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Score for this quiz: 0 out of 27
Unanswered
Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:30am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
Although __________ did not invent the first microscope, he was able to perfect it. Correct Answer
Van Leeuwenhoek Fenwick Lister Pasteur
Ahead: Hospitals of the 18th Century Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
Ancient ruins provide evidence that patients were being treated holistically in __________ as early as 1134 BCE.
Correct Answer
Greek temples Roman temples Mohammedan asylums Serbian temples
Ahead: Greek and Roman Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Anesthesia was first publicly demonstrated in 1846 at:
John Hopkins Hospital. Pennsylvania Hospital. New York Hospital. Massachusetts General Hospital.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 4 Congress passed and President Barack Obama signed the __________ on March 23, 2010. The legislation was designed to ensure that more Americans receive healthcare benefits.
National Insurance Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Obama Care Act Correct Answer
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
Ahead: Health Care and Hospitals in the 21st Century Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
0 / 1 pts
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Hospitals first appeared as aesculapia (named after a god of medicine) in:
Egypt Correct Answer
Greece Spain Greenland
Ahead: Greek and Roman Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
In 1918, the American College of Surgeons drew up a “constitution” for hospitals setting forth the requirements for the care of the sick. This document was known as:
the Minimum Standard.
Correct Answer
the strict liability doctrine. the medical practice standard. national health insurance act.
Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 7 Reform in medical education early in the 20th century was due to:
hospital administrators. standardization. efforts of the National League of Nursing. Correct Answer
efforts of the Council on Medical Education and Hospitals.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
The American College of Surgeons was founded in 1913 under the leadership of:
Carlos Finlay. August Von Wasserman. Casimir. Correct Answer
Franklin H. Martin.
Ahead: 20th-Century Progress
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
The _______ was most likely typical of the better hospitals of the Middle Ages.
London University Hospital New London Hospital Correct Answer
Hotel-Dieu of Paris Hospital of Siena
Ahead: Medieval Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 10 The first American nursing school was established in 1872 at:
Roosevelt Hospital. Bellevue Hospital.
0 / 1 pts
Sinai Hospital. Correct Answer
Brigham and Women's Hospital.
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
The first incorporated hospital in the United States was founded in:
Boston. Correct Answer
Philadelphia. Manhattan. Richmond.
Ahead: Early Hospitals in the United States
Unanswered
Question 12
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
0 / 1 pts
The first psychiatric hospital founded in the United States was located in:
Norfolk, Virginia. Richmond, Virginia. Correct Answer
Williamsburg, Virginia. New York, New York.
Ahead: Early Hospitals in the United States Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
The inventor of the electrocardiograph, which marked the beginning of medicine in the 20th century, is
credited as: Correct Answer
Einthoven. Einstein. Eisenberg. Ernst.
Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
The scope of services provided by a hospital:
has remained constant over time. Correct Answer
continues to change. has been pre-established.
has been shrinking over the past 50 years.
Ahead: Chapter Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 15 The writings of Hippocrates were preserved by:
Dutch merchants. Van Leeuwenhoek. Correct Answer
monks. barber surgeons.
Ahead: The “Dark Age” of Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
0 / 1 pts
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Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following images was engraved on a limestone pillar dating back to the Sumerians (2920 BCE)?
A Mohammedan hospital Correct Answer
An assemblage of wounded soldiers Various physical ailments Portrait of Socrates
Ahead: Early Military Hospitals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
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Question 17
0 / 1 pts
With the goal of providing the best professional, scientific, and humanitarian care possible, the _______ was the focus of early efforts in hospital standardization.
drug regimen Correct Answer
patient nurse physician
Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 1
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Question 18
0 / 1 pts
_______ claimed that the alarming number of deaths from puerperal fever was due to the transfer of infection by students when they went from the dissecting room to the maternity ward.
Pasteur Morgan Rhazes Correct Answer
Semmelweis
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
_______ physicians were likely the first to use castor oil and peppermint as drugs were.
Greek Roman Hindu Correct Answer
Egyptian
Ahead: Early Egyptian Hospitals
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
_______, a dentist, developed sulfuric ether and arranged for the first hospital operation under anesthesia. Correct Answer
W. T. G. Morgan Dr. Nathan Smith Davis Ignatz Philipp Semmelweis Crawford Long
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 21
0 / 1 pts
__________ introduced steam sterilization in 1886, which was of great importance for infection control in hospitals. Correct Answer
Bergmann
Konrad McCollum Halstead
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 22
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a plan of care whereby a patient pays an annual retainer fee in exchange for immediate access to a physician.
Emergency medicine Comprehensive medicine Correct Answer
Boutique medicine
Outpatient medicine
Ahead: Health Care and Hospitals in the 21st Century Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 23 __________ is credited with the discovery of the X-ray
Halstead Whipple McCollum Correct Answer
Roentgen
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 24
0 / 1 pts
__________ is often referred to as the first healthcare administrator.
Bedford Fenwick W. G. Wylie Correct Answer
Florence Nightingale John Hopkins
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
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Question 25
0 / 1 pts
__________ produced experimental rickets by means of an experimental diet.
Wasserman
Fenwick Virchow Correct Answer
Finlay
Ahead: 20th-Century Progress Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 26 __________ published a book in 1775 describing frightful conditions existing in hospitals.
Correct Answer
John Jones Thomas Bond Thomas Jefferson William Penn
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Early Hospitals in the United States Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
Unanswered
Question 27
0 / 1 pts
__________ showed that wound healing could be hastened by using antiseptics.
Lister Halstead Pasteur Semmelweis
Ahead: Late-19th-Century Renaissance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 1
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chapter 2 This is a preview of the draft version of the quiz
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:31am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A __________ is a general rule of conduct enforced by government.
decision policy tort Correct Answer
law
Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 2 A state trial court is sometimes referred to as the:
U.S. Court of Claims.
0 / 1 pts
Appellate Court. U.S. Court of Appeals. Correct Answer
District Court.
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Common law in the United States had its origins in:
Greece. Ireland. Correct Answer
England. France.
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
In common law, ______ is a doctrine that holding that a judgment by a court of competent jurisdiction is binding upon the parties in any subsequent litigation that involves the same or similar cause of action.
adjudication stare decisis Correct Answer
res judicata writ of certiorari
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
In which U.S. state is civil law rooted in the French and Spanish legal systems?
New York Virginia Maryland Correct Answer
Louisiana
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
One of the main duties of the legislative branch of government is to: Correct Answer
enact laws.
legislate values. prejudice the law. adjudicate the law.
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 7
0 / 1 pts
The U.S. president can use a __________ to prevent a bill from becoming law by avoiding any action while Congress is in session.
executive order Correct Answer
pocket veto gavel declaratory judgment
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
The ______ is responsible for the safety and security of most of our nation's food supply, all cosmetics, dietary supplements, and products that give off radiation.
Social Security Administration Correct Answer
Public Health Service Department of Justice U.S. Food and Drug Administration
Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
The __________ is an independent, nonpartisan office governed by a board composed of private citizens that provides public review and insight into the ethical conduct of members of the House of Representatives.
House of Representatives Committee on Ethics Senate Select Committee on Ethics Federal Ethics Committee Correct Answer
Office of Congressional Ethics
Ahead: Government Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 10 The body of law consisting of principles derived from judicial decisions is:
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
common law. statutory law. natural law. public law.
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
The function of the judicial branch of government is to:
amend the law. enforce the law. Correct Answer
adjudicate the law.
repeal the law.
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 12 The highest federal court that adjudicates matters related to the U.S. Constitution is the:
U.S. Court of Appeals. Correct Answer
U.S. Supreme Court. U.S. Customs Court. U.S. District Court.
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
The mission of the _______ is to promote the protection of the nation's physical and mental health.
Public Health Service Correct Answer
Office of Human Development Agency for Toxic Substances and Disease Family Service League
Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Torts and contracts are examples of:
state statutes.
criminal law. public law. Correct Answer
private law.
Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 15
0 / 1 pts
Which federal agency issues public warnings when hazardous food products have been identified?
Department of Justice Health Care Financing Administration Family Support Administration Correct Answer
U.S. Food and Drug Administration
Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Which federal department administers the Medicare and Medicaid programs?
U.S. Department of Commerce U.S. Department of Education U.S. Department of Justice Correct Answer
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is a court of limited jurisdiction?
U.S Supreme Court U.S. Court of Appeals U.S. District Court Correct Answer
U.S. Tax Court
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is an action that claims that one party has breached an agreement by failing to fulfill an obligation? Correct Answer
Contract mediation
Writ of certiorari Tort Fraud
Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is the only court created by the U.S. Constitution? Correct Answer
U.S. Supreme Court U.S. Court of Military Appeals U.S. District Court U.S. Court of Appeals
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following reflects the composition of the U.S. Supreme Court?
Seven associate justices and one chief justice Correct Answer
Eight associate justices and one chief justice Seven associate justices and one rotating chief justice Ten associate justices and one chief justice
Ahead: Government Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 21
0 / 1 pts
_______ is a common law principle in which courts apply previous decisions to subsequent cases involving similar facts and questions.
Respondeat superior Res gestae Correct Answer
Stare decisis Res judicata
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 22
0 / 1 pts
__________ are established by legislative bodies.
Crimes Correct Answer
Statutes
Torts Contracts
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
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Question 23
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a federally sponsored health insurance program for persons over 65 years of age and certain disabled persons.
Medicaid Welfare Correct Answer
Medicare Commercial insurance
Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 24
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a government program administered by the states to provide medical services to the poor and medically needy. Correct Answer
Medicaid Medicare Welfare Medigap
Ahead: Department of Health and Human Services
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
Unanswered
Question 25
0 / 1 pts
__________ is an extensive body of law issued by state or federal agencies to direct the enacted laws of the federal or state government. Correct Answer
Administrative law Labor law Common law Criminal law
Ahead: Sources of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
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Question 26 __________ laws govern relationships between people.
Public
0 / 1 pts
Federal Private Administrative
Ahead: Development of Law Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 2
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:32am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A civil wrong committed by one person against the person or property of another is a(n)
crime. Correct Answer
tort. intentional harm. misdemeanor.
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A pharmacist misreads a prescription and fills it with the wrong medication. The cashier accepts payment for the drug and the consumer leaves. The consumer, who had been filling the same prescription for the past two years, ingests the drug and suffers injuries. Who is responsible for the consumer's injuries?
Drug manufacturer Correct Answer
Pharmacist Prescribing physician Cashier
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A pharmacist misreads a prescription and fills it with the wrong medication. The cashier accepts payment for the drug and the consumer leaves. The consumer, who had been filling the same prescription for the past two years, ingests the drug and suffers injuries. Which party is most likely to pay for the damages suffered by the consumer?
Drug manufacturer Prescribing physician Pharmacy
Correct Answer
Cashier
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
Dr. Miller, an obstetrician, was enjoying a 25th anniversary celebration and had a few drinks. He arrived at the hospital and was seen staggering toward the delivery room. Ms. Marshall suggested that the on-call obstetrician be called to perform the delivery. Dr. Miller insisted that he was quite capable of delivering the baby, and the on-call obstetrician was never called. During surgery, Dr. Miller accidentally nicked the patient's right thigh with a scalpel. Who is liable for the injury?
The on-call obstetrician Correct Answer
Dr. Miller and the hospital The hospital The on-call physician and the hospital
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Failure to conform to or departure from a required duty of care owed to a patient is considered to be a:
foreseeable event. Correct Answer
breach of duty. foreseeable act. standard of care.
Ahead: Elements of Negligence
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
For liability to be established based on failure to follow a specified standard of care outlined by statute:
the defendant must have been outside the specified class of persons outlined in the statute. the plaintiff must have been outside the specified class of persons outlined in the statute. Correct Answer
the defendant must have been within the specified class of persons outlined in the statute. the caregiver must have been closely following instructions provided by his or her peers.
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 7 Medical malpractice would include negligence committed by a:
physical therapy aide. nurse's aide.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
physician. dietary aide.
Ahead: Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
The commission or omission of an act, as judged against the actions of a hypothetical “reasonably prudent person,” is referred to as: Correct Answer
negligence. retribution. retort. vengeance.
Ahead: Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
The expected standard of care can be established by a:
pattern of inconsistent physician advice. referral to a specialist. Correct Answer
statute. monopoly.
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 10
0 / 1 pts
The general standard of acceptable care is based on what a __________ would do or not do acting under the same or similar circumstances.
registered pharmacist licensed physician patient Correct Answer
reasonably prudent person
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
With regard to negligence and the law, that which describes the conduct expected of an individual in a given situation is referred to as:
duty to use reasonable care.
proximate cause. foreseeability. Correct Answer
standard of care.
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 12 _______ is the failure to act when there is a duty to act.
Misfeasance Correct Answer
Nonfeasance Intentional conduct Malfeasance
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Forms of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
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Question 13
0 / 1 pts
_______ is the reckless disregard for the safety of another.
Nonfeasance Malpractice Misfeasance Correct Answer
Criminal negligence
Ahead: Negligence
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a legal obligation that requires a person to conform to a specific standard of care to protect others.
Causation Breach of duty Correct Answer
Duty to use due care Standard of care
Ahead: Elements of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
Unanswered
Question 15 __________ is the performance of an unlawful or improper act.
Correct Answer
Malfeasance
0 / 1 pts
Misfeasance Nonfeasance Malpractice
Ahead: Forms of Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 3
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chapter 4 This is a preview of the draft version of the quiz
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:33am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A complete defense to a defamation action is: Correct Answer
the truth. consent. a retraction libel.
Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 2 A threat coupled with the apparent present ability to do immediate physical harm to another is:
battery.
0 / 1 pts
extortion. false imprisonment. Correct Answer
assault.
Ahead: Assault and Battery Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A tort that is committed deliberately and is based on the premise that the defendant intended the harmful consequences of his or her behavior constitutes:
misfeasance. coercion. a misdemeanor. an intentional tort.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
Liability of a manufacturer, seller, or supplier to a buyer or other third party for injuries sustained because of a defect in a product is:
state liability. tort per se. an intentional tort. Correct Answer
products liability.
Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Liability without fault is referred to as:
censored liability. negligence. Correct Answer
strict liability. products liability.
Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Mrs. Smith was tied to her hospital bed and not fed for two days for failing to pay her telephone bill prior to discharge. She has an action for:
false imprisonment.
Correct Answer
defamation. negligence. larceny.
Ahead: False Imprisonment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 7 The legal wrong that violates a person's right to his or her own space is:
slander. libel. false imprisonment. Correct Answer
invasion of privacy.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Invasion of Privacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
The spoken form of defamation is:
libel. Correct Answer
slander. hearsay. malpractice.
Ahead: Defamation of Character
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
The voluntary exposure to such risks as radiation treatments and chemotherapy treatments is referred to as:
intervening cause. contributory negligence. presumed innocence. Correct Answer
assumption of a risk.
Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 10 The written form of defamation is:
slander. malpractice.
0 / 1 pts
Complexity: Easy
Correct Answer
libel. intentional misconduct.
Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Touching a person without consent is:
jostling. Correct Answer
battery. false imprisonment. assault.
Ahead: Assault and Battery
Unanswered
Question 12
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is a defense against recovery in a products liability case?
Negligence A priori Correct Answer
Assumption of a risk Malpractice
Ahead: Products Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 13 Wrongfully accusing someone of committing a crime is:
0 / 1 pts
malicious prosecution. Correct Answer
slander per se. false imprisonment. libel.
Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
__________ have more difficulty in pursuing defamation litigation than the average individual.
Coal miners Criminals Public figures Veterans
Correct Answer
Ahead: Defamation of Character Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 4
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:34am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a method of payment for services rendered by an attorney predicated on the favorable outcome of a case. Correct Answer
contingency fee collateral fee retainer malpractice cap
Ahead: Contingency Fee Limitations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
For a physician to prevail in a suit against a plaintiff or plaintiff's attorney, the physician must show that:
the suit was frivolous. the motivation of the plaintiff was not to recover for a legitimate injury. the physician has suffered damages as a result of the suit. Correct Answer
All of these are correct.
Ahead: Countersuits: Frivolous Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Frivolous and unscrupulous malpractice suits have caused physicians to:
add risky procedures to their practices. Correct Answer
file countersuits. accept all new patients.
expand their scope of practice.
Ahead: Countersuits: Frivolous Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
Medical staff __________ is the evaluation of a physician's work competence and quality by his or her peers. It is a form of self-regulation and can be accomplished internally by qualified members of an organization's medical staff within in their respective fields of expertise.
privileging licensing credentialing Correct Answer
peer review
Ahead: Reducing the Risks of Malpractice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Physicians argue that contingency fees encourage: Correct Answer
frivolous lawsuits. lower healthcare costs. patients to stay silent about malpractice. good relations between patients and physicians.
Ahead: Contingency Fee Limitations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Several states have modified the collateral source rule in order to:
permit all states to increase the damages payable to a defendants and their families.
increase the amount of damages a plaintiff can sue for. mitigate the damages payable to a plaintiff, thus encouraging excessive recoveries. Correct Answer
limit the damages payable to a plaintiff.
Ahead: Collateral Source Rule Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
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Question 7
0 / 1 pts
Some physicians avoid the performance of high-risk procedures in order to reduce their exposure to malpractice suits. This practice can lead to: Correct Answer
patient difficulties in finding physicians to provide the care they need. overtreatment. lower costs if a malpractice action is filed. substituted judgment.
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
The type of medicine practiced by physicians designed to limit their exposure to malpractice suits is often referred to in the legal community as:
positive medicine. Correct Answer
defensive medicine. overtreatment. undertreatment.
Ahead: Introduction
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Unlike binding arbitration, the decision of a screening panel is:
not arbitrary, and is not imposed as a condition precedent to trial. conducted in lieu of a trial. Correct Answer not binding and is imposed as a condition precedent to trial, whereas arbitration is conducted in lieu of a trial. binding and is imposed as a condition precedent to trial.
Ahead: Mediation and Arbitration Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 10 Valuable components of a risk management program include:
sympathetic care after accidental injury to a patient.
0 / 1 pts
preparation of incident reports. Correct Answer identification and investigation of patient injuries to assist in reducing the possibility of repetition of the causes leading to injury. identification of the cause of each incident.
Ahead: Reducing the Risks of Malpractice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
_______ is a process whereby a third party attempts to bring a settlement between the parties of a complaint.
Consensus Correct Answer
Mediation Peer review
Risk management
Ahead: Mediation and Arbitration Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 12
0 / 1 pts
_______ is the process of identifying potential malpractice risks with an emphasis on eliminating or minimizing risks.
Fault assessment Continuous quality assessment Contingency planning Correct Answer
Risk management
Ahead: Reducing the Risks of Malpractice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
__________ awards are set up for the periodic payment of judgments against defendant(s) by establishing a reversible trust fund payable for specified injuries to the plaintiff(s).
Contingency fee Collateral source rule Joint and several liability Correct Answer
Structured
Ahead: Structured Awards Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
__________ compensates injured parties for economic losses regardless of fault.
Structured compensation Risk compensation Correct Answer
No-fault system Joint and several liability
Ahead: No-Fault System Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
Unanswered
Question 15
0 / 1 pts
__________ panels evaluate the merits of medical injury claims to encourage the settlement of claims outside the courtroom. Correct Answer
Pretrial screening Mediation Peer review Risk management
Ahead: Medical Malpractice Screening Panels Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 5
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:35am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a social harm defined and made punishable by law.
tort fine arraignment Correct Answer
crime
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 2 A __________ presents criminal cases to a grand jury
court clerk
0 / 1 pts
defendant judge Correct Answer
prosecutor
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A pharmacist who submits Medicaid claims for reimbursement on brand name medications rather than on the less expensive generic drugs actually dispensed is considered __________.
perjury malpractice wrongful kickback Correct Answer
fraud
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
An individual may not be tried for a felony without indictment by a __________.
judge prosecutor police officer Correct Answer
grand jury
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Beginning in 1989 and continuing into the 1990s, when the AMA Council on Ethical and Judicial Affairs
began to pass a series if acts specifically aimed at Physicians' ethical practices, they were targeting __________.
having labs in their offices not accepting Medicaid patients forming boutique practices Correct Answer
self-referrals
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Conditioning the award of a contract on an under-the-table percentage payback to a public official who has the ability to influence who will be awarded the contract is known as a __________.
solicitation arbitration
Correct Answer
criminal negligence kickback
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 7
0 / 1 pts
Conferencing a case in an attempt to avoid a trial and reach an acceptable conclusion to the parties __________.
indictment arraignment Correct Answer
plea-bargaining deterrent to crime
Unanswered
Question 8 Detectives are assigned to cases when necessary to gather __________.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
evidence background related cases legal case issues policies, procedures
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Forcible administration of medication to a patient who doesn't consent would be considered __________.
kidnapping the health provider's duty fraud patient abuse
Correct Answer
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 10
0 / 1 pts
If a health care provider shows reckless disregard for the safety of his patients and intentional indifference to any injury that could follow his act(s), he could be charged with or sued for __________.
assault Correct Answer
criminal negligence tortious interference civil negligence
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
If a person presents or causes to be presented a false claim to the government, for the purpose of getting the false claim paid by the government, he or she can be charged with violating the __________.
Anti-Kickback Statute Medicare and Medicaid Patient Protection Act of 1987 Patient Protection and Affordable Care Correct Answer
False Claims Act
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 12
0 / 1 pts
Intentional injection of a lethal dose of a medication by a nurse into a patient is __________.
fraud manslaughter Correct Answer
murder
negligence
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 13 Offense generally punishable by less than one year in jail and/or a fine is a __________.
Correct Answer
misdemeanor misconduct crime felony
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Prosecution of a crime generally begins with __________.
plea bargaining Correct Answer
arrest preliminary conference bail
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 15
0 / 1 pts
Serious crime generally punishable by one or more years of imprisonment in a state or federal penitentiary is a __________.
misdemeanor
Correct Answer
malicious mischief felony false imprisonment
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 16 Submission of multiple bills for single office visits is a __________.
Correct Answer
fraud perjury criminal negligence tort
0 / 1 pts
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
The Office of Inspector General, established in the Department of Health and Human Services in 1976, investigates cases of __________.
criminal mischief Correct Answer
Medicare and Medicaid fraud petty theft patient abuse
Complexity: Easy
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
The __________ Act prohibits physicians who have ownership interest or compensation arrangements with a clinical laboratory from referring Medicare patients to that laboratory.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Correct Answer
Ethics in Patient Referral Public Health Services Patient Protection and Affordable Care
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 19 The __________ regulates the process for addressing violations of criminal law.
arraignment arrest process
0 / 1 pts
Subject: Chapter 6
criminal indictment Correct Answer
criminal procedure
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
The component of a crime that refers to the the “guilty mind” is __________.
actus reus res judicata Correct Answer
mens rea re ipsa loquitur
Complexity: Easy
Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 21
0 / 1 pts
The component of a crime that refers to the “guilty act” is __________.
res ipsa loquitur Correct Answer
actus reus respondeat superior mens rea
Unanswered
Question 22
0 / 1 pts
The formal reading of the accusatory instrument, including the setting of bail __________.
conference grand jury hearing prosecution Correct Answer
arraignment
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 23
0 / 1 pts
The instrument accusing the defendant of criminal conduct is the __________.
bill of particulars subpoena Correct Answer
indictment
answer
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 24 The intentional removal of life-support equipment can be considered the crime of __________.
petty theft Correct Answer
murder battery assault
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 25
0 / 1 pts
The numerous scams in home care fraud are caused by the __________ in supervising services provided in the home,
ease Correct Answer
difficulty reluctance lack of enthusiasm
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 26
0 / 1 pts
To fight health care fraud in both the public and private sectors, Congress passed into law __________.
Fraud Act
FMLA Whistleblower Protection Act Correct Answer
HIPPA
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 27
0 / 1 pts
Upcoding medical supplies and equipment and billing for more expensive equipment than that delivered to patients are examples of __________.
tort res ipsa loquitur Correct Answer
fraud petty theft
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 28
0 / 1 pts
When a health care facility comingles its funds with those of its patients, it violates its __________ with those patients.
debtor- creditor relationship consent relationship privilege relationship Correct Answer
fiduciary responsibility
Complexity: Easy
Unanswered
Question 29
0 / 1 pts
When members of a hospital council governing body solicit and receive money for special consideration in awarding a project to an architectural firm on a building project, they could be convicted of __________.
negligence mandamus Correct Answer
kickbacks fulfilling his fiduciary responsibility
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
Unanswered
Question 30
0 / 1 pts
__________ reckless disregard for the safety of others and the willful indifference to an injury that could follow is defined as a
tort crime
Subject: Chapter 6
fraud criminal negligence
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 6
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:35am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a policy that temporarily denies new appointments to the medical staff. Correct Answer
moratorium restraint of trade exclusive contract reduced market approach
Ahead: Hospital Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a special kind of agreement, either written or oral, that involves legally binding obligations between two or more parties.
nondiscriminatory agreement moratorium communique Correct Answer
contract
Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A __________ occurs when there is a violation of one or more of the terms of the contract.
completed contract valid contract Correct Answer
breach of contract
executed contract
Ahead: Breach of Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 4 A contract serves to provide one or more parties with a legal remedy to:
require the parties to a contract not perform their legal obligations pursuant to the terms of the contract. require that all oral agreements to a written contract have more validity then the written contract. Correct Answer
require the parties to perform their legal obligations pursuant to the terms of the contract. prevent compliance with the contractual obligations under the contract.
Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
A contract that is inferred by law is a(n): Correct Answer
implied contract. illegal contract. preferred contract. written contract.
Ahead: Types of Contracts Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
A contract used primarily to hedge against the risk up potential loss is a(n):
employment contract. insurance contract.
Correct Answer
medical contract. specified contract.
Ahead: Insurance Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 7
0 / 1 pts
A contract with a firm of anesthesiologists that requires that all anesthesia services for a hospital's patients be performed by that firm is an example of a(n):
open-ended contract. closed contract. Correct Answer
exclusive contract. inclusive contract.
Ahead: Exclusive Contracts Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
A employee handbook is not generally considered a contract due to the:
mistake of fact. consideration. Correct Answer
disclaimer. article of agreement.
Ahead: Employment Contracts
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
A mistake in law:
is required in order to successfully execute a contract. is an obligatory element of a contract. is a necessary element of a contract. Correct Answer
can result in a nonbinding contract.
Ahead: Conditions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 10 A remedy for nonperformance of a contract generally includes a request for:
Correct Answer
specified performance and monetary damages. redrafting the contract.
0 / 1 pts
nullification of the contract. dissolution of the contract.
Ahead: Nonperformance Defenses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
A valid contract requires:
meeting of the minds. Correct Answer
an offer, consideration, and acceptance. an offer, consideration, and retraction. an offer and acceptance.
Ahead: Elements of a Contract
Unanswered
Question 12
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
0 / 1 pts
Acceptance of a contract requires a meeting of the:
attorneys for the both parties to a contract. Correct Answer
minds. defendants. plaintiffs.
Ahead: Elements of a Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
An agent is one who has the power to construct for and bind another person, who is known as the:
plaintiff. ostensible agent. executor. Correct Answer
principal.
Ahead: Agent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
An agent who is believed to be a third person acting on behalf of the principal is referred to as a(n): Correct Answer
ostensible agent. principal agent. partnership.
solely owned corporation.
Ahead: Agent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 15 An agreement between an employee and employer that specifies the terms of a contract is a(n):
oral agreement. informal contract. unenforceable contract. Correct Answer
employment contract.
Ahead: Employment Contracts Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
An individual who agrees to undertake work without being under the direct control or direction of another and is personally responsible for his or her negligent acts is a(n):
agent. Correct Answer
independent contractor. employee. supervisor.
Ahead: Independent Contractor Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
Contracts, particularly those in writing, serve to minimize misunderstandings and offer a means for parties to:
Correct Answer
provide for irregularities. resolve disputes. solve personal financial issues. institute disputes.
Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
Each party to a contract must give up something of value in exchange for something of value, this is known as the:
meeting of the minds. offer. Correct Answer
consideration. communication.
Ahead: Elements of a Contract Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
If a contract is to be considered valid, an offer must be:
assumed. tacit. Correct Answer
communicated. inferred.
Ahead: Elements of a Contract
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
It is always the desire of all parties to a contract to reduce it to:
a verbal agreement. Correct Answer
writing. an oral understanding. negotiation.
Ahead: What Is a Contract? Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 21 Medical staff membership that admits only physicians with academic appointments is a(n):
open staff. Correct Answer
closed staff.
0 / 1 pts
full staff. temporary staff.
Ahead: Hospital Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 22
0 / 1 pts
The _______ is a federal law that provides that every contract in the form of a trust or otherwise, or conspiracy, in restraint of trade or commerce among the several states is illegal.
Federal Statute Act Commonwealth Antitrust Act Fair Labor Standards Act Correct Answer
Sherman Antitrust Act
Ahead: Restraint of Trade Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 23
0 / 1 pts
The ability of a corporation to enter into contracts is limited by: Correct Answer
its powers as contained in or inferred from its articles of incorporation. approval requirements. ratification. agents.
Ahead: Corporate Contracts Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 24
0 / 1 pts
The ever-increasing number of alternative healthcare delivery systems has resulted in a:
closed market for hospital nurses. wide range of employment opportunities for physicians. Correct Answer wide range of competitive schemes between an employer and employee that are questionable from an antitrust standpoint. failure to admit qualified physicians to medical staff membership.
Ahead: Restraint of Trade Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
Unanswered
Question 25
0 / 1 pts
When a party to a contract has breached the contract and refuses to or cannot perform, the general rule is that the law will attempt to:
Correct Answer
require specific performance of the contract.
create separate agreements for the parties to the contract.
create a new contract. make the contract nonbinding.
Ahead: Remedies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 7
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:37am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a formal objection by one of the parties of a lawsuit that the evidence presented by the other party is insufficient to support a suit. Correct Answer
demurrer countersuit dismissal plea
Ahead: Demurrer Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a legal document that demands more detailed information than is provided in a complaint.
plea demurrer countersuit Correct Answer
bill of particulars
Ahead: Discovery Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is an order that calls for a written document to be produced by an organization.
summons writ deposition subpoena duces tecum
Correct Answer
Ahead: Subpoenas Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 4 A medical record is an example of:
Correct Answer
documentary evidence. circumstantial evidence. hearsay evidence. expert testimony.
Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
A motion for ________ asks a court to rule that there are no facts in dispute and that the rights of the parties can be determined as a matter of law, on the basis of submitted documents, without the need for a trial.
dismissal counterclaim bill of particulars Correct Answer
summary judgment
Ahead: Motions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
A(n) ______ is an individual whose testimony is required because he or she is a specialist in a particular field of knowledge.
hypothetical person average individual Correct Answer
expert witness witness
Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 7 An X-ray machine entered as evidence is a form of:
Correct Answer
demonstrative evidence. firm evidence. circumstantial evidence. hearsay evidence.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
An informal discussion during which the judge and opposing attorneys eliminate matters not in dispute, agree on the issues, and settle procedural matters relating to the trial is a(n):
hearing. examination before trial. deposition. Correct Answer
pretrial conference.
Ahead: Pretrial Conference
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Comparative negligence generally requires that damages among multiple defendants be divided:
equally. 60/40. 50/50. Correct Answer
according to fault (the degree of negligence of each party/defendant to a lawsuit).
Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 10 Evidence furnished by physical things themselves is __________ evidence.
hearsay
0 / 1 pts
documentary testimonial Correct Answer
demonstrative
Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
In a civil suit, the burden of proving a case lies with the:
defendant. Correct Answer
plaintiff. tortfeasor. court.
Ahead: Burden of Proof Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 12
0 / 1 pts
Questions of law are decided by the: Correct Answer
court . plaintiff's attorney. defendant's attorney. jury.
Ahead: The Courtroom and the Judge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
The _______ describes the responsibility of the jury and the law applicable to the case heard by the jury, and it advises the jury of the alternatives available to it.
pretrial motion judge's charge court claim Correct Answer
closing statement
Ahead: Judge's Charge to the Jury Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
The _______ refers to legislatively imposed time constraints that restrict the period after the occurrence of an injury during which a legal action must be commenced.
summons Correct Answer
statute of limitations
search warrant court request
Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 15
0 / 1 pts
The __________ prescribes that well-known facts (e.g., that fractures need prompt attention and that two X-rays of the same patient might show different results) need not be proven, but, rather, they are recognized by the court as fact.
common law doctrine hearsay rule comparative doctrine Correct Answer
judicial notice rule
Ahead: Judicial Notice Rule Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
The common law doctrine that holds a physician, for example, responsible for the acts of a nurse in the operating room when the physician directs the nurse to perform a particular medical act in the operating room, and the nurse then performs it negligently and consequently injures the patient, is the: Correct Answer
borrowed servant doctrine. res ipsa loquitur. Good Samaritan act. statute of limitations.
Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
The person who brings a civil suit seeking damages or other legal relief is the:
judge. court . Correct Answer
plaintiff. defendant.
Ahead: Burden of Proof Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 18 The right to a jury trial is guaranteed by the:
president.
0 / 1 pts
Congress. Correct Answer
U.S. Constitution. U.S. Supreme Court.
Ahead: The Jury Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following can be used to prove the facts of a case?
Hearsay evidence Circumstantial evidence Expert testimony Correct Answer
All of these are correct
Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
_____ damages are awarded to compensate for gross negligence and to deter wrongdoers (e.g., when there is sufficient evidence of the willful and wanton disregard for the rights of others).
Special Exorbitant General Correct Answer
Punitive
Ahead: Awarding Damages Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 21
0 / 1 pts
_____ is a legal doctrine that shifts the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant.
Mens rea Correct Answer
Res ipsa loquitur Respondeat superior Duces tecum
Ahead: Res Ipsa Loquitur Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 22
0 / 1 pts
_______ evidence is based on what another person has said or done, not the result of the personal knowledge of the witness.
Comparative Direct Correct Answer
Hearsay Demonstrative
Ahead: Evidence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 23
0 / 1 pts
_______ refers to knowing that a danger exists and voluntarily accepting the risk by taking a chance and exposing oneself to it. Correct Answer
Assumption of a risk Intervening cause Contributory negligence Comparative negligence
Ahead: Defenses Against Plaintiff's Allegations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
Unanswered
Question 24
0 / 1 pts
__________ is the process of investigating the facts of a case before trial.
Discovery Plea bargaining Demurrer Deliberation
Ahead: Discovery Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 8
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:38am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A governing body has a(n) __________ responsibility that requires it act primarily for the benefit of the corporation.
independent contractor Correct Answer
fiduciary conflict of interest self-dealing
Ahead: Authority of Corporations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A situation in which a board member or a firm with which he or she is associated may benefit or lose from the passage of a proposed board action could be considered:
restraint of trade. fee splitting. a pocket veto. Correct Answer
conflict of interest.
Ahead: Governing Body Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Assuming the existence of a single nonprofit tax-exempt hospital, any restructuring undertaken normally involves the creation of at least one additional nonprofit tax-exempt entity. This entity may be referred to as a:
medical staff foundation. Correct Answer
parent or holding company. volunteer entity.
capital financing corporation.
Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 4
0 / 1 pts
Dependence on government funding and related programs (e.g., Medicare, Medicaid, and Blue Cross) and the continuous shrinkage occurring in such revenues have forced hospitals to:
market services to noninsured patients. seek tax-exemption in gift shops. conduct fund-raising activities. Correct Answer
seek alternative sources of revenue.
Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Governing bodies that act beyond their scope of authority, either expressed or implied in law, have committed an:
implied authority act. express act. Correct Answer
ultra vires act. intentional act.
Ahead: Authority of Corporations
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Governing body members must refrain from _______ ; they should not use their membership on the board for their own private gain.
lying Correct Answer
self-dealing autonomy cooperation
Ahead: Governing Body Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 7 Income earned by tax-exempt organizations from nonexempt activities is:
treated differently from that paid by profit-making organizations.
0 / 1 pts
not subject to unrelated business income taxes under the Internal Revenue Code. Correct Answer
subject to unrelated business income taxes under the Internal Revenue Code. subject to only state taxes.
Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Nonprofit healthcare facilities are usually exempt from federal taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the: Correct Answer
Internal Revenue Code of 1986. Department of Tax and Finance. Department of Labor. Health Care Financing Administration.
Ahead: Corporate Reorganization and Mergers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
The doctrine of respondeat superior is analogous to which of the following? Correct Answer
Vicarious liability Res ipsa loquitur Independent contractor status Captain of the ship doctrine
Ahead: Doctrine of Respondeat Superior Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 10
0 / 1 pts
Ultimate responsibility for the operation and management of the institution lies with the:
chief executive officer. medical board. executive committee. Correct Answer
governing body.
Ahead: Authority of Corporations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Which governing body committee is delegated authority to act on behalf of the full board?
Audit committee Finance committee Correct Answer
Executive committee
Long-range planning committee
Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 12 Which governing body committee is responsible for developing corporate auditing policies and procedures?
Long-range planning committee Patient care committee Correct Answer
Audit committee Finance committee
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
Which governing body committee is responsible for overseeing the preparation of capital budgets for future years, expansion programs, and acquisition of major equipment?
Patient care committee Correct Answer
Long-range planning committee Finance committee Executive committee
Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Which governing body committee reviews quality of care issues? Correct Answer
Patient care committee Audit committee Infection control committee Long-range planning committee
Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 15 Which of the following applies with regards to duty to care?
Corporations adhere to a different standard than individuals.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
Corporations and individuals adhere to the same standard. Corporations are held to a higher standard than individuals. Corporations are not bound by duty to care.
Ahead: Corporate Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following holds that an organization is liable if it fails to uphold the proper standard of care owed the patient?
Good Samaritan doctrine Respondeat superior Captain of the ship doctrine Doctrine of corporate negligence
Correct Answer
Ahead: Corporate Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is an informal committee of the governing body consisting of an equal number of representatives from both the executive committees of the governing body and the medical staff?
Bylaw committee Correct Answer
Joint conference committee Executive committee Audit committee
Ahead: Corporate Committee Structure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following was passed in 2002 in response to misconduct committed by executives that resulted in massive economic losses to their employees and investors? Correct Answer
Sarbanes-Oxley Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Sherman Antitrust Act Federal Torts Claims Act
Ahead: Corporate Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following, in 1965, was a benchmark case in the healthcare field that had a major impact on the liability of hospitals and physicians?
Roe v. Wade Carrasco v. Bankoff In re Quinlan Correct Answer
Darling v. Charleston Community Hospital
Ahead: Corporate Negligence Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a legal doctrine holding employers liable, in certain cases, for the wrongful acts of their employees.
Res ipsa loquitur Mens rea Captain of the ship Correct Answer
Respondeat superior
Ahead: Respondeat Superior Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
Unanswered
Question 21
0 / 1 pts
__________ is derived from statutes.
Express corporate authority Implied corporate authority Ultra vires acts Exempt acts
Ahead: Authority of Corporations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 9
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:39am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A doctor fails to inform his patient in a timely manner of a serious condition that turns deadly, fails to refer the patient to a specialist, and performs no further tests. The doctor could be found negligent by reason of: Correct Answer
delaying treatment. strict liability. vicarious liability. misdiagnoses.
Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 2 A physician is:
0 / 1 pts
expected to guarantee the results of his or her treatment. Correct Answer
negligent if his or her treatment is not performed as required by the recognized standard of care. negligent by the mere fact that an adverse result occurred following treatment.
expected to perform novel procedures if he or she decides to do so, regardless of the medical standard across the country.
Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A physician on call in an emergency department is expected to:
ask the emergency department to seek help from another physician. respond to requests for emergency assistance within three business days. Correct Answer respond to requests for emergency assistance when such is considered necessary by the emergency
department. respond after dinner.
Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
A physician who decides to withdraw his services should:
notify the patient's family that he no longer wishes to care for the patient. notify the patient that he is immediately withdrawing his services. Correct Answer
provide the patient with reasonable notice of his or her decision to discontinue the patient's care. have the hospital's patient care representative notify the patient of his decision to discontinue treatment.
Ahead: Discharge and Follow-Up Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
A physician's failure to __________ can lead to a patient's death, and thus be the proximate cause of a patient's injuries.
conduct self-evaluations take continuing education courses pass his or her medical board examination Correct Answer
promptly review diagnostic test results
Ahead: Treatment
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
A psychiatrist owes a duty to warn of his patient's danger to a third party if:
the psychiatrist is absolutely sure the patient will not harm the third person. the patient has never harmed others in the past. the patient leaves his office with a positive attitude. Correct Answer
the psychiatrist determines that the patient poses a serious threat of harm to a foreseeable victim or victims.
Ahead: Psychiatry Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 7 A state medical board:
Correct Answer
can permanently revoke a physician's license.
0 / 1 pts
cannot permanently revoke a physician's license.
cannot permanently revoke a physician's license without the concurrence of the hospital in which the physicians practices. must comply with hospital guidelines for removal of a physician's license.
Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Before surgery, if a patient is not told about the risks and benefits of the operation, then: Correct Answer
there has been a failure to provide informed consent. a different course of treatment should be followed. the patient's signature should be obtained after surgery.
it doesn't matter as long as the physician knows the patient's wishes.
Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 9
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Medical __________ is the attempt to restore the patient to health following a diagnosis. It is the application of various remedies and medical techniques, including the use of medications for the purpose of treating an illness or trauma.
diagnosis history Correct Answer
treatment assessment
Ahead: Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 10
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Patient __________ involves the systematic collection and analysis of patient-specific data that are necessary to determine a patient's care and treatment plan.
diagnosis Correct Answer
assessment follow-up education
Ahead: Patient Assessment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 11
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as an individual state repository of information with the primary purpose of facilitating a comprehensive review of a physician's insurance coverage. to protect physicians who leave one state to practice in another state. Correct Answer as a national repository of information with the primary purpose of facilitating a comprehensive review of physicians' and other healthcare practitioners' professional credentials. as a national repository of information with the primary purpose of facilitating professional licensure.
Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 12
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The National Practitioner Data Bank was created by Congress:
The delineation of clinical privileges is the process by which the medical staff:
evaluates the physician's understanding of medical staff bylaws. Correct Answer
determines precisely what procedures a physician is authorized to perform. determines each physician's mental and physical capacity to be a member of the hospital's ethical staff. determines the physician's ability to work with others.
Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 13
0 / 1 pts
The premature dismissal of a case without notifying the patient can be construed as:
aggravation. delay in treatment.
misdiagnosis. Correct Answer
abandonment.
Ahead: Discharge and Follow-Up Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 14 The probability of malpractice suits against physicians can be reduced by:
guaranteeing treatment outcomes. defensive medicine. Correct Answer
personalized care. increased insurance coverage.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Physician–Patient Relationship Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 15
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The ultimate authority for granting clinical privileges rests with the: Correct Answer
governing body. executive team of the medical staff. CEO. president of the medical staff.
Ahead: Medical Staff Privileges
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 16
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When a patient is injured as a result of a physician who's practicing in a clinical area with which he is not familiar, the patient must show that:
the physician was not board certified in that area. Correct Answer the physician failed to meet the standard of care required of the specialty in which the physician was practicing at the time of the injury. he had to arrange for a consultation by another physician. the physician had sloppy recordkeeping practices regarding the patient's care.
Ahead: Patient Assessment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 17
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When a physician fails to perform an adequate history and physical, and the patient suffers injuries as a result of that failure:
the physician cannot be held liable for a patient's injuries resulting from such failure. Correct Answer the physician has violated a standard of care required of physicians and, therefore, can be liable for injuries suffered by the patient. a private practicing physician cannot be liable for injuries suffered. an independent practicing physician cannot be liable for injuries suffered.
Ahead: Patient Assessment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 18
0 / 1 pts
Which medical staff committee develops blood usage policies and procedures?
Credentials committee Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Infection control committee Blood and transfusion committee
Correct Answer
Ahead: Medical Staff Committee Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 19
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Which of the following medical staff committees is generally responsible for the development of policies and procedures for the detection, investigation, and control of infections? Correct Answer
Infection control committee Bylaws committee Executive committee Credentials committee
Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 20
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following medical staff committees is responsible for developing and/or approving policies relating to the handling and administration of drugs? Correct Answer
Pharmacy and therapeutics committee Institutional review board Executive committee Bylaws committee
Ahead: Medical Staff Organization
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 21
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following medical staff committees is responsible for reviewing medical records for timeliness, accuracy, legibility, and completeness?
Executive committee Bylaws committee Peer review committee Correct Answer
Medical records committee
Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 22
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following medical staff committees monitors and evaluates utilization issues such as medical necessity and appropriateness of admission and continued stay, as well as delay in the provision of diagnostic, therapeutic, and supportive services?
Tissue committee Medical records committee Correct Answer
Utilization review committee Credentials committee
Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 23
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following medical staff committees oversees the application process for new medical staff applicants?
Bylaws committee Correct Answer
Credentials committee Peer review committee
Quality assurance committee
Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 24
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Which of the following medical staff committees reviews and acts on reports of the various medical staff department chairpersons and designated medical staff committees?
Quality assurance committee Correct Answer
Executive committee Bylaws committee Peer review committee
Ahead: Medical Staff Organization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 25
0 / 1 pts
__________ is the most common cause of malpractice suits against physicians.
Abandonment Delay in treatment Misdiagnosis Failure to refer to a specialist
Ahead: Diagnosis Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 10
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:40am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
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A Navy veteran successfully underwent coronary bypass surgery at the Veterans Affairs Medical Center. However, he was injured as a result of being left unattended for several hours by nursing personnel in the intensive care unit. The veteran suffered anoxic brain injury following a complication with his endotracheal tube. A lawsuit was filed, and the court determined that: Correct Answer the trial court properly required the federal government to make an immediate lump-sum payment of future medical damages to the veteran. there was no evidence of wrongdoing. the trial court's award for damages should be lowered. the trial court erred by awarding the patient a lump sum-payment.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A nurse can be found negligent for:
reporting a patient's symptoms. timely reporting a patient' symptoms. correctly transcribing telephone orders. Correct Answer
failure to report defective equipment.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A nurse who fails to follow a doctor's verbal orders to watch a patient closely:
cannot be liable for their negligent act if the patient is injured. Correct Answer
can be liable for their negligent act if the patient is injured. is absolutely not at fault for negligent behavior.
is personally immune from any liable action.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
A nurse who is trained in the delivery of primary health care and the assessment of psychosocial and physical health problems such as the performance of routine examinations and the ordering of routine diagnostic tests is a:
clinical nurse specialist. student nurse. Correct Answer
nurse practitioner. nursing supervisor.
Ahead: Advanced Practice Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
A nurse who is uncertain about a physician's medication order should clarify the order with the:
chief of staff. evening administrator. emergency room physician. Correct Answer
prescribing physician.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
A nurse with an advanced academic degree and a major in a specific clinical specialty such as pediatrics or psychiatry is a:
nurse practitioner. nursing care coordinator. special duty nurse. Correct Answer
clinical nurse specialist.
Ahead: Advanced Practice Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 7
0 / 1 pts
A solution was prepared by an employee and injected into the patient by a physician. The physician made no examination of the fluid, and the patient suffered permanent injuries as a result of the injection. The court determined that the physician was:
responsible for the injury because he should have known what was in the syringe. responsible for the preparation of drugs by employees. responsible for testing all drugs prepared by an employee before administering them. Correct Answer not responsible for drugs prepared by an employee unless he knowingly could have prevented injury to the patient.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 8
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Each state has its own nurse practice act that defines the practice of __________ within the state. Correct Answer
nursing a specialty medicine
midwifery
Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 9 Failure to identify the correct patient can result in:
faster patient turnover. Correct Answer
patient injury. improved patient care. the correct administration of medications.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
0 / 1 pts
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Question 10
0 / 1 pts
Mrs. Ard noticed that her husband was having difficulty breathing. He was reeling from side to side in bed. Believing that her husband was dying, she continued to call for help, estimating that she rang the call bell for more than an hour before anyone responded. A code was eventually called. Unfortunately, Mr. Ard did not survive the code. The court most likely determined that:
the failure of the nurses to respond did not affect Mr. Ard's chance of survival. Correct Answer
Mr. Ard's chance of survival had been diminished by the nurse's failure to respond. Mrs. Ard was wrong in her assessment of her husband. the patient's condition was improving.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Nurse licensing boards have the authority to suspend or revoke the license of nurses who have:
upheld specified norms of conduct. Correct Answer
procured a license fraudulently. engaged in union activities. been habitually late to work.
Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
Unanswered
Question 12 Some states will not recognize out-of-state licensed nurses and require that all applicants:
Correct Answer
take an examination. provide an endorsement by a colleague. be provided a waiver of examination. be granted reciprocity.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 13
0 / 1 pts
The chief nursing officer is generally responsible for:
selecting nursing staff and developing training programs for engineering staff. maintaining current policy manuals. Correct Answer maintaining standards of practice, maintaining current policy manuals, coordinating and integrating nursing services with other patient care services, and selecting nursing staff. supervising dietary staff.
Ahead: Nursing Careers
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 14
0 / 1 pts
The courts, in several decisions, have taken the position that anyone, including a student who performs duties customarily performed by a professional nurse, is held to the same standard of care as a:
nurse practitioner. nursing aide. student nurse. Correct Answer
professional nurse.
Ahead: Nursing Careers Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 15
0 / 1 pts
The formal or informal agreement between states whereby a nurse licensing board in one state recognizes licensees of another state is referred to as:
examination. waiver. endorsement. Correct Answer
reciprocity.
Ahead: Nurse Licensure Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Various states recognize that nurses can render a nursing diagnosis. Where a defendant physician ignores a nurse's assessment of a patient's diagnosis and the patient is injured, the court would most likely determine that:
the delay in treatment of the patient was acceptable behavior. a registered nurse cannot make an assessment of a patient's needs. Correct Answer
the physician, by ignoring the nurse's assessment, contributed to a delay in treatment and injury to the patient. the physician need not respond to the nurse's observations.
Ahead: Scope of Practice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 17
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is correct regarding patient discharge?
A nurse has no right to question a physician's decision to discharge a patient. A nurse has no right to delay a physician's decision to discharge a patient. Correct Answer A nurse who has reason to believe a discharge order could be injurious to the patient has a right to question the physician's decision.
A nurse who has reason to believe a discharge order could be injurious to the patient is no position to question a well-educated physician.
Ahead: Legal Risks of Nurses Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 18
0 / 1 pts
__________ enacted the first exclusive Nurse Practice Act. Correct Answer
New York North Carolina New Jersey New Hampshire
Ahead: Scope of Practice
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
__________ enacted the first nurse registration act.
New York California Correct Answer
North Carolina New Jersey
Ahead: Scope of Practice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
Unanswered
Question 20 __________ was the first state to approve nurses performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
New York Correct Answer
Hawaii
0 / 1 pts
California North Carolina
Ahead: Scope of Practice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 11
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:42am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A ___________ is the formal listing of drugs used in an organization.
generic catalog brand name catalog Correct Answer
formulary pharmaceutical database
Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A chiropractor is required to exercise the same degree of care, judgment, and skill exercised by other reasonable:
surgeons. nurses. orthopedic surgeons. Correct Answer
chiropractors.
Ahead: Chiropractor Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
An objective emergency care are is to:
treat all patients with insurance the same. assess the needs of most patients. Correct Answer
treat patients promptly to prevent deterioration in function and treat all patients regardless of ability to pay.
begin treatment rapidly for insured patients.
Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
Unanswered
Question 4 An organization's laboratory provides:
data vital to a patient's treatment and provides valuable information for research studies. data to help monitor therapeutic ranges. data to measure blood levels for toxicity. Correct Answer
All of these are correct.
Ahead: Laboratory Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Caregivers should be sure to:
share patient information with all visitors. wash their hands at least twice during their shift. repair patient equipment regularly. Correct Answer
be sure their handwriting is legible.
Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
EMTALA requires that a Medicare-provider hospital:
transfer all Medicare patients to a nonparticipating hospital.
provide an appropriate medical screening examination to determine whether an emergency medical condition exists, stabilize the patient, and transfer the patient to another facility, if necessary. transfer the patient first, and then stabilize the patient at the receiving hospital. be careful not to transfer the patient to a facility capable of meeting the patient's needs.
Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
Unanswered
Question 7 Emergency department on-call specialists are expected to:
be within a 2-hour flight of the hospital. rotate off the on-call schedule once annually. respond to calls generally within 36 hours of being contacted. Correct Answer
respond to calls on a timely basis as required by policy.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Emergency rooms are considered vital to public safety; therefore, patients:
can be turned away if they are in the country illegally. can be turned away for not paying required insurance deductibles. Correct Answer
cannot be turned away. can be refused treatment for inability to pay.
Ahead: Emergency Department
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Healthcare organizations are expected to provide patients with diets that:
meet their individual requests. Correct Answer
are prescribed, accurate, and monitored based on needs. are accurately monitored. are of varying nutritional value.
Ahead: Nutritional Services Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 10
0 / 1 pts
If a patient decides to leave an emergency department without notice because of a delay in being treated, the courts would generally hold that:
the nurse should have prevented the patient from leaving.
the nurse should have encouraged the patient to make his or her own decision to leave. Correct Answer the patient left the hospital without notice on his or her own accord, and that there is no liability on the part of the hospital if injury occurs as a result of leaving. the hospital should have apologized to the patient for the long wait.
Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Licensing boards have the authority to: Correct Answer
revoke a license for professional or moral misconduct. suspend or revoke a license for professional conduct. revoke a license for legal conduct.
revoke a license for performance of specific actions permitted by statute.
Ahead: Licensure and Certification of Healthcare Professionals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
Unanswered
Question 12 Medication errors can be decreased by:
ensuring that handwriting is illegible. using felt-tip pens. Correct Answer
writing abbreviations according to hospital policy. writing ambiguous orders.
Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970:
places all substances that are regulated under existing federal law into one of nine schedules. Correct Answer
places all substances that are regulated under existing federal law into one of five schedules. provides that Schedule IX drugs are the most dangerous drugs. provides that Schedule VII drugs are the most dangerous drugs.
Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 14
0 / 1 pts
The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970: Correct Answer
is commonly known as the Controlled Substances Act.
is the same as the Food and drug Administration Act. replaces virtually all preexisting state laws dealing with antibiotics. places all substances that are regulated under existing federal law into one of nine schedules.
Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 15 The _______ forbids Medicare-participating hospitals from “dumping” patients out of emergency departments.
Emergency Labor Act Good Samaritan Act of 1986 Correct Answer
EMTALA Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Emergency Department Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 16
0 / 1 pts
The court of appeals, in the case Stepp v. Review Board of the Indiana Employment Security Division, where the laboratory technician refused to perform chemical examinations on vials with AIDS warnings, found that:
the employee was not dismissed for just cause. the employee was dismissed for just cause. Correct Answer
the laboratory waived its right to compel employees to perform assigned tasks. there was no fair hearing and the employee was unfairly discharged.
Ahead: Laboratory
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 17
0 / 1 pts
The physical therapist is running behind schedule and is instructed to move patients through a physical therapy session more quickly. The patient says he needs to go to the bathroom, but the therapist informs the 83-year-old patient that he will have to wait until after his 30-minute session. What could the therapist be charged with for refusing to allow a patient to go to the bathroom prior to starting a therapy treatment session?
Pursuasion Intent Fraud Correct Answer
Neglect
Ahead: Physical Therapist Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 18
0 / 1 pts
The practice of pharmacy generally involves:
preparation of the hospital's capital budget. reporting drug–drug interactions to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC). collecting lab specimens. Correct Answer
preparation, compounding, and dispensing of medications.
Ahead: Pharmacy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
The recognition by a governmental or professional association that an individual's expertise meets the standards of that group is referred to as:
licensure. registration.
Correct Answer
competency. certification.
Ahead: Licensure and Certification of Healthcare Professionals Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
Unanswered
Question 20 Under EMTALA, emergency department patients should:
Correct Answer
be stabilized prior to transfer. be transferred immediately. be referred to a clinic if they lack insurance coverage. be asked to return when the emergency department is not so busy.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Emergency Departments Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 21
0 / 1 pts
When the skills of a specialist are required in an emergency department, hospitals should:
call in the necessary specialist on-call for assistance. If there is no such specialist, the patient should be transferred after stabilizing to an appropriate facility. transfer the patient and notify an on-call specialty physician . transfer the patient immediately. Correct Answer
call the physician assistant on call.
Ahead: Emergency Department
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 22
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is a high-risk department that tends to be a main source of lawsuits?
Respiratory therapy Radiology Laboratory Correct Answer
Emergency
Ahead: Emergency Department Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
Unanswered
Question 23 Which of the following is an allied health professional responsible for the treatment, management, diagnostic testing, and control of patients with cardiopulmonary deficits?
0 / 1 pts
Physician's assistant Nurse practitioner Correct Answer
Respiratory therapist Physical therapist
Ahead: Respiratory Therapy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
Unanswered
Question 24
0 / 1 pts
_______ is the art and science of preventing and treating neuromuscular or musculoskeletal disabilities through the evaluation of an individual's disability and rehabilitation potential.
Activity therapy Physical therapy Respiratory therapy Podiatry
Correct Answer
Ahead: Physical Therapist Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 12
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:43am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A patient's medical record may not be released:
to health insurance companies for reimbursement purposes. to health insurance companies in order to process health claims. Correct Answer
because a person is in the public spotlight (e.g., movie star). for criminal investigative work.
Ahead: Ownership and Release of Medical Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 2 Falsification of medical records is grounds for a:
lawsuit for a negligent act.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
criminal indictment. tort. contract dispute.
Ahead: Falsification of Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Healthcare organizations undergoing computerization must: Correct Answer develop a disaster recovery plan, provide for data security, design an effective system, and seek input from end users. determine the system in mind with ease of access for patients. select least expensive hardware.
use the most powerful software available.
Ahead: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 4 Medical record entries should __________.
be written within 7 days of observing a patient's deteriorating condition. be written within 21 days of observing a patient's deteriorating condition. Correct Answer
be legible. avoid being too specific.
Ahead: Illegible Handwriting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Ordinary business documents are:
considered privileged. generally protected from discovery by state statutes. Correct Answer
not protected as privileged communications by state statutes.
are considered strictly confidential information, and their contents cannot be exposed except with some exceptions in a court of law.
Ahead: Confidential and Privileged Communications Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Ownership of the medical record resides with the:
provider of care (e.g., hospital, nursing facility).
Correct Answer
facility's legal counsel. patient. nurse rendering care.
Ahead: Ownership and Release of Medical Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 7 Peer review documents are:
discoverable in all states. available to all hospital employees. Correct Answer
generally exempt from discovery. available for public review.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Confidential and Privileged Communications Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Persistent failure of a physician to complete his or her medical records can lead to:
promotion. Correct Answer
suspension of medical staff privileges. breach of confidentiality. improved reimbursement from patience insurance carriers.
Ahead: Illegible Handwriting
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Rewriting record entries:
is a good practice that ensures accuracy. is the right thing to do. will illustrate how conscientious the caretaker is, especially during a lawsuit. Correct Answer
can cast doubt on the accuracy of other medical record entries.
Ahead: Falsification of Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 10 The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 provide that:
patients must be able to access their records and request correction of errors. patients must be informed as to how their personal information will be used.
0 / 1 pts
patient information cannot be used for marketing purposes without the explicit consent of the involved patients. Correct Answer
All of these are correct.
Ahead: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
The Privacy Act of 1974 provides that:
the privacy of individual information is not affected by the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personal information by federal agencies.
the increasing use of computers and sophisticated information technology, while essential to the efficient operations of the government, has in no way harmed individual privacy that can occur from the collection, maintenance, use, or dissemination of personal information.
the opportunities for an individual to secure employment, insurance, and credit, and his right to due process,
and other legal protections have been found safe by the misuse of certain information systems. Correct Answer
the right to privacy is a personal and fundamental right protected by the Constitution of the United States.
Ahead: Privacy Act of 1974 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 12 The Privacy Act of 1974 was enacted to:
safeguard the privacy of healthcare professionals. provide a backup for state records. provide individuals with legal access to federal records. Correct Answer
safeguard individual privacy and discourage misuse of federal records.
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Ahead: Privacy Act of 1974 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 13
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The admission record does not generally describe the patient's:
age. address. Correct Answer
sexual preferences. marital status, religion, and health insurance.
Ahead: Medical Record Contents
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
The advantages of computer systems:
have yet to be recognized. are primarily with patient education programs. Correct Answer
include timely retrieval of demographic information, consultant reports, and test results. ensure that patient records can be accessed by anyone seeking patient information.
Ahead: Electronic Medical Records Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 15
0 / 1 pts
The effective and efficient delivery of patient care requires that an organization determine its information needs. Organizations that do not centralize their information needs will often experience:
centralized and organized databases.
Correct Answer
scattered databases. consistent reports. efficiency in the use of economic resources.
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 16
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The integrity and completeness of the medical record are important in reconstructing the events surrounding an alleged negligence or criminal act in the care of a patient. Thus, the medical record can:
aid in police investigations. aid in determining the cause of death. provide information in workers' compensation cases and personal injury proceedings. All of these are correct.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Legal Proceedings and the Medical Record Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
Unanswered
Question 17 The medical record is important to a healthcare facility because it:
is a legal document. is a record of the care and treatment rendered to caregivers. is financially unnecessary. Correct Answer
is an essential tool in the delivery of quality patient care.
Ahead: Medical Record Contents Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
The persistent failure to conform to a medical staff rule requiring physicians to complete records promptly can be the basis for: Correct Answer
limitations on or suspension of medical staff privilege. payment of bonuses. sanctions by the planning board. forcing nurses to complete records.
Ahead: Illegible Handwriting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
The process of facilitating the flow of information within and among departments and caregivers is referred to as:
treatment planning. computerization of financial records. digitized clinical data. Correct Answer
information management.
Ahead: Information Management Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 20
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When making changes to a patient's record:
erasures and correction fluid should be used to cover up entries. try to hide that the record has been corrected. Correct Answer a single line should be drawn through a mistaken entry and the correct information should be entered, signed, and dated. the correction should be signed, but a date is unnecessary.
Ahead: Charting: Some Helpful Advice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 21
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following applies to patient rights with regard to their medical records?
Patients only have the right to receive a verbal summary of the information in their record. Correct Answer
Patients may have access to review and obtain copies of their records. Patients cannot request the healthcare organization to provide copies of their records. Anyone who is related to the patient may review and obtain copies of the patient's records.
Ahead: Ownership and Release of Medical Records
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 22
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following should be included in a patient's medical record?
Long, defensive, or derogatory notes Correct Answer
Facts pertinent to the patient's care Complaints or emotional comments about other caregivers Emotional comments and extraneous remarks
Ahead: Charting: Some Helpful Advice Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 13
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:44am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A limited power of attorney for students authorizes school officials:
not to act as a legal guardian for students on behalf of the parents during a field trip. to seek emergency care for uninjured students during a field trip. Correct Answer
to act in emergency situations on behalf of students under their supervision during a field trip. to act on behalf of the physician in emergency situations during school field trips.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A patient's refusal to consent to treatment, for any reason, religious or otherwise, should be noted in the: Correct Answer
medical record.
incident report. business office. patient's bill for services rendered.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A touching of another without authorization to do so could be considered:
consensual touching. Correct Answer
battery. assault. implied touching.
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
Adult patients who are conscious and mentally competent:
have no right to refuse medical care. cannot refuse medical treatment when the best medical opinion deems it essential to life. have to obtain a court order to exercise their right to refuse treatment. Correct Answer
have the legal right to refuse to permit a touching of his or her body.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Although hospitals are not generally responsible for informing patients as to the risks, benefits and alternatives to specific procedures, hospitals:
always have a duty to provide patients with informed consent, especially in complicated surgical cases. Correct Answer
in some cases owe a duty to provide patients with informed consent. never have a duty to provide a patient with informed consent. must delegate the need for informed consent to the nursing staff.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
An informed consent form should include:
the nature of the patient's illness or injury and the risks and prognosis if no treatment is rendered.
the procedure or treatment consented to without reference to alternative methods of treatment and their
associated risks and benefits.
the purpose of the proposed treatment, excluding any alternative methods of treatment and their associated risks and benefits. Correct Answer the risks and probable consequences of the proposed treatment; the probability that the proposed treatment will be successful; the signatures of the patient, physician, and witnesses; and the date the consent is signed.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 7
0 / 1 pts
At the end of the day, and as recognized by the courts, it is the __________ who has the right to accept or refuse treatment based on the alternatives available.
physician hospital Correct Answer
patient ethics committee
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Clinical assessment of decision-making capacity should include the patient's ability to: Correct Answer understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a proposed procedure, as well as express his or her treatment preferences. evaluate the information provided by the physician. express his or her family's treatment preferences.
voluntarily make decisions regarding his or her treatment plan pending consent by family, friends, and physician.
Ahead: Patient Consent
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Consent in cases in which immediate action is required to save an unconscious patient's life or to prevent permanent impairment of a patient's health is referred to as __________ consent.
written express Correct Answer
implied verbal
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 10 In the absence of statutory protection, a procedure performed despite an individual's objection to consenting to a procedure beyond which the patient agrees could constitute:
0 / 1 pts
false imprisonment. Correct Answer
battery. fraud. libel.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Informed consent is a legal doctrine that provides that a patient has the right to know the potential:
benefits of a proposed procedure. risks of a proposed procedure. risks, benefits, and compromises of a proposed procedure. risks, benefits, and alternatives of a proposed procedure.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 12 Informed consent is:
used merely as a tool to avoid lawsuits. Correct Answer
designed to allow patients to make an informed decisions. designed to avoid a lawsuit by meeting a legal requirement. used strictly as a legal protection for the physician for unforeseen mishaps during surgery.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
0 / 1 pts
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Question 13
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It is preferable that a patient's consent to a surgical procedure be procured by the:
chief orderly. nursing supervisor. Correct Answer
physician. administrator.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Primary responsibility for obtaining informed consent from the patient lies with the:
nurse who will care for the patient following the procedure. physician who will perform the procedure.
Correct Answer
hospital or facility where the procedure will be performed. hospital board members.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 15
0 / 1 pts
The courts generally utilize a subjective or objective test to determine whether a patient would have refused treatment if the physician had provided adequate information as to the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the procedure. Under the subjective test theory,
the court examines whether the defendant would have chosen the procedure based on how the physician explained the procedure to the patient.
the defendant must prove that a “reasonable person” would not have undergone the procedure if they had been properly informed. the court relies solely on the defendant's testimony. Correct Answer
the patient must testify and prove that they would not have consented to the procedure(s) had they been advised of the particular risk in question.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 16
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The courts have held, as a general proposition, that the consent of a minor to medical or surgical treatment is:
effective, and the physician need not secure the consent of the minor's parent. Correct Answer
not necessary when the minor is married or otherwise emancipated. never effective. always valid.
Ahead: Patient Consent
Unanswered
Question 17
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
0 / 1 pts
The ethical rationale underlying the doctrine of informed consent is:
rooted in notions of free speech. Correct Answer
rooted in notions of freedom of choice, liberty, and autonomy. rooted in the capitalist system. to better involve hospital staff, knowing that the staff always knows what is best for the patient.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 18 Verbal consent:
0 / 1 pts
is not as binding as written consent. should be in verified in writing with a written agreement. Correct Answer
is more difficult to corroborate. is invalid.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
What is the physician's duty with regard to a proposed procedure? Correct Answer
The physician has a duty to explain all the potential risks of a proposed procedure. The physician does not have a duty to explain all the possible risks of a proposed procedure. The physician has a duty to explain all the possible risks and benefits of a proposed.
The physician has a duty to explain all the possible benefits, risks, and benefits of a proposed procedure.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 20
0 / 1 pts
When a physician doubts a patient's capacity to consent,
the consent of the legal guardian or next of kin should seldom be obtained when there are no relatives to consult. Correct Answer it may be the duty of the court to assume responsibility of guardianship for a patient who is non compos mentis. the patient's best friend should act as the legal guardian. any person who is mentally competent can make the decision.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 21
0 / 1 pts
When applying the objective standard of informed consent, Correct Answer one must take into account the characteristics of the plaintiff, including the plaintiff's idiosyncrasies, fears, age, medical condition, and religious beliefs.
the standard to be applied is whether an unreasonable person in the patient's position would have consented to the procedure or treatment in question if adequately informed of all significant perils. the plaintiff's testimony is the sole factor when determining the issue of informed consent. the issue is whether a particular patient would have chosen a different course of treatment.
Ahead: Patient Consent
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 22
0 / 1 pts
When questions arise as to whether adequate consent has been given, some courts take into consideration the information that is ordinarily provided by other physicians. A physician must: Correct Answer reveal to his or her patient such information as a skilled practitioner of good standing would provide under similar circumstance, including the potential of complications. disclose to the patient the potential for death associated with a particular procedure. disclose the possibility of serious harm associated with a particular procedure. disclose the potential complications associated with a proposed procedure.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 23
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is a defense available to defendants who have been sued on the basis of failure to provide their patients with sufficient information to make an informed decision? Correct Answer
The risk not disclosed is commonly known and does not warrant disclosure.
The patient assured the medical practitioner that he or she would undergo the treatment, procedure, or diagnosis, but wanted detailed information as to the risks involved.
The patient assured the medical practitioner that he wanted to be informed of the matters to which he would be entitled to be informed. Consent by or on behalf of a patient was reasonably possible and should have been discussed in detail.
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 24
0 / 1 pts
_______ is the voluntary agreement by a person in the possession and exercise of sufficient mental capacity to make an intelligent choice to allow something proposed by another.
Consent.
Correct Answer
Implied consent Express consent Coercion
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 25 __________ consent is the preferred method of obtaining consent.
Express Correct Answer
Written Implied Verbal
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
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Question 26
0 / 1 pts
__________ consent requires that a patient have a full understanding of that to what he or she has consented.
Written Express Implied Informed
Ahead: Patient Consent Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 14
Correct Answer
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:45am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A 1997 report to the president by the Advisory Commission on Consumer Protection and Quality in the Health Care Industry clearly describes patient:
consent requirements. Correct Answer
responsibilities. recordkeeping requirements. rights.
Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 2 A patient has the responsibility to provide, to the best of his or her knowledge:
0 / 1 pts
incomplete information about present complaints. Correct Answer
information about present complaints and past illnesses and surgical procedures. information on his or her income. information on his or her religious beliefs.
Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A patient has the right to know the names and positions of any:
interns and residents involved in his or her care. physicians involved in his or her care. physical therapists and laboratory technicians involved in his or her care. all caregivers involved in his or her care.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 4 A patient is responsible for those injuries resulting from:
physician negligence. nursing negligence. the hospital's failure to post a patient's bill of rights. Correct Answer
his or her failure to follow physician instructions.
Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
0 / 1 pts
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Mr. Jones has a right to ask a caregiver:
the caregiver's personal information. to personally drop him off at home. for a list of his roommate's medications. Correct Answer
for clarification of caregiver instructions.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Patients have a right to receive a copy of their:
rights upon admission to the hospital. rights and responsibilities upon admission to the hospital.
Correct Answer
responsibilities upon admission to the hospital. rights, but not responsibilities, when discharged to the next level of care.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 7 Patients have a right to refuse a blood transfusion:
if the physician agrees. Correct Answer
for any or no reason. for moral but not religious beliefs. only in life-threatening situations
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Patients have a right to:
play their TV as loud as they want. have as many visitors as they desire. Correct Answer
change their minds and refuse care. smoke in their rooms.
Ahead: Patient Rights
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Patients have a right to: Correct Answer
a pain management control plan. an assessment of their pain, as long as there is sufficient staff to assess their level of pain. to have their pain medications as often as they want. to determine the strength of medications they wish to take.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 10 Patients have a right to:
privacy, if agreed to by the physician. confidentiality, if agreed to at the time of admission.
0 / 1 pts
request a second opinion, if approved by the hospital's administration. Correct Answer
request a second opinion at any time.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Patients have a right to:
more than three channels of television. a private room. select the nurse they wish to work with. Correct Answer
receive clarification of the physician's orders and explanation of the treatment plan.
Ahead: Patient Rights
Unanswered
Question 12
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
0 / 1 pts
Patients have a right to:
participate some aspects of their care. certain treatment planning, as determined by their physicians. Correct Answer
have special needs addressed. participate in developing hospital policy.
Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 13 Patients in critical condition should not be discharged or transferred to another facility:
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
prior to being stabilized. following stabilization. after financial arrangement have been made to cover the transfer. ever.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Patients must __________ describe the location and severity of their pain, as well as any previous pain management protocols they have followed. Correct Answer
accurately imprecisely incorrectly
not fully describe
Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
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Question 15
0 / 1 pts
Regardless of their ability to pay, patients presenting themselves to a hospital emergency department with acute medical or surgical problems should be:
provided care based on their ability to pay politely requested to return later in the day when a bed is available. Correct Answer
treated as any other patient requested to apply for Medicaid prior to treatment
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 provides that each individual has a right under state law, whether statutory or as recognized by the courts of the state, to:
make decisions concerning another's medical care. Correct Answer
accept or refuse care and formulate advance directives. make decisions concerning his or her medical care only if approved by the physician. make no decisions concerning his or her medical care.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
When obtaining information about hospital emergency room, outpatient, and inpatient treatment charges, patients:
must first obtain written permission from the treating physician before the records will be released. must first file for bankruptcy. must not see the actual costs. Correct Answer
have a right to full transparency.
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
Question 18 When the admitting hospital is unable to meet a patient's particular needs, the patient:
has a right to be transferred to a hospital that can meet his or her needs. Correct Answer
does not have a right to be transferred to a hospital that can meet his or her needs. does not have the right to be discharged. can sue the hospital.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Patient Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Unanswered
0 / 1 pts
Question 19 Which of the following applies to self-administration of prescription medication?
Patients are expected to self-medicate when running a temperature, even if they have not been prescribed a medication by a physician. Patients are required to self-administer medications that have not been prescribed by a physician. Patients must not self-administer medications that have not been prescribed by a physician.
Patients must self-medicate when the pain level reaches a level 4 or higher on the pain scale, even if pain medications have not been prescribed by a physician.
Ahead: Patient Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 15
Correct Answer
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:45am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A more global view of right and wrong is referred to as:
conflicting judgments. moral judgments. religious ethics. Correct Answer
macroethics.
Ahead: Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A person who has moral integrity and a strict regard for doing what is considered the right thing to do is a __________ person.
truthful Correct Answer
conscientious perverse discerning
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Determining what moral standards should be followed so that human behavior and conduct may be morally right is referred to as __________ ethics.
utilitarian situational consequential normative
Correct Answer
Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
The __________ theory of ethics denies that the consequences of an action or rule are the only criteria for determining the morality of an action or rule.
consequential Correct Answer
nonconsequential normative utilitarian
Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
To show special regard to someone or something is to be __________.
disrespectful. Correct Answer
respectful. insolent. impertinent.
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
When caring for the dying, relatives may perform rituals. In death, jewelry, sacred threads, or other religious objects should not be removed from the body. Washing the body is part of the funeral rites and should be carried out by the relatives. Such acts are practiced in:
Taoism Judaism Buddhism Correct Answer
Hinduism
Ahead: Religious Ethics and Spirituality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
Unanswered
Question 7 _______ are situations where a choice must be made between unpleasant alternatives.
Legislative stalemates Situational ethics Difficult situations Correct Answer
Ethical dilemmas
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
_______ is the quality of being considerate and sympathetic to another's needs.
Steadfastness Perseverance Correct Answer
Kindness Justness
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
_______ judgment is concerned with what an individual or group believes to be the right or proper behavior in a given situation.
Consequential Ethical Correct Answer
Moral Situational
Ahead: Morality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 10
0 / 1 pts
__________ are standards or codes of conduct established by the membership of a specific profession.
Professional statements
Determinant ethics Correct Answer
Professional ethics Descriptive ethics
Ahead: Professional Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
__________ focus(es) on the inherent character of a person rather than on the specific actions that he or she performs. Correct Answer
Virtue Bioethics Self-esteem
Constitutional ethics
Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 12
0 / 1 pts
__________ implies that a person accepts differences in others and that one does not expect others to believe, think, speak, or act as himself or herself. Correct Answer
Positive tolerance Negativity Sternness Hopelessness
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 13
0 / 1 pts
__________ implies that one will reluctantly put up with another's beliefs. In other words, they simply tolerate the view of others.
Beneficence Positive tolerance Implied authority Correct Answer
Negative tolerance
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 14
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a form of beneficence. People, often believing that they know what is best for another, often make decisions that they believe are in that person's best interest.
Morals Compassion Correct Answer
Paternalism Kindness
Ahead: Principles of Healthcare Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 15
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a guide to behavior that all rational people should put forward to govern their behavior. Correct Answer
Morality Religion Philosophy Compassion
Ahead: Morality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 16
0 / 1 pts
__________ is an individual's view of what is right and wrong based on life experiences. Correct Answer
Microethics Bioethics Moral ethics Benevolent ethics
Ahead: Ethics
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 17
0 / 1 pts
__________ is based on the New Testament of the bible. Correct Answer
Christianity Judaism Taoism Falun Gong
Ahead: Religious Ethics and Spirituality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
Unanswered
Question 18 __________ is confidence that a person will act with the right motives.
Compassion Correct Answer
Trust
0 / 1 pts
Paternalism Wisdom
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
__________ is looking forward to something with the confidence of success. Correct Answer
Hopefulness Helpfulness Truthfulness Completeness
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength
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Question 20
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
0 / 1 pts
__________ is the ability to make a good decision without personal biases, fears, and undue influences from others.
Fidelity Determination Correct Answer
Discernment Wisdom
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 21
0 / 1 pts
__________ is the application of normative theories to practical moral problems.
Consequential ethics Correct Answer
Applied ethics Meta-ethics Descriptive
Ahead: Ethical Theories Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 22
0 / 1 pts
__________ is the deep awareness of and sympathy for another's suffering.
Kindness Helpfulness Compassion
Correct Answer
Gratitude
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
Unanswered
Question 23 __________ is the obligation to be fair in the distribution of benefits and risks.
Paternalism Fairness Injustice Correct Answer
Justice
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Principles of Healthcare Ethics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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0 / 1 pts
Question 24 __________ is the steadfast adherence to a strict moral or ethical code and a commitment not to compromise this code.
Correct Answer
Integrity Intuition Wisdom Fidelity
Ahead: Pillars of Moral Strength
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 25
0 / 1 pts
__________ serves as a moral purpose by providing codes of conduct for appropriate behavior through revelations from a divine source.
Professional ethics Science Correct Answer
Religion Government
Ahead: Religious Ethics and Spirituality Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 16
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:46am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A wrongful life claim can be brought by the parents or child claiming: Correct Answer
harm suffered by being born. child abuse. economic harm. eugenics of disabled persons.
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 2 Arkansas code defines partial-birth abortion as an abortion:
0 / 1 pts
in which the person performing the abortion vaginally delivers a living fetus and takes the life of the fetus after completing the delivery. in which all parties of the abortion are to be held harmless for performing the abortion. Correct Answer in which the person performing the abortion partially vaginally delivers a living fetus before taking the life of the fetus and completing the delivery. in which the abortion is performed during the first trimester.
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Artificial insemination is:
the result of an early abortion. Correct Answer
the injection of seminal fluid into a woman to induce pregnancy. illegal by federal law.
rarely successful.
Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 4 Current eugenic sterilization statutes:
allow for the performance of castration. provide for salpingectomy as the preferred method of castration. permit castration in most cases. Correct Answer
provide for vasectomy or salpingectomy as the preferred method of castration.
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Damages sought for a negligently performed sterilization might include:
damages for the birth of an unwanted child. Correct Answer
expenses related to the negligent performance of the sterilization. birth of a healthy child. the father's loss of consortium.
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 6
0 / 1 pts
In 1992, the U.S. Supreme Court in Planned Parenthood of Southeastern Pennsylvania v. Casey, determined that:
in asserting an interest in protecting fetal life, a state may not place any restrictions on previability abortions. Correct Answer the state has the power to restrict abortions after fetal viability, as long as the law contains exceptions for pregnancies that endanger a woman's life or health. the rights of the fetus are greater than the mother's rights. the father's rights are equal to those of the fetus.
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 7
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In H.L. v. Matheson, the Supreme Court ruled that it is not an undue burden to require that:
a woman be informed of the nature of the abortion procedure and the risks involved. a woman be offered information on the fetus and on the alternatives to abortion. Correct Answer a statute setting out a mere requirement of parental notice when possible does not violate the constitutional rights of an immature, dependent minor. a woman give her informed consent before the abortion procedure.
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 8
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In Oklahoma, artificial insemination statues specify:
that sterilization is prohibited by law.
that local ordinances must be developed to govern the sterilization process. that all records must be remain public. Correct Answer that a original copy of the consent be filed pursuant to the rules for the filing of adoption papers and is not to be made a matter of public record.
Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 9 Physicians are feeling the heat:
Correct Answer
for performing elective abortions. for charging too much for abortions. for performing abortions in outpatient clinics. for performing early abortions without consent.
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Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 10
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Sterilization for eugenic purposes: Correct Answer
should be performed as provided for in a state's statutes. should never be performed unless provided for by hospital policy. should be performed strictly in an outpatient clinic. should be performed on all prisoners who have committed a felony.
Ahead: Sterilization
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 11
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Sterilizations are often sought due to:
economic necessity. Correct Answer
economic, genetic, and/or economic reasons. genetic reasons. personal reasons.
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 12
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The Supreme Court reaffirmed the constitutional right of women to have an abortion before viability of the fetus, as first annunciated in Roe v. Wade, in:
Bellotti v. Baird.
Harris v. McRae. H.L. v. Matheson. Correct Answer
Planned Parenthood v. Casey.
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 13
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The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that it is unconstitutional to require all women under the age of 18 to obtain parental consent in writing prior to obtaining an abortion in:
Roe v. Wade. Correct Answer
Danforth v. Planned Parenthood. Doe v. Bolton.
Maher v. Roe.
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 14
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The provisions of the Georgia statute establishing residency requirements for women seeking abortions and requiring that the procedure be performed in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals were declared constitutionally invalid in:
Roe v. Wade. Danforth v. Planned Parenthood. Correct Answer
Doe v. Bolton. Maher v. Roe.
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 15
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The sterilization of persons within certain classes or categories (e.g., mentally deficient) and not requiring patient consent is __________ sterilization.
therapeutic moral Correct Answer
eugenic ethical
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 16
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The surgical technique to prevent a male or female from having the ability to produce offspring is:
artificial insemination. tubal blockage. Correct Answer
sterilization. contraception.
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 17 Therapeutic sterilizations due to medical necessity are performed:
to protect the health of the woman. to remove diseased organs. Correct Answer
to protect one's health and remove diseased organs. to limit population growth.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 18
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Voluntary sterilization is the subject of many debates:
due to congressional objection. due to the high of cost of the procedure. Correct Answer
as a result of religious, moral, and ethical issues. due to objection by the state in which the person seeking an abortion resides.
Ahead: Sterilization
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is correct with regards to employees and whether they participate in performing an abortion?
Employees must participate in all abortions. Employees must participate in abortions as a matter of conscience. Employees must participate in abortions for religious reasons. Correct Answer
Employees can refuse to participate in abortions for conscience, religious, or moral conviction.
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
Question 20 _____ sterilization is performed due to medical necessity.
eugenic
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
therapeutic ethical moral
Ahead: Sterilization Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 21
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_______ is the injection of seminal fluid into a woman to induce pregnancy.
False intercourse Heterologous insemination Homologous insemination Correct Answer
Heterologous or homologous insemination
Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 22
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_______ is when the semen of a man who is not the woman's spouse or partner is used to impregnate the woman.
Homologous insemination Correct Answer
Heterologous insemination Eugenic sterilization Therapeutic insemination
Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
Unanswered
0 / 1 pts
Question 23 _______ is when the semen of a woman's spouse or partner is utilized to impregnate the woman.
Correct Answer
Homologous insemination Heterologous insemination Eugenic insemination Surrogacy
Ahead: Artificial Insemination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 24
0 / 1 pts
________ is the premature termination of a pregnancy.
Artificial insemination Correct Answer
Sterilization
Abortion Preeclampsia
Ahead: Abortion Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 17
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:47am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A __________ is a form of surrogate decision-making where the surrogate attempts to establish what decision the patient would have made if that patient were competent to make a decision.
living will Correct Answer
substituted judgment durable power of attorney do not resuscitate order
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 2
0 / 1 pts
A __________ permits one individual, known as the “principal,” to give to another person, called the “attorney-in-fact,” the authority to act on his or her behalf.
Correct Answer
durable power of attorney consent form living will contract duces tecum
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A court can declare a person incompetent and appoint a(n) __________ to act in his or her best interests.
minor attorney Correct Answer
guardian
nurse
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 4 Any glimmer of uncertainty as to a patient's desire in an emergency situation should be:
to contact family members prior making any treatment decisions. Correct Answer
resolved in favor of preserving life. to provide a blood transfusion regardless of religion and need for such a transfusion. to provide minimal care.
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 5
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Because of the number of controversial cases dealing with euthanasia, in 1974 the American Medical Association accepted that death occurs:
when all heart function ceases. when a person is in a persistent vegetative state. Correct Answer
upon the cessation of all brain function, including the brain stem. when a person has a terminal illness with no chance of survival and certain death is imminent.
Ahead: Defining Death Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Federal regulations require hospital-based researchers to obtain the approval of a(n) __________ prior to conducting clinical trials.
ethics committee medical board governing body Correct Answer
institutional review board
Ahead: Research, Experimentation, and Clinical Trials Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 7
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If a patient has been informed that without a blood transfusion she will die, and she refuses blood and the court orders the transfusion, the order is wrong based on the patient's right to:
privacy. life. Correct Answer
self-determination. freedom of religion.
Ahead: Patient Autonomy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 8
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In a departure from the Quinlan decision, with regard to the necessity for court intervention and an incompetent's right to refuse treatment, which case decided that judicial proceedings should take place only when medical treatment can offer a reasonable expectation of cure or relief from the illness?
Saikewicz Satz v. Perlmutter John F. Kennedy Memorial Hospital v. Bludworth Correct Answer
In re Dinnerstein
Ahead: Patient Autonomy
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 9
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In order for a court to determine that an incompetent person desired to decline extraordinary medical care, that desire would be best served if the patient:
failed to appoint a surrogate decision-maker. Correct Answer
had executed a living will. signed a do-not-resuscitate order while unconscious. allowed the physician to make the decision.
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 10 Physician-assisted suicide was first legalized in which U.S. state?
0 / 1 pts
Washington Correct Answer
Oregon Massachusetts Florida
Ahead: Physician-Assisted Suicide Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 11
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The __________ held in June 1990 that the U.S. Constitution does not forbid Missouri from requiring that there be clear and convincing evidence of an incompetent's wishes as to the withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment before removing such treatment.
U.S. District Court Correct Answer
U.S. Supreme Court Missouri Supreme Court
U.S. Court of Appeals
Ahead: Constitutional Right to Refuse Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 12
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The __________ of 1990 provides that patients have a right to formulate advance directives and to make decisions regarding their health care. Correct Answer
Patient Self-Determination Act Right to Die Act Euthanasia Act Substituted Judgment Act
Ahead: Legislative Response Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 13
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The __________ published a report outlining the symptoms of an irreversible coma.
World Medical Association Correct Answer
Harvard Ad Hoc Committee on Brain Death National Institute of Health Kennedy Institute of ethics
Ahead: Defining Death
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 14
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The __________ strives to provide viable alternatives that will lead to the optimal resolution of many difficult dilemmas facing patients, including end-of-life issues.
medical board Correct Answer
ethics committee conflict resolution committee community outreach committee
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 15 The court In re Quinlan determined that:
Karen and Quentin was in a coma and could not make her own decisions.
0 / 1 pts
every adult of sound mind has a right to determine what should be done to his or her body. Correct Answer in light of the prognosis (physicians determined that Karen Quinlan was in an irreversible coma), the state's interest did not justify interference with her right to refuse treatment. the patient could be operated on without giving informed consent, even if in a coma.
Ahead: Advance Directives Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 16
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The word euthanasia originates from the Greek word euthanatos, meaning: Correct Answer
“good death.” “suicide.” “happy life.”
“manslaughter.”
Ahead: Euthanasia Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 17
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When a new drug of unknown effectiveness is administered to a patient despite other known effective drugs being available, the defendant(s) can be held liable for damages if it can be established that the defendant(s):
failed to warn the patient of the benefits associated with the drug. Correct Answer
failed to obtain informed consent from the patient. failed to use the known less risky drugs. knew the risks and informed the family of those risks.
Ahead: Research, Experimentation, and Clinical Trials Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 18
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When a patient is in an irreversible coma and his or her right to refuse treatment is in question, the court balances:
whether the patient's stated desires are contrary to those of his or her family. Correct Answer the state's interest in preserving and maintaining the sanctity of human life against the patient's right to selfdetermination.
the ethics committee's recommendations against the hospitals cost analysis of keeping the patient on a respirator. what other reasonable people would have wanted in the patient's position against what the family is seeking.
Ahead: Patient Autonomy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
Withdrawal of treatment should be considered:
if restoration of cardiac function will last only for a brief time. when balancing the interests of various family members. based on the patient's age. based on individual physician preferences.
Ahead: Withdrawal and Withholding of Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 20
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_______ is the act or practice of painlessly putting to death a person suffering from an incurable condition.
Insemination Eugenics Murder Correct Answer
Euthanasia
Ahead: Euthanasia Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 21
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_______ was a physician who claimed to have assisted 130 patients in committing suicide after suffering years of tormenting pain.
Derek Humphrey
Timothy Quill John Grossman Correct Answer
Jack Kevorkian
Ahead: Physician-Assisted Suicide Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 22
0 / 1 pts
__________ describes the study of inheritance as it occurs in human beings. It includes such areas as stem cell research, clinical genetics (e.g., genetic disease markers), and molecular genetics.
Stem cell research Correct Answer
Human genetics Biotechnology Cloning
Ahead: Human Genetics Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 23
0 / 1 pts
__________ involves the use of embryonic stem cells to create organs and various body tissues.
Organ donation Artificial insemination Polymerase chain reaction Correct Answer
Stem cell research
Ahead: Stem Cell Research
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 24
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__________ is a decision not to initiate treatment or medical intervention for the patient. Correct Answer
Withholding of treatment Continuation of an aggressive treatment plan Withdrawal of treatment Removal of treatment
Ahead: Withholding and Withdrawal of Treatment Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 25
0 / 1 pts
__________ is a postmortem examination conducted to ascertain the cause of death. Most states have enacted consent statutes that establish an order to obtain consent based on the degree of family relationship.
Stem cell infusion
Organ donation Autopsy Cremation
Ahead: Autopsy Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 18
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:48am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A sentinel event in a healthcare setting is:
an expected occurrence of improved health. Correct Answer
an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk thereof. an unexpected earthquake. an unanticipated improvement in patient status.
Ahead: Sentinel Events Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 2 Any report of suspected child abuse must be made based on:
a good-faith belief that the injuries were accidental.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
a good-faith belief that injuries were not accidental. knowledge that the healthcare practitioner is acting from his or her desire to harass child's parents. knowledge that the healthcare practitioner is acting on the wrong assumptions.
Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
Because most states have enacted statutes mandating the reporting of elder abuse, elder abuse is:
slightly more reported than child abuse. more likely to be reported than child abuse. Correct Answer
less likely to be reported than child abuse. reported as frequently as child abuse.
Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
Births and deaths are reportable:
by local ordinance. by a hospital's tissue committee. by a hospital's autopsy committee. Correct Answer
according to applicable statutes.
Ahead: Births and Deaths Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
Caregivers who suspect abuse:
are not expected to report their findings. Correct Answer
should note the symptoms and conditions of suspected abuse in a clear and objective manner. should keep personal notes as to their observations. should be vague in their reporting of symptoms and conditions of suspected abuse.
Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
Elder abuse is: Correct Answer
any form of mistreatment that results in harm or loss to an older person. any form of mistreatment that results in harm or loss to a child. rare.
legal.
Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 7 How many U.S. states have enacted child abuse laws?
Correct Answer
50 49 18 35
Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
0 / 1 pts
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Incident reports contain statements made by employees and physicians regarding: Correct Answer
deviation from acceptable patient care. best practices. investigative reporting of hospital acquired infections. regulatory statutes.
Ahead: Incident Reporting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Incident reports should:
be filed in the patient's medical record, with a copy sent to the hospital's legal counsel.
provided to the patient. be placed in the medical record. Correct Answer
not be placed in the medical record.
Ahead: Incident Reporting Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
Unanswered
Question 10 Information reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank:
is not confidential. can be disclosed to all third parties. Correct Answer
is considered strictly confidential and cannot be disclosed except as specified in the NPDB regulations. is often inaccurate.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 11
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Most states have enacted laws that require the reporting of actual or suspected cases of: Correct Answer
some communicable diseases. the common cold. smallpox. poison ivy.
Ahead: Communicable Diseases
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 12
0 / 1 pts
Signs of elder abuse or neglect include:
an expectation of death from natural causes and no hesitation to talk openly. plausible explanations of injuries. a calm demeanor. Correct Answer
dehydration and/or malnourishment in the absence of an illness-related cause.
Ahead: Senior Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 13 The Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 was enacted:
to improve the quality of medical care. to encourage physicians to participate in peer review.
0 / 1 pts
to restrict incompetent physicians' ability to move from state to state. Correct Answer to improve the quality of medical care by encouraging physicians to participate in peer review and by restricting incompetent physicians' ability to move from state to state without disclosure or discovery of their previous substandard performance or unprofessional conduct.
Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 14
0 / 1 pts
The National Practitioner Data Bank was created by Congress as a national repository of health information:
on elder abuse. Correct Answer
to facilitate a comprehensive review of healthcare practitioners' professional credentials. on sex offenders.
on communicable diseases.
Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 15
0 / 1 pts
The court in Marks v. Tenbrunsel ruled that information learned during a private counseling session:
would remain confidential. would not be open to public review. Correct Answer
would not necessarily remain confidential. would be reported to other family members.
Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 16
0 / 1 pts
The director of nursing at a nursing facility was fined for failure to report an instance of patient neglect. In one incident, a patient had been left unattended in a shower by an orderly, and the patient sprayed himself with hot water, which resulted in second-degree burns on his forehead. Upon investigation, the department of health determined that: Correct Answer
the incident constituted patient neglect. the incident did not merit reporting. failure to report these incidents was not a violation of public health law. the incident was too minor to be reported.
Ahead: Incident Reporting Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 17
0 / 1 pts
Unnatural deaths must be referred to a(n) _______ for review.
administrator pathologist Correct Answer
medical examiner tissue committee
Ahead: Births and Deaths Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
Unanswered
Question 18 What is the rationale behind state statutes requiring the reporting of communicable diseases?
To protect citizens' health by restricting movement in public places Correct Answer
To quarantine patients with communicable diseases to prevent the spread of a disease To ensure some reporting of infection or disease To quarantine patients with noncommunicable diseases and ensure reporting of infection or disease
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Communicable Diseases Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Which federal law specifies the minimum standards that states must incorporate into their definitions of child abuse and neglect?
Child and Elder Abuse Act Victims Awareness Act Federal Abuse Act Correct Answer
Federal Child Abuse and Treatment Act
Ahead: Child Abuse
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
Unanswered
Question 20
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following are physical and behavioral indicators of child abuse and maltreatment? Correct Answer
A pattern of bruises, burns, and broken bones Cigarette burns only Lack of broken arms, legs and skull injuries Bruises from sporting events
Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
Unanswered
Question 21 Which of the following entities can query the National Practitioner Data Bank?
State licensing boards only
0 / 1 pts
All persons wishing to learn more about a physician's malpractice history Professional societies only Correct Answer
Hospitals, state licensing boards, and professional societies
Ahead: Physician Competency Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
Unanswered
0 / 1 pts
Question 22 Which of the following qualifies as child abuse?
Intentional serious mental injury not inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care Correct Answer
Emotional injury inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care. Sexual injury not inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care. Physical injury not inflicted by a family or other person responsible for the child's care.
Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
Unanswered
Question 23
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following would not be considered child abuse?
Failure to provide a child with access to the Internet Endangering a child's morals Emotional injury Correct Answer
Neglect through starvation
Ahead: Child Abuse Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 19
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:49am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A _______ contract permits the hiring of nonunion employees but requires that new employees join the union.
closed-door open-door closed-shop Correct Answer
union-shop
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 2 A _______ contract provides that only members of a particular union may be hired.
0 / 1 pts
union-shop open-door Correct Answer
closed-shop closed-door
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A tort claim for wrongful discharge was stated when the employee/plaintiff was discharged wrongfully from her position in retaliation for threatening to report to state authorities instances of alleged patient mistreatment. In such cases,
an employer may discharge an employee for fulfilling societal obligations or in those instances in which the employer acts with a socially undesirable motive. it is absolutely against the employee's right to be to be treated fairly.
it is in compliance with the employment-at-will doctrine. Correct Answer an employer may not discharge an employee for fulfilling societal obligations or in those instances in which the employer acts with a socially undesirable motive.
Ahead: Wrongful Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
A whistleblower is a person who provides information to a public entity about the company that he or she believes evidences: Correct Answer
a gross waste of funds, abuse of authority, or a specific danger to public safety. failure to provide adequate salary increases based on the cost of living. writing confusing employment policies. failure to provide high-quality care in all medical specialties.
Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
A(n) _______ is the denial of a right that is imputed to a person or that is alleged to belong to him or her.
tort employment policy union policy Correct Answer
employment disclaimer
Ahead: Defending a Claim for Unfair Discharge
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
An employee can be denied unemployment benefits as a result of being terminated:
for appropriate work attendance, even though the employee's recent absence had been excused. Correct Answer
for poor work attendance and inability to work with others. for acceptable work performance. for having the ability to work with others.
Ahead: Unemployment Compensation Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 7 An employee can be terminated with no recourse if:
the employer gave 60 days' notice and one month severance pay. the employee was participating in union activities.
0 / 1 pts
Correct Answer
the termination was for financial reasons or other legitimate business reasons. the workforce was being changed from exempt to nonexempt status.
Ahead: Termination Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
An employee who believes that he or she has been unfairly discharged will most likely seek access to the following information in defense of his or her claim:
minutes of pertinent meetings. written reports and typed and handwritten notes.
personnel file, tapes, handwritten notes, employee handbook, and oral testimony from fellow employees and supervisors. All of these are correct.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Defending a Claim for Unfair Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
An organization's affirmative action plan would not include:
the collection and analysis of data on the race and sex of all applicants for employment. Correct Answer
discrimination on the basis of race or color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or veteran status.
a statement in the personnel policy/procedure manuals and employee handbooks that would read, for example, "Health Care Facility, Inc., is an equal opportunity/affirmative action employer.”
nondiscrimination on the basis of race or color, religion, sex, national origin, age, handicap, or veteran status.
Ahead: Affirmative Action Plan Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 10
0 / 1 pts
Any attempt to limit, segregate, or classify employees in any way that would tend to deprive any individual of employment opportunities is:
not contrary to public policy. Correct Answer
contrary to public policy. in tune with public policy. unfortunately how some managers think, but is not contrary to public policy.
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Caregivers are expected to:
report unethical conduct.
Correct Answer
assume responsibilities beyond their capabilities. be paternalistic at all times. honor family wishes over patient wishes.
Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 12
0 / 1 pts
Caregivers have a right to refuse to participate in certain aspects of patient care and treatment when there is a conflict:
with one's paternalistic views. for no particular reason or beliefs. with one's personal opinion. Correct Answer
with one's ethics or religious beliefs .
Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 13
0 / 1 pts
Caregivers have a right to:
smoke in prohibited areas. refuse to work on weekends. practice their own hand washing techniques. Correct Answer
refuse to participate in abortions.
Ahead: Employee Rights
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Carlie was terminated for making a good-faith report as to the hospital's noncompliance with the drug inventory and recordkeeping requirements required under Oregon regulations. Which of the following is true?
Her report fulfilled an unimportant societal obligation. Correct Answer
Carlie's employer may not discharge her for making such a report.
The employer's conduct, including false statements that Carlie was a drug addict, would be an acceptable reason for terminating Carlie. This case should have been prevented from going forward, favoring the employer's actions.
Ahead: Employment-at-Will Complexity: Moderate Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 15 Decisions to grant unemployment benefits are based on:
0 / 1 pts
how much the employee was earning. what the employer says about the employee. the length of time the employee was unemployed. Correct Answer
fair dealing with the employee.
Ahead: Unemployment Compensation Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Discharge of employees on the basis of disability, age, race, color, religion, sex, national origin, pregnancy, union membership, and reporting safety violation with various governmental agencies is prohibited by __________ policy.
private Correct Answer
public contract
implied
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 17 Employees are responsible for maintaining professional relationships with:
families. patients and families. Correct Answer
patients, family, physicians, and coworkers. physician consultants.
Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
Employees do not have a right to:
organize and bargain collectively. Correct Answer
solicit and distribute union information during working hours. picket. strike.
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
Employees have a right to:
three daily coffee breaks. be free from sexual harassment.
Correct Answer
come to work at least 15 minutes late. above average evaluations.
Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 20
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Employees need to comply with sterile technique protocols because: Correct Answer of the serious nature of infections and the need to comply with hygiene requirements designed to meet the safe delivery of patient care. OSHA and the CDC require it. the Joint Commission requires it. of the low number of injuries and deaths resulting from infections.
Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 21
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Employees who become the targets of a vindictive supervisor often have difficulty proving a bad-faith motive. In an effort to reduce the probability of wrongful discharge, Correct Answer some states have enacted legislation that protects employees from terminations found to be arbitrary and capricious.
some states have enacted legislation that fail to protect employees from terminations due to the arbitrary and capricious nature of their employers.
some employers seem to have an unfettered right to make it difficult for employees to work for them in an attempt to mask their true intentions behind a veil of secrecy. some managers conjure up untruths in order to deceive their superiors.
Ahead: Retaliatory Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 22
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Employees who feel they have been discriminated against under the Equal Pay Act may file a complaint:
with an individual on behalf of the employee. with the Department of Health and Human Services. on their own behalf. Correct Answer
with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 23
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Employees–employer relationships are regulated by:
local ordinances only. Correct Answer
both state and federal laws. state laws only. federal laws only.
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 24
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Employers have a responsibility to: Correct Answer
treat employees with dignity and respect. intimidate employees in the workplace. abuse employees.
communicate veiled threats to employees in the workplace.
Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 25
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Even when a contracted employee's job is secure and job performance is satisfactory, the employee can be terminated with no recourse if:
the employee gives 60 days' notice and one month severance. the employee wanted to bring in a union. Correct Answer
it is for financial reasons or other legitimate business reasons. the workforce was being changed from exempt to nonexempt status.
Ahead: Employment-at-Will Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 26
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Healthcare professionals have a clear legal and moral obligation to:
provide confidential information with any hospital employee that requests it. Correct Answer
adhere to the organization's privacy and confidentiality policies. share confidential information with their families. share confidential information with their volunteers.
Ahead: Employee Responsibilities
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 27
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Hospitals can protect themselves from successful wrongful discharge litigation by:
creating manuals for fire safety. Correct Answer inserting specific disclaimer language in their employee handbooks and having contractual relationships with employees. not having a personnel manual. requiring strict time clock requirements.
Ahead: Defending a Claim for Unfair Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 28
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Ideally, questionable requests not to participate in a patient's care should be considered for review by the:
medical executive committee.
nursing director. Correct Answer
hospital's ethics committee. organization's chaplain.
Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 29
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Liability for discrimination in employment:
is limited to males. cannot be applied in hospitals. has been resolved through implementation of new statutory requirements/ Correct Answer can be applied in situations in which discriminatory practices can affect the ability of a nonemployee to obtain a
job with a third party.
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 30 Most employment-related litigation could be avoided if:
employers paid better salaries to their employees. employees were given better healthcare benefits and other incentives, such as more vacation time. employers communicated better with employees. Correct Answer
employers developed better hiring, disciplining, and terminating policies and procedures.
Ahead: Effective Hiring Practices Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 31
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Sexual conduct becomes unlawful when: Correct Answer
it is unwelcome by the victim. the victim solicits or invites the actions and must have considered the conduct acceptable. the victim encourages sexual aggressiveness. there is no action or suggestion of sexual improprieties against the accused.
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 32
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Sexual harassment includes:
nonpayment for hourly employees who work overtime.
working long hours. requests for favors, such as, extra help on a difficult project. Correct Answer
verbal comments and physical touching.
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Unanswered
Question 33
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Some __________ believe that dispensing medications to induce abortions others is an infringement on their freedom of religion. Correct Answer
pharmacists physicians nurses physician assistants
Ahead: Employee Rights Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 34
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Supervisors do not have the right to:
receive a notice of an impending strike. hire replacement workers. Correct Answer
participate in union activity. restrict union activity to prescribed areas.
Ahead: Labor Relations
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 35
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Terminating an employee for no cause has in some states been scrutinized by the courts. The brave employee can win a case for wrongful discharge by demonstrating:
other employees were discharged in the same manner. the employer refused to give reason for termination in writing. Correct Answer
the language in the employee handbook could be read as a binding contract if there are no disclaimers. the employee feels he or she has not been discharged for just cause.
Ahead: Fairness: The Ultimate Test Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 36
0 / 1 pts
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967:
encourages arbitrary age discrimination in hiring, discharge, pay, term, conditions, or privileges of employment.
discourages employment of older persons on the basis of their ability without regard to their age.
proscribes arbitrary age discrimination in hiring, discharge, pay, term, conditions, or privileges of employment. Correct Answer
promotes employment of older persons on the basis of their ability without regard to their age.
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 37
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The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention states that nosocomial (hospital-acquired) bloodstream infections are a leading cause of:
viral infection. meningitis. puerperal fever. death.
Correct Answer
Ahead: Employee Responsibilities Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 38
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The Labor–Management Reporting and Disclosure Act of 1959 places controls:
only on labor unions and the relationships between unions and their members. requiring that employers report payments and loans made to vendors. requiring disclosure of expenditures made to influence the president in the decision-making process. Correct Answer on agreements with labor consultants, under which such persons undertake to interfere with certain employee rights.
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 39
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The NLRA was modified in 1947 by the: Correct Answer
Taft–Hartley amendments. Landrum–Griffin amendments. National Labor Relations Board. Norris–LaGuardia Act.
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 40
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The NLRB's basic method of operation is to: Correct Answer
investigate claims or complaints of unfair practices.
determine whether there have been fair labor practices in an organization. investigate claims or complaints of fair practices. determine what should be kept from the president regarding fair labor practices in healthcare organizations.
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 41 The ______ addresses wage disparities based on sex.
Age Discrimination in Employment Act Civil Rights Act of 1964 Landrum-Griffin amendments Correct Answer
Equal Pay Act of 1963
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Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 42
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The _______ affords protections to disabled employees. Correct Answer
Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Civil Rights Act of 1964 Equal Pay Act of 1963 Norris–LaGuardia Act
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 43
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The _______ establishes minimum wages and maximum hours of employment.
Equal Pay Act Landrum–Griffin amendments Correct Answer
Fair Labor Standards Act Taft–Hartley Act
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 44
0 / 1 pts
The _______ places controls on labor unions and relationships between unions and their members.
Fair Labor Standards Act Correct Answer
Labor–Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
Equal Pay Act Civil Rights Act
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 45
0 / 1 pts
The _______ prohibits age-based employment discrimination against individuals between 40 and 70 years of age.
Equal Pay Act of 1963 Correct Answer
Age Discrimination in Employment Act Taft–Hartley Act National Labor Relations Act
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 46
0 / 1 pts
The _______ prohibits private employers and state and local governments from discriminating on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
Taft–Hartley Act Equal Pay Act Rehabilitation Act of 1973 Correct Answer
Civil Rights Act of 1964
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 47
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The _______, an amendment to the Federal Labor Standards Act, was passed to address wage disparities based on gender.
Family Medical Leave Act Rehabilitation Act Correct Answer
Equal Pay Act Age Discrimination in Employment Act
Ahead: Discrimination in the Workplace Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 48
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The attempt to drive an employee out of his or her job by intimidation:
is a common acceptable practice. Correct Answer
is a retaliatory way to force an employee to resign.
demonstrates fairness by an organization's leadership. is acceptable by the courts.
Ahead: Retaliatory Discharge Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 49
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The best way for the human resources manager to prevent negligent hiring litigation for the employer is to become familiar with the risks and avoid hiring workers who are likely to become problematic employees. The organization should:
develop vague policies and procedures on hiring, disciplining, and terminating employees. Correct Answer
take appropriate precautions to review each applicant's background and past work behavior.
include inappropriate language in the organization's policies and procedures, reserving the right to add, delete, and or revise the same. develop an application that unrealistically determines an applicant's qualifications before hiring.
Ahead: Effective Hiring Practices Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
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Question 50
0 / 1 pts
The department within the executive branch of government that advises the president on labor policies and issues is the:
Department of the Interior. Department of Justice. Department of Health and Human Resources. Department of Labor.
Ahead: Labor Relations Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 20
Correct Answer
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:50am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A _______ is a physician organization formed for the purpose of sharing some administrative and management costs (such as group practices) while continuing to practice at their own location rather than at a centralized location.
group practice with walls Correct Answer
group practice without walls horizontal consolidation point-of-service plan
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 2 A group practice without walls:
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Correct Answer is a physician organization formed for the purpose of sharing some administrative and management costs while continuing to practice at their own locations. utilize specialty care physicians as gatekeepers to coordinate and control medical care.
is a physician organization formed for the purpose of sharing some administrative and management costs while continuing to practice at centralized locations.
is a medical foundation that employs or contracts with physicians to provide care to the foundation's patients.
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 3
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A managed care contract should be developed between the employer and the selected fiduciary, and the contract should ensure that:
the fiduciary is committed to supplying the employer with data on the various aspects of its performance. Correct Answer
the proper indemnities are negotiated on behalf of the employer and its employees.
a hold-harmless clause is provided for employees for payment for services rendered and financial disclosures are made as appropriate.
Ahead: Reducing Exposure to Liability Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 4
0 / 1 pts
A management service organization (MSO):
is an entity that provides administrative assistance but does not offer management services to physicians.
an organization that requires physicians to perform their own services, such as, practice management, marketing, managed care contracting, accounting, billing, and personnel management. cannot be hospital affiliated, a hospital–physician joint venture, physician owned, or investor owned. Correct Answer
can be hospital affiliated, a hospital–physician joint venture, physician owned, or investor owned.
the fiduciary is not responsible for monitoring its discretionary authority.
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 5
0 / 1 pts
A review that is performed after the treatment has been completed is referred to as a(n):
constructive review. Correct Answer
retrospective review. prospective review. contemporary review.
Ahead: Utilization Review
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 6
0 / 1 pts
A review that is performed during the course of treatment is referred to as a(n):
retrospective review. initial review. prospective review. Correct Answer
concurrent review.
Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 7
0 / 1 pts
A vertically integrated delivery system:
is any organization or group of affiliated organizations that provides limited physician services to patients.
has a goal of offering physician integration with specialists in order to provide a full range of services to patients. Correct Answer
in its best form provides services ranging from primary outpatient care to tertiary inpatient care.
if organized well provides a minimal range of services, such as home health care, long-term care, rehabilitation, and mental health care.
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 8
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A(n) _____ is an organization through which employer health benefit plans and health insurance carriers contract to purchase healthcare services for covered beneficiaries from a selected group of participating providers. Correct Answer
preferred provider organization exclusive provider organization specialty HMO
group practice without walls
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 9
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A(n) _______ is a legal entity consisting of a joint venture of physicians and a hospital, formed to facilitate managed care contracting, to improve cost management and services, and to create new health care resources in the community.
exclusive provider organization hospital-owned corporation physician-owned corporation Correct Answer
physician–hospital organization
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 10
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Congress, after months of contentious debate, by a slim margin enacted the __________, increasing the number of Americans covered by health insurance by approximately 30 million people and lowering the cost of the insurance.
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act National Health Planning and Resources Development Act Correct Answer
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Comprehensive Health Planning and Service Act
Ahead: National Health Insurance
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Health maintenance organizations can:
not refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care. Correct Answer refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care even though federal law prohibits hospital emergency departments from turning away patients seeking emergency care.
refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care.
refuse benefit coverage to patients if they determine retrospectively that a patient's condition did not require emergency department care, thus placing the burden on the provider to seek reimbursement from the patient if the insurer does decide to cover the charges.
Ahead: Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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0 / 1 pts
Question 12 Managed care is the process of structuring or restructuring the healthcare system in terms of:
financing a narrow range of healthcare services and products. Correct Answer
delivering, measuring, and documenting a broad range of healthcare services and products. measuring and documenting a limited range of healthcare services and products. purchasing an extremely restricted range of healthcare services and products.
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
Unanswered
0 / 1 pts
Question 13
Price fixing is considered a per se violation of the antitrust laws. Price fixing occurs when two or more competitors come together to decide on a price that will be charged for services or goods. The per se rule here applies to:
price fixing and group boycotts. Correct Answer
horizontal market allocation and price fixing. group boycotts. tying.
Ahead: Managed Care and Legal Actions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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0 / 1 pts
Question 14 The Employee Retirement Income Security Act requires that plans:
Correct Answer provide participants with plan information
(http://www.dol.gov/dol/topic/health-plans/planinformation.htm) and
information about plan features and funding.
provide a description of fiduciary responsibilities
(http://www.dol.gov/dol/topic/health-plans/
fiduciaryresp.htm) for those who do not manage and control plan assets.
establish a grievance but not an appeals process for participants to get benefits from their plans.
provide participants the right to sue for benefits, but not for breaches of fiduciary duty.
Ahead: Employee Retirement Income Security Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 15
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The Ethics in Patient Referral Act of 1989:
allows physicians who have ownership interest or compensation arrangements with a clinical laboratory from referring Medicare patients to that laboratory. Correct Answer requires all Medicare providers to report the names and provider numbers of all physicians or their immediate relatives with ownership interests in the provider entity.
does not provide for the imposition of penalties for those who fail to comply with the disclosure requirements.
requires all Medicare providers to report the names and provider numbers of all physicians with ownership
interests in the provider entity.
Ahead: Ethics in Patient Referral Act (1989) Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 16
0 / 1 pts
The _______ is a federal act designed to ensure that employee welfare and benefit plans conform to a uniform body of benefits law.
Medicare Benefit Act Social Security Act Employee Retirement Expense Act Correct Answer
Employee Retirement Income Security Act
Ahead: Employee Retirement Income Security Act Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 17
0 / 1 pts
The __________ held that the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act requirement that states rapidly extend coverage or lose existing federal payments was unduly coercive.
Virginia Supreme Court United States District Court United States Court of Appeals Correct Answer
United States Supreme Court
Ahead: National Health Insurance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 18
0 / 1 pts
The majority of state HMO laws require that the provision of basic health services include:
physician, outpatient, and emergency care, but not inpatient hospital care. physician, emergency, inpatient, and outpatient care. physician care and outpatient care. Correct Answer
inpatient and outpatient care.
Ahead: Federally Qualified HMO Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 19
0 / 1 pts
The process of structuring or restructuring the healthcare system in terms of financing, purchasing, delivering, measuring, and documenting a broad range of health care services and products is generally referred to as:
a monopoly. Correct Answer
managed care. price-fixing. maximum care.
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 20
0 / 1 pts
The purpose of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act is to provide:
those persons giving information to professional review bodies no immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff privileges.
those assisting in review activities limited immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff privileges.
those persons giving information to professional review bodies limited immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff privileges. Correct Answer those persons giving information to professional review bodies and those assisting in review activities limited immunity from damages that may arise as a result of adverse decisions that affect a physician's medical staff
privileges.
Ahead: Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
Unanswered
Question 21 Whenever a managed care organization possesses significant market share,
Correct Answer
antitrust implications can arise. poor care results. malpractice is likely. corporate liability is likely to occur.
Ahead: Market Power Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
0 / 1 pts
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Question 22
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Which of the following is a legal entity composed of physicians organized for the purpose of negotiating contracts to provide physician services?
Specialty HMO Medical foundation Correct Answer
Independent practice association Group practice
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
Unanswered
Question 23
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is the process whereby a third-party payer evaluates the medical necessity of a course of treatment?
Nursing review Management review Correct Answer
Utilization review Quality review
Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 24
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following is true of horizontal consolidation? Correct Answer Recognizing a congressional intent to preserve competition by preventing undue market concentration, the courts have focused primarily on the possibility that consolidation will substantially lessen competition. A wide variety of businesses are involved.
There is a single qualitative or quantitative factor from which it can be determined whether such a group merger is permissible. Similar or identical businesses are not involved at the same level of the market.
Ahead: Managed Care and Legal Actions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 25
0 / 1 pts
With a _______, the payer determines whether to pay for treatment before the treatment is initiated.
Correct Answer
retrospective review system prospective review system quality review system admission review system
Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 26
0 / 1 pts
_______ is an increasingly important aspect of utilization management that involves identifying at an early stage those patients who could be treated more cost-effectively in an alternative setting or at a lower level of care without negatively affecting the quality of care.
Prospective review Lab review Correct Answer
Case management Financial review
Ahead: Utilization Review Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 27
0 / 1 pts
_______ limit their beneficiaries to using only participating providers for healthcare services.
Medical foundations Preferred provider organizations Group practices without walls Exclusive provider organizations
Ahead: Managed Care Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 21
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Question 1
Submitted Dec 22 at 4:51am This attempt took less than 1 minute.
0 / 1 pts
A healthcare organization can: Correct Answer
require its medical staff to show evidence of professional malpractice insurance. cannot require its medical staff to show evidence of professional malpractice insurance. require its medical staff to show evidence of home insurance. require its medical staff to show evidence expired malpractice insurance.
Ahead: Mandated Medical Staff Insurance Coverage Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 2 A hospital can be found liable for the negligence of a nurse on the basis of:
Correct Answer
respondeat superior.
0 / 1 pts
independent contractor status. borrowed servant doctrine. independent negligence.
Ahead: Liability of the Professional Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
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Question 3
0 / 1 pts
A risk is the possibility that:
a loss will occur. the insurance carrier will provide security against any loss. Correct Answer
a loss will occur and the insurance carrier will compensate for the damages based on policy limits. the insurer will prevent or hinder the occurrence of all losses.
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 4 A(n) _______ is a contract whereby the insurer agrees to assume certain risks of the insured for consideration.
premium policyholder Correct Answer
insurance policy risk
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
0 / 1 pts
Unanswered
Question 5
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A(n) _______ policy covers only those claims made or reported during the policy year. Correct Answer
claims-made malpractice insurance occurrence
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
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Question 6
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A(n) _______ policy provides for an uninterrupted extension of an insurance policy period.
umbrella tail
Correct Answer
occurrence claims-made
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 7 An insurance policy contains the elements of:
identification of the risks covered. the specific amount payable. the specified occurrence. Correct Answer
All of these are correct.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
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Question 8
0 / 1 pts
Because sexual assault does not constitute rendering professional services:
the coverage provisions of such insurance policies are unlimited. malpractice insurers are required to indemnify the insured for liability resulting from the sexual assault. malpractice insurers cover the insured for liability resulting from the sexual assault. Correct Answer
malpractice insurers are not required to indemnify the insured for liability resulting from the sexual assault.
Ahead: Intentional Torts Coverage Denied
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
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Question 9
0 / 1 pts
Insurance carriers in some states are prohibited from covering awards for:
compensatory damages. Correct Answer
punitive damages. acute care. long-term care.
Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 10
0 / 1 pts
Insurance companies are required by the laws of the different states to issue only policies that contain certain mandated provisions:
to maintain certain cash reserves.
Correct Answer to maintain certain financial reserves to guarantee to policyholders that their expectations will be met when coverage is needed.
to guarantee to policyholders that their expectations will be met when coverage is needed for criminal activity. to guarantee to policyholders that their expectations will be met.
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
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Question 11
0 / 1 pts
Insurance coverage for officers and directors of a corporation should include indemnification, to the extent possible by law, for all liabilities and expenses, including:
when it can be shown that the trustee failed to act in good faith. those that are not reasonably incurred as the result of any legal proceeding.
Correct Answer
when it can be shown that the trustee acted in good faith and within the scope of his or her responsibilities.
Ahead: Trustee Coverage Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 12 Insurers do not, as a rule, provide coverage for:
Correct Answer
intentional torts. negligent torts. malpractice. unintentional torts.
Ahead: Intentional Torts: Coverage Denied Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
0 / 1 pts
those outside the scope of his or her responsibilities.
Unanswered
Question 13
0 / 1 pts
Medical malpractice insurance is affected by:
the nature of the auto insurance market. inflation. new technologies. Correct Answer
the cyclical nature of the insurance market and new technologies and treatments.
Ahead: Introduction Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 14
0 / 1 pts
Once a claim is settled, the plaintiff:
continues to maintain a right of action against the defendant. generally signs a release surrendering his or her right of action against the defendant.
Correct Answer
can file a restraint order. can file for summary judgment.
Ahead: Investigation and Settlement of Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 15 The possibility that a loss will occur is a(n):
insurance policy. Correct Answer
risk. claims-made policy. liability.
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 16
0 / 1 pts
Under an insurance policy with a coverage of $50,000/$120,000, with damages totaling $60,000 in a lawsuit for plaintiff 1 and $10,000 for plaintiff 2, the insured is responsible for:
$60,000 Correct Answer
$10,000 $50,000 $40,000
Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions
Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 17
0 / 1 pts
Under an insurance policy with a coverage of $50,000/$120,000, with damages totaling $60,000 in a lawsuit for plaintiff 1 and $10,000 for plaintiff 2, the insurance company is responsible for:
$60,000 Correct Answer
$10,000 $40,000 $50,000
Ahead: Insurance Policy Provisions Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 18
0 / 1 pts
When a healthcare facility no longer purchases a policy of malpractice insurance but instead periodically sets aside a certain amount of its own funds as a reserve against malpractice losses and expenses, it:
seeks a unique way to provide coverage. selects a new insurer. purchases off-market insurance. Correct Answer
self-insures.
Ahead: Self-Insurance Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 19
0 / 1 pts
When the insured becomes aware that an injury has occurred as a result of acts covered under the contract: Correct Answer the insured must notify the insurance company on a timely basis as to the covered incident occurrence and within the terms of the contract. notice must not be provided by the carrier.
notice need not be oral or written, regardless of what is specified in the policy.
the policyholder at the time of the covered incident need not report the incident to the carrier until an agreement is reached as to any liability the policy holder may be liable for, until such time as the court determines the amount due from the policyholder.
Ahead: Investigation and Settlement of Claims Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Unanswered
Question 20 __________ policies cover awards over the amount provided in the basic policy coverage.
Correct Answer
Umbrella Claims-made Occurrence Parachute
0 / 1 pts
Ahead: Insurance Policies Complexity: Easy Subject: Chapter 22
Quiz Score: 0 out of 20