinking once per minute b. blinking to the puff of air c. blinking to the tone d. blinking to the puff of air or the tone 280. Which technique is LEAST effective for learning school-related material? a. distributed practice b. visual imagery mnemonics c. practice testing d. self-explanation

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Chap 07_5e 281. The Rescorla–Wagner model predicts that conditioning will be easier when the: a. conditioned stimulus is an unfamiliar event. b. conditioned stimulus is a familiar event. c. unconditioned response is predictable. d. unconditioned response is unpredictable. 282. Kylie recently moved into an apartment with a new roommate who watches cable news seemingly all day and all night. The television is always on and always turned to the news. At first, Kylie found the television distracting, but after a few weeks, she barely even notices that it is on. This example demonstrates the behavioral process of: a. classical conditioning. b. sensitization. c. habituation. d. operant conditioning. 283. Playing the hot-or-cold game, where you direct someone to move around the room toward a goal known only to you by telling the person whether he is getting warmer or cooler, is an example of which behavioral process? a. extinction b. fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement c. generalization d. shaping 284. Johnny's mom scolded him for putting his feet on the dinner table. Afterward, Johnny was much less likely to put his feet on the table. In this case, the scolding served as a: a. positive reinforcer. b. negative reinforcer. c. positive punisher. d. negative punisher. 285. Slot machines pay off on schedules that are determined by the random number generator that controls the play of the machine. For example, on average, the machine might pay off every 100 pulls, but sometimes two pulls are required and sometimes several hundred pulls are required. Slot machines are a real-world example of which type of reinforcement schedule? a. variable-interval b. fixed-interval c. fixed-ratio d. variable-ratio

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Chap 07_5e 286. An initially neutral stimulus that comes to elicit a response because it has been paired with an unconditioned stimulus is called a _____ stimulus. a. discriminative b. habituated c. conditioned d. reinforcing 287. In Pavlov's research, what was the conditioned stimulus? a. food b. a dog c. a ticking metronome d. the salivary reflex 288. Not only did Little Albert learn to fear white rats, he also cried when presented with a Santa Claus mask or a seal-fur coat. This behavior was the result of: a. stimulus discrimination. b. stimulus generalization. c. second-order conditioning. d. punishment. 289. Behavior that an organism produces and that has some impact on the environment is known as: a. operant behavior. b. the law of effect. c. classical conditioning. d. a reinforcer. 290. Little Albert was a(n): a. human infant conditioned to fear a white rat. b. human infant raised in a modified operant chamber. c. Bobo doll in Bandura's experiments on observational learning. d. affectionate nickname given to the Bobo doll in Bandura's experiments. 291. In rats, taste aversions are elicited by _____; in birds, taste aversions are elicited by _____. a. visual cues; texture b. texture; smells c. visual cues; smells d. smells; visual cues

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Chap 07_5e 292. A mental representation of the physical features of the environment is called: a. latent learning. b. a cognitive map. c. shaping. d. successive approximations. 293. Jisoo ate raw oysters for the first time and 4 hours later became extremely sick to her stomach. Now the smell of oysters makes her stomach queasy. What is the conditioned stimulus? a. the smell of the oysters b. a bacterium or other toxin that was definitely present in the oysters c. a bacterium or other toxin that may or may not have been in the oysters d. stomach queasiness 294. Which item is a secondary reinforcer? a. a cold lemonade b. a tomato fresh from the garden c. sexual activity d. a gold star on the top of a homework paper 295. Superstitious behavior: a. results from accidental reinforcement of inconsequential behavior. b. occurs more frequently on ratio schedules than it does on interval schedules. c. is established using shaping through successive approximations. d. reflects the contributions of biology to operant behavior. 296. In a study by Cross and colleagues (2009), half of the participants watched videos of specific dance sequences (observational group). The other half of participants actually practiced these sequences (practice group). All participants were then given a surprise dance test consisting of trained (either observed or practiced) and untrained sequences. Cross and colleagues reported which findings that constitute evidence of observational learning? a. The observational group outperformed the practice group on trained sequences. b. The observational group outperformed the practice group on untrained sequences. c. Both groups performed comparably on the trained sequences. d. The observational group performed better on trained versus untrained sequences.

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Chap 07_5e 297. In recent research on neural pathways during implicit and explicit learning, participants who were given explicit instructions showed increased activity in the _____, whereas those given implicit instructions showed decreased activity in the _____. a. prefrontal cortex and the parietal cortex; hippocampus b. occipital lobe; hippocampus c. prefrontal cortex and the hippocampus; occipital lobe d. hippocampus and the occipital lobe; prefrontal cortex and the parietal cortex 298. A fixed-ratio 15 schedule delivers a reinforcer: a. exactly 15 minutes after the last response. b. on average, every 15 minutes. c. after 15 responses. d. after 15 minutes of continuous responding. 299. Patients with cancer experiencing nausea from chemotherapy often develop taste aversions to foods eaten earlier. Based on the research of Garcia and colleagues mentioned in the text, researchers developed a technique for minimizing this negative effect that involved giving a patient unusual foods, such as coconut- or root-beer-flavored candy, at the end of their last meal before undergoing treatment. Such a procedure attempts to establish the taste of the candy as a(n): a. unconditioned positive stimulus. b. conditioned stimulus triggering a pleasant gustatory reaction to chemotherapy. c. conditioned response to chemotherapy. d. conditioned stimulus triggering nausea. 300. A person tries to call her friend, but there is no answer. She waits a little while and tries again, but there is still no answer. She continues to try for the rest of the day, but her friend never answers. Exasperated, she gives up. What is happening to the friend-calling behavior? a. It is being negatively reinforced. b. It is being negatively punished. c. It is being extinguished. d. It is being positively punished.

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Chap 07_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. b 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. d 41. a 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. c 52. b 53. a 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. d 65. a 66. c 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. d 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. d 76. d 77. d 78. b 79. b 80. a 81. c 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 83. d 84. b 85. c 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. d 91. b 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. c 96. d 97. b 98. a 99. d 100. a 101. d 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. d 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. a 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 111. c 112. d 113. c 114. a 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. c 119. d 120. c 121. a 122. d 123. a 124. a 125. a 126. c 127. c 128. b 129. b 130. b 131. d 132. b 133. c 134. a 135. b 136. d 137. b

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Chap 07_5e 138. b 139. b 140. b 141. a 142. b 143. c 144. a 145. d 146. a 147. b 148. a 149. b 150. c 151. b 152. d 153. b 154. a 155. a 156. b 157. b 158. d 159. d 160. b 161. d 162. b 163. c 164. d 165. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. c 170. a 171. d 172. a 173. c 174. d 175. c 176. d 177. c 178. b 179. b 180. d 181. d 182. b 183. a 184. c 185. c 186. a 187. a 188. a 189. c 190. b 191. a 192. d 193. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 194. b 195. a 196. c 197. c 198. d 199. b 200. c 201. b 202. d 203. d 204. d 205. b 206. d 207. b 208. c 209. b 210. d 211. b 212. a 213. d 214. d 215. b 216. b 217. c 218. d 219. b 220. a 221. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 222. c 223. c 224. c 225. b 226. c 227. a 228. c 229. c 230. a 231. c 232. b 233. d 234. c 235. d 236. c 237. b 238. d 239. a 240. a 241. a 242. c 243. a 244. b 245. a 246. b 247. c 248. b

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Chap 07_5e 249. a 250. c 251. c 252. b 253. c 254. d 255. c 256. c 257. b 258. d 259. b 260. a 261. b 262. c 263. c 264. b 265. a 266. d 267. b 268. c 269. c 270. d 271. d 272. d 273. b 274. b 275. c 276. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e 277. a 278. c 279. c 280. b 281. a 282. c 283. d 284. c 285. d 286. c 287. c 288. b 289. a 290. a 291. d 292. b 293. a 294. d 295. a 296. d 297. c 298. c 299. d 300. c

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. In a study on latent learning, Tolman demonstrated that rats who never received a food reward at the end of a maze nevertheless ran it faster and faster each day. a. True b. False 2. Implicit learning is associated with decreased activity in the occipital cortex. a. True b. False 3. In negative punishment, an unpleasant stimulus is removed upon the occurrence of the target behavior. a. True b. False 4. An explicit knowledge of grammatical rules is necessary to identify correct words in an artificial grammar task. a. True b. False 5. Experienced heroin users will have a higher risk of overdose if they inject the drug in an unfamiliar environment. a. True b. False 6. Slot machines arrange reinforcers according to a variable-interval schedule. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 7.2 to answer the following question(s). A boy with autism sometimes engages in self-stimulatory behavior such as waving his hands in front of his eyes while doing his homework. Curiously, he engages in this behavior when his father is in close proximity but usually not when his mother is. An applied behavior analyst working with the boy closely observes the interactions between the boy and his parents in an effort to determine why the self-stimulatory behavior is occurring. She notes that on the rare occasions the boy engages in the problem behavior in the presence of his mother, the mother simply ignores this behavior. However, after the problem behavior occurs a number of times in the presence of the father, the father often intervenes. While the father does not provide attention to his son, he does remove the homework materials for a number of minutes, essentially giving the boy a break. This usually calms the boy and results in the cessation of the problem behavior. The therapist notes that the amount of self-stimulatory behavior before the father intervenes is quite unpredictable; sometimes the father intervenes after only one or two instances, and sometimes he waits until many instances occur in an effort to keep the boy on task with his homework as long as possible. 7. (Scenario 7.2) The fact that the boy engages in problem behavior in the presence of his father but not his mother illustrates: a. shaping by approximations. b. an expectancy between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli. c. generalization. d. stimulus control. 8. Learning is based on experience. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Tyler is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, he uses with his dealer in a drug house on his street. One day when his dealer was out of town, Tyler met a group of fellow users going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Tyler tagged along and noted that he felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from his usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and he took no more or less than he usually did, Tyler overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency department. 9. (Scenario 7.1) An account of drug overdose based on classical conditioning differs from typical classical conditioning preparations in that: a. the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli are of different stimulus modalities. b. only one trial is necessary for learning to occur. c. the conditioned response takes the form opposite to that of the unconditioned response. d. the conditioned response precedes the unconditioned stimulus.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 10. Research has demonstrated that even the possibility of a quiz at the end of a lecture does not reduce mind wandering during the lecture. a. True b. False 11. Operant behavior is behavior under the control of its consequences. a. True b. False 12. Making mental images of study material has been shown to be more effective than is distributed practice. a. True b. False 13. Biological predispositions may interfere with the ability to learn an operant response. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Tyler is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, he uses with his dealer in a drug house on his street. One day when his dealer was out of town, Tyler met a group of fellow users going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Tyler tagged along and noted that he felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from his usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and he took no more or less than he usually did, Tyler overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency department. 14. (Scenario 7.1) According to a classical conditioning account of drug overdose, after numerous environment– drug pairings, the environment can: a. trigger effects similar to the drug, even in the absence of the drug. b. markedly increase the likelihood that overdose will occur. c. help prepare the body for the drug. d. sensitize a user to the drug such that less now is required to obtain the same effect. 15. The hippocampus is not necessary for implicit learning to occur. a. True b. False 16. B. F. Skinner developed the law of effect. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 17. Edward Chace Tolman argued that latent learning is a by-product of reinforcement. a. True b. False 18. The more often a person eats a particular food, the more likely it is that she ultimately will form a taste aversion to it. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.3 to answer the following question(s). In a classic study by Tolman and Honzik (1930), rats were randomly assigned to one of three groups and studied daily in a complex maze. One group of rats was regularly rewarded by food in the goal box upon completion of the maze. A second group of rats served as a control group and was never reinforced; when they reached the goal box it was always empty. A third group of rats received no reward for the first 10 days. Beginning on day 11, however, these rats began receiving food reward upon completion of the maze. Below is a representation of the major results found by Tolman and Honzik (1930). Tolman, E. C., & Honzik, C. H. (1930). Introduction and removal of reward, and maze performance in rats. University of California Publications in Psychology, 4, 257–275.

19. (Scenario 7.3) What is the independent variable? a. the three groups of rats b. number of errors c. days d. food reward

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 20. According to the Rescorla–Wagner model, the US (unconditioned stimulus) sets up an expectation for the CS (conditioned stimulus). a. True b. False 21. Implicit learning occurs outside of conscious awareness. a. True b. False 22. Brain-imaging studies have revealed that watching a model perform a complex behavior, such as ballroom dancing, is a more effective learning strategy than is actually practicing the complex behavior. a. True b. False 23. In second-order conditioning, a neutral stimulus becomes a US when it is repeatedly paired with a previously established CS. a. True b. False 24. The conditioned stimulus in the Little Albert study initially was a white rat. a. True b. False 25. The strategy of highlighting material, rereading it, and summarizing it has been shown to be a highly effective study technique. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 7.2 to answer the following question(s). A boy with autism sometimes engages in self-stimulatory behavior such as waving his hands in front of his eyes while doing his homework. Curiously, he engages in this behavior when his father is in close proximity but usually not when his mother is. An applied behavior analyst working with the boy closely observes the interactions between the boy and his parents in an effort to determine why the self-stimulatory behavior is occurring. She notes that on the rare occasions the boy engages in the problem behavior in the presence of his mother, the mother simply ignores this behavior. However, after the problem behavior occurs a number of times in the presence of the father, the father often intervenes. While the father does not provide attention to his son, he does remove the homework materials for a number of minutes, essentially giving the boy a break. This usually calms the boy and results in the cessation of the problem behavior. The therapist notes that the amount of self-stimulatory behavior before the father intervenes is quite unpredictable; sometimes the father intervenes after only one or two instances, and sometimes he waits until many instances occur in an effort to keep the boy on task with his homework as long as possible. 26. (Scenario 7.2) The applied behavior analyst would conclude that the self-stimulatory behavior is probably being maintained by: a. conditioned stimulus–unconditioned stimulus pairings between the father and the homework. b. access to enjoyable activities. c. escape. d. automatic reinforcers associated with sensory stimulation. 27. Bandura's research demonstrated that simply observing aggressive models was not sufficient to produce aggressive behavior in children; reinforcement of the aggressive behavior was needed. a. True b. False 28. Regions in the frontal and temporal lobes are thought to be part of the mirror neuron system in humans. a. True b. False 29. Behavior maintained under an intermittent schedule of reinforcement is more difficult to extinguish than is behavior maintained under a continuous schedule of reinforcement. a. True b. False 30. In operant conditioning, occasionally not delivering a reinforcer when the behavior occurs will extinguish that behavior. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 31. Wild-raised chimpanzees imitate a human modeling tool use more accurately than do chimpanzees raised by humans. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.2 to answer the following question(s). A boy with autism sometimes engages in self-stimulatory behavior such as waving his hands in front of his eyes while doing his homework. Curiously, he engages in this behavior when his father is in close proximity but usually not when his mother is. An applied behavior analyst working with the boy closely observes the interactions between the boy and his parents in an effort to determine why the self-stimulatory behavior is occurring. She notes that on the rare occasions the boy engages in the problem behavior in the presence of his mother, the mother simply ignores this behavior. However, after the problem behavior occurs a number of times in the presence of the father, the father often intervenes. While the father does not provide attention to his son, he does remove the homework materials for a number of minutes, essentially giving the boy a break. This usually calms the boy and results in the cessation of the problem behavior. The therapist notes that the amount of self-stimulatory behavior before the father intervenes is quite unpredictable; sometimes the father intervenes after only one or two instances, and sometimes he waits until many instances occur in an effort to keep the boy on task with his homework as long as possible. 32. (Scenario 7.2) The applied behavior analyst would conclude that the father's behavior of allowing his son to take breaks from his homework is probably being maintained by: a. extinction. b. negative reinforcement. c. positive reinforcement. d. observational learning. 33. People with amnesia exhibit marked decrements in implicit learning. a. True b. False 34. Both positive and negative reinforcement increase the likelihood of future behavior. a. True b. False 35. In Pavlov's work, dogs were not presented with food unless they salivated when they heard the tone. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 7.3 to answer the following question(s). In a classic study by Tolman and Honzik (1930), rats were randomly assigned to one of three groups and studied daily in a complex maze. One group of rats was regularly rewarded by food in the goal box upon completion of the maze. A second group of rats served as a control group and was never reinforced; when they reached the goal box it was always empty. A third group of rats received no reward for the first 10 days. Beginning on day 11, however, these rats began receiving food reward upon completion of the maze. Below is a representation of the major results found by Tolman and Honzik (1930). Tolman, E. C., & Honzik, C. H. (1930). Introduction and removal of reward, and maze performance in rats. University of California Publications in Psychology, 4, 257–275.

36. (Scenario 7.3) Tolman and Honzik (1930) argued that learning can occur without reinforcement, although this learning may not manifest itself behaviorally until a later time. They termed this latent learning. Latent learning poses a direct challenge to which school of psychology? a. functionalism b. cognitive psychology c. behaviorism d. Gestalt psychology 37. Research has demonstrated that the functions of the cerebellum are critical for eyeblink conditioning. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 38. Observational learning challenges operant conditioning because such learning occurs in the absence of reinforcement or punishment. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.3 to answer the following question(s). In a classic study by Tolman and Honzik (1930), rats were randomly assigned to one of three groups and studied daily in a complex maze. One group of rats was regularly rewarded by food in the goal box upon completion of the maze. A second group of rats served as a control group and was never reinforced; when they reached the goal box it was always empty. A third group of rats received no reward for the first 10 days. Beginning on day 11, however, these rats began receiving food reward upon completion of the maze. Below is a representation of the major results found by Tolman and Honzik (1930). Tolman, E. C., & Honzik, C. H. (1930). Introduction and removal of reward, and maze performance in rats. University of California Publications in Psychology, 4, 257–275.

39. (Scenario 7.3) This is an example of which type of research design? a. naturalistic observation b. experiment c. correlation d. case method 40. Pavlov extinguished the conditioned response by repeatedly presenting the bell and not following it with food. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 41. For most people, money is a powerful primary reinforcer. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.3 to answer the following question(s). In a classic study by Tolman and Honzik (1930), rats were randomly assigned to one of three groups and studied daily in a complex maze. One group of rats was regularly rewarded by food in the goal box upon completion of the maze. A second group of rats served as a control group and was never reinforced; when they reached the goal box it was always empty. A third group of rats received no reward for the first 10 days. Beginning on day 11, however, these rats began receiving food reward upon completion of the maze. Below is a representation of the major results found by Tolman and Honzik (1930). Tolman, E. C., & Honzik, C. H. (1930). Introduction and removal of reward, and maze performance in rats. University of California Publications in Psychology, 4, 257–275.

42. (Scenario 7.3) Taking into account the results from all three groups, which is the BEST interpretation of the results from the no-reward control group? a. Despite the lack of reward, these rats learned about the maze. b. The behavior of these rats was punished by the empty goal box. c. The measured behavior of the rats in the control group suggests that learning occurred. d. These rats failed to learn anything about the maze. 43. Albert Bandura conducted the Bobo doll experiment investigating observational learning. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 7.2 to answer the following question(s). A boy with autism sometimes engages in self-stimulatory behavior such as waving his hands in front of his eyes while doing his homework. Curiously, he engages in this behavior when his father is in close proximity but usually not when his mother is. An applied behavior analyst working with the boy closely observes the interactions between the boy and his parents in an effort to determine why the self-stimulatory behavior is occurring. She notes that on the rare occasions the boy engages in the problem behavior in the presence of his mother, the mother simply ignores this behavior. However, after the problem behavior occurs a number of times in the presence of the father, the father often intervenes. While the father does not provide attention to his son, he does remove the homework materials for a number of minutes, essentially giving the boy a break. This usually calms the boy and results in the cessation of the problem behavior. The therapist notes that the amount of self-stimulatory behavior before the father intervenes is quite unpredictable; sometimes the father intervenes after only one or two instances, and sometimes he waits until many instances occur in an effort to keep the boy on task with his homework as long as possible. 44. (Scenario 7.2) The mother is utilizing _____ to keep the boy's level of self-stimulatory behavior low. a. extinction b. positive punishment c. negative punishment d. delayed reinforcement Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Tyler is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, he uses with his dealer in a drug house on his street. One day when his dealer was out of town, Tyler met a group of fellow users going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Tyler tagged along and noted that he felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from his usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and he took no more or less than he usually did, Tyler overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency department. 45. (Scenario 7.1) According to a classical conditioning account of heroin overdose, one unconditioned response is a(n) _____ in respiration rate, and one conditioned response is a(n) _____. a. increase; subsequent cardiovascular collapse b. increase; similar increase in heart rate c. decrease; subsequent cardiovascular collapse d. decrease; increase in respiration rate 46. Tolman's views on operant conditioning are similar to Rescorla and Wagner's views on classical conditioning. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 47. Dopamine is secreted in the pleasure centers of the brain. a. True b. False 48. Sensitization occurs when the presentation of a stimulus produces a decreased response to a later presentation of the stimulus. a. True b. False 49. Pavlov's dogs, which were conditioned to salivate at the sound of a metronome, also may salivate at the sound of a ticking clock, illustrating spontaneous recovery. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Tyler is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, he uses with his dealer in a drug house on his street. One day when his dealer was out of town, Tyler met a group of fellow users going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Tyler tagged along and noted that he felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from his usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and he took no more or less than he usually did, Tyler overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency department. 50. (Scenario 7.1) According to a classical conditioning account of drug overdose, because Tyler always used in the same location with the same person, the presence of those cues resulted in a(n): a. increased tolerance to heroin. b. increase in the reinforcing properties of heroin. c. increased sensitivity to the depressant effects of heroin. d. decreased expectancy of heroin. 51. Variable-ratio schedules of reinforcement produce slightly lower response rates than fixed-ratio schedules. a. True b. False 52. The nucleus accumbens, medial forebrain bundle, and hypothalamus are all major pleasure centers in the brain. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Tyler is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, he uses with his dealer in a drug house on his street. One day when his dealer was out of town, Tyler met a group of fellow users going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Tyler tagged along and noted that he felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from his usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and he took no more or less than he usually did, Tyler overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency department. 53. (Scenario 7.1) The contextual cues associated with Tyler's usual drug-taking environment might NOT be expected to elicit: a. withdrawal symptoms. b. feelings of intoxication. c. cravings. d. sympathetic nervous system arousal. 54. Extinction of an operant response involves no longer providing reinforcement for that response. a. True b. False 55. Monkeys, but not pigeons, can learn by observation. a. True b. False

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56. (Scenario 7.3) What is the dependent variable? a. the three groups of rats b. number of errors c. days d. food reward 57. Practice testing has been shown to be a more effective study strategy than massed practice. a. True b. False 58. Some types of learning begin as explicit but become implicit over time. a. True b. False

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 59. Rats that discover food in one arm of a maze with many arms will tend to revisit that food arm over and over again, searching for more food. a. True b. False 60. Cramming is a form of massed practice. a. True b. False Use Scenario 7.2 to answer the following question(s). A boy with autism sometimes engages in self-stimulatory behavior such as waving his hands in front of his eyes while doing his homework. Curiously, he engages in this behavior when his father is in close proximity but usually not when his mother is. An applied behavior analyst working with the boy closely observes the interactions between the boy and his parents in an effort to determine why the self-stimulatory behavior is occurring. She notes that on the rare occasions the boy engages in the problem behavior in the presence of his mother, the mother simply ignores this behavior. However, after the problem behavior occurs a number of times in the presence of the father, the father often intervenes. While the father does not provide attention to his son, he does remove the homework materials for a number of minutes, essentially giving the boy a break. This usually calms the boy and results in the cessation of the problem behavior. The therapist notes that the amount of self-stimulatory behavior before the father intervenes is quite unpredictable; sometimes the father intervenes after only one or two instances, and sometimes he waits until many instances occur in an effort to keep the boy on task with his homework as long as possible. 61. (Scenario 7.2) The boy's self-stimulatory behavior produces consequences according to a _____ schedule. a. fixed-ratio b. variable ratio c. fixed-interval d. variable interval 62. Judgments of learning (JOLs) are often inaccurate. a. True b. False

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63. (Scenario 7.3) In which group(s) are the effects of latent learning demonstrated behaviorally? a. no-reward control group b. regularly rewarded group c. no reward until day 11 group d. all groups

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 7.1 to answer the following question(s). Tyler is physically dependent on heroin and uses it intravenously multiple times per day. Most often, he uses with his dealer in a drug house on his street. One day when his dealer was out of town, Tyler met a group of fellow users going to a drug party about 2 hours away. Tyler tagged along and noted that he felt odd injecting the drug in this setting because the new people and environment were a marked departure from his usual routine. Minutes later, although the drug was of the same quality and he took no more or less than he usually did, Tyler overdosed and had to be rushed to the emergency department. 67. (Scenario 7.1) Several decades ago, the psychologist Sheppard Siegel first noted the role that classical conditioning plays in drug overdose. In this model, the unconditioned stimulus in the scenario is _____, and the conditioned stimulus is _____. a. heroin; the new environment b. heroin; the usual drug-taking environment c. the new environment; heroin d. the usual drug-taking environment; heroin 68. Discuss the cognitive, neural, and evolutionary elements of classical conditioning.

69. A child does not reliably make his bed in the morning. His parents want to use monetary positive reinforcement to increase bed making. Describe how the following schedules of reinforcement would operate: continuous reinforcement, fixed-ratio (FR) 7 responses, variable-ratio (VR) 7 responses, fixed-interval (FI) 7 days, variable-interval (VI) 7 days. If you were the parent, which schedule of reinforcement would you employ? Why?

70. What is the difference between primary and secondary reinforcers? Give an example of each.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 71. Describe how artificial grammar has been used to study implicit learning.

72. Contrast classical and operant conditioning in terms of (1) the nature of the behavior, (2) the role of stimuli that precede the response, and (3) the role of consequences.

73. Compare and contrast the observational learning of tool use in humans and chimpanzees.

74. Bob has contracted a stomach virus and will be extremely sick in 6 hours. At the moment, however, Bob is completely unaware of his condition. In fact, he is starving for his favorite food, pizza. His roommate wants anchovies on the pizza; although Bob never has eaten anchovies, he agrees. Bob eats six slices of pizza and likes the taste of the anchovies. A few hours later, Bob becomes extremely sick to his stomach. Describe the likely taste aversion that Bob will experience. Be sure to identify the US, CS, UR, and CR. Finally, discuss how the conditioning process might differ if Bob were a pigeon in Central Park instead of a college student.

75. Explain how classical conditioning is involved in drug tolerance and overdose.

76. How would you use shaping through successive approximations to train a puppy to turn in a complete clockwise circle to receive a doggie treat?

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 77. Provide a unique example of positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, positive punishment, and negative punishment. In doing so, identify the target behavior, the consequence of that behavior, and how the consequence affects the future probability of that behavior.

78. A small girl visited the Science Center and was allowed to handle a live tarantula as part of an exhibit. While she was doing so, her older brother saw what she was doing and screamed in terror. This frightened the young girl, and now she too is afraid of tarantulas. Briefly explain the learning that took place. Review the US, UR, CS, and CR. Include the following terms in your discussion, and predict the path that the girl's learning may eventually take: generalization, discrimination, extinction, and spontaneous recovery.

79. Describe the procedure, results, and importance of Tolman's experiment on latent learning.

80. Compare and contrast the process of extinction in classical and operant conditioning. Give examples.

81. How does the work of evolutionary psychologists studying rats in a T maze contribute to our understanding of operant behavior?

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 82. A struggling and overwhelmed classmate mentions that he feels like he's been studying hard but doesn't seem to be succeeding. What would you tell your classmate about the effectiveness of techniques for learning? What techniques have little utility? Which techniques are particularly effective?

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. c 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. a 61. b 62. a 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Cognitive elements: Classical conditioning will not occur unless the CS reliably predicts the occurrence of the US. Because of this, Rescorla and Wagner argued that CS– US pairings result in an expectancy of the US. This expectancy then gives rise to the CR. This cognitive component helps explain why Pavlov's dogs did not salivate merely at the sight of Pavlov. Although Pavlov was paired with food many times, he also was paired with the absence of food. Pavlov was not a reliable predictor of food, but his bell was! In addition, expectancy theory helps explain why it is easier to condition a response to a novel stimulus than a familiar stimulus. Organisms have previously learned expectancies associated with familiar stimuli, making conditioning a new response difficult. (2) Neural elements: The cerebellum is highly involved in classical conditioning. In addition, the central nucleus of the amygdala is involved in emotional conditioning. (3) Evolutionary elements: CS–US associations that have been important for the survival of the species are extremely easy to condition, sometimes requiring only one CS–US pairing. We are biologically prepared to form some associations, such as the association between the taste of a novel food and sickness. The adaptive value is clear. Our ancestors who may have eaten a poisonous plant, became ill several hours later, and subsequently avoided that plant in the future tended to survive and pass on their genes. Ancestors who did not form this association perished at a higher rate.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 69. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Continuous reinforcement: Every instance of bed making would result in money delivery. This probably would result in the child making the bed each day, but the parents would quickly go broke! Moreover, if the parents were to stop reinforcing bed making, the child would quickly stop making his bed. For these reasons, this schedule is both impractical and not ideal for the long-term maintenance of bed making. (2) FR 7: Every seven times that the child makes his bed, this behavior will be reinforced with money. (3) VR 7: On the average of every seven times that the child makes his bed, this behavior will be reinforced with money. (4) The FR 7 and VR 7 options both produce reinforcement intermittently. Assuming the child makes his bed only once per day, both of these schedules result in reinforcer delivery once per week, which is a realistic payment schedule for most parents. However, the downside with these schedules is that nothing is stopping the child from making his bed 100 times per day. The parents would quickly go broke! (5) Under an FI 7-day schedule, the first instance of bed making that occurs after 7 days since the last reinforcement will produce money. Perhaps every Friday, the parents will pay the child if he has made the bed that day. If not, they will withhold the money until the next time he makes the bed. The advantage of this schedule is that it guarantees the parents will not have to pay out more than once per week. The disadvantage is that the child may quickly learn to behave efficiently under the schedule, making his bed only on Fridays! (6) Under a VI 7-day schedule, the first instance of bed making that occurs after an average of 7 days since the last reinforcement will produce money. On average, bed making will pay off once per week. But sometimes reinforcement will come after only one day, and other times it will not come for several weeks. One advantage of this schedule is that it guarantees the parents will pay money to the child, on average, no more than once per week. Another advantage is that this schedule generates a steady rate of responding. Because reinforcement could come any day, the child probably would make his bed every day. A third advantage is that because the schedule is time based, making the bed 100 times per day won't increase the rate of reinforcement, as is the case under the FR and VR schedules. There is nothing that the child can do to get paid, on average, more than once per week. Thus, this schedule both maintains a consistent rate of response and is pocketbook friendly. Finally, this schedule is resistant to extinction; if the parents were to stop providing reinforcement for bed making due to a temporary economic hardship, bed making would continue unabated. The VI 7-day schedule, then, is the best choice to employ. 70. Primary reinforcers help satisfy biological needs or desires, while secondary reinforcers are those that derive their effectiveness from their associations with primary reinforcers through classical conditioning. Examples of primary reinforcers include food, drinks, comfort, shelter, warmth, and sexual activity. Examples of secondary reinforcers include money, verbal approval, and trophies. 71. The answer should provide the following information: (1) In a typical study investigating implicit learning using an artificial grammar, participants are given strings of letters (e.g., VXJJ) labeled as either grammatically correct or grammatically incorrect. Critically, participants are not told the grammatical rules of the language. They are simply shown exemplars of correct and incorrect uses of grammar. (2) After being exposed to a number of exemplars, participants are shown new strings of letters and asked to classify them as grammatically correct or incorrect. Participants usually do reasonably well on this task. (3) Although participants can correctly classify novel exemplars as grammatically correct or incorrect, they cannot articulate the grammatical rules of the language. This finding has been interpreted as evidence of implicit learning.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 72. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Conditioned responses often are reflexive in nature, whereas operant responses are seemingly purposive. Conditioned responses are reactions to stimuli that evoke them. Operant responses are active attempts to procure reinforcers. (2) In classical conditioning, initially neutral stimuli acquire meaning through their association with unconditioned stimuli that naturally elicit the response. Thereafter, these conditioned stimuli can elicit the response. In operant conditioning, stimuli preceding the response (i.e., discriminative stimuli) do not elicit the response in a reflexive sense. Instead, they provide context that signals when or how a response will produce a reinforcer. (3) Operant behavior is, by definition, behavior controlled by its consequences. Consequences of behavior are not involved in classical conditioning. For example, in Pavlov's preparation, dogs do not have to salivate at the sound of a tone to receive the food. The food is coming one way or another. The behavior of Pavlov's dogs is under the control of the preceding CS. The lever-pressing behavior of Skinner's rats, in contrast, is controlled by consequences. If the lever press produces a food pellet, they will press again. Note that the food pellet will be presented only if the animal presses the lever. 73. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Humans readily learn through observation. Even toddlers will imitate tool use. Not only will they use the tool, but they will imitate how the model used the tool. (2) Chimpanzees raised by their mothers in the wild also will learn tool use by observing a human model. While they will use the tool, they tend not to imitate the specific actions of the model. (3) Chimpanzees raised around humans better imitate the specific actions of human models. 74. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The US is the virus, and the UR is the stomach sickness. (2) The CS is the smell or taste of the anchovies. Because Bob has eaten pizza many times and has never gotten sick, it would be difficult to form a taste aversion to the pizza. The anchovies, however, are new to Bob. For evolutionary reasons, it is fairly easy to condition a taste aversion to a new food. If our ancestors ate a particular food frequently and got sick one time, it probably wasn't due to that food. If, on the other hand, they ate a new food and got sick, there's a good chance that the food was the culprit. (3) The CR probably would take the form of stomach queasiness from the smell of anchovies. Bob would avoid anchovies in the future. (4) Note that this occurs, even though the anchovies were not the reason that Bob got sick! (5) If Bob were a pigeon, the sight of anchovies, instead of their smell, would elicit the CR. Birds are biologically prepared to form sight–sickness associations, whereas mammals are biologically prepared to form taste/smell–sickness associations. 75. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The US is the drug (e.g., heroin), and the UR is a direct effect of the drug on the body (e.g., respiratory depression). (2) Environmental contexts normally associated with drug taking (e.g., a room, a house, a friend) become CS due to their pairing with the drug. They reliably predict that the drug is forthcoming. Over time, they will come to elicit a CR that is compensatory in nature. For example, if the UR is respiratory depression, the CR would be an increase in respiration. A compensatory CR thus prepares the body for the drug and helps the body maintain homeostasis. (3) Because these drug cues elicit bodily reactions in opposition to the drug, more of the drug is needed to obtain a similar high. This results in drug tolerance. Users must take large amounts of the drug to overcome the compensatory CR. (4) If a user with a well-developed drug tolerance takes heroin in a different setting, overdose may occur. The changed setting degrades or eliminates the CS. If there are no (or reduced) drug cues, then the compensatory CR will not occur. The user takes the large dose normally needed to overcome the CR, but there is no CR present. As a result, the body is not prepared for a dose of heroin that is suddenly too large. Thus, the user may overdose on a dose of heroin that he or she normally can handle. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 76. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Shaping through successive approximation involves providing reinforcers for closer and closer approximations to the desired behavior. (2) First, provide reinforcement for any clockwise movement. Then provide reinforcement only if the dog engages in a quarter-clockwise turn. Then provide reinforcement only if the dog engages in a half-clockwise turn. Then provide reinforcement only if the dog engages in a three-quarters-clockwise turn. Finally, provide reinforcement only if the dog turns in a complete circle. 77. The answer should provide examples that take the following forms: (1) Positive reinforcement: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the presentation of a stimulus; the behavior is more likely to occur. (2) Negative reinforcement: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the removal of a stimulus; the behavior is more likely to occur. (3) Positive punishment: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the presentation of a stimulus; the behavior is less likely to occur. (4) Negative punishment: Behavior occurs; the consequence involves the removal of a stimulus; the behavior is less likely to occur. 78. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The brother's scream (US) was paired with handling the tarantula, eliciting a fear response (UR) in the girl. As a result, now the tarantula (CS) elicits fear (CR). (2) Generalization: After this acquisition, the CR now may occur to similar large or venomous spiders. (3) Discrimination: The girl, however, may not be afraid of spiders that look dissimilar to tarantulas, such as a daddy long leg. (4) Extinction: Suppose that one day the girl goes to the Science Center without her brother. A worker there shows her how to safely handle the tarantula and no one screams in terror. With some exposure, eventually her fear lessens and she is able to handle it. (5) Spontaneous recovery: After her fear response extinguishes, if she goes an extended period without seeing a tarantula, she may react with fear at some future point when she encounters one. 79. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Tolman gave three groups of rats access to a complex maze every day for more than 2 weeks. The first group received no reinforcement the entire time. The second group was given reinforcement every day as soon as they completed the maze. The third group was given no reinforcement for the first 10 days and regular reinforcement similar to the second group the remainder of the time. (2) The first group that never received reinforcement made a large number of errors each day and never showed improvement. The second group, which received daily reinforcement, made progressively fewer errors each day. These results are not surprising. The results from the third group are of theoretical interest. Over the first 10 days, these rats made a large number of errors and showed no improvement, exactly like the first group. After receiving just one reinforcement on day 11, however, their number of errors decreased dramatically on day 12, their performance resembled the day 12 performance of the second group. The second group had been receiving reinforcement and gradually made fewer errors each day. The fact that the third group immediately mastered the maze and did not start learning gradually (similar to group 2) suggests that this group (and group 1 for that matter) had been learning gradually from day 1. Tolman termed this latent learning, which is defined as a condition in which something is learned but is not manifested as a behavioral change until sometime in the future. The reason the rats not receiving reinforcement did not show a decrease in errors was not because they weren't learning the maze; it was because there was no incentive to make fewer errors! As soon as an incentive was given, the rats displayed the effects of latent learning.

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Chap 07_5e _ TF + Essay 80. The answer should provide the following information: (1) In both cases, extinction ultimately will result in a decrease (or elimination) of the target response. (2) In classical conditioning, extinction involves repeatedly presenting the CS in the absence of the US. Using Pavlov's procedure, on every trial, the tone is presented but is not followed by the food. With repeated tone–nothing pairings, the dog will stop salivating to the sound of the tone. (3) In operant conditioning, extinction involves no longer delivering the reinforcement that had previously been maintaining the response. For example, in rats pressing levers for food pellets, extinction would be arranged by disconnecting the food-pellet dispenser. Lever presses would no longer produce food. Under these circumstances, rats will eventually stop pressing the lever. 81. Skinner demonstrated that the presentation of a reinforcing stimulus strengthens the behavior that immediately precedes it. Evolutionary psychologists studying rats running in T mazes discovered that if a rat found food in one arm of the T maze on the first trial of the day, it typically ran down the other arm on the very next trial. Behaviorists would have predicted that reinforcement in one arm should increase the likelihood of the rats turning in that same direction, not reduce it. However, rats are foragers and have evolved to move around in their environment searching for food. If the rat finds food in the right arm of the T maze, the obvious next step is to look in the left arm! Rats continue to systematically go from arm to arm collecting food because they have well-developed spatial representations that allow them to search their environment effectively. This work shows that some species are biologically predisposed to learn some things more readily than others. 82. You should tell your classmate: (1) Many study techniques students frequently use, including rereading, massed practice (cramming), summarizing, highlighting, and using imagery or mnemonic devices have little utility. (2) Two particularly effective techniques are distributed practice and practice testing. Distributed practice spreads out study over time, as opposed to cramming the material (massed practice). Practice testing involves taking practice tests of the to-be-learned material and is effective because actively retrieving an item from memory during a test improves subsequent retention of that item more efficiently than simply studying it again.

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Chap 08_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Ellen has trouble controlling her impulses to eat, especially at night. Once she starts, she cannot stop. Often, she will eat an entire pizza or gallon of ice cream before bed. She does not try to compensate for this excess caloric consumption; as such, she is gaining weight. Ellen probably suffers from: a. binge eating disorder. b. impaired thyroid activity. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. 2. Which statement does NOT present a reason Walter Cannon and Philip Bard disagreed with the James– Lange theory? a. The reaction of bodily responses is too slow to account for the rapid onset of emotional experience. b. We often have trouble detecting differences in our own bodily responses, so we are not likely to experience these changes as emotion. c. Because nonemotional stimuli can trigger bodily responses, we should feel emotions when we have a fever. d. Emotions may occur in the absence of physiological arousal, so emotions should be felt continuously. 3. Shavonda is preparing her new restaurant for opening. She values giving her customers many choices but would like to encourage them to choose the healthiest options possible. One behavioral intervention she could choose would be to: a. give customers small forks. b. arrange the menu so that sugary soft drinks are in the middle of the page. c. cut the unhealthy food into smaller pieces for the customers. d. place unhealthy foods closer than healthy foods on the buffet. 4. Which statement about the facial feedback hypothesis is FALSE? a. Making the long e sound can make you feel happier. b. Holding a pencil with your teeth can make you feel happier. c. Smiling may cause you to feel happier. d. Holding a pencil with your lips can make you feel happier. 5. A researcher gives a subject a drug that blocks the body's ability to increase heart rate, respiration, and adrenaline in response to stimuli. The James–Lange theory would predict that: a. the subject experiences no emotions. b. the subject can experience only negative-valence emotions. c. the subject can experience only high-arousal emotions. d. all emotions could still be experienced by the subject.

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Chap 08_5e 6. Which statement is FALSE about human psychological motivation? a. Only humans appear to have psychological motivations. b. A complete list of 20 psychological motivations has been established. c. Humans crave friendship, respect, security, and wisdom. d. Psychological motivations are as powerful as biological motivations. 7. When the lateral hypothalamus is destroyed, rats will: a. press a bar for food to the point of exhaustion. b. overeat to the point of regurgitation. c. starve to death in a cage full of food. d. eat excessive amounts of sugary food but avoid foods high in protein. 8. The United States is: a. one of the most culturally diverse nations on earth. b. a country with few communication challenges. c. a country with no universal emotional expressions. d. one of the least culturally diverse nations on earth. 9. Badr is of the Islamic faith. Terror management theory suggests that when reminded of his own mortality, Badr probably will: a. convert to Christianity. b. abandon religion entirely. c. grow stronger in his Islamic faith. d. deny the inevitability of his own physical death. 10. All of these are true regarding lies EXCEPT they: a. often lack expressions of spontaneous correction and self-doubt. b. usually are not as detailed as a truthful statement. c. are given with little hesitation after the question is asked. d. are spoken more slowly than a true statement. 11. What do these five emotions have in common: happiness, sadness, fear, anger, and disgust? a. They are expressed very differently in Eastern and Western cultures. b. They are universally reflected in facial expressions. c. They are learned within the first 3 years of life. d. They all have a positive valence.

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Chap 08_5e 12. In terms of emotion regulation, amygdala is to cortex as _____ is to _____. a. gas pedal; brakes b. brakes; gas pedal c. red light; green light d. inhibitor; excitor 13. Which statement presents evidence for the notion that some facial displays are universal? a. Humans have facial and eye muscles that allow them to smile. b. Individuals with congenital blindness also smile when they are happy. c. All children show the same angry face when they taste bitter foods. d. Individuals in isolated tribes are equally good at identifying emotional expressions made by members of their own group and members of other cultures. 14. When a person feels "touched" or "moved to tears," they are experiencing _____, which has no name in the English language. a. popoki b. gatto c. Sanskrit d. kama muta 15. Which psychologist is associated with a drive reduction account of motivation? a. James b. Hull c. Watson d. Maslow 16. Ten-year-old Marla loves to read, whether she is rewarded for it or not. This is an example of: a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. unconscious motivation. d. motivated drive reduction. 17. According to Hull, disequilibrium produces a need, also called a(n): a. drive. b. instinct. c. display rule. d. hedonic principle.

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Chap 08_5e 18. After binging and consuming an entire pizza, Kristin takes a number of laxatives so that she purges the calories the next morning. Kristin routinely does this and probably suffers from: a. binge eating disorder. b. impaired thyroid activity. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. 19. People have reported _____ strategies used for emotion regulation. a. a few b. more than 1,000 different c. 5 basic d. only 100 different 20. Trevor tends to think in terms of preventing loss. He can be said to: a. experience loss aversion. b. be intrinsically motivated. c. have unconscious motivations. d. experience the need for achievement. 21. Changing one's emotional experience by changing the way one thinks about the emotion-eliciting stimulus is referred to as: a. affect labeling. b. displacement. c. reappraisal. d. suppression. 22. America's most damaging and common eating-related problem is: a. high-protein diets. b. anorexia nervosa. c. bulimia nervosa. d. obesity. 23. Which statement about obesity is true? a. Overeating is the only cause of obesity. b. There is a strong genetic component to obesity. c. People who are obese respond quickly to the chemical signal that tells the brain to shut hunger off. d. Obesity is associated with high self-esteem.

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Chap 08_5e 24. An internal state caused by physiological needs is called a(n): a. drive. b. instinct. c. need. d. hedonic principle. 25. Putting one's feelings into words is termed _____ and has been demonstrated to be an _____ technique for emotion regulation. a. affect labeling; effective b. affect labeling; ineffective c. reappraisal; effective d. reappraisal; ineffective 26. Who is MOST at risk for anorexia? a. Ryan, a 16-year-old on the swim team b. Lauren, a 45-year-old who has problems controlling her impulses c. Melissa, a 16-year-old perfectionist who makes top grades in all her classes d. Adam, a 30-year-old salesman who is looking for a serious relationship 27. Shazia is known to act on the spur of the moment, which indicates strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic 28. A(n) _____ motivation encourages taking actions that lead to a reward. a. need-based b. emotion-based c. intrinsic d. extrinsic 29. The idea that traits that were adaptive in an ancestral environment may be maladaptive in a modern environment is referred to as: a. equilibrium. b. drive reduction. c. reappraisal. d. evolutionary mismatch.

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Chap 08_5e 30. Maive is interviewing for a job. She is required to undergo psychological testing. During the testing, the psychologist noted many of her responses indicated emotionality of anger and frustration. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive 31. Which of these emotions can be characterized as both low in arousal and positive in valence? a. satisfied and relaxed b. sad and bored c. frustrated and sleepy d. excited and calm 32. Weight gain is associated with an increase in the _____ of fat cells. Weight loss is associated with a decrease in the _____ of fat cells. a. number; size b. number and size; size c. number and size; number d. size; size 33. Which of these nations has low cultural diversity? a. Japan b. Canada c. Brazil d. Australia 34. According to the _____ theory, a reinforcement is any substance or commodity in the environment that satisfies a need, which reduces a drive. a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. two-factor d. drive-reduction

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Chap 08_5e 35. Damon, in a fit of road rage, runs another motorist off the road. Approaching the car, Damon is incensed and starts screaming at the other driver. Consistent with the facial feedback hypothesis, Damon perceives the other driver to be: a. hostile. b. terrified. c. surprised. d. upset. 36. Janice is reminded of her own mortality when she attends the funeral of an acquaintance. The next day, she begins to work toward leaving a positive legacy for her children. What is this an example of? a. loss avoidance b. avoidance motivation c. terror management theory d. universality perspective 37. Research suggests that, all else being equal, _____ tend to be more powerful than are _____. a. approach motivations; avoidance motivations b. extrinsic motivations; intrinsic motivations c. avoidance motivations; approach motivations d. rewards; punishments 38. Jennifer is feeling afraid. This emotion is _____ in terms of arousal and has a _____ valence. a. high; positive b. low; positive c. low; negative d. high; negative 39. _____ is a hormone produced in the stomach that initiates hunger. a. Oxytocin b. Ghrelin c. Insulin d. Adrenaline 40. Jake stumbles onto a snake while hiking in the woods. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion, he will first _____ and then _____. a. experience fear; cognitively process the sighting b. cognitively process the sighting; experience fear c. experience fear; react physiologically d. react physiologically; experience fear

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Chap 08_5e 41. Recent research suggests that the emotional meaning of facial expressions across cultures is: a. entirely consistent, illustrating the universality of emotion. b. mostly consistent but not perfect. c. consistent at levels slightly greater than chance. d. mostly consistent only in Western cultures. 42. Display rules are the norm for the: a. appraisals of emotions. b. appropriate expression of emotion. c. valence of emotions. d. extent to which people deceive others. 43. Mice tend to prefer dark, enclosed spaces, while more open and brightly lit spaces are anxiety provoking. Consistent with approach and avoidance motivation, mice will _____ the dark corner of a box and _____ the dimly lit center of the same box. a. avoid; approach b. approach; approach c. avoid; avoid d. approach; avoid 44. Which statement is NOT true regarding reappraisal? a. Reappraisal is a skill that can be learned. b. Some people are naturally better at reappraisal than others. c. People who are good at reappraisal are physically healthier. d. People who are good at reappraisal are more compassionate toward those who are suffering. 45. The rate at which the body uses energy is called: a. digestion. b. absorption. c. metabolism. d. rumination. 46. Chen describes the following sequence of events: He sees a spider, which makes his heart pound dramatically, and he is immediately subjected to a feeling of intense fear. Which theory supports Chen's account of events? a. Cannon–Bard theory of emotion b. James–Lange theory of emotion c. Darwin's theory of emotion d. Walter–Cannon theory of emotion

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Chap 08_5e 47. Dr. McCully believes that subjective emotional states are determined by the labels people attach to their internal feelings of arousal. She is MOST likely to subscribe to the _____ theory of emotion. a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. two-factor d. Skinner–Watson 48. Which muscles crinkle the corners of the eyes when smiling? a. orbicularis oculi muscles b. kama muta muscles c. zygomaticus major muscles d. unreliable muscles 49. The mimicry of someone else's facial expressions can allow us to experience the same emotions they signify and understand what our partners are feeling. Which theory is in line with this description? a. facial feedback hypothesis b. facial feedforward hypothesis c. two-factor theory of emotion d. universality hypothesis 50. When his mother repeatedly asks him about being home on time, Rudy finds that he feels better emotionally if he reappraises the situation by: a. returning home early. b. ignoring her question. c. interpreting her question as a sign of caring. d. suppressing his frustration. 51. The _____ principle is the claim that individuals are motivated to seek pleasure and avoid pain. a. reward b. hedonic c. drive-reduction d. pleasure 52. Because the amygdala receives information from the thalamus before it receives information from the cortex, humans: a. are hard-wired to fear animals such as snakes. b. can be afraid of something without knowing exactly what it is. c. would be best served by delaying important decisions for 24 hours. d. will have "fast" emotional responses only to life-and-death situations.

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Chap 08_5e 53. Alyce is asked to give a presentation on theories of emotion to her psychology class. As she walks to the front of the classroom, her heart begins to beat faster. A few seconds later, she feels nervous. This sequence of events is MOST consistent with which theory of emotion? a. universality hypothesis b. James–Lange theory c. facial feedback hypothesis d. two-factor theory 54. Turning hunger on is to turning hunger off as: a. leptin is to ghrelin. b. leptin is to proteins. c. lateral hypothalamus is to ventromedial hypothalamus. d. lateral hypothalamus is to amygdala. 55. Consistent with the facial feedback hypothesis, when people are asked to wrinkle their noses, they: a. are more judgmental of others' actions. b. find odors more unpleasant. c. can better discriminate among a variety of pleasant-smelling odors. d. demonstrate superior recall of emotional memories. 56. An experimenter has trained a rat to distinguish between two contexts. Through previous learning, the rat has associated context A with an aversive shock and context B with a food reward. When given the opportunity to decide between which context to spend more time in, the rat spends more time in context B due to: a. approach motivation. b. avoidance motivation. c. negative punishment. d. operant learning. 57. A system that seeks equilibrium, when confronted with an increase in a particular state, will: a. initiate processes to further enhance that state. b. initiate processes to decrease that state. c. shut down. d. attempt to identify the causes of the enhanced state. 58. An observable sign of an emotional state is referred to as an emotional: a. expression. b. appraisal. c. valence. d. display rule.

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Chap 08_5e 59. Isa is a sexually active college student. She MOST likely would give which reason for choosing to have sex? a. "It's fun." b. "I wanted to please my partner." c. "I was attracted to the person." d. "I felt horny." 60. Which statement is true about the prevalence of obesity over the past few decades? a. While obesity rates in the United States are increasing, rates in the rest of the world are decreasing. b. No country has reduced its obesity rate in the past three decades. c. Very few of today's American children will be obese by the time they are 35 years old. d. Rates of obesity have increased for females but not males. 61. The drive to eat is referred to as a. hunger. b. thirst. c. homeostasis. d. an instinct. 62. _____ is an evaluation of the emotion-relevant aspects of a particular stimulus. a. Appraisal b. Labeling c. Regulation d. Valence 63. _____ stimulates eating, while _____ suppresses it. a. Leptin; ghrelin b. Leptin; glucagon c. An anorexigenic signal; an orexigenic signal d. An orexigenic signal; an anorexigenic signal 64. Which statement is true about display rules? a. Display rules are culture specific. b. People can recognize facial expressions of individuals in other cultures better than their own. c. People's attempts to obey display rules always work. d. Japanese students never show expressions of disgust.

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Chap 08_5e 65. Inhibiting the outward signs of emotion is termed _____ and has been demonstrated to be an _____ technique for emotion regulation. a. suppression; effective b. suppression; ineffective c. repression; effective d. repression; ineffective 66. Which statement about specific emotions and physiological reactivity is true? a. All emotions show the same basic pattern of physiological reactivity. b. Anger produces the largest decrease in finger temperature. c. Fear and disgust produce a higher galvanic skin response (sweating) than does sadness or anger. d. Anger, fear, and sadness produce a lower heart rate than does disgust. 67. The neuronal wiring between the thalamus and the amygdala allows us to: a. recognize the location of a stimulus. b. make rapid decisions about our environment without having to wait for cortical input. c. analyze the identity and importance of the stimulus. d. compare the visual image of the stimulus with known threat images. 68. A person whose body mass index (BMI) is more than _____ would be defined as obese. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 69. Which statement about polygraph lie detection is FALSE? a. Polygraphs can detect lies with greater accuracy than can chance. b. Lie detectors are slightly worse than are humans at detecting when people are lying. c. Polygraphs measure physiological responses that are associated with stress. d. Polygraphs have an error rate that is high enough to make them unreliable. 70. A person injected with ghrelin might be expected to: a. become extremely thirsty but not necessarily hungry. b. shun food, even after going several days without it. c. become intensely hungry. d. experience slight increases in hunger accompanied by an insatiable thirst.

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Chap 08_5e 71. Darwin's universality hypothesis is supported by scientific studies in which: a. animals accurately react to the emotional expressions of other animals. b. people accurately judge the emotional expressions of members of other cultures. c. all individuals react with fear when they see a spider. d. people find it difficult to identify anger outside their own culture. 72. Which statement does NOT describe an advantage of intrinsic motivation? a. It is effective at motivating people to do something that they otherwise would not do. b. People work harder when intrinsically motivated. c. People enjoy what they do more when intrinsically motivated. d. It is associated with greater creativity while engaged in the behavior. 73. Peyton feels comfortable rolling her eyes at a friend's inappropriate remark, but when her grandmother makes an inappropriate remark, Peyton fakes a smile. Peyton is following: a. display rules. b. the facial feedback hypothesis. c. evolutionary mismatch. d. the universality hypothesis. 74. Which of these involves inhibiting the outward signs of an emotion? a. affect labeling b. displacement c. reappraisal d. suppression 75. The need for achievement is classified as a(n) _____ motivation. a. extrinsic b. intrinsic c. conscious d. unconscious 76. Who conducted pioneering research on the "fast" and "slow" emotional pathways? a. Jerome Singer b. Walter Cannon c. Joseph LeDoux d. Carl Lange

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Chap 08_5e 77. Parents decide to implement the following plan to reduce swearing in their two adolescent daughters. Each time a girl swears, she is fined a penny. Results from the motivation literature suggest that this strategy is likely to _____ because _____. a. succeed; pennies add up to large fines over time b. succeed; it provides an extrinsic reason not to swear c. fail; it decreases the intrinsic reinforcement associated with saying swear words d. fail; mild threats can actually increase the desirability of taboo behavior 78. Michelle is smiling, and the corners of her mouth are raised. Which muscles are responsible for this? a. orbicularis oculi muscles b. kama muta muscles c. zygomaticus major muscles d. unreliable muscles 79. Shelley agrees with the idea that "I go out of my way to get things I want." This indicates that she has a strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic 80. Juan is smiling, and the corners of his eyes are crinkled. Which muscles are responsible for this? a. orbicularis oculi muscles b. kama muta muscles c. zygomaticus major muscles d. unreliable muscles 81. As a result of neurological damage from a stroke, Harold can no longer smile. As a result, Harold: a. experiences happiness but cannot easily express it. b. can express happiness equally well despite the fact that he cannot experience it. c. can feel happiness but cannot verbalize it. d. has problems experiencing happiness. 82. Which question would NOT be asked when appraising an event? a. Can I change this? b. Does this matter? c. What is my emotion? d. Can I handle this?

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Chap 08_5e 83. As mentioned in the text, Tang and colleagues (2014) showed participants a variety of food items and asked them how much money they would pay to eat each item. Although participants could not accurately estimate the caloric content of the food items, the researchers found the correlation between actual caloric content and amount willing to pay was: a. essentially zero. b. moderate and positive. c. weak and negative. d. strong and negative. 84. Those who tend to think in terms of achieving gains can be said to: a. have conscious motivations. b. be intrinsically motivated. c. be avoidance focused. d. have approach motivations. 85. Gisela has anorexia. It is NOT likely that she can be described as: a. high achieving. b. impulsive. c. a perfectionist. d. having a distorted body image. 86. Which of these is the BEST strategy for emotion regulation? a. suppression b. inhibition c. reappraisal d. masking 87. A shared set of beliefs about what is good, right, and true is known as: a. a cultural worldview. b. the universality perspective. c. an approach orientation. d. mortality salience. 88. Researchers at a university are studying impulsivity in children. They ask each child to choose between receiving a small piece of chocolate right away or five chocolate bars after a week. What are the researchers studying? a. intrinsic motivation b. unconscious decision making c. conscious decision making d. delay gratification Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 89. The primary difference between the two-factor theory and James–Lange theory of emotion is that the twofactor theory emphasizes: a. physiological changes. b. cognitive interpretations. c. overt behaviors. d. classical conditioning. 90. Research indicates that the number-one reason given for deciding to have sex with a person among both male and female college students is: a. "It's fun." b. "It feels good." c. "I was attracted to the person." d. "I realized that I was in love." 91. According to the hedonic principle, we are likely to: a. ignore the information provided to us by emotion. b. spend more time with people we enjoy being around. c. confront painful memories, even if doing so does not have tangible benefits. d. choose physically stimulating activities over psychologically stimulating activities. 92. The fact that many first dates at exciting sporting events blossom into romantic relationships is BEST predicted by the: a. James–Lange theory. b. facial feedback hypothesis. c. universality hypothesis. d. two-factor theory. 93. Salim believes that stimuli trigger a general state of physiological arousal that becomes interpreted as a specific emotion. This belief adheres to the _____ theory. a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Lange c. Cannon–Bard d. two-factor 94. Armin is browsing the Internet when he comes across a picture of a person eating a spider. He immediately closes his eyes and turns his head away from the computer. This is an example of a(n) _____ tendency. a. action b. appraisal c. reaction d. reappraisal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 95. The tendency to care more about avoiding losses than about achieving equal-size gains is termed: a. impulsivity. b. loss aversion. c. fear of success. d. drive reduction. 96. Which statement about why behaviorists rejected instincts is NOT true? a. Behaviorists believed there was no need to hypothesize about internal states. b. Behaviorists believed complex behaviors were learned. c. Behaviorists did not believe in hard-wired tendencies. d. Behaviorists did not believe in goal-directed behavior. 97. Research suggests that in _____ nations, individuals follow different display rules, so to communicate with one another, they have learned to use expressions that are perfectly clear. a. less diverse b. more diverse c. North American d. South American 98. Display rules are the norm for the: a. duration of time society allows a person to grieve. b. appropriate expression of emotion. c. development of emotional expression with age. d. reinforcement of emotional behavior. 99. Javier is opening a small grocery store and would like to encourage customers to bring their own reusable grocery bags. Which of these solutions would BEST encourage customers to use their own bags? a. verbally encourage customers to reuse bags b. provide a 5-cent credit to customers who reuse bags c. charge customers a 5-cent tax per new bag used d. Neither a credit nor a tax are effective at encouraging customers to use bags. 100. Deci (1971) studied college students intrinsically motivated to complete a puzzle. Some participants were paid for completing the puzzle, and others were not. Relative to the students who were not paid, the students who received payment were: a. more likely to report enjoying the puzzle. b. more likely to solve the puzzle. c. less likely to solve the puzzle. d. less likely to play with the puzzle after the study.

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Chap 08_5e 101. Which brain structure plays the MOST critical role in the appraisal of emotions? a. cerebellum b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. sensorimotor cortex 102. Mani is walking in the woods when he stumbles upon a large snake. His brain transmits information about the snake to the _____ through two routes, the "fast" pathway and the "slow" pathway. a. frontal lobe b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. pituitary gland 103. Most people are not good at estimating how many calories are in common food items. Recently, as mentioned in the text, Tang and colleagues (2014) showed participants a variety of food items and asked these participants to estimate their caloric content. The correlation between these measures was found to be: a. essentially zero. b. weak and positive. c. weak and negative. d. strong and negative. 104. Research has suggested that _____ may be the hormonal basis of the sex drive in women, and _____ may be the hormonal basis of the sex drive in men. a. estrogen; estrogen b. estrogen; testosterone c. testosterone; testosterone d. testosterone; estrogen 105. Which statement presents evidence that supports the James–Lange theory? a. After embarrassment, blushing takes 15–30 seconds to occur. b. When you get hot, your heart naturally starts to beat faster, but you don't feel afraid. c. Both excitement and fear are associated with rapid heartbeat. d. Your heart beats faster when you see a bear and feel fear. 106. Frustrated by the outcome of a political election, Cat decides to write an essay to herself describing her feelings. Cat is employing the emotion regulation technique of: a. affect labeling. b. displacement. c. reappraisal. d. suppression. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 107. According to terror management theory, which factor would NOT be a cultural worldview? a. Christianity b. a public opinion poll on preference between two presidential candidates c. shared beliefs about what is right and wrong d. shared hopes of a symbolic immortality held even by atheists 108. Which emotion has low arousal and negative valence? a. depression b. happiness c. relaxed d. content 109. Beneath the skin of our faces lie muscles that can allow us to produce more than _____ unique configurations. a. 13 b. 240 c. 2,000 d. 10,000 110. At a family gathering, Sharif finished a huge meal followed by double servings of dessert. Afterward he finished the second serving of dessert, it's likely that his body sent satiety signals to his: a. lateral hypothalamus. b. thalamus. c. ventromedial hypothalamus. d. cerebellum. 111. When an action is easy, we tend to be more aware of _____ motivations. a. general b. specific c. implicit d. explicit 112. Many studies have shown that "small nudges" to lose weight, such as placing higher caloric items further away on the salad bar: a. result in rapid weight loss. b. are ineffective at inducing weight loss. c. result in meaningful weight loss over time. d. result in weight gain if people judge the nudge negatively.

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Chap 08_5e 113. Erich is interviewing for a job. He is required to undergo psychological testing. During the testing, the psychologist noted many of his responses indicated that he was bored and perhaps depressed. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive 114. Joe is roughhousing with his 4-year-old son, wrestling with him and tickling him. A few minutes after playing, his son hugs him and says, "I love you." This expression of emotion is BEST predicted by which theory of emotion? a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Lange c. Cannon–Bard d. two-factor 115. What was the MOST important finding related to emotion that came from Klüver and Bucy's research with monkeys? a. The amygdala plays a role in the emotion of fear. b. The frontal lobe plays a role in the emotion of fear. c. The amygdala plays a role in the emotion of happiness. d. The frontal lobe plays a role in the emotion of happiness. 116. An advantage of extrinsic motivation to increase a behavior is that it: a. increases reports of liking the behavior, even after rewards are discontinued. b. is consistent with societal views that we should do what we love. c. allows us to engage in things that are not rewarding in the present but that may nonetheless be beneficial. d. results in a greater intrinsic motivation to engage in that behavior. 117. According to the facial feedback hypothesis: a. emotional expressions can cause emotional experiences. b. emotional experiences produce emotional expressions. c. facial expressions are poor indicators of emotional experience. d. facial expressions are symbols that provide others with information about an individual's emotional state.

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Chap 08_5e 118. Jason seeks food at 2 a.m., which is when he feels hungry. Based on the notion of equilibrium, hunger would be considered a(n) _____ in this instance. a. drive b. instinct c. reinforcer d. want 119. Which statement is true regarding appraisals? a. Appraisals are manifested following a surge of emotions that are high in arousal. b. Appraisals are made consciously and precede both emotions and action tendencies. c. Emotions are responses to appraisals that can vary between two individuals and result in varying emotional reactions when they witness the same event. d. Emotional responses and appraisals do not differ culturally due to our interpretations of events and stimuli being consistent across groups. 120. Which theory suggests that the primary motivation for all organisms is to reduce their drives? a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. two-factor d. drive-reduction 121. The James–Lange theory of emotion asserts that you will not experience _____ without first experiencing _____. a. physiological activity; emotion b. interpretation of an event; emotion c. emotion; interpretation of an event d. emotion; physiological activity 122. Liz chooses activities that give her pleasure. However, she regularly submits to painful allergy shots. How does the hedonic principle BEST explain this apparent contradiction? a. The pleasure of receiving relief from allergies outweighs the pain of having the shots. b. Liz has built up a tolerance to the injections and no longer feels the pain. c. The pain of the injections outweighs the pleasure of receiving relief from allergies. d. The pain from the injection provides useful information about the quality of Liz's day.

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Chap 08_5e 123. While on an expedition in the jungle, your party is captured by a group of people who have never had contact with the outside world, cannot read or write, converse in a language that you do not recognize, and are pointing sharp spears at you. What is the BEST way of communicating that you are not a threat? a. trying to converse in sign language b. holding your hands up over your head c. smiling at them d. drawing a "peace" sign in the dirt 124. Dr. Margo is a therapist who helps clients with emotional problems. She is likely to teach which skill to her clients? a. affect labeling b. displacement c. reappraisal d. suppression 125. After a stroke, Terry doesn't feel fear or anger, and is poor at recognizing expressions of those emotions in others. Terry likely suffered damage to his: a. occipital cortex. b. amygdala. c. hippocampus. d. somatosensory cortex. 126. Which statement presents a key difference in distinguishing between the James–Lange theory and the twofactor theory of emotion? a. The James–Lange theory states that specific bodily responses result in a unique emotion, while the two-factor theory suggests that bodily responses do not determine the resulting emotion. b. The James–Lange theory states that bodily responses do not determine the resulting emotion, while the two-factor theory suggests that specific bodily responses result in a unique emotion. c. The James–Lange theory suggests that a single bodily response can give rise to different emotional experiences, while the two-factor theory suggests that a specific set of bodily responses correspond to a unique emotional experience. d. The James–Lange theory suggests that a specific set of bodily responses correspond to a unique emotional experience, while the two-factor theory suggests that a single bodily response can give rise to different emotional experiences. 127. In nations with _____ cultural diversity, people follow different sets of _____. a. less; motivations b. greater; rules of communication c. less; emotions d. no; display rules Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 128. If given the opportunity to bet on a coin flip that would pay them $100 if they are right and cost them $80 if they are wrong, most people _____ take the bet because _____. a. will; the odds are stacked in their favour b. will; the majority of people like to gamble c. will not; they will lose 50% of the time d. will not; losing $80 feels worse than does winning $100 129. Existential terror deals with the: a. fear of marriage. b. inevitability of death. c. anxiety associated with sex. d. horrors associated with war. 130. _____ refers to conscious or unconscious evaluations and interpretations of the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus or event. a. Appraisal b. Reappraisal c. Action d. Reaction 131. Hormones involved in sexual interest and in the changes of puberty do NOT include: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. DHEA. d. ghrelin. 132. Which statement is NOT true regarding reappraisal? a. People tend to overutilize reappraisal. b. Some people are naturally better at reappraisal than others. c. People who are good at reappraisal are physically healthier. d. People who are good at reappraisal are less compassionate toward those who are suffering. 133. Anthony is interviewing for a job. He is required to undergo psychological testing. During the testing, the psychologist noted many of his responses indicated that he was relaxed and content. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive

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Chap 08_5e 134. James–Lange is to two-factor as _____ is/are to _____. a. cognitive processes; emotion b. specific; general c. autonomic reactivity; physiological activity d. general; specific 135. A readiness to engage in a specific set of emotion-related behaviors is known as _____ tendencies. a. action b. appraisal c. reaction d. reappraisal 136. According to the two-factor theory of emotion, the mind interprets: a. emotion. b. the importance of stimuli in the environment. c. specific physiological "fingerprints" associated with emotion. d. general physiological arousal. 137. Who first proposed the two-factor theory of emotion? a. James and Lange b. Cannon and Bard c. Schachter and Singer d. James and Cannon 138. Turning hunger on is to turning hunger off as: a. ghrelin is to leptin. b. leptin is to proteins. c. ventromedial hypothalamus is to lateral hypothalamus. d. lateral hypothalamus is to amygdala. 139. Appraisal is to _____ as amygdala is to _____. a. reappraisal; thalamus b. reappraisal; cortex c. suppression; cortex d. affect labeling; thalamus

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Chap 08_5e 140. Which statement is true of the brain's role in emotions? a. The brain has different "centers" for different emotions. b. The amygdala has a straightforward and well-understood role in producing fear. c. The amygdala can be highly active, even if an individual does not report feeling afraid. d. The amygdala does not play a role in emotions other than fear. 141. Professor Vincent agrees with the James–Lange theory of emotion and believes that emotional experiences are triggered by: a. conditioned stimuli. b. expectancies. c. physiological activity. d. high-valence events. 142. The main reason people often mimic the facial expressions of others is that: a. doing so has been reinforced from an early age. b. it facilitates the formation of like-minded groups. c. it lets others know that they feel the same way about an issue. d. it helps them figure out what others are feeling. 143. Children are generally described as having trouble inhibiting their emotional responses. Which factor could account for their lack of emotion regulation? a. The cortex in children is not yet fully developed, which results in a lack of inhibition of subcortical regions that regulate emotion, such as the amygdala. b. A child's cortex has too many projections to the amygdala, which leads to increased firing in the amygdala and therefore heightened emotional responses. c. The "fear center," or the amygdala, is not yet mature and therefore reacts prematurely, before the cortex has time to inhibit the response. d. Whether children are lacking in their abilities to regulate emotional responses has not yet been studied. 144. Evidence from modern research supports: a. the James–Lange theory. b. the two-factor theory. c. the belief that the truth lies somewhere between the James–Lange theory and two-factor theory. d. no aspects of either the James–Lange theory or two-factor theory. 145. A survival mechanism to avoid starvation that evolved in our ancestors is: a. a preference for green vegetables. b. ghrelin resistance. c. storing excess calories as fat. d. increasing the metabolism when hungry. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 146. Which term refers to how positive a feeling is? a. emotion b. arousal c. motivation d. valence 147. Jerry is feeling sad. To help Jerry feel better, his roommate Bob, who has just learned of the facial feedback hypothesis, tells Jerry to: a. open a thesaurus and slowly pronounce words that are synonyms of happiness. b. apply a cold compress to his face for 30 minutes. c. hold a pencil in his pursed mouth for a few minutes. d. force a smile every few minutes. 148. Charles Darwin developed the universality hypothesis, which suggests that: a. all individuals process emotions in the same way. b. appraisal of stimuli causes a universal reaction. c. all animals exhibit emotions. d. emotional expressions have the same meaning for everyone. 149. Holly is a severely underweight 7th-grade student who nonetheless believes she is fat. It is likely that Holly is suffering from: a. ghrelin deficiency syndrome. b. a metabolic disorder. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa. 150. _____ is a shared set of beliefs about what is good, right, and true. a. A cultural worldview b. The universality perspective c. An approach orientation d. Mortality salience 151. Which characteristic indicates to a trained observer that a person's smile is NOT sincere? a. The smile does not include a crinkling of the corners of the eyes. b. The smile engages the orbicularis oculi muscles. c. The smile lasts for about 3 seconds. d. The smile engages the zygomatic major muscle.

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Chap 08_5e 152. Which statement about leptin is true? a. It is secreted by fat cells. b. It signals the brain to switch hunger on. c. When injected into rats, it leads to obesity. d. It increases the reinforcing value of food. 153. Which strategies do people use to influence their own emotional experience? a. active appraisal b. cognitive control c. emotion regulation d. behavioral control 154. Which statement about ghrelin is FALSE? a. It is produced by the stomach. b. It signals the brain to turn hunger on. c. Its release impairs learning and memory while we are hungry. d. It causes those who are injected with it to eat about 30% more than usual. 155. Grocery stores in the Washington, DC, area attempted to get shoppers to reuse their bags either by providing a 5-cent credit for doing so or by imposing a 5-cent tax for not reusing their bags. Which statement about the results of this policy is true? a. The credit but not the tax significantly increased bag reuse. b. The tax but not the credit significantly increased bag reuse. c. Both manipulations equally increased bag reuse. d. Both manipulations significantly increased bag reuse, but the tax was more effective. 156. The _____ theory suggests that a specific set of bodily responses correspond to a unique emotional experience, while the _____ theory suggests that a single bodily response can give rise to different emotional experiences. a. James–Lange; two-factor b. two-factor; James–Lange c. James–Lange; Cannon–Bard d. Cannon–Bard; James–Lange 157. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion, an emotional experience is the _____ of specific physiological activity in the autonomic nervous system. a. cause b. trigger c. opponent-process d. consequence Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 158. Thematic Apperception Tests, in which participants are presented with drawings and asked to make up a story about each one, are used to study _____ motivation. a. implicit b. explicit c. conscious d. unconscious 159. Which emotion has high arousal and positive valence? a. astonishment b. contentment c. satisfaction d. relaxed 160. A rat pressing a lever occasionally produces a food pellet. The rat presses the lever hundreds of times, earning many food pellets. Hull would argue that lever pressing is reinforced by the: a. expectation of the food pellet. b. taste of the food pellet. c. feel of the depressed lever. d. reduction in hunger drive. 161. What is the significance of the "fast" versus "slow" pathway of fear? a. In both the slow and fast pathways, information about a potential threatening stimulus arrives at about the same time at the amygdala and cortex, but the cortex decodes this information more slowly. b. In the fast pathway, information about a potential threatening stimulus arrives at the cortex before it reaches the amygdala, but the cortex is slower to process information, resulting in a quicker bodily response by the amygdala. c. In the slow pathway, information about a potential threatening stimulus bypasses the amygdala to reach the cortex, which results in a slower response by the cortex relative to the amygdala. d. In the fast pathway, the thalamus sends information about a potential threatening stimulus to both the cortex and the amygdala, making information processing much quicker in comparison to the slow pathway. 162. Which emotion has low arousal and positive valence? a. calmness b. happiness c. astonishment d. excitement

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Chap 08_5e 163. Which emotion has high arousal and a negative valence? a. anger b. satisfaction c. calmness d. gladness 164. According to Abraham Maslow, _____ needs tend to be the first to be satisfied, while _____ needs tend to be the last. a. esteem; safety and security b. self-actualization; belongingness c. belongingness; physiological d. physiological; self-actualization 165. Which statement is true? a. The less diverse a culture is, the more easily the facial expressions of its members can be understood by members of other cultures. b. The less diverse a culture is, the easier it is for outgroup members to communicate and understand ingroup members. c. The more diverse a culture is, the more easily the facial expressions of its members can be understood by members of other cultures. d. The more diverse a culture is, the harder it is for its members to be understood when traveling to visit other cultures. 166. Once she became a professional basketball player making lots of money, Amy felt like playing was her job and was no longer fun. Despite this, she practices hard and was recently named to the All-Star team. It appears that her _____ motivation to play has been _____ by her salary. a. intrinsic; increased b. intrinsic; decreased c. conscious; increased d. extrinsic; decreased 167. Modern psychological theory views pleasure as: a. more important than is pain in motivating behavior. b. existing independently of pain. c. simply the absence of pain. d. an unconscious motivating force for many behaviors.

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Chap 08_5e 168. In terms of the reasons people report for having sex: a. men and women tend to be fairly similar. b. men are more likely than are women to provide "I was horny" as a reason. c. women are more likely than are men to provide "I was attracted to the person" as a reason. d. men rarely provide reasons associated with affection or love. 169. Which statement BEST reflects our current understanding of emotion and the body? a. Physiological arousal causes emotions. b. Cognitive processes, not physiological arousal, cause emotions. c. Bodily activity and mental activity are both the cause and consequence of emotional experiences. d. Bodily activity and mental activity both cause emotional experiences. 170. Regarding emotional expressions, which statement is FALSE? a. Individuals with congenital blindness exhibit deficits in emotional expression. b. Newborn infants exposed to a bitter taste make a face of disgust. c. People are quite accurate at judging the emotional expressions of members of other cultures. d. Preliterate cultures are just as accurate at gauging emotional expression as are literate cultures. 171. Terra has experienced damage to her _____. She is now less likely to be able to recognize expressions of fear and anger in the faces of other people. a. spinal cord b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. somatosensory cortex 172. With respect to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which statement is true? a. Physiological needs are toward the bottom of the pyramid, since they are more fundamental and basic. b. Safety and security needs are toward the bottom of the pyramid, since they are more fundamental and basic. c. Physiological needs are toward the top of the pyramid, since they are less fundamental. d. Safety and security needs are toward the top of the pyramid, since they are less fundamental. 173. Kayla took money that belonged to her sister and is now being asked about it. Kayla tells her sister that she did not take it, but her sister believes that she is lying because Kayla is: a. speaking rapidly. b. responding to questions with little detail. c. being pleasant and answering questions with conviction. d. responding quickly to questions.

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Chap 08_5e 174. Terror management theory is related to the idea that people respond to the knowledge of their own mortality by developing a(n): a. existential crisis. b. symbolic worldview. c. cultural worldview. d. morality dilemma. 175. A temporary state that includes unique subjective experiences and physiological activity, and that prepares people for action is a(n): a. emotion. b. drive. c. motivation. d. valence. 176. According to the hedonic principle, we are likely to: a. experience emotion in the same way as do our parents. b. see ourselves as overweight, even when we are of average weight. c. fill our schedules with difficult coursework. d. skip an early morning class if we already have an A in it. 177. Consistent with the facial feedback hypothesis, when people are asked to arch their brows, they find facts that they read in a textbook more: a. understandable. b. memorable. c. surprising. d. important. 178. Which statement is true about human psychological motivation? a. Human and nonhuman animals have psychological motivations. b. A complete list of 20 psychological motivations has been established. c. Humans crave friendship, respect, security, and wisdom. d. Psychological motivations are less powerful than biological motivations. 179. Our facial musculature allows for more than _____ unique configurations. a. 10 b. 16 c. 1,000 d. 10,000

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Chap 08_5e 180. Julian is morbidly obese. His body does not respond to signals to shut off hunger. Julian's body is _____ resistant. a. leptin b. ghrelin c. cortisol d. testosterone 181. Research has shown that _____ threats of punishment for a behavior may actually increase _____ motivation to engage in that behavior. a. intrinsic; intrinsic b. intrinsic; extrinsic c. extrinsic; intrinsic d. extrinsic; extrinsic 182. What is the role of the cortex in a fear response to a stimulus? a. It initiates the fear response. b. It is involved in the "fast pathway" that immediately triggers an increase in heart rate. c. It either stops or sustains the fear response once the threat has been identified. d. It is part of the "slow pathway" that opposes the "fast pathway." 183. An experimenter has trained a rat to distinguish between two contexts. Through previous learning, the rat has associated context A with an aversive shock and context B with a food reward. When given the opportunity to decide between which context to spend more time in, the rat spends less time in context A due to: a. approach motivation. b. avoidance motivation. c. negative punishment. d. operant learning. 184. Which statement regarding behaviorists and behavior based on instincts is NOT true? a. Behaviorists believed that an appeal to instincts did not constitute an explanation of behavior. b. Behaviorists focused on external, not internal, causes of behavior. c. Behaviorists believed that complex behavior was learned. d. Behaviorists rejected the theory of natural selection. 185. William James believed that different emotional experiences are the result of different: a. expectancies about a situation. b. bodily responses. c. interpretations of the same bodily response. d. histories of reinforcement and punishment.

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Chap 08_5e 186. Extrinsic motivation is illustrated when we: a. work at a job to earn money that can buy food. b. eat a French fry because it tastes good. c. exercise because it feels good. d. listen to music that we enjoy. 187. Janice is cleaning out her garage when she suddenly hears a loud noise. She instantly stops moving. This is an example of a(n) _____ tendency. a. action b. appraisal c. reaction d. reappraisal 188. An emotional _____ is an observable sign of an emotional state. a. expression b. appraisal c. valence d. display rule 189. In nations with little cultural diversity, people can communicate with _____ expressions because everyone knows and follows the same _____. a. subtle; display rules b. overt; facial expressions c. subtle; neutralizing rules d. overt; neutralizing rules 190. The emotions satisfied and relaxed are characterized as: a. high in arousal and negative in valence. b. low in arousal and positive in valence. c. moderate in arousal and negative in valence. d. moderate in arousal and positive in valence. 191. Risk taking is increased when choice scenarios are discussed in terms of: a. potential losses. b. potential gains. c. long-term versus short-term consequences. d. extrinsic motivation.

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Chap 08_5e 192. Which statement is true about display rules? a. Display rules are universal. b. People can recognize facial expressions of individuals in other cultures better than their own. c. People's attempts to obey display rules always work. d. In Japan, people tend to mask negative expressions when being observed. 193. The ventromedial hypothalamus in Mia's brain just received a signal. Mia probably: a. just finished eating dessert after a large meal. b. just saw a commercial featuring sugary desserts. c. just smelled a warm apple pie. d. has not eaten for a number of hours. 194. According to terror management theory, we manage our existential terror by creating: a. artificial approach-avoidance conflicts. b. extrinsic sources of motivation. c. cultural worldviews. d. prenuptial agreements. 195. Females of most mammalian species (among them dogs, cats, and rats) are MOST interested in sex when they: a. are ovulating. b. feel a strong urge to reproduce. c. have low testosterone and low estrogen levels. d. have high testosterone and low estrogen levels. 196. Appraisal is to reappraisal as: a. right is to wrong. b. amygdala is to cortex. c. thalamus is to cortex. d. fight is to flight. 197. Julie is constantly reminded of her mortality, so she works hard to stay on the straight and narrow and leave behind a legacy that will achieve symbolic immortality. What is this example reflective of? a. existential crisis b. terror management theory c. mortality hypothesis d. morality hypothesis

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Chap 08_5e 198. _____ are natural tendencies of members of a species to seek a particular goal, according to _____. a. Motives; Walter Cannon b. Drives; Charles Darwin c. Instincts; William James d. Impulses; Sigmund Freud 199. A(n) _____ motivation is a motivation to take actions that are themselves rewarding. a. need-based b. emotion-based c. intrinsic d. extrinsic 200. Angry because she has to endure a class she finds dreadfully boring, Susanna decided to use reappraisal to change her emotional state about the class. Which action BEST illustrates this process? a. pledging to go jogging each day after class b. thinking of the course as preparation for her future career c. making a date to meet friends for lunch before class d. forming a study group that meets weekly 201. Greta has been asked to inhibit imagined emotions, such as fear or happiness. This will lead to elevated activity of the _____ but decreased activity of the _____. a. amygdala; cortex b. hypothalamus; thalamus c. cortex; amygdala d. thalamus; hypothalamus 202. A problem with using rewards to motivate behavior is that rewards: a. increase the behavior rather than decreasing it. b. have been shown to not alter motivation levels. c. may undermine intrinsic motivation. d. may undermine extrinsic motivation. 203. Terrence immediately becomes upset when his basketball coach yells at him and pulls him off the court. While sitting on the bench a few minutes later, Terrence tells himself that the coach is only trying to make him a better basketball player. He begins to feel better, illustrating the process of: a. reappraisal. b. emotional communication. c. suppression. d. affect labeling.

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Chap 08_5e 204. Dr. Ramirez is conducting an experiment in which he gives participants an opportunity to bet on a coin flip that would pay them $300 if they are right and cost them $280 if they are wrong. He hypothesizes that most people _____ take the bet because _____. a. will; they expect the pleasure of winning $300 to be high. b. will; the majority of people like to gamble c. will not; they will lose 50% of the time d. will not; losing $280 feels worse than does winning $300 205. Which statement about polygraph lie detection is true? a. Polygraphs can detect lies with greater accuracy than can chance. b. Lie detectors are slightly worse than are humans at detecting when people are lying. c. Polygraphs are rarely used by businesses and government agencies. d. Polygraphs have an extremely low false-positive error rate. 206. Connor politely smiles when his professor makes a joke that is not very funny. Later, his friend tells the same joke and Connor responds with an arched brow instead. This is an example of: a. display rules. b. the facial feedback hypothesis. c. evolutionary mismatch. d. the universality hypothesis. 207. Dr. Faber explained to her students that holding a pen in their teeth would make them feel happier. What is the main reason for this phenomenon? a. Holding a pen in your teeth sends emotion signals to the pleasure center in the brain. b. Holding a pen in your teeth contracts the muscles of the face in the same way as a smile. c. Feeling silly with a pen in your mouth causes you to feel happier. d. Seeing others' reactions to the pen in your mouth causes you to feel happier. 208. With respect to individuals who are obese, which statement is FALSE? a. People of average weight who have relationships with someone who is obese are viewed negatively. b. On average, they earn 20% less than do those who are not obese. c. They have lower self-esteem than do those who are not obese. d. They have a lower quality of life than do those who are not obese. 209. The theory about how people respond to knowledge of their own mortality is referred to as: a. the James–Lange theory. b. the drive-reduction theory. c. terror management theory. d. the two-factor theory.

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Chap 08_5e 210. _____ leads people to take _____ and to avoid _____. a. Prevention focus; wins; losses b. Loss aversion; risks; losses c. Approach focus; risks; losses d. Avoidance focus; wins; losses 211. The hormone responsible for the initial onset of sexual desire is: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. DHEA. d. progesterone. 212. Kiran learns that he landed the lead role in a play he auditioned for. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion, he will first _____ and then _____. a. experience excitement; cognitively process the event b. cognitively process the event; experience excitement c. experience excitement; react physiologically d. react physiologically; experience excitement 213. The lateral hypothalamus in Jacob's brain just received a signal. Jacob probably: a. just finished a large meal predominantly consisting of protein and fat. b. just finished a large meal predominantly consisting of carbohydrates. c. has gone a number of hours without eating. d. just ate something that he finds disgusting. 214. A married couple with hectic jobs regularly schedules their sexual activity to make sure they are having sex several times a week. This couple probably schedules their sexual activity for which reason? a. as a means of conflict resolution b. to maintain their emotional connection c. to experience physical pleasure d. to alleviate insecurity 215. June is interviewing for a job. She is required to undergo psychological testing. During the testing, the psychologist noted many of her responses indicated emotionality of excitement and delight. On an emotion map, these emotions have _____ arousal and _____ valence. a. low; negative b. high; negative c. low; positive d. high; positive

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Chap 08_5e 216. Which muscles raise the corners of the mouth when smiling? a. orbicularis oculi muscles b. kama muta muscles c. zygomaticus major muscles d. unreliable muscles 217. Recent research suggests that the primary role of the amygdala is to: a. monitor the need for a food stimulus. b. facilitate short-term memory. c. provide evolutionary information to the frontal cortex. d. appraise the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus. 218. Jerome is a professional basketball player who plays the game extremely hard because he is terrified of failing and losing his starting job. Jerome's behavior BEST illustrates: a. avoidance motivation. b. the need for achievement. c. approach motivation. d. implicit motivation. 219. The motivation to experience positive outcomes is termed: a. explicit motivation. b. the need for achievement. c. approach motivation. d. implicit motivation. 220. Which of these is an example of delaying gratification? a. getting children to choose between a small and immediate reward or a large and delayed reward b. getting children to choose between a large and immediate reward or a small and delayed reward c. asking children to take one chocolate bar in the present, but only if they agree to abstain from all sweet rewards in the near future d. asking children to take multiple chocolate bars in the present, but only if they agree to abstain from all sweet rewards in the future 221. Which statement is NOT true regarding the origins of anorexia? a. Genetic factors underlie the risk of having an eating disorder. b. Men with a female twin have a sharply increased risk of becoming anorexic. c. Anorexia primarily affects women. d. Cultural pressure has resulted in reductions of women's body satisfaction over the past 30 years.

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Chap 08_5e 222. Julie sees a spider on her door and backs away due to feeling intense fear. What is the order of events with respect to her emotional experience? a. appraisal, action tendency, emotional state b. action tendency, appraisal, emotional state c. appraisal, emotional state, action tendency d. emotional state, appraisal, action tendency 223. When an action is difficult, we tend to be more aware of _____ motivations. a. general b. specific c. implicit d. explicit 224. Which of these is NOT a criticism of the James–Lange theory? a. Some emotional experiences happen before our bodily responses do. b. Stimuli can cause bodily responses without also causing emotions. c. Bodily responses are completely unrelated to feelings. d. Emotions do not have unique physiological fingerprints. 225. The motivation to solve worthwhile problems is termed: a. extrinsic motivation. b. intrinsic motivation. c. need for achievement. d. approach motivation. 226. Santiago has been laughing and smiling all day and seems exceptionally happy. According to the James– Lange theory of emotion: a. Santiago is happy as a result of smiling and laughing. b. Santiago feels happiness, and as a result of that happiness, he smiles and laughs. c. Santiago's physiological response has no relation to his behavior. d. Santiago's general physiological response is labeled as happiness. 227. The results of a study investigating display rules found that _____ participants were more likely to not display _____ emotions when being observed by an experimenter. a. American; negative b. Japanese; negative c. American; positive d. Japanese; positive

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Chap 08_5e 228. Jan tends to think in terms of achieving positive gains. She can be said to be: a. prevention focused. b. intrinsically motivated. c. avoidance focused. d. approach focused. 229. While performing surgery, Heinrich Klüver and Paul Bucy accidentally damaged the amygdala of a monkey named Aurora, inadvertently causing Aurora to: a. become hypersexual. b. stop eating. c. react in fear to snakes. d. react in fear when handled by experimenters. 230. A business executive feels the need to win in everything he does, from his business deals to his golf, and even with his romantic partners. The executive's behavior illustrates a(n): a. biological drive. b. need for achievement. c. extrinsically motivated personality. d. hierarchy of needs. 231. Which statement about sexual interest is FALSE? a. Women given testosterone will show an increase in sexual interest. b. Men are more likely to want sex at an early point in a relationship than are women. c. Women are less likely to masturbate than men. d. Men and women are equally likely to complain about low sex drives in their partners. 232. _____ refers to the internal causes of purposeful behavior. a. Emotion b. Motivation c. Expression d. Cognition 233. In terms of emotion regulation, the amygdala can be thought of as the _____, while the cortex is the _____. a. gas pedal; brakes b. brakes; gas pedal c. red light; green light d. inhibitor; excitor

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Chap 08_5e 234. Terrence agrees with the idea that "I seek out activities that will result in positive outcomes for me." This indicates that he has a strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic 235. Which statement presents evidence that supports the James–Lange theory? a. After embarrassment, blushing takes 15–30 seconds to occur. b. When you exercise, your heart naturally starts to beat faster, but you don't feel excitement. c. Both excitement and fear are associated with rapid heartbeat. d. Your heart beats faster when you learn you won an award and you feel excited. 236. The so-called slow emotion pathway begins in the _____, travels to the _____, and then finally reaches the _____. a. thalamus; amygdala; cortex b. thalamus; cortex; amygdala c. cortex; thalamus; amygdala d. amygdala; thalamus; cortex 237. Certain drugs suppress the activity of the sympathetic nervous system, the branch of the autonomic nervous system associated with increases in heart rate, respiration, and adrenaline release. If a drug could block this system altogether, William James would predict that: a. emotions could not be experienced. b. negative-valence emotions could not be experienced. c. high-arousal emotions could not be experienced. d. the physiological changes accompanying the experienced emotion might be missing. 238. Research suggests that in _____ nations, individuals can communicate with subtle expressions because everyone follows and understands the same display rules. a. less diverse b. more diverse c. North American d. South American 239. Which statement BEST describes the drive-reduction theory? a. The main motivation for all organisms is to lessen their drives. b. The main motivation for all organisms is to enhance their drives. c. The main motivation is to achieve equilibrium with respect to each drive. d. The main motivation is to achieve disequilibrium with respect to each drive. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 240. _____ out of 10 people report that they attempt to regulate their emotional experience at least once a day. a. One b. Three c. Five d. Nine 241. Maria is being questioned about whether she spilled blue paint on the living room carpet. When responding to her father's questions, he knows she is obviously lying because she: a. frequently corrects herself. b. includes superfluous details. c. takes a few minutes after each question to respond. d. gives highly detailed responses. 242. The so-called fast emotion pathway leads from the _____ directly to the amygdala. a. hypothalamus b. pituitary gland c. pineal gland d. thalamus 243. Shelly is currently having a physiological response to a stimulus. Which of these is NOT possible, according to two-factor theory? a. Shelly sees a bear and feels fear. b. Shelly sees cute kittens and feels love. c. Shelly's specific physiological response predicts fear. d. Shelly's general physiological response will be interpreted as a feeling. 244. Although people have sex for any number of reasons, which is MOST often reported? a. a means to an end b. emotional connection c. physical attraction d. to alleviate insecurity 245. Which question would NOT be asked when appraising an event? a. Does this affect me? b. Does this matter? c. What is my action tendency? d. Can I handle this?

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Chap 08_5e 246. Dr. Xiao's patient reports feeling constantly hungry and has increased her food intake substantially over the past year. Which of these could explain the patient's symptoms? a. leptin deficiency b. ghrelin deficiency c. leptin overproduction d. ghrelin overproduction 247. An important difference in sexual behavior between female rats and human females is that: a. female rats do not have a menstrual cycle. b. female rats are interested in sex only during ovulation. c. human females are not interested in sex during ovulation. d. human females are interested in sex only during ovulation. 248. According to terror management theory, _____ is a shield that buffers us against the anxiety that knowledge of our own mortality creates. a. the mortality-salience hypothesis b. approach motivation c. avoidance motivation d. a cultural worldview 249. A kindergarten teacher who gives her pupils sugar-free lollipops when they finish their coloring is using _____ to motivate them. a. an extrinsic reward b. an intrinsic reward c. an unconscious motivation d. achievement motivation 250. Dr. White is conducting an experiment in which he gives participants an opportunity to bet on a coin flip that would pay them $100 if they are right and cost them $80 if they are wrong. He hypothesizes that most people _____ take the bet because _____. a. will; the odds are stacked in their favour b. will; the majority of people like to gamble c. will not; they will lose 50% of the time d. will not; losing $80 feels worse than does winning $100

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Chap 08_5e 251. When Nishi is handed promising opportunities that will advance her career but will be more challenging, she tends to turn them down. What type of motivation is this reflective of? a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic 252. Following a major cerebral vascular accident, Sean became very obese. In investigating the cause of the obesity, Sean's physician may determine that the _____ was damaged in the accident. a. ventromedial hypothalamus b. ventral occipital area c. ventrolateral area of the thalamus d. lateral hypothalamus 253. As he enters the classroom to take his final exam, Jamal feels his heart begin to beat faster. Immediately after, he begins to feel nervous. This sequence of events BEST illustrates the: a. universality hypothesis. b. James–Lange theory. c. facial feedback hypothesis. d. two-factor theory. 254. Which statement is true regarding reappraisal? a. Reappraisal is a skill that cannot be learned. b. People tend to overutilize reappraisal. c. People who are good at reappraisal are physically healthier. d. People who are good at reappraisal are more compassionate toward those who are suffering. 255. The _____ suggests that all emotional expressions mean the same thing to all people in all places at all times. a. display rule b. two-factor theory c. facial feedback hypothesis d. universality hypothesis 256. Once we gain a certain level of body fat, it is difficult to lose the fat. A key reason that our body resists weight loss is that: a. we prefer low-energy foods. b. leptin levels rise during a fast, which makes us hungrier. c. ghrelin levels drop during a fast, which stimulates fat deposition. d. dieting tends to decrease our metabolism.

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Chap 08_5e 257. Which is the BEST reason against using polygraph machines to detect terrorists? a. Research has failed to demonstrate that polygraph machines can detect liars at greater than chance levels. b. People can be trained to beat a polygraph; a single terrorist would never be caught. c. The polygraph would have an error rate that is too high to be a reliable indicator of who is a terrorist. d. It is estimated that the polygraph would add 20 minutes to an airport's check-in process. 258. Which of these BEST describes emotion regulation? a. the tendency for a system to take action to maintain equilibrium b. the strategies people use to influence their own emotional experience c. the claim that people are motivated to experience pleasure and avoid pain d. the strategies people use to elicit emotional expressions from others 259. Which statement about sexual interest is FALSE? a. Women given testosterone will show a decrease in sexual interest. b. Men are more likely to have sexual fantasies than are women. c. Women are less likely to think about sex than are men. d. Men are more likely to complain about low sex drives in their partners. 260. Dr. Ramasamy's patient reports feeling a lack of hunger and a drastic reduction in her appetite over the past few years. Which of these could explain the patient's symptoms? a. leptin deficiency b. ghrelin deficiency c. leptin overproduction d. ghrelin overproduction 261. When Suruthi feels hot, she turns on the air conditioning. Based on the notion of equilibrium, Suruthi's heat is a(n): a. drive. b. instinct. c. reinforcer. d. want. 262. The correlation between a person's ability to detect lies and the person's confidence in that ability is: a. moderately positive. b. strongly positive. c. strongly negative. d. essentially zero.

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Chap 08_5e 263. Which of these nations has low cultural diversity? a. Ethiopia b. Canada c. Australia d. the United States 264. Five minutes before kick-off, a football player's heart starts racing, and at the exact same time he starts feeling nervous. This sequence of events BEST illustrates which theory? a. facial feedback hypothesis b. James–Lange theory c. universality hypothesis d. two-factor theory 265. While performing surgery, Heinrich Klüver and Paul Bucy accidentally damaged the amygdala of a monkey named Aurora. One striking feature of Aurora's behavior after the surgery was that she: a. refused to eat nutritious food, preferring food that was spoiled. b. lost all interest in sex. c. stopped fearing snakes but increased her fear of humans. d. was extraordinarily calm in the presence of stimuli that previously elicited fear. 266. Eric is struggling to make enough money to shelter and clothe his family. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Eric is attempting to meet which of his needs? a. belongingness and love b. esteem c. safety and security d. self-actualization 267. The so-called fast pathway leads from the _____ directly to the amygdala, whereas the so-called slow pathway leads from the thalamus to the _____ and then to the amygdala. a. hypothalamus; cerebellum b. pituitary gland; thyroid gland c. pineal gland; hypothalamus d. thalamus; cortex 268. Sexual desire is MOST regulated by _____ in male rats and _____ in female rats. a. testosterone; testosterone b. testosterone; estrogen c. DHEA; estrogen d. DHEA; progesterone

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Chap 08_5e 269. Rodrigo has cortical damage following a nasty fall. What might you expect from Rodrigo's behavior with respect to emotion regulation after his fall? a. The cortex will have increased inhibition of the amygdala and therefore greater inhibition over his emotional responses. b. The cortex will have decreased inhibition of the amygdala and therefore less inhibition of his emotional responses. c. He will experience decreased neural activity in the amygdala and increased cortical activity, resulting in less emotional responses in general. d. The cortex is not involved in emotion regulation, but the amygdala is. Therefore, Rodrigo's abilities to regulate his emotions would be unaffected. 270. Researchers have identified two dimensions of emotion: a. positive valence and negative valence. b. high arousal and low arousal. c. valence and arousal. d. positive and negative. 271. Javier is concerned with his children's intake of unhealthy foods. One behavioral intervention he could try would be to: a. give his children small forks. b. place healthy foods closer to the children than unhealthy foods are. c. cut the children's unhealthy food into smaller pieces for them. d. place unhealthy foods closer to the children than healthy foods are. 272. Braydon disagrees with the idea that "I engage in activities even when I know I will make mistakes." This indicates that he has a strong _____ motivation. a. approach b. intrinsic c. avoidance d. extrinsic 273. The hedonic principle is related to the view that humans are motivated to: a. pass on their traits to their offspring. b. gain knowledge. c. take risks. d. seek pleasure and avoid pain.

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Chap 08_5e 274. A rock guitarist no longer derives the same enjoyment from playing as he once did, although he recently launched a world tour with his band. His _____ motivation to play has been _____ by the fortune and fame of rock-and-roll. a. intrinsic; decreased b. intrinsic; increased c. conscious; increased d. extrinsic; decreased 275. A motivation of which we are aware is a(n): a. extrinsic motivation. b. conscious motivation. c. need for achievement. d. intrinsic motivation. 276. _____ is defined as a temporary state that includes unique subjective experiences and physiological activity, and that prepares people for action. a. Emotion b. Drive c. Motivation d. Valence 277. Which pairing is a correct match of a person and a theory? a. Freud – hedonic principle b. Maslow – hierarchy of needs c. Watson – drive-reduction theory d. James – two-factor theory 278. Mark puts in long hours studying for his psychology tests. He already has an A in the course, but he really has a desire to know the material well. Mark's behavior is characteristic of: a. extrinsic motivation. b. drive-reduction theory. c. intrinsic motivation. d. incentive-motivation theory. 279. Which statement about leptin is true? a. It is produced in the stomach. b. It signals the brain to switch hunger on. c. When injected into rats, it leads to obesity. d. It decreases the reinforcing value of food.

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Chap 08_5e 280. According to William James, which of these is a FALSE statement about instinctive behavior? a. Instinctive behavior meets particular goals relevant to the organism. b. Instinctive behavior requires thinking about how best to bring about a particular goal. c. Instinctive behavior is not learned. d. Organisms are born with instincts. 281. The ability to _____ is a better predictor of school grades than is _____. a. work hard; social class b. delay gratification; IQ score c. control emotions; IQ score d. delay gratification; social class 282. On a hike through the rainforest, Tabatha feels something grab her arm. Her heart and respiration rates spike. Immediately after, she feels fear. This sequence of events BEST illustrates the: a. universality hypothesis. b. James–Lange theory. c. facial feedback hypothesis. d. two-factor theory. 283. Spartans were instructed never to outwardly express emotion, no matter what they were feeling. This is an example of: a. display rules. b. the facial feedback hypothesis. c. the two-factor theory of emotion. d. action tendencies. 284. Which term refers to how energetic a feeling is? a. emotion b. arousal c. sensation d. valence 285. Jean frequently eats unusually large amounts of snack foods and then makes herself vomit. It is likely that Jean is suffering from: a. binge eating disorder. b. impaired thyroid activity. c. anorexia nervosa. d. bulimia nervosa.

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Chap 08_5e 286. Which statement is true about the prevalence of obesity over the past few decades? a. The majority of today's American children will be obese by the time they are 35 years old. b. Several countries have reduced their obesity rates in the past three decades. c. Only 5% of the world's population is overweight or obese. d. Seven states have an obesity rate lower than 20%. 287. One of the challenges related to diversity is: a. appraisal. b. communication. c. integration. d. hyphenation. 288. A motivation of which we are unaware is a(n) _____ motivation. a. unconscious b. symbolic c. dynamic d. intrinsic 289. Which statement about detecting lies is true? a. People have a tendency to believe that others are lying more often than telling the truth. b. People know exactly what to look for when trying to detect lies. c. Brain scans can tell us with accuracy whether a person is lying. d. Polygraph machines detect physiological responses associated with stress. 290. Which statement about detecting lies is true? a. People have a tendency to believe that others are lying more often than telling the truth. b. People know exactly what to look for when trying to detect lies. c. Brain scans can tell us with accuracy whether a person is lying. d. There is no correlation between a person's ability to detect lies and the person's confidence in that ability. 291. Marco feels overwhelmingly sad and has been crying a lot today. According to the James–Lange theory of emotion: a. Marco is sad as a result of crying. b. Marco feels sadness, and as a result of that sadness, he cries. c. Marco's physiological response has no relation to his behavior. d. Marco's general physiological response is labeled as sadness.

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Chap 08_5e 292. The motivation not to experience a negative outcome is termed: a. avoidance motivation. b. the need for achievement. c. explicit motivation. d. implicit motivation. 293. Dawn was involved in a motor vehicle accident that resulted in severe head injury. Following a limited recovery from the accident, the family has been advised that damage to Dawn's _____ will likely make it difficult for her to inhibit her emotions. a. thalamus b. cortex c. hypothalamus d. amygdala 294. Hundreds of thousands of years ago, our ancestors preferred to eat: a. foods with large amounts of energy per bite. b. leafy green vegetables and berries. c. a plant-based diet. d. foods with very low levels of sugars. 295. Which statement about lies is NOT true? a. They often contain expressions of spontaneous correction and self-doubt. b. They usually are not as detailed as a truthful statement. c. They are given with little hesitation after the question is asked. d. They are spoken more slowly than a true statement. 296. Shortly before taking the stage for her annual dance recital, Jolen notices that she is extremely nervous. She decides to consciously attempt not to think about her feelings. This is a technique of emotion regulation termed: a. affect labeling. b. displacement. c. reappraisal. d. suppression. 297. Some school districts across the United States are considering paying children to attend school. This strategy is likely to _____ because it makes an _____ activity into an _____ activity. a. succeed; intrinsic; extrinsic b. succeed; extrinsic; intrinsic c. fail; extrinsic; intrinsic d. fail; intrinsic; extrinsic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 298. In Japan, there is a strong norm against displaying _____ emotions in the company of a respected person. a. positive b. negative c. high arousal d. low arousal 299. Cynthia is a struggling actress who views each audition as a chance to be discovered and signed to a contract. Cynthia's behavior BEST illustrates _____ motivation. a. avoidance b. unconscious c. approach d. implicit 300. What is meant by the appraisal of an event or stimulus? a. the evaluation of all internal factors regarding an emotion-relevant situation or stimulus b. subconscious evaluations of the emotion-relevant aspects of a situation or stimulus c. unconscious evaluations of an event/stimulus based on its importance and self-relevance d. conscious and unconscious evaluations of the emotion-relevant aspects of a stimulus or event

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Chap 08_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. d 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 27. a 28. d 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. c 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. c 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. c 71. b 72. a 73. a 74. d 75. d 76. c 77. d 78. c 79. d 80. a 81. d 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 83. b 84. d 85. b 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. d 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. d 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. a 104. c 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. a 109. d 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 111. a 112. c 113. a 114. d 115. a 116. c 117. a 118. a 119. c 120. d 121. d 122. a 123. c 124. c 125. b 126. d 127. b 128. d 129. b 130. a 131. d 132. a 133. c 134. b 135. a 136. d 137. c

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Chap 08_5e 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. c 142. d 143. a 144. c 145. c 146. d 147. d 148. d 149. c 150. a 151. a 152. a 153. c 154. c 155. b 156. a 157. d 158. d 159. a 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. a 164. d 165. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 166. b 167. b 168. a 169. c 170. a 171. b 172. a 173. b 174. c 175. a 176. d 177. c 178. c 179. d 180. a 181. c 182. c 183. b 184. b 185. b 186. a 187. a 188. a 189. a 190. a 191. a 192. d 193. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 194. c 195. a 196. b 197. b 198. c 199. c 200. b 201. c 202. c 203. a 204. d 205. a 206. a 207. b 208. b 209. c 210. b 211. c 212. d 213. c 214. b 215. d 216. c 217. d 218. a 219. c 220. a 221. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 222. c 223. b 224. c 225. c 226. a 227. b 228. d 229. a 230. b 231. d 232. b 233. a 234. a 235. d 236. b 237. c 238. a 239. a 240. d 241. c 242. d 243. c 244. c 245. c 246. a 247. b 248. d

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Chap 08_5e 249. a 250. d 251. c 252. a 253. b 254. c 255. d 256. d 257. c 258. b 259. a 260. b 261. a 262. d 263. a 264. b 265. d 266. c 267. d 268. b 269. b 270. c 271. b 272. c 273. d 274. a 275. b 276. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e 277. b 278. c 279. d 280. b 281. b 282. b 283. a 284. b 285. d 286. a 287. b 288. a 289. d 290. d 291. a 292. a 293. b 294. a 295. a 296. d 297. d 298. b 299. c 300. d

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Existential terror refers to anxiety induced by the knowledge that evil exists in the world. a. True b. False 2. When asked to inhibit emotion, people exhibit more cortical activity and less amygdala activity. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 8.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.3 introduces material from the following publication. Homonoff, T. A. (2013). Can small incentives have large effects? The impact of taxes versus bonuses on disposable bag use. Working Papers. Princeton University. Industrial Relations Section; 575. Motivation can be unconscious or conscious, extrinsic (motivated by consequences of the behavior) or intrinsic (motivated by the behavior itself), and approach or avoidance orientated. Research has shown that avoidance motivation is stronger than approach motivation. People care more about avoiding losses than they do about achieving equal-size gains. This concept is termed loss aversion. Homonoff (2013) studied grocery stores in Washington, DC, that attempted to get their customers to reuse their shopping bags by giving them a 5-cent bonus when they did so, imposing a 5-cent tax when they did not, both the bonus and the tax, or neither of these things. The results are shown in Figure 8.1. Figure 8.1

3. (Scenario 8.3) The tax policy relies on _____ motivation and appears to have been _____ at getting customers to reuse their bags. a. avoidance; effective only when combined with the bonus b. intrinsic; effective c. conscious; effective only when combined with the bonus d. avoidance; effective 4. William James believed that much of human motivation is governed by instincts. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 5. The hedonic principle states that people will never willingly subject themselves to painful stimuli. a. True b. False Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.2 introduces material from the following publication. LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B are used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 6. (Scenario 8.2) In this fear-conditioning paradigm, what constitutes the unconditioned stimulus? a. shock b. tone c. increased heart rate elicited by the tone d. freezing behavior elicited by the shock

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7. (Scenario 8.3) What pattern of customer behavior is consistent with loss aversion? a. Customers complain when the promotional bonus for reusing bags ends. b. Customers complain when they have to pay a 5-cent tax on bags. c. Customers shop more and spend more money when the tax policy ends. d. Customers reuse bags to avoid a tax but do not reuse bags to earn an equal-size bonus. 8. The most pressing of needs, according to Maslow, is the need for self-actualization. a. True b. False 9. Research has suggested that testosterone may be the hormonal basis of the sex drive in both men and women. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 10. Display rules for emotional expression are the same in all cultures. a. True b. False 11. Leptin is secreted by fat cells and functions to turn off hunger signals. a. True b. False Use Scenario 8.1 to answer the following question(s). Emotion can be defined as a positive or negative experience that is associated with a particular pattern of physiological activity. The nature of this association has been intensely debated throughout the history of psychological science. An early theory of emotion was postulated by James and Lange. These psychologists argued that stimuli trigger different patterns of physiological activity in the body, and these in turn produce different emotional experiences in the brain. Contemporaneously, Cannon and Bard argued that a stimulus independently produces both physiological activity in the body and an emotional experience in the brain. Several decades later, Schacter and Singer argued that both of these theories are only partially correct. According to their two-factor theory, Schacter and Singer postulated that stimuli produce general physiological arousal that is then interpreted by the brain. Inferences about the causes of this arousal lead to an emotional experience. 12. (Scenario 8.1) According to the _____ theory/theories, a perception of bodily arousal is NOT required to experience emotion. a. James–Lange b. Cannon–Bard c. James–Lange and Cannon–Bard d. two-factor 13. Humans attempt to regulate their emotions by using both behavioral and cognitive strategies. a. True b. False 14. The fast pathway of threat detection involves the thalamus. a. True b. False 15. The orbicularis oculi muscle pulls the lip corners up when we smile. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 16. The emotion of misery is associated with high arousal and negative valence. a. True b. False 17. The ability to delay gratification is a better predictor of academic success in elementary school than is IQ. a. True b. False 18. The more basic a need is, the lower its place in Maslow's hierarchy. a. True b. False 19. Intrinsic rewards can undermine extrinsic rewards. a. True b. False 20. The James–Lange theory of emotion suggests that emotions trigger physiological reactions. a. True b. False 21. Behaviorists embraced explanations of behavior based on instincts because these explanations did not contain a cognitive element. a. True b. False

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22. (Scenario 8.3) It appears that about 13% of grocery shoppers demonstrate an _____ motivation to use reusable bags. a. unconscious b. extrinsic c. intrinsic d. avoidance

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.2 introduces material from the following publication. LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B are used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 23. (Scenario 8.2) Damage to the slow pathway may result in an inability: a. for dangerous stimuli to elicit a fear response. b. for innocuous stimuli to elicit a fear response (i.e., a false alarm). c. to make split-second distinctions between dangerous and innocuous stimuli. d. to curtail a fear response once it is initiated. 24. America's most pervasive eating-related problem is obesity. a. True b. False 25. Reappraisal, one of the most effective strategies for emotion regulation, involves changing the way we think about an object or event. a. True b. False 26. It is usually not possible to change an emotional response to a stimulus. a. True b. False 27. As an action becomes more difficult, awareness of the motivation for engaging in the action decreases. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 28. Recent research has indicated that men and women think about sex equally often. a. True b. False 29. Most of our evolutionary ancestors preferred green vegetables to fatty foods. a. True b. False 30. Most people have a tendency to believe that others are sincere. a. True b. False 31. There are six major muscles in the face that give rise to 43 different facial expressions. a. True b. False 32. Motivation research suggests that it is not a good idea to reward a child for drawing if the child already likes to draw. a. True b. False 33. People who are congenitally blind, because they have never seen a human face, have trouble smiling when happy. a. True b. False 34. Cannon and Bard posited that every emotion is associated with a unique pattern of physiological activity. a. True b. False 35. Ghrelin is produced in the hypothalamus. a. True b. False 36. When the ventromedial hypothalamus is destroyed, rats will starve to death in a cage full of food. a. True b. False 37. The hormonal basis for sexual motivation is similar for females of most mammalian species, including humans. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 38. Psychologists define pleasure as the lack of pain. a. True b. False 39. The hypothalamus plays an important role in the experience of emotion by appraising the stimuli. a. True b. False 40. The need for belongingness and love sits atop Maslow's hierarchy of needs. a. True b. False 41. The cortex appears to be necessary for reappraisal to occur. a. True b. False Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.2 introduces material from the following publication. LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B are used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 42. (Scenario 8.2) Which definition of a learned fear response is operational? a. the A–B–C pathway with the structures correctly identified b. 10 pairings of the tone and shock, with a 5-milliamp shock occurring 1 second after each tone presentation c. an increase in heart rate elicited by the tone alone as measured by an implantable telemetry device d. freezing behavior that occurs after the shock, as measured by locomotor counts in the pressuresensitive floor of a testing apparatus

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 43. The need for achievement is considered to be an unconscious motivation. a. True b. False 44. Cultural worldviews usually are weakened when people are reminded of the inevitability of death. a. True b. False

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45. (Scenario 8.3) Suppose that 15% of the customers at another grocery store reliably reuse their bags. To increase this behavior, the grocery store began giving a 5-cent bonus for reusing bags. This increased bag reuse to 18%. Store management decided that this was not a meaningful increase and discontinued the policy, after which bag reuse dipped to under 10%. What probably was responsible for this decrease in bag reuse below the normal rate of 15%? a. the discontinuation of the bonus policy b. conscious motivations becoming unconscious c. extrinsic motivation decreasing intrinsic motivation d. intrinsic motivation decreasing extrinsic motivation

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 46. Different patterns of muscle contraction in the face can result in approximately 10,000 unique facial expressions. a. True b. False 47. We are not very accurate at judging the emotional expressions of members of other cultures. a. True b. False 48. Generally speaking, approach motivations tend to be more powerful than are avoidance motivations. a. True b. False Use Scenario 8.1 to answer the following question(s). Emotion can be defined as a positive or negative experience that is associated with a particular pattern of physiological activity. The nature of this association has been intensely debated throughout the history of psychological science. An early theory of emotion was postulated by James and Lange. These psychologists argued that stimuli trigger different patterns of physiological activity in the body, and these in turn produce different emotional experiences in the brain. Contemporaneously, Cannon and Bard argued that a stimulus independently produces both physiological activity in the body and an emotional experience in the brain. Several decades later, Schacter and Singer argued that both of these theories are only partially correct. According to their two-factor theory, Schacter and Singer postulated that stimuli produce general physiological arousal that is then interpreted by the brain. Inferences about the causes of this arousal lead to an emotional experience. 49. (Scenario 8.1) Recent research using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) shows that different patterns of cortical activity are associated with different emotions. This fact is consistent with _____ theory/theories of emotion. a. only the James–Lange b. only the two-factor c. the Cannon–Bard and two-factor d. the James–Lange, Cannon–Bard, and two-factor 50. (Scenario 8.1) Which statement is NOT consistent with the Cannon–Bard theory of emotion? a. Quadriplegics often report blunted emotional experiences to stimuli. b. Alone on a dark street, the sound of approaching footsteps causes fear and increases walking pace. c. Riding a roller coaster with your date might produce feelings of passion. d. At an action-adventure movie, we interpret heart rate increases in terms of excitement.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 51. Hull believed that organisms behave in ways to increase internal drive levels. a. True b. False Use Scenario 8.1 to answer the following question(s). Emotion can be defined as a positive or negative experience that is associated with a particular pattern of physiological activity. The nature of this association has been intensely debated throughout the history of psychological science. An early theory of emotion was postulated by James and Lange. These psychologists argued that stimuli trigger different patterns of physiological activity in the body, and these in turn produce different emotional experiences in the brain. Contemporaneously, Cannon and Bard argued that a stimulus independently produces both physiological activity in the body and an emotional experience in the brain. Several decades later, Schacter and Singer argued that both of these theories are only partially correct. According to their two-factor theory, Schacter and Singer postulated that stimuli produce general physiological arousal that is then interpreted by the brain. Inferences about the causes of this arousal lead to an emotional experience. 52. (Scenario 8.1) Which statement is entirely consistent with the James–Lange theory of emotion? a. Embarrassment is perceived before blushing begins. b. We experience many more emotions than the physiological changes accompanying them. c. Anger and fear produce similar increases in heart rate. d. Happiness and sadness are associated with different physiological responses. 53. Leptin resistance is associated with obesity. a. True b. False

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54. (Scenario 8.3) Based on these results, a grocery store manager who wants to increase customers reusing bags while at the same time cutting the most costs should: a. simply adopt the tax policy. b. adopt the tax plus bonus policy, but decrease the bonus to approximately 2 cents. c. adopt the tax plus bonus policy, but increase the bonus to approximately 10 cents. d. only reward loyal customers who already have been reusing their bags with the bonus.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.2 introduces material from the following publication. LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B are used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 55. (Scenario 8.2) Brain structure A corresponds to the: a. cerebellum. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. corpus callosum. 56. Bulimia nervosa is a disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging. a. True b. False 57. Schachter and Singer believed that different emotional experiences are the result of the brain differentially interpreting the same pattern of general physiological arousal. a. True b. False 58. People tend to speak more slowly when they are telling a lie. a. True b. False 59. The fast pathway of threat detection involves the cortex. a. True b. False

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60. (Scenario 8.3) The bonus policy relies on _____ motivation and appears to have been _____ at getting customers to reuse their bags. a. approach; effective b. intrinsic; effective c. approach; relatively ineffective d. intrinsic; relatively ineffective 61. Smiling is a universal expression of happiness in people. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.2 introduces material from the following publication. LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B are used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 63. (Scenario 8.2) Brain structure B corresponds to the: a. cortex. b. thalamus. c. cerebellum. d. hippocampus. 64. Research has demonstrated that all emotional experiences are the result of different interpretations of the same physiological state. a. True b. False

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 8.1 to answer the following question(s). Emotion can be defined as a positive or negative experience that is associated with a particular pattern of physiological activity. The nature of this association has been intensely debated throughout the history of psychological science. An early theory of emotion was postulated by James and Lange. These psychologists argued that stimuli trigger different patterns of physiological activity in the body, and these in turn produce different emotional experiences in the brain. Contemporaneously, Cannon and Bard argued that a stimulus independently produces both physiological activity in the body and an emotional experience in the brain. Several decades later, Schacter and Singer argued that both of these theories are only partially correct. According to their two-factor theory, Schacter and Singer postulated that stimuli produce general physiological arousal that is then interpreted by the brain. Inferences about the causes of this arousal lead to an emotional experience. 65. (Scenario 8.1) According to the _____ theory, emotion is the _____ of physiological arousal. a. Cannon–Bard; consequence b. Cannon–Bard; cause c. James–Lange; consequence d. James–Lange; cause Use Scenario 8.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 8.2 introduces material from the following publication. LeDoux, J. E. (2000). Emotion circuits in the brain. Annual Review of Neuroscience, 23, 155–184. The psychologist Joseph LeDoux tracked the neural mechanisms underlying the fear response in rats. Rats were exposed to the sound of a tone followed by an electric shock. After a few tone–shock pairings, the tone elicited species-typical defense behaviors such as freezing and increased sympathetic activity (e.g., an increase in heart rate). Using this fear-conditioning paradigm, LeDoux argued for the existence of both fast and slow neural pathways underlying the fear response. A particular brain structure (arbitrarily labeled A) simultaneously routes sensory information to structures B and C. In the fast pathway, information is routed to structure C—a limbic structure long known to be involved in emotional experiences such as fear—where it is rapidly assessed. If appraised as a threat, structure C activates the fear response. In the slow pathway, information travels to other structures in the brain (labeled B) involved in planning and more advanced decision making. The results of the appraisal by structure B are used by structure C to continue or terminate the fear response. 66. (Scenario 8.2) Brain structure C corresponds to the: a. cortex. b. amygdala. c. thalamus. d. medulla.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 67. Facial expression can actually cause the emotions that they signify. a. True b. False 68. An actress is filming a scene in which her husband is killed in front of her and she has to express emotions of uncontrollable grief. For a few hours after filming the scene, the actress feels sad. Explain why facial feedback might contribute to her feelings of sadness.

69. Your classmate has just broken up with her partner of 5 years, and she is feeling particularly sad. How could emotion regulation help her? Describe at least three strategies your classmate could use to regulate her emotions.

70. On your drive home from school one evening, you are stopped at a light. You see in your rearview mirror a car approaching at an alarming rate of speed. Realizing that the car is likely to run into you full force, you experience a number of reactions, both physiological and emotional. Briefly discuss the James–Lange and two-factor theories as they relate to this situation.

71. Describe the three eating disorders discussed in the textbook.

72. Describe the two brain pathways for fear. Why is it advantageous to have two pathways instead of just one?

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 73. Describe hormonal factors underlying motivation for sex in adult humans. Briefly summarize gender differences in motivation for sex.

74. You are a 3rd-grade teacher, and you would like to encourage the children in your class to enjoy reading. Suggest ways that you might use extrinsic and intrinsic motivation to maximal advantage. Compare the pros and cons of each.

75. Your roommate is from a different country than you. What does the universality hypothesis suggest about your interpretations of your roommate's emotional expression? Are there any exceptions to the universality hypothesis?

76. Your criminal justice class is holding a discussion on the effectiveness of polygraphs versus human lie detection. Which method, if either, do you favor? Give pros and cons for each. Are humans good at determining whether emotional expressions are sincere? Why or why not?

77. Explain how you could determine whether someone was lying by observing verbal and nonverbal behavior.

78. Describe the hedonic principle of motivation. How might this principle explain the fact that people often subject themselves to painful medical procedures and forego pleasurable activities for less pleasurable ones?

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 79. Briefly sketch Maslow's hierarchy of needs in pyramid form and explain his theory. Which needs are strongest? Which are weakest? Give at least two examples that illustrate Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

80. Using the terms equilibrium and drive, describe how motivation has historically been interpreted as analogous to a thermostat.

81. What is the difference between approach motivation and avoidance motivation? Describe evidence that suggests avoidance motivation is more powerful than approach motivation.

82. Explain how researchers map emotions. Make sure you identify the two dimensions of emotions, and give an example of an emotion in each resulting quadrant.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. a 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. d 50. a 51. b 52. c 53. a 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 55. b 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. a 68. The answer should indicate that the facial feedback hypothesis states that emotional expressions may cause the emotions they signify. Expressing grief activated a particular pattern of facial muscle movements associated with this emotion. This, in turn, triggers the conscious feeling of the emotion. Even though the woman was acting, facial expressions can powerfully impact emotional experiences. This effect can be demonstrated more simply. If you hold a pencil in your teeth, you will feel happier than if you hold a pencil between your lips. The former contracts muscles associated with smiling, and the latter contracts muscles associated with frowning. 69. The answer should indicate that emotion regulation involves taking an active role in influencing our own emotions. Your classmate could use emotion regulation to attempt to feel better about the breakup. One behavioral strategy would be to avoid situations that trigger unwanted emotions. Cognitive strategies include suppression, affect labeling, and reappraisal. Suppression is inhibiting outward signs of an emotion; however, this is a relatively ineffective way to regulate emotions. Affect labeling involves putting one's feelings into words and is an effective way to reduce the intensity of emotional states. Reappraisal involves changing an emotional experience by changing the way one thinks about the object or event that elicited the emotion. Your classmate could alter the meaning of the breakup by saying that the breakup had been coming for a long time and is probably for the best because the two individuals had different values and ideas; that now each is free to date someone else; and that now each will have more time with friends. Reappraisal is a skill, and people who are good at reappraisal tend to be mentally and physically healthier and have better relationships.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 70. The answer should indicate that according to the James–Lange theory of emotion, you experience a physiological response (e.g., heart pounding in your chest, increased respirations); then you experience the emotion of fear (or terror). More specifically, the stimulus (the car behind you) leads to a specific physiological response resulting in the emotion (fear). The two-factor theory suggest that you see the car approaching and experience a general physiological response that your brain interprets in context to produce the emotion of fear. More specifically, the stimulus (the car behind you) creates general physiological arousal, which leads to the experience of fear. 71. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Anorexia nervosa: characterized by an intense fear of being fat, a severe restriction of food intake, and a distorted body image. (2) Bulimia nervosa: characterized by binge eating followed by purging. Individuals with this disorder eat large amounts of food at one time and then take laxatives or induce vomiting. They are caught in a cycle: Eating provides comfort for negative emotions, but worry about weight gain makes them feel more negative emotions, such as guilt, leading them to purge. (3) Binge-eating disorder: characterized by binge eating and an inability to stop during the binge. This disorder is differentiated from bulimia nervosa in that there is no compensatory behavior designed to purge the calories. 72. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Fast pathway: Information is sent from the thalamus directly to the amygdala. The amygdala makes a rapid decision as to whether a threat is present and responds accordingly (e.g., initiates neural processes that result in physiological arousal and the experience of emotion). (2) Slow pathway: Information is sent from the thalamus to the cortex and then to the amygdala. The information is analyzed more thoroughly in the cortex. If it is ultimately deemed a threat, signals are sent to the amygdala to maintain the fear response. If not, signals are sent to the amygdala to terminate the fear response. (3) The advantage of the fast pathway is that it helps keep us alive when a real threat is present. For example, if you unexpectedly step near a large snake while hiking through the woods, you will have the tendency to jump back and experience fear, reducing the likelihood that you will get bitten. If you took the time to process the shape of the snake's head and its coloring to determine if it were poisonous, you would be more likely to be bitten. (4) The advantage of the slow pathway is that it can adjust amygdala activity in light of more information. If the "snake" turns out to be rubber from a discarded tire, you will quickly calm down. If the snake turns out to be poisonous, this information may result in sustained fear and greater vigilance. You may find yourself scanning the ground for the rest of your hike and beyond! 73. The answer should indicate that for both male and female humans, testosterone is the hormonal basis for sexual motivation. Because men have higher levels of testosterone than do women, they are more motivated by sex. They engage in more sexual behavior, take more risks to obtain sex, think about sex more often, and have more permissive attitudes toward sex. Female humans differ strikingly from females of other mammalian species in terms of sexual motivation. For other mammalian species, sexual motivation is determined by the estrous cycle. Sexual motivation is high when estrogen levels are high, which occurs when the female is ovulating. Females are not sexually receptive at other points during their cycle. Thus, in other mammals, estrogen—not testosterone—controls sexual motivation. Human females, on the other hand, can be motivated to engage in sex at any point in their monthly cycles.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 74. The answer should indicate that extrinsic motivation arranges rewards to reinforce a particular behavior (e.g., reading). For example, you might provide students with gold stars on a reading chart every time they bring back a book they've read. Perhaps these stars can be exchanged for even bigger rewards once enough stars are accumulated. The danger, of course, is that the students may come to resent reading when they are not rewarded for it. However, you can argue that once the children are competent readers, the sheer pleasure of reading will take over and provide the intrinsic motivation they need to continue. Intrinsic motivation is a motivation to take actions that are rewarding in themselves. As a teacher, you might choose books for the children that are about topics they already like; for example, a child who loves horses will be much more interested in reading if the chosen book is a story about a horse. In general, extrinsic motivation is useful to employ when you want to establish a behavior or increase a low-probability behavior. If the children rarely read, extrinsic rewards will get them to do so and hopefully foster contact with the intrinsic rewards of reading. Relying solely on intrinsic rewards at this early stage will not work because students simply are not contacting them or have not yet learned to appreciate them. If behavior is already being maintained by intrinsic rewards, it would be counterproductive to try to increase extrinsic motivation for that behavior. Paying avid readers to read actually decreases the enjoyment associated with reading. 75. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The universality hypothesis suggests that all emotional expressions mean the same thing to all people in all places at all times. For example, every human naturally expresses happiness with a smile, and every human naturally understands that a smile signifies happiness. This suggests that my roommate and I should understand each others' facial expressions regardless of our countries of origin. (2) Research suggests that some emotional expressions (e.g., shame, happiness, and sadness) have distinct cultural "accents." Research also suggests that in nations with little cultural diversity, people can communicate with subtle expressions because everyone follows the same display rules. In diverse nations, people of different backgrounds follow different rules, so they must use expressions that are so perfectly clear that they can be recognized by any human on the planet. So, depending on your respective countries of origin, my roommate and I may differ in very subtle facial expressions, and our ability to read each others' subtle facial expressions may be limited. 76. The answer should indicate that human lie detection is highly inaccurate and that most people score barely better than chance. We have a strong bias toward believing others are sincere so that we don't have to think that someone is insincere and telling a lie. Even if we suspect someone might be lying, most of us do not know and therefore do not attend to the aspects of behavior that are associated with lying. Signs associated with lying are: talking slowly, coming across as less engaging and/or tense, and lacking superfluous detail in descriptions. Polygraphs can detect lies at a rate significantly better than chance, but they also have a very high error rate. In other words, a polygraph would "catch" many people who weren't lying. Also, people can learn to "fool" the polygraph. At present, we still don't have a foolproof method to detect if someone is lying. In the absence of a powerful test, the decisions made by polygraphs and trained human observers should be viewed with healthy skepticism. Law enforcement should attempt to establish the veracity of "false" statements through other means. 77. Liars tend to speak more slowly, take longer to respond to questions, and respond with less detail that do people who are telling the truth. People who are telling the truth include superfluous details, correct themselves, and express self-doubt. Liars are less likely to do any of these things.

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Chap 08_5e _ TF + Essay 78. The hedonic principle states that we are primarily motivated to seek pleasure and avoid pain. Imagine a gauge with pleasure at one end and pain at the other. Our primary motivation is to keep the needle as close to the pleasure end as possible. On the surface, willingly subjecting yourself to a painful medical procedure appears to violate the hedonic principle. But the hedonic principle states that we will subject ourselves to painful stimuli if in the long run, it results in greater pleasure for a longer period of time. So, a person may have a painful operation now so that he will experience improved health in the extended future. Similarly, you may forego going to a party to study because, ultimately, earning a good grade in your course is more pleasurable to you than the momentary pleasures associated with the party. 79. The answer should provide the following information: From the bottom of the pyramid to the top: physiological needs, safety and security needs, belongingness and love needs, esteem needs, and the need for self-actualization. Physiological needs, on the bottom of the pyramid, are the strongest and most immediate needs. Maslow theorized that we will not become motivated by needs higher on the pyramid until needs lower on the pyramid have been met. For example, if we are starving, we probably won't be motivated to explore online dating services. The need for self-actualization, at the top of the pyramid, is the weakest and most easily postponed. A person probably won't be concerned with moral enlightenment and intellectual enrichment (needs associated with self-actualization) if he is going through a divorce and his home is about to be foreclosed. 80. The answer should indicate that the job of a thermostat is to maintain a preset temperature in a house or other similar location. When the temperature in the house gets too hot or too cold, the thermostat sends electrical signals to turn on the air conditioning or the heat. The thermostat continues to monitor the temperature and turns off the air conditioning or heat when the desired temperature is reached. The brain and body work in the same way. When the body is not in equilibrium, it sends a signal to initiate a corrective action, such as drinking or eating. Once equilibrium has been restored, the brain sends a signal to terminate those actions. According to Clark Hull, disequilibrium produces a "need," which Hull called a drive, and his drive-reduction theory suggested that the primary motivation of all organisms is to reduce their drives. 81. Approach motivation is the motivation to experience positive outcomes. Avoidance motivation is the motivation to avoid experiencing negative outcomes. Pleasure and pain are distinct experiences, and research shows that avoidance motivation tends to be stronger than approach motivation. To consider which is stronger, researchers ask questions about whether people would bet on a coin flip that will pay you $100 when it lands heads up but require you to pay $80 if it lands on tails. Mathematically speaking, this should be an attractive wager because the potential gain is larger than the potential loss. Yet most people refuse this bet due to loss aversion, or the tendency to care more about avoiding losses than about achieving equal-size gains. 82. The answer should indicate that emotions can be classified according to arousal (how active or passive the emotion is) and valence (whether the emotion is positive or negative). These two dimensions are placed at right angles to each other, forming four quadrants. Any particular emotion can be represented in this two-dimensional space. For example: high-arousal/negative valence: afraid; high-arousal/positive valence: excited; low-arousal/negative valence: bored; low-arousal/positive valence: content.

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Chap 09_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Damage to the prefrontal cortex impairs: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhances crystallized intelligence. 2. Research on color meaning with JB, who suffered progressive deterioration in understanding the meaning of words, even though he performed well on many other perceptual and cognitive tasks, demonstrated that JB was able to: a. verbally name colors presented to him. b. associate the name of a color with a name of an object (e.g., a yellow banana). c. sort color patches into piles of red, green, and blue. d. match a color to the word of the color. 3. Shannon and Karen are monozygotic twins. This means that any differences in their intelligence are influenced: a. completely by heredity. b. equally by heredity and environment. c. largely by environment. d. completely by environment. 4. Which theory of language development holds that it is best explained as an innate, biological capacity? a. behaviorist b. nativist c. interactionist d. psychodynamic 5. JB, a man with declining color language abilities, is shown a photo of a girl holding a red balloon. When asked to name the color of the balloon, he would: a. state that she is holding a grey balloon, as he cannot see the color red. b. state that she is holding a red balloon. c. be unable to match the color of the balloon with a red color chip. d. be unable to identify the color of the balloon.

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Chap 09_5e 6. A sentence in the English language must contain one or more verbs, which can be combined with adverbs or articles to create verb phrases. This demonstrates: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. 7. Which statement regarding gifted children is true? a. Gifted children are rarely gifted in multiple ways. b. Most gifted children excel in mathematics. c. Most gifted children have difficulty focusing. d. Gifted children are happier than their nongifted peers. 8. Based on research by Hershfield and colleagues (2019), which of these saving plans are people MOST likely to sign up for? a. saving $3 per day b. saving $19 per week c. saving $83 per month d. saving $1,000 per year 9. Laurence is learning a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to product meaningful messages. He is learning: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. 10. Which statement about Lewis Terman's work is FALSE? a. He produced the Stanford–Binet Intelligence Scale. b. He believed that White people are superior and their intelligence is inherited. c. He claimed that people of color are inferior and less intelligent due to their genetic makeup. d. He claimed that intelligence is determined by race alone. 11. _____ make human language grammatically complex enough to permit us to express abstract ideas rather than simply to point verbally to real objects in the here and now. a. Phonemes b. Function morphemes c. Syntax d. Content morphemes

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Chap 09_5e 12. The ability to easily recall what a German shepherd looks like is BEST predicted by: a. activity in Wernicke's area. b. category-specific deficit. c. prototype theory. d. exemplar theory. 13. Which technique is currently NOT available for increasing one's intelligence? a. better education b. cognitive enhancers c. gene-editing d. improved nutrition 14. Which statement is FALSE? a. Environment can determine whether a gene will actually do anything. b. Genetics have a direct effect on the brain, whereas the environment has no effect on the brain. c. Genes and environment have direct and independent effects on the brain. d. Genes may influence the type of environments people are drawn towards or away from. 15. Deshawn has an English test on which he has to provide the definitions of vocabulary words. This test requires _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid 16. All English sentences must contain at least one: a. noun. b. noun phrase. c. adjective. d. verb phrase. 17. Esperenza scored highest in the middle-level ability of verbal skills. Which activity is she MOST likely to excel in? a. making a legal argument b. recalling a legal argument made in a movie c. giving a speech highlighting the importance of logical problem solving d. solving logic problems

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Chap 09_5e 18. The interactionist approach to language development differs from the behaviorist approach in that the interactionist approach: a. posits that humans have an innate ability to acquire language. b. posits that environmental factors affect language development. c. does not support the existence of a language acquisition device. d. places a heavier emphasis on the role of social interactions in language development. 19. As someone with autism, Ravi is MOST likely to be impaired in his ability to: a. perceive images. b. solve novel problems. c. perceive sound. d. apply knowledge he has learned through experience. 20. African Americans score, on average, _____ points lower on standardized intelligence tests than do European Americans. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 21. To find out if intelligence is a single general ability, Charles Spearman measured how well school-age children could discriminate small differences in color, auditory pitch, and weight. He correlated these scores with the children's: a. g. b. IQ. c. academic performance. d. musical performance. 22. When Jesus says to his babysitter "Where blanket?" and "More milk," he is demonstrating use of: a. telegraphic speech. b. fast mapping. c. phonemes. d. babbling. 23. The interactionist approach to language development focuses on the interplay between: a. reinforcement and social learning. b. social interactions and learning. c. biology and experience. d. biology and the language acquisition device.

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Chap 09_5e 24. Shane is loud and outgoing, and describes himself as "the life of the party." When given the choice of guessing whether Shane is a DJ or a banker, most people guess that Shane is a DJ due to: a. availability bias. b. framing effects. c. the representativeness heuristic. d. the conjunction fallacy. 25. "The small cat on the building" is not considered a complete sentence in the English language due to: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. 26. Which statement about category preferences for objects is true? a. People who are blind from birth show levels of activity that are similar to sighted individuals in category-preferential regions of the brain. b. Category-specific organization of visual regions depends heavily on visual experiences. c. Regions of the visual cortex and temporal lobe in people who are blind from birth are much less active than those of sighted individuals in response to animals and tools. d. Category-specific brain organization is not innately determined. 27. Margarie has just begun to use two-word phrases. She is probably about _____ months old. a. 6–12 b. 4–6 c. 18–24 d. 24–36 28. The correlation between intelligence and educational level is _____ because _____. a. small; education produces only small increases in intelligence b. small; the effects of education on intelligence dissipate over time c. large; education produces large increases in intelligence d. large; intelligent people tend to stay in school longer 29. What is speech that is devoid of function morphemes and consists mostly of content words? a. babbling b. phonological development c. fast mapping d. telegraphic speech

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Chap 09_5e 30. Which statement about generational differences in intelligence is true? a. Fluid intelligence has increased, but crystallized intelligence has not. b. Crystallized intelligence has increased, but fluid intelligence has not. c. Fluid intelligence has increased more than has crystallized intelligence. d. Crystallized intelligence has increased more than has fluid intelligence. 31. After Scott's accident, he can be overheard saying, "School is like a big blue cloud. I think the purple balloon is hot. But it wants evidence for a stapler." Scott has probably experienced damage to the _____ cortex. a. right prefrontal b. left frontal c. left temporal d. right temporal 32. Gloria's grandmother suffers from Alzheimer's disease. As a result, her grandmother is MOST likely to be impaired in her ability to: a. define words she has learned in the past. b. solve novel problems. c. perceive shapes and colors. d. perceive sounds. 33. Uyen is considering the purchase of a new vacuum, and has chosen a model that she'd like to own. Of those that already own that model, 80% report that they would buy it again, and Uyen thinks that is very favorable. Kahira, who is also considering the purchase of that model, reads that 20% of the vacuum's owners would NOT buy it again, which she thinks is unacceptably high. Why would Uyen and Kahira reach different conclusions based on the same statistic? a. Uyen received information that was framed in a favorable way, whereas Kahira received the exact same information but framed in an unfavorable way. b. When forming their decisions, Uyen used base-rate data, and Kahira used anecdotal data. c. Uyen relied on the representativeness heuristic when making his decision, whereas Kahira relied on the availability heuristic. d. Neither Uyen nor Kahira fully considered other vacuums, so both their judgments were guided by the conjunction fallacy. 34. Who argued that children would be better served if schools used an objective test to measure their intelligence rather than allowing teachers to make subjective evaluations of the children? a. Binet and Simon b. Goddard and Thurstone c. Thurstone and Simon d. Simon and Stanford

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Chap 09_5e 35. According to Dr. Barry Schwartz, to use our intelligence properly, we need all of these "intellectual virtues" EXCEPT: a. manipulation. b. honesty. c. wisdom. d. good listening. 36. Abigail has started babbling consonants. How old is she likely to be? a. 0 to 4 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months 37. The fact that intelligence "runs in families" does NOT necessarily prove a genetic component to intelligence because: a. research rarely conducts genotypes on the actual family members studied. b. family members share a similar environment. c. family members are not as genetically similar as was believed in earlier times. d. few studies have conducted intelligence research on identical twins. 38. Brady's prototype of art is painting. Based on prototype theory, he will MOST likely exclude _____ from his category of art. a. drawing b. dance c. pottery d. collage 39. Following a stroke, Randy is having difficulty identifying animals; however, he is still able to recognize objects in any other category. Randy's stroke likely occurred in the: a. right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. b. left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex. c. cerebellum. d. midbrain. 40. Sentences in the English language must contain one or more nouns. This demonstrates: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule.

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Chap 09_5e 41. Agnes suffered a stroke that resulted in brain damage. Agnes now speaks in short staccato sentences devoid of function morphemes. However, Agnes does not have difficulty understanding the meaning of language spoken to her. She probably has suffered damage to the _____ lobe. a. right prefrontal b. left frontal c. left temporal d. right temporal 42. In the three-level hierarchy of mental ability, group factors are: a. middle-level abilities similar to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. b. top-level factors similar to Spearman's g. c. middle-level abilities similar to Spearman's s. d. third-level factors similar to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. 43. The exemplar theory of categorization holds that: a. items will not be considered for category membership unless they share a defining characteristic with the exemplar. b. categories are defined based on the average difference between a prototype and an exemplar. c. category judgments are made by comparing a new instance with stored memories of other instances of a category. d. only the best examples of a category will be included for membership in that category. 44. The psychologist most noted for his contributions to the WAIS intelligence test is: a. Alfred Binet. b. Henry Goddard. c. David Wechsler. d. Theodore Simon. 45. Dr. Cheng is a research psychologist meeting with her friends Preet and Simmi, who are expectant parents. Simmi asks Dr. Cheng for some advice on how to maximize their child's intelligence. Which empirically based suggestion would Dr. Cheng MOST likely provide? a. Consume a high-sugar diet during pregnancy. b. Allow the child to watch 4 hours of educational TV per day. c. Provide a stable financial environment for the child. d. Enroll the child in many extracurricular activities.

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Chap 09_5e 46. Which statement about siblings with significantly different IQs is true? a. The less intelligent sibling will earn approximately half the income of the more intelligent sibling. b. Despite differing in intelligence, the siblings will receive approximately the same number of years of education. c. Despite differing in intelligence, the siblings will earn approximately the same income. d. The less intelligent sibling will tend to have a faster reaction time on basic tasks than will the more intelligent sibling. 47. A set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages is called: a. language. b. grammar. c. syntax. d. phonemes. 48. Sentences in the English language can contain noun phrases by combining nouns with adjectives. This demonstrates: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. 49. Mila is 23 years old and recently graduated from college with an English major. She is outgoing, smart, and empathetic. Which statement MOST likely describes Mila? a. Mila plans to attend nursing school. b. Mila plans to attend nursing school and plays the piano. c. Mila plans to attend nursing school, plays the piano, and volunteers at a local school. d. Mila plans to attend nursing school, plays the piano, volunteers at a local school, and recently adopted a puppy. 50. According to Robert Sternberg, practical intelligence is BEST able to predict: a. creativity. b. imagination. c. job performance. d. analytic intelligence.

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Chap 09_5e 51. Which of these is NOT an intellectual virtue that is necessary to use intelligence properly? a. love of truth b. empathy c. perspective-taking d. competitiveness 52. Scientists have created a strain of "smart mice" by manipulating the genes that guide: a. the brain's reward pathway. b. the development of Wernicke's area. c. hippocampal development. d. the development of the orbitofrontal cortex. 53. Part of the interview process for hiring new workers at an IKEA store includes testing each worker's ability to demonstrate strategies related to how to assemble a piece of IKEA furniture without instructions. The manager of the store believes that the result of this work-related test predicts future job performance. The manager's belief is most consistent with _____ argument that _____ intelligence better predicts job performance than does analytical intelligence. a. Sternberg's; practical b. Carroll's; middle-level c. Thurstone's; specific d. Spearman's; general 54. Who created the first intelligence tests as part of education reforms? a. Henry Goddard and Louis Thurstone b. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon c. Theodore Simon and Charles Spearman d. Louis Thurstone and Leland Stanford 55. _____ are drugs that improve the psychological processes that underlie intelligent performance. a. Cognitive enhancers b. Lithium salts c. Psychedelics d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

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Chap 09_5e 56. Shirley has been working on a large quilt for the past month. As the quilt has become close to completion, she realizes that she is no longer happy with the pattern she's chosen. She continues on to finish the quilt, however, because she doesn't want the hard work she's invested to the quilt to go to waste. Shirley's reasoning BEST illustrates the: a. sunk-cost fallacy. b. conjunction fallacy. c. representative heuristic. d. optimism bias. 57. Sixty-eight percent of all people have an IQ score between: a. 70 and 100. b. 85 and 115. c. 90 and 120. d. 100 and 130. 58. Studies of the acquisition of a new language in internationally adopted preschoolers are useful because they allow researchers to: a. determine the influence of culture on language acquisition. b. determine the influence of nature versus nurture on language acquisition. c. separate language learning from general cognitive development. d. determine how language learning changes with age. 59. Wesley currently has a vocabulary of about 1,000 words and produces phrases and incomplete sentences. How old is he likely to be? a. 10 to 12 months b. 12 to 18 months c. 18 to 24 months d. 24 to 26 months 60. As an emotionally intelligent person, Shavonda can do all of these EXCEPT: a. know what kinds of emotions a particular event will trigger. b. identify, describe, and manage her emotions. c. not use emotions to make better decisions. d. identify other people's emotions from facial expressions. 61. Stereotype threat is: a. the tendency to interpret new evidence as confirmation of one's existing beliefs or theories. b. a widely held but fixed and oversimplified image or idea of a particular type of person or thing. c. the phenomenon of interpreting and judging others by standards inherent to one's own culture. d. the fear of confirming the negative beliefs that others may hold. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 62. Children make _____ errors when learning to speak, and the errors they make still _____ grammatical rules. a. many; do not respect b. few; respect c. many; respect d. few; do not respect 63. Zarah's IQ is higher than her great-grandfather's IQ was. Which of these is NOT a possible explanation for this observation? a. Zarah spends more time practicing abstract problems. b. Zarah's environment determined the range in which her IQ was likely to fall, and her genes determined the exact IQ. c. Zarah has access to better education. d. Zarah has improved nutrition. 64. Which statement about intelligence levels among different groups of people is true? a. Asians outperform Whites on standard intelligence tests. b. On average, Whites and Blacks score similarly on intelligence tests, although the variability in intelligence among Blacks is higher. c. Women outperform men on standard intelligence tests. d. Men outperform women on standard intelligence tests. 65. The view that people make decisions by determining how likely something is to happen, judging the value of the outcome, and then multiplying the two is called: a. psychoeconomics. b. the rational choice theory. c. an algorithm. d. quantitative psychology. 66. _____ enable(s) us to make difficult decisions when "intellectual virtues" conflict. a. Wisdom b. Humility c. Courage d. Perspective-taking and empathy

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Chap 09_5e 67. Speeding in the town of Chanceville traditionally results in a $300 fine. The judge at the traffic court, however, decides to change the policy. People found guilty of speeding have the choice of paying the $300 fine or spinning a wheel. There is an 80% chance that the needle on the wheel will land on a $400 fine and a 20% chance that the needle will land on "No Fine." Based on prospect theory, the city leaders of Chanceville probably will _____ this new policy because _____. a. oppose; it will result in a 20% loss in revenue b. oppose; it will result in an 80% loss in revenue c. support; most people will pay an average fine that is $100 higher d. be indifferent about; most people will continue to pay the $300 fine instead of take a risk 68. In 1981, deaf children from Nicaragua who had not been taught sign language at home were enrolled in a new vocational school. Prior to learning formal sign language at the school, the children: a. demonstrated enhanced written language abilities as they wrote each other notes to communicate. b. began to communicate with an invented sign language. c. continued to vocally babble in the absence of any sign language instruction. d. suffered serious social deficits, as they could not communicate with one another. 69. Jada is a strong public speaker. Based on this, Thurstone would predict that she: a. can quickly and easily read maps. b. is proficient at solving numerical problems. c. is good at crossword puzzles. d. is good at rotating three-dimensional objects in her mind. 70. Part of the interview process for hiring new workers in the wood mill includes testing each worker's ability to demonstrate strategies related to how to make the first cuts on a piece of lumber. The manager of the mill believes that the result of this work-related test predicts future job performance. The manager's belief is MOST consistent with _____ argument that _____ intelligence better predicts job performance than does analytical intelligence. a. Thurstone's; specific b. Carroll's; middle-level c. Sternberg's; practical d. Spearman's; general 71. Where is Broca's area located? a. left frontal cortex b. right frontal cortex c. left temporal cortex d. right temporal cortex

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Chap 09_5e 72. Damage to the front part of the left temporal lobe results in difficulty identifying: a. humans. b. animals. c. tools. d. plants. 73. Men typically outscore women on tests that involve: a. rapid access to and the use of semantic information. b. fine motor skills. c. spatial memory. d. production and comprehension of complex prose. 74. Who would explain language development in terms of an innate, biological capacity because the human brain comes equipped with internal processes that facilitate learning language? a. Skinner b. Curtiss c. Pyers d. Chomsky 75. Which statements about racial differences in intelligence is FALSE? a. African Americans who have a higher percentage of European genes tend to have higher intelligence scores than do African Americans with a lower percentage of European genes. b. Biases in the testing situation might explain some, but not all, of the racial differences in intelligence scores. c. Racial differences in intelligence scores can plausibly be accounted for by environmental factors. d. Scientists have not isolated a genetic basis for racial differences in intelligence. 76. Research has shown a(n) _____ between gray matter density in the left parietal lobe and proficiency in a second language. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. close to zero correlation due to suspected third variables d. inverse correlation due to suspected third variables 77. According to rational choice theory, when given the choice of these alternatives, a rational person will choose: a. 80% opportunity to gain $100. b. 50% opportunity to gain $500. c. 40% opportunity to gain $2,000. d. 10% opportunity to gain $5,000. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 78. The concept that we classify new objects by comparing them to the "best" or "most typical" member of a category is referred to as: a. exemplar theory. b. a heuristic. c. category-specific deficit. d. prototype theory. 79. _____ intelligence is the ability to reason about emotions and use emotions to enhance _____. a. Emotional; reasoning b. Emotional; creativity c. Practical; logic d. Practical; creativity 80. The _____ involves making a probability judgment by comparing an object or event with a prototype of the object or event. a. optimism bias b. availability bias c. sunk-cost fallacy d. representativeness heuristic 81. The two-factory theory of intelligence was developed by: a. Louis Thurstone. b. Alfred Binet. c. Charles Spearman. d. John Carroll. 82. Which statement is true about the role of the right cerebral hemisphere in language capabilities? a. It contains Broca's and Wernicke's areas. b. It contains Broca's area. c. It plays no role in language processing. d. It plays a supportive role in language processing. 83. Camilo was in an accident during which he experienced damage to his prefrontal cortex. This is likely to lead to impairment in: a. fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. b. crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. fluid and crystallized intelligence equally. d. fluid intelligence but enhanced crystallized intelligence.

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Chap 09_5e 84. Which statement about a child's mastery of language is true? a. At every stage of language development, children understand language better than they can speak it. b. At every stage of language development, children speak language better than they can understand it. c. At every stage of language development, children understand and speak language with equal ability. d. Children understand language better than they can speak it during early language development, but eventually understand and speak language with equal ability at later stages of language development. 85. The ability of environmental stimuli to produce changes in brain wiring: a. increases with age until adolescence. b. increases across the life span. c. is relatively unaffected by age. d. decreases with age. 86. After Jackson's stroke, he can be overheard saying, "School is like a big blue cloud. I think the purple balloon is hot. But it wants evidence for a stapler." Jackson also has an extremely difficult time understanding others when they talk to him. Jackson's symptoms are consistent with: a. damage to Broca's area. b. damage to Wernicke's area. c. genetic dysphasia. d. category-specific deficit. 87. Sharee recently experienced a traumatic brain injury that damaged her prefrontal cortex. After the injury, Sharee: a. will be less likely to make risky decisions. b. may experience exaggerated emotional arousal to gambling wins. c. will become more sensitive to the future consequences of her behavior. d. may experience blunted emotional arousal to the prospect of making a risky decision. 88. Which claim made by Lewis Terman is FALSE? a. Genes influence intelligence. b. Members of some racial groups score better than others on intelligence tests. c. Members of some racial groups score better than others on intelligence tests because of differences in their genes. d. In the United States, White people outperform people of color on the Stanford–Binet Intelligence Scale.

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Chap 09_5e 89. Humans are good at estimating: a. frequency. b. probability. c. both frequency and probability. d. probability in childhood and frequency in adulthood. 90. Lin is an Asian American young adult writing the GRE standardized test. Lin is likely to do her WORST on the mathematics portion of the test in which of these conditions? a. when asked to report her socioeconomic status at the start of the test b. when asked to report her ethnicity at the start of the test c. when asked to report her gender at the start of the test d. All of the above conditions will affect her score equally. 91. Which statement about JB's performance on color-meaning tasks is true? a. JB could verbally name colors presented to him. b. JB could associate the name of a color with a name of an object (e.g., a yellow banana). c. JB could not sort color patches into piles of red, green, and blue. d. JB could not match a color to the word of the color. 92. Intelligence tests given in the 1920s that supposedly were designed to identify if certain immigrant groups were "feebleminded" led the United States to pass laws restricting immigration from: a. northern Europe. b. Australia and New Zealand. c. the Middle East. d. southern and eastern Europe. 93. Individuals with prefrontal cortex damage engaged in a risky gambling task will NOT show emotional arousal: a. prior to a risky play. b. after experiencing a win but will be emotionally aroused after losses. c. after experiencing a loss but will be emotionally aroused after wins. d. after experiencing both wins and losses. 94. Rodrigo has genetic dysphasia. Which statement about Rodrigo is NOT true? a. Rodrigo probably has normal intelligence. b. There is an increased chance that people in Rodrigo's family also have genetic dysphasia. c. Rodrigo has difficulty with learning correct grammatical syntax. d. Rodrigo has difficulty with phoneme pronunciation.

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Chap 09_5e 95. Jacob scores the same as an average 10-year-old on an intelligence test, even though he is 14 years old. According to Binet and Simon, Jacob: a. is intellectually gifted. b. is intellectually average. c. may need remedial education. d. is likely very creative. 96. Harold is a part of a neuroimaging study investigating the role of the brain in category-specific processing. Which part of his brain is MOST likely to activate when he is shown photos of humans? a. front part of left temporal lobe b. lower left temporal lobe c. region where the temporal lobe meets the occipital and parietal lobes d. motor cortex 97. If you were administered a standardized intelligence test at multiple points over the course of your life, at which age would you probably score the highest? a. 10 b. 20 c. 35 d. 70 98. Jack the Ripper was a serial killer who, in 1888, murdered at least five women in London's slums. Medical examiners at the time were split on the issue of whether Jack the Ripper was right- or left-handed. In the population, about 90% of people are right-handed. Nevertheless, one of the doctors was adamant in his opinion that the wounds suggested a left-handed perpetrator. Based on all the data, what can MOST logically be concluded? a. The odds that Jack the Ripper was left-handed are slightly higher than chance. b. The odds that Jack the Ripper was right-handed are slightly higher than chance. c. The odds that Jack the Ripper was right-handed are much higher than chance. d. There is about a 50% probability that Jack the Ripper was left-handed. 99. Leila takes a test on which she is shown a number of seemingly random shapes and asked, under time pressure, to determine if a pattern exists. This test requires _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid

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Chap 09_5e 100. People with damage to the prefrontal cortex perform MOST similarly to _____ on gambling tasks. a. alcoholics b. split-brain patients c. amnesiacs d. persons who are depressed 101. Which statement about gifted children is FALSE? a. Gifted children typically spend more time engaged in their domain of excellence. b. Profoundly gifted children are more likely to become major contributors to their fields of work than are moderately intelligent children. c. Gifted children often become high-achieving adults. d. Gifted children are rarely gifted in several domains. 102. Val demonstrates _____ intelligence because she has the ability to identify, define, and find strategies for solving problems. a. analytic b. crystallized c. practical d. inductive 103. A set of rules that indicate how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds is called: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. 104. _____ intelligence is the ability to apply knowledge that was acquired through experience. a. General b. Practical c. Crystallized d. Fluid 105. People often make decisions about a current situation based on what they have previously invested in the situation. This behavior illustrates: a. the sunk-cost fallacy. b. the availability bias. c. rational economic theory. d. base-price sensitivity.

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Chap 09_5e 106. "The bird in the front yard" is not considered a complete sentence in the English language due to: a. a morphological rule. b. a syntactic rule. c. grammar. d. a phonological rule. 107. Which of these is NOT one of the types of intelligence defined by Robert Sternberg? a. analytic b. creative c. practical d. emotional 108. During concept formation, the prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia are involved in: a. visual processing. b. forming prototypes. c. learning exemplars. d. holistic concept formation. 109. American adults have reported that their biggest financial regret was: a. spending too much money on a car. b. buying a home. c. not saving enough for retirement. d. going to college. 110. People who frequently engage in risky behaviors are extremely insensitive to the _____ consequences of their behavior. a. immediate negative b. immediate positive c. future d. past 111. According to Skinner's theory of language acquisition, an infant learns to say "ma-ma" in the presence of her mother because: a. this association is genetically built into the language acquisition device. b. the mother is an unconditioned stimulus that elicits this unconditioned response. c. speaking the word is intrinsically reinforcing. d. mothers provide reinforcement for utterances that sound more and more like "ma-ma."

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Chap 09_5e 112. Which statement about cognitive enhancers is true? a. They do not exist. b. They can permanently improve people's ability to focus. c. All cognitive enhancers are stimulants. d. They can have damaging side effects and lead to abuse. 113. What happens if a gene is turned on? a. The gene influences the development and function of the brain. b. The gene is silent and does nothing. c. The gene allows for environmental influences on its expression. d. Developmental processes determine the differentiation of DNA. 114. In the three-level hierarchy of mental ability, the general factor is analogous to: a. Thurstone's primary mental abilities. b. Spearman's g. c. Spearman's s. d. Carroll's crystalized intelligence. 115. _____ is a system for communicating with others using signals that are combined according to the rules of grammar and that convey meaning. a. Semantics b. Language c. Syntax d. Babbling 116. Alia competes successfully at local math competitions for her middle school. The two-factor theory of intelligence predicts that Alia probably: a. could learn how to play a musical instrument without too much struggle. b. would struggle to learn a foreign language. c. has little interest in poetry. d. has a lower g score than she does an s score. 117. Eduardo is an 8-year-old Spanish and English speaker who has been bilingual since birth. He may: a. have a later onset of Alzheimer's disease than monolingual individuals. b. have similar gray matter density in language centers in the brain compared to his monolingual peers. c. score lower on cognitive functioning tests than his monolingual peers. d. have an earlier onset of Alzheimer's disease than monolingual individuals.

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Chap 09_5e 118. Which view of language development holds that language is an innate, biological capacity that humans possess? a. interactionist b. behaviorist c. nativist d. humanist 119. The word and is an example of a _____ morpheme. a. content b. phonetic c. tangible d. function 120. The rational choice theory of decision making predicts that our judgments will vary depending on: a. the value we assign to possible outcomes of our decisions. b. frequency but not probability. c. our history of successfully attaining other goals based on our decisions. d. the likelihood that someone else will pursue the same decision goals as us. 121. At what point is acquiring language almost impossible? a. after 2 years of age b. after 4 years of age c. after puberty d. during young adulthood 122. Bryson just began babbling. He is likely between the ages of _____ months. a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 5 d. 4 and 6 123. The prototype theory of categorization states that: a. people make category judgments by comparing new instances with the category's prototype. b. each member of a category serves as its own ideal, or prototype. c. only the best exemplars of a category will be considered for membership into that category. d. category prototypes are genetically determined and universal to all cultures.

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Chap 09_5e 124. _____ intelligence is the ability to solve and reason about novel problems. a. General b. Practical c. Crystallized d. Fluid 125. Jamir is 40 years old, hardworking, and intelligent, with a great sense of humor. In college, he majored in business and was very concerned with economic decision making. Which statement MOST likely describes Jamir? a. Jamir owns his own business. b. Jamir owns his own business and plays guitar. c. Jamir owns his own business, plays guitar, and is a father to two young boys. d. Jamir owns his own business, plays guitar, is a father to two young boys, and enjoys watching stand up comedy. 126. Erin currently has a vocabulary of 30 to 50 words that include simple nouns, adjectives, and action words. How old is she likely to be? a. 10 to 12 months b. 12 to 18 months c. 18 to 24 months d. 24 to 26 months 127. _____ morphemes refer to things and events. a. Content b. Phonetic c. Tangible d. Function 128. Which expression is an example of telegraphic speech? a. ball b. bat and ball c. throw d. hit ball 129. JB, a man with declining color language abilities, is shown a photo of a girl holding a red balloon. When asked to name the color of the balloon, he would: a. state that she is holding a grey balloon, as he cannot see the color red. b. state that she is holding a red balloon. c. be able to match the color of the balloon with a red color chip. d. state that it is the same color as a strawberry. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 130. Men typically outscore women on tests that involve: a. rapid access to and the use of semantic information. b. fine motor skills. c. production and comprehension of complex prose. d. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. 131. Intellectually disabled is to intellectually gifted as _____ is to _____. a. happy; depressed b. misunderstood; tortured c. general; specific d. socially outcast; socially accepted 132. Which statement about the mechanisms underlying categorization is FALSE? a. Exemplar-based learning involves the prefrontal cortex. b. The left hemisphere of the brain is mainly active in recognizing exemplars. c. The visual cortex is involved in forming prototypes. d. Exemplar-based learning involves analysis and decision making. 133. Which statement illustrates the use of a function morpheme? a. bat ball b. throw ball c. more ball d. the ball 134. Which statement about the heritability of intelligence is true? a. The greater the percentage of European genes a person has, the higher his or her intelligence level. b. Intelligence is influenced by a very large number of genes. c. African Americans are more likely than European Americans to have a gene for intelligence. d. Intelligence is strongly influenced by only two genes. 135. The industrial and technological revolutions have influenced intelligence. This has been demonstrated by: a. confirmation bias. b. cultural bias. c. stereotype threat. d. the Flynn effect.

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Chap 09_5e 136. In the three-level hierarchy of intelligence tests, _____ factor(s) is/are at the top, _____ factor(s) is/are in the middle, and _____ factor(s) is/are at the bottom. a. a general; specific; group b. specific; group; a general c. group; a general; specific d. a general; group; specific 137. _____ rules indicate how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences. a. Morphological b. Phonological c. Syntactical d. Deep structure 138. Binet and Simon designed their intelligence test to measure a child's: a. aptitude for learning. b. prior educational achievement. c. future job performance. d. creativity. 139. A set of rules that indicate how morphemes can be combined to form words is called: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. 140. Imagining is to doing as _____ intelligence is to _____ intelligence. a. analytic; practical b. analytic; creative c. creative; practical d. emotional; creative 141. Hai is easily able to remember the names of all the U.S. presidents. Based on this, Thurstone would predict that he: a. remembers all of his friends' birthdays. b. is proficient at solving numerical problems. c. solves logic problems quickly. d. is good at navigating with a map.

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Chap 09_5e 142. In 1981, deaf children from Nicaragua who had not been taught sign language at home were enrolled in a new vocational school. The children's development of a new sign language provides evidence for which theory of language development? a. interactionist b. nativist c. behaviorist d. genetic 143. Isabella, the student body president, excels at giving speeches. Isabella likely excels at _____, one of the mid-level abilities in the three-level hierarchy of mental abilities. a. visual perception b. memory c. reasoning d. verbal skill 144. A statistic obtained by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult's test score and then multiplying the quotient by 100 is a. the ratio IQ. b. the deviation IQ. c. academic performance. d. musical performance. 145. When you are attempting to solve an abstract word problem you have never seen before and are given 3 minutes to come up with the solution, you probably rely more on your _____ intelligence. a. crystallized b. fluid c. emotional d. nonverbal 146. The process whereby children can chart a word onto an underlying concept after only a single exposure is referred to as: a. babbling. b. phonological development. c. fast mapping. d. telegraphic speech.

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Chap 09_5e 147. According to prospect theory, when will people choose to take on risks? a. never, as it is a rational choice model b. when evaluating potential gains c. when evaluating potential losses d. when outcomes are framed in terms of probability 148. Cory is a 10-year-old who is a gifted violinist. Rachel is the same age and is an above-average violinist. Research suggests that what separates Cory from Rachel in terms of their relative gifts for playing the violin is that: a. Cory probably devotes much less time to playing yet still performs at a superior level. b. Cory's numerical ability far exceeds Rachel's, and this translates to musical giftedness. c. Cory's somatosensory cortex and right temporal lobe are much more active than are Rachel's while playing. d. Cory probably devotes much more focused time to playing the violin than does Rachel. 149. IQ is a statistic obtained by: a. subtracting a person's test score from the average score of people in the same age group and multiplying the result by 100. b. adding a person's test score to the average score of people in the same age group and then subtracting 100. c. dividing a person's test score by the average test score of people in the same age group and multiplying the result by 100. d. dividing the average test score of people in a given age group by the score of an individual in that age group and multiplying the result by 100. 150. In the early 20th century, _____ were used to justify different forms of discrimination, including forced sterilization of people who were poor and uneducated. a. structural abnormalities b. numerical disorders c. intelligence tests d. epigenetics 151. The "best" or "most typical" member of a category is called a(n): a. concept. b. prototype. c. exemplar. d. heuristic.

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Chap 09_5e 152. Learning to form the past tense of words: a. does not require explicit awareness of grammatical rules. b. requires formal study of syntax provided by parents or schools. c. occurs through trial and error. d. begins at around age 5. 153. The first intelligence tests were developed as part of education reforms in: a. England. b. the United States. c. France. d. Germany. 154. A common cause of intellectual disability is an extra copy of chromosome 21, which results in a condition known as: a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. Down syndrome. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. genetic aphasia. 155. Internationally adopted preschoolers acquire a second language: a. in the same orderly sequence as younger monolingual infants. b. without having to progress through as many steps as younger monolingual infants. c. almost immediately because syntax was already learned in their native language. d. much more slowly than do younger monolingual infants, reflecting interference from their native language. 156. Which expression is a sentence? a. dogs b. the dogs c. the dogs, who were barking very noisily d. dogs bark 157. A _____ is a mental representation that groups or categorizes shared features of related objects, events, or other stimuli. a. prototype b. exemplar c. syntactic rule d. concept

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Chap 09_5e 158. Which statement is NOT true of optimism? a. Optimism is good for mental health. b. Optimistic individuals are usually able to handle stress well. c. Too much optimism may prevent us from taking steps to achieve our goals. d. Optimism has no influence on physical health. 159. Reading to children in an interactive manner has been shown to raise their IQs by about _____ points. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 160. Mila is a 65-year-old woman who has taken intelligence tests at multiple points in her life. Which statement is true about her test scores over time? a. Mila's scores remained relatively unchanged on tests of verbal reasoning. b. Mila's scores remained relatively unchanged on tests of spatial reasoning. c. Mila's scores improved significantly on tests of general information. d. Mila's scores decreased significantly on tests of vocabulary. 161. Who is most clearly associated with the idea of a universal grammar? a. Skinner b. Curtiss c. Pyers d. Chomsky 162. Jennifer has genetic dysphasia. She: a. is able to produce written language but unable to generate spoken language. b. finds certain aspects of human language difficult or impossible to learn, despite having normal intellectual abilities. c. acquired a language acquisition device only later in life. d. is able to generate spoken language but unable to produce written language. 163. Fast mapping occurs with vocabulary: a. only. b. and writing. c. and arithmetic. d. writing, and arithmetic.

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Chap 09_5e 164. Things and events are to _____ as grammatical functions are to _____. a. content morphemes; function morphemes b. phonological rules; morphological rules c. grammar; syntactic rules d. syntactic rules; phonological rules 165. _____ is difficulty producing or comprehending language. a. Dysphasia b. Dystaxia c. Apraxia d. Aphasia 166. Ba and pa sound different because when: a. pa is pronounced, the vocal cords begin to vibrate as soon as the sound begins. b. pa is pronounced, there is a 60-millisecond lag between the start of the sound and the beginning of vocal cord vibration. c. ba is pronounced, there is a 45-millisecond lag between the start of the sound and the beginning of vocal cord vibration. d. ba is pronounced, there is a 120-millisecond lag between the start of the sound and the beginning of vocal cord vibration. 167. Quinn just turned 1 year old and has a spoken vocabulary of 15 words. Which statement about Quinn's language development is true? a. Quinn soon should start learning 2 to 3 words per day for the next 4 years. b. Quinn understands the meaning of more than 15 words. c. Quinn is behind the norm in her language development. d. Quinn violates many grammatical rules when she speaks. 168. Which "intellectual virtue" allows students to recognize their own limitations and seek help from others? a. honesty b. humility c. courage d. perspective-taking and empathy 169. Mandi is 1 year old. If she is like other children her age, she has a vocabulary of about _____ words. a. 3 b. 10 c. 50 d. 100

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Chap 09_5e 170. Supplementing the diets of pregnant women with fatty acids found in breast milk has been found to enhance IQ by about _____ points. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 171. Louis Thurstone disagreed with Charles Spearman, instead believing that there are a few stable and independent mental abilities, NOT including _____ ability. a. perceptual b. general c. verbal d. numerical 172. Researchers examining language development and SES found that low-SES children: a. were exposed to millions more words by age 3 than children from high-SES families. b. performed similarly to high-SES students on 3rd-grade language tests. c. were exposed to fewer words by age 3 than children from high-SES families. d. and high-SES children are exposed to the same quality of words. 173. Which expression is a phoneme? a. dog b. d c. the dog d. the dog runs 174. Which statement about the babbling of deaf babies is FALSE? a. Deaf babies babble sounds they have never heard. b. Deaf babies babble sounds in the same order as that of hearing babies. c. Deaf babies babble with their hands at the same age that hearing children babble vocally. d. Deaf babies babble earlier than hearing babies. 175. Marco is about to turn 5 years old. He can expect to have a vocabulary of about _____ words. a. 1,000 b. 2,500 c. 5,000 d. 10,000

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Chap 09_5e 176. The fact that the initial sounds ts is acceptable in German but not in English demonstrates: a. phonological rules. b. morphological rules. c. grammar. d. syntactic rules. 177. Which statement about babbling is FALSE? a. Babbling is a signal that the infant is in a state of focused attention and is ready to learn language. b. The sounds m and n appear in infant babbling before d and t. c. Babbling is not a simple imitation of the sounds that infants hear. d. Deaf babies babble later than hearing babies. 178. Individuals with prefrontal cortex damage engaged in a risky gambling task will show emotional arousal: a. prior to a risky play. b. after experiencing a win but not a loss. c. after experiencing a loss but not a win. d. to both wins and losses. 179. Men typically outscore women on tests that involve: a. rapid access to and the use of semantic information. b. spatiotemporal responding. c. production and comprehension of complex prose. d. fine motor skills. 180. At what age can infants differentiate between phonemes? a. 0 to 4 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months 181. If we think of the brain as a machine that uses old information to produce new information, then _____ intelligence refers to the way the machine runs, and _____ intelligence refers to the information it produces. a. fluid; crystallized b. crystallized; practical c. creative; fluid d. practical; creative

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Chap 09_5e 182. Biologically unrelated siblings reared together have less similar intelligence test scores than do: a. identical twins reared apart. b. fraternal twins reared apart. c. parents and their biological children living together. d. adopted children reared together. 183. Leila is planning a graduation party for her son. She quickly glances over the list of people who will be attending from her family and her son's father's family. Without counting, the _____ will lead her to believe that more people are attending from her family. a. availability bias b. conjunctive fallacy c. framing effect d. representativeness heuristic 184. Asian and African cultures are more likely than are Western cultures to include _____ in their conceptualization of intelligence. a. fluid intelligence b. linguistic intelligence c. social cooperativeness d. spatial intelligence 185. Lin is a first-year law student who excels at making complex legal arguments. Lin probably scores highest in which middle-level ability? a. visual perception b. memory c. reasoning d. verbal skill 186. Asian and African cultures are more likely than are Western cultures to include _____ in their conceptualization of intelligence. a. humility b. emotional intelligence c. self-knowledge d. social responsibility 187. Which statement is true about intelligence and gender? a. The mean IQ for males is the same as the mean IQ for females. b. The mean IQ for males is higher than the mean IQ for females. c. The mean IQ for males is lower than the mean IQ for females. d. The variability among IQ scores is the same for both males and females. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 188. Honeybees communicate with each other by: a. using phonemes. b. doing a waggle dance. c. buzzing. d. rubbing their wings together. 189. People with Williams syndrome often cannot tie their own shoes, make their beds, or perform simple arithmetic; but often they have great talent in the area of music or language. This illustrates the complexities in developing a definition of: a. education. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. genetics. 190. Josie now has a vocabulary of about 10,000 words. About how old is Josie likely to be? a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 10 years 191. A(n) _____ is a mental shortcut that involves making a probability judgment by comparing an object or event with a prototype of the object or event. a. framing effect b. availability bias c. conjunction fallacy d. representativeness heuristic 192. Which statement about Lewis Terman's work is true? a. He believed that White people are inferior and their intelligence is inherited. b. He believed that White people are superior and their intelligence is inherited. c. He claimed that people of color are superior and more intelligent due to their genetic makeup. d. He claimed that intelligence is determined by race alone. 193. James wants to play catch with his dad. He gets his ball, and hands it to his father, and says, "Throw ball." James is demonstrating: a. babbling. b. phonological development. c. fast mapping. d. telegraphic speech.

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Chap 09_5e 194. Research involving brain damage and risky decision making has often focused on which brain region? a. Broca's area b. Wernicke's area c. prefrontal cortex d. hippocampus 195. Leslie and Shannon are monozygotic twins. Which statement about Leslie and Shannon is FALSE? a. If Leslie is a male, Shannon must be a male. b. Leslie and Shannon share 50% of their genes. c. Leslie and Shannon are identical twins. d. Leslie and Shannon developed from the splitting of a single egg. 196. Danielle is in college and has acquired the ability to understand and recognize her own limitations in understanding and has no problem asking for help if she needs it. She has developed which "intellectual virtue(s)"? a. honesty b. humility c. courage d. perspective-taking and empathy 197. During the first few years of life, language processing in the brain: a. becomes less concentrated in a few areas and more widely distributed. b. becomes more concentrated in a few areas and less distributed. c. shifts from Broca's area to Wernicke's area. d. shifts from Wernicke's area to Broca's area. 198. Activity in which brain region is MOST associated with forming prototypes? a. right hemisphere b. prefrontal cortex c. basal ganglia d. visual cortex 199. Sci-fi fans can generally easily classify a new character in a movie as an alien, despite the fact that aliens come in all shapes and sizes. This ability is BEST predicted by: a. rational choice theory. b. optimism bias. c. prototype theory. d. exemplar theory.

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Chap 09_5e 200. Bilingual individuals tend to have a later onset of _____ than do monolingual individuals. a. Parkinson's disease b. Alzheimer's disease c. schizophrenia d. multiple sclerosis 201. At what age can Shawn's parents expect him to begin using single words? a. 0 to 4 months b. 4 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months 202. The view that we learn language through principles of operant conditioning was proposed by: a. B. F. Skinner. b. Noam Chomsky. c. Carl Wernicke. d. Paul Broca. 203. With regard to determinants of language learning, behaviorists do NOT focus on: a. extinction. b. shaping. c. innate capacity. d. reinforcement. 204. Milo is a 67-year-old man who has taken intelligence tests at multiple points in his life. Which statement is FALSE about his test scores over time? a. Milo's scores remained relatively unchanged on tests of verbal reasoning. b. Milo's scores decreased significantly on tests of vocabulary. c. Milo's scores remained relatively unchanged on tests of general information. d. Milo's scores decreased significantly on tests of spatial reasoning. 205. According to _____, language-learning capacities are built into the brain, which is specialized to acquire language rapidly through simple exposure to speech. a. Skinner b. Curtiss c. Pyers d. Chomsky

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Chap 09_5e 206. Camila, Carmen, and Therese are all 40-year-old bilingual Spanish and English speakers. Which one is MOST likely to have developed the best Spanish skills? a. Camila, who began speaking Spanish at age 3 b. Carmen, who began speaking Spanish at age 9 c. Therese, who began speaking Spanish at age 15 d. Camila, Carmen, and Therese should have approximately equivalent Spanish. 207. Which statement about intelligence is FALSE? a. Intelligence buffers people against physical illness. b. Intelligence buffers people against mood disorders. c. Intelligence buffers people against personality disorders. d. Intelligence buffers people against low SES. 208. When deciding between playing a lottery game with an 80% chance of winning $4,000 or receiving $3,000 outright, _____ suggests that people will choose the _____. a. sunk-cost fallacy; lottery b. prospect theory; lottery c. rational choice theory; $3,000 d. prospect theory; $3,000 209. The likelihood that an event will occur is a _____ measure. a. rate b. probability c. frequency d. latency 210. Three-year-old Naomi added the words robin, maple, and oak to her vocabulary on her first encounter with these words during a hike in the woods. This is an example of: a. universal grammar. b. fast mapping. c. telegraphic speech. d. phonological rules.

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Chap 09_5e 211. Bebbin and Dania are 5-year-old girls who go to the same school but differ in their socioeconomic status. Bebbin comes from a low-SES family, while Dania comes from a high-SES family. Based on research findings, it can be predicted that: a. Bebbin will have poorer nutrition and medical care. b. Dania will experience greater daily stress due to her parents' high expectations. c. because they are classmates, Bebbin and Dania are equally likely to be exposed to environmental toxins. d. Bebbin's mother spends more time reading her stories. 212. Which statement about a child's ability to distinguish speech sounds is true? a. Newborns can distinguish among only a few sounds, but by 6 months, babies can distinguish among the sounds of all languages. b. Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, but by 6 months, babies lose this ability. c. Newborns can distinguish among the sounds of all languages, and this ability is retained throughout life. d. Newborns can distinguish among only the sounds that are spoken to them, and they never develop the ability to distinguish among the sounds of all languages. 213. Women typically outscore men on tests that involve: a. spatiotemporal responding. b. rapid use of semantic information. c. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. d. visual memory. 214. Emotional reactivity was measured by the galvanic skin response in healthy participants and participants with prefrontal cortex damage as they engaged in a gambling task. Compared with the healthy volunteers, the participants with prefrontal cortex damage: a. had a weaker emotional reaction to losses but not to wins. b. had a weaker emotional reaction to both wins and losses. c. had stronger emotional reactions to losses but not to wins. d. did not exhibit anticipatory emotional reactions as they gambled. 215. Bilgehan is an emotionally intelligent person. Which statement does NOT apply to Bilgehan? a. He has better romantic relationships. b. He is happy and satisfied with his life. c. He works hard at deciphering the emotions of others. d. He has better workplace relationships.

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Chap 09_5e 216. Agnes suffered a stroke that resulted in brain damage. While she has little problem understanding others, she herself can barely utter telegraphic sentences, such as "Give blanket" and "Monday appointment doctor." Agnes's symptoms are consistent with: a. damage to Broca's area. b. damage to Wernicke's area. c. genetic dysphasia. d. category-specific deficit. 217. Which group of people cannot distinguish between the sounds of la and ra? a. Japanese adults only b. Japanese infants and Japanese adults c. Japanese infants only d. Japanese infants, American infants, and Japanese adults 218. Ba and pa sound different because when: a. ba is pronounced, the vocal cords begin to vibrate as soon as the sound begins. b. ba is pronounced, there is a 60-millisecond lag between the start of the sound and the beginning of vocal cord vibration. c. pa is pronounced, the vocal cords begin to vibrate as soon as the sound begins. d. pa is pronounced, there is a 120-millisecond lag between the start of the sound and the beginning of vocal cord vibration. 219. Children overregularize the grammatical rules that guide their spoken language, resulting in speech language errors. The predictability of these errors illustrates an important point regarding language development, namely that language development: a. comes about mainly through imitating adult forms of speech. b. is primarily a matter of memorizing appropriate speech sounds and then repeating them. c. is a hit-or-miss enterprise; children acquire language largely through trial and error. d. is guided by implicit grammatical rules that children use to produce new sentences and verbal constructions they've never heard before. 220. Which test is NOT on the Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale IV (WAIS-IV)? a. Essay Writing Test b. Verbal Comprehension Test c. Working Memory Test d. Perceptual Reasoning Test

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Chap 09_5e 221. The brain organizes our concepts about the world and classifies them into categories based on: a. relative importance. b. shared similarities. c. biological utility. d. linguistic meaning. 222. Aarush is asked to identify which shape would best complete a pattern of shapes that he has never seen before. Aarush will use his _____ intelligence to answer the question. a. crystallized b. creative c. practical d. fluid 223. The effect of education on intelligence: a. often ends when education ends. b. is permanent. c. is undetectable. d. continues to improve intelligence throughout the life span. 224. With respect to language acquisition, in what ways, if any, do internationally adopted preschoolers learning a new language differ from monolingual infants? a. Internationally adopted preschoolers begin using nouns and function morphemes at the same time. b. Internationally adopted preschoolers begin to speak telegraphically without the need to learn simple morphemes. c. Internationally adopted preschoolers acquire vocabulary faster than do monolingual infants. d. The two groups do not differ in language acquisition. 225. Which expression is an example of telegraphic speech? a. ball b. bat and ball c. more juice d. more 226. Highly intelligent people _____ than those who are less intelligent. a. exhibit more social deficits b. are better looking c. use more illegal drugs d. live longer

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Chap 09_5e 227. Which problem would NOT appear on the WAIS? a. How is a cucumber similar to a carrot? b. Write the word zucchini. c. If a farmer has 13 rows of carrot plants with 11 carrot plants in each row, how many carrot plants does the farmer have? d. Name some reasons it is beneficial to eat vegetables. 228. People think that two events are more likely to occur together than either event is likely to occur individually. This phenomenon is called the: a. conjunction fallacy. b. availability bias. c. representativeness heuristic. d. sunk-cost fallacy. 229. The average difference in intelligence between males and females is _____ the differences observed within each biological sex. a. about the same as b. slightly more than c. considerably more than d. considerably less than 230. According to Thurstone's theory, the primary mental abilities: a. correspond to Spearman's g. b. correspond to Spearman's s. c. are the result of Spearman's g multiplied by Spearman's s. d. are not analogous to Spearman's g or s. 231. B and p differ in the way they are produced by a human speaker. As such, they are both examples of: a. phonemes. b. symbols. c. morphemes. d. phrases. 232. _____ morphemes serve grammatical functions, such as tying sentences together or indicating time. a. Content b. Phonetic c. Tangible d. Function

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Chap 09_5e 233. Thinking is to doing as _____ intelligence is to _____ intelligence. a. analytic; practical b. analytic; creative c. creative; emotional d. emotional; practical 234. Which test is NOT on the Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale IV (WAIS-IV)? a. Verbal Comprehension Test b. Novelty Seeking Test c. Working Memory Test d. Perceptual Reasoning Test 235. Sending children to preschool raises their IQ by about _____ points. a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 236. Juan and Ricardo are fraternal twins. This means that they: a. share 75% of their genes. b. are exact genetic copies of each other. c. developed from two different eggs fertilized by two different sperm. d. are more genetically similar than are ordinary siblings. 237. The smallest unit of sound that is recognizable as speech rather than as random noise is a a. phoneme. b. morpheme. c. phrase. d. sentence. 238. Pooja and Nansi are fraternal twins who recently received their IQ test results. Pooja has an IQ of 140, while Nansi has an IQ of 180. Which of these statement about the sisters is FALSE? a. Pooja is more impatient than Nansi. b. Nansi is more likely to live a healthier and longer life than Pooja. c. Pooja is likely to get more education than Nansi. d. Nansi is more likely to have greater economic success than her sister.

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Chap 09_5e 239. Which statement about emotional intelligence is FALSE? a. It is a good predictor of social skills. b. It is a good predictor of health. c. It is used to enhance reasoning. d. It is a good predictor of longevity. 240. The phenomenon in which items that are more readily available in memory are judged as having occurred more frequently is called the: a. hindsight bias. b. frequency effect. c. availability bias. d. conjunctive fallacy. 241. Juan scored highest in the middle-level ability of reasoning. Which activity is he MOST likely to excel in? a. solving a crossword puzzle b. recalling a legal argument made in a movie c. giving a speech highlighting the importance of logical problem solving d. solving logic problems 242. _____ is the fear of confirming the negative beliefs that others may hold. a. Confirmation bias b. Cultural bias c. Stereotype threat d. The Flynn effect 243. According to Chomsky, _____ is a collection of processes that facilitate language learning. a. a universal grammar b. the fast map c. the phonological rule d. genetic dysphasia 244. Intellectually gifted is to intellectually disabled as _____ is to _____. a. specific; general b. impaired; enhanced c. depressed; happy d. tortured; misunderstood

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Chap 09_5e 245. Cornell owns a small family business. In the past 5 years, the business has lost money every year, but Cornell continues to keep the business open. He reasons that he has already put so much money and effort into the business and he would hate for it all to go to waste. Cornell's reasoning is consistent with: a. rational economic theory. b. the conjunction fallacy. c. the sunk-cost fallacy. d. representativeness heuristic. 246. A mental representation that groups or categorizes shared features of related objects, events, or other stimuli is called: a. intelligence. b. hindsight bias. c. a syntactic rule. d. a concept. 247. After suffering a stroke, Thomas suddenly began engaging in risky behaviors, such as gambling, cocaine use, and driving while intoxicated. The stroke MOST likely affected Thomas's: a. prefrontal cortex. b. Wernicke's area. c. amygdala. d. right temporal lobe. 248. Brandon is unable to identify animals such as dogs and squirrels but can easily identify furniture such as chairs and tables. Brandon likely does NOT have: a. damage to the front part of the right temporal lobe. b. category-specific deficit. c. the ability to name tools. d. the ability to recognize human faces. 249. Which type of intelligence is BEST able to predict job performance, according to Robert Sternberg? a. emotional b. practical c. fluid d. analytic 250. _____ termed abilities specific to a test as _____. a. Spearman; a b. Spearman; s c. Thurstone; a d. Thurstone; s Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 251. Three-year old Louis announced that he "eated dinner already." This common error made by children illustrates: a. confusing phonemes with morphemes. b. ignoring syntactic rules. c. confusing morphemes with syntax. d. overregularizing from the grammatical language rules. 252. Research in cognitive neuroscience strongly suggests that category-specific brain organization is: a. the product of language. b. highly dependent on the visual cortex. c. not dependent on visual experience. d. developed within the first few years of life. 253. Where is Wernicke's area located? a. left frontal cortex b. right frontal cortex c. left temporal cortex d. right temporal cortex 254. Workers at a milk-processing factory develop complex strategies for combining partially filled cases of milk, illustrating the contributions of _____ intelligence to their job performance. a. analytic b. inductive c. creative d. practical 255. Researchers have just discovered a new drug to cure acne, but it has an 80% failure rate. According to the framing effect: a. most teenagers with acne will be eager to try it. b. people will be impressed that one out of five acne sufferers will be cured. c. dermatologists will immediately start prescribing the medication for their patients with acne. d. people typically will perceive the drug to be of little or no benefit. 256. The ability to use one's mind to solve novel problems and learn from experience is termed: a. education. b. intelligence. c. learning. d. creativity.

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Chap 09_5e 257. Over the lifetime of an individual, absolute intelligence tends to: a. stay approximately the same. b. decrease until old age and then increase sharply. c. increase between adolescence and middle age, then decline thereafter. d. decrease beginning at adolescence, slowly at first but then more rapidly. 258. To determine when babies lose the ability to distinguish among all of the contrasting sounds of human languages, researchers used a "Head Turn" technique in which infants are trained to turn their heads toward a display when the sound ra is changed to a la sound. They then played the sounds and observed that: a. American and Japanese infants between the ages of 6 and 8 months turned their heads when ra changed to la. b. American and Japanese infants between the ages of 10 and 12 months turned their heads when ra changed to la. c. American infants between the ages of 6 and 8 months turned their heads when ra changed to la, but Japanese infants did not. d. Japanese infants between the ages of 10 and 12 months turned their heads when ra changed to la. 259. Women typically outscore men on tests that involve: a. visual memory. b. spatial memory. c. fluid reasoning in abstract mathematics. d. production and comprehension of complex prose. 260. Thomas has suffered damage to Wernicke's area. This will likely result in: a. failure to produce grammatical speech. b. great difficulty in understanding language. c. genetic dysphasia. d. great difficulty in identifying nonlanguage sounds. 261. Dr. Ramirez is a researcher who frequently gives advice to parents on how to maximize their child's intelligence. Which suggestion would Dr. Ramirez NOT offer? a. Enroll the child in many extracurricular activities. b. Breast-feed the baby. c. Provide a stable financial environment for the child. d. Send the child to preschool.

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Chap 09_5e 262. Sammi and Anas are holding their newborn son and discussing what they should name him. Sammi would like to name the baby Omar, but Anas disagrees because he thinks the name has become too common after meeting two separate doctors named Omar during this hospital stay. Sammi says that Omar is not ranked in the top 20 baby names in their area, and accuses Anas of falling victim to the: a. hindsight bias. b. conjunctive fallacy. c. representativeness heuristic. d. availability bias. 263. Jenny was in an accident and suffered damage to Broca's area. She will: a. have a hard time understanding language. b. usually continue to produce grammatical speech. c. produce phrases that tend to be devoid of meaning. d. have a hard time with speech production. 264. Karen was concerned when her 4-year-old daughter, Amanda, started saying, "I eated dinner." Karen should not worry because Amanda is simply: a. demonstrating fast mapping. b. confusing phonemes with morphemes. c. experiencing a momentary episode of dysphasia. d. overregularizing from the grammatical language rules. 265. Which expression is a morpheme? a. b b. boy c. the boy d. the boy cried 266. Which statement is true? a. Genetics and environment have minimal effects on the brain. b. Genetics have a direct effect on the brain, whereas the environment has no effect on the brain. c. Genes and environment have direct and independent effects on the brain. d. The environment has an indirect effect on the brain, whereas genetics have no effect on the brain.

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Chap 09_5e 267. Research has demonstrated that if an Asian American woman is reminded of her gender right before taking a math test, she is more likely to _____; if she is reminded of her ethnicity right before taking the test, she is more likely to _____. a. perform better; perform more poorly b. perform more poorly; perform better c. feel less stressed; feel more stressed d. be unaffected by this information; perform more poorly 268. The average difference in intelligence between European Americans and African Americans is _____ the differences observed within each group. a. about the same as b. slightly more than c. considerably more than d. considerably less than 269. Marcus has an intellectual disability. He is not alone, as _____ of those with intellectual disabilities are male. a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80% 270. The environmental sensitivity of the brain _____ with age, and this effect _____ for high-IQ people relative to low-IQ people. a. increases; is greater b. increases; occurs more quickly c. decreases; is greater d. decreases; occurs more slowly 271. Rosie recently won a local speech-writing contest and has the highest grade in her English class. The twofactor theory of intelligence predicts that Rosie would: a. also be an expert musician. b. enjoy chess. c. score high in science classes. d. struggle in math classes. 272. Which behavior demonstrated by NBA coaches is indicative of the sunk-cost fallacy? a. keeping more productive players on the team for longer than expensive players b. paying more for players that were productive on other teams in the past c. giving productive players more time on court than expensive players d. giving expensive players more time on court than productive players Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 273. Which factor is the BEST predictor of intelligence? a. age b. socioeconomic status c. gender d. grade level 274. When Simone wants her mother to give her more juice, she says, "More juice," instead of "Juice more." This demonstrates that Simone understands: a. fast mapping. b. function morphemes. c. syntactic rules. d. morphology. 275. Intelligence tests were originally developed to: a. help underprivileged children succeed in school. b. monitor citizens that could use extra assistance. c. identify genius. d. identify who could become a U.S. citizen. 276. Recent research suggests that _____ is no longer present. a. confirmation bias b. optimism bias c. stereotype threat d. the Flynn effect 277. Research has demonstrated that when children are asked to report their race before taking a math test: a. African American students perform more poorly. b. European American students perform more poorly. c. all students perform poorly. d. there is no effect on the students' performance. 278. Anja was in a car accident and suffered damage to the region where the temporal lobe meets the occipital and parietal lobes. Anja's performance will be impaired when she is asked to: a. recognize human faces. b. correctly identify an object as a giraffe when shown a picture of one. c. remember the names of her cousins. d. recall the name of a hammer in a toolbox.

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Chap 09_5e 279. What is grammar? a. a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages b. a system for communicating with others using signals that are combined according to rules that convey specific meaning c. a set of rules that indicate how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds d. the smallest meaningful units of language 280. People believe that compared with other people, they are more likely to experience positive events and less likely to experience negative events in the future. This phenomenon is termed _____ bias. a. futuristic b. availability c. consistency d. optimism 281. Education typically produces _____ in intelligence. a. no changes b. small temporary increases c. long-lasting moderate increases d. short-term large increases 282. The main reason intelligent people generally earn much more money that do those with less intelligence is that the intelligent people: a. get more education. b. are more impatient. c. are poor at calculating risk. d. are better at predicting how people will act. 283. The ability to apply and implement solutions in everyday settings is called _____ intelligence. a. fluid b. creative c. practical d. emotional 284. Which statement is NOT true? a. Intelligence is influenced by genes. b. Genetic differences underlie differences in skin color among races. c. Some racial groups outperform others on tests of intelligence. d. Racial differences in intelligence are due to genetic factors.

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Chap 09_5e 285. A set of rules that indicate how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences is called: a. morphological rules. b. syntactic rules. c. grammar. d. phonological rules. 286. The average person today scores about _____ IQ points higher than the average person did 100 years ago. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 287. Aliya is an African American young adult writing the GRE standardized test. Aliya is likely to do the WORST on the verbal reasoning portion of the test in which of these conditions? a. when asked to report her socioeconomic status at the start of the test b. when asked to report her ethnicity at the start of the test c. when asked to report her gender at the start of the test d. All of the above conditions will affect her score equally. 288. Westerners regard people as intelligent when they speak _____; Africans regard people as intelligent when they speak _____. a. quickly and loudly; quickly but softly b. quickly and often; deliberately and quietly c. slowly and softly; quickly and loudly d. quickly but softly; deliberately but loudly 289. Modern intelligence tests: a. remain highly culturally biased. b. favor people of color. c. have few, if any, questions with a clear cultural bias. d. do not use nonverbal items. 290. What happens if a gene is turned off? a. The gene influences the development and function of the brain. b. The gene is silent and does nothing. c. The gene allows for environmental influences on its expression. d. Developmental processes determine the differentiation of DNA.

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Chap 09_5e 291. Tania and Maria are twins that developed from the splitting of a single egg that was fertilized by a single sperm. They are: a. fraternal twins. b. monozygotic twins. c. dizygotic twins. d. half-sisters. 292. Adderall and Ritalin are both: a. mood stabilizers. b. stimulants. c. mind expanders. d. benzodiazepines. 293. Which of these is NOT currently available to enhance one's intelligence? a. training with complex mental exercises b. Ritalin c. gene-editing d. Adderall 294. The interactionist approach to language development differs from the nativist approach in that the interactionist approach: a. posits that all verbal behavior is genetically determined. b. argues that all verbal behavior is the result of shaping with reinforcement. c. supports the existence of a language acquisition device. d. places a heavier emphasis on the role of social interactions in language development. 295. Why was the first intelligence test developed? a. to identify the brightest children so that they could be given enriched instruction b. to identify children who needed remedial education c. to identify children who were of average intelligence d. to free teachers from making subjective assessments of children's intelligence 296. A strategy that has NOT been shown to increase children's IQs is: a. breast-feeding infants. b. adopting a vegan diet beginning by the age of 6 years. c. reading to children in an interactive manner. d. increasing the family's socioeconomic status.

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Chap 09_5e 297. What is the current average IQ? a. 70 b. 85 c. 100 d. 125 298. According to Barry Schwartz, which of these is NOT needed for knowing how to think? a. high intelligence b. quantitative ability c. conceptual flexibility d. analytical insight 299. The MOST likely reason African Americans tend to have lower intelligence scores than do European Americans is that: a. African Americans are faced with more bias in the testing environment. b. African Americans are more prone to test-taking anxiety. c. African Americans, on average, live in lower-SES households than do European Americans. d. the two groups simply differ in their genetic makeup. 300. "A system for communicating with others using signals that are combined according to rules of grammar and that convey meaning" is the definition of: a. semantics. b. morphemes. c. syntax. d. language.

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Chap 09_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. a 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b 41. b 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. b 49. a 50. c 51. d 52. c 53. a 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. c 61. d 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. c 70. c 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. a 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. d 81. c 82. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 83. a 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. d 93. a 94. c 95. c 96. a 97. c 98. c 99. d 100. a 101. b 102. a 103. a 104. c 105. a 106. b 107. d 108. c 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 111. d 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. b 116. a 117. a 118. c 119. d 120. a 121. c 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. d 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. b 133. d 134. b 135. d 136. d 137. c

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Chap 09_5e 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. a 142. a 143. d 144. b 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. d 149. c 150. c 151. b 152. a 153. c 154. b 155. a 156. d 157. d 158. d 159. b 160. a 161. d 162. b 163. a 164. a 165. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 166. b 167. b 168. b 169. b 170. a 171. b 172. c 173. b 174. d 175. d 176. a 177. b 178. d 179. b 180. a 181. a 182. a 183. a 184. c 185. c 186. d 187. a 188. b 189. b 190. b 191. d 192. b 193. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 194. c 195. b 196. b 197. b 198. d 199. d 200. b 201. d 202. a 203. c 204. b 205. d 206. a 207. d 208. d 209. b 210. b 211. a 212. b 213. b 214. d 215. c 216. a 217. a 218. a 219. d 220. a 221. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 222. d 223. a 224. c 225. c 226. d 227. b 228. a 229. d 230. d 231. a 232. d 233. a 234. b 235. b 236. c 237. a 238. c 239. d 240. c 241. d 242. c 243. a 244. a 245. c 246. d 247. a 248. a

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Chap 09_5e 249. b 250. b 251. d 252. c 253. c 254. d 255. d 256. b 257. c 258. a 259. d 260. b 261. a 262. d 263. d 264. d 265. b 266. c 267. b 268. d 269. c 270. d 271. c 272. d 273. b 274. c 275. a 276. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e 277. a 278. d 279. a 280. d 281. b 282. a 283. c 284. d 285. b 286. c 287. b 288. b 289. c 290. b 291. b 292. b 293. c 294. d 295. b 296. b 297. c 298. a 299. c 300. d

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. On average, the more intelligent of two siblings will earn approximately double the income of the less intelligent sibling over the course of their lifetimes. a. True b. False 2. Infants begin to babble speech sounds between 1 and 3 months of age. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.2 introduces material from the following publication. Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. http://doi:9.4126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara and colleagues measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred with both wins and losses. Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 3. (Scenario 9.2) Which factor was NOT a dependent variable? a. GSR b. deck selection c. programmed loss amount d. verbal reports about game strategy

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 4. Henry Goddard used intelligence tests to determine which immigrant children in the United States were in need of remedial education. a. True b. False 5. At every stage of language development, humans speak better than they understand what is spoken to them. a. True b. False 6. Wernicke's area is located in the left temporal cortex of the brain. a. True b. False 7. The likelihood of two events occurring simultaneously is always less than the likelihood of either event occurring alone. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay

8. (Scenario 9.1) Which statement is an example of interpreting orderly changes in language development as a result of emerging cognitive skills? a. The universality of grammar rules suggests the presence of an innate language acquisition device. b. In infants acquiring language, sentences at first are short (e.g., two words) because working memory has yet to fully develop. c. Language acquisition progresses in orderly stages only if critical environmental components, such as continued social interaction, are present. d. Maturing infants imitate the sounds that they hear, in part due to reinforcement from their parents. 9. A morpheme is the smallest meaningful unit of language. a. True b. False 10. Japanese infants cannot distinguish between the l and r phonemes. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.3 introduces material from the following publication. Kahneman, D., & Tversky, A. (1979). Prospect theory: An analysis of decision under risk. Econometrica, 47, 263–291. According to rational choice theory, people make decisions based solely on the expected utility of the outcomes. People should choose the outcome that maximizes whatever they most value. However, people are not rational agents and often fall victim to biases, judgment errors, and fallacies in their decision making. People tend to judge frequencies better than probabilities, estimate events more available in memory as more probable than they actually are (availability bias), and make decisions about a current situation based on what they previously invested (sunk-cost fallacy). People also are more motivated to avoid losses than pursue gains, even if the expected utility of the gains is greater than the losses. Prospect theory (Kahneman & Tversky, 1979) states that people prefer certain outcomes to uncertain outcomes, are less likely to tolerate risk when making decisions about potential gains, and are more likely to tolerate risk when making decisions about potential losses. 11. (Scenario 9.3) Although she is deeply unhappy in her relationship, Erika will not leave her partner because they have been together for several years. Erika reasons that she has put great effort into the relationship and doesn't want to see it fail. Why is Erika's decision a logical fallacy? a. Erika is choosing to have worked hard and stay unhappy over working hard and possibly being happier. b. Erika is biased toward pursuing long-term relationships even if they are not healthy. c. Erika's decision assumes her partner worked equally hard on the relationship. d. Erika is not basing her decision on the probability that they will remain together in the long term. 12. (Scenario 9.3) A patient has been diagnosed with a condition that—even with treatment—has a 30% fatality rate. How should the doctor best explain this prognosis to maximize the patient's understanding of it and motivation to pursue treatment? a. "With treatment, the probability of this condition being fatal is .3." b. "Research indicates that the probability of you surviving with effective treatment is .7." c. "If we start effective treatment, you have a 70% chance of recovery." d. "Seven out of ten people recover from this condition with effective treatment." 13. The word when is a function morpheme. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.3 introduces material from the following publication. Kahneman, D., & Tversky, A. (1979). Prospect theory: An analysis of decision under risk. Econometrica, 47, 263–291. According to rational choice theory, people make decisions based solely on the expected utility of the outcomes. People should choose the outcome that maximizes whatever they most value. However, people are not rational agents and often fall victim to biases, judgment errors, and fallacies in their decision making. People tend to judge frequencies better than probabilities, estimate events more available in memory as more probable than they actually are (availability bias), and make decisions about a current situation based on what they previously invested (sunk-cost fallacy). People also are more motivated to avoid losses than pursue gains, even if the expected utility of the gains is greater than the losses. Prospect theory (Kahneman & Tversky, 1979) states that people prefer certain outcomes to uncertain outcomes, are less likely to tolerate risk when making decisions about potential gains, and are more likely to tolerate risk when making decisions about potential losses. 16. (Scenario 9.3) Prospect theory predicts that most people will choose which outcome? a. a situation where they are just given $50 b. a 50% probability of winning $90 c. a 25% probability of winning $240 d. a 75% chance of losing $100 Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

17. (Scenario 9.1) Which data set in Figure 9.1 provides the MOST support for the contention that language development is critically dependent on experience with the language? a. data set A b. data set B c. data set C d. data set D

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 24. Gifted children tend to be "single gifted," having exceptional skill in only one specialized domain of intelligence. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

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25. (Scenario 9.1) Which reason BEST explains why the research question posed in the scenario could not be answered by studying infants' acquisition of the English language and comparing it with infants' acquisition of the Spanish language in American-born bilingual homes? a. Language and cognitive development remain confounded in these groups. b. The two groups differ on many potential third variables that could affect rates of language acquisition. c. English and Spanish are too similar linguistically for meaningful differences in language acquisition to occur. d. The linguistic expertise of the parents in the two groups may differ. 26. The main reason intelligent people earn much more money than those with less intelligence is that they get more education. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 27. (Scenario 9.1) In a second study, Snedeker and colleagues (2012) found that older (e.g., 5-year-old) internationally adopted children acquiring English as a second language began correctly using words pertaining to time (e.g., yesterday, tomorrow) earlier in their exposure to English than did monolingual infant controls. This observed difference is BEST interpreted as: a. support for the contention that linguistic development is a separate process from cognitive development. b. resulting from more advanced cognitive development in the older children. c. a reflection of previously developed linguistic expertise in the older children's first language. d. resulting from some combination of more advanced cognitive development and previous linguistic development in the older children's first language. 28. On average, patients with prefrontal cortex damage are less sensitive to the future consequences of their behavior than are individuals without brain damage. a. True b. False 29. The availability bias happens when items that are more easily recalled from memory are judged as being more likely to occur. a. True b. False 30. The average difference in intelligence scores between groups is considerably more than the average difference in intelligence scores within groups. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.4 to answer the following question(s). More than 100 years ago, French educational researchers Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon developed the first intelligence tests to identify children in need of remedial education. Binet and Simon developed their test to measure what Binet termed natural intelligence, or a natural ability to learn dissociated from the effects of educational instruction. Using Binet and Simon's intelligence test, each child's score could be compared with age norms to arrive at the child's mental age. Shortly after this pioneering work, Louis Terman developed the intelligence quotient (IQ) measure to be used with adults. IQ is calculated by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult test score and multiplying this quotient by 100. An adult who scores the same as an average adult has an IQ of 100. 31. (Scenario 9.4) Binet and Simon conceptualized natural intelligence in terms of learning: a. achievement. b. aptitude. c. outcomes. d. exertion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.2 introduces material from the following publication. Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. http://doi:9.4126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara and colleagues measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred with both wins and losses. Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 35. (Scenario 9.2) What can be accurately inferred from the scenario? a. The patients with brain damage lacked the ability to respond emotionally to wins and losses. b. All other things being equal, the patients with brain damage had a much stronger behavioral preference for the larger reward than did the control participants. c. The patients with brain damage had a much stronger emotional response to wins than to losses. d. The likelihood of losses leading up to a choice elicited a blunted emotional response in the patients with brain damage.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.4 to answer the following question(s). More than 100 years ago, French educational researchers Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon developed the first intelligence tests to identify children in need of remedial education. Binet and Simon developed their test to measure what Binet termed natural intelligence, or a natural ability to learn dissociated from the effects of educational instruction. Using Binet and Simon's intelligence test, each child's score could be compared with age norms to arrive at the child's mental age. Shortly after this pioneering work, Louis Terman developed the intelligence quotient (IQ) measure to be used with adults. IQ is calculated by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult test score and multiplying this quotient by 100. An adult who scores the same as an average adult has an IQ of 100. 36. (Scenario 9.4) Which statement is a correct inference about 30-year-old Jacob and 60-year-old Jorge, both persons with IQ scores equal to 110? a. Jacob is actually more intelligent than Jorge. b. Jorge is actually more intelligent than Jacob. c. Due to their age differences, meaningful intelligence comparisons between Jorge and Jacob cannot be made. d. Both persons have the same intelligence. 37. Interactionist theories of language development argue that social interactions, not biological processes, are responsible for the development of language. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

38. (Scenario 9.1) Snedeker and colleagues (2007) studied the acquisition of English as a second language in preschool children adopted from China. In trying to disentangle the role of linguistic and cognitive development on language acquisition, which factor would serve as the MOST appropriate control group? a. the acquisition of English by Chinese teens who previously had no exposure to the English language b. the acquisition of Mandarin by American-born preschoolers adopted into Chinese families c. the acquisition of Mandarin over the first 2 years of life in Chinese-born infants d. the acquisition of English as a first language in Chinese infants adopted into American families 39. Among North Americans, the prototypical bird is the bald eagle. a. True b. False 40. Behaviorist explanations of language development emphasize how language is acquired through shaping and reinforcement. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 41. Louis Thurstone did not believe in a general ability called intelligence. a. True b. False 42. A prototype possesses most, if not all, of the most characteristic features of the category. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

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43. (Scenario 9.1) Figure 9.1 shows the number of verbs, expressed as a percentage of total English vocabulary, acquired between 6 and 24 months of exposure to the English language in internationally adopted preschoolers from China and monolingual infants. Four fabricated sets of data (labeled A–D) are shown. Which data set provides the MOST support for the contention that cognitive factors play a role in language development? a. data set A b. data set B c. data set C d. data set D 44. The telegraphic speech of a 2-year-old child usually is not grammatical. a. True b. False 45. The IQ correlation of identical twins raised apart is higher than that of fraternal twins raised in the same household. a. True b. False 46. People with Broca's aphasia primarily have difficulty understanding language. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 47. On average, more intelligent people live longer than do those who are less intelligent. a. True b. False 48. Charles Spearman's two factors of intelligence are fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.4 to answer the following question(s). More than 100 years ago, French educational researchers Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon developed the first intelligence tests to identify children in need of remedial education. Binet and Simon developed their test to measure what Binet termed natural intelligence, or a natural ability to learn dissociated from the effects of educational instruction. Using Binet and Simon's intelligence test, each child's score could be compared with age norms to arrive at the child's mental age. Shortly after this pioneering work, Louis Terman developed the intelligence quotient (IQ) measure to be used with adults. IQ is calculated by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult test score and multiplying this quotient by 100. An adult who scores the same as an average adult has an IQ of 100. 49. (Scenario 9.4) Which of these is an example of what Binet and Simon considered an aptitude for learning? a. naming the capitals of U.S. states b. solving logic problems c. naming chemical elements from their symbols d. reading a passage in literature and answering questions about it 50. The Flynn effect refers to the fact that absolute intelligence scores are increasing across generations. a. True b. False 51. One of the best predictors of intelligence is SES (socioeconomic status). a. True b. False 52. The best, or most typical, member of a category is called an exemplar. a. True b. False 53. The conjunction fallacy involves making a probability judgment by comparing an object or event to a prototype of the object or event. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.2 introduces material from the following publication. Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. http://doi:9.4126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara and colleagues measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred with both wins and losses. Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 54. (Scenario 9.2) Which statement is an accurate summary of how individuals with this particular type of brain damage experience losses? a. They do not experience the negative emotions associated with losing. b. They experience the negative emotions associated with losing, but the positive emotions of an occasional win are stronger. c. They experience the negative emotions associated with losing, but the risk of losing does not influence their choice behavior. d. The negative emotions experienced after a loss are greatly reduced with continued play. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.2 introduces material from the following publication. Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. http://doi:9.4126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara and colleagues measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred with both wins and losses. Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 59. (Scenario 9.2) Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied patients with brain damage in which areas? a. Wernicke's area in the left temporal lobe b. prefrontal cortex c. amygdala d. hippocampus

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 60. On average, gamblers with prefrontal cortex damage will show less of an emotional reaction to a loss than will gamblers without brain damage. a. True b. False 61. Prospect theory predicts that people will choose an 80% chance of winning $4,000 over $3,000 outright. a. True b. False 62. African American students tend to perform more poorly on tests if they are asked to report their race at the top of the answer sheet. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.4 to answer the following question(s). More than 100 years ago, French educational researchers Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon developed the first intelligence tests to identify children in need of remedial education. Binet and Simon developed their test to measure what Binet termed natural intelligence, or a natural ability to learn dissociated from the effects of educational instruction. Using Binet and Simon's intelligence test, each child's score could be compared with age norms to arrive at the child's mental age. Shortly after this pioneering work, Louis Terman developed the intelligence quotient (IQ) measure to be used with adults. IQ is calculated by dividing an adult's test score by the average adult test score and multiplying this quotient by 100. An adult who scores the same as an average adult has an IQ of 100. 63. (Scenario 9.4) Using Binet and Simon's original intelligence test, 10-year-old Andrea's mental age would be calculated by: a. dividing her score on the test by her physical age and then multiplying this quotient by 100. b. dividing the average score from her age group by Andrea's score and multiplying this quotient by 100. c. calculating the difference between her score on the test and the mean score on the test for her age group. d. examining average scores from different age groups and selecting the age group that most closely matches her score. 64. (Scenario 9.4) Binet and Simon did not consider _____ in their measure of natural intelligence. a. achievement b. aptitude c. problem solving d. memory

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 65. Fluid intelligence is generally assessed by tests of vocabulary, factual information, and so on. a. True b. False 66. Rational choice theory accurately describes how humans make most of their daily decisions. a. True b. False 67. The visual cortex is involved in learning prototypes. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.2 introduces material from the following publication. Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. http://doi:9.4126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara and colleagues measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred with both wins and losses. Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 68. (Scenario 9.2) The results of this experiment illustrate the role of emotional experience on decision making. Choice situations involving probabilistic outcomes often elicit feelings of anxiety, operationally defined in this study as: a. the anticipatory GSR. b. the postoutcome GSR. c. deck preference. d. the programmed rate of wins and losses among decks.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 69. Prescription cognitive enhancers such as Adderall are stimulant drugs. a. True b. False 70. Thurstone's primary mental abilities correspond to middle-level abilities in the three-level hierarchy. a. True b. False 71. On average, patients with prefrontal cortex damage will experience less anxiety when anticipating a risky choice than will individuals without brain damage. a. True b. False 72. It is not uncommon for 5-year-old children to make more grammatical mistakes using the past tense than do 3-year-old children. a. True b. False Use Scenario 9.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.1 introduces material from the following publications. Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2012). Disentangling the effects of cognitive development and linguistic expertise: A longitudinal study of the acquisition of English in internationally-adopted children. Cognitive Psychology, 65(1), 39–76. http://doi:9.4016/j.cogpsych.2012.01.004 Snedeker, J., Geren, J., & Shafto, C. L. (2007). Starting over: International adoption as a natural experiment in language development. Psychological Science, 18(1), 79–87. http://doi:9.4111/j.14679280.2007.01852.x Language development occurs in orderly stages, beginning with one-word utterances and progressing to twoword utterances then simple sentences containing function morphemes, and then the emergence of grammatical rules. Psycholinguists have attempted to determine if language development is a consequence of cognitive development or if it reflects linguistic processes that occur independently of general cognitive development. Studies on the acquisition of a second language in internationally adopted children have provided insight into this research question. In a series of studies, Snedeker and colleagues (2007, 2012) studied the acquisition of the English language in adopted preschoolers from China. These children had no exposure to the English language before being adopted by families in the United States. Figure 9.1

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay

73. (Scenario 9.1) Snedeker and colleagues (2007) refer to their research program as a "natural experiment." Why is it not a true experimental design? a. Participants were not sampled randomly from the population. b. The study is not empirical in nature and lacks measurement reliability. c. There is no random assignment to groups and no manipulation of an independent variable. d. It is difficult to ascertain if the results would generalize to other languages. 74. Prospect theory predicts that people will be more likely to take risks to achieve gains than to avoid losses. a. True b. False

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 9.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 9.2 introduces material from the following publication. Bechara, A., Damasio, H., Tranel, D., & Damasio, A. R. (1997). Deciding advantageously before knowing the advantageous strategy. Science, 275(5304), 1293–1295. http://doi:9.4126/science.275.5304.1293 Bechara and colleagues (1997) studied risky decision making on a gambling task in patients with brain damage in an area critically involved in executive functions such as planning and decision making. They compared this performance with the performance of control participants without brain damage. All participants were given a starting bankroll of $2,000 in facsimile. In the baseline condition, participants chose cards from among four decks. Selecting cards from decks A and B sometimes resulted in a win of $100. Selecting cards from decks C and D sometimes resulted in a win of $50. No losses were incurred in this condition. In the subsequent experimental condition, however, some cards in all decks produced losses. The losses in decks A and B were large and occurred frequently enough to possibly result in bankruptcy. The losses in decks C and D were considerably smaller. Bechara and colleagues measured deck selection and the galvanic skin response (GSR) both prior to (anticipatory) and after (postoutcome) turning over each card. In the baseline condition, all participants in both groups showed a clear preference for decks A and B. Both groups showed small but reliable anticipatory and postoutcome GSRs. In the experimental condition, with continued play, the controls exhibited a clear preference for decks C and D, while the patients continued to play more from decks A and B. Relative to the baseline condition, controls exhibited a much larger anticipatory GSR prior to each decision, whereas the patients' anticipatory GSR was small and similar to that obtained under the baseline condition. The postoutcome GSRs were similar in the two groups and occurred with both wins and losses. Interestingly, the investigator systematically interrupted play during the experimental condition and asked all participants if they had developed a game strategy. With continued play, most of the control participants labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Among the patients with brain damage, only half eventually labeled decks A and B as "the bad decks." Remarkably, in both groups, this realization did not affect game play. The minority of the control group who did not express a negative opinion about decks A and B nevertheless tended to avoid those decks. Similarly, the patients who acknowledged that decks C and D were risky nevertheless preferred those decks. 75. (Scenario 9.2) The results of this experiment suggest that individuals with this particular type of brain damage exhibit the GREATEST deficits in the ability to: a. experience emotions related to wins and losses. b. modify behavior based on future consequences. c. calculate odds ratios. d. identify the difference between a risky and a safe choice.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 76. Discuss Sternberg's view of intelligence, and which type is considered the better predictor of job performance.

77. Give the approximate locations of Broca's area and Wernicke's area in the brain. Compare and contrast the language deficits of people who suffer from Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.

78. Describe how prototypes and exemplars are processed differently in the brain. Then give several examples of how damage to specific brain regions can result in category-specific deficits.

79. Using an example, describe how the framing effect influences decision making. Why is the sunk-cost fallacy considered an example of the framing effect? All of us are occasionally guilty of succumbing to the sunk-cost fallacy. Give an example from your own life.

80. Which social, cultural, and other environmental factors help explain some of the racial differences in intelligence test scores? Discuss research that has attempted to identify genetic determinants of racial differences in intelligence scores. Does the evidence suggest that racial differences in intelligence are due to environmental or genetic factors?

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 81. Daria has recently suffered damage to her prefrontal cortex. What changes can we expect in her decision making? Why do those changes occur?

82. Explain the relationship, if any, between education and intelligence.

83. Compare and contrast the prototype and exemplar theories of concepts and categories.

84. Compare behaviorist and nativist explanations for language development. What are the basic arguments of each position? What evidence supports each position?

85. Human language results from the complex interplay of several characteristics. These characteristics include phonemes, phonological rules, morphemes, grammar, morphological rules, and syntactic rules. Discuss each of these aspects of human language, providing an example of each and noting how all these elements work together.

86. Discuss how the modern three-level hierarchy of mental abilities incorporates views from both Spearman and Thurstone.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 87. Describe four factors that make it difficult for humans to make rational choices.

88. Describe the major language milestones between birth and 60 months of age.

89. Your friend, a new mother, asks you for advice on what she can do to boost her child's intelligence. How would you respond?

90. Distinguish between crystallized and fluid intelligence, and give an example of each. What evidence is there to suggest that crystallized and fluid intelligence are two different abilities?

91. Provide several reasons children raised in high-SES homes have, on average, higher intelligence scores than children raised in low-SES homes.

92. Compare and contrast Spearman's and Thurstone's views of intelligence.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 27. d 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. a 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. a 69. a 70. a 71. a 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. b 76. The answer should indicate that Sternberg believed there were three types of intelligence: analytic, creative, and practical. Analytic intelligence is the ability to identify and define problems and to find strategies for solving them. Creative intelligence is the ability to generate solutions that other people could not. Practical intelligence is the ability to apply and implement solutions in everyday settings. According to Sternberg, standard intelligence tests confront people with clearly defined problems that have one right answer and then supply all the information needed to solve them. These types of problems require analytic intelligence. However, everyday life confronts people with situations in which they must formulate the problem, find the information needed to solve it, and then choose among multiple acceptable solutions. The solutions to these problems require practical intelligence. Sternberg argued that tests of practical intelligence are better than tests of analytic intelligence at predicting a person's job performance. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 77. The answer should include the following information: (1) Broca's area is located in the left frontal cortex. (2) Wernicke's area is located in the left temporal cortex. (3) Damage to Broca's area or Wernicke's area results in aphasia, defined as difficulty in producing or comprehending language. People with damage to Broca's area have great difficulties in speech production. Typically, they speak in short phrases consisting mostly of content morphemes. Function morphemes are largely absent. These people can understand language relatively well, although there are some deficits in comprehending grammatically complex sentences. (4) People with damage to Wernicke's area differ from people with damage to Broca's area in two major ways. First, they can produce grammatically correct speech; however, this speech tends to be meaningless. Second, they have tremendous difficulty comprehending even relatively simple sentences. 78. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The left hemisphere of the brain is involved in forming prototypes, and the right hemisphere is mainly involved in recognizing exemplars. In addition, the left visual cortex is involved in forming prototypes, whereas the prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia are involved in learning exemplars. This suggests that categorization based on exemplars depends on analysis and decision making (activities associated with the prefrontal cortex), and prototype learning involves image processing. (2) A categoryspecific deficit refers to the inability to recognize objects that belong to a particular category, although the ability to recognize objects outside the category is undisturbed. Damage to the front part of the left temporal lobe may result in difficulty identifying humans. Damage to the lower left temporal lobe may result in difficulty identifying animals. Finally, damage to the region where the temporal lobe meets the occipital and parietal lobes impairs the ability to identify tools. 79. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The framing effect occurs when people give different answers to the same problem, depending on how the problem is phrased (or framed). For example, if you tell someone that 70% of the time a drug cures an ailment, they are usually impressed. However, if you tell people that a drug has a 30% failure rate, they will view it as risky and harmful. This information is the same; the way it is framed leads to drastically different conclusions. (2) The sunk-cost fallacy occurs when people make decisions about a current situation based on what they have previously invested in the situation. The previous investment frames the current decision to be made, even though the previous investment may not be pertinent to the current situation. (3) Real-world example: You pay a $40 cover to see a new jazz band playing at a club you have never visited. The band turns out to be rather pedestrian, you don't recognize anyone at the club, the drinks are expensive, and the waiter is rude. In short, you are having a miserable time. Nevertheless, you make the decision to spend the next three hours at this club because you paid $40 to enter it, despite the fact that the $40 is already spent and you could have more fun doing something else.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 80. The answer may include the following information: (1) Several social, cultural, and other environmental factors help explain some of the racial differences in intelligence scores. For example, the average Black child has a lower SES than the average White child. Black children tend to come from families with less income; attend worse schools; and have lower birth weights, poorer diets, higher rates of chronic illness, lower rates of treatment, and so on. All these factors can affect intelligence. For almost a century, SES has proved to be a better predictor than ethnicity of a child's intelligence test performance. Furthermore, stereotype threat, the fear of confirming the negative beliefs that others may hold, negatively impacts Black students. (2) While it remains possible that racial differences in intelligence could be due, in part, to genetics, to date there is no evidence to suggest that this is so. Moreover, there are data inconsistent with this hypothesis. For example, the average African American person has 20% European genes. There is no evidence to suggest that African Americans with higher percentages of European genes have higher intelligence levels. Moreover, there is no difference in intelligence scores between African American children and mixed-race children when adopted into middle-class families. If racial differences in intelligence were genetically based, we would expect to see differences in these groups. Thus, it appears that racial differences in intelligence scores are due to environmental factors, not genetic factors. 81. People with damage to the prefrontal cortex tend to make more risky decisions. Researchers have shown that when performing gambling tasks, healthy individuals initially show strong emotional reactions to big gains and losses. As the game progresses, participants begin to show anticipatory emotional reactions when they even consider choosing from the risky deck. People with prefrontal damage do not show these anticipatory feelings when they are thinking about selecting a card from the risky deck. The emotional reactions are absent and will not guide thinking in patients with prefrontal damage, who continue to make risky decisions. This suggests that these patients are insensitive to the future consequences of their behavior. 82. The answer should include the following information: (1) Intelligence and educational level are positively correlated. This is largely the result of intelligent people receiving more formal education than less intelligent people. (2) Education does, however, make people smarter. When schooling is delayed by natural disaster, strife, war, or the lack of available teachers, children show a decrease in intelligence. Preschool has been shown to increase intelligence levels. (3) Unfortunately, the ability of education to increase intelligence is limited. The positive effects of education on intelligence appear to be short lived and dissipate when education stops.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 83. The answer should provide the following information: (1) The prototype theory proposes that there is a best or most typical member of a particular category (e.g., a prototype). A prototype possesses most (or all) of the characteristic features of the category. Other potential members of the category are compared to the prototype; the extent to which the potential member matches the prototype influences our decision to include that member in the category. For example, in North America, a robin is a fairly prototypical bird; its size, shape, song, and coloring represent what most people think of as a typical bird When determining if a new animal belongs to the category of bird, we compare it with the prototype. For example, birds that share many similarities with robins (such as wrens) are more likely to be judged as birds than are those that share fewer similarities (such as ostriches). (2) In contrast with the prototype theory, the exemplar theory holds that we make category judgments by comparing a new instance with stored memories for other instances of the category. In other words, we compare new items with stored memories of other members of the same category. Imagine that we saw an eagle swoop down from the sky and attack a small rodent. Further imagine that we do not know the word eagle and have never seen one before. We do see, however, that the creature has feathers and wings, making it a possibility that this creature belongs to the bird category. When we evaluate this possibility, in addition to comparing the present animal to our prototype bird (the robin), we compare it to other exemplars already in this category. If we have previously categorized hawks as birds, then by noting the similarities between the new animal and the exemplar hawk, we likely will classify this animal as a bird, despite it being somewhat dissimilar to the prototype. 84. The answer should include the following information: (1) Behaviorist explanations of language development focus on the role of operant conditioning in shaping and maintaining language. The main argument is that language use, similar to any other behavior, gets shaped and reinforced in the environment. As such, eventually a vocabulary of words and a repertoire of sentences and phrases develop. (2) The nativist position argues that language development is an innate, biological capacity. According to this view, human brains are equipped with a language acquisition device, which facilitates language learning, especially within critical periods of development. (3) Although the behaviorist account offers a simple, intuitive explanation for language development, there is very little research evidence to support it. In fact, there are at least three forms of evidence that argue very strongly against a behaviorist interpretation. First, parents don't spend much time teaching their children to speak grammatically, suggesting that direct reinforcement of phrases and sentences doesn't occur very often. Second, children can generate many more grammatical sentences than they ever hear. This suggests that a small set of rules (perhaps innate)—instead of a piecemeal reinforcement of individual sentences—is responsible for language production. Third, children's speech errors tend to be nonetheless grammatical, suggesting that they are overgeneralizations of a small set of grammatical rules. (4) Some evidence in favor of the nativist position is that first, people with genetic dysphasia show the types of difficulties in language development that would be predicted from the existence of a biological capacity, and second, newborn infants can contrast the phonemes that are heard in all human languages. Both of these lines of evidence point to an innate, biological mechanism.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 85. The answer should provide the following information: (1) Phonemes are the smallest units of sound that are recognizable as speech instead of as random noise. An example of a phoneme is the pa sound. (2) Phonological rules govern how phonemes can be combined to produce speech sounds. An example of a phonological rule is the ts sound in German that is not used in English. (3) Morphemes are the smallest meaningful units of language. Dog is an example. (4) Grammar refers to a set of rules that specify how the units of language can be combined to produce meaningful messages. Two categories of these rules are morphological rules and syntactic rules. (5) Morphological rules govern how morphemes can be combined to form words. Content morphemes refer to things, such as saw, neck, and pain. Function morphemes serve grammatical functions, such as tying together phrases and clauses with words like and and but. (6) Syntactical rules govern how words can be combined to form phrases and sentences. An example of a syntactic rule in English is that each sentence must have one noun and one verb at a minimum. (7) All of these elements of language work together. For example, phonemes combine to form morphemes, but they do so following phonological rules. Morphemes are the basis for words, and words are strung together in sentences following grammatical rules, such as morphological and syntactic rules. The end result of all this combination of elements is the ability for a speaker and a listener of a given language to generally understand one another. 86. This answer should include the following information: (1) From top to bottom, the three-level hierarchy of mental abilities moves from general to specific. At the top of the hierarchy is general intelligence, analogous to Spearman's g. At the bottom of the hierarchy are many specific abilities, analogous to Spearman's s. Group factors, or middlelevel abilities, are in the middle of the hierarchy. These are analogous to Thurstone's primary mental abilities. (2) Unlike Spearman's two-factor theory of intelligence, general ability does not interact with specific factors directly. Instead, general intelligence influences a small number of middle-level abilities. Each of these middle-level abilities is associated with a set of specific abilities. (3) For example, someone with high general intelligence might, as a result, be strong in the middle-level ability of reasoning. This person probably will be successful in specific tasks that involve reasoning, such as solving logic problems and making legal arguments.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 87. The answer should include four of the following: (1) Humans have a difficult time on tasks that require us to think in probabilities (we are much better at estimating frequency). When given descriptions of problems using probability, we are likely to make irrational choices. (2) The availability bias occurs when items that are more readily accessed in memory are judged as having occurred more frequently. For example, people think that causes of death that are very vivid (and thus more available in memory), such as ritualistic slayings by a serial killer, occur more frequently than they actually do. It only takes one example of a child being abducted from her yard to make parents extremely nervous about letting their own children play outside; they falsely believe these abductions are happening "all the time" because the rare example is so horrific. (3) The representative heuristic is another mental shortcut that can lead us astray. It occurs when we judge the probability of an event based on how representative it is of some larger mental category. So, for example, suppose that a stranger named Ned is extremely outgoing, boisterous, clumsy, and funny. You have to decide if Ned is more likely to be a professional clown or a worker in the health care industry. Because the description of Ned more closely approximates the description of a clown, you conclude that Ned probably is a clown. In doing so, you ignore base-rate information. In any given city, there are thousands of health care professionals for every clown. It is actually far more likely that Ned is just a fun-loving worker at your local hospital. (4) The conjunction fallacy is a failure of logical reasoning. Logically, the joint probability of two or more events occurring simultaneously is always less than the probability of any one of those events occurring alone. Yet with each piece of information about a person or a situation, people are led to conclude that the probability of all the events co-occurring has increased. For example, consider two descriptions of Dr. Kerry: (i) Dr. Kerry is a college professor who is active in the Democratic party, lives a green-friendly lifestyle, enjoys classical music, and occasionally hosts wine-tasting parties and (ii) Dr. Kerry is a college professor who lives a green-friendly lifestyle. Many people would erroneously conclude that (i) is more probable than (ii), when in fact (ii) is far more probable. In both cases, Dr. Kerry is a college professor. But (i) assumes that an additional three events are co-occurring, whereas (ii) assumes just one of these events is co-occurring. (5) Framing effects are a bias whereby people give different answers to the same problem depending on how the problem is phrased. One of the most striking of these is the sunk-cost fallacy, which occurs when people make decisions about a current situation on the basis of what they have previously invested in the situation. (6) Optimism bias is the belief that compared with other individuals, we are more likely to experience positive events and less likely to experience negative events in the future. 88. The answer should provide the following information: (1) From birth to 4 months, an infant can tell the difference between speech sounds (phonemes) and make sounds known as cooing in response to speech sounds. (2) Between 4 and 6 months, a child begins to babble consonants. (3) Between 6 and 10 months, a child begins to understand some words and simple requests. (4) At 10 to 12 months, a child begins to use single words. (5) Around 12 to 18 months, a child develops a vocabulary of 30 to 50 words (simple nouns, adjectives, and action words). (6) At 18 to 24 months, a child typically talks in two-word phrases ordered according to syntactic rules and has a vocabulary of about 50 to 200 words. (7) At 24 to 36 months of age, a child has a vocabulary of about 1,000 words and can produce phrases and incomplete sentences. (8) Between 36 and 60 months of age, a child's vocabulary grows to more than 10,000 words, and the child can produce full sentences and has mastered grammatical morphemes and function words. The child also can form questions and negations. 89. Your friend could improve her baby's intelligence by (1) supplementing her diet and her neonate's diet with longchain polyunsaturated fatty acids (also found in breast milk), (2) reading in an interactive manner, and (3) sending her child to preschool. (4) If she is low SES, she could engage early educational interventions for her child.

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Chap 09_5e _ TF + Essay 90. This answer should include the following information: (1) Crystallized and fluid intelligence are distinct middle-level abilities. (2) Crystallized intelligence involves the ability to apply knowledge that was acquired from experience. An example of crystallized intelligence is using the second language you learned in the classroom in a real-world situation. (3) Fluid intelligence involves the ability to solve and reason about novel problems. Fluid intelligence often is measured by giving participants abstract problems in novel domains that must be solved under time constraints. (4) Crystallized and fluid intelligence appear to activate different areas of the brain. For example, damage to the prefrontal cortex impairs fluid intelligence more so than crystallized intelligence. In contrast, Alzheimer's disease results in more impairments in crystallized intelligence than in fluid intelligence. 91. The answer should include the following information: (1) Children exposed to impoverished environments also may not receive adequate nutrition or medical care; they also have a greater risk of being exposed to toxins, pollutants, and stress than do children in high-SES families. These factors may negatively impact brain development. (2) Children who grow up in intellectually stimulating environments tend to have higher intelligence scores than do children who grow up in less stimulating environments. Compared with low-SES parents, high-SES parents are more likely ask their children stimulating questions and expose them to more vocabulary. 92. The answer should include the following information: (1) Spearman believed that if there is a single ability called intelligence that enables people to perform a variety of intelligent behaviors, then people who have the ability should do well in just about everything, and those who lack it should do well at nothing. He developed this belief by measuring how well school-age children could discriminate small differences in color, auditory pitch, and weight; then he correlated these measures with the children's grades. He combined the results into a two-factor theory of intelligence that suggested every task requires a combination of a general ability (g) and skills that are specific to the task (s). (2) The two-factor theory of intelligence can be seen in someone with exceptional musical ability. According to Spearman, this exceptional ability is the combination of a high level of general ability (g) combined with knowledge and ability specific to music (s). Because g is high, Spearman would predict that the person probably will do well in other areas, such as verbal comprehension and the ability to solve mathematical problems. The person may not perform exceptionally in these areas, however, because the specific skills relative to those tasks may not have been mastered. (3) Louis Thurstone disagreed with Spearman's views. He noticed that although scores on most tests were positively correlated, scores on verbal tests were more highly correlated with scores on other verbal tests than they were with scores on perceptual tests. Thurstone took this to mean that there is no such thing as g and that there are instead a few stable and independent mental abilities, which he called primary mental abilities. These mental abilities are neither general like g nor specific like s. Thurstone's primary mental abilities included word fluency, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, spatial visualization, associative memory, perceptual speed, and reasoning. According to Thurstone's model, it is quite possible for someone to be both a great writer and inept at solving simple algebraic problems because these tasks involve different primary mental abilities.

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Chap 10_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Baby Denisha learned to call her family's dog a "woof woof." Her parents were surprised when she pointed to a cow and said, "Woof woof!" Jean Piaget would say that Denisha was making use of the process of: a. habituation. b. object permanence. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. 2. Studies show that sex education: a. produces slight increases in the number of teens having sex. b. produces increases in the number of sexual partners each teen has. c. results in an increase in the rate of teen pregnancy. d. reduces the spread of sexually transmitted infections among teens. 3. Elizabeth has been married for a year and is currently expecting her first child. Research indicates that her marital satisfaction will be highest: a. before having children. b. with the birth of her first child. c. when her children are school-aged. d. when her children leave home. 4. Kim married 2 years ago and just had her first baby. Assuming she stays married for the next 20 years, when will her marital satisfaction be highest? a. at the present time. b. the past 2 years. c. when her child is born. d. when her child leaves home. 5. The "inside-to-outside" rule that describes the tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from the center to the periphery is called: a. the proximodistal rule. b. object permanence. c. the cephalocaudal rule. d. myelination.

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Chap 10_5e 6. Over the past century, the age at which people physically become an adult has _____, and the age at which people assume adult responsibilities has _____. a. decreased; decreased b. decreased; increased c. increased; increased d. increased; decreased 7. According to Piaget, understanding the fact that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible is referred to as: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. inattentional blindness. d. objective blindsight. 8. When placed in a cage with a soft cloth "mother" and a wire "mother" equipped with a feeding nipple, socially isolated rhesus monkeys: a. spent more time hanging on the soft cloth mother, even though the wire mother provided nourishment. b. spent more time hanging on the wire mother, primarily because it was equipped with a feeding nipple. c. refused to eat altogether. d. refused to spend any time on the soft cloth mother because it offered no nourishment. 9. Thomas is 14 years old. Kohlberg would say that he is in the _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. concrete operational 10. Which statement about attitudes toward homosexuality in America is true? a. Most Americans oppose same-sex marriage. b. About half of American adults favor same-sex marriage. c. American adults are less accepting of same-sex marriage than adults in other countries are. d. Most American adults favor same-sex marriage. 11. Infants learn to control their elbows and knees before their hands and feet, which illustrates the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. handedness d. sensorimotor

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Chap 10_5e 12. Which statement about the determinants of homosexuality is true? a. Cold, domineering mothers are associated with male, but not female, homosexuality. b. The absence of a father figure is associated with male and female homosexuality. c. Weak, submissive fathers are associated with male, but not female, homosexuality. d. Aspects of the parents' behavior do not appear to determine homosexuality. 13. Inside-to-outside is to _____ as top-to-bottom is to _____. a. proximodistal; cephalocaudal b. myelination; assimilation c. assimilation; accommodation d. cephalocaudal; proximodistal 14. Which of these is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer? a. chlamydia b. gonorrhea c. syphilis d. human papilloma virus 15. One major reason humans are born with undeveloped brains is that: a. this is the typical course of brain development for most animals. b. it results in an easier passage through the birth canal. c. from an evolutionary perspective, it confers greater advantages at birth. d. it allows greater biological resources to be devoted to heart and lung development. 16. Research indicates that older adults experience _____ stress, worry, and anger than do young adults. a. considerably less b. slightly less c. slightly more d. considerably more 17. A developmental disorder that stems from heavy alcohol use by the mother during pregnancy is called: a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. myelination. c. a teratogen. d. habituation.

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Chap 10_5e 18. Susanna can expect that her typical newborn daughter will be able to: a. hold her head up for brief periods. b. reach for a toy. c. clearly see objects 20 ft away. d. suck. 19. The fatty sheath around the axons of a neuron is referred to as: a. a teratogen. b. myelin. c. habituation. d. cephalocaudal. 20. The age at which the onset of menstruation occurred in girls in Scandanavia, the United Kingdom, and the United States decreased by about _____ year(s) between the 19th and 20th centuries. a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 21. Danielle was just born. Which of these is she NOT able to do? a. show the rooting reflex b. suck c. reach for a bottle d. habituate to a stimulus 22. In just 3 or 4 years, the average adolescent gains about _____ pounds and grows about _____ inches. a. 4.5; 10 b. 9; 17 c. 13; 33 d. 18; 25 23. Research shows that older adults are: a. more likely to remember negative information than to remember positive information. b. more likely than are young adults to seek potentially useful information. c. less likely than are young adults to seek emotionally satisfying information. d. less likely than are young adults to experience negative emotions.

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Chap 10_5e 24. At present, the general consensus among scientists is that: a. unmarried people are happier than are married people. b. happier people tend to get married, but marriage doesn't make people happy. c. unhappy people are the most likely to get married. d. happier people tend to get married, and marriage makes them even happier. 25. Two-year-old Peter has short eye openings, a flat midface, an indistinct ridge under his nose, and a thin upper lip. An alert pediatrician is likely to diagnose _____ syndrome. a. Down b. Prader-Willi c. fetal alcohol d. Turner 26. Samantha is currently experiencing bodily changes that are associated with reaching sexual maturity. She is experiencing: a. puberty. b. adulthood. c. habituation. d. myelination. 27. If you are a college-age American, you are likely to have approximately _____ children in your lifetime. a. 1 b. 1.8 c. 2.8 d. 3.5 28. The understanding that the mind produces representations of the world and that these representations guide behavior is referred to as: a. habituation. b. attachment. c. conservation. d. theory of mind. 29. About 60% of preindustrial societies do not have a word for adolescence because: a. the onset of puberty is considered shameful. b. marriage typically occurs before puberty. c. the onset of puberty is considered to be the beginning of adulthood. d. children are not treated differently than are adults.

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Chap 10_5e 30. Johnson and colleagues (2007) measured the amount of time infants spent looking at cartoons. Which statement summarizes their results? a. Insecurely attached infants stared longer at cartoons of unresponsive caregivers than responsive caregivers. b. Securely attached infants stared longer at cartoons of responsive caregivers than unresponsive caregivers. c. Securely attached infants stared longer at the cartoons than insecurely attached infants did, regardless of what type of cartoon was shown. d. Securely attached infants stared longer at cartoons of unresponsive caregivers than insecurely attached infants did. 31. Which statement is true regarding newborns? a. They can do little more than cry and squirm. b. They can see objects at a distance of 18 feet as clearly as an adult can. c. They are especially sensitive to stimuli that look like faces. d. They are unable to follow a moving stimulus with their eyes. 32. Worldwide, _____ attachment is the MOST common type. a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized 33. Throughout adolescence, young people spend _____ time with opposite-sex peers, _____ time with samesex peers, and _____ time with parents. a. less; more; more b. more; less; the same amount of c. more; the same amount of; less d. the same amount of; more; less 34. According to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, the major task confronting 15-year-old Tony is to develop: a. a sense of independence. b. love relationships. c. a sense of who he is. d. a sense of trust.

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Chap 10_5e 35. What percentage of high school-age students identify as lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgender? a. 1% b. 3.5% c. 25% d. 8% 36. Which statement about adulthood is true? a. Adulthood is the shortest of all stages of development because development ceases shortly after the stage is entered. b. The rate of observable physical change speeds up considerably during adulthood. c. Adulthood spans from about ages 20 to 65, when old age begins. d. Adulthood begins around age 18 to 21 years and lasts through death. 37. Which of these BEST defines attachment? a. a biologically based pattern of attentional and emotional reactivity b. the emotional bond with a primary caregiver c. a stage of moral development d. a set of beliefs about the way relationships work 38. Who probably has experienced the longest period of adolescence? a. Scarlett, who got married in 1860 b. Helen, who got married in 1900 c. Sharon, who got married in 1970 d. Jarena, who got married in 2016 39. Megan has a habit of standing in front of the television, even though other people behind her are also trying to watch the television. Megan seems unaware that people cannot see the television through her head. Megan: a. is selfish. b. is demonstrating egocentrism. c. does not grasp the concept of conservation. d. is demonstrating reversibility. 40. At 8 months of age, Hana exhibits an ambivalent attachment style. She probably: a. is confident that her primary caregiver will respond when she feels insecure. b. is confident that her primary caregiver will not respond when she feels insecure. c. is uncertain about whether her primary caregiver will respond on any particular occasion. d. notices that her primary caregiver responds inconsistently to her requests for reassurance.

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Chap 10_5e 41. Simone is 20 weeks pregnant. This means that her developing baby is in the _____ stage of development. a. germinal b. embryonic c. infancy d. fetal 42. A _____ brain shows _____ bilateral _____. a. differentiated; more; symmetry b. differentiated; less; asymmetry c. de-differentiated; more; symmetry d. de-differentiated; less; asymmetry 43. As people move from early to middle adulthood, their rate of interaction with acquaintances _____, and their rate of interaction with family and a few close friends _____. a. remains the same; also remains the same b. declines; declines c. stays stable or increases; declines d. declines; stays stable or increases 44. The stage of development that begins at about 18 to 24 months and lasts until about 11 to 14 years is called: a. childhood. b. infancy. c. adulthood. d. puberty. 45. The _____ stage ends 2 weeks after conception. a. zygotal b. germinal c. embryonic d. fetal 46. Lynn is currently in the 36th week of her pregnancy. This means that her developing baby is in the _____ stage of development. a. germinal b. embryonic c. infancy d. fetal

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Chap 10_5e 47. Statistically, who is at her physical peak? a. Joanna, age 14 b. Roberta, age 42 c. Selena, age 24 d. Willow, age 35 48. Shannon is an infant who is just learning about the world. Which skill is NOT one of the three fundamental skills that will allow Shannon to learn from others? a. social referencing b. joint attention c. assimilation d. imitation 49. Which cortical area experiences an increase in the number of synapses before puberty followed by synaptic pruning during puberty? a. occipetal b. prefrontal c. temporal d. parietal 50. Arman, a 6-month-old, reacts fearfully to novel stimuli. As an adult, he is likely to be all of these EXCEPT: a. cautious. b. shy. c. novelty-seeking. d. quiet. 51. The identical twin of a gay man has about a _____ chance of being gay. a. 15% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% 52. At about what age do children begin passing the false-belief test? a. between ages 2 and 4 b. between ages 4 and 6 c. between ages 6 and 8 d. between ages 8 and 10

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Chap 10_5e 53. When infants apply their schemas in novel situations, they are engaging in: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. object permanence. d. habituation. 54. Nevaeh, an 18-month-old, has just learned a new skill. Assuming she is typically developing, what skill is she MOST likely to have just learned? a. rolling over b. sitting up c. pulling herself to a stand d. walking up steps 55. In regards to older adults maintaining their cognitive functioning, how are the brains of older adults and younger adults different? a. The brains of older adults become de-differentiated. b. The brains of older adults are characterized by a more developed prefrontal cortex. c. The brains of older adults become more specialized in processing cognitive tasks. d. The brains of older adults exhibit a greater hippocampal volume. 56. Older adults show a much more pronounced decline in _____ memory than in _____ memory. a. working; long-term b. semantic; episodic c. recognition; retrieval d. long-term; short-term 57. Linda and Mike have a 10-year-old daughter who has begun going through puberty. Linda and Mike should be aware that the effects of early maturation would NOT include that their daughter: a. is at a higher risk for delinquency. b. will be expected to act like an adult due to her mature appearance. c. may be drawn into activities she is not ready to engage in by older males. d. will have more time than her peers to develop adolescent social skills. 58. Statistically, who is at her mental peak? a. Joanna, age 14 b. Roberta, age 42 c. Selena, age 24 d. Willow, age 35

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Chap 10_5e 59. A psychologist tells children a story in which a puppet named Maxi puts a ball in one cupboard and then leaves the room. While she is gone, another puppet moves the ball to another cupboard. Then Maxi comes back. At this point, the psychologist asks the children in which cupboard Maxi will look for the ball. Most 3year-olds probably will say the _____ cupboard, and most 5-year-olds will say the _____ cupboard. a. first; first b. first; second c. second; first d. second; second 60. Which statement about the development of peer relations in adolescence is true? a. Peer relations evolve in markedly different ways across cultures and historical periods. b. Formation of couples occurs early in adolescence and is followed by the formation of mixed-sex cliques in late adolescence. c. The typical pattern of peer relation development is formation of same-sex cliques followed by formation of mixed-sex cliques and then couples. d. The typical pattern of peer relation development is formation of mixed-sex cliques, then same-sex cliques, then romantic relationships. 61. Alexa suffers from a developmental disorder that developed from heavy alcohol use by her mother while she was pregnant. Alexa likely suffers from: a. fetal alcohol syndrome. b. myelination. c. a teratogen. d. habituation. 62. Research has indicated that children living in cultures that discourage arguments and conflicts experience delays in: a. the emergence of abstract reasoning skills. b. understanding that different people have different beliefs. c. understanding that different people like different things. d. mastery of the false-belief task. 63. The process by which infants and children gain the ability to think and understand is called _____ development. a. cognitive b. emotional c. physical d. motor

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Chap 10_5e 64. Which statement is FALSE? a. Differences in temperament usually are stable over time. b. Differences in attachment style are due primarily to biology. c. Mothers of securely attached infants tend to be especially sensitive to their infants' needs. d. Children who were securely attached as infants tend to have higher-quality social relationships. 65. Which ability is NOT one of the three essential tasks of cognitive development? a. understanding how the physical world works b. understanding the physiological processes underlying cognition c. understanding how the child's own mind works d. understanding how other people's minds work 66. Annette was born male but has a female gender. She is sexually attracted to males. Annette would be classified as a: a. transgender straight woman. b. cisgender straight woman. c. transgender gay man. d. cisgender gay man. 67. Research has shown that: a. fluctuations in the hormone levels of adolescents lead to marked mood swings. b. adolescent boys' mood swings are more noticeable than are the mood swings of adolescent girls. c. adolescents are no moodier than are children. d. the "raging hormones" of adolescence are more common today than they were 200 years ago. 68. Development of primary and secondary sex characteristics is triggered by increased production of the hormones: a. adrenaline and progesterone. b. thyroxin and oxytocin. c. estrogen and testosterone. d. oxytocin and progesterone. 69. At 6 months of age, Safa exhibits an avoidant attachment style. She probably: a. is confident that her primary caregiver will respond when she feels insecure. b. is confident that her primary caregiver will not respond when she feels insecure. c. is uncertain about whether her primary caregiver will respond on any particular occasion. d. notices that her primary caregiver responds inconsistently to her requests for reassurance.

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Chap 10_5e 70. Which statement is true of visual perception in newborns? a. They are farsighted, seeing objects that are farther away in more detail than they do objects closer to them. b. Their visual perception approximates that of an adult human. c. They see colors more vividly than does an adult human. d. They only see details in objects that are about 8 to 12 inches away. 71. Babies with which of these temperaments tend to become quiet, cautious, and shy adults? a. babies who smile in response to novel stimuli b. babies who react fearfully to novel stimuli c. slow-to-warm-up babies d. securely attached babies 72. The period of prenatal development that lasts from the 9th week until birth is called the _____ stage. a. germinal b. embryonic c. infancy d. fetal 73. Research on Kohlberg's theory of moral development: a. supports his claim that the stages are discrete and nonoverlapping. b. supports his claim that more boys than girls reach the postconventional stage. c. shows that his view accurately describes moral thinking in non-Western societies. d. suggests that people might apply thinking from different stages depending on the situation. 74. Laura gazes out the window, and her 6-month-old son stops mouthing his toy and also looks out the window, demonstrating the ability known as: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. overimitation. d. object permanence. 75. One major reason humans are born with undeveloped brains is that: a. this is the typical course of brain development for most animals. b. it allows the brain to adapt to a wide range of environments. c. from an evolutionary perspective, it confers greater advantages at birth. d. it allows greater biological resources to be devoted to heart and lung development.

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Chap 10_5e 76. The "top-to-bottom" rule that describes the tendency for motor skills to emerge in sequence from the head to the feet is called: a. the proximodistal rule. b. object permanence. c. the cephalocaudal rule. d. myelination. 77. Eleven-month-old Ashley plays without a fuss when her mother leaves and on her return ignores her. Ashley is demonstrating which type of attachment style? a. avoidant b. ambivalent c. disorganized d. secure 78. A preschooler has learned not to cut in line, to share the ball, and to take turns at the play table. However, she behaves selfishly at the new train set because her behavior is controlled by _____, not by _____. a. outcomes; intentions b. intentions; outcomes c. prescriptions; principles d. principles; prescriptions 79. Christine went to jail because she was part of a disruptive demonstration at a gun show. Christine believes that easy access to firearms is a major cause of human suffering and death. Kohlberg would say that Christine is at the _____ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. preoperational 80. The earlier onset of puberty in girls today compared to just a few decades ago is linked to all of these EXCEPT: a. growing up in unpredictable households with high levels of conflict. b. living in relatively low stress conditions. c. the presence of environmental toxins that mimic estrogen. d. diet and increased body fat.

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Chap 10_5e 81. Which statement has been shown to be FALSE by research on homosexuality? a. The absence of a father figure in the household is associated with male homosexuality. b. Children reared by homosexual couples and heterosexual couples are equally likely to become heterosexual adults. c. High levels of androgens predispose a fetus, whether male or female, to develop a sexual preference for women. d. Parenting style does not seem to impact sexual orientation. 82. Twelve-year-old Jon has been suspended from middle school several times and started exhibiting behavioral problems in kindergarten. A pediatrician learns that his parents were heavy users of drugs and alcohol before and for a year after Jon's birth. Examining the child's medical records, she learns that Jon had a normal birth weight but has exhibited cognitive deficits his entire life. The pediatrician would be MOST likely to conclude that Jon's behavioral problems are due to prenatal exposure to which drug? a. tobacco b. alcohol c. heroin d. methadone 83. Which statement is true of puberty in boys? a. The timing of puberty does not have a consistent effect on boys. b. Boys who mature early are at an elevated risk for depression, delinquency, and disease. c. Boys who mature late are at an elevated risk for depression, delinquency, and disease. d. Boys are at higher risk for depression regardless of when they hit puberty. 84. Marital satisfaction is highest: a. before children are born. b. when children are young and at home. c. when children become adults and leave home. d. with the birth of each child. 85. According to Piaget, the sensorimotor stage begins at _____ and ends at about age _____. a. birth; 4 months b. birth; 2 years c. 2 years; 4 years d. 2 years; 6 years

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Chap 10_5e 86. Which statement is true regarding object permanence, according to Piaget? a. It is present at birth. b. It develops during the first 2 months of life. c. It develops in the sensorimotor stage. d. It develops in the preoperational stage. 87. Robert was born female but has a male gender. He is sexually attracted to males. Robert would be classified as a: a. transgender gay man. b. cisgender gay man. c. transgender straight woman. d. cisgender straight woman. 88. Sean, who was born prematurely, had a very low birth weight. He also experienced perceptual and attentional problems in infancy and childhood. Sean was probably exposed to which teratogen? a. alcohol b. tobacco c. lead d. paint dust 89. The period of development that begins with the onset of sexual maturity and lasts until the beginning of adulthood is called: a. puberty. b. adolescence. c. the tween years. d. emerging adulthood. 90. During which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development do children learn how to reason about abstract concepts? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preconventional 91. Serena is convinced that a child who deliberately broke 1 cup did a worse thing did than a child who accidentally broke 12 cups. According to Piaget, Serena is judging morality in terms of its: a. outcomes. b. intentions. c. prescriptions. d. principles. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 92. Compared to previous generations of Americans: a. rates of self-mutilation and suicide are decreasing in today's children. b. today's children are less safe. c. rates of anxiety are increasing in today's children. d. today's children have less time and space in which to grow up. 93. As they explore their environment, infants begin to construct _____, which are theories about the way the world works. a. operations b. schemas c. hypotheses d. Gestalts 94. Which skill is NOT one of the three fundamental skills that allow children to learn from others? a. social referencing b. joint attention c. assimilation d. imitation 95. One major current criticism of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that: a. his research was poorly done. b. it applies only to Swiss children. c. children do not all go through the same sequences of it. d. it occurs gradually instead of in stages. 96. Barry is currently 8 years old. This means that he is in which stage of development? a. childhood b. infancy c. adulthood d. puberty 97. Maria and Carlos purchase a mobile for their newborn's crib to keep his attention. After a period of time, the infant may stop paying attention to the mobile. This is an example of which process? a. object permanence b. habituation c. assimilation d. schema development

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Chap 10_5e 98. Current research shows that children generally acquire many of the abilities described by Piaget: a. much earlier than he realized. b. at about the same ages that he proposed. c. slightly later than he realized. d. much later than he realized. 99. At 7 months of age, Jayden exhibits a secure attachment style. He probably: a. is confident that his primary caregiver will respond when he feels insecure. b. is confident that his primary caregiver will not respond when he feels insecure. c. is uncertain about whether his primary caregiver will respond on any particular occasion. d. notices that his primary caregiver responds inconsistently to his requests for reassurance. 100. What is developmental psychology? a. the study of the child, from birth to adolescence b. the study of adulthood, from the 20s through old age c. the study of prenatal growth, from conception until birth d. the study of continuity and change across the life span 101. Which statement is FALSE regarding moral reasoning? a. Children display "moral sense" long before they are capable of deliberate reasoning. b. Infants and young children lack any of the moral sensibilities of adults. c. Morality is not simply the result of reasoning but also of basic psychological tendencies. d. Moral reasoning may have roots in our evolutionary heritage. 102. In one study, researchers showed infants moving circles, moving circles with scrambled facial features, and moving circles with regular facial features. The researchers measured eye gazes at the objects and found that infants tracked the: a. empty circles for the longest time. b. scrambled faces for the longest time. c. regular faces for the longest time. d. scrambled and regular faces for an equivalent amount of time. 103. A characteristic pattern of reacting to the absence and presence of one's primary caregiver is referred to as: a. the preconventional stage of development. b. an attachment style. c. myelination. d. habituation.

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Chap 10_5e 104. Ian is convinced that a child who broke 12 cups accidentally did a worse thing than a child who deliberately broke 1 cup. According to Piaget, Ian is judging morality in terms of its: a. outcomes. b. intentions. c. prescriptions. d. principles. 105. The percentage of high school students who report being sexually active is about _____ and has been _____ over recent years. a. 50%; increasing b. 33%; decreasing c. 50%; decreasing d. 60%; increasing 106. A psychologist tells children a story in which a puppet named Maxi puts a ball in one cupboard and then leaves the room. While she is gone, another puppet moves the ball to another cupboard. Then Maxi comes back. At this point, the psychologist asks the children in which cupboard Maxi will look for the ball. Most 6year-olds probably will say the _____ cupboard, and most 8-year-olds will say the _____ cupboard. a. first; first b. first; second c. second; first d. second; second 107. About _____ of sexually active American teens report using a condom during their last sexual encounter. a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 90% 108. Which statement regarding fetal audio perception is FALSE? a. Newborns suck more vigorously on a nipple when they hear their own mother's voice compared to a stranger's. b. The pitch of a baby's cry tends to mimic the cadence of his mother's native tongue. c. In the womb, the fetus can hear the mother's heartbeat, digestion, and voice. d. If a fetus is played a particular genre of music while in the womb, she displays a preference for this genre when she is older.

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Chap 10_5e 109. For Lawrence Kohlberg, moral development unfolds in the following sequence: first, emphasis on _____; then emphasis on _____; and finally, emphasis on _____. a. social roles; consequences; ethical principles b. ethical principles; social roles; consequences c. social roles; ethical principles; consequences d. consequences; social roles; ethical principles 110. A psychologist tells a child a story in which a puppet named Maxi puts a ball in one cupboard and then leaves the room. While she is gone, another puppet moves the ball to another cupboard. Then Maxi comes back. At this point, the psychologist asks the child in which cupboard Maxi will look for the ball. This is an example of: a. a conservation task. b. an assimilation task. c. a test of object permanence. d. the false-belief task. 111. Elsa and Ariela were discussing what might happen to gender relations if the United States were to elect a woman as president. It is likely they are in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. formal operational b. concrete operational c. preoperational d. abstract operational 112. Who is MOST known for describing the stages of psychosocial development? a. Jean Piaget b. Mary Ainsworth c. Lawrence Kohlberg d. Erik Erikson 113. Piaget believed that children acquire the understanding that different people have different beliefs: a. when they can engage in formal operations. b. much earlier than what scientists now recognize. c. by being exposed to people disagreeing about their beliefs. d. as a result of the culture in which they are born. 114. Infants learn to control their shoulders before they learn to control their elbows, illustrating the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. dorsal striatal d. ventral medial Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 115. Which is the longest stage of prenatal development? a. zygotal b. germinal c. fetal d. embryonic 116. Shona is worried that her daughter might get pregnant in high school like many of her friends, but she opposes sex education. Shona should consider which fact regarding sex education? a. Sex education decreases teen pregnancy and delays the onset of sexual activity. b. Sex education increases teen pregnancy and the spread of sexually transmitted infections. c. Sex education neither increases nor decreases teen pregnancy, but it does reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections. d. Sex education decreases teen pregnancy but increases the spread of sexually transmitted infections. 117. By about 6 months of age, a baby begins to direct attachment signals toward: a. the father. b. the mother. c. the primary caregiver. d. anyone who is close by. 118. The _____ is the single fertilized cell that contains chromosomes from both the sperm and the egg. a. zygote b. embryo c. spermatozoid d. nucleus 119. Jane is an expectant mother and is listening to her baby's heartbeat using an ultrasound. This means that her baby could NOT be in the _____ stage of prenatal development. a. fetal b. embryonic c. infantile d. germinal 120. The fraternal male twin of a gay man has about a _____ chance of being gay. a. 1% b. 5% c. 15% d. 50%

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Chap 10_5e 121. A psychology professor conducts a study in which she shows children a carton of milk and then pours it to reveal orange juice instead of milk. Then she asks the children what they originally had thought was in the carton. Most 3-year-olds probably will say _____, and most 5-year-olds will say _____. a. milk; milk b. milk; orange juice c. orange juice; orange juice d. orange juice; milk 122. What is the correct order of Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational b. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational c. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational d. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational 123. A study that measured moment-to-moment happiness of American women found that women were the LEAST happy while: a. eating. b. exercising. c. taking care of their children. d. watching television. 124. Which statement about adolescence is FALSE? a. All adolescents explore a variety of identities before adopting the one prescribed for them by their family. b. Adolescents and their parents tend to disagree about the age at which certain adult behaviors become permissible. c. Adolescents become more oriented toward peers than parents. d. Adolescents have an opportunity to shape themselves by joining peer groups that will lead them to develop new values and attitudes. 125. Which describes egocentrism, according to Piaget? a. A child is selfish. b. A child is in the sensorimotor stage. c. A child fails to understand that the world appears different to different people. d. A child realizes that others may not share the child's point of view.

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Chap 10_5e 126. Which statement does NOT describe a reason adolescence can be a particularly hard time for lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender teenagers? a. Public opinion is rapidly becoming less tolerant of homosexuality. b. They are different from the majority of their peers. c. Families may express disdain and disapproval. d. They may face prejudice and discrimination. 127. There is evidence to suggest that sexual orientation can be affected by: a. low levels of androgens in the womb. b. parents' sexual orientations. c. a mother's immune system. d. peers' sexual orientations. 128. American teenagers are subjected to _____ restrictions as are active-duty U.S. marines. a. about the same number of b. twice as many c. 5 times as many d. 10 times as many 129. Which of these is NOT a motor response? a. reaching b. viewing c. grasping d. crawling 130. Research has indicated that the "moody adolescent" who is a victim of "raging hormones" is: a. largely a myth. b. true only in industrialized nations. c. more true for children from high-SES than low-SES households. d. especially true for children who reach puberty later than do their peers. 131. Older adults show a much more pronounced decline in _____ memory than in _____ memory. a. long-term; working b. semantic; episodic c. working; long-term d. long-term; short-term

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Chap 10_5e 132. Jacquie's big brother taught her how to catch a beach ball by positioning her hands a specified distance apart with hands open. After she learned to catch the large beach ball, she learned to adjust her hands to catch a smaller ball. This additional learning is an example of: a. habituation. b. object permanence. c. accommodation. d. assimilation. 133. Which statement about reckless behavior in adolescence and adulthood is true? a. Adolescents are incapable of making wise decisions based on good information. b. Adolescents are more susceptible to peer influence than are adults. c. Adolescents usually do not "age out" of whatever troubles they manage to get themselves into. d. Adolescence is a terribly troubled time for most adolescents. 134. Claire's mother consumed alcohol heavily while she was pregnant with Claire. This could explain why Claire: a. was born low birth weight. b. developed an enlarged heart. c. has experienced problems with academic achievement. d. was born with deformed limbs. 135. On her first day as a student teacher, Emily observes that in her class of 11-year-old 6th graders, on average: a. the girls are taller than the boys. b. the children all appear similar in height. c. the boys are taller than the girls. d. more boys than girls are exhibiting secondary sex characteristics. 136. Which statement is true regarding the rooting and sucking reflexes? a. They grow stronger over the first several months of life. b. They are both learned behaviors. c. They allow newborn infants to feed. d. The rooting reflex only occurs in 40% of newborns. 137. Morality is determined primarily by its consequences for the actor in the _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. formal operational

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Chap 10_5e 138. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of a child with fetal alcohol syndrome? a. a flat midface b. brain abnormalities c. cognitive deficits d. a thick upper lip 139. Relative to a younger adult, an older adult will probably perform similarly to a younger adult on which task? a. matching U.S. presidents to their accomplishments b. remembering personal details about life 5 years ago c. remembering birthdates of family members d. retrieving names of high school classmates from memory 140. Which statement about internal working models is FALSE? a. Infants with an ambivalent style of attachment are not sure if their caregivers will respond when they are feeling insecure. b. Securely attached children tend to experience greater academic success than do insecurely attached children. c. Securely attached children will stare longer at a cartoon in which a mother is comforting, instead of ignoring, her child. d. Infants with a disorganized style of attachment seem to be confused about their caregivers. 141. Infants learn to control their heads before they learn to control their arms, illustrating the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. dorsal striatal d. ventral medial 142. The term transgender refers to anyone: a. whose sex and gender do not match. b. who is attracted to the same sex. c. who is attracted to the same gender. d. whose gender and sexual orientation do not match. 143. What are secondary sex characteristics? a. bodily structures that change at puberty but are not directly involved in reproduction b. the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity c. bodily structures that change at puberty and are directly involved in reproduction d. bodily structures associated with the cephalocaudal sequence of development

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Chap 10_5e 144. Which statement is true regarding moral reasoning? a. Children do not display "moral sense" until they are capable of deliberate reasoning. b. Infants and young children lack any of the moral sensibilities of adults. c. Morality is not simply the result of reasoning, but also of basic psychological tendencies. d. Once people have passed through a stage of moral development, they no longer display the type of thinking required by that stage of development. 145. Second grader Riley tells his friend Gus not to run in the hallway because it is against the school rules and he might be punished. MOST likely, Riley is in Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. preoperational d. formal operational 146. At 2.5 months old, Dustin has just learned a new skill. Assuming he is typically developing, what skill is he MOST likely to have just learned? a. rolling over b. sitting up c. pulling herself to a stand d. walking up steps 147. _____ development refers to the emergence of the ability to execute physical actions. a. Physical b. Muscular c. Physiological d. Motor 148. Julia was born male but has a female gender. She is sexually attracted to females. Julia would be classified as a: a. transgender straight man. b. cisgender straight woman. c. transgender lesbian. d. cisgender lesbian. 149. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage of cognitive development begins at _____ and ends at about age _____. a. birth; 2 years b. 2 years; 6 years c. 6 years; 11 years d. 11 years; 18 years Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 150. During the embryonic stage, which event occurs? a. An insulating layer of fat develops below the skin. b. The digestive and respiratory systems mature. c. The embryo grows to a length of 6 inches. d. The heart begins to beat. 151. Which of these BEST defines temperament? a. expectations about how the primary caregiver will respond b. the strength of the tendency to lose one's temper c. a biologically based pattern of attentional and emotional reactivity d. the tendency to show strong negative emotions 152. Jake has learned to walk well by himself. He MOST likely learned this skill at _____ months of age. a. 9 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18 153. About _____ of the growth of the brain occurs after birth. a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 154. Application of schemas is to _____ as revision of schemas is to _____. a. assimilation; accommodation b. accommodation; assimilation c. myelination; habituation d. habituation; myelination 155. Researchers of cognitive development now suggest that: a. infants cannot develop the schema of object permanence. b. infants develop the schema of object permanence much later than Piaget realized. c. infants may have a sense of object permanence much earlier than Piaget realized. d. Piaget's theories about the development of object permanence are surprisingly accurate.

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Chap 10_5e 156. Babies whose mothers smoke tobacco during pregnancy are more likely to experience all of these EXCEPT: a. lower birth weights. b. smaller head circumference. c. higher risk of stillbirth. d. distinctive facial features. 157. Three-month-old Shantel has not yet acquired object permanence and, as a result, she will: a. search only briefly for a toy that has been covered with a blanket. b. not search for a toy that has been covered with a blanket. c. construct a schema about where the toy is hidden. d. cry when her toy is hidden under a blanket. 158. The tendency for an organism to respond less intensely to a stimulus the more it is presented is termed: a. object permanence. b. conditioning. c. assimilation. d. habituation. 159. Jeremiah just learned to sit without support. Assuming he is typically developing, how many months old is he? a. 1 b. 12 c. 18 d. 6 160. Motor reflexes are specific patterns of motor responses that are: a. the result of classical conditioning. b. triggered by physiological processes. c. triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation. d. acquired early in life. 161. Jack is an infant who loves to play peek-a-boo with his father. He seems amazed that his father "reappears" after hiding his face behind his hands. Jack probably enjoys peek-a-boo because he does NOT yet understand: a. object permanence. b. schemas. c. animism. d. conservation.

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Chap 10_5e 162. The amount of detail a newborn can see from 20 feet away is roughly equivalent to the amount of detail an adult can see from _____ feet away. a. 20 b. 600 c. 50 d. 100 163. When does a zygote become an embryo? a. when the heart starts beating b. when myelination begins c. when it attaches to the uterine wall d. when it is fertilized by a sperm cell 164. Isabel, a newborn, turns her head toward a stimulus that strokes her cheek. Isabel is showing the _____ reflex. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. sucking d. rooting 165. _____ refers to our identities, how we see ourselves, how we want others to see us, and how it feels to be inside our own skins. a. Sex b. Gender c. Cisgender d. Orientation 166. Which of these is NOT likely to be experienced by adults who were securely attached as infants? a. greater academic success b. reduced cognitive functioning c. successful social relationships d. higher psychological well-being 167. Connections between language areas and areas specialized for understanding spatial relations in the brain multiply rapidly between the ages of: a. 4 and 5 years. b. 12 and 18 years. c. 1 and 4 years. d. 6 and 13 years.

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Chap 10_5e 168. There is much variability in the rate that children acquire a theory of mind. Among the factors that have been identified, _____ seem(s) to be the most important. a. language skills b. time spent in pretend play c. the family's socioeconomic status d. number of siblings 169. The two groups of children that are much slower than others to acquire a theory of mind are those who are: a. autistic or antisocial. b. blind or autistic. c. blind or deaf with parents who don't use sign language. d. autistic or are deaf with parents who don't use sign language. 170. At 4 months of age, Ryan exhibits a disorganized attachment style. Which statement is NOT true? a. Ryan is confident that his primary caregiver will respond when he feels insecure. b. Ryan's attachment style will have a long-lasting influence. c. Researchers may speculate that Ryan has been abused. d. Ryan is confused about his relationship with his primary caregiver. 171. Harry Harlow studied _____ to learn more about the importance of caregivers in social development. a. infants in orphanages b. members of the Piraha tribe c. adopted children d. socially isolated rhesus monkeys 172. The ability to use another person's reactions as information about how one should think about the world is known as: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. assimilation. d. the theory of mind. 173. What is puberty? a. the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity b. the period of development that begins with sexual maturation and ends with adulthood c. an aspect of development that begins in adulthood d. bodily structures that change at sexual maturity and are involved in reproduction

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Chap 10_5e 174. Children of mothers who received insufficient nutrition during pregnancy tend to have _____ problems. a. physical but not psychological b. psychological but not physical c. both physical and psychological d. neither physical nor psychological 175. The identical twin of a gay man has a higher chance of being gay than the fraternal twin of a gay man. This phenomenon suggests that: a. genetic factors completely determine sexual orientation in men. b. environmental factors completely determine sexual orientation in men. c. genetic factors play a minor role in influencing sexual orientation in men. d. genetic factors play a large role in influencing sexual orientation in men. 176. The adolescent growth spurt begins in girls at about age _____ and in boys at about age _____. a. 8 years; 9 years b. 9 years; 11 years c. 10 years; 12 years d. 11 years; 14 years 177. A.J. believes that firearms should be readily available because the Second Amendment to the U.S. Constitution guarantees the right to bear arms. Kohlberg would say that A.J. is at the _____ level of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. preoperational 178. In demonstrating the ability of joint attention, older infants tend to follow the _____ of adults. a. verbal instructions b. physical prompts c. head movements d. eye movements 179. Which statement about conversion "therapy" is true? a. It is effective in both males and females. b. It is effective in females only. c. It is effective in bisexuals only. d. It is not effective.

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Chap 10_5e 180. People find late adulthood to be one of the _____ periods of life. a. most satisfying b. least satisfying c. least happy d. most difficult 181. An infant in a visual perception experiment is shown a computerized screen 8 inches from her face that repeats the same visual pattern of wavy line stimuli. How will the infant MOST likely respond? a. She will not notice the visual stimulus because it is too far away. b. Over time, she will look at it more and more. c. Over time, she will look at it less and less. d. Her pattern of looking at the display over time will resemble a wave-like function. 182. According to the text, what percentage of American teenagers worry about a shooting at their school? a. 10% b. 2% c. 97% d. 57% 183. Marriage tends to _____ happiness, and having children tends to _____ marital satisfaction. a. increase; increase b. have no effect on; increase c. have no effect on; decrease d. increase; decrease 184. A large study of North American children who spent time in day care found that the quality of attachment between children and their mothers was influenced MOST strongly by the: a. quality of day care provided. b. amount of day care provided. c. age of entry into day care. d. mother's sensitivity and responsiveness. 185. Beatriz is 2 years old. When her brother tells her to hide, she covers her face with a blanket. This is a good example of: a. assimilation. b. egocentrism. c. conservation. d. accommodation.

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Chap 10_5e 186. Mark is currently 30 years old. Which stage of development is he currently in? a. infancy b. childhood c. puberty d. adulthood 187. For most people, cognitive abilities are at their sharpest in: a. adolescence. b. early adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. late adulthood. 188. If you are a college-age American, you are likely to get married at around the age of: a. 20. b. 27. c. 30. d. 37. 189. Janice recently turned 18 years old. This means that she is now in which stage of development? a. infancy b. childhood c. puberty d. adulthood 190. Before deciding to have children, couples should understand that often, having children: a. produces lasting decreases in marital satisfaction during their childhood. b. produces temporary increases in marital happiness. c. has a more negative impact on the happiness of men than on that of women. d. produces decreases in marital happiness when the children leave home. 191. Anton and his wife are discussing whether to have children. One piece of evidence that he cites in making his argument is that often: a. marital satisfaction decreases dramatically over the course of a marriage, and children appear to be partially responsible. b. having children produces temporary increases in marital happiness. c. having children has a more negative impact on the happiness of men than on that of women. d. having children produces decreases in marital happiness only after the children leave home.

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Chap 10_5e 192. When children begin to realize that groups of people can agree to adopt, change, or abandon some moral rules, they are in what stage of moral thinking, according to Piaget? a. autonomous morality b. principled morality c. realism d. relativism 193. According to Piaget, the concrete operational stage of cognitive development begins at _____ years and ends at about age _____ years. a. 2; 7 b. 4; 9 c. 6; 11 d. 9; 14 194. Which of these is NOT evidence that shows that the fetus is listening? a. Newborns will suck a nipple more vigorously when they hear the sound of their mother's voice than they do when they hear a female stranger. b. Newborns will suck more vigorously when they hear words from their mother's native language. c. The language heard in the womb influences the sounds newborns will ultimately make themselves. d. The only sound heard by the fetus in the womb is the mother's heartbeat and sounds associated with her digestion. 195. Your classmate announces that she is pregnant, and asks you to guess which stage of prenatal development her child is in. You are MOST likely to be correct if you guess the longest stage in prenatal development, the _____ stage. a. germinal b. zygotic c. embryonic d. fetal 196. Researchers studying attachment styles have demonstrated that a majority of infants in all cultures display a(n) _____ attachment style. a. avoidant b. secure c. ambivalent d. disorganized

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Chap 10_5e 197. Isabel, who just had her first birthday, sees a butterfly and exclaims, "Bird!" "No, that's a butterfly," says her grandmother. The next time Isabel sees a butterfly, she says, "Butterfly!" According to Piaget, Isabel has just shown: a. habituation. b. concrete operations. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. 198. According to Kohlberg's theory, a person who determines morality by using principles that reflect core values is in the _____ stage of development. a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. concrete operational 199. When does the formal operational stage of cognitive development begin, according to Piaget? a. 11 years of age b. 13 years of age c. 15 years of age d. 17 years of age 200. The process by which infants apply their schemas to novel situations is referred to as: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. myelination. d. habituation. 201. What are primary sex characteristics? a. bodily structures that change at puberty but are not directly involved in reproduction b. the onset of bodily changes associated with sexual maturity c. bodily structures that change at puberty and are directly involved in reproduction d. bodily structures associated with the cephalocaudal sequence of development 202. At which stage do humans first demonstrate selectivity to facial stimuli? a. zygote b. fetus c. infant d. embryo

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Chap 10_5e 203. Older adults show a much more pronounced decline in _____ memory than in _____ memory. a. long-term; working b. episodic; semantic c. recognition; retrieval d. long-term; short-term 204. Which statement is true regarding myelination? a. It is complete by the time a baby is born. b. It occurs at a relatively constant rate across all areas. c. It is completed in the cerebral cortex by approximately 1 year of age. d. It continues into adulthood. 205. About what percentage of zygotes do NOT complete the journey down the fallopian tube? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 206. The false-belief test demonstrates that 3-year-olds: a. lack the concept of conservation. b. do not have a theory of object permanence. c. fail to apply their schemas in novel situations. d. have trouble understanding that others may not know what they know. 207. The view that cognitive development is largely the result of the child's interaction with members of her or his culture instead of interaction with objects was proposed by: a. Harry Harlow. b. Jean Piaget. c. Lev Vygotsky. d. Erik Erikson. 208. The stage of development that begins at birth and lasts between 18 and 24 months is called: a. childhood. b. infancy. c. adulthood. d. puberty.

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Chap 10_5e 209. Older adults compensate for declines in memory and attention by: a. relying heavily on working memory only. b. differentiating the brain. c. continuing to work harder using their strategy. d. doing things differently. 210. Seven-month-old José is given a kind of cracker he has never eaten before. He promptly puts it into his mouth and eats it. According to Piaget, he is demonstrating: a. object permanence. b. accommodation. c. assimilation. d. concrete operations. 211. There is much variability in the rate that children acquire a theory of mind. Which of these is NOT a factor that influences the age at which most children acquire a theory of mind? a. age at which they first engage in the false-belief task b. time spent in pretend play c. whether the child has an imaginary companion d. number of siblings 212. Infants learn to control their arms before they learn to control their legs, illustrating the _____ rule. a. proximodistal b. cephalocaudal c. dorsal striatal d. ventral medial 213. Which statement is FALSE? a. Exposure to secondhand smoke is safe for the developing fetus. b. There is no medical consensus as to a "safe" amount of alcohol consumption for pregnant women. c. Prenatal exposure to tobacco can result in an increased risk of stillbirth. d. Pregnant women should avoid eating fish containing large amounts of mercury. 214. Which event does NOT occur during the germinal stage: a. the one-celled zygote divides into two cells b. the zygote migrates down the fallopian tube c. sperm travel down the fallopian tube to get close to an egg d. the zygote implants itself into the wall of the uterus

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Chap 10_5e 215. Morality is determined primarily by the extent to which it conforms to social rules in the _____ state of moral development. a. concrete operational b. preconventional c. conventional d. postconventional 216. Dianna's baby is currently 8 months old. Her baby is in which stage of development? a. childhood b. infancy c. adulthood d. puberty 217. Motor skills in infancy emerge: a. in an orderly sequence, but the timing varies for different infants. b. at the same time for all babies, but their sequence varies for different infants. c. in different sequences and at different times. d. in an orderly sequence and at the same time. 218. Jeremy is currently studying calculus. He is likely in which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preconventional 219. Anthony is able to think about "what might be," not only about "what is." According to Piaget, Anthony is in which stage of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational 220. In a research study examining attachment in parents and their children, 1-year-old Ami mildly protests her mother's departure, seeks interaction with her mother when the two are reunited, and is readily comforted by her mother. Ami is showing a(n) _____ attachment style. a. avoidant b. ambivalent c. disorganized d. secure

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Chap 10_5e 221. Among _____, it is those who reach puberty _____ than do their peers who are MOST at risk for depression, delinquency, and disease. a. girls; earlier b. girls; later c. boys; earlier d. boys; later 222. A researcher showed children a crayon box and opened it to reveal candy instead of crayons. Then she closed the box and asked the children what they originally had thought was in it. Most 3-year-olds said _____, and most 5-year-olds said _____. a. candy; crayons b. candy; candy c. crayons; crayons d. crayons; candy 223. The process by which infants revise their schemas in light of new information is referred to as: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. habituation. d. myelination. 224. Parents who are concerned about how their child's attachment will be affected by day care should take comfort in research showing that the quality of attachment between children and their mothers is influenced MOST strongly by the: a. quality of day care provided. b. amount of day care provided. c. age of entry into day care. d. mother's sensitivity and responsiveness. 225. According to Erik Erikson, the major task of adolescence is: a. learning to do things well in comparison with a standard or with others. b. developing a sense of self in relationship to others and to one's internal thoughts and desires. c. developing the ability to give and receive love and form relationships. d. the development of an adult identity. 226. One major current criticism of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that: a. there are more distinct stages than Piaget mentioned. b. it applies only to Swiss children. c. children do not all go through the same sequences of it. d. it occurs earlier than Piaget realized. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 227. Author and educator Erika Christakis argues all of these EXCEPT that: a. active shooter drills may harm the mental health of American children. b. American children are safer and healthier than previous generations. c. preparing children for the unlikely event of a school shooting has no risks. d. childhood itself is imperiled in the United States. 228. The stage of development that begins around 18 to 21 years and lasts for the remainder of life is called: a. infancy. b. childhood. c. puberty. d. adulthood. 229. Which statement is NOT true of aging? a. Sensory abilities become less acute. b. Brain cells die at an accelerated rate. c. Sensitivity to pain increases. d. Sexual functioning decreases. 230. Synaptic pruning is: a. rapid growth of new synapses. b. elimination of synapses that are not frequently used. c. a process that is related to the formation of secondary sex chracteristics. d. a process that only occurs just before puberty. 231. Babies are born with behaviors such as crying, smiling, and cooing to: a. facilitate imprinting. b. better be able to follow the primary caregiver. c. better be able to imitate the primary caregiver. d. keep caregivers close to them. 232. At about 1 year of age, Andi begins looking at her caregivers to gauge their reactions when a stranger walks into the room. This phenomenon is called: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. imprinting. d. cultural tool development.

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Chap 10_5e 233. During an interaction with a 3-month-old infant, an adult closes her eyes and turns her head to the left, facing a novel object. The infant will: a. turn and look at the object. b. imitate the adult by closing his eyes and turning in the direction of the object. c. immediately close his eyes. d. simply stare at the adult. 234. Lee is currently studying geometry in high school. According to Piaget, Lee is in which stage of cognitive development? a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. preconventional 235. Three-year-old Meghan is at the park when a tongue-wagging golden retriever approaches her. Meghan quickly glances at her mom in an effort to determine if petting the dog is safe. Meghan is demonstrating: a. signal detection. b. social referencing. c. imitation. d. joint attention. 236. Formal operational thinking is distinguished from concrete operations by the ability to: a. understand the principle of conservation. b. reason about abstract concepts. c. show egocentrism. d. understand object permanence. 237. The ability to focus on what another person is focused on is known as: a. social referencing. b. joint attention. c. assimilation. d. imitation. 238. The possibility that infants as young as 4 months of age have some knowledge of object permanence has been shown by studies in which: a. infants view "possible" and "impossible" events. b. children place eggs in cups. c. water is poured from wide beakers into tall cylinders. d. clay is flattened and then rolled into a ball.

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Chap 10_5e 239. All of these behaviors of pregnant mothers increase the risk of mental illness or cognitive deficits in their offspring EXCEPT: a. exposure to secondhand smoke. b. light alcohol drinking. c. poor nutrition. d. tobacco use. 240. The bodily structures that are directly involved in reproduction are known as _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. pubertal 241. Which metaphor BEST describes the change from one stage of cognitive development to another? a. turning on a light b. the lunar cycle c. changes in season d. graduating from one grade to the next 242. Most children first understand that different people have different: a. perceptions. b. beliefs. c. desires. d. emotions. 243. An _____ is a set of beliefs about the way relationships work. a. external theory of mind b. internal working model c. external schematic d. interpersonal attachment model 244. Infants with _____ attachment style seem to be confident that their primary caregiver will not respond when they feel insecure. a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized

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Chap 10_5e 245. Adults who were securely attached as infants are likely to experience all of these EXCEPT: a. greater academic success. b. superior cognitive functioning. c. successful social relationships. d. reduced psychological well-being. 246. Amanda was diagnosed with autism. She is likely to: a. function typically in social situations. b. have an impaired theory of mind. c. perform well in tasks involving understanding the beliefs of others. d. easily develop a theory of mind. 247. Teratogen refers to: a. any substance that passes from mother to unborn child and impairs development. b. a substance that forms a fatty sheath around axons of brain cells. c. the specific pattern of motor response triggered by a stimulus. d. the cephalocaudal rule of development. 248. During which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development do children develop a preliminary understanding of the physical world? a. preoperational b. postconventional c. concrete operational d. preconventional 249. Michelle is curious about when her son will begin pubertal development. You could tell her that puberty for American boys is likely to begin between _____ years old. a. 8 and 9 b. 9 and 10 c. 10 and 11 d. 11 and 12 250. Comprehensive sex education can lead teens to all of these EXCEPT: a. increased numbers of sexual partners. b. increased likelihood of condom use. c. decreased likelihood of pregnancy. d. increased age at which they have sex for the first time.

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Chap 10_5e 251. Recent research on the brains of adolescents indicates that development in the prefrontal cortex undergoes _____ just before puberty and _____ during adolescence. a. a growth spurt; an additional growth spurt b. synaptic proliferation; synaptic pruning c. synaptic pruning; synaptic proliferation d. a reduction in neurotransmitters; further reduction 252. The term cisgender refers to anyone: a. whose sex and gender match. b. who is attracted to the opposite sex. c. who is attracted to the same gender. d. who has a heterosexual orientation. 253. Toddler Jake shows severe signs of distress when his mother leaves. When she returns, he pushes her away. Jake is manifesting the characteristics of _____ attachment. a. disorganized b. ambivalent c. avoidant d. secure 254. A newborn human's brain is only _____ of its adult size. a. 10% b. 25% c. 60% d. 85% 255. As children watched, Dr. Vallance poured the same amount of juice into two identical glasses. Then she poured the juice from one of those glasses into a taller, narrower glass. When asked which glass now has more juice, children in the concrete operational stage say that: a. the tall glass has more. b. both glasses have the same amount. c. they don't know. d. the tall glass has less. 256. During which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development do children learn how various actions, or operations, can transform the tangible objects of the physical world? a. preoperational b. postconventional c. concrete operational d. preconventional Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 257. Billy was told by his mother that hitting is not acceptable. When Billy is told by his father to protect himself against a bully in school, Billy responds, "Hitting is not allowed." Billy is demonstrating which concept? a. relativism b. realism c. autonomous morality d. principled morality 258. _____ are motor responses that are triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation. a. Motor reflexes b. Physiological responses c. Conditioned reflexes d. Conditioned responses 259. Which child will MOST likely have acquired a theory of mind? a. Abigail, a typically developing 2-year-old b. Derek, a 5-year-old child with autism c. Dianna, a 6-year-old deaf child who has been using sign language since before her first birthday d. Erika, a 3-year-old deaf child 260. The understanding that the quantitative properties of an object are invariant despite changes in the object's appearance is referred to as: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. assimilation. d. accommodation. 261. According to Piaget, when children learn that taking turns while playing a game is an example of fairness, they have shifted their moral perspective from: a. rules to consequences. b. realism to relativism. c. prescriptions to principles. d. outcome to intentions. 262. In Kohlberg's original research and theoretical perspectives on moral development: a. people must go through the stages in a certain order. b. moral development in girls was thoroughly researched. c. all adults eventually become postconventional moralists. d. an individual may use all three stages of moral thinking in different circumstances.

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Chap 10_5e 263. As we age, the _____ deteriorates more quickly than do other areas of the brain. a. cerebellum b. limbic system c. prefrontal cortex d. temporal lobe 264. Which of these does NOT influence the timing of motor development in infants? a. incentive for reaching b. body weight c. rooting strength d. general level of activity 265. The 2-week period of prenatal development that begins at conception is the _____ stage; the period of prenatal development that lasts from the 2nd week until about the 8th week is the _____ stage. a. zygotal; fetal b. germinal; embryonic c. embryonic; fetal d. fetal; embryonic 266. The emergence of the ability to execute physical actions is referred to as _____ development. a. cognitive b. emotional c. physical d. motor 267. Which statement is true about male zygotes? a. They begin to release testosterone that masculinizes the development of female reproductive organs. b. They are less likely to complete the journey down the fallopian tubes and successfully implant in the uterus. c. They develop a heartbeat approximately 1 week earlier than female zygotes. d. They are approximately 2 inches at this stage, while females are approximately 1 inch. 268. Teenagers who begin having sex before age 15 experience all of these EXCEPT higher: a. sense of self-worth. b. rates of anxiety. c. rates of substance abuse. d. rates of aggressiveness.

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Chap 10_5e 269. Psychologists speculate that infants who have suffered abuse by their primary caregivers are more likely to exhibit which style of attachment? a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized 270. _____ is widely considered to be the father of modern developmental psychology. a. Harry Harlow b. Wilhelm Wundt c. Jean Piaget d. Lawrence Kohlberg 271. At present, the general consensus among scientists is that _____ people tend to get married, and marriage makes people _____. a. unhappy; unhappy b. happier; unhappy c. unhappy; happier d. happier; happier 272. Younger adults are generally oriented toward acquiring information useful to them in the future, and older adults are generally oriented toward information that: a. increases their understanding of the past. b. gives them satisfaction in the present. c. is relevant to their work. d. validates the role they previously played in society. 273. Marjorie, a gay woman, is having an MRI done. Her brain will look MOST similar to: a. a straight man. b. a gay man. c. a straight woman. d. both gay and straight men.

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Chap 10_5e 274. Johnson and colleagues (2007) measured the amount of time infants spent looking at cartoons. Which statement summarizes their results? a. Insecurely attached infants stared longer at cartoons of unresponsive caregivers than responsive caregivers. b. Securely attached infants stared longer at cartoons of unresponsive caregivers than responsive caregivers. c. Insecurely attached infants stared longer at the cartoons than securely attached infants did, regardless of what type of cartoon was shown. d. Securely attached infants stared longer at cartoons of responsive caregivers than insecurely attached infants did. 275. A newborn infant would be most attentive to: a. faces. b. perpendicular lines. c. colors. d. spinning wheels. 276. Attachment is defined as a(n) _____ bond that forms between newborns and their primary caregivers. a. intellectual b. emotional c. maturational d. physical 277. Most children ultimately come to understand that different people understand the world in different ways. Once they understand this concept, they are said to have acquired: a. concrete operations. b. postconventional reasoning. c. a theory of mind. d. formal operations. 278. The science of sexual orientation is still young and fraught with conflicting findings; however, there are a few clear conclusions. Which statement does NOT present one of these? a. Sexual orientation has biological components. b. Sexual orientation has genetic underpinnings. c. Sexual orientation is more complex and diverse than one-word labels suggest. d. Sexual orientation is a lifestyle choice.

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Chap 10_5e 279. Author and educator Erika Christakis argues that: a. active shooter drills are vital for the health and safety of American children. b. American children are less safe and healthy than previous generations. c. preparing children for the unlikely event of a school shooting comes at the cost of increased worry. d. childhood itself is protected in the United States. 280. Which statement is NOT a reason, according to Piaget, young children cannot grasp the notion of conservation? Young children: a. fail to distinguish between the objective and the subjective. b. believe that the world is as it seems. c. distinguish between appearances and realities. d. do not understand the difference between the world and their mental representation of it. 281. Infants with a(n) _____ attachment style are not distressed when their caregiver leaves the room and do not respond positively or negatively when their caregiver returns. a. secure b. avoidant c. ambivalent d. disorganized 282. Marital satisfaction decreases most rapidly: a. before children are born. b. when children are young and at home. c. for couples who do not have children. d. when children become adults and leave home. 283. Research has shown that fluctuations in the hormonal levels of adolescents: a. lead to marked mood swings in both males and females. b. lead to marked mood swings in males but not females. c. lead to marked mood swings in females but not males. d. have little effect on mood. 284. Which statement is true regarding myelination? a. It involves the pruning of unneeded neurons. b. It begins during the embryonic stage. c. It only occurs in female embryos. d. It is the formation of a fatty sheath around the axons of a brain cell.

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Chap 10_5e 285. American teenagers are subjected to _____ restrictions as incarcerated felons. a. about the same number of b. twice as many c. half as many d. 10 times as many 286. Five-year-old Latoya watches her father place a ball in each of six bowls. She agrees that there are just as many balls as there are bowls. Her father then removes the balls and spreads them out in a row that extends beyond the row of bowls. Latoya says there are now more balls than there are bowls. According to Piaget, Latoya lacks the concept of: a. conservation. b. egocentrism. c. object permanence. d. false beliefs. 287. Which procedure is BEST for determining whether newborns have noticed a visual object? a. determining how distance to the object affects the rate of habituation to that object b. determining if habituation has occurred to the object c. determining the speed of habituation to the object d. determining if the newborn begins staring again when the object changes 288. Kira is a young adolescent who is just beginning to socialize with peers outside of school. Kira is MOST likely to: a. attend mixed-gender get-togethers at friends' houses. b. hang out with her female friends in public places. c. hang out with mixed-sex cliques in public places. d. begin spending most of her free time in private with a boyfriend. 289. What is the correct order of the stages of prenatal development? a. embryonic, germinal, fetal b. germinal, embryonic, fetal c. germinal, fetal, embryonic d. embryonic, fetal, germinal

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Chap 10_5e 290. Which statement about peer relationships in adolescence is true? a. Peers exert considerable influence on the teen's beliefs and actions. b. Peer influence generally is a result of pressure exerted by peers instead of respect and admiration for peers. c. Rejection by peers has little negative effect on teens, contrary to popular belief. d. Individuals who are popular in early adolescence may be rejected in later adolescence as peers become more rigid and intolerant. 291. Rosemary is a typical 70-year-old woman. MOST probably, she spends her free time: a. with people and hobbies that provide positive experiences. b. meeting new acquaintances. c. dwelling on a negative experience in her past. d. feeling extremely depressed. 292. Harry Harlow studied the response of socially isolated baby rhesus monkeys toward wire "mothers" who provided food and cloth "mothers" who did not. Which result led him to conclude that even monkeys are "born to bond"? a. The baby monkeys rejected both artificial mothers, and cried for their own mothers instead. b. The baby monkeys spent more time with the wire mothers because they provided nourishment. c. The baby monkeys spent equal amounts of time with each type of mother, using the wire mother for nourishment and the cloth mother for comfort. d. The baby monkeys spent more time with cloth mothers than wire mothers, even though cloth mothers did not provide nourishment. 293. During an interaction with a 9-month-old infant, an adult closes her eyes and turns her head to the left, facing a novel object. The infant will: a. turn and look at the object. b. imitate the adult by closing his eyes and turning in the direction of the object. c. immediately close his eyes. d. not attend to the object. 294. How do researchers know that infants can tell the difference between a physically impossible and physically possible event? a. Infants will stare longer at the possible event than they do at the impossible event. b. Infants will stare longer at the impossible event than they do at the possible event. c. Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the possible event but not to the impossible event. d. Infants will demonstrate object permanence to the impossible event but not to the possible event.

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Chap 10_5e 295. _____ refers to our biological characteristics at birth. a. Sex b. Gender c. Cisgender d. Sexual identity 296. Harry is a typical 84-year-old man. He is MOST likely to spend his free time: a. hanging out with old friends and family. b. with a large circle of acquaintances. c. working on profitable experiences. d. remembering negative experiences. 297. Which of these is NOT a primary sex characteristic? a. growth of the penis in boys b. the capacity for ejaculation in boys c. onset of menstruation in girls d. breast enlargement in girls 298. The earlier onset of puberty in girls today compared to just a few decades ago is MOST linked to: a. the absence of a father in the household. b. stress. c. environmental toxins. d. diet. 299. Which of these is NOT a secondary sex characteristic? a. onset of menstruation b. breast enlargement c. appearance of pubic hair d. lowering of the voice 300. Abstinence-only programs are: a. significantly more effective than comprehensive sex education. b. slightly more effective than comprehensive sex education. c. largely ineffective. d. slightly less effective than comprehensive sex education.

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Chap 10_5e Answer Key 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. a 45. b 46. d 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. c 51. b 52. b 53. a 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 55. a 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. a 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. d 73. d 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. a 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. a 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 83. a 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. c 91. b 92. c 93. b 94. c 95. d 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. c 103. b 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. c 108. d 109. d 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 111. a 112. d 113. c 114. a 115. c 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. c 124. a 125. c 126. a 127. c 128. b 129. b 130. a 131. c 132. c 133. b 134. c 135. a 136. c 137. a

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Chap 10_5e 138. d 139. a 140. c 141. b 142. a 143. a 144. c 145. a 146. a 147. d 148. c 149. b 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. d 154. a 155. c 156. d 157. b 158. d 159. d 160. c 161. a 162. b 163. c 164. d 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 166. b 167. d 168. a 169. d 170. a 171. d 172. a 173. a 174. c 175. d 176. c 177. b 178. d 179. d 180. a 181. c 182. d 183. d 184. d 185. b 186. d 187. b 188. b 189. d 190. a 191. a 192. d 193. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 194. d 195. d 196. b 197. d 198. c 199. a 200. a 201. c 202. c 203. b 204. d 205. c 206. d 207. c 208. b 209. d 210. c 211. a 212. b 213. a 214. c 215. c 216. b 217. a 218. c 219. d 220. d 221. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 222. a 223. b 224. d 225. d 226. d 227. c 228. d 229. c 230. b 231. d 232. a 233. a 234. c 235. b 236. b 237. b 238. a 239. b 240. a 241. c 242. c 243. b 244. b 245. d 246. b 247. a 248. a

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Chap 10_5e 249. b 250. a 251. b 252. a 253. b 254. b 255. b 256. c 257. b 258. a 259. c 260. a 261. c 262. a 263. c 264. c 265. b 266. d 267. b 268. a 269. d 270. c 271. d 272. b 273. a 274. b 275. a 276. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e 277. c 278. d 279. c 280. b 281. b 282. b 283. d 284. d 285. d 286. a 287. d 288. b 289. b 290. a 291. a 292. d 293. d 294. b 295. a 296. a 297. d 298. d 299. a 300. c

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Couples with children tend to be happier in their marriage than are couples without children. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 10.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.3 introduces material from the following publication. Gardner, M., & Steinberg, L. (2005). Peer influence on risk taking, risk preference, and risky decision making in adolescence and adulthood: An experimental study. Developmental Psychology, 41(4), 625–635. https://doi-org.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1037/0012-1649.41.4.625

Gardner and Steinberg (2005) studied risky decision making in the context of a video driving game. Specifically, they determined if playing the game either alone or with other people in the same age range affected the number of times each participant crashed his or her car. Additionally, researchers determined whether these effects were different across different age groups of participants. Figure 10.2 presents representative data from their experiment. Figure 10.2

2. (Scenario 10.3) The independent variable that the researchers physically manipulated was: a. participant age. b. the type of video game played. c. the presence or absence of peers. d. the number of crashes in the game. 3. Experts have not reached a consensus on an amount of alcohol consumption "light" enough to not harm a fetus. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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4. (Scenario 10.3) The psychological construct that the researchers needed to operationally define to measure the dependent variable was: a. adolescence. b. friends. c. crashes. d. risky decision making.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 5. The development of abstract reasoning skills appears to be the most important factor in the formation of a theory of mind. a. True b. False 6. The majority of brain development occurs after birth. a. True b. False 7. Infants learn to control their arms before they learn to control their legs. a. True b. False 8. The ability to focus on what another person is focused on is termed social referencing. a. True b. False 9. The majority of infants in all cultures have a secure attachment style. a. True b. False

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10. (Scenario 10.3) The results of this experiment suggest that: a. across a variety of contexts, adults make less risky decisions than younger people do. b. performance on driving tasks increases with age. c. adolescents are worse drivers when driving with peers than by themselves. d. having an adult in the car with an adolescent would increase driving performance. 11. The heart first begins to beat in the embryonic stage of prenatal development. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 12. Children in the preoperational stage usually grasp the notion of conservation. a. True b. False 13. Infants who have formed secure attachments with their primary caregivers act as though they are certain their primary caregiver will respond when they feel insecure. a. True b. False 14. Infants generally stare more at an object the more times it is presented. a. True b. False 15. There is little evidence to suggest that abstinence-only education is effective at reducing teenage sexual activity. a. True b. False 16. About a third of American high school students are sexually active. a. True b. False 17. Adolescents are no moodier than are children. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 10.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.1 introduces material from the following publication. Kim, I. K., & Spelke, E. S. (1992). Infants' sensitivity to effects of gravity on visual object motion. Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 18(2), 385–393. Kim and Spelke (1992) investigated the extent to which infants have expectancies of gravitational effects on visual object motion. Infants at 3 and 5 months of age repeatedly watched a video of a ball accelerating as it rolled down an incline until they spent little time actively looking at it. Subsequently, two types of test trials were conducted in randomized order. Type A test trials consisted of a ball slowing down as it rolled up an incline. Type B test trials consisted of a ball slowing down as it rolled down an incline. During all trials, the amount of time looking at each visual display was recorded. Fabricated data consistent with the major finding of this study are presented in Figure 10.1. Figure 10.1 Note that "Age 5" and "Age 3" in the legend refer to months of age.

18. (Scenario 10.1) Based on the data shown in Figure 10.1, which group(s) of infants, if any, appear(s) to possess a concept of gravity? a. 3-month-olds b. 5-month-olds c. both groups, although they have different expectancies about gravitational effects d. neither group

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 19. Male zygotes are less likely to survive than are female zygotes. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 20. (Scenario 10.2) Wimmer and Perner's (1983) procedure is commonly referred to as a(n) _____ test. a. object permanence b. false-belief c. conservation d. change blindness

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21. (Scenario 10.3) Which group is MOST affected by peer influence? a. friend groups b. adolescents c. young adults d. adolescents and young adults 22. The concept of object permanence is grasped during the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 23. In Lawrence Kohlberg's preconventional stage of moral development, children tend to focus on how actions conform to social norms. a. True b. False 24. Older people are more likely to attend to information that brings emotional satisfaction than to information that is useful for achieving a particular goal. a. True b. False 25. Identical twins are no more likely to have the same sexual orientation than are fraternal twins. a. True b. False 26. Considerable evidence suggests that biology plays a key role in determining sexual orientation. a. True b. False 27. It is common for temperament to change considerably over the first few years of life. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 28. (Scenario 10.2) The results obtained in the experimental condition by Gopnik and Astington (1988) suggest that 3-year-olds treat their past selves as: a. reference points for evaluating changes in mental representations. b. if they were other people. c. unreliable sources of information. d. authority figures whose decisions are final. 29. The embryonic stage is the first stage of prenatal development. a. True b. False 30. Erik Erikson suggested that the major task of adolescence is the development of the ability to give and receive love. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 31. Children usually pass the false-belief task between the ages of 8 and 10. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 32. (Scenario 10.2) The fact that 3-year-olds in Gopnik and Astington's (1988) study responded accurately in the control condition but inaccurately in the experimental condition: a. results in only partial support for Wimmer and Perner's (1983) original findings. b. demonstrates that minor procedural details can affect whether children demonstrate a theory of mind. c. illustrates the distinction between beliefs about the world and beliefs about beliefs. d. illustrates the distinction between concrete and formal operations. 33. Piaget's first stage of cognitive development is termed the preoperational stage. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 34. The ability to reason about abstract concepts is a defining feature of the concrete operational stage of development. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 35. (Scenario 10.2) Lacking a theory of mind, 3-year-olds in Wimmer and Perner's (1983) study demonstrated: a. egocentrism. b. an illusory conjunction. c. the conjunction fallacy. d. concrete operations.

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36. (Scenario 10.3) Which group is LEAST affected by peer influence? a. alone groups b. adolescents c. young adults d. adults

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37. (Scenario 10.1) Kim and Spelke (1992) utilized a simple form of learning termed _____ to investigate their research question. a. extinction b. object permanence c. the false-belief test d. habituation

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 38. Infants with a secure attachment style exhibit distress when their primary caretaker leaves them. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.3 introduces material from the following publication. Gardner, M., & Steinberg, L. (2005). Peer influence on risk taking, risk preference, and risky decision making in adolescence and adulthood: An experimental study. Developmental Psychology, 41(4), 625–635. https://doi-org.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1037/0012-1649.41.4.625

39. (Scenario 10.3) The dependent variable that the researchers measured was: a. participant age. b. the type of video game played. c. the presence or absence of peers. d. the number of crashes in the game.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 40. Infants stare longer at a physically possible event than a physically impossible event. a. True b. False 41. Newborns exhibit a strong rooting reflex when you lightly touch the soles of their feet. a. True b. False 42. Modern research suggests that Kohlberg's stages are more discrete than we once thought. a. True b. False 43. Egocentrism is the failure to understand that the world appears differently to different observers. a. True b. False 44. Infants who have formed secure as opposed to insecure attachments with their primary caregiver tend to experience greater academic success later in life. a. True b. False 45. The brains of older adults show more bilateral asymmetry than do the brains of younger adults. a. True b. False 46. If an adult model closes her eyes and turns her head in the direction of an object, a 3-month-old infant seated across from the model probably will look at the object. a. True b. False

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47. (Scenario 10.1) Evidence of the presence or absence of gravitational expectancies was operationally defined in terms of: a. the age of the infants. b. the type of test trials. c. differential looking times at the two test videos. d. the number of training trials required for infants to lose interest in the video.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 48. According to Lawrence Kohlberg's stages of moral development, a 1st-grader in the preconventional stage will not disobey his teacher because he does not want to be punished. a. True b. False 49. Modern psychologists see development more as a continuous process than as a movement through discrete stages. a. True b. False 50. The onset of puberty occurs about 2 years earlier for girls than it does for boys. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 51. (Scenario 10.2) In Gopnik and Astington's (1988) study, the control question "What used to be in the dollhouse?" is analogous to asking children in Wimmer and Perner's (1983) study: a. "Where does Maxi expect to find the chocolate?" b. "Where do you think the chocolate is?" c. "Where does the second puppet think the chocolate is?" d. "Where did Maxi hide the chocolate?" 52. Synaptic proliferation occurs at a high rate throughout adolescence. a. True b. False 53. Puberty is occurring earlier with successive generations. a. True b. False

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54. (Scenario 10.1) Which inference is true based on the data shown in Figure 10.1? a. Infants who were 3 months old were more easily surprised by the test trials than were those who were 5 months old. b. Throughout the experiment, 5-month-olds exhibited greater attention spans than did 3-month-olds. c. Test trials revealed that 5-month-olds, but not 3-month-olds, developed object permanence to the ball. d. Infants who were 3 months old were more attracted to the novel features of the test stimuli than were those who were 5 months old.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 55. Aging produces more deficits in long-term memory relative to working memory. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 56. (Scenario 10.2) To respond correctly in Wimmer and Perner's (1983) study, children needed to: a. demonstrate a relativistic moral development. b. demonstrate formal operations of logic. c. understand that other people's mental representations guide their behavior. d. consult their own mental representation of the chocolate location. 57. Alcohol and tobacco are the most common teratogens. a. True b. False

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 58. Piaget believed that young children tend to judge an action as moral or immoral based on the intentions of the actor instead of the consequences of the action. a. True b. False 59. Infant temperament is biologically based. a. True b. False 60. The sense of sight is fully developed at birth. a. True b. False

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61. (Scenario 10.1) Which explanation is MOST likely for the decreased looking time across training trials? a. Both groups of infants failed to acquire gravitational expectancies. b. The video lost its novelty. c. Both groups of infants acquired object permanence with respect to the ball. d. The experimenters failed to arrange effective rewards for looking behavior.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 62. Girls who reach puberty earlier than other girls do are more likely to experience negative consequences such as delinquency. a. True b. False 63. Babies whose mothers smoked during pregnancy suffer deficits in attention. a. True b. False

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64. (Scenario 10.1) Which statement pertaining to the test trials is true? a. Test trials A have greater stimulus novelty than do test trials B. b. Test trials A depict a scenario that is inconsistent with gravitational effects. c. Both trial types depict a scenario that is inconsistent with gravitational effects. d. Test trials B have greater stimulus novelty than do test trials A.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 65. The zygote develops into a fetus when it implants into the uterine wall. a. True b. False 66. Infants with an avoidant attachment style exhibit distress when their primary caretaker leaves them. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.2 introduces material from the following publications. Gopnik, A., & Astington, J. W. (1988). Children's understanding of representative change and its relation to the understanding of false belief and the appearance-reality distinction. Child Development, 59, 26–37. Wimmer, H., & Perner, J. (1983). Beliefs about beliefs: Representation and constraining function of wrong beliefs in young children's understanding of deception. Cognition, 13(1), 103–128. Wimmer and Perner (1983) first developed a procedure to assess if children have developed a theory of mind. Children were read an illustrated story in which a puppet named Maxi hid a piece of chocolate in one cupboard and then left the room. While Maxi was away, a second puppet entered the room, discovered the chocolate, and hid it in a new location before leaving. The story ended with Maxi's return. Children were asked where Maxi will look for the chocolate. Whereas most 5-year-olds who have developed a theory of mind will report that he will look in the cupboard, most 3-year-olds will report that Maxi will look in the new location. Using a different procedure, Gopnik and Astington (1988) first arranged a control condition in which children were shown a dollhouse. Inside the dollhouse was an apple. In the presence of the children, the experimenter opened the dollhouse and replaced the apple with a doll. A few minutes later, the children were asked what was currently in the dollhouse and what had previously been in the dollhouse. Only children who answered these questions correctly progressed to the experimental condition. Here, the experimenter showed children a candy box. When they opened it, the children discovered that it contained pencils. When the children were asked what they originally thought was in the box, most 5-year-olds said candy and most 3-year-olds said pencils. 67. (Scenario 10.2) Which explanation of the general findings by Wimmer and Perner (1983) does the control condition conducted by Gopnik and Astington (1988) support? a. Three-year-olds make decisions based on their own mental representations. b. Three-year-olds are biased to answer questions with recent knowledge. c. Three-year-olds have problems sequencing events in time. d. Three-year-olds lack the attention span necessary to remember critical details of the story.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 68. Breast enlargement in girls is a primary sex characteristic that occurs during puberty. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.3 introduces material from the following publication. Gardner, M., & Steinberg, L. (2005). Peer influence on risk taking, risk preference, and risky decision making in adolescence and adulthood: An experimental study. Developmental Psychology, 41(4), 625–635. https://doi-org.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1037/0012-1649.41.4.625

69. (Scenario 10.3) This experiment examined the effects of _____ on _____. a. peer influence; risky decision making b. risky decision making; car crashes c. car crashes; peer influence d. risky decision making; age

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 70. An 18-month-old infant can recognize and imitate the intended behavior of an adult model. a. True b. False Use Scenario 10.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 10.3 introduces material from the following publication. Gardner, M., & Steinberg, L. (2005). Peer influence on risk taking, risk preference, and risky decision making in adolescence and adulthood: An experimental study. Developmental Psychology, 41(4), 625–635. https://doi-org.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1037/0012-1649.41.4.625

71. (Scenario 10.3) The inclusion of the alone groups allowed for a measure of risky decision making: a. equating for video game experience. b. in the absence of peer influence. c. when age is held constant. d. at each level of the dependent variable.

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72. (Scenario 10.1) This study exploits the well-known finding that infants generally will _____ objects or scenarios that are _____. a. stare longer at; familiar b. stare longer at; surprising c. divert their gaze from; novel d. divert their gaze from; physically impossible

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 73. The bonding experience between an infant and her mother during breast-feeding is an important component in the development of a secure attachment. Fathers of newborns often are worried that their babies will not form an emotional bond with them because they cannot participate in this experience. Using the results from Harry Harlow's studies on socially deprived rhesus monkeys as a rationale, explain why this worry is unfounded.

74. Define object permanence, and describe an experiment illustrating that infants exhibit object permanence.

75. You have taken a job babysitting for your neighbor's children, Jenai, an 18-month-old, and Jacinda, a 12year-old. Which stage of cognitive development would Piaget say each child is in? What are the characteristics of these stages?

76. Brenda is expecting her first child. She is curious about the development of her future baby. Explain to Brenda the major developments of the germinal, embryonic, and fetal stages of development.

77. Discuss the role of genes and the environment in determining sexual orientation.

78. Describe Piaget's stages of moral development. Give examples of each stage.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 79. Compare and contrast the effectiveness of comprehensive sex education and abstinence-only education programs on (a) the age at which teenagers begin having sex, (b) teenage pregnancy, and (c) the incidence rate of sexually transmitted infections.

80. Provide several examples of how egocentrism leads to false beliefs in young children. Then describe how passing the false-belief test illustrates the acquisition of a theory of mind.

81. Compare and contrast the secure, avoidant, ambivalent, and disorganized attachment styles.

82. Describe and discuss the visual abilities, reflexes, and motor capabilities of the newborn child.

83. Should a poor parent steal a drug from a pharmacy to save his dying child? Answer this question as someone would in Kohlberg's preconventional stage, conventional stage, and postconventional stage.

84. Compare and contrast the major physical changes of puberty for girls and boys. How does the timetable of these changes differ for the two sexes?

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 85. What is a teratogen? Discuss the effects of alcohol and tobacco on the developing fetus.

86. Compare and contrast the characteristics of preoperational and concrete operational stages of cognitive development with respect to the principle of conservation.

87. An elderly grandfather does not get out as much as he formerly did. Although he is healthy and still drives, he tends to associate with family and a few close friends, whereas in the past, he was busy with social activities. He seems satisfied with his life, but his family is worried that his social circle is too limited and that he may be unhappy yet unwilling to talk about his unhappiness. He also sometimes has difficulty remembering to do things. Discuss briefly the cognitive, social, and emotional changes that occur in later adulthood and relate them to the family's concerns.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. b 41. b 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a 51. d 52. b 53. a 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 55. b 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. b 73. The answer should indicate that Harry Harlow raised rhesus monkeys in social isolation. These monkeys were exposed to two artificial "mothers." One mother was made of wire but contained a bottle that dispensed milk. The other mother was made of soft cloth but did not provide nourishment. Harlow found that the baby monkeys would drink from the wire monkey when hungry but spent most of their time clinging to the mother made of cloth. This suggests that comfort and warmth are more important components in the attachment process than is simple nourishment. Thus, fathers need not worry about their inability to breast-feed; they can be warm and cuddly, too!

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 74. The answer should include the following information: (1) Object permanence is a schema that objects continue to exist, even when they are not visible. Piaget believed that object permanence develops later in the sensorimotor stage and that young infants lack this schema. He based this theory on observations that young infants will track a moving object with their eyes but will not search for it once it is out of sight. In one experiment, infants watched a miniature drawbridge flip up and down. Once the infants got used to this, a solid box was placed behind the drawbridge—in the path of the drawbridge but out of the infant's sight. Some infants saw a possible event: The drawbridge began to flip and then it suddenly stopped, as if its motion were impeded by the unseen solid box. Other infants saw an impossible event: The drawbridge began to flip and then it didn't stop, as if its motion were unimpeded by the unseen solid box. Four-month-old infants stared longer at the impossible event than at the possible event, suggesting that they were puzzled by it. Studies such as these suggest that object permanence develops in infants much earlier than what Piaget realized. 75. Piaget would say that at 18 months old, Jenai is in the sensorimotor stage. She experiences the world by sensing it and moving in it. Jenai develops schemas, begins to act intentionally, and shows evidence of understanding object permanence. At 12 years old, Jacinda is in the formal operational stage. Jacinda can think logically about abstract propositions and hypotheticals. The ability to generate, consider, reason about, and mentally "operate on" abstract concepts is the hallmark of formal operations. 76. The answer should include the following information: (1) The 2-week period that begins at conception is known as the germinal stage. During this period of development, the one-celled zygote begins to divide into two cells that divide into four cells and so on. By the time of birth, the organism will have divided into trillions of cells. At the end of this stage, the zygote migrates back down the fallopian tube and implants itself into the wall of the uterus. (2) The implantation of the zygote in the uterine wall marks the next stage in development, the embryonic stage. The embryonic stage lasts from the 2nd week to the 8th week of pregnancy. During this stage, the implanted embryo continues to divide, and its cells begin to differentiate. Although only an inch long, the embryo has a beating heart along with other body parts such as arms and legs. The embryo also has the beginnings of female reproductive organs, and if it is a male embryo, it starts to release the hormone testosterone. (3) The final stage of development is known as the fetal stage, and it lasts from the 9th week of pregnancy until birth. The organism is now known as a fetus and is capable of movement due to the development of a skeleton and muscles. Brain cells begin to generate axons and dendrites that allow for communication. An important process known as myelination, the formation of a fatty sheath around the axons of nerve cells, also takes place. 77. The answer should include the following information: (1) Homosexuality is not a simple choice. There is a strong genetic component to sexual orientation. The identical twin of a gay man, for example, has a 50% chance of being gay. This percentage decreases to 15% among fraternal twins. (2) While genetic factors play a large role in determining sexual orientation, they are not the only factors. If genetic factors solely determined sexual orientation, then identical twins always would have the same sexual orientation, and clearly they do not. There is some evidence to suggest that high levels of androgens in the womb may predispose a fetus—whether male or female— to become an androphilic (attracted to men) adult. Other studies suggest a mother's immune system may play a role in determining her male child's sexual orientation. (3) The specific environmental factors that contribute to sexual orientation are largely unknown. However, research has failed to identify any aspect of parenting, including parents' own sexual orientation, that has a significant impact on a child's ultimate sexual orientation. Peers also do not appear to influence an adolescent's sexual orientation. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 78. The answer should include the following points: (1) Piaget's first stage of moral development revolves around the shifting of children's thinking from realism to relativism. Very young children regard moral rules as real truths about the world that are communicated by parents and teachers. For example, very young children cannot think of any instance where it might be acceptable to hit someone because they have been taught that hitting people is wrong. However, as they mature, children begin to realize that some moral rules are inventions, not discoveries, that groups of people can agree to adopt, change, or abandon completely. Hitting someone might be acceptable if they hit you first! (2) In Piaget's second stage of moral development, children's moral thinking shifts from prescriptions to principles. Young children think of moral rules as guidelines for specific actions in specific situations. As they mature, children come to see that rules are expressions of more general principles that can be abandoned or modified when they fail to serve the initial general principle. For example, young children must be taught specific rules such as "Be sure to share your marbles" and "Don't cut in line." Over time, children acquire concepts such as fairness and can apply these concepts in novel situations without needing a specific rule. (3) In Piaget's third and final stage of development, children's moral thinking tends to shift from outcomes to intentions. For example, young children tend to think that an unintentional action is "more wrong" than is an intentional action that causes slight harm because they tend to judge the morality of an action by its consequences. However, as they mature, they begin to see that morality of an action depends on the actor's state of mind. For example, a young child may view a person slipping while carrying scissors and poking someone's eye as more wrong than a person who intends to stab someone with a knife but misses. 79. The answer should include the following information: (1) Comprehensive sex education leads teens to delay having sex for the first time, decreases the number of partners they have, increases the likelihood that they will use condoms and other forms of birth control when they do have sex, and lowers the likelihood that they will get pregnant or get a sexually transmitted infection. On the other hand, abstinence-only programs turn out to be largely ineffective. Some studies even suggest that teens who take abstinence pledges are just as likely to have sex as those who don't but are less likely to use birth control when they do.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 80. The answer should include the following information: (1) Egocentrism refers to the failure to understand that the world appears differently to different observers. Young children are incredibly egocentric. They believe everyone must view the world in the same way they do. For example, they may simply cover their eyes to hide during a game of hide-and-seek. If they can't see you, then you can't possibly see them! This obviously is a false belief. To provide another example, if asked to describe what an adult sitting across the dinner table from her is seeing, a 3year-old girl will describe what she is seeing. (2) These false beliefs occur because young children have yet to acquire a theory of mind. This is the idea that human behavior is guided by mental representations, which gives rise to the realization that the world is not always the way it looks and that different people see it differently. Children typically acquire this concept when they come to understand that they and others have minds and that different minds represent the world in different ways. (3) The concept of false belief can be seen in a relatively simple experiment using puppets. In one study, children saw a puppet named Maxi deposit some chocolate in a cupboard and then leave the room. Unbeknownst to Maxi, a few seconds later another puppet entered the room and moved the chocolate to a different cupboard. When a group of 5-year-olds were asked where Maxi would look for the chocolate if she were to reenter the room, they would name the first cupboard. These children have acquired a theory of mind and can answer the question from Maxi's perspective. However, when 3-year-olds were asked the same question, they answered that Maxi would look in the second cupboard because that is where the chocolate currently was located. These children have yet to form a theory of mind and cannot differentiate between their own beliefs and Maxi's. 81. Research has identified four attachment styles: secure, avoidant, ambivalent, and disorganized. (1) Children with secure attachment are distressed when their caregiver leaves the room; they go to the caregiver quickly when he or she returns and are calmed by the caregiver's presence. These infants tend to regard their caregiver as a secure base from which to explore their environment. Some children with secure attachments might not be distressed when their caregiver leaves the room, but they will respond with a positive reaction (e.g., a smile) when their caregiver returns. (2) Children with an avoidant attachment style are not distressed when their caregiver leaves the room and do not pay them much attention when they return. (3) Children with an ambivalent attachment style are almost always distressed when their caregiver leaves, and they return to the caregiver immediately when he or she returns. However, they resist their caregiver's attempts to calm them. (4) Children with a disorganized attachment style show no consistent pattern of responses. They may or may not be distressed and may or may not go to the caregiver when he or she returns. Their reactions are often contradictory.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 82. The answer should include the following information: (1) The amount of detail newborns can see from 20 feet away is roughly equivalent to the amount of detail adults can see from 600 feet. However, when visual stimuli are close enough to be seen, newborns are very responsive: They follow stimuli with their eyes and distinguish unknown stimuli. Newborns are especially attuned in many ways to social stimuli: They track visual stimuli, and especially those that have facial features. (2) Visual capabilities are present within the newborn's first hours of life, but motor development is a longer process that includes the ability to execute physical actions such as reaching, grasping, crawling, and walking. The development of these behaviors tends to obey two general rules. The first of these rules is the cephalocaudal rule: Infants tend to develop motor skills in sequence from their heads to their feet (they learn to maneuver their heads first, then their arms and trunks, and so on). The second rule is the proximodistal rule: Infants tend to develop motor skills from the center to the periphery of their bodies (they learn to control their trunks before their elbows and knees, and so on). However, the development of motor skills does not occur on a strict timetable. Motor skills typically emerge depending on an infant's incentive, body weight, muscular development, and level of activity. (3) Infants are also born with a small set of reflexes, specific patterns of motor responses that are triggered by specific patterns of sensory stimulation. Examples of infant reflexes include the rooting reflex and the sucking reflex. The rooting reflex is the tendency for infants to move their mouths toward any object that touches their cheek. The sucking reflex is the tendency to suck any object that enters their mouth. Both these reflexes serve the basis of their survival: finding the mother's nipple to begin feeding. 83. In the preconventional stage, the morality of an action is primarily determined by its consequences for the actor. A person in the preconventional stage would say that the parent should not steal because she could get punished for stealing. In the conventional stage, the morality of an action is primarily determined by the extent to which it conforms to social rules. A person in the conventional stage would reason that stealing is against the law, so the parent shouldn't steal the drug. In the postconventional stage, the morality of an action is determined by a set of general principles that reflect core values. Someone in the postconventional stage might reason that human life is sacred, so the parent should steal the drug to save the child. 84. The answer should include the following information: (1) Boys and girls undergo many physical changes when they go through puberty during adolescence. The first change for girls is acceleration in growth rate. It begins around age 10 and ends when girls reach their full height at about the age of 16 years. Boys typically experience a similar growth spurt about 2 years later. (2) The growth spurts signal the onset of puberty, which involves the bodily changes associated with sexual maturity. One change is the development of primary sex characteristics, which are body structures directly involved in reproduction (e.g., girls begin to menstruate and boys begin to ejaculate). Another change is the development of secondary sex characteristics, which are body structures that change dramatically with sexual maturity but are not directly involved in reproduction. For example, girls develop breasts and boys develop facial hair. These changes are caused by increased production of hormones—specifically, estrogen in girls and testosterone in boys.

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Chap 10_5e _ TF + Essay 85. The answer should include the following information: (1) A teratogen is any substance that passes from mother to unborn child and impairs development. Teratogens include environmental poisons such as lead, paint dust, mercury in fish, tobacco, and alcohol. (2) Alcohol: Heavy alcohol use can lead to a baby with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Children with FAS frequently exhibit cognitive deficits and have more academic difficulties than do other children. They often have a characteristic appearance (short eye openings, a flat midface, an indistinct or flat ridge under the nose, a thin upper lip, an underdeveloped jaw, a low nasal bridge). (3) Tobacco: Smoking in pregnancy can lead to lower birth weight and to more perceptual and attention problems in childhood. Secondhand smoke can also have these effects. 86. The answer should include the following information: There are several similarities in and differences between the preoperational and concrete operational stages of cognitive development. (1) According to Piaget, the preoperational stage begins at about 2 years of age and ends at about 6 years of age. During this stage, the child cannot perform concrete operations. The child also lacks the ability to grasp the notion of conservation, which is the concept that the quantitative properties of an object are invariant despite changes in the object's appearance. Example: When preoperational children are shown two glasses of the same size and shape filled with equal amounts of liquid, they say that neither glass has more liquid. However, after watching the contents of one glass being poured into a taller, thinner glass, children will now say that the taller glass has more liquid when, in fact, the amounts of liquid in the two glasses are still equal. (2) The concrete operational stage begins at about 6 years of age and continues until about 11 years of age. Children in this stage can perform concrete operations and understand the concept of conservation. For example, concrete operational children understand that when a ball of clay is rolled, stretched, or flattened, it is still the same amount of clay, even though it may look larger in one form than it does in another. 87. The answer should include the following information: (1) Emotionally, older adults experience far fewer negative emotions than do younger ones and are adept at curtailing them; they also experience more positive emotions and sustain them for longer periods. (2) Socially, older adults become more selective about those with whom they choose to spend their time. They prefer to spend time with family and a few close friends instead of with a large circle of acquaintances. This is not an indication of unhappiness but instead the result of their sensitivity to their shortened future. Because time is limited, they prefer to spend that time with the ones they love and care about the most. (3) Cognitively, adults tend to spend more time thinking about the present as they age, not the past or the future. They do not dwell on negative experiences in the past. In fact, they tend to remember their lives more positively as they age. While they show declines in working memory, episodic memory, and retrieval tasks, they often develop strategies to compensate. (4) It is very likely that this man is genuinely happy; he appears to be aging normally in all areas.

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Chap 11_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which of these is NOT an example of a person's digital footprint? a. online posts b. photos posted online c. online videos of the person d. in-person conversations 2. Bindi spends much less time messaging friends than many of her peers do. Based on only this information and recent research, Bindi is MOST likely to score high on the personality dimension of: a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. agreeableness. d. extraversion. 3. Jessica and Ashley are talking about Carla. Jessica says that she does not like Carla because she is loud and annoying. In fact, loud and annoying are adjectives that many people use to describe Jessica. Which defense mechanism is Jessica using? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. reaction formation 4. Based on recent research, you might expect more females than males on Facebook to: a. use emotional terms. b. use swear words. c. comment on objects. d. comment on parties. 5. People translate goals into behavior in part through: a. implicit egotism. b. self-esteem. c. outcome expectancies. d. projection. 6. According to Bem (1974), _____ is NOT a stereotypical feminine personality characteristic. a. affection b. assertiveness c. kindness d. sympathy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 7. Self-reported extraversion is correlated with the volume of brain regions involved in: a. sensitivity to threat. b. processing information about the mental states of other people. c. self-regulation. d. processing information about reward. 8. Which tests were designed to circumvent the limitations of self-report questionnaires? a. self-report measures b. projective tests c. personality inventories d. natural observations 9. Gloria is suddenly demonstrating a profound change in personality. This may be due to any of these EXCEPT: a. stroke. b. natural development. c. brain tumor. d. Alzheimer's disease. 10. Self-concept is primarily developed through: a. self-reflection. b. education. c. interaction with others. d. therapy. 11. People who develop amnesia: a. lose memory for behaviors and trait self-concept. b. continue to remember all behaviors and trait self-concept. c. lose memory for behaviors, even though trait self-concept remains stable. d. lose trait self-concept, even though memory for behaviors remains intact. 12. The _____ is the component of personality developed through contact with the external world that enables us to deal with life's practical demands. a. superego b. ego c. unconscious d. id

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Chap 11_5e 13. A more internal locus of control would be reflected in all of these opinions EXCEPT: a. people's misfortunes result from the mistakes they make. b. becoming a success is a matter of hard work. c. when I make plans, I am almost certain that I can make them work. d. I have often found that what is going to happen will happen. 14. Hao is a critic of the psychodynamic approach. He would offer all of these as criticisms of the psychodynamic explanations of personality EXCEPT that they: a. lack any real evidence. b. are too simple and focus on only erotogenic zones. c. focus on after-the-fact interpretations. d. offer no testable predictions. 15. Jean was at the mall with her family. She tried on a pair of shoes she really wanted. Her parents told her that they could not afford the shoes and walked out of the store. For a moment, Jean thought of running out of the store with the shoes on, but her parents had taught her at a very young age that stealing was wrong. A split second after thinking about stealing the shoes, Jean began to feel incredibly guilty about even having the thought. Which part of Jean's mind squelched her desire to steal the shoes? a. id b. superego c. Oedipus complex d. ego 16. Theories attempting to determine the basis for psychological differences among people seek to _____ personality. a. explain b. describe c. evaluate d. categorize 17. Alfred and his family went to a restaurant for lunch. He was so hungry that on the way to be seated, he almost grabbed a sandwich off another customer's plate. Which part of his mind regulated this impulse? a. id b. superego c. ego d. preconscious

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Chap 11_5e 18. Allport believed that traits are preexisting dispositions that: a. reliably trigger or cause the behavior. b. are determined by childhood experiences and thus are not true causes of behavior. c. have no predictive utility but can categorize the behavior after the fact. d. can predict behavior but are not causes of behavior. 19. Scary movies excite Ben, terrify Sarah, and bore Amy due to differences in what George Kelly termed: a. outcome expectancies. b. locus of control. c. the power of the situation. d. personal constructs. 20. The social–cognitive approach examines how _____ interact to cause behavior. a. anxiety and boredom b. personality and situation c. thoughts and feelings d. personality and intelligence 21. Which function is NOT an aspect of personality? a. behaving b. thinking c. sensing d. feeling 22. At work, Matt's boss yelled at him. After Matt got home from work, he went for a 5-mile run. Which defense mechanism did Matt use? a. sublimation b. projection c. displacement d. repression 23. Which statement about gender and personality is FALSE? a. Women are more nurturing than are men. b. Women are more agreeable than are men. c. Men engage in more aggression than do women. d. Men engage in more sensation seeking than do women.

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Chap 11_5e 24. Garry is an extravert. Which occupation would likely be best for him? a. accountant b. teacher c. historian d. nighttime security guard 25. When Robyn sees a snake, she loves the graceful way it moves across the ground. Her friend Helen is so frightened by snakes that she goes out of her way to avoid seeing them, even at the zoo. George Kelly would say that: a. Robyn and Helen have different personal constructs of snakes. b. Helen's fear of snakes indicates that she has a highly anxious personality. c. Robyn and Helen have different outcome expectancies in the way they view the world. d. Robyn's delight in snakes indicates that she possesses a drive for stimulation. 26. Self-reported conscientiousness is correlated with the volume of brain regions involved in: a. sensitivity to threat. b. processing information about the mental states of other people. c. self-regulation. d. processing information about reward. 27. Men are more likely to score lower than women on: a. conscientiousness. b. self-esteem. c. assertiveness. d. sensation seeking. 28. Which statement does NOT present a reason the five-factor model of personality is the current preferred theoretical perspective? a. The basic five-factor structure is limited to Western cultures. b. Modern factor analysis techniques confirm that the five factors verify the variation in personality while avoiding overlapping traits. c. The same five factors have emerged in various kinds of research studies on personality. d. The basic five-factor structure shows up across a wide range of participants.

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Chap 11_5e 29. Which statement about personality and behavior is true? a. We tend to behave according to our personalities more often than in reaction to circumstances in which we may find ourselves. b. If we know someone's personality, it is highly likely we can predict that person's behavior across a wide variety of situations. c. Information about both personality and situation is needed to predict behavior accurately. d. Powerful situations, such as funerals, often reveal striking differences in personality. 30. Research has found that bilingual speakers: a. experience slight personality shifts when speaking in one language versus another. b. provide support for the psychodynamic perspective of personality development. c. demonstrate personality that is not consistent with any of the current theoretical perspectives. d. have consistent personality traits across contexts. 31. Because he believes that he is a very generous and caring person, Ahmad feels upset when his roommate calls him selfish. Ahmad seeks: a. self-verification. b. self-esteem. c. self-concept. d. self-serving bias. 32. The Big Five Factor Model does NOT include: a. extraversion. b. openness to experience. c. neuroticism. d. anxiousness. 33. Abraham Maslow proposed the _____, which suggests that safety and security needs much be achieved before achieving the ultimate goal of self-actualization. a. theory of self-concept b. existential approach c. person–situation controversy d. hierarchy of needs model 34. You act differently when in a classroom versus during a night out with friends. This is in agreement with the _____ of personality. a. social–cognitive theory b. 16-factor theory c. psychodynamic perspective d. evolutionary perspective Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 35. We develop a self-concept primarily through: a. self-reflection. b. interaction with others. c. education. d. goal setting. 36. When introverts and extraverts are presented with an intense stimulus, _____ respond _____. a. introverts and extraverts; randomly b. introverts and extraverts; in the same way c. extraverts; more strongly d. introverts; more strongly 37. Using Eysenck's model, a person who is quiet and introspective is said to be: a. extraverted. b. introverted. c. neurotic. d. psychotic. 38. A model of essential human needs arranged according to their priority in which basic physiological and safety needs must be satisfied before a person can afford to focus on higher-level psychological needs is referred to as: a. the hierarchy of needs. b. the Big Five model. c. the existential model. d. the social–cognitive model. 39. Chuck is a psychoanalytic psychologist who wishes to identify his client's inner dimensions of personality. Which test or technique would Chuck MOST likely use? a. the Myers–Briggs Type Indicator b. the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. a personality-assessment inventory d. the Thematic Apperception Test 40. William James argued that by the age of 30, personality is: a. stable and unchanging. b. more conscientious and extraverted than in childhood. c. better able to be modified by social norms. d. more variable than it was in childhood.

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Chap 11_5e 41. Sam is very social compared to Mark, who is generally reserved. According to the Big Five Factor Model, these characteristics represent opposite ends of _____ when presented as a continuum. a. neuroticism b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. extraversion 42. Abraham Maslow designed a hierarchy of needs, promoting the idea that basic physiological and safety needs must be satisfied before a person can focus on: a. his or her inner child. b. self-actualization. c. personality development. d. existential angst. 43. Unlike trait theorists, social–cognitive personality theorists believe that: a. personality is relatively constant across situations. b. situations may change aspects of personality. c. both situations and behavior are equally important in determining personality. d. people are free agents who construct their own personalities based on their choices. 44. A _____ can be described as a relatively stable disposition to behave in a particular and consistent way. a. personal construct b. characteristic c. trait d. motivation 45. An advantage of techniques utilizing devices such as an electronically activated recorder to assess personality is that: a. it reveals unconscious motives underlying personality. b. it assesses personality during participants' normal interactions. c. data are recorded under tightly controlled laboratory conditions. d. it takes only a few minutes to complete the test. 46. After earning a low grade on an exam, Barbara came back to her dorm room and watched cartoons for 3 hours to relieve her stress. Which defense mechanism did Barbara use? a. reaction formation b. projection c. displacement d. regression

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Chap 11_5e 47. How are outcome expectancies related to goals? a. Goals determine outcome expectancies. b. Outcome expectancies determine goals. c. Personality determines both goals and outcome expectancies. d. Outcome expectancies combine with goals to produce behavior. 48. Abraham Maslow, a _____ theorist, proposed a hierarchy of _____. a. humanistic; meanings of life and death b. humanistic; human needs c. existential; meanings of life and death d. existential; human needs 49. Janine and Alicia are identical twins who were raised apart. Research would suggest that they are more similar than chance in: a. conscientiousness but not the other dimensions. b. extraversion but not the other dimensions. c. all of the dimensions except extraversion. d. all personality dimensions. 50. When her roommate asked Connie why she wasn't studying for a big test scheduled for the next day, Connie replied, "It doesn't make any difference whether I study. I just know I'll get a low grade because I have such bad luck." It is likely that Connie has a(n): a. positive sense of personal constructs. b. negative sense of personal constructs. c. internal locus of control. d. external locus of control. 51. When her sister was born, 4-year-old Gracie began sucking her thumb again and wanting her mother to rock her. The defense mechanism exemplified here is: a. regression. b. repression. c. displacement. d. sublimation. 52. The idea that self-esteem reflects an inner gauge of how much a person feels included by others illustrates a theory of self-esteem based on: a. status. b. belonging. c. narcissism. d. neediness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 53. Alicia has a high reactive behavioral inhibition system (BIS). According to Jeffrey Gray, she is more likely to be: a. introverted. b. extraverted. c. neurotic. d. conscientious. 54. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi believed that the state of flow exists between the states of: a. anxiety and angst. b. anxiety and boredom. c. actualization and anxiety. d. boredom and angst. 55. According to existential psychologists, defenses constructed on the basis of personalities: a. provide no security from angst and dread. b. are optimal and lead to self-actualization. c. can be self-defeating and stifle the potential for personal growth. d. allow humans to consider limitless numbers of goals and actions. 56. A second-string running back takes his preparation just as seriously as does the starter. When asked why he puts forth so much effort when he is not likely to receive much playing time, the player responds that his hard work will earn him playing time and when that happens, he will succeed on the field. The player's comments illustrate a(n) _____ locus of control. a. self-esteemed b. positive c. internal d. external 57. Which statement about the humanistic–existential approach to personality is FALSE? a. People have the potential to change aspects of their personality. b. People are responsible for their own personality. c. People must struggle with the fact that personality traits are biologically determined. d. Personality can be optimized by making better choices. 58. Women are more likely to score lower than men on: a. extraversion. b. self-esteem. c. agreeableness. d. neuroticism.

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Chap 11_5e 59. One reason the Big Five is the current preferred theoretical perspective is that: a. the basic five-factor structure is limited to Western cultures. b. modern factor analysis techniques confirm that the five factors do not allow for the variation seen in personality. c. the same five factors have emerged in various kinds of research on personality. d. the basic five-factor structure results in overlapping traits. 60. Which of these is the best known projective test? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Electronically Activated Recorder 61. Jerome uses social media to stay in contact with his friends and family. What he posts online helps make up his: a. digital footprint. b. factors. c. structure of the mind. d. defense mechanisms. 62. Which psychological construct does the MMPI–2–RF NOT measure? a. clinical b. somatic c. projecting d. interpersonal 63. Dr. Vaughn is a factor analysis researcher. She would likely agree that personality is BEST captured by _____ factors. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 16 64. Shania's desk is covered in messy papers and other desk supplies. She leaves her dirty clothes all over the floor and rarely puts clothing away neatly once it is cleaned. Based on the Big Five Factor Model, it is likely that she would score low on: a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. extraversion. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 65. It is finals week, and a college student is busily studying. When might she experience the mental state humanistic psychologists call flow? a. when she takes a break to focus on things she truly enjoys b. when she is reviewing material for an extremely easy class c. when she is reading something that she really doesn't understand d. when she is learning new material that matches her abilities 66. Social–cognitive personality psychologists believe that differences in personal constructs: a. give rise to the differences in behavior commonly seen in powerful situations. b. cause people to behave differently in the same situation. c. are largely genetically based. d. break down into five different dimensions. 67. Roughly _____ of the variability in personality among individuals is due to genetic factors. a. 25% b. 40% c. 60% d. 75% 68. Personality psychologists began by _____ personality and subsequently began attempting to _____ personality. a. explaining; describe b. describing; explain c. evaluating; describe d. evaluating; categorize 69. As a part of a university psychology course assignment, Laura administered the Big Five personality inventory to her younger sister Ashley (age 18), younger brother Kevin (age 21), and older sister Katie (age 32). The results showed that all three siblings scored high on the neuroticism trait. Who is LEAST likely to see a change in this trait with age? a. Ashley, since neuroticism levels in females do not change with age b. Kevin, since neuroticism levels in males do not change with age c. Katie, since personality characteristics are permanently set after age 30 d. All three are equally likely, since personality development is fluid.

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Chap 11_5e 70. Which theoretical approach states that people occasionally ask themselves profound questions such as "Why am I here?" and "What is the meaning of my life?" a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. existentialist d. trait 71. Eysenck suggested that people high in _____ pursue stimulation because their reticular formation is not easily stimulated. a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. conscientiousness 72. Which statement about the Big Five Factor Model is FALSE? a. The factors are associated with predictable patterns of behavior. b. People high in conscientiousness perform well in their jobs. c. People low in extraversion tend to be social and affectionate. d. People's personalities tend to remain stable throughout life. 73. Self-esteem is to self-concept as: a. cause is to effect. b. internal locus of control is to external locus of control. c. feeling is to thinking. d. person is to situation. 74. Your personality and behavior can change depending on who you are talking and otherwise interacting with. This is in agreement with the _____ of personality. a. social–cognitive theory b. 16-factor theory c. psychodynamic perspective d. evolutionary perspective 75. Which factor is an anticipated event that may, in part, determine personality? a. a person's fears b. aspects of a person's subconscious c. a person's brain functioning d. a person's genetic makeup

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Chap 11_5e 76. The electronic information that people post online about themselves is called their: a. digital footprint. b. factor. c. structure of the mind. d. defense mechanism. 77. Ten-year-old Tisha, a 5th grader, cheated on a test. According to the social–cognitive approach, she is more likely than others to: a. tell lies. b. engage in shoplifting when she enters adolescence. c. steal money from her mother's pocketbook. d. cheat on a subsequent test. 78. When traits are organized in a hierarchy, _____ are at the _____ level. a. specific behaviors; highest b. abstract traits; middle c. specific behaviors; lowest d. abstract traits; lowest 79. Which trait involves holding a grandiose view of the self, combined with a tendency to seek admiration from and exploit others? a. narcissism b. openness to experience c. agreeableness d. openness 80. Dr. Saunders tends to focus on a positive, optimistic view of human nature. She adheres to which theoretical perspective? a. psychodynamic b. social–cognitive c. humanistic d. existentialist 81. Which of these would NOT be considered a prior event that may influence a person's personality? a. a person's brain b. aspects of a person's subconscious c. a person's fears d. a person's genetic makeup

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Chap 11_5e 82. _____ suggested that people view the social world from different perspectives due to the application of different personal constructs. a. George Kelly b. Walter Mischel c. Todd Feinberg d. Hazel Markus 83. Due to her _____, Imani believes that she is the most intelligent and attractive person in her city. a. narcissism b. extraversion c. projection d. implicit egotism 84. On her first visit to a psychiatrist, Lucinda was asked to look at a set of 10 pictures and make up a story about each one. Her psychiatrist was likely using the: a. Myers–Briggs Inventory. b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. c. Rorschach Inkblot Test. d. Thematic Apperception Test. 85. Dr. Li is using self-report measures to assess aspects of personality among his research participants. Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of using self-report measures? a. They typically take a long time to administer. b. Scoring requires the use of a computer. c. They rely on the accuracy and truthfulness of the test taker. d. Special training is needed to interpret the questionnaire. 86. A key feature of projective techniques to assess personality is the use of: a. essay questions instead of true–false questions. b. validity scales to assess dishonesty. c. ambiguous objects designed to elicit unique responses. d. questions asking participants to imagine themselves in the future. 87. Football games on Christmas Day excite Hank, enrage his wife, and bore their teenage children due to differences in what George Kelly termed: a. outcome expectancies. b. locus of control. c. the power of the situation. d. personal constructs.

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Chap 11_5e 88. DeShawn has been showing a mature adult personality with a capacity to love, work, and relate to others. Which of Freud's psychosexual stages is DeShawn in? a. anal b. phallic c. genital d. latency 89. According to Maslow, _____ is the need to be good, to be fully alive, and to find meaning in life. a. self-transcendence b. self-actualization c. safety d. social-cognition 90. According to Freud, "motivated forgetting" is a defense mechanism known as: a. reaction formation. b. regression. c. rationalization. d. repression. 91. Eric has several exams at the end of the week, but he does not study. He ends up getting an A on each of them. He feels that he did well because he thought the exams were easy and that he has good luck. Eric's explanation shows his _____ locus of control. a. internal b. external c. positive d. negative 92. Shalise believes that personality is governed by awareness of our own existence and the inevitability of death. What theoretical perspective BEST characterizes Shalise's insight on personality? a. person–situation controversy b. existential approach c. hierarchy of needs d. locus of control 93. Susan loves her new baby brother, but sometimes she secretly wishes she were still the only child in the family. Which defense mechanism would she be using if she snuggled him a little too roughly? a. regression b. repression c. reaction formation d. projection Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 94. Social–cognitive psychologists disagree on the question of whether our behavior is caused more by our personalities or by situations we encounter, a quandary known as the: a. social–cognitive quagmire. b. person–situation controversy. c. nature–nurture controversy. d. personal construct dilemma. 95. One scale that assesses the degree of identification with stereotypically masculine and feminine traits is the: a. Gender Self-Report. b. Social Role Inventory. c. Eysenck Personality Inventory of Gender. d. BEM Sex Role Inventory. 96. Teresa really likes and admires her sister Valerie. Valerie is a very good volleyball player, and Teresa feels that she herself is not very good at volleyball. However, when Teresa plays volleyball, she starts to act and talk like Valerie. Which defense mechanism is Teresa using when she plays volleyball? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. sublimation 97. Evidence from twin studies indicate that shared _____ account(s) for more variability in personality compared to shared _____. a. culture; environment b. environment; culture c. environment; genetics d. genetics; environment 98. Cattell (1950) proposed a theory of personality consisting of _____ factors. a. 2 b. 5 c. 16 d. 18,000 99. Stan is studying for a test when a friend drops by to invite him to go to a party. What might Stan's id say to him? a. "If there is time, let's stop by the party after you finish studying." b. "Your friends are immoral, and you should not associate with them." c. "Your professor will really be disappointed if you get another low grade." d. "You need to blow off some steam—let's party!" Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 100. At noon, Eliza ate the second-to-last piece of chocolate cake. At 3:00 p.m., she ate the last piece of cake, even though she knew that her roommate was counting on having a piece after dinner. Freud might say that Eliza's _____ proposed that she eat the cake. a. id b. superego c. ego d. preconscious 101. Elliot has been coping with powerful incestuous feelings of love, hate, jealousy, and conflict. According to Freud, Elliot is in the _____ stage of psychosexual development. a. anal b. phallic c. genital d. latency 102. The reticular formation of individuals _____ is not easily stimulated, according to Eysenck. a. high in extraversion b. high in openness to experience c. low in conscientiousness d. low in agreeableness 103. Graeme is an extravert and frequently pursues stimulation. Which statement may be true of Graeme's brain? a. Graeme's reticular formation is frequently overstimulated. b. Graeme's reticular formation is not easily stimulated. c. Graeme's reticular formation is larger than most other people's. d. The areas of Graeme's brain that process reward are smaller than most. 104. People who feel that they are being pulled around like a puppet on a string by all of life's responsibilities probably have a(n) _____ locus of control. a. internal b. external c. positive d. negative 105. Jezebel is sociable and active, and Jeremiah is quiet and introspective. These personality traits represent: a. different and unrelated personality factors. b. the high or low expression of a single personality factor. c. different and related personality factors. d. Eysenck's two-factor model of personality.

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Chap 11_5e 106. Tasia is shown a card with a black and red image on it and asked, "What might this be?" Tasia is taking the: a. MMPI–2–RF. b. Thematic Apperception Test. c. Big Five Factor Model. d. Rorschach Inkblot Test. 107. _____ focuses on the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or by situational factors. a. The nature–nurture controversy b. Personal constructs c. Construals d. The person–situation controversy 108. A doctorate in English literature would be most likely to experience a flow experience when: a. reading literary criticism of Shakespeare. b. struggling through a Latin text. c. grading student papers from her college English class. d. correcting her 6-year-old's grammar. 109. An early attempt to determine the number of personality traits by counting all of the relevant adjectives in an English dictionary revealed _____ potential traits. a. 600 b. 8,000 c. 18,000 d. 120,000 110. As we grow older, we: a. consistently learn about our self-concept from others. b. rely more on interactions with others to guide our self-concept. c. rely less on interactions with others to guide our self-concept. d. frequently change our self-concept. 111. When siblings have similar personalities, it is thought to be due to: a. shared experiences. b. parenting styles. c. parental divorce. d. genetic similarities.

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Chap 11_5e 112. In Raven's essay on their personality, they focused on the biological basis of their personality. Raven focused on how _____ events determined their personality. a. prior b. subconscious c. environmental d. anticipated 113. The key theories on the benefits of self-esteem do NOT focus on: a. status. b. belonging. c. security. d. control. 114. Which statement about projective techniques for measuring personality is true? a. They are reliable measures of personality. b. They are reliable and valid measures of personality. c. They are useful in determining whether a participant is being truthful. d. They are useful in getting to know a participant on an intuitive basis. 115. According to psychodynamic theorists, defense mechanisms are _____ because they _____. a. negative; encourage us to engage ineffectively with the outside world b. ineffective; sometimes work and sometimes do not c. negative; prevent us from immediately dealing with the truth of situations d. useful; help us overcome anxiety 116. When psychologists try to explain personality differences, they are concerned with _____ and _____. a. needs; desires b. prior events; anticipated events c. insights; reflections d. prior dispositions; traits 117. The technique MOST widely used by psychologists to collect information about someone's personality structure is: a. the double-blind experiment. b. the Thematic Apperception Test. c. self-report. d. the Rorschach Inkblot Test.

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Chap 11_5e 118. People with _____ are more likely to persist at difficult tasks than are people with _____. a. explicit egotism; implicit egotism b. a high self-concept; a low self-concept c. high self-esteem; low self-esteem d. an external locus of control; an internal locus of control 119. Who proposed a hierarchy of needs in the 1940s? a. Abraham Maslow b. Sigmund Freud c. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi d. Rollo May 120. Which of these is NOT a personality dimension identified by Eysenck as part of his three-factor personality model? a. extroversion b. neuroticism c. psychoticism d. agreeableness 121. According to Freud, personality is largely determined by: a. the id. b. the ego. c. the superego attempting to satisfy the demands of the id. d. interactions between the id, ego, and superego. 122. Lila is imaginative and independent, while her sister Leonora is down-to-earth and conforming. These personality traits represent: a. different and unrelated personality factors. b. the high or low expression of a single personality factor. c. different and related personality factors. d. Eysenck's two-factor model of personality. 123. A school of thought that regards personality as governed by an individual's ongoing choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death is called the: a. social–cognitive approach. b. psychodynamic perspective. c. existential approach. d. Big Five model.

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Chap 11_5e 124. Bonnie is a good student—organized, self-disciplined, and very careful about turning her work in on time. According to the Big Five Factor Model of personality, Bonnie would likely score high on: a. orderliness. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. agreeableness. 125. Which statement is true? a. Science has discovered significant differences in the brains of men and women. b. Science has yet to reveal conclusive and replicable differences between the brains of men and women. c. Science has found that the amygdala of women is larger than that of men. d. Science has indicated that the reticular formation of men is larger than that of women. 126. A profound change in personality may be the result of all of these EXCEPT: a. stroke. b. natural development. c. brain tumor. d. Alzheimer's disease. 127. Metaphorically, sometimes the voice of the superego sounds a little like your: a. siblings. b. parents. c. inner child. d. unconscious. 128. Research examining the links between personality and individuals' digital footprints revealed: a. a correlation between self-reported Big Five personality traits and the contents of a person's social media posts. b. that social media posts are not related to Big Five personality traits. c. that behavior on social media platforms is unrelated to personality. d. that conscientious people spend much more time messaging friends. 129. Behavioral studies show that _____ respond more strongly to aversive stimuli compared to _____, suggesting reactivity may affect personality development. a. extraverts; introverts b. introverts; extraverts c. women; men d. men; women

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Chap 11_5e 130. People's tendency to take credit for their successes but downplay responsibility for their failures is termed: a. self-verification. b. the self-serving bias. c. self-rationalization. d. narcissism. 131. When asked to write an essay on why she is who she is, Julia describes how her hopes and dreams influence how she behaves, thinks, and feels. Julia is focusing on how _____ events determine her personality. a. prior b. subconscious c. environmental d. anticipated 132. Which of these is NOT a criticism of psychodynamic explanations of personality? a. They lack any real evidence. b. They are too simple and focus on only erotogenic zones. c. They focus on after-the-fact interpretations. d. They offer no testable predictions. 133. Which of these is a prior event that may help determine personality? a. a person's ambitions b. a person's hopes c. a person's fears d. a person's genetic makeup 134. The _____ is at the core of the social–cognitive approach. a. nature–nurture controversy b. self-actualizing tendency c. superego d. person–situation controversy 135. A more internal locus of control would be reflected by which statement? a. Many of the unhappy things in people's lives are partly due to bad luck. b. Getting a good job depends mainly on being in the right place at the right time. c. When I make plans, I am almost certain that I can make them work. d. I have often found that what is going to happen will happen.

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Chap 11_5e 136. The _____ states that the personality differences between men and women result from cultural standards and expectations. a. social–cognitive theory b. trait perspective c. existential approach d. cultural–biological hypothesis 137. Marco is a personality theorist. Which of these ideas is Marco LEAST likely to believe? a. Traits are preexisting dispositions or causes of behavior that reliably trigger the behavior. b. Traits reflect underlying motives. c. Traits are highly stable across one's lifetime. d. Traits explain a person's behavior. 138. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. creativity b. agreeableness c. narcissism d. sensation seeking 139. _____ are designed to reveal inner aspects of an individual's personality by analyzing his or her responses to a standard series of ambiguous stimuli. a. Self-report measures b. Projective tests c. Personality inventories d. Natural observations 140. Events that motivate a person to reveal particular personality characteristics are referred to as _____ events. a. prior b. subordinate c. anticipated d. main 141. Hans Eysenck developed a model of personality that initially had _____ factors. a. 2 b. 5 c. 16 d. 40

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Chap 11_5e 142. Which of these has NOT been proposed as a reason that our personality characteristics change in different situations? a. We change to signal closeness with those we are around. b. We change to signal affiliation with another person. c. We change to increase perceived similarity with another person. d. We change to set ourselves apart from those we are around. 143. According to the social–cognitive approach, dimensions people use in making sense of their experiences are called: a. personal constructs. b. loci of control. c. outcome expectancies. d. self-concepts. 144. At work, Christine's boss yelled at her. Christine came home from work and yelled at her kids. Which defense mechanism did Christine use? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. regression 145. _____ is both a theory of personality and a method of treating patients. a. Clinical psychology b. Counseling psychology c. Psychoanalysis d. The dynamic unconscious 146. People with an internal locus of control tend to: a. be more anxious than are others. b. achieve more than do others. c. have more trouble than do others in coping with stress. d. be less likely to take credit for a personal success than are others. 147. What is MOST critical to learning outcome expectancies? a. conscientiousness b. openness to experience c. locus of control d. consequences of behavior

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Chap 11_5e 148. Which of these is NOT a plausible explanation for why our personality characteristics change when we are interacting with one person versus another? a. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with to signal closeness. b. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with to signal affiliation with them. c. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with to influence what they think about us. d. We shift our personality and language to match the people we are interacting with because there is no clear, coherent theory that explains personality. 149. The id operates on the _____ principle. a. morality b. idealism c. pleasure d. reality 150. Jason just started a new job working as a counselor at an addiction center. Jason feels the new job is a great fit. He also finds the daily challenges motivating and the prospect of helping others fulfilling. Which term best characterizes Jason's behavior? a. self-actualization b. sublimation c. reaction formation d. flow 151. A person's explicit knowledge of his or her own behaviors, traits, and other personal characteristics is called: a. internal locus of control. b. external locus of control. c. self-esteem. d. self-concept. 152. Which person is MOST likely to see an increase in conscientiousness? a. Aarav, a 71-year-old grandfather of 8 b. Germain, a 43-year-old stockbroker c. Shelley, a 22-year-old recent college graduate d. Maelynn, a 55-year-old schoolteacher

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Chap 11_5e 153. Hans Eysenck's original theory of personality identified two trait dimensions, emotional stability versus instability and: a. insecurity versus security. b. extraversion versus introversion. c. independence versus conformity. d. impulsivity versus control. 154. Eysenck proposed a factor called _____, which refers to the extent to which a person is impulsive or hostile. a. psychoticism b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion 155. Jennifer is taking a psychology class and needs to remember the Big Five dimensions of personality. It would be helpful if she used the acronym _____ as a mnemonic device. a. CONES b. CANES c. NAMES d. OCEAN 156. Deon and Cole are brothers who have similar personalities. Research suggests that this is due primarily to: a. the shared environment the siblings experienced. b. the nonshared environment the siblings experienced. c. genetics. d. an equal combination of genes and the environment. 157. A method in which a person provides subjective information about her own thoughts, feelings, or behaviors, typically via questionnaire or interview, is termed: a. a psychoanalysis. b. the Thematic Apperception Test. c. a self-report. d. the Rorschach Inkblot Test. 158. Yara is independent, and Zoey tends to be conforming. According to the Big Five Factor Model, when presented as a continuum, these characteristics represent: a. conscientiousness. b. openness to experience. c. agreeableness. d. extraversion.

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Chap 11_5e 159. Which approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires largely operating outside of awareness? a. trait b. humanistic–existential c. social–cognitive d. psychodynamic 160. A recent study followed a sample of transgender men over a 3-month period during which they were undergoing testosterone treatment. Personality tests administered before and after treatment revealed: a. that biological men consistently had higher levels of masculinity compared to transgender men. b. that transgender men viewed themselves as more masculine, and their scores were similar to biological men. c. that transgender men did not view themselves as more masculine after treatment. d. no difference between transgender and biological men in terms of masculinity. 161. A person's tendency to perceive the control of rewards as internal to the self or external in the environment is called: a. personal constructs. b. locus of control. c. outcome expectancies. d. person–situation controversy. 162. Events that may have shaped an individual's personality are referred to as _____ events. a. prior b. subordinate c. anticipated d. main 163. An evolutionary perspective suggests that men are more aggressive because: a. their reproductive success has little to do with personality. b. they learn to be aggressive by watching others. c. their aggressiveness may have an adaptive role in intimidating sexual rivals. d. cultural standards encourage aggression. 164. Janette is bilingual and speaks both English and Spanish. Research would predict that she: a. experiences a slight personality shift when speaking in one language versus another. b. provides support for the psychodynamic perspective of personality development. c. demonstrates personality that is not consistent with any of the current theoretical perspectives. d. has consistent personality traits across contexts.

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Chap 11_5e 165. Jared works at a restaurant that is quite busy but usually understaffed. After a particularly hard day at work, Jared finds himself picking a fight with his roommate about something completely unrelated. According to the psychodynamic theoretical perspective, what defense mechanism BEST characterizes Jared's behavior? a. projection b. displacement c. rationalization d. sublimation 166. Dr. Morose is a trait theorist. Which of these are they MOST likely to believe? a. Traits are preexisting dispositions or causes of behavior that reliably trigger the behavior. b. People cannot be described in terms of their qualities. c. Traits are highly unstable across one's lifetime. d. Traits explain a person's behavior. 167. The humanistic–existential approach considers personality to be: a. biologically determined. b. the result of unconscious forces. c. the result of our choices. d. relatively fixed after the age of 30. 168. Self-reported neuroticism is correlated with the volume of brain regions involved in: a. sensitivity to threat. b. processing information about the mental states of other people. c. self-regulation. d. processing information about reward. 169. About 94% of university professors rate their teaching as above average, illustrating: a. implicit egotism. b. an internal locus of control. c. self-verification errors. d. the self-serving bias. 170. A study by Mehl and colleagues (2009) utilized an electronically activated recorder to record the daily conversations of male and female college students. This study found that: a. females were much more talkative than were males. b. males were much more talkative than were females. c. males were slightly more talkative than were females. d. males and females were equally talkative.

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Chap 11_5e 171. According to Freud, which part(s) of the mind is/are a form of consciousness that punishes us with guilt when we do something wrong? a. defense mechanisms b. ego c. superego d. id 172. Unconscious coping mechanisms that reduce the anxiety generated by threats from unacceptable impulses are known as: a. Freudian slips. b. sublimations. c. defense mechanisms. d. psychosexual stages. 173. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. defensiveness b. psychoticism c. creativity d. extraversion 174. A person's assumptions about the likely consequences of a future behavior are referred to as: a. prior events. b. anticipated events. c. predictive expectancy. d. outcome expectancy. 175. Jeffrey Gray (1970) proposed that the dimensions of extraversion–introversion and neuroticism reflect two basic brain systems. One of these, the behavioral _____ system suppresses behavior in response to the anticipation of _____. a. activation; reward b. regulation; reward c. repression; punishment d. inhibition; punishment 176. Robert is at a party and spots an extremely attractive young woman. If Robert's personality is completely governed by his id, what will he be MOST likely to do? a. hit on her crudely and attempt to kiss her b. sublimate his sexual desires by watching the football game that is on the TV c. mentally berate himself for having dirty, immoral sexual thoughts d. have a conversation with her and politely ask her out on a date Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 177. Neil is crippled by the thought of the inevitability of his own death. As such, he views life as meaningless and has trouble in relationships. What advice might an existential psychologist provide to Neil? a. Engage in habitual behaviors such as excessive Internet browsing to numb the existential pain. b. Construct defenses to provide protection from these existential realities. c. Face the issue directly and learn to tolerate the pain of existence. d. Avoid relationships until self-actualization is complete. 178. Abby is a psychologist who studies personality. Which instrument would she MOST likely use when asking people about how they act or think in particular situations? a. a self-report inventory b. the Rorschach Inkblot Test c. the Thematic Apperception Test d. a picture-completion test 179. Ronnie is a softhearted individual who easily trusts people and will go out of his way to help them. According to the Big Five Factor Model of personality, Ronnie would likely score high on: a. extraversion. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. agreeableness. 180. Which perspective focuses on anxiety as an inherent part of living that we must face in order to be truly alive? a. humanist b. trait c. existentialist d. social–cognitive 181. In junior high school, Tyler really liked Jada and would have liked to date her. Instead, Tyler was mean to Jada and teased her. Which defense mechanism was Tyler using? a. identification b. sublimation c. displacement d. reaction formation 182. Maxine has a high reactive behavioral activation system (BAS). According to Jeffrey Gray, she is more likely to be: a. introverted. b. extraverted. c. neurotic. d. conscientious. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 183. Based on her research on stereotypical masculine and feminine traits, Bem (1974) suggested that: a. males who identify strongly with the masculine gender role are better adjusted than are psychologically androgynous men. b. men who identify strongly with feminine characteristics to the exclusion of masculine characteristics are better adjusted than are psychologically androgynous men. c. women who identify strongly with the feminine gender role are better adjusted than are psychologically androgynous women. d. psychologically androgynous people are better adjusted than are people who identify strongly with stereotypical gender roles. 184. The traits of the five-factor personality are referred to as: a. structures of the mind. b. the Big Five. c. defense mechanisms. d. components of personality. 185. Jazmine often posts selfies and videos of herself online. These help make up her: a. digital footprint. b. factors. c. structure of the mind. d. defense mechanisms. 186. Women are more likely to score lower than men on: a. conscientiousness. b. openness to feelings. c. extraversion. d. sensation seeking. 187. Jenna has two older brothers, Brayden and Ollie. Jenna and Brayden share one parent and grew up living in the same household, while Jenna and Ollie share both parents but Ollie has never lived under the same roof as Jenna or Brayden. Which siblings are MOST likely to share similar personality traits? a. Jenna and Brayden, due to shared environment b. Jenna and Ollie, due to shared genetics c. Brayden and Ollie, due to shared gender d. Jenna and Brayden, due to the combined effect of shared environment and genetics

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Chap 11_5e 188. When Lisa received a paper with a D grade, she immediately told her friends (and herself) that it didn't matter because she had intended to drop the course all along. Which defense mechanism is Lisa using? a. repression b. rationalization c. projection d. identification 189. The manner in which Marcus behaves in class is different than how he acts when he is with his parents. This is consistent with the _____ of personality. a. social–cognitive theory b. 16-factor theory c. psychodynamic perspective d. evolutionary perspective 190. Identical twins have highly similar personalities: a. unless they are reared apart. b. regardless of whether they grow up together or are reared apart. c. unless they grow up together. d. due to environmental factors only. 191. The _____ approach is a school of thought that regards personality as governed by an individual's ongoing choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death. a. self-actualized b. psychodynamic c. existential d. humanistic 192. The human motive toward meeting our inner potential is termed: a. self-actualization. b. flow. c. existentialism. d. angst. 193. Jeffrey Gray (1970) proposed that the dimensions of extraversion–introversion and neuroticism reflect two basic brain systems. One of these, the _____ system, activates approach behavior in response to the anticipation of reward. a. behavioral activation b. reward-seeking c. sensation-seeking d. behavioral inhibition Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 194. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. conscientiousness b. authoritarianism c. sensation seeking d. defensiveness 195. Dr. Mathos prefers to use the _____ in his research on personality, during which respondents are asked to look at a picture and make up a story about the contents of the picture. a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. Thematic Apperception Test d. Big-Five Personality Inventory 196. Lamar has been trying to eat healthier but has difficulty with portion control and resisting the urge to eat unhealthy snacks between meals. According to the psychodynamic theoretical perspective, what aspect of personality is Lamar's behavior driven by? a. superego b. ego c. id d. neuroticism 197. According to Bem (1974), _____ is NOT a stereotypical male personality characteristic. a. self-reliance b. independence c. sympathy d. assertiveness 198. Jeremy, who as a child loved to pull the wings off dead moths and was fascinated by blood and guts, grew up to be a surgeon. His career choice likely represents: a. repression. b. projection. c. sublimation. d. identification. 199. Freud thought people went through a series of distinct early life stages through which personality was formed. What were these stages called? a. the Big Five stages b. psychoanalytic stages c. psychosexual stages of development d. psychosocial stages of development Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 200. Evolutionary theory holds that self-esteem might be an inner gauge of: a. status. b. belonging. c. narcissism. d. neediness. 201. Gloria is 10 years old and loves playing soccer and basketball with both boys and girls her age. She has been very focused on developing her athletic and interpersonal skills through playing these sports. According to Freudian psychology, in which stage of psychosexual development is Gloria? a. anal b. phallic c. genital d. latency 202. When she gets a high grade on a test, Cynthia says, "I studied hard and did really well on that test!" When she scores low, she says, "That test was unreasonable, and the professor just can't teach!" Her reactions are an example of: a. an internal locus of control. b. a reaction formation. c. implicit egotism. d. the self-serving bias. 203. _____ is a person's characteristic style of behaving, thinking, and feeling. a. Attitude b. Personality c. Belief d. Point of view 204. Dr. Raman considers herself to be a trait theorist. Which of these is she MOST likely to believe about her student, Sam? a. Sam's organization is due to an inner property of Sam that guides his behavior. b. Sam cannot be described in terms of his organization or need for orderliness. c. Sam's organization is situational and inconsistent. d. Trait theories will explain why Sam is so organized.

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Chap 11_5e 205. Professor Wright is a strong critic of the psychodynamic approach to personality. She is likely to argue that psychodynamic theorists' theories of personality: a. lack any real evidence and focus on after-the-fact interpretations. b. are too simple and focus on only erotogenic zones. c. do not consider gender differences in personality development. d. routinely generate falsifiable hypotheses. 206. The tendency to seek evidence to confirm the self-concept is called: a. self-analysis. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. self-verification. d. self-relevance. 207. Critics of the psychodynamic approach to personality argue that psychodynamic explanations: a. lack any real evidence and focus on after-the-fact interpretations. b. are too simple and focus on only erotogenic zones. c. do not consider gender differences in personality development. d. routinely generate falsifiable hypotheses. 208. Freud believed that the id, ego, and superego were largely governed by: a. depression. b. the conscious will. c. anxiety. d. personality. 209. Marla has a need to be good and to find meaning in life. According to Maslow, she is focused on the need for: a. self-transcendence. b. self-actualization. c. safety. d. social cognition. 210. Bette enjoys spending time with friends and family, and she particularly enjoys parties and social events. According to various trait theories of personality, she would likely score high on: a. extraversion. b. conscientiousness. c. agreeableness. d. openness to experience.

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Chap 11_5e 211. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. neuroticism b. creativity c. narcissism d. ambition 212. _____ is people's tendency to take credit for their successes but downplay responsibility for their failures. a. Self-verification b. The self-serving bias c. Self-rationalization d. Narcissism 213. Responses to the _____ are scored according to a complicated system that is derived in part from research involving those suffering from psychological disorders that intends to classify what people see. a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Electronically Activated Recorder 214. Hans Eysenck theorized that extraverts seek out stimulation due to low sensitivity in what brain area? a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. reticular formation d. prefrontal cortex 215. The extent to which an individual likes, values, and accepts the self is called: a. self-schema. b. self-esteem. c. self-verification. d. self-narrative. 216. In the presence of others, we generally: a. experience no change in personality characteristics. b. change our personality and language to differentiate ourselves from the group. c. change to signal that we are distinct individuals. d. attempt to increase perceived similarity between ourselves and those with whom we are interacting.

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Chap 11_5e 217. Marcus has high self-esteem and carries himself more confidently than does Sarah, who has lower selfesteem. When working with a group of classmates, the classmates tend to work hard to impress Marcus rather than Sarah. This illustrates a benefit of self-esteem related to: a. social status. b. belonging. c. extraversion. d. security. 218. Reed believes that he is much smarter and way more attractive than his peers. Reed's grandiose belief in himself is a good example of: a. narcissism. b. extraversion. c. projection. d. implicit egotism. 219. Which statement about the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is FALSE? a. It includes validity scales that quantify the likelihood a participant is distorting results by faking answers. b. It measures a limited range of psychological constructs and disorders. c. The answer format limits any potential biases of the test administrator. d. The test format reduces the difficulty of test administration. 220. According to Freud, the foundation of personality is formed: a. in the first 3 months of life. b. before the age of 6 years. c. between 6 and 10 years of age. d. during adolescence. 221. Because she sees herself as a very conservative and caring person, Jennifer feels uncomfortable when her friends tell her that she is too aggressive and bossy. Jennifer seeks: a. self-verification. b. self-esteem. c. self-concept. d. self-serving bias.

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Chap 11_5e 222. A 2nd grader is reading a library book. Under what circumstances might he experience the mental state humanistic psychologists call flow? a. after reading for approximately 10 minutes when he is in the middle of the book b. if the book is a "beginning readers" book that he could have read in kindergarten c. when the book challenges him, but he nevertheless understands it d. when the book has many words that he doesn't understand 223. Unconscious coping mechanisms that reduce anxiety generated by threats from unacceptable impulses are called _____ mechanisms. a. self-protecting b. motivated forgetting c. psychosexual d. defense 224. Clarissa is generally calm, while Brenda is often worried. According to the Big Five Factor Model, these characteristics, when presented as a continuum, represent: a. neuroticism. b. openness to experience. c. conscientiousness. d. extraversion. 225. The social–cognitive approach examines how _____ contribute(s) to the way people construct _____ in their own head. a. situations; personality b. personality; situations c. behavior; personality d. behavior; situations 226. After a stressful day of classes, André was on his way home when a car cut in front of him, almost causing a collision. When he arrived home, André slammed his car door and kicked the tires. What defense mechanism was he using? a. projection b. displacement c. rationalization d. reaction formation

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Chap 11_5e 227. Sigmund Freud held that the ego operates on the _____ principle, the regulating mechanism that enables an individual to delay the gratification of immediate needs and operate effectively in the world. a. reality b. pleasure c. morality d. homeostatic 228. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi (1990) found that engaging in tasks that exactly match our abilities creates an energized mental state that he called: a. angst. b. actualization. c. flow. d. creative growth. 229. Humanists believe that _____ represent(s) the height of personality development. a. a focus on the external world b. negotiating the meaning of death c. satisfied physiological needs d. peak experiences 230. _____ developed a locus of control scale. a. Walter Mischel b. George Kelly c. Abraham Maslow d. Julian Rotter 231. The basic five-factor structure seems to be true in which of these populations? a. adults in English-speaking countries b. adults in non-Western cultures who speak languages other than English c. children d. children and adults in other cultures, both English and non-English speaking 232. When he wears his Toronto Raptors NBA Finals Champion shirt, Mike feels better able to cope with the day's challenges. Which defense mechanism is Mike using? a. identification b. projection c. displacement d. reaction formation

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Chap 11_5e 233. What is the BEST projective personality test? a. Beck Depression Inventory b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. Thematic Apperception Test d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 234. When Dr. Stone gets positive feedback from students, she believes it is due to the hard work she puts into preparing her course materials. However, when students give negative feedback, she believes that the students just don't understand her approach to the topic. These reactions are an example of: a. an internal locus of control. b. a reaction formation. c. implicit egotism. d. the self-serving bias. 235. Someone with amnesia who CANNOT remember her past: a. has lost her entire self-concept. b. lacks self-schemas but retains a self-narrative. c. lacks a self-narrative but retains a self-concept. d. nonetheless retains a completely intact self-concept. 236. Men are more likely to score lower than women on: a. having more casual attitudes toward sex. b. openness to ideas. c. agreeableness. d. sensation seeking. 237. Jay mentions to his therapist that he is too introverted and has trouble making friends. His therapist tells Jay that he is free to make his own choices about how to behave, and that the struggle to be more social ultimately will give rise to a more extroverted personality. Jay's therapist is a _____ psychologist. a. psychodynamic b. trait c. psychosocial d. existential 238. Existential psychologists believe that the desire for self-esteem reflects a need to find value in ourselves to: a. achieve a sense of belongingness. b. achieve a high social status. c. escape anxiety associated with our own mortality. d. increase our awareness of ambivalent feelings about love.

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Chap 11_5e 239. Personality theorists believe all of these about traits EXCEPT that traits: a. are preexisting dispositions or causes of behavior that reliably trigger the behavior. b. reflect underlying motives. c. are highly stable across one's lifetime. d. indicate what type of childhood the person had. 240. A person who is sociable and active is said to have high levels of: a. neuroticism. b. psychoticism. c. introversion. d. extraversion. 241. A disadvantage of the Thematic Apperception Test is that: a. the scorer's interpretation of the results is subjective. b. it is easy for test takers to mask their true personalities. c. projections reveal more than the client wants to reveal, and they produce psychological distress. d. participants tend to project only their current concerns on the ambiguous pictures. 242. Silas posts frequently on Facebook about computers and Pokemon cards. Based on research by Schwartz and colleagues (2013) that compared Facebook posts with results on personality tests, you could expect Silas to score high on: a. introversion. b. extraversion. c. neuroticism. d. femininity. 243. Kim, a senior in college, plans to be a doctor and has planned her next 8 years of study in great detail. She firmly believes that she can make her dream a reality through commitment and hard work. It is likely that Kim has a(n): a. internal locus of control. b. external locus of control. c. unconditional positive regard for her family. d. self-actualized personality. 244. Research in personality psychology has concluded that the majority of gender differences in personality: a. are present as early as they can be reliably measured. b. emerge around the time children start going to school. c. appear during adolescence. d. are not evident until adulthood.

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Chap 11_5e 245. Vanida is 6 months old and although mostly breast- or bottle-fed, she has begun to show interest in eating the food her parents eat. According to Freudian psychology, in which stage of psychosexual development is Vanida? a. anal b. phallic c. oral d. latency 246. A study of athletes at the 1992 Olympics found that: a. those who did not win medals had higher levels of self-esteem than did those who won medals. b. those who did not win medals had lower levels of self-esteem than did those who won medals. c. bronze medal winners smiled the least during the medal ceremony. d. silver medal winners smiled the least during the medal ceremony. 247. When traits are organized in a hierarchy, _____ are at the _____ level. a. concrete traits; highest b. abstract traits; highest c. specific behavioral tendencies; highest d. abstract traits; lowest 248. Joey wants to pull Becky's pigtails to get her attention, but a little angel on his shoulder tells him that pulling people's hair is wrong. The angel is similar to Freud's conceptualization of the: a. Oedipus complex. b. ego. c. id. d. superego. 249. The aspect of the self-concept that constitutes a story we may tell about ourselves is called a: a. self-portrait. b. self-verification. c. self-concept. d. self-narrative. 250. Marisol is an introvert. Which occupation would likely be best for her? a. trial lawyer b. teacher c. bartender d. nighttime security guard

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Chap 11_5e 251. Which psychologist is a humanistic theorist? a. Gordon Allport b. Abraham Maslow c. Rollo May d. Victor Frankl 252. The Big Five Factor Model includes _____ as one of the five dimensions of personality. a. creativity b. authoritarianism c. openness to experience d. impulsivity 253. Emily is working with a psychologist who focuses on Emily's positive characteristics and her potential for growth. Emily is meeting with a _____ psychologist. a. psychodynamic b. humanistic c. psychosocial d. existential 254. The _____ is a projective technique in which respondents' inner thoughts and feelings are believed to be revealed by analysis of their responses to a set of unstructured inkblots. a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory c. Rorschach Inkblot Test d. Electronically Activated Recorder 255. Who was an early trait psychologist? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. Edward Titchener c. Karl Lashley d. Gordon Allport 256. Victor has a cortex that is very easily stimulated to a point higher than optimal. Victor MOST likely: a. engages with his environment and seeks social reinforcement. b. prefers quiet activities. c. listens to loud music. d. is neurotic and emotionally unstable.

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Chap 11_5e 257. Schwartz and colleagues (2013) analyzed Facebook pages and standardized personality tests from the same people. They found that people who commented frequently about "going out to party" on Facebook were more likely to score highly on which dimension of personality? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion 258. Which of these is NOT a limitation of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)? a. People have a tendency to respond in a socially desirable way. b. People underreport things that are unflattering. c. There are many things we are unable to report about ourselves. d. The test is difficult to administer. 259. The dimension of _____ ranges from emotional instability to emotional stability. a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. psychoticism 260. According to Freud, the _____ is present at birth and is the source of bodily needs, wants, and desires. a. ego b. id c. superego d. collective unconsciousness 261. Which statement about self-report and projective tests is true? a. Projective tests tend to be more reliable assessments of personality compared to traditional selfreport methods. b. The format of self-report assessments prevents bias from contaminating the results. c. Self-report tests are generally used for assessing personality in a research context as opposed to being used clinically. d. Projective tests aim to measure personality characteristics that are outside of awareness.

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Chap 11_5e 262. Michael and Andrew are siblings who grew up in the same home environment, played together on the same baseball team, and went to the same school. During early adolescence, their parents divorced, and both boys went to live with their mother. The fact that Michael and Andrew have similar personalities is MOST likely due to: a. genetics. b. similar schooling and extracurricular activities. c. the shared stressful event of divorce. d. a similar home environment. 263. Roughly _____ of the variability in personality among individuals is due to life experiences and other environmental factors. a. 25% b. 40% c. 60% d. 75% 264. Most self-report questionnaires consist of which type of answers? a. describing what is happening in a picture b. responding to self-descriptive statements c. answering what someone perceives as they look at an image d. writing a story about the world 265. Marcus always performed well at work and has outlived many of his peers. Based on the Big Five Factor Model, he may be high in: a. neuroticism. b. conscientiousness. c. openness to experience. d. extraversion. 266. People with an internal locus of control tend to: a. be less anxious than others. b. achieve less than those who feel driven by external factors. c. have more trouble than others in coping under stressful situations. d. be less likely to take credit for a personal success than others. 267. Existentialists would say that, as humans, we: a. have no choice but to become self-actualized. b. make choices and decisions in the context of the realities of life and death. c. need not think about death if we believe in life. d. sometimes must embrace comforting illusions. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 268. Rafael attributes most of his personality to his genetic makeup. He is describing how _____ events determined his personality. a. prior b. subconscious c. environmental d. anticipated 269. Which commonly used personality test is a well-researched clinical questionnaire designed to assess personality and psychological problems? a. Beck Depression Inventory b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) d. Thematic Apperception Test 270. Goro has recently begun learning to urinate in the toilet. According to Freud, Goro is in the _____ stage of psychosexual development. a. anal b. phallic c. genital d. latency 271. Who would personality psychologists expect to have the MOST similar personality traits? a. fraternal twins Billy and Bobby b. siblings Cara and Drew c. monozygotic twins Sadie and Sara d. dizygotic twins Mari and Matt 272. Behavioral and physiological research on the brain and personality traits has tended to support Hans Eysenck's theory that there is/are _____ in extraverts and in introverts. a. a drive for stimulation b. differences in dopamine levels c. cortical arousal differences d. prefrontal cortex disparities

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Chap 11_5e 273. Schwartz and colleagues (2013) analyzed Facebook pages and standardized personality tests from the same people. They found that people who commented frequently about being "sick of" things on Facebook were more likely to score highly on which dimension of personality? a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. neuroticism d. extraversion 274. Developers of projective tests assume that people will: a. project personality factors onto an ambiguous test. b. project their response biases by indicating which adjectives describe them best. c. reveal their response style by agreeing or disagreeing with most ambiguous questions. d. report that they see the same image when shown an unstructured inkblot. 275. Which perspective views personality in terms of how we think about the situations encountered in daily life and how we behave in response to them? a. existential b. psychodynamic c. humanistic d. social–cognitive 276. The MMPI–2–RF consists of: a. 25 multiple-choice statements. b. 338 statements to which the respondent answers true, false, or cannot say. c. 30 inkblot images. d. 232 pictures that tell a story. 277. About _____ of all drivers classify themselves as above average, illustrating _____. a. 70%; an internal locus of control b. 90%; the self-serving bias c. 70%; the self-serving bias d. 90%; an internal locus of control 278. People with _____ tend to live happier and healthier lives than people with _____. a. explicit egotism; implicit egotism b. a high self-concept; a low self-concept c. high self-esteem; low self-esteem d. an external locus of control; an internal locus of control

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Chap 11_5e 279. Dr. Kent considers himself to be a trait theorist. Which of these is he NOT likely to believe about the personality of his child, Anya? a. Anya's preexisting extraversion reliably results in extraverted behaviors. b. Anya's extraversion reflects underlying motives. c. Anya's trait of extraversion will be stable across her lifetime. d. Traits explain Anya's behavior. 280. According to the existential approach, the "anxiety of fully being" is known as: a. actualization. b. anguish. c. angst. d. existential crisis. 281. Jason's parents report that his behavior is often ruthless and uncooperative. Based on the Big Five Factor Model, it is probable that he would score low on: a. agreeableness. b. neuroticism. c. openness to experience. d. extraversion. 282. A documented disadvantage of narcissism is: a. low self-esteem. b. a need to defend the view of self at all costs. c. high blood pressure. d. insomnia. 283. Psychologists who believe that people are responsible agents who are free to create and live their lives while negotiating the issue of meaning and the reality of death use the _____ approach. a. psychodynamic b. existentialist c. humanistic d. social–cognitive 284. Lindsey has high self-esteem and carries herself more confidently than does Barb, who has lower selfesteem. Their employees tend to work harder in an effort to impress Lindsey, illustrating a benefit of selfesteem related to: a. social status. b. belonging. c. extraversion. d. security. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 285. Analysis of smartphone data reveals that those who score high on _____ and _____ spend more time with others. a. extraversion; agreeableness b. conscientiousness; extraversion c. neuroticism; openness to experience d. agreeableness; neuroticism 286. The _____ is the mental system that reflects the internalization of cultural rules mainly learned from parents as they exercise their authority. a. superego b. ego c. unconscious d. id 287. The self-concept can be organized into: a. the I and the me. b. self-verification and self-esteem. c. self-narratives and personality traits. d. self-esteem and self-knowledge. 288. Underlying dimensions or _____ of personality are generally based on self-descriptions that are then sorted based on commonalities. a. traits b. formations c. phases d. factors 289. Who first argued that measured personality traits often do a poor job of predicting individuals' behaviors? a. Rollo May b. Victor Frankl c. Walter Mischel d. George Kelly 290. According to the existential approach, what forms the basis of personality? a. anxiety, boredom, and flow b. the self-actualization tendency c. the answer to "What is the meaning of my life?" d. defenses constructed to deal with angst

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Chap 11_5e 291. Which statement does NOT present a criticism of projective techniques for measuring personality? a. Their interpretation can depend on the theoretical viewpoint of the examiner. b. Their use is not valid for older adults. c. Results are influenced by the subjective interpretation of the examiner. d. The tests have little predictive value. 292. Self-reported agreeableness is correlated with the volume of brain regions involved in: a. sensitivity to threat. b. processing information about the mental states of other people. c. self-regulation. d. processing information about reward. 293. A psychological tendency that the MMPI–2–RF does NOT measure is: a. creativity. b. anxiety. c. antisocial behavior. d. avoidance. 294. Professor Schmidt wants to measure a participant's personality. She MOST likely would: a. follow the participant around and make observations in a variety of settings. b. ask the participant's friends about him. c. observe the participant in a stressful situation. d. give the participant a questionnaire. 295. The _____ is a projective technique in which respondents' underlying motives and concerns and the way they see the social world are believed to be revealed through analysis of the stories they make up about ambiguous pictures of people. a. Ambiguous Situation Assessment b. Rorschach Inkblot Test c. Thematic Apperception Test d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory 296. Jane's personality and behavior are different when she is talking to her mother in comparison to when she is talking to her friends. This is consistent with the _____ of personality. a. social–cognitive theory b. 16-factor theory c. psychodynamic perspective d. evolutionary perspective

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Chap 11_5e 297. In his three-factor model of personality, Eysenck identified all BUT which of these dimensions of personality? a. extroversion b. neuroticism c. psychoticism d. conscientiousness 298. Research has confirmed that people's social media posts correlate with self-reported ratings of: a. Big Five personality traits. b. structures of the mind. c. defense mechanisms. d. unconscious motivations. 299. Which of these is the correct sequential order of the psychosexual stages of development? a. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital b. oral, anal, latency, phallic, genital c. oral, phallic, anal, latency, genital d. oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency 300. Freud interpreted the origins of the everyday mistakes and memory lapses of his patients, which are referred to as: a. reaction formations. b. defense mechanisms. c. factors. d. Freudian slips.

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Chap 11_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. d 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. d 40. a 41. d 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. d 51. a 52. b 53. a 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 55. c 56. c 57. c 58. b 59. c 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. c 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. a 75. a 76. a 77. d 78. c 79. a 80. c 81. c 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 83. a 84. d 85. c 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. b 93. c 94. b 95. d 96. a 97. d 98. c 99. d 100. a 101. b 102. a 103. b 104. b 105. b 106. d 107. d 108. a 109. c 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 111. d 112. a 113. d 114. d 115. d 116. b 117. c 118. c 119. a 120. d 121. d 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. b 126. b 127. b 128. a 129. b 130. b 131. d 132. b 133. d 134. d 135. c 136. a 137. d

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Chap 11_5e 138. b 139. b 140. c 141. a 142. d 143. a 144. c 145. c 146. b 147. d 148. d 149. c 150. d 151. d 152. c 153. b 154. a 155. d 156. c 157. c 158. b 159. d 160. b 161. b 162. a 163. c 164. a 165. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 166. a 167. c 168. a 169. b 170. d 171. c 172. c 173. d 174. d 175. d 176. a 177. c 178. a 179. d 180. c 181. d 182. b 183. d 184. b 185. a 186. d 187. b 188. b 189. a 190. b 191. c 192. a 193. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 194. a 195. c 196. c 197. c 198. c 199. c 200. b 201. d 202. d 203. b 204. a 205. a 206. c 207. a 208. c 209. b 210. a 211. a 212. b 213. c 214. c 215. b 216. d 217. a 218. a 219. b 220. b 221. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 222. c 223. d 224. a 225. b 226. b 227. a 228. c 229. d 230. d 231. d 232. a 233. b 234. d 235. c 236. c 237. d 238. c 239. d 240. d 241. a 242. a 243. a 244. c 245. c 246. d 247. b 248. d

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Chap 11_5e 249. d 250. d 251. b 252. c 253. b 254. c 255. d 256. b 257. d 258. d 259. c 260. b 261. d 262. a 263. c 264. b 265. b 266. a 267. b 268. a 269. c 270. a 271. c 272. c 273. c 274. a 275. d 276. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e 277. b 278. c 279. d 280. c 281. a 282. b 283. b 284. a 285. a 286. a 287. c 288. d 289. c 290. d 291. b 292. b 293. a 294. d 295. c 296. a 297. d 298. a 299. a 300. d

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The flow experience can be reached only by struggling to overcome anxiety-evoking experiences. a. True b. False 2. Gordon Allport believed that personality traits were causes of specific behaviors. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 3. (Scenario 11.1) The personality dimension of _____ might be expected to range from affectionate to reserved. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. openness to experience d. extraversion 4. To make accurate predictions of human behavior, information about both personality of the individual and specifics about the situation are needed. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 5. The traits that people use to define themselves are termed the self-narrative. a. True b. False 6. Self-esteem is the tendency to seek evidence to confirm self-concept. a. True b. False 7. One criticism of the Rorschach Inkblot Test is that it is open to the examiner's subjective interpretation. a. True b. False 8. A social–cognitive approach to personality emphasizes how individuals perceive situations differently and behave differently in response to these personal constructs. a. True b. False 9. If you believe you control your future, you have an internal locus of control. a. True b. False 10. The id regulates the pursuit of gratification with the reality of daily demands. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 11. (Scenario 11.3) In explaining the dynamic unconscious to his introductory psychology students, Professor Carter likes to use the analogy of a car moving toward a destination. In this analogy, the ego would function as: a. the engine. b. the gasoline. c. the driver steering the car. d. a person in the passenger seat criticizing the driver's decisions. 12. Narcissists tend to have low self-esteem. a. True b. False 13. Research on the Big Five personality dimensions has shown that our personalities tend to remain fairly stable throughout our lifetimes. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 14. (Scenario 11.1) The personality dimension of _____ might be expected to range from independent to conforming. a. conscientiousness b. agreeableness c. openness to experience d. extraversion 15. Children tend to exhibit only three of the five dimensions of personality. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 16. (Scenario 11.3) In explaining the dynamic unconscious to his introductory psychology students, Professor Carter likes to use the analogy of a car moving toward a destination. In this analogy, the superego would function as: a. the engine. b. the gasoline. c. the driver steering the car. d. a person in the passenger seat criticizing the driver's decisions.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 17. (Scenario 11.1) After finishing his homework, Eron often spends the rest of his night on social media, maintaining his online image by posting updates about himself, monitoring what his friends are doing, and making frequent sarcastic and offensive comments about most others from his school. Eron's personality might BEST be judged low in _____ and high in _____. a. conscientiousness; neuroticism b. agreeableness; extraversion c. conscientiousness; extraversion d. agreeableness; openness to experience 18. Cattell proposed a 16-factor theory of personality. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 19. Social–cognitive research suggests that willingness to cheat on a test is a good predictor of willingness to steal money. a. True b. False 20. A businesswoman who kicks her dog off the porch when she gets home because she's had a rough day at work is using the defense mechanism known as projection. a. True b. False 21. The Big Five dimensions of personality are not culturally specific. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 22. (Scenario 11.1) Research demonstrating that the Big Five personality dimensions appear in all cultures and age groups suggests that these dimensions: a. cause most instances of social behavior. b. are artifacts of similarities in language and labeling. c. are learned behaviors shaped by common environments. d. have a biological basis. 23. One of the best-known self-report measures for assessing personality is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI–2–RF). a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 24. Existentialists believe that angst occurs when stressors are too challenging for our abilities. a. True b. False 25. A child who reverts to thumb sucking and whining when her mother brings a new baby home is using the defense mechanism known as regression. a. True b. False 26. Eysenck's research revealed five dimensions of personality. a. True b. False Use Scenario 11.2 to answer the following question(s). Historically, psychologists have conceptualized personality in different ways. Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires operating largely outside of awareness. According to Freud, personality characteristics develop early in life, are fairly rigid, and describe behavior in a variety of situations. Like Freud, trait theorists such as Gordon Allport view traits as stable predispositions to behave in a variety of contexts. Unlike Freud, they do not believe that these traits are the products of unconscious desires. Humanists, such as Abraham Maslow, view individual personality differences as arising from the ways in which the environment facilitates or blocks the innate human tendency to reach our own potential. Behaviorists, such as B. F. Skinner, deny the existence of personality as a thing but rather conceptualize it as a mere summary term for a set of reliable behaviors that are reinforced in the presence of similar situations. Different situations, then, might give rise to different behaviors that might be diametrically opposed when labeled in terms of traits. Finally, the social–cognitive approach of Mischel views personality in terms of how people think and respond to the different situations encountered in daily life. In this approach, personality, learning history, and the situation interact to determine behavior, with the power of the situation often trumping the effects of personality. 27. (Scenario 11.2) Which psychologist would be MOST likely to agree with the use of projective personality tests to measure personality? a. Maslow b. Allport c. Mischel d. Freud

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 28. (Scenario 11.3) According to Freud, the part of the mind MOST associated with conscious decision making is the: a. id. b. dynamic unconscious. c. ego. d. superego.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.2 to answer the following question(s). Historically, psychologists have conceptualized personality in different ways. Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires operating largely outside of awareness. According to Freud, personality characteristics develop early in life, are fairly rigid, and describe behavior in a variety of situations. Like Freud, trait theorists such as Gordon Allport view traits as stable predispositions to behave in a variety of contexts. Unlike Freud, they do not believe that these traits are the products of unconscious desires. Humanists, such as Abraham Maslow, view individual personality differences as arising from the ways in which the environment facilitates or blocks the innate human tendency to reach our own potential. Behaviorists, such as B. F. Skinner, deny the existence of personality as a thing but rather conceptualize it as a mere summary term for a set of reliable behaviors that are reinforced in the presence of similar situations. Different situations, then, might give rise to different behaviors that might be diametrically opposed when labeled in terms of traits. Finally, the social–cognitive approach of Mischel views personality in terms of how people think and respond to the different situations encountered in daily life. In this approach, personality, learning history, and the situation interact to determine behavior, with the power of the situation often trumping the effects of personality. 29. (Scenario 11.2) Which psychologist suggested that people may deal with feelings of threat or anxiety by unconsciously adopting the personality characteristics of someone else who seems more powerful or better able to cope? a. Maslow b. Allport c. Mischel d. Freud 30. Freud believed that a person's basic personality is formed within the first 2 years of life. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 31. (Scenario 11.3) According to Freud, the _____ operates on the reality principle, and the _____ operates on the pleasure principle. a. ego; id b. superego; ego c. superego; id d. id; ego 32. A person who takes credit for his successes but blames his failures on other people and other circumstances is using the self-serving bias. a. True b. False 33. George Kelly believed that differences in personality arise largely from differences in the perception of locus of control. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 34. Self-esteem is usually assessed through direct observations of behavior. a. True b. False 35. Sublimation can be described as motivated forgetting. a. True b. False 36. The illustration of an angel sitting on a person's shoulder telling him what to do is similar to Freud's notion of the superego. a. True b. False 37. Walter Mischel argued that personality traits do a poor job in predicting individuals' behaviors. a. True b. False Use Scenario 11.2 to answer the following question(s). Historically, psychologists have conceptualized personality in different ways. Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires operating largely outside of awareness. According to Freud, personality characteristics develop early in life, are fairly rigid, and describe behavior in a variety of situations. Like Freud, trait theorists such as Gordon Allport view traits as stable predispositions to behave in a variety of contexts. Unlike Freud, they do not believe that these traits are the products of unconscious desires. Humanists, such as Abraham Maslow, view individual personality differences as arising from the ways in which the environment facilitates or blocks the innate human tendency to reach our own potential. Behaviorists, such as B. F. Skinner, deny the existence of personality as a thing but rather conceptualize it as a mere summary term for a set of reliable behaviors that are reinforced in the presence of similar situations. Different situations, then, might give rise to different behaviors that might be diametrically opposed when labeled in terms of traits. Finally, the social–cognitive approach of Mischel views personality in terms of how people think and respond to the different situations encountered in daily life. In this approach, personality, learning history, and the situation interact to determine behavior, with the power of the situation often trumping the effects of personality. 38. (Scenario 11.2) Which psychologist would be most likely to describe an individual's personality in terms of a hierarchy of traits measured through self-report? a. Freud b. Allport c. Mischel d. Skinner

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 39. The defense mechanism of identification involves unconsciously replacing threatening inner wishes and fantasies with an exaggerated version of their opposite. a. True b. False Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 40. (Scenario 11.1) Visualize Eysenck's (1967) model of personality as two perpendicular lines bisecting one another. The horizontal line has an endpoint of introverted on the left, and the vertical line has an upper endpoint of emotionally unstable. Within this space, in which quadrant is the personality trait of leadership? a. upper left b. upper right c. lower left d. lower right

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 41. People with an external locus of control tend to be less anxious than are people with an internal locus of control. a. True b. False Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 42. (Scenario 11.1) Both Cattell's (1957) and Eysenck's (1967) models describe equally well the tremendous variation observed in human personality. Given this, many psychologists prefer Eysenck's model because it is: a. simpler. b. more dogmatic. c. greater in internal validity. d. more consistent with a social–cognitive approach.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 43. Worried and calm are endpoints on the personality dimension of agreeableness. a. True b. False Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 44. (Scenario 11.1) Visualize Eysenck's (1967) model of personality as two perpendicular lines bisecting one another. The horizontal line has an endpoint of introverted on the left, and the vertical line has an upper endpoint of emotionally unstable. Within this space, in which quadrant is the personality trait of unsociable? a. upper left b. upper right c. lower left d. lower right

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 45. Introverts prefer quiet activities because their reticular formation is not easily stimulated. a. True b. False Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 46. (Scenario 11.3) Marley is referred to a psychiatrist because she cannot move her legs, even though doctors have ruled out all possible physical causes. From a Freudian perspective, this paralysis has likely occurred because the: a. ego is using illness to punish the id for pursuing pleasure over morality. b. id is using illness to punish the ego and superego for thwarting its need for pleasure. c. superego is using illness to punish the ego for trying to fulfill the bodily urges of the id. d. superego is using illness to punish itself for pursuing pleasure. 47. A used car salesperson who believes that every other used car dealership sells defective automobiles might be using the defense mechanism of projection. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 48. Research suggests that parental divorce can produce large and lasting personality changes in children. a. True b. False 49. People who are very imaginative tend to score high on the extraversion dimension of personality. a. True b. False 50. Siblings tend to have similar personalities primarily because they typically share a common environment. a. True b. False 51. Helpful and uncooperative are endpoints on the personality dimension of conscientiousness. a. True b. False 52. The superego enables a person to deal with life's practical demands. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 53. (Scenario 11.3) Sigmund Freud founded which school of psychological thought? a. existentialism b. behaviorism c. the psychodynamic approach d. Gestalt psychology

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 54. (Scenario 11.1) Extraversion is a Big Five personality factor that also appears in the models of Eysenck (1967) and Cattell (1957). This fact: a. suggests that a yet-undiscovered personality dimension underlies this trait. b. increases confidence that it is an underlying dimension of personality. c. indicates that this dimension overlaps to a greater extent with other personality dimensions. d. is an artifact of a language rich in adjectives to describe social behavior. 55. People high in conscientiousness spend less time text messaging. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 11.1 is based on the following sources: Cattell, R. B. (1957). Personality and motivation: Structure and measurement. New York, NY: World Book. Eysenck, H. J. (1967). The biological basis of personality. Thomas: Spring-field, Ill. McCrae, R. R., & Costa, P. T., Jr. (2013). Introduction to the empirical and theoretical status of the fivefactor model of personality traits. In T. A. Widiger & P. T. Costa Jr. (Eds.), Personality disorders and the five-factor model of personality., 3rd ed. (pp. 15–27). American Psychological Association. Use Scenario 11.1 to answer the following question(s). Thousands of words exist in our language to describe aspects of personality. In a search for fundamental traits, psychologists have used statistical techniques such as factor analysis to identify the core dimensions underlying the structure of personality. Over the years, different analyses have yielded different results. Cattell (1957) proposed a model of personality based on 16 unique factors. Eysenck (1967) argued that the thousands of specific behavioral tendencies often attributed to personality can be adequately described by just two dimensions. One dimension (extraversion) ranges from introversion (low scores on this dimension) to extraversion (high scores), and the other (neuroticism) ranges from emotionally stable (low scores) to emotionally unstable (high scores). Today, the most commonly accepted model of personality—the Big Five— posits the existence of five unique dimensions of personality: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (McCrae & Costa, 1999). Consistent with Eysenck's model, each dimension reflects a range of behavioral tendencies. For example, agreeableness might range from helpful to uncooperative. Someone low in conscientiousness probably will miss deadlines for work assignments, and persons who never travel from their hometowns will score low on openness to experience. Research has shown that these five dimensions of personality appear in all cultures and age groups. 56. (Scenario 11.1) Factor analytic techniques are used by personality researchers to: a. identify the implicit motivations underlying personality. b. arrange many traits in a hierarchical structure under a small number of dimensions. c. ensure that the frequency of personality factors in a sample are representative of those in the population. d. determine if the underlying dimensions of personality are causes or products of behavior.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 57. (Scenario 11.3) In explaining the dynamic unconscious to his introductory psychology students, Professor Carter likes to use the analogy of a car moving toward a destination. In this analogy, the id would function as: a. the engine. b. a GPS navigation system. c. the driver steering the car. d. a person in the passenger seat criticizing the driver's decisions.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 11.2 to answer the following question(s). Historically, psychologists have conceptualized personality in different ways. Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires operating largely outside of awareness. According to Freud, personality characteristics develop early in life, are fairly rigid, and describe behavior in a variety of situations. Like Freud, trait theorists such as Gordon Allport view traits as stable predispositions to behave in a variety of contexts. Unlike Freud, they do not believe that these traits are the products of unconscious desires. Humanists, such as Abraham Maslow, view individual personality differences as arising from the ways in which the environment facilitates or blocks the innate human tendency to reach our own potential. Behaviorists, such as B. F. Skinner, deny the existence of personality as a thing but rather conceptualize it as a mere summary term for a set of reliable behaviors that are reinforced in the presence of similar situations. Different situations, then, might give rise to different behaviors that might be diametrically opposed when labeled in terms of traits. Finally, the social–cognitive approach of Mischel views personality in terms of how people think and respond to the different situations encountered in daily life. In this approach, personality, learning history, and the situation interact to determine behavior, with the power of the situation often trumping the effects of personality. 58. (Scenario 11.2) Although their perspectives differ in fundamental ways, this pair of psychologists would be LEAST surprised that otherwise honest people would cheat on an exam if they believed others were doing it and no one would be caught. a. Allport and Freud b. Allport and Mischel c. Mischel and Skinner d. Skinner and Freud 59. (Scenario 11.2) The person–situation controversy focuses on the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or by the situation. Within this context, which psychologist was the STRONGEST advocate for the importance of the "person"? a. Maslow b. Allport c. Mischel d. Skinner 60. Self-verification involves taking credit for our successes. a. True b. False 61. Women tend to score higher than do men on the Big Five dimensions of agreeableness and neuroticism. a. True b. False

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 62. Agreeableness is one of the Big Five personality factors. a. True b. False 63. According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a person with food insecurity can nonetheless actively work toward self-actualization. a. True b. False 64. Eysenck's two dimensions of personality are extraversion and introversion. a. True b. False 65. Extraverts seek increased stimulation in part because their reticular formation is not easily stimulated. a. True b. False Use Scenario 11.2 to answer the following question(s). Historically, psychologists have conceptualized personality in different ways. Sigmund Freud's psychodynamic approach regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires operating largely outside of awareness. According to Freud, personality characteristics develop early in life, are fairly rigid, and describe behavior in a variety of situations. Like Freud, trait theorists such as Gordon Allport view traits as stable predispositions to behave in a variety of contexts. Unlike Freud, they do not believe that these traits are the products of unconscious desires. Humanists, such as Abraham Maslow, view individual personality differences as arising from the ways in which the environment facilitates or blocks the innate human tendency to reach our own potential. Behaviorists, such as B. F. Skinner, deny the existence of personality as a thing but rather conceptualize it as a mere summary term for a set of reliable behaviors that are reinforced in the presence of similar situations. Different situations, then, might give rise to different behaviors that might be diametrically opposed when labeled in terms of traits. Finally, the social–cognitive approach of Mischel views personality in terms of how people think and respond to the different situations encountered in daily life. In this approach, personality, learning history, and the situation interact to determine behavior, with the power of the situation often trumping the effects of personality. 66. (Scenario 11.2) Csikszentmihalyi (1990) argued that environments challenging enough to avoid boredom but manageable enough to not provoke anxiety create an experience of psychological flow that maximizes personality development. This view BEST represents a _____ approach. a. psychodynamic b. humanist c. behaviorist d. social–cognitive

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 67. Sensation seeking is one of the Big Five personality factors. a. True b. False 68. William James believed that personality can change considerably over the course of adulthood. a. True b. False 69. More than 80% of workers view their work as above average. a. True b. False Use Scenario 11.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 11.3 is based on the writings of Sigmund Freud and introduces material from the following publication. Freud, S. (1927). The problem of lay-analyses. Brentano, pp. 25–186. Students are often introduced to Sigmund Freud's conceptualization of the mind using the analogy of an iceberg. The portion of the iceberg floating on the surface of the water represents the conscious mind. It is observed when we introspect on our own thoughts, feelings, and subjective experiences. In contrast, we are largely unaware—or unconscious—of the dynamic processes that give rise to these conscious experiences. These processes are represented by the unseen and much larger portion of the iceberg floating beneath the surface. One component of this dynamic unconscious present at birth is the id, whose psychic energy motivates the mind toward actions that satisfy largely instinctive bodily wants and needs. Another component of the dynamic unconscious, which develops in the first few years of life, is the ego. Using the iceberg analogy, a portion of the ego floats above the water and is accessible to consciousness. The function of the ego is to interact with the external world in an attempt to pacify the id while dealing with the restrictions, objections, and punishers imposed by the external world on the base desires associated with the id. Finally, the last component of the dynamic unconscious to develop is the superego. The superego represents an internalization of moral ideals learned from parents and society. The superego attempts to influence the ego into behaving morally rather than pragmatically. Freud (1927) believed that a normally developed superego was a key to mental health, postulating that a dominant superego could chastise the ego like a strict parent, leading to guilt, anxiety, and a variety of neuroses. 70. (Scenario 11.3) According to Freud, the ego _____ the id by finding socially acceptable ways to _____. a. satisfies; increase the psychic energy that fuels it b. satisfies; reduce psychic energy arising from bodily needs c. denies; satisfy basic biological urges d. denies; accommodate the desires of the superego

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 71. Defense mechanisms are conscious strategies people employ to reduce anxiety. a. True b. False 72. More than half of the variability in personality among individuals results from genetic factors. a. True b. False 73. Without a self-narrative, most people with amnesia have no semblance of a self-concept. a. True b. False 74. Compare and contrast the trait approach with the humanistic–existential approach to personality.

75. Ben is friendly and outgoing but can become irrational and aggressive when things do not go his way. Ramona is quiet and has a few close friends. She tends to be thoughtful and deliberative when facing a problem. Using Eysenck's two-factor theory of personality, categorize the personalities of Ben and Ramona.

76. Describe three criticisms of the psychodynamic explanation of personality.

77. Outline and discuss the stages of psychosexual development.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 78. Define the person–situation controversy. Then explain why the social–cognitive approach to personality differs from trait theory.

79. It is the night before your psychology exam, and you are busy studying. The door opens and a group of your best friends walks in, hoping to entice you to go out with them for a few hours. What would Freud say is going on in your head as you debate whether to go with your friends or stay in and study? Include in your discussion the three systems of the mind and the way they interact in this mental debate.

80. What does OCEAN stand for? Describe behavioral tendencies associated with high and low levels of each trait.

81. You and your roommate have to move out of your apartment by the end of the month. A few days before you move out, your roommate comes home yelling about a "moron driver" who cut him off on the way home. He throws his backpack into his room and goes into the kitchen. You can hear him in the kitchen, slamming cabinet doors. Meanwhile, you curl up on your bed and pull up your soft, comforting blanket. You turn on cartoons and decide that a nap sounds like a fine idea. Identify and define the defense mechanisms that are being used by you and your roommate. Include in your discussion the purpose of defense mechanisms.

82. Describe a projective personality test. What are the drawbacks of this approach to measuring personality?

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 83. What is the difference between self-concept and self-esteem? Provide several benefits of having a high selfesteem.

84. Francis, Tayler, and Leslie are biological siblings, each separated by 2 years. Friends of their parents often ask them, "How did you raise kids with such wonderful personalities?" Discuss how trait psychologists and social– cognitive personality theorists would answer that question.

85. Amara and Yasmin are sophomore college students. Amara is feeling incredibly overwhelmed academically and is not performing well in her classes. Her academic problems are causing her a great deal of anxiety. Yasmin, on the other hand, feels incredibly bored in her classes. Although she finds the material easy, she isn't interested in it, rarely studies, and thus does not obtain the grades that she feels capable of earning. How might a humanistic psychologist explain the problems of these two students, and what advice might she give?

86. Professor Nolan is giving a presentation on the Big Five dimensions of personality. Help her outline these dimensions and then explain the research evidence suggesting that the Big Five personality dimensions are universal.

87. James is gay but is often filled with anxiety regarding his feelings because he was taught as a child that they were wrong. He also tries not to act on his feelings and has not told anyone about them. Describe how he might unconsciously employ the defense mechanisms of reaction formation and sublimation to shield himself from these feelings.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 88. Provide an example of a self-report inventory of personality. Discuss benefits and drawbacks of self-report approaches to the measure of personality.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. b 53. c 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. b 72. b 73. b 74. The answer should include the following information: (1) The trait approach describes personality in terms of a person's traits, or relatively stable dispositions to behave in particular and consistent ways. For example, the Big Five theory looks at five core traits a person does or does not have. These personality dimensions are assumed to be, in part, biologically determined and are causal factors in determining specific behaviors. (2) The humanistic– existential approach to personality focuses on how people make healthy choices that create their personalities. The ability to consider the future is a core feature of this approach. Humanistic psychologists emphasize a positive, optimistic view of human nature that spotlights a person's inherent goodness and potential for growth. Existential psychologists focus on the individual as a responsible agent who is free to create and live life while negotiating the issue of the meaning of life and the reality of death.

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 75. The answer should include the following information: (1) According to Eysenck, one dimension of personality ranges from sociable and active (extraverts) to introspective and quiet (introverts). A second dimension ranges from emotionally unstable or neurotic to emotionally stable. (2) Ben appears to be an extravert who has neurotic tendencies. Ramona appears to be introverted and emotionally stable. 76. The answer should include the following information: (1) Critics argue that psychodynamic explanations lack any real evidence. (2) The approach tends to focus on provocative after-the-fact interpretation rather than testable predictions. (3) The psychosexual stage theory offers a compelling set of story lines for interpreting lives once they have unfolded, but it has not generated clear-cut predictions supported by research. 77. The answer should include the following information: (1) Oral stage: first psychosexual stage, in which experience centers on the pleasures and frustrations associated with the mouth, sucking, and being fed. (2) Anal stage: second psychosexual stage, which is dominated by the pleasures and frustrations associated with the anus, retention and expulsion of feces and urine, and toilet training. (3) Phallic stage: third psychosexual stage, during which experience is dominated by the pleasure, conflict, and frustration associated with the phallic–genital region as well as powerful incestuous feelings of love, hate, jealousy, and conflict. (4) Latency stage: fourth psychosexual stage, in which the primary focus is on the further development of intellectual, creative, interpersonal, and athletic skills. (5) Genital stage: final psychosexual stage, a time for the coming together of the mature adult personality with a capacity to love, work, and relate to others in a mutually satisfying and reciprocal manner. 78. The answer should include the following information: (1) The person–situation controversy focuses on the question of whether behavior is caused more by personality or situational factors. (2) Classic trait theorists believe that personality traits are, in part, biologically determined and cause people to behave in the same way across situations and time. Walter Mischel, however, observed that personality traits are actually a poor predictor of specific behaviors. For example, students who cheat in an academic context might be completely trustworthy in another context. Social–cognitive theorists place more emphasis on the situation, and the personal interpretation of the situation, as a determinant of behavior than trait theorists do. 79. The answer should include the following information: (1) The three systems of the mind are the id, ego, and superego. (2) Id: The id is the most basic system; is present at birth; and is the source of bodily wants, needs, desires, and impulses. The id operates on the pleasure principle of immediate gratification: "You should go with your friends for a few hours. You can always get up early in the morning and study. You need a break." (3) Ego: The ego operates on the reality principle that helps us delay instant gratification and function effectively in the world. The ego is logical, makes good decisions, and helps us resist impulsive actions: "Maybe you could study for another couple of hours and join your friends later. As long as you don't overdo the beers, you'll still be in good shape to get up early for a last round of studying." (4) Superego: The superego is the conscious, the parental authority, provoking guilt if we do something wrong (or even think about doing something wrong) and rewarding us when we make good decisions: "You know you shouldn't go out—this test is too important. You must stay in and study tonight and probably get up early, too. It's time you took responsibility for your academic career. You know your parents would want you to study."

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 80. The answer should include the following information: (1) OCEAN stands for the Big Five personality dimensions of openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. People who are high in O are imaginative, are independent, and enjoy variety, while those low in O are down-to-earth, are conforming, and enjoy routine. Those high in C are organized, careful, and self-disciplined, whole those low in C are disorganized, careless, and weak-willed. Extraverts are social, fun-loving, and affectionate, while those low in E (introverts) are retiring, sober, and reserved. People who are high in A are softhearted, trusting, and helpful, and those low in A are ruthless, suspicious, and uncooperative. Finally, people high on the trait of neuroticism are worried, insecure, and self-pitying, whereas those low on N are calm, secure, and self-satisfied. 81. The answer should include the following information: (1) Displacement: Your roommate is using displacement, shifting unacceptable wishes or drives to a neutral or less threatening alternative (banging doors). (2) Regression: You are using regression, dealing with internal conflict and perceived threat by reverting to an immature behavior or earlier stage of development (seeking a soft blanket, curling up, watching cartoons). (3) The purpose of defense mechanisms is to help us overcome anxiety. 82. The answer should include the following information: An example of a projective personality test is the Rorschach Inkblot Test, a test in which individual interpretations of the meaning of a set of unstructured inkblots are analyzed to determine respondents' inner feelings and personality structure. Another example of a projective personality test is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). The TAT is a projective personality test in which respondents are shown ambiguous scenes of people and are asked to tell a story about what is happening in the picture. Some psychologists believe that the respondents' unconscious motives, their concerns, and the way they view the world will be projected onto the scene and reflected in their story. Projective personality tests remain controversial in psychology. Many consider them to be subjective interpretations of personality based on the theoretical biases of the examiner. They have not been found to be reliable and valid in predicting behavior. Nevertheless, they are useful as a means to get to know a respondent personally and intuitively. 83. The answer should include the following information: (1) Self-concept is a person's explicit knowledge of his or her own behaviors, traits, or other characteristics. (2) Self-esteem is the extent to which a person likes or values the self. (3) Benefits of having a high self-esteem include living a happier and healthier life and being better able to cope with stress. 84. The answer should include the following information: (1) Trait psychologists would say that core personality traits are to a large extent biologically determined. For example, identical twins have more similar personalities than do fraternal twins or siblings. Research suggests that the shared environment siblings are exposed to and parenting style have little impact on personality. As such, the fact that the three brothers have similar personalities is probably more attributable to shared genetics than to shared environments. (2) Social–cognitive personality theorists would point out that the parents arrange environments that interact with personality to determine behavior. Indeed, in many instances the situation overrules personality as a determinant of behavior. In this household, the parents may have simply established an environment in which the children behave themselves around adults!

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Chap 11_5e _ TF + Essay 85. The answer should include the following information: (1) Humanistic psychologists believe tasks that exactly match a person's abilities create an energized mental focus termed flow. Flow experiences lead to personal and professional growth. Tasks that are too challenging result in anxiety, and those that are too easy result in boredom. (2) Amara may not have the skill set that her courses require. A humanistic psychologist might guide Amara in reevaluating her academic and career goals. Perhaps she should change her major to a topic area that better suits her abilities. (3) Yasmin's academic problems stem from boredom. Yasmin should determine what academic topics she feels passionate about and then delve into coursework in these areas. 86. The answer should include the following information: (1) The Big Five personality dimensions are openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (2) Factor analysis techniques confirm that these five personality dimensions strike the right balance between accounting for as much variation in personality as possible while avoiding overlapping traits. (3) The same five factors of personality have emerged using varied assessments of personality, including behavioral observation, people's reports of their own personalities, people's reports of others' personalities, and interviewer checklists. (4) The same five factors appear in children, adults, and people in other cultures. 87. The answer should include the following information: (1) Reaction formation involves unconsciously replacing threatening inner wishes and fantasies with an exaggerated version of their opposite. In this case, James might become outwardly homophobic. (2) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable sexual or aggressive drives into socially acceptable and culturally enhancing activities. In this example, James might seek a career as a photographer to work with same-sex models or become a judge at beauty or bodybuilding competitions. 88. The answer should include the following information: An example of a self-report inventory is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI–2–RF). The MMPI–2–RF consists of more than 300 descriptive statements to which respondents answer true or false. The MMPI–2–RF measures general personality characteristics as well as tendencies toward clinical problems. Benefits of self-report inventories of personality include that they are easy to administer and score, and do not require subjective interpretation of the responses. These inventories also include validity scales that assess tendencies to distort the results by faking answers. One drawback is that many people have a tendency to respond in a socially desirable way, such that they underreport things that are unflattering or embarrassing. Additionally, there are many things we don't know about ourselves, and are therefore unable to report them.

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Chap 12_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. MOST males marry: a. for love. b. for reliable access to a sexual partner. c. because of enormous societal pressures. d. to have children. 2. _____ aggression occurs when the aggressor believes that the benefits outweigh the costs. a. Proactive b. Frustrative c. Reactive d. Premediated 3. Compared with mothers of unattractive children, mothers of attractive children are: a. more affectionate and playful with their children. b. more affectionate but less playful with their children. c. equally affectionate and playful with their children. d. more affectionate and playful with their children but only during infancy. 4. One reason women are more selective about their sexual partners than men is that: a. biological factors increase the physical costs of reproduction for women. b. women become more emotionally connected to their partner than men. c. women are generally looking for long-term relationships. d. they are worried about male aggression. 5. _____ is the ability to change or direct another person's behavior. a. Obedience b. Social influence c. Systematic persuasion d. Social behavior 6. Which example illustrates the use of "social norming" to reduce alcohol abuse on college campuses? a. increasing penalties for alcohol possession until it is the norm not to drink b. providing information to students about how much the average college student really drinks c. emphasizing that it is okay not to be "normal" and so to abstain from drinking at parties d. providing alcohol-free social events that compete with the drinking culture

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Chap 12_5e 7. Jumping onto subway tracks to save a stranger's life is an example of: a. genuine altruism. b. reciprocal altruism. c. deindividuation. d. normative influence. 8. Which factor is the BEST predictor of aggression? a. race b. socioeconomic status c. temperature d. gender 9. Tabari and Sam have been married for a long time. They are MOST likely to have: a. high cost–benefit ratios. b. high levels of passionate love. c. high levels of companionate love. d. low levels of similarity. 10. Police officers that received special training learned to: a. decide not to use stereotypes. b. keep stereotypes from influencing their behavior. c. change stereotypes from automatic to willed. d. cognitively restructure stereotypes. 11. In Milgram's classic study on obedience, the learners: a. were actually the true participants. b. were trained actors. c. received painful shocks. d. obeyed the teachers. 12. In the United States, the primary reason Southern men are more aggressive than are Northern men is that: a. Southern men have slightly higher baseline levels of testosterone than do Northern men. b. Southern men are taught to react aggressively to acquire resources based on previous learning experiences. c. Southern men are taught to react aggressively when they feel their status has been challenged. d. It is hotter in the South than it is in the North.

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Chap 12_5e 13. Intentional behavior that benefits another at a cost to oneself is termed: a. companionate love. b. reciprocal altruism. c. cooperation. d. altruism. 14. Which of these is NOT a cost of group membership? a. positive prejudice b. group polarization c. groupthink d. diffusion of responsibility 15. Which of these can identify automatic prejudices based on how easily people learn to associate two things? a. Thematic Apperception Test b. Implicit Association Test c. Differential Ability Scale d. Myers–Briggs Type Indicator 16. Research on predictors of online dating choices has found that physical attractiveness: a. is the only factor that predicts online dating choices in both men and women. b. is the only factor that predicts online dating choices in men but not women. c. wealth, and humor are the three best predictors of online dating choices in both men and women. d. intelligence, and wealth are the three best predictors of online dating choices in both men and women. 17. A _____ is a "rule of thumb." a. stereotype b. schematic c. heuristic d. norm 18. Which factor is a defining characteristic of companionate love? a. feeling of euphoria b. affection toward one another c. intense sexual attraction d. intimacy

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Chap 12_5e 19. Which of these aggressive acts is LEAST likely to be committed by a woman? a. intentionally leaving a friend out of social events b. starting a malicious rumor about another woman who is considered a romantic rival c. punching someone in the face after being insulted d. talking badly about someone behind his back 20. People are often not aware of the stereotypes they use, which BEST illustrates the fact that stereotypes often occur: a. unconsciously. b. reflexively. c. automatically. d. perceptually. 21. A married couple report a low degree of passionate love. Which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. They reside in a Western culture. b. They were recently married. c. They have a high chance of getting a divorce. d. They have been married for a long time. 22. Jason yells at a bank teller because of a mistake on his account. Observers are likely to think Jason is a rude, quarrelsome person. Jason, however, would probably attribute his angry outburst to the frustrating situation of waiting in line and dealing with a surly teller. This apparent contradiction illustrates: a. perceptual confirmation. b. the covariation model of attribution. c. the actor–observer effect. d. normative influence. 23. In a classic study, some participants were paid $1 for lying and telling another person that a boring task was fun, while others were paid $20 for doing the same thing. When participants later rated how enjoyable the boring task actually was: a. the $1 group rated the task as more enjoyable than did the $20 group. b. the $20 group rated the task as more enjoyable than did the $1 group. c. both groups gave the task equal ratings of extremely high enjoyability. d. both groups gave the task equal ratings of extremely low enjoyability. 24. Social psychology is: a. behavior that is meant to cause societal harm. b. the study of the causes and consequences of sociality. c. an evaluation of another person based on their social membership. d. the processes by which people come to understand others. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 25. The enduring piece of knowledge about an object or event is called a(n): a. norm. b. opinion. c. attitude. d. belief. 26. Research on the mere-exposure effect has shown that liking a person: a. increases with increased exposure to him or her. b. decreases with increased exposure to him or her. c. is determined in the first encounter; mere exposure will not change this phenomenon. d. is predicted primarily by gender; mere exposure will not change this phenomenon. 27. _____ can be described as instances of helping others who share similar genes. a. Genetic diffusion b. Genetic drift c. Kin selection d. Reciprocal altruism 28. To get people to do something, it is best to: a. threaten punishment if they do not do the action. b. get them to first express an attitude with which that action is consistent. c. make a large request first, then follow it up with a smaller request. d. remove any normative influences on the action. 29. _____ is the tendency to do what others do, and it results in part from _____. a. Conformity; normative influence b. Conformity; persuasion c. Obedience; normative influence d. Obedience; the actor–observer effect 30. Although Marcia no longer desires to have frequent sexual relations with her partner, she reports that she loves her even more now than when they first began a serious relationship. Which statement BEST accounts for Marcia's feelings? a. Passionate love has decreased, but companionate love has increased. b. Companionate love has decreased, but passionate love has increased. c. Passionate love has decreased, but companionate love has remained steady. d. Companionate love has decreased, but passionate love has remained steady.

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Chap 12_5e 31. The _____ occurs when an expected reward decreases a person's intrinsic motivation to perform a behavior. a. reactance effect b. overjustification effect c. fundamental attribution error d. hedonic motive 32. Stereotypes CANNOT be described by the adjective: a. inaccurate. b. overused. c. automatic. d. rehearsed. 33. In one study mentioned in the text, an attractive person approached opposite-sex strangers on a college campus and asked, "Would you go out with me?" What was the outcome? a. None of the women agreed to go out on the date. b. Men were considerably more likely than were women to agree to a date. c. Men and women were about equally likely to agree to a date. d. Women were considerably more likely than were men to agree to a date. 34. Which proverb BEST describes the research findings concerning attraction? a. Opposites attract. b. Every cloud has a silver lining. c. Birds of a feather flock together. d. Don't judge a book by its cover. 35. Research has confirmed that in the Milgram obedience studies, the reason teachers obeyed the experimenter and delivered what they believed were potentially lethal shocks to completely innocent learners was because of: a. the fear of punishment. b. normative pressure. c. the actor–observer effect. d. heuristic persuasion. 36. Although members hold differing views, a faculty committee quickly agrees on a new academic policy rather than debating it and possibly upsetting colleagues. This is an example of: a. group polarization. b. correspondence bias. c. deindividuation. d. groupthink.

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Chap 12_5e 37. Another term for behavioral confirmation is: a. subtyping. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. the actor–observer effect. d. correspondence bias. 38. Which couple would be considered MOST attractive overall? a. Brandon and Jaeden, who both have "baby faces" b. David and Stephanie, who both have mature faces c. Isabel, who has a "baby face," and Anthony, who has a mature face d. Megan, who has a mature face, and Steve, who has a "baby face" 39. Political candidates often vow to win your vote by using _____ but spend most of their time and money trying to win your vote by using _____. a. heuristic persuasion; systematic persuasion b. systematic persuasion; heuristic persuasion c. informational influence; normative influence d. informational influence; systematic persuasion 40. LaKiesha feels uncomfortable because she realizes that her recent behavior has been inconsistent with her beliefs. This is called: a. cognitive dissonance. b. the actor–observer effect. c. the self-fulfilling prophecy. d. deindividuation. 41. The foot-in-the-door technique works because of: a. reciprocal concessions. b. our desire for consistency. c. heuristic persuasion. d. systematic persuasion. 42. The tendency to make a dispositional attribution, even when a person's behavior was caused by the situation, is termed: a. the actor–observer effect. b. dispositional confirmation. c. correspondence bias. d. the fundamental disposition error.

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Chap 12_5e 43. Olivia is an ambitious heterosexual college-educated political activist who happens to lack a sense of humor. She is MOST likely to marry: a. Matthew, who is not college educated or as ambitious, and who hates comedies. b. Andrew, who is rather lazy and dropped out of college but is politically active and funny. c. David, a rather serious, ambitious, politically active college graduate. d. Jeremy, who is an ambitious college-educated political activist with a great sense of humor. 44. A person is more likely to help a stranger in an emergency situation when she is the only one there to provide help, relative to a situation where others also could potentially render aid. This phenomenon is termed: a. deindividuation. b. the bystander intervention effect. c. altruism. d. the common knowledge effect. 45. A person is more likely to help a stranger in an emergency situation when she is the only one there to provide help, relative to a situation where others also could potentially render aid. This bystander intervention effect is due to a more general phenomenon termed: a. the common knowledge effect. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. cooperation. d. groupthink. 46. Jermaine's parents decided to start rewarding him for good grades by paying him for each A he brought home. A year later, his parents stopped paying him to bring home good grades, and for the first time ever Jermaine felt little motivation to keep up with his studies. This is an example of the: a. reactance effect. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. overjustification effect. 47. When data analysis revealed to a professor that he unknowingly graded essays written by Black students slightly more critically than he did those written by White students, the professor adopted a new policy whereby he would grade all essays with no knowledge of who wrote them. Prior to this intervention, the professor was exhibiting a(n) _____ stereotype. a. unconscious and automatic b. subliminal and automatic c. unconscious and deliberate d. conscious yet automatic

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Chap 12_5e 48. Which statement about dispositional and situational causes of behavior is true? a. Dispositional causes of behavior are underreported. b. People find it difficult to use information about dispositional causes of behavior. c. Information about situations is hard to obtain. d. Situational attributions require less time and attention. 49. Aggression is MOST associated with which hormone? a. testosterone b. cortisol c. estrogen d. adrenaline 50. Which statement about companionate love is true? a. Companionate love has a rapid onset. b. Companionate love reaches its peak about a decade into a relationship. c. Companionate love grows slowly throughout a relationship. d. Companionate love begins to decrease when passionate love disappears. 51. Malik helps his friend, Elliott fix Elliott's car. Malik doesn't expect anything in return but believes that someday, when he needs help, Elliott will help him in return. Malik's behavior can be described as: a. kin selection. b. deindividuation. c. reciprocal altruism. d. genuine altruism. 52. Which "message card" would be MOST effective in influencing hotel guests to reuse their bathroom towels? a. "Seventy-five percent of our guests use their towels more than once." b. "Reusing your towel is friendly to the environment." c. "Reusing your towel helps management keep room costs down." d. "Reusing your towel saves 50 gallons of water." 53. When a person's behavior is guided by the behavior of those believed to know something about what is good or true, the person is acting according to _____ influence. a. informational b. educational c. heuristic d. normative

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Chap 12_5e 54. Even when participants are assigned to completely meaningless groups, it is highly likely that they will exhibit: a. group polarization within their own group. b. negative deindividuation directed toward the other group. c. preferential treatment to members of their own group. d. reciprocal altruism within their own group. 55. The mere-exposure effect suggests that one is likely to find people _____ the _____ time spent with them. a. slightly less attractive; more b. more attractive; more c. more attractive; less d. considerably more attractive; less 56. The most general solution to the problems of survival and reproduction for humans is: a. aggression. b. cooperation. c. attraction. d. sociality. 57. In one experiment, researchers showed subjects six lines of varying lengths. For some participants, the longest lines were labeled Group A and the shortest lines were labeled Group B. When participants were later asked to remember the lengths of the lines, participants who had seen the category labels: a. were unable to remember the lines. b. underestimated the variability of the lines that shared a label. c. overestimated the variability of the lines that shared a label. d. estimated the length of the lines as well as those who had not seen category labels. 58. Across all cultures, straight men tend to find women more attractive who: a. are younger than them. b. weigh less than them. c. have asymmetrical facial features. d. have waist measurements equal to their hip measurements. 59. In Asch's classic study of conformity, about _____ of the participants conformed and gave an obviously incorrect answer on at least one of the trials. a. 35% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90%

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Chap 12_5e 60. Studies using the Implicit Association Test have found that _____ of White participants have an easier time associating a Black face with a negative concept and a White face with a positive concept, than the other way around. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 70% 61. Which of these BEST demonstrates reactive aggression? a. Mitch wanted to taunt his little sister, Sally. He waited until she was gone to a friend's house, ensured that his parents weren't looking, then snuck into her room and cut the hair off of her favorite doll. b. Marvel was bored, so he decided to go outside and throw sticks at squirrels. c. For no reason, Michelle pushed her sister as she walked by. d. Jacques was playing a difficult video game. After trying to beat a difficult level for almost an hour, he threw his controller at the wall. 62. Researchers blindfolded participants and had them engage in everyday tasks in an effort to determine if such a perspective-taking exercise would modify their beliefs about individuals who are blind. After participants completed the tasks blindfolded, the researchers interviewed them and found that the participants: a. unexpectedly exhibited less empathy for blind persons. b. accurately predicted the abilities of blind persons but did not increase their empathy. c. had more empathy for but underestimated the abilities of blind persons. d. had more empathy for and overestimated the abilities of blind persons. 63. The risks associated with cooperation are BEST minimized by: a. belonging to a group. b. behaving dishonestly. c. identifying with the outgroup. d. expressing negative ingroup prejudices. 64. Your roommate, Jessica, wants you to major in psychology. If she is using heuristic persuasion, she might: a. list reasons psychology is a good major for you. b. explain how psychology applies to various career choices. c. tell you about all the famous people who were psychology majors. d. leave psychology textbooks lying around the room.

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Chap 12_5e 65. Jake, who has high testosterone levels, is likely to: a. secretly worry that he may not prevail in a confrontation. b. let it go and not get upset when someone challenges his social status. c. fail to notice that he has angered someone else. d. converse with people using indirect language. 66. Why does group membership make cooperation less risky? a. People who do not belong to the group tend to be dishonest. b. Group members can be trusted to favor each other. c. Groups divide resources equally among members. d. Group polarization ensures maximal benefits to members. 67. The defining feature of reactive aggression is that it is: a. frustrative in nature. b. planned intentionally in advance. c. caused by negative affect. d. planned and purposive. 68. Approximately how many American marriages end in divorce? a. more than one-third b. one-tenth c. half d. one-fifth 69. Students smile and listen attentively as Professor Lee delivers her lecture. They laugh at her jokes, and a few even applaud when she finishes. Based on the actor–observer effect, Professor Lee is MOST likely to think that: a. the course material was fascinating and that most professors would get the same reaction. b. the students are trying to suck up to her because she controls their grades. c. the students are conducting a social psychology experiment on her by pretending to be interested in the class. d. she is a superb lecturer. 70. After finding a defendant guilty, jurors deliberate as to how long a sentence to recommend. Although the average juror thinks that the crime merits 6 months in prison, after deliberation, the jury returns a sentencing recommendation of 2 years. This BEST describes: a. group polarization. b. conformity. c. groupthink. d. diffusion of responsibility. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 71. Which action does NOT illustrate a stereotype? a. giving up your seat for an elderly woman b. buying pink clothes for a newborn girl c. telling your psychology professor about a psychology book you just read d. asking your roommate to pick up his mess 72. Similarity is attractive for all these reasons EXCEPT: a. it's easy to interact with people who are similar to us. b. our attitudes and beliefs are validated. c. we expect similar people to like us for our values and beliefs. d. the more similarities people have, the longer they are likely to be together. 73. Belief is to attitude as _____ is to _____. a. evaluation; knowledge b. knowledge; persusion c. evaluation; change d. knowledge; evaluation 74. Which of these BEST demonstrates proactive aggression? a. Mitch wanted to taunt his little sister, Sally. He waited until she was gone to a friend's house, ensured that his parents weren't looking, then snuck into her room and cut the hair off of her favorite doll. b. Omar failed his English test and was grounded by his parents. He stormed off to his room, slammed the door, and screamed, "I hate you!" c. After Abby's boyfriend broke up with her, she posted embarrassing photos of him on social media for many of his classmates and friends to see. d. Jacques was playing a difficult video game. After trying to beat a difficult level for almost an hour, he threw his controller at the wall. 75. During deliberation on a complex new tax policy, lawmakers debate the merits of only the well-understood aspects of the policy rather than the important nuances understood only by the policy writers. This best describes: a. social loafing. b. conformity. c. the common knowledge effect. d. diffusion of responsibility.

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Chap 12_5e 76. Suppose that students were given two tests. Before the tests, students were told that men usually do better than women do on test A but not on test B. Which set of results would be predicted by the literature on stereotype threats? a. Women performed more poorly than men did on both tests. b. Women performed better than men did on test A but more poorly than men did on test B. c. Women performed better than men did on both tests. d. Women performed more poorly than men did on test A but did just as well as men did on test B. 77. Why do straight women tend to find older facial features attractive in men? a. These facial features are perceived as less threatening. b. These facial features are associated with increased fertility. c. These facial features are associated with resistance to disease. d. These facial features are associated with the ability to provide resources. 78. When we directly observe people, we can still end up with _____ beliefs about the groups to which they belong. a. accurate b. inaccurate c. confused d. irrelevant 79. Tamara would feel MOST dissatisfied with her marriage to Brandon if she: a. had invested a lot in the relationship already. b. perceived that both her own and Brandon's cost–benefit ratios are currently unfavorable. c. felt that a relationship with Brandon is the best that she can do. d. believed she could find a better partner and they are newlyweds. 80. Five hundred members of group A and 50 members of group B live in a community together. Four hundred members of group A and 40 members of group B routinely engage in acts benefiting the community. One hundred members of group A and 10 members of group B routinely engage in criminal acts. Which occurrence will MOST likely be remembered? a. one member of group A engaging in a beneficial act b. one member of group A engaging in a criminal act c. one member of group B engaging in a beneficial act d. one member of group B engaging in a criminal act

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Chap 12_5e 81. Stereotypes often cannot be avoided, even if we try to correct for them, because they happen: a. consciously. b. subconsciously. c. automatically. d. perceptually. 82. Senior psychology majors listened to a speaker who promoted funding a cutting-edge neuroscience lab that would be available for student use within the next 5 years. According to research on persuasion, these seniors would be MOST influenced by: a. the status of the speaker. b. the strength of the facts. c. their relative level of excitement about the neuroscience lab. d. their personal cost–benefit analysis of the necessity for the neuroscience lab. 83. Which technique was effective at reducing heavy drinking at the Northern Illinois University campus? a. banning sororities and fraternities, whose members tended to drink more heavily b. informing students that most of their peers drink moderately c. enforcing strict penalties and fines for alcohol consumption on campus d. informing students about the dangers of heavy drinking 84. Researchers asked groups of European, Latino, and Asian American students if they would be more irritated if they had to give up their parking card to another student for a week or if the entire parking lot was closed for a week. The researchers found that: a. all groups of students reported that giving up their parking card was more irritating. b. all groups of students reported that the parking lot closing was more irritating. c. European Americans reported that the parking lot closing was more irritating. d. Latino and Asian Americans reported that the parking lot closing was more irritating. 85. Ingroup favoritism is an example of a: a. positive prejudice. b. negative prejudice. c. risky consequence of cooperation. d. consequence of conformity. 86. The _____ motive states that people are motivated to be accepted and to avoid being rejected. a. hedonic b. ingroup c. belonging d. approval

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Chap 12_5e 87. The negative affective states commonly associated with reactive aggression are: a. pain and anger. b. anxiety and panic. c. anxiety and depression. d. hunger and stress. 88. Groups usually do NOT capitalize fully on the _____ of their members. a. status b. common knowledge c. expertise d. talkativeness 89. _____ the variability within categories of people leads us to _____ how useful our stereotypes about those categories will be. a. Overestimating; overestimate b. Overestimating; underestimate c. Underestimating; overestimate d. Underestimating; underestimate 90. Whether a person considers a particular cost–benefit ratio to be favorable depends at least partially on: a. whether their partner also has a favorable cost–benefit ratio. b. whether a person believes his partner could do better in a different relationship. c. how much has already been invested in the relationship. d. having a cost–benefit ratio that favors oneself early in the relationship and the partner later in the relationship. 91. In the prisoner's dilemma, what strategy results in the largest penalty? a. confessing when the other player also confesses b. confessing when the other player does not confess c. not confessing when the other player confesses d. not confessing when the other player also does not confess 92. Which man is likely to be judged MOST attractive? a. Jacob, whose face and body show slight bilateral asymmetry b. Ethan, whose face and body show bilateral symmetry c. Joshua, whose face shows slight bilateral asymmetry but whose body is bilaterally symmetrical d. Daniel, whose face is bilaterally symmetrical but whose body is slightly bilaterally asymmetrical

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Chap 12_5e 93. Women are MOST likely to engage in _____ aggression. a. spontaneous b. reactive c. proactive d. physical 94. Isabel was voted the "Most Beautiful" in her high school graduating class. Compared with her peers, Isabel also is likely to: a. have more friends than are her less-attractive peers. b. have fewer dates because boys are afraid of being turned down if they ask her out. c. engage in less sex because she is highly selective of her sexual partners. d. earn less money over the course of her career. 95. Coach Perez believes that Ashley's record for strikeouts in one game was due more to the other team's lack of talent than it was to Ashley's ability. This type of attribution is called: a. distinctive. b. situational. c. inferential. d. dispositional. 96. Print ads for cars are more likely to present a lot of facts about the car, whereas print ads for clothing typically show an attractive model. The car manufacturers are relying on _____ persuasion. a. systematic b. heuristic c. hedonic d. automotive 97. Among seahorses, the male carries the young. How does this affect mate selectivity? a. Male seahorses are more selective than are females. b. Male and female seahorses are equally selective. c. Male seahorses become more selective once pregnant. d. Female seahorses are nevertheless more selective than are males. 98. _____ occurs when another person's behavior provides information about what is appropriate. a. The norm of reciprocity b. Normative influence c. Heuristic persuasion d. Diffusion of responsibility

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Chap 12_5e 99. The importance of physical appearance in attraction: a. increases for females relative to males as a relationship develops. b. is more important for males than females at the beginning of a relationship. c. is more important for females than males at the beginning of a relationship. d. fades more quickly over time for females relative to males. 100. Instead of leaving $1 in a singer's tip jar, Kyle feels obligated to drop in at least $5 because the jar is full of $5 and $10 bills. His decision to spend more than what he otherwise would is due to: a. the norm of reciprocity. b. systematic persuasion. c. obedience. d. normative influence. 101. On September 11, 2001, in the immediate aftermath of the terrorist attack on the World Trade Center, everyday people headed toward Ground Zero to provide assistance to victims whom they did not know, expecting nothing in return. This is an example of: a. genuine altruism. b. reciprocal altruism. c. deindividuation. d. normative influence. 102. The decision to pay your taxes and hope that everyone else does likewise to achieve a common benefit is MOST closely related to the: a. foot-in-the-door technique. b. heuristic persuasion technique. c. prisoner's dilemma. d. ultimatum game. 103. Aggression that is planned and purposeful is termed _____ aggression. a. calibrated b. proactive c. reactive d. frustrative 104. Relative to men, women are _____ likely to engage in verbal aggression and _____ likely to engage in aggression that causes social harm. a. more; more b. equally; more c. less; more d. less; equally Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 105. The enduring positive or negative evaluation of a stimulus is called a(n): a. belief. b. norm. c. attitude. d. opinion. 106. Two general tactics that humans have developed to gain access to resources are: a. helping and hurting. b. isolation and cooperation. c. conformity and nonconformity. d. attraction and persuasion. 107. Which of these is the most effective way to gain more resources? a. cooperation b. aggression c. altruism d. reciprocity 108. The prisoner's dilemma is a metaphor for the: a. potential costs and benefits of cooperation in everyday life. b. potential consequences of behaving unfairly in everyday life. c. groupthink that often results from ingroup collaboration. d. obedience to authority often observed in prison environments. 109. Which statement does NOT present a characteristic of people considered to be beautiful? a. They earn more money. b. They have better social skills. c. They are more intelligent. d. They have more sex. 110. Studies using the Implicit Association Test have found that _____ of African American participants have an easier time associating a Black face with a negative concept and a White face with a positive concept, than the other way around. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 70%

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Chap 12_5e 111. People are motivated to evaluate the consistency of their beliefs because doing so: a. makes it less likely that they will fall victim to the foot-in-the-door technique. b. makes it less likely that they will fall victim to the door-in-the-face technique. c. is a means of avoiding the self-fulfilling prophecy. d. is a means of evaluating the accuracy of new beliefs. 112. The tendency to do what authorities tell us to do it is known as: a. persuasion. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. conformity. d. obedience. 113. The main reason humans are one of the few species to have long, committed relationships is that: a. human infants are born before they are fully developed and thus need a lot of care. b. we are the most socially complex of all species and thus need a partner to help us perform many socially important tasks. c. the stability of a monogamous relationship allows us to focus on our jobs and careers. d. societal pressures to choose and remain with a mate are enormous. 114. Political candidates are eager for endorsements from movie stars and famous athletes, knowing that these endorsements will evoke emotional arousal and influence people to vote for them. This technique is termed _____ persuasion. a. systematic b. rational c. celebrity d. heuristic 115. The Inuit people of the Canadian Artic primarily resolve conflicts with: a. guns and knives. b. hunting competitions. c. wrestling matches. d. song contests. 116. The _____ suggests that people behave aggressively when their goals are thwarted. a. frustration–aggression hypothesis b. common knowledge effect c. bystander intervention theory d. cognitive dissonance theory

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Chap 12_5e 117. Which statement accurately summarizes the literature on proximity and attraction? a. Familiarity breeds contempt. b. Familiarity breeds contempt among males but not females. c. Familiarity breeds liking. d. Familiarity breeds liking among males but not females. 118. People are MOST likely to show: a. ingroup favoritism. b. outgroup favoritism. c. ingroup negative prejudice. d. outgroup negative prejudice. 119. People in a mob situation are more likely to stray from their own moral values, illustrating the phenomenon of: a. prejudice. b. diffusion of responsibility. c. deindividuation. d. conformity. 120. Systems of rewards and punishment can backfire because: a. most people reject the theoretical views of the behaviorists. b. the effectiveness of rewards has been validated only in animal models. c. people do not like to feel coerced. d. rewards and punishers tend to cancel out the effectiveness of the other. 121. Membership to groups minimizes the risks associated with: a. deindividuation. b. prejudice. c. groupthink. d. cooperation. 122. When their social status is challenged, men with _____ levels of self-esteem are most likely to aggress. a. unusually low b. lower than average c. above average d. unusually high

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Chap 12_5e 123. Shannon is a shy, quiet college student. However, when she sits in the student section at university basketball games, she cheers and yells whenever her team scores. Shannon's behavior at the game BEST illustrates the phenomenon of: a. group polarization. b. deindividuation. c. informational influence. d. diffusion of responsibility. 124. The MOST basic of motives is: a. reproducing. b. pair bonding. c. social approval. d. pleasure seeking. 125. What percentage of Milgram's teachers delivered the highest possible voltage to the learner? a. 38% b. 50% c. 62% d. 88% 126. People are more likely to make dispositional attributions about their behavior when they: a. are mindful of the causes of their behavior. b. are placed in powerful situations. c. compare themselves to others. d. watch themselves behave on video. 127. Across all cultures, straight women tend to find men more attractive who: a. have a rectangle-shaped body type. b. weigh less than them. c. have asymmetrical facial features. d. are older than them. 128. During jury deliberations, 10 jurors are in favor of returning a guilty verdict. Although the remaining 2 jurors have reasonable doubts as to the guilt of the defendant, they decide to also render a guilty vote in an effort to reach consensus and avoid argumentation. This BEST describes: a. group polarization. b. obedience. c. groupthink. d. diffusion of responsibility.

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Chap 12_5e 129. Print ads for cars are more likely to present a lot of facts about the car, whereas print ads for clothing typically show an attractive model. The clothing manufacturers are relying on _____ persuasion. a. systematic b. heuristic c. hedonic d. automotive 130. Aggression is defined as behavior that is meant to: a. use physical violence. b. impulsively take something from another person. c. harm another. d. take premeditated action to achieve a goal. 131. Elizabeth, a reasonably attractive, smart heterosexual college student is MOST likely to find herself psychologically attracted to: a. Kevin, the brightest student at Elizabeth's college. b. Mark, an extraordinary track star at the school. c. Nicholas, the fun-loving president of the most popular fraternity on campus. d. Joe, a fairly good-looking and smart graduate student. 132. Which statement does NOT present a reason we find similarity with a potential mate attractive? a. It is easier to interact with a similar person. b. Similarity is associated with an increased probability of reproductive success. c. It is more likely that our attitudes and beliefs will be justified. d. It is more likely that we will be liked by similar people. 133. Aggression that occurs spontaneously in response to a negative affective state is termed _____ aggression. a. calibrated b. proactive c. reactive d. passive 134. Samantha is a 1st-year college student living on the ninth floor of a residence hall. By the end of the year, she is MOST likely to be friends with: a. Natalie, a stunning-looking student who lives on the second floor. b. Melissa, an outgoing, popular student who lives in the next building. c. Jenny, the captain of the softball team, who lives in a residence hall for athletes. d. Michelle, an average student who lives in the room next to Samantha's.

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Chap 12_5e 135. The process by which people draw inferences about others based on their knowledge of the categories to which others belong is known as: a. stereotyping. b. prejudice. c. discrimination. d. the mere exposure effect. 136. Which statement about stereotypes is FALSE? a. People may have stereotypes and not even realize it. b. People cannot simply decide not to be influenced by a stereotype. c. People often take notice of events that confirm their stereotypes. d. The undesirable consequences of stereotypes are inevitable. 137. The tendency to make situational attributions for one's own behaviors while making dispositional attributions for the identical behavior of others is called: a. the actor–observer effect. b. cognitive dissonance. c. correspondence bias. d. perceptual confirmation. 138. Women are _____ selective than are men in choosing sexual partners because the costs of reproduction are _____ for women. a. less; lower b. less; higher c. more; higher d. more; lower 139. The ability to change or direct another person's behavior is termed: a. obedience. b. social influence. c. systematic persuasion. d. social behavior. 140. In the prisoner's dilemma, what strategy will produce the greatest individual benefit? a. confessing when the other player also confesses b. confessing when the other player does not confess c. not confessing when the other player confesses d. not confessing when the other player also does not confess

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Chap 12_5e 141. When a vacuum cleaner salesman persuades a potential customer to let him vacuum the living room for free, he is likely to increase his chances that he will make a sale. The salesman is using the _____ technique. a. door-in-the-face b. face-in-the-door c. foot-in-the-mouth d. foot-in-the-door 142. Why do straight men tend to find younger facial features attractive in women? a. These facial features are perceived as less threatening. b. These facial features are associated with increased fertility. c. These facial features are perceived as happy. d. These facial features are perceived as vulnerable. 143. Yasmine took her cousin Jade out to lunch and picked up the tab. Jade said, "Thanks. I'll pay next time." Jade's response demonstrates what principle? a. foot-in-the-door technique b. conformity c. altruism d. norm of reciprocity 144. Students who are new to a college campus may learn about appropriate behavior on campus by watching students who have attended classes on that campus before. This is an example of: a. informational influence. b. obedience. c. the actor–observer effect. d. perceptual confirmation. 145. Customary standards for behavior that are widely shared by members of a culture are called: a. attitudes. b. laws. c. norms. d. stereotypes. 146. Among the BEST predictors of the number of responses a personal ad will receive are a woman's _____ and a man's _____. a. height; weight b. weight; height c. age; perceived wealth d. perceived wealth; age

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Chap 12_5e 147. The rate of murder in the United States is _____ than that of Canada. a. two times lower b. five times lower c. ten times higher d. three times higher 148. Testosterone levels are usually the highest in: a. old men. b. old women. c. young men. d. young women. 149. The act of putting people into categories results in: a. underestimating the variability within the categories. b. overestimating the variability within the categories. c. noticing the uniqueness of each person in the categories. d. underestimating the differences between categories. 150. When Jimmy was growing up, his parents frequently told him he was "no good" and wouldn't amount to anything. Jimmy grew up to be a bitter, angry, destructive adult. His parents said, "We always knew this would happen." This result is an example of: a. correspondence bias. b. the actor–observer effect. c. deindividuation. d. behavioral confirmation. 151. In the United States, men raised in the North are more likely to resolve conflicts by: a. appealing to authority. b. inflicting social harm. c. proactive rather than reactive aggression. d. physical altercation. 152. Genuine altruism has been observed in: a. a variety of animals. b. humans and dogs. c. humans and other primates. d. humans only.

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Chap 12_5e 153. Research on aggression in Southern and Northern men in the United States suggests that: a. Southerners are more aggressive when insulted but otherwise more polite. b. Southerners are more polite and not aggressive when insulted. c. Northerners are more aggressive when insulted but otherwise more polite. d. Northerners are less polite and more aggressive when insulted. 154. Social behavior has evolved primarily: a. as a means to consolidate resources in the hands of the most genetically fit. b. as a by-product of evolutionary increases in prefrontal cortex volume. c. because it aids in survival and reproduction. d. in species with language capacities. 155. Which technique has been shown to be effective at reducing the negative automatic stereotypes related to African Americans? a. empathy training b. perspective-taking exercises c. reading stories of African Americans who defy stereotypes d. thinking about people's common humanity 156. Which of these is the simplest way to solve the problem of scarce resources? a. cooperation b. aggression c. altruism d. reciprocity 157. One of the dangers of groupthink is the group's tendency to: a. overthink all the possible options and delay the decision-making process. b. come up with too many solutions to a problem in an effort to reflect the unique knowledge of each of its members. c. be unable to come up with a solution due to the bystander effect. d. sacrifice the soundness of a decision to achieve interpersonal harmony. 158. Andre is a heterosexual male creating an online dating profile. To maximize his dating opportunities, he should: a. list his height as less than it actually is. b. provide his income and current job. c. make sure to use an attractive photo. d. mention that he's empathetic.

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Chap 12_5e 159. Unlike most animals, humans act: a. aggressively. b. purposively. c. socially. d. in ways to attract a mate. 160. Research indicates that people are MOST likely to pay attention when a member of the: a. majority commits a good but common act. b. minority commits a good but common act. c. majority commits a bad and uncommon act. d. minority commits a bad and uncommon act. 161. Which of these makes children behave more aggressively and less cooperatively? a. having divorced parents b. being an only child c. having a large friend group d. playing violent video games 162. Which action BEST illustrates genuine altruism? a. donating a kidney to save your brother's life b. making an anonymous donation to a charity c. paying back the person who loaned you money last week d. buying your significant other an expensive gift 163. When students were not motivated to analyze arguments by a Princeton professor or a high school student because they would be personally affected by them, their attitudes were more influenced by: a. the Princeton professor. b. the high school student. c. whichever person gave the strongest argument. d. whichever person gave the shortest argument. 164. A technique that involves making a small request and then following it with a larger request is known as the _____ technique. a. door-in-the-face b. face-in-the-door c. foot-in-the-mouth d. foot-in-the-door

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Chap 12_5e 165. A government that attempts to control the behavior of a rival nation by using the "carrot and stick" method, in which desirable actions are incentivized and undesirable actions produce undesirable economic sanctions, is exploiting the _____ motive. a. approval b. accuracy c. social exchange d. hedonic 166. Although Alexander is careful to treat all his employees fairly, he secretly feels that those who graduated from his business school are more competent than are those who graduated from rival schools. This example illustrates: a. conformity. b. prejudice. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. deindividuation. 167. Tisha is a recent graduate of Green High School who plans to study biology in college. Which of these people is she MOST likely to be positively prejudiced toward? a. Terra, a recent grad from Green High School b. Tania, who currently attends Green High School's closest rival c. Terrence, a junior English major at a nearby college d. Tia, who is foregoing college to enter the workforce full time 168. People tend to write graffiti underneath signs that threaten punishment for writing graffiti. This is an example of: a. reactance. b. correspondence bias. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the overjustification effect. 169. Faces of both sexes are judged to be more attractive when they have features that are: a. immature. b. slightly asymmetrical. c. symmetrical. d. considered somewhat unique.

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Chap 12_5e 170. Evaluating other people positively or negatively based on their group membership illustrates: a. discrimination. b. prejudice. c. group polarization. d. hypothesis-confirming bias. 171. Coach Perez believes that Ashley's blazing fastball and wicked curveball resulted in her having the best win– loss record of any pitcher in her softball league this season. This type of attribution is called: a. distinctive. b. situational. c. inferential. d. dispositional. 172. People do nice things for others all the time. The reason most of these actions are NOT considered altruistic is that: a. the persons involved are biologically related. b. the persons involved are not biologically related. c. there are hidden benefits for those behaving nicely. d. behaving nicely at a cost to oneself is rarely intentional. 173. Proactive aggression is to reactive aggression as _____ is to _____. a. relevant target; irrelevant target b. spontaneous; planned c. irrelevant target; relevant target d. neutral target; planned target 174. When students were highly motivated to analyze arguments by a Princeton professor or a high school student because they would be personally affected by them, their attitudes were more influenced by: a. the Princeton professor. b. the high school student. c. whichever person gave the strongest argument. d. whichever person used heuristic persuasion techniques. 175. In the Milgram obedience studies, _____ of participants delivered the highest possible voltage to the learner. a. 18% b. 45% c. 62% d. 94%

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Chap 12_5e 176. Which factor is a defining characteristic of passionate love? a. affection toward one another b. intimacy c. mutual trust d. concern about one another 177. People are more likely to leave bigger tips if the server gives them a piece of candy with their bill due to: a. the foot-in-the-door technique. b. the norm of reciprocity. c. systematic persuasion. d. the door-in-the-face technique. 178. A married couple report a high degree of passionate love. Which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. They reside in a Western culture. b. They were recently married. c. They have a below average chance of getting a divorce. d. They have an above average chance of having more than two children. 179. Professor Rose, who believes that women are innately unsuited for science, is much more likely to notice the mistakes of his female lab assistants than the mistakes of his male lab assistants. His behavior is an example of: a. behavioral confirmation. b. the self-fulfilling prophecy. c. perceptual confirmation. d. the actor–observer effect. 180. Police officers received specialized training to reduce the effects of stereotypes on their job performance. Then they were shown pictures for less than 1 second of White and Black men carrying either guns or cameras. The officers were instructed to "shoot" the men carrying guns by pressing a button. Compared with officers who did not receive the specialized training, the officers who did receive the training: a. nevertheless shot just as many Black men carrying cameras, despite reporting that they actively tried to suppress their stereotype. b. were less likely to shoot Black men carrying cameras, although it still took longer to determine that the held object was a camera if the suspect was Black relative to White. c. quickly discriminated guns versus cameras for both races and were less likely to shoot either race carrying cameras. d. shot more White men carrying cameras than they did Black men carrying cameras, indicating overcompensation.

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Chap 12_5e 181. People who play violent video games are likely to behave _____ aggressively and _____ cooperatively. a. less; less b. more; less c. less; more d. more; more 182. Which action does NOT illustrate a stereotype? a. asking a tall man if he plays basketball b. asking a child which school she goes to c. offering a classmate a piece of candy d. asking a college student to explain how to use social media 183. Which statement about aggression by women is true? a. Women are more likely than are men to aggress by causing social harm. b. Aggression by women tends to be more impulsive than it is premeditated. c. Aggression by women is more likely to be reactive than proactive. d. Women are more likely than are men to engage in verbal aggression. 184. The tendency of people to see what they expect to see is termed: a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. perceptual confirmation. c. behavioral confirmation. d. subtyping. 185. When stores mark books with a sticker that notes "Best Seller," they are attempting to use _____ to sell more books. a. heuristics b. informational influence c. group norms d. the norm of reciprocity 186. An example of perceptual confirmation is judging which of these persons as performing above average? a. an Asian American who is reciting poetry b. a senator performing stand-up comedy c. a Latino who is ballroom dancing d. an African American lawyer arguing before a court

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Chap 12_5e 187. Research on facial preference indicates that people _____ mirror-reversed facial images of themselves _____ others. a. prefer; and b. prefer; but not c. dislike; and d. dislike; but not 188. Professor Anderson believes that Mary's failing grade on her most recent examination was due to her having three other exams that day. Professor Anderson is making a(n) _____ attribution. a. distinctive b. situational c. inferential d. dispositional 189. _____ is the unpleasant state that arises when people recognize the inconsistency of their actions, attitudes, or beliefs. a. Cognitive dissonance b. The actor–observer effect c. The self-fulfilling prophecy d. Deindividuation 190. A _____ mob with a _____ number of victims causes more atrocious crimes. a. small; small b. small; large c. large; small d. large; large 191. Katelyn tells her friends that her father won't let her go with them to the movies. She explains that his overly protective behavior is the result of a bad week at work. This is an example of: a. an attribution. b. a disposition. c. cognitive dissonance. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy. 192. A serial killer stalks a potential victim for weeks, attacking only when it is least likely that he will be caught. This demonstrates _____ aggression. a. passive b. frustrative c. proactive d. reactive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 193. Three-quarters of all murders can be classified as: a. financially motivated. b. status competitions. c. random in nature. d. sexually motivated. 194. In choosing sexual and reproductive partners: a. women are more selective than are men. b. men are more selective than are women. c. both sexes are equally selective. d. culture largely determines which sex is more selective. 195. Campbell is a 5th-grade teacher who wishes to reduce the undesirable effects of negative stereotypes against African Americans. Which strategy would be MOST effective? a. providing his students with examples of African Americans who defy stereotypes b. providing empathy training to his students c. teaching about racial injustice d. leading a discussion with his students about people's common humanity 196. Which man is MOST likely to be aggressive? a. a younger man with very low self-esteem b. a younger man with unrealistically high self-esteem c. an older man with very low self-esteem d. an older man with unrealistically high self-esteem 197. Amiri's children regularly help around the house, so she decides to pay them for their hard work. After a few weeks of paying her children to do chores, the children are no longer as enthusiastic about doing the chores. This is likely due to the: a. reactance effect. b. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. fundamental attribution error. d. overjustification effect. 198. Research indicates that men given _____ and shown threatening facial images are _____ likely to recognize them as such. a. norepinephrine; more b. norepinephrine; less c. testosterone; more d. testosterone; less

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Chap 12_5e 199. When in a group, people's attention is drawn toward _____ and away from _____. a. opinions; facts b. experts; nonexperts c. others; themselves d. cooperation; aggression 200. A salesperson who tells a car buyer that most people pay the extra money to purchase an extended warranty is making use of: a. normative influence. b. informational influence. c. reactance. d. cognitive dissonance. 201. Once we recognize that a stereotype is inaccurate: a. we quickly correct the stereotype. b. we continue to purposefully use it anyway. c. the stereotype is still used unconsciously and automatically. d. we can decide whether to use it in any given situation. 202. When Massachusetts increased the penalty for speeding by teenage drivers, this appeal to the _____ motive actually _____. a. hedonic; worked and saved lives b. hedonic; backfired and increased traffic fatalities c. approval; worked and saved lives d. approval; backfired and increased traffic fatalities 203. Which factor is NOT a cost of mating for females? a. increased risk of illness b. increased risk of death c. increased opportunities for reproductive partners d. loss of an egg cell with each pregnancy 204. What did the experimenter in the Milgram obedience studies do to get the participants to continue shocking the learner? a. offered them a monetary reward b. threatened to lower their grade in their psychology class c. calmly instructed the participants to continue d. told them all the previous participants had performed the task

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Chap 12_5e 205. Which statement about the biological determinants of mate selectivity is FALSE? a. There are considerable physical costs associated with conception for both sexes. b. Pregnancy puts a woman at a greater risk of illness and death. c. For men, the ability to conceive a child tomorrow is not inhibited by conceiving one today. d. Females have very few egg cells relative to males' sperm cells. 206. Compared to less attractive people, physically attractive people: a. earn 10% more money over the course of their lives. b. receive less affection from their mothers. c. receive fewer responses to their online dating ads. d. show less preference for their reversed image. 207. Which statement about the relationship between testosterone and aggression is NOT supported by psychological research? a. Testosterone makes people feel more powerful. b. Testosterone decreases people's confidence that they will prevail in an altercation. c. Testosterone decreases people's sensitivity to threatening facial expressions. d. Testosterone causes men to feel more sensitive to provocations. 208. Owen and Colt were playing when Owen became angry. Owen wanted to play with a toy that Colt had, so he pushed Colt over and ripped the toy from Colt's hands. In the frustration–aggression hypothesis, which of these is functioning as the frustration? a. Owen's anger b. Owen's behavior of ripping the toy out of Colt's hand c. Colt having a toy that Owen wanted d. Owen's behavior of pushing Colt over 209. The first time she watched The Bachelor, Tonia was unimpressed with one particular contestant named Lucy. However, after watching several episodes of the show, Tonia reported liking Lucy. This change in attitude is MOST likely due to: a. cognitive dissonance. b. the mere exposure effect. c. perceptual confirmation. d. the self-fulfilling prophecy.

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Chap 12_5e 210. Selena and Haley go to a party on Thursday night and then each does very poorly on her calculus test the next morning. According to the actor–observer effect, Selena is more likely to attribute her own performance to _____ and Haley's performance to _____. a. not studying; sleep deprivation b. drinking too much alcohol; not studying c. her own stupidity; not studying d. sleep deprivation; being poor at math 211. Stereotypes often cannot be avoided because they happen: a. unconsciously. b. subconsciously. c. deliberately. d. perceptually. 212. _____ aggression occurs even when the costs outweigh the benefits. a. Proactive b. Frustrative c. Reactive d. Premediated 213. The tendency for group discussions to focus on information that all members share is known as: a. the diffusion of responsibility. b. the common knowledge effect. c. groupthink. d. deindividuation. 214. Which type of motive is NOT one of the basic motives that makes a person susceptible to social influence? a. hedonic b. approval c. accuracy d. equity 215. Which of these couples are LEAST likely to get divorced? a. Adam and Laura, who got married last year b. Wilson and Margaret, who have been married for 50 years c. Mohammad and Mira, who demonstrate more passionate love than compassionate love d. Tom and Barb, whose relationship does not have equity

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Chap 12_5e 216. When selecting a sexual partner has major consequences: a. women, but not men, become more selective in their partner selection. b. men, but not women, become more selective in their partner selection. c. women and men both become less selective in their partner selection. d. women and men are both more selective in their partner selection. 217. _____ is the process by which people draw inferences about individuals based on their category membership. a. Stereotyping b. Prejudice c. Discrimination d. The mere exposure effect 218. A government that institutes tax breaks for individuals who drive fuel-efficient cars is appealing to the _____ motive. a. hedonic b. normative c. social exchange d. approval 219. Which factor is a defining characteristic of companionate love? a. feeling of euphoria b. intimacy c. intense sexual attraction d. mutual trust 220. Which statement about stereotypes is FALSE? a. They can be inaccurate. b. They are not useful. c. They are often automatic. d. They can be self-perpetuating. 221. Behavior by two or more individuals that leads to mutual benefit is called: a. reciprocity. b. altruism. c. social exchange. d. cooperation.

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Chap 12_5e 222. Which factor is a defining characteristic of passionate love? a. feeling of euphoria b. affection toward one another c. mutual trust d. concern about one another 223. Which action BEST illustrates reciprocal altruism? a. donating a kidney to save a life b. making a large donation to a charity in a deceased family member's name c. paying back the person who loaned you money last week to avoid conflict d. donating large sums of money to a political candidate in order to garner influence 224. The _____ motive states that people are motivated to seek pleasure and avoid pain. a. hedonic b. animalistic c. fundamental d. approval 225. In one study mentioned in the text, an attractive person approached opposite-sex strangers on a college campus and asked, "Would you go to bed with me?" What was the outcome? a. Every man said, "Yes." b. Every woman said, "No." c. About 40% of men said, "Yes." d. About 25% of women said, "Yes." 226. Inferences about the causes of people's behavior are termed: a. attributions. b. stereotypes. c. deductions. d. inductions. 227. Jamie created a large Ponzi scheme. He convinced investors to give him money for a nonexistent enterprise and stole millions of dollars from the investors, knowing that this scheme would harm people. This behavior is referred to as: a. prejudice. b. deindividuation. c. aggression. d. cognitive dissonance.

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Chap 12_5e 228. The study of the causes and consequences of sociality is called: a. social influence. b. social psychology. c. cognition. d. social justice. 229. Which statement BEST describes the concept of stereotype threat? a. Your expectations about a target may lead you to unfairly overuse a stereotype. b. Under observation, targets belonging to a negatively stereotyped group may become anxious, and their performance may confirm that stereotype. c. People tend to have negative perceptions of target individuals who deviate from gender stereotypes. d. When a target individual clearly disconfirms an observer's stereotype, the observer may feel threatened. 230. Laurie is a CEO of a company and came up "through the ranks" by starting in the mail room. Although she tries to treat all her employees fairly, she is more likely to give second chances to those working in the mail room because she identifies more with them. This example illustrates: a. conformity. b. prejudice. c. diffusion of responsibility. d. group polarization. 231. Which statement accurately summarizes the relationship between stereotyping and perceived variability? a. Stereotyping increases perceived variability within categories. b. Stereotyping increases perceived variability within and between categories. c. Stereotyping decreases perceived variability within categories. d. Stereotyping decreases perceived variability within and between categories. 232. Individuals arrested during riots often feel that they have done little wrong because many others were committing the same crimes. The thought process of those arrested illustrates the phenomenon of: a. heuristic persuasion. b. bystander intervention. c. cognitive dissonance. d. diffusion of responsibility.

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Chap 12_5e 233. When in a classroom, students quickly learn to sit and pay attention to a teacher without the teacher fully explaining the expectations each time. This is due to what principle? a. heuristic persuasion b. informational influence c. normative influence d. systematic persuasion 234. Which statement BEST illustrates underestimating the variability within a category? a. Football players come in all shapes and sizes. b. Most professional football players come from lower socioeconomic backgrounds. c. Professional football players are stronger than are accountants. d. Professional football players are faster than are accountants. 235. Groups tend to favor the opinions of members who are: a. experts. b. talkative. c. oldest. d. fair. 236. Shantelle is a heterosexual female creating an online dating profile. To maximize her dating opportunities, she should: a. use an attractive picture as her profile picture. b. list her current job and income in her profile. c. clearly indicate in her profile that she is interested in both short- and long-term relationships. d. use a photo of her wearing a Mardi Gras mask as her profile to demonstrate her fun-loving nature. 237. Testosterone makes men _____ sensitive to provocations and _____ sensitive to signs of retaliation. a. more; more b. more; less c. less; less d. less; more 238. Sally opens a lemonade stand and leaves several cups of lemonade out at a table with a sign that says "please leave your payment on the table." While she realizes that some people might neglect to pay, she hopes enough people will pay that she can continue to run her lemonade stand with a modest profit. Sally's method for her lemonade stand is MOST closely related to the: a. foot-in-the-door technique. b. heuristic persuasion technique. c. prisoner's dilemma. d. ultimatum game. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 239. When actors in Asch's line-judging study all gave the wrong answer on the third trial after providing correct answers on the first and second trials, the real participant provided the: a. correct answer. b. correct answer only if he had discerned that the other participants were really actors. c. incorrect answer. d. incorrect answer only if he was confused about which of the alternatives was actually correct. 240. Limitations of reducing unconscious stereotyping of Black people include all of these EXCEPT that: a. they tend to produce small changes. b. they tend to produce short-lived changes in unconscious bias. c. there are no changes in people's conscious beliefs. d. they produce negative changes in people's behavior. 241. A _____ is a collection of people who have something in common that distinguishes them from others. a. society b. family c. group d. category 242. After deciding that the defendant is guilty, a jury returns a much more severe sentencing recommendation than those held by individual jurors at the outset of deliberations. This is an example of: a. group polarization. b. correspondence bias. c. deindividuation. d. groupthink. 243. Which woman is likely to be judged MOST attractive? a. Tonisha, whose face and body show slight bilateral asymmetry b. Chantelle, whose face and body show bilateral symmetry c. Hanna, whose face shows slight bilateral asymmetry but whose body is bilaterally symmetrical d. Safa, whose face is bilaterally symmetrical but whose body is slightly bilaterally asymmetrical

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Chap 12_5e 244. Black and White participants were shown pictures for less than 1 second of White and Black men carrying either guns or cameras. Participants were instructed to "shoot" the men carrying guns by pressing a button. What were the results of the study? a. White, but not Black, participants were more likely to mistake a camera for a gun if it was held by a Black man. b. White and Black participants were more likely to mistake a camera for a gun if it was held by a Black man. c. White, but not Black, participants usually correctly identified a gun held by a White man. d. White and Black participants usually correctly identified a gun when held by a White man. 245. _____ is the tendency to do what authorities tell us to do and arises primarily due to ____. a. Conformity; normative influence b. Conformity; persuasion c. Obedience; normative influence d. Obedience; the actor–observer effect 246. Research indicates that as the ratio of mob members to victims _____, the level of atrocity directed at the victims _____. a. increases; increases b. increases; decreases c. decreases; increases d. decreases; does not change 247. The belief that men have greater upper body strength than do women: a. is confirmed by the fact that male Olympic lifters almost always are stronger than are female Olympic lifters. b. is disconfirmed because Adam's wife can do more pushups than he can. c. allows us to accurately predict how much weight individuals can lift if we know their sex. d. is only true with respect to the average strength of men and women. 248. Food, water, shelter, and access to mates are examples of: a. instincts. b. consequences of sociality. c. resources. d. norms.

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Chap 12_5e 249. Andrea won the Miss Illinois beauty pageant the year she graduated from college. Knowing only this, the amount of money she will earn over the course of her adult lifetime is MOST likely to be _____ that of her peers. a. about the same as b. more than c. slightly less than d. much less than 250. Behavior that benefits another with the expectation that those benefits will be returned in the future is called: a. normative influence. b. reciprocal altruism. c. social exchange. d. reverse altruism. 251. A toddler does not feel well and hits her classmate when asked to share toys. This demonstrates _____ aggression. a. proactive b. obstructive c. reactive d. premediated 252. Men are MOST likely to be sensitive to status challenges when: a. interviewing for jobs. b. competing in an athletic competition. c. competing for the attention of women. d. challenged by an authority figure. 253. In choosing a long-term mate for a monogamous relationship: a. women are more selective than are men. b. men are more selective than are women. c. both sexes are equally selective. d. culture largely determines which sex is more selective. 254. People come to understand others through a process called: a. categorization. b. prejudice. c. stereotyping. d. social cognition.

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Chap 12_5e 255. The actor–observer effect occurs primarily because people have: a. more information about the situational factors influencing their own behavior. b. more information about the situational factors influencing others. c. a strong motivation to protect their self-image. d. a strong motivation to view themselves as being better than are others. 256. One reason similarity is attractive is that: a. we can introduce our partners to new things and ideas. b. we frequently question beliefs that are shared with others. c. we expect similar people to like us for our values and beliefs, and being liked is a powerful source of attraction. d. the more similarities people have, the longer they are likely to be together. 257. Anthony Philip's homeroom teacher seats her pupils in alphabetical order. By the end of the school year, Anthony's best friends had become Jake Parker and Aaron Porter. This is BEST explained by the phenomenon called: a. perceptual confirmation. b. actor–observer effect. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. mere-exposure effect. 258. In one study mentioned in the text, an attractive person approached opposite-sex strangers on a college campus and asked, "Would you go to bed with me?" About _____ of the men agreed to this request. a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% 259. A target's fear of confirming negative beliefs that others may hold is termed: a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. perceptual confirmation. c. informational influence. d. the stereotype threat. 260. Cooperation can be defined as: a. an experience involving affection, trust, and concern for another's well-being. b. intentional behavior that benefits another at a potential cost to oneself. c. behavior that benefits another with the expectation that those benefits will be returned in the future. d. behavior by two or more individuals that leads to mutual benefit.

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Chap 12_5e 261. Children given rewards for drawing things with markers were less likely to use the markers when the rewards were discontinued. This is an example of the: a. reactance effect. b. overjustification effect. c. fundamental attribution error. d. stereotype threat. 262. A booklover who gets a paid job reviewing best-sellers for a newspaper finds herself having less motivation to read for pleasure. This is an example of: a. the overjustification effect. b. the actor–observer effect. c. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. reactance. 263. Which of these is NOT a cost of group membership? a. positive prejudice b. the common knowledge effect c. groupthink d. deindividuation 264. Participants in the Milgram obedience studies obeyed the experimenter and delivered what they believed were potentially lethal shocks to completely innocent learners due to: a. the fear of punishment. b. normative pressure. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. systematic persuasion. 265. Some research suggests that consciously trying NOT to use a stereotype causes people to: a. use the stereotype even more. b. stop using the stereotype. c. learn new associations that become stereotypes. d. suffer from stereotype threat. 266. Altruistic behavior benefits: a. others and possibly oneself. b. oneself. c. oneself or others. d. others but not oneself.

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Chap 12_5e 267. A phenomenon whereby targets behave as observers expect them to behave is called: a. behavioral confirmation. b. perceptual confirmation. c. actor–observer effect. d. correspondence bias. 268. When people's goals are thwarted, they often harm others. This phenomenon is referred to as: a. the targeted-aggression effect. b. reciprocal aggression. c. the projected-aggression principle. d. the frustration–aggression hypothesis. 269. Jack feels insecure about his ability to make friends in college. He sees his friend Jelisa chatting with a new group of friends and feels enraged. He confronts Jelisa in a loud, angry voice. In the frustration–aggression hypothesis, which of these is functioning as the frustration? a. Jelisa's attention to her new friends b. Jack's feelings of insecurity c. Jack's confrontation of Jelisa d. Jack's feelings of anger 270. The _____ motive states that people are motivated to believe what is right and to avoid believing what is wrong. a. persuasive b. accuracy c. validity d. hedonic 271. Stereotyping is NOT: a. inevitable. b. unconscious. c. automatic. d. helpful. 272. Like all animals, humans must solve the basic twin problems of: a. survival and reproduction. b. cooperation and aggression. c. obedience and conformity. d. variation and selection.

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Chap 12_5e 273. People tend to remain in relationships as long as they: a. experience passionate love. b. experience a high passionate love to companionate love ratio. c. perceive a favorable ratio of costs to benefits. d. perceive that they only experience benefits from the relationship. 274. A government that imposes harsh penalties for minor crimes is attempting to change the behavior of its citizenry by exploiting the _____ motive. a. obedience b. hedonic c. punishment d. approval 275. There are 1,000 members of group A and 100 members of group B in a community. Nine hundred members of group A and 90 members of group B routinely engage in acts benefiting the community. One hundred members of group A and 10 members of group B routinely engage in criminal acts. Which occurrence will MOST likely be remembered? a. one member of group A engaging in a beneficial act b. one member of group A engaging in a criminal act c. one member of group B engaging in a beneficial act d. one member of group B engaging in a criminal act 276. _____ is BEST described as cooperation extended over time. a. Social cognition b. Reciprocal altruism c. Kin selection d. Obedience 277. Compared to shorter people, tall people: a. earn more per year. b. are less likely to receive responses to personal ads online. c. earn less per year. d. are healthier. 278. Another term for correspondence bias is: a. the fundamental attribution error. b. the actor–observer effect. c. dispositional confirmation. d. the primacy effect.

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Chap 12_5e 279. Jayne's toddler was being too loud, and she warned him that if he didn't quiet down, he would be sent to timeout. Jayne's toddler then looked at her defiantly and started screaming. This is an example of: a. correspondence bias. b. reactance. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. the overjustification effect. 280. Violent crimes increase during _____ months, and this increase is thought to reflect the role of _____ aggression. a. winter; proactive b. summer; proactive c. winter; reactive d. summer; reactive 281. The tendency to do what others are doing is called: a. persuasion. b. obedience. c. conformity. d. the actor–observer effect. 282. Research on cooperation has often involved using: a. role-play. b. the ultimatum game. c. the prisoner's dilemma. d. virtual reality. 283. After a big win, sports fans overturned cars and set fires in the street. A few people were apprehended, but they did not feel responsible for their behavior because many others also participated. The thought process of the people arrested illustrates the phenomenon of: a. heuristic persuasion. b. deindividuation. c. cognitive dissonance. d. diffusion of responsibility. 284. The process by which a person comes to understand others is termed: a. the mere exposure effect. b. companionate love. c. stereotyping. d. social cognition.

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Chap 12_5e 285. The defining feature of proactive aggression is that it is: a. frustrative in nature. b. harmful to another. c. caused by negative affect. d. planned and purposive. 286. Despite knowing that it is wrong to steal, Liam chose to loot during a riot because his friends were doing it and he felt caught up in the moment. Liam's behavior BEST illustrates: a. group polarization. b. deindividuation. c. informational influence. d. the prisoner's dilemma. 287. Which statement about aggression is true? a. Testosterone increases the probability that we will perceive threats from others. b. Testosterone directly causes aggression. c. Male aggressiveness is related to both socialization and the presence of testosterone. d. Socialization is unrelated to aggression in males. 288. When groups get together for discussions, their decisions tend to be more extreme than decisions any one member would have made alone. This phenomenon is known as: a. the common knowledge effect. b. group relativity. c. group polarization. d. diffusion of responsibility. 289. Barbara realizes that she is clutching her purse tightly when she passes a large tattooed man on the street and gets angry at herself for doing so. Yet, she cannot stop this behavior because it happens: a. consciously. b. subconsciously. c. automatically. d. perceptually. 290. Shawn explains that he chose to major in business management because his father insisted he should be selfsufficient when he graduates; he describes his girlfriend's choice of a nursing major as the result of her caring, compassionate nature. This is an example of: a. rationalization. b. the actor–observer effect. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. informational influence. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 291. The bird who gives an "alarm call" upon seeing a predator and thereby puts itself at a greater risk of being eaten is engaging in: a. genuine altruism. b. reciprocal altruism. c. kin selection. d. conformity. 292. Humans tend to form relatively long-term relationships compared to nonhuman animals because: a. our communication abilities are the most complex. b. we need affiliative relationships to compete for resources, whereas nonhuman animals do not. c. human children require more nurturing and protection than most species. d. the stability of a long-term relationship allows us to focus on our intellectual development. 293. The United States makes up only 4% of the world's population but owns approximately _____ of the world's guns. a. 50% b. 95% c. 25% d. 75% 294. The single BEST predictor of aggression is: a. biological sex. b. age. c. culture. d. social class. 295. Researchers blindfolded participants and had them engage in everyday tasks in an effort to determine if such a perspective-taking exercise would modify their beliefs about individuals who are blind. After participants completed the tasks blindfolded, the researchers interviewed them and found that the participants: a. had less empathy for and underestimated the abilities of blind persons. b. accurately predicted the abilities of blind persons but did not increase their empathy. c. mistakenly believed that they understood what a lifetime of blindness was like. d. had more empathy for and overestimated the abilities of blind persons. 296. Which of these is NOT a limitation of techniques for reducing unconscious stereotyping of Black people? a. They tend to produce small changes. b. They tend to produce short-lived changes in unconscious bias. c. There are no changes in people's actual behavior. d. They produce negative changes in people's conscious beliefs.

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Chap 12_5e 297. Which statement about passionate love is true? a. Passionate love takes some time to get started. b. Passionate love reaches its peak quickly. c. In happy couples, passionate love remains at peak levels for a lifetime. d. Passionate love increases as companionate love decreases. 298. Attitude is to belief as _____ is to _____. a. evaluation; knowledge b. knowledge; information c. evaluation; change d. knowledge; evaluation 299. MOST females marry: a. for love. b. for economic security. c. to have socially approved sexual relations. d. to have children. 300. According to the frustration–aggression hypothesis, frustration is best conceptualized as a(n): a. consequence of sociality. b. emotional state. c. aggressive behavior. d. obstruction of a goal.

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Chap 12_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. c 63. a 64. c 65. c 66. b 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. d 77. d 78. d 79. d 80. d 81. c 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. c 91. c 92. b 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. a 97. a 98. b 99. d 100. d 101. a 102. c 103. b 104. b 105. c 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. c 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 111. d 112. d 113. a 114. d 115. d 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. c 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. b 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. d 128. c 129. b 130. c 131. d 132. b 133. c 134. d 135. a 136. d 137. a

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Chap 12_5e 138. c 139. b 140. b 141. d 142. b 143. d 144. a 145. c 146. b 147. d 148. c 149. a 150. d 151. a 152. d 153. a 154. c 155. c 156. b 157. d 158. c 159. c 160. d 161. d 162. b 163. b 164. d 165. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 166. b 167. a 168. a 169. c 170. b 171. d 172. c 173. a 174. c 175. c 176. b 177. b 178. b 179. c 180. b 181. b 182. c 183. a 184. b 185. b 186. c 187. b 188. b 189. a 190. c 191. a 192. c 193. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 194. a 195. a 196. b 197. d 198. d 199. c 200. a 201. c 202. a 203. c 204. c 205. a 206. a 207. b 208. c 209. b 210. d 211. a 212. c 213. b 214. d 215. b 216. d 217. a 218. a 219. d 220. b 221. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 222. a 223. d 224. a 225. b 226. a 227. c 228. b 229. b 230. b 231. c 232. d 233. c 234. b 235. b 236. a 237. b 238. c 239. c 240. d 241. c 242. a 243. b 244. b 245. c 246. a 247. d 248. c

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Chap 12_5e 249. b 250. b 251. c 252. c 253. c 254. d 255. a 256. c 257. d 258. c 259. d 260. d 261. b 262. a 263. a 264. b 265. a 266. d 267. a 268. d 269. a 270. b 271. a 272. a 273. c 274. b 275. d 276. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e 277. a 278. a 279. b 280. d 281. c 282. c 283. d 284. d 285. d 286. b 287. c 288. c 289. c 290. b 291. c 292. c 293. a 294. a 295. c 296. d 297. b 298. a 299. a 300. d

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Companionate love starts slowly, grows steadily, and involves concern for your partner's well-being. a. True b. False 2. There is a negative correlation between testosterone levels and aggression levels. a. True b. False 3. Attributing a basketball player's great game to her home court advantage is an example of correspondence bias. a. True b. False 4. The self-fulfilling prophecy is the tendency for people to see what they expect to see. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.1 introduces material from the following publication. Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "Divider" or the "Decider" by a coin flip. The Divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the Decider. If the Decider accepts, she gets to keep what was offered and the Divider keeps the rest. If the Decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, Dividers usually offer a little less than $5, and Deciders usually accept this amount. If Dividers offer less, Deciders often reject, and both players get nothing. A similar game is termed the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "Allocator" or the "Receiver." The Allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money she would like to give the Receiver, who must accept this result. The Allocator in this game usually offer some amount money to the Receiver that is typically less than the Divider offer the Decider in the ultimatum game. 5. (Scenario 12.1) Consider the real-world observation that lottery winners tend to give away more of their money to friends and family than self-made millionaires give to theirs. Using the dictator game, which strategy is the BEST way to model this phenomenon in the laboratory? a. studying differences in Allocator behavior when the sum of money ranges from small to large b. comparing typical performance with a modification in which the winner of a game of skill gets to be the Allocator c. studying Allocator behavior under conditions where the Receiver is either a friend or a stranger d. comparing allocations to Receivers who are either friends or strangers in a game in which the Allocator's own money is used Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.2 introduces material from the following publication. Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argumentbased persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a smaller request that consumers are likely to grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then appearing to make a concession by making a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion, which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion, which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Petty and colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques in college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment arranged six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 12.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 12.1

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 6. (Scenario 12.2) The results shown in Figure 12.1 suggest that college students were heuristically persuaded when the: a. argument was strong. b. policy change was far in the future. c. Princeton professor presented a weak argument about an imminent policy change. d. high school student presented a strong argument about an imminent policy change. 7. The frustration–aggression hypothesis states that suppressed aggressive impulses lead to frustration. a. True b. False 8. We are prone to falling prey to the foot-in-the-door sales technique because buying something reduces our cognitive dissonance. a. True b. False 9. Blaming a tennis loss on a bad call by the line judge is an example of a dispositional attribution. a. True b. False 10. There is a strong relationship between what a person is like and what a person says or does. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

Table 12.1 Labeled Shock Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%) Page 5

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

11. (Scenario 12.3) Some critics of Milgram's research argue that the results are limited because the study was highly artificial and unrealistic. In real life, it would be exceedingly unlikely for people to be put in a situation where they are asked to shock another human being. This criticism refers to the _____ of Milgram's research. a. reliability b. external validity c. internal validity d. experimental bias 12. The potential physical costs of having sex are much greater for women than they are men. a. True b. False 13. Increased testosterone is associated with decreased self-esteem. a. True b. False 14. Acts of aggression are more likely to occur on very hot days. a. True b. False 15. When participants in Steele and Aronson's study (1995) were asked to list their race at the top of an exam, African American students scored more poorly than their academic level suggested they should. a. True b. False 16. The tendency to attribute our own behavior to unwavering dispositions and others' behavior to situational whims is illustrative of the actor–observer effect. a. True b. False 17. In the prisoner's dilemma, if both partners cooperate with one another and do not confess to the police, neither partner will serve jail time. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.2 introduces material from the following publication. Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argumentbased persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a smaller request that consumers are likely to grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then appearing to make a concession by making a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion, which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion, which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Petty and colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques in college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment arranged six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 12.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 12.1

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18. (Scenario 12.2) The foot-in-the-door technique works primarily because consumers: a. feel pressure to reciprocate a concession to the seller. b. are strongly influenced by the motivation to be consistent. c. rely on heuristics introduced by the smaller request. d. are systematically persuaded with each escalating request. 19. Women are much more selective than are men when deciding on a marriage partner. a. True b. False 20. Restaurants that offer you a dessert on the house are using the norm of reciprocity to encourage you to return. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 21. A teacher who offers rewards and threatens punishment is appealing to the accuracy motive. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.2 introduces material from the following publication. Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argumentbased persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a smaller request that consumers are likely to grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then appearing to make a concession by making a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion, which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion, which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Petty and colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques in college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment arranged six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 12.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 12.1

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22. (Scenario 12.2) In the Petty and colleagues (1981) experiment, which example BEST describes a heuristic? a. speaker authority b. argument quality c. the time frame associated with the policy change d. participants' understanding of the arguments

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

28. (Scenario 12.3) The experimenter in the Milgram (1963) study can BEST be described as a(n): a. heuristic persuader. b. authority figure. c. prejudiced group leader. d. cooperative partner. 29. Conformity involves following the instructions of an authority figure. a. True b. False 30. Research supports the old adage that "Absence makes the heart grow fonder." a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s).

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Scenario 12.2 introduces material from the following publication. Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argumentbased persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a smaller request that consumers are likely to grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then appearing to make a concession by making a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion, which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion, which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Petty and colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques in college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment arranged six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 12.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 12.1

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31. (Scenario 12.2) Which example describes systematic persuasion? a. a political party first asking for an email address, then a $5 donation, then a $25 donation, and finally a $100 donation b. a car manufacturer marketing its car with commercials suggesting driving it will increase sexual appeal c. a college student trying to convince his professor to excuse an absence by reminding her of her own teenage years d. a teenager trying to convince his parents that marijuana is not dangerous by showing them a number of scientific studies that support his argument while conveniently not presenting the ones that show the drug is far from harmless 32. Solomon Asch demonstrated that normative influence can cause people to misperceive the length of lines. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 33. A military recruiter who stands in front of her country's flag and urges you to enlist and "be all you can be" is using heuristic persuasion. a. True b. False 34. Physical attractiveness is associated with increased income for women but not men. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.1 introduces material from the following publication. Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "Divider" or the "Decider" by a coin flip. The Divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the Decider. If the Decider accepts, she gets to keep what was offered and the Divider keeps the rest. If the Decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, Dividers usually offer a little less than $5, and Deciders usually accept this amount. If Dividers offer less, Deciders often reject, and both players get nothing. A similar game is termed the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "Allocator" or the "Receiver." The Allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money she would like to give the Receiver, who must accept this result. The Allocator in this game usually offer some amount money to the Receiver that is typically less than the Divider offer the Decider in the ultimatum game. 35. (Scenario 12.1) In the ultimatum game, the decision to reject an offer has been interpreted differently. One explanation is that Deciders seek, on principle alone, to exact retribution on Dividers who offer unfair deals. Another explanation is that rejecting unfair offers is part of a strategy to help ensure more fair deals in the future. Which strategy is the BEST way to evaluate these two explanations? a. determine if Deciders are more or less likely to reject an unfair deal in which the Dividers change from trial to trial b. determine if Deciders are more or less likely to reject an unfair deal in multiple-trial games when they are always the Decider versus games in which they alternate between being the Divider and the Decider c. determine if Deciders would be equally likely to reject an unfair deal in the traditional game relative to scenario in which they were told that the Divider usually makes fair deals d. determine if Deciders in multiple-trial games are more or less likely to reject an unfair deal if the deal on the previous trial also was rejected

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 36. (Scenario 12.1) Replications of the ultimatum game with larger pots of money found results similar to the original studies. Which real-world anecdote is consistent with results from a large-stakes ultimatum game? a. As the economic magnitude of a sale increases, the seller is more likely to adopt a door-in-the-face technique and begin with a high sticker price before negotiating to a fair price. b. A home seller would rather foreclose and lose everything than accept a low-ball offer from a buyer. c. Credit card companies vary interest rates and credit limits based on the risk associated with the credit applicant. d. Rather than risk not being signed by another team as a free agent, a veteran football player accepts a below-league-average salary to remain with his team. Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

37. (Scenario 12.3) The Burger (2009) study can best be described as a _____ that increased the _____ of the Milgram (1963) study. a. manipulation; internal validity b. manipulation; statistical significance c. replication; internal validity d. replication; generalizability Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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38. (Scenario 12.2) In the Petty and colleagues (1981) experiment, the purpose of manipulating the time that the policy would go into effect was to: a. introduce a time heuristic. b. alter motivation levels to attend to the arguments. c. use the foot-in-the door technique by first telling students that the policy change was a decade away. d. use the door-in-the-face technique by first telling students that the change was imminent. 39. African Americans are equally as likely as Whites to mistake a camera for a gun if held by an African American male. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 40. If your parents have been married for a long time, it is likely that their current level of passionate love is high. a. True b. False 41. Violent crime in the United States is more prevalent in the North than it is in the South. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.1 introduces material from the following publication. Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "Divider" or the "Decider" by a coin flip. The Divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the Decider. If the Decider accepts, she gets to keep what was offered and the Divider keeps the rest. If the Decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, Dividers usually offer a little less than $5, and Deciders usually accept this amount. If Dividers offer less, Deciders often reject, and both players get nothing. A similar game is termed the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "Allocator" or the "Receiver." The Allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money she would like to give the Receiver, who must accept this result. The Allocator in this game usually offer some amount money to the Receiver that is typically less than the Divider offer the Decider in the ultimatum game. 42. (Scenario 12.1) In the ultimatum game, the behavior of the _____ is of the most theoretical interest to psychologists and economists because _____. a. Divider; she demonstrates a form of altruism that may or may not be reciprocated b. Divider; she attempts to offer the lowest amount deemed acceptable by her partner c. Decider; accepting any offer less than $5 is the equivalent of paying money to cooperate d. Decider; rejecting any offer whatsoever is the equivalent of paying money to punish the Decider Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

43. (Scenario 12.3) The research by Asch (1956) can best be described as research on: a. obedience. b. stereotyping. c. conformity. d. persuasion. 44. Genuine altruism promotes the survival of our own genes. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

45. (Scenario 12.3) Which of these is an independent variable in the Milgram research? a. the teacher or learner roles b. the presence or absence of the experimenter c. measured signs of distress in the teacher d. the percentage of teachers who delivered shock at each shock level 46. We tend to underestimate the variability among members of different categories. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

47. (Scenario 12.3) Which of these is a dependent variable in the Asch research? a. the answers participants gave b. the size of the group c. whether the group was unanimous or not d. differences in line length 48. Men commit approximately 90% of the murders in the United States. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay

Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

49. (Scenario 12.3) In Milgram's (1963) original experiment, signs of teacher distress increased with the labeled shock voltage. In an attempt to reduce participant distress, Burger (2009) argued that there was no need to investigate shock voltages labeled XXX. In fact, based on Milgram's results shown in Table 12.1, Burger argued that the study could be stopped at which shock level, alleviating the most participant distress while preserving as much information as possible from the original study? a. very strong shock b. intense shock c. extremely intensive shock d. danger: severe shock 50. Men with unrealistically high self-esteem are most prone to violence. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s).

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51. (Scenario 12.2) The results shown in Figure 12.1 suggest that college students were systematically persuaded when the: a. argument was strong. b. policy change was far in the future. c. Princeton professor presented a strong argument about a delayed policy change. d. high school student presented a strong argument about an imminent policy change. Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

52. (Scenario 12.3) The research by Milgram (1963) can best be described as research on: a. obedience. b. deception. c. conformity. d. persuasion. 53. In the prisoner's dilemma, if one partner confesses to the police, that partner necessarily will not serve prison time. a. True b. False 54. Cognitive dissonance is typically reduced by heuristic persuasion. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 55. A mother who sacrificed her life to save her children engaged in altruistic behavior. a. True b. False 56. Across a wide variety of human cultures, women prefer older men, and men prefer younger women. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.1 introduces material from the following publication. Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "Divider" or the "Decider" by a coin flip. The Divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the Decider. If the Decider accepts, she gets to keep what was offered and the Divider keeps the rest. If the Decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, Dividers usually offer a little less than $5, and Deciders usually accept this amount. If Dividers offer less, Deciders often reject, and both players get nothing. A similar game is termed the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "Allocator" or the "Receiver." The Allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money she would like to give the Receiver, who must accept this result. The Allocator in this game usually offer some amount money to the Receiver that is typically less than the Divider offer the Decider in the ultimatum game. 57. (Scenario 12.1) Which research finding suggests that participants are more concerned with appearing fair than they are with being fair? a. Dividers offer about 50% of the pot to the Deciders, even when the pot size is substantially increased. b. Dividers usually increase their next offer if the previous offer was rejected. c. Dividers offer more money than do Allocators. d. Allocators offer money to Receivers when doing so is not required. Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.2 introduces material from the following publication. Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argumentbased persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a smaller request that consumers are likely to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then appearing to make a concession by making a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion, which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion, which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Petty and colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques in college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment arranged six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 12.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 12.1

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58. (Scenario 12.2) Which factor is NOT an independent variable in the Petty and colleagues (1981) experiment? a. degree of agreement or disagreement with the arguments b. authority of the speaker c. argument quality d. time of policy change 59. We can decide not to be influenced by previously learned stereotypes. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.1 introduces material from the following publication. Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "Divider" or the "Decider" by a coin flip. The Divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the Decider. If the Decider accepts, she gets to keep what was offered and the Divider keeps the rest. If the Decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, Dividers usually offer a little less than $5, and Deciders usually accept this amount. If Dividers offer less, Deciders often reject, and both players get nothing. A similar game is termed the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "Allocator" or the "Receiver." The Allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money she would like to give the Receiver, who must accept this result. The Allocator in this game usually offer some amount money to the Receiver that is typically less than the Divider offer the Decider in the ultimatum game. 60. (Scenario 12.1) Skeptics of the results of the original ultimatum game criticized the research for drawing conclusions based on games involving small amounts of money not representative of important real-life economic decisions. This was a criticism associated with the _____ of the research. a. reliability b. internal validity c. external validity d. statistical significance 61. Larger groups provide more opportunity for deindividuation and diffusion of responsibility. a. True b. False 62. Someone who helps a friend with the expectation that the friend will sooner or later return the favor is exhibiting reverse altruism. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

63. (Scenario 12.3) All the research studies described in this scenario share which commonality? a. use of deception b. use of heuristic persuasion c. correlation, not experimental designs d. exploitation of conformity 64. Male bodies are considered most attractive if they approximate inverted triangles. a. True b. False 65. Kin selection does not constitute genuine altruism because we have been taught to assist family members in need. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 66. In the prisoner's dilemma, a person who does not confess but is betrayed by their partner will serve the longest sentence. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.2 introduces material from the following publication. Petty, R. E., Cacioppo, J. T., & Goldman, R. (1981). Personal involvement as a determinant of argumentbased persuasion. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 41, 847–855. Every day, consumers are exposed to scientifically based sales, marketing, and public relations strategies designed to influence purchasing decisions, change opinions, or win votes. One common sales strategy is the foot-in-the-door technique, a method that involves first making a smaller request that consumers are likely to grant and then following it with a larger request. Another common strategy is the door-in-the-face technique, which involves making an unreasonably large request that consumers will likely reject and then appearing to make a concession by making a smaller request. When persuasion is necessary, it usually takes one of two forms: heuristic persuasion, which involves an appeal to habits or emotion, or systematic persuasion, which involves an appeal to facts and reason. Often, people will rely more on heuristics—simple shortcuts or "rules of thumb"—to make decisions instead of systematically weighing the evidence. Petty and colleagues (1981) investigated some of these techniques in college students listening to arguments in favor of their college requiring an institution-level comprehensive final examination for graduation. Some students were led to believe that if adopted, this policy would take place right away, and some were led to believe that the change would take place in a decade. In addition, some of the students were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a Princeton professor, and others were led to believe that they were listening to an argument from a high school student. Finally, some students heard strong arguments in favor of the policy, and some heard weak arguments. Thus, the experiment arranged six groups of students. For example, one group of students heard strong arguments from a high school student about a far-removed policy change. Figure 12.1 shows fabricated results illustrating the major findings of this experiment. Figure 12.1

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67. (Scenario 12.2) The door-in-the-face technique works primarily because consumers: a. feel pressure to reciprocate a concession to the seller. b. are strongly influenced by the motivation to be consistent. c. experience a strong state of cognitive dissonance. d. are systematically persuaded with each escalating request. 68. Stereotyping is a useful process. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 12.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.1 introduces material from the following publication. Cameron, C. C., & Thaler, R. H. (1995). Anomalies: Ultimatums, dictators, and manners. Journal of Economic Perspectives, 9(19), 209–219. In the ultimatum game, two participants are assigned to be either the "Divider" or the "Decider" by a coin flip. The Divider is given a sum of money, such as $10, and is instructed to offer some nonzero portion of it to the Decider. If the Decider accepts, she gets to keep what was offered and the Divider keeps the rest. If the Decider rejects the deal, both players get nothing. Both players are made aware of all of these rules, then the game begins. Under these conditions, Dividers usually offer a little less than $5, and Deciders usually accept this amount. If Dividers offer less, Deciders often reject, and both players get nothing. A similar game is termed the dictator game. Players are randomly assigned to be either the "Allocator" or the "Receiver." The Allocator is given a sum of money and makes a decision about how much money she would like to give the Receiver, who must accept this result. The Allocator in this game usually offer some amount money to the Receiver that is typically less than the Divider offer the Decider in the ultimatum game. 69. (Scenario 12.1) In a single $10 ultimatum game, if both players behaved independently without cooperating or retaliating and sought to maximize their individual earnings: a. Dividers would offer exactly $5, and Deciders would accept. b. Dividers would offer a little less than $5, and Deciders would accept. c. Dividers would offer a penny, and Deciders would accept. d. Dividers would offer a penny, and Deciders would reject. 70. We are most attracted to people with personalities that are different from our own. a. True b. False Use Scenario 12.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 12.3 introduces material from the following publications. Asch, S. E. (1956). Studies of independence and conformity: I. A minority of one against a unanimous majority. Psychological Monographs: General and Applied, 70(9), 1–70. Burger, J. M. (2009). Replicating Milgram: Would people still obey today? American Psychologist, 64(1), 1–11. Milgram, S. (1963). Behavioral study of obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4), 371–378. Two classic studies demonstrating the powerful effects of interpersonal influence were conducted by Asch (1956) and Milgram (1963). In the Asch study, each participant sat in a room with other people who— unbeknownst to the participant—were trained actors. The people in the room were given a task where they Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay were asked to match a standard line to a comparison line of the same length, as seen in Figure 12.2. All persons stated their answer in the presence of the group, and the real participant went last. When all the actors gave the same incorrect answer (C, in Figure 12.2), participants were much more likely to also give this incorrect answer, even though the correct answer was obvious (A, in Figure 12.2). Subsequent research by Asch and colleagues demonstrated that 75% of all participants gave at least one incorrect answer, that this effect increased with the size of the group, and it drastically decreased if at least one of the actors gave the correct answer. In Milgram's (1963) study, participants were assigned the role of a teacher ostensibly investigating the effects of skin shock punishment on learning. After the teacher witnessed the learner being equipped with the skin shock device, the teacher was taken to an adjacent room, where he could communicate with the learner through an intercom system. Critically, the teacher could hear, but not see, the learner. The teacher and the learner then engaged in a word-pair memory exercise. Each time the learner got a question wrong, the teacher was instructed to shock the learner by flipping a labeled switch on a shock generator. With each incorrect answer, the intensity of the shock increased; these labeled intensities are shown in the left column of Table 12.1. As the shocks became more intense, the learner screamed and demanded to be released, eventually becoming nonresponsive. When the obviously distressed teacher expressed a desire to check on the learner, or to quit, an experimenter seated nearby calmly instructed the teacher to continue and that the experimenter would take responsibility for the health of the learner. Some teachers nonetheless quit, but the majority of them continued. At the end of the experiment, it was revealed to teachers that the learner was actually a paid actor, the learner was perfectly healthy, and no shocks were actually delivered. The right column of Table 12.1 shows the percentage of teachers who delivered the labeled shock. As can be seen, 65% of participants delivered a shock labeled XXX to an unresponsive learner. Subsequent research by Milgram demonstrated that the magnitude of this effect was reduced when the academic credentials of the experimenter were devalued (47%) and greatly reduced when the experimenter was not present during the task. More recent research by Burger (2009) using the same basic design as Milgram (1963) has also demonstrated these general effects with both men and women teachers. Figure 12.2

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Table 12.1 Labeled Shock

Teachers Who Delivered the Shock (%)

Slight to very strong

100

Intense shock

Extremely intense shock

Danger: severe shock

XXX

71. (Scenario 12.3) Why was the use of deception in the Milgram research unethical by the standards of the APA code of ethics? a. The APA code of ethics views deception as always unethical. b. No attempt was made to debrief participants. c. Participants were deceived about an aspect of the study that caused psychological stress. d. Participants did not have an equal chance to be assigned the role of teacher or learner. 72. People usually struggle for years to learn social norms. a. True b. False 73. Groups usually make better decisions than do individuals. a. True b. False

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 74. Aggression in women usually is more proactive than reactive. a. True b. False 75. Correspondence bias is another term for fundamental attribution error. a. True b. False 76. Milgram's study of obedience demonstrated that most people will not hurt another person when instructed to do so by an authority figure. a. True b. False 77. Assume that your parents are struggling with multiple stressors. Most notably, due to economic hardships, the bank has foreclosed upon the family home. Provide your parents with a list of strategies they might try to reduce their stress reactions and effectively cope with their financial situation.

78. Explain the research focus of environmental psychology and give an example of this type of research.

79. A friend has complained to you about being sick for much of the past month. He tells you that his allergies are unusually bad this semester, and he has caught cold after cold. The week before finals, he found out his parents were getting a divorce, and the same week, his girlfriend told him she was in love with his best friend. The dorm was so noisy he was unable to study for exams. He has tried drowning his troubles by drinking, but this only made him feel worse. What can you tell your friend about his stress level and how stress can affect his body? Then suggest at least three ways your friend can begin to handle the stress in his life.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 80. Richard is the executive chef at an upscale restaurant and exhibits a Type A behavior pattern. Within the context of his job, describe some anticipated aspects of Richard's behavior and explain why Richard should be concerned about his cardiovascular health.

81. Joseph is interested in biofeedback therapy. First, explain to him what biofeedback therapy is. Then compare the effectiveness of biofeedback with traditional relaxation therapy.

82. Trevor has worked at a local factory for more than 25 years. He frequently complains that he no longer has the energy to do his job. He is often cynical about his work and doesn't see the point in his job. He also doesn't remember the last time he was happy at work. What's going on with Trevor? From your knowledge of psychology and stress, what suggestions might you offer Trevor?

83. What are telomeres, and how do they relate to stress and aging?

84. Professor Carlson is giving a lecture on physical reactions involved with stress. How is she likely to describe the biological mechanisms underlying the fight-or-flight response?

85. Explain the cumulative effect of life events (including positive events) on health.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 86. Summarize the key elements of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

87. Illustrate the concepts of primary and secondary appraisal in the context of a high school public speaking assignment.

88. Using examples, explain how people can use different coping strategies to reduce chronic stress reactions to a rape trauma.

89. What is the function of catecholamines and cortisol in the stress response?

90. Describe how, in general, men and women differ in their use of social support to deal with stress.

91. Kenneth and Judy are both taking the same psychology course. Both students are stressed about the upcoming exam. Kenneth believes that he can control his grade on the exam by studying in advance, whereas Judy believes that no matter what she does to prepare, the instructor is in control of the outcome. Describe how Kenneth's and Judy's thoughts will impact their stress levels for the upcoming exam.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. b 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. d 52. a 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 55. b 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. b 60. c 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. c 70. b 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. The answer should include the following information: (1) The imminent loss of a home is something that probably cannot be effectively repressed. Therefore, you should encourage rational coping strategies featuring reframing. For example, you could emphasize to your parents how the loss of their home, while unfortunate, represents an opportunity to start over. (2) There are many effective ways to deal with chronic stress. Some of these include relaxation training, biofeedback, aerobic exercise, social support, humor, trying to be more optimistic despite the current negatives in your life, and avoiding smoking or abusing alcohol.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 78. The answer should indicate that environmental psychology involves the scientific study of environmental effects on behavior and health. The notion behind this field is that our immediate environment can be a source of chronic stress. City life offers traffic noise, while rural life can lead to isolation. An example of this field is research studies in which children living under the takeoff and landing paths of planes at Heathrow Airport in London, England, were found to have lower levels of reading comprehension than children who lived elsewhere. 79. The answer should include the following information: (1) Your friend would score unusually high on the College Undergraduate Stress Scale. He has been under chronic stress most of the semester, so his immune system is badly weakened. (2) Stress is worse if you feel you have no control over a situation; examples in this case are your friend's parents' divorce, the loss of his girlfriend, and living in a crowded and noisy dorm. (3) Suggested ways your friend could try to handle stress, for example, relaxation training, biofeedback, aerobic exercise (which causes the release of endorphins), social support (e.g., stay in contact with friends, talk), humor (e.g., watch funny movies, try to laugh at himself), try to be more optimistic despite the current negatives in his life, use self-regulation to eat healthily and avoid sexual risks, and don't smoke or abuse alcohol. 80. The answer should include the following information: (1) The Type A behavior pattern is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitive achievement strivings. (2) Richard might easily become angered when employees make mistakes or the restaurant is not profitable; he might seek confrontation and verbally bully his employees and suppliers. He is likely insistent that dishes be prepared expertly in the least amount of time possible. Richard probably is a hard worker who works long hours and is obsessed with his restaurant outperforming competitors. People exhibiting a Type A behavior pattern, especially those people prone to hostility, are at a greater risk of heart disease. 81. The answer should include the following information: (1) Biofeedback involves the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function to possibly gain control over that function, for example, body temperature or brain-wave patterns. (2) Recent studies suggest that EEG biofeedback (or neurofeedback) is moderately successful in treating brain-wave abnormalities in disorders such as epilepsy and in teaching people to down-regulate activity in regions of the brain involved in the strong emotional responses seen in some forms of psychopathology. However, biofeedback therapy is often no more effective than is traditional relaxation therapy. 82. The answer should include the following information: (1) Trevor is obviously burned out. (2) Some psychologists believe that if you define yourself only by your career and gauge your worth only by success at work, you risk having nothing left when work fails. Others feel that some jobs, by their nature, produce unavoidable burnout. (3) Suggestions include investing more time in family, developing hobbies or other chances for self-expression outside work, trying stress management techniques (e.g., relaxation training, biofeedback, social support, humor), and practicing self-regulation to ensure healthy eating and exercise. 83. Telomeres are caps at the tips of chromosomes. Each time a cell divides, the telomeres become slightly shorter. Over time, if they become too short, cells can no longer divide properly. People exposed to chronic stress have shorter telomere length. Cortisol (released in the stress response) can lead to shortened telomeres, which in turn can lead to accelerated aging and increased risk of a wide range of diseases, including cancer, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Exercise and meditation seem to prevent chronic stress from shortening telomere length, which may explain how these activities convey health benefits such as longer life and lower risk of disease. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 84. The answer should indicate that the fight-or-flight response to stress occurs when a fearful stimulus is perceived. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH (short for adrenocorticotropic hormone), which in turn stimulates the adrenal glands to release hormones, including catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine). The adrenal glands also release cortisol, which causes an increase in blood glucose levels. This sequence, called the HPA axis, arouses the sympathetic nervous system. 85. The answer should indicate that major life events induce stress and that cumulated stress can impair health. The notion is that the greater the number of stressful events (e.g., losing a job or experiencing the loss of a loved one) you experience, the more likely you are to become sick. Positive events (getting married) can also increase the risk of illness because they often require readjustment and preparedness that many people find extremely stressful. Positive events do produce less psychological distress and fewer physical symptoms than negative life events. 86. The answer should include the following information: The phases of general adaptation syndrome are, in order, alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. In the alarm phase (which is equivalent to the fight-or-flight response), the body rapidly mobilizes its resources to respond to the threat. In the resistance phase, the body tries to adapt and cope with the stressor by shutting down unnecessary processes such as digestion, growth, and sex drive. Finally, if the stressor continues long enough, the exhaustion phase sets in. The body's resistance collapses, creating damage that can include susceptibility to infection, tumor growth, aging, irreversible organ damage, or death. 87. The answer should include the following information: (1) Primary appraisal refers to the initial interpretation of a stimulus as stressful or not. For most high school students, the task of speaking in front of the class would be appraised as stressful. (2) Secondary appraisal refers to the judgment of whether the stressor is something that is manageable. For students who feel that they can handle the stressor, the public speaking assignment is viewed as a challenge. For students who feel that they cannot handle the stressor, the assignment is viewed as a threat. 88. This answer should include the following information: (1) One coping strategy is repressive coping, which involves avoiding situations or thoughts that are reminders of a stressor and maintaining an artificially positive viewpoint. This technique can reduce immediate stress reactions but also can produce negative long-term consequences in some people. A rape survivor engaged in repressive coping might move to another city, avoid going to places similar to the rape setting, and become preoccupied with safety (e.g., checking locked doors). While this can be an effective coping strategy, for some people repressing becomes a grim preoccupation that causes additional psychological harm, (2) Rational coping involves facing the stressor and working to overcome it. Rational coping is a three-step process involving acceptance, exposure, and understanding. In this example, the first step is to accept that the rape occurred and to stop engaging in repressive denial. The second step might involve the conscious choice to relive the rape via recording a verbal account and listening to it daily (prolonged exposure). In addition, people would be encouraged to expose themselves to the environmental circumstances associated with the rape (e.g., a bar, a party), assuming that this is done in a safe manner. The exposure step in rational coping can be quite anxiety provoking itself; however, it is very effective at reducing long-term anxiety. Finally, rape survivors would be encouraged to come to an understanding of the event. Specifically, they are encouraged to deal with why questions. Here, it may be useful to employ reframing techniques (discussed below) to alter the meaning of traumatic events and reduce the stress that they induce. (3) Reframing involves finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor that reduces its threat. One strategy is to utilize stress inoculation therapy to develop ways to think positively about the situation. Therapists can help their clients realize that their reactions following the rape are under their control. Here, expressive writing may help the client reframe the issue in a more constructive manner. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 12_5e _ TF + Essay 89. The catecholamines norepinephrine and epinephrine increase sympathetic nervous system activation and decrease parasympathetic activation. This results in increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate. The cumulative effect of these processes is to make more oxygen available to the muscles to energize attack or to initiate escape. Cortisol is also released by the adrenal glands and will increase the concentration of glucose in the blood to make fuel available to the muscles. 90. The answer should include the following information: (1) Social support is aid gained through interacting with others. (2) Women are more likely than are men to use social support when dealing with stress. Shelley Taylor (2002) has described the female response to stress as tend-and-befriend. When faced with stress, women are more likely than are men to seek out social contacts, nurture others, and create and maintain cooperative groups. These behaviors are likely to reduce the negative physiological and psychological effects of the stressor. (3) When faced with a stressor, men are more likely than are women to engage in behavior that exacerbates the physiological effects of the stressor, such as reacting with anger and hostility. 91. The answer should include the following information: Stressors challenge you to take action to eliminate or overcome the stressors. Events are most stressful when there is nothing to do or no way to deal with the challenge. Kenneth has the perception of control over his stressor, while Judy does not. Perceived control will allow Kenneth to experience less stress about the exam than Judy will.

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Chap 13_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Yennefer has been working at one of the top sales and marketing firms and has worked increasingly longer hours to remain a top performer. Yennefer initially experienced an extended period of increased physiological arousal that stabilized at a higher level than normal; however, more recently she has had low energy and has been particularly susceptible to illness. What stage of general adaptation syndrome BEST characterizes Yennefer's physiological response? a. alarm b. resistance c. burnout d. exhaustion 2. Children who watched more television coverage of the terror attacks on 9/11: a. had higher symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder. b. had lower symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder. c. showed general adaptation syndrome. d. did not show a stress response. 3. What is the fight-or-flight response? a. a three-stage physiological response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered b. an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases one's readiness for action c. the tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitiveness d. a source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly 4. After working for 20 years at a local factory, Russell is physically, mentally, and emotionally exhausted. He probably suffers from: a. burnout. b. major depressive disorder. c. stress inoculation. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. 5. The process by which damaged blood vessels accumulate plaque is called: a. primary appraisal. b. atherosclerosis. c. general adaptation syndrome. d. secondary appraisal.

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Chap 13_5e 6. Which statement about meditation and relaxation therapy is true? a. Meditation is more effective than relaxation therapy in managing stress. b. Meditation focuses on internal thought, while relaxation therapy focuses on external body tension. c. Relaxation therapy is more effective than meditation in managing stress. d. Meditation is primarily a religious intervention, while relaxation therapy is agnostic. 7. In one study, medical student volunteers received small wounds to the roof of the mouth. Researchers found that these wounds healed more slowly: a. when the volunteers were learning about infection. b. in the winter. c. during examination week. d. when the volunteers were asked to monitor the wound daily. 8. Identify the personality characteristic MOST associated with positive health outcomes: a. pessimism. b. extraversion. c. hypersensitivity. d. optimism. 9. When we encounter a stressor, the adrenal glands release _____ and _____. a. serotonin; norepinephrine b. epinephrine; glucose c. epinephrine; norepinephrine d. adrenocorticotropic hormone; epinephrine 10. Harue's boss called him into a meeting to criticize his recent performance. During the meeting, Harue repeatedly reminded himself that his boss's criticisms were meant to help improve his performance, and his boss only made the criticisms because she cares about Harue's career progression. Harue's use of these thoughts is an example of: a. prolonged exposure. b. repressive coping. c. exposure therapy. d. reframing. 11. Secondary appraisals of challenge or threat both _____, but only threats can lead to _____. a. lead to high blood pressure; increased heart rate b. lead to high blood pressure; a compromised immune system c. raise the heart rate; high blood pressure d. challenge the immune system; increased heart rate

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Chap 13_5e 12. Research on the effects of discrimination on stress shows that being rejected by a member of a different race tends NOT to produce: a. avoidance. b. anger. c. vigilance for danger. d. higher risk taking. 13. _____ is the physical and psychological response to internal and external stressors. a. A psychosomatic disorder b. A fight-or-flight stimulus c. Stress d. Social anxiety 14. Which scenario BEST fits the definition of reframing as a stress control technique? a. To suppress her anxiety before a major class speech, Janet postpones her speech until the end of the semester. b. Julie reduces her anxiety about public speaking by imagining that she is evaluating her audience. c. James controls his fear of public speaking by dropping his speech course. d. Hector reduces his anxiety about a major class speech by distracting himself the night before with a funny movie. 15. The obesity problem in the United States has its basis, in large part, in the fact that Americans eat: a. food that has a higher percentage fat content than do Europeans. b. slowly, which impedes digestion. c. at the wrong times of the day to maximally burn calories. d. larger portions of food. 16. The main cause of coronary heart disease is _____, which occurs when damaged blood vessels accumulate plaque. a. osteosclerosis b. atherosclerosis c. multiple sclerosis d. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 17. Cala is a committed businesswoman who believes her actions and words influence her life. She frequently undertakes new challenges. Cala can be described as: a. optimistic. b. resistant. c. hardy. d. pessimistic. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 18. Many chronic stressors are linked to: a. failing an exam. b. having two exams in the same day. c. social relationships. d. concerns about being pregnant. 19. Dimitri is exhibiting shortened telomeres. He is MOST likely experiencing: a. a fight-or-flight response. b. chronic stress. c. resistance. d. an illness. 20. Increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respirations are associated with activation of the _____ nervous system. a. sympathetic b. autonomic c. central d. parasympathetic 21. Joel tends to have higher than normal anxiety about his health. After spending hours researching his most recent symptoms, Joel has become convinced that his cough is indicative of something more serious, like lung disease. His behavior is BEST described as: a. a somatic symptom disorder. b. the placebo effect. c. malingering. d. a sickness response. 22. Individuals who experience hypersensitivity to pain have increased activity in what key brain areas? a. anterior cingulate cortex, somatosensory cortex, and prefrontal cortex b. hypothalamus, adrenal cortex, and pituitary gland c. hypothalamus, somatosensory cortex, and prefrontal cortex d. adrenal cortex, pituitary gland, and somatosensory cortex 23. Research on the effects of discrimination on stress shows that being rejected by a member of the same race tends NOT to produce: a. avoidance. b. increased cortisol levels. c. vigilance for danger. d. shame.

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Chap 13_5e 24. Billy is generally impatient and always in a hurry. These are characteristics of the: a. Type A behavior pattern. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. fight-or-flight response. d. parasympathetic response. 25. Biofeedback has proven to be a useful technique for: a. increasing resistance to infection. b. increasing aerobic capacity. c. achieving relaxation. d. decreasing symptoms of depression. 26. Gloria has been experiencing increased levels of stress lately. These experiences will NOT likely cause: a. arousal of the sympathetic nervous system. b. elevated blood pressure. c. damaged blood vessels that accumulate plaque. d. increased blood flow through the arteries. 27. After the Major League Baseball game he attended ends, Joel walks to the subway. He hops on one of the cars and notices that it is very crowded. Joel experiences a threat to his well-being due to the crowding and the belief that he is stuck. His stress response is _____ due to _____. a. minimized; rational coping b. increased; lack of perceived control c. increased; fight-or flight response d. minimized; chronic stressors 28. Who won the Nobel Prize for the discovery of the functions of telomeres and telomerase? a. Meyer Friedman and Ray Rosenman b. Linus Pauling c. Hans Selye d. Elizabeth Blackburn 29. Caps at the ends of chromosomes are known as: a. telomerase. b. catecholamines. c. telomeres. d. nuclei.

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Chap 13_5e 30. Using a technique called _____, survivors of rape relive the traumatic event in their imagination by recording a verbal account of the event and then listening to the recording daily. a. telomerase b. tend-and-befriend c. prolonged exposure d. fight-or-flight 31. The _____ appraisal process allows a person to decide whether a red spot on his finger is blood or simply a glob of ketchup. a. secondary b. Type A c. primary d. threat 32. The phase of the general adaptation syndrome in which the body experiences organ damage is called: a. alarm. b. exhaustion. c. resistance. d. collapse. 33. Identify the sequence that correctly orders the steps of rational coping: a. exposure, understanding, acceptance b. alarm, resistance, exhaustion c. acceptance, exposure, understanding d. avoidance, exposure, acceptance 34. Increased levels of stress lead to all of these EXCEPT: a. arousal of the sympathetic nervous system. b. elevated blood pressure. c. damaged blood vessels that accumulate plaque. d. increased blood flow through the arteries. 35. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are: a. lymphocytes. b. catecholamines. c. telomeres. d. placebo effects.

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Chap 13_5e 36. Margo has an extremely strained relationship with her mother. This is an example of a: a. daily hassle. b. stressful life change. c. catastrophe. d. chronic stressor. 37. Compliance with a treatment does NOT deteriorate when the: a. treatment is frequent. b. treatment is inconvenient. c. treatment is painful. d. number of treatments decreases. 38. What is an obligation associated with a sick role for a teenager? a. missing school without penalty b. calling in sick from a part-time job without penalty c. watching television all day d. taking medication and resting to get better 39. Which statement is NOT true of the tend-and-befriend response? a. It amplifies the unhealthy effects of stress. b. It may be the reason women are healthier than men. c. It provides social support for the people around the stressed person. d. It may be the reason women live longer than men. 40. Research has demonstrated an association between: a. catastrophes and later decreased grit. b. chronic stress and improved cognition. c. major stressors and later heart disease. d. daily hassles and reduced risk for obesity. 41. The subfield of psychology that is concerned with how psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness and the maintenance of an individual's well-being is: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. d. psychiatric immunology.

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Chap 13_5e 42. The College Undergraduate Stress Scale is a questionnaire that predicts a person's _____ by identifying _____. a. life expectancy; life-changing events b. life satisfaction; personal stressors c. stress level; life satisfaction d. likelihood for illness; life-changing events 43. Jennifer is studying at the library for a midterm that is worth 50% of her grade. A group of nearby students are talking very loudly, despite several requests from library staff to study quietly. Jennifer decides the noise is not bothersome, since she could always use the noise-cancelling headphones she has with her. Jennifer's stress response is _____ due to _____. a. minimized; rational coping b. increased; chronic stressors c. increased; the fight-or flight response d. minimized; perceived control 44. Yolanda runs marathons and recently has increased her training intensity. She now runs 3 to 4 hours a day. One side effect of this training is that she has stopped menstruating. What phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Yolanda experiencing? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. collapse 45. Identify the sequence that correctly orders structures in the brain and body that are active during a fight-orflight response: a. adrenal gland, hippocampus, pituitary gland b. adrenal gland, pituitary gland, hypothalamus c. hypothalamus, pituitary gland, adrenal gland d. adrenal cortex, hypothalamus, hippocampus 46. _____ is a technique for reducing tension by consciously relaxing muscles of the body. a. Relaxation therapy b. Biofeedback c. Meditation d. Massage therapy

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Chap 13_5e 47. Procrastination has _____ effects on psychological and physical health and _____ effects on academic performance. a. negative; negative b. negative; positive c. positive; negative d. positive; positive 48. Shortened telomeres lead to increased risk of all of these EXCEPT: a. cancer. b. chronic stress. c. diabetes. d. depression. 49. Which activities prevent chronic stress from shortening telomere length? a. religious participation and exercise b. meditation and exercise c. obtaining education and meditation d. religious participation and obtaining education 50. Which strategy has been shown to be as healthy for you as exercising and not smoking? a. maintaining positive social relationships b. ending a stressful marriage c. meditation d. moving away from major population centers 51. Jordan has come down with a mild case of meningitis, which has resulted in a short hospital stay and several weeks of rest at home. During this time, Jordan has been excused from attending school and from his weekly chores. Which term BEST describes Jordan's situation? a. sick role b. malingering c. psychosomatic illness d. placebo effect 52. Dr. Flint, a health psychologist, would offer which reason to explain how optimism allows a person to maintain psychological health during physical illness? a. Optimists seek out and face negative emotions in the face of illness. b. Optimists are more likely to use relaxation training to control their stress reactions. c. Optimists focus on the big picture instead of following the detailed directions of their physicians. d. Optimists keep up social contact and recreational activities during treatment.

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Chap 13_5e 53. Dayton has been experiencing psychological distress after finding out he was HIV positive (stress score: 100). On the other hand, Daveed's life changes this year have been related to his transition to college—he's experiencing being away from home for the first time (stress score: 53) and making new friends (stress score: 47). According to the supporting principles of the College Undergraduate Stress Scale stress scale, which individual is more likely to get ill following these life changes? a. Dayton is more likely, since his life event has a higher stress score compared to either of Daveed's individual life events. b. Daveed is more likely, since he experienced two stressful life events and Dayton experienced only one. c. Both are equally likely, since they have equal cumulative stress scores. d. Neither, since both individuals experienced fewer than five stressful life events. 54. According to Julie Lythcott-Haims, overparenting can have what type of effect on development? a. It can deprive children of opportunities to learn creativity and competence. b. It does not substantively affect children in the long term. c. It rightly protects children from danger and prepares them for future struggles. d. It has short-term negative effects that fade with time. 55. Sonia works as a high school science teacher and tends to devote much of her free time to mentoring students and improving her curriculum. Sonia initially found teaching to be very rewarding but more recently has felt worn out and dejected as a result of not being able to inspire her students about science. Sonia is MOST likely suffering from: a. burnout. b. resistance. c. hardiness. d. chronic stressors. 56. Jiro is in the library working on a final paper for his Spanish class. A group working nearby becomes louder and louder, until Jiro asks them to quiet down. They continue to work loudly, and Jiro becomes stressed. However, he reasons that he could always go work in a different section of the library. Jiro's stress is _____ due to _____. a. minimized; rational coping b. increased; chronic stressors c. increased; fight-or flight response d. minimized; perceived control

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Chap 13_5e 57. An interaction between mind and body that can produce ailments is termed: a. chronic stress. b. acute stress. c. biological stressors. d. psychosomatic illness. 58. _____ appraisal refers to the interpretation of a stimulus as being stressful or not. a. Threat b. Primary c. Type A d. Secondary 59. Which statement about dieting and self-regulation is FALSE? a. Focusing on increasing activity is more important than reducing food intake. b. Conscious self-regulation attempts like restricting food intake are easily undermined by stress. c. Restricting food intake is a fundamental precursor to successful weight management. d. Self-regulation is more effective when it focuses on what to do rather than on what not to do. 60. Which type of protein causes the sickness response? a. cortisol b. cytokines c. glucocorticoids d. lymphocytes 61. Instead of dieting, some psychologists recommend controlling weight by: a. focusing on delayed gratification. b. adhering to strict portion sizes. c. cutting back on carbohydrates. d. emphasizing exercise and nutrition. 62. Similar to men, women respond to stress with sympathetic nervous system arousal and the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, but unlike men, it is also common for women to respond to stress by: a. drinking a beer. b. taking care of people. c. fuming alone. d. silently worrying.

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Chap 13_5e 63. What is the correct order of the stages of the general adaptation syndrome? a. resistance, alarm, exhaustion b. reaction, alarm, exhaustion c. alarm, resistance, exhaustion d. reaction, alarm, collapse 64. Which statement about religiosity and spirituality is FALSE? a. Individuals who are religious and spiritual have improved psychological health. b. Individuals who are religious and spiritual experience lower rates of heart disease. c. Intercessory group prayer has been linked with positive health outcomes by strengthening social bonds. d. Attending weekly religious services may lead to the development of a stronger and more extensive social network. 65. Tasia (a woman) and Tony (a man) have just gotten into another fight and are both feeling stressed out about it. Assuming typical gendered stress responses, who would be more likely to go play with their children after the fight? a. Tasia b. Tony c. They are both equally likely to play with their children when stressed. d. Neither would be likely to play with the children when stressed. 66. Jill has an abrasion on the cornea of her right eye. Which condition is LEAST likely to promote satisfactory compliance with her treatment regimen? a. Jill's eye drops are required only at bedtime. b. Jill is required to administer the drops every 4 hours. c. Jill is required to administer the drops every 12 hours. d. Jill's eye drops are required only in the morning. 67. Evenor has just been given a pop quiz, but he decides he doesn't care about his performance because he can drop his lowest quiz grade in this particular course. This evaluation is part of Evenor's _____ of the situation. a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. reframing d. rational assessment

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Chap 13_5e 68. For which individual would perceived control over events be the lowest? a. Stacey, who is a college student during finals week b. Bryson, who is starting out on an extremely crowded 2-hour subway commute c. Eric, who is deciding on whether to go on a second date with Mandy d. Clay, who is an executive about to deliver a report to his agency's board of directors 69. An individual is MOST likely to get sick when experiencing the _____ stage of the generalized adaptation syndrome. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. burnout d. secondary appraisal 70. An individual experiencing the placebo effect is likely to have decreased activation in all of these brain regions EXCEPT the: a. anterior cingulate cortex. b. thalamus. c. insula. d. adrenal cortex. 71. Lee is in the 5th grade and is bullied almost daily at school. He is experiencing a: a. daily hassle. b. stressful life change. c. catastrophe. d. chronic stressor. 72. Carly decides to take summer courses to advance her degree progress. Carly is initially distressed when she learns that several of her upcoming assignments involve public speaking but is relieved when she remembers the university library offers free public speaking support. Which term BEST describes Carly's secondary appraisal of her public speaking assignments? a. challenge b. threat c. exhaustion d. alarm

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Chap 13_5e 73. A clinically significant psychological or physiological response to a therapeutically inert substance or procedure is termed a _____ effect. a. treatment b. placebo c. double-blind d. psychotherapeutic 74. Elements of city life, such as noise, traffic, and pollution, produce: a. chronic stress. b. acute stress. c. biological stressors. d. psychosomatic illness. 75. Which statement about humor and health is true? a. Laughter increases the time required to recover from a stressor. b. People who try to find the humor in life's events tend to live longer. c. Humor can reduce sensitivity to pain. d. Humor leads to good health. 76. Catecholamines are responsible for all of these changes during the stress response EXCEPT increased: a. heart rate. b. respiration rate. c. blood pressure. d. concentration of glucose in the blood. 77. Malingering is BEST characterized by: a. anxiety that is disproportionate to severity of symptoms. b. an interaction between mind and body that can produce illness. c. feigning medical or psychological symptoms for personal gain. d. sustained physiological arousal. 78. The phase of the general adaptation syndrome in which the body shuts down unnecessary processes such as digestion and sex drive is called: a. resistance. b. reaction. c. alarm. d. exhaustion.

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Chap 13_5e 79. If telomeres become too short: a. cells can no longer divide properly. b. cells will divide faster. c. cortisol will be released. d. new telomeres are created. 80. Which statement about self-regulation is true? a. The ability to self-regulate is dependent on personality type. b. Self-regulation depends on inner willpower that can be fatigued. c. Self-regulation is an automatic process to align the self with preferred standards. d. The ability to self-regulate varies by gender. 81. Failures in medical care may stem from the failure of health care providers to recognize: a. psychological challenges in self-care. b. personality traits. c. symptom hypersensitivity. d. patient motives in sick roles. 82. Because her apartment was burglarized, Danielle moved to another city and never discusses the burglary with her friends. Her behavior illustrates _____ coping. a. rational b. repressive c. passive d. ineffective 83. Which stressor would MOST likely cause the greatest damage to your health? a. seeing a dentist or doctor b. getting a speeding ticket c. having two exams on the same day d. living in a crowded, noisy city 84. The transformation following illness that is associated with a set of rights and obligations is known as: a. malingering. b. exhaustion. c. burnout. d. the sick role.

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Chap 13_5e 85. Studies have shown that individuals living in urban areas are _____ to experience chronic stress and show _____ activity in the brain. a. more likely; increased amygdala b. less likely; decreased amygdala c. more likely; decreased cortisol d. less likely; increased cortisol 86. _____ are proteins that circulate through the body and communicate the sickness response to the brain. a. Glucocorticoids b. Catecholamines c. Monoamines d. Cytokines 87. Dr. Carpentier studies how psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness. She studies: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. d. psychiatric immunology. 88. Which person would be expected to have the lowest levels of stress and depression? a. Mika, who walks briskly for 30 minutes five times per week b. James, who stretches for 5 minutes each morning upon waking c. Isabel, who plays video games for 20 minutes each day d. Aziz, who lifts heavy weights three times per week 89. When patients at a health care provider appointment were asked to report how many pills they had taken since their last visit and then the pills in the bottle were counted to assess the accuracy of each patient's report, Roth and Caron (1978) found that patients: a. were fairly accurate in estimating their intake. b. slightly underreported their intake. c. substantially underreported their intake. d. overreported their intake. 90. Men with a Type _____ behavior pattern are more likely to have a heart attack than are men with a Type _____ behavior pattern. a. A; B b. A; C c. B; A d. B; C Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 91. All of these statements about smoking cessation are true EXCEPT: a. the resolve to quit smoking is fragile and seems to break down under stress. b. ex-smokers remain sensitive to cues in the environment. c. people become less likely to relapse the longer they've been away from nicotine. d. a person's character is the root cause of recurrent relapses and poor self-regulation. 92. Among college students, those who _____ tend to show reduced immune responses to flu vaccinations. a. report the greatest feelings of isolation b. have the most friends c. have chosen a major d. are not religious 93. Having a belief in and engagement with some higher power is termed: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. 94. Which person is MOST likely to suffer from respiratory problems? a. Gaia, who is in the top 1% SES b. Josiah, who has a stressful high-status job c. Shanna, a student with many friends d. Matthew, who doesn't believe he has social support 95. Erika takes line dancing classes three times a week. Each class is 45 minutes. This is an example of: a. aerobic exercise. b. social support. c. biofeedback. d. the relaxation response. 96. Robert hears footsteps behind him while walking down a dark street at night. He is fearful and feels his heart pounding. This response is due to the release of _____, which _____ during stressful situations. a. catecholamines; activate the pituitary gland b. cortisol; lowers blood glucose levels c. cortisol; induces the release of ACTH from the pineal gland d. catecholamines; activate the sympathetic nervous system

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Chap 13_5e 97. Suzanne Kobasa studied a group of stress-resistant business executives and suggested that they shared a trait she called: a. hardiness. b. optimism. c. Type A. d. self-regulation. 98. Jamal displays Type A behavior patterns. Which of these is NOT true of Jamal? a. He tends to respond to stress with anger. b. He has increased risk for cardiovascular disease. c. He exhibits hostility and a competitive nature. d. He is less driven than his friend who has Type B behavior patterns. 99. The known benefits of relaxation therapy do NOT include reduced: a. stress. b. levels of GABA. c. blood pressure. d. cortisol levels. 100. Which statement about the relationship between religious experiences and positive health outcomes is FALSE? a. Religiosity and spirituality are associated with lower rates of heart disease. b. Intercessory prayer (praying for someone) has been shown to have beneficial effects. c. Religiosity and spirituality are associated with decreased chronic pain. d. Religiosity and spirituality are associated with improved psychological health. 101. Discrimination can lead to all of these EXCEPT: a. greater vigilance for danger. b. anger. c. positive health outcomes. d. higher risk taking. 102. Simran is consciously easing his muscles with the goal of reducing tension. He is engaged in: a. prolonged exposure. b. relaxation therapy. c. meditation. d. the general adaptation syndrome.

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Chap 13_5e 103. Jamal has been experiencing frequent headaches. He has been struggling with significant health-related anxiety and devotes most of his time and energy to his health concerns. Jamal is struggling with: a. the placebo effect. b. somatic symptom disorders. c. malingering disorders. d. a sick role. 104. Physical activity that increases heart rate and oxygen intake for a sustained period of time is called: a. aerobic exercise. b. social support. c. biofeedback. d. the relaxation response. 105. Which statement about aerobic exercise is true? a. Exercise improves mood by suppressing the secretion of serotonin. b. Exercise exaggerates the harms caused by stressors. c. Exercise does not benefit individuals with schizophrenia. d. Exercise is as effective as the strongest psychological interventions for depression. 106. Brain-imagining research supports the conclusion that MOST people who complain often about physical symptoms of pain are: a. experiencing more psychological distress than they are physical pain. b. accurately reporting their pain levels. c. actually underreporting symptoms of pain. d. exaggerating their levels of pain. 107. Juan has not been getting enough sleep over the course of the semester due to increased anxiety about his heavy course load. Juan's consistent lack of sleep and heavy course load are both examples of: a. fight-or-flight responses. b. the general adaptation syndrome. c. chronic stressors. d. rational coping. 108. What factor determines whether a stressor is interpreted as a threat or challenge during the secondary appraisal process? a. perceived control b. gender c. primary appraisal d. rational coping

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Chap 13_5e 109. Estella was under a great deal of stress at work, and her health started to suffer. Her doctor treated her using _____, whereby Estella had sensors attached to various parts of her body and watched her vital signs on a computer screen until she learned to relax. a. biofeedback b. electrical massage stimulation c. stress-inoculation training d. relaxation therapy 110. A state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion resulting from long-term involvement in an emotionally demanding situation and accompanied by lowered performance and motivation is called: a. burnout. b. major depressive disorder. c. stress inoculation. d. posttraumatic stress disorder. 111. Henry is a member of the university swim team and recently learned the university prohibits students on academic probation from participating in team sports. Henry becomes worried about how this will affect his team's participation at an upcoming swim competition but soon realizes there is free university tutoring that would help ensure his team remains eligible for the competition. Which term BEST characterizes the stage of Henry's evaluation? a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. chronic stressor d. alarm phase 112. What is the major consequence of underreporting or insensitivity to illness symptoms? a. delayed treatment b. psychological distress c. psychosomatic illness d. cardiovascular disease 113. Cynthia was recently promoted to an executive position in her company. The increased stress was enormous. After a few weeks, she began losing weight, she lost interest in sex, and her menstrual cycle became irregular. Several months later, Cynthia suffered a physical breakdown when she acquired a dangerous viral infection and required hospitalization. What phase of the general adaptation syndrome left Cynthia susceptible to the viral infection? a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. collapse Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 114. In response to threat, the hormone _____ is secreted from the _____ gland. a. leptin; pineal b. cortisol; pineal c. insulin; adrenal d. ACTH; pituitary 115. Activation of what type of protein can induce the sickness response? a. cytokines b. glucocorticoids c. telomerase d. catecholamines 116. National polls report that more than _____ of Americans believe in God. a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90% 117. After years of denial, David finally admitted to himself, his family, and his friends that he has a drinking problem. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance 118. People who report higher levels of pain do NOT have enhanced activity in the: a. thalamus. b. somatosensory cortex. c. prefrontal cortex. d. anterior cingulate cortex. 119. The Type _____ behavior pattern is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused anger, impatience, a sense of urgency, and competition. a. A b. B c. C d. D

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Chap 13_5e 120. A socially recognized set of rights and obligations linked with illness is known as: a. the sick role. b. the illness management protocol. c. a patient consent form. d. the social contract. 121. Archer starts to receive intense criticism from his classmates and instructor after completing a presentation for his public speaking course. Archer's heart and respiration rates begin to increase, and his face starts to feel red and flushed. What stage of general adaptation syndrome BEST characterizes Archer's response? a. alarm b. resistance c. burnout d. exhaustion 122. Finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor to reduce its threat is called: a. repressing. b. reframing. c. rationalizing. d. reorienting. 123. Recent research has shown that engaging in several weeks of intensive meditation is associated with: a. a reduction in the number of the telomeres associated with aging. b. an increased number of telomeres, indicating a slight reversal of aging. c. telomere lengthening, indicating a slight reversal of aging. d. the shortening of telomeres, which is associated with aging. 124. _____ are released by white blood cells and stimulate the vagus nerve, producing a sickness response. a. Glucocorticoids b. Catecholamines c. Monoamines d. Cytokines 125. Jenna fakes physical and psychological symptoms to achieve sympathy and other social gains. Jenna would be classified as: a. having a borderline personality disorder. b. having high pain sensitivity. c. being a malingerer. d. being a hypochondriac.

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Chap 13_5e 126. Among people who have just had heart surgery, one would expect that _____ would be _____ MOST likely to have postsurgical complications. a. pessimists; equally b. pessimists; less c. optimists; less d. optimists; more 127. Anita wasn't prepared for the pop quiz her psychology professor handed out. Her secondary appraisal was that it was: a. a challenge. b. a reinforcer. c. a threat. d. not a stressor. 128. The adrenal glands do NOT release the hormone: a. cortisol. b. epinephrine. c. norepinephrine. d. ACTH. 129. Dr. White is demonstrating telomere shortening to the biopsychology class he is currently teaching. To reduce telomere length, the rats will all _____. To demonstrate interventions that block telomere length reductions, half of the rats will also _____. a. exercise; be given epinephrine b. be given epinephrine; exercise c. be exposed to chronic stress; exercise d. exercise; be exposed to chronic stress 130. Who is at GREATEST risk for burnout? a. Steven, who is a computer programmer developing a new software b. Jennifer, who as a social worker deals daily with highly emotional situations c. Raine, who is a mother of three children, all of whom are under 10 years of age d. Melanie, who is a college professor nearing retirement and recently bought a vacation home 131. Which statement about the relationship between meditation and stress management is FALSE? a. Meditation can affect aging by increasing telomere length. b. Meditation can involve attempts to clear the mind of thought. c. Meditation decreases control over attention. d. Meditation can involve focusing on a single thought.

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Chap 13_5e 132. Rats studied by Hans Selye were subjected to various prolonged stressors. A common response in the rats involved: a. excessive weight gain. b. an enlarged adrenal cortex. c. enlarged lymph glands. d. shrinkage of the stomach. 133. The _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome occurs when the body rapidly mobilizes its resources to respond to the threat. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. activation 134. Which statement about optimism is FALSE? a. Optimism is moderately heritable. b. Levels of optimism tend to fluctuate across the life span. c. Optimists tend to have better cardiovascular health. d. Pessimists can be trained be become more optimistic. 135. Who is MOST likely to develop an illness in the near future, according to the College Undergraduate Stress Scale? a. Stephanie, whose close friend has died b. Josie, who was recently arrested for drunk driving c. Amanda, who is going on a first date d. Jane, who is falling asleep in class 136. Juan struggles with severe stress and anxiety, and has sought out treatment from his family doctor. Juan's doctor recommended a treatment that involves learning to control his stress response by monitoring a physiological signal from an external monitoring device. What is the name of the intervention that BEST fits this description? a. meditation b. rational coping c. biofeedback training d. relaxation training

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Chap 13_5e 137. Because Juan was well prepared for his psychology exam, he interpreted the exam as a(n) _____ instead of a _____. a. challenge; threat b. threat; challenge c. competition; stressor d. opportunity; challenge 138. Jada's psychology instructor announces a pop quiz and begins to pass out papers. Jada's heart and respiration rates begin to increase, and her face starts to feel red and flushed. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome BEST characterizes Jada's response? a. alarm b. resistance c. burnout d. exhaustion 139. Which statement about psychosomatic illness is true? a. It refers to a condition where the physical "illness" really is psychological in nature. b. It results from an interaction of psychological and physical determinants. c. It typically occurs in people who have a low sensitivity to pain. d. It is defined as reports of pain in the absence of accompanying activity in pain-sensitive areas of the brain. 140. Claire is struggling with her first-year philosophy class. According to Julie Lythcott-Haims, what is the BEST way her parents can help her? a. Her parents should take over the final project so that Claire can get a high grade. b. Her parents should call Claire's professor to find out why she's struggling. c. Claire's parents should let her figure it out herself. d. Claire's parents should call her every day to see if she's completed her philosophy work. 141. As part of a credit-counseling program Aziz joined to reduce his credit card debt, he has to spend 2 hours each week reviewing all of his expenditures and financial records. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance

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Chap 13_5e 142. The fundamental principle behind the College Undergraduate Stress Scale is that: a. some individuals are more likely to get sick than others following a stressor. b. personality traits impact the severity of a stressor. c. summing the stress rating of each life change can predict future illness. d. only negative stressful events impact our health. 143. Stressors cause hormones known as _____ to flood the brain, wearing down the immune system. a. adrenaline b. c-FOS c. glucocorticoids d. monoamine oxidase inhibitors 144. Rodney is quick to anger and frequently gets into arguments with his friends and coworkers. Rodney also struggles to exercise patience when under pressure. Which of these BEST characterizes Rodney's behavior? a. Type A behavior pattern b. alarm phase c. burnout d. Type B behavior pattern 145. Sarah is interested in psychology as a career choice. In particular, she is interested in the area of psychology concerned with ways in which psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness and the maintenance of health. MOST likely, Sarah would select _____ as a career choice. a. stress psychology b. health psychology c. biobehavioral medicine d. biopsychology 146. An event is classified as a stressor when it: a. evokes an irrational fear response. b. challenges you to do nothing. c. is classified as a challenge. d. increases demand or threatens a person's well-being. 147. Stress is to a _____ as a stressor is to a _____. a. chronic situation; specific event b. psychological response; physiological response c. response; stimulus d. physiological response; psychological response

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Chap 13_5e 148. Michelle (a woman) and Bansi (a man) both have typical gendered responses to stress. When stressed, Michelle is more likely than Bansi to: a. text a friend. b. drink alcohol. c. become angry at family members. d. engage in repressive coping. 149. An adaptive set of reactions to illness organized by the brain is termed: a. a fight-or-flight response. b. biofeedback. c. a sickness response. d. the general adaptation syndrome. 150. For which individual would perceived control over events be the lowest? a. a young child living in an abusive household b. a person struggling with the decision to end or continue a romantic relationship c. a quarterback at the beginning of a championship game d. a college student who just received a subpar grade on her midterm examination 151. When men were asked to narrate a highly stressful film about industrial accidents: a. men who were asked to make the commentary as funny as possible did not experience a stress response to the video. b. men who were asked to describe the events seriously did not experience a stress response to the video. c. men who were asked to make the commentary as funny as possible showed a stress response but bounced back to normal arousal levels more quickly than those in the serious story group. d. humor had no effect on the men's stress response to the video. 152. Stella is exhibiting increased catecholamine activity as well as cortisol in her bloodstream. Based on this information, Stella is MOST likely experiencing a(an): a. immune response. b. fight-or-flight response. c. placebo effect. d. pain response.

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Chap 13_5e 153. Damien is working later than usual, and when he finally leaves work and catches the subway home, the subway is very crowded. Damien feels stuck and worries that his well-being is threatened. His stress response is _____ due to _____. a. minimized; rational coping b. increased; lack of perceived control c. increased; the fight-or flight response d. minimized; chronic stressors 154. Which senior citizen is MOST likely to suffer from poor health? a. a woman who is a widow and who has a wide network of social support b. a woman who is married and who exercises three times per week c. a man who does not exercise and who lives alone d. a man who does not exercise and recently got married for the second time 155. Rochelle is undergoing psychological treatment for posttraumatic stress symptoms that were triggered by experiencing a severe car accident. As part of her treatment, she is asked to relive the car accident in her imagination each day to gradually reduce overall anxiety related to the traumatic event. What therapeutic technique is outlined in this example? a. resistance b. understanding c. avoidance d. prolonged exposure 156. The phase of the general adaptation syndrome in which the body uses energy to draw on its stores of fat and muscle is called: a. reaction. b. resistance. c. exhaustion. d. alarm. 157. One commonality among different types of stressors is that they challenge you to: a. initiate escape-related behaviors. b. experience stress. c. take action to eliminate or overcome them. d. seek out social support mechanisms.

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Chap 13_5e 158. Self-regulation often involves: a. relaxation therapy. b. not succumbing to immediate gratification. c. weighing oneself on a daily basis. d. keeping a diary. 159. Research published in 2008 found that compared with those living more than 200 miles away, people living within 1.5 miles of the World Trade Center on September 11, 2001, had less gray matter in their: a. amygdala. b. pons. c. visual cortex. d. parietal lobe. 160. Which compounds are catecholamines? a. endorphins and cortisol b. glutamate and GABA c. epinephrine and norepinephrine d. acetylcholine and serotonin 161. _____ appraisal refers to determining whether a particular stressor is something that you can handle. a. Threat b. Primary c. Type A d. Secondary 162. Daniel is 25 years old. His chronic stressors are likely to be linked to: a. social relationships. b. getting married. c. buying a first home. d. quitting or losing a job. 163. As part of therapy, Amanda writes a narrative of what she experienced during her sexual assault. She reads this narrative to herself at least once daily. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance

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Chap 13_5e 164. Compared with participants who received relaxation and meditation training to deal with stress, participants who received hardiness training experienced _____ in perceived personal stress. a. slightly less reduction b. about the same reduction c. a substantial increase d. greater reduction 165. Brain activation in response to a threat begins in the: a. thalamus. b. hippocampus. c. cerebellum. d. hypothalamus. 166. Sources of stress that occur continuously or repeatedly are called: a. daily hassles. b. stressful life changes. c. catastrophes. d. chronic stressors. 167. What is biofeedback? a. the practice of intentional contemplation b. a technique for reducing tension by consciously relaxing muscles of the body c. the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and then to possibly gain control over that function d. help gained through interacting with others 168. _____ coined the term general adaptation syndrome. a. Jerome Singer b. Walter Cannon c. Ray Rosenman d. Hans Selye 169. A condition of reduced muscle tension, cortical activity, heart rate, breathing rate, and blood pressure is termed: a. mindfulness. b. the hypnotic state. c. the Zen state. d. the relaxation response.

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Chap 13_5e 170. Psychologists would identify which person as MOST at risk for developing premature heart disease? a. James, who works a desk job and is overweight b. Ralph, who is ambitious and seeks job promotions c. Larry, who is the president of a large corporation and is extremely time-conscious d. John, a manager who often exhibits anger and hostility toward his employees 171. Humor is a(n) _____ way to cope with stress because it _____ pain and distress. a. ineffective; increases sensitivity to b. irrational; only temporarily conceals c. effective; reduces sensitivity to d. rational; reframes 172. A technique for reducing tension by consciously easing the muscles of the body is known as: a. prolonged exposure. b. relaxation therapy. c. meditation. d. the general adaptation syndrome. 173. Many experts believe meditation exerts its psychological benefits by increasing: a. willpower. b. empathy for others. c. control over attention. d. agreeableness. 174. ACTH travels from the pituitary gland to the adrenal glands via the: a. bloodstream. b. sympathetic nervous system. c. somatic nervous system. d. efferent nerves. 175. Which statement about the sickness response is FALSE? a. It is evolutionarily advantageous in that it slows the spread of germs among people. b. Being sick can produce feelings of mild depression, even in people who were not depressed before the illness. c. Depression can activate the sickness response, even in people who are not infected with a virus or bacteria. d. Drugs that block the activity of cytokines enhance the sickness response.

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Chap 13_5e 176. Who has the MOST risk for burnout? a. a medical doctor who typically works 12-hour shifts but loves spending time with his family on his days off b. an emergency department physician who is also a very competitive tennis player at her country club c. an accountant who aims for a promotion d. a high school teacher who bases her self-worth on how well her students succeed 177. _____ involves changing your life circumstances as a way of reducing the impact of stress on the mind and body. a. Biofeedback b. Exposure therapy c. Mindfulness training d. Situation management 178. Maria orders a coffee from her usual coffee shop, drinks it, and feels energized. She is unaware that the barista accidentally served her a decaffeinated coffee. Maria's response to the coffee can BEST be described as: a. an adrenaline response. b. malingering c. a general adaptation response. d. the placebo effect. 179. A repetitive sound, such as om, used in meditation is called a: a. telomerase. b. phase. c. catecholamine. d. mantra. 180. A _____ technique helps people cope with stressful situations by developing new or creative ways to think about the stressors. a. biofeedback b. rational coping c. reframing d. prolonged exposure

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Chap 13_5e 181. Adrian has been experiencing psychological distress following a death in the family earlier in the year (stress score: 100). On the other hand, Jaden has experienced several positive life changes throughout the year, including getting married (stress score: 60) and starting a new job (stress score: 40). According to the supporting principles of the College Undergraduate Stress Scale stress scale, which individual is more likely to get ill following these life changes? a. Adrian is more likely, since his life event has a higher stress score compared to either of Jaden's individual life events. b. Jaden is more likely, since he experienced two stressful life events and Adrian experienced only one. c. Both are equally likely, since they have equal cumulative stress scores. d. Neither, since both individuals experienced fewer than five stressful life events. 182. The _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome occurs when the body adapts to its high rate of arousal as it tries to cope with the stressor. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. activation 183. What is the general adaptation syndrome? a. a three-stage physiological response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered b. an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases our readiness for action c. the tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitiveness d. a source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly 184. Which causal factor BEST predicts heart attacks in males? a. hostility b. smoking tobacco c. high caloric intake d. high LDL cholesterol levels 185. Which statement about exercise and stress is FALSE? a. Exercise can cause a significant reduction in depressive symptoms. b. Exercise can facilitate recovery from future stressors. c. Exercise is as effective as the strongest psychological interventions for depression. d. Exercise decreases endorphin production.

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Chap 13_5e 186. What is the immune system? a. a complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances b. an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases our readiness for action c. the tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitiveness d. a source of stress that occurs continuously or repeatedly 187. Which factor differentiates a stressor from a chronic stressor? a. magnitude b. valence c. hardiness d. continued exposure 188. The key function of cortisol is to: a. increase blood glucose levels for use by the muscles. b. induce the release of ACTH from the pineal gland. c. decrease the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system. d. increase blood lipid levels for use by the muscles. 189. Each time a cell divides, the telomeres: a. lengthen. b. shorten. c. lose receptors on their dendrites. d. gain receptors on their dendrites. 190. _____ are specific events that place demands on a person. a. Stressors b. Fight-or-flight stimuli c. Stress d. Reinforcers 191. Aid gained by interacting with others is termed: a. social loafing. b. reciprocal altruism. c. social support. d. humanistic therapy.

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Chap 13_5e 192. Which statement about Type A behavior pattern is FALSE? a. Type A individuals tend to respond to stress with anger. b. Type A individuals have increased risk for cardiovascular disease. c. Type A individuals exhibit hostility and a competitive nature. d. Type A individuals are less driven than are Type B individuals. 193. The _____ are the three key organs involved in the HPA axis response to stress. a. hippocampus, pineal gland, and amygdala b. hippocampus, parietal lobe, and anterior cingulate gyrus c. hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal glands d. hypothalamus, pineal gland, and amygdala 194. The set of psychological disorders in which people with at least one bodily symptom display significant health-related anxiety, express disproportionate concerns about their symptoms, and devote excessive time and energy to their symptoms or health concerns is called: a. somatoform disorders. b. somatic symptom disorders. c. malingering disorders. d. a sick role. 195. Maxine attends church each week and is very engaged with her congregation. This is an example of: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. 196. Jalisa recently started a new job in finance. The job has many intense demands, and Jalisa experiences a prolonged period of physiological arousal, in which her body tries to cope with the demands of the new job by shutting down unnecessary processes. Jalisa is experiencing the _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome. a. alarm b. exposure c. acceptance d. resistance

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Chap 13_5e 197. The _____ system is a complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances. a. HPA axis b. immune c. endocrine d. somatic 198. Which situation has NOT been suggested as a reason the French are less obese than are Americans? a. Foods eaten in France contain less fat than those in the United States. b. Portion sizes are smaller in France than they are in the United States. c. The activity level of people in France is greater than of those in the United States. d. Time spent eating a meal is longer in France than it is in the United States 199. The role of catecholamines during the fight-or-flight response is to _____ sympathetic and _____ parasympathetic nervous system activation. a. increase; decrease b. decrease; increase c. increase; increase d. decrease; decrease 200. Which statement is true about the tend-and-befriend response? a. It amplifies the unhealthy effects of stress. b. It is the reason men are healthier than women. c. It provides social support for the people around the stressed person. d. It is the reason men live longer than women. 201. The physiological response profile outlined in the general adaptation syndrome: a. occurs with acute stressors but not repeated stressors. b. is modifiable in type based on the type of stressor encountered. c. is nonspecific to the type of stressor. d. is specific to the type of stressor. 202. Jai spends hours preparing for each psychology class. They complete all of the practice quizzes at the end of each chapter. When Jai's psychology professor handed out a pop quiz, their secondary appraisal was that it was: a. a challenge. b. a stressor. c. a threat. d. not a stressor.

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Chap 13_5e 203. Perceived control refers to our ability to _____ stressors. a. take action against b. cope with inescapable c. predict and identify d. cope with chronic 204. _____ are especially prone to suffer from respiratory infections because their immune systems have been compromised by stress. a. Teenagers in large high schools b. People in low-status jobs c. Elderly people who live with their families d. People who work in international jobs 205. Which person is MOST likely to react most strongly to stressful situations? a. a person with an overactive parasympathetic nervous system b. a person prone to the placebo effect c. a person who cannot escape from the situation d. a person who is a pessimist 206. Part of what makes a placebo effective is the: a. attitude of the physician administering it. b. social support system of the patient. c. level of pain at the onset of treatment. d. patient's belief that it will work. 207. Julienne has been under chronic stress. As a result, her telomeres have likely: a. unraveled. b. not changed. c. lengthened. d. shortened. 208. The _____ refers to an emotional and physiological reaction to an emergency that increases readiness for action. a. Type A behavior pattern b. general adaptation syndrome c. fight-or-flight response d. parasympathetic response

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Chap 13_5e 209. Who is LEAST likely to develop an illness in the near future, according to the College Undergraduate Stress Scale? a. Brad, who has been accused of burglary b. Tim, who just got married c. Chris, who is going on a first date d. Adam, who is in the middle of a physical fight 210. Which statement about overparenting is true? a. There are more positive than negative effects of overparenting on development. b. Overparenting is associated with a higher likelihood of being medicated for anxiety and/or depression in adulthood. c. Overparenting does not systematically affect children in adulthood. d. Overparenting is more likely to negatively affect males than females. 211. Kristoff is a "habitual procrastinator" and waits until the night before papers are due to begin working on them. Kristoff is at a higher risk than are his typical classmates for developing: a. diabetes. b. high-risk behavior. c. psychosomatic illness. d. cardiovascular disease. 212. The _____ phase of the general adaptation syndrome is similar to the fight-or-flight response. a. alarm b. exhaustion c. resistance d. activation 213. Affiliation with or engagement in the practices of a particular religion is termed: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. 214. _____ stress _____ the aging process. a. Acute; temporarily halts b. Acute; accelerates c. Chronic; temporally halts d. Chronic; accelerates

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Chap 13_5e 215. The hardy personality has been shown to offer protection from stress-induced illnesses. According to research, the core features of hardiness do NOT include: a. a sense of commitment. b. high levels of social intelligence. c. belief in control. d. willingness to accept challenge. 216. Some people fake medical or psychological symptoms to achieve something that they want. This type of behavior is called: a. malingering. b. general adaptation. c. meditation. d. relaxation. 217. The exercise of voluntary control over the self to bring the self into line with preferred standards is called: a. self-motivation. b. self-management. c. self-regulation. d. self-esteem. 218. Melanie is studying the effects of urban crowding on the prevalence of anxiety disorders. It is MOST likely that Melanie is a(n) _____ psychologist. a. clinical b. environmental c. social d. humanistic 219. Brain-imagining research has demonstrated that people who demonstrate low-pain sensitivity exhibit _____ activity in the _____ when administered a painful stimulus. a. more; anterior cingulate b. more; nucleus accumbens c. less; anterior cingulate d. less; nucleus accumbens 220. People can change their brain waves from alert beta patterns to relaxed alpha patterns when permitted to monitor their brains using: a. an electromyograph. b. an electroencephalograph. c. functional magnetic resonance imaging. d. galvanic skin recording. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 221. Which statement about the relationship between religious experiences and positive health outcomes is true? a. Religiosity, not spirituality, is associated with positive health outcomes. b. Spirituality, not religiosity, is associated with positive health outcomes. c. Both religiosity and spirituality are associated with positive psychological, but not physical, health outcomes. d. Both religiosity and spirituality are associated with positive psychological and physical health outcomes. 222. A placebo can reduce pain by triggering endogenous: a. catecholamines. b. opioids. c. epinephrine. d. glucocorticoids. 223. After years of overspending, opening new lines of credit, and hiding financial statements, Christopher finally recognizes that he has financial problems that are not going to go away unless he changes his behavior. This example illustrates which step of rational coping? a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance 224. Dr. Hart uses a technique in her private practice that helps her clients cope with stressful situations by developing new and creative ways to think about situations. She is using: a. biofeedback. b. prolonged exposure. c. reframing. d. relaxation therapy. 225. The MOST effective means by which to stop smoking involves: a. the use of nicotine patches. b. counseling programs. c. persistence in trying to quit. d. undergoing hypnosis.

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Chap 13_5e 226. Aaron has been struggling in his physics course and is worried about an upcoming exam. He decides to fake having the stomach flu on exam day in order to get an extension. Aaron's behavior is BEST described as: a. repressive coping. b. malingering. c. somatoform disorder. d. part of the resistance phase. 227. _____ is the style of dealing with stress characterized by avoiding feelings, thoughts, or situations that are reminders of a stressor and maintaining an artificially positive viewpoint. a. Mental burnout b. Rational coping c. Repressive coping d. Reframing 228. Laboratory studies suggest that _____ can _____ telomere length. a. epinephrine; enhance b. serotonin; reduce c. ACTH; enhance d. cortisol; reduce 229. Alonso believes in and has a relationship with a higher power but has not been to a church in more than 10 years. This is an example of: a. meditation. b. religiosity. c. spirituality. d. relaxation. 230. The cognitive stress management strategy that involves facing the stressor and working to overcome it is called: a. repressive coping. b. reframing. c. rational coping. d. active coping. 231. The stressful presence of a predator's odor can trigger all of these EXCEPT: a. lethargy. b. fever. c. increased white blood cell count. d. decreased cytokines.

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Chap 13_5e 232. The technique known as prolonged exposure is associated with the _____ process of stress management. a. rational coping b. motivated forgetting c. reframing d. repressive coping 233. Due to Christopher's reaction to stress, he is likely to experience particularly harmful effects on his cardiovascular system. Which reaction is MOST likely responsible for Christopher's increased risk? a. impatience b. a sense of time urgency c. anger and hostility d. competitive tendencies 234. Individuals that exhibit "hardiness" are BEST described as: a. stress resistant. b. chronically stressed. c. burned out. d. Type A. 235. The term self-regulation can be defined as a(an): a. form of meditation. b. coping mechanism. c. body management technique. d. exercise of voluntary control over the self. 236. Events are perceived as the MOST stressful when: a. there is associated sympathetic nervous system activation. b. they are acute and must be dealt with in the moment. c. they are related to social relationships. d. no effective action against the stressors can be taken. 237. Rational coping involves three steps—acceptance, exposure, and: a. thinking. b. bargaining. c. anger. d. understanding.

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Chap 13_5e 238. Professor Dillman studies how psychological factors influence the maintenance of an individual's well-being. He studies: a. health psychology. b. psychoneuroimmunology. c. neuropsychology. d. psychiatric immunology. 239. Which statement does NOT indicate a reason many people don't quit smoking despite knowing the risks? a. Nicotine is addictive. b. Smoking produces marked decreases in overall self-regulation. c. The desire to quit smoking breaks down under stress. d. Former smokers remain sensitive to cues in the environment for some time after quitting. 240. Abigail is very competitive in everything that she does. She is also impatient and can't stand to procrastinate on tasks. These are all characteristics of the: a. Type A behavior pattern. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. fight-or-flight response. d. parasympathetic response. 241. Which of these is NOT a secondary gain of illness for a 10-year-old child? a. resting on the sofa all day b. taking medicine to get better c. not having to eat anything unpleasant d. being helped by one's parents 242. Samantha and her husband are extremely in debt and are no longer able to make monthly payments on what they owe. This has been going on for 2 years now. This is an example of a: a. daily hassle. b. stressful life change. c. catastrophe. d. chronic stressor.

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Chap 13_5e 243. A key physiological event in the cascade of events that underlie the association between stress and cardiovascular disease is: a. inducement of hunger by stress, which leads to the ingestion of fats that clog the arteries. b. suppression of hunger by stress, which leads to the breakdown of arterial wall material. c. vasodilation produced by prolonged parasympathetic system activation, which damages blood vessels. d. prolonged arousal of the sympathetic nervous system, which leads to high blood pressure and damage to blood vessels. 244. Psychologists would identify which person as MOST at risk for developing premature heart disease? a. Darnell, who is a very patient high school science teacher b. Neem, who owns a store and treats his employees with kindness c. J'Quan, who is the president of a large corporation and is extremely time-conscious d. Anker, who is frequently hostile and competitive toward his coworkers 245. Rats studied by Hans Selye were subjected to various prolonged stressors. A physiological response that was NOT observed in the rats is: a. ulceration of the stomach. b. an enlarged adrenal cortex. c. enlarged thymus glands. d. shrinkage of the lymph glands. 246. Which statement about the relationship between stress and social support is FALSE? a. Participation in social activities can be as healthy as exercising and not smoking. b. Men are less likely than women to see out support when under stress. c. Strong feelings of isolation can reduce immune responses. d. Talking with friends is just as effective as psychotherapy. 247. The _____ step of rational coping involves working to find the meaning of the stressors in your life. a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance 248. A three-stage physiological stress response that appears regardless of the stressor that is encountered is called the: a. fight-or-flight response. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. tend-and-befriend reaction. d. self-regulation theory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 249. Which hormone is NOT considered a stress hormone in the HPA axis? a. leptin b. cortisol c. epinephrine d. ACTH 250. Which statement about burnout is FALSE? a. Burnout is the result of long-term involvement in an emotionally demanding situation. b. Burnout is associated with reduced performance and motivation. c. Burnout is least likely to occur in the helping professions. d. Unhappiness associated with burnout tends to spread to others. 251. A hormone that can lead to shortened telomeres is: a. cortisol. b. peptin. c. norepinephrine. d. epinephrine. 252. The reason putting a Band-Aid on a toddler's stomach might reduce her tummy-ache but not the gastrointestinal distress of an adult is that: a. toddlers are more susceptible to classical conditioning than are adults. b. adults have more pain receptors in their intestines than do toddlers. c. adults do not have the conscious expectation that the Band-Aid will work. d. toddlers have less active anterior cingulate cortices than do adults. 253. Which statement BEST describes the effects of optimism on health? a. Optimism directly improves physical, but not psychological, health. b. Optimism directly improves physical and psychological health. c. Optimism maintains psychological health in the face of a physical health problem. d. Optimism promotes psychological health in the absence of a physical health problem. 254. Lee was recently fired from his job. To deal with this stress, Lee moved to another state, stopped communicating with friends from his previous job, and obtained employment in a completely different field. Lee's behavior illustrates _____ coping. a. rational b. repressive c. passive d. ineffective

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Chap 13_5e 255. Fields and Levine (1984) discovered that taking a placebo causes the brain to release: a. endogenous opioids. b. oxytocin. c. GABA. d. acetylcholine. 256. As a technique to increase relaxation, biofeedback has proven to be _____ traditional relaxation therapy. a. considerably less effective than b. slightly less effective than c. about as effective as d. considerably more effective than 257. Which statement is true regarding the relationships among procrastination, health, and academic performance? a. Procrastination has negative effects on psychological health, no effect on physical health, and no overall impact on academic performance. b. Procrastination has negative effects on psychological and physical health but no overall impact on academic performance. c. Procrastination has negative effects on psychological and physical health, and it negatively impacts academic performance. d. While procrastination rarely impacts health, it does negatively impact academic performance. 258. Lillia, a bug enthusiast, looks down at her arm and realizes that a harmless bug is crawling on it. Which term BEST characterizes the stage of Lillia's stress appraisal? a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. chronic stressor d. alarm phase 259. Aja's brain is responding to a painful stimulus. In an fMRI, Aja's brain shows activation in all these areas EXCEPT the _____ cortex. a. anterior cinculate b. occipital c. somatosensory d. prefrontal

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Chap 13_5e 260. Which function is NOT associated with catecholamines? a. increasing sympathetic nervous system activity b. increasing parasympathetic nervous system activity c. increasing heart rate d. increasing respirations 261. What are specific events that place demands on a person? a. stressors b. fight-or-flight stimuli c. stress d. anxieties 262. Which statement about smoking is FALSE? a. One in two smokers dies prematurely from smoking-related diseases. b. The resolve to quit smoking can break down under stress. c. Nicotine is addictive. d. The rate of smoking in the United States is increasing. 263. Glass and Singer (1972) exposed participants to bursts of loud noise while they solved puzzles. Some participants were told that they could turn off the noise by pressing a button. Others were not given this option. Glass and Singer found that: a. loud noise produced dramatic decreases in task performance in both groups. b. loud noise increased task performance in the group with the escape option. c. simply having an escape option reduced the disruptiveness of the loud noise. d. loud noise increased task performance, but only in the group that actively turned it off. 264. The use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and then to possibly gain control over that function is called: a. biofeedback. b. rational coping. c. reframing. d. relaxation therapy. 265. One factor that increases the risk of engaging in unprotected sex is: a. being exposed to sex education. b. consuming alcohol. c. taking birth-control pills. d. having friends who are sexually promiscuous.

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Chap 13_5e 266. What are chronic stressors? a. sources of stress that occur continuously or repeatedly b. natural catastrophes c. daily sources of stress d. sudden changes to daily routines 267. Jamie is having a hard time creating a final project for his sociology class. According to Julie Lythcott-Haims, what is the BEST way his parents can help? a. Jamie's parents should take over the final project so that Jamie will get a high grade. b. Jamie's parents should call the professor to find out what Jamie's grade is. c. Jamie's parents should encourage him to take full responsibility for completing the work, regardless of the outcome. d. Jamie's parents should call every day to see if he has completed the work. 268. As a child, Lin was frequently teased for her appearance. This created a tremendous amount of stress for her, and she is now in therapy working to overcome this particular stressor. She is working with her therapist to find the meaning of the stressor in her life. Lin is in the _____ step of rational coping. a. exposure b. identification c. understanding d. acceptance 269. Sexually active female college students who do not use birth control tend to judge their likelihood of getting pregnant in the next year as _____ the likelihood of the average sexually active female college student becoming pregnant. a. about the same as b. slightly higher than c. considerably higher than d. considerably lower than 270. Dr Reyes is studying telomere length in rats. If her goal is reducing telomere length, which intervention should she use? a. have subjects exercise daily b. give subjects a drug known to increase epinephrine c. give subjects a drug known to increase cortisol d. alleviate any potential stressors in the subjects' environments

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Chap 13_5e 271. Individuals exposed to chronic stress may experience accelerated aging due to the effect of _____ on _____. a. telomerase; telomere quantity b. cortisol; telomere length c. telomerase; lymphocytes d. cortisol; lymphocytes 272. Which stress-induced hormone makes the body more vulnerable to illness as a result of wearing down the immune system? a. lymphocytes b. telomerase c. catecholamines d. glucocorticoids 273. What is the BEST way to prevent adolescents from having unprotected sex? a. provide sex education that gives teens the information they need to plan ahead b. provide sex education that stresses abstinence only c. provide abbreviated sex education that focuses on negative outcomes so that teenagers will not be encouraged to experiment d. begin sex education in 2nd grade 274. Public health professionals have recognized for some time that one of the major reasons people engage in risky sexual behaviors is that they: a. are unaware of the risks associated with their behavior. b. believe that they are uniquely invulnerable to the consequences. c. think that they are taking protective measures when having sex. d. do not care about contracting sexually transmitted infections. 275. When faced with a stressor, people report that the level of stress is _____ when they perceive that _____. a. lowest; they cannot control stressful events b. greatest; they can control stressful events c. lowest; the stressor is chronic, not acute d. greatest; they cannot control stressful events 276. The _____ is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitive achievement strivings. a. Type A behavior pattern b. general adaptation syndrome c. fight-or-flight response d. parasympathetic response Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 277. When reminded not to eat as many sugary foods because the doctor said he was prediabetic, A.J. replied that he is fine and thinking about health problems makes them worse. A.J.'s attitude illustrates _____ coping. a. rational b. repressive c. passive d. ineffective 278. Phil is an optimist who has a serious medical condition. Research suggests that he will be more likely than a pessimist to: a. suffer from depression and anxiety. b. shut down positive emotions. c. keep up relationships with others. d. ignore medical regimens. 279. A stressful event you feel fairly confident you can control is termed a _____, whereas a stressor you believe you might not be able to overcome is termed a _____. a. threat; challenge b. primary stressor; secondary stressor c. challenge; threat d. secondary stressor; primary stressor 280. Sunny is alarmed upon hearing several people scream. When she looks up suddenly, she realizes that the screaming is coming from a large roller coaster in the theme park she is standing in. Which term BEST characterizes the stage of Sunny's stress appraisal? a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. chronic stressor d. alarm phase 281. Darrion jogs for 30 minutes each day around his neighborhood. He engages in: a. aerobic exercise. b. social support. c. biofeedback. d. relaxation response. 282. Discrimination can induce short-term physiological changes that are MOST similar to a(an): a. resistance phase. b. exhaustion phase. c. fight-or-flight response. d. avoidance state. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 283. The fact that a sizeable minority of people who experience chest pain during a heart attack wait hours before seeking medical attention underscores the point that: a. the correlation between the sensation and perception of pain can be negative. b. the correlation between the sensation and perception of pain is not perfect. c. insensitivity to pain can have detrimental effects. d. insensitivity to pain results from rational coping. 284. To avoid burnout, people in high-stress jobs would NOT be advised to: a. invest time in family. b. employ stress management techniques. c. arrive early to work so as to better prepare for daily challenges. d. devote more time to a hobby unrelated to the job. 285. College students often develop illness as the end of the semester draws near. Based on his research, Pennebaker (1989) would MOST likely suggest that colleges could reduce the number of ill students by: a. reframing final examinations as a challenge by offering prizes to those students who score at the top of their class. b. inoculating students to difficult final examinations by increasing the rigor of the midterms. c. offering stress-reduction activities such as Bring Your Pet to School Day. d. encouraging students keep a journal in which they record their thoughts and feelings. 286. Adela and Logan have the same heavy course load this semester but have very different reactions to academic pressure. Adela tends to face challenges head on and retain an optimistic attitude, whereas Logan's behavior tends to be avoidant and pessimistic. Which student is more likely to get ill at the end of their semester? a. Adela is more likely due to a low level of hardiness. b. Logan is more likely due to a low level of optimism. c. Both students are equally likely, since they are experiencing the same stressors. d. Neither student is likely, since academic pressure does not affect illness probability. 287. Kiko decides to study at her favorite local coffee shop for an upcoming exam. Kiko orders a caffeinated coffee but (unbeknownst to her) receives a decaffeinated beverage; however, she feels just as energized as she would after drinking the caffeinated version. Which term BEST describes Kiko's physiological response to the decaf beverage? a. adrenaline response b. malingering c. general adaptation response d. placebo effect

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Chap 13_5e 288. A complex response system that protects the body from bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances is termed the: a. immune system. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. Type A behavior pattern. d. Type B behavior pattern. 289. Which term refers to a systematic bias toward believing you are less likely to fall victim to a problem than are others? a. failure to self-regulate b. hardiness c. malingering d. illusion of unique invulnerability 290. Sonita prepared well for her job interview. This allowed her to interpret the secondary appraisal of the stressful interview as a _____ rather than a _____. a. challenge; threat b. threat; challenge c. competition; stressor d. opportunity; challenge 291. Lower scores on the College Undergraduate Stress Scale can indicate: a. increased likelihood of illness. b. lower likelihood of illness. c. higher levels of stress. d. lower levels of academic stress. 292. Kim was in a severe car accident last year and has since avoided the scene of the accident as well as any driving. Kim's behavior is BEST characterized as: a. rational coping. b. fight-or-flight response. c. stress resistance. d. repressive coping. 293. _____ is the practice of intentional contemplation. a. Cognitive reframing b. Biofeedback c. Meditation d. Relaxation

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Chap 13_5e 294. Meditation appears to have positive psychological effects by improving control over: a. attention. b. muscles. c. experiences. d. telomeres. 295. Which occupation is MOST associated with experiencing burnout? a. sales b. teaching c. journalism d. art 296. Those that identify as habitual procrastinators are at a higher risk for developing: a. diabetes. b. high-risk behavior. c. psychosomatic illness. d. cardiovascular disease. 297. Jake is pretending to be sick so that he doesn't have to go to school today. This type of behavior is called: a. malingering. b. general adaptation. c. meditation. d. relaxation. 298. Stacey is meditating and saying om. This sound a: a. telomerase. b. phase. c. catecholamine. d. mantra. 299. The physical and psychological response to internal and external events or pressures that threaten an individual's well-being is called: a. a psychosomatic disorder. b. intermittent reinforcement. c. stress. d. spontaneous recovery.

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Chap 13_5e 300. James has just begun his first semester at a new university and is surprised at the level of difficulty of his courses. James experiences a prolonged period of stress resistance, which stabilizes at a higher level than usual. Which phase of general adaptation syndrome is James experiencing? a. alarm b. exposure c. acceptance d. resistance

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Chap 13_5e Answer Key 1. d 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. c 10. d 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. d 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. a 52. d 53. c 54. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. b 61. d 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. a 66. b 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. a 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. d 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. b 81. a 82. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 83. d 84. d 85. a 86. d 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. a 91. d 92. a 93. c 94. d 95. a 96. d 97. a 98. d 99. b 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. b 107. c 108. a 109. a 110. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 111. b 112. a 113. b 114. d 115. a 116. b 117. d 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a 122. b 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. c 127. c 128. d 129. c 130. b 131. c 132. b 133. a 134. b 135. a 136. c 137. a

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Chap 13_5e 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. d 147. c 148. a 149. c 150. a 151. c 152. b 153. b 154. c 155. d 156. d 157. c 158. b 159. a 160. c 161. d 162. a 163. a 164. d 165. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 166. d 167. c 168. d 169. d 170. d 171. c 172. b 173. c 174. a 175. d 176. d 177. d 178. d 179. d 180. c 181. c 182. c 183. a 184. a 185. d 186. a 187. d 188. a 189. b 190. a 191. c 192. d 193. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 194. b 195. b 196. d 197. b 198. a 199. a 200. c 201. c 202. a 203. a 204. b 205. c 206. d 207. d 208. c 209. c 210. b 211. d 212. a 213. b 214. d 215. b 216. a 217. c 218. b 219. c 220. b 221. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 222. b 223. d 224. c 225. c 226. b 227. c 228. d 229. c 230. c 231. d 232. a 233. c 234. a 235. d 236. d 237. d 238. a 239. b 240. a 241. b 242. d 243. d 244. d 245. c 246. d 247. c 248. b

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Chap 13_5e 249. a 250. c 251. a 252. c 253. c 254. b 255. a 256. c 257. c 258. a 259. b 260. b 261. a 262. d 263. c 264. a 265. b 266. a 267. c 268. c 269. d 270. c 271. b 272. d 273. a 274. b 275. d 276. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e 277. b 278. c 279. c 280. b 281. a 282. c 283. c 284. c 285. d 286. b 287. d 288. a 289. d 290. a 291. b 292. d 293. c 294. a 295. b 296. d 297. a 298. d 299. c 300. d

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Both challenges and threats are stressors that increase heart rate. a. True b. False 2. Positive as well as negative events are important when considering the risk of stress-related illness. a. True b. False Scenario 13.2 is based on the following reference: Lazarus, R. S., & Folkman, S. (1984). Stress appraisal and coping. New York: Springer. Use Scenario 13.2 to answer the following question(s). Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed a three-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine if stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if it can be successfully handled. The cognitive behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. While coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotional components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 3. (Scenario 13.2) Changing one's perception of a stressor from a threat to a challenge involves _____ appraisal and is also a strategy commonly used in the _____ coping style. a. primary; reframing b. secondary; reframing c. primary; repressive d. secondary; repressive 4. The adrenal glands are stimulated by a hormone called ACTH. a. True b. False 5. The HPA axis that plays a role in reaction to stress is composed of the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and amygdala. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 6. Burnout occurs more often in the helping professions, in which workers encounter emotional turmoil. a. True b. False 7. The three C's associated with hardiness are commitment, control, and challenge. a. True b. False 8. Reframing exercises involving thinking and writing about stressful events may improve the functioning of the immune system. a. True b. False 9. Activation of the HPA axis increases sympathetic nervous system activity. a. True b. False Scenario 13.2 is based on the following reference: Lazarus, R. S., & Folkman, S. (1984). Stress appraisal and coping. New York: Springer. Use Scenario 13.2 to answer the following question(s). Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed a three-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine if stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if it can be successfully handled. The cognitive behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. While coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotional components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 10. (Scenario 13.2) A war veteran receiving systematic desensitization therapy for posttraumatic stress disorder is shown graphic depictions of war violence in virtual reality. This example describes a coping strategy involving: a. reframing. b. reappraising. c. exposure. d. acceptance.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 11. There is evidence that living at lower levels of society increases the risk of infections by weakening the immune system. a. True b. False 12. People who report having many daily hassles often report more physical and psychological problems than do people experiencing infrequent but more severe life stressors. a. True b. False 13. College females who are sexually active rate themselves as less likely to become pregnant than the average college female who is sexually active. a. True b. False 14. Aerobic exercise is a causal factor in promoting psychological well-being. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 13.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 13.3 introduces material from the following publication. Roth, H. P., & Caron, H. S. (1978). Accuracy of doctors' estimates and patients' statements on adherence to a drug regimen. Clinical Pharmacology & Therapeutics, 23(3), 361–370. Roth and Caron (1978) studied adherence to antacid treatment in patients with peptic ulcers. Patients were asked to estimate the percentage of pills that they took as prescribed. For example, a person who reports 100% is indicating that he never missed a dose—nor took extra—and is taking the medication exactly as described. Researchers assessed the accuracy of patients' reports by counting the number of pills in each patient's bottle. Shown in Figure 13.1 are the results. Figure 13.1

15. (Scenario 13.3) The fact that most of the data points fall above the diagonal line indicates that most patients: a. underreported the number of pills actually consumed. b. overreported the number of pills actually consumed. c. adhered to the prescription regimen at above chance levels. d. took more than the recommended dose.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 16. Burnout is a particular problem for individuals in high-level management positions. a. True b. False 17. Exposure to a traumatic event may cause the hippocampus to decrease in size. a. True b. False Use Scenario 13.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes, constituting what is termed the HPA axis, involved in this response to a variety of threatening stimuli. In his seminal research on general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not pertinent to survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 18. (Scenario 13.1) When training for ultralong distances, for many marathon runners, their menstrual cycle stops, illustrating which stage of GAS? a. resistance b. shock c. antishock d. exhaustion 19. Chronic stress is an effect, but not a cause, of atherosclerosis. a. True b. False 20. The resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome is equivalent to the fight-or-flight response. a. True b. False

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21. (Scenario 13.3) There appears to be _____ between actual pills consumed and reports of pills consumed. a. a positive correlation b. a negative correlation c. no association d. a causal relationship

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 22. Malingering is a behavior in which individuals fabricate medical or psychological symptoms to get something they want. a. True b. False Use Scenario 13.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes, constituting what is termed the HPA axis, involved in this response to a variety of threatening stimuli. In his seminal research on general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not pertinent to survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 23. (Scenario 13.1) The final two stages of GAS pertain only to stressors that are: a. real and not imagined. b. universal. c. species-specific. d. chronic. 24. The general adaptation syndrome in reaction to a chronic stressor is nonspecific; it doesn't vary, regardless of the stressor that is encountered. a. True b. False 25. In response to a painful stimulus, low-pain-sensitive individuals exhibit more activity in the anterior cingulate cortex than do high-pain-sensitive individuals. a. True b. False 26. Cortisol decreases the amount of glucose in the blood. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 27. In response to stimulation from the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland releases catecholamines. a. True b. False

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28. (Scenario 13.3) This research would best be classified as a(n): a. case study. b. correlational study. c. naturalistic observation. d. experiment.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 29. On the College Undergraduate Stress Scale, concerns about pregnancy produce the highest stress rating. a. True b. False Scenario 13.2 is based on the following reference: Lazarus, R. S., & Folkman, S. (1984). Stress appraisal and coping. New York: Springer. Use Scenario 13.2 to answer the following question(s). Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed a three-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine if stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if it can be successfully handled. The cognitive behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. While coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotional components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 30. (Scenario 13.2) Which example BEST illustrates secondary appraisal? a. a user of hallucinogenic drugs determining whether the snake he sees crawling up the wall is real b. a job applicant conceptualizing the process as an opportunity to interview prospective employers c. a person determining if the spot on her shirt is coffee or blood d. a student determining if a bad grade can be overcome or is likely to result in course failure 31. First-year college students tend to have weaker immune systems than do other college students. a. True b. False 32. Situations in which we feel we have no control are more stressful than are situations where we are required to take action. a. True b. False 33. Somatic symptom disorders are considered psychological disorders. a. True b. False 34. Compliance with a medical treatment tends to increase as the treatment becomes more frequent. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 35. The average meal duration is greater in the United States than it is in France. a. True b. False 36. Hostility, especially in men, is a better predictor of heart disease than is smoking cigarettes. a. True b. False

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37. (Scenario 13.3) Tara tells her doctor that she takes her medication about 50% of the time relative to how the medication is prescribed. Based on the results of this study, Tara's doctor should probably conclude that Tara's report: a. is fairly accurate. b. underestimates her actual consumption. c. overestimates her actual consumption. d. is equally likely to be an underestimate and overestimate of her actual consumption.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 38. Rational coping involves purposefully attending to and thinking about a particular stressor in an effort to overcome it. a. True b. False 39. Men and women are equally likely to seek social support as a means of coping with stress. a. True b. False 40. Environmental psychology is the scientific examination of the reasons people tend to pollute their habitat. a. True b. False 41. Relaxation on a regular basis can reduce blood levels of cortisol, the biochemical marker of the stress response. a. True b. False 42. Meditation appears to have positive psychological effects, in part because it helps people improve control over their attention. a. True b. False

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43. (Scenario 13.3) The diagonal line on the scatterplot indicates: a. a positive correlation between bottle counts and reports of intake. b. the best-fitting line that can be used to predict patients' reports from bottle counts. c. the percentage of pills consumed as assessed by bottle counts. d. the function obtained if patients' reports matched bottle counts.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 44. Biofeedback has been demonstrated to be about three times as effective in reducing stress as traditional relaxation therapy. a. True b. False Scenario 13.2 is based on the following reference: Lazarus, R. S., & Folkman, S. (1984). Stress appraisal and coping. New York: Springer. Use Scenario 13.2 to answer the following question(s). Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed a three-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine if stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if it can be successfully handled. The cognitive behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. While coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotional components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 45. (Scenario 13.2) In a classic study in cognitive psychology, participants told not to think of white bears actually reported more thoughts about white bears than did controls exposed to pictures of white bears but not given the same instruction. These results, when extrapolated to coping style, suggest that: a. people may find it difficult to successfully cope using repressive strategies. b. exposure-based coping is more effective than is reframing. c. secondary appraisal modulates the effectiveness of exposure-based coping. d. people are more likely to utilize repressive coping than they are rational coping. 46. The three phases of the general adaptation syndrome are the alarm, anxiety, and exhaustion phases. a. True b. False 47. On average, a positive event produces the same amount of stress as does a negative event. a. True b. False 48. Research indicates that the use of repressive or avoidant responses to stress management is necessarily harmful. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 13.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes, constituting what is termed the HPA axis, involved in this response to a variety of threatening stimuli. In his seminal research on general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not pertinent to survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 49. (Scenario 13.1) HPA stands for: a. hypothalamic–prefrontal cortex–amygdala. b. hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenocortical. c. hippocampus–prefrontal cortex–adrenocortical. d. hippocampus–pituitary–amygdala. 50. Optimists stick to the medical regimens their caregivers have prescribed better than do pessimists. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 13.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes, constituting what is termed the HPA axis, involved in this response to a variety of threatening stimuli. In his seminal research on general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not pertinent to survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 51. (Scenario 13.1) A gazelle flees at the sight of an approaching lion. This flight-or-fight response MOST closely corresponds to which stage of GAS? a. recovery b. shock c. antishock d. resistance 52. Placebos given to reduce pain have been shown to increase activity in the insula and thalamus. a. True b. False 53. While research has demonstrated that both religiosity and spirituality are linked to health benefits, there is no scientific evidence to suggest that praying for someone is effective for that person. a. True b. False

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54. (Scenario 13.3) Consider the leftmost data points that fall above 100% on the y-axis. What is true of these patients? a. They took more pills than the prescribed amount. b. They consumed more pills than almost anyone else in the sample. c. They reported taking slightly too many pills but severely underestimated their intake. d. They reported taking slightly too many pills but severely overestimated their intake.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 55. Conscientiousness is a feature of the Type A behavior pattern. a. True b. False 56. Primary appraisal involves determining if a stimulus is a threat or a challenge. a. True b. False 57. If telomeres become too short, cells can no longer divide, which can lead to the development of tumors and a range of diseases. a. True b. False Scenario 13.2 is based on the following reference: Lazarus, R. S., & Folkman, S. (1984). Stress appraisal and coping. New York: Springer. Use Scenario 13.2 to answer the following question(s). Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed a three-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine if stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if it can be successfully handled. The cognitive behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. While coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotional components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 58. (Scenario 13.2) After being suspended by his sport for an entire season as a result of violating its substance abuse policy, a high-profile athlete will not discuss his drug use with the press, projects an obviously false positive outlook, and focuses on continuing his career after his suspension is served. The athlete is demonstrating a(n) _____ coping style. a. repressive b. problem-based rational c. emotion-based rational d. reframing 59. Men are more likely than women to exhibit a fight-or-flight response to stress. a. True b. False

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 60. Research has indicated that exercise is as effective as the most effective psychological interventions for depression. a. True b. False 61. The body responds differently to stress depending on whether the stressor is perceived as a threat or a challenge. a. True b. False 62. Threats, but not challenges, increase the constriction of blood vessels. a. True b. False 63. Aerobic exercise blocks the release of endogenous opioids in the brain. a. True b. False Use Scenario 13.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes, constituting what is termed the HPA axis, involved in this response to a variety of threatening stimuli. In his seminal research on general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not pertinent to survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 64. (Scenario 13.1) Which statement regarding the flight-or-fight response is true? a. It results from activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. b. It involves the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). c. It involves the inhibition of epinephrine and norepinephrine release. d. It results in a decrease in cortisol levels.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 65. A substantial number of people who seek medical care do so for treatment of psychological and emotional problems. a. True b. False

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66. (Scenario 13.3) The major purpose of this research is to use the actual number of pills consumed to: a. determine the percentage of participants who may require a smaller or larger dose. b. determine the percentage of participants who may be exaggerating their symptoms. c. identify factors that may increase patient adherence to taking medication as prescribed. d. assess patient compliance with taking medication as prescribed.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 67. Placebos have been shown to increase the release of endorphins, the brain's natural pain-killing chemical. a. True b. False Scenario 13.2 is based on the following reference: Lazarus, R. S., & Folkman, S. (1984). Stress appraisal and coping. New York: Springer. Use Scenario 13.2 to answer the following question(s). Lazarus and Folkman (1984) proposed a three-step model of coping. People first make primary appraisals to determine if stimuli are stressful. If a stimulus is determined to be a stressor, people make secondary appraisals to determine if it can be successfully handled. The cognitive behavioral strategies used to actually deal with stressors are termed coping styles. While coping styles can be classified in different ways, they usually involve approaching (rational coping), avoiding, or repressing (repressive coping) the stressful stimulus. Rational coping has both problem-focused and emotional components, and typically involves an acceptance of, exposure to, and understanding of the stressor. In addition to repressive and rational coping, a coping style based on reframing involves changing the way one thinks about a stressor to reduce its threat. 68. (Scenario 13.2) Which example BEST illustrates primary appraisal? a. a writer who must decide if she can meet her editor's deadline b. a rape survivor attempting to recall the attack in vivid detail c. a comedian determining if his joke surprised or offended his audience d. a homeowner determining if there is anything she can do to fix a noisy air conditioner

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 13.1 to answer the following question(s). Ever since Walter Cannon's original research on the flight-or-fight response, researchers have investigated the brain and bodily processes, constituting what is termed the HPA axis, involved in this response to a variety of threatening stimuli. In his seminal research on general adaptation syndrome (GAS), Hans Selye described how these physiological responses change with prolonged exposure to stress and thereby affect overall health. GAS consists of three phases. The alarm phase begins with exposure to an intense stressor and itself consists of two brief subphases: the shock phase in which the body momentarily cannot respond to the stressor and the antishock phase in which the body rapidly mobilizes resources to overcome it. If the stressor persists, the second phase of GAS, termed the resistance phase, begins. Here, the body adapts to heightened arousal levels and attempts to deal with the stressor by allocating increased energy to it at the expense of other physiological processes not pertinent to survival. The results of these physiological processes can lead to one of two end stages: Either the stressor is eliminated and the body recovers (the recovery stage), or the body's resistance collapses (the exhaustion phase). 69. (Scenario 13.1) Selye probably termed the adaptation syndrome general because: a. it reliably progresses through three consecutive phases. b. it may culminate in physical collapse, and even death in all species. c. the stressor is nonspecific. d. it is reliably observed in members of all cultures. 70. Summarize the key elements of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

71. Kenneth and Judy are both taking the same psychology course. Both students are stressed about the upcoming exam. Kenneth believes that he can control his grade on the exam by studying in advance, whereas Judy believes that no matter what she does to prepare, the instructor is in control of the outcome. Describe how Kenneth's and Judy's thoughts will impact their stress levels for the upcoming exam.

72. Illustrate the concepts of primary and secondary appraisal in the context of a high school public speaking assignment.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 73. Trevor has worked at a local factory for more than 25 years. He frequently complains that he no longer has the energy to do his job. He is often cynical about his work and doesn't see the point in his job. He also doesn't remember the last time he was happy at work. What's going on with Trevor? From your knowledge of psychology and stress, what suggestions might you offer Trevor?

74. Richard is the executive chef at an upscale restaurant and exhibits a Type A behavior pattern. Within the context of his job, describe some anticipated aspects of Richard's behavior and explain why Richard should be concerned about his cardiovascular health.

75. Assume that your parents are struggling with multiple stressors. Most notably, due to economic hardships, the bank has foreclosed upon the family home. Provide your parents with a list of strategies they might try to reduce their stress reactions and effectively cope with their financial situation.

76. Joseph is interested in biofeedback therapy. First, explain to him what biofeedback therapy is. Then compare the effectiveness of biofeedback with traditional relaxation therapy.

77. What are telomeres, and how do they relate to stress and aging?

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 78. Using examples, explain how people can use different coping strategies to reduce chronic stress reactions to a rape trauma.

80. Professor Carlson is giving a lecture on physical reactions involved with stress. How is she likely to describe the biological mechanisms underlying the fight-or-flight response?

81. Describe how, in general, men and women differ in their use of social support to deal with stress.

82. Explain the research focus of environmental psychology and give an example of this type of research.

83. Explain the cumulative effect of life events (including positive events) on health.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 84. What is the function of catecholamines and cortisol in the stress response?

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. a 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. d 31. a 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. b 41. a 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. b 49. b 50. a 51. c 52. b 53. a 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 55. b 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. b 65. a 66. d 67. a 68. c 69. c 70. The answer should include the following information: The phases of general adaptation syndrome are, in order, alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. In the alarm phase (which is equivalent to the fight-or-flight response), the body rapidly mobilizes its resources to respond to the threat. In the resistance phase, the body tries to adapt and cope with the stressor by shutting down unnecessary processes such as digestion, growth, and sex drive. Finally, if the stressor continues long enough, the exhaustion phase sets in. The body's resistance collapses, creating damage that can include susceptibility to infection, tumor growth, aging, irreversible organ damage, or death. 71. The answer should include the following information: Stressors challenge you to take action to eliminate or overcome the stressors. Events are most stressful when there is nothing to do or no way to deal with the challenge. Kenneth has the perception of control over his stressor, while Judy does not. Perceived control will allow Kenneth to experience less stress about the exam than Judy will. 72. The answer should include the following information: (1) Primary appraisal refers to the initial interpretation of a stimulus as stressful or not. For most high school students, the task of speaking in front of the class would be appraised as stressful. (2) Secondary appraisal refers to the judgment of whether the stressor is something that is manageable. For students who feel that they can handle the stressor, the public speaking assignment is viewed as a challenge. For students who feel that they cannot handle the stressor, the assignment is viewed as a threat.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 73. The answer should include the following information: (1) Trevor is obviously burned out. (2) Some psychologists believe that if you define yourself only by your career and gauge your worth only by success at work, you risk having nothing left when work fails. Others feel that some jobs, by their nature, produce unavoidable burnout. (3) Suggestions include investing more time in family, developing hobbies or other chances for self-expression outside work, trying stress management techniques (e.g., relaxation training, biofeedback, social support, humor), and practicing self-regulation to ensure healthy eating and exercise. 74. The answer should include the following information: (1) The Type A behavior pattern is characterized by a tendency toward easily aroused hostility, impatience, a sense of time urgency, and competitive achievement strivings. (2) Richard might easily become angered when employees make mistakes or the restaurant is not profitable; he might seek confrontation and verbally bully his employees and suppliers. He is likely insistent that dishes be prepared expertly in the least amount of time possible. Richard probably is a hard worker who works long hours and is obsessed with his restaurant outperforming competitors. People exhibiting a Type A behavior pattern, especially those people prone to hostility, are at a greater risk of heart disease. 75. The answer should include the following information: (1) The imminent loss of a home is something that probably cannot be effectively repressed. Therefore, you should encourage rational coping strategies featuring reframing. For example, you could emphasize to your parents how the loss of their home, while unfortunate, represents an opportunity to start over. (2) There are many effective ways to deal with chronic stress. Some of these include relaxation training, biofeedback, aerobic exercise, social support, humor, trying to be more optimistic despite the current negatives in your life, and avoiding smoking or abusing alcohol. 76. The answer should include the following information: (1) Biofeedback involves the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function to possibly gain control over that function, for example, body temperature or brain-wave patterns. (2) Recent studies suggest that EEG biofeedback (or neurofeedback) is moderately successful in treating brain-wave abnormalities in disorders such as epilepsy and in teaching people to down-regulate activity in regions of the brain involved in the strong emotional responses seen in some forms of psychopathology. However, biofeedback therapy is often no more effective than is traditional relaxation therapy. 77. Telomeres are caps at the tips of chromosomes. Each time a cell divides, the telomeres become slightly shorter. Over time, if they become too short, cells can no longer divide properly. People exposed to chronic stress have shorter telomere length. Cortisol (released in the stress response) can lead to shortened telomeres, which in turn can lead to accelerated aging and increased risk of a wide range of diseases, including cancer, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and depression. Exercise and meditation seem to prevent chronic stress from shortening telomere length, which may explain how these activities convey health benefits such as longer life and lower risk of disease.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 78. This answer should include the following information: (1) One coping strategy is repressive coping, which involves avoiding situations or thoughts that are reminders of a stressor and maintaining an artificially positive viewpoint. This technique can reduce immediate stress reactions but also can produce negative long-term consequences in some people. A rape survivor engaged in repressive coping might move to another city, avoid going to places similar to the rape setting, and become preoccupied with safety (e.g., checking locked doors). While this can be an effective coping strategy, for some people repressing becomes a grim preoccupation that causes additional psychological harm, (2) Rational coping involves facing the stressor and working to overcome it. Rational coping is a three-step process involving acceptance, exposure, and understanding. In this example, the first step is to accept that the rape occurred and to stop engaging in repressive denial. The second step might involve the conscious choice to relive the rape via recording a verbal account and listening to it daily (prolonged exposure). In addition, people would be encouraged to expose themselves to the environmental circumstances associated with the rape (e.g., a bar, a party), assuming that this is done in a safe manner. The exposure step in rational coping can be quite anxiety provoking itself; however, it is very effective at reducing long-term anxiety. Finally, rape survivors would be encouraged to come to an understanding of the event. Specifically, they are encouraged to deal with why questions. Here, it may be useful to employ reframing techniques (discussed below) to alter the meaning of traumatic events and reduce the stress that they induce. (3) Reframing involves finding a new or creative way to think about a stressor that reduces its threat. One strategy is to utilize stress inoculation therapy to develop ways to think positively about the situation. Therapists can help their clients realize that their reactions following the rape are under their control. Here, expressive writing may help the client reframe the issue in a more constructive manner. 79. The answer should include the following information: (1) Your friend would score unusually high on the College Undergraduate Stress Scale. He has been under chronic stress most of the semester, so his immune system is badly weakened. (2) Stress is worse if you feel you have no control over a situation; examples in this case are your friend's parents' divorce, the loss of his girlfriend, and living in a crowded and noisy dorm. (3) Suggested ways your friend could try to handle stress, for example, relaxation training, biofeedback, aerobic exercise (which causes the release of endorphins), social support (e.g., stay in contact with friends, talk), humor (e.g., watch funny movies, try to laugh at himself), try to be more optimistic despite the current negatives in his life, use self-regulation to eat healthily and avoid sexual risks, and don't smoke or abuse alcohol. 80. The answer should indicate that the fight-or-flight response to stress occurs when a fearful stimulus is perceived. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH (short for adrenocorticotropic hormone), which in turn stimulates the adrenal glands to release hormones, including catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine). The adrenal glands also release cortisol, which causes an increase in blood glucose levels. This sequence, called the HPA axis, arouses the sympathetic nervous system. 81. The answer should include the following information: (1) Social support is aid gained through interacting with others. (2) Women are more likely than are men to use social support when dealing with stress. Shelley Taylor (2002) has described the female response to stress as tend-and-befriend. When faced with stress, women are more likely than are men to seek out social contacts, nurture others, and create and maintain cooperative groups. These behaviors are likely to reduce the negative physiological and psychological effects of the stressor. (3) When faced with a stressor, men are more likely than are women to engage in behavior that exacerbates the physiological effects of the stressor, such as reacting with anger and hostility.

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Chap 13_5e _ TF + Essay 82. The answer should indicate that environmental psychology involves the scientific study of environmental effects on behavior and health. The notion behind this field is that our immediate environment can be a source of chronic stress. City life offers traffic noise, while rural life can lead to isolation. An example of this field is research studies in which children living under the takeoff and landing paths of planes at Heathrow Airport in London, England, were found to have lower levels of reading comprehension than children who lived elsewhere. 83. The answer should indicate that major life events induce stress and that cumulated stress can impair health. The notion is that the greater the number of stressful events (e.g., losing a job or experiencing the loss of a loved one) you experience, the more likely you are to become sick. Positive events (getting married) can also increase the risk of illness because they often require readjustment and preparedness that many people find extremely stressful. Positive events do produce less psychological distress and fewer physical symptoms than negative life events. 84. The catecholamines norepinephrine and epinephrine increase sympathetic nervous system activation and decrease parasympathetic activation. This results in increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate. The cumulative effect of these processes is to make more oxygen available to the muscles to energize attack or to initiate escape. Cortisol is also released by the adrenal glands and will increase the concentration of glucose in the blood to make fuel available to the muscles.

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Chap 14_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is true? a. Compulsions temporarily reduce anxiety. b. People believe their obsessions are rational. c. Men are slightly more susceptible to experiencing OCD than are women. d. Treatment involves actively trying to suppress obsessive thoughts. 2. Which of these BEST describes the cognitive model of depression? a. the idea that depression is persistent and can alter the moods of patients b. the idea that biases in how information is attended to, processed, and remembered foster and maintain depression c. the idea that those who are more prone to depression remain helpless because of their beliefs that they must accept whatever negative situation comes their way d. the idea that individuals with depression interpret positive experiences as positive but interpret negative experiences as more negative than they really are 3. The conceptualization of psychological abnormalities as diseases, which—similar to biological diseases— have symptoms, causes, and possible cures, is known as a _____ model. a. biopsychosocial b. medical c. DSM d. prescriptive 4. Which characteristic is a diagnostic sign of antisocial personality disorder? a. orderly and perfectionistic b. unstable self-image c. social withdrawal d. aggressive or violent behavior 5. Selena views drug addiction as a disease of the brain. She believes that if we can understand how drugs pathologically affect the brain, we can develop new treatments and ultimately cure people with drug addiction. Selena's views BEST match the _____ model of conceptualizing mental disorders. a. biopsychosocial b. medical c. DSM d. diathesis–stress

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Chap 14_5e 6. Which person would MOST likely be diagnosed with panic disorder? a. Abe, who had a panic attack when he was pulled over by the police b. Lauren, who has occasional panic attacks during periods of intense stress but has learned not to fear them c. Margaret, who had a panic attack when she was diagnosed with cancer d. Casey, who has occasional panic attacks and dreads having another 7. What is the key difference between signs and symptoms of a mental disorder? a. Symptoms are objectively observed indicators of a disorder, while signs are subjectively reported emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. b. Signs are objectively observed indicators of a disorder, while symptoms are subjectively reported emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. c. Symptoms are physical manifestations of a disorder, while signs are the initial indicators of a disorder. d. Signs are physical manifestations of a disorder, while symptoms are the initial indicators of a disorder. 8. What type of personality disorder is a person with a history of aggressive or violent behavior and a criminal record MOST likely to have? a. antisocial b. histrionic c. avoidant d. schizoid 9. Which of these is a defining feature of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. increased activity in brain circuits involving habitual learning b. false and irrational beliefs about the trauma c. amnesia of the traumatic event d. avoidance of things that call the traumatic thing to mind 10. Calling shyness a social phobia is an example critics of the medical model use to make the point that the medical model: a. confuses disorders for diseases. b. pathologizes normal human behavior. c. places too much emphasis on subjective symptoms. d. diagnoses but does not provide treatment for common disorders. 11. A clinician using RDoC would understand cocaine addiction, gambling, and risky sexual behavior as: a. all stemming from the same abnormal process. b. unique disorders with different symptoms. c. individual DSM diagnoses. d. problems that are unlikely to have effective treatment options. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 12. Over the past 2 months, Trisha has become lethargic and has stopped working out at the gym. Previously full of energy and curiosity, she now shows a lack of interest in virtually everything, even sex. She reports feelings of worthlessness. It is likely that Trisha is suffering from: a. seasonal affective disorder. b. unipolar depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. double depression. 13. The fact that antipsychotic medications block dopamine receptors immediately yet take weeks to work indicates that: a. the dopamine hypothesis is inadequate. b. dopamine is not involved in schizophrenia. c. multiple genes interact to determine schizophrenia. d. the effect of the medication is largely due to expectancy effects. 14. Mateo feels like his home is never secure from intruders. He checks the lock on each door 12 times after he enters or exits his apartment. He also creates traps to detect the presence of intruders when he leaves the apartment. Mateo's symptoms most closely resemble: a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. social phobia. d. agoraphobia. 15. _____ is NOT one of the three clusters of DSM–5 personality disorders. a. Odd/eccentric b. Anxious/inhibited c. Histrionic/depressive d. Dramatic/erratic 16. Approximately _____ of people in the United States suffer from generalized anxiety disorder at some point in their lives. a. 1% b. 6% c. 34% d. 80%

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Chap 14_5e 17. Li has noticed that his new friend will occasionally begin grimacing in a bizarre way while making strange movements. At other times, his friend's posturing is very rigid and he shows odd mannerisms. The other day, when Li and his friend were walking together, his friend began to shout profanities for no apparent reason. Li's new friend is exhibiting: a. grossly disorganized behavior. b. negative symptoms of schizophrenia. c. disorganized speech. d. a catatonic stupor. 18. Which of these is a class of specific phobias? a. public speaking b. using public restrooms c. blood, injections, and injury d. social phobias 19. Larry is suffering from major depressive disorder. By examining his medical records, his psychiatrist notes that Larry has lost 8 pounds since his last visit 2 weeks ago. Larry was not aware of this weight loss until it was pointed out to him. In this example, weight loss is one _____ of depression. a. sign b. diagnosis c. contraindication d. symptom 20. Which of these is a defining feature of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. decreased sympathetic nervous system activity b. false and irrational beliefs about the trauma c. recurrent unwanted thoughts or images of the trauma d. compulsive exposure to things that bring the trauma to mind 21. Across a range of countries, approximately what percentage of adults have reported seriously considering suicide at some point in their lives? a. 3% b. 5% c. 9% d. 15%

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Chap 14_5e 22. Which personality disorder is NOT among the odd/eccentric cluster? a. schizoid b. avoidant c. paranoid d. schizotypal 23. An ultimate goal of the RDoC is to classify mental disorders: a. through cluster analysis of symptoms. b. based on abnormalities in basic processes. c. based on differences in the human genome. d. through an understanding of the outcomes of disordered behavior. 24. Several studies have demonstrated a link between _____ and schizophrenia. a. attribution style b. the family environment c. attachment style d. Parkinson's disease 25. Will is a 3-year-old who rarely makes eye contact with others, only speaks a few words, and engages in repetitive hand flapping behavior. By DSM–5 criteria, Will would probably be diagnosed with: a. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. b. autism spectrum disorder. c. conduct disorder. d. childhood schizophrenia. 26. Diathesis can be defined as: a. a triggering event such as stress. b. a disease. c. a predisposition for a disease. d. the heritability of a disease. 27. Objectively observed indicators of an illness are termed: a. symptoms. b. signs. c. disorders. d. diseases.

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Chap 14_5e 28. Which disorder is NOT an anxiety disorder described in the DSM–5? a. phobia b. generalized anxiety disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. panic disorder 29. Which statement is FALSE regarding the DSM? a. The current edition describes more than 200 mental disorders. b. The original DSM allowed for more common language for talking about mental disorders. c. The original DSM described cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders. d. The current edition includes cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders. 30. Children who experience attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder do NOT experience: a. persistent problems with sustained attention. b. delusional thinking. c. problems with memory. d. disorganization. 31. Developing treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder involves _____ the activity in a brain circuit involved in _____ behavior. a. increasing; habitual b. decreasing; habitual c. increasing; emotional d. decreasing; emotional 32. _____ are virtually absent in childhood but dramatically increase across adolescence. a. Conduct disorders b. Personality disorders c. Conduct disorder and antisocial personality disorder d. Suicidal and nonsuicidal self-injury behaviors 33. Which of these are the three clusters of personality disorders? a. odd/dramatic, eccentric/erratic, anxious/inhibited b. odd/eccentric, erratic/anxious, dramatic/inhibited c. odd/eccentric, dramatic/erratic, anxious/inhibited d. odd/anxious, dramatic/erratic, inhibited/eccentric

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Chap 14_5e 34. More than _____ of all people who attempt suicide have a mental disorder. a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90% 35. Major depressive disorder is also known as: a. unipolar depression. b. double depression. c. persistent depressive disorder. d. bipolar depression. 36. Peyton explains to her psychiatrist that when she is experiencing anxiety, she feels like there is a heavy weight on her chest that prevents her from breathing normally. Peyton is discussing the _____ of her anxiety. a. signs b. prognosis c. etiology d. symptoms 37. How have recent versions of the DSM improved on the original? a. They have become more vague to encompass the diagnosis of multiple disorders. b. They have more detailed symptoms that have to be present to be diagnosed. c. They have led to less reliability in diagnosing mental disorders. d. They have included comorbid disorders. 38. Which of these is a characteristic of inattention? a. difficulties remaining still b. difficulties waiting for a turn c. interrupting others d. difficulties following instructions 39. The diathesis–stress model explains disease as the result of: a. a predisposition for a disease and a triggering event. b. a triggering event such as stress. c. a predisposition for a disease. d. biological, psychological, and social factors that all interact.

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Chap 14_5e 40. Upon hearing that his grandson Robert was diagnosed with depression, Mr. Stevens concluded that Robert must have a weak constitution. This example BEST illustrates: a. cultural syndromes. b. the diathesis–stress model of mental illness. c. the medical model of mental illness. d. the dangers of labeling. 41. The D in DSM stands for: a. disease. b. doctor. c. diagnostic. d. disorder. 42. From the RDoC perspective, mental disorders can be thought of as: a. arising from maladaptive learning experiences. b. descriptions of behavior, rather than explanations of behavior. c. the result of basic underlying processes. d. rather arbitrary cultural standards of normalcy. 43. A factor that is NOT a symptom of major depressive disorder is: a. feelings of worthlessness. b. lethargy or loss of pleasure. c. chronic excessive worries. d. sleep disturbances. 44. A factor that does NOT contribute to the recent higher rates of autism diagnoses is: a. changes in diagnostic definitions. b. greater awareness. c. side effects of childhood vaccinations. d. better screening and diagnostic tools. 45. Possible social factors in mental disorders do NOT include: a. maladaptive learning and coping. b. poor socialization. c. stressful life experiences. d. cultural and social inequities.

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Chap 14_5e 46. Research investigating the role of the family in schizophrenia has NOT characterized a "disturbed family" as one in which: a. at least one family member has schizophrenia. b. there is extreme conflict. c. there are chaotic relationships among family members. d. there is a lack of communication among family members. 47. Dr. Lian's patient diagnosed with schizophrenia reports that undercover agents are tracking his every move because he possesses something that they desire. Which positive symptom is Dr. Lian's patient demonstrating? a. hallucination b. delusion c. catatonic behavior d. social withdrawal 48. Prior to 200 years ago, the only explanation that was NOT given as a common cause of strange behavior or bizarre thoughts or emotions was: a. God's punishment for wrongdoing. b. possession by demons. c. witchcraft. d. disease. 49. Brain-imaging studies have shown that people with autism have comparably greater activation in brain regions related to: a. understanding the minds of others. b. basic object perception. c. reading. d. recognizing shapes. 50. Rates of autism have been _____ over the past few decades. a. increasing b. decreasing c. increasing for boys and decreasing for girls d. increasing for girls and decreasing for boys

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Chap 14_5e 51. Mark feels extreme anxiety when he has to give oral presentations. Although he has sufficient expertise on his presentation materials, he cannot control his fear of being publicly embarrassed. What is this an example of? a. a specific phobia b. social phobia c. acrophobia d. panic disorder 52. The genes linked to bipolar disorder are also associated with vulnerability to all of these EXCEPT: a. schizophrenia. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder. 53. Which disorder is NOT an anxiety disorder described in the DSM–5? a. phobic disorder b. bipolar disorder c. panic disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 54. Schizophrenic hallucinations do NOT include: a. hearing voices that no one else can hear. b. believing that you are Napoleon. c. seeing things that are not there. d. feeling as if you're being touched when no one is there. 55. Which statement about gender and suicide is true? a. Women are more likely to commit suicide than are men. b. Men are more likely to commit nonfatal suicide attempts than are women. c. The rate of suicide attempts increases dramatically during adolescence for boys but not for girls. d. Women are more likely to think about suicide than are men. 56. Research suggests that among people with bipolar disorder, severely stressed individuals took an average of _____ times longer to recover from an episode than individuals not affected by stress. a. two b. three c. four d. five

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Chap 14_5e 57. People who accept that they have schizophrenia but refuse to believe they are destined for a lower quality of life are fighting the _____ of the disorder. a. diagnosis b. symptoms c. prognosis d. etiology 58. Comparing the hippocampal volumes of Vietnam veterans and their identical twins demonstrated that reductions in hippocampal volume observed in combat veterans with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is: a. a direct consequence of extreme stress and a sign of the disorder. b. a direct consequence of extreme stress and a symptom of the disorder. c. a preexisting condition that makes persons vulnerable to PTSD. d. both a cause and a consequence of PTSD. 59. Twin studies have revealed _____ associated with bipolar disorder and schizophrenia. a. genetic effects b. epigenetic effects c. dopaminergic changes d. changes in brain regions 60. Anish attends lavish parties with the goal of attracting rich friends. He is very charming and deceptive. Once he has earned the trust of people, he robs them of tremendous amounts of money and then moves to a different city. He feels no remorse for hurting people in this way. Which personality disorder BEST describes Anish's behavior? a. narcissistic b. histrionic c. avoidant d. antisocial 61. For a behavior to be categorized as nonsuicidal self-injury, there must be: a. the deliberate destruction of body tissue. b. an intent to die. c. motivation based on attention. d. the presence of a mood disorder.

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Chap 14_5e 62. The M in DSM stands for: a. mind. b. monograph. c. medicine. d. manual. 63. Which of these is NOT a mood disorder? a. depression b. bipolar disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 64. Which statement about the relationship between neuroanatomy and schizophrenia is true? a. The majority of people with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles. b. The majority of people with schizophrenia have excess gray matter. c. Schizophrenia is associated with enlarged limbic structures. d. Schizophrenia is associated with progressive brain tissue loss. 65. Which statement is FALSE regarding obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? a. OCD involves obsessions that produce anxiety, and the compulsive behaviors mitigate the anxiety. b. Individuals with OCD often believe the obsessions and compulsions are rational. c. Attempts to cope with obsessive thoughts by trying to suppress them are of little or no benefit. d. Obsessions and compulsions are intense and frequent. 66. Possible psychological factors in mental disorders do NOT include: a. maladaptive coping. b. dysfunctional attitudes. c. interpersonal problems. d. stressful life circumstances. 67. Carla was a victim of sexual assault 6 months ago. Thoughts of the assault frequently come to mind, causing her extreme and nearly constant stress. She avoids going outside at night by herself because this is when the assault occurred. Carla MOST likely suffers from: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. major depressive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia.

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Chap 14_5e 68. Isa is feeling extreme anger toward herself, and to calm down, she cuts her lower abdomen. Isa's behavior represents: a. bipolar disorder. b. nonsuicidal self-injury. c. suicidal ideation. d. a nonfatal suicide attempt. 69. _____ symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors not typically seen in people without the disorder. a. Positive b. Negative c. Disorganized d. Cognitive 70. Which of these is the BEST example in support of the preparedness theory? a. A monkey comes to fear the experimenter following an aversive experience. b. A monkey comes to fear a food pellet that was previously associated with a shock. c. A monkey comes to fear a snake, but not a stuffed toy monkey. d. A monkey cannot discriminate between a live monkey and a toy monkey. 71. Anxiety and depression are said to be _____ with one another, as they often co-occur in a single individual. a. divergent b. consistent c. comorbid d. persistent 72. During the 1950s, drugs were discovered that could reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia by _____ levels of the neurotransmitter _____. a. lowering; dopamine b. increasing; dopamine c. lowering; serotonin d. increasing; serotonin 73. When viewing negative stimuli, people suffering from depression show decreased activity in areas of the brain associated with: a. self-control. b. processing emotional information. c. cognitive control. d. visual perception.

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Chap 14_5e 74. Which person is suffering from a delusion? a. Jakob, who believes that the CIA has been tracking him via a microchip they implanted in his arm b. Shanna, who frequently hears the voice of her deceased grandmother in her head c. Jocelyn, who is constantly washing herself because she believes that she smells like feces d. Jeremiah, who claims to watch UFOs fly overhead every night 75. Approximately _____ of people in the United States report a lifetime history of conduct disorder. a. 1% b. 9% c. 21% d. 33% 76. Which racial or ethnic group has the highest rate of suicide? a. White people b. Black people c. Latinos d. Native Americans 77. Elyn Saks was told that she had schizophrenia and that she would never live independently, hold a job, find a loving partner or get married. She refused to believe this: a. diagnosis. b. symptoms. c. prognosis. d. etiology. 78. The major contribution of the original DSM was: a. providing detailed diagnostic criteria for the most common mental illnesses. b. determining prevalence rates for the most common mental illnesses. c. reframing mental illness within a biopsychosocial model. d. providing a common language for talking about disorders. 79. Which of these is a characteristic of the manic phase of bipolar disorder? a. reckless behavior b. unexpected weight gain c. feelings of worthlessness d. sleepiness

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Chap 14_5e 80. Which characteristic is a diagnostic sign of antisocial personality disorder? a. distrust in others b. deception c. social withdrawal d. elaborate or difficult to follow speech 81. To the extent that a "criminal personality" exists, it is MOST related to which personality disorder? a. paranoid b. narcissistic c. antisocial d. borderline 82. A pervasive pattern of disregard and violation of the rights of others is the definition of _____ personality disorder. a. narcissistic b. histrionic c. antisocial d. borderline 83. Reggie was in the crowd during the Boston Marathon terrorist attack. Ever since, he has recurring horrific thoughts of the attack that cause him extreme and chronic stress. He avoids the downtown area and places where large crowds gather, as these remind him of the attack. Reggie MOST likely suffers from: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia. 84. Kaylie has been diagnosed with both social phobia and depression. Kaylie's case exemplifies: a. comorbidity. b. a global assessment of functioning. c. dissociative disorders. d. the diathesis–stress model. 85. The avoidant personality type differs from the schizoid personality type in that the: a. schizoid personality type engages in magical thinking, whereas the avoidant personality type does not. b. avoidant personality type suspects that people have sinister motives, whereas the schizoid personality type does not. c. avoidant personality type yearns for social contact, whereas the schizoid personality type does not. d. schizoid personality type clings to people and fears losing them, whereas the avoidant personality type does not. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 86. Research using sodium lactate has generated findings that support the notion that people with panic disorder: a. have higher levels of this chemical in the brain. b. metabolize this chemical more quickly than do people without panic disorder. c. are hypersensitive to physiological arousal. d. are less likely to listen to their bodies when interpreting the threat status of a stressor. 87. Conceptualizing abnormal thoughts and behaviors as illness suggests that a first step in treatment is to: a. diagnose the illness. b. select the most appropriate treatment. c. reinterpret diseases as disorders. d. reinterpret signs as symptoms. 88. The _____ is a new initiative that aims to guide the classification and understanding of mental disorders by revealing the basic processes that give rise to them. a. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration b. Research Domain Criteria Project c. Human Genome Project d. National Alliance on Mental Illness 89. The DSM–5 requires that symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder be present for at least _____ months in at least _____ settings. a. 4; four b. 6; two c. 12; two d. 2; six 90. Men are _____ times more likely than women to have antisocial personality disorder. a. three b. seven c. nine d. twenty 91. The distinction between nonfatal suicide attempts and nonsuicidal self-injury is based on: a. how dangerous the behavior is. b. the presence or absence of previous suicide attempts. c. intent. d. whether mood disorders are present.

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Chap 14_5e 92. Which characteristic is a sign of illness? a. high fever b. bad headaches c. stomach pain d. feelings of lethargy 93. In the middle of studying for an upcoming exam, David believes he is having a heart attack. He states that this is not the first time he has felt this way, and when he visits a doctor, he is told that there are no impending signs of a heart attack. Which of these is David likely experiencing? a. a specific phobia b. panic disorder c. anxiety disorder d. agoraphobia 94. The DSM–5 categorizes personality disorders into three main groups: a. anxious/inhibited, cognitive/smart, and dramatic/erratic. b. odd/eccentric, anxious/inhibited, and dramatic/erratic. c. dramatic/erratic, irrational/illogical, and odd/eccentric. d. odd/eccentric, anxious/inhibited, and irrational/illogical. 95. A diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires evidence of a severely depressed mood that has lasted at least: a. 6 months. b. 2 months. c. 4 weeks. d. 2 weeks. 96. Kathryn says she is deathly afraid of spiders. She refuses to go into any location (garage, basement, attic, etc.) where she may run into a spider. Her fear of spiders is so great that she is losing sleep for fear a spider will crawl on her while she is asleep. As a result, her grades are beginning to worsen. Kathryn would probably be diagnosed with: a. panic disorder. b. a specific phobia. c. social phobia. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

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Chap 14_5e 97. When Kate gets extremely upset, she secretly cuts her inner thigh. This behavior calms her down. Kate's behavior represents: a. bipolar disorder. b. nonsuicidal self-injury. c. suicidal ideation. d. a nonfatal suicide attempt. 98. The results of Rosenhan and colleagues' study in which they were admitted to mental health hospitals after claiming to be "hearing voices" demonstrate that: a. being labeled as schizophrenic actually produces symptoms of schizophrenia. b. "hearing voices" is something that most people report. c. expectations about mental illness can cloud the judgments of even health care professionals. d. health care professionals rely more on signs than on symptoms in diagnosing patients with mental illness. 99. Dr. Nina notices that her patient, who is diagnosed with depression, attributes negative experiences to internal causes and blames himself for negative events that are out of his control. Which theory BEST aligns with this example? a. medical model of depression b. helplessness theory c. psychological model of depression d. biological model of depression 100. During their lifetime, approximately _____ of Americans will experience some type of mental disorder. a. 50% b. 30% c. 20% d. 10% 101. Individuals with posttraumatic stress disorder often demonstrate elevated amygdala activity and _____ cortex activity, which is important for the extinction of fear conditioning. a. elevated medial prefrontal b. decreased medial prefrontal c. elevated motor d. decreased motor

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Chap 14_5e 102. A manic episode must last at least _____ to meet the diagnostic criterion for bipolar disorder. a. 2 days b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 1 month 103. Over the past 8 months, 9-year old Abdullah has been running around his house when he is supposed to be sitting down for meals or to do his homework. He is easily distracted while completing household chores and regularly loses focus when trying to read before bed. To be diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder according to the DSM, Abdullah must: a. experience these symptoms for longer. b. be at least 3 years older. c. also experience symptoms related to fighting and anger management. d. experience these symptoms at school or another setting as well. 104. Psychopaths appear to have decreased ability for: a. experiencing fear. b. detecting and responding to threats in their environment. c. perceiving shapes. d. lying. 105. Lynn is extremely worried about contamination. On average, she washes her hands more than 100 times a day. As a result, her hands are cracked and bleeding, but she feels momentary relief from her contamination concerns when she washes them. It is likely that Lynn has: a. panic disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. a specific phobia. d. agoraphobia. 106. In the medical model, sign is to symptom as: a. disease is to disorder. b. disorder is to disease. c. objective is to subjective. d. subjective is to objective. 107. The rate of depression is much higher in _____ than _____. a. non-Westerners; Westerners b. adolescents; adults c. women; men d. men; women Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 108. What is the mental disorder in which repetitive, intrusive thoughts and ritualistic behaviors designed to fend off those thoughts interfere significantly with functioning? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. specific phobia c. dissociative disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 109. Which of these is NOT indicative of a panic attack? a. shortness of breath b. depersonalization c. derealization d. disorganized speech 110. Which of these is NOT a diagnostic characteristic of individuals with antisocial personality disorder? a. no remorse for wrongdoing b. impulsivity and recklessness c. anxiety and depression d. physical aggression 111. Schizophrenia rarely develops before: a. infancy. b. childhood. c. early adolescence. d. late adolescence. 112. MOST antidepressants take at least _____ to minimize symptoms of depression. a. 3 days b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 1 month 113. Which characteristic is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder? a. communication deficits b. ritualistic behavior c. sleep disturbances d. feelings of worthlessness

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Chap 14_5e 114. People who are depressed tend to attribute their negative experiences to causes that are: a. external. b. global. c. unstable. d. temporary. 115. Savannah is afraid of eating in public because she fears that someone she is unfamiliar with will tease her about how she is eating. Savannah might suffer from: a. a specific phobia. b. social phobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 116. What percentage of adults meet the criteria for ADHD? a. 1% b. 4% c. 10% d. 25% 117. People living with family members who express hostility and criticism when speaking about an individual with a mental disorder are _____ likely to relapse compared with people with supportive families. a. more b. less c. not at all d. extremely 118. Which statement regarding the relationship between classical conditioning and phobias is true? a. Phobias cannot be classically conditioned. b. Most specific phobias are formed through classical conditioning. c. Most social phobias are formed through classical conditioning. d. Classical conditioning provides a useful model of therapy for phobias. 119. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese syndrome in which a person fears and avoids contact with others due to the belief that they are inadequate or offensive. This syndrome appears to be a combination of which two DSM– 5 conditions? a. generalized anxiety disorder and depression b. panic disorder and schizophrenia c. social anxiety and body dysmorphic disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder and borderline personality disorder

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Chap 14_5e 120. Which of these has been implicated in playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. feelings of worthlessness b. higher than normal levels of the neurotransmitter GABA c. intrusive, repetitive, and unwanted thoughts d. abnormally high levels of activity in the amygdala 121. A person in an episode of mania can believe that she is destined for greatness or is exceptionally gifted, beliefs that are artifacts of increased mood. These types of erroneous beliefs are known as: a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. dissociative states. d. euphoric states. 122. A middle-aged woman with Parkinson's disease asks her doctor many questions about how the disease will affect her life in the years to come. She is MOST concerned about the _____ of the disease. a. symptoms b. prognosis c. etiology d. diagnosis 123. Mike lives in Alaska and experiences a period of depression each winter. Mike probably has: a. seasonal affective disorder. b. unipolar depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. cold sensitivity disorder. 124. With respect to the medical model of disease, etiology is defined as: a. the typical course of disease. b. the susceptibility of a disease to treatment and cure. c. a pattern of causes of disease. d. the classification of disease. 125. _____ symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors and emotions. a. Positive b. Negative c. Disorganized d. Cognitive

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Chap 14_5e 126. In generalized anxiety disorder, chronic excessive worry is NOT usually accompanied by: a. restlessness. b. fatigue. c. panic attacks. d. concentration problems. 127. Which personality disorder is NOT among the anxious/inhibited cluster? a. schizoid b. avoidant c. dependent d. obsessive-compulsive 128. What percentage of people in the United States meet the criteria for depression at some point in their lives? a. 2% b. 18% c. 35% d. 72% 129. Gisela, a sociology major in college, has a history of depression. But one day, she wakes up feeling very energetic. She tells her friends and professors that she has figured out a way to solve world hunger and the AIDS epidemic. Inspired, she spends the next 5 days without sleep completing applications to dozens of doctoral programs in sociology. It is likely that Gisela is suffering from: a. depression and generalized anxiety disorder. b. bipolar disorder. c. histrionic personality disorder. d. paranoid schizophrenia. 130. Deven's psychologist is concerned he might have attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Which of these observations is the psychologist LEAST likely to report as a rationale for her concerns? a. problems fighting with his teacher b. difficulty following directions c. problems remaining still during story time d. interrupting the conversation of others 131. People with depression may have all of these EXCEPT: a. better recall of positive information. b. biases to interpret neutral information negatively. c. better recall of negative information. d. trouble turning away from negative information.

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Chap 14_5e 132. Which of these is NOT a common category of schizophrenia symptoms? a. positive b. negative c. behavioral d. cognitive 133. Which of these has been implicated in playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. sleep disturbances b. higher than normal levels of the neurotransmitter GABA c. abnormalities in the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine d. abnormally low levels of activity in the amygdala 134. Without treatment, about _____ of people who experienced an episode of major depression will experience at least one reoccurrence of the disorder. a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% 135. John cannot go to the bathroom in a public restroom. He fears that someone will hear him or see him going to the bathroom, which he would find embarrassing. John might be diagnosed with: a. a specific phobia. b. social phobia. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 136. Which of these is a characteristic of hyperactivity? a. difficulties remaining still b. difficulties following instructions c. persistent problems with sustaining vigilance on a task d. problems with organization and memory 137. Gillies is plagued by excessive worry, irritability, and sleep disturbance. His excessive worry is not focused on a particular stimulus or threat, and he feels as if he has no control over his life. Which of these disorders does Gillies' symptoms align best with? a. a specific phobia b. social phobia c. generalized anxiety disorder d. panic disorder

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Chap 14_5e 138. Isaac does not suffer from an anxiety disorder. He is given sodium lactate and asked to report on his symptoms. Which outcome is MOST likely? a. Isaac might note that his breathing has become shallower. b. Isaac might begin feeling that he is separate from his body but that this feeling is enjoyable. c. lsaac will experience increased calmness. d. Isaac most likely will suffer a full-blown panic attack. 139. Imani has been experiencing profound sadness for the past month. She's been unable to eat or sleep, and the things that she used to enjoy no longer are pleasurable. Imani may be suffering from: a. schizophrenia. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. unipolar depression. 140. Schizophrenic hallucinations MOST often involve the sense of: a. sight. b. smell. c. touch. d. hearing. 141. A large body of research now suggests that the dopamine hypothesis regarding schizophrenia is: a. largely supported but not proven. b. completely false. c. an oversimplification and inadequate. d. the best hypothesis to explain the most data. 142. The DSM–5 contains material to help clinicians understand cultural influences on mental disorders. Which statement about mental disorders across cultures is true? a. The prevalence rates for various mental disorders are very similar in all cultures. b. Mood and anxiety disorders are the most common in all cultures. c. Mental disorders are experienced in the same ways across all cultures. d. Substance abuse disorders are the most common mental disorders in all cultures. 143. Jamal has been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Which characteristic is Jamal LEAST likely to exhibit at school? a. problems organizing his thoughts when writing an essay b. trouble staying in his seat c. getting into fights d. interrupting the conversation of others

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Chap 14_5e 144. Which characteristic is NOT a diagnostic sign of antisocial personality disorder? a. illegal behavior b. deception c. social withdrawal d. physical aggression 145. A false perceptual experience that has a compelling sense of being real despite the absence of external stimulation is termed a: a. hallucination. b. catatonic experience. c. delusion. d. hypnagogic state. 146. Human beings and monkeys have been shown to be instinctively primed to learn fears of certain things, such as of snakes and spiders. Which theory supports this proposition? a. confirmation bias b. learning theory c. classical conditioning d. preparedness theory 147. Which statements about diatheses is true? a. A diathesis could be a genetic predisposition. b. If a diathesis is present, the disorder will occur. c. A diathesis is an external stressor that triggers the disorder. d. A diathesis is an internal protective factor against the disorder. 148. Someone with agoraphobia would be LEAST likely to be found: a. holding a spider. b. attending a crowded football game. c. working on a farm. d. sitting in a closet. 149. When viewing negative stimuli, people suffering from depression show increased activity in areas of the brain associated with: a. self-control. b. processing emotional information. c. cognitive control. d. visual perception.

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Chap 14_5e 150. Ellen was kicked by a horse as a child. She now has a severe fear of horses. Even pictures of horses can make her sweat and feel anxious. Ellen's behavior demonstrates: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. observational learning. d. instrumental learning. 151. Which statement is FALSE regarding generalized anxiety disorders (GAD)? a. Stressful experiences can increase the risk of developing GAD. b. Biological explanations of GAD show no role of neurotransmitter imbalances in the disorder. c. GAD can result in irritability, concentration problems, and fatigue. d. GAD is characterized by excessive worry that is not focused on a particular stimulus. 152. In the medical model, a _____ is a known pathological process affecting the body. a. dysfunction b. diagnosis c. disorder d. disease 153. Some research suggests that bipolar disorder is linked to higher levels of: a. creativity and intellectual ability. b. conscientiousness and impulse control. c. altruism and cooperation. d. moral reasoning. 154. Brain-imaging studies have shown that people with autism have decreased activity in regions associated with: a. understanding the minds of others. b. basic object perception. c. reading. d. recognizing shapes. 155. Which of these is NOT a criticism of the medical model of mental disorders? a. It is inappropriate to use self-reports to determine underlying illness. b. The model "medicalizes" normal human behavior. c. The medical model is not an advance over older alternatives. d. Physical tests of pathology should be used to determine underlying illness.

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Chap 14_5e 156. In the medical model, a _____ is a common set of signs and symptoms. a. procedure b. diagnosis c. disorder d. disease 157. Generalized anxiety disorder is _____ common in women as it is in men. a. more b. less c. almost as equally d. drastically less 158. Among persons with a mental disorder, living with family members who are high in expressed hostility and criticism increases the likelihood of relapse from recovery in persons with: a. bipolar disorder but not unipolar depression. b. unipolar depression but not bipolar disorder. c. mood disorders but not anxiety disorders. d. a wide variety of mental disorders. 159. Which statement does NOT account for sex differences in depression? a. Women's incomes are lower than men's incomes. b. Estrogen, androgen, and progesterone influence depression. c. Women may be more willing to seek help. d. Men tend to be more optimistic. 160. The major goal of the DSM is to _____ mental disorders. a. explain b. identify the causes of c. classify d. pathologize 161. Adults with antisocial personality disorder typically have a history of _____ before the age of 15. a. obsessive-compulsive disorder b. bipolar disorder c. panic attacks d. conduct disorder

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Chap 14_5e 162. Which of these is NOT a neural correlate of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. a smaller-size hippocampus b. a larger-size thalamus c. heightened activity in the amygdala d. decreased activity in the medial prefrontal cortex 163. Prem, an individual diagnosed with schizophrenia, is participating in a study whereby the researcher has someone try to engage in a lively conversation. However, Prem responds in a flat and deadpan manner. Which type of symptoms is Prem demonstrating? a. negative symptoms b. positive symptoms c. cognitive symptoms d. behavioral symptoms 164. Approximately _____ of Americans suffer from PTSD. a. 1% b. 7% c. 24% d. 53% 165. With respect to a medical conceptualization of mental disorders, prognosis refers to the: a. typical course of a disorder and its susceptibility to treatment. b. biological cause of the disorder. c. treatment plan decided upon by a psychiatrist. d. classification of the disorder. 166. Vincent van Gogh, Abraham Lincoln, and Ernest Hemingway are some notable individuals thought to have suffered from which mental disorder? a. agoraphobia b. unipolar depression c. bipolar disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 167. Which of these is a symptom of major depressive disorder? a. disorganized speech b. lethargy or loss of pleasure c. chronic excessive worries d. mania

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Chap 14_5e 168. Which of these is NOT a class of specific phobias? a. food b. animals c. blood, injections, and injury d. natural environments 169. _____ have been reported to frequently precede the onset of several mental disorders. a. Manic episodes b. Negative patterns of thought c. Stressful life experiences d. Physical illnesses 170. According to recent research, which factor is a neural correlate of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. a larger-size hippocampus b. a larger-size thalamus c. increased activity in the amygdala d. increased activity in the medial prefrontal cortex 171. A factor that has NOT been suggested as contributing to the higher rate of depression in women compared to men is: a. smaller-size hippocampus. b. greater risk for living in poverty. c. changing hormonal levels following childbirth. d. tendency to seek help, leading to higher rates of diagnosis. 172. About _____ of the general population has antisocial personality disorder. a. 3.6% b. 7.8% c. 12.5% d. 14.8% 173. Who is MOST likely to develop schizophrenia? a. Tim, whose biological mother did not have schizophrenia and who was adopted into a disturbed family b. Jim, whose biological mother had schizophrenia and who was adopted into a nondisturbed family c. Tony, whose biological mother had schizophrenia and who was adopted into a disturbed family d. Louie, whose biological mother did not have schizophrenia and who was adopted into a nondisturbed family with an adoptive sibling who has schizophrenia

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Chap 14_5e 174. Ann has experienced depression many times in her life. She is now unhappy because a close friend no longer calls her. According to the helplessness theory, she would NOT be likely to respond to the current situation with the statement: a. "I never keep friends for long." b. "I may never find another close friend." c. "This must be my fault." d. "He wasn't really a good friend anyway." 175. Schizophrenia occurs in about _____ of the population and is slightly more prevalent in _____. a. 0.5%; men b. 0.5%; women c. 1.5%; men d. 1.5%; women 176. Shauntelle dresses provocatively and acts overly dramatic in an effort to gain attention. She is frequently emotional, lively, and overly flirtatious. She believes that everyone loves her. Which personality disorder is Shauntelle's behavior consistent with? a. histrionic b. narcissistic c. borderline d. dependent 177. Administration of sodium lactate induces a panic attack in: a. people with panic disorder. b. people without panic disorder. c. all people, regardless of diagnosis of an anxiety disorder. d. people with agoraphobia. 178. Which statement regarding psychological disorders is true? a. They rarely have physical causes. b. They rarely have a single cause. c. They rarely have environmental causes. d. They often have a single physical cause. 179. If one considers the full range of disorders that fall under the spectrum, the current prevalence of autism spectrum disorder is about _____ in 10,000. a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 100 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 180. Adults who meet the criteria for ADHD are more likely to be all of these EXCEPT: a. male. b. divorced. c. unemployed. d. old. 181. Approximately _____ of U.S. veterans of recent operations in Iraq met the criteria for PTSD after their deployment. a. 1% b. 12% c. 32% d. 57% 182. Which type of disorders are defined as deeply ingrained, inflexible patterns of thinking, feeling, or relating to others that cause distress or impaired functioning? a. dissociative b. mood c. personality d. anxiety 183. The DSM–5 provides detailed diagnostic criteria for more than _____ mental disorders. a. 50 b. 100 c. 150 d. 200 184. The inclusion of detailed diagnostic criteria in more recent versions of the DSM increases the _____ of diagnosing mental illness. a. frequency b. validity c. consistency d. prevalence 185. What is the condition in which a child or adolescent engages in a persistent pattern of deviant behavior involving aggression to people or animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, or serious rule violations? a. autism spectrum disorder b. conduct disorder c. schizophrenia d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 186. Roberta wonders why her daughter, who recently was diagnosed with social anxiety, is so weak that she cannot deal with social disapproval. This example BEST illustrates: a. cultural idioms. b. the diathesis–stress model of mental illness. c. the RDoC model. d. the dangers of labeling. 187. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia takes a drug that decreases the levels of dopamine in the brain. Which of these is the probable consequence? a. diminished symptoms of schizophrenia b. intensified symptoms of schizophrenia c. no effect d. low energy levels 188. Which country has the highest prevalence of mental disorders? a. China b. France c. the United States d. South Africa 189. Dr. Chan is scanning the brain of participants with phobias who are shown images of stimuli that cause them a great deal of anxiety and fear. Which brain region is MOST likely to be active during the stimulus presentation? a. hypothalamus b. hippocampus c. amygdala d. parietal cortex 190. Subjectively reported feelings or behaviors associated with an illness are termed: a. symptoms. b. signs. c. disorders. d. diseases. 191. Which neurotransmitters are more commonly implicated in depressive disorders? a. dopamine and norepinephrine b. dopamine and serotonin c. serotonin and norepinephrine d. norepinephrine and epinephrine

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Chap 14_5e 192. Which statement about social phobia is true? a. It is slightly more common in men than it is in women. b. It is defined as an irrational fear of being publicly embarrassed. c. It is more common in children than it is in young adults. d. There are five different classes of social phobias. 193. Which characteristic is a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder? a. concentration problems b. feelings of worthlessness c. unexpected weight gain or loss d. psychosis 194. _____ disorders are defined as deeply ingrained, inflexible patterns of thinking, feeling, or relating to others that cause distress or impaired functioning. a. Dissociative b. Mood c. Personality d. Anxiety 195. Which personality disorder is part of the dramatic/erratic cluster? a. paranoid b. schizotypal c. dependent d. narcissistic 196. Approximately _____ of the U.S. population reports having had at least one panic attack, typically during a period of intense stress. a. 5% b. 22% c. 56% d. 94% 197. Liz is terrified of taking the subway, even though it is the more viable option when compared to walking to work in the cold weather. What is this an example of? a. a specific phobia b. social phobia c. acrophobia d. panic disorder

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Chap 14_5e 198. One morning, a patient at a psychiatric facility told his nurse, "The weather is nice today. I am very upset about last week's lunch. Did you see my new outfit?" This is an example of: a. delusional behavior. b. grossly disorganized behavior. c. disorganized speech. d. catatonic symptoms. 199. Dion is an adult who is diagnosed with a specific condition. He frequently gets into trouble with the law, easily lies and deceives people, and shows high levels of impulsivity and physical aggression. Which of these disorders BEST describe his behavior? a. conduct disorder b. antisocial personality disorder c. avoidant personality disorder d. schizotypal disorder 200. Which factor is NOT a component of the DSM–5? a. 22 major categories of mental disorders b. causes of psychological disorders c. cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders d. specific criteria that must be met for a person to be diagnosed with a disorder 201. Which brain system has been MOST implicated in obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. somatosensory cortex b. cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical loop c. default mode network d. left and right superior temporal gyrus 202. Antidepressant medications alter neurotransmitter levels _____ they alleviate symptoms of depression. a. more quickly than b. more slowly than c. at the same time as d. after 203. Among people with schizophrenia, about _____ report hearing voices repeatedly. a. 35% b. 50% c. 65% d. 90%

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Chap 14_5e 204. Lucy and Timothy both went abroad to pursue graduate studies. The pressure and demands of graduate school affect many, but while Lucy seems to be coping well, Timothy is diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. Which of these theories could explain why Timothy was more susceptible to developing a mental disorder? a. biopsychosocial perspective b. psychobiological perspective c. diathesis–stress model d. medical model 205. Depression following childbirth is _____ depression. a. postpregnancy b. postpartum c. postbirthing d. postdysthymic 206. Which is a crucial element in the definition of a mental disorder? a. extreme variation b. deviation from norm c. significant distress or impairment d. acute behavioral episode 207. Approximately _____ of boys and _____ of girls meet the criteria for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. a. 10%; 4% b. 35%; 10% c. 10%; 35% d. 15%; 50% 208. Dennis is a combat veteran honorably discharged from the army. He suffers from seemingly constant stress, which is interspersed with flashbacks of the horrors he observed on the battlefield. He avoids watching the news and attending veterans' events because they remind him of the trauma. Dennis MOST likely suffers from: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. double depression. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder with agoraphobia.

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Chap 14_5e 209. Shilo has been caught masturbating in public several times and frequently exhibits other forms of inappropriate sexual behavior in public. On other occasions, he exhibits childlike silliness. His appearance is nearly always disheveled. Shile is showing: a. delusional behavior. b. negative symptoms of schizophrenia. c. catatonic behavior. d. grossly disorganized behavior. 210. You are utilizing a brain-imaging technique with a patient who is diagnosed with a mental disorder. You observe elevated amygdala activity and decreased medial prefrontal cortex activity, which is important for the extinction of fear conditioning (or the extinguishing of fear memories). Which disorder is the patient MOST likely to be diagnosed with? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. posttraumatic stress disorder d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 211. Which disorder is NOT a type of anxiety disorder recognized by the DSM–5? a. generalized anxiety disorder b. panic disorder c. bipolar disorder d. phobic disorders 212. Dr. Raymond is able to rapidly condition rats to elicit freezing, or a fear response, to certain stimuli such as predator odor (e.g., wolf scent), but not to other stimuli (e.g., mint scent). Which theory can account for this finding? a. classical conditioning b. learned helplessness c. preparedness theory d. specific phobic theory 213. The average risk for developing schizophrenia is highest for _____ schizophrenia. a. a dizygotic twin whose sibling has b. the sibling of someone with c. a monozygotic twin whose sibling has d. children whose parents both have

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Chap 14_5e 214. Generalized anxiety disorder is LESS prevalent in: a. women. b. people living in rural areas. c. people living in poverty. d. people living in large cities. 215. The biopsychosocial perspective assumes that mental disorders are: a. entirely genetically determined. b. the result of neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain. c. simply patterns of maladaptive behavior caused by learning and cultural influences. d. caused by multiple biological and environmental factors interacting with one another. 216. Following a depressive episode, Ashwin goes a few days without sleep and his friends notice he has been extremely talkative, rearranges furniture constantly, and is preoccupied with thoughts of an alien invasion recently. Which condition describes the constellation of symptoms reported? a. manic disorder b. major depression c. bipolar disorder d. personality disorder 217. Brain research has suggested that people who are depressed exhibit decreased activation in areas of the brain associated with _____ and increased activation in areas of the brain associated with _____. a. cognitive control; emotional information b. emotional information; cognitive control c. reward learning; cognitive control d. emotional information; language and creativity 218. Phobias are particularly likely to form of objects that evolution has predisposed us to avoid. This fact is MOST consistent with a _____ account of phobias. a. medical b. preparedness c. diathesis–stress d. conditioning 219. Approximately _____ of adults in the United States will develop actual OCD, even though many adults report experiencing obsessions or compulsions at some point in their lives. a. 2% b. 15% c. 50% d. 92% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 220. Recent studies suggest that nonsuicidal self-injury: a. allows individuals with low emotional intelligence to experience pain associated with perceived negative events. b. serves to heighten emotional responses to perceived negative events. c. alleviates intolerable emotional responses to perceived negative events. d. most often occurs as a means of self-stimulation when people are bored. 221. Which of these is indicative of a panic attack? a. irritability b. depersonalization c. sleep disturbances d. disorganized speech 222. Research indicates that hospitalizing people for mental illness is _____ necessary. a. never b. seldom c. frequently d. almost always 223. _____ is a condition beginning in early childhood in which a person shows persistent communication deficits as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behaviors, interests, or activities. a. Intellectual disability b. Autism spectrum disorder c. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. Conduct disorder 224. According to the DSM–5, signs of the disorder must persist for how many months before a diagnosis of schizophrenia can be made? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 225. Research indicates that obsessive-compulsive disorder is associated with a high level of activity in a brain circuit involved in _____ behavior. a. habitual b. emotional c. decision-making d. threat-appraisal

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Chap 14_5e 226. Which characteristic is NOT a common symptom of generalized anxiety disorder? a. concentration problems b. sleep problems c. muscle tension d. psychosis 227. In a recent study mentioned in the text, about _____ of male prisoners were diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. a. 22% b. 47% c. 78% d. 90% 228. Which characteristic is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. apathy b. grossly disorganized behavior c. hallucinations d. delusions 229. Which statement is true regarding the biopsychosocial perspective of mental disorders? a. There is a single cure for a specific type of mental disorder, just like physical illnesses. b. There may be multiple causes that result in the same mental disorder in different individuals. c. Mental disorders are the result of interactions between psychological and socioeconomic factors. d. Mental disorders are the result of interactions between biological and economic factors. 230. The depressive phase of bipolar disorder is often _____ major depression. a. indistinguishable from b. slightly more severe than is c. considerably more severe than is d. less severe than is 231. Worldwide, men account for _____ of all suicides. a. 40% b. 50% c. the majority d. the minority

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Chap 14_5e 232. Interviews with people who attempted suicide reveal that the MOST common reason for attempting suicide is: a. financial difficulty. b. escape from something deemed intolerable. c. revenge. d. attention from someone who rejected them. 233. Josh constantly complains about fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems. He is irritable, worries incessantly about little things that cause others in his family no concern, and has trouble concentrating. From his symptoms, it is likely that Josh has: a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. major depression. c. bipolar disorder. d. dissociative disorder. 234. What makes it especially difficult for researchers to determine causes of conduct disorder? a. People behave differently when they know they are being observed. b. People with conduct disorder are a diverse group exhibiting many different combinations of symptoms. c. The benefits of research must be weighed against the dangers of labeling. d. People with conduct disorder often are uncooperative research participants, making the topic difficult to research. 235. In South Asian cultures, some mental disorders are thought to be the result of a loss of dhat or dhatu, a white substance believed to be necessary for wellness that exits the body through secretions. This is an example of a cultural: a. explanation. b. syndrome. c. diathesis. d. idiom of distress. 236. Over the past year, Lauren has repeatedly experienced symptoms that she believes indicate a heart attack, sending her to the emergency department complaining of dizziness, inability to catch her breath, and heart palpitations. She tells her parents she is afraid she's going to die, although doctors have found nothing physically wrong. From her symptoms, it is likely that Lauren is experiencing: a. generalized anxiety disorder. b. dissociative episodes. c. manic episodes. d. panic attacks.

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Chap 14_5e 237. Which of these has been frequently reported to precede the onset of several mental health disorders? a. manic episodes b. negative patterns of thought c. physical illnesses d. stressful life experiences 238. Approximately 15% of American adults report that they have seriously considered suicide at some point in their lives, and _____ have actually made a suicide attempt. a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 12% 239. Due to the unexpected nature of panic attacks, some people develop a fear of public places; they are afraid they will have a panic attack and help will not be available. The fear of public places is which disorder? a. claustrophobia b. social phobia c. agoraphobia d. acrophobia 240. Genetic risk factors for bipolar disorder are also associated with vulnerability for: a. antisocial personality disorder. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. dissociative identity disorder. d. schizophrenia. 241. Elyn Saks and colleagues gathered 20 research subjects with high-functioning schizophrenia in Los Angeles. Which statement is NOT true of these subjects? a. All had high school diplomas. b. Half were male, and half were female. c. One of the most frequently mentioned techniques of symptom management was work. d. Subjects used medication only to keep their schizophrenia at bay. 242. What is the purpose of the Research Domain Criteria Project? a. to identify evidence-based treatments for mental illness b. to explore cultural differences in the expression of mental illness c. to conduct a longitudinal study of participants with a variety of mental illnesses d. to identify the basic processes that give rise to mental illness

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Chap 14_5e 243. Stacey's mother has schizophrenia, but Stacey herself showed no symptoms of schizophrenia until she experienced the stress of medical school final exams. The final exams prompted a psychotic break. Stacey's case is a good example of: a. hereditary-induced stress. b. etiology and prognosis. c. the diathesis–stress model. d. the medical model. 244. Comorbidity refers to the: a. occurrence of a severe mood disorder. b. co-occurrence of two or more disorders in a single individual. c. genetic predisposition that makes an individual susceptible to a disorder. d. inclusion of both environmental and biological factors in diagnosing mental disorders. 245. DeShawn believes that he is crucial to his company's successes, despite having worked there only a month and still being considered a "trainee." He is constantly fantasizing about becoming the best president that the United States has ever seen and that the challenges of the job would be no match for his intellect and skill. He believes that other U.S. citizens will see how important and superior he is and that he would have no difficulty winning a majority of the votes, as well as the electoral college. Because of DeShawn's confidence, he makes a good first impression but maintains few long-term relationships due to his inflated sense of self. DeShawn's behavior is consistent with which personality disorder? a. histrionic b. narcissistic c. obsessive-compulsive d. antisocial 246. Camilla has a stormy relationship with her boyfriend and an unstable self-image. Camilla's behavior is consistent with which personality disorder? a. histrionic b. schizotypal c. borderline d. dependent 247. Autism disorder is MOST associated with impairments in: a. general intelligence. b. attention. c. communication. d. self-control.

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Chap 14_5e 248. Individuals with phobic disorders: a. believe that their fear is adaptive. b. are good at not letting the phobia interfere with their everyday functioning. c. tend to have depressed levels of activity in the amygdala. d. recognize that their fear is irrational. 249. The dopamine hypothesis is the idea that _____ levels of dopamine are associated with _____. a. low; schizophrenia b. low; mood disorders c. high; schizophrenia d. high; mood disorders 250. On average, an episode of major depression lasts about _____ weeks. a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12 251. Which person has the MOST risk factors for generalized anxiety disorder? a. a male African American celebrity b. a poor woman living in a homeless shelter after recently being laid off c. a woman who is an upper-level manager in charge of major financial decisions d. a middle-aged male lawyer whose wife just died after a battle with cancer 252. When shown negative emotional words, criminal psychopaths show less activity in the _____ and _____ compared to noncriminals. a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex b. hippocampus; nucleus accumbens c. hippocampus; amygdala d. cerebellum; hippocampus 253. The ratio of boys to girls with autism is approximately: a. 2:1. b. 3:1. c. 4:1. d. 5:1.

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Chap 14_5e 254. Which of these is a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. social withdrawal b. lack of emotion c. hallucinations d. poverty of speech 255. Following the birth of her firstborn child, Thiviya reports severe changes in her mood along with feeling overwhelmed, with difficulty sleeping and depressive episodes. Which condition is Thiviya likely experiencing? a. seasonal affective disorder b. postpartum depression c. unipolar depression d. bipolar depression 256. The DSM is currently in its _____ edition. a. third b. fourth c. fifth d. sixth 257. After being bitten by a dog, a child shows an exaggerated fear response to all dogs, even small friendly dogs on leashes. The child's fear reaction to dogs is an example of a(n): a. operant response. b. prepared response. c. unconditioned association. d. conditioned association. 258. Which statement about social phobia is true? a. It is slightly more common in women than it is in men. b. There are five different classes of social phobias. c. It is more common in children than young adults. d. It is defined in part as an inability to form close relationships. 259. Which of these has been implicated in playing a role in vulnerability to phobias? a. abnormalities in the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine b. high levels of extraversion c. abnormalities in the neurotransmitter glutamate d. abnormally low levels of activity in the amygdala

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Chap 14_5e 260. Which of these disorders frequently has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence? a. antisocial personality disorder b. borderline personality disorder c. schizotypal disorder d. avoidant personality disorder 261. A criticism of the original DSM is that it: a. omitted cultural considerations in diagnosing mental disorders. b. did not contain a more detailed code of ethics. c. did not provide a common language for talking about disorders. d. contained only vague diagnostic criteria. 262. A clearly false belief system, often bizarre and grandiose, that is maintained despite its irrationality is termed a: a. hallucination. b. paranoia. c. delusion. d. stupor. 263. Research indicates which personality characteristics predict increased bipolar symptoms over time? a. neuroticism and conscientiousness b. introversion and openness to experience c. disagreeableness and introversion d. neuroticism and extraversion 264. Which of these is NOT a symptom of the manic phase of bipolar disorder? a. irritability b. grandiosity c. talkativeness d. sleepiness 265. In a classic study conducted in the 1970s, psychologist David Rosenhan and his colleagues reported to different mental hospitals claiming to be "hearing voices." As soon as they were admitted, they reported that the symptoms had ceased. How did the mental health hospitals respond? a. They prescribed the "patients" antipsychotic medication and then released them the next day. b. After a brief observational period averaging 6 hours, they released the "patients" without medication. c. Most "patients" were discharged within an hour of claiming that the voices had stopped. d. It took an average of 19 days for the patients to be released.

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Chap 14_5e 266. Situation-related anxiety is: a. a symptom indicating that one of the anxiety disorders probably is present. b. a defining feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. a defining feature of panic disorder. d. normal and adaptive. 267. According to the DSM–5 classification scheme, which of these would NOT fall under the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder? a. conduct disorder b. Asperger's syndrome c. childhood disintegrative disorder d. autism 268. Which statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is true? a. Compulsions lead to obsessions. b. People believe that their obsessions are rational. c. Women are slightly more susceptible to experiencing OCD than are men. d. Treatment involves actively trying to suppress obsessive thoughts. 269. Drew, who is prone to depression, thinks she is unattractive, and therefore she will always be single. Drew's cognitions are MOST consistent with the _____ theory of depression. a. diathesis–stress b. social learning c. helplessness d. psychodynamic 270. Just before she experiences a panic attack, Isabel suffers from derealization, which is a: a. feeling of being detached from one's body. b. feeling of stark terror. c. feeling that the external world is untrue. d. fear of public places. 271. Dr. Sharanya notices a trend toward increased recurrent depressive episodes among her clients during the fall or winter. Which of these may explain this trend? a. persistent depressive disorder b. winter blues c. major depressive disorder d. seasonal affective disorder

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Chap 14_5e 272. In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsessive thoughts _____, and the compulsive behaviors _____. a. produce anxiety; reduce it b. produce anxiety; further increase it c. trigger panic attacks; decrease anxiety d. trigger panic attacks; prolong them 273. Which of these currently has no effective medication treatment? a. unipolar depression b. generalized anxiety disorder c. schizophrenia d. suicidal and nonsuicidal self-injury behaviors 274. Just before she experiences a panic attack, Margot feels that the world has suddenly become very strange. This feeling is termed: a. deindividuation. b. depersonalization. c. derealization. d. dysthymia. 275. Which statement about bipolar disorder is FALSE? a. Bipolar disorder is more prevalent in women than it is in men. b. The genetic risk for bipolar disorder is associated with vulnerability for schizophrenia. c. Individuals with bipolar disorder may be highly creative. d. Bipolar disorder tends to be persistent throughout the lifetime. 276. Ryder does not trust others because he believes they all have sinister motives. He consistently reads hostile intentions into his friends' actions and is therefore prone to anger and aggressive outbursts. Aside from these outbursts, he is emotionally cold, jealous, guarded, and overly serious. Which personality disorder is Ryder's behavior consistent with? a. antisocial b. schizotypal c. avoidant d. paranoid 277. A marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations is termed _____ disorder. a. generalized anxiety b. panic c. phobic d. posttraumatic stress Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 278. Suicide is the _____ leading cause of death for people between the ages of 15 and 34 in United States. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth 279. Which of these is NOT a cluster of symptoms exhibited in persons with conduct disorder? a. aggression toward others b. self-injury c. theft/deceit d. rule breaking 280. Which statement is true of hippocampal volume in combat veterans with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) relative to their identical twins who did not serve in the military? a. Combat veterans with PTSD have larger hippocampal volumes. b. Combat veterans with PTSD have smaller hippocampal volumes. c. Hippocampal volume changed after traumatic experiences for the combat veterans but stayed the same for their identical twins. d. There is no difference in hippocampal volume between these sets of identical twins. 281. People with depression have: a. better recall of negative information. b. trouble disengaging from positive information. c. viewing negative information as external to themselves. d. deficits in self-awareness. 282. Signs are to symptoms as _____ is to _____. a. mental; physical b. objective; subjective c. subjective; objective d. short-term; long-term 283. Which statement about diatheses is true? a. A diathesis must be genetic. b. If a diathesis is inherited, the disorder associated with it will occur. c. A diathesis is an external stressor that triggers the disorder. d. A diathesis could be psychological.

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Chap 14_5e 284. Which of these is classified as a mood disorder? a. conduct disorder b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. generalized anxiety disorder 285. Which statement is true regarding obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? a. OCD is characterized by compulsions, which are repetitive and intrusive thoughts, and obsessions, which are ritualistic behaviors that mitigate the intrusive thoughts. b. OCD is characterized by obsessions, which are repetitive and intrusive thoughts, and compulsions, which are ritualistic behaviors that mitigate the intrusive thoughts. c. OCD is characterized by compulsions, which are repetitive actions that serve as negative reinforcement, and obsessions, which are repetitive and intrusive thoughts. d. OCD is characterized by obsessions, which are repetitive actions that serve as positive reinforcement, and compulsions, which are repetitive and intrusive thoughts. 286. One current model of autism spectrum disorder is associated with an impaired ability to _____ and a superior ability to _____. a. communicate; empathize b. empathize; communicate c. empathize; systematize d. systematize; empathize 287. People who are depressed tend to attribute their negative experiences to causes that are internal, stable, and global. This pattern supports the _____ theory. a. diathesis–stress b. social learning c. helplessness d. personal bias 288. The stigma associated with mental disorders may explain why most people with diagnosable psychological disorders, approximately _____, do not seek treatment. a. 10% b. 25% c. 60% d. 90%

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Chap 14_5e 289. A feeling of being detached from one's body is termed: a. deindividuation. b. depersonalization. c. derealization. d. dysthymia. 290. As the household level of expressed hostility and criticism _____, relapse risk for mood disorders _____. a. increases; increases b. decreases; increases c. changes; increases d. increases; decreases 291. Approximately what percentage of adults worldwide have made a suicide attempt? a. 3% b. 5% c. 9% d. 15% 292. To receive a diagnosis of conduct disorder, people must exhibit _____ of 15 symptoms. a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 293. The S in DSM stands for: a. statistical. b. sign. c. symptom. d. screening. 294. On the surface, Charlie seems glib and charming. In reality, he is ruthless, cold-hearted, and manipulative. Society would call Charlie a _____, but the DSM diagnosis would likely be _____ personality disorder. a. narcissist; antisocial b. sociopath; antisocial c. psychopath; narcissistic d. sociopath; narcissistic

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Chap 14_5e 295. A psychiatrist explains to her patient that a combination of neurotransmitter imbalances and work stress is probably responsible for his anxiety. The psychiatrist is discussing the _____ of the disease. a. signs b. prognosis c. etiology d. diagnosis 296. Which characteristic is a symptom of illness? a. high fever b. bad headaches c. high blood pressure d. elevated white blood cell count 297. The purpose of the _____ is to guide the classification of mental disorder by revealing the basic underlying processes. a. DSM–5 b. DSM c. RDoC d. NIMH 298. Eight-year-old Jaeden routinely bullies his siblings and throws objects at his family. Jaeden's family members have caught him stealing from the grocery store during the family's biweekly shopping trips. His parents believe he is getting out of control, and they are concerned that they can no longer handle him. If Jaeden's parents take him to a psychologist, which disorder should the psychologist test him for? a. Asperger's syndrome b. conduct disorder c. ADHD d. antisocial personality disorder 299. Demographically, which person is MOST likely to receive a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder as an adult? a. Kylie, a divorced chief executive officer of a large business b. Leslie, who is recently married and works as a waitress c. Rick, who is divorced and currently unemployed d. Antonio, a married but stressed-out office manager

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Chap 14_5e 300. Pat finds herself worrying about most things in her life, from whether her children are safe drivers to making the right decision on refinancing her home, and from what to fix for dinner to whether her husband is faithful. Pat's worrying has begun to interfere with her sleep. Pat MOST likely has: a. dysthymia. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. panic disorder.

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Chap 14_5e Answer Key 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. a 9. d 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. b 31. b 32. d 33. c 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. d 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. a 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 55. d 56. b 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. d 63. d 64. d 65. b 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. a 70. c 71. c 72. a 73. c 74. a 75. b 76. a 77. c 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. c 87. a 88. b 89. b 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. b 94. b 95. d 96. b 97. b 98. c 99. b 100. a 101. b 102. b 103. d 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. c 108. d 109. d 110. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 111. c 112. c 113. c 114. b 115. b 116. b 117. a 118. d 119. c 120. d 121. b 122. b 123. a 124. c 125. b 126. c 127. a 128. b 129. b 130. a 131. a 132. c 133. c 134. d 135. a 136. a 137. c

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Chap 14_5e 138. a 139. d 140. d 141. c 142. b 143. c 144. c 145. a 146. d 147. a 148. b 149. b 150. a 151. b 152. d 153. a 154. a 155. c 156. c 157. a 158. d 159. d 160. c 161. d 162. b 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. c 170. c 171. a 172. a 173. c 174. d 175. a 176. a 177. a 178. b 179. b 180. d 181. b 182. c 183. d 184. c 185. b 186. d 187. a 188. c 189. c 190. a 191. c 192. b 193. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 194. c 195. d 196. b 197. a 198. c 199. b 200. b 201. b 202. a 203. c 204. c 205. b 206. c 207. a 208. a 209. d 210. c 211. c 212. c 213. c 214. b 215. d 216. c 217. a 218. b 219. a 220. c 221. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 222. b 223. b 224. b 225. a 226. d 227. b 228. a 229. b 230. a 231. c 232. b 233. a 234. b 235. a 236. d 237. d 238. b 239. c 240. d 241. d 242. d 243. c 244. b 245. b 246. c 247. c 248. d

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Chap 14_5e 249. c 250. d 251. b 252. c 253. c 254. c 255. b 256. c 257. d 258. a 259. a 260. a 261. d 262. c 263. a 264. d 265. d 266. d 267. a 268. c 269. c 270. c 271. d 272. a 273. d 274. c 275. a 276. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e 277. c 278. b 279. b 280. d 281. a 282. b 283. d 284. c 285. b 286. c 287. c 288. a 289. b 290. a 291. a 292. a 293. a 294. b 295. c 296. b 297. c 298. b 299. c 300. c

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Figure 14.2

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1. (Scenario 14.2) The fabricated results consistent with those obtained by Tienari and colleagues (2004) and shown in Figure 14.2 suggest that: a. overall, the home environment is not associated with schizophrenia. b. a healthy home environment may serve as a protective factor in children at risk for developing schizophrenia. c. a disturbed home environment increases the likelihood of schizophrenia in low-risk children. d. in healthy home environments, biological risk factors are the best predictor of schizophrenia. 2. To meet the criteria for this disorder, the DSM–5 requires that symptoms of ADHD be present before the age of 12. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.1 introduces material from the following publication. Gilbertson, M. W., Shenton, M. E., Ciszewski, A., Kasai, K., Lasko, N. B., Orr, S. P., & Pitman, R. K. (2002). Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nature Neuroscience, 5, 1242–1247. Persons who live through a traumatic experience may develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images, and avoidance of things that bring the trauma to mind, with symptoms persisting for more than 1 month. Persons with PTSD also are at risk for other psychological disorders, with substance abuse disorder being a common comorbid diagnosis. In the past two decades, a number of studies have demonstrated that persons with PTSD have a smaller hippocampus than do controls. This may result from the neurotoxic effects of stress hormones (e.g., Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay glucocorticoids) at the time of trauma, or it may indicate a predisposition to develop the disorder if exposed to a traumatic experience. In one study, Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) examined the hippocampal volume of combat veterans with and without PTSD who each had an identical twin who never served in the military. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.1. Figure 14.1

3. (Scenario 14.1) The results of the study by Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) suggest that: a. among veterans, smaller hippocampi probably are due to trauma-induced glucocorticoid release. b. smaller hippocampi may make people more susceptible to PTSD if exposed to a traumatic event. c. soldiers with smaller hippocampi probably will develop PTSD. d. PTSD is largely genetically determined. 4. Being adopted into a family that is severely disturbed increases the risk of schizophrenia only in those who have a biological predisposition for schizophrenia. a. True b. False 5. The brains of those diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder tend to exhibit increased activity in the amygdala. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 6. People with narcissistic personality disorder are "drama queens" who live their lives like they are on stage. a. True b. False 7. People who live in large cities are more likely to have GAD than are people who live in rural areas. a. True b. False 8. The presence or absence of a diathesis determines if symptoms of a disease will manifest. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.3 to answer the following question(s). Phobias are characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations. There are two major classes of phobias: specific phobias and social phobias. Specific phobias involve an irrational fear of an object or situation that interferes with an individual's ability to function. A social phobia is an excessive and irrational fear of being publicly humiliated, embarrassed, or judged negatively. About 12% of people in the United States will develop a phobia at some point in their lives. Because phobias are so common, some researchers have argued that through evolution, people have become biologically predisposed to fear certain objects or situations, a concept termed preparedness theory. Other researchers have emphasized the importance of classical conditioning in the development of phobias. Situations associated with pain, for example, may come to elicit fear. Once established, behaviors such as excessive avoidance are maintained through operant conditioning. 9. (Scenario 14.3) When going out to get her mail, a person with a dog phobia notices someone walking a dog toward her house. She quickly goes back into her house and waits until the dog is long gone before retrieving her mail. The behavior of going back into her house is: a. a conditioned response most likely acquired through classical conditioning. b. a biologically prepared flight-or-fight response. c. positively reinforced by the avoidance of the dog. d. negatively reinforced by the avoidance of the dog. 10. Women attempt suicide more often than do men. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 11. Symptoms must persist for at least 2 months before an individual can receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. a. True b. False 12. The dopamine hypothesis states that schizophrenia involves a deficit in dopamine levels. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Figure 14.2

13. (Scenario 14.2) Which of these is a positive symptom of schizophrenia? a. inability to maintain eye contact b. blunted emotional affect c. poverty of speech d. masturbating in public 14. Before the introduction of the medical model of psychological disorders, people believed mental illness was a result of possession by demons or a punishment from God for their wrongdoings. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 14.3 to answer the following question(s). Phobias are characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations. There are two major classes of phobias: specific phobias and social phobias. Specific phobias involve an irrational fear of an object or situation that interferes with an individual's ability to function. A social phobia is an excessive and irrational fear of being publicly humiliated, embarrassed, or judged negatively. About 12% of people in the United States will develop a phobia at some point in their lives. Because phobias are so common, some researchers have argued that through evolution, people have become biologically predisposed to fear certain objects or situations, a concept termed preparedness theory. Other researchers have emphasized the importance of classical conditioning in the development of phobias. Situations associated with pain, for example, may come to elicit fear. Once established, behaviors such as excessive avoidance are maintained through operant conditioning. 15. (Scenario 14.3) Preparedness theory would have the MOST difficulty explaining a specific phobia toward: a. airplanes. b. clowns. c. snakes. d. blood. Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.1 introduces material from the following publication. Gilbertson, M. W., Shenton, M. E., Ciszewski, A., Kasai, K., Lasko, N. B., Orr, S. P., & Pitman, R. K. (2002). Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nature Neuroscience, 5, 1242–1247. Persons who live through a traumatic experience may develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images, and avoidance of things that bring the trauma to mind, with symptoms persisting for more than 1 month. Persons with PTSD also are at risk for other psychological disorders, with substance abuse disorder being a common comorbid diagnosis. In the past two decades, a number of studies have demonstrated that persons with PTSD have a smaller hippocampus than do controls. This may result from the neurotoxic effects of stress hormones (e.g., glucocorticoids) at the time of trauma, or it may indicate a predisposition to develop the disorder if exposed to a traumatic experience. In one study, Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) examined the hippocampal volume of combat veterans with and without PTSD who each had an identical twin who never served in the military. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.1. Figure 14.1

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16. (Scenario 14.1) For a number of years, psychologists with expertise in the stress response hypothesized that glucocorticoid release at and shortly after the time of trauma were neurotoxic and led to smaller hippocampi. The results of the study by Gilbertson and colleagues (2002): a. provide no evidence as to the veracity of this hypothesis. b. are consistent with but do not prove the theory. c. demonstrate a cause-and-effect relationship between hippocampal volume and PTSD. d. are inconsistent with the hypothesis. Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Figure 14.2

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 17. (Scenario 14.2) Numerous studies have demonstrated enlarged ventricles in patients with schizophrenia, particularly those exhibiting the negative symptoms of the disease. Which statement suggests that enlarged ventricles are associated with the development of schizophrenia? a. Treatment drugs for schizophrenia may produce ventricular enlargement. b. The majority of people with schizophrenia do not show ventricular enlargement. c. Unaffected identical twins of persons with schizophrenia do not exhibit enlarged ventricles, whereas the affected twins do. d. Persons with schizophrenia may not exhibit enlarged ventricles until years after the diagnosis. 18. To meet DSM criteria for bipolar disorder, symptoms of mania must persist for a minimum of a week. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Figure 14.2

19. (Scenario 14.2) Which of these is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. hearing voices b. feelings of grandiosity c. poverty of speech d. loud shouting or swearing 20. The comorbidity between anxiety and depression is significant. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.1 introduces material from the following publication. Gilbertson, M. W., Shenton, M. E., Ciszewski, A., Kasai, K., Lasko, N. B., Orr, S. P., & Pitman, R. K. (2002). Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nature Neuroscience, 5, 1242–1247. Persons who live through a traumatic experience may develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images, and avoidance of things that bring the trauma to mind, with symptoms persisting for more than 1 month. Persons with PTSD also are at risk for other psychological disorders, with substance abuse disorder being a common comorbid diagnosis. In the past two decades, a number of studies have demonstrated that persons with PTSD have a smaller hippocampus than do controls. This may result from the neurotoxic effects of stress hormones (e.g., glucocorticoids) at the time of trauma, or it may indicate a predisposition to develop the disorder if exposed to a traumatic experience. In one study, Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) examined the hippocampal volume of combat veterans with and without PTSD who each had an identical twin who never served in the military. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.1. Figure 14.1

21. (Scenario 14.1) Which factor BEST distinguishes PTSD from a typical reaction to a traumatic event? a. the release of stress hormones triggered by the trauma b. recurrent unwanted thoughts about the trauma c. anxiety when reminded of the trauma d. symptom-related distress that does not lessen with time 22. Believing that the president is sending you coded messages during televised speeches is an example of a delusion. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 23. Worldwide, men and women are about equally likely to commit suicide. a. True b. False 24. Paranoid personality disorder is in the odd/eccentric cluster. a. True b. False 25. Major depressive disorder is also known as unipolar depression. a. True b. False 26. Hearing voices in one's head is a positive symptom of schizophrenia. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Figure 14.2

27. (Scenario 14.2) The results shown in Figure 14.2 demonstrate that: a. children at genetic risk for schizophrenia are less sensitive to family-related problems. b. the environment and genetics tend to work in opposition with respect to the development of schizophrenia. c. neither genetic nor environmental factors alone predict the development of schizophrenia. d. stressful home situations are a greater predictor of schizophrenia than are genetics.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay Use Scenario 14.3 to answer the following question(s). Phobias are characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations. There are two major classes of phobias: specific phobias and social phobias. Specific phobias involve an irrational fear of an object or situation that interferes with an individual's ability to function. A social phobia is an excessive and irrational fear of being publicly humiliated, embarrassed, or judged negatively. About 12% of people in the United States will develop a phobia at some point in their lives. Because phobias are so common, some researchers have argued that through evolution, people have become biologically predisposed to fear certain objects or situations, a concept termed preparedness theory. Other researchers have emphasized the importance of classical conditioning in the development of phobias. Situations associated with pain, for example, may come to elicit fear. Once established, behaviors such as excessive avoidance are maintained through operant conditioning. 28. (Scenario 14.3) Shawna does not like spiders. When she sees a spider in the house, she will yell to her boyfriend to come and remove it. If he is not around, she will sweep it out of the house with a broom. Which statement is MOST likely to be true? a. Shawna has a specific phobia. b. Shawna has a specific phobia that was acquired through classical conditioning. c. Shawna's specific phobia has been acquired through attention from her boyfriend. d. Shawna does not have a phobia. 29. Brain-imaging studies suggest that those with ADHD have smaller brain volumes as well as abnormalities in brain networks associated with attention and behavioral inhibition. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.1 introduces material from the following publication. Gilbertson, M. W., Shenton, M. E., Ciszewski, A., Kasai, K., Lasko, N. B., Orr, S. P., & Pitman, R. K. (2002). Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nature Neuroscience, 5, 1242–1247. Persons who live through a traumatic experience may develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images, and avoidance of things that bring the trauma to mind, with symptoms persisting for more than 1 month. Persons with PTSD also are at risk for other psychological disorders, with substance abuse disorder being a common comorbid diagnosis. In the past two decades, a number of studies have demonstrated that persons with PTSD have a smaller hippocampus than do controls. This may result from the neurotoxic effects of stress hormones (e.g., glucocorticoids) at the time of trauma, or it may indicate a predisposition to develop the disorder if exposed to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay a traumatic experience. In one study, Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) examined the hippocampal volume of combat veterans with and without PTSD who each had an identical twin who never served in the military. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.1. Figure 14.1

30. (Scenario 14.1) The purpose of studying monozygotic twins of combat veterans in Gilbertson and colleagues' (2002) research was to: a. demonstrate that combat exposure causes PTSD. b. demonstrate that combat exposure is associated with PTSD. c. determine if smaller hippocampi are the causes or consequences of PTSD. d. control for all other third variables related to genetics other than hippocampal volume. 31. People with phobic disorders know that their fear is irrational. a. True b. False 32. The rate of nonsuicidal self-injury (NSSI) has been decreasing in recent decades. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 33. Borderline personality disorder is associated with unstable moods and stormy personal relationships. a. True b. False 34. According to an important study, people with PTSD show a smaller-sized hippocampus, a preexisting condition that made them susceptible to developing PTSD when they were later exposed to trauma. a. True b. False 35. Bipolar disorder is twice as common in women than it is in men. a. True b. False 36. The symptoms of a panic attack can mimic symptoms associated with a heart attack. a. True b. False 37. People with schizophrenia who assume an uncomfortable physical position and then remain there for hours are exhibiting catatonic behavior. a. True b. False 38. Most of the situations and objects of people's phobias could pose a real threat. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 47. Meeting DSM–5 criteria for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires having multiple symptoms of inattention that manifest in at least two settings. a. True b. False 48. People with PTSD tend to seek out triggers that bring the traumatic event to mind. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Figure 14.2

49. (Scenario 14.2) The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia was developed in large part due to research on the effects of psychoactive drugs in the brain. Which statement does that research NOT support? a. Drugs that cause excessive dopamine release, such as methamphetamine, mimic some of the symptoms of schizophrenia. b. Drugs that block the reuptake of dopamine, such as cocaine, mimic some of the symptoms of schizophrenia. c. Drugs that block the functions of dopamine, such as chlorpromazine, may reduce some symptoms of schizophrenia. d. Drugs that immediately begin reducing dopamine levels quickly reduce symptoms of schizophrenia more quickly than do drugs with more delayed onsets of action. Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.1 introduces material from the following publication. Gilbertson, M. W., Shenton, M. E., Ciszewski, A., Kasai, K., Lasko, N. B., Orr, S. P., & Pitman, R. K. (2002). Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nature Neuroscience, 5, 1242–1247. Persons who live through a traumatic experience may develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images, and avoidance of things that bring the trauma to mind, with symptoms persisting for more than 1 month. Persons with PTSD also are at risk for other psychological disorders, with substance abuse disorder being a common comorbid diagnosis. In the past two decades, a number of studies have demonstrated that persons with PTSD have a smaller hippocampus than do controls. This may result from the neurotoxic effects of stress hormones (e.g., Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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50. (Scenario 14.1) The results of the study by Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) are MOST consistent with which model of mental disorders? a. medical b. diathesis–stress c. biopsychosocial d. psychodynamic 51. Antidepressant medications usually take several weeks before they begin to alter neurotransmitter levels in the brain. a. True b. False 52. An obsession is a ritualistic behavior designed to reduce anxiety. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 53. Antisocial personality disorder is associated with extreme introversion and withdrawal from relationships. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.3 to answer the following question(s). Phobias are characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations. There are two major classes of phobias: specific phobias and social phobias. Specific phobias involve an irrational fear of an object or situation that interferes with an individual's ability to function. A social phobia is an excessive and irrational fear of being publicly humiliated, embarrassed, or judged negatively. About 12% of people in the United States will develop a phobia at some point in their lives. Because phobias are so common, some researchers have argued that through evolution, people have become biologically predisposed to fear certain objects or situations, a concept termed preparedness theory. Other researchers have emphasized the importance of classical conditioning in the development of phobias. Situations associated with pain, for example, may come to elicit fear. Once established, behaviors such as excessive avoidance are maintained through operant conditioning. 54. (Scenario 14.3) Which excessive and irrational fear is the BEST example of a specific phobia? a. the fear of using a public restroom because others may hear you using the toilet b. the fear of eating with acquaintances at a restaurant c. the fear of shaking hands with others because of possible germ contamination d. the fear of public speaking 55. (Scenario 14.3) Which excessive and irrational fear is the BEST example of a social phobia? a. the fear of using a public restroom because others may hear you using the toilet b. the fear of eating sashimi (raw fish) while at a Japanese restaurant with work friends c. the fear of getting lost in a busy airport d. the fear of seeing blood while watching contact sports 56. Scott has always gotten into trouble. At home, he routinely bullies his little brother, throws food and toys at family members, kicks his dad, and has been getting into trouble for stealing from the local store. Scott is likely suffering from conduct disorder. a. True b. False 57. One symptom of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a persistent deficit in communication skills. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 58. Agoraphobia sometimes occurs with panic disorder. a. True b. False 59. To receive a panic disorder diagnosis, panic attacks must be accompanied by fear of having another attack. a. True b. False 60. The term sociopath refers to someone diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.1 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.1 introduces material from the following publication. Gilbertson, M. W., Shenton, M. E., Ciszewski, A., Kasai, K., Lasko, N. B., Orr, S. P., & Pitman, R. K. (2002). Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nature Neuroscience, 5, 1242–1247. Persons who live through a traumatic experience may develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). PTSD is characterized by chronic physiological arousal, recurrent unwanted thoughts or images, and avoidance of things that bring the trauma to mind, with symptoms persisting for more than 1 month. Persons with PTSD also are at risk for other psychological disorders, with substance abuse disorder being a common comorbid diagnosis. In the past two decades, a number of studies have demonstrated that persons with PTSD have a smaller hippocampus than do controls. This may result from the neurotoxic effects of stress hormones (e.g., glucocorticoids) at the time of trauma, or it may indicate a predisposition to develop the disorder if exposed to a traumatic experience. In one study, Gilbertson and colleagues (2002) examined the hippocampal volume of combat veterans with and without PTSD who each had an identical twin who never served in the military. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.1. Figure 14.1

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61. (Scenario 14.1) Which conclusion is strongest, justified solely on the basis that comorbidity exists between PTSD and alcoholism? a. PTSD and alcoholism tend to co-occur in the same individuals. b. Trauma-induced changes leave the brain particularly sensitive to the effects of alcohol. c. The two disorders have the same underlying cause. d. Trauma survivors drink because doing so reduces their stress levels. 62. A new system called the Research Domain Criteria Project (RDoC) is an initiative that aims to guide the classification and understanding of mental disorders by revealing the basic processes that give rise to them. a. True b. False 63. According to helplessness theory, individuals prone to depression attribute negative experiences to causes that are internal, unstable, and global. a. True b. False 64. Many people engage in self-injury as a means of communicating distress or eliciting help from others. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 65. A panic attack typically lasts for about 20 minutes. a. True b. False 66. Generalized anxiety disorder is especially prevalent among high-income people with management-level jobs. a. True b. False Use Scenario 14.2 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 14.2 introduces material from the following publication. Tienari, P., Wynne, L. C., Sorri, A., Lahti, I., Läksy, K., Moring, J., Naarala, M., Nieminen, P., & Wahlberg, K.-E. (2004). Genotype-environment interaction in schizophrenia-spectrum disorder: Long-term follow-up study of Finnish adoptees. The British Journal of Psychiatry, 184(3), 216–222. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1192/bjp.184.3.216 Schizophrenia affects approximately 1% of the general population and is characterized by the profound disruption of basic psychological processes; a distorted perception of reality; altered or blunted emotional affect; and disturbances in thought, motivation, and behavior. The symptoms of schizophrenia are varied and are typically classified as either positive or negative. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are thoughts and behaviors typically not observed in those without the disease and can include things like delusions (patently false beliefs), hallucinations (false perceptual experiences), and disorganized speech. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are deficits or disruptions in normal behaviors, such as social withdrawal. Cognitive deficits in executive functioning, attention span, and working memory may also be observed. The symptoms of schizophrenia usually begin in late adolescence, and the disease has a strong genetic component. Over the years, a number of biological factors have been linked to schizophrenia, although none alone adequately accounts for the disorder. One such example is the dopamine hypothesis, which states that schizophrenia is related to excessive dopamine activity. Another theory points to enlarged brain ventricles and progressive cortical tissue loss as predictive of schizophrenia. Although only a minority of persons with schizophrenia have enlarged ventricles, this structural anomaly can appear in those without the disease, and dopamine antagonists may also produce this effect. Although research into the environmental determinants of schizophrenia has focused largely on the prenatal environment, psychological and social factors also contribute. Tienari and colleagues (2004) compared the risk of developing schizophrenia in children adopted into healthy versus disturbed families, the latter characterized by extreme conflict, volatile relationships, and communication deficits. Some of these children under investigation were identified as being at risk genetically for schizophrenia because their biological mothers had schizophrenia. The remainder were classified as being at low risk. The investigators utilized a longitudinal design and obtained the diagnostic status of the children with respect to schizophrenia when they reached young adulthood. Fabricated results consistent with this study are shown in Figure 14.2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay Figure 14.2

67. (Scenario 14.2) Which prediction is consistent with the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? a. Persons with schizophrenia have a reduced number of dopamine receptors in the brain. b. Persons with Parkinson's disease have a greater than 1% chance of also having schizophrenia. c. Amphetamines, which increase dopamine levels, can exacerbate symptoms of schizophrenia. d. Dopamine antagonists used to treat schizophrenia require several weeks to begin working. 68. Girls have higher rates of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) than do boys by a ratio of about 3:1. a. True b. False 69. At some time over the course of their lives, about 7% of all Americans are estimated to suffer from PTSD. a. True b. False 70. In obsessive-compulsive disorder, the obsessive thoughts typically produce anxiety, and the compulsive behaviors are performed to reduce it. a. True b. False

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 71. Dillon has just been diagnosed with a psychological disorder. Describe at least three effects that labeling may have on him.

72. Explain why the causes of conduct disorder are difficult to identify.

73. Kara's best friend, Julie, has received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, which explains some of the behavior patterns Kara has observed in Julie. Describe bipolar disorder with its cycles, as well as behaviors Kara might expect to see in Julie over the next few months. Does bipolar disorder have a genetic component?

74. Critically evaluate the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.

75. What is the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia? Provide several examples of each.

76. Illustrate the helplessness theory of depression with a real-world example.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 77. Neil's roommate Brian has always insisted on keeping the room in order. Neil knows better than to move anything on Brian's desk, as Brian becomes extremely upset for hours if everything isn't in a specific place. Brian is also a germophobe and lately has insisted on cleaning the room every night before bed, even the windows and floors, all in a fixed order. Neil has asked Brian to stop because the cleaning is excessive and distracting. This just upsets Brian and causes him to restart his cleaning ritual. Which mental disorder best matches Brian's symptoms? What purpose does the escalating cleaning ritual serve? What may be going on in Brian's brain?

78. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the medical model of mental disorders?

79. Define the diathesis–stress model. Then illustrate how this model is operative in generalized anxiety disorder and schizophrenia.

80. Construct brief profiles of individuals to illustrate obsessive-compulsive disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder.

81. Explain why personality disorders are among the most criticized diagnoses in the DSM–5.

82. Critically evaluate the information that depression is caused by low levels of norepinephrine and serotonin.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 83. What is the DSM and how has it changed since the first version was published in 1952?

84. Summarize the key distinguishing features of generalized anxiety disorder, phobic disorder, and panic disorder.

85. Describe the symptoms, prevalence rates, and treatment for autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay Answer Key 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. d 50. b 51. b 52. b 53. b 54. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. a 59. a 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. a 71. The answer should include the following information: Dillon's psychiatric label may affect him in the following ways: (1) The label may carry stigma and stereotypes, such as the idea that a mental disorder is the sign of personal weakness or that psychiatric patients are dangerous. (2) Expectations created by psychiatric labels can sometimes compromise the judgement of mental health professionals who are working to help Dillon. (3) Labeling can affect how Dillon sees himself. He may begin to view himself as hopeless or worthless, which may give him an attitude of defeat, and as a result, he may fail to work towards his own recovery. 72. The causes of conduct disorder are difficult to identify because the diagnostic criteria are broad. Children and adolescents have to display 3 of 15 behaviors to receive the diagnosis. This means that there are 32,000 possible combinations of behaviors that might lead to diagnosis. As a result, those persons receiving a conduct disorder diagnosis are an extremely varied group of individuals. It is not likely that their conduct disorder stems from the same factors.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 73. The answer should include the following information: (1) Bipolar disorder is defined as an unstable emotional condition characterized by cycles of abnormal, persistent high mood (mania) and low mood (depression). (2) The manic phase is characterized by elevated mood, less need for sleep, talkativeness, racing thoughts, reckless behavior, and possible hallucinations and/or delusions for at least a week. At the beginning of a manic phase, Julie might be incredibly productive and creative. As the manic phase progresses, however, she may begin engaging in risky behavior such as sexual indiscretions and wild shopping sprees, and exhibit delusional behavior. (3) The depressive phase is often clinically indistinguishable from major depression. Julie will have a severely depressed mood accompanied by feelings of worthlessness and a loss of pleasure. She might crash and spend most of her days in bed. (5) Bipolar disorder likely arises from the action of many genes in an additive or interactive fashion. Additionally, the genetic risk for bipolar disorder is associated with vulnerability to a number of other disorders, such as schizophrenia, major depression, autism spectrum disorder, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. There is also evidence that epigenetic changes may be involved in determining who develops bipolar disorder and who does not. 74. The answer should include the following information: (1) The dopamine hypothesis states that schizophrenia is the result of excess dopamine activity. This account arose because researchers in the 1950s discovered they could reduce the frequency of positive symptoms of schizophrenia with drugs that block dopamine. (2) However, this statement is an oversimplification. Many people with schizophrenia do not respond favorably to drugs that block dopamine. In addition, these drugs lower dopamine levels immediately, yet therapeutic effects often do not appear for several weeks. Finally, research suggests that a number of neurotransmitters interact in complex ways to modulate symptoms of schizophrenia. 75. The answer should indicate that: Negative symptoms are marked by deficits or disruptions to normal emotions and behavior. These may include emotional and social withdrawal, apathy, poverty of speech, and decreased ability to focus attention. Positive subtypes are distinguished by additions to normal behavior, such as hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized behavior. 76. The answer should include the following information: (1) According to the helplessness theory of depression, individuals who are prone to depression automatically attribute negative experiences to causes that are internal (i.e., their own fault), stable (i.e., unlikely to change), and global (i.e., widespread). This negative cognitive style fuels depression, fostering pessimism and low self-worth. (2) A person prone to depression might interpret a recent breakup as follows: "It really was my fault that she left me (internal). I'm always going to love her and feel heartbroken (stable). I am a failure at life (global)." (3) A person not prone to depression might interpret a recent breakup as follows: "The relationship failing was as much her fault as it was mine (external). I feel bad now, but I'm sure I will get over it in a few weeks (unstable). In the meantime, I am doing well in my courses and have a lot of meaningful friendships, so I'm doing just fine (specific)." 77. The answer should include the following information: (1) The behavior described fits the pattern of obsessivecompulsive disorder. (2) Brian has some of the typical symptoms of OCD: ritualistic behaviors, seeming inability to stop these behaviors, anxiety (over the cleanliness of the room), and a fixed order of routine. (3) In obsessivecompulsive disorder, the obsessions (in this case, fear of germs) create great anxiety, and the compulsive behaviors (in this case, cleaning the room) are performed to reduce the anxiety. (4) There is evidence that implicates heightened neural activity in the cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical loop, a brain system involved in habitual behavior.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 78. The answer should indicate that a strength of the medical model is that it is useful for identifying single causes of diseases as well as disease classification. The identification of causes of diseases has led to the creation of specific treatments. The medical model also reminds us that people suffering from a mental disorder deserve care and treatment, not condemnation. One weakness is that it may be inappropriate to use clients' subjective self-report, rather than physical tests of pathology (as in other areas of medical diagnostics), to determine underlying illness. Another weakness is that the model often "medicalizes" or "pathologizes" normal human behavior such as not paying attention in school. 79. The answer should include the following information: (1) The diathesis–stress model suggests that a person may be predisposed to a psychological disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress. (2) People who have low incomes, are living in large cities, are trapped in unpredictable environments, and/or who recently experienced a major life change are at increased risk of generalized anxiety disorder. These are all environmental stressors that can trigger the condition. However, only a small portion of people who experience these stressors actually develop the condition; genetic vulnerability also appears to be a factor. (3) Children adopted into severely disturbed families have an increased risk of developing schizophrenia only if they had a biological parent with schizophrenia. They have a genetic susceptibility for the condition that is triggered by the stressful environment. Children without this genetic susceptibility are not more likely to develop schizophrenia under these circumstances. 80. The answer should include the following information: (1) Obsessive-compulsive disorder: Abigail experiences intrusive, repetitive thoughts in which she imagines that her home is contaminated. She employs a series of rituals to alleviate the stress from the contamination, including excessive hand washing and wiping her furniture with antibacterial wipes three times whenever it comes into contact with another object. (2) Antisocial: Walter is a con artist who marries older wealthy women and then bilks them out of their life savings. He doesn't feel in the least bit guilty about his actions. He only cares for himself and has no empathy for others. (3) Posttraumatic stress disorder: Manny is a war veteran who experiences frequent flashbacks to the horrifying events he endured in war. He experiences chronic arousal, including exaggerated anxiety and startle reactions. He frequently avoids activities, such as spending time at the VFW, that will call his trauma to mind. 81. The answer should include the following information: (1) Critics question whether having a problematic personality is really a disorder. Given that approximately 15% of the U.S. population has a personality disorder according to the DSM–5, perhaps it might be that a lot of people are just difficult, not ill. (2) Another issue is whether personality problems correspond to "disorders" in that there are distinct types or whether such problems might be better understood as extreme values on trait dimensions such as the Big Five traits. 82. The answer should include the following information: (1) Norepinephrine and serotonin do appear to be involved in depression. Drugs that enhance these neurotransmitters tend to reduce symptoms of depression in many individuals. (2) However, this statement is an oversimplification. Many individuals who are depressed do not have low levels of these neurotransmitters. Moreover, antidepressant drugs quickly enhance these neurotransmitter levels, yet relief is not felt for several weeks. (3) Depression, like most mental disorders, appears to be caused by an interaction among biological, psychological, social, and environmental factors.

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Chap 14_5e _ TF + Essay 83. The answer should include the following information: (1) The DSM, or Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, is a classification system that describes the symptoms used to diagnose each recognized mental disorder and indicates how a disorder can be distinguished from other, similar problems. Each disorder is named and classified as a distinct illness. The initial version of the DSM provided a common language for talking about disorders; however, the diagnostic criteria were vague. Revised versions of the DSM contained more detailed lists of symptoms (or diagnostic criteria) that had to be present for a disorder to be diagnosed. These detailed lists of symptoms led to a dramatic increase in the reliability, or consistency, of diagnoses of mental disorders. The current version of the DSM–5 has also expanded to provide a framework for thinking about differences in cultural concepts of distress. 84. The answer should include the following information: (1) Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic excessive worry that is not specific to any one threat, accompanied by three or more of the following symptoms: restlessness, fatigue, concentration problems, irritability, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. (2) Phobic disorders are characterized by marked, persistent, and excessive fear and avoidance of specific objects, activities, or situations. Social phobia involves an irrational fear of being publicly humiliated or embarrassed. (3) Panic disorder is characterized by the sudden occurrence of multiple psychological and physiological symptoms that contribute to the feeling of stark terror. Acute physiological symptoms include shortness of breath, heart palpitations, sweating, and dizziness. Acute psychological symptoms include feeling detached from the body (depersonalization), feeling that the external world is unreal (derealization), and fearing that one is going crazy or is going to die. 85. The answer should include the following information: (1) ASD is a condition beginning in early childhood in which a person shows persistent communication deficits as well as restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. (2) Prevalence rates for ASD are increasing; currently about 60 in 10,000 children are diagnosed with ASD. (3) Reasons for the increase in prevalence include more awareness of ASD, more screening, and better diagnostic tools. ASD is not related to childhood vaccinations. (4) Treatment for ASD involves early and intensive behavioral interventions.

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Chap 15_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What percentage of people with a mental disorder do not seek treatment because they do not think that they need to be treated? a. 5% b. 10% c. 45% d. 75% 2. Which statement about person-centered therapy is FALSE? a. Clients determine their own goals for therapy. b. Therapists provide frequent suggestions about how to reach clients' goals. c. Clients determine the frequency and duration of treatment. d. Therapists demonstrate empathy toward clients. 3. The primary goal of psychoanalysis is: a. to help clients improve interpersonal relationships. b. to have clients become aware of and take responsibility for their thoughts and behaviors. c. for the client to understand the unconscious by developing insight. d. to help clients change maladaptive behaviors into constructive behaviors. 4. Which of these is a reason cognitive and cognitive behavioral therapies are so effective at preventing relapses? a. These therapies have been shown to alter neurochemicals in a client's brain, which cures the psychological disorder. b. Clients undergoing these therapies are taught how to avoid situations that could lead to a relapse in the first place. c. Throughout these therapies, clients gain a new perspective with which to view their world. d. The issues that were causing a client problems in the first place are thoroughly addressed by these therapies, which effectively cures the psychological disorder. 5. Research suggests that the brain changes produced by psychotherapeutic medications and psychotherapies are: a. localized in different regions. b. similar. c. qualitatively different. d. less apparent with psychotherapy.

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Chap 15_5e 6. Who might benefit MOST from phototherapy? a. Queenie, who has recently developed an eating disorder b. Jeanette, a new mother experiencing postpartum depression c. Alejandra, a 22-year-old college student who is experiencing seasonal affective disorder d. Debbie, an 80-year-old woman who is experiencing tremors associated with Parkinson's disease 7. Considering all available data, antidepressants appear to be _____ effective than a placebo pill in treating symptoms of depression. a. considerably more b. only slightly more c. no more d. slightly less 8. Striving to see the world from the client's perspective demonstrates: a. empathy. b. unconditional positive regard. c. congruence. d. mindfulness. 9. Benzodiazepines exert their antianxiety effects by enhancing the functions of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. serotonin c. dopamine d. ACTH 10. _____ therapy focuses only on the client's behavior and the situation, whereas _____ therapy focuses on helping a client identify and correct distorted thinking. a. Behavior; aversion b. Socio-behavior; rational psychodynamic c. Behavior; cognitive d. Gestalt; cognitive 11. When Eleanor completes her chores in a timely manner, her parents put a star sticker on the reward chart. Once her reward chart is full of stickers, her parents give her $3.00. Eleanor's parents are using: a. a token economy. b. antecedent manipulation. c. cognitive behavioral therapy. d. exposure therapy.

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Chap 15_5e 12. Phillip's psychiatrist prescribed him Xanax. Phillip probably has: a. bipolar disorder. b. an anxiety disorder. c. insomnia. d. depression. 13. Cognitive therapy focuses on: a. identifying unconscious desires and wishes developed during childhood. b. changing behavior through punishment and reward. c. changing an individual's distorted thinking about self, others, or the world. d. enhancing intelligence through multiple cognitive tests. 14. Atypical antipsychotics work on both the dopamine and the _____ systems. a. ACTH b. serotonin c. GABA d. epinephrine 15. Which example is NOT a personal benefit of self-help or support groups? a. the realization that the individual group members are not alone b. getting advice from someone in a similar position c. becoming oversensitized to all the symptoms associated with the problem d. the ability to give advice to others in similar situations 16. When selecting a mental health care provider, one consideration is how people will know if their problem is improving. Which question to a mental health provider addresses this consideration? a. Have you treated others with this problem? b. What type of treatment do you provide? c. What is your educational background? d. What kinds of measures do you use? 17. Santiago was a young adult in the mid-1960s who suffered from hallucinations and delusions. Diagnosed with schizophrenia, he was prescribed _____, and this drug probably _____ effective at reducing these symptoms. a. Thorazine; was b. Thorazine; was not c. Clozaril; was d. Clozaril; was not

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Chap 15_5e 18. What has research found regarding herbal remedies for mental disorders? a. Very little research has been done regarding herbal remedies for mental disorders. b. Herbal remedies are safe and effective for almost all people, so long as they do not have one of several preexisting conditions. c. Herbal remedies are effective for mood and anxiety disorders but not for schizophrenia. d. Herbal remedies have no effectiveness beyond a placebo effect. 19. Sara, a therapist, tries to understand her clients' experiences and reflect them back in a compassionate way. She feels this approach facilitates her clients' natural tendency toward growth. Sara is MOST likely a(n) _____ therapist. a. cognitive b. cognitive behavioral c. interpersonal d. person-centered 20. Therapists who explore childhood to assist clients in developing insight into their psychological problems are using the _____ orientation. a. eclectic b. humanistic c. psychodynamic d. cognitive 21. Medications that help reduce the experience of fear or nervousness are called: a. antidepressants. b. antipsychotics. c. antianxiety drugs. d. dissociative anesthetic drugs. 22. Gestalt therapists would be LEAST likely to say to a client: a. "How does it feel for you to say that to me right now?" b. "How did you feel when your parents scolded you as a child?" c. "Are you willing right now to try an empty chair exercise?" d. "What are you feeling as you share your dream with me?" 23. Which of these is NOT an ethical standard for treatment of people with mental disorders set by the American Psychological Association? a. promoting accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness b. establishing empathy with clients c. taking precautions to avoid biases d. respecting the dignity and worth of all people Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 24. A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the needs of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as a(n) _____ therapist. a. eclectic b. cognitive behavioral c. Gestalt d. humanistic 25. Jada is in the process of choosing a therapist for treatment. Which question is the LEAST helpful to ask potential therapists? a. What kind of measures do you use to determine if my problem is improving? b. How many years of graduate school did you complete? c. What type of treatment do you provide? d. How effective is this type of therapy for the type of problem I'm having? 26. A group that is NOT an example of a self-help group is: a. Al-Anon. b. a cancer-survivor group. c. Alcoholics Anonymous. d. group therapy. 27. Alexander mentions to his family doctor that he has felt very depressed for most of the past 6 months. Alexander's doctor would be MOST likely to prescribe which drug? a. Paxil b. Xanax c. Clozaril d. Lithium 28. _____ refers to the fact that symptoms sometimes improve during treatment simply because clients often wait until symptoms are at their worst before seeking treatment; when you're at the bottom, there is no place to go but up. a. Natural improvement b. Nonspecific treatment effect c. Placebo effect d. Error in reconstructive memory 29. The primary reason behavioral therapists reject the psychoanalytic approach is that psychoanalysis: a. does not focus on cognitive mechanisms underlying behavioral problems. b. involves years of therapy. c. is rarely is effective. d. involves invisible mental properties that are particularly hard to test. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 30. Which statement describes evidence for the effectiveness of psychodynamic therapy? a. Research has provided evidence that psychodynamic therapy is overwhelmingly effective. b. Research has provided evidence that psychodynamic therapy is overwhelmingly ineffective. c. Some researchers suggest that there is evidence for its efficacy, and others claim that other forms of therapy may be more effective. d. Psychodynamic therapy is more effective than cognitive behavioral therapy. 31. Freud's original version of psychoanalysis is practiced by about _____ of clinicians today. a. 5% b. 19% c. 32% d. 70% 32. Humanistic and existential therapies share the assumption that psychological problems stem from: a. feelings of alienation and loneliness. b. early childhood experiences. c. an external locus of control. d. overuse of defense mechanisms. 33. Some researchers and clinicians have questioned whether treatments shown to work in well-controlled settings will work in the real world. One reason for this is that: a. treatment outcome studies rarely use control groups. b. most reported treatment studies do not have large numbers of people of color. c. the research setting differs from typical treatment settings. d. treatment outcome studies are rarely double blind. 34. Which statement BEST summarizes the effects of Scared Straight–style interventions for the treatment of conduct problems among teenagers? a. These programs produce modest but socially significant improvements in behavior. b. These programs produce positive changes in behavior, but only if parental involvement is high. c. These programs are associated with no change in the targeted problem behaviors. d. These programs cause more harm than good. 35. A common side effect of benzodiazepines is: a. tardive dyskinesia. b. rapid spikes in blood pressure. c. nausea and vomiting. d. drowsiness.

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Chap 15_5e 36. After completing a parenting class, Jess and David believe their parenting skills have improved substantially. Objective measures confirm they are better, but additional research suggests the improvement is due to interaction with other parents, not the skills learned in the course. This describes which treatment illusion? a. error in reconstructive memory b. nonspecific treatment effect c. regression to the mean d. natural improvement 37. Approximately _____ of people in the United States suffer from a mental disorder at some point in their lifetime. a. 4% b. 17% c. 46% d. 94% 38. Research has shown _____ between the amount of fish a country eats and prevalence rates of depression. a. zero relationship b. a causal relationship c. a positive correlation d. a negative correlation 39. Research has found that mindfulness meditation is helpful for: a. controlling hallucinations and delusions in people with schizophrenia. b. preventing relapse in depression. c. shortening manic periods associated with bipolar disorder. d. eliminating phobias. 40. Which statement does NOT present a reason doctors need to be relatively cautious about prescribing benzodiazepines? a. Benzodiazepines can be highly addictive. b. Benzodiazepines have many side effects. c. Benzodiazepine overdose can produce symptoms similar to schizophrenia. d. When combined with alcohol, benzodiazepines can cause depressed respiration. 41. Why do psychoanalysts focus on early childhood experiences? a. Urges and conflicts were likely to be repressed at this time. b. These experiences are not distorted by defense mechanisms. c. Doing so puts the client into a meditative state in which the unconscious can be directly accessed. d. It is at this point that the trajectory toward personal growth and self-actualization begins.

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Chap 15_5e 42. In one study, participants with social phobia were told that they might have to speak in public after receiving either a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) or cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). They then were given a PET scan shortly before the public speaking task. Among participants who responded positively to treatment, there was decreased activity in the amygdala in those who received: a. the SSRI but no change despite treatment effectiveness in those who received CBT. b. the SSRI but increased activity despite treatment effectiveness in those who received CBT. c. both treatments. d. neither treatment; both treatments appeared to work by increasing amygdala activity. 43. Which of these is a way to determine if beneficial treatment outcomes are due to natural improvement? a. measure the change in symptoms from before to after treatment b. measure symptoms before, throughout, and after treatment c. calculate the correlation between number of treatments and severity of symptoms d. randomly assign people with similar symptoms to a treatment or control group and then compare symptoms over time 44. Researchers are attempting to assess if cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). Five male and 17 female participants with OCD are assessed and then given CBT twice per week for 8 weeks. At the end of the study, OCD symptoms are reduced. This study found that CBT treatment was effective, but the findings are limited because the study did not: a. use a control group. b. mention how they accounted for reconstructive memory. c. examine preexisting differences among participants. d. use equal numbers of men and women. 45. Shawna is a teenager diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder made worse by the stress associated with her parents' divorce. Her psychotherapist has prescribed Buspar to treat her anxiety. Shawna is most likely seeing a: a. counseling psychologist. b. psychiatric social worker. c. psychiatrist. d. clinical psychologist. 46. Ancient Greek physicians prescribed a substance known as theriac to treat a variety of conditions. The active substance in it was: a. opium. b. alcohol. c. ginseng. d. cannabis.

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Chap 15_5e 47. A _____ is an inert substance or procedure that has been applied with the expectation that it will produce a healing response. a. treatment b. placebo c. nonspecific treatment d. paratreatment 48. Anya's depression is beginning to affect her relationships with friends and family, and her grades at school are suffering. Anya's doctor prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor to treat her depression. Anya's doctor probably is a: a. psychologist. b. social worker. c. counselor. d. psychiatrist. 49. Barry consults a therapist. The therapist asks him to lie down on a couch while the therapist sits behind him. He is told to talk about anything that comes into his mind or his feelings. Barry is probably seeing which kind of therapist? a. interpersonal b. psychoanalytic c. cognitive behavioral d. humanistic 50. Alexandra has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is experiencing cognitive and perceptual disruptions, as well as flat emotional affect and mood disturbances. Her doctor would be MOST likely to prescribe: a. Thorazine. b. Haldol. c. Risperdal. d. Mellaril. 51. A lobotomy involves: a. drilling holes through the eye sockets to alleviate intraocular pressure. b. severing the corpus callosum. c. severing connections between the frontal lobes and inner brain structures. d. removing the prefrontal cortex.

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Chap 15_5e 52. MAOIs and tricyclic antidepressants are sparingly prescribed today primarily because: a. of their side effects. b. they are rarely effective at treating depression. c. while effective, they are not nearly as effective as atypical antidepressants. d. of a potentially fatal interaction when consumed with alcohol. 53. Why are antidepressants NOT prescribed to treat bipolar disorder? a. They might increase the number of alternate personalities. b. They might worsen the severity of the depressive episode. c. They might increase the frequency of hallucinations. d. They might trigger a manic episode. 54. The generic name of Thorazine is: a. haloperidol. b. chlorpromazine. c. risperidone. d. olanzapine. 55. A term that is NOT used to describe cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is: a. problem focused. b. action oriented. c. person centered. d. effective. 56. Lately, Charlie and Angelica have been having problems in their relationship. Both are having trouble communicating their true feelings to each other. Which type of therapy might be MOST beneficial for them to attend at the same time? a. cognitive behavioral b. interpersonal c. couple d. gestalt 57. After completing a parenting class, Jess and David believe their parenting skills have improved because they remember their parenting skills before the course to be worse than they were in reality. Objective measures indicate their parenting skills have not improved substantially. This describes which treatment illusion? a. error in reconstructive memory b. nonspecific treatment effect c. regression to the mean d. natural improvement

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Chap 15_5e 58. Research suggests that cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is more effective than medication in treating: a. major depressive disorder. b. insomnia. c. bipolar disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 59. Which statement does NOT describe an advantage of group therapy? a. Group members model appropriate behaviors for one another. b. Group therapy is more cost effective than is individual therapy. c. Attending a group in which others have similar problems shows clients that they are not alone in their distress. d. Group therapy usually is more effective than is individual psychotherapy. 60. Regardless of the emotion, behavior, or situation discussed, Dr. Davies treats clients in a warm, nonjudgmental way so that they are comfortable communicating with her. This best illustrates which principle of person-centered therapy? a. empathy b. unconditional positive regard c. congruence d. mindfulness mediation 61. Benzodiazepines are classified as: a. tranquilizers. b. atypical antidepressants. c. conventional antipsychotics. d. atypical antipsychotics. 62. A person-centered therapist does NOT utilize: a. cognitive restructuring. b. unconditional positive regard. c. congruence. d. empathy. 63. Which drug is a conventional antipsychotic? a. Risperdal b. Mellaril c. Zyprexa d. Clozaril

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Chap 15_5e 64. To become a practicing social worker, a person needs a: a. bachelor's degree in psychology or sociology. b. bachelor's degree in any social science. c. master's degree in social work. d. PhD in sociology. 65. Avery arrives at an emergency department in a manic state. Upon reviewing her medical history, the psychiatrist assigned to Avery's case learns that Avery has a history of wild mood swings. The psychiatrist would be MOST likely to prescribe Avery which drug? a. Paxil b. Xanax c. Celexa d. Lithium 66. Woody has been in therapy for years. Because he unknowingly exaggerated the severity of his symptoms before treatment began, he believes that the therapy has been extremely successful. In actuality, Woody's condition is only slightly better now than it was before treatment. Woody's perception that his condition is vastly improved is probably due to: a. a process effect. b. a nonspecific treatment effect. c. natural improvement. d. an error in reconstructive memory. 67. Placebo treatment can produce significant improvements in: a. physical but not psychological conditions. b. psychological but not physical conditions. c. both physical and psychological conditions. d. neither physical nor psychological conditions. 68. Jason has major depressive disorder. He tells his psychiatrist that Prozac really isn't working to relieve his symptoms. The psychiatrist decides to prescribe Jason an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, such as: a. Paxil. b. Wellbutrin. c. Elavil. d. Effexor.

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Chap 15_5e 69. As compared with medication, psychotherapy is _____ effective in treating anxiety disorders and works through _____ brain mechanisms. a. less; different b. more; similar c. equally; similar d. equally; different 70. In general, the majority of research finds that psychotherapy: a. is no more effective than is the administration of a placebo. b. can actually slow recovery from mental disorders. c. is more effective than is not receiving a treatment. d. is effective only for anxiety disorders. 71. Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) differs from traditional psychoanalysis in that: a. IPT is a form of group therapy. b. IPT focuses on shared unconscious dynamics in the collective unconscious. c. analysts using IPT are more likely to offer support or advice to the client. d. analysts using IPT do not regard insight as a goal of therapy. 72. Randomized controlled trials indicate that the Drug Abuse and Resistance Education (D.A.R.E.) program: a. reduces drug use in teens from high-SES (socioeconomic status) families only. b. produces only a modest reduction in teen drug use. c. has no effect on teen drug use. d. is associated with an increase in teen drug use. 73. The primary reason that people give for not seeking treatment is believing that they: a. cannot afford the cost of the treatment. b. do not have a problem. c. can handle their own problems. d. cannot fit treatment into their schedule. 74. Which statement about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is true? a. Members follow a 10-step program to sobriety. b. AA encourages members to engage in responsible drinking. c. AA does not promote a belief in a higher power. d. AA can be as effective as cognitive and behavioral interventions.

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Chap 15_5e 75. A primary assumption of interpersonal therapy is that: a. as interpersonal relations improve, symptoms will subside. b. interpersonal deficits stem from faulty cognitions. c. better interpersonal relations can be established with systems of reinforcement and punishment. d. unconditional positive regard is necessary to promote healthy interpersonal relations. 76. The procedure in which a magnet is placed over a patient's head to alter neuron activity in order to produce a beneficial treatment effect is called: a. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). b. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS). c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). 77. Therapeutic Evaluative Conditioning uses _____ to reduce instances of self-injurious and suicidal behavior. a. mindfulness training b. cognitive restructuring c. operant conditioning d. classical conditioning 78. Fewer than 40% of those with a mental disorder receive _____ treatment. a. minimally adequate b. successful c. online d. exceptional 79. Which statement is NOT true regarding treatment for mental disorders? a. Most people in the United States with a mental disorder in any given 12-month period receive treatment during the same time frame. b. Treatment rates are lower in low-income or developing countries than in the United States. c. Among those who do receive treatment, the average delay from onset until first treatment is more than a decade. d. Society stands to benefit from the effective treatment of psychological disorders. 80. The idea of focusing treatment on the client's behavior instead of the client's unconscious was inspired by: a. behaviorism. b. humanism. c. functionalism. d. existentialism.

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Chap 15_5e 81. _____ is a form of psychotherapy that focuses on helping clients improve current relationships. a. Psychosocial therapy b. Interpersonal psychotherapy c. Sociodynamic psychotherapy d. Person-centered therapy 82. The MOST commonly used antidepressants today are: a. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). b. benzodiazepines. c. MAOIs. d. tricyclics. 83. Lindsay has obsessions about contamination and washes her hands hundreds of times per day. During therapy, Lindsay is asked to get her hands dirty on purpose and then leave them dirty for several hours. This is an example of: a. the use of punishment to reduce the undesirable behavior of hand washing. b. cognitive restructuring. c. negative reinforcement. d. exposure and response prevention. 84. Which statement does NOT describe a barrier to seeking treatment for a mental disorder? a. People do not believe that treatment for mental illness will be effective. b. The origin of mental illness is "hidden" and may not be taken seriously. c. People may have difficulty finding transportation to the clinic. d. Individuals often feel they need help in handling their problem. 85. Which of these is NOT a structural barrier to treatment? a. lack of transportation b. lack of clinician availability c. treatment cost d. perceived stigma from others 86. Jin has been diagnosed with panic disorder. Based on a landmark study comparing cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) and imipramine (an antidepressant), which of these would NOT be an effective treatment? a. antidepressant medication b. cognitive behavioral therapy c. a combination of antidepressant medication and cognitive behavioral therapy d. placebo treatment

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Chap 15_5e 87. In a double-blind experiment: a. the researcher conducting the posttreatment assessment does not know which participants were given the treatment and which were assigned to a wait-list control. b. the researchers conducting the treatment send their data to an impartial laboratory for analysis; they are kept blind as to the results of the study until publication. c. both the experimenter and the participant are uninformed about which treatment the participant is receiving. d. participants never know if they were given the treatment. 88. When a couple has a disordered relationship: a. both persons are diagnosed with a mental disorder. b. the person contributing most to the problem is diagnosed with a mental disorder. c. at least one and possibly both of the persons is/are diagnosed with a mental disorder. d. neither person may be diagnosed with a mental disorder. 89. Which treatment or therapy for psychological problems is MOST commonly associated with dangerous side effects? a. medication b. psychoanalysis c. cognitive restructuring d. behavioral conditioning 90. Casey had a rough week at work and is convinced that he is about to be fired. Casey's therapist challenged this belief, pointing out that Casey has been employed for 5 years and has received several raises. The therapist then had Casey create a spreadsheet containing specific job skills that he performs better than average, average, or below average. To his surprise, Casey realized that he probably is a slightly aboveaverage employee. Casey's therapist is using which type of psychotherapy? a. humanistic therapy b. mindfulness meditation c. interpersonal therapy d. cognitive restructuring 91. The antidepressant Effexor blocks the reuptake of: a. dopamine. b. serotonin and dopamine. c. serotonin and norepinephrine. d. dopamine and norepinephrine.

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Chap 15_5e 92. A primary goal of interpersonal therapy that differs from traditional psychoanalysis is for the therapist to: a. develop systems of rewards and punishments to aid in behavioral management. b. correct faulty patterns of thinking. c. help clients improve current relationships. d. develop insight into how childhood events contribute to their psychological problems. 93. Which statement is true regarding treatment for mental disorders? a. Most people in the United States with a mental disorder in any given 12-month period receive treatment during the same time frame. b. Treatment rates are higher in low-income or developing countries than in the United States. c. Among those who do receive treatment, the average delay from onset until first treatment is more than a decade. d. The only barrier to people successfully finding treatment is the stigma of mental disorders. 94. Which mental health professional has the MOST training in dealing with people in dire life situations such as poverty, homelessness, and/or family conflict? a. psychologist b. psychiatrist c. counselor d. social worker 95. Hayder has a warm, empathetic therapist. He looks forward to attending therapy sessions and believes that his therapist's therapeutic methods are responsible for the alleviation of his anxiety over the course of his treatment. However, his improvement is actually due to having a consistent and warm person with whom to talk. Hayder's improvement is actually due to: a. a process effect. b. a nonspecific treatment effect. c. natural improvement. d. an error in reconstructive memory. 96. Humanistic and existential therapies grew in opposition to which other theoretical orientation? a. cognitive b. behavioral c. psychodynamic d. the medical model

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Chap 15_5e 97. Which of these is a drug commonly prescribed to treat bipolar disorder? a. Paxil b. Valium c. Celexa d. Lithium 98. The first drug used to treat schizophrenia was called: a. Thorazine. b. Risperdal. c. Prozac. d. Valium. 99. When a couple has a disordered relationship, their therapist will focus on the problem arising from: a. the person contributing the most to the dysfunction. b. possible mental disorders in one or both of the persons. c. the interaction between the two persons. d. situational factors such as stress about finances. 100. Maria was a young adult in the mid-1960s who suffered from extreme social withdrawal and a flat emotional affect. Diagnosed with schizophrenia, she was prescribed _____, and this drug probably _____ effective at reducing these symptoms. a. Thorazine; was b. Thorazine; was not c. Clozaril; was d. Clozaril; was not 101. Camilla has been going to therapy to help deal with her anxiety for a few months. Her therapist has been working with her to change her patterns of thinking; however, this treatment appears to have triggered an episode of major depression. Camilla's depression is an example of a(n): a. dissociative fugue. b. somatization disorder. c. iatrogenic illness. d. conversion disorder. 102. Which drug is NOT an antipsychotic medication? a. Thorazine b. Haldol c. Mellaril d. Paxil

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Chap 15_5e 103. Of these, which is the most common theoretical orientation to therapy? a. behavioral b. cognitive c. humanistic d. eclectic 104. The introduction of antipsychotics to patients with schizophrenia did NOT result in: a. reductions in hallucinations and delusions. b. improvements in persons exhibiting social withdrawal. c. an increase in patient manageability. d. deinstitutionalization. 105. Jamie visits Dr. White to ask about enrolling her son in a boot-camp intervention for his conduct problems. Dr. White is MOST likely to advise: a. "Boot-camp intervention would be highly successful in addressing your son's conduct problems." b. "A Scared Straight program would be more effective for the treatment of your son's conduct problems." c. "Boot-camp interventions have been linked to worsening of conduct problems." d. "Boot-camp interventions are more successful than therapy for conduct problems." 106. Approximately _____ of people in the United States that have a mental disorder in a given 12-month period receive treatment during the same time frame. a. 1% b. 18% c. 72% d. 95% 107. Which person would MOST benefit from seeing a clinical psychologist instead of other mental health care providers? a. Mindi, who has untreated schizophrenia with frequent hallucinations and delusions b. Jerry, who has major depressive disorder and is opposed to the use of antidepressant medication c. P.J., who is having trouble adjusting to changing peer pressure in high school d. Alexa, who has rapid-cycling bipolar disorder

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Chap 15_5e 108. Researchers are attempting to assess if cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for depression. Participants with unipolar depression are assessed and then randomly assigned to either a treatment group or a control group. The treatment group receives CBT twice per week for 6 weeks. The control group receives no treatment. At the end of the 6 weeks, the depression levels of both groups are reassessed. This is an example of a: a. treatment outcome study. b. placebo control study. c. single-blind experiment. d. double-blind experiment. 109. Which antidepressant works on the norepinephrine system? a. Paxil b. Celexa c. Prozac d. Effexor 110. The type of therapy that has the goals of helping clients become aware of their own thoughts, behaviors, feelings, and experiences and helping clients "own" or take responsibility for them is _____ therapy. a. cognitive behavioral b. humanistic c. psychodynamic d. gestalt 111. Allison has been diagnosed with an eating disorder. Her eating disorder seems to be related to her overcontrolling parents; perhaps it gives her a way to have some control. What kind of therapy would be MOST helpful to Allison and her parents? a. self-help b. interpersonal c. humanistic d. family 112. Which statement about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is true? a. Each of the 12 steps has been scientifically validated. b. AA encourages members to engage in responsible drinking. c. AA encourages members to make amends for harm to others. d. The 12-step program does not require a belief in a higher power.

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Chap 15_5e 113. Which statement does NOT present a disadvantage of group therapy? a. Clients in group therapy get less attention than each might receive in individual psychotherapy. b. Group therapy tends to cost more than individual therapy. c. Some members of the group might make other members feel uncomfortable. d. It is often difficult to assemble a group of individuals who have similar needs. 114. Why are double-blind experiments uncommon when assessing the effectiveness of psychotherapies? a. They cost a considerable amount of money to conduct. b. It is difficult to keep treatment providers in the dark about whether they are providing a real treatment. c. Patients are not likely to sign up to receive a placebo treatment. d. Although they control for placebo effects, they do not control for natural improvement. 115. Which type of treatment involves placing a powerful pulsed magnet over a person's scalp to alter neuronal activity in the brain? a. deep brain stimulation (DBS) b. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) 116. Which statement about seeking help for treatment of a psychological disorder is FALSE? a. People may not realize they have a disorder that can be treated. b. Finding a service provider can be confusing. c. Most people who seek help obtain the most effective treatment. d. Treatment facilities might not have adequate staffing to meet the needs of the community. 117. Which antidepressant does NOT affect the serotonergic system? a. Wellbutrin b. Celexa c. Paxil d. Effexor 118. Benzodiazepines work by facilitating the action of the neurotransmitter: a. GABA. b. serotonin. c. dopamine. d. ACTH.

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Chap 15_5e 119. _____ refers to the tendency for symptoms to return to their mean or average level. a. Natural improvement b. Nonspecific treatment effect c. Placebo effect d. Error in reconstructive memory 120. Research has shown that in the treatment of mood and anxiety disorders: a. medication is more effective than is psychotherapy. b. psychotherapy is more effective than is medication. c. psychotherapy is equally effective as medication. d. psychotherapy and medication together are better than either is alone. 121. William is in cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) to reduce his anxiety in social situations. This is an example of how CBT is: a. problem focused. b. action oriented. c. person centered. d. transparent. 122. Which drug is an atypical antipsychotic? a. Haldol b. Thorazine c. Mellaril d. Zyprexa 123. Which of these is NOT one of the ways in which researchers attempt to overcome the effects of treatment illusions in outcome studies? a. designing double-blind experiments b. using a placebo treatment condition c. specifying that both control and treatment groups always have equal numbers of males and females d. randomly selecting participants from the same population of patients for the treatment group and the control group 124. The Food and Drug Administration: a. regulates herbal products just like medications. b. requires that rigorous research be conducted on herbal products before they can be marketed. c. requires that the purity of herbal products be consistent from brand to brand. d. does not require rigorous research to establish the safety or effectiveness of herbal products.

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Chap 15_5e 125. In their interactions with clients, person-centered therapists are encouraged to demonstrate three basic qualities—_____—for growth to occur. a. congruence, directive listening, and empathy b. congruence, empathy, and unconditional positive regard c. caring, positive regard, and love d. unconditional positive regard, sympathy, and genuineness 126. Estimates suggest that depression-related lost work productivity costs between _____ per year. a. $1 and $2.5 million b. $10 and $12.2 million c. $1 and $5 billion d. $30 and $50 billion 127. Delores has Parkinson's disease and has pronounced tremors. In an effort to reduce her tremors, batterypowered electrodes were implanted into specific areas of her brain that are thought to give rise to them. Delores is receiving a rather new treatment known as: a. deep brain stimulation. b. transcranial magnetic stimulation. c. electroconvulsive therapy. d. lobotomy. 128. Jacqueline's doctor prescribed Xanax for her anxiety. Which statement did the doctor MOST likely make when writing the prescription? a. "A side effect of this medication is uncontrollable facial movements." b. "Don't consume any alcoholic beverages before or after taking this medicine." c. "This medication may improve your memory." d. "This medicine may result in difficulty getting to sleep." 129. Taking benzodiazepines in combination with _____ can cause respiratory depression and may be fatal. a. an antidepressant b. alcohol c. Adderall d. an antipsychotic 130. Drugs used to treat bipolar disorder are called: a. MAOIs. b. tricyclics. c. mood stabilizers. d. antipsychotics.

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Chap 15_5e 131. In couple therapy, treatment strategies target changes in: a. both parties. b. the party causing the relationship conflict. c. the party with a diagnosed psychological disorder. d. the party suffering distress from the relationship. 132. Family therapy is particularly effective when: a. all members of the family are adults. b. a parent is suffering from a psychological disorder. c. adolescent children are involved. d. the parents are divorced. 133. Shanna's doctor has diagnosed her with schizophrenia and noted that her dopamine system is underactive in parts of the brain. She has taken conventional antipsychotics in the past, but they were not successful. Which of these symptoms is Shanna likely to experience? a. delusions b. social withdrawal c. hallucinations d. bizarre behavior 134. _____ therapy is undertaken for specific problems (e.g., reducing the frequency of panic attacks) and requires the client to select and engage in specific strategies that could help address those problems. a. Person-centered b. Psychodynamic c. Humanistic d. Cognitive behavioral 135. Psychotherapy has a risk of being harmful. However, psychotherapists adhere to the _____ to minimize the risk of harm to their patients. a. Hippocratic oath b. ethical standards of the American Psychological Association c. guidelines of the American Medical Association d. DSM–5 136. A disorder or symptom that occurs as a result of the treatment itself is called a(n): a. placebo effect. b. iatrogenic illness. c. dissociative disorder. d. malingering syndrome.

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Chap 15_5e 137. All of these are operant techniques that would be expected to reduce the frequency of an unwanted behavior EXCEPT: a. stopping the provision of the current consequence for the unwanted behavior. b. increasing reinforcement for an incompatible behavior. c. reducing the reinforcement for the unwanted behavior. d. eliminating all punishers for the unwanted behavior. 138. Robert is experiencing depression as a result of his Alzheimer's disease. Relative to his routine medical care, Robert would likely benefit from: a. exercise and behavioral management. b. cognitive therapy. c. psychoanalysis. d. gestalt therapy. 139. Jean-Luc has a fear of the dentist. He is taken to the dentist's office every week for a month. Each time, he stays a bit longer and realizes that it is not such a scary place. Jean-Luc's therapist is using which behavior therapy? a. aversion b. exposure c. operant d. interpersonal 140. Scott is telling his therapist about a stressful presentation he had to give at work last week. Scott's therapist asks him, "How do you feel as you describe this situation?" Scott's therapist is using a technique known as: a. psychoanalysis. b. mindfulness. c. focusing. d. empathy. 141. Dopamine overactivity is associated with which symptoms of schizophrenia? a. flat affect b. catatonia c. hallucinations d. cognitive symptoms 142. The MOST significant reason the practice of lobotomy ended was: a. pressure from the World Health Organization. b. the introduction of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). c. the publication of a code of ethics by the American Psychological Association. d. the development of antipsychotic medication. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 143. Transcranial magnetic imaging (TMS) is reportedly an effective and noninvasive therapy for which disorder? a. social anxiety disorder b. GAD c. depression d. bipolar disorder 144. One of the most common treatments of depression is to use selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which work by: a. blocking the reuptake of serotonin in the brain. b. preventing serotonin from overstimulating the brain. c. causing vesicles to prematurely release large amounts of serotonin into the synapse. d. increasing the activity of enzymes that metabolize serotonin. 145. Psychodynamic psychotherapy has its roots in Freud's theory of: a. sexuality. b. personality. c. cognitive development. d. moral intuition. 146. Which statement about psychological disorders is true? a. Most people with a psychological disorder receive treatment. b. Psychological disorders are effectively treated with medication but not psychotherapy. c. Depression is the second leading cause of disability worldwide. d. About 10% of the general population is currently in need of treatment for psychological disorders. 147. In which cognitive therapy technique are people taught to be fully present in each moment and to be aware of their thoughts, feelings, and sensations in order to detect symptoms before they become a problem? a. cognitive restructuring b. self-monitoring c. mindfulness meditation d. rational emotive 148. Ellen was in the depths of depression when she began psychotherapy. Now, two weekly sessions later, she already feels considerably better. This improvement, however, is completely due to the fact that extreme symptoms regress toward their average levels. Ellen's improvement during therapy is a treatment illusion termed: a. natural improvement. b. nonspecific treatment effect. c. placebo effect. d. error in reconstructive memory. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 149. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) has shown substantial positive effects for which of these? a. marital distress b. anger problems c. chronic pain d. panic disorder 150. Antidepressants are commonly used to treat not only depression but also: a. schizophrenia. b. personality disorders. c. anxiety disorders. d. bipolar disorder. 151. In electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the shock is administered to the patient's: a. arm or leg. b. breastbone. c. scalp. d. prefrontal cortex via an implanted electrode. 152. Audrey is suffering from depression that was triggered by a breakup with her boyfriend. She tells her therapist that no man will ever love her. Her therapist challenges the validity of her belief by stating that just because one person broke up with her doesn't mean that all of her relationships will fail. The therapist then has Audrey make a list of all the guys she knows who would probably go out with her on a date. To her surprise, Audrey is able to name a handful and realizes that her belief that no one will love her probably is distorted by the emotional pain from her breakup. Audrey's therapist is using: a. cognitive restructuring. b. mindfulness meditation. c. systematic desensitization. d. social phobia hierarchy. 153. The main side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is: a. impaired long-term memory. b. nausea and vomiting. c. loss of emotion. d. impaired short-term memory. 154. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors function by inhibiting: a. the release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine by monoamine oxidase. b. monoamine oxidase from breaking down norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. c. the synthesis of monoamine oxidase by norepinephrine-, serotonin-, and dopamine-rich neurons. d. the breakdown of monoamine oxidase by norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 155. For the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder, cognitive behavioral therapy is: a. contraindicated, as it exacerbates symptoms. b. not an efficacious therapy. c. effective, but less so than present-centered therapy. d. effective, and more so than present-centered therapy. 156. Why did humanistic and existential therapists oppose psychoanalysis? a. They opposed insight as a goal of psychotherapy. b. They believed that free association was not a valid technique to access the unconscious. c. They denied the existence of unconscious motivation that was prominent in psychoanalysis. d. They opposed the negative view of human nature espoused by psychoanalysis. 157. Which drug is NOT a benzodiazepine? a. Valium b. Prozac c. Ativan d. Xanax 158. Kelly is a person with schizophrenia who exhibits dopamine underactivity. Conventional antipsychotics do not improve her symptoms. Which of these is MOST likely to be one of Kelly's more prominent symptoms of schizophrenia? a. delusions b. social withdrawal c. hallucinations d. bizarre behavior 159. Among people with social phobias, both antidepressant medication and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) appear to _____ activity in regions of the brain associated with _____. a. decrease; facial recognition b. decrease; threat assessment c. increase; facial recognition d. increase; threat assessment

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Chap 15_5e 160. Scott is having relationship problems with his wife, Samantha. Scott's therapist directs Scott to pretend that Samantha is sitting in an empty chair across from him. Scott is instructed to say whatever he wants to say to Samantha. Then Scott must switch chairs, assume the role of Samantha, and provide her reply. Scott's therapist is using a(n) _____ technique. a. psychodynamic b. modified group c. Gestalt d. interpersonal 161. Which treatment illusion need not involve an actual reduction in symptoms? a. error in reconstructive memory b. natural improvement c. placebo effect d. nonspecific effects 162. Cognitive restructuring seeks to replace irrational beliefs about the world with _____ beliefs about the world. a. optimistic b. accurate c. nihilistic d. emotionless 163. As part of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), Eva must meet her weekly goal of leaving the house five times a week despite her major depression. This goal best exemplifies the fact that CBT is: a. problem focused. b. action oriented. c. person centered. d. transparent. 164. Phototherapy may be MOST helpful to people who have: a. schizophrenia. b. bipolar depression. c. seasonal affective disorder. d. panic disorder. 165. _____ are a class of drugs that help lift people's moods. a. Psychopharmaceuticals b. Anxiolytics c. Antidepressants d. Antipsychotics

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Chap 15_5e 166. Which statement is true regarding the ability of clinical psychologists to prescribe medication to their patients? a. All licensed clinical psychologists can prescribe medication. b. Licensed clinical psychologists in only five states can prescribe medication. c. Clinical psychologists can prescribe only psychotherapeutic medication. d. Clinical psychologists in a handful of provinces can prescribe medication. 167. _____ refers to openness and honesty in the therapeutic relationship and ensuring that the therapist communicates the same message at all levels. a. Empathy b. Unconditional positive regard c. Congruence d. Mindfulness 168. Alison and her therapist have agreed that Alison will control the length and frequency of her sessions. Her therapist also tries not to give advice but instead rephrases Alison's concerns to help Alison feel safe expressing her thoughts and feelings. Which type of therapy is Alison likely undergoing? a. person-centered therapy b. cognitive behavioral therapy c. interpersonal therapy d. psychoanalysis 169. In a landmark study, Barlow and colleagues (2000) compared the effectiveness of the antidepressant imipramine, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and their combination on the treatment for panic disorder. They found that: a. both medication and CBT were effective, but CBT was significantly more effective. b. both medication and CBT were effective, but medication was significantly more effective. c. the combination therapy was significantly more effective than either treatment alone. d. the medication and CBT were about equally effective. 170. Which drug is a conventional antipsychotic? a. Risperdal b. Clozaril c. Zyprexa d. Haldol 171. More than _____ forms of psychotherapy currently exist. a. 10 b. 100 c. 500 d. 1,000 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 172. In general, therapies for psychological disorders can be divided into _____ and _____ treatments. a. medical; psychoanalytic b. psychological; biological c. biological; counseling d. psychotherapy; sociological 173. Treating a client with _____ involves providing a nonjudgmental, warm, and accepting environment in which the client can feel safe expressing thoughts and feelings. a. empathy b. unconditional positive regard c. congruence d. mindfulness 174. Which statement about cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is FALSE? a. Clients are told exactly why a particular treatment has been chosen. b. CBT is focused on solving specific problems that clients have. c. Therapists try to restructure false beliefs through exposure therapy. d. Clients may be asked to engage in activities or practice skills outside of the therapy setting. 175. One of the main problems with self-help and support groups is that: a. there is no way to effectively evaluate or ensure the quality of the group. b. people feel too comfortable and uninhibited. c. therapists are not directive enough in the sessions. d. they are so inexpensive that prospective members place little value on them. 176. According to a humanistic perspective, feelings of alienation and loneliness stem from: a. faulty patterns of thinking. b. failure to reach one's potential. c. repressed childhood memories. d. failure to find meaning in life. 177. The stereotypical image of a person lying on a couch and talking to a therapist sitting in a chair comes from which form of psychotherapy? a. gestalt b. cognitive c. psychoanalysis d. person-centered

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Chap 15_5e 178. Jamar has schizophrenia and has now been on a standard dose of a conventional antipsychotic medication for more than 20 years. Which of these should he expect from the conventional antipsychotic medication? a. The medication should provide relief for both positive and negative symptoms. b. He may have to take another medication to treat the unwanted side effects of the conventional antipsychotic medication. c. The medication will be more effective than atypical medications. d. He will experience fewer side effects from conventional antipsychotics compared to atypical antipsychotic medications. 179. For most severe mental disorders, such as bipolar disorder and schizophrenia, research has found that treatment should definitely include: a. medication. b. psychotherapy. c. medication and psychotherapy. d. psychosurgery. 180. As part of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), Kirsten understands the goals of therapy as well as the purpose of each assignment, and she receives frequent feedback on how her therapy is progressing. This best exemplifies the fact that CBT is: a. problem focused. b. action oriented. c. person centered. d. transparent. 181. Which drug is an atypical antipsychotic? a. Risperdal b. Thorazine c. Mellaril d. Haldol 182. Which procedure is used as a last-resort treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder and involves creating small lesions to destroy part of the corpus callosum and the cingulate gyrus? a. deep brain stimulation b. electroconvulsive therapy c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. psychosurgery

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Chap 15_5e 183. The class of drugs used to treat the symptoms of schizophrenia is referred to as: a. sedatives. b. barbiturates. c. antipsychotics. d. mood stabilizers. 184. Koby went into therapy for generalized anxiety disorder. Her therapist asked her to create a list of things that made her anxious and then assigned rewards to be earned if she confronted and successfully dealt with these things. Each week, she was assigned an event on the list as homework. During therapy sessions, Koby discussed her weekly progress, and her therapist was careful to detect and challenge irrational beliefs about her anxiety and replace them with more realistic beliefs. Koby received _____ therapy. a. dialectical behavior b. psychodynamic c. cognitive d. cognitive behavioral 185. Tricyclic antidepressants work by keeping more _____ in the synapses. a. norepinephrine and serotonin b. dopamine and glutamate c. serotonin and dopamine d. norepinephrine and glutamate 186. A mental health professional with a PsyD degree is a: a. psychologist. b. psychiatrist. c. counselor. d. social worker. 187. With respect to the treatment of panic disorder, research suggests that cognitive behavioral therapy is _____ than medication. a. equally effective posttreatment and at follow-up b. equally effective posttreatment and more effective at follow-up c. equally effective posttreatment but less effective at follow-up d. less effective posttreatment and at follow-up 188. Double-blind assessments of treatment effectiveness are commonly used in _____ therapies. a. cognitive b. behavior c. psychodynamic d. pharmaceutical Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 189. Compare the efficacy of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in the treatment of depression. a. TMS is more effective than ECT. b. ECT is more effective than TMS. c. Neither TMS nor ECT are effective. d. TMS and ECT are equally effective. 190. Although she is not depressed, Adeline's psychiatrist prescribes an antidepressant for her. Which of these is Adeline MOST likely suffering from? a. schizophrenia b. antisocial personality disorder c. an anxiety disorder d. bipolar disorder 191. Which of these is NOT an ethical standard for treatment of people with mental disorders set by the American Psychological Association? a. taking care to do no harm b. establishing empathy with clients c. seeking fairness in treatment and taking precautions to avoid biases d. respecting the dignity and worth of all people 192. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) increase the level of serotonin in synapses by: a. increasing its synthesis. b. facilitating its release. c. blocking its reuptake. d. inhibiting its oxidation. 193. In person-centered therapy, the therapist does not typically provide advice due to the belief that the client can and will recognize the right thing to do. This approach is described as: a. flexible. b. nondirective. c. self-actualizing. d. self-aware.

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Chap 15_5e 194. Because Francisco's depression has not responded to antidepressant medication, his doctor is describing less conventional treatments for depression. As the doctor describes the advantages of transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) compared to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she would mention all of these EXCEPT that TMS: a. has fewer side effects. b. is more effective. c. is noninvasive. d. has no impact on memory. 195. The MOST commonly used antianxiety medications are the: a. benzodiazepines. b. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). c. hypnotics. d. antipsychotics. 196. _____ are a class of medications that enhance the activity of GABA to produce therapeutic effects. a. Benzodiazepines b. Atypical antidepressants c. Conventional antipsychotics d. Atypical antipsychotics 197. Jose underwent hypnosis as part of his therapy. When he was under hypnosis, his therapist asked many questions about traumatic childhood events that never occurred. Jose experiences recurring trauma due to the suggestions made during hypnosis. Jose is suffering from: a. depression. b. an anxiety disorder. c. an iatrogenic illness. d. schizophrenia. 198. A primary goal of psychodynamic therapy is to have clients: a. develop systems of rewards and punishments to aid in behavioral management. b. recognize faulty patterns of thinking. c. project their feelings for a loved one onto the therapist. d. develop insight into how childhood events contribute to their psychological problems. 199. Which of these is a structural barrier to treatment? a. the belief that treatment is ineffective b. lack of clinician availability c. the belief that the problem is not severe d. the perceived stigma from others Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 200. Dr. Williams uses exposure therapy to reduce a client's physiological fear of public speaking, and cognitive restructuring to help the client realize that excessive fear of public speaking is irrational. Dr. Williams takes a _____ approach to psychotherapy. a. psychodynamic b. behavioral and humanistic c. cognitive d. cognitive behavioral 201. _____ is the study of drug effects on psychological states and symptoms. a. Pharmacodynamics b. Psychophysiology c. Psychopharmacology d. Neuropharmacology 202. Which therapy focuses on understanding and changing the client's meaning, assumptions, and beliefs about self, others, or the world? a. psychodynamic b. behavior c. cognitive d. humanistic 203. Dr. Hernandez is a therapist who assumes all his clients have a tendency toward growth. He allows clients to determine their own goals, as well as the frequency and length of therapy. As a therapist, he thinks it is vital to demonstrate congruence, empathy, and unconditional positive regard. Dr. Hernandez is most likely using: a. person-centered therapy. b. cognitive behavioral therapy. c. interpersonal therapy. d. psychoanalysis. 204. A psychoanalyst would NOT be interested in helping clients understand their: a. innate drives. b. defense mechanisms. c. tendency toward personal growth. d. early childhood experiences.

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Chap 15_5e 205. Aliya has schizophrenia, which was diagnosed when she was a teenager; she has now been on a standard dose of a conventional antipsychotic medication for more than 20 years. Which of these should she expect from her antipsychotic medication? a. Her medication should provide relief for both positive and negative symptoms. b. She may have to take another medication to treat the unwanted side effects of the conventional antipsychotic medication. c. Her medication will be more effective than atypical medications. d. Her medication will have fewer side effects than atypical medications. 206. In a landmark study, Barlow and colleagues (2000) compared the effectiveness of the antidepressant imipramine, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and their combination. Which of these is NOT a finding from the study? a. Imipramine alone was most effective. b. CBT alone was most effective. c. Placebo and CBT were equally effective. d. The combination of CBT and imipramine was the most effective. 207. Dr. Williams received her PhD in clinical psychology. She is a: a. psychologist. b. social worker. c. psychiatrist. d. counselor. 208. Researchers are attempting to assess if cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for depression. Participants with unipolar depression are assessed and then randomly assigned to either a treatment group or a control group. The treatment group receives CBT twice per week for 6 weeks. The control group receives no treatment. At the end of the 6 weeks, the depression levels of both groups are reassessed. This study found that CBT treatment was more effective than no treatment, but the findings are limited because the study did not control for: a. natural improvement. b. placebo effects. c. preexisting differences among participants. d. participant gender. 209. Deinstitutionalization in which the number of people in psychiatric hospitals decreased by more than twothirds, was largely the result of: a. reductions in insurance benefits for those suffering from mental illness. b. a decrease in federal and state funds for psychiatric institutions. c. exposés of human rights violations occurring in psychiatric hospitals. d. the introduction of antipsychotic medications. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 210. An interaction between a socially sanctioned clinician and a client, with the goal of support for the client or relief from the client's psychological problem, is called: a. psychodynamic therapy. b. behavior therapy. c. psychotherapy. d. psychodynamic psychotherapy. 211. Benzodiazepines typically take effect in _____ and are _____ effective for reducing symptoms of anxiety disorders. a. days; moderately b. minutes; extremely c. weeks; extremely d. days; minimally 212. During exposure therapy, participants are exposed to more frightening situations: a. at the beginning of therapy to expose them to their fear. b. only using imagination therapy due to ethical considerations. c. unpredictably, to better mimic real-world conditions. d. only after participants no long fear less intense situations. 213. According to an existential perspective, feelings of alienation and loneliness stem from: a. faulty patterns of thinking. b. failure to reach one's potential. c. repressed childhood memories. d. failure to find meaning in life. 214. Which statement accurately describes the effects of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) or cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) on brain mechanisms underlying successful treatment for social phobia? a. Only the SSRI was associated with changes in brain functioning. b. Both were associated with decreased activity in the amygdala and hippocampus. c. CBT was associated with activity enhancements in the prefrontal cortex, and the SSRI was associated with activity reductions in the amygdala. d. Both were associated with enhancements in activity in the prefrontal cortex. 215. Jeremiah has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. A psychiatrist would most likely prescribe a(n): a. mood stabilizer. b. benzodiazepine. c. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). d. antipsychotic.

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Chap 15_5e 216. Side effects of benzodiazepines include all of these EXCEPT: a. coordination problems. b. impaired memory. c. shakiness. d. drowsiness. 217. The introduction of antipsychotic drugs led to: a. reductions in insurance benefits for those suffering from mental illness. b. a decrease in federal and state funds for psychiatric institutions. c. exposés of human rights violations occurring in psychiatric hospitals. d. reductions in the number of people in psychiatric hospitals. 218. Dr. Liu is researching the efficacy of a new treatment. If she wanted to be sure her research findings would translate into the real world, she should NOT: a. use a double-blind procedure. b. use a control group. c. make sure her sample represents ethnically and culturally diverse groups. d. recruit only White subjects. 219. Which of these is a drug commonly prescribed to treat bipolar disorder? a. Valproate b. Prozac c. Celexa d. Thorazine 220. Conventional antipsychotic medications work well on _____ symptoms associated with schizophrenia but are less effective on _____ symptoms. a. negative; positive b. catatonic; delusional c. positive; negative d. hallucinatory; delusional 221. Jade is hospitalized following an inpatient procedure to eliminate severe depression. After the procedure, she is feeling much better but is suffering from short-term memory loss. Jade MOST likely underwent: a. phototherapy. b. psychosurgery. c. electroconvulsive therapy. d. transcranial magnetic stimulation.

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Chap 15_5e 222. Exposure and Response Prevention is an example of a _____ treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder. a. non-evidence-based folk b. biological c. psychological d. biological and psychological 223. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered "selective" because they: a. work in particular areas of the brain known to be associated with depression. b. are prescribed only for depression and cannot be used to treat other psychological disorders. c. only activate a particular type of serotonin receptor related to depression. d. work specifically on the serotonin system. 224. Psychodynamic approaches to therapy emphasize _____; humanistic and existential approaches emphasize _____. a. unconscious drives; the effect of the past on current feelings b. psychosexual urges; learned behavior c. a negative view of human nature; a positive view d. the id and superego; the ego 225. Fiora is a young professional struggling with depression. She has yet to seek treatment. Based on statistics of people similar to her, if asked why she is not seeking treatment, she would MOST likely respond: a. "I didn't realize that I had a problem." b. "There isn't an effective treatment for my issues." c. "Treatment will interfere with my work schedule." d. "I can handle this on my own." 226. Which therapy assumes that disordered behavior is learned and that relief of symptoms is achieved through changing overt maladaptive behaviors into more constructive behaviors? a. conditioning b. classical c. behavior d. humanistic 227. The introduction of antipsychotics in the 1960s led to a _____ decrease in the number of people in psychiatric hospitals. a. one-fourth b. one-third c. one-half d. two-thirds

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Chap 15_5e 228. Which statement is true regarding the efficacy of conventional antipsychotic medications? a. Antipsychotic medications work well for positive symptoms but are less effective on negative symptoms. b. Antipsychotic medications are largely ineffective for all symptoms of schizophrenia. c. Antipsychotic medications work well for both positive and negative symptoms. d. Antipsychotic medications work well for negative symptoms but are less effective on positive symptoms. 229. Tricyclic antidepressants increase levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in synapses by: a. increasing their synthesis. b. facilitating their release. c. blocking their reuptake. d. inhibiting their oxidation. 230. Recent research suggests that deep brain stimulation may be effective in treating the: a. positive symptoms of schizophrenia. b. negative symptoms of schizophrenia. c. tremors associated with Parkinson's disease. d. memory loss associated with Alzheimer's disease. 231. Which drug is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? a. Ativan b. Wellbutrin c. Effexor d. Paxil 232. A mental health professional who is a medical doctor is a: a. psychologist. b. counseling psychologist. c. psychiatric social worker. d. psychiatrist. 233. _____ is the second leading cause of disability worldwide. a. Depression b. Generalized anxiety c. Schizophrenia d. Substance use disorder

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Chap 15_5e 234. Janelle believes that she is experiencing signs of mental disorders and is seeking treatment. She finds a psychologist that she'd like to meet with but is unable to afford treatment. Janelle's barrier to treatment is: a. not realizing she has a disorder that can be treated. b. her beliefs about getting help. c. a structural barrier. d. an emotional barrier. 235. Elana is a client who has just begun traditional psychoanalysis. She probably will receive therapy sessions: a. once a week for at least a year. b. once a month for a number of years. c. multiple times per week for several months. d. multiple times per week for a number of years. 236. Stanley has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. If only one form of treatment is available to him, which would be BEST for Stanley's condition? a. cognitive therapy b. behavioral therapy c. antipsychotic medication d. minor tranquilizers 237. Which treatment is sometimes used for severe depression when medication is not working? a. cingulotomy b. anterior capsulotomy c. electroconvulsive therapy d. lobotomy 238. Research suggests that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are associated with dopamine _____ in the _____ pathway of the brain. a. overactivity; somatosensory b. overactivity; mesolimbic c. underactivity; somatosensory d. underactivity; mesocortical 239. Rick took a sugar pill thinking it was Tylenol, and his headache subsided much more quickly than if he had taken no pill. The lessening of Rick's headache was probably due to: a. natural improvement. b. the placebo effect. c. changes in blood sugar. d. reconstructive memory.

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Chap 15_5e 240. For which of these procedures is short-term memory loss a side effect? a. deep brain stimulation b. lobotomy c. transcranial magnetic stimulation d. electroconvulsive therapy 241. Which drug is a benzodiazepine? a. Thorazine b. Prozac c. Ativan d. Clozaril 242. Psychosurgery is a last-resort treatment for: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. obsessive-compulsive disorder. c. panic disorder. d. bipolar disorder. 243. Dr. Albies tries to understand her clients' emotions by putting herself in their shoes. This BEST illustrates which principle of person-centered therapy? a. empathy b. unconditional positive regard c. congruence d. mindfulness 244. Izaak is recovering from an anxiety disorder. He is learning a new technique in which he tries to be aware of his thoughts, feelings, and sensations in each moment. This allows him to try to detect symptoms of his anxiety before they become problematic. What technique is Izaak learning? a. cognitive restructuring b. mindfulness meditation c. systematic desensitization d. self-actualization 245. Which therapy assumes that everyone has a tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions from the therapist? a. person-centered b. interpersonal c. cognitive behavioral d. gestalt

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Chap 15_5e 246. The technique, frequently used by cognitive therapists, of teaching clients to question the automatic beliefs, assumptions, and predictions that often lead to negative emotions and to replace them with more realistic beliefs is called: a. cognitive dissonance. b. cognitive restructuring. c. mindfulness meditation. d. cognitive plasticity. 247. The placebo effect is one type of: a. natural improvement. b. error in reconstructive memory. c. nonspecific treatment effect. d. transference effect. 248. Talking about anything and everything that comes into your mind is an example of: a. gaining insight. b. free association. c. introspection. d. interpretation. 249. Some studies have shown that St. John's wort has an advantage over a placebo for treatment of _____, but other studies have shown no advantage. a. social phobia b. depression c. hallucinations d. flat affect 250. A side effect of conventional antipsychotics is: a. involuntary movements of the face. b. mood disturbances. c. hallucinations. d. delusions. 251. The phrase "getting what you want by revising what you had" best describes which treatment illusion? a. regression to the mean b. nonspecific treatment effect c. natural improvement. d. error in reconstructive memory

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Chap 15_5e 252. When he listens to a client describe an attitude that disgusts him, Dr. Clement cannot help wincing as he says, "I see your perspective." This MOST illustrates a failure of: a. empathy. b. unconditional positive regard. c. congruence. d. mindfulness. 253. Therapies involving operant conditioning typically manipulate: a. expectancies for behavior. b. the consequences of behavior. c. the intensity of the unconditioned stimulus. d. patterns of maladaptive thinking that give rise to problem behavior. 254. The goal of Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is: a. a lifelong abstinence from drinking. b. responsible drinking. c. responsible drinking or abstinence, depending on the person. d. a lengthy period of abstinence followed by a gradual return to responsible drinking. 255. Patients in a drug rehabilitation program earn vouchers that can be exchanged for items such as movie tickets, restaurant gift cards, clothes, or bus tickets when they submit a clean urine sample. The program is using: a. a token economy. b. antecedent manipulation. c. cognitive behavioral therapy. d. exposure therapy. 256. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is commonly known as: a. shock therapy. b. seizure therapy. c. cingulotomy. d. skin-shock punishment. 257. Which of these is the MOST commonly cited belief-related barrier to treatment? a. the belief that the problem should be handled by oneself b. the perceived stigma from others c. the belief that treatment is ineffective d. the belief that the problem is not that severe

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Chap 15_5e 258. Exposure hierarchy refers to a procedure in which: a. in vivo therapy is used before imaginary therapy. b. reinforcers are tried before punishers to alter behavior. c. feared stimuli are presented from least to most feared. d. token size progressively increases across training. 259. Yuri receives weekly homework assignments designed to reduce his social anxiety. This exemplifies the fact that cognitive behavioral therapy is: a. problem focused. b. action oriented. c. person centered. d. transparent. 260. In group therapy, the therapist typically takes the role of: a. personal therapist to whomever is talking. b. discussion facilitator. c. a peer group member. d. a silent observer. 261. Which statement about computerized and smartphone-based psychotherapies is true? a. They do not allow researchers to study human behavior. b. They do not use behavioral techniques. c. Few of these interventions can show data supporting their effectiveness. d. They are now more commonly used than face-to-face psychotherapies in treating anxiety and depression. 262. A major complication involving combining medication and psychotherapy is that: a. they often alter brain function in opposing ways. b. medication often reduces the effectiveness of psychotherapy. c. insurance companies do not cover psychotherapy but do cover medical treatment. d. it usually requires coordination among several mental health care providers. 263. Which of these is a structural barrier to treatment? a. the cost of treatment b. thinking that one can handle the problem on one's own c. difficulty finding effective services for one's problem d. trouble finding transportation to the clinic

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Chap 15_5e 264. Mary-Ellen is in cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) because her depression is resulting in excessive absences at work. This is an example of how CBT is: a. problem focused. b. action oriented. c. person centered. d. transparent. 265. Interest in humanistic and existential therapies peaked in the: a. 1950s. b. 1970s. c. 1990s. d. 2000s. 266. Exposure therapy is based on: a. principles of reinforcement and punishment. b. habituation and response extinction. c. response blocking. d. principles of reinforcement. 267. What percentage of people who do not seek treatment for a mental disorder say that it is because they believe they can handle the problem themselves? a. 72.6% b. 51.2% c. 27.8% d. 3.9% 268. Approximately _____ of people in the United States suffer from at least one mental disorder during a given year. a. 2% b. 26% c. 76% d. 92% 269. Compared with conventional antipsychotics, atypical antipsychotics appear to be _____ effective at treating the _____ symptoms of schizophrenia. a. more; positive b. more; negative c. less; positive d. less; negative

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Chap 15_5e 270. _____ antipsychotic drugs differ from _____ antipsychotic drugs in that the former block both dopamine and serotonin receptors. a. Atypical; conventional b. Typical; atypical c. Conventional; unconventional d. Conventional; atypical 271. D'Shawn is concerned about his child's drug use and asks his therapist whether he should enroll her in a Drug Abuse and Resistance Education (D.A.R.E.) program. D'Shawn's therapist is MOST likely to answer: a. "A D.A.R.E. program would likely encourage your child to stop using drugs." b. "D.A.R.E. programs have been associated with increased use of alcohol and drugs." c. "D.A.R.E. has been linked to conduct problems." d. "D.A.R.E. programs have no associated harms or benefits." 272. Typical antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia are believed to block _____ receptors in the brain. a. serotonin b. dopamine c. norepinephrine d. GABA 273. MOST therapists working to treat anxiety and depression use: a. interpersonal psychotherapy. b. behavior therapy. c. cognitive therapy. d. cognitive behavioral therapy. 274. _____ was the first psychodynamic therapy to be developed. a. Cognitive behavioral therapy b. Interpersonal psychotherapy c. Psychoanalysis d. Person-centered therapy 275. Shira is recovering from major depressive disorder. Her therapist has taught her to be present in each moment and to self-monitor for negative thoughts, stopping them before they become problematic. Shira is practicing: a. cognitive restructuring. b. mindfulness meditation. c. systematic desensitization. d. person-centered therapy. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 276. Interpersonal psychotherapy is a type of _____ therapy. a. humanistic b. gestalt c. cognitive behavioral d. psychodynamic 277. When a recent survey asked psychologists to identify their main theoretical orientation, the MOST common response (27%) was _____ therapy. a. cognitive behavioral b. psychodynamic c. interpersonal d. humanistic/existential 278. Dr. Martin uses systematic desensitization to help clients overcome phobias, cognitive restructuring to help alleviate the symptoms of depression, and free association to help people gain insight into their unconscious. Dr. Martin takes a(n) _____ approach to psychotherapy. a. psychodynamic b. eclectic c. cognitive d. behavioral 279. Jeremy's parents have always referred to him as their "problem child." A teenager now, he frequently skips school and was recently caught using drugs on school property. Due to these problems, his parents arranged a family therapy session. Which statement is the family therapist MOST likely to make during their session? a. "Jeremy is not the sole problem; instead, the family system is broken." b. "Jeremy is the source of the breakdown in the family dynamics." c. "Jeremy's parents are to blame for his truancy problems." d. "It would be best if Jeremy left the room so that the rest of the family could speak frankly about him." 280. In family therapy, the therapist works with the: a. parent(s). b. child or children. c. entire family. d. family member(s) with a diagnosed psychological disorder. 281. The antidepressant Wellbutrin blocks the reuptake of: a. serotonin. b. serotonin and dopamine. c. serotonin and norepinephrine. d. dopamine and norepinephrine. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 282. Interpersonal psychotherapy is similar to traditional psychoanalysis in that: a. clients and analysts sit facing each other during both treatments. b. one goal of both treatments is to foster insight into the unconscious. c. both treatments require appointments several times per week. d. both treatments focus on improving current relationships. 283. Operant conditioning procedures focus on changing behavior using: a. systematic desensitization. b. positive reinforcement only. c. reinforcement and punishment. d. learned associations between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli. 284. Evidence showing that all forms of psychotherapy work about equally well and better than no treatment suggests that: a. psychotherapy is not a well-established treatment. b. psychotherapy is probably an efficacious treatment. c. factors common to psychotherapies probably are responsible for treatment effects. d. treatment effects are probably due to natural improvement. 285. A child cries at the grocery store because her parents refuse to buy her candy. Oftentimes, this strategy works, and the parents give in and purchase the candy. A behavioral treatment might incorporate all of these EXCEPT: a. ignoring the crying so it is no longer reinforced. b. providing extra privileges at home if the child remains quiet at the store. c. fostering understanding of the problem by having the child play the role of the parent. d. punishing instances of crying with loss of the child's favorite toy. 286. Which is the oldest form of psychodynamic therapy? a. trephination b. psychoanalysis c. intrapersonal therapy d. gestalt therapy 287. One side effect of benzodiazepine use is: a. memory problems. b. shakiness. c. insomnia. d. anxiety.

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Chap 15_5e 288. Hakeem has major depressive disorder. He tells his psychiatrist that Prozac really isn't working to relieve his symptoms. The psychiatrist decides to prescribe Hakeem an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of both dopamine and norepinephrine, such as: a. Paxil. b. Wellbutrin. c. Elavil. d. Effexor. 289. Holden has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Based on research findings, he would be BEST treated with: a. antipsychotic medication. b. cognitive behavioral therapy. c. a combination of antipsychotic medication and cognitive behavioral therapy. d. either antipsychotic medication or cognitive behavioral therapy. 290. Which of these is a belief-related barrier to treatment? a. the cost of treatment b. the perceived stigma from others c. difficulty in finding the right mental health professional d. the inconvenience associated with attending treatment 291. People using conventional antipsychotics often need to take another medication to treat _____, which is a side effect of conventional antipsychotics. a. involuntary movements b. mood disturbances c. hallucinations d. delusions 292. Which statement is true of exposure therapy? a. Punishers discourage the unwanted behavior. b. The level of the hierarchy that patients are exposed to alternates randomly from session to session. c. Its effectiveness is due to habituation and extinction. d. Clients are exposed to each level of the fear hierarchy for an equal amount of time. 293. Omega-3 fatty acids have been linked to lower rates of: a. schizophrenia. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. depression and suicide. d. eating disorders.

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Chap 15_5e 294. Santiago has obsessions about contamination. Every time something enters his house, he feels compulsions to clean the entire house. Santiago's therapist asks him to bring a piece of mail into his home and leave it on the couch without cleaning the house. Santiago's therapist is using: a. punishment. b. cognitive restructuring. c. negative reinforcement. d. exposure and response prevention. 295. Which of these is a structural barrier to treatment? a. the belief that treatment is ineffective b. the perceived stigma from others c. the belief that the problem should be handled by oneself d. the cost of the treatment 296. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) has shown substantial positive effects for all of these disorders EXCEPT: a. social phobia. b. generalized anxiety disorder. c. chronic pain. d. panic disorder. 297. Robin suffers from extreme social withdrawal and a flat emotional affect, and she has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Her doctor would be MOST likely to prescribe: a. Thorazine. b. Haldol. c. Clozaril. d. Mellaril. 298. Which factor is NOT a major reason people use herbal products to treat mental disorders? a. recommended by a psychiatrist b. lower cost than prescription medication c. easy availability as compared with prescription medication d. a perception that they are more natural than drugs 299. Which drug is NOT a type of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? a. Effexor b. Prozac c. Celexa d. Paxil

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Chap 15_5e 300. Therapists using interpersonal psychotherapy would be LEAST likely to: a. offer support. b. interpret a client's statements as a sign of unconscious sexual impulses. c. give advice. d. sit face to face with a client.

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Chap 15_5e Answer Key 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. c 21. c 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. b 40. c 41. a 42. c 43. d 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. d 49. b 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. d 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 55. c 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. d 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. d 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. c 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 83. d 84. d 85. d 86. d 87. c 88. d 89. a 90. d 91. c 92. c 93. c 94. d 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. d 104. b 105. c 106. b 107. b 108. a 109. d 110. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 111. d 112. c 113. b 114. b 115. b 116. c 117. a 118. a 119. a 120. c 121. a 122. d 123. c 124. d 125. b 126. d 127. a 128. b 129. b 130. c 131. a 132. c 133. b 134. d 135. b 136. b 137. d

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Chap 15_5e 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. c 142. d 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. a 149. d 150. c 151. c 152. a 153. d 154. b 155. d 156. d 157. b 158. b 159. b 160. c 161. a 162. b 163. b 164. c 165. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 166. b 167. c 168. a 169. d 170. d 171. c 172. b 173. b 174. c 175. a 176. b 177. c 178. b 179. a 180. d 181. a 182. d 183. c 184. d 185. a 186. a 187. b 188. d 189. d 190. c 191. b 192. c 193. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 194. b 195. a 196. a 197. c 198. d 199. b 200. d 201. c 202. c 203. a 204. c 205. b 206. c 207. a 208. b 209. d 210. c 211. b 212. d 213. d 214. b 215. a 216. c 217. d 218. d 219. a 220. c 221. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 222. c 223. d 224. c 225. d 226. c 227. d 228. a 229. c 230. c 231. d 232. d 233. a 234. c 235. d 236. c 237. c 238. d 239. b 240. d 241. c 242. b 243. a 244. b 245. a 246. b 247. c 248. b

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Chap 15_5e 249. b 250. a 251. d 252. c 253. b 254. a 255. a 256. a 257. a 258. c 259. b 260. b 261. c 262. d 263. c 264. a 265. b 266. b 267. a 268. b 269. b 270. a 271. b 272. b 273. d 274. c 275. b 276. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 277. b 278. b 279. a 280. c 281. d 282. b 283. c 284. c 285. c 286. b 287. a 288. b 289. a 290. b 291. a 292. c 293. c 294. d 295. d 296. c 297. c 298. a 299. a 300. b

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Chap 15_5e Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Use Scenario 15.1 to answer the following question(s). Some common psychotherapies are psychoanalysis, person-centered therapy, behavioral therapy, and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Through techniques such as free-association, analysis of dreams and slips, interpretation, and analysis of resistance, psychoanalysts attempt to bring the unconscious forces responsible for the disorder into the consciousness, where it can be effectively resolved. At the core of person-centered therapies is the belief that all individuals have an innate tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions by the therapist. Treatment is usually nondirective, as therapists believe individuals themselves are best qualified to set their own treatment goals. Behavior therapies, on the other hand, can be highly structured and assume that a learning component contributes to many psychological disorders. Principles of classical conditioning, such as extinction, can be used to eliminate unwanted emotional responses to specific objects or situations. Principles of operant conditioning, such as positive reinforcement, can be used to establish more desirable behaviors. Cognitive therapies also are structured and systematically examine and correct the distorted thinking that gives rise to many psychological disorders. Finally, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a problem-focused combination of cognitive and behavior therapies that has shown to be effective at treating a wide range of psychological disorders. 1. (Scenario 15.1) Person-centered therapies are associated with which school of psychology? a. evolutionary b. humanistic c. functionalism d. psychodynamic

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.3 to answer the following question(s). Scenario 15.3 introduces material from the following publication. Barlow, D. H., Gorman, J. M., Shear, M. K., & Woods, S. W. (2000). Cognitive-behavioral therapy, imipramine, or their combination for panic disorder: A randomized controlled trial. JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 283(19), 2529–2536. https://doiorg.nuncio.cofc.edu/10.1001/jama.283.19.2529 Barlow, Gorman, Shear, and Woods (2000) studied the effectiveness of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), the tricyclic antidepressant imipramine, and their combination for the treatment of panic disorder. Patients with panic disorder were randomly assigned to receive weekly sessions of CBT alone, daily imipramine medication alone, a daily placebo pill, imipramine plus weekly CBT sessions, or weekly CBT sessions plus the placebo pill. Group assignments involving imipramine and placebo also utilized a double-blind procedure. Shown in Figure 15.1 is the percentage of patients with a clinically relevant reduction in symptoms after 12 weeks of treatment. The placebo-alone group was significantly lower than the other groups on this measure. No other group differences shown in Figure 15.1 were statistically significant. Figure 15.1

2. (Scenario 15.3) The primary reason double-blind random assignment is not used for psychotherapy-related research is that it is extremely difficult to: a. eliminate the effectiveness of blinded placebo psychotherapies. b. keep therapists blind to the critical components of psychotherapy. c. keep participants blind to the critical components of psychotherapy. d. demonstrate the effectiveness of blinded placebo psychotherapies.

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Chap 15_5e 3. Self-help groups usually are not led by trained therapists. a. True b. False

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4. (Scenario 15.3) Based on a statistical analysis of the results, which treatment(s) appears to be the MOST effective at reducing symptoms of panic disorder? a. imipramine b. CBT c. the placebo-alone treatment d. Imipramine and CBT are almost equally effective.

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Chap 15_5e 5. Antidepressants are commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders. a. True b. False 6. Almost half of the U.S. population suffers from some type of psychological disorder in any given year. a. True b. False 7. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) has fewer side effects but is much less effective than is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for the treatment of depression. a. True b. False 8. Psychoanalysis assumes that we are born with aggressive and sexual urges that are repressed during childhood. a. True b. False 9. Conventional antipsychotic medications work well for negative symptoms of schizophrenia but do not relieve positive symptoms. a. True b. False 10. The first antidepressants were the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). a. True b. False 11. Person-centered therapy is a nondirective treatment. a. True b. False 12. In cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), the therapist assumes the role of active listener, allowing the client to direct the discussion. a. True b. False 13. Due to their side effects, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are not commonly prescribed. a. True b. False

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14. (Scenario 15.3) The results suggest that imipramine: a. enhances the effectiveness of CBT but by itself is not an effective treatment. b. significantly enhances the effectiveness of CBT and by itself is an effective treatment. c. does not significantly change the effectiveness of CBT but nonetheless is an effective treatment. d. is not an effective treatment and does not enhance the effectiveness of CBT.

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.2 to answer the following question(s). It is challenging to conclusively demonstrate the effectiveness of treatments for psychological disorders. Although treatments may appear to work, their apparent effectiveness could be due to a number of other factors, which can be termed treatment illusions. Treatments may appear effective due to natural improvement unrelated to the treatment, placebo effects in which the apparent effectiveness of a treatment is due to the expectancy of its effectiveness, or reconstructive memory in which persons remember their symptoms prior to treatment as more severe than they were. 19. (Scenario 15.2) A researcher seeks to determine if a new antidepressant medication is effective at alleviating depression. She studies three groups of depressed patients: those receiving the medication, those receiving a placebo, and those receiving neither medication nor placebo. Which set of results would indicate that placebo effects, not natural improvement, are responsible for perceived treatment effects? a. All three groups demonstrate a reduction in depressive symptoms. b. Only the placebo group demonstrates a reduction in depressive symptoms. c. The medication group and the no medication group demonstrate a reduction in symptoms. d. The medication group and the placebo group demonstrate a reduction in symptoms. 20. Traditional psychoanalysis involves about 12–16 weeks of therapy. a. True b. False 21. Group therapy often is just as effective as individual therapy. a. True b. False 22. Most people who seek help for a psychological disorder receive effective treatment in a timely manner. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.2 to answer the following question(s). It is challenging to conclusively demonstrate the effectiveness of treatments for psychological disorders. Although treatments may appear to work, their apparent effectiveness could be due to a number of other factors, which can be termed treatment illusions. Treatments may appear effective due to natural improvement unrelated to the treatment, placebo effects in which the apparent effectiveness of a treatment is due to the expectancy of its effectiveness, or reconstructive memory in which persons remember their symptoms prior to treatment as more severe than they were. 23. (Scenario 15.2) A research psychiatrist is studying the effectiveness of a new drug to treat insomnia. Patients with the disorder are studied in a sleep laboratory for 1 week before the study begins, and the time to fall asleep and the amount of time in each stage of sleep are recorded. Then they are given the experimental drug each evening and studied in the sleep laboratory for another week. By the end of the study, symptoms of insomnia had lessened considerably. These results show that the apparent effectiveness of the treatment could NOT be due to: a. natural improvement. b. effects of reconstructive memory. c. placebo effects. d. an effective treatment. 24. Psychodynamic therapists believe that the path to overcoming psychological problems is to develop insight into the unconscious. a. True b. False 25. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) has been found to be substantially effective at treating unipolar depression and generalized anxiety disorder. a. True b. False 26. The primary reason for the deinstitutionalization movement of the 1960s was reports of widespread abuse in psychiatric hospitals. a. True b. False 27. Antidepressants are effective in treating unipolar and bipolar depression. a. True b. False 28. The first antipsychotic medication was chlorpromazine (Thorazine). a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 29. Finding the right treatment for a psychological disorder is a relatively easy process. a. True b. False 30. A psychologist usually cannot prescribe medication. a. True b. False Use Scenario 15.1 to answer the following question(s). Some common psychotherapies are psychoanalysis, person-centered therapy, behavioral therapy, and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Through techniques such as free-association, analysis of dreams and slips, interpretation, and analysis of resistance, psychoanalysts attempt to bring the unconscious forces responsible for the disorder into the consciousness, where it can be effectively resolved. At the core of person-centered therapies is the belief that all individuals have an innate tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions by the therapist. Treatment is usually nondirective, as therapists believe individuals themselves are best qualified to set their own treatment goals. Behavior therapies, on the other hand, can be highly structured and assume that a learning component contributes to many psychological disorders. Principles of classical conditioning, such as extinction, can be used to eliminate unwanted emotional responses to specific objects or situations. Principles of operant conditioning, such as positive reinforcement, can be used to establish more desirable behaviors. Cognitive therapies also are structured and systematically examine and correct the distorted thinking that gives rise to many psychological disorders. Finally, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a problem-focused combination of cognitive and behavior therapies that has shown to be effective at treating a wide range of psychological disorders. 31. (Scenario 15.1) The goal of _____ is to _____. a. CBT; restructure the mind b. psychoanalysis; foster self-actualization c. psychoanalysis; develop insight d. person-centered therapy; solve specific problems 32. Eclectic psychologists tend to adhere to a single theoretical perspective in treating clients. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.2 to answer the following question(s). It is challenging to conclusively demonstrate the effectiveness of treatments for psychological disorders. Although treatments may appear to work, their apparent effectiveness could be due to a number of other factors, which can be termed treatment illusions. Treatments may appear effective due to natural improvement unrelated to the treatment, placebo effects in which the apparent effectiveness of a treatment is due to the expectancy of its effectiveness, or reconstructive memory in which persons remember their symptoms prior to treatment as more severe than they were. 33. (Scenario 15.2) A research psychiatrist is studying the effectiveness of a new drug to treat insomnia. Patients with the disorder are studied in a sleep laboratory for 1 week before the study begins, and the time to fall asleep and the amount of time in each stage of sleep is recorded. Then they are randomly assigned to either the treatment group (which receives a drug) or the placebo group (which receives a placebo pill) and studied in the sleep laboratory for another week. At the end of the study, objective measures improved in both groups but more so in the group that received the treatment. The researcher concludes that the drug is effective at treating insomnia, but a skeptic might wonder if the results are due to natural improvement. The researcher would respond that: a. insomnia rarely goes away on its own. b. the study is indeed fatally flawed and a second control group that receives absolutely nothing but is studied over the course of the entire 2 weeks is needed. c. the meticulous sleep logs kept pre- and posttreatment rule out this possibility. d. if the treatment effect were due entirely to natural improvement, there would not be an observed difference between the treatment and placebo groups.

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34. (Scenario 15.3) The treatment effects observed in the placebo group: a. were minimal and indicate that expectancies did not play a large role in this experiment. b. suggest that imipramine and CBT are not effective treatments for panic disorder. c. could reflect participant expectancies but not natural improvement. d. could reflect participant expectancies and natural improvement.

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.1 to answer the following question(s). Some common psychotherapies are psychoanalysis, person-centered therapy, behavioral therapy, and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Through techniques such as free-association, analysis of dreams and slips, interpretation, and analysis of resistance, psychoanalysts attempt to bring the unconscious forces responsible for the disorder into the consciousness, where it can be effectively resolved. At the core of person-centered therapies is the belief that all individuals have an innate tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions by the therapist. Treatment is usually nondirective, as therapists believe individuals themselves are best qualified to set their own treatment goals. Behavior therapies, on the other hand, can be highly structured and assume that a learning component contributes to many psychological disorders. Principles of classical conditioning, such as extinction, can be used to eliminate unwanted emotional responses to specific objects or situations. Principles of operant conditioning, such as positive reinforcement, can be used to establish more desirable behaviors. Cognitive therapies also are structured and systematically examine and correct the distorted thinking that gives rise to many psychological disorders. Finally, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a problem-focused combination of cognitive and behavior therapies that has shown to be effective at treating a wide range of psychological disorders. 35. (Scenario 15.1) A man in therapy for depression reveals that he feels worthless and inadequate in the presence of women. A cognitive psychologist might: a. accept that feeling in an emphatic way and gently ask what kind of feelings he would like to experience around women. b. ask an open question about his relationships with women in his childhood. c. assign the client homework in which he must attend a singles event and initiate conversation with at least three women. d. challenge the statement by pointing out that, simply by probability, there must be many single women who would find him attractive and interesting. 36. Benzodiazepines are minor tranquilizers that reduce the activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. a. True b. False 37. Psychiatrists usually have a PhD. a. True b. False 38. Cognitive behavioral therapy, medication, and a combination of both have been found to be about equally effective in treating both mood and anxiety disorders. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5e 39. In couple therapy, the job of the therapist is to target for behavior change the person who is most responsible for the relationship dysfunction. a. True b. False 40. Exposure therapy depends on the underlying processes of habituation and response extinction. a. True b. False

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41. (Scenario 15.3) Double-blind random assignment to groups: a. increased the external validity of this experiment. b. reduced the likelihood that apparent treatment effects were the result of reconstructive memory. c. reduced the likelihood that apparent treatment effects were due to nonspecific treatment effects. d. increased the statistical significance of the results. 42. Conventional antipsychotics reduce dopamine activity in the mesolimbic area of the brain. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.1 to answer the following question(s). Some common psychotherapies are psychoanalysis, person-centered therapy, behavioral therapy, and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Through techniques such as free-association, analysis of dreams and slips, interpretation, and analysis of resistance, psychoanalysts attempt to bring the unconscious forces responsible for the disorder into the consciousness, where it can be effectively resolved. At the core of person-centered therapies is the belief that all individuals have an innate tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions by the therapist. Treatment is usually nondirective, as therapists believe individuals themselves are best qualified to set their own treatment goals. Behavior therapies, on the other hand, can be highly structured and assume that a learning component contributes to many psychological disorders. Principles of classical conditioning, such as extinction, can be used to eliminate unwanted emotional responses to specific objects or situations. Principles of operant conditioning, such as positive reinforcement, can be used to establish more desirable behaviors. Cognitive therapies also are structured and systematically examine and correct the distorted thinking that gives rise to many psychological disorders. Finally, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a problem-focused combination of cognitive and behavior therapies that has shown to be effective at treating a wide range of psychological disorders. 43. (Scenario 15.1) A woman in therapy for substance abuse disorder for alcohol reveals that she drinks five to six days a week and consumes more than a bottle of wine per drinking day. After establishing that the client is not physically dependent on alcohol and thus not in need of immediate medical attention, a person-centered psychologist might: a. ask the client to talk about her childhood insecurities. b. express concern about her drinking, emphasize that she has taken a courageous first step, and ask her how much of a decrease in alcohol consumption would be right for her. c. inquire about the reasons for her drinking and then systematically challenge the validity of those reasons. d. require the client give a trusted friend $1,000 that she can earn back $20 at a time with random Breathalyzer checks that detect no alcohol. 44. Today, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat severe depression. a. True b. False 45. Xanax is an antidepressant drug. a. True b. False 46. Most therapists who work with anxiety and depression use a blend of cognitive and behavioral therapeutic strategies. a. True b. False Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 47. The token economy is based on operant conditioning. a. True b. False 48. Humanistic therapy emerged as part of a backlash against behavior therapy. a. True b. False 49. Person-centered therapists use a variety of exercises and techniques, among them the empty-chair technique. a. True b. False Use Scenario 15.1 to answer the following question(s). Some common psychotherapies are psychoanalysis, person-centered therapy, behavioral therapy, and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Through techniques such as free-association, analysis of dreams and slips, interpretation, and analysis of resistance, psychoanalysts attempt to bring the unconscious forces responsible for the disorder into the consciousness, where it can be effectively resolved. At the core of person-centered therapies is the belief that all individuals have an innate tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions by the therapist. Treatment is usually nondirective, as therapists believe individuals themselves are best qualified to set their own treatment goals. Behavior therapies, on the other hand, can be highly structured and assume that a learning component contributes to many psychological disorders. Principles of classical conditioning, such as extinction, can be used to eliminate unwanted emotional responses to specific objects or situations. Principles of operant conditioning, such as positive reinforcement, can be used to establish more desirable behaviors. Cognitive therapies also are structured and systematically examine and correct the distorted thinking that gives rise to many psychological disorders. Finally, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a problem-focused combination of cognitive and behavior therapies that has shown to be effective at treating a wide range of psychological disorders. 50. (Scenario 15.1) Which distinction between CBT and traditional psychoanalysis is NOT correct? a. CBT is more problem focused than is psychoanalysis. b. CBT requires a longer time commitment than does psychoanalysis. c. CBT is more transparent than is psychoanalysis. d. CBT requires that clients complete tasks outside of the therapy session. 51. During psychoanalysis, the therapist challenges the client's distorted thoughts and beliefs. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5e 52. Double-blind experiments are commonly used to assess the effectiveness of psychotherapy. a. True b. False 53. Atypical antipsychotics reduce the activity of both dopamine and serotonin. a. True b. False 54. A reduction in symptoms due to the administration of a placebo is considered to be a type of natural improvement. a. True b. False 55. The majority of psychotherapists use a single approach instead of an eclectic approach. a. True b. False 56. A lobotomy involves the severing of the corpus callosum. a. True b. False 57. To best evaluate the effectiveness of a particular treatment, it should be assessed in a double-blind experiment. a. True b. False 58. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a psychoanalytic form of group therapy. a. True b. False 59. Interpersonal therapy (IPT) focuses more on improving current relationships than does psychoanalysis. a. True b. False 60. Mindfulness meditation involves constructing a hierarchy of stressful stimuli and then reflecting on each stimulus from weakest to strongest. a. True b. False

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Chap 15_5e Use Scenario 15.1 to answer the following question(s). Some common psychotherapies are psychoanalysis, person-centered therapy, behavioral therapy, and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Through techniques such as free-association, analysis of dreams and slips, interpretation, and analysis of resistance, psychoanalysts attempt to bring the unconscious forces responsible for the disorder into the consciousness, where it can be effectively resolved. At the core of person-centered therapies is the belief that all individuals have an innate tendency toward growth and that this growth can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions by the therapist. Treatment is usually nondirective, as therapists believe individuals themselves are best qualified to set their own treatment goals. Behavior therapies, on the other hand, can be highly structured and assume that a learning component contributes to many psychological disorders. Principles of classical conditioning, such as extinction, can be used to eliminate unwanted emotional responses to specific objects or situations. Principles of operant conditioning, such as positive reinforcement, can be used to establish more desirable behaviors. Cognitive therapies also are structured and systematically examine and correct the distorted thinking that gives rise to many psychological disorders. Finally, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a problem-focused combination of cognitive and behavior therapies that has shown to be effective at treating a wide range of psychological disorders. 61. (Scenario 15.1) A man in therapy for depression reveals that he feels worthless and inadequate in the presence of women. A behavioral psychologist might: a. accept that feeling in an emphatic way and gently ask what kind of feelings he would like to experience around women. b. ask an open question about his relationships with women in his childhood. c. assign the client homework in which he must attend a singles event and initiate conversation with at least three women. d. challenge the statement by pointing out that, simply by probability, there must be many single women who would find him attractive and interesting. 62. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration requires the demonstration of the safety and effectiveness of herbal supplements. a. True b. False

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64. (Scenario 15.3) The statistical analysis of the results suggests that combining imipramine and CBT to treat panic disorder: a. did not significantly improve treatment effectiveness relative to the component treatments. b. was not effective relative to the placebo-only control. c. was significantly more effective than either CBT alone or imipramine alone. d. was more effective than CBT alone but no different than imipramine alone.

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Chap 15_5e 65. Cognitive restructuring attempts to replace negative thoughts with overly positive ones. a. True b. False Use Scenario 15.2 to answer the following question(s). It is challenging to conclusively demonstrate the effectiveness of treatments for psychological disorders. Although treatments may appear to work, their apparent effectiveness could be due to a number of other factors, which can be termed treatment illusions. Treatments may appear effective due to natural improvement unrelated to the treatment, placebo effects in which the apparent effectiveness of a treatment is due to the expectancy of its effectiveness, or reconstructive memory in which persons remember their symptoms prior to treatment as more severe than they were. 66. (Scenario 15.2) The treatment illusion of reconstructive memory is MOST related to which "sin" of memory? a. transience b. persistence c. change bias d. memory misattribution 67. Recent research suggests that psychodynamic therapy often impedes recovery. a. True b. False 68. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) work by selectively increasing the release of serotonin. a. True b. False 69. Compare and contrast the three types of antidepressants. Why aren't antidepressants prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

70. Jeff's therapist has suggested that he join a support group in which he will meet others who also suffer from social phobia. Discuss at least two advantages and two disadvantages of support groups.

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Chap 15_5e 71. Liam has felt depressed since his girlfriend dumped him. He feels worthless and thinks that he is destined to fail in romantic relationships. How might a cognitive psychologist use the techniques of cognitive restructuring and mindfulness meditation to help Liam?

72. Miguel is a 1st grader having academic and conduct problems at school. Specifically, he cannot seem to stay in his seat and complete assignments. He would much rather run around the classroom and distract other students. Describe a behavior therapy based on operant conditioning that could help treat Miguel's problem behaviors.

73. Summarize the theoretical framework, goals, and therapeutic interventions of humanistic and existential therapies.

74. Compare and contrast traditional psychoanalysis and modern psychodynamic therapies.

75. Describe how treatment outcome studies can distinguish treatment effects from (a) natural improvement and (b) placebo effects.

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Chap 15_5e 76. Dylan sought psychodynamic therapy after he lost his job and hit rock bottom. Three years into therapy, Dylan feels better and attributes his improvement to the insight he received during therapy. Discuss three treatment illusions that make it all but impossible to assess if Dylan's improvement was truly due to therapeutic insight into his unconscious.

77. Your dislike of spiders has intensified recently, and now you are reluctant to go outdoors because you might see one. Describe how exposure therapy can help reduce your fear of spiders. In doing so, provide specific details regarding how exposure therapy would be conducted, including the role of imaginary stimuli.

78. Kaylee and Avery are college students. Kaylee, who has a history of childhood asthma, lately has been experiencing shortness of breath. Avery has felt depressed for the past 2 months. Provide three reasons Avery may be less like to seek treatment than Kaylee is.

79. Addison has felt extremely anxious since she moved out of her childhood home and across the country 2 months ago to attend college. She feels completely overwhelmed with school, worries incessantly, and is not sleeping or eating properly. Briefly describe four types of psychotherapists and indicate which one(s) could potentially benefit Addison the most.

80. Define and provide an example of an iatrogenic illness relevant to psychotherapy. Then list several other psychological treatments that have been demonstrated to cause more harm than good.

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Chap 15_5e 81. Compare and contrast group therapy with self-help groups.

82. Discuss the two types of antipsychotic medications, including their brain mechanisms, strengths, and weaknesses. Give an example (i.e., brand name) of each type of medication.

83. Summarize the goals of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and contrast it with the psychodynamic approach.

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Chap 15_5e Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. a 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. a 26. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. b 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. a 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. b 53. a 54. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 15_5e 55. a 56. b 57. a 58. b 59. a 60. b 61. c 62. b 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. b 69. The answer should include the following information: (1) The original class of antidepressants was monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), which prevent the enzymatic breakdown of neurotransmitters such as dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Although they were effective, they had many dangerous side effects and many drug interactions. (2) Tricyclic antidepressants are effective in increasing amounts of norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse by blocking their reuptake, but similar to MAOIs, they can have many side effects. (3) The most recent class of antidepressants are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which increase serotonin levels in the synapse by blocking its reuptake. SSRIs have fewer side effects than do MAOIs and the tricyclics, and today are considered a front-line treatment for depression. (4) All antidepressants can take up to several weeks to show a therapeutic effect, and they are not recommended for treating bipolar disorder. In persons with bipolar disorder, all of these drugs could trigger a manic episode. Mood-stabilizing drugs, such as lithium and valproate, are used to treat bipolar disorder. 70. The answer should include the following information: (1) Advantages: Attending a group with others who have similar problems shows sufferers that they are not alone; members of the group model appropriate behaviors for one another and share their insights about dealing with their problems; group therapy is less expensive than traditional therapy. (2) Disadvantages: Sometimes, it is difficult to find a group of people with similar needs; group therapy can become less helpful if one or more members dominate the discussion; clients in group therapy get less attention than they might in individual psychotherapy; if Jeff is naturally reserved, he may not benefit as much from group therapy as someone who is more outgoing.

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Chap 15_5e 71. The answer should include the following information: (1) The focus of cognitive therapy is to become aware of and change irrational thoughts that could be driving a psychological disorder. In cognitive restructuring, clients are taught to question their automatic thoughts, evaluate the data they use to support their thoughts, then replace the thoughts with more positive or realistic thoughts. In mindfulness meditation, clients are taught to be fully aware of all situations and their reactions to prevent problems. (2) In this case, Liam is exhibiting several irrational beliefs. The therapist might ask Liam why he thinks that he is worthless. Liam would respond that his ex-girlfriend dumped him, so she didn't see much value in him. The therapist might have Liam write down positive qualities that his parents and friends would say about him. These exercises might help Liam realize that many people consider him to be an extremely valuable person. Moreover, the therapist could direct Liam's attention to things that Liam likes about himself. Next, the therapist could challenge the belief that Liam is destined to fail in romantic relationships. Basing this belief on one relationship is irrational. In this way, Liam's pattern of distorted negative thinking can be cognitively restructured into more positive and rational thought. (3) Liam also would receive mindfulness meditation training. Liam should constantly monitor his internal thoughts and be on the lookout for patterns of distorted thinking that could trigger a depressive episode. If Liam realizes that he is beginning to ruminate about his lost love, for example, exercises involving cognitive restructuring could immediately commence. 72. The answer should include the following information: (1) The first step would be to identify target behaviors. The target behaviors to increase might include staying in his seat and completing assignments quietly and accurately. The target behaviors to decrease might include running around the classroom at inappropriate times. (2) In operant conditioning, desirable behaviors are increased and problem behaviors are decreased by changing the consequences of those behaviors. To this end, it would be useful to identify a possible reward, or reinforcer, that Miguel values. Given that he enjoys running around, perhaps extra access to the playground might be a suitable reward. (3) A token economy could be arranged to increase the behaviors of remaining in his seat and completing assignments. For every 10 minutes that Miguel remains in his seat without disrupting the class, he earns one sticker. If he completes an assignment that the teacher deems acceptable, he earns two stickers. (Note: The behavioral requirements to earn stickers could be slowly increased over time.) Whenever Miguel procures 10 stickers, he earns 20 minutes of extra play on the playground. (4) A punishment contingency could also be put into effect. Every time Miguel engages in the targeted problem behavior, one sticker will be taken away from him.

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Chap 15_5e 73. The answer should include the following information: (1) These theoretical orientations assume that human nature is generally positive and that individuals have a tendency to strive toward personal improvement. Psychological problems stem from alienation and loneliness. For humanistic psychologists, these feelings are the result of failing to reach one's potential. For existentialists, these feelings arise from failures to find the meaning in life. (2) A humanistic approach to therapy is person-centered therapy. This therapy assumes that all individuals have a tendency toward self-growth, which can be facilitated by acceptance and genuine reactions from the therapist. This therapy is nondirective. The therapist simply demonstrates empathy and unconditional positive regard at all times. Whatever the client chooses to discuss, the therapist mirrors the client's thoughts and sentiments in an empathetic way. It is thought that with adequate support, individuals will resume their natural positive trajectory toward growth. (3) Gestalt therapy is similar to person-centered therapy in that therapists are expected to be enthusiastic, be warm to their clients, and mirror clients' thoughts and sentiments. In addition, gestalt therapists encourage clients to become aware of their thoughts and feelings and take responsibility for them. Gestalt therapy focuses on the "here and now." If clients begin discussing a particular event in the past, a Gestalt psychologist might reorient them to the present by asking them to discuss how that event makes them feel now. Gestalt therapists also use role-play, such as the empty-chair technique. In this technique, clients are encouraged to imagine that another person (e.g., a spouse, an employer) is sitting in the empty chair across from them. Clients are encouraged to express their feelings toward this other person and "own" their feelings. Then clients move to the other chair, role-playing what they think the other person would say or do. In this way, clients begin taking responsibility for their own thoughts, feelings, and decisions, and develop an understanding that others are responsible for their own cognitions. 74. Psychoanalysis assumes that people are born with aggressive and sexual urges that are repressed during childhood development through the use of defense mechanisms. Traditional psychoanalysis involves four or five sessions per week over an average of 3 to 6 years. During a session, the client reclines on a couch, facing away from the therapist. The therapist asks the client to make free associations in which the client expresses whatever thoughts and feelings come to mind. The therapist does not express his or her value judgments. The goal of psychanalysis is for the client to understand the unconscious. Modern psychodynamic therapies remain focused on the client's ability to foster insight into unconscious processes; however, they differ from classical psychoanalysis in what procedures are used. For example, in modern psychodynamic therapy, the therapist and client typically sit face to face, and therapy is less intensive (meetings occur once per week for months). Modern psychodynamic therapists are more likely to offer support or advice in addition to interpretation, and are less likely to interpret a client's statements as a sign of unconscious sexual or aggressive impulses. 75. The answer should include the following information: (1) A treatment outcome study first should obtain a representative sample of persons with the particular disorder under investigation. (2) To assess for natural improvement, half should be randomly assigned to receive the treatment and the other half should be randomly assigned to a no-treatment control group. If both groups improve equally, the treatment effect is probably due to natural improvement. (3) An additional control group could receive a sham or placebo treatment. In these cases, participants should be blind as to whether they are receiving the treatment or the placebo. If both the treatment and placebo groups improve at levels above the no-treatment control, the observed improvement probably is due to placebo effects. (4) Treatment effectiveness is demonstrated when those persons receiving the treatment show greater improvement than those persons not receiving treatment, or those receiving a placebo treatment.

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Chap 15_5e 76. The answer should include the following information: (1) Dylan's improvement could be due to natural improvement. Some psychological disorders, such as depression, have a tendency to lessen in intensity over time. Clients often seek therapy when their symptoms are most severe. Without a control group, it is impossible to know if Dylan's improvement is due to the therapy or is instead due to the natural tendency of the symptoms to lessen. (2) Dylan's improvement could be due to nonspecific treatment effects. Although Dylan is attributing his improvement to insight into his unconscious—the goal of psychodynamic therapy—it could be that Dylan's improvement has nothing to do with the insight he has gained. Instead, it could be due to the fact that Dylan has developed a warm relationship with his analyst and has someone with whom he can discuss intimate life details on a regular basis. This can be seen as a type of placebo effect. (3) Finally, Dylan may be suffering from errors in reconstructive memory. Perhaps Dylan is only marginally better than he was 3 years ago, but he remembers his symptoms before treatment as much worse than they actually were. This would give Dylan the false sense that therapy was extremely effective. This type of memory error is common in people who are highly motivated to get well. 77. The answer should include the following information: (1) Exposure therapy is a behavior therapy that involves confronting an emotion-arousing stimulus directly and repeatedly, ultimately leading to a decrease in the emotional response. Before beginning, clients are given relaxation training. They also construct a fear hierarchy. In this case, a picture of a spider might be low on the fear hierarchy, a spider in a closed container might be in the middle, and a spider crawling on the body might be at the top of the fear hierarchy. (2) The stimulus at the bottom of the fear hierarchy is presented, and the clients are told to relax. If needed, additional relaxation training is provided. When clients are comfortable in the presence of that stimulus, the next item on the fear hierarchy is encountered. Again, relaxation exercises are provided. In this way, clients will progress through the fear hierarchy, ultimately exhibiting relaxation even when harmless (yet large and hairy) spiders are crawling over them. (3) Imaginary exposure therapy would not involve live spiders. The fear hierarchy would consist of imagined interactions with spiders. Clients would be given relaxation exercises as they imagine being covered in spiders. In vivo, or live, exposure would utilize real spiders and is generally more effective than imaginary exposure. 78. The answer should include the following information: Kaylee's clear physical symptoms and their obvious solution make it likely that she will visit a doctor to obtain medication to control her asthma. It is much less likely that Avery will seek professional help for her depression for the following reasons: (1) People may not realize that their disorder needs to be treated. Avery may feel that it is normal for people to experience periods of depression and that the condition will pass in time. Mental disorders are often not taken as seriously as physical illnesses. (2) Avery's beliefs may keep her from getting help. Avery may believe that she should be able to handle things herself or that treatment will be ineffective. She may also be concerned about perceived stigma from others. (3) There may be structural barriers that prevent people from physically getting treatment. Avery may be unclear if she should first go to the college's student health clinic, her family doctor, a psychiatrist, a counselor, or a psychologist. She may have tried researching some local mental health professionals online but may have been quickly overwhelmed by the plethora of choices. Moreover, her college's student services department may not offer psychiatric care. Making an appointment with a psychiatrist for the purposes of obtaining antidepressant medication will be costly, and Avery may be without health insurance. In addition, she may not have reliable transportation to any off-campus clinician.

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Chap 15_5e 79. The answer should include the following information: (1) A psychologist has a PhD in psychology and can provide psychotherapy. (2) A psychiatrist is a medical doctor who has completed an MD with specialized training in assessing and treating mental disorders. (3) A clinical/psychiatric social worker has a master's degree in social work and has training in working with people in dire life situations such as poverty, homelessness, and family conflict. (4) A counselor can have a wide range of training, from minimal training to a doctorate. School counselors normally have a master's degree and specific training in counseling and educational settings. (5) Addison does not require the services of a social worker. Addison should probably see her school counselors to seek their advice on whether she needs additional help. 80. The answer should include the following information: (1) An iatrogenic illness is a disorder or symptom that occurs as a result of a medical or psychotherapeutic treatment. (2) An example of an iatrogenic illness is "recovery" of memories from traumatic childhood events resulting from hypnosis or other suggestive therapies. (3). An example of a therapy that causes more harm than good is the Drug Abuse Resistance Education (D.A.R.E.) program, which has been associated with increased drug use among teenagers. Scared Straight and boot-camp style programs for at-risk teenagers also are associated with negative outcomes relative to no treatment at all. 81. The answer should include the following information: Group therapy is a type of therapy in which multiple participants (who usually do not know each other at the outset) work on their individual problems in a group atmosphere. The group is led by a therapist, who conducts the session both by talking with individuals and by encouraging them to talk with each other. In contrast, self-help groups are discussion groups that focus on a particular disorder or difficult life experience. They are run by peers (rather than a clinician) who have themselves struggled with the same issue. The advantage of groups is that clients are able to see that they are not alone in their suffering. Group members could model appropriate behaviors for each other. However, it may be difficult to assemble a group of individuals who have similar needs, and groups can become problematic if one or more members undermine the treatment of other group members. Groups are a cost effective and efficient means of treatment. Group therapy is often just as effective as individual therapy; however, because self-help groups are usually not led by trained therapists, mechanisms to evaluate these groups and ensure their quality are rarely in place. 82. The answer should include the following information: (1) One class of antipsychotics, typical (or conventional) antipsychotic medications, is often successful in treating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. However, these antipsychotics do not treat the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, and they have many side effects. These drugs function as antagonists at dopamine receptors in the mesolimbic area of the brain between the tegmentum and various subcortical structures. By blocking dopamine receptors, these drugs reduce dopamine activity. An example of a typical antipsychotic drug is Thorazine. One common side effect from these medications is tardive dyskinesia, a condition of involuntary movements of the face, mouth, and extremities. (2) A newer class of antipsychotics, atypical antipsychotics, is useful in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. These drugs block both dopamine and serotonin receptors, decreasing the activity of both neurotransmitters. While both types of antipsychotics have side effects, those of the newer medications are milder than the those of conventional antipsychotics. An example of an atypical antipsychotic is Clozaril.

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Chap 15_5e 83. The answer should include the following information: (1) CBT combines behavior therapy with cognitive therapy. The therapy is instructional and problem focused. The client engages in behavioral and cognitive exercises to treat psychological disorders. CBT is structured and short term. Depending on the problem, CBT is also transparent: The client is aware of the process and is involved in the goals of therapy. (2) While problems often bring clients to treatment, psychodynamic therapy is not usually problem based. The goal of analysis is to obtain insight into unconscious processes that might be underlying psychological problems. Therapy is not transparent. The therapist's role is to help the client gain insight into the unconscious processes.

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Integrative Questions Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Neil takes _____ to manage his anxiety. This medication works by enhancing the _____ functions of the neurotransmitter GABA. a. Valium; excitatory b. Xanax; inhibitory c. Zoloft; excitatory d. Thorazine; inhibitory 2. Due to damage in her left _____ cortex, Barbara has trouble understanding speech, a condition known as _____ aphasia. a. temporal; Broca's b. temporal; Wernicke's c. occipital; Broca's d. occipital; Wernicke's 3. Ativan is a(n) _____ and is classified in the broader category of _____. a. benzodiazepine; depressants b. barbiturate; depressants c. SSRI; antidepressants d. tricyclic; antidepressants 4. _____ psychologists believe that free choices provoke angst associated with the meaning of life and that personality arises from arriving at decisions to reduce this anxiety. A behavioral psychologist might reinterpret this theory as behavior that is maintained by _____. a. Existentialist; positive punishment b. Existentialist; negative reinforcement c. Psychodynamic; positive punishment d. Psychodynamic; negative reinforcement 5. By today's standards, Milgram's study on obedience is considered unethical because: a. participants were exposed to shocks that were painful and possibly harmful. b. participants were physically forced to continue with the experiment. c. deception resulted in an increased risk of psychological stress. d. it is never permissible to deceive participants.

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Integrative Questions 6. A behaviorist would interpret drive-reduction theory as positing that all reinforcers are: a. positive. b. negative. c. secondary. d. mediated by expectancies. 7. Infant attachment styles determined by laboratory assessments usually correspond to those observed in natural environments, indicating that these laboratory assessments are _____ in _____ validity. a. high; internal b. high; external c. low; internal d. low; external 8. Using the analogy of _____ theory, critics might argue that the decision criterion in diagnosing personality disorders is too low, resulting in _____. a. signal detection; overdiagnosis b. signal detection; underdiagnosis c. dual process; overdiagnosis d. dual process; underdiagnosis 9. Brain-imaging studies reveal that emotionally intelligent people show _____ activation of the _____ when making decisions with emotional content than do people with less emotional intelligence. a. less; amygdala b. more; amygdala c. less; Wernicke's area d. more; Wernicke's area 10. _____ are to chromosomes as _____ are to axons. a. Telomeres; neural networks b. Genes; myelin sheaths c. Telomeres; myelin sheaths d. Genes; neural networks 11. Relaxation therapy _____ cortisol levels and _____ sympathetic nervous system activity. a. increases; decreases b. increases; increases c. decreases; decreases d. decreases; increases

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Integrative Questions 12. Someone with a(n) _____ coping strategy might be more likely to utilize exposure therapy for treatment of an anxiety disorder. a. repressive b. social support c. rational d. avoidant 13. Diet is to _____ as self-esteem is to _____. a. overeating; extraversion b. anorexia nervosa; narcissism c. bulimia nervosa; major depressive disorder d. overeating; an internal locus of control 14. Research manipulating the number of bystanders across groups of randomly assigned participants has found that there is a _____ between the number of bystanders and the probability of any one participant helping. a. positive correlation but not causation b. negative correlation but not causation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship 15. A researcher manipulates the intensity of a sound in small increments and determines the smallest incremental value that participants can notice a change. The researcher is investigating the _____, and the independent variable is the _____. a. absolute threshold; report by the participants b. absolute threshold; sound intensity c. just noticeable difference; report by the participants d. just noticeable difference; sound intensity 16. Income is a(n) _____ variable underlying the association between intelligence and life expectancy. a. independent b. dependent c. third d. primary 17. Using _____ to measure the basic elements of conscious _____ was a goal of the structuralist school of psychology. a. free association; sensation b. free association; perception c. introspection; sensation d. introspection; perception Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 18. Although far removed from his area of research, the implications of _____ research on conscious will is consistent with the philosophical views espoused by _____ in his book Beyond Freedom and Dignity. a. Hermann von Helmholtz's; Sigmund Freud b. Hermann von Helmholtz's; B. F. Skinner c. Benjamin Libet's; Sigmund Freud d. Benjamin Libet's; B. F. Skinner 19. _____ argued that people react to the world as they see it and not as how it is. This idea is MOST pertinent to the _____. a. Kurt Lewin; person–situation controversy b. Kurt Lewin; helplessness theory of depression c. William James; person–situation controversy d. William James; helplessness theory of depression 20. The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia was developed in part due to research on the effects of psychoactive drugs in the brain. Drugs that _____ dopamine activity in mesolimbic areas of the brain are associated with a reduction in _____ symptoms of schizophrenia such as _____. a. enhance; negative; hallucinations b. reduce; positive; delusions c. enhance; positive; social withdrawal d. reduce; negative; poverty of speech 21. B. F. Skinner's theory of language acquisition is MOST consistent with philosophical: a. dualism. b. nativism. c. empiricism. d. realism. 22. _____ areas are highly plastic and tend to become _____ differentiated as people age. a. Association; less b. Association; more c. Transduction; less d. Transduction; more 23. Hypnosis leaves one exceptionally vulnerable to the memory "sin" of: a. misattribution. b. absentmindedness. c. suggestibility. d. transience.

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Integrative Questions 24. By today's standards, Milgram's study on obedience is considered unethical because: a. participants were exposed to shocks that were painful and possibly harmful. b. participants were told that they must continue with the experiment. c. the experimenter was not medically qualified to make cost–benefit decisions about the use of shock. d. it is never permissible to deceive participants. 25. The areas of the cortex involved in _____ and speech production are located in the _____ frontal lobe. a. understanding language; right b. understanding language; left c. decision making; right d. decision making; left 26. The most important _____ variable underlying the association between intelligence and life expectancy is _____. a. independent; education b. independent; exercise c. third; exercise d. third; education 27. Treatment for which psychological disorder is MOST susceptible to the treatment illusion of natural improvement? a. major depressive disorder b. agoraphobia c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. schizophrenia 28. _____ conditioned a _____ phobia in Little Albert. a. B. F. Skinner; social b. John Watson; social c. B. F. Skinner; specific d. John Watson; specific 29. Dopamine is to _____ as _____ is/are to pain relief. a. schizophrenia; serotonin b. Parkinson's disease; norepinephrine c. reinforcement; endorphins d. Alzheimer's disease; morphine

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Integrative Questions 30. A behaviorist's views on the person–situation controversy would be MOST similar to the views of: a. Eysenck. b. Mischel. c. Allport. d. Freud. 31. When viewing negative emotional content, people with depression show increased activity in the _____ and decreased activity in the _____. a. frontal cortex; dorsal striatum b. frontal cortex; amygdala c. amygdala; frontal cortex d. amygdala; insula 32. _____ argued that people react to the world as they see it and not as how it is. Correcting these irrational beliefs is a defining feature of a therapy termed _____. a. Kurt Lewin; cognitive restructuring b. Kurt Lewin; mindfulness meditation c. Karl Lashley; cognitive restructuring d. Karl Lashley; mindfulness meditation 33. The finding that young children possess a moral sense even before they can engage in the deliberate reasoning required by _____ stages of moral development suggests limitations to the _____ of these stages. a. Piaget's; reliability b. Kohlberg's; external validity c. Kohlberg's; internal validity d. Piaget's; power 34. Exemplar theory is MOST related to the social psychology phenomenon of: a. persuasion. b. cooperation. c. attribution. d. stereotyping. 35. A _____ psychologist might be likely to _____ cooperation in terms of choice in the prisoner's dilemma. a. cognitive; predict b. cognitive; operationally define c. social; predict d. social; operationally define

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Integrative Questions 36. The results of research on facial attractiveness MOSTLY support a(n) _____ position on attractiveness. a. cognitive b. culturally universal c. psychodynamic d. epigenetic 37. The fact that the body weight of females that men find most attractive _____ around the world would be of most interest to a(n) _____ psychologist. a. varies; cultural b. is similar; cultural c. varies; evolutionary d. is similar; evolutionary 38. Dopamine is to _____ as _____ is to the fight-or-flight response. a. schizophrenia; serotonin b. reinforcement; norepinephrine c. Parkinson's disease; GABA d. Alzheimer's disease; acetylcholine 39. When conceptualizing intelligence, behaviorists would MOST likely focus on: a. crystallized intelligence. b. general intelligence. c. middle-level abilities. d. specific abilities. 40. A dualist would be MOST concerned with which problem of consciousness? a. the problem of other minds b. the zombie problem c. the mind–body problem d. the levels of consciousness problem 41. In one study, participants randomly assigned to a group that received testosterone were _____ sensitive to facial threat cues than were those in a control group who did not receive testosterone. The dependent variable in this experiment is _____. a. more; testosterone b. more; facial threat recognition c. less; testosterone d. less; facial threat recognition

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Integrative Questions 42. The areas of the cortex involved in the perception of pitch and speech _____ are located in the _____ lobe. a. production; frontal b. understanding; frontal c. production; temporal d. understanding; temporal 43. _____ believed that behavior in a specific environment is determined by a history of reinforcement in that environment. As such, his view on the person–situation controversy would be similar to that of _____. a. Pavlov; Allport b. Pavlov; Mischel c. Skinner; Allport d. Skinner; Mischel 44. In analyzing the decreased hippocampal volume observed in both Alzheimer's disease (AD) and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), it appears that decreased hippocampal volume is a(n): a. diathesis for AD and an effect of PTSD. b. effect of AD and a diathesis for PTSD. c. diathesis for both AD and PTSD. d. effect of both AD and PTSD. 45. One prediction that can be deduced from the _____ of emotion is that, in persons with spinal injuries, the _____ the injury on the spinal cord, the more emotions they will be able to experience fully. a. two-factor theory; higher b. James–Lange theory; lower c. James–Lange theory; higher d. universality hypothesis; lower 46. A practicing clinical psychologist would probably be a member of which professional organization? a. American Medical Association b. Association for Behavior Analysis c. American Psychological Association d. Society for Neuroscience 47. Approach motivation MOST closely corresponds to: a. self-actualization. b. prospect theory. c. negative reinforcement. d. the behavioral activation system.

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Integrative Questions 48. Stimuli reliably paired with drug administration often elicit compensatory effects _____ the drug; as a result, _____ the drug develop(s). a. similar to; withdrawal from b. opposite that of; tolerance of c. similar to; psychological dependence on d. opposite that of; expectancy effects related to 49. Which type of psychologist would MOST likely assess the universality hypothesis of emotion? a. cognitive b. personality c. cultural d. clinical 50. John Watson taught Little Albert a _____ phobia using _____. a. social; classical conditioning b. social; observational learning c. specific; classical conditioning d. specific; observational learning 51. B. F. Skinner's recommendations for social change MOST appeal to which motive? a. accuracy b. hedonic c. approval d. intrinsic 52. Over the past few years, Joanna has received a number of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) sessions to manage her _____. She finds that she has trouble remembering new information in the week or so after each session, a side effect known as temporary _____ amnesia. a. major depressive disorder; anterograde b. major depressive disorder; retrograde c. positive symptoms of schizophrenia; anterograde d. positive symptoms of schizophrenia; retrograde 53. Which memory/memories is/are MOST likely to be forgotten with age? a. the name of the second president of the United States b. the meanings of words c. details from a family vacation d. how to dance a particular routine

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Integrative Questions 54. William James, the founder of _____, emphasized the _____ of consciousness when he described it as a flowing stream. a. structuralism; unity b. behaviorism; selectivity c. psychoanalysis; intentionality d. functionalism; transience 55. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between intelligence and income. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship 56. _____ is a brain-imaging technique that also is used as a treatment for major depressive disorder. a. PET b. CT scan c. TMS d. fMRI 57. Critics argue that _____ research model of rats pressing levers for food reward, while generating research high in _____, is limited in its _____. a. Skinner's; internal validity; external validity b. Skinner's; reliability; internal validity c. Watson's; internal validity; external validity d. Watson's; reliability; internal validity 58. The _____ technique developed by the structuralists BEST illustrates which property of consciousness? a. free association; intentionality b. free association; transience c. introspection; intentionality d. introspection; transience 59. The Big Five trait of extraversion is associated with brain regions involved in processing information about _____. As such, it is MOST associated with the functioning of _____. a. threat; dopamine b. reward; dopamine c. self-regulation; acetylcholine d. the mental states of other people; acetylcholine

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Integrative Questions 60. In obsessive-compulsive disorder, instances of _____ behavior are _____ reinforced by the momentary abatement of the _____. a. compulsive; positively; obsessions b. compulsive; negatively; obsessions c. obsessive; positively; compulsions d. obsessive; negatively; compulsions 61. A person who demonstrates extreme sensitivity to stimuli in the band of fibers enervating the hindbrain termed the _____ might be more likely to be _____. a. corpus callosum; nurturing b. corpus callosum; uncaring c. reticular formation; introverted d. reticular formation; extraverted 62. In recent years, transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) has been used therapeutically to treat _____. In research settings, unlike functional magnetic resonance imaging, it has the ability to _____. a. schizophrenia; detect enlarged ventricles b. schizophrenia; measure dopamine receptor density c. major depressive disorder; quantify reduced cortex activity d. major depressive disorder; determine if brain functions cause behavior 63. Generalized anxiety disorder is more prevalent in _____ cities, a fact that is MOST relevant to the field of _____ psychology. a. larger; environmental b. larger; social c. smaller; environmental d. smaller; social 64. Research on the Type A behavior pattern has revealed a _____ between work-related stress and coronary heart disease. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. surprising nonassociation 65. There exists a _____ between levels of stress and immune functioning. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. bimodal association d. Type A relationship Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 66. Remy has been systematically deprived of _____ sleep for the past several nights. As a result, she has considerable trouble controlling her emotions when challenged by stressors. This indicates possible impairment of _____ functioning. a. slow-wave; cerebellum b. slow-wave; amygdala c. REM; cerebellum d. REM; amygdala 67. Which memory/memories is/are MOST likely to be forgotten with age? a. the name of the capital city in your state b. the holiday presents you received as a child c. how to perform basic arithmetic computations d. how to play a musical instrument 68. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between intelligence and tobacco use. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship 69. In higher latitudes, for some people there is a _____ correlation between day length and _____. This relationship is observed in _____. a. positive; mood; seasonal affective disorder b. positive; aggression; the frustration–aggression hypothesis c. negative; mood; seasonal affective disorder d. negative; aggression; the frustration–aggression hypothesis 70. A(n) _____ psychologist might BEST explain why sensory adaptation is a useful process. a. humanistic b. cognitive c. clinical d. evolutionary 71. Violent crime tends to be _____ in the winter months than in the summer months, which suggests that there is a _____ correlation between temperature and aggression. a. lower; positive b. higher; negative c. higher; positive d. lower; negative

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Integrative Questions 72. A rat learns to turn right at a choice point in a maze because doing so reliably leads to food. The rat's behavior has been _____, and a key neurotransmitter underlying this association is _____. a. classically conditioned; dopamine b. classically conditioned; norepinephrine c. positively reinforced; dopamine d. positively reinforced; norepinephrine 73. Corey wonders if _____ operationally defined obedience in a realistic way. Corey is concerned about the _____ validity of this particular study. a. Milgram; external b. Milgram; internal c. Asch; external d. Asch; internal 74. A behavioral explanation of repressive coping strategies might focus on the _____ such behavior produces. a. conditioned responses b. positive reinforcement c. negative reinforcement d. unconditioned responses 75. _____ levels of serotonin have been implicated in mood disorders, and antidepressant drugs known as SSRIs function by _____ of serotonin. a. Low; promoting the release b. Low; blocking the reuptake c. High; blocking the release d. High; facilitating the reuptake 76. Leslie has been in weekly therapy for 6 months but doesn't feel that her therapist is providing useful techniques to deal with her anxiety. When she voices this concern, the therapist first reminds her that the goal of therapy is to gain insight into the unconscious causes of her anxiety. After the session, Leslie considers discontinuing therapy but decides to continue because she already has a good deal of time and money invested in it. Leslie's therapy is _____, and her decision making reflects the _____ fallacy. a. psychoanalysis; conjunction b. psychoanalysis; sunk-cost c. person-centered therapy; sunk-cost d. person-centered therapy; conjunction

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Integrative Questions 77. In analyzing the decreased hippocampal volume observed in both Alzheimer's disease (AD) and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), it appears that decreased hippocampal volume is a diathesis for: a. PTSD but not AD. b. AD but not PTSD. c. AD and PTSD. d. neither condition. 78. A common mind bug that interferes with critical thinking is that we often see what we expect or want to see. A pioneer of cognitive psychology, _____ demonstrated how _____ is/are affected by this bias. a. Noam Chomsky; language b. Jean Piaget; moral development c. Max Wertheimer; stereotypes d. Frederic Bartlett; memories 79. Prospect theory makes the prediction that people display higher _____ motivation when evaluating two potential gains than when evaluating two potential losses. a. intrinsic b. avoidance c. extrinsic d. approach 80. Visual sensations are relayed to area V1 in the _____ cortex via the _____. a. prefrontal; hippocampus b. prefrontal; hypothalamus c. occipital; thalamus d. occipital; hypothalamus 81. One measure commonly used in _____ testing is the digit span task. Here, participants must repeat sequences of digits (e.g., 8-5-1-7) either forward or backward. This task measures the effectiveness of _____ memory. a. projective personality; working b. intelligence; working c. projective personality; long-term d. intelligence; long-term 82. A stereotype threat may result from: a. existential angst. b. cognitive dissonance. c. ironic processes of mental control. d. functional fixedness. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 83. The treatment illusion of reconstructive memory is MOST related to which "sin" of memory? a. suggestibility b. consistency bias c. change bias d. memory misattribution 84. There exists a _____ between social status and immune functioning; a likely variable responsible for this finding is _____. a. positive correlation; stress b. negative correlation; exercise c. nonassociation; genetics d. causal relationship; lifestyle choices 85. Not getting enough _____ sleep for a number of nights leaves people tired and hypersensitive to pain. In the context of the general adaptation syndrome, these people are probably in the _____ stage. a. REM; resistance b. slow-wave; resistance c. REM; exhaustion d. slow-wave; exhaustion 86. The areas of the cortex involved in decision making and speech _____ are located in the _____ lobe. a. production; frontal b. understanding; frontal c. production; temporal d. understanding; temporal 87. Research suggests that which person would MOST likely commit the memory "sin" of suggestibility? a. Jake, who scores highly on the personality dimension of agreeableness b. Carolina, who considers herself easy to hypnotize c. Maggie, who thinks that she cannot be hypnotized d. Stephen, who reports that he dreams frequently 88. Behaviorists would interpret the interplay of obsessions and compulsions that occur in obsessive-compulsive disorder in terms of: a. intermittent reinforcement. b. secondary reinforcement. c. generalization and discrimination. d. negative reinforcement.

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Integrative Questions 89. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between temperature and instances of gun violence. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship 90. Neurons in association areas are _____ flexible than neurons in primary areas, and brain functioning overall tends to become _____ differentiated as people age. a. more; more b. less; more c. more; less d. less; less 91. In the literature on stereotyping, _____ is defined as the tendency for people to see what they expect to see. This tendency also is a threat to _____. a. the self-fulfilling prophecy; conceptualizations of free will b. perceptual confirmation; critical thinking c. the self-fulfilling prophecy; dogmatism d. perceptual confirmation; philosophical nativism 92. A behaviorist arranges a choice situation in which a rat is exposed to two levers. Every time the rat presses the right lever, it receives one pellet. When the rat presses the left lever, 70% of the time it receives nothing and 30% of the time it receives five pellets. The rat's lever pressing is being _____ reinforced, and prospect theory predicts the rats will prefer to press the _____ lever. a. positively; right b. negatively; right c. positively; left d. negatively; left 93. In one study, participants randomly assigned to a group that received testosterone were less sensitive to facial threat cues than were those in a control group who did not receive testosterone. This research suggests a _____ between testosterone and sensitivity to threat cues. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship

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Integrative Questions 94. Evaluating other people positively or negatively based on their group membership is the definition of _____; people in the ingroup judged negatively by their ingroup peers may experience physiological changes associated with the emotion of ____. a. stereotyping; anger b. stereotyping; shame c. prejudice; anger d. prejudice; shame 95. The fact that straight women in all cultures are more attracted to _____ men is perhaps best explained by a(n) _____ psychologist. a. older; cultural b. same-aged; cultural c. older; evolutionary d. same-aged; evolutionary 96. Which standard is NOT generally regarded as a reliable and valid measure? a. College Undergraduate Stress Scale b. Big Five personality inventories c. Thematic Apperception Test d. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale 97. Existential psychologists believe that free choices provoke anxiety or _____ associated with the meaning of life and that personality arises from arriving at decisions to reduce this anxiety. A behavioral psychologist might reinterpret this theory as behavior that is maintained by _____, and social psychologists might reinterpret this theory in terms of _____. a. angst; punishment; persuasion b. angst; negative reinforcement; cognitive dissonance c. negative flow; negative reinforcement; the fundamental attribution error d. negative flow; punishment; cognitive dissonance 98. A(n) _____ psychologist would BEST explain why humans are born with _____ brains. a. clinical; underdeveloped b. evolutionary; underdeveloped c. cognitive; myelinated d. existential; myelinated

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Integrative Questions 99. A(n) _____ psychologist would find the example of a(n) _____ MOST difficult to explain. a. humanistic; father who sacrifices his life for his children b. behavioral; executive who sacrifices time with her family in exchange for career advancement c. social; student who helps her roommate with calculus in exchange for help with Spanish d. evolutionary; bystander who sacrifices his life for a complete stranger 100. Depriving people of _____ sleep causes deficits in memory. This phenomenon suggests that this type of sleep deprivation disrupts the functioning of the _____. a. REM; hippocampus b. REM; thalamus c. slow-wave; hippocampus d. slow-wave; thalamus 101. _____ is associated with the memory "sin" of _____. a. Depression; suggestibility b. Posttraumatic stress disorder; persistence c. Schizophrenia; blocking d. Generalized anxiety disorder; absentmindedness 102. B. F. Skinner studied rats' behavior that was _____ motivated. a. intrinsically b. extrinsically c. implicitly d. explicitly 103. When viewing negative emotional content, people with depression show increased activity in the _____ and decreased activity in the _____ lobe regions associated with cognitive control. a. dorsal striatum; frontal b. dorsal striatum; temporal c. insula; frontal d. insula; temporal 104. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system is associated with: a. increases in respiration. b. decreases in digestion. c. decreases in cortisol. d. increases in hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenocortical activity.

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Integrative Questions 105. Sir Frederic Bartlett's observation that people often remember what should have happened or what ought to have happened instead of what actually happened is an illustration of the memory "sin" of: a. transience. b. memory misattribution. c. bias. d. persistence. 106. An evolutionary psychologist would focus on which reason as being the primary one for why men are more promiscuous than are women? a. Men are more reinforced by passing on their genes than are women. b. The biological costs of reproduction are lower for men than they are for women. c. Men are more approach motivated and women are more avoidance motivated by sex. d. The reputational costs of promiscuity are more punishing for women than they are for men. 107. Benzodiazepines commonly prescribed to treat _____ would NOT increase the functions of the neurotransmitter _____. a. insomnia; GABA b. insomnia; glutamate c. schizophrenia; dopamine d. schizophrenia; GABA 108. A psychologist instructs Barbara to view a painting and break down her conscious experience into its elemental parts. Barbara responds that she sees a portrait of a woman. The psychologist asks her to deconstruct this experience, but Barbara has trouble doing so. The technique that the psychologist is using is termed _____, and Barbara's difficulty with the task illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. mindfulness; intentionality b. mindfulness; unity c. introspection; intentionality d. introspection; unity 109. A rat learns to turn right at a choice point in a maze because doing so reliably leads to food. This is an example of _____, and a key neurotransmitter underlying this association is _____. a. classical conditioning; dopamine b. classical conditioning; norepinephrine c. operant conditioning; dopamine d. operant conditioning; norepinephrine

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Integrative Questions 110. People with both Alzheimer's disease and posttraumatic stress disorder are more likely to have decreased _____ than control individuals. a. basal ganglia size b. hippocampal volume c. dopamine receptor sites d. nucleus accumbens volume 111. When asked to rank pictures of women in terms of their attractiveness, men _____ rank figures approximating the "perfect hourglass" figure as most attractive. In terms of categorizing figures, this phenomenon BEST illustrates _____ theory. a. across cultures; exemplar b. in only Western cultures; prospect c. in only Western cultures; informational influence d. across cultures; prototype 112. Which school of psychology would be MOST likely to conduct research in the area of signal detection? a. functionalism b. behaviorism c. cognitive psychology d. social psychology 113. A researcher manipulates the intensity of a faint sound and finds the lowest intensity at which the participant can detect it 50% of the time. The researcher is investigating the _____, and the independent variable is the _____. a. absolute threshold; report by the participant b. absolute threshold; sound intensity c. just noticeable difference; report by the participant d. just noticeable difference; sound intensity 114. Prescription sleeping pills are effective for _____ relief of insomnia and work by enhancing the functions of the inhibitory neurotransmitter _____. a. long-term; glutamate b. short-term; norepinephrine c. long-term; acetylcholine d. short-term; GABA

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Integrative Questions 115. Research on the sensitivity of polygraph testing can best be conceptualized as research in the field of: a. subliminal perception. b. signal detection. c. thought suppression. d. personality disorders. 116. Binet and Simon believed that tests that measured _____ lacked _____ as measures of intelligence. a. achievement; construct validity b. achievement; power c. aptitude; construct validity d. aptitude; power 117. One prediction that can be deduced from the _____ of emotion is that in persons with spinal injuries, the _____ the injury on the spinal cord, the _____ intensely they will be able to experience emotion. a. two-factor theory; higher; more b. two-factor theory; lower; less c. James–Lange theory; higher; less d. universality hypothesis; lower; more 118. Joan completely avoids all situations that remind her of a previous relationship. By doing so, she escapes and avoids painful emotional stimuli. Joan is engaged in _____ coping, and this behavior is _____ reinforced. a. rational; positively b. rational; negatively c. repressive; positively d. repressive; negatively 119. _____ are often prescribed to treat _____, and an example of one such drug is _____. a. Benzodiazepines; chronic pain; Valium b. Stimulants; anxiety disorders; Clozaril c. Stimulants; major depressive disorder; Xanax d. Benzodiazepines; anxiety disorders; Ativan 120. Unlike approach motivation, avoidance motivation is designed to _____ negative outcomes; however, both types of motivation are associated with the neurotransmitter _____. a. avoid experiencing; dopamine b. experience; dopamine c. avoid experiencing; acetylcholine d. experience; acetylcholine

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Integrative Questions 121. Dr. Watkins is an empathetic and hopeful therapist who convinces Shaina that she will improve in therapy. Shaina does improve, but actually, the treatment had no effect. Rather, Shaina improved because of the nonspecific treatment effects associated with the interpersonal encouragement from Dr. Watkins. These nonspecific treatment effects functioned in a similar way to which "sin" of memory? a. suggestibility b. consistency bias c. change bias d. memory misattribution 122. The introspective technique developed by _____ requires one to be _____ conscious. a. Wundt; fully b. Helmholtz; minimally c. Freud; selfd. Lewin; fully 123. A drug prescribed to treat anxiety would be LEAST likely to increase the functions of which neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. GABA d. glutamate 124. Natalie is concerned that a procedural aspect in Milgram's famous study on _____ could have contaminated the results. She is concerned about the _____ validity of the study. a. conformity; external b. conformity; internal c. obedience; external d. obedience; internal 125. The primary visual cortex is termed area _____ and is located in the _____ lobe of the brain. a. V1; occipital b. V1; orbitofrontal c. A1; orbitofrontal d. A1; occipital

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Integrative Questions 126. Due to the _____ problem, one cannot infer cause and effect from the natural correlation between viewing violence and aggression; however, this topic was studied experimentally by _____ with children who observed aggressive adult models. a. third-variable; Watson b. third-variable; Bandura c. directionality of causality; Milgram d. directionality of causality; Piaget 127. Research on the effects of prefrontal lobe damage on gambling tasks suggests that the radical personality changes exhibited by Phineas Gage after his injury may have been due to a(n): a. insensitivity to the future consequences of his behavior. b. reduced sensitivity to pleasurable stimuli. c. inability to experience negative emotions associated with losses. d. insensitivity to the immediate consequences of his behavior. 128. In an emphatic and nondirectional way, a person-centered therapist allows her client to seek experiences that are neither boring nor too demanding. Person-centered therapy stems from the humanistic psychology of _____, and these enriching experiences are the result of _____. a. Carl Rogers; psychological flow b. Carl Rogers; self-actualization c. Aaron Beck; cognitive restructuring d. Aaron Beck; mindfulness meditation 129. A person who frequently helps others with no expectation of personal benefit is engaging in _____ and probably will score high on the Big Five trait of _____. a. reciprocal altruism; conscientiousness b. altruism; neuroticism c. cooperation; extraversion d. altruism; agreeableness 130. Atypical antipsychotics affect both dopamine and _____ and are more effective in treating the negative symptoms of schizophrenia such as _____. a. serotonin; hallucinations b. serotonin; poverty of speech c. acetylcholine; delusions d. acetylcholine; social withdrawal

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Integrative Questions 131. Which findings would have the MOST generalizability across cultures? a. research on visual information processing b. research on judgments of facial attractiveness c. research on the age at which a theory of mind develops d. research on altruistic behavior 132. Subjecting rats to extreme sleep deprivation results in severe weight loss, indicating impairments of _____ functioning. a. hippocampal b. prefrontal cortex c. hypothalamus d. basal ganglia 133. Due to the third-variable problem, one cannot infer cause and effect from the _____ correlation between viewing violence and aggression; however, this topic was studied experimentally by _____ with children who observed aggressive adult models. a. negative; Watson b. negative; Bandura c. positive; Watson d. positive; Bandura 134. Some herbal and natural products may have psychological benefits. For example, there is a _____ correlation between the consumption of omega-3 fatty acids and _____. a. positive; depression b. negative; depression c. positive; bipolar disorder d. negative; bipolar disorder 135. Lyric wonders if—in his famous study—Milgram would have obtained different levels of _____ if he had studied women participants instead of men. She is concerned about the _____ of the results. a. conformity; replicability b. conformity; generalizability c. obedience; replicability d. obedience; generalizability

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Integrative Questions 136. A behaviorist arranges a choice situation in which a rat is exposed to two levers. Every time the rat presses the right lever, it receives one pellet. When the rat presses the left lever, 70% of the time it receives nothing and 30% of the time it receives five pellets. The rat's lever pressing is being _____ reinforced, and rational choice theory predicts that the rats will prefer to press the _____ lever. a. positively; right b. negatively; right c. positively; left d. negatively; left 137. Recent evidence from the field of _____ psychology suggests that the universality hypothesis of emotion is _____. a. cognitive; false b. personality; supported c. cultural; overstated d. evolutionary; confirmed 138. A researcher manipulates the intensity of a sound in small increments and determines the smallest incremental value that participants can notice a change. The researcher is investigating the _____, and the dependent variable is the _____. a. absolute threshold; report by the participants b. absolute threshold; sound intensity c. just noticeable difference; report by the participants d. just noticeable difference; sound intensity 139. _____ tried using introspection to measure _____ experiences. a. Wundt; unconscious b. Wundt perceptual c. Watson; sensory d. Watson; conscious 140. Alcohol enhances the functions of GABA in the brain. In response, the brain in disequilibrium might be expected to: a. produce more GABA. b. enhance the glutamate system. c. decrease the production of serotonin. d. enhance the dopamine system.

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Integrative Questions 141. Dopaminergic neurons in the _____ pathway store dopamine presynaptically in _____. a. dorsal; the cell body b. default; the nodes of Ranvier c. pleasure; receptors d. reward; vesicles 142. It is during Piaget's _____ stage of cognitive development that Freud postulated the _____ stage of psychosexual development. a. sensory motor; genital b. sensory motor; phallic c. preoperational; phallic d. concrete operational; genital 143. More intelligent people tend to live longer. People who attempt to explain this relationship by highlighting the link between intelligence and education, education and job status, job status and income, and income and health are: a. committing the conjunction fallacy. b. mistakenly inferring cause and effect from correlational research. c. identifying potential third variables underlying the relationship between intelligence and life expectancy. d. questioning the external validity of the relationship. 144. Decreased hippocampal volume is associated with both: a. Alzheimer's disease and major depressive disorder. b. Alzheimer's disease and posttraumatic stress disorder. c. posttraumatic stress disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder. d. obsessive-compulsive disorder and major depressive disorder. 145. Piaget's concepts of assimilation and accommodation have some similarities to the learning principles of: a. unconditioned and conditioned responses. b. classical and operant conditioning. c. primary and secondary reinforcement. d. generalization and discrimination. 146. Joseph LeDoux postulated the existence of both a fast and a slow fear pathway. The fast pathway is an example of: a. an application of signal detection theory. b. a dual process theory of information processing. c. a modern application of the Freudian unconscious. d. the functions of the cognitive unconscious.

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Integrative Questions 147. A bell has been paired with food a sufficient number of times such that now it elicits salivation in a dog. In subsequent trials, the bell sounds but is not followed by food. Eventually, the dog will stop salivating to the sound of the bell. This example illustrates _____ and has clinical implications for _____. a. negative punishment; cognitive restructuring b. negative punishment; exposure therapy c. extinction; cognitive restructuring d. extinction; exposure therapy 148. Some criticized the pioneering research of _____, who studied forgetting of nonsense syllables, because people usually are not tasked with remembering nonsensical information. This is a criticism of the _____ of the research. a. Kurt Lewin; external validity b. Kurt Lewin; reliability c. Hermann Ebbinghaus; external validity d. Hermann Ebbinghaus; reliability 149. Evaluating other people positively or negatively based on their group membership is the definition of _____; people in the outgroup judged negatively by the ingroup may experience physiological changes associated with the emotion of _____. a. stereotyping; anger b. stereotyping; shame c. prejudice; anger d. prejudice; shame 150. Due to damage in a specialized area located in the _____ lobe associated with thinking and planning, Keenan cannot produce meaningful speech, a condition known as _____ aphasia. a. frontal; Broca's b. frontal; Wernicke's c. temporal; Broca's d. temporal; Wernicke's 151. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between self-esteem and aggression in young men. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. nonassociation d. causal and inverse relationship

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Integrative Questions 152. The _____ allows information transduced from information from the right visual field projected onto the left half of each _____ to be processed in the left hemisphere of the brain. a. thalamus; retina b. thalamus; iris c. corpus callosum; retina d. corpus callosum; iris 153. Due to the third-variable problem, one cannot infer cause and effect from the _____ correlation between viewing violence and aggression; however, this topic was studied experimentally by Bandura in his famous study involving children playing with _____. a. negative; Bobo dolls b. negative; violent video games c. positive; Bobo dolls d. positive; violent video games 154. The preparedness theory of phobias is MOST related to the evolutionary elements of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. sensory adaptation. d. coping style. 155. Hypnotic analgesia produces effects MOST similar to which neurotransmitter? a. dopamine b. serotonin c. endorphins d. glutamate 156. After being deprived of REM sleep for several days, a person allowed to sleep normally will experience a(n) _____ amount of REM sleep, illustrating _____. a. increased; an attempt to restore equilibrium b. decreased; ironic processes of mental control c. increased; a conditioned compensatory response d. decreased; a circadian rhythm 157. A person who demonstrates reduced sensitivity to stimuli in the band of fibers enervating the hindbrain termed the _____ might be more likely to be _____. a. reticular formation; anxious b. reticular formation; outgoing c. corpus callosum; altruistic d. corpus callosum; neurotic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 158. A researcher increased the intensity of light in increments of 5 lumens and asked participants if they noticed the change. The study found that two particular participants had the same _____ threshold for perceiving the light. Had the investigators manipulated the light in units of 1 lumen, a difference would have been found between the individuals. The study was lacking the _____ to detect this difference. a. absolute; validity b. difference; validity c. absolute; reliability d. difference; power 159. Lori takes Ativan to manage her anxiety. This medication works by enhancing the functions of which neurotransmitter? a. glutamate b. GABA c. dopamine d. acetylcholine 160. When Jacey experiences _____, she modifies her behavior to make it consistent with her beliefs. This reduces the anxiety provoked by the inconsistency; thus, her change in behavior has been _____ reinforced. a. cognitive dissonance; positively b. cognitive dissonance; negatively c. existential angst; positively d. existential angst; negatively 161. Rubin's vase features _____ that may flip, illustrating the _____ of consciousness. a. opponent colors; selectivity b. opponent colors; transience c. a reversible figure and ground; intentionality d. a reversible figure and ground; transience 162. The criticism that _____ stages of moral development do not adequately describe the moral development of non-Westerners is a criticism of the _____ associated with the research. a. Piaget's; reliability b. Kohlberg's; internal validity c. Kohlberg's; generalizability d. Piaget's; power

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Integrative Questions 163. Harold read about a cross-cultural study demonstrating an association between consumption of omega-3s and _____. Thinking omega-3s will help him, he wants to run to the health store to buy a bottle. His wife, Kara, is more skeptical. She thinks that the relationship might have to do with international differences in the propensity to seek help, rather than the health benefits of omega 3s. Kara is _____. a. obsessive-compulsive disorder; wondering about the external validity of the study b. obsessive-compulsive disorder; skeptical about the internal validity of the experiment c. depression; questioning the statistical significance of the findings d. depression; positing the existence of a third variable 164. Who would be MOST likely to make dispositional attributions? a. behaviorists b. trait theorists c. social-learning theorists d. cultural psychologists 165. Which of these is LEAST likely to occur because of positive reinforcement? a. reciprocal altruism b. cooperation c. proactive aggression d. reactive aggression 166. The fact that the determinants of facial attractiveness are _____ across cultures is perhaps best explained by a(n) _____ psychologist. a. similar; cultural b. different; cultural c. similar; evolutionary d. different; evolutionary 167. Barbara takes _____ to manage her anxiety. This medication works by enhancing the functions of the neurotransmitter _____. a. Zoloft; glutamate b. Ativan; GABA c. Prozac; dopamine d. Thorazine; acetylcholine 168. Which memory/memories is/are MOST likely to be forgotten with age? a. the name of the capital city in your state b. the name of the third president of the United States c. remembering a just-heard phone number d. how to play a musical instrument Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 169. Multitasking disrupts the _____ of consciousness and contributes to the memory "sin" of _____. a. unity; blocking b. unity; absentmindedness c. intentionality; blocking d. intentionality; absentmindedness 170. Studies mentioned in the text demonstrating that aerobic exercise plays a causal role in decreasing stress: a. used random sampling from the population. b. randomly assigned participants to groups. c. determined that aerobic exercise and stress levels are not correlated with one another. d. allowed participants to self-select their level of aerobic exercise. 171. An evolutionary psychologist might BEST explain why _____ is/are a useful process. a. free association b. sensory adaptation c. cognitive dissonance d. cultural differences in perception 172. A tenet of cognitive behavior therapy with which B. F. Skinner would disagree is that it: a. is problem focused. b. is action orientated. c. focuses on cognitive restructuring. d. sometimes uses artificial incentive systems to modify behavior. 173. Rational coping incorporates elements of the behavioral treatment termed: a. interpersonal therapy. b. exposure therapy. c. the token economy. d. person-centered therapy. 174. Ansley wonders if—in his famous study—Asch would have obtained different levels of _____ if he had studied women participants instead of men. She is concerned about the _____ of the results. a. conformity; replicability b. conformity; generalizability c. obedience; replicability d. obedience; generalizability

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Integrative Questions 175. Some research suggests that recognizing and consciously trying to overcome stereotypes actually might make unconscious stereotyping stronger, a phenomenon MOST related to: a. illusory conjunctions. b. repression. c. displacement. d. thought suppression. 176. Depriving people of _____ sleep causes deficits in memory, aggression, and difficulties in emotional regulation. This phenomenon suggests that REM sleep deprivation disrupts the functioning of the _____. a. REM; default network of consciousness b. REM; amygdala and hippocampus c. slow-wave; cerebellum and pons d. slow-wave; basal ganglia 177. Measuring how vigorously infants suck a nipple in the presence of different voices to determine if infants recognize the voice of their mother utilizes a(n): a. classical conditioning paradigm. b. assessment of attachment style. c. operational definition. d. correlational design. 178. Group A consists of 90 members, 60 of whom perform "good acts" and 30 of whom perform "bad acts." Group B consists of 900 members, 600 of whom perform "good acts" and 300 of whom perform "bad acts." Participants given this information will MOST likely evaluate group _____ more negatively, perhaps as a result of humans' relative insensitivity to _____. a. A; probabilities b. A; frequencies c. B; probabilities d. B; frequencies 179. Measuring how vigorously infants suck a nipple in the presence of different, manipulated voices to determine if infants recognize the voice of their mother utilizes a(n): a. habituation test. b. assessment of attachment style. c. correlational design. d. experimental design.

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Integrative Questions 180. People who malinger engage in this behavior because it is usually _____ reinforced by _____. a. positively; reduced work obligations b. negatively; reduced responsibilities c. negatively; increased attention from others d. positively; reduced social commitments 181. A psychologist instructs Eva to stare at an apple and break down her conscious experience into its elemental parts. Eva responds that she sees a round red object. The psychologist asks her to further deconstruct this experience. Eva then says she perceives hunger and expects the apple to be tart. She then unexpectedly says that the apple reminds her of elementary school, at which point the psychologist reminds her to only deconstruct her conscious experience of the physical stimulus present. The technique that the psychologist is using is termed _____, and Eva's problem of staying focused on the stimulus illustrates the _____ of consciousness. a. mindfulness; selectivity b. mindfulness; unity c. introspection; intentionality d. introspection; transience 182. The study techniques of distributed practice and practice testing are more effective than are more traditional techniques because making _____ during study sessions appears to enhance _____ memory. a. semantic encoding simpler; working b. semantic encoding more difficult; long-term c. retrieval simpler; working d. retrieval more difficult; long-term 183. Amphetamines cause dopaminergic neurons to flood synapses with dopamine. With continued use, the brain in disequilibrium might be expected to: a. produce more dopamine. b. make more dopamine receptors. c. decrease production of enzymes that metabolize dopamine. d. produce less dopamine. 184. Until reproduced in other populations, the research of _____, who studied forgetting of nonsense syllables, would be considered to have had low _____ as a result of using himself as the sole participant. a. Kurt Lewin; internal validity b. Kurt Lewin; generalizability c. Hermann Ebbinghaus; internal validity d. Hermann Ebbinghaus; generalizability

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Integrative Questions 185. _____ memory processes involving activation of the _____ appear to be required for eyeblink conditioning to occur. a. Implicit; cerebellum b. Explicit; cerebellum c. Episodic; amygdala d. Semantic; amygdala 186. Dopamine activity is a key neural mechanism underlying: a. positive reinforcement. b. cognitive dissonance. c. deindividuation. d. self-actualization. 187. Manuel is concerned that a procedural aspect in Asch's famous study on _____ could have skewed the results. He is concerned about the _____ validity of the study. a. conformity; external b. conformity; internal c. obedience; external d. obedience; internal 188. The cephalocaudal and proximodistal rules of development are MOST correlated with changes in the structure and function of the: a. motor cortex and movement pathways. b. prefrontal cortex and decision-making pathways. c. language acquisition device in the left temporal lobe. d. dopaminergic pleasure centers in the nucleus accumbens. 189. The dangers associated with labeling persons as having a mental disorder are related to the social psychology phenomenon of: a. conformity. b. stereotype threat. c. deindividuation. d. cognitive dissonance. 190. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between intelligence and alcohol use. a. negative correlation b. positive correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship

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Integrative Questions 191. _____ tried using introspection to measure _____ experiences. a. Wundt; perceptual b. Wertheimer; unconscious c. James; sensory d. Helmholtz; conscious 192. A comparison of the behavioral symptoms associated with cocaine intoxication and withdrawal demonstrates that drug withdrawal often produces effects _____ to the drug effect. This pattern suggests that the brain functions like a(n) _____ to compensate for the effects of the drug. a. similar; amplifier b. similar; thermostat c. opposite; amplifier d. opposite; thermostat 193. Avoidance motivation MOST closely corresponds to: a. conscientiousness. b. rational coping. c. the need for achievement. d. the behavioral inhibition system. 194. The _____ is a subcortical structure in the forebrain that routes _____ information to area V1 in the occipital lobe. a. thalamus; visual b. thalamus; auditory c. hypothalamus; visual d. hypothalamus; auditory 195. "Pleasure centers" of the brain, such as the _____, are rich in the neurotransmitter _____. a. basal ganglia; dopamine b. prefrontal cortex; norepinephrine c. nucleus accumbens; dopamine d. reticular formation; norepinephrine 196. The fact that straight men in all cultures are more attracted to _____ women is perhaps best explained by a(n) _____ psychologist. a. younger; cultural b. same-aged; cultural c. same-aged; evolutionary d. younger; evolutionary

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Integrative Questions 197. Research on reactions to stress has revealed a _____ between feelings of hostility and coronary heart disease. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. surprising nonassociation 198. The ability to use another person's reactions as information pertaining to how we should respond is termed _____; behaviorists would conceptualize these reactions that guide our responding as a _____. a. overimitation; reinforcer b. overimitation; stimulus c. social referencing; reinforcer d. social referencing; stimulus 199. A pigeon's behavior is reinforced for pecking images of Picasso paintings but not for pecking images of Monet paintings. After such training, it correctly pecks pictures of other Cubist artists it has never seen before but does not peck other never-before-seen impressionistic paintings. This example illustrates the behavioral processes of _____; in cognitive terms, each Picasso painting represents a(n) _____ of a category. a. positive and negative reinforcement; prototype b. positive and negative reinforcement; exemplar c. generalization and discrimination; prototype d. generalization and discrimination; exemplar 200. Benzodiazepines are used to treat _____ and facilitate the functions of _____, the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. When this neurotransmitter binds to its receptor site, the inside of the neuron becomes more _____ and thus is less likely to fire. a. depression; glutamate; positive b. anxiety; glutamate; negative c. depression; GABA; positive d. anxiety; GABA; negative 201. Precise operational definitions of unobservable psychological constructs would have the LEAST relevance in the research programs of: a. cognitive psychologists. b. social psychologists. c. behaviorists. d. cognitive neuroscientists.

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Integrative Questions 202. Which statement MOST accurately describes the relationship between aerobic exercise and stress? a. There is a positive correlation, but not a causal relationship, between aerobic exercise and stress. b. There is a negative correlation, but not a causal relationship, between aerobic exercise and stress. c. Exercise is one factor that causes reductions in stress. d. Due to the third-variable problem, it is not known if exercise is related to stress reduction. 203. Stereotype threats might trigger _____ that produce(s) behavior conforming to the stereotype. a. existential angst b. cognitive dissonance c. ironic processes of mental control d. functional fixedness 204. Because people who are more intelligent are patient, better at calculating risk, and more sensitive to the future consequences of their behavior, it would be expected that they would perform better on behavioral tasks involving: a. acquisition of a conditioned response. b. delayed reinforcement. c. habituation. d. extinction of a conditioned response. 205. A behaviorist would conceptualize the prisoner's dilemma as a situation in which person A's decision about whether to cooperate with person B: a. could produce mutual reinforcement or maximal punishment for person A. b. could result in either a large reinforcement for only person A or a small mutual punisher. c. will result in either a small or a large negative reinforcer for person A. d. will result in either a small or a large positive reinforcer for person A. 206. Cognitive psychologists have demonstrated that due to _____, we tend to remember the first item on a list more than items in the middle of the list; the social psychologist _____ extended this work to show that earlier information learned about a person can bias our subsequent opinion of him or her. a. transience; Leon Festinger b. transience; Solomon Asch c. the serial position effect; Leon Festinger d. the serial position effect; Solomon Asch

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Integrative Questions 207. Brain-imaging studies have indicated that the _____ plays a crucial role in performing optimally on risky decision-making tasks. Conversely, frequently engaging in risky or impulsive behavior is most associated with the _____ class of personality disorders. a. amygdala; odd/eccentric b. prefrontal cortex; dramatic/erratic c. occipital cortex; odd/erratic d. frontal lobe; anxious/inhibited 208. Joseph LeDoux postulated the existence of both a fast and a slow fear pathway. This is an example of: a. an application of signal detection theory. b. a dual process theory of information processing. c. a modern application of the Freudian unconscious. d. the transience of consciousness. 209. When viewing negative emotional content, people with depression show increased activity in the _____ and _____ activity in the cortical areas associated with cognitive control. a. frontal lobe; decreased b. frontal lobe; increased c. amygdala; increased d. amygdala; decreased 210. _____ are often prescribed to treat _____, and an example of one such drug is _____. a. Benzodiazepines; chronic pain; Zoloft b. Stimulants; anxiety disorders; Clozaril c. Stimulants; major depressive disorder; Xanax d. Benzodiazepines; anxiety disorders; Valium 211. Relaxation therapy _____ cortisol levels and _____ parasympathetic nervous system activity. a. increases; decreases b. increases; increases c. decreases; decreases d. decreases; increases 212. A behaviorist would conceptualize the prisoner's dilemma as a situation in which person A's decision about whether to cooperate with person B produces: a. maximal reinforcement only if person B fails to cooperate. b. negative reinforcement if person A cooperates and person B does not. c. reinforcement or punishment based on person B's behavior. d. positive or negative reinforcement based on person B's behavior.

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Integrative Questions 213. Postpartum depression is associated with _____ disturbances in the stress–response system, which is ultimately regulated by the _____. a. electrical; thalamus b. hormonal; hypothalamus c. hormonal; amygdala d. electrical; pituitary gland 214. By today's standards, _____ study on obedience is considered unethical because of its problematic use of _____. a. Asch's; debriefing b. Asch's; deception c. Milgram's; debriefing d. Milgram's; deception 215. Stimuli reliably paired with drug administration often elicit compensatory effects _____ the drug; at a systems level, this is an example of the body's attempt at _____. a. similar to; habituation b. opposite that of; sensitization c. similar to; sensory adaptation d. opposite that of; restoring equilibrium 216. The cortical area to which the _____ does NOT route sensory information is _____. a. thalamus; the somatosensory cortex b. thalamus; the olfactory bulb c. hippocampus; area V1 d. hippocampus; area A1 217. Naturalistic observation of helping behavior in public places reveals a _____ between the size of a group and the willingness of any one individual to help someone in need. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship 218. Serotonin and _____ are the two neurotransmitters most commonly associated with regulating mood, and _____ block the reuptake of both of these neurotransmitters. a. dopamine; monoamine oxidase inhibitors b. dopamine; selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors c. norepinephrine; tricyclic antidepressants d. norepinephrine; benzodiazepines Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 219. A behaviorist arranges a choice situation in which a rat is exposed to two levers. For every 100 times the rat presses the right lever, it receives seven food pellets. For every 20 times the rat presses the left lever, it receives one food pellet. Both levers produce food on a _____-ratio schedule of reinforcement, and rational choice theory predicts preference for the _____ lever. a. fixed; left b. fixed; right c. variable; left d. variable; right 220. The impairments observed on simulated driving tasks while participants are multitasking highlight the _____ of consciousness because when attending to one task, we cannot fully attend to the other. a. unity b. transience c. selectivity d. intentionality 221. Which findings on research would have the LEAST generalizability between Western and Eastern cultures? a. research on visual information processing b. research on judgments of facial attractiveness c. research on facial expressions of emotion d. research on the role of the hippocampus in memory 222. _____ postulation that language acquisition is a product of reinforcement is MOST consistent with the position of _____. a. Chomsky's; Locke b. Skinner's; Kant c. Chomsky's; Kant d. Skinner's; Locke 223. People with bipolar disorder often are _____. People may be more likely to judge the manifestation of this disorder and characteristic as more likely than the disorder itself, a bit of faulty logic known as _____. a. creative; availability bias b. creative; the conjunction fallacy c. narcissistic; availability bias d. narcissistic; the conjunction fallacy

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Integrative Questions 224. Posthypnotic amnesia involves a disruption in memory: a. encoding. b. consolidation. c. storage. d. retrieval. 225. Someone with an _____ locus of control would be more likely to _____. a. external; feel in control of most situations b. external; have low anxiety when dealing with stressors beyond her control c. internal; feel she has little control over most daily stressors d. internal; see a threat as a challenge 226. Aria wonders if _____ operationally defined conformity in a realistic way. Aria is concerned about the _____ validity of this particular study. a. Milgram; external b. Milgram; internal c. Asch; external d. Asch; internal 227. _____ postulation of an innate language acquisition device is MOST consistent with the position of _____. a. Chomsky's; Locke b. Skinner's; Kant c. Chomsky's; Kant d. Skinner's; Locke 228. Researchers operationally defined a Type A behavior pattern and then classified participants as being Type A or otherwise. Participants were then followed over the years. It was found that people with Type A behavior pattern were more likely to develop coronary heart disease. Why does this evidence not constitute a causal relationship between Type A behavior pattern and coronary heart disease? a. Random sampling was not used. b. The results are not generalizable beyond the sample investigated. c. There was no measured dependent variable. d. There was no manipulation of an independent variable.

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Integrative Questions 229. Ellie is a Girl Scout who goes door to door selling cookies. She finds that by asking people to buy one box of cookies so that she can go on a field trip, they often buy more when she later tells them that she is competing with other scouts to win an even larger trip. On average, Ellie finds that about 25% of people buy more than one box of cookies, although she has no real way of predicting which customers will purchase a larger order. Ellie is using the _____ sales technique, and her behavior is reinforced according to a _____ratio schedule. a. foot-in-the-door; fixed b. foot-in-the-door; variable c. reciprocity; fixed d. reciprocity; variable 230. Individuals in Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development would be MOST susceptible to _____. a. preconventional; systematic persuasion b. postconventional; heuristic persuasion c. conventional; expected reinforcers and punishers for actions d. conventional; normative influence 231. A therapist providing treatment for a woman who is clinically depressed develops an incentive program to help her engage more in social activities. For every approved activity that she completes, she wins points that later can be exchanged for items she finds desirable. The therapist is using a version of _____, and this treatment is consistent with the theoretical orientation of _____. a. interpersonal therapy; Carl Rogers b. person-centered therapy; Carl Rogers c. systematic desensitization; B. F. Skinner d. a token economy; B. F. Skinner 232. Individuals with _____ nervosa consume large quantities of food to reduce negative emotions such as sadness and anxiety. This short-lasting relief ultimately gives rise to concern about weight gain, causing them to vomit or use laxatives to reduce this anxiety. A behavioral psychologist would interpret this vicious cycle in terms of _____. a. anorexia; positive punishment b. anorexia; negative reinforcement c. bulimia; positive punishment d. bulimia; negative reinforcement

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Integrative Questions 233. Using the analogy of _____, critics might argue that the decision criterion in diagnosing personality disorders is too _____, resulting in overdiagnosis. a. signal detection theory; high b. signal detection theory; low c. dual process theory; high d. dual process theory; low 234. The Big Five trait of _____ is associated with brain regions involved in processing information about reward. As such, it is MOST associated with the functioning of _____. a. agreeableness; dopamine b. extraversion; dopamine c. conscientiousness; acetylcholine d. neuroticism; acetylcholine 235. Antidepressant drugs known as SSRIs work by _____ of serotonin; critics argue that these drugs alter serotonin levels long _____ patients report improvements in mood. a. promoting the release; before b. promoting the release; after c. blocking the reuptake; before d. blocking the reuptake; after 236. A researcher manipulated the intensity of light in increments of 5 lumens and asked participants if the light was present or absent. The study found that two particular participants had the same _____ threshold for perceiving the light. Had the investigators manipulated the light in units of 1 lumen, a difference would have been found between the individuals. The study was lacking the _____ to detect this difference. a. absolute; reliability b. difference; validity c. absolute; power d. difference; reliability 237. In some cases, hypnosis has been shown to be more effective at _____ than morphine, a drug that mimics the actions of _____. a. inducing sleep; dopamine b. inducing sleep; endorphins c. relieving pain; dopamine d. relieving pain; endorphins

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Integrative Questions 238. A researcher manipulates the intensity of a faint sound and finds the lowest intensity at which the participant can detect it 50% of the time. The researcher is investigating the _____, and the dependent variable is the _____. a. absolute threshold; report by the participant b. absolute threshold; sound intensity c. just noticeable difference; report by the participant d. just noticeable difference; sound intensity 239. The Big Five trait of _____ is associated with brain regions in the _____ lobes involved in self-regulation, planning, and decision making. a. agreeableness; frontal b. extraversion; temporal c. conscientiousness; frontal d. openness to experience; temporal 240. Using introspection to measure the basic elements of _____ was a goal of the _____ school of psychology. a. the unconscious; psychodynamic b. perception; structuralist c. sensation; functionalist d. behavior; stimulus–response 241. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system is associated with: a. decreases in respiration. b. increases in digestion. c. decreases in cortisol. d. increases in hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenocortical activity. 242. Serotonin _____ mood, and antidepressant drugs known as monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) function by _____ of serotonin. a. elevates; increasing the production b. elevates; decreasing the enzymatic breakdown c. deflates; decreasing the production d. deflates; increasing the enzymatic breakdown 243. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between intelligence and healthy behaviors such as exercising and eating well. a. negative correlation b. positive correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 244. The introspective technique developed by the _____ BEST illustrates the _____ property of consciousness. a. psychodynamic theorists; selectivity b. Gestalt psychologists; unity c. structuralists; intentionality d. functionalists; transience 245. Worrying about insomnia may actually make the brain more sensitive to signs of sleeplessness, further exacerbating the problem and illustrating _____. Thus, when persons cannot sleep, they should get out of bed and go do something else. Further, the bed should be reserved only for sleeping, not for reading books, doing homework, eating, or watching television. If persons do these things and only lie down in bed when they are sleepy, behaviorists would state that people will learn to associate the bed with sleeping, not other activities. This process is termed _____. a. homeostasis; extinction b. ironic processes of mental control; discrimination c. a conditioned compensatory response; generalization d. the diathesis–stress model; positive reinforcement 246. Token economies sometimes are used by behavioral psychologists to exact behavior change. From a motivational perspective, tokens can be classified as _____ rewards; from a behavioral perspective, tokens are _____ reinforcers. a. intrinsic; primary b. intrinsic; secondary c. extrinsic; primary d. extrinsic; secondary 247. If the electrical activity in the brain is analogous to sound waves, then which analogy represents deep sleep? a. an orchestra producing a complex timbre of different frequencies b. random bursts of static noise c. the soft melody of a flute d. the regular beat of a bass drum 248. Intelligence _____ correlates with smoking and drinking alcohol, perhaps because these people are more sensitive to _____. a. positively; risk b. positively; drug reinforcers c. negatively; drug reinforcers d. negatively; risk

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Integrative Questions 249. Approach motivation is facilitated to the greatest extent by the actions of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. dopamine c. acetylcholine d. serotonin 250. Infants with a highly reactive _____ are more likely to develop into adults that score rather low on the _____ Big Five personality dimension. a. theory of mind; conscientiousness b. theory of mind; extraversion c. temperament; conscientiousness d. temperament; extraversion 251. Someone with a highly reactive behavioral _____ system that enables approach behavior toward rewards might be expected to show enhancements in the neurotransmitter _____. a. activation; GABA b. activation; dopamine c. inhibition; GABA d. inhibition; dopamine 252. Drug therapies for _____ disorders are MOST likely to increase the functions of _____ neurotransmitters. a. psychotic; excitatory b. personality; inhibitory c. mood; endogenous opioid d. anxiety; inhibitory 253. Approach motivation is to _____ as avoidance motivation is to _____. a. positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement b. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement c. positive punishment; negative punishment d. negative punishment; positive punishment 254. One consequence of the memory "sin" of _____ is that it often _____ self-esteem. a. transience; increases b. misattribution; decreases c. suggestibility; decreases d. bias; increases

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Integrative Questions 255. Athletes are _____ likely to get into skirmishes when the temperature is hot; this suggests that there is a _____ correlation between temperature and aggression. a. more; positive b. more; negative c. less; positive d. less; negative 256. Dylan is interested in finding out how sensitive his sister is to sound. While his sister is watching TV, Dylan gradually turns up the volume on his stereo. Over the course of several days, Dylan does this a number of times and each time records the volume at which his sister complains. This experiment may be considered a study of _____, and the dependent variable is the volume _____. a. psychometrics; at which the roommate complains b. psychometrics; on the stereo c. psychophysics; at which the roommate complains d. psychophysics; on the stereo 257. In one study, participants randomly assigned to a group that received testosterone were _____ sensitive to facial threat cues than were those in a control group who did not receive testosterone. The independent variable manipulated in this experiment is _____. a. more; testosterone b. more; facial threat recognition c. less; testosterone d. less; facial threat recognition 258. In his description of consciousness as a flowing stream, _____, the founder of functionalism, emphasized the _____ of consciousness. a. Wilhelm Wundt; unity b. Wilhelm Wundt; selectivity c. William James; intentionality d. William James; transience 259. The diathesis–stress model of mental illness is MOST related to the concept of: a. observational learning. b. epigenetics. c. the third-variable problem. d. external validity.

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Integrative Questions 260. The _____ is rich in _____, a neurotransmitter involved in motivation and pleasure. a. nucleus accumbens; dopamine b. nucleus accumbens; serotonin c. hippocampus; dopamine d. hippocampus; serotonin 261. The existential view of the role of free will on the development of self and personality is MOST inconsistent with the views held by which psychologist? a. Carl Rogers b. Abraham Maslow c. B. F. Skinner d. Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi 262. A behaviorist might explain the cognitive phenomena of concepts and category formation in terms of: a. classical conditioning. b. prototype theory. c. generalization and discrimination. d. exemplar theory. 263. One measure commonly used in intelligence testing is the digit span task. Here, participants must repeat sequences of digits (e.g., 8-5-1-7) either forward or backward. Digit lengths on this task do not have to be greater than _____ due to the limits of _____ memory. a. 4; short-term b. 9; working c. 17; long-term d. 7; sensory 264. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between intelligence and life longevity. a. negative correlation b. positive correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship

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Integrative Questions 265. Joseph LeDoux postulated the existence of both a fast and a slow fear pathway. When a person sees a bear, for example, the thalamus routes this information to the _____, which makes a quick appraisal of the situation. Simultaneously, the thalamus routes this information to the visual cortex, and the person ultimately is able to identify the bear as the information travels along the _____ visual stream. a. hippocampus; ventral b. hippocampus; dorsal c. amygdala; ventral d. amygdala; dorsal 266. Common assays used to determine if infants are attending to objects study a form of: a. procedural memory. b. classical conditioning. c. primary reinforcement. d. habituation. 267. How is hippocampal volume associated with Alzheimer's disease (AD) and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a. Increases in volume are associated with PTSD, and decreases in volume are associated with AD. b. Increases in volume are associated with AD, and decreases in volume are associated with PTSD. c. Both conditions are associated with an increase in hippocampal volume. d. Both conditions are associated with a decrease in hippocampal volume. 268. Which type of theorists would be MOST likely to make situational attributions of others' behavior? a. behaviorists b. trait theorists c. existentialists d. nonscientists 269. The physiological symptoms experienced during a _____ are MOST similar to the _____ phase of generalized adaption syndrome. a. panic attack; alarm b. depressive episode; exhaustion c. manic episode; resistance d. psychotic episode; alarm

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Integrative Questions 270. People with deficits in hippocampal structure or function might be more likely to experience problems _____ memories and be _____ susceptible to posttraumatic stress disorder. a. forming new long-term; less b. forming new long-term; more c. remembering old episodic; less d. remembering old episodic; more 271. The mind–body problem of consciousness would MOST concern which type of theorist? a. materialist b. dualist c. realist d. idealist 272. Dylan is interested in finding out how sensitive his roommate is to sound. While his roommate is watching TV, Dylan gradually turns up the volume on his stereo. Over the course of several days, Dylan does this a number of times and each time records the volume at which his roommate complains. This experiment may be considered a study of _____, and the independent variable is the volume _____. a. psychometrics; at which the roommate complains b. psychometrics; on the stereo c. psychophysics; at which the roommate complains d. psychophysics; on the stereo 273. Chomsky's postulation of a language acquisition device is most consistent with the _____ position of _____. a. nativism; Kant b. nativism; Locke c. philosophical empiricism; Kant d. philosophical empiricism; Locke 274. A person with a highly reactive behavioral inhibition system would be MOST sensitive to _____ reinforcers. a. primary b. secondary c. positive d. negative 275. Research has indicated that there is a _____ between the size of a mob and the level of atrocity inflicted on victims. a. positive correlation b. negative correlation c. direct causal relationship d. causal and inverse relationship Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 276. Studies investigating the development of object permanence typically utilize a form of implicit learning termed: a. sensitization. b. habituation. c. classical conditioning. d. latent learning. 277. Which type of theorists would be LEAST likely to make dispositional attributions? a. behaviorists b. trait theorists c. psychodynamic theorists d. nonscientists

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Integrative Questions Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. d 19. b 20. b 21. c 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. d 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. c 54. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 55. a 56. c 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. b 61. c 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. a 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. b 82. c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 83. c 84. a 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. d 89. a 90. c 91. b 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. b 98. b 99. d 100. a 101. b 102. b 103. c 104. c 105. c 106. b 107. b 108. d 109. c 110. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 111. d 112. c 113. b 114. d 115. b 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. d 120. a 121. a 122. a 123. d 124. d 125. a 126. b 127. a 128. a 129. d 130. b 131. b 132. c 133. d 134. b 135. d 136. c 137. c

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Integrative Questions 138. c 139. b 140. b 141. d 142. c 143. c 144. b 145. d 146. d 147. d 148. c 149. c 150. a 151. a 152. a 153. c 154. a 155. c 156. a 157. b 158. d 159. b 160. b 161. d 162. c 163. d 164. b 165. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 166. c 167. b 168. c 169. b 170. b 171. b 172. c 173. b 174. b 175. d 176. b 177. c 178. a 179. d 180. b 181. d 182. d 183. d 184. d 185. a 186. a 187. b 188. a 189. b 190. a 191. a 192. d 193. d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 194. a 195. c 196. d 197. a 198. d 199. d 200. d 201. c 202. c 203. c 204. b 205. a 206. d 207. b 208. b 209. d 210. d 211. d 212. c 213. b 214. d 215. d 216. b 217. b 218. c 219. b 220. c 221. a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 222. d 223. b 224. d 225. d 226. c 227. c 228. d 229. b 230. d 231. d 232. d 233. b 234. b 235. c 236. c 237. d 238. a 239. c 240. b 241. d 242. b 243. b 244. c 245. b 246. d 247. d 248. d

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Integrative Questions 249. b 250. d 251. b 252. d 253. a 254. d 255. a 256. c 257. c 258. d 259. b 260. a 261. c 262. c 263. b 264. b 265. c 266. d 267. d 268. a 269. a 270. b 271. b 272. d 273. a 274. d 275. a 276. b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Integrative Questions 277. a

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