Test Bank For Legal Aspects of Health Care Administration 14th Edition by George D. Pozgar Chapter 1

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Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:30am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

Although __________ did not invent the first microscope, he was able to perfect it. Correct Answer

Van Leeuwenhoek Fenwick Lister Pasteur

Ahead: Hospitals of the 18th Century Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

Ancient ruins provide evidence that patients were being treated holistically in __________ as early as 1134 BCE.


Correct Answer

Greek temples Roman temples Mohammedan asylums Serbian temples

Ahead: Greek and Roman Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Anesthesia was first publicly demonstrated in 1846 at:

John Hopkins Hospital. Pennsylvania Hospital. New York Hospital. Massachusetts General Hospital.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 4 Congress passed and President Barack Obama signed the __________ on March 23, 2010. The legislation was designed to ensure that more Americans receive healthcare benefits.

National Insurance Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Obama Care Act Correct Answer

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Ahead: Health Care and Hospitals in the 21st Century Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Hospitals first appeared as aesculapia (named after a god of medicine) in:

Egypt Correct Answer

Greece Spain Greenland

Ahead: Greek and Roman Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

In 1918, the American College of Surgeons drew up a “constitution” for hospitals setting forth the requirements for the care of the sick. This document was known as:

the Minimum Standard.

Correct Answer

the strict liability doctrine. the medical practice standard. national health insurance act.

Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 7 Reform in medical education early in the 20th century was due to:

hospital administrators. standardization. efforts of the National League of Nursing. Correct Answer

efforts of the Council on Medical Education and Hospitals.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

The American College of Surgeons was founded in 1913 under the leadership of:

Carlos Finlay. August Von Wasserman. Casimir. Correct Answer

Franklin H. Martin.

Ahead: 20th-Century Progress

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

The _______ was most likely typical of the better hospitals of the Middle Ages.

London University Hospital New London Hospital Correct Answer

Hotel-Dieu of Paris Hospital of Siena

Ahead: Medieval Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 10 The first American nursing school was established in 1872 at:

Roosevelt Hospital. Bellevue Hospital.

0 / 1 pts


Sinai Hospital. Correct Answer

Brigham and Women's Hospital.

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

The first incorporated hospital in the United States was founded in:

Boston. Correct Answer

Philadelphia. Manhattan. Richmond.

Ahead: Early Hospitals in the United States

Unanswered

Question 12

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

0 / 1 pts

The first psychiatric hospital founded in the United States was located in:

Norfolk, Virginia. Richmond, Virginia. Correct Answer

Williamsburg, Virginia. New York, New York.

Ahead: Early Hospitals in the United States Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The inventor of the electrocardiograph, which marked the beginning of medicine in the 20th century, is


credited as: Correct Answer

Einthoven. Einstein. Eisenberg. Ernst.

Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The scope of services provided by a hospital:

has remained constant over time. Correct Answer

continues to change. has been pre-established.

has been shrinking over the past 50 years.

Ahead: Chapter Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 15 The writings of Hippocrates were preserved by:

Dutch merchants. Van Leeuwenhoek. Correct Answer

monks. barber surgeons.

Ahead: The “Dark Age” of Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following images was engraved on a limestone pillar dating back to the Sumerians (2920 BCE)?

A Mohammedan hospital Correct Answer

An assemblage of wounded soldiers Various physical ailments Portrait of Socrates

Ahead: Early Military Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

With the goal of providing the best professional, scientific, and humanitarian care possible, the _______ was the focus of early efforts in hospital standardization.

drug regimen Correct Answer

patient nurse physician

Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

_______ claimed that the alarming number of deaths from puerperal fever was due to the transfer of infection by students when they went from the dissecting room to the maternity ward.

Pasteur Morgan Rhazes Correct Answer

Semmelweis


Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

_______ physicians were likely the first to use castor oil and peppermint as drugs were.

Greek Roman Hindu Correct Answer

Egyptian

Ahead: Early Egyptian Hospitals

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

_______, a dentist, developed sulfuric ether and arranged for the first hospital operation under anesthesia. Correct Answer

W. T. G. Morgan Dr. Nathan Smith Davis Ignatz Philipp Semmelweis Crawford Long

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

__________ introduced steam sterilization in 1886, which was of great importance for infection control in hospitals. Correct Answer

Bergmann


Konrad McCollum Halstead

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a plan of care whereby a patient pays an annual retainer fee in exchange for immediate access to a physician.

Emergency medicine Comprehensive medicine Correct Answer

Boutique medicine

Outpatient medicine

Ahead: Health Care and Hospitals in the 21st Century Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 23 __________ is credited with the discovery of the X-ray

Halstead Whipple McCollum Correct Answer

Roentgen

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

__________ is often referred to as the first healthcare administrator.

Bedford Fenwick W. G. Wylie Correct Answer

Florence Nightingale John Hopkins

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

__________ produced experimental rickets by means of an experimental diet.

Wasserman

Fenwick Virchow Correct Answer

Finlay

Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 26 __________ published a book in 1775 describing frightful conditions existing in hospitals.

Correct Answer

John Jones Thomas Bond Thomas Jefferson William Penn

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Early Hospitals in the United States Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Unanswered

Question 27

0 / 1 pts

__________ showed that wound healing could be hastened by using antiseptics.

Lister Halstead Pasteur Semmelweis

Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1

Quiz Score: 0 out of 27

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:31am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A __________ is a general rule of conduct enforced by government.

decision policy tort Correct Answer

law

Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 2 A state trial court is sometimes referred to as the:

U.S. Court of Claims.

0 / 1 pts


Appellate Court. U.S. Court of Appeals. Correct Answer

District Court.

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Common law in the United States had its origins in:

Greece. Ireland. Correct Answer

England. France.

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

In common law, ______ is a doctrine that holding that a judgment by a court of competent jurisdiction is binding upon the parties in any subsequent litigation that involves the same or similar cause of action.

adjudication stare decisis Correct Answer

res judicata writ of certiorari

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

In which U.S. state is civil law rooted in the French and Spanish legal systems?

New York Virginia Maryland Correct Answer

Louisiana

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

One of the main duties of the legislative branch of government is to: Correct Answer

enact laws.

legislate values. prejudice the law. adjudicate the law.

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

The U.S. president can use a __________ to prevent a bill from becoming law by avoiding any action while Congress is in session.

executive order Correct Answer

pocket veto gavel declaratory judgment


Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

The ______ is responsible for the safety and security of most of our nation's food supply, all cosmetics, dietary supplements, and products that give off radiation.

Social Security Administration Correct Answer

Public Health Service Department of Justice U.S. Food and Drug Administration

Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

The __________ is an independent, nonpartisan office governed by a board composed of private citizens that provides public review and insight into the ethical conduct of members of the House of Representatives.

House of Representatives Committee on Ethics Senate Select Committee on Ethics Federal Ethics Committee Correct Answer

Office of Congressional Ethics

Ahead: Government Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 10 The body of law consisting of principles derived from judicial decisions is:

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

common law. statutory law. natural law. public law.

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

The function of the judicial branch of government is to:

amend the law. enforce the law. Correct Answer

adjudicate the law.

repeal the law.

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 12 The highest federal court that adjudicates matters related to the U.S. Constitution is the:

U.S. Court of Appeals. Correct Answer

U.S. Supreme Court. U.S. Customs Court. U.S. District Court.

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The mission of the _______ is to promote the protection of the nation's physical and mental health.

Public Health Service Correct Answer

Office of Human Development Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Family Service League

Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Torts and contracts are examples of:

state statutes.

criminal law. public law. Correct Answer

private law.

Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

Which federal agency issues public warnings when hazardous food products have been identified?

Department of Justice Health Care Financing Administration Family Support Administration Correct Answer

U.S. Food and Drug Administration


Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

Which federal department administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs?

U.S. Department of Commerce U.S. Department of Education U.S. Department of Justice Correct Answer

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services

Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is a court of limited jurisdiction?

U.S Supreme Court U.S. Court of Appeals U.S. District Court Correct Answer

U.S. Tax Court

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is an action that claims that one party has breached an agreement by failing to fulfill an obligation? Correct Answer

Contract mediation


Writ of certiorari Tort Fraud

Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is the only court created by the U.S. Constitution? Correct Answer

U.S. Supreme Court U.S. Court of Military Appeals U.S. District Court U.S. Court of Appeals

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following reflects the composition of the U.S. Supreme Court?

Seven associate justices and one chief justice Correct Answer

Eight associate justices and one chief justice Seven associate justices and one rotating chief justice Ten associate justices and one chief justice

Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts


_______ is a common law principle in which courts apply previous decisions to subsequent cases involving similar facts and questions.

Respondeat superior Res gestae Correct Answer

Stare decisis Res judicata

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

__________ are established by legislative bodies.

Crimes Correct Answer

Statutes

Torts Contracts

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a federally sponsored health insurance program for persons over 65 years of age and certain disabled persons.

Medicaid Welfare Correct Answer

Medicare Commercial insurance


Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a government program administered by the states to provide medical services to the poor and medically needy. Correct Answer

Medicaid Medicare Welfare Medigap

Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

__________ is an extensive body of law issued by state or federal agencies to direct the enacted laws of the federal or state government. Correct Answer

Administrative law Labor law Common law Criminal law

Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

Unanswered

Question 26 __________ laws govern relationships between people.

Public

0 / 1 pts


Federal Private Administrative

Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:32am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A civil wrong committed by one person against the person or property of another is a(n)

crime. Correct Answer

tort. intentional harm. misdemeanor.

Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A pharmacist misreads a prescription and fills it with the wrong medication. The cashier accepts payment for the drug and the consumer leaves. The consumer, who had been filling the same prescription for the past two years, ingests the drug and suffers injuries. Who is responsible for the consumer's injuries?


Drug manufacturer Correct Answer

Pharmacist Prescribing physician Cashier

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A pharmacist misreads a prescription and fills it with the wrong medication. The cashier accepts payment for the drug and the consumer leaves. The consumer, who had been filling the same prescription for the past two years, ingests the drug and suffers injuries. Which party is most likely to pay for the damages suffered by the consumer?

Drug manufacturer Prescribing physician Pharmacy

Correct Answer

Cashier

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

Dr. Miller, an obstetrician, was enjoying a 25th anniversary celebration and had a few drinks. He arrived at the hospital and was seen staggering toward the delivery room. Ms. Marshall suggested that the on-call obstetrician be called to perform the delivery. Dr. Miller insisted that he was quite capable of delivering the baby, and the on-call obstetrician was never called. During surgery, Dr. Miller accidentally nicked the patient's right thigh with a scalpel. Who is liable for the injury?

The on-call obstetrician Correct Answer

Dr. Miller and the hospital The hospital The on-call physician and the hospital


Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Failure to conform to or departure from a required duty of care owed to a patient is considered to be a:

foreseeable event. Correct Answer

breach of duty. foreseeable act. standard of care.

Ahead: Elements of Negligence

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

For liability to be established based on failure to follow a specified standard of care outlined by statute:

the defendant must have been outside the specified class of persons outlined in the statute. the plaintiff must have been outside the specified class of persons outlined in the statute. Correct Answer

the defendant must have been within the specified class of persons outlined in the statute. the caregiver must have been closely following instructions provided by his or her peers.

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 7 Medical malpractice would include negligence committed by a:

physical therapy aide. nurse's aide.

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

physician. dietary aide.

Ahead: Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

The commission or omission of an act, as judged against the actions of a hypothetical “reasonably prudent person,” is referred to as: Correct Answer

negligence. retribution. retort. vengeance.

Ahead: Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

The expected standard of care can be established by a:

pattern of inconsistent physician advice. referral to a specialist. Correct Answer

statute. monopoly.

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts


The general standard of acceptable care is based on what a __________ would do or not do acting under the same or similar circumstances.

registered pharmacist licensed physician patient Correct Answer

reasonably prudent person

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

With regard to negligence and the law, that which describes the conduct expected of an individual in a given situation is referred to as:

duty to use reasonable care.

proximate cause. foreseeability. Correct Answer

standard of care.

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 12 _______ is the failure to act when there is a duty to act.

Misfeasance Correct Answer

Nonfeasance Intentional conduct Malfeasance

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Forms of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

_______ is the reckless disregard for the safety of another.

Nonfeasance Malpractice Misfeasance Correct Answer

Criminal negligence

Ahead: Negligence

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a legal obligation that requires a person to conform to a specific standard of care to protect others.

Causation Breach of duty Correct Answer

Duty to use due care Standard of care

Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

Unanswered

Question 15 __________ is the performance of an unlawful or improper act.

Correct Answer

Malfeasance

0 / 1 pts


Misfeasance Nonfeasance Malpractice

Ahead: Forms of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:33am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A complete defense to a defamation action is: Correct Answer

the truth. consent. a retraction libel.

Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 2 A threat coupled with the apparent present ability to do immediate physical harm to another is:

battery.

0 / 1 pts


extortion. false imprisonment. Correct Answer

assault.

Ahead: Assault and Battery Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A tort that is committed deliberately and is based on the premise that the defendant intended the harmful consequences of his or her behavior constitutes:

misfeasance. coercion. a misdemeanor. an intentional tort.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

Liability of a manufacturer, seller, or supplier to a buyer or other third party for injuries sustained because of a defect in a product is:

state liability. tort per se. an intentional tort. Correct Answer

products liability.

Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Liability without fault is referred to as:

censored liability. negligence. Correct Answer

strict liability. products liability.

Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Mrs. Smith was tied to her hospital bed and not fed for two days for failing to pay her telephone bill prior to discharge. She has an action for:

false imprisonment.

Correct Answer

defamation. negligence. larceny.

Ahead: False Imprisonment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 7 The legal wrong that violates a person's right to his or her own space is:

slander. libel. false imprisonment. Correct Answer

invasion of privacy.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Invasion of Privacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

The spoken form of defamation is:

libel. Correct Answer

slander. hearsay. malpractice.

Ahead: Defamation of Character

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

The voluntary exposure to such risks as radiation treatments and chemotherapy treatments is referred to as:

intervening cause. contributory negligence. presumed innocence. Correct Answer

assumption of a risk.

Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 10 The written form of defamation is:

slander. malpractice.

0 / 1 pts

Complexity: Easy


Correct Answer

libel. intentional misconduct.

Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Touching a person without consent is:

jostling. Correct Answer

battery. false imprisonment. assault.

Ahead: Assault and Battery

Unanswered

Question 12

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is a defense against recovery in a products liability case?

Negligence A priori Correct Answer

Assumption of a risk Malpractice

Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 13 Wrongfully accusing someone of committing a crime is:

0 / 1 pts


malicious prosecution. Correct Answer

slander per se. false imprisonment. libel.

Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

__________ have more difficulty in pursuing defamation litigation than the average individual.

Coal miners Criminals Public figures Veterans

Correct Answer

Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:34am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a method of payment for services rendered by an attorney predicated on the favorable outcome of a case. Correct Answer

contingency fee collateral fee retainer malpractice cap

Ahead: Contingency Fee Limitations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

For a physician to prevail in a suit against a plaintiff or plaintiff's attorney, the physician must show that:


the suit was frivolous. the motivation of the plaintiff was not to recover for a legitimate injury. the physician has suffered damages as a result of the suit. Correct Answer

All of these are correct.

Ahead: Countersuits: Frivolous Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Frivolous and unscrupulous malpractice suits have caused physicians to:

add risky procedures to their practices. Correct Answer

file countersuits. accept all new patients.

expand their scope of practice.

Ahead: Countersuits: Frivolous Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

Medical staff __________ is the evaluation of a physician's work competence and quality by his or her peers. It is a form of self-regulation and can be accomplished internally by qualified members of an organization's medical staff within in their respective fields of expertise.

privileging licensing credentialing Correct Answer

peer review

Ahead: Reducing the Risks of Malpractice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Physicians argue that contingency fees encourage: Correct Answer

frivolous lawsuits. lower healthcare costs. patients to stay silent about malpractice. good relations between patients and physicians.

Ahead: Contingency Fee Limitations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Several states have modified the collateral source rule in order to:

permit all states to increase the damages payable to a defendants and their families.

increase the amount of damages a plaintiff can sue for. mitigate the damages payable to a plaintiff, thus encouraging excessive recoveries. Correct Answer

limit the damages payable to a plaintiff.

Ahead: Collateral Source Rule Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

Some physicians avoid the performance of high-risk procedures in order to reduce their exposure to malpractice suits. This practice can lead to: Correct Answer

patient difficulties in finding physicians to provide the care they need. overtreatment. lower costs if a malpractice action is filed. substituted judgment.


Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

The type of medicine practiced by physicians designed to limit their exposure to malpractice suits is often referred to in the legal community as:

positive medicine. Correct Answer

defensive medicine. overtreatment. undertreatment.

Ahead: Introduction

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Unlike binding arbitration, the decision of a screening panel is:

not arbitrary, and is not imposed as a condition precedent to trial. conducted in lieu of a trial. Correct Answer not binding and is imposed as a condition precedent to trial, whereas arbitration is conducted in lieu of a trial. binding and is imposed as a condition precedent to trial.

Ahead: Mediation and Arbitration Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 10 Valuable components of a risk management program include:

sympathetic care after accidental injury to a patient.

0 / 1 pts


preparation of incident reports. Correct Answer identification and investigation of patient injuries to assist in reducing the possibility of repetition of the causes leading to injury. identification of the cause of each incident.

Ahead: Reducing the Risks of Malpractice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

_______ is a process whereby a third party attempts to bring a settlement between the parties of a complaint.

Consensus Correct Answer

Mediation Peer review

Risk management

Ahead: Mediation and Arbitration Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

_______ is the process of identifying potential malpractice risks with an emphasis on eliminating or minimizing risks.

Fault assessment Continuous quality assessment Contingency planning Correct Answer

Risk management

Ahead: Reducing the Risks of Malpractice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5


Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

__________ awards are set up for the periodic payment of judgments against defendant(s) by establishing a reversible trust fund payable for specified injuries to the plaintiff(s).

Contingency fee Collateral source rule Joint and several liability Correct Answer

Structured

Ahead: Structured Awards Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

__________ compensates injured parties for economic losses regardless of fault.

Structured compensation Risk compensation Correct Answer

No-fault system Joint and several liability

Ahead: No-Fault System Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

__________ panels evaluate the merits of medical injury claims to encourage the settlement of claims outside the courtroom. Correct Answer

Pretrial screening Mediation Peer review Risk management


Ahead: Medical Malpractice Screening Panels Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5

Quiz Score: 0 out of 15


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Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:35am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a social harm defined and made punishable by law.

tort fine arraignment Correct Answer

crime

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 2 A __________ presents criminal cases to a grand jury

court clerk

0 / 1 pts


defendant judge Correct Answer

prosecutor

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A pharmacist who submits Medicaid claims for reimbursement on brand name medications rather than on the less expensive generic drugs actually dispensed is considered __________.

perjury malpractice wrongful kickback Correct Answer

fraud

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

An individual may not be tried for a felony without indictment by a __________.

judge prosecutor police officer Correct Answer

grand jury

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Beginning in 1989 and continuing into the 1990s, when the AMA Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs


began to pass a series if acts specifically aimed at Physicians' ethical practices, they were targeting __________.

having labs in their offices not accepting Medicaid patients forming boutique practices Correct Answer

self-referrals

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Conditioning the award of a contract on an under-the-table percentage payback to a public official who has the ability to influence who will be awarded the contract is known as a __________.

solicitation arbitration

Correct Answer

criminal negligence kickback

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

Conferencing a case in an attempt to avoid a trial and reach an acceptable conclusion to the parties __________.

indictment arraignment Correct Answer

plea-bargaining deterrent to crime

Unanswered

Question 8 Detectives are assigned to cases when necessary to gather __________.

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

evidence background related cases legal case issues policies, procedures

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Forcible administration of medication to a patient who doesn't consent would be considered __________.

kidnapping the health provider's duty fraud patient abuse

Correct Answer

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

If a health care provider shows reckless disregard for the safety of his patients and intentional indifference to any injury that could follow his act(s), he could be charged with or sued for __________.

assault Correct Answer

criminal negligence tortious interference civil negligence

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts


If a person presents or causes to be presented a false claim to the government, for the purpose of getting the false claim paid by the government, he or she can be charged with violating the __________.

Anti-Kickback Statute Medicare and Medicaid Patient Protection Act of 1987 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Correct Answer

False Claims Act

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

Intentional injection of a lethal dose of a medication by a nurse into a patient is __________.

fraud manslaughter Correct Answer

murder

negligence

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 13 Offense generally punishable by less than one year in jail and/or a fine is a __________.

Correct Answer

misdemeanor misconduct crime felony

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Prosecution of a crime generally begins with __________.

plea bargaining Correct Answer

arrest preliminary conference bail

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

Serious crime generally punishable by one or more years of imprisonment in a state or federal penitentiary is a __________.

misdemeanor

Correct Answer

malicious mischief felony false imprisonment

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 16 Submission of multiple bills for single office visits is a __________.

Correct Answer

fraud perjury criminal negligence tort

0 / 1 pts


Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

The Office of Inspector General, established in the Department of Health and Human Services in 1976, investigates cases of __________.

criminal mischief Correct Answer

Medicare and Medicaid fraud petty theft patient abuse

Complexity: Easy

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

The __________ Act prohibits physicians who have ownership interest or compensation arrangements with a clinical laboratory from referring Medicare patients to that laboratory.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Correct Answer

Ethics in Patient Referral Public Health Services Patient Protection and Affordable Care

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 19 The __________ regulates the process for addressing violations of criminal law.

arraignment arrest process

0 / 1 pts

Subject: Chapter 6


criminal indictment Correct Answer

criminal procedure

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

The component of a crime that refers to the the “guilty mind” is __________.

actus reus res judicata Correct Answer

mens rea re ipsa loquitur

Complexity: Easy

Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

The component of a crime that refers to the “guilty act” is __________.

res ipsa loquitur Correct Answer

actus reus respondeat superior mens rea

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts


The formal reading of the accusatory instrument, including the setting of bail __________.

conference grand jury hearing prosecution Correct Answer

arraignment

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

The instrument accusing the defendant of criminal conduct is the __________.

bill of particulars subpoena Correct Answer

indictment

answer

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 24 The intentional removal of life-support equipment can be considered the crime of __________.

petty theft Correct Answer

murder battery assault

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

The numerous scams in home care fraud are caused by the __________ in supervising services provided in the home,

ease Correct Answer

difficulty reluctance lack of enthusiasm

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 26

0 / 1 pts

To fight health care fraud in both the public and private sectors, Congress passed into law __________.

Fraud Act

FMLA Whistleblower Protection Act Correct Answer

HIPPA

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 27

0 / 1 pts

Upcoding medical supplies and equipment and billing for more expensive equipment than that delivered to patients are examples of __________.

tort res ipsa loquitur Correct Answer

fraud petty theft


Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 28

0 / 1 pts

When a health care facility comingles its funds with those of its patients, it violates its __________ with those patients.

debtor- creditor relationship consent relationship privilege relationship Correct Answer

fiduciary responsibility

Complexity: Easy

Unanswered

Question 29

0 / 1 pts

When members of a hospital council governing body solicit and receive money for special consideration in awarding a project to an architectural firm on a building project, they could be convicted of __________.

negligence mandamus Correct Answer

kickbacks fulfilling his fiduciary responsibility

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Unanswered

Question 30

0 / 1 pts

__________ reckless disregard for the safety of others and the willful indifference to an injury that could follow is defined as a

tort crime

Subject: Chapter 6


fraud criminal negligence

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6

Quiz Score: 0 out of 30

Correct Answer


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Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:35am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a policy that temporarily denies new appointments to the medical staff. Correct Answer

moratorium restraint of trade exclusive contract reduced market approach

Ahead: Hospital Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a special kind of agreement, either written or oral, that involves legally binding obligations between two or more parties.


nondiscriminatory agreement moratorium communique Correct Answer

contract

Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A __________ occurs when there is a violation of one or more of the terms of the contract.

completed contract valid contract Correct Answer

breach of contract

executed contract

Ahead: Breach of Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 4 A contract serves to provide one or more parties with a legal remedy to:

require the parties to a contract not perform their legal obligations pursuant to the terms of the contract. require that all oral agreements to a written contract have more validity then the written contract. Correct Answer

require the parties to perform their legal obligations pursuant to the terms of the contract. prevent compliance with the contractual obligations under the contract.

Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A contract that is inferred by law is a(n): Correct Answer

implied contract. illegal contract. preferred contract. written contract.

Ahead: Types of Contracts Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

A contract used primarily to hedge against the risk up potential loss is a(n):

employment contract. insurance contract.

Correct Answer

medical contract. specified contract.

Ahead: Insurance Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

A contract with a firm of anesthesiologists that requires that all anesthesia services for a hospital's patients be performed by that firm is an example of a(n):

open-ended contract. closed contract. Correct Answer

exclusive contract. inclusive contract.


Ahead: Exclusive Contracts Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

A employee handbook is not generally considered a contract due to the:

mistake of fact. consideration. Correct Answer

disclaimer. article of agreement.

Ahead: Employment Contracts

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

A mistake in law:

is required in order to successfully execute a contract. is an obligatory element of a contract. is a necessary element of a contract. Correct Answer

can result in a nonbinding contract.

Ahead: Conditions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 10 A remedy for nonperformance of a contract generally includes a request for:

Correct Answer

specified performance and monetary damages. redrafting the contract.

0 / 1 pts


nullification of the contract. dissolution of the contract.

Ahead: Nonperformance Defenses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

A valid contract requires:

meeting of the minds. Correct Answer

an offer, consideration, and acceptance. an offer, consideration, and retraction. an offer and acceptance.

Ahead: Elements of a Contract

Unanswered

Question 12

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

0 / 1 pts

Acceptance of a contract requires a meeting of the:

attorneys for the both parties to a contract. Correct Answer

minds. defendants. plaintiffs.

Ahead: Elements of a Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

An agent is one who has the power to construct for and bind another person, who is known as the:


plaintiff. ostensible agent. executor. Correct Answer

principal.

Ahead: Agent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

An agent who is believed to be a third person acting on behalf of the principal is referred to as a(n): Correct Answer

ostensible agent. principal agent. partnership.

solely owned corporation.

Ahead: Agent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 15 An agreement between an employee and employer that specifies the terms of a contract is a(n):

oral agreement. informal contract. unenforceable contract. Correct Answer

employment contract.

Ahead: Employment Contracts Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

An individual who agrees to undertake work without being under the direct control or direction of another and is personally responsible for his or her negligent acts is a(n):

agent. Correct Answer

independent contractor. employee. supervisor.

Ahead: Independent Contractor Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

Contracts, particularly those in writing, serve to minimize misunderstandings and offer a means for parties to:

Correct Answer

provide for irregularities. resolve disputes. solve personal financial issues. institute disputes.

Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

Each party to a contract must give up something of value in exchange for something of value, this is known as the:

meeting of the minds. offer. Correct Answer

consideration. communication.


Ahead: Elements of a Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

If a contract is to be considered valid, an offer must be:

assumed. tacit. Correct Answer

communicated. inferred.

Ahead: Elements of a Contract

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

It is always the desire of all parties to a contract to reduce it to:

a verbal agreement. Correct Answer

writing. an oral understanding. negotiation.

Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 21 Medical staff membership that admits only physicians with academic appointments is a(n):

open staff. Correct Answer

closed staff.

0 / 1 pts


full staff. temporary staff.

Ahead: Hospital Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

The _______ is a federal law that provides that every contract in the form of a trust or otherwise, or conspiracy, in restraint of trade or commerce among the several states is illegal.

Federal Statute Act Commonwealth Antitrust Act Fair Labor Standards Act Correct Answer

Sherman Antitrust Act

Ahead: Restraint of Trade Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

The ability of a corporation to enter into contracts is limited by: Correct Answer

its powers as contained in or inferred from its articles of incorporation. approval requirements. ratification. agents.

Ahead: Corporate Contracts Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts


The ever-increasing number of alternative healthcare delivery systems has resulted in a:

closed market for hospital nurses. wide range of employment opportunities for physicians. Correct Answer wide range of competitive schemes between an employer and employee that are questionable from an antitrust standpoint. failure to admit qualified physicians to medical staff membership.

Ahead: Restraint of Trade Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

When a party to a contract has breached the contract and refuses to or cannot perform, the general rule is that the law will attempt to:

Correct Answer

require specific performance of the contract.

create separate agreements for the parties to the contract.

create a new contract. make the contract nonbinding.

Ahead: Remedies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7

Quiz Score: 0 out of 25


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Graded Quiz 24 Assignments No No Time Limit

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One Question at a Time

No

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Score for this quiz: 0 out of 24

Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:37am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a formal objection by one of the parties of a lawsuit that the evidence presented by the other party is insufficient to support a suit. Correct Answer

demurrer countersuit dismissal plea

Ahead: Demurrer Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a legal document that demands more detailed information than is provided in a complaint.


plea demurrer countersuit Correct Answer

bill of particulars

Ahead: Discovery Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is an order that calls for a written document to be produced by an organization.

summons writ deposition subpoena duces tecum

Correct Answer

Ahead: Subpoenas Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 4 A medical record is an example of:

Correct Answer

documentary evidence. circumstantial evidence. hearsay evidence. expert testimony.

Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A motion for ________ asks a court to rule that there are no facts in dispute and that the rights of the parties can be determined as a matter of law, on the basis of submitted documents, without the need for a trial.

dismissal counterclaim bill of particulars Correct Answer

summary judgment

Ahead: Motions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

A(n) ______ is an individual whose testimony is required because he or she is a specialist in a particular field of knowledge.

hypothetical person average individual Correct Answer

expert witness witness

Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 7 An X-ray machine entered as evidence is a form of:

Correct Answer

demonstrative evidence. firm evidence. circumstantial evidence. hearsay evidence.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

An informal discussion during which the judge and opposing attorneys eliminate matters not in dispute, agree on the issues, and settle procedural matters relating to the trial is a(n):

hearing. examination before trial. deposition. Correct Answer

pretrial conference.

Ahead: Pretrial Conference

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Comparative negligence generally requires that damages among multiple defendants be divided:

equally. 60/40. 50/50. Correct Answer

according to fault (the degree of negligence of each party/defendant to a lawsuit).

Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 10 Evidence furnished by physical things themselves is __________ evidence.

hearsay

0 / 1 pts


documentary testimonial Correct Answer

demonstrative

Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

In a civil suit, the burden of proving a case lies with the:

defendant. Correct Answer

plaintiff. tortfeasor. court.

Ahead: Burden of Proof Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

Questions of law are decided by the: Correct Answer

court . plaintiff's attorney. defendant's attorney. jury.

Ahead: The Courtroom and the Judge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts


The _______ describes the responsibility of the jury and the law applicable to the case heard by the jury, and it advises the jury of the alternatives available to it.

pretrial motion judge's charge court claim Correct Answer

closing statement

Ahead: Judge's Charge to the Jury Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The _______ refers to legislatively imposed time constraints that restrict the period after the occurrence of an injury during which a legal action must be commenced.

summons Correct Answer

statute of limitations

search warrant court request

Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The __________ prescribes that well-known facts (e.g., that fractures need prompt attention and that two X-rays of the same patient might show different results) need not be proven, but, rather, they are recognized by the court as fact.

common law doctrine hearsay rule comparative doctrine Correct Answer

judicial notice rule


Ahead: Judicial Notice Rule Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The common law doctrine that holds a physician, for example, responsible for the acts of a nurse in the operating room when the physician directs the nurse to perform a particular medical act in the operating room, and the nurse then performs it negligently and consequently injures the patient, is the: Correct Answer

borrowed servant doctrine. res ipsa loquitur. Good Samaritan act. statute of limitations.

Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

The person who brings a civil suit seeking damages or other legal relief is the:

judge. court . Correct Answer

plaintiff. defendant.

Ahead: Burden of Proof Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 18 The right to a jury trial is guaranteed by the:

president.

0 / 1 pts


Congress. Correct Answer

U.S. Constitution. U.S. Supreme Court.

Ahead: The Jury Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following can be used to prove the facts of a case?

Hearsay evidence Circumstantial evidence Expert testimony Correct Answer

All of these are correct

Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

_____ damages are awarded to compensate for gross negligence and to deter wrongdoers (e.g., when there is sufficient evidence of the willful and wanton disregard for the rights of others).

Special Exorbitant General Correct Answer

Punitive

Ahead: Awarding Damages Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8


Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

_____ is a legal doctrine that shifts the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant.

Mens rea Correct Answer

Res ipsa loquitur Respondeat superior Duces tecum

Ahead: Res Ipsa Loquitur Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

_______ evidence is based on what another person has said or done, not the result of the personal knowledge of the witness.

Comparative Direct Correct Answer

Hearsay Demonstrative

Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

_______ refers to knowing that a danger exists and voluntarily accepting the risk by taking a chance and exposing oneself to it. Correct Answer

Assumption of a risk Intervening cause Contributory negligence Comparative negligence


Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

__________ is the process of investigating the facts of a case before trial.

Discovery Plea bargaining Demurrer Deliberation

Ahead: Discovery Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8

Quiz Score: 0 out of 24

Correct Answer


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Quiz Type Points Assignment Group Shuffle Answers Time Limit

Graded Quiz 21 Assignments No No Time Limit

Multiple Attempts

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Show Correct Answers

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One Question at a Time

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Score for this quiz: 0 out of 21

Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:38am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A governing body has a(n) __________ responsibility that requires it act primarily for the benefit of the corporation.

independent contractor Correct Answer

fiduciary conflict of interest self-dealing

Ahead: Authority of Corporations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A situation in which a board member or a firm with which he or she is associated may benefit or lose from the passage of a proposed board action could be considered:


restraint of trade. fee splitting. a pocket veto. Correct Answer

conflict of interest.

Ahead: Governing Body Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Assuming the existence of a single nonprofit tax-exempt hospital, any restructuring undertaken normally involves the creation of at least one additional nonprofit tax-exempt entity. This entity may be referred to as a:

medical staff foundation. Correct Answer

parent or holding company. volunteer entity.

capital financing corporation.

Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

Dependence on government funding and related programs (e.g., Medicare, Medicaid, and Blue Cross) and the continuous shrinkage occurring in such revenues have forced hospitals to:

market services to noninsured patients. seek tax-exemption in gift shops. conduct fund-raising activities. Correct Answer

seek alternative sources of revenue.


Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Governing bodies that act beyond their scope of authority, either expressed or implied in law, have committed an:

implied authority act. express act. Correct Answer

ultra vires act. intentional act.

Ahead: Authority of Corporations

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Governing body members must refrain from _______ ; they should not use their membership on the board for their own private gain.

lying Correct Answer

self-dealing autonomy cooperation

Ahead: Governing Body Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 7 Income earned by tax-exempt organizations from nonexempt activities is:

treated differently from that paid by profit-making organizations.

0 / 1 pts


not subject to unrelated business income taxes under the Internal Revenue Code. Correct Answer

subject to unrelated business income taxes under the Internal Revenue Code. subject to only state taxes.

Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Nonprofit healthcare facilities are usually exempt from federal taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the: Correct Answer

Internal Revenue Code of 1986. Department of Tax and Finance. Department of Labor. Health Care Financing Administration.

Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

The doctrine of respondeat superior is analogous to which of the following? Correct Answer

Vicarious liability Res ipsa loquitur Independent contractor status Captain of the ship doctrine

Ahead: Doctrine of Respondeat Superior Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts


Ultimate responsibility for the operation and management of the institution lies with the:

chief executive officer. medical board. executive committee. Correct Answer

governing body.

Ahead: Authority of Corporations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Which governing body committee is delegated authority to act on behalf of the full board?

Audit committee Finance committee Correct Answer

Executive committee

Long-range planning committee

Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 12 Which governing body committee is responsible for developing corporate auditing policies and procedures?

Long-range planning committee Patient care committee Correct Answer

Audit committee Finance committee

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

Which governing body committee is responsible for overseeing the preparation of capital budgets for future years, expansion programs, and acquisition of major equipment?

Patient care committee Correct Answer

Long-range planning committee Finance committee Executive committee

Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Which governing body committee reviews quality of care issues? Correct Answer

Patient care committee Audit committee Infection control committee Long-range planning committee

Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 15 Which of the following applies with regards to duty to care?

Corporations adhere to a different standard than individuals.

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

Corporations and individuals adhere to the same standard. Corporations are held to a higher standard than individuals. Corporations are not bound by duty to care.

Ahead: Corporate Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following holds that an organization is liable if it fails to uphold the proper standard of care owed the patient?

Good Samaritan doctrine Respondeat superior Captain of the ship doctrine Doctrine of corporate negligence

Correct Answer

Ahead: Corporate Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is an informal committee of the governing body consisting of an equal number of representatives from both the executive committees of the governing body and the medical staff?

Bylaw committee Correct Answer

Joint conference committee Executive committee Audit committee

Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9


Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following was passed in 2002 in response to misconduct committed by executives that resulted in massive economic losses to their employees and investors? Correct Answer

Sarbanes-Oxley Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Sherman Antitrust Act Federal Torts Claims Act

Ahead: Corporate Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following, in 1965, was a benchmark case in the healthcare field that had a major impact on the liability of hospitals and physicians?

Roe v. Wade Carrasco v. Bankoff In re Quinlan Correct Answer

Darling v. Charleston Community Hospital

Ahead: Corporate Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a legal doctrine holding employers liable, in certain cases, for the wrongful acts of their employees.

Res ipsa loquitur Mens rea Captain of the ship Correct Answer

Respondeat superior


Ahead: Respondeat Superior Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

__________ is derived from statutes.

Express corporate authority Implied corporate authority Ultra vires acts Exempt acts

Ahead: Authority of Corporations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9

Quiz Score: 0 out of 21

Correct Answer


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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:39am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A doctor fails to inform his patient in a timely manner of a serious condition that turns deadly, fails to refer the patient to a specialist, and performs no further tests. The doctor could be found negligent by reason of: Correct Answer

delaying treatment. strict liability. vicarious liability. misdiagnoses.

Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 2 A physician is:

0 / 1 pts


expected to guarantee the results of his or her treatment. Correct Answer

negligent if his or her treatment is not performed as required by the recognized standard of care. negligent by the mere fact that an adverse result occurred following treatment.

expected to perform novel procedures if he or she decides to do so, regardless of the medical standard across the country.

Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A physician on call in an emergency department is expected to:

ask the emergency department to seek help from another physician. respond to requests for emergency assistance within three business days. Correct Answer respond to requests for emergency assistance when such is considered necessary by the emergency

department. respond after dinner.

Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

A physician who decides to withdraw his services should:

notify the patient's family that he no longer wishes to care for the patient. notify the patient that he is immediately withdrawing his services. Correct Answer

provide the patient with reasonable notice of his or her decision to discontinue the patient's care. have the hospital's patient care representative notify the patient of his decision to discontinue treatment.


Ahead: Discharge and Follow-Up Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A physician's failure to __________ can lead to a patient's death, and thus be the proximate cause of a patient's injuries.

conduct self-evaluations take continuing education courses pass his or her medical board examination Correct Answer

promptly review diagnostic test results

Ahead: Treatment

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

A psychiatrist owes a duty to warn of his patient's danger to a third party if:

the psychiatrist is absolutely sure the patient will not harm the third person. the patient has never harmed others in the past. the patient leaves his office with a positive attitude. Correct Answer

the psychiatrist determines that the patient poses a serious threat of harm to a foreseeable victim or victims.

Ahead: Psychiatry Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 7 A state medical board:

Correct Answer

can permanently revoke a physician's license.

0 / 1 pts


cannot permanently revoke a physician's license.

cannot permanently revoke a physician's license without the concurrence of the hospital in which the physicians practices. must comply with hospital guidelines for removal of a physician's license.

Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Before surgery, if a patient is not told about the risks and benefits of the operation, then: Correct Answer

there has been a failure to provide informed consent. a different course of treatment should be followed. the patient's signature should be obtained after surgery.

it doesn't matter as long as the physician knows the patient's wishes.

Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Medical __________ is the attempt to restore the patient to health following a diagnosis. It is the application of various remedies and medical techniques, including the use of medications for the purpose of treating an illness or trauma.

diagnosis history Correct Answer

treatment assessment

Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10


Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

Patient __________ involves the systematic collection and analysis of patient-specific data that are necessary to determine a patient's care and treatment plan.

diagnosis Correct Answer

assessment follow-up education

Ahead: Patient Assessment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

as an individual state repository of information with the primary purpose of facilitating a comprehensive review of a physician's insurance coverage. to protect physicians who leave one state to practice in another state. Correct Answer as a national repository of information with the primary purpose of facilitating a comprehensive review of physicians' and other healthcare practitioners' professional credentials. as a national repository of information with the primary purpose of facilitating professional licensure.

Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

The National Practitioner Data Bank was created by Congress:


The delineation of clinical privileges is the process by which the medical staff:

evaluates the physician's understanding of medical staff bylaws. Correct Answer

determines precisely what procedures a physician is authorized to perform. determines each physician's mental and physical capacity to be a member of the hospital's ethical staff. determines the physician's ability to work with others.

Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The premature dismissal of a case without notifying the patient can be construed as:

aggravation. delay in treatment.

misdiagnosis. Correct Answer

abandonment.

Ahead: Discharge and Follow-Up Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 14 The probability of malpractice suits against physicians can be reduced by:

guaranteeing treatment outcomes. defensive medicine. Correct Answer

personalized care. increased insurance coverage.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Physician–Patient Relationship Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The ultimate authority for granting clinical privileges rests with the: Correct Answer

governing body. executive team of the medical staff. CEO. president of the medical staff.

Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

When a patient is injured as a result of a physician who's practicing in a clinical area with which he is not familiar, the patient must show that:

the physician was not board certified in that area. Correct Answer the physician failed to meet the standard of care required of the specialty in which the physician was practicing at the time of the injury. he had to arrange for a consultation by another physician. the physician had sloppy recordkeeping practices regarding the patient's care.

Ahead: Patient Assessment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

When a physician fails to perform an adequate history and physical, and the patient suffers injuries as a result of that failure:


the physician cannot be held liable for a patient's injuries resulting from such failure. Correct Answer the physician has violated a standard of care required of physicians and, therefore, can be liable for injuries suffered by the patient. a private practicing physician cannot be liable for injuries suffered. an independent practicing physician cannot be liable for injuries suffered.

Ahead: Patient Assessment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

Which medical staff committee develops blood usage policies and procedures?

Credentials committee Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Infection control committee Blood and transfusion committee

Correct Answer

Ahead: Medical Staff Committee Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following medical staff committees is generally responsible for the development of policies and procedures for the detection, investigation, and control of infections? Correct Answer

Infection control committee Bylaws committee Executive committee Credentials committee


Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following medical staff committees is responsible for developing and/or approving policies relating to the handling and administration of drugs? Correct Answer

Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Institutional review board Executive committee Bylaws committee

Ahead: Medical Staff Organization

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following medical staff committees is responsible for reviewing medical records for timeliness, accuracy, legibility, and completeness?

Executive committee Bylaws committee Peer review committee Correct Answer

Medical records committee

Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following medical staff committees monitors and evaluates utilization issues such as medical necessity and appropriateness of admission and continued stay, as well as delay in the provision of diagnostic, therapeutic, and supportive services?


Tissue committee Medical records committee Correct Answer

Utilization review committee Credentials committee

Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following medical staff committees oversees the application process for new medical staff applicants?

Bylaws committee Correct Answer

Credentials committee Peer review committee

Quality assurance committee

Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following medical staff committees reviews and acts on reports of the various medical staff department chairpersons and designated medical staff committees?

Quality assurance committee Correct Answer

Executive committee Bylaws committee Peer review committee

Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10


Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

__________ is the most common cause of malpractice suits against physicians.

Abandonment Delay in treatment Misdiagnosis Failure to refer to a specialist

Ahead: Diagnosis Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10

Quiz Score: 0 out of 25

Correct Answer


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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:40am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A Navy veteran successfully underwent coronary bypass surgery at the Veterans Affairs Medical Center. However, he was injured as a result of being left unattended for several hours by nursing personnel in the intensive care unit. The veteran suffered anoxic brain injury following a complication with his endotracheal tube. A lawsuit was filed, and the court determined that: Correct Answer the trial court properly required the federal government to make an immediate lump-sum payment of future medical damages to the veteran. there was no evidence of wrongdoing. the trial court's award for damages should be lowered. the trial court erred by awarding the patient a lump sum-payment.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts


A nurse can be found negligent for:

reporting a patient's symptoms. timely reporting a patient' symptoms. correctly transcribing telephone orders. Correct Answer

failure to report defective equipment.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A nurse who fails to follow a doctor's verbal orders to watch a patient closely:

cannot be liable for their negligent act if the patient is injured. Correct Answer

can be liable for their negligent act if the patient is injured. is absolutely not at fault for negligent behavior.

is personally immune from any liable action.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

A nurse who is trained in the delivery of primary health care and the assessment of psychosocial and physical health problems such as the performance of routine examinations and the ordering of routine diagnostic tests is a:

clinical nurse specialist. student nurse. Correct Answer

nurse practitioner. nursing supervisor.


Ahead: Advanced Practice Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A nurse who is uncertain about a physician's medication order should clarify the order with the:

chief of staff. evening administrator. emergency room physician. Correct Answer

prescribing physician.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

A nurse with an advanced academic degree and a major in a specific clinical specialty such as pediatrics or psychiatry is a:

nurse practitioner. nursing care coordinator. special duty nurse. Correct Answer

clinical nurse specialist.

Ahead: Advanced Practice Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

A solution was prepared by an employee and injected into the patient by a physician. The physician made no examination of the fluid, and the patient suffered permanent injuries as a result of the injection. The court determined that the physician was:


responsible for the injury because he should have known what was in the syringe. responsible for the preparation of drugs by employees. responsible for testing all drugs prepared by an employee before administering them. Correct Answer not responsible for drugs prepared by an employee unless he knowingly could have prevented injury to the patient.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Each state has its own nurse practice act that defines the practice of __________ within the state. Correct Answer

nursing a specialty medicine

midwifery

Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 9 Failure to identify the correct patient can result in:

faster patient turnover. Correct Answer

patient injury. improved patient care. the correct administration of medications.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

Mrs. Ard noticed that her husband was having difficulty breathing. He was reeling from side to side in bed. Believing that her husband was dying, she continued to call for help, estimating that she rang the call bell for more than an hour before anyone responded. A code was eventually called. Unfortunately, Mr. Ard did not survive the code. The court most likely determined that:

the failure of the nurses to respond did not affect Mr. Ard's chance of survival. Correct Answer

Mr. Ard's chance of survival had been diminished by the nurse's failure to respond. Mrs. Ard was wrong in her assessment of her husband. the patient's condition was improving.

Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Nurse licensing boards have the authority to suspend or revoke the license of nurses who have:

upheld specified norms of conduct. Correct Answer

procured a license fraudulently. engaged in union activities. been habitually late to work.

Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 12 Some states will not recognize out-of-state licensed nurses and require that all applicants:

Correct Answer

take an examination. provide an endorsement by a colleague. be provided a waiver of examination. be granted reciprocity.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The chief nursing officer is generally responsible for:

selecting nursing staff and developing training programs for engineering staff. maintaining current policy manuals. Correct Answer maintaining standards of practice, maintaining current policy manuals, coordinating and integrating nursing services with other patient care services, and selecting nursing staff. supervising dietary staff.

Ahead: Nursing Careers

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The courts, in several decisions, have taken the position that anyone, including a student who performs duties customarily performed by a professional nurse, is held to the same standard of care as a:

nurse practitioner. nursing aide. student nurse. Correct Answer

professional nurse.

Ahead: Nursing Careers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The formal or informal agreement between states whereby a nurse licensing board in one state recognizes licensees of another state is referred to as:


examination. waiver. endorsement. Correct Answer

reciprocity.

Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

Various states recognize that nurses can render a nursing diagnosis. Where a defendant physician ignores a nurse's assessment of a patient's diagnosis and the patient is injured, the court would most likely determine that:

the delay in treatment of the patient was acceptable behavior. a registered nurse cannot make an assessment of a patient's needs. Correct Answer

the physician, by ignoring the nurse's assessment, contributed to a delay in treatment and injury to the patient. the physician need not respond to the nurse's observations.

Ahead: Scope of Practice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is correct regarding patient discharge?

A nurse has no right to question a physician's decision to discharge a patient. A nurse has no right to delay a physician's decision to discharge a patient. Correct Answer A nurse who has reason to believe a discharge order could be injurious to the patient has a right to question the physician's decision.

A nurse who has reason to believe a discharge order could be injurious to the patient is no position to question a well-educated physician.


Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

__________ enacted the first exclusive Nurse Practice Act. Correct Answer

New York North Carolina New Jersey New Hampshire

Ahead: Scope of Practice

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

__________ enacted the first nurse registration act.

New York California Correct Answer

North Carolina New Jersey

Ahead: Scope of Practice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Unanswered

Question 20 __________ was the first state to approve nurses performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

New York Correct Answer

Hawaii

0 / 1 pts


California North Carolina

Ahead: Scope of Practice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11

Quiz Score: 0 out of 20


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Graded Quiz 24 Assignments No No Time Limit

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Show Correct Answers

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One Question at a Time

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:42am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A ___________ is the formal listing of drugs used in an organization.

generic catalog brand name catalog Correct Answer

formulary pharmaceutical database

Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A chiropractor is required to exercise the same degree of care, judgment, and skill exercised by other reasonable:


surgeons. nurses. orthopedic surgeons. Correct Answer

chiropractors.

Ahead: Chiropractor Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

An objective emergency care are is to:

treat all patients with insurance the same. assess the needs of most patients. Correct Answer

treat patients promptly to prevent deterioration in function and treat all patients regardless of ability to pay.

begin treatment rapidly for insured patients.

Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 4 An organization's laboratory provides:

data vital to a patient's treatment and provides valuable information for research studies. data to help monitor therapeutic ranges. data to measure blood levels for toxicity. Correct Answer

All of these are correct.

Ahead: Laboratory Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Caregivers should be sure to:

share patient information with all visitors. wash their hands at least twice during their shift. repair patient equipment regularly. Correct Answer

be sure their handwriting is legible.

Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

EMTALA requires that a Medicare-provider hospital:

transfer all Medicare patients to a nonparticipating hospital.

provide an appropriate medical screening examination to determine whether an emergency medical condition exists, stabilize the patient, and transfer the patient to another facility, if necessary. transfer the patient first, and then stabilize the patient at the receiving hospital. be careful not to transfer the patient to a facility capable of meeting the patient's needs.

Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 7 Emergency department on-call specialists are expected to:

be within a 2-hour flight of the hospital. rotate off the on-call schedule once annually. respond to calls generally within 36 hours of being contacted. Correct Answer

respond to calls on a timely basis as required by policy.

0 / 1 pts

Correct Answer


Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Emergency rooms are considered vital to public safety; therefore, patients:

can be turned away if they are in the country illegally. can be turned away for not paying required insurance deductibles. Correct Answer

cannot be turned away. can be refused treatment for inability to pay.

Ahead: Emergency Department

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Healthcare organizations are expected to provide patients with diets that:

meet their individual requests. Correct Answer

are prescribed, accurate, and monitored based on needs. are accurately monitored. are of varying nutritional value.

Ahead: Nutritional Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

If a patient decides to leave an emergency department without notice because of a delay in being treated, the courts would generally hold that:

the nurse should have prevented the patient from leaving.


the nurse should have encouraged the patient to make his or her own decision to leave. Correct Answer the patient left the hospital without notice on his or her own accord, and that there is no liability on the part of the hospital if injury occurs as a result of leaving. the hospital should have apologized to the patient for the long wait.

Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Licensing boards have the authority to: Correct Answer

revoke a license for professional or moral misconduct. suspend or revoke a license for professional conduct. revoke a license for legal conduct.

revoke a license for performance of specific actions permitted by statute.

Ahead: Licensure and Certification of Healthcare Professionals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 12 Medication errors can be decreased by:

ensuring that handwriting is illegible. using felt-tip pens. Correct Answer

writing abbreviations according to hospital policy. writing ambiguous orders.

Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970:

places all substances that are regulated under existing federal law into one of nine schedules. Correct Answer

places all substances that are regulated under existing federal law into one of five schedules. provides that Schedule IX drugs are the most dangerous drugs. provides that Schedule VII drugs are the most dangerous drugs.

Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970: Correct Answer

is commonly known as the Controlled Substances Act.

is the same as the Food and drug Administration Act. replaces virtually all preexisting state laws dealing with antibiotics. places all substances that are regulated under existing federal law into one of nine schedules.

Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 15 The _______ forbids Medicare-participating hospitals from “dumping” patients out of emergency departments.

Emergency Labor Act Good Samaritan Act of 1986 Correct Answer

EMTALA Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Emergency Department Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The court of appeals, in the case Stepp v. Review Board of the Indiana Employment Security Division, where the laboratory technician refused to perform chemical examinations on vials with AIDS warnings, found that:

the employee was not dismissed for just cause. the employee was dismissed for just cause. Correct Answer

the laboratory waived its right to compel employees to perform assigned tasks. there was no fair hearing and the employee was unfairly discharged.

Ahead: Laboratory

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

The physical therapist is running behind schedule and is instructed to move patients through a physical therapy session more quickly. The patient says he needs to go to the bathroom, but the therapist informs the 83-year-old patient that he will have to wait until after his 30-minute session. What could the therapist be charged with for refusing to allow a patient to go to the bathroom prior to starting a therapy treatment session?

Pursuasion Intent Fraud Correct Answer

Neglect

Ahead: Physical Therapist Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts


The practice of pharmacy generally involves:

preparation of the hospital's capital budget. reporting drug–drug interactions to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC). collecting lab specimens. Correct Answer

preparation, compounding, and dispensing of medications.

Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

The recognition by a governmental or professional association that an individual's expertise meets the standards of that group is referred to as:

licensure. registration.

Correct Answer

competency. certification.

Ahead: Licensure and Certification of Healthcare Professionals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 20 Under EMTALA, emergency department patients should:

Correct Answer

be stabilized prior to transfer. be transferred immediately. be referred to a clinic if they lack insurance coverage. be asked to return when the emergency department is not so busy.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

When the skills of a specialist are required in an emergency department, hospitals should:

call in the necessary specialist on-call for assistance. If there is no such specialist, the patient should be transferred after stabilizing to an appropriate facility. transfer the patient and notify an on-call specialty physician . transfer the patient immediately. Correct Answer

call the physician assistant on call.

Ahead: Emergency Department

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is a high-risk department that tends to be a main source of lawsuits?

Respiratory therapy Radiology Laboratory Correct Answer

Emergency

Ahead: Emergency Department Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 23 Which of the following is an allied health professional responsible for the treatment, management, diagnostic testing, and control of patients with cardiopulmonary deficits?

0 / 1 pts


Physician's assistant Nurse practitioner Correct Answer

Respiratory therapist Physical therapist

Ahead: Respiratory Therapy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

_______ is the art and science of preventing and treating neuromuscular or musculoskeletal disabilities through the evaluation of an individual's disability and rehabilitation potential.

Activity therapy Physical therapy Respiratory therapy Podiatry

Correct Answer

Ahead: Physical Therapist Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12

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Graded Quiz 22 Assignments No No Time Limit

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Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:43am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A patient's medical record may not be released:

to health insurance companies for reimbursement purposes. to health insurance companies in order to process health claims. Correct Answer

because a person is in the public spotlight (e.g., movie star). for criminal investigative work.

Ahead: Ownership and Release of Medical Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 2 Falsification of medical records is grounds for a:

lawsuit for a negligent act.

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

criminal indictment. tort. contract dispute.

Ahead: Falsification of Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Healthcare organizations undergoing computerization must: Correct Answer develop a disaster recovery plan, provide for data security, design an effective system, and seek input from end users. determine the system in mind with ease of access for patients. select least expensive hardware.

use the most powerful software available.

Ahead: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 4 Medical record entries should __________.

be written within 7 days of observing a patient's deteriorating condition. be written within 21 days of observing a patient's deteriorating condition. Correct Answer

be legible. avoid being too specific.

Ahead: Illegible Handwriting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Ordinary business documents are:

considered privileged. generally protected from discovery by state statutes. Correct Answer

not protected as privileged communications by state statutes.

are considered strictly confidential information, and their contents cannot be exposed except with some exceptions in a court of law.

Ahead: Confidential and Privileged Communications Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Ownership of the medical record resides with the:

provider of care (e.g., hospital, nursing facility).

Correct Answer

facility's legal counsel. patient. nurse rendering care.

Ahead: Ownership and Release of Medical Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 7 Peer review documents are:

discoverable in all states. available to all hospital employees. Correct Answer

generally exempt from discovery. available for public review.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Confidential and Privileged Communications Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Persistent failure of a physician to complete his or her medical records can lead to:

promotion. Correct Answer

suspension of medical staff privileges. breach of confidentiality. improved reimbursement from patience insurance carriers.

Ahead: Illegible Handwriting

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Rewriting record entries:

is a good practice that ensures accuracy. is the right thing to do. will illustrate how conscientious the caretaker is, especially during a lawsuit. Correct Answer

can cast doubt on the accuracy of other medical record entries.

Ahead: Falsification of Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 10 The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 provide that:

patients must be able to access their records and request correction of errors. patients must be informed as to how their personal information will be used.

0 / 1 pts


patient information cannot be used for marketing purposes without the explicit consent of the involved patients. Correct Answer

All of these are correct.

Ahead: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

The Privacy Act of 1974 provides that:

the privacy of individual information is not affected by the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personal information by federal agencies.

the increasing use of computers and sophisticated information technology, while essential to the efficient operations of the government, has in no way harmed individual privacy that can occur from the collection, maintenance, use, or dissemination of personal information.

the opportunities for an individual to secure employment, insurance, and credit, and his right to due process,

and other legal protections have been found safe by the misuse of certain information systems. Correct Answer

the right to privacy is a personal and fundamental right protected by the Constitution of the United States.

Ahead: Privacy Act of 1974 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 12 The Privacy Act of 1974 was enacted to:

safeguard the privacy of healthcare professionals. provide a backup for state records. provide individuals with legal access to federal records. Correct Answer

safeguard individual privacy and discourage misuse of federal records.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Privacy Act of 1974 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 13

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The admission record does not generally describe the patient's:

age. address. Correct Answer

sexual preferences. marital status, religion, and health insurance.

Ahead: Medical Record Contents

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 14

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The advantages of computer systems:

have yet to be recognized. are primarily with patient education programs. Correct Answer

include timely retrieval of demographic information, consultant reports, and test results. ensure that patient records can be accessed by anyone seeking patient information.

Ahead: Electronic Medical Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The effective and efficient delivery of patient care requires that an organization determine its information needs. Organizations that do not centralize their information needs will often experience:

centralized and organized databases.


Correct Answer

scattered databases. consistent reports. efficiency in the use of economic resources.

Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 16

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The integrity and completeness of the medical record are important in reconstructing the events surrounding an alleged negligence or criminal act in the care of a patient. Thus, the medical record can:

aid in police investigations. aid in determining the cause of death. provide information in workers' compensation cases and personal injury proceedings. All of these are correct.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Legal Proceedings and the Medical Record Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 17 The medical record is important to a healthcare facility because it:

is a legal document. is a record of the care and treatment rendered to caregivers. is financially unnecessary. Correct Answer

is an essential tool in the delivery of quality patient care.

Ahead: Medical Record Contents Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 18

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The persistent failure to conform to a medical staff rule requiring physicians to complete records promptly can be the basis for: Correct Answer

limitations on or suspension of medical staff privilege. payment of bonuses. sanctions by the planning board. forcing nurses to complete records.

Ahead: Illegible Handwriting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

The process of facilitating the flow of information within and among departments and caregivers is referred to as:

treatment planning. computerization of financial records. digitized clinical data. Correct Answer

information management.

Ahead: Information Management Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

When making changes to a patient's record:

erasures and correction fluid should be used to cover up entries. try to hide that the record has been corrected. Correct Answer a single line should be drawn through a mistaken entry and the correct information should be entered, signed, and dated. the correction should be signed, but a date is unnecessary.


Ahead: Charting: Some Helpful Advice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 21

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Which of the following applies to patient rights with regard to their medical records?

Patients only have the right to receive a verbal summary of the information in their record. Correct Answer

Patients may have access to review and obtain copies of their records. Patients cannot request the healthcare organization to provide copies of their records. Anyone who is related to the patient may review and obtain copies of the patient's records.

Ahead: Ownership and Release of Medical Records

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following should be included in a patient's medical record?

Long, defensive, or derogatory notes Correct Answer

Facts pertinent to the patient's care Complaints or emotional comments about other caregivers Emotional comments and extraneous remarks

Ahead: Charting: Some Helpful Advice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13

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Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:44am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A limited power of attorney for students authorizes school officials:

not to act as a legal guardian for students on behalf of the parents during a field trip. to seek emergency care for uninjured students during a field trip. Correct Answer

to act in emergency situations on behalf of students under their supervision during a field trip. to act on behalf of the physician in emergency situations during school field trips.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

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Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A patient's refusal to consent to treatment, for any reason, religious or otherwise, should be noted in the: Correct Answer

medical record.


incident report. business office. patient's bill for services rendered.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A touching of another without authorization to do so could be considered:

consensual touching. Correct Answer

battery. assault. implied touching.

Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

Adult patients who are conscious and mentally competent:

have no right to refuse medical care. cannot refuse medical treatment when the best medical opinion deems it essential to life. have to obtain a court order to exercise their right to refuse treatment. Correct Answer

have the legal right to refuse to permit a touching of his or her body.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts


Although hospitals are not generally responsible for informing patients as to the risks, benefits and alternatives to specific procedures, hospitals:

always have a duty to provide patients with informed consent, especially in complicated surgical cases. Correct Answer

in some cases owe a duty to provide patients with informed consent. never have a duty to provide a patient with informed consent. must delegate the need for informed consent to the nursing staff.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

An informed consent form should include:

the nature of the patient's illness or injury and the risks and prognosis if no treatment is rendered.

the procedure or treatment consented to without reference to alternative methods of treatment and their

associated risks and benefits.

the purpose of the proposed treatment, excluding any alternative methods of treatment and their associated risks and benefits. Correct Answer the risks and probable consequences of the proposed treatment; the probability that the proposed treatment will be successful; the signatures of the patient, physician, and witnesses; and the date the consent is signed.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

At the end of the day, and as recognized by the courts, it is the __________ who has the right to accept or refuse treatment based on the alternatives available.

physician hospital Correct Answer

patient ethics committee


Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

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Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Clinical assessment of decision-making capacity should include the patient's ability to: Correct Answer understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a proposed procedure, as well as express his or her treatment preferences. evaluate the information provided by the physician. express his or her family's treatment preferences.

voluntarily make decisions regarding his or her treatment plan pending consent by family, friends, and physician.

Ahead: Patient Consent

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Consent in cases in which immediate action is required to save an unconscious patient's life or to prevent permanent impairment of a patient's health is referred to as __________ consent.

written express Correct Answer

implied verbal

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 10 In the absence of statutory protection, a procedure performed despite an individual's objection to consenting to a procedure beyond which the patient agrees could constitute:

0 / 1 pts


false imprisonment. Correct Answer

battery. fraud. libel.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Informed consent is a legal doctrine that provides that a patient has the right to know the potential:

benefits of a proposed procedure. risks of a proposed procedure. risks, benefits, and compromises of a proposed procedure. risks, benefits, and alternatives of a proposed procedure.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 12 Informed consent is:

used merely as a tool to avoid lawsuits. Correct Answer

designed to allow patients to make an informed decisions. designed to avoid a lawsuit by meeting a legal requirement. used strictly as a legal protection for the physician for unforeseen mishaps during surgery.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 13

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It is preferable that a patient's consent to a surgical procedure be procured by the:

chief orderly. nursing supervisor. Correct Answer

physician. administrator.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Primary responsibility for obtaining informed consent from the patient lies with the:

nurse who will care for the patient following the procedure. physician who will perform the procedure.

Correct Answer

hospital or facility where the procedure will be performed. hospital board members.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The courts generally utilize a subjective or objective test to determine whether a patient would have refused treatment if the physician had provided adequate information as to the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure. Under the subjective test theory,

the court examines whether the defendant would have chosen the procedure based on how the physician explained the procedure to the patient.

the defendant must prove that a “reasonable person” would not have undergone the procedure if they had been properly informed. the court relies solely on the defendant's testimony. Correct Answer


the patient must testify and prove that they would not have consented to the procedure(s) had they been advised of the particular risk in question.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 16

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The courts have held, as a general proposition, that the consent of a minor to medical or surgical treatment is:

effective, and the physician need not secure the consent of the minor's parent. Correct Answer

not necessary when the minor is married or otherwise emancipated. never effective. always valid.

Ahead: Patient Consent

Unanswered

Question 17

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

0 / 1 pts

The ethical rationale underlying the doctrine of informed consent is:

rooted in notions of free speech. Correct Answer

rooted in notions of freedom of choice, liberty, and autonomy. rooted in the capitalist system. to better involve hospital staff, knowing that the staff always knows what is best for the patient.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 18 Verbal consent:

0 / 1 pts


is not as binding as written consent. should be in verified in writing with a written agreement. Correct Answer

is more difficult to corroborate. is invalid.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

What is the physician's duty with regard to a proposed procedure? Correct Answer

The physician has a duty to explain all the potential risks of a proposed procedure. The physician does not have a duty to explain all the possible risks of a proposed procedure. The physician has a duty to explain all the possible risks and benefits of a proposed.

The physician has a duty to explain all the possible benefits, risks, and benefits of a proposed procedure.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

When a physician doubts a patient's capacity to consent,

the consent of the legal guardian or next of kin should seldom be obtained when there are no relatives to consult. Correct Answer it may be the duty of the court to assume responsibility of guardianship for a patient who is non compos mentis. the patient's best friend should act as the legal guardian. any person who is mentally competent can make the decision.


Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

When applying the objective standard of informed consent, Correct Answer one must take into account the characteristics of the plaintiff, including the plaintiff's idiosyncrasies, fears, age, medical condition, and religious beliefs.

the standard to be applied is whether an unreasonable person in the patient's position would have consented to the procedure or treatment in question if adequately informed of all significant perils. the plaintiff's testimony is the sole factor when determining the issue of informed consent. the issue is whether a particular patient would have chosen a different course of treatment.

Ahead: Patient Consent

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

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Question 22

0 / 1 pts

When questions arise as to whether adequate consent has been given, some courts take into consideration the information that is ordinarily provided by other physicians. A physician must: Correct Answer reveal to his or her patient such information as a skilled practitioner of good standing would provide under similar circumstance, including the potential of complications. disclose to the patient the potential for death associated with a particular procedure. disclose the possibility of serious harm associated with a particular procedure. disclose the potential complications associated with a proposed procedure.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts


Which of the following is a defense available to defendants who have been sued on the basis of failure to provide their patients with sufficient information to make an informed decision? Correct Answer

The risk not disclosed is commonly known and does not warrant disclosure.

The patient assured the medical practitioner that he or she would undergo the treatment, procedure, or diagnosis, but wanted detailed information as to the risks involved.

The patient assured the medical practitioner that he wanted to be informed of the matters to which he would be entitled to be informed. Consent by or on behalf of a patient was reasonably possible and should have been discussed in detail.

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

_______ is the voluntary agreement by a person in the possession and exercise of sufficient mental capacity to make an intelligent choice to allow something proposed by another.

Consent.

Correct Answer

Implied consent Express consent Coercion

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 25 __________ consent is the preferred method of obtaining consent.

Express Correct Answer

Written Implied Verbal

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Unanswered

Question 26

0 / 1 pts

__________ consent requires that a patient have a full understanding of that to what he or she has consented.

Written Express Implied Informed

Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14

Correct Answer

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:45am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A 1997 report to the president by the Advisory Commission on Consumer Protection and Quality in the Health Care Industry clearly describes patient:

consent requirements. Correct Answer

responsibilities. recordkeeping requirements. rights.

Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 2 A patient has the responsibility to provide, to the best of his or her knowledge:

0 / 1 pts


incomplete information about present complaints. Correct Answer

information about present complaints and past illnesses and surgical procedures. information on his or her income. information on his or her religious beliefs.

Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A patient has the right to know the names and positions of any:

interns and residents involved in his or her care. physicians involved in his or her care. physical therapists and laboratory technicians involved in his or her care. all caregivers involved in his or her care.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 4 A patient is responsible for those injuries resulting from:

physician negligence. nursing negligence. the hospital's failure to post a patient's bill of rights. Correct Answer

his or her failure to follow physician instructions.

Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Mr. Jones has a right to ask a caregiver:

the caregiver's personal information. to personally drop him off at home. for a list of his roommate's medications. Correct Answer

for clarification of caregiver instructions.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Patients have a right to receive a copy of their:

rights upon admission to the hospital. rights and responsibilities upon admission to the hospital.

Correct Answer

responsibilities upon admission to the hospital. rights, but not responsibilities, when discharged to the next level of care.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 7 Patients have a right to refuse a blood transfusion:

if the physician agrees. Correct Answer

for any or no reason. for moral but not religious beliefs. only in life-threatening situations

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Patients have a right to:

play their TV as loud as they want. have as many visitors as they desire. Correct Answer

change their minds and refuse care. smoke in their rooms.

Ahead: Patient Rights

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Patients have a right to: Correct Answer

a pain management control plan. an assessment of their pain, as long as there is sufficient staff to assess their level of pain. to have their pain medications as often as they want. to determine the strength of medications they wish to take.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 10 Patients have a right to:

privacy, if agreed to by the physician. confidentiality, if agreed to at the time of admission.

0 / 1 pts


request a second opinion, if approved by the hospital's administration. Correct Answer

request a second opinion at any time.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Patients have a right to:

more than three channels of television. a private room. select the nurse they wish to work with. Correct Answer

receive clarification of the physician's orders and explanation of the treatment plan.

Ahead: Patient Rights

Unanswered

Question 12

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

0 / 1 pts

Patients have a right to:

participate some aspects of their care. certain treatment planning, as determined by their physicians. Correct Answer

have special needs addressed. participate in developing hospital policy.

Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 13 Patients in critical condition should not be discharged or transferred to another facility:

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

prior to being stabilized. following stabilization. after financial arrangement have been made to cover the transfer. ever.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Patients must __________ describe the location and severity of their pain, as well as any previous pain management protocols they have followed. Correct Answer

accurately imprecisely incorrectly

not fully describe

Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

Regardless of their ability to pay, patients presenting themselves to a hospital emergency department with acute medical or surgical problems should be:

provided care based on their ability to pay politely requested to return later in the day when a bed is available. Correct Answer

treated as any other patient requested to apply for Medicaid prior to treatment

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15


Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 provides that each individual has a right under state law, whether statutory or as recognized by the courts of the state, to:

make decisions concerning another's medical care. Correct Answer

accept or refuse care and formulate advance directives. make decisions concerning his or her medical care only if approved by the physician. make no decisions concerning his or her medical care.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

When obtaining information about hospital emergency room, outpatient, and inpatient treatment charges, patients:

must first obtain written permission from the treating physician before the records will be released. must first file for bankruptcy. must not see the actual costs. Correct Answer

have a right to full transparency.

Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

Question 18 When the admitting hospital is unable to meet a patient's particular needs, the patient:

has a right to be transferred to a hospital that can meet his or her needs. Correct Answer

does not have a right to be transferred to a hospital that can meet his or her needs. does not have the right to be discharged. can sue the hospital.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 19 Which of the following applies to self-administration of prescription medication?

Patients are expected to self-medicate when running a temperature, even if they have not been prescribed a medication by a physician. Patients are required to self-administer medications that have not been prescribed by a physician. Patients must not self-administer medications that have not been prescribed by a physician.

Patients must self-medicate when the pain level reaches a level 4 or higher on the pain scale, even if pain medications have not been prescribed by a physician.

Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15

Correct Answer

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:45am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A more global view of right and wrong is referred to as:

conflicting judgments. moral judgments. religious ethics. Correct Answer

macroethics.

Ahead: Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A person who has moral integrity and a strict regard for doing what is considered the right thing to do is a __________ person.


truthful Correct Answer

conscientious perverse discerning

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Determining what moral standards should be followed so that human behavior and conduct may be morally right is referred to as __________ ethics.

utilitarian situational consequential normative

Correct Answer

Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

The __________ theory of ethics denies that the consequences of an action or rule are the only criteria for determining the morality of an action or rule.

consequential Correct Answer

nonconsequential normative utilitarian

Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

To show special regard to someone or something is to be __________.

disrespectful. Correct Answer

respectful. insolent. impertinent.

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

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Question 6

0 / 1 pts

When caring for the dying, relatives may perform rituals. In death, jewelry, sacred threads, or other religious objects should not be removed from the body. Washing the body is part of the funeral rites and should be carried out by the relatives. Such acts are practiced in:

Taoism Judaism Buddhism Correct Answer

Hinduism

Ahead: Religious Ethics and Spirituality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 7 _______ are situations where a choice must be made between unpleasant alternatives.

Legislative stalemates Situational ethics Difficult situations Correct Answer

Ethical dilemmas

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

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Question 8

0 / 1 pts

_______ is the quality of being considerate and sympathetic to another's needs.

Steadfastness Perseverance Correct Answer

Kindness Justness

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

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Question 9

0 / 1 pts

_______ judgment is concerned with what an individual or group believes to be the right or proper behavior in a given situation.

Consequential Ethical Correct Answer

Moral Situational

Ahead: Morality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

__________ are standards or codes of conduct established by the membership of a specific profession.

Professional statements


Determinant ethics Correct Answer

Professional ethics Descriptive ethics

Ahead: Professional Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

__________ focus(es) on the inherent character of a person rather than on the specific actions that he or she performs. Correct Answer

Virtue Bioethics Self-esteem

Constitutional ethics

Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

__________ implies that a person accepts differences in others and that one does not expect others to believe, think, speak, or act as himself or herself. Correct Answer

Positive tolerance Negativity Sternness Hopelessness

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16


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Question 13

0 / 1 pts

__________ implies that one will reluctantly put up with another's beliefs. In other words, they simply tolerate the view of others.

Beneficence Positive tolerance Implied authority Correct Answer

Negative tolerance

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a form of beneficence. People, often believing that they know what is best for another, often make decisions that they believe are in that person's best interest.

Morals Compassion Correct Answer

Paternalism Kindness

Ahead: Principles of Healthcare Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a guide to behavior that all rational people should put forward to govern their behavior. Correct Answer

Morality Religion Philosophy Compassion


Ahead: Morality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

__________ is an individual's view of what is right and wrong based on life experiences. Correct Answer

Microethics Bioethics Moral ethics Benevolent ethics

Ahead: Ethics

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

__________ is based on the New Testament of the bible. Correct Answer

Christianity Judaism Taoism Falun Gong

Ahead: Religious Ethics and Spirituality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 18 __________ is confidence that a person will act with the right motives.

Compassion Correct Answer

Trust

0 / 1 pts


Paternalism Wisdom

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

__________ is looking forward to something with the confidence of success. Correct Answer

Hopefulness Helpfulness Truthfulness Completeness

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength

Unanswered

Question 20

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

0 / 1 pts

__________ is the ability to make a good decision without personal biases, fears, and undue influences from others.

Fidelity Determination Correct Answer

Discernment Wisdom

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts


__________ is the application of normative theories to practical moral problems.

Consequential ethics Correct Answer

Applied ethics Meta-ethics Descriptive

Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

__________ is the deep awareness of and sympathy for another's suffering.

Kindness Helpfulness Compassion

Correct Answer

Gratitude

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 23 __________ is the obligation to be fair in the distribution of benefits and risks.

Paternalism Fairness Injustice Correct Answer

Justice

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Principles of Healthcare Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 24 __________ is the steadfast adherence to a strict moral or ethical code and a commitment not to compromise this code.

Correct Answer

Integrity Intuition Wisdom Fidelity

Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

__________ serves as a moral purpose by providing codes of conduct for appropriate behavior through revelations from a divine source.

Professional ethics Science Correct Answer

Religion Government

Ahead: Religious Ethics and Spirituality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16

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Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:46am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A wrongful life claim can be brought by the parents or child claiming: Correct Answer

harm suffered by being born. child abuse. economic harm. eugenics of disabled persons.

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 2 Arkansas code defines partial-birth abortion as an abortion:

0 / 1 pts


in which the person performing the abortion vaginally delivers a living fetus and takes the life of the fetus after completing the delivery. in which all parties of the abortion are to be held harmless for performing the abortion. Correct Answer in which the person performing the abortion partially vaginally delivers a living fetus before taking the life of the fetus and completing the delivery. in which the abortion is performed during the first trimester.

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Artificial insemination is:

the result of an early abortion. Correct Answer

the injection of seminal fluid into a woman to induce pregnancy. illegal by federal law.

rarely successful.

Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 4 Current eugenic sterilization statutes:

allow for the performance of castration. provide for salpingectomy as the preferred method of castration. permit castration in most cases. Correct Answer

provide for vasectomy or salpingectomy as the preferred method of castration.

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Damages sought for a negligently performed sterilization might include:

damages for the birth of an unwanted child. Correct Answer

expenses related to the negligent performance of the sterilization. birth of a healthy child. the father's loss of consortium.

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

In 1992, the U.S. Supreme Court in Planned Parenthood of Southeastern Pennsylvania v. Casey, determined that:

in asserting an interest in protecting fetal life, a state may not place any restrictions on previability abortions. Correct Answer the state has the power to restrict abortions after fetal viability, as long as the law contains exceptions for pregnancies that endanger a woman's life or health. the rights of the fetus are greater than the mother's rights. the father's rights are equal to those of the fetus.

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts


In H.L. v. Matheson, the Supreme Court ruled that it is not an undue burden to require that:

a woman be informed of the nature of the abortion procedure and the risks involved. a woman be offered information on the fetus and on the alternatives to abortion. Correct Answer a statute setting out a mere requirement of parental notice when possible does not violate the constitutional rights of an immature, dependent minor. a woman give her informed consent before the abortion procedure.

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

In Oklahoma, artificial insemination statues specify:

that sterilization is prohibited by law.

that local ordinances must be developed to govern the sterilization process. that all records must be remain public. Correct Answer that a original copy of the consent be filed pursuant to the rules for the filing of adoption papers and is not to be made a matter of public record.

Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 9 Physicians are feeling the heat:

Correct Answer

for performing elective abortions. for charging too much for abortions. for performing abortions in outpatient clinics. for performing early abortions without consent.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

Sterilization for eugenic purposes: Correct Answer

should be performed as provided for in a state's statutes. should never be performed unless provided for by hospital policy. should be performed strictly in an outpatient clinic. should be performed on all prisoners who have committed a felony.

Ahead: Sterilization

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Sterilizations are often sought due to:

economic necessity. Correct Answer

economic, genetic, and/or economic reasons. genetic reasons. personal reasons.

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

The Supreme Court reaffirmed the constitutional right of women to have an abortion before viability of the fetus, as first annunciated in Roe v. Wade, in:

Bellotti v. Baird.


Harris v. McRae. H.L. v. Matheson. Correct Answer

Planned Parenthood v. Casey.

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that it is unconstitutional to require all women under the age of 18 to obtain parental consent in writing prior to obtaining an abortion in:

Roe v. Wade. Correct Answer

Danforth v. Planned Parenthood. Doe v. Bolton.

Maher v. Roe.

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The provisions of the Georgia statute establishing residency requirements for women seeking abortions and requiring that the procedure be performed in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals were declared constitutionally invalid in:

Roe v. Wade. Danforth v. Planned Parenthood. Correct Answer

Doe v. Bolton. Maher v. Roe.

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17


Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The sterilization of persons within certain classes or categories (e.g., mentally deficient) and not requiring patient consent is __________ sterilization.

therapeutic moral Correct Answer

eugenic ethical

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The surgical technique to prevent a male or female from having the ability to produce offspring is:

artificial insemination. tubal blockage. Correct Answer

sterilization. contraception.

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 17 Therapeutic sterilizations due to medical necessity are performed:

to protect the health of the woman. to remove diseased organs. Correct Answer

to protect one's health and remove diseased organs. to limit population growth.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

Voluntary sterilization is the subject of many debates:

due to congressional objection. due to the high of cost of the procedure. Correct Answer

as a result of religious, moral, and ethical issues. due to objection by the state in which the person seeking an abortion resides.

Ahead: Sterilization

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is correct with regards to employees and whether they participate in performing an abortion?

Employees must participate in all abortions. Employees must participate in abortions as a matter of conscience. Employees must participate in abortions for religious reasons. Correct Answer

Employees can refuse to participate in abortions for conscience, religious, or moral conviction.

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 20 _____ sterilization is performed due to medical necessity.

eugenic

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

therapeutic ethical moral

Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

_______ is the injection of seminal fluid into a woman to induce pregnancy.

False intercourse Heterologous insemination Homologous insemination Correct Answer

Heterologous or homologous insemination

Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

_______ is when the semen of a man who is not the woman's spouse or partner is used to impregnate the woman.

Homologous insemination Correct Answer

Heterologous insemination Eugenic sterilization Therapeutic insemination

Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17


Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 23 _______ is when the semen of a woman's spouse or partner is utilized to impregnate the woman.

Correct Answer

Homologous insemination Heterologous insemination Eugenic insemination Surrogacy

Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

________ is the premature termination of a pregnancy.

Artificial insemination Correct Answer

Sterilization

Abortion Preeclampsia

Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:47am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A __________ is a form of surrogate decision-making where the surrogate attempts to establish what decision the patient would have made if that patient were competent to make a decision.

living will Correct Answer

substituted judgment durable power of attorney do not resuscitate order

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 2

0 / 1 pts

A __________ permits one individual, known as the “principal,” to give to another person, called the “attorney-in-fact,” the authority to act on his or her behalf.


Correct Answer

durable power of attorney consent form living will contract duces tecum

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A court can declare a person incompetent and appoint a(n) __________ to act in his or her best interests.

minor attorney Correct Answer

guardian

nurse

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 4 Any glimmer of uncertainty as to a patient's desire in an emergency situation should be:

to contact family members prior making any treatment decisions. Correct Answer

resolved in favor of preserving life. to provide a blood transfusion regardless of religion and need for such a transfusion. to provide minimal care.

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

Because of the number of controversial cases dealing with euthanasia, in 1974 the American Medical Association accepted that death occurs:

when all heart function ceases. when a person is in a persistent vegetative state. Correct Answer

upon the cessation of all brain function, including the brain stem. when a person has a terminal illness with no chance of survival and certain death is imminent.

Ahead: Defining Death Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Federal regulations require hospital-based researchers to obtain the approval of a(n) __________ prior to conducting clinical trials.

ethics committee medical board governing body Correct Answer

institutional review board

Ahead: Research, Experimentation, and Clinical Trials Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

If a patient has been informed that without a blood transfusion she will die, and she refuses blood and the court orders the transfusion, the order is wrong based on the patient's right to:

privacy. life. Correct Answer

self-determination. freedom of religion.


Ahead: Patient Autonomy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

In a departure from the Quinlan decision, with regard to the necessity for court intervention and an incompetent's right to refuse treatment, which case decided that judicial proceedings should take place only when medical treatment can offer a reasonable expectation of cure or relief from the illness?

Saikewicz Satz v. Perlmutter John F. Kennedy Memorial Hospital v. Bludworth Correct Answer

In re Dinnerstein

Ahead: Patient Autonomy

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

In order for a court to determine that an incompetent person desired to decline extraordinary medical care, that desire would be best served if the patient:

failed to appoint a surrogate decision-maker. Correct Answer

had executed a living will. signed a do-not-resuscitate order while unconscious. allowed the physician to make the decision.

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 10 Physician-assisted suicide was first legalized in which U.S. state?

0 / 1 pts


Washington Correct Answer

Oregon Massachusetts Florida

Ahead: Physician-Assisted Suicide Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

The __________ held in June 1990 that the U.S. Constitution does not forbid Missouri from requiring that there be clear and convincing evidence of an incompetent's wishes as to the withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment before removing such treatment.

U.S. District Court Correct Answer

U.S. Supreme Court Missouri Supreme Court

U.S. Court of Appeals

Ahead: Constitutional Right to Refuse Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

The __________ of 1990 provides that patients have a right to formulate advance directives and to make decisions regarding their health care. Correct Answer

Patient Self-Determination Act Right to Die Act Euthanasia Act Substituted Judgment Act


Ahead: Legislative Response Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

The __________ published a report outlining the symptoms of an irreversible coma.

World Medical Association Correct Answer

Harvard Ad Hoc Committee on Brain Death National Institute of Health Kennedy Institute of ethics

Ahead: Defining Death

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The __________ strives to provide viable alternatives that will lead to the optimal resolution of many difficult dilemmas facing patients, including end-of-life issues.

medical board Correct Answer

ethics committee conflict resolution committee community outreach committee

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 15 The court In re Quinlan determined that:

Karen and Quentin was in a coma and could not make her own decisions.

0 / 1 pts


every adult of sound mind has a right to determine what should be done to his or her body. Correct Answer in light of the prognosis (physicians determined that Karen Quinlan was in an irreversible coma), the state's interest did not justify interference with her right to refuse treatment. the patient could be operated on without giving informed consent, even if in a coma.

Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The word euthanasia originates from the Greek word euthanatos, meaning: Correct Answer

“good death.” “suicide.” “happy life.”

“manslaughter.”

Ahead: Euthanasia Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

When a new drug of unknown effectiveness is administered to a patient despite other known effective drugs being available, the defendant(s) can be held liable for damages if it can be established that the defendant(s):

failed to warn the patient of the benefits associated with the drug. Correct Answer

failed to obtain informed consent from the patient. failed to use the known less risky drugs. knew the risks and informed the family of those risks.

Ahead: Research, Experimentation, and Clinical Trials Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18


Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

When a patient is in an irreversible coma and his or her right to refuse treatment is in question, the court balances:

whether the patient's stated desires are contrary to those of his or her family. Correct Answer the state's interest in preserving and maintaining the sanctity of human life against the patient's right to selfdetermination.

the ethics committee's recommendations against the hospitals cost analysis of keeping the patient on a respirator. what other reasonable people would have wanted in the patient's position against what the family is seeking.

Ahead: Patient Autonomy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Correct Answer

Withdrawal of treatment should be considered:

if restoration of cardiac function will last only for a brief time. when balancing the interests of various family members. based on the patient's age. based on individual physician preferences.

Ahead: Withdrawal and Withholding of Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts


_______ is the act or practice of painlessly putting to death a person suffering from an incurable condition.

Insemination Eugenics Murder Correct Answer

Euthanasia

Ahead: Euthanasia Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

_______ was a physician who claimed to have assisted 130 patients in committing suicide after suffering years of tormenting pain.

Derek Humphrey

Timothy Quill John Grossman Correct Answer

Jack Kevorkian

Ahead: Physician-Assisted Suicide Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

__________ describes the study of inheritance as it occurs in human beings. It includes such areas as stem cell research, clinical genetics (e.g., genetic disease markers), and molecular genetics.

Stem cell research Correct Answer

Human genetics Biotechnology Cloning


Ahead: Human Genetics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

__________ involves the use of embryonic stem cells to create organs and various body tissues.

Organ donation Artificial insemination Polymerase chain reaction Correct Answer

Stem cell research

Ahead: Stem Cell Research

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a decision not to initiate treatment or medical intervention for the patient. Correct Answer

Withholding of treatment Continuation of an aggressive treatment plan Withdrawal of treatment Removal of treatment

Ahead: Withholding and Withdrawal of Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

__________ is a postmortem examination conducted to ascertain the cause of death. Most states have enacted consent statutes that establish an order to obtain consent based on the degree of family relationship.

Stem cell infusion


Organ donation Autopsy Cremation

Ahead: Autopsy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18

Quiz Score: 0 out of 25

Correct Answer


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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:48am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A sentinel event in a healthcare setting is:

an expected occurrence of improved health. Correct Answer

an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof. an unexpected earthquake. an unanticipated improvement in patient status.

Ahead: Sentinel Events Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 2 Any report of suspected child abuse must be made based on:

a good-faith belief that the injuries were accidental.

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

a good-faith belief that injuries were not accidental. knowledge that the healthcare practitioner is acting from his or her desire to harass child's parents. knowledge that the healthcare practitioner is acting on the wrong assumptions.

Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

Because most states have enacted statutes mandating the reporting of elder abuse, elder abuse is:

slightly more reported than child abuse. more likely to be reported than child abuse. Correct Answer

less likely to be reported than child abuse. reported as frequently as child abuse.

Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

Births and deaths are reportable:

by local ordinance. by a hospital's tissue committee. by a hospital's autopsy committee. Correct Answer

according to applicable statutes.

Ahead: Births and Deaths Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts


Caregivers who suspect abuse:

are not expected to report their findings. Correct Answer

should note the symptoms and conditions of suspected abuse in a clear and objective manner. should keep personal notes as to their observations. should be vague in their reporting of symptoms and conditions of suspected abuse.

Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

Elder abuse is: Correct Answer

any form of mistreatment that results in harm or loss to an older person. any form of mistreatment that results in harm or loss to a child. rare.

legal.

Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 7 How many U.S. states have enacted child abuse laws?

Correct Answer

50 49 18 35

Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Incident reports contain statements made by employees and physicians regarding: Correct Answer

deviation from acceptable patient care. best practices. investigative reporting of hospital acquired infections. regulatory statutes.

Ahead: Incident Reporting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Incident reports should:

be filed in the patient's medical record, with a copy sent to the hospital's legal counsel.

provided to the patient. be placed in the medical record. Correct Answer

not be placed in the medical record.

Ahead: Incident Reporting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 10 Information reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank:

is not confidential. can be disclosed to all third parties. Correct Answer

is considered strictly confidential and cannot be disclosed except as specified in the NPDB regulations. is often inaccurate.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Most states have enacted laws that require the reporting of actual or suspected cases of: Correct Answer

some communicable diseases. the common cold. smallpox. poison ivy.

Ahead: Communicable Diseases

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

Signs of elder abuse or neglect include:

an expectation of death from natural causes and no hesitation to talk openly. plausible explanations of injuries. a calm demeanor. Correct Answer

dehydration and/or malnourishment in the absence of an illness-related cause.

Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 13 The Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 was enacted:

to improve the quality of medical care. to encourage physicians to participate in peer review.

0 / 1 pts


to restrict incompetent physicians' ability to move from state to state. Correct Answer to improve the quality of medical care by encouraging physicians to participate in peer review and by restricting incompetent physicians' ability to move from state to state without disclosure or discovery of their previous substandard performance or unprofessional conduct.

Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

The National Practitioner Data Bank was created by Congress as a national repository of health information:

on elder abuse. Correct Answer

to facilitate a comprehensive review of healthcare practitioners' professional credentials. on sex offenders.

on communicable diseases.

Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The court in Marks v. Tenbrunsel ruled that information learned during a private counseling session:

would remain confidential. would not be open to public review. Correct Answer

would not necessarily remain confidential. would be reported to other family members.

Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19


Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The director of nursing at a nursing facility was fined for failure to report an instance of patient neglect. In one incident, a patient had been left unattended in a shower by an orderly, and the patient sprayed himself with hot water, which resulted in second-degree burns on his forehead. Upon investigation, the department of health determined that: Correct Answer

the incident constituted patient neglect. the incident did not merit reporting. failure to report these incidents was not a violation of public health law. the incident was too minor to be reported.

Ahead: Incident Reporting Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

Unnatural deaths must be referred to a(n) _______ for review.

administrator pathologist Correct Answer

medical examiner tissue committee

Ahead: Births and Deaths Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 18 What is the rationale behind state statutes requiring the reporting of communicable diseases?

To protect citizens' health by restricting movement in public places Correct Answer

To quarantine patients with communicable diseases to prevent the spread of a disease To ensure some reporting of infection or disease To quarantine patients with noncommunicable diseases and ensure reporting of infection or disease

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Communicable Diseases Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Which federal law specifies the minimum standards that states must incorporate into their definitions of child abuse and neglect?

Child and Elder Abuse Act Victims Awareness Act Federal Abuse Act Correct Answer

Federal Child Abuse and Treatment Act

Ahead: Child Abuse

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following are physical and behavioral indicators of child abuse and maltreatment? Correct Answer

A pattern of bruises, burns, and broken bones Cigarette burns only Lack of broken arms, legs and skull injuries Bruises from sporting events

Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 21 Which of the following entities can query the National Practitioner Data Bank?

State licensing boards only

0 / 1 pts


All persons wishing to learn more about a physician's malpractice history Professional societies only Correct Answer

Hospitals, state licensing boards, and professional societies

Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 22 Which of the following qualifies as child abuse?

Intentional serious mental injury not inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care Correct Answer

Emotional injury inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care. Sexual injury not inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care. Physical injury not inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care.

Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following would not be considered child abuse?

Failure to provide a child with access to the Internet Endangering a child's morals Emotional injury Correct Answer

Neglect through starvation

Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19

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Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:49am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A _______ contract permits the hiring of nonunion employees but requires that new employees join the union.

closed-door open-door closed-shop Correct Answer

union-shop

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 2 A _______ contract provides that only members of a particular union may be hired.

0 / 1 pts


union-shop open-door Correct Answer

closed-shop closed-door

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A tort claim for wrongful discharge was stated when the employee/plaintiff was discharged wrongfully from her position in retaliation for threatening to report to state authorities instances of alleged patient mistreatment. In such cases,

an employer may discharge an employee for fulfilling societal obligations or in those instances in which the employer acts with a socially undesirable motive. it is absolutely against the employee's right to be to be treated fairly.

it is in compliance with the employment-at-will doctrine. Correct Answer an employer may not discharge an employee for fulfilling societal obligations or in those instances in which the employer acts with a socially undesirable motive.

Ahead: Wrongful Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

A whistleblower is a person who provides information to a public entity about the company that he or she believes evidences: Correct Answer

a gross waste of funds, abuse of authority, or a specific danger to public safety. failure to provide adequate salary increases based on the cost of living. writing confusing employment policies. failure to provide high-quality care in all medical specialties.


Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A(n) _______ is the denial of a right that is imputed to a person or that is alleged to belong to him or her.

tort employment policy union policy Correct Answer

employment disclaimer

Ahead: Defending a Claim for Unfair Discharge

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

An employee can be denied unemployment benefits as a result of being terminated:

for appropriate work attendance, even though the employee's recent absence had been excused. Correct Answer

for poor work attendance and inability to work with others. for acceptable work performance. for having the ability to work with others.

Ahead: Unemployment Compensation Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 7 An employee can be terminated with no recourse if:

the employer gave 60 days' notice and one month severance pay. the employee was participating in union activities.

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer

the termination was for financial reasons or other legitimate business reasons. the workforce was being changed from exempt to nonexempt status.

Ahead: Termination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

An employee who believes that he or she has been unfairly discharged will most likely seek access to the following information in defense of his or her claim:

minutes of pertinent meetings. written reports and typed and handwritten notes.

personnel file, tapes, handwritten notes, employee handbook, and oral testimony from fellow employees and supervisors. All of these are correct.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Defending a Claim for Unfair Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

An organization's affirmative action plan would not include:

the collection and analysis of data on the race and sex of all applicants for employment. Correct Answer

discrimination on the basis of race or color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or veteran status.

a statement in the personnel policy/procedure manuals and employee handbooks that would read, for example, "Health Care Facility, Inc., is an equal opportunity/affirmative action employer.”

nondiscrimination on the basis of race or color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or veteran status.

Ahead: Affirmative Action Plan Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20


Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

Any attempt to limit, segregate, or classify employees in any way that would tend to deprive any individual of employment opportunities is:

not contrary to public policy. Correct Answer

contrary to public policy. in tune with public policy. unfortunately how some managers think, but is not contrary to public policy.

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Caregivers are expected to:

report unethical conduct.

Correct Answer

assume responsibilities beyond their capabilities. be paternalistic at all times. honor family wishes over patient wishes.

Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 12

0 / 1 pts

Caregivers have a right to refuse to participate in certain aspects of patient care and treatment when there is a conflict:

with one's paternalistic views. for no particular reason or beliefs. with one's personal opinion. Correct Answer

with one's ethics or religious beliefs .


Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

Caregivers have a right to:

smoke in prohibited areas. refuse to work on weekends. practice their own hand washing techniques. Correct Answer

refuse to participate in abortions.

Ahead: Employee Rights

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Carlie was terminated for making a good-faith report as to the hospital's noncompliance with the drug inventory and recordkeeping requirements required under Oregon regulations. Which of the following is true?

Her report fulfilled an unimportant societal obligation. Correct Answer

Carlie's employer may not discharge her for making such a report.

The employer's conduct, including false statements that Carlie was a drug addict, would be an acceptable reason for terminating Carlie. This case should have been prevented from going forward, favoring the employer's actions.

Ahead: Employment-at-Will Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 15 Decisions to grant unemployment benefits are based on:

0 / 1 pts


how much the employee was earning. what the employer says about the employee. the length of time the employee was unemployed. Correct Answer

fair dealing with the employee.

Ahead: Unemployment Compensation Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

Discharge of employees on the basis of disability, age, race, color, religion, sex, national origin, pregnancy, union membership, and reporting safety violation with various governmental agencies is prohibited by __________ policy.

private Correct Answer

public contract

implied

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 17 Employees are responsible for maintaining professional relationships with:

families. patients and families. Correct Answer

patients, family, physicians, and coworkers. physician consultants.

Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

Employees do not have a right to:

organize and bargain collectively. Correct Answer

solicit and distribute union information during working hours. picket. strike.

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

Employees have a right to:

three daily coffee breaks. be free from sexual harassment.

Correct Answer

come to work at least 15 minutes late. above average evaluations.

Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

Employees need to comply with sterile technique protocols because: Correct Answer of the serious nature of infections and the need to comply with hygiene requirements designed to meet the safe delivery of patient care. OSHA and the CDC require it. the Joint Commission requires it. of the low number of injuries and deaths resulting from infections.


Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 21

0 / 1 pts

Employees who become the targets of a vindictive supervisor often have difficulty proving a bad-faith motive. In an effort to reduce the probability of wrongful discharge, Correct Answer some states have enacted legislation that protects employees from terminations found to be arbitrary and capricious.

some states have enacted legislation that fail to protect employees from terminations due to the arbitrary and capricious nature of their employers.

some employers seem to have an unfettered right to make it difficult for employees to work for them in an attempt to mask their true intentions behind a veil of secrecy. some managers conjure up untruths in order to deceive their superiors.

Ahead: Retaliatory Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

Employees who feel they have been discriminated against under the Equal Pay Act may file a complaint:

with an individual on behalf of the employee. with the Department of Health and Human Services. on their own behalf. Correct Answer

with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts


Employees–employer relationships are regulated by:

local ordinances only. Correct Answer

both state and federal laws. state laws only. federal laws only.

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts

Employers have a responsibility to: Correct Answer

treat employees with dignity and respect. intimidate employees in the workplace. abuse employees.

communicate veiled threats to employees in the workplace.

Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

Even when a contracted employee's job is secure and job performance is satisfactory, the employee can be terminated with no recourse if:

the employee gives 60 days' notice and one month severance. the employee wanted to bring in a union. Correct Answer

it is for financial reasons or other legitimate business reasons. the workforce was being changed from exempt to nonexempt status.


Ahead: Employment-at-Will Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 26

0 / 1 pts

Healthcare professionals have a clear legal and moral obligation to:

provide confidential information with any hospital employee that requests it. Correct Answer

adhere to the organization's privacy and confidentiality policies. share confidential information with their families. share confidential information with their volunteers.

Ahead: Employee Responsibilities

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 27

0 / 1 pts

Hospitals can protect themselves from successful wrongful discharge litigation by:

creating manuals for fire safety. Correct Answer inserting specific disclaimer language in their employee handbooks and having contractual relationships with employees. not having a personnel manual. requiring strict time clock requirements.

Ahead: Defending a Claim for Unfair Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 28

0 / 1 pts

Ideally, questionable requests not to participate in a patient's care should be considered for review by the:

medical executive committee.


nursing director. Correct Answer

hospital's ethics committee. organization's chaplain.

Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 29

0 / 1 pts

Liability for discrimination in employment:

is limited to males. cannot be applied in hospitals. has been resolved through implementation of new statutory requirements/ Correct Answer can be applied in situations in which discriminatory practices can affect the ability of a nonemployee to obtain a

job with a third party.

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 30 Most employment-related litigation could be avoided if:

employers paid better salaries to their employees. employees were given better healthcare benefits and other incentives, such as more vacation time. employers communicated better with employees. Correct Answer

employers developed better hiring, disciplining, and terminating policies and procedures.

Ahead: Effective Hiring Practices Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 31

0 / 1 pts

Sexual conduct becomes unlawful when: Correct Answer

it is unwelcome by the victim. the victim solicits or invites the actions and must have considered the conduct acceptable. the victim encourages sexual aggressiveness. there is no action or suggestion of sexual improprieties against the accused.

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 32

0 / 1 pts

Sexual harassment includes:

nonpayment for hourly employees who work overtime.

working long hours. requests for favors, such as, extra help on a difficult project. Correct Answer

verbal comments and physical touching.

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 33

0 / 1 pts

Some __________ believe that dispensing medications to induce abortions others is an infringement on their freedom of religion. Correct Answer

pharmacists physicians nurses physician assistants


Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 34

0 / 1 pts

Supervisors do not have the right to:

receive a notice of an impending strike. hire replacement workers. Correct Answer

participate in union activity. restrict union activity to prescribed areas.

Ahead: Labor Relations

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 35

0 / 1 pts

Terminating an employee for no cause has in some states been scrutinized by the courts. The brave employee can win a case for wrongful discharge by demonstrating:

other employees were discharged in the same manner. the employer refused to give reason for termination in writing. Correct Answer

the language in the employee handbook could be read as a binding contract if there are no disclaimers. the employee feels he or she has not been discharged for just cause.

Ahead: Fairness: The Ultimate Test Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 36

0 / 1 pts

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967:

encourages arbitrary age discrimination in hiring, discharge, pay, term, conditions, or privileges of employment.


discourages employment of older persons on the basis of their ability without regard to their age.

proscribes arbitrary age discrimination in hiring, discharge, pay, term, conditions, or privileges of employment. Correct Answer

promotes employment of older persons on the basis of their ability without regard to their age.

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 37

0 / 1 pts

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention states that nosocomial (hospital-acquired) bloodstream infections are a leading cause of:

viral infection. meningitis. puerperal fever. death.

Correct Answer

Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 38

0 / 1 pts

The Labor–Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 places controls:

only on labor unions and the relationships between unions and their members. requiring that employers report payments and loans made to vendors. requiring disclosure of expenditures made to influence the president in the decision-making process. Correct Answer on agreements with labor consultants, under which such persons undertake to interfere with certain employee rights.

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20


Unanswered

Question 39

0 / 1 pts

The NLRA was modified in 1947 by the: Correct Answer

Taft–Hartley amendments. Landrum–Griffin amendments. National Labor Relations Board. Norris–LaGuardia Act.

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 40

0 / 1 pts

The NLRB's basic method of operation is to: Correct Answer

investigate claims or complaints of unfair practices.

determine whether there have been fair labor practices in an organization. investigate claims or complaints of fair practices. determine what should be kept from the president regarding fair labor practices in healthcare organizations.

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 41 The ______ addresses wage disparities based on sex.

Age Discrimination in Employment Act Civil Rights Act of 1964 Landrum-Griffin amendments Correct Answer

Equal Pay Act of 1963

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 42

0 / 1 pts

The _______ affords protections to disabled employees. Correct Answer

Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Civil Rights Act of 1964 Equal Pay Act of 1963 Norris–LaGuardia Act

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 43

0 / 1 pts

The _______ establishes minimum wages and maximum hours of employment.

Equal Pay Act Landrum–Griffin amendments Correct Answer

Fair Labor Standards Act Taft–Hartley Act

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 44

0 / 1 pts

The _______ places controls on labor unions and relationships between unions and their members.

Fair Labor Standards Act Correct Answer

Labor–Management Reporting and Disclosure Act


Equal Pay Act Civil Rights Act

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 45

0 / 1 pts

The _______ prohibits age-based employment discrimination against individuals between 40 and 70 years of age.

Equal Pay Act of 1963 Correct Answer

Age Discrimination in Employment Act Taft–Hartley Act National Labor Relations Act

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 46

0 / 1 pts

The _______ prohibits private employers and state and local governments from discriminating on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.

Taft–Hartley Act Equal Pay Act Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Correct Answer

Civil Rights Act of 1964

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 47

0 / 1 pts


The _______, an amendment to the Federal Labor Standards Act, was passed to address wage disparities based on gender.

Family Medical Leave Act Rehabilitation Act Correct Answer

Equal Pay Act Age Discrimination in Employment Act

Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 48

0 / 1 pts

The attempt to drive an employee out of his or her job by intimidation:

is a common acceptable practice. Correct Answer

is a retaliatory way to force an employee to resign.

demonstrates fairness by an organization's leadership. is acceptable by the courts.

Ahead: Retaliatory Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 49

0 / 1 pts

The best way for the human resources manager to prevent negligent hiring litigation for the employer is to become familiar with the risks and avoid hiring workers who are likely to become problematic employees. The organization should:

develop vague policies and procedures on hiring, disciplining, and terminating employees. Correct Answer

take appropriate precautions to review each applicant's background and past work behavior.

include inappropriate language in the organization's policies and procedures, reserving the right to add, delete, and or revise the same. develop an application that unrealistically determines an applicant's qualifications before hiring.


Ahead: Effective Hiring Practices Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Unanswered

Question 50

0 / 1 pts

The department within the executive branch of government that advises the president on labor policies and issues is the:

Department of the Interior. Department of Justice. Department of Health and Human Resources. Department of Labor.

Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20

Correct Answer

Quiz Score: 0 out of 50


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chapter 21  This is a preview of the draft version of the quiz

Quiz Type Points Assignment Group Shuffle Answers Time Limit

Graded Quiz 27 Assignments No No Time Limit

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One Question at a Time

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Score for this quiz: 0 out of 27

Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:50am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A _______ is a physician organization formed for the purpose of sharing some administrative and management costs (such as group practices) while continuing to practice at their own location rather than at a centralized location.

group practice with walls Correct Answer

group practice without walls horizontal consolidation point-of-service plan

Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 2 A group practice without walls:

0 / 1 pts


Correct Answer is a physician organization formed for the purpose of sharing some administrative and management costs while continuing to practice at their own locations. utilize specialty care physicians as gatekeepers to coordinate and control medical care.

is a physician organization formed for the purpose of sharing some administrative and management costs while continuing to practice at centralized locations.

is a medical foundation that employs or contracts with physicians to provide care to the foundation's patients.

Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A managed care contract should be developed between the employer and the selected fiduciary, and the contract should ensure that:

the fiduciary is committed to supplying the employer with data on the various aspects of its performance. Correct Answer

the proper indemnities are negotiated on behalf of the employer and its employees.

a hold-harmless clause is provided for employees for payment for services rendered and financial disclosures are made as appropriate.

Ahead: Reducing Exposure to Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 4

0 / 1 pts

A management service organization (MSO):

is an entity that provides administrative assistance but does not offer management services to physicians.

an organization that requires physicians to perform their own services, such as, practice management, marketing, managed care contracting, accounting, billing, and personnel management. cannot be hospital affiliated, a hospital–physician joint venture, physician owned, or investor owned. Correct Answer

can be hospital affiliated, a hospital–physician joint venture, physician owned, or investor owned.

the fiduciary is not responsible for monitoring its discretionary authority.


Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A review that is performed after the treatment has been completed is referred to as a(n):

constructive review. Correct Answer

retrospective review. prospective review. contemporary review.

Ahead: Utilization Review

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

A review that is performed during the course of treatment is referred to as a(n):

retrospective review. initial review. prospective review. Correct Answer

concurrent review.

Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 7

0 / 1 pts

A vertically integrated delivery system:

is any organization or group of affiliated organizations that provides limited physician services to patients.


has a goal of offering physician integration with specialists in order to provide a full range of services to patients. Correct Answer

in its best form provides services ranging from primary outpatient care to tertiary inpatient care.

if organized well provides a minimal range of services, such as home health care, long-term care, rehabilitation, and mental health care.

Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

A(n) _____ is an organization through which employer health benefit plans and health insurance carriers contract to purchase healthcare services for covered beneficiaries from a selected group of participating providers. Correct Answer

preferred provider organization exclusive provider organization specialty HMO

group practice without walls

Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

A(n) _______ is a legal entity consisting of a joint venture of physicians and a hospital, formed to facilitate managed care contracting, to improve cost management and services, and to create new health care resources in the community.

exclusive provider organization hospital-owned corporation physician-owned corporation Correct Answer

physician–hospital organization


Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

Congress, after months of contentious debate, by a slim margin enacted the __________, increasing the number of Americans covered by health insurance by approximately 30 million people and lowering the cost of the insurance.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act National Health Planning and Resources Development Act Correct Answer

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Comprehensive Health Planning and Service Act

Ahead: National Health Insurance

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Health maintenance organizations can:

not refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care. Correct Answer refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care even though federal law prohibits hospital emergency departments from turning away patients seeking emergency care.

refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care.

refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care, thus placing the burden on the provider to seek reimbursement from the patient if the insurer does decide to cover the charges.

Ahead: Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21


Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 12 Managed care is the process of structuring or restructuring the healthcare system in terms of:

financing a narrow range of healthcare services and products. Correct Answer

delivering, measuring, and documenting a broad range of healthcare services and products. measuring and documenting a limited range of healthcare services and products. purchasing an extremely restricted range of healthcare services and products.

Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 13

Price fixing is considered a per se violation of the antitrust laws. Price fixing occurs when two or more competitors come together to decide on a price that will be charged for services or goods. The per se rule here applies to:

price fixing and group boycotts. Correct Answer

horizontal market allocation and price fixing. group boycotts. tying.

Ahead: Managed Care and Legal Actions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

0 / 1 pts

Question 14 The Employee Retirement Income Security Act requires that plans:

Correct Answer provide participants with plan information

(http://www.dol.gov/dol/topic/health-plans/planinformation.htm) and

information about plan features and funding.

provide a description of fiduciary responsibilities

(http://www.dol.gov/dol/topic/health-plans/

fiduciaryresp.htm) for those who do not manage and control plan assets.

establish a grievance but not an appeals process for participants to get benefits from their plans.


provide participants the right to sue for benefits, but not for breaches of fiduciary duty.

Ahead: Employee Retirement Income Security Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 15

0 / 1 pts

The Ethics in Patient Referral Act of 1989:

allows physicians who have ownership interest or compensation arrangements with a clinical laboratory from referring Medicare patients to that laboratory. Correct Answer requires all Medicare providers to report the names and provider numbers of all physicians or their immediate relatives with ownership interests in the provider entity.

does not provide for the imposition of penalties for those who fail to comply with the disclosure requirements.

requires all Medicare providers to report the names and provider numbers of all physicians with ownership

interests in the provider entity.

Ahead: Ethics in Patient Referral Act (1989) Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

The _______ is a federal act designed to ensure that employee welfare and benefit plans conform to a uniform body of benefits law.

Medicare Benefit Act Social Security Act Employee Retirement Expense Act Correct Answer

Employee Retirement Income Security Act

Ahead: Employee Retirement Income Security Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21


Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

The __________ held that the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act requirement that states rapidly extend coverage or lose existing federal payments was unduly coercive.

Virginia Supreme Court United States District Court United States Court of Appeals Correct Answer

United States Supreme Court

Ahead: National Health Insurance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

The majority of state HMO laws require that the provision of basic health services include:

physician, outpatient, and emergency care, but not inpatient hospital care. physician, emergency, inpatient, and outpatient care. physician care and outpatient care. Correct Answer

inpatient and outpatient care.

Ahead: Federally Qualified HMO Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

The process of structuring or restructuring the healthcare system in terms of financing, purchasing, delivering, measuring, and documenting a broad range of health care services and products is generally referred to as:

a monopoly. Correct Answer

managed care. price-fixing. maximum care.


Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 20

0 / 1 pts

The purpose of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act is to provide:

those persons giving information to professional review bodies no immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff privileges.

those assisting in review activities limited immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff privileges.

those persons giving information to professional review bodies limited immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff privileges. Correct Answer those persons giving information to professional review bodies and those assisting in review activities limited immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff

privileges.

Ahead: Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 21 Whenever a managed care organization possesses significant market share,

Correct Answer

antitrust implications can arise. poor care results. malpractice is likely. corporate liability is likely to occur.

Ahead: Market Power Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 22

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is a legal entity composed of physicians organized for the purpose of negotiating contracts to provide physician services?

Specialty HMO Medical foundation Correct Answer

Independent practice association Group practice

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 23

0 / 1 pts

Which of the following is the process whereby a third-party payer evaluates the medical necessity of a course of treatment?

Nursing review Management review Correct Answer

Utilization review Quality review

Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 24

0 / 1 pts


Which of the following is true of horizontal consolidation? Correct Answer Recognizing a congressional intent to preserve competition by preventing undue market concentration, the courts have focused primarily on the possibility that consolidation will substantially lessen competition. A wide variety of businesses are involved.

There is a single qualitative or quantitative factor from which it can be determined whether such a group merger is permissible. Similar or identical businesses are not involved at the same level of the market.

Ahead: Managed Care and Legal Actions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

With a _______, the payer determines whether to pay for treatment before the treatment is initiated.

Correct Answer

retrospective review system prospective review system quality review system admission review system

Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 26

0 / 1 pts

_______ is an increasingly important aspect of utilization management that involves identifying at an early stage those patients who could be treated more cost-effectively in an alternative setting or at a lower level of care without negatively affecting the quality of care.

Prospective review Lab review Correct Answer

Case management Financial review


Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Unanswered

Question 27

0 / 1 pts

_______ limit their beneficiaries to using only participating providers for healthcare services.

Medical foundations Preferred provider organizations Group practices without walls Exclusive provider organizations

Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21

Quiz Score: 0 out of 27

Correct Answer


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chapter 22  This is a preview of the draft version of the quiz

Quiz Type Points Assignment Group Shuffle Answers Time Limit

Graded Quiz 20 Assignments No No Time Limit

Multiple Attempts

No

View Responses

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Show Correct Answers

Immediately

One Question at a Time

No

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Score for this quiz: 0 out of 20

Unanswered

Question 1

Submitted Dec 22 at 4:51am This attempt took less than 1 minute.

0 / 1 pts

A healthcare organization can: Correct Answer

require its medical staff to show evidence of professional malpractice insurance. cannot require its medical staff to show evidence of professional malpractice insurance. require its medical staff to show evidence of home insurance. require its medical staff to show evidence expired malpractice insurance.

Ahead: Mandated Medical Staff Insurance Coverage Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 2 A hospital can be found liable for the negligence of a nurse on the basis of:

Correct Answer

respondeat superior.

0 / 1 pts


independent contractor status. borrowed servant doctrine. independent negligence.

Ahead: Liability of the Professional Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 3

0 / 1 pts

A risk is the possibility that:

a loss will occur. the insurance carrier will provide security against any loss. Correct Answer

a loss will occur and the insurance carrier will compensate for the damages based on policy limits. the insurer will prevent or hinder the occurrence of all losses.

Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 4 A(n) _______ is a contract whereby the insurer agrees to assume certain risks of the insured for consideration.

premium policyholder Correct Answer

insurance policy risk

Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

0 / 1 pts


Unanswered

Question 5

0 / 1 pts

A(n) _______ policy covers only those claims made or reported during the policy year. Correct Answer

claims-made malpractice insurance occurrence

Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 6

0 / 1 pts

A(n) _______ policy provides for an uninterrupted extension of an insurance policy period.

umbrella tail

Correct Answer

occurrence claims-made

Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 7 An insurance policy contains the elements of:

identification of the risks covered. the specific amount payable. the specified occurrence. Correct Answer

All of these are correct.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 8

0 / 1 pts

Because sexual assault does not constitute rendering professional services:

the coverage provisions of such insurance policies are unlimited. malpractice insurers are required to indemnify the insured for liability resulting from the sexual assault. malpractice insurers cover the insured for liability resulting from the sexual assault. Correct Answer

malpractice insurers are not required to indemnify the insured for liability resulting from the sexual assault.

Ahead: Intentional Torts Coverage Denied

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 9

0 / 1 pts

Insurance carriers in some states are prohibited from covering awards for:

compensatory damages. Correct Answer

punitive damages. acute care. long-term care.

Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 10

0 / 1 pts

Insurance companies are required by the laws of the different states to issue only policies that contain certain mandated provisions:

to maintain certain cash reserves.


Correct Answer to maintain certain financial reserves to guarantee to policyholders that their expectations will be met when coverage is needed.

to guarantee to policyholders that their expectations will be met when coverage is needed for criminal activity. to guarantee to policyholders that their expectations will be met.

Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 11

0 / 1 pts

Insurance coverage for officers and directors of a corporation should include indemnification, to the extent possible by law, for all liabilities and expenses, including:

when it can be shown that the trustee failed to act in good faith. those that are not reasonably incurred as the result of any legal proceeding.

Correct Answer

when it can be shown that the trustee acted in good faith and within the scope of his or her responsibilities.

Ahead: Trustee Coverage Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 12 Insurers do not, as a rule, provide coverage for:

Correct Answer

intentional torts. negligent torts. malpractice. unintentional torts.

Ahead: Intentional Torts: Coverage Denied Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

0 / 1 pts

those outside the scope of his or her responsibilities.


Unanswered

Question 13

0 / 1 pts

Medical malpractice insurance is affected by:

the nature of the auto insurance market. inflation. new technologies. Correct Answer

the cyclical nature of the insurance market and new technologies and treatments.

Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 14

0 / 1 pts

Once a claim is settled, the plaintiff:

continues to maintain a right of action against the defendant. generally signs a release surrendering his or her right of action against the defendant.

Correct Answer

can file a restraint order. can file for summary judgment.

Ahead: Investigation and Settlement of Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 15 The possibility that a loss will occur is a(n):

insurance policy. Correct Answer

risk. claims-made policy. liability.

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 16

0 / 1 pts

Under an insurance policy with a coverage of $50,000/$120,000, with damages totaling $60,000 in a lawsuit for plaintiff 1 and $10,000 for plaintiff 2, the insured is responsible for:

$60,000 Correct Answer

$10,000 $50,000 $40,000

Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions

Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 17

0 / 1 pts

Under an insurance policy with a coverage of $50,000/$120,000, with damages totaling $60,000 in a lawsuit for plaintiff 1 and $10,000 for plaintiff 2, the insurance company is responsible for:

$60,000 Correct Answer

$10,000 $40,000 $50,000

Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 18

0 / 1 pts

When a healthcare facility no longer purchases a policy of malpractice insurance but instead periodically sets aside a certain amount of its own funds as a reserve against malpractice losses and expenses, it:


seeks a unique way to provide coverage. selects a new insurer. purchases off-market insurance. Correct Answer

self-insures.

Ahead: Self-Insurance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 19

0 / 1 pts

When the insured becomes aware that an injury has occurred as a result of acts covered under the contract: Correct Answer the insured must notify the insurance company on a timely basis as to the covered incident occurrence and within the terms of the contract. notice must not be provided by the carrier.

notice need not be oral or written, regardless of what is specified in the policy.

the policyholder at the time of the covered incident need not report the incident to the carrier until an agreement is reached as to any liability the policy holder may be liable for, until such time as the court determines the amount due from the policyholder.

Ahead: Investigation and Settlement of Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Unanswered

Question 20 __________ policies cover awards over the amount provided in the basic policy coverage.

Correct Answer

Umbrella Claims-made Occurrence Parachute

0 / 1 pts


Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22

Quiz Score: 0 out of 20


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