TEST BANK for Massage Therapy Principles and Practice 6th Edition by Susan Salvo by ACADEMIAMILL

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Chapter 01: History of Massage: Prehistoric Times to the Modern Era, and Professional Societies, Organizations, and Associations Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which method is defined as manual manipulation of soft tissue using pressure and traction for

therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes? a. Acupuncture b. Ayurveda c. Polarity therapy d. Massage therapy ANS: D

Massage therapy is as a method of manipulating soft tissue using pressure and traction for therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes. 2. Which origin for the word massage is Greek? a. Mashesh b. Masso c. Masser d. Makeh ANS: B

The origin of the word massage is unclear, but can be traced to numerous sources: the Hebrew mashesh, the Greek masso and massin, the Latin massa, the Arabic mass’h, the Sanskrit TESTBANKSELLER.COM makeh, and the French masser. 3. When is the earliest the term massage was used by most European-based cultures? a. 1600s b. 1700s c. 1800s d. 1900s ANS: C

By the early 1800s, the term massage was used by most European-based cultures. Historically, massage was referred to by its techniques such as friction or simply rubbing. 4. The first written records of massage date back to 3000 BC in which country? a. India b. China c. Egypt d. Greece ANS: B

Early records have revealed that the practice of massage goes back to China, as early as 3000 BC. Acupuncture was not mentioned in Chinese writings until 90 BC. 5. Which work is commonly referred to as the classic scripture of traditional Chinese medicine? a. Tao Te Ching

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b. Nei Ching c. Ayur-Veda d. Corpus Hippocraticum ANS: B

At the time of Hwang Ti, various ideas and beliefs were compiled under the name of the Yellow Emperor (died in 2599 BC) which became the classic scripture of traditional Chinese medicine known as the Nei Chang. The Nei Chang was written about 2760 BC, and this work contains detailed descriptions of massage procedures as well as herbal medicines. 6. What is the original massage technique in China and the precursor to manual and energetic

therapies? a. Polarity b. Shiatsu c. Acupuncture d. Amma ANS: D

Amma is regarded as the original massage technique and precursor to all other Chinese therapies, manual and energetic. 7. Which healing method is based on Hindu tradition? a. Ayurveda b. Shiatsu c. Amma d. Polarity ANS: A

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Knowledge of amma massage traveled to the subcontinent of India from China and massage became part of Hindu tradition. Massage is described in India’s first great medical works, the Ayur-Veda books of wisdom (about 1800 BC) and recommend it as an almost indispensable healing procedure. 8. Which method is Japanese but based on Chinese medicine concepts, and uses applied pressure

of the thumbs, elbows, and other parts of the body? a. Ayurveda b. Shiatsu c. Massage d. Amma ANS: B

Shiatsu is a Japanese method based on the same traditional Chinese medicine concepts as acupuncture. Acupuncturists use needles at specific points to balance the flow of energy; shiatsu therapists use their fingers, thumbs, forearms, and elbows, and even their knees and feet. 9. Who is generally recognized as the father of modern Western medicine? a. Galen b. Celsus c. Rhazes d. Hippocrates

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ANS: D

Hippocrates was known to be a fine clinician, founder of a medical school, author of numerous books, and advocated the use of massage or “rubbing.” His works are collectively known as the Corpus Hippocraticum, and summarized much of what was known about disease and medicine in the ancient world. Hippocrates is generally recognized as the father of modern Western medicine, and he believed that physicians should avoid causing harm to patients. 10. Who wrote the Canon of Medicine, the most famous book in the history of medicine in both

the East and the West? a. Rhazes b. Celsus c. Avicenna d. Hippocrates ANS: C

A text entitled or Canon of Medicine was written by one of the greatest Persian physicians of his era, Avicenna (980-1037). He was also known as Ibn Sina. The Canon of Medicine is the most famous book in the history of medicine in both the East and the West. 11. Which individual discussed the effects of massage and used friction on joints in the 1500s? a. Paré b. Harvey c. Galen d. Mezger ANS: A

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Ambroise Paré (1515-1590) was a famous French surgeon who was among the earliest individuals in this era to discuss the effects of massage. He also used friction to treat dislocated joints and other orthopedic conditions. 12. Who was the first known scientist to demonstrate that blood circulation due to muscular

contraction of the heart? a. Paré b. Galen c. Harvey d. Mezger ANS: C

English scientist William Harvey (1578–1657) discovered the circulation of blood in 1628. Harvey observed the hearts of living animals and determined that muscular contraction (systole) pumped blood through arteries and veins. This discovery enhanced the acceptance of massage as a therapeutic measure. 13. Who developed the Swedish Movement Cure, which included the use of massage? a. Johann Mezger b. Pehr H. Ling c. George Henry Taylor d. John Harvey Kellogg

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ANS: B

Ling developed his own system of medical or Swedish gymnastics and exercise, known as the Ling System, Swedish Movements, or Swedish Movement Cure. The term Swedish massage was used to describe the massage component of Ling’s system. 14. Which term describes a component of the Ling System? a. Shiatsu b. Ayurveda c. Thai massage d. Swedish massage ANS: D

The term “Swedish massage” was used to describe the massage component of Ling’s system. For this reason, Ling is often regarded as the father of Swedish massage. 15. Which individual is credited with having introduced French terms still in use to describe

massage techniques? a. Johann Mezger b. William Harvey c. Pehr H. Ling d. Charles Taylor ANS: A

The Dutch physician Johann Mezger (1838–1909) is credited with having introduced the French terminology still used to describe massage techniques (e.g., effleurage, pétrissage, tapotement) that are currently used in massage legislation and massage curricula. French was the international language in the nineteenth century.

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16. Who is the founder of modern nursing, which included massage as part of care? a. Tiffany Field b. Florence Nightingale c. Charles Fayette Taylor d. John Harvey Kellogg ANS: B

Florence Nightingale (1829-1910) from England was the founder of modern nursing. She assumed patient care in hospitals in Turkey during the Crimean War (1853-1856). She developed a standard of care for soldiers, which massage was an integral part of. 17. French physician Lucas-Championniere used massage and exercise to treat soldiers injured

during which event? a. World War I b. World War II c. Civil War d. Viet Nam War ANS: A

World War I provided countless opportunities for the use of massage and exercise to rehabilitate injured soldiers. French physician Just Lucas-Championniere (1843-1913) advocated for the use of massage and passive movements to treat soft tissue injuries, particularly fractures.

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18. In what year did George Henry Taylor and Charles Fayette Taylor introduce the Swedish

Movement system in the United States? a. 1796 b. 1856 c. 1911 d. 1958 ANS: B

Two brothers, Drs. George Henry Taylor and Charles Fayette Taylor, introduced the Swedish Movement System in the United States in 1856. The Taylors had studied the techniques in Europe and returned to the United States, where they opened an orthopedic practice with a specialization massage, exercise, water cures, and nutrition. 19. Who wrote the first American textbook on the Swedish Movement System in 1860? a. Hartvig Nissen b. Andrew Weil c. George Taylor d. Douglas Graham ANS: C

George Taylor wrote the first American textbook on the Swedish Movement System in 1860, titled An Exposition of the Swedish Movement Cure. 20. Who opened the Swedish Health Institute of Washington, DC, considered the first massage

school in the United States? a. John Harvey Kellogg b. Douglas Graham TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Just Lucas-Championniere d. Hartvig Nissen ANS: D

In 1883, Hartvig Nissen opened the Swedish Health Institute of Washington, DC). It is considered the first massage school in the United States. 21. Who helped popularize massage therapy in the United States during the modern era by writing

numerous books and publishing articles in his magazine, Good Health? a. John Harvey Kellogg b. Douglas Graham c. Just Lucas-Championniere d. Hartvig Nissen ANS: A

John Harvey Kellogg (1852–1943) of Battle Creek, Michigan, promoted massage to the general public. He wrote numerous articles and books on massage and published a magazine called Good Health. 22. Which massage organization took the first step toward professionalism by the establishing a

massage curriculum and accreditation of massage schools? a. American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses b. Chartered Society of Physiotherapy c. Esalen Massage and Bodywork Association

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d. Society of Trained Masseuses ANS: D

Four British women established the Society of Trained Masseuses in 1894. They sought to legitimize massage, which had become associated with prostitution. The Society established a massage practice model, which regulated massage through the establishment of a massage curriculum and accreditation of massage schools which included regular inspections and use of only qualified for massage instructors. Members of the Society were required to pass examinations and were subject to routine surveillance. 23. What was the original name of the American Massage Therapy Association? a. Society of Trained Masseuses b. Esalen Massage and Bodywork Association c. American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses d. Chartered Society of Massage and Medical Gymnastics ANS: C

In 1943, postgraduates from the College of Swedish Massage in Chicago created the American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses, renamed the American Massage and Therapy Association in 1958, then finally the American Massage Therapy Association in 1983. 24. When was the American Massage and Therapy Association founded? a. 1926 b. 1943 c. 1965 d. 1987

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ANS: B

In 1943, postgraduates from the College of Swedish Massage in Chicago founded the American Association of Masseurs and Masseuses. The name was changed to the American Massage and Therapy Association in 1958, and then was changed again to the American Massage Therapy Association, in 1983. 25. When was the Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals founded? a. 1926 b. 1943 c. 1965 d. 1987 ANS: D

Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals was founded in 1987. 26. Which center was a think tank for human potential movement and the first exposure to

massage for many people? a. Remedial Hygienic Institute b. Esalen Institute c. Swedish Institute d. Touch Research Institute ANS: B

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In 1962, Michael Murphy and Richard Pierce founded the Esalen Institute, a retreat center and think tank for human potential movement. For many people, Esalen was their first exposure to massage and where many came to learn massage. 27. What organization was established to advance massage by supporting research? a. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals b. National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork c. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards d. Massage Therapy Foundation ANS: D

In 1990, the American Massage Therapy Foundation was established by the AMTA to advance the massage profession through supporting scientific research and evidence-informed practice skills. In 2004, the foundation became an independent organization and changed its name to the Massage Therapy Foundation. 28. What organization offered a national certification exam in 1992 that was later adopted by

most states as a licensure requirement? a. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards b. National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork c. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals d. American Massage Therapy Association ANS: B

In 1992, the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork was founded due to encouragement from the AMTA and other industry leaders. The objective was to create a national certification to facilitate massage licensing reciprocity throughout the TESTBANexam KSELwas LEcreated, R.COMand many states adopted it as part of United States. A national certification their licensing requirements. 29. What type of credential did the National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and

Bodywork begin offering in 2013? a. Master’s certification b. Research licensure c. Board certification d. National licensure ANS: C

In 2013, NCBTMB began providing board certification, which is currently the highest voluntary credential in the massage profession. Offering the exam as part of state licensure was retired in 2014. 30. Which center is the first in the world to focus on the effects of massage and its application in

the treatment of diseases? a. Remedial Hygienic Institute b. Esalen Institute c. Swedish Institute d. Touch Research Institute ANS: D

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The Touch Research Institute at the University of Miami’s School of Medicine was established in 1992 under the directorship of Dr. Tiffany Field. The Institute is the first in the world to focus on effects of massage and touch and its applications in the treatment of diseases. Their research has shown that massage and touch have numerous beneficial effects on health and well-being. 31. Which organization developed and released the Massage and Bodywork Licensing

Examination in 2008? a. Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards b. National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork c. American Massage Therapy Association d. Associated Bodywork and Massage Professionals ANS: A

In 2005, the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards was formed after the ABMP convened a meeting of massage regulators and educators. One of the initial goals of the Federation was to create a valid and reliable licensing exam. In 2008 the Massage & Bodywork Licensing Examination (MBLEx) was released. In 2014, the MBLEx became the only licensing exam in the United States. 32. According to the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health, which approach

is considered mind/body practice? a. Probiotics b. Herbal supplements c. Yoga d. Booster vaccinations ANS: C

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NCCIH classifies CIH therapies into natural products such as herbal supplements and probiotics and mind/body practices such as massage, acupuncture, and yoga. Massage therapy and chiropractic and osteopathic manipulations are among the most common complementary health care practices utilized by the general public. 33. How is human trafficking best described? a. Immigrant movement b. Modern-day slavery c. Modern-day pioneering d. Rehabilitative coercion ANS: B

Human trafficking is the unlawful trade of people; it is modern-day slavery. Human trafficking is the third largest source of revenue for organized crime, just behind drugs and guns/firearms trafficking. 34. Which illegal activity uses massage as a cover for its operations? a. Arms dealing b. Dog fighting c. Drug running d. Sex trafficking ANS: D

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While great strides have been made in the massage industry towards professionalism, human trafficking using massage as a cover is still prevalent today. According to a report published by the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards, an estimated 9,000 illicit massage businesses are currently active, and this type of commercial-front massage business is one of the top venues for sex trafficking. 35. Which issue may legal massage therapists have to deal with because of human trafficking? a. Paying higher costs for supplies b. Being threatened c. Needing additional continuing education d. Researching businesses ANS: B

Several issues can arise for legal massage therapists due to human trafficking. Therapists can be threatened, harassed, intimidated, and even assaulted. This may result in additional operational costs for massage therapists to address the need for security. Personal and business establishment reputations may be compromised. It also erodes public trust as the integrity of massage educational institutions, testing authorities, and state licensing boards are questioned, especially if they have allowed unqualified individuals to enter the massage profession.

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Chapter 02: The Therapeutic Relationship: Ethics, Boundaries, and Cultural Competencies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A good therapeutic relationship is one of the best predictors of which therapy-related factor? a. Client compliance b. Positive outcomes c. Legal actions d. Arbitration counsel ANS: B

The efficacy of the therapeutic relationship can be substantiated scientifically. Research has found repeatedly that a good therapeutic relationship is one of the best predictors of positive outcomes in therapy. 2. Which term means adherence to a set of values and obligations, formally agreed-upon codes

of conduct, and reasonable expectations of clients, colleagues, and co-workers? a. Therapeutic relationships b. Professionalism c. Conflicts of interest d. Reciprocity ANS: B

Professionalism is the adherence to a set of values and obligations, formally agreed-upon TESTBexpectations ANKSELLof ERclients, .COMcolleagues, and co-workers. Key codes of conduct, and reasonable values of professionalism include acting in the client’s best interest and putting that interest before your own, maintaining standards expected of other members of the profession, and staying current with changes and discoveries in the field. 3. Which term means moral principles that govern behavior? a. Autonomy b. Laws c. Empathy d. Ethics ANS: D

Ethics are moral principles that govern behavior. 4. Which aspect of ethics involves respecting the rights of competent individuals to make their

own decisions? a. Autonomy b. Veracity c. Beneficence d. Fidelity ANS: A

Professionals have an obligation to uphold autonomy, which is respecting the rights of competent individuals to make their own decisions.

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5. Which aspect of ethics obligates professionals to act in ways that benefit the wellbeing of

others? a. Autonomy b. Non-malfeasance c. Beneficence d. Fidelity ANS: C

Beneficence obligates professionals to act in ways that benefit the wellbeing of others. 6. Which aspect of ethics requires that professionals remain loyal and dedicated to their clients,

and that professionals keep their promises and honor commitments? a. Autonomy b. Justice c. Beneficence d. Fidelity ANS: D

The principle of fidelity requires that professionals remain loyal and dedicated to their clients, and that professionals keep their promises and honor commitments. 7. Which principle involves protecting information from unauthorized access or release, loss,

theft, and from its modification? a. Fidelity b. Authenticity c. Justice TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Confidentiality ANS: D

Confidentiality refers to the obligation of professionals or professional organizations to safeguard entrusted information. The principle of confidentiality includes protecting information from unauthorized access or release, loss, theft, and from its modification. 8. Under which circumstance can massage therapists legally breach confidentiality? a. Records are requested by a client’s spouse b. Records are subpoenaed by a court order c. Transferring records from one massage therapist to another d. Complying with verbal request for records by a client’s physician ANS: B

If clients are involved in court proceedings and requests are made for client records, the therapist may be legally required to release the record as the client/therapist relationship may not be privileged under state law. If client records are subpoenaed, notify the client before records are released and this action will allow the client to discuss the situation with his or her attorney, which may lead the attorney to file a motion to quash or block the subpoena. 9. Which legislation requires professionals to report concerns of neglect or abuse to appropriate

state agencies? a. Consumer protection b. Mandatory reporting

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c. Malpractice regulation d. Civil rights act ANS: B

If therapists have reasons to suspect that children, elderly adults, or incapacitated adults are being abused, neglected (including self-neglect), or exploited, they may be legally required to make a report and provide relevant information to the appropriate state department. The legal requirement is called mandatory reporting. 10. Which concept allows the application of professional knowledge and clinical expertise to help

clients achieve their treatment goals? a. Dual relationship b. Healing touch c. Therapeutic relationship d. Subjective rapport ANS: C

The therapeutic relationship is the relationship between a therapist and a client that allows therapists to apply their professional knowledge and clinical expertise to help clients achieve their treatment goals. This relationship serves to protect the client’s dignity and provides a framework for which ethical principles are applied. 11. Which concept is the ability to accept another person’s beliefs despite own personal feelings? a. Trust b. Respect c. Authenticity d. Sympathy

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ANS: B

Respect is the ability to accept another person’s beliefs despite your own personal feelings. Respect in the therapeutic relationship is an acceptance of the client as a whole person. Acceptance does not necessarily mean approval or agreement; it means acknowledging the right of another person to have unique feelings, thoughts, and beliefs. 12. Which term does Rogers use to describe helping clients feel comfortable even if their feelings,

thoughts, and beliefs are different from the massage therapist’s? a. Therapeutic accordance b. Healing therapeutic space c. Countertransference reversal d. Unconditional positive regard ANS: D

The goal of respect is to help clients feel comfortable even if these feelings, thoughts, and beliefs are not the same as your own. Rogers called this unconditional positive regard. This validation has the potential to be deeply healing for clients. 13. Which example demonstrates respect? a. Self-disclosure of personal information to the client b. Counseling a distressed client c. Giving the client the massage he or she asked for d. Draping the client improperly

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ANS: C

Therapists who are respectful take into account the client’s preferences, expectations, predispositions, social and cultural values, and religious or spiritual beliefs when developing the treatment plan without inserting their own agenda. For example, when clients request relaxation massage, avoid turning the session it into a clinical massage as this action would be disrespectful and invalidate the client’s preferences. 14. Which concept is the desire to understand what another person is experiencing without

mistaking it for own experience? a. Empathy b. Tolerance c. Sympathy d. Ambivalence ANS: A

Empathy is the desire to understand what another person is experiencing without mistaking it for your own experience. Empathy is educated compassion or intellectual understanding of another person’s perspective and emotions. 15. Which nonverbal expression demonstrates empathy? a. Avoiding eye contact b. Avoiding mirroring the look on the client’s face c. Determining what emotional affect the client has d. Keeping arms crossed ANS: C

Riess and Kraft-Todd identified seven essential nonverbal expressions of empathy which can ESTBAempathy NKSELtoLE R.C OM Each uses a letter of the word be used by professionals toTexpress their clients. empathy. E is for eye contact; M is for muscles of facial expression; P is for posture; A stands for affect; T is for tone of voice; H is for hearing the whole person; and Y stands for your response. Affect is the term to describe expressed emotions. When listening to a client, try to determine what he or she is feeling such as happiness, fear, apprehension, or sadness. Making a nonverbal mental note of the client’s emotional state deepens our understanding of the clients. 16. Which concept means confidence in and reliance upon others to act in accordance with

accepted social, ethical, or legal norms? a. Trust b. Respect c. Validity d. Congruence ANS: A

Trust is confidence in and reliance upon others, whether individuals or organizations, to act in accordance with accepted social, ethical, or legal norms. 17. Which statement describes cultural competency? a. Ability of professionals to speak languages of more than one culture b. Behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable professionals to work effectively in

cross-cultural situations c. Behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable professionals to determine which

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culture is best d. Ability of professionals to be tolerant of cross-cultural situations ANS: B

Cultural competency is a set of behaviors, attitudes, and policies that enable professionals to work effectively in cross-cultural situations. 18. Which aspect of cultural competency involves self-exploration and examination of one’s own

cultural and professional background and biases toward other cultures? a. Desire b. Knowledge c. Encounter d. Awareness ANS: D

Cultural awareness is the process of conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s own cultural and professional background and biases toward other cultures, including the existence of racism and other “-isms” in health care delivery. 19. Which aspect of cultural competency involves directly interacting and engaging with

individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds? a. Skill b. Knowledge c. Encounter d. Awareness ANS: C

Cultural encounters indicate professional TEthat STthe BAN KSELLERdirectly .COM interacts and engages with individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds. These encounters have the potential to modify existing beliefs about cultural groups and prevent possible stereotyping. 20. The therapeutic relationship is a professional one that exists to meet the needs of whom? a. Client b. Therapist c. Client’s family d. Massage regulatory board ANS: A

The therapeutic relationship is a professional relationship that exists to meet the needs of clients while providing them with safe, effective, and competent care. 21. Which term means the spaces between the therapist’s power and the client’s vulnerability? a. Professional boundaries b. Professional resolutions c. Ethics differentials d. Interpersonal skills ANS: A

Professional boundaries are the spaces between the therapist’s power and the client’s vulnerability.

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22. What is the term for the imbalance of authority in the therapeutic relationship with clients in

the vulnerable position? a. Power resurgence b. Cultural competency c. Power differential d. Boundary distribution ANS: C

Power comes from the therapist’s position and the access he or she has to client information. In contrast, clients know (or should know) little about their therapists. These differences, also called a power differential, create an imbalance of power in the therapeutic relationship with clients in the vulnerable position. 23. What term means improper treatment of an individual due to carelessness or thoughtlessness? a. Abuse b. Neglect c. Sympathy d. Misperception ANS: B

Neglect is improper treatment of an individual due to carelessness or thoughtlessness. Neglect may occur from lack of professional knowledge or lack of boundaries. 24. What term means improper treatment that is intentional and deliberate? a. Abuse b. Neglect c. Insensitivity TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Misperception ANS: A

Abuse is improper treatment that is intentional and deliberate. Abuse may occur when therapists use clients for personal gain or gratification. 25. Which strategy establishes and maintains professional boundaries? a. Develop and follow a treatment plan b. Have more than one source of income c. Put client needs ahead of self-care needs d. Meet personal needs within the therapeutic relationship ANS: A

Strategies for maintaining professional boundaries are (1) have clearly defined roles and responsibilities including who can participate in the therapeutic relationship; (2) establish clear boundaries between yourself and others; (3) develop and follow a treatment plan, (4) recognize that different cultures and ethnic groups may have varying rules for interactions and these rules must be factored into professional decisions and actions; (5) meet personal needs outside the therapeutic relationship, (6) develop self-awareness regarding your responses to the needs of others, and (7) follow a self-care plan. 26. What term describes a therapist’s revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history to clients? a. Self-disclosure b. Confidentiality

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c. Empathy d. Cultural competency ANS: A

Revealing thoughts, feelings, and personal history to clients is called self-disclosure. 27. Which example demonstrates a physical boundary? a. Starting and finishing a massage session on time b. Sharing personal religious and political views with clients c. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region d. Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client ANS: C

Physical boundaries are the circumstances under which therapists physically touch clients; this includes the who, when, where, how, and under what circumstances of professional touch. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region is an example of a physical boundary in the therapeutic relationship. 28. Which type of boundary helps an individual identify own feelings and keep them separate

from the feelings of others? a. Physical b. Biological c. Emotional d. Financial ANS: C

Emotional boundaries involve the capacity to be aware of, to control, and to express one’s emotions. It also involves identifying are TESTBANwhich KSELemotions LER.CO M yours and which ones are not yours, and keeping these feelings separate. 29. Which response is appropriate for the massage therapist if a client has an emotional release

during the session? a. End the client’s treatment immediately b. Charge the client an additional fee c. Assume the role of psychotherapist for the client d. Bring the focus back to the client’s body ANS: D

A massage therapist’s scope of practice does not allow for the intentional eliciting or processing of emotions. When clients share their emotional concerns with their massage therapists, therapist should act to bring the focus back to the body using questions such as, “Where do you feel that in your body?” or “Can you tell me what you notice in your body as you say that?” 30. Which term describes the unconscious transfer of emotions and resultant behaviors associated

with a significant person in the client’s life onto someone else such as the therapist? a. Empathy b. Transference c. Countertransference d. Fidelity ANS: B

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Transference is the unconscious transfer or displacement of emotions and resultant behaviors associated with a significant person in the client’s life onto someone else such as the therapist. 31. Which term describes the unconscious transfer or displacement of unresolved emotions by the

professional onto a client? a. Sympathy b. Transference c. Countertransference d. Fidelity ANS: C

Countertransference is the unconscious transfer or displacement of unresolved emotions by the professional onto a client. Countertransference may occur from unmet personal needs, unresolved emotions, or internal conflicts that are brought into the therapeutic relationship unknowingly. 32. Which example is a sign of countertransference? a. Becoming angry when the client cancels an appointment b. Shortening the session time if the client is late c. Giving the client the office email address d. Calling the client as a reminder for a massage session ANS: A

Signs of countertransference can include becoming angry or depressed when a client cancels an appointment. 33. What type of boundary encompasses beliefs, thoughts, and ideas while also safeguarding

self-esteem? a. Physical b. Intellectual c. Time d. Location

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ANS: B

Intellectual boundaries encompass beliefs, thoughts, and ideas, as well as safeguard self-esteem. 34. Which example demonstrates a time boundary? a. Starting and finishing a massage session promptly b. Sharing religious and political views with clients c. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region d. Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client ANS: A

Time boundaries include: (1) Being ready when clients arrive with music playing (if appropriate) and clean linens on the massage table. (2) Beginning and ending the session on time. (3) Focusing on the client during the session, and avoiding distracting activities such as talking or texting on mobile devices or conversing with other clients in the waiting room. 35. Which example demonstrates a financial boundary? a. Posting your fee schedule and accepted forms of payment

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b. Sharing personal religious and political views with clients c. Obtaining consent before working on the gluteal region d. Intentionally evoking an emotional response from the client ANS: A

Financial boundaries involve issues of money and include fee schedules, payment arrangements and procedures, and policies of non-payment. 36. Which example shows a common scenario involving a financial conflict of interest for

massage therapists? a. Selling products to clients b. Using more than one therapeutic modality c. Being an independent contractor d. Using a cell phone for business calls ANS: A

One of the most common financial conflicts of interest for massage therapists is selling products to clients. In these situations, therapists may be faced with choosing between the client’s best interest and therapist’s financial interests when profits are received from product sales. 37. Which type of boundary is necessary for emails, texting, and social media? a. Intellectual b. Financial c. Digital d. Emotional ANS: C

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Digital media including social media and electronic communications introduce a new boundary for health care providers and this may create dual relationships, and issues with confidentiality and privacy. 38. Which term is defined the existence of multiple roles a therapist and a client? a. Dual relationships b. Transference c. Countertransference d. Power differentials ANS: A

Dual relationships are any situation where multiple roles exist between a therapist and a client. Examples of dual relationships are when clients are also friends, family members, or business associates. 39. What is the most common social dual relationship between therapists and their clients? a. Friend b. Family member c. Business associate d. Codependent ANS: A

The most common social dual relationship is friendships.

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40. What characteristic differentiates friendships from therapeutic relationships? a. Choice b. Mutuality c. Trust d. Reciprocity ANS: D

Friendships involve choice, mutuality (both parties voluntarily enter the relationship), trust, pleasure (both parties enjoy the relationship), and reciprocity. Therapeutic relationships involve choice, mutuality, trust, and pleasure, but not reciprocity. 41. According to the NCBTMB’s standards of practice, at least how much time should lapse

between discontinuing the client–therapist relationship and initiating a mutual romantic or sexual relationship with a client? a. 6 weeks b. 6 months c. 18 months d. 24 months ANS: B

The NCBTMB Standards of Practice (Standard VI.A) require discontinuation of the client–therapist relationship for at least 6 months before initiating a romantic or sexual relationship with that client. 42. Which action is part of the model for ethical decision making? a. Blaming the person who started the problem b. Imposing a preferred solution to a conflict TESTBperson ANKSwants ELLER.COM c. Agreeing to whatever another d. Identifying potential issues involved ANS: D

A model for ethical decision making involves identifying the problem or dilemma, identifying potential issues involved, reviewing relevant ethics codes, knowing applicable laws and regulations, obtaining consultation, considering possible and probable courses of action, enumerating consequences of various decisions, and deciding on what appears to be the best course of action. 43. Which step of the model for ethical decision making involves seeking advice from mentors,

teachers, peers, or other trusted professionals? a. Identify the problem or dilemma b. Obtain consultation c. Identify potential issues involved d. Consider possible and probable courses of action ANS: B

Prejudices, biases, personal needs, or emotional investments can impair objectivity. Therefore, it is prudent to seek advice from mentors, teachers, peers, or other trusted professionals. If there is a legal question, seek legal counsel. After full evaluation of the problem, request feedback to ascertain that you have considered all applicable factors including ethical, legal, clinical considerations.

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44. Which term can be defined as sexual interaction between someone in an authoritative role and

a subordinate? a. Interest b. Activity c. Misconduct d. Assault ANS: C

Sexual misconduct encompasses a wide range of sexual behaviors and includes sexual harassment, nonconsensual sexual contact, and any sexual activity between someone in an authoritative role and a subordinate. 45. Which type of sexual misconduct consists of unwelcome verbal hostility, threats, jokes, and

circulation of unwelcome graphic material? a. Harassment b. Exacerbation c. Activity d. Risk ANS: A

Sexual harassment includes, but is not limited to (1) unwelcome verbal, written, or physical conduct that denigrates or shows hostility or aversion toward an individual (or that of an individual’s relatives, friends, or associates); (2) unwelcome threats, derogatory comments, jokes, innuendos, insults, slurs, epithets, negative stereotyping, and other similar conduct; or (3) placement, dissemination, or circulation of any unwelcome written or graphic material (in hard copy or electronic form) that denigrates or shows hostility or aversion toward an individual or group.

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46. Which example demonstrates a way a massage therapist can decrease the risk of sexual

misconduct? a. Avoiding terms of endearment, such as “honey” or “sweetie” b. Dressing for work as though going on a date to increase tips c. Wearing tight or revealing clothing to perform the session d. Using the words “release” or “happy ending” in advertisements ANS: A

Avoiding terms of endearment, such as “honey” or “sweetie” is one way to reduce the risk of sexual misconduct. 47. Which procedure is an appropriate way of dealing with a client’s erection? a. Ask questions about the client’s parents b. Apply pressure to the client’s abdomen c. Tell the client that erections are unimpressive d. Turn down the thermostat to lower the client’s body temperature ANS: A

When your client has an erection, you can ask questions to distract the client from whatever thoughts, feelings, or sensations led to the erection. For example, you might say, “Tell me about your mother” or ask “What type of work did your father do when you were a child?” Even if you do not know his parents, you can ask. Or you can ask him to roll over and continue the massage.

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48. Which activity is an indication the client is sexualizing the massage? a. Snoring or drooling during part of the session b. Requesting additional draping, such as a blanket c. Wearing undergarments under the drape d. Moving the pelvis repetitively ANS: D

The client is likely sexualizing the massage if he or she exhibits certain behaviors. Behavior ranges from subtle to overt, and may include noises such as moaning, repetitive movements of the pelvis, touching his or her pelvis or penis, or removing some or all of the drape. Inappropriate behavior may also include sexually suggestive comments, questions, or jokes. The client may also touch you, even in a seemingly casual or accidental way. 49. Which action by the massage therapist is appropriate when terminating a massage while in

session? a. Answering any of the client’s questions while in the room b. Leaving the massage room without notifying the client c. Removing hands from the client and stepping toward the door d. Waiting in the massage room for the client to get dressed ANS: C

Removing hands from the client and stepping toward the door is an appropriate way to terminate a massage while in session if the client is behaving inappropriately. 50. Which action is required of massage therapists who know first hand about sexual misconduct

by another therapist? TESthe TBexact ANKnature SELLof ERthe .Callegations OM a. Letting the therapist know b. Informing the therapist’s supervisor of the allegation c. Filing a report with the state licensing board d. Keeping information confidential until contacted by the authorities ANS: C

In many states, there is “duty to report” sexual misconduct by other therapists. If we have firsthand knowledge (i.e., witnessed it ourselves or it was disclosed by the offending therapist), we are required to file a report with the state licensing board. If we fail to do so, we are in violation of the law.

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Chapter 03: Tools of the Trade: Massage Tables, Table Accessories, Linens, Lubricants, and the Treatment Room Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which feature is an advantage of portable massage tables? a. Thickness of padding on b. Relative ease of transport c. Strength of frame material d. Available accessories to use ANS: B

An advantage of portable massage tables is that they can be moved with relative ease, increasing the variety of locations in which the massage therapist can perform treatments. 2. Which reason is an advantage of purchasing massage equipment from reputable,

well-established manufacturers? a. Customer service is consistent among all massage manufacturers b. Massage table and massage chair warranties a less than one year c. Most manufacturers avoid offering a trial period for purchases d. Their equipment tends to hold its value and bring a higher resale price ANS: D

Reputable, well-established companies have quality, well-made products whose designs have stood the test of time. These companies usually provide superior customer service before and TESaTtrial BANperiod KSELwith LERall .CorOpart M of the purchase price refunded after the purchase, and provide once the product is returned if the customer is not satisfied with the product. Additionally, previously-owned massage tables and chairs manufactured from reputable companies often hold their value and bring a higher resale price. 3. What is the national standard for weight ratings for massage tables and chairs? a. 500 pounds b. Depends on whether client is male or female c. The massage therapist’s best judgment d. None ANS: D

Currently, there is no national standard for determining weight ratings for massage tables and massage chairs. When looking for a sturdy product, consumers must rely on weight ratings supplied by the company. The more reputable the company, the more trustworthy their published weight ratings. 4. How wide are most massage tables? a. 25-27 inches b. 28-30 inches c. 30-31 inches d. 33-34 inches ANS: C

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Most massage tables have a width between 28 and 33 inches, with most tables being 30-31 inches wide. 5. Which term means the ability of table foam pads to return to their original height after being

compressed? a. Loft b. Density c. Memory d. Durability ANS: C

High-density pads generally have better memory, or ability to return to their original height after being compressed. 6. Which fabric is most often used on high-quality massage tables? a. Cordura b. Polyvinyl c. Gore-Tex d. Polyurethane ANS: D

Most good-quality massage tables and products use polyurethane fabrics and do not contain polyvinyl chlorides (PVCs), which makes them environmentally friendly. 7. Which type of product should be avoided for cleaning the massage table because it may

degrade the fabric? a. Vinegar-based b. Citrus oil–based c. Nonabrasive d. Nonalcohol

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ANS: B

Many massage table manufactures recommend a 4:1 diluted solution of green Windex, 409, Fantastik, or other nonabrasive, nonalcohol cleaning products. Vinegar may also be used. Avoid citrus oil–based cleaners because they can damage the fabric. 8. When should chlorine bleach be used on the massage table? a. At the beginning of a three-month calendar period b. When table linens are thrown away and replaced with new ones c. When the table needs to be disinfected d. Before the start of each workday and before each massage therapy session ANS: C

Chlorine bleach is used for disinfecting, but not routine cleaning. 9. Which massage table accessory allows a client’s neck to remain relatively straight while the

client lies prone? a. Face rest b. Arm shelf c. Cervical pillow d. Covered bolster

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ANS: A

A face rest, or face cradle, allows clients to keep their heads and necks relatively aligned while lying prone or face down. 10. Which massage table accessory is used while the client is lying supine? a. Face rest b. Arm shelf c. Knee bolster d. Ankle bolster ANS: C

A bolster placed behind the knees while the client is supine often reduces lower back strain by decreasing lordosis. 11. A knee bolster increases client comfort by decreasing which condition? a. Lower back strain b. Abdominal distention c. Cervical extension d. Pectoral strain ANS: A

A bolster placed behind the knees while the client is supine often reduces lower back strain by decreasing lordosis. 12. Which fabric is the most popular for massage therapy linens? a. Rayon b. Cotton TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Jersey d. Polyester ANS: B

Popular sheet fabrics are cotton, cotton blends, and flannel. Avoid thin, clingy, or see-through fabrics such as jersey knit because these types of fabrics reveal details of the client’s body. 13. What type of material should be avoided as a drape the client is positioned over because it can

leave compression marks on the skin? a. Flannel b. Cotton c. Polyester d. Terrycloth ANS: D

Towels are made with terrycloth and are designed to absorb water easily, making them ideal for spa treatments. Do not place a towel on the massage table then position the client over it as the pressure of the client’s body will cause the towel to leave compression marks on the skin. 14. How often are sheets and accessory covers used before needing to be laundered? a. Once b. Twice c. For a week d. Until they smell rancid

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ANS: A

Sheets and accessory covers are used once for each client, then need to be laundered. 15. What is the primary purpose of using massage lubricants? a. Reduce friction b. Hydrate the skin c. Test for skin allergies d. Increase client relaxation ANS: A

The primary purpose of a massage lubricant is to reduce friction between the therapist’s hands and the client’s skin. Types of massage lubricant are crèmes, lotions, butters, oils, and gels. 16. Which type of product should be used if the massage therapist is unsure which is the safest for

the client? a. Coconut oil b. Shea butter c. Scented d. Hypoallergenic ANS: D

Hypoallergenic products are the most unlikely to cause allergic reactions. They are used when the client has allergies to ingredients in non-hypoallergenic lubricants or if the client has sensitive or hyper-reactive skin. If you are unsure what product to use, the best and safest option is to choose a scent-free, hypoallergenic lubricant. 17. From what are oils and gels usually derived? a. Fruits, nuts, and seeds TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Petroleum-based products c. Nuts, seeds, and vegetables d. Extracts of medicinal herbs ANS: C

Oils and gels are derived from nuts, seeds, and vegetables. Sesame, grape, coconut, and hemp seed oils tend to be well-tolerated. 18. From what are butters derived? a. Fruits, grains, and minerals b. Petroleum-based products c. Vegetables, nuts, and seeds d. Extracts of medicinal herbs ANS: A

Butters are derived from fruit, nuts, or seeds. The most common butters used in massage lubricants are cocoa butter and Shea butter. 19. Which butters are the most common ones used in massage lubricants? a. Carrot and avocado b. Coconut and almond c. Cocoa and Shea d. Shea and peanut

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ANS: C

The most common butters used in massage lubricants are cocoa butter and Shea butter. 20. Which massage lubricant should be avoided if the client has a latex allergy? a. Olive oil b. Shea butter c. Coconut oil d. Almond butter ANS: B

If the client is allergic to latex, he or she may also have an allergic reaction to Shea butter because of cross-reactivity. Avoid Shea butter as a massage lubricant or lubricant ingredient in these cases. 21. Which substance should be avoided because it can clog pores and may be carcinogenic? a. Aloe vera b. Cornstarch c. Mineral oil d. Cocoa butter ANS: C

Mineral oil is thought to clog pores and may be a carcinogen (cancer causing agent). 22. Which type of product is thought to mimic the hormone estrogen, which may play a role in

breast cancer development? a. Parabens b. Eucalyptus TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Mineral oils d. Alcohol ANS: A

Parabens are thought to mimic the hormone estrogen when they are absorbed into the bloodstream; estrogens may play a role in breast cancer development. In response to these concerns, many massage lubricant manufacturers are removing mineral oils and parabens from all or part of their product lines. 23. Which term means the transfer of harmful microorganisms from one source to another? a. Infection control b. Cross-contamination c. Universal precautions d. Single-usage ANS: B

Cross-contamination occurs when microorganisms such as bacteria are transferred from one source to another. 24. Which method is the most effective way to prevent cross-contamination of a thin massage

lubricant? a. An open jar used for multiple clients b. A container with a pump mechanism c. An open jar that sits in a massage holster d. A container on the floor near the client

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ANS: B

When dispensing thin lubricants such as lotions, gels, or oils, use a container that has either a pump mechanism or squeezable bottle or tube. 25. How long can massage lubricant remain blended and unrancid after being purchased if it is

stored in a cool, dark place out of direct sunlight? a. 1 month b. 6 months c. 18 months d. 36 months ANS: C

After purchase, store all unused lubricants in a cool, dark location out of direct sunlight. In these conditions, most lubricants remain blended and unrancid for approximately 18 months. 26. Which scent does the National Sleep Foundation recommend to promote calmness and

relaxation? a. Lavender b. Geranium c. Eucalyptus d. Patchouli ANS: A

If scents are used, the National Sleep Foundation recommends lavender, vanilla, valerian, jasmine, or any scent your clients like to promote calmness and relaxation. 27. Which temperature range is the for a massage room? TE STmost BANcomfortable KSELLERrange .COM a. 57 to 60 F b. 65 to 70 F c. 68 to 76 F d. 80 to 86 F ANS: C

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) recommends temperatures between 68-76 F for workers. For client comfort, the higher end of the range is recommended. 28. Which colors are most likely to create a cozy feeling in the massage space? a. Taupe, gray, and beige b. Blue, violet, and green c. Green, taupe, and red d. Red, yellow, and orange ANS: D

Rich shades of red, orange, yellow (warm colors), can create a cozy feeling. 29. Which factor is part of a massage therapist’s professional appearance? a. Clean hair that hangs around the face b. Nails that are trimmed once a month c. Wearing unscented personal hygiene products d. Explaining to clients the meaning of personal tattoos

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ANS: C

In any setting, professional appearance should be clean and neat, no scents or odors, nails trimmed and hair held back from the face. Choose clothing that will not drape or hang on the client during the session yet clothing should not be so tight fitting as to be revealing or impair movement, or so low cut as to show cleavage on females. 30. Which practice best promotes a safe and accessible treatment facility? a. Using circular-style door handles b. Providing slick and smooth flooring c. Posting a fire escape route inside a closet located near a building exit d. Checking and tightening loose knobs on massage tables before each business day ANS: D

Maintain all equipment in safe working condition. This includes checking and tightening your massage table hinges, knobs, and locks before each business day.

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Chapter 04: Career Longevity: Self-Care, Burnout Prevention, and the Wellness Model Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Studies about career longevity in nursing, education, and athletic training can be correlated to

massage therapy because all these professions have what in common? a. Being health related b. A physical component c. Comparable pay rates d. Same amount of schooling ANS: B

While investigations into factors contributing to career longevity in the massage field have not been conducted, studies have been carried out in nursing, education, and athletic training. The information from these studies can be related to massage therapy because all these professions have commonalities – they involve taking care of others, and there is a physical component in the performance of duties. 2. Which approach do professionals use to help prevent burnout? a. Being minimally active b. Keeping concerns to self c. Spending time with family d. Avoiding spiritual interests ANS: C

TEin STtheir BANcareers KSELand LERprevented .COM burnout by utilizing self-care Many professionals persisted strategies such as exercising, talking with peers and supervisors, spending time with family, practicing spirituality, and performing mindfulness-based stress reduction techniques. 3. Which term means a conscious, self-directed, and evolving process of achieving full

potential? a. Wellness b. Perfection c. Tranquility d. Independence ANS: A

Wellness is a conscious, self-directed, and evolving process of achieving full potential, according to the National Wellness Institute. Wellness involves programs of self-care which are learned, proactive, deliberate, purposeful, and continuous activities to reduce stress, avoid burnout, prevent illness and injury, and live a more balanced life. 4. According to Bonnie Prudden, massage therapists are placed in which classification based on

their degree of physical activity? a. Active b. Walking c. Standing d. Strenuous

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ANS: D

Prudden classifies massage therapy as a strenuous occupation. 5. According to Bonnie Prudden, someone in a sitting occupation may develop trigger points

where? a. Feet b. Chest c. Abdomen d. Forearms ANS: B

Sitting occupations often put trigger points in the chest, neck, shoulders, and upper and lower back. 6. According to Bonnie Prudden, barbers, physicians, and teachers are all in what category of

physical activity? a. Active b. Walking c. Standing d. Strenuous ANS: C

According to Bonnie Prudden, barbers, physicians, and teachers are all in the physical activity category of standing rather than walking, active, or strenuous. 7. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, how many minutes of

moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise should adults achieve each week? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. 30 b. 60 c. 100 d. 150 ANS: D

Cardiorespiratory exercises are activities involving prolonged body movements to increase heart and respiration rates to increase stamina, lose or maintain weight, and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. The current recommendation is 150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise per week. 8. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, how often should adults participate in

resistance exercises? a. Every day b. 2 or 3 days each week c. 1 day each week d. Every other week ANS: B

Resistance exercises are activities involving resistance to contract skeletal muscles to improve strength and muscular endurance. Current recommendations are to perform resistance exercises two or three non-consecutive days each week on all major muscle groups. 9. Which type of exercise specifically helps prevent falls in older adults? a. Cardiorespiratory

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b. Resistance c. Neuromotor d. Flexibility ANS: C

Neuromotor exercises are activities that involve balance, agility, coordination, and proprioceptive to improve physical function and prevent falls in older adults. 10. What term means ingesting food and drink to help the body function properly? a. Health b. Nutrition c. Calories d. Wellness ANS: B

Nutrition is ingesting food and drink to help our bodies function properly, to support tissue growth and repair, and to supply the energy needed to perform daily activities. 11. What term refers to proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water? a. Nutrients b. Calories c. Enzymes d. Hormones ANS: A

Nutrients are substances obtained from diet and can be grouped into six categories which are proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.

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12. Which classification provides energy through calories and includes proteins, carbohydrates,

and fats? a. Micronutrients b. Macronutrients c. Dietary cofactors d. Organic compounds ANS: B

Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats are macronutrients because they are needed in relatively large quantities, and they provide energy through calories. 13. Which type of nutrient is composed of chains of amino acids? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: B

Proteins are chains of amino acids. The body uses approximately 24 amino acids. 14. Which nutrient aids the body’s growth and energy needs, helps build and repair tissues, and

helps form antibodies to fight infection? a. Fats b. Proteins

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c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: B

Proteins assist the body’s growth and energy needs, help build and repair tissues, and help form antibodies which fight infection. 15. Which type of protein contains all eight essential amino acids? a. Complete b. Saturated c. Incomplete d. Unsaturated ANS: A

Foods that contain all 8 essential amino acids are complete proteins, and foods that lack one or more essential amino acid are incomplete proteins. 16. Which foods are considered good sources of protein? a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts b. Breads, cereals, potatoes, beans, peas, and honey c. Nuts, seeds, oils, butter, cream, and avocados d. Fresh fruits, nuts, sugar, syrup, corn, and honey ANS: A

Good sources of complete proteins are meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, cheese, beans, peas, and nuts. 17. Which type of nutrient provides TESTthe BAbody NKSwith ELLenergy? ER.COM a. Fibers b. Vitamins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: D

Carbohydrates are sources of sugar and cellulose (dietary fiber). Carbohydrates provide the body with energy. 18. Which foods are sources of carbohydrates? a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts b. Breads, cereals, potatoes, beans, peas, and honey c. Nuts, seeds, oils, butter, cream, and avocados d. Cheese, beans, peas, butter, cream, and nuts ANS: B

Sources of complex carbohydrates are whole grains breads, cereals and pasta, potatoes, beans, and peas. Sources of simple carbohydrates are fresh fruits, honey, and table sugar. 19. Which type of nutrients are sources of energy and help the body absorb certain vitamins? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates

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ANS: A

Fats are sources of energy and help the body absorb certain vitamins. 20. Which type of nutrient is classified as either unsaturated or saturated? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: A

Fats can be either unsaturated (liquid at room temperature) or saturated (solid at room temperature). 21. Which term refers to a type of fat that is liquid at room temperature? a. Complete b. Saturated c. Incomplete d. Unsaturated ANS: D

Fats can be either unsaturated (liquid at room temperature) or saturated (solid at room temperature). 22. Which term refers to fats in foods made with or fried in partially hydrogenated oils? a. Unsaturated b. Saturated c. Organic TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Trans ANS: D

Trans fats are foods made with or fried in partially hydrogenated oils. Intake of saturated fats and trans fats should be limited or avoided. 23. Which foods are sources of healthy fats? a. Meat, fish, poultry, eggs, milk, beans, and nuts b. Breads, cereals, potatoes, beans, peas, and honey c. Nuts, seeds, olive oil, fatty fish, and avocados d. Fresh fruits, nuts, sugar, syrup, corn, and honey ANS: C

Good sources of healthy fats are nuts, seeds, olive oil, fatty fish, avocados, and eggs. 24. Which vitamin water-soluble? a. A b. C c. D d. E ANS: B

Water soluble vitamins are absorbed easily and excreted within hours. Examples of water-soluble vitamins are the B vitamins and vitamin C.

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25. Which vitamin is fat-soluble? a. B1 b. B12 c. C d. E ANS: D

Fat soluble vitamins are absorbed slowly and often reside in the liver and fat cells. Examples of fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E, and K. 26. Which food is the best source of Vitamin A? a. Yogurt b. Spinach c. Strawberries d. Citrus fruits ANS: B

The best sources of vitamin A are spinach, liver, sweet potatoes, pumpkin, collard greens, and milk. 27. Which food is the best source of Vitamin C? a. Limes b. Cheese c. Seafood d. Potatoes ANS: A

The best sources of vitamin CSare fruits, and limes, strawberries, TE TBcitrus ANKS ELLsuch ER.as COoranges M broccoli, and sweet red peppers. 28. Which food is the best source of Vitamin E? a. Yogurt b. Potatoes c. Strawberries d. Almonds ANS: D

The best sources of vitamin E are almonds, peanuts, sunflower seeds, spinach, avocado, oils (wheat germ and safflower), and carrot juice. 29. Which vitamin acts as an antioxidant and helps the body resist infection? a. A b. C c. D d. K ANS: B

Vitamin C acts as an antioxidant, helps the body resist infection, promotes adrenal gland function, and aids in collagen production and can also reduce high blood pressure and cholesterol. 30. Which vitamin promotes bone development as well as calcium absorption and metabolism?

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a. b. c. d.

A C D K

ANS: C

Vitamin D promotes bone development, helps absorb and metabolize calcium, and aids the immune system. 31. Which vitamin aid in blood clotting? a. A b. C c. D d. K ANS: D

Vitamin K aids in blood clotting and maintains bone health. 32. Which nutrients are chemical elements found in the earth’s crust that are vital in regulating

many body functions? a. Fats b. Proteins c. Minerals d. Carbohydrates ANS: C

Minerals are chemical elements found in the earth’s crust that are vital in regulating many body functions. Minerals act TEasSTcoenzymes BANKSE(iron), LLERsupport .COM organs (potassium), build bone (calcium), relax muscles (magnesium), and aid healthy growth and development (zinc). 33. Which mineral supports the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth? a. Iron b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: C

Calcium supports the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth and promotes heart, nerve, and muscle function. To properly function, calcium requires other nutrients, such as vitamin D. 34. Which mineral is part of hemoglobin in red blood cells, thereby helping deliver oxygen to the

tissues? a. Iron b. Sodium c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: A

Iron attaches to the hemoglobin in red blood cells, thereby supporting the delivering of oxygen to the tissues.

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35. Which nutrient helps regulate body temperature, flushes out waste products, and prevents

constipation? a. Fats b. Water c. Protein d. Minerals ANS: B

Drinking water helps the body regulates its temperature, lessens the burden on kidneys and the liver by flushing out waste products, helps dissolve minerals and other nutrients, making them more accessible to the body, helps prevent or reduce constipation, and moistens mucosal membranes such as those found in the mouth. 36. Food labels provide nutritional information based on a daily intake of how many calories? a. 1,000 b. 1,500 c. 2,000 d. 2,500 ANS: C

Food labels are panels on packaged foods that contain information about its nutritional value and are required by the FDA. Standard information includes serving size, number of calories per serving, macro- and micronutrients, and a list of ingredients. The label provides each item with its approximate percent daily value, generally based on a 2,000 calorie diet. Food labels help consumers plan food intake and compare foods. 37. How much of the Healthy Eating Plate do fruits and vegetables occupy? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. One eighth b. One fourth c. One third d. One half ANS: D

The Healthy Eating Plate was developed by the Harvard School of Public Health and helps consumers make food choices and plan portions at meal times. It divides a meal plate into portions of fruits and vegetables (half of the plate), whole grains (one-fourth of the plate), and healthy proteins (one-fourth of the plate). 38. Which factor contributes to learning and memory, weight control, mood, health, and safety? a. Adequate sleep b. Insufficient sleep c. Adequate water intake d. Insufficient mineral intake ANS: A

According to the Harvard Medical School Special Health Report, adequate sleep is important for learning and memory, weight control, mood, health, and safety. 39. Which term means the ability to achieve balance between work and leisure time, manage

workplace stress, and to build relationships with colleagues? a. Occupational wellness

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b. Compassion c. Balance d. Emotional wellness ANS: A

Occupational wellness is the ability to achieve balance between work and leisure time, to manage workplace stress, and to build relationships with colleagues. 40. Which statement defines burnout? a. Physical exhaustion from overstressing muscles during weight bearing exercise b. Emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense of personal

accomplishment c. Emotional strain from working with those who are suffering from the

consequences of traumatic events d. Mental exhaustion from interactions with people and from educational demands ANS: B

Burnout is a state of emotional exhaustion, depersonalization, and diminished sense of personal accomplishment that can occur among individuals who work with others in challenging situations. 41. Approximately how many massage therapists have experienced work-related pain and

musculoskeletal symptoms? a. 25% b. 35% c. 50% d. 70%

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ANS: D

Greene and Goggins and Jang et al. found that approximately 70% or more massage therapists had experienced work-related pain and musculoskeletal symptoms. 42. Which strategy is effective in reducing physical exhaustion while performing massage? a. Increasing repetitive movements b. Refraining from using leverage c. Lowering the massage table d. Raising the massage table ANS: C

Effective strategies to reduce physical exhaustion while performing massage using adequate pressure may be to lower the massage table, use leverage rather than muscle strength to apply pressure, and use a variety of techniques to reduce repetitive motion. 43. Which approach can help alleviate or prevent burnout in massage therapists? a. Refraining from physical exercise because it is stressful b. Avoiding taking continuing education because it is stressful c. Spending as much time alone as possible d. Being part of a positive work community ANS: D

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Positive interactions with coworkers and talking with peers and supervisors was shown to promote career longevity. Therefore, it is vital that massage therapists build and maintain a positive and supportive work community and participate in team-building activities. 44. Which wellness domain involves a commitment to lifelong learning? a. Emotional b. Intellectual c. Spiritual d. Social ANS: B

Intellectual wellness is the continuous acquisition, development, and creative application of critical thinking in the quest for a more satisfying existence. Intellectual wellness involves a commitment to lifelong learning. 45. Which term means a response of the body due to an environmental, societal, situational, or

chemical factor? a. Stress b. Nutrition c. Wellness d. Psychology ANS: A

Stress is the response of the body to demands placed on it by the stressors. A stressor is something that triggers the stress response and include environmental factors (crowding, deadlines, and noise), societal factors (family, friends, coworkers), situational factors (starting or losing a job, marriage, divorce), or chemical factors (stimulants such as caffeine).

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46. What is a primary source of stress in adults? a. Education b. Friends c. Money d. Family ANS: C

According to the American Psychological Association, primary sources of stress in adults include money and work. 47. Which stress reduction method involves purposefully paying attention to detail and being

aware of surroundings? a. Guided imagery b. Mindfulness-based c. Expressive writing d. Self-affirmations ANS: B

Mindfulness-based stress reduction is focused attention and observation of the present moment. The focus can be on any experience while purposefully paying attention to detail and being aware of surroundings, emotions, thoughts, and physical sensations.

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48. Which stress reduction method involves positive statements spoken or read silently to

facilitate change within the individual using them? a. Guided imagery b. Expressive writing c. Self-affirmations d. Mindfulness-based ANS: C

Self-affirmations are positive statements spoken or read silently and are designed to facilitate self-change in the individual using them. They can serve as inspiration, as well as reminders. 49. Which statement describes the social wellness domain? a. Interacting with others through good communication skills and maintaining

meaningful relationships b. Choosing a satisfying career and contributing to society through volunteer efforts c. Searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without religious

affiliation d. Maintaining health through proper nutrition and regular physical activity ANS: A

Social wellness is the ability to interact with others involving the use of good communication skills, developing and maintaining meaningful relationships, respecting others, and creating a social support system that includes family members and friends. 50. Which statement describes the spiritual wellness domain? a. Maintaining health through proper nutrition and regular physical activity b. Searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without religious

TESTBANKSELLER.COM affiliation c. Choosing a satisfying career and contributing to society through volunteer efforts d. Interacting with others through good communication skills and maintaining meaningful relationships ANS: B

Spiritual wellness is searching for meaning and purpose of human existence with or without religious affiliation. Spirituality is the life an individual lives inside himself or herself, versus the life lived outside through occupations and social networks.

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Chapter 05: Evidence Informed Practice and Research Literacy Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of complementary care is one of the most common used by the general public? a. Massage therapy b. Alexander techniques c. Yoga d. Meditation ANS: A

Massage therapy and chiropractic and osteopathic manipulations are among the most common complementary health care approaches utilized by the general public. 2. Which term means making therapeutic treatment decisions by integrating relevant research,

the massage therapist’s clinical expertise, and the client’s preferences and values? a. Dynamic functioning b. Behavior modification c. Evidence-informed practice d. Integrative–holistic practice ANS: C

Evidence informed practice (EIP) is a problem-solving approach to clinical practice that integrates (1) a systematic search for, critical appraisal of, and synthesis of relevant and best research; (2) one’s own clinical expertise; and (3) patient preferences and values in order to TESTBANKSELLER.COM achieve desired patient goals. 3. Which activity involves the ability to locate, read, understand, and evaluate investigative

studies? a. Digital competency b. Massage competency c. Research literacy d. Computer literacy ANS: C

Research literacy is cognitive and social understanding of the basic purpose, process, and value of research and research participation. Research literacy involves a skill set including the ability to locate, read, understand, and evaluate research literature. 4. Which factor is a barrier to evidence-informed practice? a. Knowledge of statistical information b. Lack of information literacy skills c. Requirements by administration to incorporate information d. Preference for computerized sources over information from colleagues ANS: B

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Some barriers to EIP include lack of information literacy skills; lack of research skills; limited or poor access to quality information; lack of time (speed of access); negative staff attitudes and resistance; lack of administrative support; preference for colleagues as information sources over printed or computerized sources; reading barrier (health literacy); language barrier (English language learners); lack of statistical knowledge. 5. Which term means information that supports an idea or conclusion? a. Data b. Placebo c. Variable d. Evidence ANS: D

Evidence is information that supports an idea or conclusion. In the context of EIP, evidence is derived from a variety of sources including (1) research, (2) the practitioner’s own clinical expertise, and (3) patient preferences. 6. Which term means systematic inquiry using prescribed methods to validate or refine existing

knowledge or to develop new knowledge? a. Abstract b. Research c. Hypothesis d. Evidence ANS: B

Research is diligent, systematic inquiry using prescribed methods to validate or refine existing knowledge or to develop new knowledge.

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7. Which type of research emphasizes objective measurements and statistic, mathematic, or

numeric data analysis? a. Systematic b. Predictive c. Qualitative d. Quantitative ANS: D

Quantitative research emphasizes objective measurements and statistic, mathematic, or numeric data analysis. 8. Which term means recorded factual material that is used to validate research findings? a. Data b. Placebo c. Variable d. Evidence ANS: A

Data refers to recorded factual material that is used to validate research findings. Data may be in the form of questionnaires, surveys, polls, or interventions, depending on the type of data needed to answer the research question. 9. Which type of research is subjective and narrative-based?

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a. b. c. d.

Systematic Predictive Qualitative Quantitative

ANS: C

Qualitative research is exploratory research that is more subjective and narrative-based. Data collected are non-numeric and may appear in the form of observations or interviews (individual or group; structured or semi-structured) used to describe human behavior, life experiences, or common themes, which deepen our understanding of a phenomenon. 10. Which process is used to conduct investigations and pursue knowledge within a field? a. Peer review b. Scientific method c. Secondary sourcing d. Therapeutic outcome ANS: B

The research process is used to conduct investigations and pursue knowledge within a field. The terms research process and scientific method are often used interchangeably. In general, the research process includes (1) formulating a research question, (2) conducting a literature review, (3) selecting the best method or research design to answer the research question and conducting the investigation, (4) collecting and analyzing the data, and then (5) presenting the research results or findings. 11. Which statement describes the concept of reliability in research? a. Alternative treatment was compared to the treatment of interest TEactual STBAvalue NKSof ELwhat LERwas .CO M b. Test result is close to the measured c. Same test result is likely to occur if the experiment is repeated d. Degree to which a test measured what it was supposed to measure ANS: C

Reliability implies consistency and indicates that if the experiment were repeated by the same or a different investigator, the results would be the same. 12. Which statement describes the concept of validity in research? a. Test result is close to the actual value of what was measured b. Alternative treatment was compared to the treatment of interest c. Same test result is likely to occur if the experiment is repeated d. Degree to which a test measured what it was supposed to measure ANS: D

Validity implies accuracy and indicates that the experiment measured what it was supposed to measure. 13. Which term means a personal tendency toward a preference or outcome? a. Bias b. Sample c. Variable d. Blinded ANS: A

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Bias is our tendency toward a preference or outcome. In research, bias occurs when the investigator(s) select or encourage one outcome or answer over others. 14. During which process are research participants advised of the risks and benefits of the

experiment? a. Data collection b. Results analysis c. Health history d. Informed consent ANS: D

Risks and benefits are disclosed to participants during the informed consent process. 15. Which part of research is the presumed outcome of an experiment? a. Results b. Sample c. Hypothesis d. Conclusion ANS: C

A hypothesis is the presumed outcome and what is expected to occur given a certain set of circumstances. Hypotheses are largely derived from the literature review, featured next. Furthermore, hypotheses define or describe relationships between variables and attempt to answer the research question. 16. Which part of research is anything that can be changed in an experiment that might influence

the outcome? a. Sample b. Variable c. Result d. Analysis

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ANS: B

A variable is anything that can vary or change in an experiment that might influence the study’s outcome. 17. Which factor does the researcher manipulate or control during an experiment? a. Dependent variable b. Independent variable c. Qualitative data d. Quantitative data ANS: B

The independent variable is the variable that is stable and unaffected by other variables. It is independent in that is does not depend on other variables. The independent variable is the condition that is manipulated or controlled by the investigator and is the presumed cause of the effect. 18. Which factor is the presumed effect from the procedure used in research? a. Dependent variable b. Independent variable

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c. Qualitative data d. Quantitative data ANS: A

The dependent variable is the variable that is dependent on other variables and is the variable that is expected to change as a result of the independent variable. The dependent variable is the presumed effect. 19. Which step occurs after the research question has been formulated? a. Participant recruitment b. Variable determination c. Method determination d. Literature review ANS: D

A literature review represents the existing body of knowledge that has been documented in the professional literature and scholarly articles. Once the research question has been formulated, the next step is to search the literature and gather existing literature to see what is known through scientific inquiry. 20. Which term means the steps taken to conduct the research experiment? a. Data b. Conclusions c. Methods d. Hypothesis ANS: C

Methods are the steps taken toSconduct are also called protocols or TE TBANKthe SEexperiment. LLER.COMethods M procedures. Methods includes details about the participants, the setting or where the investigation was conducted, and how data will be collected and analyzed, allowing the reader to critically evaluate a study’s overall validity and reliability. 21. Which research term means a group of individuals used to represent the entire population? a. Data b. Sample c. Variable d. Hypothesis ANS: B

Experiments are usually conducted on a small group of individuals called a sample. A sample is a subset of a population that is used to represent the entire population as whole. 22. Which term means characteristics that would disqualify a potential participant from being in

an experiment? a. Qualitative data b. Exclusion criteria c. Independent variables d. Dependent variables ANS: B

Exclusion criteria are characteristics that would disqualify prospective participants from inclusion in the experiment.

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23. Which term means a group of people that receives something other than the treatment studied

during an experiment? a. Sham b. Independent c. Treatment d. Control ANS: D

The control group does not receive the treatment or intervention or receives comparison treatment. 24. Which statement describes delimitations in an investigative study? a. Boundaries the researcher sets b. Potential weaknesses or problems c. Things the researcher accepts as true d. Variables outside of the study ANS: A

Delimitations are boundaries that the researcher sets for the study and are under his or her control. Examples of delimitations include the research question, choice of variables, and the population chosen for the study. 25. Which group evaluates and approves a study before it begins, monitors the study throughout

the data collection, investigates any incidents that occur during the study, and evaluates the final report? a. Community Action Board TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Institutional Review Board c. Human Rights Commission d. Commission for Liberty and Justice ANS: B

The Institutional Review Board (IRB) evaluates the research proposal and either approves, requires modifications prior to approval, or disallows the research. The IRB protects participants from undue harm caused by participation in research as well as monitors the study throughout data collection, investigates incidents that occur during the study, and evaluates the final report. 26. When do research scientists analyze data? a. During the design of the research study b. After it has been collected c. Before it has been collected d. During the determination of the hypothesis ANS: B

Once data are collected, the researcher analyzes the data, aligns it with the research question, and then draws conclusions. 27. Which term means the outcome of an experiment? a. Results b. Criteria

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c. Variables d. Hypothesis ANS: A

Results are the outcome or findings of the investigation and are arranged in a logical sequence without bias or interpretation. 28. Which type of publication is most likely to be peer reviewed? a. Newspaper b. Trade journal c. Popular magazine d. Scientific journal ANS: D

Examples of primary sources of research are academic and scholarly journals. If a journal is peer-reviewed, the document will undergo scrutiny. Peer review is evaluation of scientific, academic, or professional work by a group of experts in the same or similar field. 29. Which type of periodical informs a profession about industry trends, new techniques or

products, research, or news within an organization? a. Newspaper b. Trade journal c. Popular magazine d. Scientific journal ANS: B

Trade journals or professional journals are written for professionals and their purpose is to inform a profession about T industry trends, techniques ESTBA NKSEnew LLE R.COM or products, research, or news within an organization. 30. Which extension means a web address is a learning site? a. .org b. .gov c. .edu d. .net ANS: C

In the United States, common extensions are.edu for educational sites,.gov for governmental sites,.org for organizational sites,.com for commercial sites, and.net for network infrastructures. 31. Which source of information is likely to be the most reliable? a. Magazine b. Online commercial site c. Trade journal d. Peer-reviewed academic journal ANS: D

Choosing your source of information is important. Magazines and newspapers may be appropriate in some cases, trade journals for others, but the most reliable sources of information are peer-reviewed academic journals.

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32. Which term describes a system used to rank research based on strength of evidence? a. Research literacy b. Quantitative research c. Hierarchy of evidence d. Evidence-based practice ANS: C

To objectively and critically evaluate research studies for scientific merit, a ranking system is used to place studies into a hierarchy. Higher levels in the system indicate stronger evidence, and lower levels indicate weaker evidence. 33. Which research is considered the highest quality of evidence? a. Anecdote b. Cohort study c. Case report d. Systematic review ANS: D

Systematic reviews of random control trials are considered the highest quality of evidence. A systematic review is a critical analysis of many studies. 34. Which type of research follows a group of participants across a period of time? a. Anecdote b. Cohort study c. Case report d. Metanalysis ANS: B

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A cohort study is a longitudinal study, which follows a group of participants across a period of time. 35. Which approach is based on hearsay rather than the research process? a. Metanalysis b. Cohort study c. Case report d. Anecdote ANS: D

An anecdote is a description of a personal experience. Anecdotal reports are based on hearsay rather than the research process, which takes considerable planning and includes methods to reduce the influence of bias. Anecdotal accounts are common in non-scholarly professional journals. 36. Which result occurs from a combination of formal education, knowledge accumulation, past

treatment decisions, and past patient care outcomes? a. Research methodology b. Clinical expertise c. Research literacy d. Clinical preferences ANS: B

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Clinical expertise is a combination of formal education, knowledge accumulation, past treatment decisions, and past patient care outcomes. Development of expertise occurs when theoretical and practical knowledge are “tested” and “refined” in actual clinical situations, which leads to improved clinician judgment and improved quality of patient care. 37. Which description fits a massage therapist whose clinical behavior is rule-governed and

inflexible? a. Novice b. Competent c. Proficient d. Expert ANS: A

Novices or beginners are new students who have no experience in situations which they are expected to perform. Novices lack confidence and their clinical behaviors are rule-governed and inflexible. 38. Which description fits a massage therapist who perceives situations as wholes rather than

chopped up parts? a. Novice b. Competent c. Proficient d. Expert ANS: C

Proficient practitioners perceive situations as wholes rather than chopped up parts. Because of this perspective, they can better predict what might happen in given situations and what needs TESTBANKSELLER.COM to change to alter outcomes. 39. Which aspect of evidence informed practice impacts patient adherence and compliance? a. Including patient preferences b. Researching patient conditions c. Having clinical expertise about the patient d. Determining what is best for the patient ANS: A

Inclusion of patient preferences in evidence informed practice impacts patient adherence and compliance, patient satisfaction, and treatment outcomes 40. What is the first step when implementing evidence informed practice? a. Formulate a question b. Identify the problem c. Search for data d. Apply the intervention ANS: B

The following are useful steps when implementing evidence informed practice: 1. Identify the problem; 2. Formulate a question using the P-I-C-O method; 3. Search for, collect, and evaluate evidence; 4. Integrate the best evidence with your clinical expertise and patient preferences; 5. Apply the intervention; 6. Evaluate the patient outcome.

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41. What does the P in the P-I-C-O method stand for? a. Physiology b. Preference c. Patient d. Pertinent ANS: C

P-I-C-O stands for: P: Patient or Population. Describe the patient (client) or population; I: Intervention. What intervention is being considered? C: Comparison or Control. What alternate interventions are being considered (if appropriate)? O: Outcome. What are you trying to accomplish?

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Chapter 06: Massage Therapy and Research: A Review of the Literature Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to the chapter, what is the best way to improve understanding of massage therapy? a. Experience b. Education c. Research d. Reading ANS: C

It is important that we separate fact from myth. Much of what we once thought we knew about the benefits and mechanisms of massage has been brought into question. Research is necessary to improve our understanding and is a constant process of discovery – we investigate, learn new things, replace old ideas, and investigate more. 2. What percentage of clients who discussed massage therapy with their health care providers

received a massage recommendation? a. 15% b. 33% c. 61% d. 92% ANS: C

Nineteen % of clients who discussed massage therapy with their health care providers TEand ST61% BANreceived KSELLaEmassage R.COMrecommendation received a massage referral, 3. Which complementary therapy has one of the highest physical referral rates? a. Aromatherapy b. Massage therapy c. Chiropractic medicine d. Traditional Chinese medicine ANS: B

Massage therapy is one of the complementary therapies with the highest physician referral rates. Massage is also rated among physicians as the complementary therapy most likely to be beneficial and least likely to be harmful 4. Which effect does massage therapy have on the cardiovascular system? a. Increases blood pressure b. Decreases heart rate c. Increases inflammatory markers d. Increases variations in heart rate ANS: B

Massage therapy has been reported to decrease blood pressure, reduce heart rate, and cause variations in heart rate. 5. Which effect does massage therapy have on blood platelets?

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a. b. c. d.

Increases the count Decreases the count Interferes with their clotting ability Interferes with their replication

ANS: A

Platelet counts are reactive to many factors such as exercise, mental stress, and several pathologies. Very early studies demonstrated increases in blood platelet count after massage. 6. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on blood and blood circulation? a. Decreases white blood cell count b. Increases blood capillary flow rate c. Increases blood viscosity d. Decreases blood flow to the skin ANS: B

Liu et al. measured the effects of mechanical pressure on capillary flow rate and blood viscosity after traditional Chinese medical massage (specifically “swing,” which includes finger-pushing, kneading, and rolling). This study revealed that massage increased tissue pressure, which produced increases in capillary flow rate and decreased blood viscosity. 7. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on lymphatic circulation and immunity? a. Reduces immune response b. Decreases killer T cell levels c. Improves lymphatic drainage d. Increases edema and lymphedema ANS: C

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There is evidence that massage promotes lymphatic drainage, increases killer T cell levels, stimulates immune responses in individuals who have HIV infection or cancer, and reduces edema and lymphedema. 8. Which condition did research find that manual lymph drainage alleviated? a. Skin cancer b. Colitis c. Trigger points d. Migraines ANS: D

Work assessing manual lymph drainage (MLD), traditional massage, and a no massage control group on patients with migraines found a significant decrease in migraine frequency and decreased intake of analgesics in the MLD group. 9. Which effect did research find massage therapy has on the musculoskeletal system? a. Increases headaches b. Improves range of motion c. Increases electromyography activity d. Intensifies muscle spasms ANS: B

Massage therapy has been found to improve range of motion, reduce muscle spasms, decrease electromyography activity, and reduce headaches.

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10. Research shows that massage has which effect on the musculoskeletal system? a. Tones weak muscles b. Decreases range of motion c. Increases in muscle tension when trigger points are compressed d. Produces a viscoelastic response and promote muscle healing ANS: D

Research on animal tissues found that compressive forces that replicate effleurage on muscles after eccentric exercise produced a viscoelastic response. New studies looking at stem cells, angiogenesis, and muscle healing suggest that massage therapy promotes healing. 11. Research shows that massage has which effect on connective tissues? a. Reduces scar tissue formation b. Increases pain and itching in burn scars c. Decreases scar tissue strength in tendon injuries d. Slows healing in ligament injuries ANS: A

Research indicates that massage therapy reduces scar tissue formation, leading to improved healing, reduced pain and itching in burn scars, and improved scar tissue strength in tendon injuries. 12. Which condition is improved by massage therapy on the skin? a. Eczema b. Melanoma c. Impetigo TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Fungus ANS: A

Several studies assessed the effect of massage on the skin itself, but studies indicate improvements in eczema, including decreases in redness, lichenification (i.e., rough, thickened, dry skin), scaling, excoriation (i.e., crusting skin), and pruritus. 13. Which type of neurotransmitter regulates mood and sleep? a. Endorphins b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Enkephalins ANS: C

Serotonin regulates mood, appetite, sleep, memory, learning, and muscle contraction. 14. Research suggests that massage therapy has which effect on the nervous system? a. Decreases relaxation b. Increases stress, depression, and anxiety c. Activates the sympathetic response d. Improves cognitive and memory functioning ANS: D

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Current research suggests that massage therapy decreases relaxation; decreases stress, depression, and anxiety; improves cognitive and memory functioning; and activates the parasympathetic response. 15. Most studies indicate that massage therapy decreases the level of which hormone related to

stress? a. Adrenaline b. Cortisol c. Insulin d. Oxytocin ANS: B

Most of these studies indicate a significant decrease in cortisol levels in various populations after massage therapy. 16. Research indicates that massage improves insulin absorption and circulation, which may be

helpful for clients who have which condition? a. Crohn disease b. Renal failure c. Diabetes mellitus d. Migraine headaches ANS: C

Clinical evidence indicates improvement in diabetic symptoms with regular massage treatments. One animal study indicated improved insulin production after massage-like treatment in rats. Studies also indicate changes in insulin production and absorption after massage therapy.

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17. Abdominal massage has been found to be helpful for which condition? a. Crohn disease b. Renal failure c. Diarrhea d. Constipation ANS: D

Massage has been shown to decrease the severity of gastrointestinal symptoms, especially constipation and abdominal pain. Massage may also reduce nausea and vomiting under certain conditions. 18. Current research suggests that massage therapy has which psychological effect? a. Promotes feelings of well-being b. Intensifies anxiety and depression c. Interferes with the mind-body connection d. Worsens symptoms of hyperactivity ANS: A

Massage has been shown to reduce anxiety, depression, and stress; promote feelings of well-being; promote a mind-body connection; be useful in treating hyperactivity disorders 19. How does massage therapy influence pain? a. Everyone one responds the same way to pain so massage techniques need to be

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uniform b. Perception of pain has little impact on the effects of massage techniques c. Very few causes of pain are alleviated due to massage d. Pain relief can be due to massage causing changes in neurotransmitter levels ANS: D

Massage therapy has long been used for pain resulting from multiple causes. Pain from muscle spasm and injury, tendonitis, bone fracture, skin conditions, trigger points, headaches, cancer treatments, osteoarthritis, orthopedic injury, fibromyalgia, labor and delivery, and other sources. How massage influences pain in each case may vary depending on the type and source of the pain. Increased circulation, decreased spasms, changes in neurotransmitters and hormone levels, or even the simple act of touch and comfort all likely influence how the client perceives pain. 20. How does massage therapy influence fatigue? a. Activates the sympathetic response b. Improves sleep c. Worsens symptoms of anxiety d. Decreases serotonin levels ANS: B

Fatigue is another area that seems to respond well to massage therapy. Massage therapy influences numerous psychological factors that cause fatigue and interfere with sleep. Massage has been shown to improve sleep.

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Chapter 07: Body Mechanics, Client Positioning, and Draping Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the use of one’s body that is safe, energy-conserving, reduces strain, and is

anatomically efficient? a. Balance b. Stamina c. Body mechanics d. Client positioning ANS: C

Body mechanics is the use of one’s body that is safe, energy-conserving, reduces stress and strain, and that is anatomically and physiologically efficient. 2. Foot stances that provide support, balance, and mobility are all essential to which aspect of

massage therapy? a. Body mechanics b. Centering techniques c. Client positioning d. Proper draping ANS: A

Balance, breathing, strength, and stability are all essential to body mechanics.

TESTBbalance, ANKSEand LLE R.COMare all essential to which aspect of 3. Foot stances that provide support, mobility massage therapy? a. Body mechanics b. Mental preparation c. Client positioning d. Proper draping ANS: A

Body mechanics also involve the use of foot stances that provide support, balance, and mobility. 4. Which condition do effective body mechanics help prevent? a. Repetitive stress injury b. Fibromyalgia c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: A

Effective body mechanics positively influence the execution of the massage, decrease therapist fatigue and discomfort during and after the massage, and help prevent repetitive stress injuries from recurring body movements. 5. Research has shown that when massage therapists work at least 6 hours per day, pain develops

in which area of their bodies?

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a. b. c. d.

Neck Middle back Lower back Feet

ANS: C

Sathya, Ramakrishnan, and Gowda discovered that lower back pain was more likely to occur in therapists who worked at least 6 hours per day or who attended to more than 6 clients per day. 6. Which effect does using proper body mechanics have? a. Greater upper body strength for techniques b. Decreased need for stamina c. Increased recovery time after performing techniques d. Pressure that maximizes benefit to the client ANS: D

Effective body mechanics can help therapists manage physical exhaustion, stress, and strain, both daily and cumulatively, over the span of a career while providing pressure that maximizes benefit to the client 7. It is recommended that female massage therapists strengthen which body area in particular? a. Back b. Hips c. Legs d. Shoulders ANS: D

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Blau et al. suggested that female therapists strengthen their upper muscular limbs (e.g., shoulder, arms, neck) and that all massage and manual therapists continue strengthening exercises through their careers. 8. The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that warm-ups last how many

minutes? a. 2-3 b. 4-5 c. 5-10 d. 10-15 ANS: C

The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that warm-ups start slowly and easily and include walking or low-intensity activities with the goal of breaking a sweat. After 5-10 minutes, focus on muscles and movements specific to the activity planned. 9. Which approach would be most effective in reducing risk of fatigue and injury to massage

therapists? a. Perform deep tissue sessions at the end of the day b. Alternate intensive hands-on treatments with less intensive treatments c. Use only a few techniques and repeat them many times to perfect them d. Avoid methods such as hydrotherapy or ashiatsu ANS: B

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Use a variety of techniques to reduce repetitive motion of the hands; this may reduce the risk of fatigue and injury. Furthermore, Greene and Goggins recommend alternating intensive hands-on treatments such as deep tissue with less intense treatments such as muscle energy techniques or Trager which require less compressive force and repetitive movements. Also recommended was to interject techniques that require little or no use of the hands such as hydrotherapy, aromatherapy, ashiatsu, or energy balancing methods such as polarity or reiki. 10. To avoid fatigue, Greene and Goggins suggest that what percentage of massage time be spent

with the therapist in the seated position? a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 80% ANS: B

Additionally, Greene and Goggins encourage therapists to spend approximately 25% of the massage time in the seated position to avoid fatigue. The client’s face, neck, feet, or hands can be massaged while seated as these areas require less compressive force. 11. Which concept helps massage therapists prepare themselves mentally when performing

professional activities? a. Drive b. Mindfulness c. Tranquility d. Detachment ANS: B

ESTBANmentally KSELLE .COthat M give their full attention when Therapists should prepare T themselves inRways performing professional activities and promote emotional wellness. This can be achieved by applying principles of mindfulness. 12. Which term describes attention given to present moments characterized by curiosity,

openness, acceptance, and engagement? a. Mindfulness b. Wellness c. Focus d. Synergy ANS: A

Mindfulness is attention given to present moments characterized by curiosity, openness, acceptance, and engagement with increased sensitivity to context and perspective 13. What is the minimal amount of recommended open space around all sides of a massage table? a. 2 feet b. 3 feet c. 4 feet d. 5 feet ANS: B

Greene and Goggins recommend at least 3 feet (1 meter) of open space around all sides of the table.

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14. Which type of flooring is recommended for massage therapists to work on? a. Stone b. Tile c. Wood d. Concrete ANS: C

Prolonged standing on hard surfaces such as tile, stone, concrete, or thin carpet over concrete can be tiring for the therapist and may contribute to conditions such as fatigue and varicose veins. Greene and Goggins urge therapists to work on traditional wood flooring (not laminate flooring over concrete), carpeting with a cushion backing, and foam-backed vinyl flooring. 15. Which factor is taken into account when adjusting massage table height? a. Client height b. Client girth c. Room size d. Ceiling height ANS: B

Table height will vary according to the client’s girth or width, areas of the body being worked (leg, back), and to techniques used during a single session, and throughout the workday. 16. Which guideline is recommended for effective body mechanics? a. Warming up after giving a massage b. Using a limited number of techniques c. Wearing comfortable clothing TES TBANKSELLER.COM d. Keeping wrists and digits hyperflexed ANS: C

Clothing should feel comfortable, allow freedom of movement, and look professional. Avoid wearing loose fitting clothing, watches, bracelets, dangling necklaces or hair styles that may drag on the client’s body. 17. Which factor provides the massage therapist’s base of support? a. Foot stances b. Table height c. Client’s body d. Shoulder strength ANS: A

Foot stances provide the therapist’s base of support, which are all points of contact on which an object rests. 18. Which area of the foot makes contact with the ground? a. Third cuneiform b. Navicular tuberosity c. Head of the fifth metatarsal d. Head of the second metatarsal ANS: C

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Each foot makes contact with the ground at three bony points which include the (1) calcaneal tuberosity, (2) head of the first metatarsal, and (3) head of the fifth metatarsal. 19. Which shape is the strongest and most stable? a. Triangle b. Line c. Point d. Rhombus ANS: A

The three points of the foot make the shape of a triangle, which is the strongest and most stable geometric shape. 20. Which factor in a shoe provides the best balance, performance, and directional control while

performing massage? a. Flat heel rest b. Lace-up closure c. Hard insole d. Arch support ANS: D

Shoes with softer insoles, arch support, and a depression for the heel constitute the best footwear for balance, performance, directional control, and productivity. 21. Which foot stance is most stable for performing long massage techniques? a. Warrior b. Horse TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Archer d. Squatting ANS: C

The archer stance provides a stable foundation for the therapist to lunge forward or backward while performing long massage techniques. 22. Which position is appropriate for the archer stance? a. Head tilted downward b. Spine aligned c. Trunk flexed d. Knees kept extended ANS: B

The therapist’s spine is erect and shoulders are comfortably dropped. 23. In the archer position, which body position allows the massage therapist to deliver consistent

pressure? a. Keeping the arms close to the trunk b. Pushing on the client to move forward c. Preventing the hips from rotating d. Placing the trailing foot ahead of the lead foot ANS: A

Keeping the arms close to the trunk allows for more consistent delivery of pressure.

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24. Which foot stance should be used when performing massage techniques on the area of the

client that is directly in front of the therapist’s body? a. Lunge b. Horse c. Bow d. Archer ANS: B

It is the position used by massage therapists when the target area(s) of the massage techniques is directly in front of the therapist’s body. 25. How are the massage therapist’s feet positioned in the horse stance? a. One foot is pointing in the direction of movement and the other foot is directly

behind it, pointing in the same direction b. One foot is pointing in the direction of movement and the other foot is pointing beneath the table c. Symmetric and pointing in the same direction d. Symmetric and pointing in opposite directions ANS: D

Feet in the horse stance are symmetric and pointing in the same direction, usually beneath the massage table. 26. In the horse stance, as the massage therapist’s hands move laterally or anteriorly and

posteriorly, what does the therapist’s body weight do? a. Distributes itself over the right foot TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Elevates into the shoulders c. Shifts from one foot to the other and back d. Shifts forward and stays there ANS: C

As the therapist’s hands move laterally (side-to-side) or anteriorly and posteriorly (front-to-back), the therapist’s weight is shifted alternately from one foot to the other foot, and back. 27. Which body position helps stabilize the core? a. Extended hips b. Flexed hips c. Anteriorly-tilted pelvis d. Abducted shoulder joints ANS: B

An aligned spine, flexed hips, and posteriorly-tilted pelvis help stabilize the core. 28. Which factor serves as the “engine” of force development in the application of massage

techniques? a. Stable core b. Strong shoulders c. Limber forearms d. Flexed trunk

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ANS: A

A stable core serves as the “engine” of force development, allowing small changes that occur in the core to translate into larger changes in distal joints, similar to the cracking at the end of a whip 29. Where is the body’s center of gravity located? a. Middle of the sternum b. Midway between the shoulders c. Pubic crest d. Lower abdomen ANS: D

Center of gravity is the point at which the mass or weight of an object is equal and symmetrical on all sides. The center of gravity of an average person is located in the lower abdomen when standing in anatomic position. 30. Which joint position allows the massage therapist to apply the most pressure with the least

amount of stress? a. Stacked b. Hyperextended c. Flexed d. Abducted ANS: A

When joints are stacked, locked, but not hyperextended, they are more stable and pressure can be applied with less stress to the therapist’s joints.

TEST ANKSEwhere LLERshould .COMthe massage therapist’s body weight 31. When applying decompression orBtraction, be positioned in relation to the application area? a. Distal b. Proximal c. Over d. Lateral ANS: A

When applying decompression or traction, direct force away from the client’s body. This also can be accomplished by using the therapist’s body weight positioned distal to the application area. 32. Which technique used to move around a client lying on a mat? a. Diving b. Lunging c. Squatting d. Crawling ANS: D

Crawling is a natural way of moving around a client lying on a mat. 33. Which technique is a posture from which the massage therapist can move into other positions

easily when working on a client lying on a mat? a. Diving b. Swinging

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c. Squatting d. Draping ANS: C

Squatting is a posture from which the therapist can move into other positions easily. 34. Which position is a primary one for the client to be in while receiving massage therapy? a. Seated b. Standing c. Kneeling d. Squatting ANS: A

The four primary client positions are prone, supine, side-lying, and seated. 35. Recumbent means that a person is in which position? a. Standing up b. Lying down c. Kneeling d. Sitting ANS: B

The term recumbent refers to a person or object that is lying down or in a resting position. 36. Which items are pillows or cushions used for supporting clients in the various positions for

massage therapy? a. Bolsters b. Drapes c. Stools d. Dispensers

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ANS: A

Bolsters are pillows or cushions of various sizes and densities used for supporting the client in the prone, supine, side-lying, and seated positions. 37. Which term means lying face down? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Semireclining ANS: A

The prone position is a body position in which the individual lies flat and “face down,” with the chest or anterior surface downward, and the back or posterior surface upward. 38. Where is a bolster typically placed for a client in prone position? a. Under the neck b. Behind the knees c. Under the ankles d. Over the ankles ANS: C

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Bolsters can be placed in front of the ankles with the ankles positioned about hip distance apart. 39. If a prone client has excess lumbar spine curvature, under which part of the body should a

pillow be placed for comfort? a. Abdomen b. Knees c. Neck d. Ankles ANS: A

Clients with lower back pain may require a pillow under the abdomen or hips to reduce excess lumbar spine curvature. 40. Which term means lying on the back, face up? a. Prone b. Supine c. Seated d. Side-lying ANS: B

The supine position is a body position in which the individual lies flat and “face up” with the chest or anterior surface upward and the back or posterior surface downward. 41. While lying supine, the client’s cervical spine should be in what position? a. Flexed b. Neutral TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Rotated d. Extended ANS: B

The cervical spine should be in a neutral position with a slight anterior curvature. A rolled-up towel can serve as a neck bolster. 42. Which term means the client is resting face up, and his or her trunk and head are upright in

relation to the lower body? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Semireclining ANS: D

The semireclining position, also called the semirecumbent position, is body position in which the trunk and head of the individual is upright while supine; half lying down and half sitting, not lying flat. 43. High Fowler’s position means the client’s upper body is elevated how many degrees? a. 20 b. 40 c. 70 d. 90

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ANS: D

High Fowler’s is when the individual is positioned on the high end of the range (90 degrees) and semi-Fowler’s is when the individual is portioned on the low end of the range (30 degrees). 44. Which term means the client is resting on the left or right aspect of his or her body? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Semireclining ANS: C

The side-lying position is a body position in which the individual lies on his or her side, usually with the hips and knees flexed slightly. The side-lying position is also called lateral recumbent position; the left or right lateral recumbent position refers to which side the individual lies, left side and the right respectively. 45. Which position means the client who has his or her torso erect, knees bent, and buttocks

supported? a. Prone b. Supine c. Seated d. Side-lying ANS: C

The seated position is a body position in which the individual is seated usually with the torso erect, knees bent, with buttocks supported.

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46. Which term means covering the client’s body and massage equipment with a cloth? a. Draping b. Palpating c. Bolstering d. Positioning ANS: A

Draping is using a cloth or other materials to cover the body or massage equipment. 47. Which reason is a purpose for draping a client? a. Ability to charge more for the massage session b. Enhancement of certain techniques c. Client modesty and emotional privacy d. Massage therapist’s comfort ANS: C

The purposes of draping are to provide (1) a protective barrier between equipment and the client’s skin; (2) client modesty, emotional privacy, and feelings of security as most clients are fully or partially undressed while receiving massage; (3) client warmth; and (4) professionalism. 48. What should the therapist do before asking the client to turn over on the massage table? a. Remove all bolsters b. Sanitize the hands

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c. Remove the client drape d. Open the door to the treatment room ANS: A

The therapist should remove all bolsters from the massage table before asking the client to turn over. 49. Which procedure should the massage therapist do to manage the draping as the client turns

over? a. Anchor the edge of the sheet furthest away b. Lift up the nearest edge of the sheet c. Form a tent by lifting the edge of the sheet furthest away d. Remove the sheet completely so that it is out of the way ANS: C

Anchor the sheet edge nearest you by leaning on it. This secures the sheet to the edge of the table. Reach across and grasp the sheet along the opposite table edge with both hands. Lift the sheet up to form a tent. Instruct the client to turn over. 50. What is the minimum number of towels used to drape clients? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: B

A minimum of two towels are used: one towel is draped over the client from the abdomen down the lower extremitiesTand ESTone BAtowel NKSEisLdraped LER.over COMthe chest area. 51. To access the client’s abdomen, the towel should be fanfolded from the bottom edge until it is

at the level of which body part? a. Iliac crests b. Xiphoid process c. Clavicles d. Navel ANS: B

To access the abdomen, fanfold the towel from the bottom edge until it is at the level of the xiphoid process.

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Chapter 08: Massage Techniques, Joint Mobilizations, and Stretches Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which practice is defined as manipulation of the soft tissues using compression and traction

for therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes? a. Ayurveda b. Aromatherapy c. Polarity therapy d. Massage therapy ANS: D

Massage therapy is the manipulation of soft tissue using compression and traction for therapeutic, palliative, and recreational purposes 2. Which method increases the pressure on and between tissues? a. Torqueing b. Stretching c. Compression d. Traction ANS: C

Use of compression increases the pressure on and between tissues whereas traction decreases the pressure. Torqueing twists tissues, and stretching elongates them.

TESTcontact BANKof SEthe LLtherapist’s ER.COMskin with the client’s skin? 3. Which term means the physical a. Touch b. Intention c. Duration d. Excursion ANS: A

Massage techniques involve touch, or the physical contact of the therapist’s skin with the client’s skin in a way that the client’s skin and underlying soft tissues can be manipulated. 4. Which term means the application of force? a. Depth b. Pressure c. Duration d. Pallor ANS: B

Pressure is the application of force. Depth or level of pressure varies from light to medium to deep or strong. 5. Which area of the body can deep pressure be used on? a. Bony prominence b. Anterior elbow c. Gluteal region

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d. Posterior knee ANS: C

Deep pressure is more appropriate on clients who are robust and over areas of fleshy or dense tissues such as the central portion of large muscle groups. 6. Which term describes the distance a massage technique travels over the body? a. Rate b. Rhythm c. Duration d. Excursion ANS: D

The distance traveled using a massage technique, or excursion, ranges from the length of the palpable muscle spasm, the muscle or muscle group, the length of a bone such as the humerus, or the length of the limb or the trunk. Some massage techniques span the length of the entire body. 7. Which term means the number of times or speed at which a massage technique is repeated? a. Rate b. Duration c. Excursion d. Continuity ANS: A

Rate is the number of times or speed at which a massage technique is repeated. 8. Which term describes the regularity a massage technique? TESTBAor NKpatterning SELLERof.C OM a. Rate b. Rhythm c. Duration d. Excursion ANS: B

Rhythm is the pattern or regularity of the massage technique. 9. Which session factor is determined by the individual seeking massage? a. Rate b. Duration c. Excursion d. Continuity ANS: B

Duration of the session is determined by the list of massage services published by the business, by the individual who is seeking massage, by the agency or individual prescribing massage, and by the reasons for which massage services are sought. 10. Who determines the frequency of sessions? a. Massage therapist b. Local municipality c. Massage licensing agency d. Client

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ANS: D

Frequency or how often massage is received is also determined by who is seeking or prescribing the massage and why massage is sought. 11. Which term means the order in massage techniques are arranged during the session? a. Rate b. Pressure c. Sequence d. Excursion ANS: C

Sequence is the order in which techniques are arranged during the session. In general, a techniques repeat in multiples of three (e.g., 3, 6, 9, 12), until the desired effect is achieved. 12. Which term means the application of gliding movements that follow the contours of the body? a. Effleurage b. Pétrissage c. Vibration d. Tapotement ANS: A

Effleurage is the application of gliding movements that follow the contours of the body. 13. Which massage technique term originated from the French word meaning “to flow” and “to

glide?” a. Friction b. Vibration c. Effleurage d. Tapotement

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ANS: C

The term effleurage originates from the French verb effleurer, meaning “to flow” and “to glide.” Effleurage is also called stroking or gliding. 14. Which massage technique is also called gliding? a. Friction b. Vibration c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: C

Effleurage is also called stroking or gliding. 15. Which massage technique is commonly used to begin the session and to assess tissues before

treatment? a. Effleurage b. Pétrissage c. Vibration d. Tapotement ANS: A

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Effleurage is commonly used to begin the massage session, to apply or reapply lubricant, to introduce touch and pressure to the client, to assess tissues before treatment and reassess tissues after treatment. 16. In which direction is deep pressure generally applied during effleurage? a. Inferiorly b. Superiorly c. Centrifugally d. Centripetally ANS: D

After skin in lubricated, apply movements with the hands (fingers, thumbs) or forearms with the deeper or heavier pressure applied centripetally or during the upward stroke, and less pressure applied centrifugally or on the downward stroke. 17. Which action should occur as deeper pressure is applied during effleurage? a. Movement becomes faster b. Movement becomes slower c. Contact becomes narrower d. Rate is increased ANS: B

In general, the deeper the pressure, the slower the movement, and the broader the contact (heel of hand versus fingertips). 18. Which term means a type of effleurage that uses light pressure applied with the weight of the

fingers or hands as they glide down the body? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Skin rolling b. Warming friction c. Nerve stroke d. Pincement tapotement ANS: C

Nerve stroke or feathering uses light pressure applied with the weight of the fingers or hands as they glide down the body. 19. Which massage technique involves lifting, compressing, and releasing soft tissues such as

skin and muscle? a. Vibration b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: B

Pétrissage involves lifting, compressing, and releasing soft tissues such as skin and muscle. 20. Which massage technique is also called kneading? a. Vibration b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement

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ANS: B

Pétrissage is also called kneading. 21. Which massage technique lifts skin and underlying tissues from muscle or bone? a. Skin rolling b. Chucking tapotement c. Rhythmic rocking d. Superficial gliding ANS: A

Skin rolling is a superficial pétrissage that lifts skin and underlying tissues from muscle or bone. 22. Which description applies to both effleurage and pétrissage? a. Tapping, cupping, and hacking b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary c. Superficial, intermediate, and deep d. One-handed, two-handed, and alternate hand ANS: D

Types of effleurage and pétrissage are one-handed, two-handed, and alternate hand. 23. Which massage technique rubs one body surface against another while maintaining constant

and equal pressure in all directions? a. Friction b. Vibration c. Effleurage TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Tapotement ANS: A

Friction involves rubbing one body surface against another while maintaining constant and equal pressure in all directions. 24. What do faster frictional movements produce more of? a. Oil b. Heat c. Waste d. Perspiration ANS: B

Unlike effleurage in which deeper pressure is maintained in one direction and reduced in another direction, friction involves equal pressure in all directions, which generates heat. Faster movements generate more heat. 25. What are the two main categories of friction? a. Proximal and distal b. Superficial and deep c. Efferent and afferent d. Centrifugal and centripetal ANS: B

Two types of friction are superficial and deep.

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26. Which type of friction would most likely be used on tendons and ligaments? a. Superficial warming b. Deep transverse c. Rolling d. Wringing ANS: B

Superficial friction requires that the therapist’s hands rub over the client’s skin. Deep friction requires the therapist to use the client’s skin to rub against deeper underlying tissues and may be used on tendons and ligaments. Variations of superficial friction are superficial warming, rolling, and wringing. Variations of deep friction are deep transverse friction, chucking, and circular friction. 27. What other type of friction is deep transverse friction called? a. Cross warming b. Rolling c. Wringing d. Cross fiber ANS: D

Deep transverse friction is also called cross fiber friction. This technique was popularized by Cyriax and is occasionally referred to as Cyriax friction massage. 28. Which massage technique is a non-gliding method of pressure application? a. Friction b. Pétrissage TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Effleurage d. Compression ANS: D

Compression is a non-gliding technique of pressure application. 29. How long is pressure typically maintained during sustained compression? a. 5 to 10 seconds b. 10 to 20 seconds c. 20 to 30 seconds d. 30 to 35 seconds ANS: B

During sustained compression, pressure is maintained for 10 to 20 seconds 30. Which massage technique involves repetitive striking? a. Friction b. Pétrissage c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: D

Tapotement is a repetitive striking motion. 31. Which massage technique is also called percussion?

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a. b. c. d.

Vibration Pétrissage Effleurage Tapotement

ANS: D

Tapotement is also called percussion because it is similar to beating a drum. 32. Which descriptions are types of tapotement? a. Tapping, cupping, and hacking b. Primary, secondary, and tertiary c. Superficial, intermediate, and deep d. Acute, subacute, and chronic ANS: A

Types of tapotement include tapping, pincement, hacking, cupping, pounding, and clapping. 33. Which type of tapotement grasps, lifts, and releases the skin? a. Tapping b. Hacking c. Cupping d. Pincement ANS: D

During pincement, the tips of several fingers and thumb are used to strike, grasp, lift, and release the skin. 34. Which massage techniquesTis aT shaking, rocking motion? ES BANKStrembling, ELLER.orCO M a. Compression b. Vibration c. Pétrissage d. Tapotement ANS: B

Vibration is a shaking, trembling, or rocking motion. 35. Which type of tapotement uses the ulnar surfaces of one or both hands? a. Hacking b. Cupping c. Pounding d. Clapping ANS: A

Hacking, is achieved with the ulnar surfaces of one or both hands. 36. Which massage technique usually requires lubricant? a. Friction b. Vibration c. Effleurage d. Tapotement ANS: C

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Effleurage usually requires lubricant. Friction, vibration, and tapotement usually do not require lubricant. 37. Which massage technique is usually performed without lubricant? a. Wringing b. Effleurage c. Pétrissage d. Tapotement ANS: D

Tapotement usually does not require lubricant. Wringing, effleurage, and pétrissage usually require lubricant. 38. Which term means the amount of motion that occurs when one segment of the body moves in

relationship to another segment of the body? a. Range of motion b. Facilitated action c. Stretching d. Mobilization ANS: A

Range of motion (ROM) is the amount of motion that occurs when one segment of the body moves in relationship to another segment of the body. 39. Which term means movement is produced entirely by external forces without voluntary

muscle contraction? a. Active b. Passive c. Resisted d. Functional

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ANS: B

Passive range of motion (PROM) is movement produced entirely by external forces without voluntary muscle contraction. 40. Which term means movement is produced by voluntary muscular contraction? a. Active b. Passive c. Resisted d. Functional ANS: A

Active range of motion (AROM) is movement produced by voluntary muscular contraction. 41. Which technique involves passive range of motion movements applied to a joint complex? a. Friction b. Stretching c. Tapotement d. Mobilization ANS: D

Mobilizations are passive range of motion movements applied to a joint complex.

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42. Which technique elongates muscles in the direction opposite to that of their actions? a. Stroking b. Vibration c. Percussion d. Stretching ANS: D

Stretching is passively positioning a muscle attachment as far as possible to elongate the muscle in the direction opposite to that of its action. 43. Which procedure should be performed on a joint before it is mobilized? a. Deep specific friction b. Slight manual traction c. Jostling d. Compression ANS: B

For mobilizations, apply a slight manual traction before mobilizing the joint. 44. The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that muscles should be in which state

before being stretched? a. Warm b. Tense c. Soft d. Cold ANS: A

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For stretching, the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommends that muscles should be warm before stretching. 45. Stretches on muscles should be repeated several times until how many seconds have

accumulated? a. 10 b. 30 c. 40 d. 60 ANS: D

Each stretch should be held for 10-30 seconds to the point of tightness or slight discomfort. Repeat each stretch 2-4 times, accumulating 60 seconds per stretch. 46. Which technique is osteoarthritis a contraindication for? a. Passive range of motion b. Stretching c. Deep specific friction d. Pétrissage ANS: A

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PROM is contraindicated for the presence of bone or joint inflammation, infection, injury, or malignancy including osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, herniated disc, bone cancer, osteoporosis or any condition that causes bone frailty, and joints that are hypermobile or prone to separation or subluxation. 47. Which joint can the techniques of pulls and circles that feature flexion, extension, adduction,

abduction, rotation, and circumduction be performed on? a. Knee b. Elbow c. Shoulder d. Hip ANS: C

PROM of the shoulders are arm pulls and shoulder circles and feature flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, rotation, and circumduction 48. Which muscle group is stretched by the massage therapist placing a hand over the client’s

anterior superior iliac spine and applying gentle pressure with the other hand on the medial aspect of the client’s flexed knee? a. Quads b. Hamstrings c. Adductors d. Gluteals ANS: C

While standing tableside, place your bottom hand over the clients’ anterior superior iliac spine and apply gentle pressure to anchor the far hip while applying gentle pressure on the medial STBAthe NKadductors. SELLER.COM aspect of near flexed knee T toEstretch 49. Who is called the father of orthopedic medicine? a. Johann Mezger b. John Harvey Kellogg c. Pehr Henrik Ling d. James Cyriax ANS: D

James Cyriax is called the father of orthopedic medicine. 50. Which approach did James Cyriax incorporate into his medical practice? a. Nerve strokes b. Aromatherapy c. Deep massage techniques d. Jostling ANS: C

Cyriax was a great believer in deep massage techniques, both on their own and in conjunction with physical therapy.

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Chapter 09: Standard Precautions, Contraindications, and Emergency Preparedness Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of disease? a. Syndrome b. Pathology c. Etiology d. Autoimmunity ANS: B

Pathology is the study of disease. 2. Which term means a prediction of how a disease will progress? a. Etiology b. Syndrome c. Prognosis d. Diagnosis ANS: C

Prognosis is a prediction of how the disease will progress, and the chances of recovery based on the person’s condition and the usual course of the disease as observed in similar situations. 3. Which term refers to a disease that has an abrupt onset and persists for a short time? a. Acute TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Chronic c. Idiopathic d. Autoimmune ANS: A

When signs and symptoms have an abrupt onset, persist for a short time, run a brief course (less than 3 months) then resolves or, in some cases, bring death, it is called an acute disease. 4. Which type of disease involves the body mistakenly attacking and destroying healthy tissue? a. Metabolic b. Deficiency c. Degenerative d. Autoimmune ANS: D

Autoimmune diseases are part of a large group of diseases marked by an inappropriate or excessive immune response. The body mistakenly attacks and destroys healthy tissue. 5. Which example is of an autoimmune disease? a. Athlete’s foot b. Multiple sclerosis c. Parkinson disease d. Down syndrome ANS: B

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Examples of autoimmune diseases are rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and multiple sclerosis. 6. Which type of disease is characterized by growth of abnormal cells that can accumulate into

masses or tumors? a. Cancer b. Infectious c. Metabolic d. Deficiency ANS: A

Cancer is characterized by growth of abnormal cells that possess uncontrolled cell division, lack programmed cell death, and can accumulate into masses or tumors. 7. Which term means the ability to invade other tissues of the body? a. Metastasize b. Incubate c. Transmit d. Contaminate ANS: A

Cancer can metastasize, which is the ability to invade other tissues of the body. 8. Which type of disease is caused by a lack of an essential nutrient in the diet or the inability to

digest and absorb a particular nutrient properly? a. Cancer b. Infectious TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Deficiency d. Autoimmune ANS: C

Deficiency diseases are caused by a lack of an essential nutrient in the individual’s diet or by the individual’s inability to digest and absorb a particular nutrient properly. This deficiency typically interferes with the body’s growth, development, and metabolism. 9. Which example is of a degenerative disease? a. Anemia b. Multiple sclerosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: C

Examples of degenerative diseases are osteoporosis (bone degeneration), Alzheimer and Parkinson diseases (brain degeneration), and osteoarthritis (joint degeneration). 10. Which example is of a genetic disease? a. Down syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Hypertension ANS: A

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Examples of genetic diseases are Turner syndrome (one of the two X chromosomes is absent or incomplete), Down syndrome (three rather than the normal two copies of chromosome 21), hemophilia (mutation in a clotting factor gene), and albinism (defect in the skin pigment gene). 11. Which example is of a metabolic disease? a. Down syndrome b. Multiple sclerosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: D

Examples of metabolic diseases are Cushing disease (caused by overproduction of cortisol by the adrenals) and diabetes mellitus (caused by elevated blood sugar levels from the inability of the body to produce and/or use insulin produced by the pancreas). 12. What types of diseases are caused by bacteria, fungi, viruses, or protozoa? a. Cancer b. Infectious c. Deficiency d. Autoimmune ANS: B

Infectious diseases are caused by pathogens such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, and pathogenic animals. 13. Which example is of an infectious disease? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Scurvy b. Impetigo c. Down syndrome d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: B

Examples of infectious diseases are impetigo (bacterial infection), ringworm (fungal infection), herpes simplex virus (HSV) (viral infection), malaria (protozoal infection), and lice (infestation). 14. Nosocomial infections are ones that are acquired in which location? a. Work b. Hospital c. Home d. School ANS: B

Nosocomial infections are infections that occurred or were acquired while in a hospital or medical facility. 15. Which term means a biologic agent capable of causing infectious disease? a. Host b. Reserve c. Pathogen

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d. Carcinogen ANS: C

A pathogen is a biologic agent capable of causing infectious disease. Examples of pathogens are (1) viruses, (2) bacteria, (3) fungi, (4) protozoa, (5) prions, and (6) pathogenic animals. 16. Which type of pathogens are nonliving entities that depend on a host cell for growth and

replication? a. Prions b. Fungi c. Viruses d. Bacteria ANS: C

Viruses are nonliving entities that depend on a host cell for growth and replication. 17. Which example is of a viral infection? a. Malaria b. Influenza c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis ANS: B

Examples of viral infections are the common cold, influenza, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, measles, mumps, rabies, and HSV. 18. Which pathogens are single-cell organisms and can be spiral-shaped or rod-shaped? a. Prions TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Fungi c. Viruses d. Bacteria ANS: D

Bacteria are single-cell organisms, can be spheres, spiral-shaped or rod-shaped, and may appear singly or in chains. 19. Which example is of a bacterial infection? a. Malaria b. Influenza c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis ANS: D

Examples of bacterial infections are boils, tuberculosis, gastroenteritis, strep throat, and tetanus. 20. Which example is of a fungal infection? a. Malaria b. Influenza c. Ringworm d. Tuberculosis

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ANS: C

Examples of fungal infections are thrush, ringworm, and athlete’s foot. 21. Which example is of infestation? a. Hives b. Scabies c. Malaria d. Ringworm ANS: B

Examples of pathogenic animals include worms, ticks, lice, and scabies. Parasitic infections are called infestations. 22. Which term means the source of infection? a. Host b. Portal c. Disease d. Reservoir ANS: D

Reservoirs are sources of infection and can be living (humans, animals) or nonliving (doorknobs, flooring). 23. Which term means the movement of pathogens from a reservoir to a host? a. Susceptibility b. Transmission c. Contamination TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Contraindication ANS: B

Transmission is the transfer of pathogens from a reservoir to a host. 24. Which terms are methods of pathogen transmission? a. Contact, vehicle, and vector b. Local, intermediate, and widespread c. Stage one, stage two, and stage three d. Acute, subacute, and chronic ANS: A

Methods of pathogen transmission are contact, vehicle, and vector. 25. Which term means the proliferation of pathogens inside the host? a. Carrier b. Endemic c. Infection d. Transmission ANS: C

Infection is the proliferation of pathogens inside the host. 26. Which term means the time interval between initial exposure to pathogens and first

appearance of disease signs and symptoms in a susceptible host?

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a. b. c. d.

Residual effect Incubation period Prevalence outcome Disease complication

ANS: B

Most infections begin with a latent stage called the incubation period, which is the time interval between initial exposure to pathogens to the first appearance of disease signs and symptoms in a susceptible host. During this period, disease transmission can occur to a new host unknowingly. 27. Which method of disease transmission is the most common? a. Vector b. Contact c. Vehicle d. Isolation ANS: B

Contact, the most common method of disease transmission and occurs both directly and indirectly. 28. Which transmission of infectious agents occurs through a common source such as food, water,

or air? a. Vector b. Contact c. Vehicle d. Isolation

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ANS: C

Vehicle transmission occurs when pathogens are transmitted through a common vehicle or source, such as food, water, air, and in some cases blood distributed by transfusion services. 29. Which type of transmission is transfer of infectious agents between two or more hosts, such as

between animals or insects and human beings? a. Vector b. Contact c. Vehicle d. Isolation ANS: A

Vector transmission uses a vector (usually an animal or insect) to spread infectious agents between two or more hosts. Most vector-borne diseases are transmitted by bites, stings, or infestation of tissues. 30. Which term means the minimum infection control measures used regardless of suspected or

confirmed infection status of the client? a. Health and hygiene b. Standard precautions c. Local contraindication d. Antimicrobial resistance ANS: B

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Standard precautions are the minimum infection control practices used to prevent transmission of diseases that can be acquired by contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin (such as skin rashes), and mucous membranes. Standard precautions are so called because they are used regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the client. 31. Which vaccine does the CDC recommend health care providers receive? a. Smallpox b. Rabies c. Chickenpox d. Rotavirus ANS: C

The CDC recommends that appropriate vaccines be used to reduce the risk of acquiring or spreading vaccine-preventable diseases. Recommended vaccines include hepatitis B, influenza (flu), measles, mumps, rubella (MMR), chickenpox (varicella), tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap), and meningococcal. 32. Which method is the best for infection control? a. Hand hygiene b. Taking supplements c. Receiving vaccinations d. Avoiding massaging clients who are ill ANS: A

Cleaning hands with soap and water is the best methods of infection control because the primary source of disease transmission is contact with human hands.

TESrub TBsoapy ANKShands, ELLEforearms, R.COM and elbows together for at least how 33. During hand washing, briskly many seconds? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 60 ANS: B

Use soap and generate lather. Rub your hands, forearms, and elbows briskly together using firm circular motions. Be sure to include the areas between the fingers. Do this for at least 20 seconds. This is about the time it takes to hum the “Happy Birthday” song from beginning to end twice. 34. Which factor is the primary source of disease transmission? a. Using mobile devices b. Contact with human hands c. Drinking at water fountains d. Dining at public restaurants ANS: B

Cleaning hands with soap and water is the best methods of infection control because the primary source of disease transmission is contact with human hands. 35. Which type of glove is the most popular in professional settings?

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a. b. c. d.

Latex Vinyl Nitrile Rubber

ANS: C

Nitrile gloves are currently the most popular glove of choice in professional settings; latex gloves are no longer used. Nitrile gloves can be used with both oil-based and water-based lubricants. 36. Approximately how much bleach should be added to a washing machine to disinfect

contaminated linens? a. 1/4 to 1/2 cup b. 1/2 to 1 cup c. 1 to 1 1/4 cups d. 1 1/4 to 1 3/4 cups ANS: B

According to the Consumer Energy Center, older top-load washing machines use approximately 40 gallons of water, which means adding about 1 cup of bleach per wash. Front-load washing machines and newer top-load washing machines use approximately 24 gallons of water, which means adding a little over 1/2 cup or 4.8 oz of bleach per wash. 37. Disinfection of contaminated tools means immersing them in a 1:10 solution of household

bleach and water for at least how many minutes? a. 1 b. 5 TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. 10 d. 15 ANS: B

Immerse contaminated reusable objects such as massage tools in 70% isopropyl alcohol for 5 minutes, 3% hydrogen peroxide for 30 minutes, or a 1:10 solution of unscented chlorine bleach and water for 5 minutes. 38. Which term means a situation requiring the massage therapist to modify techniques or refrain

from using them to avoid possible harm? a. Indication b. Risk factor c. Contraindication d. Standard precaution ANS: C

A contraindication is a situation that requires the therapist to modify techniques or refrain from using them to avoid possible harm. 39. Which term means a situation in which massage should be postponed? a. Infection control b. Local contraindication c. Risk factor d. Absolute contraindication

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ANS: D

Absolute contraindications represent situations in which massage therapy should be postponed. 40. Which example is an absolute contraindication for massage? a. Chronic disease in an exacerbation stage b. Rash on a client’s foot without other signs or symptoms c. Wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 96 hours ago d. Client who is feeling sedated because of a sinus medication ANS: A

Examples of absolute contraindication include the following situations include contagious diseases; widespread infection or systemic inflammation, often indicated by fever (greater than 100 degrees F or 37 degrees C, taken orally); chronic disease in an exacerbation period or an acute stage; client in a state of medical emergency. 41. Which term used means an area in which massage must be avoided because it is injured or

inflamed, is part of a disease process, or has a medical device or pharmaceutical product? a. Standard precaution b. Local contraindication c. Risk factor d. Absolute contraindication ANS: B

A local contraindication is an area in which massage must be avoided because it is injured or inflamed, is part of a disease process, or has a medical device or pharmaceutical product. Massage can be administered in other areas of the body while avoiding the area that is locally TESTBANKSELLER.COM contraindicated. 42. Which example is a local contraindication for massage? a. Chronic disease in a state of exacerbation b. Widespread infection or inflammation and fever c. Reported or presenting disease that is highly contagious d. Wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 48 hours ago ANS: D

Potential areas of local contraindication include recently injured areas; acutely inflamed areas; endangerment sites; areas that contain medicated transdermal patches, chemotherapy ports, pacemakers, or other medical devices; a lump, lesion, suspicious mole, localized rash, or enlarged lymph nodes. A wrist that was sprained during a fall that occurred 48 hours ago is considered a recent injury. 43. Which term describes sites that contain tissues such as nerves, blood vessels, and glands that

are vulnerable to harm from pressure? a. Anatomic b. Endangerment c. Muscular d. Physiologic ANS: B

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Endangerment sites are a type of local contraindication and these areas contain tissues such as nerves, blood vessels, and glands that are vulnerable to harm from pressure. These areas, also called cautionary sites or areas of caution are not well protected by muscle or bone. 44. The anterior neck is an endangerment site because it contains which artery? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Mesentery ANS: B

Avoid deep vigorous techniques and prolonged deep pressure on the anterior neck because it was found to damage local structures. One case involved a female client who received a neck massage using a hand-held electric massage unit that caused her carotid artery to dissect. Elliott and Taylor reported two cases of carotid artery dissection attributed to neck massage with a shiatsu-type electric massage chair. 45. Which term describes providing first and immediate responses during health or medical

emergency situations to minimize loss of life? a. Infection control b. Standard precautions c. Local contraindication d. Emergency preparedness ANS: D

Emergency preparedness is the process of providing first and immediate responses during health or medical emergency situations to minimize loss of life.

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46. What is the appropriate action to take if encountering an unresponsive individual? a. Call 911 and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation immediately b. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation immediately; then call 911 after signs and

symptoms abate c. Check for responsiveness to determine whether there is an actual emergency d. Search pockets or a purse for emergency meds such as an epinephrine pen then

administer if found ANS: C

If you encounter an unresponsive individual, check for responsiveness to determine if there is an actual emergency or if the individual is simply resting. 47. Which information should be given to the 911 emergency dispatcher? a. The caller’s age b. Victim’s location c. Victim’s height d. The time of day ANS: B

When calling 9-1-1, give the following information to the emergency dispatcher: what the emergency is or what is happening now; the location of the emergency and victim(s). 48. The Heimlich maneuver should be used if the client is in which condition?

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a. b. c. d.

Choking and is unable to cough or speak Diabetic and experiencing hypoglycemia Having a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes Unable to speak coherently or raise both arms

ANS: A

A person who is coughing and can speak is not choking, so encourage the person to cough. The person is likely choking if he or she appears distressed, grasps the throat, cannot cough or speak, has difficulty breathing or cannot breathe, and has a bluish tint of the lips and nails. If the person is choking, use the Heimlich maneuver, or abdominal thrusts, to help open a suddenly obstructed trachea. 49. If a client who is experiencing hypoglycemia is conscious and coherent, what should the

massage therapist do? a. Perform CPR on him or her immediately b. Gently place him or her on the floor if possible c. Give him or her food or beverage that contains sugar d. Press into his or her upper abdomen with a quick upward thrust ANS: C

If the client is conscious and coherent, he or she should be given a substance that contains sugar such as contents of a honey packet, cake frosting in a tube, 4 oz of orange juice, or 6 oz of regular (not diet) soda. 50. In the acronym F-A-S-T to learn stroke signs and symptoms, what does “S” stand for? a. Speed b. Supine TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Speech d. Seizure ANS: C

In the acronym F-A-S-T, “S” stands for speech. 51. Which condition is a sudden disruption of blood flow to the heart caused by an occluded

blood vessel or hemorrhage from a broken blood vessel? a. Stroke b. Seizure disorder c. Heart attack d. Hypoglycemia ANS: C

Heart attack, also called a myocardial infarction (MI), is a sudden disruption of blood flow to the heart muscle or myocardium caused by an occluded blood vessel or hemorrhage from a broken blood vessel. 52. Which condition is associated with the acute care principle “time is muscle?” a. Stroke b. Seizure disorder c. Heart attack d. Hypoglycemia ANS: C

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The acute care principle for heart attack is “time is muscle”—heart muscle, in this case. 53. What is the rate per minute for chest compressions used to perform CPR? a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 125 ANS: C

The rate per minute for chest compressions is approximately 100 to 120. 54. Which conditions are characterized by episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical

activity in the brain? a. Strokes b. Seizure disorders c. Cognitive disorders d. Hypoglycemia ANS: B

Seizure disorders are characterized by episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical activity in the brain that result in a sudden change in behavior. 55. If a client is having a seizure, when should 911 be called? a. Seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes or immediately repeats b. Client stops having a seizure within 3 minutes c. Client has had a seizure before, as indicated on the intake form d. Seizure produces patterns of alternating contractions that gradually subside ANS: A

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Call 9-1-1 in the following cases: 1. It is the person’s first seizure or if you do not know; 2. If the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes or immediately repeats, or if the person cannot be awakened after the seizure; 3. If the person is injured or vomits during the seizure; 4. If the person has a medical condition such as diabetes, heart disease, or congestive heart failure or is pregnant.

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Chapter 10: Professional Standards: Scope of Practice, Assessment, Treatment Planning, Informed Consent, Documentation, and Networking with Health Care Providers Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term describes professional activities that can be performed legally by members of a

licensed profession? a. Scope of practice b. Informed consent c. Client documentation d. Professional reference ANS: A

Scope of practice refers to professional activities that can be performed legally by members of a licensed profession as well as the context in which these activities can be applied. Scope of practice is defined by state law or practice act. 2. Which method is within the scope of practice for massage therapists? a. Herbalism b. Acupuncture c. Hot pack application d. Nutritional counseling ANS: C

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Within massage therapy scope of practice are usually use of therapeutic agents such as hot and cold applications (e.g., packs, stones), hydrotherapy, topical agents (e.g., muds, clays, salts, sugars) 3. What are chiropractic adjustments considered in relation to massage therapy? a. An exclusion b. A delegation c. Within scope of practice d. Within standard of care ANS: A

Exclusion means something that is outside scope of practiced. Massage therapists cannot provide services or apply techniques that would require a separate state license to practice, such as psychotherapy, chiropractic procedures, acupuncture, physical or occupational therapy, or any other branch of medicine, unless they have the appropriate state license. 4. Which term refers to the degree of prudence or caution reasonable individuals follow who

have similar training and who work under similar circumstances? a. Exclusion b. Delegation c. Scope of practice d. Standard of care ANS: D

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Standard of care refers to the degree of prudence or caution reasonable individuals follow who have similar training and who work under similar circumstances. 5. Which term means the act of exchanging thoughts, feelings, and behaviors? a. Literacy b. Documentation c. Assessment d. Communication ANS: D

Communication is the act of exchanging thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Massage therapists have a duty to factually communicate and report. 6. Which term means the capacity of and individual to obtain and understand information and

services to make appropriate wellness care decisions? a. Health literacy b. Research literacy c. Assessment d. Documentation ANS: A

Health literacy is the degree to which an individual has the capacity to obtain, communicate, process, and understand basic health information and services in order to make appropriate decisions. 7. What is the purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? a. Prevent client personal health information from being shared among professionals ESTBANKS LLER .COM health information b. Protect the storage andTtransmission ofEclient personal c. Determine what personal health care information the client is allowed to release d. Determine how much the client can charge for personal health information ANS: B

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), and the Patient Protection and Affordable Health Care Act of 2010 were created by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) to protect client rights and targets the storage, transmission, and dissemination of personal health information, which includes information that is written, spoken, recorded, or electronically stored that pertains to the past, present, or future care of clients. 8. Which method is recommended to protect client information? a. Apply the double-lock rule b. Keep family members out of the filing room c. Store records offsite from where services are provided d. Record all client information while at home ANS: A

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One method used to safeguard client information is the double lock rule. If client information is on paper, secure paper documents behind two locks such as a locked fireproof file cabinet inside a locked office. If client information is digitized, secure electronic files behind two locks such as a passcode-protected computer program or cloud-based storage accessed through a passcode-protected digital device. Additionally, if services are provided onsite such as in residential settings, client files are secured within a locked mobile transport case and in a locked vehicle. 9. How many years does the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and

Bodyworkers recommend that therapists maintain client records after the last date of client service? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: B

Many state licensing boards have a specific time frame massage therapists are required to maintain records. These are generally 4 years after the last date of service. The 4-year minimum time frame is also recommended by the National Certification Board for Therapeutic Massage and Bodywork (NCBTMB). 10. Which term means an evaluation that identifies an individuals’ health status, treatment goals,

and how these goals will be addressed by the health care provider? a. Planning b. Assessment c. Documentation TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Implementation ANS: B

Assessments are evaluations that identify an individual’s health status, treatment goals, and how these goals will be addressed by the health care provider. 11. Which type of pain scale consists of a straight horizontal or vertical line with the endpoints

defining extreme limits? a. Visual analog b. FACES rating c. Numeric rating d. Verbal descriptor ANS: A

A visual analogue scale (VAS) consists of a straight horizontal or vertical line with the endpoints defining extreme limits such as no pain and worst pain possible. The client is asked to mark his or her current pain level on the line between the two endpoints. 12. Which concept is the emotional bond people experience when concerns, feelings, and ideas

are mutually expressed? a. Rapport b. Memory c. Self-esteem d. Reinforcement

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ANS: A

Rapport is the emotional bond people experience when concerns, feelings, and ideas are mutually expressed. Rapport is facilitated when the therapist expresses genuineness, acceptance, and trust while soliciting information, which may lead to client satisfaction and continued patronage. 13. Which area is the most appropriate for the massage therapist to conduct the client interview? a. Office lobby b. Office break room c. Parking lot d. Private treatment room ANS: D

The location of the client interview should be in an area conducive for gathering information. Choose an area that is: comfortable, at a pleasant room temperature, ventilated, well lit, and free of distractions and interruptions. Be sure the area is private during oral disclosures and cannot be overheard. 14. Which type of questions is defined as offering little restriction when answering and allows for

reflection and clarification of thoughts and feelings? a. Open-ended b. Closed-ended c. Exploratory d. Reflective ANS: A

Open-ended questions offer little restriction TE STB ANKSELwhen LERanswering .COM and allow the client to reflect and clarify thoughts and feelings. 15. Which example is of an open-ended question? a. Does it hurt to raise your right arm? b. Does pain radiate down your left leg? c. How does your headache feel? d. Can you take more pressure on this area? ANS: C

Examples of open-ended questions are “What brings you to the clinic?” “Can you tell me about your headache?” “How can I help you be more comfortable?” and “Anything else?” 16. Which type of question is defined as requiring affirmative, denial, or factual answers? a. Open-ended b. Closed-ended c. Exploratory d. Reflective ANS: B

Close-ended questions are precise and require affirmative, denial, or factual answers such as “yes,” “no,” or “the right shoulder.” 17. Which example is of a closed-ended question? a. Can you tell me about your headaches?

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b. What brings you to the clinic? c. Does pain radiate down your left leg? d. How can I help you be more comfortable? ANS: C

Examples of close-ended questions are “Does it hurt to raise your right arm?” “Does pain radiate down your left leg?” “Can you take more pressure on this area?” and “Do you want me to spend more time on your right or your left shoulder?” 18. What is an effective interview skill? a. Look at the clipboard as much as or more than at the client b. Use closed-ended questions only when talking with the client c. Stay focused on the client’s discussion about personal relationships d. Listen actively and signal interest with eye contact and occasional nodding ANS: D

During the interview, occasionally nod, use facial expressions that convey attention, and use neutral phrases such as “I see,” and “okay,” to show interest and encourage communication. Take notes sparingly by jotting down key words. Excessive note taking is distracting and interferes with listening and observing. 19. According to James Borg, which type of human communication is expressed 93% of the time? a. Written words b. Spoken words c. Tone of voice d. Body language ANS: D

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James Borg, author of Body Language: 7 Easy Lessons to Master the Silent Language, states that human communication is 93% body language, and much of it expressed subconsciously. 20. Which acronym stands for an interview strategy that provides an organizational framework to

the interview? a. APIE b. PPALM c. OPPQRST d. SOAP ANS: B

PPALM interview strategy provides an organizational framework to the interview that helps prevent errors of omission. 21. In PPALM, what does the L stand for? a. Limitations b. Length c. Lifestyle d. Language ANS: C

PPALM is an acronym for the first letter of five assessment domains: Purpose of session; Pain; Allergies and skin conditions; Lifestyle and vocation; Medical and surgical information

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22. Which acronym stands for pain assessment guidelines? a. APIE b. SOAP c. HIPAA d. OPPQRST ANS: D

Use questions related to the acronym OPPQRST to gain further insight into a client’s pain. OPPQRST stands for: Onset; Provocative; Palliative; Quality; Radiation; Site; Timing. 23. In the OPPQRST pain assessment guideline, what does S stand for? a. Site b. Sharp c. Sensation d. Superficial ANS: A

In the OPPQRST pain assessment guideline, S stands for “site.” 24. Which concept is the documented process of developing a client’s therapy? a. Informed consent b. Practice agreement c. Treatment planning d. Professional reference ANS: C

Treatment planning is the documented process by which the therapist or health care team plans an appropriate treatment (therapy) for a client. TES(therapy) TBANKSorEcourse LLERof .Ctreatment OM 25. What is the purpose of the PICO approach? a. Create a way to document the treatment session b. Develop a clinical question for treatment planning c. Obtain permission to proceed with the treatment d. Establish pain level before the treatment ANS: B

PICO is a questioning approach to treatment planning. This method is used to develop a clinical question by identifying characteristics of the client/patient, the desired outcome or reasons he or she is seeking massage services, and interventions considered to achieve the desired outcome. 26. What does the C in PICO stand for? a. Change b. Culture c. Chronic d. Comparison ANS: D

PICO stands for: P: Patient or Population; I: Intervention; C: Comparison or Control; O: Outcome. 27. Which classification is given to a client who has a long-term chronic or terminal disease?

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a. b. c. d.

Medically fragile Medically viable Unreliable Compliant

ANS: A

Clients who have a long-term chronic or terminal disease may have a frail constitution and be classified as medically fragile. 28. How soon can massage therapy usually be applied to a recently injured area? a. 1-2 days b. 3-4 days c. 4-6 days d. 6-8 days ANS: A

Massage therapy can be applied to an area recently injured once acute inflammation has subsided, which is usually between day 4 and day 6 after the initial injury-producing event. 29. Which acronym stands for the current soft tissue injury protocol? a. RICE b. MCE c. PICO d. OPPQRST ANS: B

The current soft tissue injury protocol is Move–Compress–Elevate or M-C-E. For decades, R-I-C-E (Rest–Ice–Compress–Elevate) the soft TESTBANKhas SEbeen LLER .C OMtissue acute care treatment of choice, but now it appears that rest and ice may delay healing. 30. Which risk factor requires avoiding vigorous massage techniques on the lower extremities for

12 weeks after surgery? a. Weakened muscle tone b. Lack of balance c. Blood clots d. Hypertension ANS: C

Avoid vigorous massage techniques on the lower extremities (thighs and legs) for 12 weeks after surgery. This restriction is because of the increased risk of blood clots that could last up to 3 months. 31. What effect has research shown massage therapy to have on patients who have undergone

surgery? a. Decreased sleep b. Increased blood pressure c. Increased pain d. Decreased anxiety ANS: D

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Hand massage reduced anxiety, blood pressure, and pulse rate in patients who underwent eye surgery under local anesthesia. Back massage, hand massage, and foot massage decreased postoperative pain and/or anxiety in several studies. 32. When documenting client progress, how should goals be expressed? a. Subjectively b. Creatively c. In functional terms d. In abstract terms ANS: C

Goals expressed in functional terms (i.e., massage needed to increase ROM in the right shoulder) are necessary when documenting client progress. Ideally, you hope to see an increase in flexibility and ROM and a decrease in the frequency and severity of symptoms, most notably pain. 33. Which term means permission given by a client after being educated in all the relevant facts

regarding treatment? a. Scope of practice b. Informed consent c. Client documentation d. Professional reference ANS: B

Informed consent is permission given by a client after he or she has been informed of all the relevant facts regarding treatment.

TESalso TBbe ANviewed KSELL ER.COM 34. What can the consent process as? a. Limited liability b. Indemnity clause c. Therapeutic contract d. Arbitration agreement ANS: C

The consent process may be viewed as the “therapeutic contract” or agreement between the client and the therapist. The process establishes professional boundaries and delineates responsibilities and reasonable expectations. Professional boundaries and consistent focus on the client’s safety and best interest creates a relationship that is pleasant and predictable. 35. Which component is essential for informed consent? a. Competency b. Technical communication c. Health literacy d. Compliance ANS: A

Three essential components of informed consent include individuals being adequately informed, voluntarily receiving treatment, and competent. 36. Which part of informed consent is covered by discussing techniques, methods, and products? a. Expected benefits

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b. Procedural details c. Therapist qualifications d. Office policies ANS: B

Procedural details of informed consent involve discussing procedures, techniques, methods, products, and massage tools. 37. What is the term for withdrawing or modifying permission for treatment? a. Professional conduct b. Informed consent c. Explanation of risks d. Right of refusal ANS: D

Both the client and the therapist have the right to withdraw or modify consent. This is called right of refusal. 38. Which term means the process of collecting, confirming, and recording client information? a. Debriefing b. Agreement c. Assessment d. Documentation ANS: D

Documentation is the process of collecting, confirming, and recording client information. Documentation is vital for communicating with other health care providers about client care and is the preferred form ofTE communication arenas. STBANKSELinLall ERprofessional .COM 39. What is considered the most credible evidence in legal proceedings? a. Documentation b. Assessment c. Massage therapist’s memory d. Client’s memory ANS: A

Documented or recorded information is the “gold standard” of admissible evidence and is often the most credible evidence in legal proceedings. 40. Using which method is appropriate for documentation? a. Correction fluid and tape to correct errors b. Commonly accepted medical abbreviations c. Best judgment when diagnosing conditions d. Black ink when writing treatment notes ANS: B

A suggestion for documentation is to use commonly accepted medical abbreviations. 41. Which type of information is obtained from the client or client’s family and friends? a. Objective b. Subjective c. Treatment

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d. Assessment ANS: B

Subjective information is information based on or influenced by opinions, attitudes, feelings, and beliefs of the client. Subjective information is obtained from the client or the client’s family and friends. 42. Which type of information is defined as being measurable and verifiable? a. Objective b. Subjective c. Treatment d. Assessment ANS: A

Objective information is information that is measurable and verifiable and based on facts. 43. In the F-DAR system of documentation, what does the D stand for? a. Dominant b. Distal c. Data d. Duration ANS: C

F-DAR stands for: F: Focus; D: Data; A: Action; R: Response 44. In the APIE documentation format, what does the I stand for? a. Informed b. Interview TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Individual d. Implementation ANS: D

In the APIE documentation format, I stands for “implementation” and contains the methods and techniques used during that day’s session. 45. In both the SOAP and the APIE documentation formats, what does P stand for? a. Plan b. Pattern c. Palpation d. Participant ANS: A

In both the SOAP and APIE documentation formats, P stands for “plan.” 46. In the CARE documentation format, what does the R stand for? a. Referrals b. Restrictions c. Response of the client d. Recommendations for the client ANS: C

In the CARE documentation format, the R stands for “response of client.”

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47. Which term means an order from an authorized health care provider for medications, medical

treatments, or medical devices? a. Referral b. Prescription c. Medical release d. Informed consent ANS: B

A prescription is an order from an authorized health care provider for medications, medical treatments (e.g., physical or massage therapy), or medical devices (e.g., hearing aids, eyeglasses). 48. Which entity is most likely to require documentation of referrals or prescriptions? a. Massage licensing board b. Business license office c. Health insurance company d. Liability insurance company ANS: C

Many insurance companies require documentation of referrals or prescriptions when insurance is billed for massage services. 49. Which documentation can the massage therapist elect to provide for the prescriber as client

sessions are completed? a. Progress report b. Medical prescription c. Medical release TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Informed consent ANS: B

As a series of sessions prescribed by a qualified health care provider are completed, the therapist may elect to write a progress report for the prescriber. A progress report describes the care received by the client and may include the therapist’s findings and suggestions for future sessions. 50. Which term means the act of recommending products or services to address a client’s

problem? a. Referral b. Prescription c. Medical release d. Informed consent ANS: A

A referral is the act of recommending products or services to address a client’s specific problem(s).

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Chapter 11: Special Populations: Massage for Pregnant Women, Infants, Children, Adolescents, Tactical Athletes and the Military, the Elderly, People with Visual, Hearing, and Mobi Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term is defined as groups of individuals who, due to a variety of factors, are

disadvantaged, vulnerable, or at risk for harm? a. Legal cohorts b. Minors c. Special populations d. Victims ANS: C

Special populations are groups of individuals who, due to a variety of factors, are disadvantaged, vulnerable, or at risk for harm. 2. Which type of vulnerability is an individual living in an abusive home considered to have? a. Physical b. Social c. Psychological d. Emotional ANS: B

Those with social vulnerabilities include those living in abusive or neglectful families, the TESTBANKSELLER.COM homeless, immigrants, minorities, refugees, individuals living in poverty or who are economically disadvantaged, and those who are institutionalized. 3. Which type of massage involves modifications of basic techniques and body positions to meet

the needs of women as they undergo changes during the prenatal and postpartum periods? a. Infant b. Sports c. Geriatric d. Pregnancy ANS: D

Pregnancy massage involves modification of techniques and body positions to meet the needs of women as they undergo changes during pregnancy and the postpartum period. 4. Which effect has research shown massage to have on pregnant women? a. Decreased sleep b. Reduced anxiety c. Increased need for pain medication d. Increased back and leg pain ANS: B

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Massage therapy reduced anxiety, improved mood, promoted sleep, decreased back pain and leg pain, and decreased depression in pregnant women. When massage therapy was used during labor, labors were, on average, 3 hours shorter in duration and there was less need for pain medication, women had fewer complications, and their infants had fewer postnatal complications. 5. Which method should be avoided by pregnant women because they have been linked to neural

tube defects and spontaneous abortion? a. Hot immersion baths or hot packs b. Reflexology or any method that manipulates tissues on the foot or hands c. Side-lying position d. Exfoliations, which may overstimulate the nervous system and cause premature labor ANS: A

Pregnant women should not use hot immersion baths, hot tubs, or spa tubs, as they have been linked to neural tube defects and spontaneous abortion. 6. Which term describes premature termination of a pregnancy? a. Preeclampsia b. Gestation c. Thrombosis d. Miscarriage ANS: D

Miscarriage is the premature termination of a pregnancy and occurs in approximately 20% to 30% of all pregnancies.

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7. What is the best course of action if a pregnant client is experiencing any signs or symptoms of

miscarriage? a. Press on the ankle area that corresponds to the uterus and ovaries in reflexology b. Postpone massage and make a referral to her obstetrician or health care provider c. Conduct a thorough evaluation into the primary cause of the signs or symptoms d. Proceed with the massage in the side-lying position to reduce pain and discomfort ANS: B

Postpone massage therapy if your client is experiencing any signs or symptoms of miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy; make a referral to her obstetrician or health care provider who is managing the pregnancy. 8. Because of decreased clot-dissolving properties and increased clot-producing factors, pregnant

women are at a higher risk for which condition? a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Peripheral arterial disease c. Gestational diabetes d. Preeclampsia ANS: A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is inflammation of a deep vein with blood clot formation. Because of decreased clot-dissolving properties during pregnancy and increased clot-producing factors, pregnant women are at a five to six times higher risk for DVT.

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9. Which condition affects approximately 75% of pregnant women? a. Miscarriage b. Preeclampsia c. Morning sickness d. Gestational diabetes ANS: C

Morning sickness is nausea with or without vomiting that occurs during pregnancy. It affects approximately 75% of pregnant women and is also called nausea and vomiting of pregnancy 10. Which range indicates the second trimester of pregnancy? a. 10 to 16 weeks b. 15 to 28 weeks c. 22 to 27 weeks d. 28 to 40 weeks ANS: B

The second trimester spans week 15 to week 28. 11. Which condition occurs as the pregnant uterus compresses major abdominal blood vessels,

causing a sudden drop in blood pressure? a. Spontaneous fetal abortion b. Placental previa and abruption c. Supine hypotensive syndrome d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension ANS: C

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Supine hypotensive syndrome, also called aortocaval compression syndrome, is a drop in blood pressure caused by compression of the pregnant uterus against major abdominal blood vessels, especially the aorta and inferior vena cava. 12. The modified semireclining position helps prevent which condition? a. Spontaneous fetal abortion b. Placental previa and abruption c. Supine hypotensive syndrome d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension ANS: C

From about week 22 of pregnancy on, use a side-lying position or a left lateral tilt while the client is supine to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome. The American Pregnancy Association recommends sleeping on the left side because it helps blood travel from the heart to the placenta and prevents the enlarged and heavy uterus from putting pressure on the liver. 13. Which term means persistent high blood pressure with protein in the urine? a. Miscarriage b. Preeclampsia c. Placenta previa d. Morning sickness ANS: B

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Preeclampsia is persistent high blood pressure with protein in the urine that develops after 20 weeks of gestation, but returns to normal levels after childbirth. Preeclampsia is also called pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). 14. Preeclampsia is also known by what other term? a. Morning sickness b. Atypical syndrome c. Low-risk pregnancy d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension ANS: D

Preeclampsia is also called pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). 15. Which condition requires immediate referral of a pregnant client to her obstetrician or the

health care provider who is managing her pregnancy? a. Leg cramps b. Varicose veins c. Frequent urination d. Widespread edema ANS: D

If the client has widespread edema, postpone massage and refer her to the obstetrician or health care provider who is managing her pregnancy for evaluation and treatment. 16. Which fetal complication is related to gestational diabetes mellitus? a. Excessive growth b. Small birth size c. Cardiovascular issues TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Urinary tract issues ANS: A

Fetal complications related to gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) include excessive growth, respiratory distress syndrome, and premature birth. 17. Which week range indicates the third trimester of pregnancy? a. 10 to 16 weeks b. 15 to 28 weeks c. 22 to 27 weeks d. 29 to 40 weeks ANS: D

The third trimester is week 29 to birth, which occurs around week 40. 18. What effect does relaxin have on the pregnant woman’s body? a. Stimulates milk production. b. Stimulates uterine contractions c. Decreases the risk of heartburn d. Increases pelvic girdle flexibility ANS: D

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Towards the end of pregnancy, relaxin helps the cervix relax and dilate, and relaxes ligaments to increase the flexibility of the pelvis in preparation for childbirth. Relaxin may have a slight effect on all joints in pregnant women by making them hypermobile. 19. Which modification is appropriate for a pregnant client experiencing swelling or edema in the

feet and ankles? a. Apply heat to the affected areas b. Massage distal to the affected areas first c. Elevate the affected areas by placing them on pillows d. Use deep pressure applied centrifugally over affected areas ANS: C

For mild swelling of the legs, ankles, and feet, elevate your client’s lower extremities by placing them on pillows or cushions. Use gentle gliding effleurage applied centripetally. Massage proximal to the affected area first and then proceed distally (e.g., massage the thigh, then the leg, and the ankle and foot last). 20. Which condition involves dilated veins resulting from incompetent valves? a. Varicose veins b. Gestational diabetes c. Pregnancy-induced hypertension d. Supine hypotensive syndrome ANS: A

Varicose veins are dilated veins as a result of incompetent valves. Women may develop varicose veins during pregnancy or find that varicose veins present before pregnancy get worse.

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21. Which condition is due to tearing, thinning, or overstretching of skin, reducing its thickness? a. Stretch marks b. Varicose veins c. Heartburn pain d. Premature labor ANS: A

Stretch marks are caused by extreme skin stretching, which reduces its thickness. Stretch marks are most often located on the abdomen, breasts, hips, buttocks, and thighs. 22. How should massage over stretch marks be performed? a. It is a contraindication b. Light pressure should be used c. Deep pressure should be used d. It should occur after applying heat packs ANS: B

Lighter-than-normal pressure is indicated over stretch marks. Massage will not reduce stretch marks because they are not caused by a build-up of collagen such as occurs in scar tissue. 23. High-risk pregnancies are so named because they are likely to involve which issue? a. Large birth weight b. Complications

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c. Prolonged labor d. Easy gestation ANS: B

High-risk pregnancies are ones that are more likely to have complications, including disease and death to the mother, the developing fetus, or both. 24. Which term means the period that begins after childbirth and extends for approximately 6

weeks? a. Gestation b. Pregnancy c. Postpartum d. Incubation ANS: C

The postpartum period begins after childbirth and extends for approximately 6 weeks. 25. Which type of delivery do most pregnant women have? a. Laparoscopic b. Vaginal c. Multiple baby d. Cesarean section ANS: B

In 2015, approximately 68% of childbirths in the United States were vaginal deliveries according to the National Center for Health Statistics. 26. Which type of massage creates bonding experience between the child and the TESaTnurturing BANKSEand LLE R.COM

parent or caregiver? a. Infant b. Sports c. Geriatric d. Pregnancy ANS: A

The framework of infant massage is to promote parent/child interaction which facilitates understanding, builds trust, and promotes attachment, the latter of which helps the child feel safe, secure, and protected. 27. How should an infant massage instructor demonstrate massage techniques to the parents or

caregivers? a. On a doll b. With the baby c. With the caregiver d. On his or her own baby ANS: A

The framework of infant massage is to promote parent/child interaction which facilitates understanding, builds trust, and promotes attachment, the latter of which helps the child feel safe, secure, and protected. Because of this, the instructor uses a doll to demonstrate infant massage while parents and caregivers massage the child.

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28. Which approach is appropriate for infant massage? a. Using mineral oil b. Using scented lotion c. Having natural or low lighting d. Keeping the baby uncovered ANS: C

Natural light or low light is best as bright light may overstimulate the child. Use food-grade oils, such as jojoba, apricot, coconut, safflower, and olive in small amounts. Inevitably, the child’s hand covered with oil will end up in the child’s mouth. Avoid scented and peanut or almond oils because they may cause allergic reactions in sensitive babies. Cover non-massaged areas when massaged areas are uncovered. 29. In most states, consent from a parent or legal guardian is needed for a client at which age and

younger? a. 15 years b. 19 years c. 20 years d. 21 years ANS: A

In most states, individuals 16 years old and older can legally consent to medical and/or psychiatric treatments. Therefore, the parent or legal guardian must consent to therapy on behalf of a minor child’s behalf. 30. Which individual would be considered a tactical athlete? a. Teacher TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Firefighter c. Massage therapist d. Family physician ANS: B

Tactical athletes describe individuals in service professions who typically have significant physical fitness and performance requirements associated with their work. Tactical athletes include individuals in military service, law enforcement, and first responders such as firefighters and emergency medical technicians. 31. One of the most common complaints for tactical athletes is pain in which area of the body? a. Neck b. Abdomen c. Hips d. Knees ANS: D

Lower back pain and knee pain are two of the most common complaints for tactical athletes. 32. Which method for pain relief have research participants indicated benefitted them the most? a. Opioids b. Breathing techniques c. Surgery d. Massage therapy

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ANS: D

Fletcher et al conducted a study with inpatients and outpatients who were receiving complementary and integrative health (CIH) services though the VA. Participants were interviewed about their experiences and asked about which CIH therapy benefited them most. Massage was found to be well-received and reported to have reduced pain, increased mobility, and decreased opioid use. 33. Which type involves modification of basic massage techniques and body positions to meet the

needs of the elderly? a. Thai massage b. Geriatric massage c. Craniosacral therapy d. Neuromuscular therapy ANS: B

Geriatric massage is the modification of basic massage techniques and body positions to meet the needs of the elderly. 34. At which age are people classified as senior citizens according to the World Health

Organization? a. 55 b. 60 c. 65 d. 70 ANS: C

Sixty-five years old is the chronologic age considered by most developing countries as the ESTBANasKS LLER. COM or senior citizen, according to the beginning of old age and isTclassified anEelderly person World Health Organization. 35. The least touched people are in which age group? a. Infancy b. Late adolescence c. Middle adulthood d. Elderly ANS: D

The elderly are the least touched of all age groups in Western health care systems. 36. What is the period of life from old age to death called? a. Senescence b. Adolescence c. Convalescence d. Prepubescence ANS: A

Senescence is the period of life from old age to death. 37. Which term means a diminished capacity that can involve movement, vision or hearing, or

emotional and cognitive functioning? a. Impairment b. Bereavement

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c. Disability d. Senescence ANS: A

Impairment is a diminished capacity that can involve movement, vision or hearing, or emotional and cognitive functioning resulting from injury, disease, disfigurement, or progressive deterioration during aging. 38. Which term means having a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or

more major life activities? a. Disability b. Senescence c. Frailty d. Sarcopenia ANS: A

A disability is a condition of having a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, according to the Americans with Disabilities Act. 39. Which disease tends to afflict the elderly because of a slower and weaker immune system? a. Hypertension b. Cancer c. Emphysema d. Diverticulitis ANS: B

The immune response is slower and weaker in the elderly. This increases the risk of many diseases, including autoimmune TESTdiseases, BANKSshingles, ELLER.and COcancer. M 40. Which change due to aging can contribute to a loss in coordination and an unsteady gait? a. Osteoporosis b. Kyphosis c. Sarcopenia d. Purpura ANS: C

Changes in muscle tone, loss of muscle mass, and loss of muscle strength from age-related inactivity called sarcopenia combined with neurologic changes can cause or contribute to a loss in coordination and an unsteady gait. 41. Which time is best to schedule a massage for elderly clients? a. After dark b. During daylight hours c. Within an hour of eating d. A week before the client’s doctor appointment ANS: B

The best time to schedule massage sessions for elderly clients may be during daylight hours. Elderly clients may prefer not to drive their vehicles after sunset because of impaired night vision and increased sensitivity to glare. 42. What is the biggest safety issue for elderly clients receiving massage?

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a. b. c. d.

Becoming chilled Drug interactions Hypoglycemia Falling

ANS: D

Falling is the biggest safety issue for elderly clients. Many older people experience dizziness related to sudden changes in blood pressure, vision or hearing impairments, or medication side effects. Dizziness related to a sudden drop in blood pressure is called orthostatic hypotension and occurs most often when the individual is moving from a lying down or sitting position to an upright or standing position. 43. Which massage consideration is appropriate for a geriatric client? a. A blanket for warmth may be necessary b. Prone position will be the most comfortable c. Treatment sessions should be longer than 60 minutes d. Techniques should be applied with increased pressure ANS: A

Cover the draped or clothed client with a blanket during the massage because many elderly people experience cold intolerance. 44. Which indicator denotes health and vitality in the elderly? a. Regular multivitamin use b. Regular physical activity c. Hearing ability d. Sharp vision

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ANS: B

Low levels of physical activity are an indicator of frailty. Robust clients are typically physically active, which may include regular exercise. 45. Which body position is uncomfortable for many elderly clients, especially if wearing dental

appliances? a. Prone b. Supine c. Seated d. Side-lying ANS: A

Many elderly clients are uncomfortable while prone. Dental appliances may make the prone position uncomfortable, even when a soft face rest cushion is used. 46. Which approach is appropriate for massaging frail elderly clients? a. Lower the light level for the client before leaving the room after the session b. Use less lubricant than is used with other clients c. Perform less vigorous joints mobilizations than with other clients d. Allow the client to get off the table by himself or herself ANS: C

If your client is sedentary and frail, use techniques that are rhythmic, slow, gentle, and lighter in pressure. Gentle joint mobilizations such as rocking are appropriate for the frail elderly.

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47. Which approach is appropriate for the massage therapist with a client who has a visual

impairment? a. Talk to the client in a louder tone of voice b. Converse with the assistant, if present, instead of the client c. Begin by addressing the client by name and then stating own name d. Be silent when entering and exiting the office and treatment room ANS: C

Announce your presence when you enter the room where your client awaits. Begin by addressing your client by name and then state your name. 48. Which approach is appropriate for the therapist with a client who has a hearing impairment? a. Exaggerate lip movements while talking b. Converse with the interpreter, if present, instead of the client c. Be as inexpressive as possible when communicating with the client d. Avoid moving hands near hearing aids if worn during the massage ANS: D

If your client is wearing hearing aids during the massage, avoid moving your hands close to the ears. Objects near the device may produce feedback, an uncomfortable squeaking noise. 49. Which suggestion is appropriate for clients with mobility aids, other special populations, and

all clients generally? a. Keep massage facilities barrier-free b. Exaggerate lip movements while talking c. Stand during the intake for clients who use wheelchairs TESTlitBrooms ANKSto ELfacilitate LER.Crelaxation OM d. Conduct the intake in dimly ANS: A

The first consideration is how the client with the mobility aid will enter your office. Most municipalities require businesses to be barrier-free and wheelchair-accessible. 50. Which massage consideration is appropriate for a client who has a mobility impairment? a. Use deep sustained and vigorous pressure on the legs b. Inspect the client’s skin for evidence of decubitus ulcers c. Remain standing while talking with a client who is in a wheelchair d. Avoid working on the shoulders, chest, and arms ANS: B

Local massage is contraindicated over areas at risk for decubitus ulcer formation. At-risk areas for chair-bound clients are over the scapula, sacrum, the ischial tuberosities, popliteal areas, and plantar surfaces of the feet. The therapist cannot rely on assessment to determine the presence of developing decubiti because the client may have inflammation manifesting as non-blanching skin that is difficult to observe, particularly in individuals with darker skin. 51. Which type of care provides services to patients who are facing a life-limiting illness? a. Hospice b. Emergency c. Outpatient d. Geriatric

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ANS: A

According to the Hospice Foundation of America, hospice is a type of care that provides services to patients who are facing a life-limiting illness and who are no longer responding to cure-oriented treatments. 52. Which type of care is defined as improving the quality of life through the prevention and

relief of suffering? a. Respite b. Palliative c. Custodial d. Residential ANS: B

Palliative care improves the quality of life of individuals through the prevention and relief of suffering. Palliative care is also called comfort care or supportive care. 53. Patients with which diagnosis receive the largest number of days in hospice care? a. Dementia b. Cancer c. Hypertension d. Emphysema ANS: A

Patients with a principal diagnosis of dementia received the largest number of days in hospice care. 54. Which approach is appropriate for therapists providing massage in hospice care? TESTBofAlight NKSpressure ELLER.COM a. Use slow massage techniques b. Tuck linens under the client instead of folding them back c. Use scented lubricant d. Bring a portable massage table ANS: A

Clients in hospice are fragile. Use techniques of light pressure and slow speed. Touch-based techniques such as Therapeutic Touch or and Reiki are also appropriate. 55. Which stage of grief identified by Dr. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross often involves heightened

spirituality? a. Denial b. Depression c. Anger d. Acceptance ANS: B

Stage 4: Depression. This stage is the beginning of withdrawal in which the person needs space to internalize and self-assess feelings of death and the process of leaving the people and places to whom the patient has bonded. Heightened spirituality is often a part of this phase.

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Chapter 12: Hydrotherapy: Clinical and Spa Applications Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the term used for the external use of water for therapeutic, palliative, recreational, or

hygienic purposes? a. Hypnotherapy b. Hydrotherapy c. Aromatherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: B

Hydrotherapy, from the Greek word hydro, meaning “water,” is the external use of water for therapeutic, palliative, recreational, or hygienic purposes. 2. What is the term for therapeutic use of heat? a. Thermotherapy b. Hydrotherapy c. Cryotherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: A

The therapeutic use of heat is thermotherapy. 3. What is the term for therapeutic use of cold? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Thermotherapy b. Hydrotherapy c. Cryotherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: C

The therapeutic use of cold is cryotherapy. 4. What is the term for the use of sea water? a. Aromatherapy b. Cryotherapy c. Thermotherapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: D

Thalassotherapy is the use of sea water specifically. 5. Who is regarded as the father of hydrotherapy? a. Pehr Henrik Ling b. Hippocrates of Cos c. John Harvey Kellogg d. Father Sebastian Kneipp ANS: D

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Father Sebastian Kneipp (1821–1897), from Worshofen, Bavaria, in western Germany, is regarded as the father of hydrotherapy. Father Kneipp possessed exceptional knowledge and skill in using water to heal the ailments that afflicted members of his community. These treatments, known collectively as Kneipp therapy, are still used today at world-class spas. 6. Which method has as key components herbal and mineral baths as well as cold or alternating

hot and cold treatments administered by water, stones, or pebbles? a. Physical therapy b. Aromatherapy c. Kneipp therapy d. Thalassotherapy ANS: C

Key components of Kneipp therapy are herbal and mineral baths, as well as cold or alternating hot and cold treatments administered by water, stones, or pebbles. 7. Which type of facility was established in the late nineteenth century for individuals to regain

health after a long-term illness? a. Rest home b. Gymnasium c. Orthopedic center d. Sanitarium ANS: D

Sanitariums were established as a type of health resort where individuals could go to regain health after a long-term illness such as tuberculosis and polio.

ESTBA NKSEL LEobjects R.COM 8. Which type of heat transferToccurs between two or substances that are in direct contact? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Evaporation d. Conversion ANS: B

Conduction is the transfer of heat between two objects or substances that are in direct contact. Stationary or non-moving water transfers heat by conduction. 9. Which type of heat transfer occurs by circulating currents of water or air between warmer and

cooler objects or substances? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Evaporation ANS: C

Convection is transfer of heat by circulating currents of water or air between warmer objects or substances and cooler objects or substances. The principles are similar to that of conduction in that one object/substance is heated and its particles interact with another object/substance of a lesser temperature and transfer heat in the process.

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10. Which type of heat transfer occurs through emanating heat rays? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Evaporation ANS: A

Radiation is heat transfer through emanating heat rays. 11. Which process involves heat reduction from the process of changing water into gas? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Evaporation ANS: D

Evaporation is heat reduction from the process of changing water into gas or vapor. 12. Which term means pressure exerted by fluid on an immersed object? a. Isometric b. Barometric c. Hydrostatic d. Therapeutic ANS: C

Hydrostatic pressure is pressure exerted by a fluid on an immersed object. According to Pascal’s law, a fluid exerts equal inward pressure at a given depth, and the pressure will increase as water depth increases. TESTBANKSELLER.COM 13. Which condition is a contraindication for cryotherapy? a. Tight muscles b. Edema c. Local pain d. Hypertension ANS: D

Contraindications to cryotherapy include impaired circulation (peripheral arterial disease), reduced sensation, Raynaud disease or Raynaud syndrome, open wounds and rashes, hypertension, age including the very young and very old, hypersensitivities or cold intolerance, and the inability to communicate about sensations being experienced. 14. Which term describes initial vasoconstriction and later vasodilation that occurs during cold

application? a. Barometric pressure b. Hydrostatic pressure c. Hunting response d. Inflammatory response ANS: C

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When cold application is longer than 20-minutes or when the tissue temperature reaches approximately 50 F (10C), cold-induced vasodilation may occur. This later vasodilation was first noted by Lewis, calling it the hunting response. It should be noted that this response is inconsistent. 15. A general recommendation is that cold be applied for a maximum of how many minutes? a. 5 b. 7 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: C

A general recommendation is that cold be applied no longer than 15 minutes 16. Which therapeutic effect does cold application have? a. Increases edema b. Increases muscle spasm c. Decreases inflammation d. Decreases joint stiffness ANS: C

Cold application decreases edema. 17. Which reaction to cryotherapy is characterized by smooth, elevated patches that are red or

pale and may be accompanied by severe itching? a. Eczema b. Cold hypersensitivity TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Dermatitis d. Cold numbness ANS: B

Cryotherapy should not be applied if a client has cold hypersensitivity. This reaction is characterized by smooth, slightly elevated patches that are redder or paler than surrounding skin and may be accompanied by severe itching 18. Which sensation is usually felt last in cryotherapy application? a. Cold b. Aching c. Burning d. Numbness ANS: D

During cold application of any method, the client usually experiences a sequence of sensations including (1) feeling of intense cold, (2) burning, (3) stinging or aching, and then (4) numbness or analgesia. These sensations are thought to correspond to activation of thermoreceptors and nociceptors followed by blocking sensations by gate control mechanisms 19. Cold packs can be made by filling a plastic bag with which ratio of water and rubbing

alcohol? a. 2:1 b. 3:1

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c. 4:1 d. 5:1 ANS: C

Cold packs can be made by filling a plastic bag with a 4:1 ratio mixture of water and rubbing alcohol cooled in a freezer. 20. Ice massage combines ice with which massage technique? a. Friction b. Tapotement c. Compression d. Petrissage ANS: A

Ice massage combines ice with friction massage. 21. Which type of treatment combines cold application with joint mobilizations? a. Ice pack b. Ice massage c. Cryostretch d. Cryokinetics ANS: D

Cryokinetics combine cold application with joint mobilizations. 22. Passive or active movements used in cryostretch can be performed when the client has

reached which stage of application? a. Cold TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Aching c. Burning d. Numbness ANS: D

Cryostretch combines cold applications with stretching. Once analgesia has been reached, passive or active movements can begin. 23. Which type of treatment combines cold and heat? a. Paraffin method b. Thermotherapy c. Contrast method d. Cryotherapy ANS: C

Contrast method combines cold and heat in the same treatment. Cold can be applied at the same time as heat on adjacent areas such as the anterior thigh and posterior thigh. Cold and heat can also be applied alternatingly. 24. Which reason is thermotherapy primarily used in clinical settings? a. Tonicity b. Sedation c. Reduce joint stiffness d. Reduce edema

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ANS: C

Thermotherapy is used in clinical settings primarily to reduce pain and joint stiffness, and increase range of motion. 25. How are heat applications thought to decrease pain? a. Through increasing blood flow b. Through reducing blood flow c. By slowing nerve conduction d. By stimulating edema ANS: A

Superficial heat applications can be used clinically to decrease pain. This analgesic effect may occur by increased blood flow and resultant reduced ischemia or by stimulation of thermoreceptors, which may reduce pain transmission by gate control mechanisms. 26. Which approach should be combined with thermotherapy to increase blood flow in muscles? a. Passive movement b. Active movement c. Compression d. Vibration ANS: B

If the goal of treatment is to increase blood flow in muscles, the therapist should consider combining thermotherapy with active movement 27. Which therapeutic effect does heart application have? a. Decreases edema TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Increases muscle spasm c. Decreases inflammation d. Increases collagen extensibility ANS: D

Heat application increases collagen extensibility. 28. To elongate tissues by stretching, tissue temperatures should be maintained at 104F to 113F

for a minimum of how many minutes? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 ANS: D

Heat increases extensibility of collagenous tissues such as tendons, ligaments, and scar tissue, with the effects noted after tissue temperature was elevated then elongated by stretching. For this effect to occur, tissue temperatures should be maintained at 104F to 113F (40C to 45C) for 5-10 minutes. 29. Which condition is a contraindication for heat application? a. Sore muscles b. Joint stiffness c. Blood clot

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d. Scar tissue ANS: C

Thermotherapy should not be applied if clients state that they have blood clots in the treatment area, or have a diagnosis of or signs and symptoms related to deep vein thrombosis (DVT). 30. Which condition is a potential adverse effect of thermotherapy application? a. Fainting b. Itching c. Numbness d. Vomiting ANS: A

Adverse effects of thermotherapy have been reported including burns and fainting. The client’s skin can be burned when heat is applied too long, when the heating agent is too hot, or when the client does not have sufficient protective vasodilation. 31. Skin can be burned in 7 1/2 minutes at which temperature? a. 110F b. 112F c. 113F d. 115F ANS: D

Skin can be burned at temperatures of 113F (45C) for 60 minutes and at 115F (46C) for 7 1/2 minutes, so temperatures of heat application and duration should always be maintained below these levels

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 32. Clients with which condition have the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical uses

of thermotherapy? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Skin cancer c. Shingles d. Hives ANS: A

Mun et al found that hot packs use were the most common cause of contact burns in clinical settings with the leg the most common injury site, followed by the foot and ankle. Individuals with diabetes mellitus had the highest correlation to contact burns from clinical uses of thermotherapy. 33. What are hydrocollator hot packs filled with? a. River rock b. Bentonite clay c. Sand d. Marbles ANS: B

Hot packs made for commercial use are pouches filled with bentonite (a type of clay) heated in a thermostatically controlled stainless steel water cabinet. Most professional use a water cabinet called a hydrocollator.

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34. What temperature is the water within the hydrocollator? a. 136 to 145F b. 147 to 156F c. 158 to 167F d. 169 to 178F ANS: C

Water temperature within the hydrocollator is usually between 158F to 167F. 35. How long are hydrocollator packs typically left on the client’s body? a. 5 to 8 minutes b. 6 to 9 minutes c. 10 to 14 minutes d. 15 to 20 minutes ANS: D

Once heated, the packs are removed, wrapped in 6-8 layers of dry terrycloth or a cover specially designed to use with the hot pack, then placed on the treatment area. More layers can added if the client is feeling too much warmth or layers can reduced if the client does not feel enough warmth. Remove the pack after 15-20 minutes. 36. Which method is application of a heated waxy mixture to a treatment area of the body? a. Aromatherapy b. Paraffin bath c. Hot pack d. Cryotherapy ANS: B

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Paraffin is a heated mixture of paraffin wax and mineral oil in a 6:1 or 7:1 ratio of paraffin wax to oil. Paraffin is an excellent insulator so when it is applied to the body, the heat penetrates deeply instead of being lost to the air. 37. What happens to the heat from paraffin when it is applied to the body? a. Dissipates rapidly into the air b. Has a cooling action c. Penetrates deeply d. Penetrates superficially ANS: C

Paraffin is an excellent insulator so when it is applied to the body, the heat penetrates deeply instead of being lost to the air. 38. Which step occurs after the client’s hand is completely coated in paraffin in the dip method? a. Wrap the hand in a plastic bag or wax paper b. Wrap the hand in a towel or terrycloth mitt c. Elevate the hand and allow the wax to cool d. Remove the wax coating and discard it ANS: A

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Repeat the dip-remove sequence nine more times for a total of 10 times. Advise the client to avoid moving the fingers during treatment as this action may crack the wax coating. Wrap the clients hand in a plastic bag or wax paper, and then in a towel or terrycloth mitt. Elevate the hand and allow the wax to cool. 39. What does sanus per aqua mean? a. Water is life b. Water is cleanliness c. Take in water daily d. Healing through water ANS: D

Some scholars believe that the word spa comes from the letters S-P-A that were scribbled on the marble walls of ancient public baths of Rome. This is translated from the Latin term sanus per aqua, meaning “healing through water” or “cure of water.” 40. Which type of spa has overnight accommodations with length of stay varying from a long

weekend to several weeks or longer? a. Day b. Health c. Medical d. Destination ANS: D

Destination spas are places where clients come to relax, rejuvenate, or begin or improve their lifestyle choices. The length of stay varies from a long weekend to several weeks or longer. Education is often a central theme of destination spas.

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41. Which spa hydrotherapy is a dry heat bath in a wood-lined room with 10–20% humidity and

temperatures around 175 F? a. Sauna bath b. Steam bath c. Vichy shower d. Swiss shower ANS: A

Sauna bath is a dry heat bath received in a wood-lined room or cabinet. Radiant heat can be provided by hot stones (Finnish sauna) or by infrared light bulbs (modern sauna). In most saunas, humidity is between 10-20% with temperatures around 175 F at head level 42. Which spa hydrotherapy is a vapor bath taken in a ceramic-tiled room, cabinet, or canopy with

temperatures ranging between 105 F and 120 F? a. Sauna bath b. Steam bath c. Vichy shower d. Swiss shower ANS: B

Steam bathing is a vapor bath taken in a ceramic-tiled room, cabinet, or canopy. Air temperature of most steam baths is between 105F and 120F (40.5C to 50C).

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43. Which spa hydrotherapy involves a client lying on a shallow table as jets of water come from

multiple down-facing showerheads situated along the length of a horizontal pipe? a. Steam bath b. Sauna bath c. Swiss shower d. Vichy shower ANS: D

During a Vichy shower, warm water is sprayed over a client while he or she lies on a shallow table that contains drainage for the water. Most often, the shower contains multiple down-facing showerheads situated along the length of a horizontal pipe that runs the length of the table. 44. Which spa hydrotherapy involves warm water spraying over a client from above and from the

sides while he or she stands in a shower stall? a. Steam bath b. Sauna bath c. Swiss shower d. Vichy shower ANS: C

During a Swiss shower, warm water is sprayed over a client from above and from the sides while he or she stands in a shower stall. 45. Which approach is a form of an Asian bodywork treatment received in water heated to the

body’s natural temperature? a. Watsu TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Cryotherapy c. Paraffin d. Thermotherapy ANS: A

In Watsu, the practitioner uses traditional shiatsu massage techniques, stretching, joint mobilization, and flotation to help the client to relax. It is performed in water that is around 4 feet deep and has been heated to the body's natural temperature.

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Chapter 13: Foot Reflexology: Theories and Techniques Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Reflexology involves addressing areas of the body by applying different amounts of pressure

to points located where? a. Internal organs b. Chakras and third eye c. Skull, spine, and pelvis d. Feet and hands ANS: D

Reflexology, or zone therapy, is a practice in which different amounts of pressure are applied to specific points on the feet or hands that are believed to match up with certain other parts of the body, according to the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health 2. Reflexology originated more than 5,000 years ago, tracing back to which country? a. Egypt b. Persia c. Nigeria d. Turkey ANS: A

Various forms of foot massage and reflexology have existed for over 5000 years with references found in many countries including India, Egypt, China, and Japan.

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3. Reflexology developed out of zone therapy, and the research and writings in the early 1900s

by whom? a. James Watson and Francis Crick b. William Harvey and Andrea Borelli c. James Cyriax and John Harvey Dalton d. William Fitzgerald and Joe Shelby Riley ANS: D

Reflexology developed out of zone therapy and the research and writings of Drs. William Fitzgerald and Joe Shelby Riley in the early 1900s. 4. Who is regarded as the mother of reflexology? a. Ida Rolf b. Janet Travell c. Eunice Ingham d. Bonnie Prudden ANS: C

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Reflexology was popularized in North America by Eunice Ingham, a physiotherapist who is affectionately referred to as the “mother of reflexology.” She spent most of her life mapping the exact location of reflex points on the feet. Ingham spread her love and knowledge of reflexology through teaching, writing, and demonstrating reflexology on as many people as possible from the 1930s through the early 1970s. Her work is still carried on by the International Institute of Reflexology with seminars held worldwide. 5. Which reason makes reflexology a popular treatment to receive? a. It is cheaper than massage b. Extra lubricant is used to soften feet c. Disrobing is unnecessary d. Varying amounts of pressure is used on the points ANS: C

To receive reflexology, disrobing is not necessary and lubricants are not needed. Furthermore, reflexology can be practiced practically anywhere that is comfortable for both the reflexologist and the client. For these and many more reasons, reflexology is a popular form of massage. 6. In reflexology, which term means the paths that life force travels in the body? a. Poles b. Zones c. Nadis d. Meridians ANS: B

Reflexology theory states that this life force flows through the body through 1 of 10 vertical TESTBANKSELLER.COM paths called zones. 7. What was reflexology originally called? a. Zone therapy b. Craniosacral therapy c. Trigger point therapy d. Neuromuscular therapy ANS: A

Reflexology theory states that this life force flows through the body through 1 of 10 vertical paths called zones, which give rise to reflexology’s original name of zone therapy. 8. Which condition has research shown that reflexology will alleviate? a. Renal failure b. Menstrual cramps c. Heart failure d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: B

Reflexology decreased the intensity and duration of menstrual cramps more effectively than ibuprofen in university students. These effects continued after the sessions discontinued. 9. How many zones are in the body, according to reflexology? a. Two

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b. Three c. Seven d. Ten ANS: D

Zones are the 10 vertical pathways in the body through which life force flows. Five zones are located in each foot. 10. Through which toe does Zone 1 pass? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fifth ANS: A

Zone 1 passes through the great toe, Zone 2 passes through the second toe, and so on to the smallest toe, through which Zone 5 passes. 11. Which term means the four horizontal lines that traverse the plantar surface of each foot? a. Zones b. Chakras c. Channels d. Landmarks ANS: D

Landmarks are the four horizontal lines that traverse the bottom or plantar surface of each foot. They are the neck/shoulder line, the diaphragm line, the waistline, and the pelvic line. Landmarks help reflexologists points TESlocate TBANreflex KSEL LERon .Cthe OMfoot. 12. In reflexology, which landmark is located just below the ball of the foot? a. Waistline b. Pelvic line c. Diaphragm line d. Neck/shoulder line ANS: C

The diaphragm line is located just below the ball of the foot. 13. In reflexology, which landmark starts at the base of the fifth metatarsal and creates a line

across to the foot’s medial longitudinal arch? a. Waistline b. Pelvic line c. Diaphragm line d. Neck/shoulder line ANS: A

The waistline in reflexology is located at the base of the fifth metatarsal and is traced across the foot’s medial longitudinal arch. 14. What do reflex points represent? a. Chakras b. Meridians

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c. Brain and nerve pathways d. Organs and structures ANS: D

Reflex points are points located within the 10 zones and reflect the body’s organs and structures. Reflex points and their positional relationships to each other follow a logical anatomic pattern that closely resembles that of the body itself. 15. Which technique is used to stimulate all points within an entire zone during a reflexology

treatment? a. Cupping b. Walking c. Point work d. Point tapping ANS: B

The walking technique is used to stimulate points within an entire zone. 16. Which technique is used to stimulate specific points within a zone during a reflexology

treatment? a. Cupping b. Walking c. Point work d. Point tapping ANS: C

Point work is used to stimulate specific reflex points within a zone. Some reflexologists use hand-held tools to apply point TESwork. TBANKSELLER.COM 17. What is another term for the relaxation techniques used in reflexology? a. Gems b. Anchors c. Desserts d. Triggers ANS: C

Relaxation techniques, sometimes called desserts, are used to relax the client before, during, and after a reflexology session. Techniques include the foot flop, the ankle flop, and moving the foot and ankle into dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, and eversion. 18. Which condition is a local contraindication for receiving reflexology? a. Pregnancy b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Client frailty d. Warts ANS: D

Local contraindications include warts. 19. The sinus reflexes are located on which area of the foot? a. Heel b. Ankle

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c. Top of the foot d. Pads of the toes ANS: D

The sinus reflex points are located in the pads of each toe. 20. Which area of the foot contains the reproductive reflexes? a. Ankle b. Top c. Ball d. Heel ANS: D

The reproductive areas are located on the heels and ankles. The uterus or prostate reflex points are located on the medial ankle, and the ovaries or testes reflex points are located on the lateral ankle.

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Chapter 14: Clinical Massage: Pain, Trigger Points, Fascia, Orthopedic Assessments, and Applications Methods Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the use of techniques to safely work with clients who have diseases,

disorders, or injuries? a. Reflexology b. Shiatsu c. Lymphatic massage d. Clinical massage ANS: D

Clinical massage is the use of massage techniques to safely work with patients who have diseases, disorders, or injuries. 2. Which term refers to restoration of an individual to a normal or near normal condition after a

disabling disease or injury? a. Orthopedics b. Remission c. Physical rehabilitation d. Maximum medical improvement ANS: C

Physical rehabilitation is the restoration of an individual to a normal or near normal condition ESTBANKSELLER.COM after a disabling disease orTinjury. 3. What does maximum medical improvement mean? a. The client’s treatment has just started working b. The client’s condition is unlikely to improve c. A standard the client wishes to reach d. A standard the physician wishes the client would reach ANS: B

Maximum medical improvement (MMI) is the point in the rehabilitative process when the client’s condition is unlikely to improve, and no further recovery is expected; it occurs when treatment reaches a plateau. 4. Insurance companies are most likely to cover massage treatments received for which

situation? a. Soreness from recreational activities b. Stress from busy lifestyle c. Cellulite removal d. Personal injury ANS: D

Insurance companies are more likely to cover massage therapy expenses related to personal injury (PI) claims, automobile medical claims, automobile liability claims, and worker’s compensation claims.

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5. Which documentation does an insurance company require to process claims? a. Professional liability certificate b. Diagnostic code c. Profit and loss statement d. Medical release ANS: B

Insurance companies require diagnostic codes and procedural codes to process insurance claims. 6. Which term means an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or

potential tissue damage? a. Pain b. Psychosis c. Rehabilitation d. Assessment ANS: A

Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage. 7. Which term means stimuli that are damaging or threaten damage to normal tissues? a. Modulation b. Nociception c. Contraction d. Rehabilitation ANS: B

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Nociception is the term for stimuli that are damaging or threaten damage to normal tissues. 8. Who proposed the gate control theory of pain? a. Einstein b. Descartes c. Melzack and Wall d. Watson and Crick ANS: C

The gate control theory of pain was proposed by Melzack and Wall in 1965. 9. Which concept involves synthesis of perception, emotional states, and past experiences? a. Trigger point theory b. Central sensitization c. Body–self neuromatrix d. Gate control theory ANS: C

According to Melzack, pain is one of several expressions or outputs produced by a cerebral network called the body-self neuromatrix after synthesizing various inputs including perceptions, emotional states, and past experiences.

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10. Which theory states that pain is a response or output determined by how the brain interprets

incoming information or input? a. Trigger point b. Sliding filament c. Gate control d. Neuromatrix ANS: D

According to Melzack’s neuromatrix theory of pain, pain is a response or output determined by how the neuromatrix interprets input. 11. Which term means the brain’s ability to change, remodel, and reorganize itself to improve

adaptability? a. Meta-analysis b. Neuroplasticity c. Algorithm neurology d. Self-fulfilling prophecy ANS: B

The neuromatrix theory fully embraces neuroplasticity, the brain’s ability to change, remodel, and reorganize itself to improve adaptability. 12. Which term is given to pain generated by non-nociceptive nerve activation? a. Neuropathic b. Persistent c. Acute d. Chronic

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ANS: A

Neuropathic pain is generated by non-nociceptive nerve activation. 13. Which term is given to pain that outlasts the typical healing time of involved tissues? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Perceptual d. Centralized ANS: B

Chronic pain, also called persistent pain, usually refers to pain that outlasts the typical healing time of involved tissues. 14. Which term refers to the minimum intensity of a stimulus perceived as painful? a. Sensitization b. Threshold c. Tolerance level d. Sympathetic arousal ANS: B

Pain threshold is the minimum intensity of a stimulus perceived as painful. 15. Which term refers to the maximum intensity of a pain-producing stimulus an individual is

willing to accept in any given situation?

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a. b. c. d.

Tolerance level Sensitization Threshold Parasympathetic arousal

ANS: A

Pain tolerance level is the maximum intensity of a pain-producing stimulus an individual is willing to accept in any given situation. 16. Which phenomenon occurs with increased nociceptor responsiveness and reduced threshold? a. Tolerance level b. Acute awareness c. Threshold d. Sensitization ANS: D

Sensitization occurs with increased nociceptor responsiveness and reduced threshold. 17. Which term means a tender localized hardening that lies in a palpable taut band within a

skeletal muscle? a. Reflex point b. Trigger point c. Muscle spasm d. Muscle soreness ANS: B

A trigger point (TrP) is a tender localized hardening that lies in a palpable taut band within a skeletal muscle. TESTBANKSELLER.COM 18. Which term is used to describe a trigger point that causes pain when compressed that the

client recognizes as familiar? a. Latent b. Active c. Limited d. Antagonist ANS: B

Active trigger points cause pain when compressed; the person recognizes it as familiar. They can also cause referred pain, motor dysfunction (stiffness, limited motion, muscle weakness), and autonomic phenomena (pallor, sweating, watering eyes). 19. Which term is given to pain felt in an area of the body other than its source or site of origin? a. Referred b. Latent c. Acute d. Chronic ANS: A

Referred pain is pain felt in an area of the body other than its source or site of origin. 20. Which term is used to describe a trigger point that is nonpainful until compressed, and the

client is unfamiliar with the resulting pain?

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a. b. c. d.

Latent Active Limited Antagonistic

ANS: A

Latent trigger points have the same characteristics as active trigger points, but cause no pain until they are compressed and the person does not recognize it as familiar. 21. Which phenomenon is a brisk contraction elicited by snapping palpation of a trigger point? a. Jump sign b. Local twitch response c. Referred pain phenomena d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness ANS: B

Some trigger points exhibit local twitch responses, a brisk contraction elicited by snapping palpation of the trigger point. 22. Which neurotransmitter is involved in trigger point formation? a. Epinephrine b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine ANS: D

There are several hypothesis to explain trigger point development. The most widely accepted is the Integrated Hypothesis TEdeveloped STBANKby SESimons, LLER.Travell, COM and Simons which states development begins when precipitating events cause an excessive release of acetylcholine by presynaptic neurons. 23. Which term means sheets of fibrous tissues enveloping the body beneath the skin, and

enclosing and compartmentalizing muscle tissue layers and muscle groups? a. Adipose b. Membranes c. Fascia d. Tendons ANS: C

Fascia is sheets of fibrous tissue enveloping the body beneath the skin, and enclosing and compartmentalizing muscle tissue layers and muscle groups. 24. Which term refers to fascia’s ability to move from a sol to a gel state, and back again? a. Torquing b. Spasming c. Thixotropy d. Conditioning ANS: C

Thixotropy is a reversible transformation in which a substance can move from a dense state (sol) to a liquid state (gel); or sol-gel conversion.

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25. Which factor is used to establish a client’s health status, identify treatment goals, and

determine how these goals are best accomplished? a. Technique b. Assessment c. Documentation d. Implementation ANS: B

Assessments are used to establish a client’s health status, identify treatment goals, and determine how these goals are best accomplished using an evidence-informed approach. 26. Which term means conscious or unconscious ways of moving used to correct imbalances and

reduce discomfort? a. Posture b. Gait c. Compensatory patterns d. Systematic desensitization ANS: C

Compensatory patterns are conscious or unconscious movement patterns used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort. 27. Which group of muscles tend to shorten and strengthen? a. Postural b. Phasic c. Core d. Compensatory

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ANS: A

Postural muscles tend to shorten and strengthen, whereas phasic muscles lengthen and weaken. 28. Which term refers to the quality of resistance felt by the evaluator at the end of a client’s

passive range of motion? a. End-feel b. Compensatory pattern c. Gait d. Mobilization ANS: A

End-feel is the quality of resistance felt by the evaluator at the end of passive ROM. 29. Which term means the client is performing a movement while the massage therapist guides

the movement in the same direction? a. Active b. Passive c. Active resisted d. Active assisted ANS: D

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During active assisted movements, the client (patient) actively performs the movement while the therapist assists and physically guides the movement in the same direction the client (patient) is moving. 30. Which term means the client is performing a movement while the massage therapist opposes

it? a. b. c. d.

Active Passive Active resisted Active assisted

ANS: C

During active resisted movements, the client (patient) actively performs the motion while the therapist applies resistance to the client’s (patient’s) movement. 31. The Full Can/Empty Can Tests may identify dysfunction in which muscle? a. Infraspinatus b. Deltoid c. Supraspinatus d. Coracobrachialis ANS: C

The Full Can/Empty Can Tests may identify supraspinatus dysfunction. 32. Which test measures shoulder mobility? a. Apley Scratch b. Spurling TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Thompson d. Full Can/Empty Can ANS: A

The Apley Scratch Test measures shoulder mobility. 33. The FABER test assesses pathology in which joint? a. Elbow b. Knee c. Shoulder d. Sacroiliac ANS: D

The FABER (Patrick’s) Test assesses hip and/or sacroiliac (SI) pathology. 34. Which orthopedic test attempts to determine possible cervical root compression? a. Empty Can b. Spurling c. Apley Scratch d. Thompson ANS: B

Spurling Test attempts to ascertain possible cervical nerve root compression and cervical radiculopathy.

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35. Which term means an abnormal sensation, either spontaneous or provoked? a. Origin b. Plexus c. Paresthesia d. Innervation ANS: C

Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation(s), either spontaneous or provoked. 36. What is the definition of posture? a. The manner in which a person moves on foot b. The position of the body over a base of support c. Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance d. Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort ANS: B

Posture is the position of the body over a base of support. 37. Which factor is used to determine the amount of symmetry on both sides of the client? a. Line of gravity b. Gait c. Compensatory pattern d. Phasic muscles ANS: A

Some therapists use a posture grid or plumb line to determine a line of gravity, a vertical line extending from the center of an object to its base of support. This line of gravity is important for determining a client’s ability TESTto BAmaintain NKSELbalance LER.Cwhile OM standing, and to determine the amount of symmetry in both sides of the client. 38. Which posterior landmark is used in static postural assessment? a. Nasal septum b. Occipital protuberance c. Manubrium of the sternum d. Anterior superior iliac spines ANS: B

Occipital protuberance is used as a posterior landmark during static postural assessment. 39. Which lateral landmark is used in static postural assessment? a. Nasal septum b. Occipital protuberance c. Greater trochanter of the femur d. Anterior superior iliac spines ANS: C

Occipital protuberance is used as a posterior landmark during static postural assessment. 40. Which statement describes gait? a. An individual’s manner of walking or running b. How the body positions itself over a base of support c. Conditioning that athletes undergo for optimal performance

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d. Methods used to correct imbalances and reduce discomfort ANS: A

Gait is someone’s manner of walking or running. 41. Which term means a repetitive pattern that begins when one foot contacts the ground and ends

when the same foot contacts the ground again? a. Gait cycle b. Static posture c. Compensatory pattern d. Maximum improvement ANS: A

Gait cycle is a repetitive pattern and begins when one foot contacts the ground and ends when the same foot contacts the ground again. 42. During the stance period of the gait cycle, what percentage of time is the foot in contact with

the ground? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% ANS: C

During the stance phase, the foot is in contact with the ground. The stance phase accounts for approximately 60% of a single gait cycle. 43. Which method of addressing TEtrigger STBApoints NKSEinvolves LLER.pressing COM so that the skin blanches? a. Transverse friction b. Ischemic compression c. Dry needling d. Strain counterstrain ANS: B

Compression and transverse friction can be used over trigger points. Compression is also called ischemic compression, a term coined by Travell and Simons because skin first blanches or becomes ischemic once pressure is remove; reactive hyperemia occurs after ischemia. 44. In the acronym TART, what does A stand for? a. Active b. Alignment c. Assessment d. Asymmetry ANS: D

The A in TART stands for asymmetry. Asymmetry is noted when comparing one side of the client’s body to its equivalent on the other side; include observing and palpating similarities and differences in tissue changes before and after intervention. 45. How long is compression or transverse friction typically applied to a trigger point? a. 5 to 10 seconds b. 10 to 20 seconds

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c. 20 to 30 seconds d. 35 to 45 seconds ANS: B

To treat trigger points, apply compression and/or transverse friction to bare skin, through the drape, or through clothing. When applied to bare skin, it should be lubricant-free or lightly lubricated. Treat the area for 10 to 20 seconds. 46. Which technique is used to release restricted tissues in myofascial release? a. Gliding b. Compression c. Friction d. Stretching ANS: D

Myofascial release (MFR) is a manual method that uses skin stretching techniques to release restricted fascia. 47. Which method involves the client actively contracting against a counterforce? a. Muscle energy techniques b. Myofascial release c. Positional release therapy d. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation ANS: A

In muscle energy techniques, when requested by the massage therapist, the client actively contracts his or her muscle(s) against a counterforce which matches it, fails to match it, or overcomes it, depending on the TE STdesired BANKeffect. SELLER.COM 48. Which method involves passively stretching a muscle then having it isometrically contract

against resistance? a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b. Myofascial release c. Positional release therapy d. Strain-counterstrain ANS: A

In proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation a muscle is passively stretched, then isometrically contracted against resistance at between 20-70% maximal contraction for 10 seconds while in the stretched position, and then is passively stretched. 49. Which method uses the concept of “position of ease?” a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b. Muscle energy techniques c. Strain-counterstrain d. Cupping ANS: C

During positional release therapy (strain-counterstrain), the targeted tissues are placed in a shortened or slackened position for between 90 seconds and three minutes, causing tissue lengthening. This body position is known as the “position of ease” or position in which pain is relieved.

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50. What is the purpose of placing glass or silicone cups on the skin in cupping therapy? a. Perform ischemic compression b. Create suction c. Glide along tissues d. Stretch fascia ANS: B

Cupping therapy involves placing glass or silicone cups on skin to create a suction.

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Chapter 15: Seated Massage: Principles and Practice Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is another term for chair massage? a. Ashiatsu b. Onsite massage c. Location massage d. Polarity ANS: B

David Palmer coined the term onsite massage, and began teaching this method and also selling the newly developed massage chair. 2. Which individual brought chair massage to prominence through his vision to make massage

therapy convenient and affordable for anyone, anywhere, anytime? a. Harold Dull b. James Cyriax c. David Palmer d. Ken Robinson ANS: C

Seated massage, or chair massage, came to prominence through the efforts of Palmer, whose vision was to make massage convenient and affordable for anyone, anywhere, and anytime.

TESTBto ANthe KScorporate ELLER.world COMin which timeframe? 3. Palmer introduced seated massage a. 1900s b. 1950s c. 1980s d. 1990s ANS: C

Palmer introduced seated massage to the corporate world in the early 1980s. 4. Palmer blended techniques from which traditional Japanese massage method? a. Aveda b. Amma c. Polarity d. Reflexology ANS: B

Palmer’s original method blended techniques from traditional Japanese-style massage called amma and European-style massage. It includes techniques such as acupressure, stretching and joint mobilizations, and percussion. 5. Which component is unnecessary during seated massage? a. Pressure b. Lubricant c. Sanitation

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d. Communication ANS: B

Seated massage does not require massage lubricants and sessions are typically brief (5 to 15 minutes), but can last up to 30 minutes. 6. Which action should the therapist do before setting up the massage chair? a. Sanitize the chair fabric b. Adjust the chair to fit the client c. Place the face rest and arm rest covers on the chair d. Choose an area that allows movement completely around the chair ANS: D

Be sure the area where the seated massage will take place is wide enough to allow the therapist to move completely around the chair. 7. For client safety, what should the therapist do before the client sits in the massage chair? a. Demonstrate and explain how to sit on the chair properly b. Have the client set up the massage chair before sitting in it c. Explain and demonstrate how to take the chair down after sitting d. Have the client explain how he or she would like to sit in the chair ANS: A

Many clients are unsure of how to sit in the massage chair, and often sit on it backwards the first time. Therefore, before the client sits in the chair, demonstrate and explain how to sit in it properly. 8. Which client body positionTensures ESTBAcomfort? NKSELLER.COM a. Hips are rotated b. Shoulders are dropped c. Neck is extended d. Back is slouched ANS: B

For client comfort, be sure that the client’s back is straight and that the shoulders are relaxed and not elevated. 9. After the client has been positioned comfortably, what should the therapist do right before

starting the actual massage? a. Move the carrying bag out of the way b. Remove the arm rest cover c. Wash own hands d. Sanitize the chair ANS: C

After adjustments to the chair have been made for the client’s comfort, the massage therapist should wash and dry his or her hands before the massage begins. 10. If the area where seated massage is performed is noisy, what method can the client use when

he or she experiences pain during the massage? a. Speak loudly b. Raise a hand

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c. Nod the head d. Shrug the shoulders ANS: B

The area where seated massage is performed may be noisy. Consider establishing a nonverbal communication method before beginning the massage. For example, ask the client to raise a hand if they are experiencing discomfort from the massage technique, which will be responded to immediately. 11. In one-handed communication about pain levels, what do five fingers raised represent? a. No pain b. Mild pain c. Moderate pain d. Severe pain ANS: D

A 5-point pressure scale can be used and indicated by the number to fingers extended on a raised hand. In this situation, one extended finger represents light or low intensity pressure and five fingers represents deep or high intensity pressure. 12. In a 15 minute chair massage, which area of the body do clients typically want most of the

time spent on? a. Legs b. Arms c. Back d. Scalp ANS: C

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In a basic 15 minute routine, be sure to spend more time on the client’s areas of complaint, which are usually the back, neck and shoulders. 13. At what angle should the face rest frame be tilted to work the base of the skull and neck? a. 30 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. 180 degrees ANS: B

To work the base of the skull and neck, tilt the face rest frame forward until the neck is flexed approximately 45 degrees. 14. Which techniques is most commonly used during seated massage? a. Trigger point therapy b. Superficial friction c. Ballistic stretching d. Compression ANS: D

Compression is one of the most commonly used massage techniques during seated massage. 15. Which procedure should be done in between chair massage clients? a. Disinfect the chair fabric

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b. Lower the chair c. Take the chair down d. Cover the chair with the bag ANS: A

On completion of all interactions with the client, wash and dry your hands, disinfect the chair fabric, write your progress notes, take a few deep breaths, and get ready for the next client.

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Chapter 16: Asian Bodywork Therapy: Shiatsu, Thai Massage, Ayurvedic Principles, and Chakras Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which approach uses pressure and manipulation to treat the body, mind, and spirit, including

the electromagnetic or energetic field in and surrounding the body? a. Ayurveda b. Hellerwork c. Asian bodywork therapy d. Trigger point therapy ANS: C

The American Organization for Bodywork Therapies of Asia (AOBTA) defines Asian bodywork therapy (ABT) as the use of pressure and manipulation to treat the body, mind, and spirit, including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surrounding the body. 2. Which concept is part of all types of Asian bodywork therapy? a. Herbs b. Energy c. Exercise d. Acupuncture ANS: B

The American Organization for Bodywork Therapies of Asia (AOBTA) defines Asian TEthe STuse BAof NKpressure SELLEand R.manipulation COM bodywork therapy (ABT) as to treat the body, mind, and spirit, including the electromagnetic or energetic fields in and surrounding the body. 3. Which type of bodywork has Asian origins? a. Shiatsu b. Hellerwork c. Lymphatic massage d. Trigger point therapy ANS: A

Many methods share the same Asian origins. For example, shiatsu originates from Japan, amma from Korea, Tui na from China, and other styles such as acupressure, Chi Nei Tsang, Jin Shin Do, Jin Shin Jyutsu, and so forth. 4. Which term is Chinese for the concept of energy or life force? a. Ki b. Chi c. Prana d. Space ANS: B

Energy or life force is called qi, chi, or ch’i in Chinese, ki in Japanese, and ojas in Sanskrit. 5. Which term is Japanese for the concept of energy or life force?

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a. b. c. d.

Ki Chi Prana Space

ANS: A

Energy or life force is called qi, chi, or ch’i in Chinese, ki in Japanese, and ojas in Sanskrit. 6. Which term means the symbol used to represent yin and yang? a. Fu b. Zang c. Tai Ji d. Tsubo ANS: C

The Tai Ji symbol represents yin and yang formed by a complete circle and means completeness. 7. Which aspect is considered more yang? a. Light b. Cold c. Earth d. Moist ANS: A

The Yang or sunny side of the hill, has more light, warmth, activity, and so movement exists. Plants grow easily and have foliage and seeds that attract insects and birds.

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8. Which aspect is considered more yin? a. Dry b. Light c. Exterior d. Cool ANS: D

The Yin or shadowy side of the hill is darker, the temperature is cooler, plants grow more slowly, more dampness can be found, and less overall activity exists compared with the sunny side. 9. Which characteristic is pain manifesting as a yang imbalance? a. Dull b. Deep c. Cold d. Agitation ANS: D

Pain as a manifestation of a yang imbalance is a feeling of heat, agitation, and restlessness; the area appears red, is warm to touch, and feels hard and inflamed. The pain is often sharp, can move around, and is frequently found in the upper part of the body. 10. Which characteristic is pain manifesting as a yin imbalance? a. Heat

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b. Inflamed c. Weakness d. Restlessness ANS: C

Pain as a manifestation of a yin imbalance is a feeling of cold, weakness, weight, and lethargy; the pain is dull rather than sharp, and feels deep. The skin is discolored or dark, and it feels good to the client if the area is touched directly. 11. Which term means the pathways in the body through which energy circulates? a. Dhatus b. Doshas c. Tsubos d. Channels ANS: D

Channels or meridians are pathways in the body through which energy circulates. 12. Which channel pair is associated with the metal element? a. Stomach and Spleen b. Lung and Large Intestine c. Heart and Small Intestine d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney ANS: B

Lung and Large Intestine channels are associated with the metal element. 13. Which channel pair is associated with water TESTB ANthe KSE LLEelement? R.COM a. Stomach and Spleen b. Lung and Large Intestine c. Heart and Small Intestine d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney ANS: D

Urinary Bladder and Kidney channels are associated with the water element. 14. Which channel pair is associated with the fire element? a. Stomach and spleen b. Lung and Large intestine c. Heart and Small Intestine d. Urinary Bladder and Kidney ANS: C

Heart and Small Intestine channels are associated with the fire element. 15. Which channel is yin? a. Spleen b. Stomach c. Small Intestine d. Large Intestine ANS: A

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Spleen channel is yin. 16. Which channel is yang? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Kidney d. Gallbladder ANS: D

Gallbladder channel is yang. 17. Which channel starts under the eyes and travels in a line down the face? a. Liver b. Heart c. Spleen d. Stomach ANS: D

Stomach channel starts under the eyes and travels in a line down the face. 18. Heart Protector channel ends on which finger? a. Ring b. Little c. Index d. Middle ANS: D

Heart Protector channel ends finger. TEon STthe BAmiddle NKSEL LER.COM 19. Which term means specific points located along channels where energy concentrates and

surfaces? a. Phases b. Cycles c. Tsubos d. Doshas ANS: C

Along the channels are points called tsubos or acupoints, although acupoint is more of an acupuncture term. These are where energy concentrates and surfaces. 20. Which term means a tsubo that feels depleted of ki? a. Kyo b. Jitsu c. Prana d. Dosha ANS: A

Kyo means empty, yin, depleted, or not enough ki. 21. Which term means a tsubo that feels full of ki? a. Kyo b. Jitsu

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c. Prana d. Dosha ANS: B

Jitsu means full, yang, excessive, or too much ki. 22. Which organ system is zang? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Gallbladder d. Small Intestine ANS: A

Zang are the yin organ systems: Heart, Liver, Lungs, Kidney, Heart Protector, and Spleen. They tend to be solid organs. 23. Which organ system is fu? a. Heart b. Stomach c. Liver d. Kidney ANS: B

Fu are the yang organ systems: Small Intestine, Gallbladder, Large Intestine, Bladder, Triple Heater, and Stomach. They tend to be hollow organs. 24. Which elements are the five phases? a. Air, fire, water, spirit, and TESearth TBANKSELLER.COM b. Fire, water, earth, metal, and air c. Earth, water, fire, space, and metal d. Wood, fire, earth, metal, and water ANS: D

The five phases, or elements, are wood, fire, earth, metal, and water. 25. What color is associated with the wood phase? a. Red b. White c. Green d. Yellow ANS: C

Green, the color of foliage at its peak, is the color associated with the wood phase. 26. What emotion is associated with the water element? a. Joy b. Fear c. Grief d. Anger ANS: B

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The bones, bone marrow, teeth, central nervous system, ears, hearing, the emotion of fear, winter, black or dark blue color, urine, groaning sounds, and craving for salty foods are all correspondences to the water phase. 27. Which cycle describes how a phase feeds, nourishes, or generates the next phase? a. Control b. Creative c. Insulting d. Overacting ANS: B

The creative or generative cycle describes how a phase feeds, nourishes, or generates the next phase in line. 28. Which method is a main one used to evaluate energetic imbalances? a. Needling b. Listening c. Influencing d. Documenting ANS: B

The main assessment methods used to evaluate energetic imbalances are looking, listening and smelling, palpating, and asking. 29. Which method is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy that uses pressure along channels to

restore, maintain, or balance the flow of energy? a. Polarity TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Shiatsu c. Acupuncture d. Ayurveda ANS: B

Shiatsu is a Japanese Asian bodywork therapy that uses pressure along the energy channels to restore, maintain, or balance the flow of ki. 30. What does the term “shiatsu” literally mean? a. Pray always b. Finger pressure c. Hollow like a flute d. Healing through touch ANS: B

The term “shiatsu” literally means “finger (shi) pressure (atsu),” but hands, elbows, knees, and feet are also used, along with, when appropriate, joint mobilizations and stretches. 31. Which principle is part of Zen shiatsu? a. Move from the hara b. Practice grace always c. Wear comfortable clothes d. Use organic products only ANS: A

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The principles of Zen Shiatsu are relaxation; use of body weight, not force; move from the hara; use two-handed connection; stationary, perpendicular penetration; project of ki; and continuity. 32. What is the hara is the body’s center of? a. Solar plexus b. Focused power and energy c. The governing vessel d. The gallbladder channel ANS: B

The hara, or abdomen, is the body’s center of focused power and energy. 33. Where is the tanden located? a. Along the lateral aspect of the tibia b. Inch or two below and behind the navel c. Inch or two above the center of the brow d. Two cun below and behind the heart chakra ANS: B

Within the hara is the tanden, the sea of ki located an inch or two below and behind the navel. 34. What are the two main techniques used in shiatsu? a. Palming and thumbing b. Tapotement and traction c. Effleurage and pétrissage d. Stretches and joint mobilizations ANS: A

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The two main techniques used in Zen shiatsu are palming and thumbing. 35. Zen shiatsu techniques are performed on the prone client from where toward where? a. Head toward the chest b. Arms toward the chest c. Sacrum toward the feet d. Sacrum toward the chest ANS: C

Zen shiatsu techniques are performed on the prone client from the sacrum to the feet. 36. Which term means palpating the client’s abdomen to assess reflex areas of the channels? a. Gua sha b. Tanden c. Hara evaluation d. Mother hand positioning ANS: C

Palpating the client’s abdomen to assess reflex areas of the channels is called hara evaluation. 37. What finding is the aim of hara evaluation? a. Angle of pressure and apply force until the energy flow is balanced b. Fundamental source of ki flow and synchronize it with the chakras

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c. Source of highest ki energy and project it toward the client’s third eye d. Kyo-jitsu pair of channels that will be the focus of the client’s treatment ANS: D

The aim of hara evaluation is to find the kyo-jitsu pair of channels that will be the focus of the client’s treatment. Working the kyo and jitsu pair of channels is the fastest and most direct way to balance the client’s whole system. 38. Which method is a form of Asian bodywork that consists of stretching and compressive

techniques along energy pathways and on points to balance energy and restore health? a. Reiki b. Thai massage c. Polarity d. Neuromuscular therapy ANS: B

Thai massage is a form of Asian bodywork therapy that consists of stretching and compressive massage techniques along energy pathways and on points to balance energy and restore health. 39. What is Thai massage called in Thailand? a. Tui na b. Jin shin do c. Chi nei tsang d. Nuad bo’rarn ANS: D

In Thailand, Thai massageTisEcalled is Thai for “to touch with the STBAnuad NKSbo’rarn. ELLERNuad .COM intention of imparting healing.” Bo’rarn is Sanskrit for “something that is ancient and revered.” 40. Which term means the body’s energy pathways in Thai massage? a. Sen b. Chee c. Nadis d. Dosha ANS: A

Like the healing traditions of China and Japan, the Thai massage system postulates that the body possess energy pathways called Sen. 41. Which concept is one of the Four Divine States of Mind of Buddhist philosophy? a. Active listening b. Respect and reverence c. Vicarious joy and happiness d. The truth and nothing but the truth ANS: C

The Four Divine States of Mind of Buddhist philosophy are (1) loving kindness, (2) compassion, (3) mental equanimity, and (4) vicarious joy and happiness. 42. Which technique sequence often used during Thai massage?

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a. b. c. d.

1-2-3-4-5 1-2-3-2-1 1-2-1-2-1 1-2-3-4-5-6

ANS: B

Often during treatment, techniques are performed in the sequence 1-2-3-2-1. This pattern sequence is very rhythmic and soothing and is repeated at various locations on the body during a Thai massage session. 43. Which approach is a Hindu system of medicine designed to maintain or improve health

through dietary modification, massage, yoga, and herbal preparations? a. Shiatsu b. Ayurveda c. Thai massage d. Lymphatic massage ANS: B

Ayurveda is India’s traditional healing modality and one of the world’s oldest healing systems currently practiced. It is the Hindu system of medicine designed to maintain or improve health through measures such as diet, massage, yoga, and use of herbal preparations. 44. What are the five basic elements in Ayurveda? a. Earth, air, fire, water, and space b. Air, fire, water, spirit, and metal c. Fire, water, earth, metal, and air d. Wood, fire, earth, metal, and water

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ANS: A

According to Ayurveda, the five elements are earth, air, fire, water, and space (or ether). 45. Which definition is related to the Sanskrit word “dosha?” a. Fault or defect b. Container or vase c. Life force or energy d. The sunny side of the hill ANS: A

The Sanskrit word dosha means a “fault” or “defect.” 46. What are the tri-doshas called? a. One, two, and three b. Vata, pitta, and kapha c. Heaven, earth, and hades d. Wood, metal, and earth ANS: B

The tri-doshas are called vata, pitta, and kapha. 47. Which dosha means wind and is composed of the elements air and space? a. Pitta b. Vata

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c. Mala d. Kapha ANS: B

In Ayurveda, vata means wind and is composed of the elements air and space. 48. Which dosha means bile and is composed of the elements fire and water or just fire? a. Pitta b. Vata c. Mala d. Kapha ANS: A

Pitta, or bile, is made up of the elements fire and water or, according to some sources, just fire. 49. Which dosha means phlegm and is made up of the elements of earth and water? a. Pitta b. Vata c. Mala d. Kapha ANS: D

Kapha means phlegm and is made up of the elements of earth and water. 50. Which Ayurvedic term means a person’s unique natural constitution, determined at the

moment of conception and remaining until death? a. Vayu TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Prakriti c. Meridian d. Shleshman ANS: B

A person’s unique natural constitution is called prakriti and is determined at the moment of conception and remains until death. 51. According to Ayurveda, which aspect is one of the four factors that influences an individual’s

constitutional type? a. Mother b. City of birth c. Family birth order d. Natal astrological sign ANS: A

The four factors that influence a person’s constitutional type are (1) the father, (2) the mother (particularly her food intake), (3) the womb, and (4) the season of the year they were born. 52. According to Ayurveda, which term means the channels in the body where prana energy

flows? a. Sen b. Chee c. Nadis

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d. Dosha ANS: C

Similar to the traditional channels of traditional Chines medicine, the nadis are channels in the body where prana energy flows. 53. Which term means energy centers in the body that located along a central channel or

sushumna? a. Rasas b. Dhatus c. Chakras d. Prakriti ANS: C

Chakras are the energy centers in the body located along a central channel or sushumna. 54. Which number refers to the root chakra? a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Seventh ANS: A

The first chakra is also called the root chakra. 55. Which element corresponds to the first chakra? a. Air b. Fire TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Earth d. Water ANS: C

The element of the first chakra is earth. 56. Which chakra is the fourth one? a. Root b. Brow c. Heart d. Sacral ANS: C

The fourth chakra is also called the heart chakra. 57. Which chakra is represented by the color orange? a. Root b. Brow c. Heart d. Sacral ANS: D

The color orange is representative of the sacral chakra. 58. Which element corresponds to the solar plexus chakra?

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a. b. c. d.

Air Fire Earth Water

ANS: B

The element of the solar plexus chakra is fire. 59. Which number refers to the throat chakra? a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Seventh ANS: C

The fifth chakra is also called the throat chakra. 60. Where is the seventh chakra located? a. The top of the skull b. The base of the spine c. Between the eyebrows d. Below the sternum and above the navel ANS: A

The seventh chakra, or crown chakra, is located on the top of the skull.

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Chapter 17: Business, Marketing, Accounting, and Finance Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement describes most massage therapists according to the American Massage

Therapy Association? a. Most are independent contractors b. Few are older than 30 years of age c. Those working in franchises make the most money per hour d. They chose massage therapy as their primary career ANS: A

Fifty-eight percent of massage therapists describe themselves as sole practitioners with 21% stating they are independent contractors (American Massage Therapy Association [AMTA], 2017a). 2. Which reason is the major cause of business failures in general? a. Incompetence b. Acquired disability c. Professional burnout d. Staff conflict ANS: A

A study conducted by the University of Tennessee found that “incompetence” was the major cause of business failures in general.

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3. Which aspect of business protects the public by enforcing standards that restrict practice to

qualified individuals who have met specific qualifications? a. Occupational license b. Sales tax permit c. Professional liability insurance d. Professional license ANS: D

Professional licensure seeks to protect the public by enforcing standards that restrict practice to qualified individuals who have met specific qualifications in education, work experience, and passing competency exams such as the Massage and Bodywork Licensing Examination or MBLEx issued by the Federation of State Massage Boards. 4. Which type of insurance protects service-providing professionals from bearing the full cost of

defending against a negligence claim made by a client? a. Disability b. Health care c. General liability d. Professional liability ANS: D

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Professional liability insurance is a form of liability insurance which helps protect service-providing professionals and companies from bearing the full cost of defending against a negligence claim made by a client, and damages awarded in a lawsuit. 5. What is another term for professional liability insurance? a. Health insurance b. Disability insurance c. Malpractice insurance d. General liability insurance ANS: C

Professional liability insurance is also called malpractice insurance and errors and omission (E&O) insurance. 6. Which type of insurance provides income when an individual is unable to work because of

illness or injury? a. Disability b. Health care c. General liability d. Professional liability ANS: A

Disability insurance is a form of insurance that provides beneficiary’s income in the event that a disability created a barrier that prevented individuals from completing a core activity associated with their work. 7. What is the minimum number of hours per week an employee needs to work to be considered

full-time? a. 20 b. 28 c. 38 d. 43

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ANS: C

Full-time employees usually work 38-hours or more per week and part-time employees work fewer hours. 8. If a massage therapist works at a place that provides the setting and equipment and determines

when the therapist works and for how long, what is the therapist classified as? a. Employee b. Self-employed c. Sole proprietor d. Independent contractor ANS: A

In any type of employment, the employer usually determines the hours of the day and days of the week of employment. Employers generally provide the place for massage services to be given to clients, the tools and materials required to perform the services, exercise some control over services such as the time of service and length of time spent providing each service, and the fee the client pays for services rendered. In addition, the employer is responsible for the collection of all taxes and provides compensation to the employees.

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9. Which term means a massage therapist who works under terms specified in a written or verbal

agreement, provides own tools and equipment, and sets the fee for services? a. Sole proprietor b. Independent contractor c. Casual employee d. Contract employee ANS: B

Self-employed individuals are usually considered independent contractors, or persons who provide goods or services to another under terms specified in a contract or within a verbal agreement. Independent contractors have special skills, training, or licensure that allows operation without supervision, and they often provide their own tools and equipment. Independent contractors generally provide services in more than one location and cannot be required to sign a non-compete agreement. Self-employed individuals receive a fee based on a completion of a task and the fee is usually determined by the independent contractor, not the individual who is receiving the service, or the business who contracted independent provider. 10. Which document is a brief summary of an individual’s education, experience, and

accomplishments related to a particular skill set? a. License b. Résumé c. Contract d. Proposal ANS: B

A resume is a brief summary of an individual’s education, experiences, and accomplishments ESResumes TBANKS ELtypically LER.Cone OMpage in length and usually organized related to a particular skill Tset. are in reverse chronologic order with the most current events listed first. 11. Which document is an in-depth account of an individual’s education, experience,

accomplishments, and is organized in reverse chronological order? a. License b. Résumé c. Contract d. Curriculum vitae ANS: D

Curriculum vitae (CVs) are an in-depth account of education, experiences, and accomplishments and are also organized in reverse chronological order. CVs are often longer in length compared to resumes. 12. What do the majority of employers look for on resumes and curriculum vitae? a. Technique skills b. Superior knowledge base c. Leadership skills d. Ability to work independently ANS: C

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What more than 80% of employers are looking for on resumes and CVs is evidence of leadership skills and indications that the candidate works well in a team, according to survey conducted by the National Association of Colleges and Employers (2016). 13. Which type of interview involves being questioned by different individuals within a

company? a. Sequential b. Screening c. Electronic d. Panel ANS: A

Sequential interviews are when the applicant is interviewed by different individuals within a company, sometimes within the same day. 14. Which type of business is that of a single owner? a. S-corporation b. Sole proprietorship c. General partnership d. Limited partnership ANS: B

A sole proprietorship is a business of a single owner, with no legal distinction between the business and the owner. 15. Which business entity is between two or more individuals who join together to carry on a

business venture for profit, and have unlimited personal liability for the business’s debts? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. S-corporation b. General partnership c. Sole proprietorship d. Limited liability ANS: B

General partnerships are an agreement between two or more individuals who join together to carry on a business venture for profit. Each partner contributes money, property, labor, or skill, and each partner shares in the business’s profits and losses. Additionally, partners have unlimited personal liability for the business’s debts. 16. Which business entity is granted a charter by the state and has its own privileges and liabilities

distinct from those of its board of directors or its shareholders? a. Corporation b. Sole proprietorship c. General partnership d. Limited partnership ANS: A

Corporations are legal entities that are granted a charter by the state in which it operates and who has its own privileges and liabilities distinct from those of its board of directors or its shareholders.

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17. Which term means dividing geographic areas into regions so a city can restrict the number and

types of buildings within the region as well as how these buildings are used? a. Zoning b. Distributing c. Licensure d. Certification ANS: A

Zoning is dividing of geographic areas into zones so a city or municipality can restrict the number of and types of buildings within the zone as well as how these buildings are used. 18. Which type of insurance protects businesses from bearing the full cost of defending against

claims for damages that arise from personal injury and property damage while clients are on the premises? a. Disability b. Health care c. Commercial general liability d. Professional liability ANS: C

Commercial general liability (CGL) insurance is a type of liability insurance that helps protect business from bearing the full cost of defending against claims for damages resulting from negligence associated with property and day-to-day business operations. Example include bodily injuries when a client slips and falls in the office or property damage when a tree limb falls and damages a client’s car. Commercial general liability insurance is also called premises insurance.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 19. Which expense is a tax deduction? a. Vacation travel b. Leisure clothing c. Continuing education d. Meals eaten during work time ANS: C

Continuing education is a tax deduction. 20. Business receipts, past income tax returns, and documents related to tax returns should be kept

for a minimum of how many years? a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Nine ANS: A

Generally, business records that support an item of income, deduction, or credit shown on your tax return must be kept until the period of limitations for that tax return runs out. The minimum period the IRS says these documents should be kept is 3 years. 21. Which type of tax is levied on small business owners who derive income directly from

consumers? a. Income

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b. Self-employment c. Sales d. Corporate ANS: B

Self-employment taxes are taxes levied on small business owners who derive income directly from consumers as opposed to individuals who are an employee. 22. Which aspect of business involves adding up all costs and profits then dividing this amount by

the number of billable hours? a. Insurance cost b. Hourly expenses c. Social security tax d. Hourly rate ANS: D

To determine an hourly rate, Fishman suggests adding up all costs (labor/salary and overhead) and profits, then dividing this amount by the number of billable hours. 23. Which term means the exchange of goods or services without using money? a. Asset b. Equity c. Barter d. Cash flow ANS: C

Bartering is the exchange of goods or services. Bartering does not include exchanges made on a noncommercial basis. TESTBANKSELLER.COM 24. Which term means a small gift, such as money, given to a person who provided a service? a. Gratuity b. Debt c. Capital d. Deduction ANS: A

Tips or gratuities are discretionary (optional or extra) payments which are given to the therapist as determined by the customer (IRS, 2018c). Tips can be cash or noncash, the latter encompassing gifts such as tickets or gift cards. 25. Which type of conflict management involves listening in a respectful manner, being specific,

and asking for the solution? a. Avoidance b. Competing c. Sympathetic d. Empathetic ANS: D

Steinbrecher recommends an empathetic approach that involves six simple steps to manage conflict. These are 1. Discuss the situation in a respectful manner. 2. Be specific. 3. Discuss how the problem that lead to the conflict impacted you. 4. Ask for the specific cause of the conflict. 5. Ask for the solution. 6. Agree on the action to be taken.

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26. Which term means activities used to create, communicate, deliver, and exchange offerings

that have value for customers and clients? a. Media b. Vision c. Marketing d. Citizenship ANS: C

Marketing is activities used to create, communicate, deliver, and exchange offerings that have value for customers, clients, and the society at large. 27. Which term means an attempt to influence buying behaviors by persuasive selling messages? a. Vision b. Publicity c. Finances d. Advertising ANS: D

Advertising is an attempt to influence buying behaviors of customers or clients by persuasive selling messages. 28. What is the primary method massage therapists use to promote themselves? a. Client referral b. Website c. Social media d. Events ANS: A

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Client referral is the primary method massage therapists promote themselves at 85% followed by the Internet via websites (59%), social media (55%), community and local events (42%), and locator services (30%). The vast majority of massage clients seen by therapists were repeat clients (71%) and majority of massage therapists are actively referring clients to each other. 29. Which term refers to a statement of why a business exists and its core objectives? a. Balance sheet b. Curriculum vitae c. Mission statement d. Professional profile ANS: C

A mission statement is a single statement of why a business exists and its core objectives. 30. Which type of marketing is usually the first opportunity a massage therapist has to make a

strong impression? a. Business card b. Facebook c. Website d. Blog ANS: A

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Business cards are often the first item prospective clients receive, so your business cards are the first opportunity you have to make a strong impression. 31. Which type of marketing is the center of a business’s digital or online presence? a. Blog b. Facebook c. Instagram d. Website ANS: D

Websites are places on the Internet where one or more pages of information are located. Websites are vital to businesses and for good reasons. We live in a digital world, a website is the center of a business’s digital or online presence, and consumers use digital devices connected to the Internet to locate products and services. 32. Which term means the responsible and ethical use of technology? a. Limited liability b. Mission statement c. Digital citizenship d. Independent contractor ANS: C

Digital citizenship is the responsible and ethical use of technology. Digital citizens within virtual communities should treat others with dignity and respect when interacting with others. 33. Which type of marketing is considered word-of-mouth? a. Keeping a website up to date TESTBAtoNaKfriend SELLER.COM b. A client giving a gift certificate c. A blog that has useful information d. Handing out a business card ANS: B

Most often, people who purchase and give gift cards are clients and, because they enjoy the service, they want to share it with others. This is a word-of-mouth advertising. 34. Short professional profiles are how many words or less? a. 30 b. 60 c. 100 d. 500 ANS: C

Short profiles are approximately one paragraph in length using 100 words or less. It covers all essential information; something you might use on LinkedIn. 35. Which process is voluntary and involves specialists in a particular field examining and

endorsing the qualifications of a professional? a. State licensure b. Board licensure c. State registration d. Board certification

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ANS: D

Board certification is the examining and endorsing of the qualifications of a professional by a board of specialty in a particular field. The process is voluntary and different than the process for licensure, which sets the minimum competency requirement to practice massage therapy and is not specialty specific. 36. Which term means an experienced individual within a facility who is paired with a newly

hired individual during his or her orientation period? a. Preceptor b. Mentor c. Sole proprietor d. Independent contractor ANS: A

In health care industries, a preceptor is an experienced individual within the facility who is paired with a newly hired individual during his or her orientation period. A preceptor teaches the new therapist about the company’s policies and procedures, and helps with the acquisition of skills related to the position. 37. Which term means a written or spoken agreement that usually involves business relationships,

and are intended to be legally binding and enforceable by law? a. License b. Résumé c. Contract d. Proposal ANS: C

TESTagreements BANKSEL LEusually R.COM Contracts are written or spoken that involve business relationships, and are intended to be legally binding and enforceable by law. 38. Which term means an idea or suggestion put forward for consideration? a. License b. Résumé c. Contract d. Proposal ANS: D

Proposals are plans or suggestions put forward for consideration and discussion. 39. Which term means the recording and reporting of financial transactions? a. Inventory b. Marketing c. Accounting d. Depreciation ANS: C

Accounting is the recording and reporting of financial transactions, including transaction origination and summarization in financial statements. 40. Which term refers to a small amount of money that a business keeps on hand to pay for minor

business expenses? a. Cash flow

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b. Liabilities c. Petty cash d. Accounts receivable ANS: C

Petty cash is a small amount of cash that a business keeps on hand to pay for minor business expenses. 41. Which term means a presentation of a business entity’s assets, liabilities, and equities of its

owners on a specific date? a. Balance sheet b. Accounts payable c. Accounts receivable d. Profit and loss statement ANS: A

A balance sheet, also called a statement of financial condition, is a presentation of a business entity’s assets, liabilities, and equities of its owners on a specific date. 42. Which term means economic resources that are expected to be of benefit in the future? a. Assets b. Taxes c. Loans d. Liabilities ANS: A

Assets are economic resources that are expected to be of benefit in the future and to which the business or owners have a T legal ESTclaim; BANKthese SELcan LEbe R.tangible COM or intangible items. Examples of tangible assets include property, equipment, and inventory. 43. Which example is a business asset? a. Taxes owed b. Rent and utilities c. Money borrowed from a bank d. Property and equipment ANS: D

Examples of tangible assets include property, equipment, and inventory. 44. Which document reports movement of money into and out of a business during a period of

time? a. Balance sheet b. Accounts receivable c. Cash flow statement d. Mission statement ANS: C

A cash flow statement reports the movement of cash provided to the company (moving into the company) and the movement of cash used by the company (moving out of the company) during a period of time such as a month, quarterly (every 3 months), or annually (every 12 months).

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45. Which term means a business’s net worth? a. Equity b. Capital c. Asset d. Income ANS: A

Equity is a business’s net worth and is derived by deducting liabilities from assets (Assets – Liabilities = Equity). Equity, or capital, belongs to the shareholders or owners of the company. 46. Which document is a statement that shows income and expenses and indicates whether a

business made money or not? a. Balance sheet b. Accounts receivable c. Cash flow statement d. Profit and loss statement ANS: D

A profit and loss (P&L) statement reports a business’s profits or revenues and losses or expenses during a particular period of time. 47. Which document describes a company’s or individual’s organization, services and products,

marketing strategy, and financial projections? a. Business plan b. Treatment plan c. Liability insurance d. Social networking sitesTESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: A

A business plan is a document that describes a business’s organization, services and products, marketing strategy, management style, and financial projections, as well as future plans and strategies for achieving them. 48. In which part of the business plan is the mission statement? a. Company description b. Executive summary c. Market analysis d. Funding request ANS: B

The executive summary briefly states the background of the company, where it is today, where it is headed and why it will be successful or more successful in the future. It Includes a mission statement, products/services, basic information about the company’s organization, and location. 49. In which part of the business plan is the company’s legal structure discussed? a. Company description b. Executive summary c. Organization and management d. Appendix

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ANS: C

In the organization and management section, discuss the company’s legal structure (business entity) and who will run it. Include an organizational chart if applicable. Also, provide a professional profile of key members that includes their qualifications, experience, and education that are important to their role in the company. 50. In which part of the business plan are credit histories, resumes, and copies of licenses and

certifications? a. Company description b. Organization and management c. Marketing and sales d. Appendix ANS: D

Use your appendix to provide supporting documents or other materials where specifically requested. Common items included are personal and business credit histories, resumes and CVs, images of products, references, copies of licenses and certifications, legal documents, insurance policies, and contracts and contact information for consultants.

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Chapter 18: Introduction to the Human Body: Medical Terminology, Cells, Tissues, and the Body Compass Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of the structures of the human body and their positional

relationships to one another? a. Anatomy b. Pathology c. Physiology d. Craniotomy ANS: A

Anatomy is the study of the structures of the human body and their positional relationships to one another. 2. Which term means the study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal body

processes? a. Anatomy b. Pathology c. Physiology d. Craniotomy ANS: C

Physiology is the study of how the body and its individual parts function in normal body TESTBANKSELLER.COM processes. 3. Which term means the study of disease? a. Anatomy b. Pathology c. Physiology d. Craniotomy ANS: B

Pathology or pathophysiology is the study of disease. 4. Which term means the tendency of the body’s internal environment to remain relatively

constant with a narrow range of change? a. Anatomy b. Hemostasis c. Physiology d. Homeostasis ANS: D

Homeostasis is the tendency of the body’s internal environment to remain relatively constant with a narrow range of change. 5. Which prefix means within or inside? a. Dors-

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b. Endoc. Epid. HistoANS: B

Endo- means within or inside, as in endometrium or endocardium. 6. Which suffix means cell? a. -blast b. -cele c. -clast d. -cyte ANS: D

-cyte means cell, as in hemocyte or osteocyte. 7. Which suffix means pain? a. -algia b. -emia c. -itis d. -plasia ANS: A

-algia means pain, as in fibromyalgia or neuralgia. 8. Which sequence represents how the body is organized from least complex to most? a. Cells, tissues, membranes, organs, organ systems, organism b. Chemicals, cells, tissues, organism TEorgans, STBANorgan KSEsystems, LLER.C OM c. Cells, chemicals, organs, tissues, organ systems d. Chemicals, molecules, tissues, cells, organism ANS: B

The human body can be regarded as a universe made up of small components organized to function as a unit. This organization follows a hierarchy based on levels of complexity. The levels from least complex to most complex are chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, and organism. 9. Which term means the inner region of an organ or structure? a. Medulla b. Cortex c. Ipsilateral d. Transverse ANS: A

The medulla is the inner region of an organ or structure. 10. Which term means the space within a hollow or tubular structure, such as an artery or

intestine? a. Cortex b. Lumen c. Ipsilateral d. Transverse

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ANS: B

Lumen is the space with a hollow or tubular structure. 11. The heart, stomach, and brain are examples of which level of organization? a. Cellular b. Tissue c. Organ d. System ANS: C

The organ level is composed of intricate structures containing of two or more tissue types that perform specialized functions. Examples of organs are the heart, kidney, brain, lung, and stomach. 12. Which component is the smallest structural and functional unit that can exist as a

self-sustaining entity? a. Cell b. Atom c. Particle d. Molecule ANS: A

The cell is the smallest structural and functional unit that can exist as a self-sustaining entity. 13. Which structure separates intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid and functions like a

semipermeable filter? a. Golgi apparatus b. Cytoplasm c. Mitochondrion d. Cell membrane

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ANS: D

Each cell is surrounded by a cell membrane that separates intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid. The cell membrane is semipermeable, like a filter, and may contain openings that function like gates in a fence and allows some materials to pass freely and blocks passage of others. 14. Which term is another name for intracellular fluid? a. Nucleus b. Cytoplasm c. Mitochondrion d. Cytoskeleton ANS: B

Cells contain a gel-like intracellular fluid called cytoplasm. 15. Which organelle is a network of curved sacs arranged in parallel rows found near the center of

a cell that helps transport materials? a. Nucleus b. Golgi body c. Mitochondrion

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d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: D

The endoplasmic reticulum is a network of curved sacs arranged in parallel rows found near the center of a cell. This organelle helps transport cellular materials. 16. Which organelle provides adenosine triphosphate and cellular energy? a. Nucleus b. Golgi body c. Mitochondrion d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: C

Mitochondria are the cell’s “power plant,” because most of the chemical reactions involved in cellular respiration happen here. These reactions provide most of the cell’s adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the cell’s energy molecule. 17. Which organelle breaks down unneeded proteins and pathogens by engulfing and destroying

them using digestive enzymes? a. Nucleus b. Lysosome c. Mitochondrion d. Ribosome ANS: B

Lysosomes are the cell’s janitors or “garbage disposals.” They break down proteins that are not needed and engulf and destroy pathogens using digestive enzymes.

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18. Which organelle is the control center of the cell, directing most metabolic activities? a. Nucleus b. Golgi body c. Mitochondrion d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: A

The nucleus is the cell’s “control center” or its brains because it directs most metabolic activities, including growth and reproduction. 19. Which part is the network of microfilaments and microtubules that provides an internal

structure to many cells? a. Cytosol b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Plasma membrane d. Cytoskeleton ANS: D

Many cells contain a network of microfilaments and microtubules called a cytoskeleton. This network serves as scaffolding material to provide an internal structure to the cell. 20. What are fingerlike cellular extensions called? a. Cilia b. Flagella

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c. Spinoza d. Microvilli ANS: D

Microvilli are fingerlike projections on the lining of the lower gastrointestinal (GI) tract to help increase its surface area which improves absorption of nutrients. 21. Which process is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of

low concentration? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis ANS: C

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. During diffusion, molecules simply spread out, or diffuse, in a given space or across a cell membrane. 22. Which process is movement of water across a membrane from an area of low concentration to

high concentration to equalize the fluid concentration on both sides of the membrane? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis ANS: A

Osmosis is the movement T ofEwater across aL cell STBA NKSE LEmembrane R.COM from an area of low concentration to high concentration to equalize the fluid concentration on both sides of the membrane. Water moves instead of other molecules to create equilibrium. 23. Which process is the movement of water and molecules across a cell membrane due to

pressure? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis ANS: B

Filtration is the movement of water and molecules across a cell membrane due to pressure. 24. Which type of transport involves carrier molecules within the membrane that facilitate active

transport? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Cell respiration d. Pump mechanisms ANS: D

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Pump mechanisms can facilitate active transport. These pumps are carrier molecules located within the cell membrane. Because of their location, carrier molecules are also called membrane pumps. The carrier molecule functions like a clamshell. When a certain ion binds to a carrier molecule, the shell closes, the ion is carried inside, then the shell opens on the other side of the membrane to expel the ion. 25. Which process involves a piece of the cell membrane wrapping around large molecules and

drawing them inside the cell? a. Osmosis b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Phagocytosis ANS: D

During phagocytosis or cell eating, a piece of the cell membrane is wrapped around large molecules and they are drawn inside the cell. 26. Which term means groups of similar cells that act together to perform specific functions? a. Organs b. Tissues c. Molecules d. Organelles ANS: B

Tissues are groups of similar cells that act together to perform specific functions. Tissues organize themselves into organs.

EST BANKStypes ELLof ERtissues? .COM 27. Which terms represent theT four principal a. Alpha, beta, delta, and theta b. Heart, lung, brain, and kidney c. Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital d. Epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous ANS: D

There are four principal types of tissue: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue, and nervous tissue. 28. Which type of fluid is found in extracellular spaces between tissues? a. Amniotic b. Interstitial c. Lymphatic d. Peritoneal ANS: B

Interstitial fluid is found in the extracellular spaces between tissues. It bathes cells and provides a transport medium for nutrients, gases, and wastes. 29. Which embryologic tissue layer gives rise to structures of the nervous system, including

special senses and the epidermis of the skin? a. Ectoderm b. Endoderm

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c. Mesoderm d. Echinoderm ANS: A

Ectoderm is the outermost embryologic tissue layer and gives rise to structures of the nervous system including special senses and the epidermis of the skin. 30. Which type of tissue covers external and internal structures, and lines open and closed body

cavities? a. Nervous b. Muscular c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: C

Epithelial tissue, or epithelium, lines or covers external and internal body structures; lines open body cavities, such as the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts; and closed body cavities, such as the heart and abdomen. 31. Which function does epithelium perform? a. Motion of parts of the body b. Insulation for warmth and cushioning c. Integration of sensory information d. Secretion of hormones and enzymes ANS: D

Secretion of hormones, enzymes, mucus, other lubricating fluids occur through epithelium.

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32. Which type of tissue forms the framework for organs and glands, and provides transportation

and defensive functions? a. Nervous b. Muscular c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: D

Connective tissues form the framework for organs and glands and for the body as a whole. It transports nutrients and wastes, as well as providing defensive functions such as blood clotting and inflammatory responses. Connective tissue is the most abundant tissue type. 33. Which type of tissue is predominately fat and serves as storage for surplus food and as

insulation to conserve body heat? a. Adipose b. Glandular c. Epithelial d. Cartilaginous ANS: A

Adipose tissue is predominately fat and serves as storage for surplus food, as insulation to conserve body heat, as well as support and protection for certain structures such as the heart, kidneys, and some joints.

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34. Which type of cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of bones and connects ribs to the

sternum? a. Elastic b. Hyaline c. Reticular d. Fibrous ANS: B

Hyaline is the most prevalent type of cartilage and covers the articulating surfaces of bones, connects ribs to the sternum, and is found as supportive tissues in the nose, ears, trachea, and smaller respiratory tubes. 35. Which component is a connective tissue? a. Muscle b. Nerve c. Blood d. Gland ANS: C

The three types of cartilage are (1) hyaline, (2) fibrocartilage, and (3) elastic. 36. Which type of tissue is regarded as the movement specialist of the body? a. Nervous b. Muscular c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: B

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Muscle tissue is regarded as the movement specialist of the body. Muscle tissue possesses properties of excitability or the ability to respond to a stimulus. 37. What are the three types of muscle tissue? a. Cilia, microvilli, and flagella b. Smooth, cardiac, and skeletal c. Hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic d. Ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm ANS: B

The three types of muscle tissue are smooth or visceral muscle, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle. 38. Which type of muscle tissue is located in the walls of hollow organs and within tubes? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Skeletal d. Parietal ANS: A

Smooth muscle, also called visceral muscle, is located in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, bladder, and uterus, and within tubes, such as the intestines and blood vessels. 39. Which type of muscle tissue is attached to bones?

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a. b. c. d.

Smooth Cardiac Skeletal Parietal

ANS: C

Skeletal muscle is attached to bones and is the most abundant muscle tissue type. Not only do skeletal muscles help us move, but they also maintain posture and produce heat. 40. Which type of tissue provides sensory input, motor output, and helps interpret and coordinate

bodily functions? a. Nervous b. Muscular c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: A

Nervous tissue is located in the brain, spinal cord, and within nerves. Nerve cells, or neurons, transmit nerve impulses, which provide sensory input and motor output, and help interpret and coordinate bodily functions. 41. What are the processes of tissue repair? a. Osmosis, diffusion, and filtration b. Metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism c. Anaerobic, aerobic, and active transport d. Inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling ANS: D

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When tissues are damaged by injury or infection, they begin a process of repair and healing. This involves specific steps beginning with inflammation and, depending on the severity of the damage, regeneration and remodeling. 42. Which process is characterized by swelling, heat, a loss of function, redness, and pain? a. Local inflammation b. Homeostasis c. Phagocytosis d. Active transport ANS: A

Local inflammation, also called acute inflammation, has vascular, cellular, and chemical components. It involves inflammation contained to a specific area and characterized by swelling, heat, a loss of function, redness, and pain. 43. Which tissue heals rapidly? a. Tendon b. Cartilage c. Bone d. Epithelium ANS: D

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Epithelial tissue has cells that divide rapidly and regenerate the tissue quickly and easily. On the other end of the spectrum, cartilage repairs slowly because of its lack of blood supply. Muscle has an extensive blood supply and can heal relatively quickly, whereas bone tissue takes longer to heal, and tendons and ligaments take even longer because they have a sparse blood supply. 44. Which membrane lines open body cavities? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. Cutaneous ANS: A

Mucous membranes line open body cavities. 45. Which membrane lines closed body cavities? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. Cutaneous ANS: B

Serous membranes line closed body cavities. 46. What are the two layers found in most serous membranes? a. Cortex and medulla b. Parietal and visceral TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Tissue and organ d. Central and peripheral ANS: B

Serous membranes consist of two layers—a parietal layer and a visceral layer. The parietal layer covers the walls of body cavities like wallpaper and often adheres to it. The visceral layer covers the visceral organs located within the body cavity. 47. Which membrane lines cavities or spaces between bones and joints? a. Mucous b. Serous c. Synovial d. Cutaneous ANS: C

Synovial membranes line cavities or spaces between bones and joints—mainly freely movable joints such as the shoulder, hip, and knee. These membranes secrete a thick clear fluid called synovial fluid or synovium. 48. Which statement describes anatomic position? a. Lying supine with the palms of the hands flat on the floor b. Standing with the palms facing forward and the toes pointing forward c. Standing with the palms facing each other and the toes pointing to the side d. Lying prone with both feet hip-distance apart, the toes pointing downward

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ANS: B

In anatomic position the body is standing upright and facing forward, the arms are at the sides, palms are facing forward with the thumbs to the side, and feet are hip distance apart with toes pointing forward. 49. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves? a. Frontal b. Coronal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal ANS: D

The midsagittal plane runs through the midline of the body, dividing it into equal right and left halves. 50. Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections? a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal ANS: A

The frontal plane, or coronal plane, bisects the body side-to-side and divides the body into anterior and posterior sections. 51. Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections? a. Frontal TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Midsagittal ANS: C

The transverse plane or horizontal plane bisects the body horizontally and divides the body into superior and inferior sections. 52. Which term means situated below or toward the tail end of a structure? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Proximal ANS: A

Inferior means situated below or toward the tail end of a structure. 53. Where is the mandible in relation to the forehead? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Superior d. Posterior ANS: A

The mandible is inferior to the forehead.

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54. Which term means located on the back of a structure? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Posterior d. Proximal ANS: C

Posterior means located on the back of a structure. 55. Where is the heart in relation to the vertebral column? a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Superior d. Posterior ANS: B

The heart is anterior to the vertebral column. 56. Which term means oriented toward or near the midline of the body? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Inferior d. Superior ANS: A

Medial means oriented toward or near the midline of the body.

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57. Which term means related to opposite sides of the body? a. Medial b. Anterior c. Ipsilateral d. Contralateral ANS: D

Contralateral means related to opposite sides of the body. 58. Where is the wrist in relation to the elbow? a. Distal b. Medial c. Lateral d. Proximal ANS: A

The wrist is distal to the elbow. 59. Which cavities is the dorsal cavity subdivided into? a. Cranial and spinal b. Anterior and posterior c. Abdominal and pelvic d. Thoracic and abdominopelvic ANS: A

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The dorsal cavity is located on the backside or posterior aspect of the body and is further divided into a cranial cavity and a spinal cavity. 60. Which cavities is the ventral cavity subdivided into? a. Cranial and spinal b. Anterior and posterior c. Abdominal and pelvic d. Thoracic and abdominopelvic ANS: D

The larger ventral cavity is located on the front side or anterior aspect of the body and is further divided by the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity. 61. Which cavity contain the reproductive and urinary organs? a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Abdominal d. Thoracic ANS: A

The pelvic cavity contains the reproductive and urinary organs. 62. Which quadrant contains the gallbladder? a. Left upper b. Left lower c. Right upper d. Right lower ANS: C

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The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder. 63. Which term is given to the uppermost central portion of the nine regions of the body? a. Epigastric b. Umbilical c. Right iliac d. Left lumbar ANS: A

The uppermost central portion of the nine body regions is the epigastric region. 64. Which term refers to the upper cheek? a. Costal b. Orbital c. Temporal d. Zygomatic ANS: D

Zygomatic refers to the region of the upper cheek. 65. Which term refers to the ribs? a. Costal b. Buccal

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c. Temporal d. Zygomatic ANS: A

Costal refers to the region of the ribs. 66. Which term refers to the armpit? a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Antecubital ANS: A

Axillary refers to the armpit. 67. Which term refers to the forearm? a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Antebrachial ANS: D

Antebrachial refers to the forearm. 68. Which term refers to the thumb? a. Pollex b. Brachial c. Femoral TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Antecubital ANS: A

Pollex refers to the thumb. 69. Which terms refers to the thigh? a. Axillary b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Antebrachial ANS: C

Femoral refers to the thigh. 70. Which term refers to the fingers or toes? a. Plantar b. Calcaneal c. Dorsum d. Digital ANS: D

Digital refers to the fingers or toes.

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Chapter 19: Skeletal System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Where in bone are blood cells produced? a. Haversian canal b. Hyaline cartilage c. Red bone marrow d. Yellow bone marrow ANS: C

Blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones, especially long bones, through a process called hematopoiesis. 2. Which term means blood cell production? a. Hyperemia b. Hematopoiesis c. Remodeling d. Ossification ANS: B

Blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones, especially long bones, through a process called hematopoiesis. 3. Which term refers to the hard outer shell of a bone? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Compact b. Trabecular c. Cancellous d. Osteoporotic ANS: A

Compact bone constitutes approximately 80% of the total adult bone mass and forms the hard outer shell of bone. 4. What is the central passageway of an osteon that contains the bone’s blood supply and nerves

called? a. Haversian canal b. Diaphysis c. Trebecula d. Volkmann’s canal ANS: A

Each osteon surrounds a central canal that runs lengthwise through the bone. The central canal, also called Haversian canal, contain blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves. 5. Which term refers to the lighter and less dense area of a bone? a. Compact b. Spongy c. Irregular

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d. Sesamoid ANS: B

Spongy bone, or cancellous bone, constitutes approximately 20% of the total bone mass, and is lighter and less dense than compact bone. 6. Which cells destroy bone? a. Fibroblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteoblasts d. Chondroclasts ANS: B

Osteoclasts are bone-destroying cells. 7. Which cells form bone? a. Fibroblasts b. Osteoclasts c. Osteoblasts d. Chondroclasts ANS: C

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells. 8. Which term means the process of bone development? a. Oscillation b. Ossification c. Mobilization TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Colonization ANS: B

Ossification, or osteogenesis, is the process of bone tissue development by osteoblasts. 9. The bones in the spine are in which category? a. Flat b. Short c. Irregular d. Sesamoid ANS: C

Irregular bones are oddly-shaped and do not fit well in other shape/size categories. Irregular bones are found in the skull and the spine (vertebrae). 10. Which bones are small, rounded, and embedded in tendons? a. Flat b. Short c. Irregular d. Sesamoid ANS: D

Sesamoid bones are round and usually embedded in tendons. Sesamoid bones are found in the knee (patella), hands, and feet.

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11. Which term means the long cylindrical shaft of a bone? a. Meniscus b. Epiphysis c. Diaphysis d. Periosteum ANS: C

The diaphysis is the long cylindrical shaft of a bone. 12. What term means the dense, fibrous sheath that surrounds the diaphysis? a. Meniscus b. Epiphysis c. Diaphysis d. Periosteum ANS: D

The periosteum surrounds the diaphysis and is a dense, fibrous sheath that contains blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves, and osteoblasts for growth and fracture healing. 13. Which term means the hollow space within the center of the diaphysis? a. Meniscus b. Metaphysis c. Medullary cavity d. Epiphyseal cavity ANS: C

The medullary cavity is the hollow space within the diaphysis. It is filled with red and yellow bone marrow, which are soft TEsubstances. STBANKSELLER.COM 14. Which term means the two ends of a long bone? a. Bursae b. Epiphyses c. Diaphyses d. Periosteum ANS: B

The two ends of a long bone are the epiphyses (epiphysis, sing.). 15. What covers the articulating surfaces of bone? a. Bursae b. Periosteum c. Bone marrow d. Hyaline cartilage ANS: D

Articular cartilage covers the surfaces of the epiphyses. This type of cartilage is hyaline and provides the smooth surfaces for movement within joints. Periosteum does not extend over articular cartilage. 16. Where does bone grow in length? a. Epiphyseal plate b. Medullary cavity

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c. Periosteum d. Diaphysis ANS: A

In growing bone, an epiphyseal plate of hyaline cartilage is found between the diaphysis and epiphysis. Bone grows in length at the epiphyseal plate. 17. The skeletal system is divided into which two regions? a. Acute and chronic b. Central and peripheral c. Systemic and regional d. Axial and appendicular ANS: D

The skeletal system is divided into the axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. 18. How many bones are in the skull? a. 10 b. 14 c. 29 d. 33 ANS: C

Twenty-nine bones are located in the skull. 19. Which bone is located in the axial skeleton? a. Femur b. Radius TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Sternum d. Metatarsal ANS: C

The sternum is located in the axial skeleton. 20. Which bone is located in the appendicular skeleton? a. Skull b. Sacrum c. Scapula d. Sternum ANS: C

The scapula is located in the appendicular skeleton. 21. Which term means the place where bones come together or join? a. Diaphysis b. Periosteum c. Articulation d. Hematopoiesis ANS: C

Joints are where two or more bones come together or “join.” Other terms for joint is articulation or arthrosis (arthro- means joint).

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22. Which type of joint has extremely limited movement capabilities? a. Synovial b. Diarthrotic c. Synarthrotic d. Ball and socket ANS: C

Movement in synarthrotic joints, or synarthroses, is not permitted or extremely limited under normal conditions. 23. Which type of joint is freely movable? a. Fibrous b. Diarthrotic c. Synarthrotic d. Cartilaginous ANS: B

Diarthrotic joints, or diarthroses, are freely movable joints. Diarthrotic joints are common in the appendicular skeleton and include joints in the shoulders (glenohumeral joints) and hips (acetabulofemoral joints). 24. Which structure unites articulating bones? a. Labrum b. Bursa c. Tendon d. Ligament ANS: D

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Ligaments unite articulating bones, which strengthens the joint. 25. Which type of fluid is found in cavities of freely movable joints? a. Mucus b. Serous c. Lymph d. Synovial ANS: D

Synovial fluid fills the joint cavity, decreases friction as the bones in the joint move, lubricates the joint cavity, and provides nourishment and shock absorption. The 26. Which structures are flattened and saclike, and located between ligaments or tendons and

bones? a. Bursae b. Synovia c. Periosteum d. Metaphysis ANS: A

Some synovial joints contain bursae, flattened saclike structures between ligaments or tendons and bones that act as cushions to reduce friction 27. Which type of joint provides movement in one axis?

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a. b. c. d.

Biaxial Triaxial Uniaxial Nonaxial

ANS: C

Uniaxial joints move around only one axis and in only one plane. Types of uniaxial joints are hinge and pivot. 28. Which type of joint has movements limited to flexion and extension? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Saddle d. Ball and socket ANS: B

Hinge joints possess a convex surface on one bone that fits into a concave surface of another bone. The movement in hinge joints are similar to the movement of two board joined together by a hinge which allows the angle of the joint to decrease, causing flexion, or increase, causing extension. 29. Which type of joint has movements limited to rotation? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Saddle d. Ball and socket ANS: A

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Pivot joints possess a ringed or notched surface of one bone that fits into a projection of another bone. Movement in pivot joints are limited to rotation around the length of a bone. 30. Which type of joints, found in the thumb, possess a concave surface facing one direction and a

convex surface facing the other direction? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Saddle d. Ball and socket ANS: C

Saddle joints possess a concave surface of one bone that fits into a convex surface of another bone. 31. Which type of joint contains an oval-shaped surface of one bone that fits into a depression or

socket of another bone, allowing the bone to travel back and forth and from side to side? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Ellipsoidal d. Ball and socket ANS: C

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Condyloid joints possess an oval-shaped surface or condyle of one bone that fits into a depression or socket of another bone. This position allows one bone to travel back-and-forth (flexion and extension) and side-to-side (abduction and adduction). 32. Which type of joint provides movement in all three cardinal planes? a. Biplanar b. Uniplanar c. Nonplanar d. Multiplanar ANS: D

Multiaxial joints permit movement around three axes and in three planes. Types of multiaxial joints are ball and socket and gliding. 33. Which type of joint has is the most movable? a. Pivot b. Hinge c. Ellipsoidal d. Ball and socket ANS: D

Ball and socket joints consist of the ball-shaped end of one bone fitting into a socket-shaped surface of another bone. This position allows the first bone to move in many directions around a central joint. Ball and socket joints are our most movable synovial joints. 34. Which movement is bending of a joint so that the angle of the joint decreases? a. Flexion TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction ANS: A

Flexion is bending a joint so that the angle between the bones decreases. 35. Which movement is toward the midline of the body? a. Flexion b. Extension c. Abduction d. Adduction ANS: D

Adduction is movement toward the midline of the body. 36. Which movement is conical in which one end of the body is fixed and the other end moves in

a circle? a. Rotation b. Retraction c. Protraction d. Circumduction ANS: D

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Circumduction is circular or conical movement in which one end of the body is relatively fixed and the other end moves in a circle. 37. Which movement occurs when a bone pivots around its own central axis? a. Rotation b. Pronation c. Supination d. Dorsiflexion ANS: A

Rotation occurs when a bone pivots or rotates around its own central axis. 38. Which movement is lateral rotation in which the bones of the forearm are parallel and the

palm faces anteriorly? a. Inversion b. Pronation c. Supination d. Dorsiflexion ANS: C

Supination is lateral rotation in which the bones of the forearm are in a parallel position and the palms face anteriorly. 39. Which movement occurs when the ankle causes the foot to move superiorly in the direction of

the top of the foot? a. Inversion b. Pronation c. Supination d. Dorsiflexion

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ANS: D

Dorsiflexion is movement of the ankle as the foot moves superiorly in the direction of the dorsum of the foot—the toes are moving toward the shin or leg bones. 40. Which movement is in an anterior direction? a. Rotation b. Retraction c. Protraction d. Circumduction ANS: C

Protraction is movement in an anterior or forward direction. 41. Which pathology is an accumulation of synovial fluid behind the knee? a. Gout b. Baker cyst c. Osteoporosis d. Adhesive capsulitis ANS: B

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A Baker cyst is an accumulation of synovial fluid behind the knee. Classified as a type of ganglion, a Baker cyst can be an accumulation of synovial fluid within the normal bursae or a separate cystic structure. 42. Which pathology is inflammation of a cushioning sac? a. Bursitis b. Baker cyst c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis ANS: A

Inflammation of a bursa is called bursitis. 43. Which condition is a pouchlike structure filled with synovial fluid that arises from joint

capsules or tendon sheaths? a. Gout b. Baker cyst c. Ganglion cyst d. Bursitis ANS: C

A ganglion cyst is a pouchlike structure filled with synovial fluid. These cysts are common and arise from joint capsules or tendon sheaths, usually on the wrist (90% of cases). 44. Which of the following pathologies results from deposition of uric acid crystals in joints? a. Gout b. Baker cyst TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Osteoporosis d. Ganglion cyst ANS: A

Gout is a type of arthritis resulting from the deposition of uric acid crystals in joints. Uric acid is a waste product that is normally excreted by the kidneys. 45. Which condition is an exaggeration of the normal posterior curvature in the thoracic spine? a. Osteoporosis b. Lordosis c. Scoliosis d. Kyphosis ANS: D

Kyphosis is an exaggeration of the normal posterior or kyphotic curvature in the thoracic spine. Some curvature is normal (20 to 40 degrees), but kyphosis refers to an excessive rounding of more than 45 to 50 degrees. 46. Which condition is an exaggeration of the normal anterior curvature in the lumbar spine? a. Osteoporosis b. Lordosis c. Scoliosis d. Kyphosis ANS: B

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Lordosis is an exaggeration of the normal anterior or lordotic curvature in the lumbar spine. Some curvature is normal, but lordosis refers to an excessive curvature. Lordosis is also called hyperlordosis, swayback, or saddleback. 47. Which pathology is characterized by inflammation of the joint capsule and progressive joint

damage, leading to loss of articular cartilage? a. Cellulitis b. Baker cyst c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis ANS: C

The most common form of arthritis, osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by inflammation of the joint capsule and progressive joint damage, leading to eventual loss of articular cartilage. 48. Which pathology is loss of normal bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures? a. Bursitis b. Gout c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteoporosis ANS: D

Osteoporosis is loss of normal bone density and is the most common bone disease. Both compact bone and spongy bone are affected; spongy bone becomes thin and sparse, whereas compact bone becomes porous. As bones lose density, they become brittle and weak, resulting in increased susceptibility to fractures.

TESinflammatory, TBANKSELsystemic LER.COdisease M 49. Which pathology is a chronic, that destroys synovial membranes? a. Gout b. Baker cyst c. Osteoporosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: D

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, inflammatory, and systemic type of arthritis in which synovial membranes are destroyed. Over time, inflammation spreads to articular cartilages, joint capsules, surrounding ligaments, and the underlying bone. 50. Which condition is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the spine,

usually in the thoracic region? a. Osteoporosis b. Lordosis c. Scoliosis d. Kyphosis ANS: C

Scoliosis is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the spine, usually in the thoracic region. The lumbar and cervical regions may also be involved.

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Chapter 20: Muscular System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means continuous and partial contraction of skeletal muscles? a. Gait b. Posture c. Muscle tone d. Muscle twitch ANS: C

Muscle tone or tonus is the continuous and partial contraction of skeletal muscles, or muscle’s resistance to stretch while muscles are not contracting. Muscle tone helps to maintain posture and declines during sleep. 2. Which function does the muscular system perform? a. Filtration of wastes b. Heat production c. Exchange of gases d. Immune responses ANS: B

Muscles provide movement, heat production, and posture maintenance. 3. Which term means heat production? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Thermogenesis b. Homeostasis c. Glycolysis d. Extensibility ANS: A

Skeletal muscles are the most metabolically active structures in the body and produce a significant amount of heat. This mechanism is called thermogenesis and is important for maintaining body temperature. 4. Which term means the covering of a muscle cell? a. Epimysium b. Sarcoplasm c. Perimysium d. Sarcolemma ANS: D

Sarcolemma is the cell membrane that surrounds muscle fibers. 5. What is the basic unit of contraction in a muscle cell? a. Fascicle b. Retinacula c. Sarcomere d. Perimysium

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ANS: C

Myofibrils contain repeating compartments along their entire length called sarcomeres; these are the basic units of contraction. 6. Which term refers to a thin filament protein? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Fascicle d. Sarcolemma ANS: A

Thin filaments are made of three proteins: actin, tropomyosin, and troponin. 7. Which term refers to a thick filament? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Fascicle d. Sarcolemma ANS: B

Myosin composes the thick filaments which are located in the center of the sarcomere. 8. Which ion does the sarcoplasmic reticulum store and release? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Potassium d. Phosphorus ANS: B

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The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a system of interconnected hollow tubes and plays a key role in muscular contractions by storing and releasing calcium ions. 9. Which tissue surrounds the entire muscle? a. Epimysium b. Perimysium c. Endomysium d. Endometrium ANS: A

Muscles are groups of fasciculi that are surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called epimysium and anchored to bone by tendons. 10. Which structure anchors muscles to bone? a. Tendon b. Fascicle c. Ligament d. Retinaculum ANS: A

Muscles are groups of fasciculi that are surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called epimysium and anchored to bone by tendons.

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11. Which structure is a broad, flat tendon? a. Retinaculum b. Fascicle c. Ligament d. Aponeurosis ANS: D

A broad, flat tendon is called aponeurosis, and it attaches muscle to bone, muscle to other muscle, or muscle to skin. 12. Which structure is a band of connective tissue that acts like a bracelet to help stabilize tendons

and keep them in place? a. Actin b. Myosin c. Fascicle d. Retinaculum ANS: D

Retinacula are bands of connective tissues that act like bracelets to help stabilize tendons to keep them in place and may also function as pulleys for tendons. Retinacula are found primarily around the elbows, knees, ankles, and wrists. 13. Which term means the tendinous attachment on bone that is less movable during contraction? a. Belly b. Origin c. Insertion d. Inversion

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ANS: B

Muscle origins are the tendinous attachment on the less movable or more stable bones during contraction. 14. Which of the following is the tendinous attachment on the bone and is more movable during

contraction? a. Belly b. Origin c. Insertion d. Inversion ANS: C

Muscle insertions are the tendinous attachment on more movable bones during contraction. Insertions usually move toward origins. 15. Which phenomenon occurs when a muscle’s origin moves toward the insertion? a. Threshold stimulus b. Functional reversibility c. Isometric contraction d. Power stroke ANS: B

Functional reversibility occurs when muscles reverse their relationship between attachment sites and muscle origins move toward their insertions.

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16. Which state are muscle cells in when they receive a stimulus by the nervous system via a

motor neuron? a. Elastic b. Excited c. Contracted d. Relaxed ANS: B

Muscle fibers become excited when they receive a stimulus by the nervous system via a motor neuron. 17. What is the model of muscle contraction called? a. Lever system b. Sliding filament c. Proprioceptive sense d. Action potential ANS: B

The mechanism of muscle contraction is called sliding filament model. 18. Which area contains the motor end plate, the terminal end of the motor neuron, and the

synaptic gap? a. Sarcolemma b. Sarcomere c. Neuromuscular junction d. Axon terminal ANS: C

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The neuromuscular junction has three parts: the motor end plate, the terminal end of the motor neuron, and the synaptic gap located between the motor end plate and the motor neuron. 19. What is the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction? a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Epinephrine d. Acetylcholine ANS: D

Synaptic vesicles located at ends of the motor neuron are filled with the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACH), the principal neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction. 20. Which term refers to folded sections of the sarcolemma that are part of the neuromuscular

junction? a. Endomysium b. Thick filament c. Muscle spindle d. Motor end plate ANS: D

The motor end plate is composed of folded sections of the sarcolemma (the cell membrane of the muscle fiber). This structure contains receptor sites for ACH.

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21. Which term refers to myosin pulling thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere? a. Recruitment b. Power stroke c. Cross-bridge formation d. Functional reversibility ANS: B

Myosin heads are hinged at their base and, after cross-bridging, myosin pulls the thin filaments toward the center of the sarcomere or the H zone. These actions are comprise the power stroke. 22. Which term refers to a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates? a. Fascicle b. Motor unit c. Motor end plate d. Retinaculum ANS: B

A motor unit is a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates. 23. Which term means motor unit activation based on need? a. Tonus b. Excitability c. Recruitment d. All-or-none response ANS: C

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The process of motor unit activation based on need is known as recruitment. 24. Which chemical is the universal unit of energy in the cell? a. Calcium b. Growth hormone c. Acetylcholine d. Adenosine triphosphate ANS: D

The main sources of energy for muscle contraction are adenosine triphosphate (ATP), glucose, and oxygen. ATP is the universal unit of energy in the cell. 25. Which molecule is the red respiratory pigment found in sarcoplasm? a. Glucose b. Myoglobin c. Acetylcholine d. Dopamine ANS: B

During rest, oxygen is stored in myoglobin located in the sarcoplasm until it is needed. Myoglobin is a red respiratory pigment similar to hemoglobin in red blood cells because it stores oxygen. 26. Which term refers to the stage of glucose breakdown that uses oxygen?

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a. b. c. d.

Recruitment Thermogenesis Aerobic glycolysis Anaerobic glycolysis

ANS: C

The stage of glycolysis called aerobic glycolysis uses oxygen to produce energy. This process creates the equivalent of 36 ATP molecules. 27. Breathing heavily after strenuous exercise is due to which process? a. Tonus b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Oxygen debt d. Thermogenesis ANS: C

Lactic acid forms as an end product of anaerobic glycolysis. Some lactic acid diffuses into the blood and makes its way to the liver to be converted back to glucose. This process is one reason why a person may continue to breathe heavily after strenuous exercise. This action repays the oxygen debt by using oxygen gained by heavy breathing to process the lactic acid produced during physical activity. 28. Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as type 1 muscle fibers, or red muscle? a. Fast twitch b. Slow twitch c. Moderate twitch d. Intermediate twitch

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ANS: B

Muscle fibers that contain large amounts of myoglobin and mitochondria, and have copious amounts of blood capillaries, are called type 1. Because type 1 contains larger amount of myoglobin and blood vessels, they take on a deeper red appearance and are called red muscle fibers. Slow twitch fibers contract more slowly, for longer periods of time, and they take longer to fatigue. Type 1 or red fibers are also classified as slow twitch fibers. 29. Which type of athletes tend to have a high ratio of slow twitch muscles present in their lower

extremities? a. Boxers b. Sprinters c. Tennis players d. Marathon runners ANS: D

Marathon runners tend to have more type 1 or slow twitch fibers in their lower extremities than other athletes such as tennis players or sprinters. 30. Which type of muscle fibers are referred to as type 2 or white muscle? a. Fast twitch b. Slow twitch c. Moderate twitch d. Intermediate twitch

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ANS: A

Type 2 muscle fibers contain less myoglobin, mitochondria, and blood capillaries compared with type 1. Because of these characteristics, type 2 muscle fibers are lighter in color and are called white muscle fibers. Fast twitch fibers contract more quickly and for shorter periods of time. 31. Which term refers to contractions that cause a muscle to shorten in length while generating

force? a. Physiologic b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Concentric ANS: D

During concentric contractions, muscles shorten in length while generating force. Examples of concentric contractions are the biceps during a biceps curl and the quadriceps during leg extensions. 32. Which term refers to contractions that generate force while muscle length remains the same,

without movement occurring? a. Isotonic b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Concentric ANS: C

During isometric contractions, muscles are generating force while their length remains the ESoccur. TBAN KSELLcontractions ER.COM often occur in fixators or same and movement does T not Isometric stabilizers because they stabilize joints so that the primary muscles (called prime movers and synergists) performing the action are able to do so. 33. Which class of levers involves the fulcrum positioned between the load and the pull? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: A

In class 1 levers, the fulcrum is positioned between the load and the pull or L – F – P. This arrangement resembles a seesaw or pair of scissors. 34. Which classification has parallel muscle fiber arrangement? a. Pennate b. Circular c. Fusiform d. Convergent ANS: C

Parallel or fusiform muscles have their fibers arranged along the long axis of bone, and are usually tapered at both ends or are spindle-shaped.

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35. Which classification has muscle fibers joining at one end with fibers spreading out like a fan

at the other end? a. Pennate b. Circular c. Fusiform d. Convergent ANS: D

Convergent muscle fibers have fibers joining at one end with fibers spreading out like a fan at the other end. Convergent muscles often have a triangular shape. 36. Which classification has muscles fibers arranged as a central tendon with muscle fibers

emerging diagonally, giving them a featherlike appearance? a. Pennate b. Circular c. Fusiform d. Convergent ANS: A

Pennate muscles are arranged as a central tendon with muscle fibers emerging diagonally, giving them a featherlike appearance. 37. Which classification of muscles cause specific or desired movements? a. Fixators b. Synergists c. Antagonists d. Agonists

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ANS: D

Prime movers or agonists are muscles causing the desired action. 38. Which classification of muscles assist prime movers by performing the same movement at the

same time? a. Fixators b. Agonists c. Synergists d. Antagonists ANS: C

Synergists are muscles that assist prime movers by performing the same movement at the same time. 39. Which classification of muscles lengthen while prime movers and their synergists contract to

produce the desired action? a. Fixators b. Agonists c. Synergists d. Antagonists ANS: D

Antagonists are muscles that lengthen while prime movers and their synergists contract to produce the desired action.

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40. Which classification of muscles cross two joints? a. Isotonic b. Postural c. Biarticular d. Uniarticular ANS: C

Biarticular muscles cross two joints. 41. Which condition is inflammation of the tendinous sheath located on the radial side of the

wrist? a. Fibromyalgia syndrome b. Osgood–Schlatter disease c. de Quervain tenosynovitis d. Myofascial pain syndrome ANS: C

De Quervain tenosynovitis, also called de Quervain tendinitis, is inflammation of the tendon sheaths located on the radial side of the wrist. This tendon sheath surrounds two muscles of the thumb: abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. 42. Which condition is characterized by localized areas or tender points, widespread pain, joint

stiffness, and fatigue, with the affected person having no signs of inflammation or degeneration in the tissues? a. Fibromyalgia syndrome b. Osgood–Schlatter disease TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. de Quervain tenosynovitis d. Myofascial pain syndrome ANS: A

Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) is characterized by tenderness in localized areas or tender points, widespread pain, joint stiffness, fatigue, non-refreshing sleep, and mood problems. In a person with FMS, there are no signs of inflammation or degeneration in the tissues. 43. Which condition is characterized by the presence of trigger points and muscular pain? a. Fibromyalgia syndrome b. Osgood–Schlatter disease c. de Quervain tenosynovitis d. Myofascial pain syndrome ANS: D

Myofascial pain syndrome is characterized by the presence of trigger points and muscular pain. 44. Which condition involves patellar tendinitis at the tibial tuberosity in immature bone? a. Fibromyalgia syndrome b. Osgood–Schlatter disease c. de Quervain tenosynovitis d. Myofascial pain syndrome ANS: B

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Osgood-Schlatter disease, also called tibial tuberosity apophysitis, is patellar tendinitis at the tibial tuberosity in immature bone. It is seen more often in children 11 to 13 years of age who participate in sports such as soccer, basketball, volleyball, and gymnastics. 45. Which condition is chronic inflammation of the fascia on the bottom of the foot? a. Tendinitis b. Torticollis c. Shin splints d. Plantar fasciitis ANS: D

Plantar fasciitis is chronic inflammation of the plantar fascia. This thick band of fascia is located on the plantar surface of the foot, attaches to the calcaneus, and fans toward the toes. 46. Which condition is characterized pain along the medial tibia? a. Tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Shin splints d. Plantar fasciitis ANS: C

Shin splints, also called medial tibial stress syndrome, is the term used to describe pain along the medial tibia. The most common cause is overuse. 47. Which condition occurs when muscles or tendons become overstretched or torn? a. Strain b. Sprain TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Tendinitis d. Tenosynovitis ANS: A

A strain, also called a pulled muscle, occurs when a muscle or its tendons become overstretched or torn. In contrast, a sprain is damage to ligaments. Muscles become strained when they are overstretched or when they experience violent contraction or synergistic failure. 48. Which condition is inflammation of a tendon? a. Strain b. Sprain c. Tendinitis d. Torticollis ANS: C

Inflammation of a tendon(s) is known as tendinitis or tendonitis. Tendinosis is degeneration of a tendon. Tendinosis is often mislabeled as tendinitis, but inflammation usually is not present in tendinosis. 49. Which term refers to a group of disorders involving spasms of sternocleidomastoid? a. Strain b. Sprain c. Tendinitis d. Torticollis

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ANS: D

Torticollis is a group of disorders involving spasms of the sternocleidomastoid. Other neck muscles, such as the scalenes, trapezius, and the splenius muscles, may also be involved. 50. Which condition is a strain of the cervical spine, most commonly at the junction of fourth and

fifth cervical vertebrae? a. Whiplash b. Shin splints c. Plantar fasciitis d. de Quervain tenosynovitis ANS: A

Whiplash is a strain of the cervical spine, most commonly at the junction of the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae. It also may involve upper and lower cervical segments. During the causative event, the head is thrown backward and forward rapidly (acceleration and deceleration); the upper four cervical vertebrae act as the lash, and the lower three act as the handle of a whip, hence the term whiplash.

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Chapter 21: Kinesiology Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of human motion? a. Anatomy b. Oncology c. Physiology d. Kinesiology ANS: D

Kinesiology is the study of human motion. 2. Which bone is in the upper extremity? a. Ilium b. Tibia c. Radius d. Temporal ANS: C

The radius is a bone of the upper extremity. 3. Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the upper extremity? a. Sternoclavicular b. Scapulohumeral TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Acromioclavicular d. Glenohumeral ANS: A

The upper extremities join the axial skeleton at the sternoclavicular joints. 4. Injury to the acromioclavicular joint would involve which end of the clavicle? a. Medial b. Superior c. Lateral d. Anterior ANS: C

An injury to the acromioclavicular joint would be located at the lateral end of the clavicle. 5. Which bone is most commonly fractured in the body? a. Scapula b. Clavicle c. Humerus d. Sternum ANS: B

The clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone in the body. 6. What are the bones of the shoulder girdle?

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a. b. c. d.

Femur and tibia Radius and ulna Sacrum and pelvis Clavicle and scapula

ANS: D

The clavicle and the scapula make up the shoulder girdle or pectoral girdle. 7. Which joint is located at the medial end of the clavicle? a. Sternocostal b. Costochondral c. Sternoclavicular d. Acromioclavicular ANS: C

The medial end or sternal end of the clavicle articulates with the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint, or the SC joint. 8. Which bone contains the acromion process? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Scapula d. Clavicle ANS: C

The scapula contains the acromion process. 9. Which bone articulates with TEthe STclavicle BANKSand ELthe LEhumerus? R.COM a. Ulna b. Radius c. Scapula d. Metacarpal ANS: C

The scapula articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint, or AC joint, and with the humerus at the glenohumeral joint or shoulder joint. 10. What is the scientific name for the shoulder joint? a. Radiocarpal joint b. Glenohumeral joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Acromioclavicular joint ANS: B

The glenohumeral joint is the shoulder joint. 11. Which bone contains the deltoid tuberosity? a. Ulna b. Scapula c. Clavicle d. Humerus

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ANS: D

The deltoid tuberosity is located on the humerus bone. 12. Which joint do the humeroradial joint and the humeroulnar joint form? a. Wrist b. Elbow c. Knuckle d. Shoulder ANS: B

The humeroradial joint and the humeroulnar joint form the elbow joint. 13. Which bone is in the medial forearm? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Humerus d. Scaphoid ANS: A

The ulna is the medial forearm bone. 14. Which bone contains the olecranon process? a. Ulna b. Radius c. Scapula d. Clavicle ANS: A

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The ulna contains the olecranon process. 15. Which bone is in the lateral forearm? a. Ulna b. Humerus c. Radius d. Pisiform ANS: C

The radius is the lateral forearm bone. 16. Which joint allows supination and pronation? a. Radioulnar joint b. Humeroulnar joint c. Humeroradial joint d. Sternoclavicular joint ANS: A

The movements of the radioulnar joints are supination and pronation. 17. During supination and pronation, the radius rotates over which bone? a. Ulna b. Scapula c. Clavicle

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d. Humerus ANS: A

The radius rotates over the ulna during the actions of supination and pronation. 18. Which term is collective for the wrist bones? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: B

The carpal bones are the wrist bones. 19. Each wrist contains how many carpal bones? a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14 ANS: B

Each wrist contains 8 carpal bones. 20. Which bone is a carpal? a. Hyoid b. Xiphoid c. Pisiform d. Cuneiform

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ANS: C

The pisiform is one of the carpal bones. 21. Which bones articulate with the radius and the metacarpals? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: B

The carpals articulate with the radius at the radiocarpal joint or wrist joint and with the metacarpals at the carpometacarpal joints, or CMC joints. 22. What is the scientific name for the wrist joint? a. Radiocarpal joint b. Glenohumeral joint c. Sternoclavicular joint d. Acromioclavicular joint ANS: A

The radiocarpal joint is the wrist joint. 23. Which structure forms one of the sides of the carpal tunnel? a. Nuchal ligament

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b. Extensor retinaculum c. Sacrotuberous ligament d. Flexor retinaculum ANS: D

The carpal tunnel is a tunnel surrounded on three sides by carpal bones and on one side by the transverse carpal ligament or flexor retinaculum. 24. Which bones are located in each hand and numbered I through V? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: D

The metacarpals are located in each hand and numbered I through V. 25. Each hand contains how many phalanges? a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14 ANS: D

Each hand contains 14 phalanges. 26. At which joints do the proximal phalanges in the fingers articulate with the middle phalanges? a. Carpometacarpal TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Metatarsophalangeal c. Distal interphalangeal d. Proximal interphalangeal ANS: D

The distal ends of the proximal phalanges in the fingers articulate with their middle phalanges at the proximal interphalangeal joints, or PIP joints. 27. Which bone is in the lower extremity? a. Ulna b. Tibia c. Radius d. Humerus ANS: B

The tibia is a bone of the lower extremity. 28. Which three bones are fused to form the pelvis? a. Ilium, ischium, and pubis b. Sacrum, pubis, and femur c. Ischium, patella, and calcaneus d. Pubis, patella, and lateral pterygoid ANS: A

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The pelvic bones consist of three fused bones: the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis. 29. What is the scientific name for the hip socket? a. Ganglion b. Acromion c. Olecranon d. Acetabulum ANS: D

The acetabulum, or acetabular cavity, is the deep hip socket made from portions of all three pelvic bones. The acetabulum articulates with the proximal end of the femur or femoral head at the acetabulofemoral joint or hip joint. 30. What is the scientific name for the hip joint? a. Sacroiliac joint b. Talocrural joint c. Tibiofemoral joint d. Acetabulofemoral joint ANS: D

The acetabulofemoral joint is the scientific name for the hip joint. 31. Which term describes the position of the pelvis as it rests on the femurs? a. Pelvic tilt b. Plantar flexion c. Planar obliquity d. Pelvic stabilization ANS: A

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Pelvic tilt refers to the position of the pelvis as it rests on the femurs. 32. Which section is the superior pelvic bone? a. Pubis b. Ilium c. Sacrum d. Ischium ANS: B

The ilium bones are the superior pelvic bones. 33. Which joint connects the axial skeleton to the lower extremity? a. Sacroiliac b. Talocrural c. Patellofemoral d. Acetabulofemoral ANS: A

The lower extremities join the axial skeleton at the sacroiliac joints. 34. Which bone is also called the sitz bone because correct seated posture involves resting the

weight of the upper body on one of its bony markings? a. Pubis

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b. Ilium c. Sacrum d. Ischium ANS: D

The ischium bones are also called the sitz bones, because correct seated posture involves resting the weight of the upper body on the ischial tuberosities. 35. What are the attachments of the sacrotuberous ligament? a. Ischial spine to the sacrum b. Sacrum to the ischial tuberosity c. Sciatic notch to the lesser trochanter d. Ischial spine to the greater trochanter ANS: B

The sacrotuberous ligament is a triangular-shaped ligament that extends from the sacrum to the ischial tuberosity and provides stability to the pelvis. 36. What is the longest bone in the body? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Ischium ANS: C

The femur is the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone in the body. 37. What is the scientific nameTfor joint? ESthe TBknee ANKS ELLER.COM a. Sacroiliac joint b. Talocrural joint c. Tibiofemoral joint d. Acetabulofemoral joint ANS: C

The tibiofemoral joint is the scientific name for the knee joint. 38. Which term refers to a half-ringed fibrocartilage disk inside the knee? a. Labium b. Meniscus c. Cruciate d. Innominate ANS: B

The lower portion of the knee contains half-ringed fibrocartilage disks called the medial and lateral meniscus. 39. Which knee ligament is often torn during knee injuries? a. Tibial collateral b. Anterior cruciate c. Fibular collateral d. Posterior cruciate

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ANS: B

The anterior cruciate ligament, or ACL, is often torn during knee injuries. 40. Which ligament connect the kneecap to the tibial tuberosity? a. Patellar b. Cruciate c. Annular d. Collateral ANS: A

The patellar ligament connect the kneecap to the tibial tuberosity. 41. Which bone is also called the kneecap? a. Talus b. Patella c. Sacrum d. Calcaneus ANS: B

The patella is the kneecap, the largest sesamoid bone in the body. 42. Which bone is the medial leg bone? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Patella ANS: A

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The tibia is the medial leg bone.

43. Which bony markings are located at the distal ends of the tibia and fibula? a. Malleoli b. Foramina c. Epicondyles d. Tuberosities ANS: A

The medial malleolus is located at the distal end of the tibia, and the lateral malleolus is located at the distal end of the fibula. 44. Which bone articulates with the tibia and the talus? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Femur d. Patella ANS: B

The fibula articulates with the tibia and with the talus at the talocrural joint or ankle joint. 45. What is the scientific name for the ankle joint? a. Sacroiliac joint b. Talocrural joint

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c. Tibiofemoral joint d. Acetabulofemoral joint ANS: B

The talocrural joint is the scientific name for the ankle joint. 46. Which bone is a tarsal? a. Hamate b. Pisiform c. Scaphoid d. Navicular ANS: D

The navicular is one of the tarsal bones. 47. Which bone is the heel? a. Cuboid b. Navicular c. Calcaneus d. Cuneiform ANS: C

The calcaneus is the heel bone. 48. How many tarsal bones does each foot contain? a. 5 b. 7 c. 12 TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. 14 ANS: B

There are 7 tarsal bones in each foot. 49. Which arch is located on the inner edge of the foot and is very prominent in people who have

high arches? a. Metatarsal b. Transverse c. Lateral longitudinal d. Medial longitudinal ANS: D

The medial longitudinal arch is located on the inner edge of the foot and is very prominent in people who have high arches. 50. Which bones are located in each foot and numbered I through V? a. Tarsals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Metacarpals ANS: C

The metatarsals are located in each foot and numbered I through V.

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51. At which joints do the middle phalanges in the toes articulate with the distal phalanges? a. Carpometacarpal b. Metatarsophalangeal c. Distal interphalangeal d. Proximal interphalangeal ANS: C

The middle phalanges of the foot articulate with the distal phalanges at the distal interphalangeal joints, or DIP joints. 52. Which bone contains the mastoid process? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Sphenoid d. Temporal ANS: D

The mastoid process is located on the temporal bone. 53. Where is the sphenoid bone located? a. Foot b. Skull c. Hand d. Wrist ANS: B

The sphenoid bone is located in the skull.

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54. Which bone contains the sella turcica? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Sphenoid d. Temporal ANS: C

The sella turcica is located in the sphenoid bone. 55. Which bone is the forehead? a. Temporal b. Parietal c. Occipital d. Frontal ANS: D

The frontal bone is the forehead. 56. Which suture is located between the two parietal bones? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Squamosal d. Lambdoidal

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ANS: A

The sagittal suture is located between the two parietal bones. 57. Which joint is bilateral and contains an articular disk similar to the meniscus of the knee? a. Atlantoaxial b. Zygapophyseal c. Atlantooccipital d. Temporomandibular ANS: D

The temporomandibular joint is located between the temporal bones and the mandible. This bilateral joint is unique because it contains an articular disk similar to the meniscus of the knee. 58. Which joint is between the skull and the first cervical vertebra? a. Atlantoaxial b. Zygapophyseal c. Atlantooccipital d. Temporomandibular ANS: C

The occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra (C1) and forms the atlantooccipital joint, or yes–yes joint. This joint permits up-and-down movements of the head, or head nodding. 59. Which structure is the zygomatic arch? a. Jaw TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Chin c. Forehead d. Cheekbone ANS: D

The zygomatic arch is also called the cheekbone. 60. Which structure is formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic

process of the temporal bone? a. Temporal fossa b. Zygomatic arch c. Anterior fontanel d. Foramen magnum ANS: B

The zygomatic arch or cheekbone is formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone. 61. Which bone is suspended from the styloid process of the temporal bone by ligaments and does

not articulate directly with any other bone? a. Hyoid b. Xiphoid c. Pisiform d. Cuneiform

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ANS: A

The hyoid does not articulate directly with any other bone and is suspended from the styloid process of the temporal bone by ligaments. 62. How are ribs 1 through 7 classified? a. True ribs b. False ribs c. Floating ribs d. Tangent ribs ANS: A

Ribs can be classified as true ribs or false ribs. A rib is said to be “true” if it connects to the sternum. A rib is said to be “false” if it does not connect to the sternum. Ribs 1–7 are true ribs. Ribs 8–12 are false ribs. 63. Which joint is located between a rib and a thoracic vertebra? a. Atlantoaxial b. Costovertebral c. Zygapophyseal d. Atlantooccipital ANS: B

Ribs articulate posteriorly with the thoracic vertebrae at the costovertebral joints. 64. Which bone contains the manubrium and the xiphoid process? a. Atlas b. Hyoid TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Sacrum d. Sternum ANS: D

The sternum is the breastbone and contains three regions: the manubrium, the sternal body, and the xiphoid process. 65. Which ligament connects each vertebra and is located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral

column? a. Deltoid b. Annular c. Supraspinous d. Sacrotuberous ANS: C

The supraspinous ligament is located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral column (spinous processes) and connects each vertebra. 66. Which ligament extends from the occipital bone at the external occipital protuberance to the

posterior aspect of all cervical vertebrae? a. Nuchal b. Deltoid c. Sacrotuberous d. Transverse carpal

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ANS: A

The nuchal ligament extends from the occipital bone at the external occipital protuberance to the posterior aspect of all cervical vertebrae (spinous processes). The nuchal ligament in the posterior neck is continuous with the supraspinous ligament. 67. Which spinal regions contains only five vertebrae? a. Lumbar region b. Cervical region c. Thoracic region d. Sacrococcygeal region ANS: A

The lumbar region contains five vertebrae. 68. Which structure contains the annulus fibrosus and the nucleus pulposus? a. Lamina b. Vertebral body c. Intervertebral disk d. Superior articular process ANS: C

Intervertebral disks are located between each vertebral body. These fibrocartilage disks contain two regions, annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus. Annulus fibrosus is the tough outer ring and nucleus pulposus is the gel-like center. 69. Which structures can be palpated at the midline of the back and neck? a. Laminae TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Vertebral bodies c. Spinous processes d. Transverse processes ANS: C

A spinous process projects posteriorly and generally inferiorly from the posterior region of the arch. The spinous process can be palpated at the midline of the back and neck. 70. Which structures project laterally from most vertebral arches? a. Pedicles b. Laminae c. Spinous processes d. Transverse processes ANS: D

Two transverse processes project laterally from most vertebral arches. 71. What structures emerge from the intervertebral foramina? a. Spinal ligaments and tendons b. Spinal nerves and blood vessels c. Meninges and cerebrospinal fluid d. Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus ANS: B

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Intervertebral foramina are openings created between adjacent pedicles, which allow passage of spinal nerves and blood vessels. 72. Which vertebra is also called the atlas? a. C1 b. C2 c. C5 d. T1 ANS: A

C1 or atlas is ring-shaped and lacks a vertebral body and pedicles. 73. Which vertebra contains the odontoid process? a. C1 b. C2 c. C5 d. T1 ANS: B

C2 or axis possesses the dens which is a bony protrusion that projects superiorly. 74. Which joint is located between the first and second vertebrae? a. Atlantoaxial b. Costovertebral c. Zygapophyseal d. Atlantooccipital ANS: A

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C2 or axis possesses the dens which is a bony protrusion that projects superiorly. The dens or odontoid process articulates with the atlas at the atlantoaxial joint or no-no joint. This joint permits side-to-side head turning or head shaking. 75. Which spinal region contains demifacets on most of its vertebrae? a. Lumbar b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Sacrococcygeal ANS: C

Thoracic vertebrae are characterized by facets and demifacets located on the vertebral bodies and transverse processes. 76. Which bone is triangular-shaped and located between the two pelvic bones? a. Axis b. Atlas c. Hyoid d. Sacrum ANS: D

The sacrum is a triangular-shaped bone located between the two pelvic bones. The sacrum represents five fused vertebrae and contains anterior and posterior sacral foramina for passage of sacral nerves.

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77. Which joints involve the pelvis? a. Pubic symphysis, iliofemoral, sacrotuberal b. Acetabulofemoral, patellofemoral, tibiofemoral c. Sacroiliac, pubic symphysis, acetabulofemoral d. Sacroiliac, chondrocostal, tibiofibular ANS: C

The joints of the pelvis are the sacroiliac joints, pubic symphysis, and acetabulofemoral joints. 78. Which bone is the tailbone? a. Patella b. Coccyx c. Sacrum d. Xiphoid ANS: B

The coccyx or tailbone is small triangular-shaped bone located at the base of the vertebral column. The coccyx represents three to five fused bones. 79. Which muscle has one of its origins on the external occipital protuberance? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Serratus anterior ANS: A

The origins of trapezius areTE the external occipital superior nuchal line, nuchal ST BANKS ELLERprotuberance, .COM ligament, and spinous processes of C7–T12. 80. Which muscle elevates the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: A

Trapezius elevates the scapula, upwardly rotates the scapula, retracts the scapula, and depresses the scapula. 81. Which muscle is also called the “coat hanger muscle” because clothes hang from it as if from

a coat hanger? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Pectoralis minor d. Serratus anterior ANS: A

Trapezius is called the coat hanger muscle because clothes hang from it as if from a coat hanger. 82. Which muscle has its origins on most of the cervical transverse processes?

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a. b. c. d.

Trapezius Rhomboids Levator scapulae Serratus anterior

ANS: C

Levator scapulae originates on the transverse processes of C1–C4. 83. Which muscle retracts the scapula? a. Rhomboid major b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: A

Rhomboid major and minor and middle trapezius retract the scapula. 84. Which term is collective for two muscles that include a major and a minor? a. Rhomboids b. Levator scapulae c. Deltoids d. Erector spinae ANS: A

Rhomboids is the collective term for rhomboid major and rhomboid minor. 85. Which muscles are also called the “Christmas tree muscle” because their oblique fiber

direction resembles Christmas branches? TEStree TBA NKSELLER.COM a. Deltoids b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Erector spinae ANS: B

The rhomboids are called the Christmas tree muscle because of their oblique fiber direction which resemble Christmas tree branches. 86. Which muscle does NOT attach at the medial border of the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Levator scapulae ANS: A

The trapezius does not attach on the medial border of the scapula. 87. Which muscle protracts the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Levator scapulae d. Serratus anterior

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ANS: D

Serratus anterior protracts the scapula. 88. Which muscle is an antagonist to the rhomboids in scapular retraction? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis major ANS: C

Serratus anterior protracts the scapular and is thus an antagonist to the rhomboids in scapular retraction. 89. Which muscle is also called the “boxer’s muscle” because it protracts the scapula to help a

boxer deliver a knockout punch? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: C

Serratus anterior and triceps brachii are called the boxer’s muscles because they protract the scapula and extend the elbow to deliver a “knockout” punch. 90. Which muscle is deep to the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: C

Serratus anterior lies between the scapula and the ribcage. 91. Which muscle inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Pectoralis minor d. Serratus anterior ANS: C

Pectoralis minor inserts on the coracoid process of the scapula. 92. Which muscle is involved in “winged scapula?” a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Pectoralis minor d. Serratus anterior ANS: D

Winged scapula occurs when the nerve supply of the serratus anterior is damaged, leading to the scapula protruding outward like a wing.

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93. Which muscle is called a “neurovascular entrapper” because it can entrap the brachial plexus

and axillary artery? a. Trapezius b. Rhomboids c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis minor ANS: D

Pectoralis minor is called neurovascular entrapper because they can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery and is accentuated when the arm is hyperabducted. Entrapment may lead to signs and symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) or other conditions. 94. Which muscle originates on the spinous processes of T7–L5, ribs 9–12, the posterior iliac

crest, and the posterior sacrum? a. Deltoid b. Latissimus dorsi c. Pectoralis major d. Coracobrachialis ANS: B

Latissimus dorsi originates on the spinous processes of T7–L5, ribs 9–12, the posterior iliac crest, and the posterior sacrum. 95. Which muscle extends the humerus? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Pectoralis minor TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Latissimus dorsi ANS: D

Latissimus dorsi extends the humerus, medially rotates the humerus, and adducts the humerus. 96. Which muscle is also called the “swimmer’s muscle?” a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: C

Latissimus dorsi is called the swimmer’s muscle because many of its actions are involved in swimming. 97. Which muscle is the widest in the body? a. Trapezius b. Subscapularis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: C

Latissimus dorsi is the widest muscle of the body and forms the posterior axillary fold. 98. Which muscle is called “lat’s twin?”

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a. b. c. d.

Teres major Teres minor Subscapularis Coracobrachialis

ANS: A

Teres major is called lat’s twin because it performs the same action as the lats and is its synergist. 99. Which muscles are the rotator cuff group? a. Infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres major, and subclavius b. Teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, pectoralis minor, and subscapularis d. Subclavius, infraspinatus, teres major, and supraspinatus ANS: B

The rotator cuff muscles are the teres minor, subscapularis, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus. 100. Which of the following rotator cuff muscles does NOT originate within a fossa? a. Supraspinatus b. Teres minor c. Infraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: B

Teres minor does not originate within a fossa. 101. Which rotator cuff muscleT abducts the humerus? ESTBA NK SELLER.COM a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: C

Supraspinatus abducts the humerus. 102. Which muscle is located directly inferior to the scapular spine? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: B

Infraspinatus is located directly inferior to the scapular spine. 103. Which muscle laterally rotates the humerus? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: A

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Infraspinatus laterally rotates the humerus. 104. Which muscle is synergistic to teres minor for lateral rotation of the humerus? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: A

Teres minor and infraspinatus are synergists, and their fibers may fuse. 105. Which rotator cuff muscle is located on the anterior aspect of the scapula? a. Teres major b. Subscapularis c. Infraspinatus d. Supraspinatus ANS: B

Subscapularis muscle is located on the anterior aspect of the scapula. 106. Which rotator cuff muscle inserts on the lesser tubercle? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: D

Subscapularis inserts on the TElesser STBtubercle. ANKSELLER.COM 107. Which muscle medially rotates the humerus? a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: D

Subscapularis medially rotates the humerus. 108. Which muscle is also called the “frozen shoulder muscle?” a. Deltoid b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis ANS: D

Subscapularis is called the frozen shoulder muscle as myofascial triggers points may lead to reduced shoulder mobility. 109. Which muscle is divided into anterior, middle, and posterior regions? a. Deltoid b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi

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d. Pectoralis major ANS: A

The deltoid or delts can be divided into three regions that perform separate actions. The anterior deltoid flexes and medially rotates the humerus. The middle deltoid abducts the humerus. The posterior deltoid extends and laterally rotates the humerus. 110. Which muscle is divided into clavicular, sternal, and costal regions? a. Deltoid b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: D

Pectoralis major or pecs form the anterior axillary fold (the lats form the posterior axillary fold). This muscle possesses clavicular, sternal, and costal regions. 111. Which muscles are responsible for shoulder flexion? a. Triceps brachii and serratus anterior b. Supraspinatus and posterior deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi and teres major d. Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid ANS: D

The muscles responsible for shoulder flexion are pectoralis major and anterior deltoid, as well as the coracobrachialis and biceps brachii. 112. Which muscles form the anterior and TESTB ANposterior KSELLaxillary ER.COfolds? M a. Teres major and teres minor b. Deltoid and coracobrachialis c. Infraspinatus and supraspinatus d. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi ANS: D

Pectoralis major forms the anterior axillary fold, and latissimus dorsi forms the posterior axillary fold. 113. Excessive muscle tension in which muscle can cause angina-like pain? a. Infraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectoralis major ANS: D

Excessive muscle tension in the pecs may cause postural distortions, such as rounded shoulders and angina-like pain. 114. Which muscle originates on the coracoid process of the scapula? a. Infraspinatus b. Supraspinatus c. Subscapularis d. Coracobrachialis

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ANS: D

Coracobrachialis originates on the coracoid process of the scapula. 115. Which landmark is an insertion of biceps brachii? a. Ulnar tuberosity b. Radial tuberosity c. Olecranon process d. Coracoid process ANS: B

Biceps brachii inserts on the radial tuberosity and the bicipital aponeurosis. 116. Which muscle supinates the forearm? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: A

Biceps brachii supinates the forearm and flexes the elbow. 117. Which muscle is called the corkscrew muscle because its actions are involved in uncorking a

wine bottle? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis

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ANS: A

Biceps brachii is called the corkscrew muscle, because two of its movements are used when opening a bottle with a corkscrew: first biceps unscrews the cork via supination, then it pulls the cork out with elbow flexion. 118. Which nerve innervates biceps brachii? a. Median b. Vagus c. Musculocutaneous d. Trigeminal ANS: C

Biceps brachii is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve. 119. Which muscle inserts on the ulnar tuberosity and the coronoid process of the ulna? a. Anconeus b. Supinator c. Brachialis d. Brachioradialis ANS: C

Brachialis inserts on the ulnar tuberosity and the coronoid process of the ulna. 120. Which muscle is deep to biceps brachii?

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a. b. c. d.

Anconeus Brachialis Pronator teres Coracobrachialis

ANS: B

Brachialis is deep to biceps brachii. 121. Which muscle can be palpated as the bulge on the radial side of the forearm? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: C

Brachioradialis can be palpated as the bulge on the radial side of the forearm. 122. Which muscle inserts at the styloid process of the radius? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: C

Brachioradialis inserts at the styloid process of the radius. 123. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process? a. Biceps brachii TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: B

Triceps brachii inserts on the olecranon process. 124. Which muscle is also called the “boxer’s muscle” because it helps a boxer deliver a knockout

punch? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis ANS: B

Triceps brachii and serratus anterior are occasionally called the boxer’s muscles because they work simultaneously to extend the elbow and protract the scapula to deliver a boxer’s “knockout” punch. 125. Which muscle extends the elbow? a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii c. Brachioradialis d. Coracobrachialis

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ANS: A

Triceps brachii extends the elbow. 126. Which muscle inserts on the olecranon process? a. Anconeus b. Brachialis c. Pronator teres d. Palmaris longus ANS: A

Anconeus inserts on the olecranon process. 127. Which area contains anconeus? a. Hip b. Knee c. Elbow d. Shoulder ANS: C

Anconeus is located in the elbow area. 128. Which muscle pronates the forearm and flexes the elbow? a. Brachialis b. Pronator teres c. Biceps brachii d. Supinator ANS: B

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Pronator teres pronates the forearm and flexes the elbow. 129. The common flexor tendon is located on which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: B

The common flexor tendon is located on the medial epicondyle of the humerus. 130. Which muscle pronates the forearm? a. Supinator b. Anconeus c. Triceps brachii d. Pronator quadratus ANS: D

Pronator quadratus pronates the forearm. 131. Which muscle supinates the forearm? a. Supinator b. Anconeus c. Triceps brachii

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d. Pronator quadratus ANS: A

Supinator supinates the forearm. 132. Where do most flexors of the wrist originate? a. Radial tuberosity b. Deltoid tuberosity c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Medial epicondyle of the humerus ANS: D

Most flexors of the wrist originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus. 133. Which muscle is located on the anterior side of the forearm? a. Extensor digitorum b. Extensor carpi ulnaris c. Abductor pollicus longus d. Flexor digitorum superficialis ANS: D

Flexor digitorum superficialis is located on the anterior side of the forearm. 134. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation associated with which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle ofTE the scapula ST BANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, can occur with forceful repetitive flexion of the wrist. 135. Which area is located between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis? a. Radial pulse b. Thenar eminence c. Anatomic snuffbox d. Hypothenar eminence ANS: A

The radial pulse is located between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis. 136. Which muscle flexes the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Flexor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: B

Flexor carpi ulnaris flexes the wrist. 137. Which muscle abducts the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Flexor carpi radialis

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c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: B

Flexor carpi radialis abducts the wrist. 138. The common extensor tendon is located on which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: C

The common extensor tendon is located on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. 139. Tennis elbow is inflammation associated with which bony marking? a. Coronoid process of the ulna b. Medial epicondyle of the humerus c. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus d. Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula ANS: C

Lateral epicondylitis or tennis elbow can occur with forceful repetitive extension of the wrist. 140. Which muscle extends the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Palmaris longus c. Opponens pollicus TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: D

Extensor carpi ulnaris extends the wrist. 141. Which muscle adducts the wrist? a. Brachioradialis b. Flexor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor digitorum d. Extensor carpi ulnaris ANS: D

Extensor carpi ulnaris adducts the wrist. 142. Which muscle is called the “tea drinker’s muscle” because it extends the little finger when

raising a teacup? a. Extensor indicus b. Extensor carpi ulnaris c. Extensor digiti minimi d. Extensor pollicis longus ANS: C

Extensor digiti minimi is called the tea drinker’s muscle because it extends the little finger when raising a teacup.

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143. Which muscle extends the index finger? a. Palmaris longus b. Extensor indicis c. Opponens pollicis d. Abductor digiti minimi ANS: B

Extensor indicis extends the index finger. 144. Which area is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis,

and abductor pollicis longus? a. Radial pulse b. Thenar eminence c. Anatomic snuffbox d. Hypothenar eminence ANS: C

The anatomic snuffbox is formed by tendons of extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus. This space on the lateral wrist is where snuff or powdered tobacco used to be placed before it was inhaled through the nose. 145. Which area is located on the lateral side of the palm and formed by flexor pollicis brevis,

opponens pollicis, and abductor pollicis brevis? a. Radial pulse b. Thenar eminence c. Anatomic snuffbox d. Hypothenar eminence

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ANS: B

Flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and abductor pollicis brevis form the thenar eminence, or thumb pad, located on the lateral side of the palm. 146. Which area is located on the medial side of the palm and is formed by flexor digiti minimi,

abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi? a. Radial pulse b. Thenar eminence c. Anatomic snuffbox d. Hypothenar eminence ANS: D

Flexor digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, and opponens digiti minimi form the hypothenar eminence, located on the medial side of the palm. 147. Which muscle originates on the transverses processes of the lumbar vertebrae? a. Iliacus b. Adductor brevis c. Piriformis d. Psoas major ANS: D

Psoas major originates on the transverse processes of T12–L5, the vertebral bodies of T12–L5, and the intervertebral disks of lumbar vertebrae.

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148. Which muscle flexes the hip? a. Psoas major b. Semitendinosus c. Gluteus maximus d. Semimembranosus ANS: D

Psoas major flexes the hip. 149. Which muscle has its origins near the abdominal aorta? a. Gracilis b. Piriformis c. Psoas major d. Tensor fascia latae ANS: C

The origins or proximal attachments of psoas major lie near the abdominal aorta. 150. Which muscle originates on the iliac fossa? a. Iliacus b. Pectineus c. Piriformis d. Gracilis ANS: A

Iliacus originates on the iliac fossa.

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151. Which muscle inserts on the lesser trochanter? a. Gracilis b. Iliopsoas c. Sartorius d. Pectineus ANS: B

Iliopsoas inserts on the lesser trochanter. 152. Which muscle is a synergist to iliopsoas? a. Piriformis b. Rectus femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus maximus ANS: B

Rectus femoris is a synergist to iliopsoas for hip flexion. 153. Which muscle is the largest lateral rotator of the hip? a. Piriformis b. Pectineus c. Obturator internus d. Quadratus femoris ANS: A

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Piriformis is the largest lateral rotator of the hip. 154. Approximately 15% of the population has part or all of the sciatic nerve running through

which muscle? a. Gracilis b. Sartorius c. Pectineus d. Piriformis ANS: D

Part or all of the sciatic nerve runs through piriformis in approximately 15% of the population. 155. What is the origin of piriformis? a. Ischial ramus b. Anterior sacrum c. Anterior superior iliac spine d. Posterior superior iliac spine ANS: B

Piriformis originates on the anterior sacrum. 156. Which muscle is synergistic to the piriformis? a. Rectus femoris b. Semitendinosus c. Gluteus maximus d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: C

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Gluteus maximus is synergistic to piriformis; both laterally rotate and abduct the hip. 157. Which muscle inserts on the greater trochanter? a. Rectus femoris b. Tensor fascia latae c. Obturator externus d. Adductor longus ANS: C

Obturator externus inserts on the greater trochanter. 158. Which muscle is NOT one of the lateral hip rotators? a. Tensor fascia latae b. Gemellus superior c. Quadratus femoris d. Obturator externus ANS: A

The tensor fascia latae is NOT one of the lateral hip rotators. 159. Which muscle originates on the posterior sacrum, the posterior coccyx, and the posterior iliac

crest? a. Piriformis b. Rectus femoris

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c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus maximus ANS: D

Gluteus maximus originates on the posterior sacrum, the posterior coccyx, and the posterior iliac crest, as well as the external ilium to the posterior gluteal line. 160. Which muscle is the strongest extensor of the hip? a. Iliacus b. Psoas major c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus ANS: D

Gluteus maximus is the strongest hip extensor and is one of the strongest muscles in the body. 161. Which structure constitutes a large portion of the insertion of the gluteus maximus? a. Iliotibial band b. Achilles tendon c. Nuchal ligament d. Galea aponeurotica ANS: A

Gluteus maximus inserts largely on a structure called the iliotibial band, or ITB. 162. Which muscle has part of its insertion on the gluteal tuberosity? a. Rectus femoris b. Gluteus medius TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Gluteus maximus d. Obturator externus ANS: C

Part of the insertion of gluteus maximus is on the gluteal tuberosity. 163. Which structure is a thickened fascial strip located on the lateral thigh? a. Linea aspera b. Iliotibial band c. Galea aponeurotica d. Sacrotuberous ligament ANS: B

Iliotibial band (ITB), or iliotibial tract, is a thickened fascial band located on the lateral thigh. The ITB is derived from the fascia lata or a fascial tube surrounding the thigh muscles like a tight stocking. 164. Which muscle is synergistic to gluteus medius? a. Gracilis b. Rectus femoris c. Biceps femoris d. Gluteus minimus ANS: D

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Gluteus minimus is synergistic to gluteus medius. Both abduct, medially rotate, and laterally rotate the hip, and anteriorly and posteriorly tilt the pelvis. 165. Which muscle originates on the anterior superior iliac spine? a. Psoas major b. Rectus femoris c. Gluteus maximus d. Tensor fascia latae ANS: D

Tensor fascia latae originates on the anterior superior iliac spine as well as the anterior iliac crest. 166. Where does tensor fascia latae insert? a. Linea aspera b. Iliotibial band c. Galea aponeurotica d. Sacrotuberous ligament ANS: B

The iliotibial band is the insertion for tensor fasciae latae. 167. Which muscle adducts the hip? a. Gracilis b. Iliopsoas c. Piriformis d. Gastrocnemius ANS: A

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Gracilis adducts the hip. 168. Which muscle is the most medial adductor of the hip? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus c. Adductor longus d. Adductor magnus ANS: A

Gracilis is the most medial adductor and is the only adductor that crosses the hip and the knee. 169. Which muscle crosses both the hip and the knee? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus c. Vastus lateralis d. Gluteus maximus ANS: A

Gracilis is the most medial adductor and is the only adductor that crosses the hip and the knee. 170. The term pes anserinus refers to which area? a. Ligament attaching to the calcaneus b. Conjoined tendons of three muscles

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c. Thickened fascial band located on the lateral thigh d. Facial layers connecting the abdominal oblique muscles ANS: B

Pes anserinus is the conjoined tendons of three muscles: gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius. 171. Which muscles make up the pes anserinus? a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris b. Brachialis, trapezius, and rhomboids c. Gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius d. Adductor longus, pectineus, and sartorius ANS: C

Pes anserinus is the conjoined tendons of three muscles: gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius. 172. Which muscle has one of its origins on the ischial tuberosity? a. Gracilis b. Sartorius c. Vastus medialis d. Adductor magnus ANS: D

Adductor magnus originates on the ischial tuberosity, the inferior pubic ramus, and the ischial ramus. 173. Which muscle contains a gap called TES TBAthe NKadductor SELLERhiatus? .COM a. Gracilis b. Pectinues c. Adductor longus d. Adductor magnus ANS: D

Adductor magnus contains two sections with a gap between them—one section inserts on the linea aspera and the other inserts on the adductor tubercle. The gap, or adductor hiatus, allows passage of blood vessels. 174. Which muscle inserts on the adductor tubercle of the femur? a. Gracilis b. Adductor brevis c. Adductor magnus d. Semimembranosus ANS: C

Adductor magnus inserts on the adductor tubercle of the femur as well as the linea aspera. 175. Which adductor muscle is sometimes considered part of the hamstrings because of the

common origin of ischial tuberosity and the common action of hip extension? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus c. Adductor brevis

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d. Adductor magnus ANS: D

Adductor magnus is sometimes considered part of the hamstrings because of the common origin of ischial tuberosity and the common action of hip extension. 176. Which muscle inserts on the linea aspera? a. Gracilis b. Rectus femoris c. Iliopsoas d. Adductor longus ANS: D

Adductor longus inserts on the middle third of the linea aspera. 177. What is the common insertion of the quadriceps femoris? a. Tibial tuberosity b. Ischial tuberosity c. Medial malleolus d. Greater trochanter ANS: A

The quadriceps femoris, or quads, is a group of muscles that have a common insertion on the tibial tuberosity. 178. Which muscle is part of the quadriceps femoris? a. Biceps femoris b. Vastus medialis TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Adductor magnus d. Semimembranosus ANS: B

The quadriceps femoris, or quads, is a group of muscles that includes rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis. 179. Which quadriceps muscle originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: A

Rectus femoris originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine, as well as the external ilium just superior to the acetabulum. 180. Which muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee? a. Piriformis b. Rectus femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Gluteus maximus ANS: B

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Rectus femoris flexes the hip and extends the knee. 181. Which quadriceps muscle crosses both the hip and the knee? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: A

Rectus femoris crosses both the hip and the knee. 182. Which quadriceps muscle is called the teardrop muscle because of its shape on the anterior

thigh? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: C

Vastus medialis is called the teardrop muscle because of its teardrop shape on the medial anterior thigh. 183. Which quadriceps muscle originates on the gluteal tuberosity? a. Rectus femoris b. Vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis d. Vastus intermedius ANS: B

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Vastus lateralis originates on the gluteal tuberosity as well as the lateral lip of the linea aspera. 184. Which muscle group opposes knee flexion? a. Quadriceps b. Rotators c. Hamstrings d. Adductors ANS: A

The hamstrings create knee flexion, which means that the quadriceps group opposes or resists knee flexion. 185. Which muscle originates on the anterior superior iliac spine? a. Pectineus b. Sartorius c. Vastus lateralis d. Rectus femoris ANS: B

Sartorius originates on the anterior superior iliac spine. 186. Which muscle is part of the pes anserinus? a. Pectineus

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b. Sartorius c. Vastus medialis d. Rectus femoris ANS: B

Pes anserinus is the conjoined tendons of three muscles: gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius. 187. Which muscle is called the tailor’s muscle because its actions allow tailors to sit cross-legged

while sewing? a. Gracilis b. Sartorius c. Rectus femoris d. Biceps femoris ANS: B

The sartorius is called the tailor’s muscle because tailors may sit cross-legged as they sew. The actions of sartorius—hip flexion, knee flexion, and hip lateral rotation—allow sitting cross legged. 188. Which muscle is the longest in the body? a. Sartorius b. Pectineus c. Palmaris longus d. Adductor longus ANS: A

Sartorius is the longest muscle across the quads crossing both TESin TBthe ANbody KSEand LLruns ER.obliquely COM the hip and knee. 189. Which muscle is called the key that unlocks the knee because it unlocks an extended knee and

begins the first few degrees of flexion? a. Popliteus b. Pectineus c. Sartorius d. Piriformis ANS: A

Popliteus is called the key that unlocks the knee because it unlocks an extended knee and begins the first few degrees of flexion. 190. Which muscle is NOT in the hamstring group? a. Gracilis b. Biceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus ANS: A

Gracilis is part of the adductor muscle group. Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus are all hamstring muscles. 191. What is the common origin of the hamstring muscles?

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a. b. c. d.

Tibial tuberosity Ischial tuberosity Medial malleolus Greater trochanter

ANS: B

The hamstring muscles originate on the ischial tuberosity. 192. Which muscle is the most medial hamstring? a. Gracilis b. Biceps femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus ANS: D

Semimembranosus is the most medial hamstring muscle. 193. Which muscle is part of the pes anserinus? a. Pectineus b. Piriformis c. Rectus femoris d. Semitendinosus ANS: D

Pes anserinus is the conjoined tendons of three muscles: gracilis, semitendinosus, and sartorius. 194. Which muscle inserts on the TEfibula? STBANKSELLER.COM a. Biceps femoris b. Rectus femoris c. Semitendinosus d. Semimembranosus ANS: A

Biceps femoris inserts on the fibular head. 195. Which actions does biceps femoris perform? a. Hip flexion and knee extension b. Hip extension and knee flexion c. Shoulder extension and elbow flexion d. Shoulder flexion and elbow extension ANS: B

Two actions of biceps femoris are hip extension and knee flexion. 196. Which muscle is a synergist to the biceps femoris? a. Rectus femoris b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Peroneus longus ANS: B

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Gastrocnemius is synergistic to biceps femoris. They both perform knee flexion. 197. What is the common insertion of gastrocnemius, plantaris, and soleus? a. Patellar tendon b. Annular tendon c. Achilles tendon d. Extensor tendon ANS: C

Gastrocnemius, plantaris, and soleus insert on the calcaneus via the Achilles tendon. 198. Which muscle inserts on metatarsal I? a. Plantaris b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Extensor hallucis longus ANS: C

Tibialis anterior inserts on metatarsal I, as well as on the medial cuneiform. 199. Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle? a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: C

Tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the TE STankle. BANKSELLER.COM 200. Which muscle inverts the foot? a. Fibularis longus b. Plantaris c. Gastrocnemius d. Tibialis anterior ANS: D

Tibialis anterior inverts the foot. 201. Which muscle extends digits II–V? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor digitorum longus d. Extensor digitorum longus ANS: D

Extensor digitorum longus extends digits II–V. 202. Which muscle extends the great toe? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor hallucis longus d. Extensor hallucis longus

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ANS: D

Extensor hallucis longus extends the great toe. 203. Which muscle originates on the fibular head? a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Fibularis brevis d. Fibularis longus ANS: D

Fibularis longus originates on the fibular head. 204. Which muscle everts the foot? a. Soleus b. Gastrocnemius c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: D

Fibularis longus everts the foot. 205. Which muscles are called the stirrup muscles? a. Soleus and plantaris b. Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis c. Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus d. Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus ANS: C

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Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus are called the stirrup muscles because their tendons form an anatomic stirrup or sling under the foot. 206. Which muscle inserts on metatarsal V? a. Tibialis posterior b. Fibularis brevis c. Tibialis anterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: B

Fibularis brevis inserts on metatarsal V. 207. Which muscle originates on the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur? a. Soleus b. Tibialis posterior c. Gastrocnemius d. Tibialis anterior ANS: C

Gastrocnemius originates on the medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur. 208. Which muscle plantar flexes the ankle? a. Gastrocnemius b. Tibialis anterior

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c. Extensor digitorum longus d. Extensor digitorum longus ANS: A

Gastrocnemius plantar flexes the ankle. 209. Which muscle is called the toe dancer’s muscle because it helps ballerinas stand or dance on

their toes? a. Gastrocnemius b. Tibialis anterior c. Fibularis longus d. Fibularis brevis ANS: A

Gastrocnemius is called the toe dancer’s muscle, because it helps ballerinas stand or dance on their toes, or “on pointe.” 210. Which muscle is called the mini-gastroc? a. Plantaris b. Tibialis anterior c. Tibialis posterior d. Extensor hallucis longus ANS: A

Plantaris is called the mini-gastroc because of its common origin, insertion, and actions with gastrocnemius. 211. Which muscle is an antagonist TESto TBgastrocnemius? ANKSELLER.COM a. Soleus b. Plantaris c. Biceps femoris d. Tibialis anterior ANS: D

Tibialis anterior is an antagonist to gastrocnemius. Tibialis anterior dorsiflexes the ankle, and gastrocnemius plantar flexes the ankle. 212. Which muscle flexes digits II–V? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor digitorum longus d. Extensor digitorum longus ANS: C

Flexor digitorum longus flexes digits II–V. 213. Which muscle flexes the great toe? a. Tibialis anterior b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor hallucis longus d. Extensor hallucis longus

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ANS: C

Flexor hallucis longus flexes the great toe. 214. Which term is a synonym for occipitofrontalis? a. Epicranius b. Pes anserinus c. Triceps surae d. Suboccipitals ANS: A

Epicranius is a synonym for the occipitofrontalis and includes two pairs of muscles: occipitalis and frontalis. 215. Which structure is the extensive network of cranial fascia that connects occipitalis and

frontalis muscle? a. Linea aspera b. Rectus sheath c. Flexor retinaculum d. Galea aponeurotica ANS: D

Occipitalis and frontalis are connected by an extensive network of cranial fascia called the galea aponeurotica. 216. Which muscle is called the winking muscle or blinking muscle? a. Platysma b. Orbicularis oris TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Orbicularis oculi d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: C

Orbicularis oculi is called the winking muscle or blinking muscle because it closes one or both eyelids. 217. Which muscle is called the kissing muscle because it protrudes the lips for a kiss? a. Platysma b. Orbicularis oris c. Orbicularis oculi d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: B

Orbicularis oris is called the kissing muscle because it protrudes the lips for a kiss. 218. Which muscle is called the pouting muscle? a. Platysma b. Orbicularis oris c. Orbicularis oculi d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: A

Platysma is called the pouting muscle because it pulls the corners of the mouth downward and backward as in pouting.

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219. Which muscle inserts on the coronoid process? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Scalenus posterior d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: B

Temporalis inserts on the coronoid process. 220. Which muscles elevate the mandible? a. Temporalis and masseter b. Orbicularis oris and buccinator c. Platysma and lateral pterygoids d. Masseter and lateral pterygoids ANS: A

Temporalis and masseter, as well as medial pterygoid, elevate the mandible. 221. Which muscle is a mirror image of medial pterygoid? a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Scalenus posterior d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: A

Masseter is a mirror image of the medial pterygoid.

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222. Which muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibular disorder? a. Scalenes, temporalis, and pterygoids b. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis c. Temporalis, buccinator, and masseter d. Pterygoids, zygomaticus, and temporalis ANS: B

Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis muscles are most likely involved in temporomandibular disorder because they all move the temporomandibular joint. 223. What is a unilateral action of sternocleidomastoid? a. Neck flexion b. Neck extension c. Rotation of the head to the same side d. Rotation of the head to the opposite side ANS: D

Rotation of the head to the opposite side occurs is a unilateral action of sternocleidomastoid. 224. Which muscle is called the praying muscle because bilateral contraction flexes the neck to

bring the head down in a bow often used while praying? a. Platysma b. Medial pterygoid c. Splenius capitis

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d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: D

Sternocleidomastoid is called the praying muscle because bilateral contraction flexes the neck to bring the head down in a bow often used while praying. 225. Which muscle is a mirror image of sternocleidomastoid? a. Masseter b. Platysma c. Medial pterygoid d. Splenius capitis ANS: D

Splenius capitis is the mirror image of sternocleidomastoid. 226. Which condition involves spasms of sternocleidomastoid? a. Tetanus b. Tinnitus c. Tendonitis d. Torticollis ANS: D

Torticollis occurs when the sternocleidomastoid is in spasm. 227. Which muscles can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery? a. Scalenes and pectoralis major b. Scalenes and pectoralis minor c. Pectoralis major and subscapularis TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior ANS: B

Scalenes and pectoralis minor can entrap the brachial plexus and axillary artery. These muscles are also called the “neurovascular entrappers.” 228. Which muscle inserts on rib 2? a. Splenius capitis b. Scalenus anterior c. Scalenus posterior d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: C

Scalenus posterior inserts on rib 2. 229. Which muscles are called headache ghosts? a. Rhomboids b. Hamstrings c. Abdominals d. Suboccipitals ANS: D

Suboccipitals are called headache ghosts because their referred pain patterns are “ghostly” and may radiate from the base of the skull through the head to behind the orbits or eyes.

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230. Which term is collective rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, oblique

capitis inferior, and oblique capitis superior? a. Rotators b. Quadriceps c. Rhomboids d. Suboccipitals ANS: D

Suboccipitals are a group of four muscles: rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, oblique capitis inferior, and oblique capitis superior. 231. Which muscle lies within the rectus sheath? a. Rectus femoris b. Rectus abdominis c. Quadratus femoris d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: B

Within the rectus sheath is the rectus abdominis muscle. 232. Which structure connects the two recti muscles? a. Linea alba b. Linea aspera c. Rectus sheath d. Galea aponeurotica ANS: A

The linea alba connects theTtwo ESTrecti BANmuscles. KSELLER.COM 233. Which muscle contains tendinous intersections? a. Multifidus b. Semispinalis c. Rectus abdominis d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: C

Rectus abdominis contains tendinous intersections. These horizontal bands of connective tissue help keep the length of the rectus abdominis relatively constant because this muscle goes a long distance without skeletal attachments. 234. Which muscle of the following is called the six-pack muscle? a. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique c. Rectus abdominis d. Quadratus lumborum ANS: C

Rectus abdominis is occasionally called the 6-pack muscle because it looks like someone is wearing a 6-pack when left and right sections are well-developed from weight training. However, rectus abdominis actually contains eight sections, four on either side, but only six sections are viewed externally.

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235. Which action do the external obliques and internal obliques perform? a. Depressing the ribs b. Lifting the ribs c. Extending the vertebral column d. Rotation of the vertebral column ANS: D

The external obliques and the internal obliques perform rotation of the vertebral column as well as laterally flexing the vertebral column, flexing the vertebral column, compressing the abdominal contents, and posteriorly tilting the pelvis. 236. What is the origin of quadratus lumborum? a. Iliac crest b. Sciatic notch c. Ischial tuberosity d. Lesser trochanter ANS: A

The origin of quadratus lumborum is the posterior iliac crest. 237. Which muscle is called the hip hiker muscle? a. External oblique b. Rectus abdominis c. Quadratus lumborum d. Transverse abdominis ANS: C

Quadratus lumborum (QL)TisES sometimes TBANKScalled ELLEhip R.hiker COMmuscle because unilateral contraction elevates or “hikes” the hip. 238. Which muscle groups do the paraspinals include? a. Hamstrings and adductors b. Abdominals and quadriceps c. Rotator cuff and rhomboids d. Transversospinalis and erector spinae ANS: D

The paraspinals is the term for group of back muscles that consist of two different muscle sections: transversospinalis and erector spinae. 239. Which muscles are in the transversospinalis group? a. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis b. Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis c. Semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor ANS: C

Transversospinalis are the deeper section of the paraspinals and consist of semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus. 240. Which muscle is the most superficial in the transversospinalis group? a. Rotatores

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b. Multifidus c. Longissimus d. Semispinalis ANS: D

Semispinalis is the most superficial muscle in the transversospinalis group. 241. Which muscle is located between semispinalis and rotatores in the transversospinalis group? a. Spinalis b. Multifidus c. Iliocostalis d. Longissimus ANS: B

Multifidus is the middle transversospinalis muscle and is located between the semispinalis and rotatores. 242. Which muscles are the deepest in the transversospinalis group? a. Rotatores b. Multifidi c. External obliques d. Internal obliques ANS: A

Rotatores are the deepest transversospinalis muscles. 243. Which muscles are included in the erector spinae group? a. Masseter, pterygoids, and temporalis TES TBANKSELLER.COM b. Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis c. Semispinalis, rotatores, and multifidus d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and teres minor ANS: B

Erector spinae, or sacrospinalis, are the superficial paraspinals and consist of spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis. 244. Which muscle is the most medial in the erector spinae group? a. Spinalis b. Multifidus c. Iliocostalis d. Longissimus ANS: A

Spinalis is the most medial muscle of the erector spinae group. 245. Which action do all the muscles of the erector spinae group perform? a. Neck flexion b. Neck extension c. Extension of the vertebral column d. Flexion of the vertebral column ANS: C

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Spinalis, longissimus, and iliocostalis all extend the vertebral column. 246. Where does the diaphragm insert? a. Central tendon b. Xiphoid process c. Public crest d. Costal cartilage ANS: A

The diaphragm inserts on the central tendon. 247. Which muscle increases the thoracic cavity volume during inhalation and increases

intraabdominal pressure? a. Psoas major b. Diaphragm c. Infraspinatus d. Rectus abdominis ANS: B

The diaphragm is the main muscle of inhalation because it descends when it contracts, increasing thoracic cavity volume, and increasing intraabdominal pressure. 248. Which muscle area is primary for inhalation? a. Diaphragm b. External intercostals c. Internal intercostals d. Serratus posterior inferior ANS: A

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The diaphragm is the main muscle of inhalation. 249. Which muscle area depresses the ribcage during exhalation? a. Iliocostalis b. Pectoralis major c. Transversospinalis d. Internal intercostals ANS: D

The internal intercostals maintain the intercostal spaces and depress the ribcage during exhalation. 250. Which muscle originates on the spinous processes of T11–L2, inserts on ribs 9–12, and

depresses the ribs during exhalation? a. Platysma b. Levator scapulae c. Serratus posterior inferior d. Rectus capitis posterior minor ANS: C

Serratus posterior inferior originates on the spinous processes of T11–L2, inserts on ribs 9–12, and depresses the ribs during exhalation.

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Chapter 22: Integumentary System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of cell triggers immune responses? a. Melanocyte b. Keratinocyte c. Dendritic cell d. Meissner cell ANS: C

Specialized cells called dendritic or Langerhan cells stimulate immune responses when skin is broken by surgery or injury. 2. Which mechanism does the skin use to regulate temperature? a. Tanning b. Sweating c. Absorption d. Keratinization ANS: B

Skin plays a role in temperature regulation through changes in blood flow and activity of sweat glands. 3. Skin helps synthesize which vitamin? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. A b. E c. C d. D ANS: D

Skin helps synthesize vitamin D, a nutrient necessary for the absorption of calcium by the gastrointestinal tract. 4. Which region is relatively avascular? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: B

The epidermis is the thin outer region of skin and is composed of epithelial tissue. The epidermis itself is relatively avascular; therefore, nutrients are provided by tissue fluids from the underlying dermis. 5. Which type of cell produces pigment that contributes to skin color? a. Melanocyte b. Keratinocyte c. Dendritic

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d. Meissner ANS: A

Approximately one fourth of the cells in the stratum basale are melanocytes, which produce a dark pigment called melanin. Melanin production is stimulated by sunlight and skin darkens as a result, creating a semi-protective shield from ultraviolet or UV radiation. 6. Which substance waterproofs the skin? a. Elastin b. Keratin c. Adipose d. Collagen ANS: B

Vesicles within keratinocytes secrete a substance keratin, which mixes with skin oils and forms an epidermal water barrier, essentially waterproofing the skin by reducing water loss that would led to dehydration. 7. Which region is known as “true skin?” a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: A

The dermis is the thicker, deeper region or “true skin.” 8. Which region contains blood receptors, hair TEvessels, STBANnerve KSEL LER.CO M follicles, and skin glands? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: A

Connective tissue within the dermis is mainly collagen and elastin. Collagen, which constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis, offers structural support to nerve receptors, blood vessels, hair follicles, muscles, and glands. 9. Collagen constitutes what percentage of the dermis? a. 20% b. 50% c. 70% d. 100% ANS: C

Collagen, which constitutes approximately 70% of the dermis, offers structural support to nerve receptors, blood vessels, hair follicles, muscles, and glands. 10. What is another term for the subcutaneous layer? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Hypodermis

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d. Submuscular ANS: C

The subcutaneous layer is deep to the dermis. It is also called the hypodermis or superficial fascia. 11. Which substance gives skin a golden color? a. Melanin b. Carotene c. Collagen d. Hemoglobin ANS: B

The yellow pigment of carotene gives skin a golden color. In most individuals, the skin effects of carotene are dominated by the color effects of melanin. 12. Which term refers to pale skin? a. Pallor b. Jaundice c. Melasma d. Cyanosis ANS: A

Pale or ashen skin is called pallor. 13. Which structures are pouchlike and have hair arising from them? a. Sebaceous glands b. Sudoriferous glands TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Sinuses d. Follicles ANS: D

Hair is composed of keratinized filaments arising from pouchlike follicles located in the dermis. The hair shaft protrudes through a pore located in the epidermis. 14. Which structure attaches to hair follicles and pulls hair upright? a. Arrector pili b. Langerhans cells c. Superficial fascia d. Meissner corpuscles ANS: A

Arrector pili are muscles attached to hair follicles. These muscles contract to pull the hair shaft upright. 15. Which term refers to the hard plates found on distal surfaces of fingers and toes? a. Hair b. Nails c. Glands d. Corpuscle ANS: B

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Nails are compact keratinized cells that form the thin hard plates found on distal surfaces of fingers and toes. 16. Which area is the site of nail production? a. Lunula b. Cuticle c. Bed d. Root ANS: D

Nail production takes place in the nail root. 17. Which term refers to the tough ridge of skin that grows out over the nail from its base? a. Lunula b. Cuticle c. Nail bed d. Nail root ANS: B

The cuticle is the tough ridge of skin that grows out over the nail from its base. 18. Which types of gland produces oil? a. Eccrine b. Endocrine c. Sebaceous d. Sudoriferous ANS: C

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Sebaceous glands, or oil glands, produce sebum (oil). These glands are connected to hair follicles by small ducts. 19. Which type of gland regulates body temperature and eliminates wastes? a. Endocrine b. Sebaceous c. Ceruminous d. Sudoriferous ANS: D

Sudoriferous glands, or sweat glands, produce sweat or perspiration. Their primary functions are to regulate body temperature and to eliminate wastes. 20. Which type are the most numerous sweat glands? a. Eccrine b. Apocrine c. Mammary d. Ceruminous ANS: A

Eccrine glands are the most numerous sweat glands and produce a watery liquid. They help with temperature regulation through evaporative cooling of perspiration. 21. Which term refers to activating body responses to bring temperature back to normal range?

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a. b. c. d.

Thermogenesis Thermoregulation Hyperthermia Hypothermia

ANS: B

When the hypothalamus senses changes in body temperature, it activates responses to bring temperature back to normal range; this is called thermoregulation. 22. Which term means excessive decreases in body temperature? a. Thermogenesis b. Thermoregulation c. Hyperthermia d. Hypothermia ANS: D

Failure of the body to thermoregulate may cause hypothermia or excessive decreases in body temperature. 23. Which part of the brain receives sensations from skin receptors and tracks them back to which

area of the body is being stimulated? a. Postcentral gyrus b. Wernicke area c. Occipital lobe d. Prefrontal cortex ANS: A

Information from skin receptors TESTtravel BANKtoSthe ELpostcentral LER.COMgyrus in the parietal lobe of the brain. The postcentral gyrus is also called the somatosensory cortex. This area of the brain not only receives sensations from skin receptors, it tracks it back to which area of the body is being stimulated, and then determines what type of sensation is being felt. 24. The hands, forearms, arms, face, lips, and tongue make up what percentage of the postcentral

gyrus? a. 20% b. 40% c. 60% d. 80% ANS: D

The hands, forearms, arms, face, lips, and tongue make up approximately 80% of the postcentral gyrus. 25. Which receptor is an example of encapsulated nerve endings? a. Meissner corpuscle b. Nociceptor c. Merkel disk d. Hair root plexus ANS: A

Examples of encapsulated nerve endings located in skin are Meissner corpuscle, Krause corpuscle, Ruffini corpuscle, and Pacini corpuscle.

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26. Which type of receptor detects changes in temperature? a. Krause corpuscle b. Ruffini corpuscle c. Hair root plexus d. Nociceptor ANS: D

Nociceptors respond to almost any noxious stimuli such as tissue damage from temperature change, extreme mechanical stimuli, and chemical irritation. 27. Which type of receptor wrap around follicles and resemble a net or web? a. Hair root plexus b. Nociceptors c. Meissner corpuscles d. Pacinian corpuscles ANS: A

A hair root plexus, or hair follicle receptor, responds to mechanical stimuli such as hair movement. These receptors are wrapped around hair follicles and resemble a net or web. 28. Which receptor is also known as a tactile corpuscle and detects light pressure? a. Hair root plexus b. Nociceptor c. Meissner corpuscle d. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: C

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Meissner corpuscles, or tactile corpuscles, mediate light pressure or light touch in addition to textural sensations and low-frequency vibration. 29. Which receptor detects heavy pressure and continuous touch? a. Hair root plexus b. Ruffini corpuscle c. Nociceptor d. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: B

Ruffini corpuscles, or bulbous corpuscles, are found in the dermis and respond to heavy pressure, continuous or persistent touch, skin stretching, and warmth. 30. Which receptor detects deep pressure, vibration, and stretch? a. Hair root plexus b. Thermoreceptor c. Meissner corpuscle d. Pacinian corpuscle ANS: D

Pacini or Pacinian corpuscles, also called lamellar corpuscles, are found deep in the dermis, especially in the hands and feet, as well as in joint capsules. They respond to deep pressure, high-frequency vibration, and stretch.

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31. Which condition occurs most often on the soles and between the toes? a. Shingles b. Athlete’s foot c. Herpes simplex d. Decubitus ulcer ANS: B

Athlete’s foot is a fungal infection of the foot, most often the sole and between the toes. It is most prevalent among teenagers and adult men, as well as people with weakened or impaired immune responses, such as individuals with diabetes. 32. Which condition is an infection of hair follicles? a. Boils b. Warts c. Ringworm d. Herpes simplex ANS: A

Boils are deeply infected hair follicles that spread to surrounding areas. Boils are also called furuncles. Boils can occur anywhere on the body, but they are most common on the face, neck, axillae, back, buttocks, and thighs. 33. Which condition is a recurrent viral infection? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Herpes simplex

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ANS: D

Cold sores are also called fever blisters and oral herpes simplex. Cold sores are recurrent viral infections that affect the skin and mucous membranes. They can appear anywhere on the body but most often affect areas around the mouth. 34. Which condition is localized injury to the skin and underlying tissues usually over a bony

prominence from sustained pressure? a. Shingles b. Athlete’s foot c. Herpes simplex d. Decubitus ulcers ANS: D

Decubitus ulcers are localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissues, usually over a bony prominence from sustained pressure. Ulcers are classified in four stages based on the depth of tissue damage from superficial tissue layers: (stage I) all the way down to bones and joints (stage IV). 35. Which skin condition is noncontagious? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Ringworm d. Scabies

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ANS: A

Eczema is the most common inflammatory skin condition. It is not contagious. Eczema is most often found on the hands, scalp, face, nape of the neck, creases of the elbows and knees, and ankles and feet. 36. Which condition is a bacterial skin infection that occurs mainly around the mouth, nose, and

hands and that is more common in children? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Herpes simplex ANS: B

Impetigo is a bacterial infection that occurs mainly around the mouth, nose, and skin folds such as the axillae. Impetigo is more common in children than in adults. 37. Which condition causes accelerated proliferation of epidermal cells, leading to a buildup of

thick skin in patches? a. Eczema b. Shingles c. Impetigo d. Psoriasis ANS: D

Psoriasis is a noninfectious chronic inflammatory skin condition in which the proliferation rate of epidermal cells is greatly accelerated. Instead of skin renewing approximately every 28 days, it occurs every few days. When this happens, skin cells build up in thick patches.

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38. Which condition is a fungal infection often transmitted by direct contact with cats and dogs? a. Eczema b. Impetigo c. Ringworm d. Psoriasis ANS: C

Ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin. It is transmitted by contact with infected skin or infected domestic animals, such as cats and dogs. 39. Which condition is an acute, localized viral infection caused by reactivation of the chickenpox

virus? a. Shingles b. Psoriasis c. Herpes simplex d. Decubitus ulcers ANS: A

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Shingles is an acute, localized viral infection of the skin. It is essentially a reactivation of the chickenpox, or herpes zoster, virus. After chickenpox has resolved, the virus lies dormant within sensory spinal nerve roots and is kept inactive by healthy immune responses. However, if the immune response becomes weakened or is suppressed, the virus can travel down a dermatome (cutaneous area innervated by a spinal nerve), which leads to the disease manifestation. 40. Which condition is characterized by rough, raised masses of skin tissue and caused by the

human papilloma virus? a. Boils b. Warts c. Seborrheic dermatitis d. Herpes simplex ANS: B

Warts are a rough, raised, oval-shaped mass of skin. They may occur anywhere on the body, but most warts are located on the hands, feet (plantar warts), face and legs (flat warts), and genitals (genital warts). Warts are contagious and are spread by contact with infected skin. Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus virus (HPV).

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Chapter 23: Nervous System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which body system helps maintain homeostasis along with the nervous system? a. Digestive b. Cardiovascular c. Respiratory d. Endocrine ANS: D

Two body systems help to maintain homeostasis—the nervous system and endocrine system. 2. Which function does the nervous system perform? a. Immune responses against pathogens b. Sensory input and motor output c. Transportation of nutrients d. Waste elimination ANS: B

Sensory input, motor output, higher mental functioning, and emotional responsiveness are all functions of the nervous system. 3. Which division of the nervous system is defined as containing the brain and spinal cord? a. Peripheral TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Autonomic c. Somatic d. Central ANS: D

Major components of the central nervous system are the brain, spinal cord, meninges or covering around the brain and spinal cord, and the cerebrospinal fluid. 4. Which term means connective tissues that support, nourish, protect and insulate the impulse

conducting cells? a. Neuroglia b. Neurons c. Gray matter d. White matter ANS: A

Neuroglia, or glial cells, are connective tissues that support, nourish, protect, and insulate neurons. 5. Which term refers to fatty coverings around neurons that insulates and increases the

conduction rate of the impulse? a. Epineurium b. Neuroglia c. Myelin

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d. Perineurium ANS: C

Fatty myelin sheaths surround certain neurons. It increases the conduction rate of the impulse and provides insulation to prevent impulse leakage to adjacent neurons. 6. Which term means the outer layer of myelin sheaths? a. Neurilemma b. Neuroglia c. Endoneurium d. Epineurium ANS: A

The outer layer of myelin sheaths is called neurilemma. 7. What are the gaps between Schwann cells and their myelin sheaths called? a. Synaptic gaps b. Neurilemmas c. Synaptic vesicles d. Nodes of Ranvier ANS: D

Gaps located between Schwann cells and their myelin sheaths are called Nodes of Ranvier or myelin sheath gaps. These structures increase the speed of the impulse because it can literally jump from one node to another. 8. What are the impulse-conducting cells of the nervous system called? a. Neuroglia TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Neurons c. Astrocytes d. Oligodendrocytes ANS: B

Neurons are impulse-conducting cells and represent the nervous system’s simplest structural unit. 9. Which structures receive stimuli and initiate nerve impulse transmission? a. Axons b. Dendrites c. Microglia d. Astrocytes ANS: B

Dendrites are short and narrow extensions from the cell body that receive stimuli and initiate nerve impulse transmission. 10. Which structure transmits impulses away from the neuron cell body? a. Dendrite b. Microglia c. Axon d. Sarcolemma

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ANS: C

Axons conduct nerve impulse transmission away from the cell body. 11. Which structures contain neurotransmitters? a. Dermatomes b. Ganglia c. Synaptic vesicles d. Nodes of Ranvier ANS: C

Synaptic vesicles contain chemicals called neurotransmitters. 12. Which term refers to a neuron that sends an impulse toward the central nervous system? a. Effector b. Afferent c. Efferent d. Motor ANS: B

Afferent neurons transmit sensory information toward the CNS. These neurons, which are also called sensory neurons, are found within the skin, joints, and muscles. Afferent neurons are called receptors. 13. Which term refers to a neuron that sends an impulse toward muscles or glands called? a. Arcing b. Sensory c. Afferent TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Efferent ANS: D

Efferent neurons transmit impulses from the CNS toward muscles or glands (effectors). Efferent neurons are also called motor neurons. 14. Which term refers to a single conduction pathway to and from the central nervous system? a. Saltatory conduction b. Actional potential c. Reflex arc d. Nerve plexus ANS: C

A reflex arc is a single conduction pathway to and from the CNS. Reflex arcs are the simplest structural and functional unit in the nervous system. 15. Which term means bundles of nerve fibers in the central nervous system? a. Neuroglia b. Nerve c. Gyrus d. Tract ANS: D

Tracts are bundles of nerve fibers in the central nervous system.

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16. What is the connective tissue layer in a nerve surrounding each fascicle called? a. Sarcolemma b. Perineurium c. Epineurium d. Neurilemma ANS: B

Individual nerve fibers, each surrounded by endoneurium, are organized into small bundles of nerve fibers called fasciculi, which lie in parallel rows and are surrounded by a connective tissue layer called perineurium. 17. Which term refers to a neuron that is resting, without conducting an impulse? a. Polarization b. Depolarization c. All-or-none response d. Saltatory conduction ANS: A

Polarization is the term used to describe the neuron while resting and not conducting an impulse. 18. What is the mechanism that produces and maintains the state of polarization called? a. Sodium–potassium pump b. Repolarization c. Saltatory conduction d. Blood–brain barrier ANS: A

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The mechanism that produces and maintains the state of polarization is the sodium–potassium pump. This pump transports sodium ions (Na+) and potassium ions (K+) in opposite directions at unequal rates. It moves three Na+ out of the cell for every two K+ it moves into the cell (3:2). Very little sodium enters the cell. 19. Which term refers to a neuron that is conducting an impulse? a. Polarization b. Depolarization c. All-or-none response d. Saltatory conduction ANS: B

The movement continues as long as the gates remain open. Movement of Na+ inside the cell causes the polarity of the cell to reverse, or move from a negative charge to positive charge; this is called depolarization. The reversing of charges is the nerve impulse. The impulse moves down the axon in small segments, much like a line of dominoes, and continues until it reaches the end of the neuron. 20. Which term means the time during what a neuron is unable to conduct another impulse until it

repolarizes? a. Depolarization b. Repolarization c. Action potential

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d. Refractory period ANS: D

The refractory period is the brief period during which the membrane is repolarizing and restoring its resting phase or membrane potential. The membrane resists restimulation and will not respond to another stimulus during this period. 21. Which principle means that after a nerve impulse begins, it will be conducted at maximum

capacity, without fluctuations in membrane potential and without any decrease in magnitude? a. All-or-none response b. Adaptation c. Refractory period d. Recruitment ANS: A

Once the nerve impulse begins, it will be conducted at maximum capacity without fluctuations in membrane potential and without any decrease in magnitude. These principles are referred to as the all-or-none response. 22. Which term means the place where signals are transmitted between two neurons or between a

neuron and a muscle or gland? a. Gyrus b. Synapse c. Plexus d. Dermatome ANS: B

A synapse is the place where are between TEsignals STBAN KStransmitted ELLER.C OM two neurons or between a neuron and a muscle or gland. 23. Which term means chemical messengers that allow neurons to talk to each other? a. Neurotransmitters b. Neurilemma c. Telodendria d. Antibodies ANS: A

Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers and allow neurons to talk to each other. 24. Which structure is part of a chemical synapse? a. Synaptic bulb b. Microglia c. Myelin sheath d. Perineurium ANS: A

A chemical synapse is made up of three structures; synaptic bulb of a presynaptic neuron, a synaptic gap, and the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. 25. What is the absorption of released neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron called? a. Reuptake b. Action potential

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c. Reflex d. Saltatory conduction ANS: A

Reuptake is the absorption of released neurotransmitters by the presynaptic neuron. 26. Which neurotransmitter is vital for muscle contraction? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Histamine d. Acetylcholine ANS: D

The most common neurotransmitter is acetylcholine; it is vital for muscle contraction and regulating the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. 27. Which chemicals are gamma-aminobutyric acid and acetylcholine examples of? a. Nutrients b. Enzymes c. Neurotransmitters d. Hormones ANS: C

Gamma-aminobutyric acid and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters. 28. Which term refers to the connective tissue coverings surrounding the brain and spinal cord? a. Neuroglia b. Myelin sheaths TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Meninges d. Neurilemma ANS: C

Meninges are the membranes that line the skull and vertebral column and enclose and surround the brain and spinal cord. 29. What is the correct meningeal order, from deep to superficial? a. Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater b. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid c. Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater d. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater ANS: D

The pia mater is the innermost layer and it attaches to the surface of the brain and spinal cord; this layer is thin and delicate, and contains blood vessels. The arachnoid mater, or arachnoid, is the middle layer. Its loose arrangement of collagen fibers gives this layer web-like appearance. Cerebrospinal fluid, discussed next, is stored in the subarachnoid space, or space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. The dura mater is the outermost layer and lies against the skull and vertebral column. 30. Which function does cerebrospinal fluid perform? a. Supplies the brain and spinal cord with nutrients b. Prevents certain substances from entering the brain

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c. Conducts nerve impulses d. Detects sensation ANS: A

The main functions of CSF are to cushion the brain within the skull, serve as a shock absorber, supply tissues of the brain and spinal cord with oxygen and nutrients, and remove waste products from the brain during sleep. 31. What is the purpose of the blood–brain barrier? a. Prevents passage of some chemicals into the central nervous system b. Provides shock absorption for the brain and spinal cord c. Produces myelin in the peripheral nervous system d. Produces myelin in the central nervous system ANS: A

Surrounding the brain and spinal cord is a wall of connective tissue formed by astrocytes and blood vessels called the blood-brain barrier. This functions as a semipermeable membrane to prevent or slow down the passage of some chemicals and disease-causing organisms such as viruses from traveling from the blood into the CNS. 32. What are the major regions of the brain? a. Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater b. Cerebrum, diencephalon, cerebellum, brainstem c. Cerebellum, corpus callosum, midbrain, hypothalamus d. Cerebrum, midbrain, hypothalamus ANS: B

The brain consists of four main (1) cerebrum, TESTregions: BANKS EL LER.CO(2) M diencephalon, (3) cerebellum, and (4) brainstem. 33. Which region of the brain is the largest? a. Cerebellum b. Brainstem c. Cerebrum d. Diencephalon ANS: C

The cerebrum is the largest and most superior portion of the brain. 34. What are the grooves in the brain’s surface called? a. Sulci b. Gyri c. Cortex d. Lobes ANS: A

The brain’s surface is characterized by grooves or sulci, and elevated ridges called gyri. 35. What are the elevated ridges in the brain’s surface called? a. Sulci b. Lobes c. Gyri

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d. Cortex ANS: C

The brain’s surface is characterized by grooves, or sulci, and elevated ridges called gyri. 36. What are large fibrous bundles of transverse fibers connecting the cerebral hemispheres

called? a. Gyri b. Nerve plexus c. Sulci d. Corpus callosum ANS: D

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by bundles of transverse fibers called the corpus callosum. 37. Which cerebral lobe regulates motor output, cognition, and speech production? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital ANS: A

The frontal lobe regulates motor output, cognition, and speech production. 38. Which cerebral lobe receives information about proprioception, reading, and taste? a. Frontal b. Parietal TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Temporal d. Occipital ANS: B

The parietal lobe receives information about proprioception, reading, and taste. The postcentral gyrus, or somatosensory cortex, in the parietal lobe of the brain governs sensory input primarily from the skin and muscles. 39. Which cerebral lobe houses auditory and olfactory areas, as well as the Wernicke area? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital ANS: C

The temporal lobe houses auditory and olfactory areas and the Wernicke area, which is critical to language comprehension. 40. Which cerebral lobe contains centers for visual input? a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital

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ANS: D

The occipital lobe contains centers for visual input. 41. Which brain wave state is associated with alertness and mental activity? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Theta d. Delta ANS: B

Beta (13+ Hz) is associated with alertness and mental activity. 42. Which brain wave state is related to calmness and relaxation? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Theta d. Delta ANS: A

Alpha (8-13 Hz) is related to calmness and relaxation. 43. Which part of the brain houses the thalamus and hypothalamus? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Diencephalon d. Brainstem ANS: C

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The diencephalon is located in the center of the brain between the cerebrum and the midbrain of the brainstem. The diencephalon houses several structures such as the thalamus, the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the pineal gland. 44. Which region is the largest portion of the diencephalon and relays most sensory information

to appropriate areas of the cerebrum? a. Thalamus b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Cerebellum ANS: A

The thalamus is the largest portion of the diencephalon and relays sensory information (except olfaction) to appropriate areas of the cerebrum. 45. Which region regulates the autonomic nervous system? a. Cerebellum b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Hypothalamus ANS: D

The hypothalamus regulates the ANS, controls behavioral patterns, and 24-hour cycles called the biorhythms or circadian rhythms.

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46. Which part of the brain is concerned with coordinating complex movements and regulating

posture and balance? a. Medulla oblongata b. Cerebrum c. Pons d. Cerebellum ANS: D

The cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain and is concerned with muscle tone, coordinating complex muscular movements, and regulating posture and balance. 47. What is the most inferior portion of the brainstem? a. Cerebrum b. Pons c. Hypothalamus d. Medulla oblongata ANS: D

The most inferior portion of the brainstem, the medulla oblongata conducts sensory and motor impulses between other parts of the brain and the spinal cord. 48. Which part of the brain contains the respiratory, cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers? a. Cerebellum b. Medulla oblongata c. Cerebrum d. Pons ANS: B

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The medulla, often considered the most vital part of the brain, contains the respiratory, cardiovascular, and vasomotor centers. The medulla also controls gastric secretions and reflexes, such as sweating, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting. 49. Which part of the spinal cord do afferent impulses travel on? a. Gray matter b. Central canal c. Descending tracts d. Ascending tracts ANS: D

Within the spinal cord are collections of nerves running up and down in columns called tracts. Tracts are divided into ascending and descending tracts. Afferent impulses travel up the cord on ascending tracts and efferent impulses travel down and out of the cord on descending tracts. 50. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? a. 12 b. 24 c. 26 d. 31 ANS: A

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The 12 pairs of cranial nerves emerge from the inferior surface of the brain and are named by Roman numerals, by the areas they supply, or by the type of signal they carry. 51. Which nerve is a cranial nerve? a. Sciatic b. Median c. Trigeminal d. Brachial ANS: C

The trigeminal nerve is a cranial nerve. The sciatic nerve, median nerve, and brachial nerve are all spinal nerves. 52. Which nerve is cranial nerve V? a. Vagus b. Facial c. Trigeminal d. Optic ANS: C

The trigeminal nerve is cranial nerve V. It contains three branches and is both sensory and motor. 53. Which cranial nerve helps regulate digestion and heart rate? a. Trochlear b. Accessory c. Vagus TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Abducens ANS: C

The vagus nerve regulates activity of thoracic and abdominal organs, such as gastrointestinal peristalsis, heart rate, and blood pressure, as well as sweating. The vagus nerve is both sensory and motor. 54. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? a. 12 b. 24 c. 26 d. 31 ANS: D

The 31 pairs of spinal nerves emerge from the sides of the spinal cord. Unlike cranial nerves, spinal nerves are simply numbered by their corresponding vertebral segment. 55. Which term refers to a network of intersecting spinal nerves? a. Plexus b. Dermatome c. Synapse d. Tract ANS: A

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Ventral rami become individually named nerves or join to form a network of intersecting nerves, called a plexus. 56. Which plexus supplies skin and muscles of the upper extremity? a. Sacral b. Cervical c. Brachial d. Lumbosacral ANS: C

The brachial plexus supplies skin and muscles of the upper extremity. 57. Which term means an area of skin supplied by a specific sensory spinal nerve root? a. Myotome b. Plexus c. Dermatome d. Ganglion ANS: C

Dermatomes are areas of skin supplied by a specific sensory spinal nerve. 58. Which term means a protective involuntary but predictable response? a. Dermatome b. Synapse c. Myotome d. Reflex ANS: D

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Reflexes are protective involuntary but predictable responses to stimuli that use a reflex arc to exert its action. 59. Which structures does the autonomic nervous system regulate? a. Organs, glands, and smooth muscle b. Skeletal muscles c. Brain and spinal cord d. Bones, muscles, and skin ANS: A

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary responses of organs, glands, and smooth muscle such as the heart, lungs, pancreas, and intestines. 60. Which effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have? a. Increases heart rate and strength of contraction b. Inhibition of gastrointestinal motility c. Stimulation of digestion d. Increases respiration rate ANS: C

The parasympathetic division dominates during periods of rest and under calm conditions. It supports body functions that conserve and restore body energy, such as digestion.

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61. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is referred to as rest-and-digest? a. Central b. Somatic c. Parasympathetic d. Sympathetic ANS: C

The parasympathetic division is referred to as “rest-and-digest” division, or the “housekeeping” division. 62. What division of the autonomic nervous system is referred to as “fight or flight?” a. Sympathetic b. Central c. Parasympathetic d. Somatic ANS: A

The sympathetic division dominates during physical exertion or emotional stress. It prepares our body for the physical exertion of “fight-or-flight.” 63. Which effect does the sympathetic nervous system have? a. Increases heart rate and strength of contraction b. Stimulates gastrointestinal motility c. Stimulates kidney function d. Decreases respiration rate ANS: A

Sympathetic responses occur TEquickly STBANand KSexpend ELLERenergy. .COMIn a typical response, the heart rate increases, as does the force of each contraction. 64. Olfaction is what sense? a. Hearing b. Smell c. Vision d. Taste ANS: B

Olfaction is a term to describe the sense of smell. 65. Which type of receptors are located in the retina? a. Chemoreceptors b. Nociceptors c. Thermoreceptors d. Photoreceptors ANS: D

Vision is the ability to see and use receptors located in the eye. Photoreceptors, such as rods and cones, transmit visual information once it passes through the pupil and strikes the retina located at the rear of the eye. 66. Which type of receptors are involved in balance and equilibrium? a. Thermoreceptors

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b. Nociceptors c. Mechanoreceptors d. Photoreceptors ANS: C

Ears also play a role in balance and equilibrium. Within the cochlea are three semicircular canals. Within these canals are fluid-filled sacs containing mechanoreceptors that resemble hair. As we change positions, the hairlike cells in one or all canals move. 67. Which term means a decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus? a. All-or-none response b. Adaptation c. Reflex d. Repolarization ANS: B

Adaptation is a decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus. Adaptation occurs rapidly in receptors that detect pressure and smell; we quickly become accustomed to the weight of clothing and unpleasant odors. 68. Which receptors are found in muscles, joints, and ears, and detect body movements, body

position in space, and muscle stretch? a. Nociceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Photoreceptors d. Proprioceptors ANS: D

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Proprioceptors are specialized interoceptors found in muscles, joints, and ears. These receptors detect body movements, body position in space, and muscle stretch. 69. Which neurologic law states that when a muscle receives a nerve impulse to contract, its

antagonist simultaneously receives an impulse to relax? a. Law of Reciprocal Innervation b. Law of Generalization c. Law of Symmetry d. Law of Facilitation ANS: A

Sherrington’s law states that when a muscle receives a nerve impulse to contract, impulses are stopped being sent to its antagonist simultaneously so that it can relax. 70. When muscles are stretched rapidly or are overstretched, muscle spindles are activated and

cause what to happen? a. Sympathetic response b. Parasympathetic response c. Reflexive relaxation d. Reflexive contraction ANS: D

When muscles are stretched rapidly or are overstretched, muscle spindles are activated and cause reflexive contraction.

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71. The inverse stretch reflex is governed by which mechanoreceptor? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Thermoreceptor c. Nociceptor d. Muscle spindle ANS: A

Golgi tendon organs are located at musculotendinous junctions and are activated by muscle tension. If tension is too great, efferent nerves are inhibited and muscle contraction is prevented, causing muscle relaxation. Referred to as an inverse stretch reflex, this protective mechanism helps ensure that muscles do not contract too strongly and damage their tendons. 72. Which condition is a progressive neurodegeneration that produces a typical profile of mental

deterioration? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Alzheimer disease c. Parkinson disease d. Trigeminal neuralgia ANS: B

Alzheimer disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that produces a typical profile of mental deterioration. This deterioration involves most areas of the brain, particularly the frontal and occiput regions, which affect processes of thinking, memory, and communicating. 73. Which condition is characterized by difficulty communicating and forming relationships and

STsecond BANKor SEthird LLEyear R.CofOlife? M usually becomes apparent T inEthe a. Sciatica b. Autism c. Alzheimer disease d. Attention deficit–hyperactivity disorder ANS: B

Autism spectrum disorder (ASD), as defined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (DSM-V), is a condition present in early childhood characterized by difficulty communicating and forming relationships. These behaviors usually become apparent in the second or third year of life. 74. Which condition involves the facial nerve and results in weakness or paralysis of muscles on

one side of the face? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy c. Parkinson disease d. Alzheimer disease ANS: B

Bell palsy is a neurologic condition of the facial nerve or cranial nerve VII that causes weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face.

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75. Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of the compression of what nerve within the carpal

tunnel? a. Radial b. Median c. Ulnar d. Sciatic ANS: B

Carpal tunnel syndrome is the result of median nerve compression within the carpal tunnel. 76. Which condition is characterized by progressive degeneration and demyelination of neurons

of the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves? a. Parkinson disease b. Bell palsy c. Multiple sclerosis d. Shingles ANS: C

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is progressive degeneration and demyelination of neurons of the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves, especially the optic nerve. The loss of myelin ultimately leads to scarring or sclerosis and plaque formation, which interferes with the transmission of nerve impulses (similar to an electrical wire stripped of its insulation). 77. Which condition is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that produces a syndrome of

abnormal movements caused by deterioration of neurons in the basal ganglia? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Parkinson disease d. Alzheimer disease ANS: C

Parkinson disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that produces a syndrome of abnormal movements called parkinsonism. Neurons deteriorate in a section of the midbrain called the basal ganglia, particularly in the substantia nigra. These neurons produce dopamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates voluntary movements. 78. Which condition is inflammation or irritation of the sciatic nerve with pain that originates in

the lower back or hip and travels down the leg? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy c. Parkinson disease d. Alzheimer disease ANS: A

Sciatica is inflammation of the sciatic nerve. Pain usually originates in the lower back or hip and travels down to one side of the posterior thigh and leg, but both sides may be affected. 79. Which condition is characterized by explosive episodes of uncontrolled and excessive

electrical activity in the brain? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy

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c. Parkinson disease d. Seizure disorder ANS: D

Seizure disorders are characterized by explosive episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical activity in the brain, or seizure, and results in a sudden change in behavior and level of consciousness. 80. Which condition is caused by compression of nerves in the brachial plexus? a. Sciatica b. Bell palsy c. Thoracic outlet syndrome d. Trigeminal neuralgia ANS: C

Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a disorder caused by compression of nerves in the brachial plexus alone or with the subclavian artery and vein (located between the base of the neck and axilla). 81. Which of the following is a synonym for sensory neurons? a. Telodendria b. Afferent c. Motor d. Efferent ANS: B

Afferent neurons transmit sensory information toward the central nervous system. These neurons, which are also called TESsensory TBANKneurons, SELLEare R.found COM within skin, joints, and muscles. Neurons that respond to sensory stimuli are called receptors. 82. Which of the following is a synonym for motor neurons? a. Telodendria b. Afferent c. Efferent d. Sensory ANS: C

Efferent neurons are also called motor neurons. Muscles or glands that respond to efferent neurons are also called effectors. 83. Which neurotransmitter is involved with emotions and moods and is implicated in attention

and learning? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Epinephrine ANS: B

Dopamine is involved in emotions, moods, and motor control regulation; it is also implicated in attention and learning.

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Chapter 24: Endocrine System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called? a. Hormones b. Antibodies c. Enzymes d. Neurotransmitters ANS: A

The nervous system uses impulses and chemical messengers called neurotransmitters, whereas the endocrine system uses several mechanisms involving chemical messengers called hormones. 2. Which statement describes endocrine glands? a. Located only in the skin b. Use ducts to transport their products to the site of action c. Ductless glands that secrete hormones d. Types include sudoriferous, sebaceous, and salivary ANS: C

The endocrine system uses several mechanisms involving chemical messengers called hormones.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 3. Which glands are endocrine? a. Adrenal b. Salivary c. Ceruminous d. Sudoriferous ANS: A

Adrenal glands are endocrine glands. 4. Which function does the endocrine system perform? a. Produces heat, maintains posture, and produces movement b. Digests, adsorbs, and eliminates ingested substances c. Combats hemorrhage and blood loss d. Regulates reproductive processes and helps the body adapt during stress ANS: D

The endocrine system produces and secretes hormone, regulates the reproductive process, and helps the body adapt during stress. 5. What do hormones do? a. Eliminate cellular waste products b. Regulate physiologic activity of other cells c. Help maintain the oxygen content of blood d. Provide physical protection from the outside environment

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ANS: B

Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate physiologic activity of other cells. Hormones influence growth, metabolism, digestion, reproduction, and mood. 6. Which substances are also known as local hormones? a. Glucocorticoids b. Androgens c. Estrogens d. Prostaglandins ANS: D

Prostaglandins, or local hormones, are produced by many tissues and they generally act on nearby cells. 7. Which term refers to a response to stimulus that moves current levels in the opposite

direction? a. Neural regulation b. Positive feedback c. Negative feedback d. Hormonal regulation ANS: C

Negative feedback is a response to a stimulus that moves current levels in the opposite, or negative, direction. This movement brings levels back to homeostasis. 8. Which mechanism controls most hormone levels? a. Nerve impulse TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Positive feedback systems c. Negative feedback systems d. Neurotransmitter release ANS: C

Most hormone levels are regulated by negative feedback systems. 9. Which term applies to hormones that stimulate the activity of other endocrine glands? a. Releasing b. Positive c. Negative d. Tropic ANS: D

Hormones that stimulate the activity of other endocrine glands are called tropic hormones. 10. Which structure secretes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the release of hormones from the

anterior pituitary? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pancreas d. Hypothalamus ANS: D

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The hypothalamus secretes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the release of pituitary hormones, and it regulates the autonomic nervous system. 11. Which gland lies in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Hypothalamus ANS: C

The pituitary is located in the diencephalon of the brain and lies in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. 12. Which gland extends from the hypothalamus by the infundibulum? a. Pineal b. Thyroid c. Thymus d. Pituitary ANS: D

The pituitary extends from the hypothalamus by a stalklike structure called the infundibulum. 13. Which region is also called the adenohypophysis? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

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The anterior pituitary, or the adenohypophysis, constitutes approximately 75% of the total weight of the gland. 14. Which region is interconnected to the hypothalamus by the hypophyseal portal system? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior lobe is connected to the hypothalamus by the hypophyseal portal system. A portal system is an arrangement of two capillary beds connected by veins. The hypophyseal portal system allows hypothalamic hormones to travel directly to the anterior pituitary without traveling through the blood in the systemic circuit, which would route these hormones through the heart, then back to the pituitary. 15. Which region is also called the neurohypophysis? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: D

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The posterior lobe, or the neurohypophysis, constitutes approximately 25% of the total weight of the gland. 16. Which hormone causes the adrenal cortex to secrete its hormones? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: D

Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete its hormones, especially cortisol. 17. Which region secretes growth hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes growth hormone. 18. Which hormone stimulates protein synthesis for muscle and bone maintenance and repair, and

plays a role in metabolism? a. Oxytocin b. Growth hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Prolactin ANS: B

Growth hormone (GH) stimulates protein synthesis for muscle and bone growth, maintenance and repair, and plays a role in metabolism. Growth hormone is also called somatotrophin or STH. 19. Which region secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone. 20. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of thyroxine? a. Oxytocin b. Growth hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: C

Thyroid-stimulating hormone stimulates the thyroid to secrete its hormones, especially thyroxine.

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21. Which region secretes follicle-stimulating hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes follicle-stimulating hormone. 22. Which hormone stimulates testosterone and sperm production in the testes? a. Oxytocin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Prolactin ANS: B

In men, FSH stimulates testosterone production and sperm production in the testes. In women, FSH stimulates estrogen production and development of ovarian follicle. 23. Which region secretes luteinizing hormone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes TESluteinizing TBANKShormone. ELLER.COM 24. Which hormone stimulates the release of estrogens and progesterone? a. Luteinizing hormone b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Prolactin ANS: A

Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the release of estrogens and progesterone, ovulation, and development of the corpus luteum. In men, LH stimulates testosterone production. 25. Which hormones are collectively called gonadotropins? a. Prolactin and oxytocin b. Antidiuretic hormone and growth hormone c. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: C

Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone are collectively called gonadotropins. 26. Which region secretes the hormone prolactin? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary

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d. Posterior pituitary ANS: C

The anterior pituitary secretes prolactin. 27. Which hormone promotes milk production in the breasts? a. Estrogen b. Prolactin c. Oxytocin d. Progesterone ANS: B

Prolactin (PRL) promotes lactation or milk production in the breasts. This hormone is secreted in larger amounts during pregnancy and lactation. 28. Which hormone decreases urine production? a. Oxytocin b. Antidiuretic hormone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Prolactin ANS: B

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) decreases urine production by stimulating the kidneys to absorb more water. 29. Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions? a. Estrogen b. Prolactin TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Oxytocin d. Progesterone ANS: C

Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions in pregnancy, labor, and delivery, and stimulates milk expression during lactation. 30. Which gland secretes melatonin? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Pancreas ANS: A

The pineal gland secretes several hormones, but its chief hormone is melatonin. 31. Which hormone maintains the body’s circadian rhythm? a. Cortisol b. Glucagon c. Melatonin d. Calcitonin ANS: C

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Melatonin helps regulate other hormones and maintain the body’s circadian rhythm which is the body’s internal 24-hour cycle. 32. Which gland secretes T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine)? a. Testis b. Thymus c. Thyroid d. Parathyroid ANS: C

The thyroid gland secretes T3, or tri-iodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine. 33. What is the function of T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine)? a. Regulate metabolism b. Decrease urine production c. Inhibit the secretion of luteinizing hormone d. Stimulate the release of estrogens and progesterone ANS: A

T3, or tri-iodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine, regulate metabolism and affect the growth and development of many other body systems. T3 and T4 are collectively called thyroid hormones. 34. Which hormones require iodine in order to be produced? a. Thymosin and thymopoietin b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone c. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone d. Tri-iodothyronine and thyroxine ANS: D

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T3, or tri-iodothyronine, and T4, or thyroxine, consist of an amino acid bound to iodine; therefore these hormones cannot be made without iodine. Some good sources of iodine are seafood and iodized salt. 35. Which glands secrete calcitonin? a. Testes b. Ovaries c. Adrenals d. Parathyroids ANS: D

The parathyroids secrete calcitonin. 36. Which hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclastic activity? a. Calcitonin b. Thyroxine c. Thymopoietin d. Parathyroid hormone ANS: D

Parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclastic activity, which decreases calcium storage in bone.

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37. Which region secretes cortisol and aldosterone? a. Adrenal cortex b. Adrenal medulla c. Anterior pituitary d. Posterior pituitary ANS: A

The adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone. 38. Which hormone has an anti-inflammatory effect? a. Cortisol b. Glucagon c. Melatonin d. Calcitonin ANS: A

Cortisol is the major glucocorticoid, and it activates anti-stress and anti-inflammatory pathways. 39. Which hormone enhances and prolongs the physiological effects of stress? a. Cortisol b. Calcitonin c. Aldosterone d. Epinephrine ANS: D

Epinephrine or adrenaline and norepinephrine or noradrenaline bind to receptors of sympathetic effectors that T enhance and effects of stress. ESTBA NKprolong SELLEthe R.physiological COM 40. Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine? a. Pineal b. Thymus c. Pituitary d. Pancreas ANS: D

The pancreas is located inferior to the stomach and possesses both endocrine and exocrine functions. 41. Which hormone is secreted by pancreatic beta cells? a. Insulin b. Prolactin c. Glucagon d. Aldosterone ANS: A

Alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon, and beta cells secrete the hormone insulin. 42. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Prolactin c. Glucagon

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d. Aldosterone ANS: C

Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by stimulating the release of stored glucose (called glycogen) from the liver. 43. Which hormone decreases blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Prolactin c. Glucagon d. Aldosterone ANS: A

Insulin decreases blood glucose levels by stimulating liver, skeletal muscle, and fat cells to absorb glucose from the blood. 44. Which glands secrete estrogens and progesterone? a. Ovaries b. Testes c. Parathyroids d. Adrenals ANS: A

The ovaries secrete the hormones progesterone and estrogen, which are responsible for regulating menstrual cycles and female secondary sex characteristics that occur during puberty. 45. Which hormone maintainsTthe ESuterine TBANlining KSELfor LEimplantation R.COM and gestation? a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin c. Progesterone d. Testosterone ANS: C

Progesterone is the pregnancy-promoting hormone that maintains the endometrium and inhibits uterine contractions. 46. Which hormone is responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics? a. Progesterone b. Erythropoietin c. Thymosin d. Testosterone ANS: D

Testosterone stimulates sperm production and is responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics. 47. Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells? a. Renin b. Erythropoietin c. Thymosin d. Testosterone

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ANS: B

Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates the production of red blood cells in bone marrow. 48. Which hormone is referred to as the “hunger hormone?” a. Renin b. Secretin c. Thymosin d. Ghrelin ANS: D

Ghrelin stimulates appetite and is referred to as the “hunger hormone” as high levels of this hormone are found in individuals who are fasting. 49. Which hormone is secreted by adipocytes? a. Leptin b. Secretin c. Renin d. Ghrelin ANS: A

Adipocytes, or fat cells, produce the hormones leptin and resistin. Leptin plays a role in metabolism and energy regulation by inhibiting hunger. 50. Which effect does atrial natriuretic peptide have? a. Decreases blood calcium levels b. Increases blood glucose levels c. Decreases blood pressure TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Increases blood pressure ANS: C

Atrial natriuretic hormone triggers the kidneys to increase urine production, which decreases blood pressure. 51. Which condition is a group of disorders characterized by chronic elevated blood glucose

levels? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hashimoto disease c. Goiter d. Lupus ANS: A

Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a group of diseases characterized by chronic elevated blood glucose levels and disturbances in protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism (mainly carbohydrates). 52. Which condition is characterized by damaged or destroyed pancreatic beta-cells, creating a

lack of insulin? a. Diabetes mellitus type 1 b. Diabetes mellitus type 2 c. Lupus d. Goiter ANS: A

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In Type 1 diabetes mellitus, pancreatic beta-cells are damaged or destroyed, creating a lack of insulin. Without insulin, glucose cannot enter cells. 53. Which condition is characterized by insulin resistance? a. Diabetes mellitus type 1 b. Diabetes mellitus type 2 c. Lupus d. Goiter ANS: B

In type 2 diabetes, pancreatic beta cells produce insulin but cells are resistant to it, called insulin resistance. 54. Which condition is an enlargement of the thyroid gland? a. Lupus b. Goiter c. Baker cyst d. Ganglion cyst ANS: B

Any enlargement of the thyroid gland is called a goiter. 55. Which condition is caused by an underactive thyroid gland leading to thyroid hormone

deficiency? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Goiter c. Lupus d. Hashimoto disease

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ANS: D

An underactive thyroid gland leading to a thyroid hormone deficiency is called Hashimoto disease.

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Chapter 25: Reproductive System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term refers to the process by which male and female gametes unite? a. Gestation b. Spermatogenesis c. Sexual reproduction d. Asexual reproduction ANS: C

Sexual reproduction is the process by which male sex cells and female sex cells unite. The union of these cells may produce offspring, which essentially passes on hereditary traits from one generation to the next to propagate the species. Primary organs called gonads produce the male and female sex cells, called gametes, and the hormones that assist sexual reproduction. 2. Which structure is part of the anatomy of the reproductive system? a. Aorta b. Oocyte c. Epiphysis d. Neurilemma ANS: B

Gametes are sex cells; they include the spermatozoon in males and oocyte in females.

TESTBANsystem KSELLperform? ER.COM 3. Which function does the reproductive a. Exchange of gases, olfaction, and sound production b. Movement, posture maintenance, and heat production c. Produce offspring and hormone production and secretion d. Elimination and regulation of the chemical composition of blood ANS: C

Important functions of the reproductive system are to produce offspring and to produce and secrete hormones. 4. Which term refers to the primary reproductive organs? a. Uterus b. Breasts c. Gonads d. Gametes ANS: C

Gonads—Gonads are the primary reproductive organs; they include the testes in males and ovaries in females. 5. Which term means sex cells, such as spermatozoa in males and oocytes in females? a. Testes b. Gonads c. Ovaries

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d. Gametes ANS: D

Gametes are sex cells; they include the spermatozoon in males and oocyte in females. 6. Which part of the reproductive system produces sperm? a. Fallopian tube b. Ejaculatory duct c. Seminiferous tubules d. Bulbourethral glands ANS: C

Seminiferous tubules within the testes produce sperm. 7. Which part of the reproductive system secretes testosterone? a. Glans penis b. Ovarian follicle c. Bulbourethral glands d. Interstitial cells of Leydig ANS: D

Luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary stimulates interstitial cells of Leydig within the testes produce testosterone. 8. Which part of the reproductive system transports sperm cells and seminal fluid out of the body

during ejaculation? a. Scrotal sac b. Spermatic duct c. Fallopian tubes d. Seminal vesicles

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ANS: B

The spermatic duct transports sperm cells and seminal fluid out of the body during ejaculation. 9. Which structure stores sperm while they become mature? a. Epididymis b. Umbilical cord c. Follicle d. Seminal vesicles ANS: A

Immature sperm cells leave the testicle and enter the epididymis, a tightly coiled comma-shaped tube. The sperm stay in the epididymis for 2–3 months during which time they become able to swim and fertilize an egg. 10. Which structure connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct? a. Urethra b. Vas deferens c. Fallopian tube d. Umbilicus

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ANS: B

The vas deferens connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. 11. Which tube transports both semen and urine in males? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Fallopian tube d. Vas deferens ANS: B

The urethra is a tube located below the bladder that transports both semen and urine in males. 12. Which passageway passes through the prostate and the penis? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Fallopian tube d. Vas deferens ANS: B

The urethra is a tube located below the bladder that transports both semen and urine in males. The urethra passes through the prostate and the penis. 13. Which structure is donut-shaped gland and located inferior to the urinary bladder? a. Cowper gland b. Prostate c. Epididymis d. Bulbourethral gland ANS: B

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The prostate is a donut-shaped gland that lies beneath the urinary bladder and surrounds the urethra. The prostate also prevents the flow of urine during ejaculation. 14. What is the pouch that contains the testes called? a. Cervix b. Prostate c. Scrotum d. Epididymis ANS: C

The scrotum is the pouch that contains the testes. The scrotal sac is made of thin, loose, and usually wrinkled skin that hangs down behind the penis. 15. Which liquid is thick, milky white and contains sperm cells? a. Seminal fluid b. Plasma c. Lymph d. Interstitial fluid ANS: A

Seminal fluid is a milky white alkaline substance that comprises the liquid portion of semen, and is the transport medium and source of nutrients for sperm.

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16. Which muscle draws the testes closer to or away from the body to help regulate their

temperature? a. Psoas major b. Adductor brevis c. Cremaster d. Pectineus ANS: C

The cremaster muscle draws the testes closer to or away from the body to help regulate their temperature. 17. Which structures are paired almond-shaped glands located in the female abdominopelvic

cavity? a. Testes b. Adrenals c. Ovaries d. Follicles ANS: C

Ovaries are paired almond-shaped glands that produce oocytes, or eggs, and hormones; they are located in the abdominopelvic cavity lateral to the uterus. 18. Which structures produce oocytes and hormones? a. Testes b. Prostate c. Ovaries d. Uterus

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ANS: C

Ovaries are paired almond-shaped glands that produce oocytes, or eggs, and hormones; they are located in the abdominopelvic cavity lateral to the uterus. 19. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy? a. Oxytocin b. Progesterone c. Epinephrine d. Testosterone ANS: B

Progesterone maintains the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy. 20. What is the term for the female sex cell? a. Ovary b. Sperm c. Oocyte d. Follicle ANS: C

Oocytes are the sex cells that carry genetic information from the female that produced them. 21. Which structures are paired passageways from the ovaries to the uterus? a. Ureters

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b. Epididymis c. Fallopian tubes d. Seminal vesicles ANS: C

Fallopian tubes are paired passageways for ova to travel from the ovaries toward the uterus. 22. Which structure is the hollow, pear-shaped organ that receives the fertilized ovum and allows

the embryo to grow and develop into a fetus during pregnancy? a. Testis b. Prostate c. Ovary d. Uterus ANS: D

The uterus is a hollow pear-shaped organ that receives the fertilized ovum and allows the embryo to grow and develop into a fetus during pregnancy. It is also from which menses (tissue and blood) flows if pregnancy does not occur. 23. Which layer is shed during menstruation? a. Epimetrium b. Perimetrium c. Myometrium d. Endometrium ANS: D

The uterine wall contains three layers. The inner lining, the endometrium, is shed each month during menstruation. TESTBANKSELLER.COM 24. Which structure acts as a sphincter for the uterus and allows passage of semen and menstrual

fluid? a. Cervix b. Vagina c. Prostate d. Epididymis ANS: A

The cervix acts as a sphincter and allows passage of semen and menstrual fluid. During childbirth, uterine contractions cause the cervix to widen or dilate up to 10 cm in diameter to allow the movement of the fetus into the birth canal or vagina. 25. Which structure extends from the cervix to outside the body? a. Endometrium b. Vagina c. Prostate d. Epididymis ANS: B

The vagina is the canal extending from the cervix to outside the body. 26. Which structures produce mucus? a. Fallopian tubes

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b. Seminal vesicles c. Bartholin glands d. Bulbourethral glands ANS: C

Bartholin glands located on either side of the vaginal opening secrete mucous; these glands are homologous to bulbourethral glands in males. 27. Which term means the female external genitalia? a. Vulva b. Ovary c. Cervix d. Vagina ANS: A

Female external genitalia, or vulva, includes the labia majora and minora, the clitoris, and the mons pubis. 28. Which term refers to the region located between the vaginal opening and the anus? a. Perineum b. Periosteum c. Peritoneum d. Perimysium ANS: A

The perineum is the region between the vaginal opening and anus. The perineum may be torn or incised during childbirth; the latter is called an episiotomy.

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29. Which term means milk production? a. Lactation b. Ovulation c. Fertilization d. Menstruation ANS: A

Milk production, which is under hormonal control, is called lactation. 30. On what day of the menstrual cycle does menstruation begin? a. 1 b. 10 c. 14 d. 28 ANS: A

The follicular phase begins with menstruation and lasts until approximately day 13 (the first day of menstruation is day one of the menstrual cycle). 31. On what day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation usually occur in a 28-day cycle? a. 1 b. 10 c. 14 d. 28

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ANS: C

Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. 32. What event is marked by the release of an ovum from an ovarian follicle? a. Ovulation b. Fertilization c. Implantation d. Menstruation ANS: A

Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. A surge of LH causes rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of an ovum. 33. A surge of which hormone causes rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of an ovum during

ovulation? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Growth hormone d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: D

Ovulation occurs about day 14 in a 28-day cycle. A surge of LH causes rupture of an ovarian follicle and release of an ovum. 34. After ovulation, what does the collapsed follicle turn into? a. Corpus luteum b. Interstitial cells TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Endometrium d. Lobules ANS: A

The collapsed follicle develops into the corpus luteum. 35. Which term refers to the final stage of the menstrual cycle? a. Ovulation b. Luteal phase c. Menstruation d. Follicular phase ANS: B

The luteal phase is the final phase of the menstrual cycle which is between day 15 to day 28. It begins after ovulation and ends when menstruation begins. 36. Which structure secretes estrogens and progesterone? a. Endometrium b. Corpus luteum c. Myometrium d. Corpus albicans ANS: B

The corpus luteum secretes estrogens and progesterone, which maintain the uterine lining for implantation and pregnancy.

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37. What hormone reduces tension in the uterine wall to facilitate implantation? a. Inhibin b. Relaxin c. Testosterone d. Progesterone ANS: B

Relaxin relaxes the uterus to facilitate implantation. 38. Which term means penetration of the ovum by sperm? a. Ovulation b. Fertilization c. Implantation d. Menstruation ANS: B

Fertilization is the penetration of the ovum by sperm, resulting in a zygote. 39. Approximately how many hours after ovulation does fertilization usually occur? a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48 ANS: B

Fertilization is the penetration of the ovum by sperm and occurs approximately 24 hours after ovulation. TESTBANKSELLER.COM 40. Which term refers to the fertilized ovum? a. Zygote b. Oocyte c. Follicle d. Chromosome ANS: A

The fertilized ovum is called a zygote and contains genetic information from each parent. 41. Approximately how many days after fertilization does a blastocyst enter the uterus? a. 1 b. 7 c. 12 d. 48 ANS: B

The blastocyst continues to travel through the fallopian tube and enters the uterus about day 7 after fertilization, where it implants. The result is pregnancy. 42. Which term means a sequence of events that includes implantation, embryonic development,

fetal growth, and ends in birth? a. Infancy b. Pregnancy

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c. Senescence d. Adolescence ANS: B

Pregnancy is the sequence of events that includes implantation, embryonic development, fetal growth, and ends in birth. 43. Which term means the pregnancy period? a. Gestation b. Discussion c. Metabolism d. Prolongation ANS: A

The pregnancy period, also called gestation, is approximately 10 lunar months (40 weeks, 9 calendar months, or approximately 266 days). 44. Approximately how many weeks long is the pregnancy period? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 ANS: C

The pregnancy period, also called gestation, is approximately 10 lunar months (40 weeks, 9 calendar months, or approximately 266 days). 45. Which trimester is considered embryo? TESthe TBtime ANKofSthe ELL ER.COM a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: A

The first trimester is the first day of the last period to week 14. This trimester is considered the time of the embryo because this is when most embryonic development occurs and the pregnant woman experiences few structural changes. 46. Which structure is a flattened organ located in the pregnant uterus that nourishes the

developing fetus by exchanging nutrients and wastes with the mother? a. Cervix b. Corpus albicans c. Placenta d. Corpus luteum ANS: C

The placenta is a flattened organ located in the pregnant uterus that nourishes the developing fetus by exchanging nutrients and wastes between the fetus’ and mother’s blood. 47. Which week does the third trimester start? a. 12 b. 15

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c. 29 d. 42 ANS: C

The third trimester is week 29 to birth, which is around week 40. 48. Which term means childbirth? a. Lactation b. Gestation c. Parturition d. Ovulation ANS: C

Childbirth, or parturition, is the act of giving birth to a baby. 49. Which event occurs in second stage of childbirth? a. Dilation of the cervix b. Expulsion of the fetus c. Expulsion of the placenta d. Lactation in the mammary glands ANS: B

The second stage of childbirth is expulsion of the fetus. This stage is the time from complete cervical dilation, the fetal journey down the vagina, and welcome of the newborn by the parents. 50. Which term means secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands? a. Lactation TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Gestation c. Parturition d. Ovulation ANS: A

Lactation is the secretion and ejection of milk by the mammary glands. 51. Which condition is a cluster of symptoms that occur 3–14 days before menstruation and are

relieved by its onset? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome ANS: C

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a cluster of symptoms that occur 3 to 14 days before menstruation and are relieved by its onset. More than 200 physical, emotional, and behavioral symptoms have been attributed to PMS, some of which may impair interpersonal relationships and interfere with normal activities. 52. Which condition is characterized by the sloughing off of endometrial tissue from a

nonpregnant uterus through the vagina? a. Menopause b. Menstruation

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c. Endometriosis d. Ovulation ANS: B

Menstruation, part of the menstrual cycle, is characterized by the sloughing off of endometrial tissue from a nonpregnant uterus through the vagina. 53. Which condition is the presence of uterine lining tissue outside the uterus? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome ANS: B

Endometriosis is the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. The most common sites of endometrial tissue are inside the fallopian tubes and around the ovaries, but it has been found throughout the body. 54. Which condition is characterized by bilaterally enlarged ovaries that become studded with

multiple cysts? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome ANS: D

In polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), also called hyperandrogenic anovulation and Stein–Leventhal syndrome,TE the ovaries bilaterally ST BANKenlarge SELLE R.COM while becoming studded with multiple cysts. 55. Which term refers to the period of life that represents cessation of menstruation? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Premenstrual syndrome d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome ANS: A

Menopause is the period in a woman’s life that represents permanent cessation of ovarian function and the end of menstrual cycles; 12 months have passed since the last menstrual cycle.

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Chapter 26: Cardiovascular System Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which function does the cardiovascular system perform? a. Digests, absorbs, and eliminates ingested substances b. Produces heat, maintains posture, and produces movement c. Combats hemorrhage and blood loss d. Regulates reproduction and helps stress responses ANS: C

The cardiovascular system transports substances, protects against pathogens, and combats hemorrhage and blood loss. 2. Which characteristic describes blood? a. Slightly cooler than normal body temperature b. Thinner and less adhesive than water c. Bright scarlet red to dull maroon in color d. Slightly acidic pH ANS: C

The red color of blood varies from bright scarlet to dull maroon, depending on its oxygen content; the brighter the red, the more oxygen. 3. What determines whether blood is bright red or dull brick red in color? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Iron content b. Platelet count c. Oxygen content d. Platelet count ANS: C

The red color of blood varies from bright scarlet to dull maroon, depending on its oxygen content. 4. Where are blood cells formed? a. Liver and spleen b. Red bone marrow c. Hepatic portal system d. Aorta and coronary sinus ANS: B

Blood cell production, called hematopoiesis, occurs in red bone marrow. These cells include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes. 5. Which term means blood cell production? a. Hyperemia b. Hematopoiesis c. Remodeling d. Ossification

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ANS: B

Blood cell production, called hematopoiesis, occurs in red bone marrow. These cells include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes. 6. Which liquid are blood cells suspended in? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. Interstitial fluid d. Synovial fluid ANS: B

Blood plasma is a straw-colored liquid in which blood cells are suspended. Blood plasma is mostly water (between 90-95 percent), with substances including glucose, hormones, dissolved proteins such as albumins and clotting factors such as fibrinogen. 7. What percentage of blood is plasma? a. 10% b. 25% c. 55% d. 90% ANS: C

Blood plasma is a straw-colored liquid in which blood cells are suspended. Blood plasma is mostly water (between 90-95 percent), with substances including glucose, hormones, dissolved proteins such as albumins and clotting factors such as fibrinogen. 8. Which type of cells transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from body cells? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Platelets b. Fibroblasts c. Leukocytes d. Erythrocytes ANS: D

Erythrocytes, or red blood cells (RBCs), are the most numerous blood cell type. RBCs contain a molecule called hemoglobin, giving blood its characteristic red color. Hemoglobin is an iron-based protein that binds with oxygen and carbon dioxide so they can be transported in blood. 9. Which type of cells contain hemoglobin? a. Platelets b. Fibroblasts c. Leukocytes d. Erythrocytes ANS: D

RBCs contain a molecule called hemoglobin, giving blood its characteristic red color. 10. Proteins that are used to classify blood types are on the surfaces of which type of cells? a. Platelets b. Fibroblasts c. Leukocytes d. Erythrocytes

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ANS: D

The surfaces of RBCs may contain proteins that are used to classify blood into ABO blood types. 11. Which type of cells serve as part of the body’s defense mechanisms? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Red blood cells ANS: B

Leukocytes, or white blood cells (WBCs), are the body’s mobile army and serve as part of the body’s defense mechanisms by destroying or inactivating pathogens and foreign agents. 12. Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes are all which type of cells? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Fibroblasts ANS: B

The granular WBCs are neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and the agranular WBCs are monocytes, and lymphocytes. 13. What is another term for thrombocytes? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Erythrocytes d. Red blood cells ANS: A

Thrombocytes, or platelets, are cell fragments that help reduce blood loss from damaged vessel walls by promoting hemostasis or mechanisms that slow blood loss or that stop bleeding. 14. Which type of cells are involved in hemostasis? a. Platelets b. Leukocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Red blood cells ANS: A

Thrombocytes, or platelets, are cell fragments that help reduce blood loss from damaged vessel walls by promoting hemostasis or mechanisms that slow blood loss or that stop bleeding. 15. Which term means slowing blood loss or stopping of bleeding? a. Hypertension b. Hemorrhage c. Homeostasis d. Hemostasis

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ANS: D

Thrombocytes, or platelets, are cell fragments that help reduce blood loss from damaged vessel walls by promoting hemostasis or mechanisms that slow blood loss or that stop bleeding. 16. Which blood type is without antigen A and antigen B? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O ANS: D

Blood type O does not contain any antigen. 17. Which blood type is called the universal recipient? a. Type A b. Type B c. Type AB d. Type O ANS: C

Persons with type AB blood are universal recipients because their blood does not have reactive antibodies. 18. Which blood type is called the universal donor? a. Type A b. Type B TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Type AB d. Type O ANS: D

Persons with type O blood are universal donors because their blood does not have any antibodies in it; it is compatible with all other blood types. Persons with type O blood can donate their blood to almost anyone. 19. Which layer makes up the bulk of the heart wall? a. Epicardium b. Pericardium c. Myocardium d. Endocardium ANS: C

The myocardium, or middle layer, makes up the bulk of the heart wall. 20. Which structure is a superior heart chamber? a. Atrium b. Ventricle c. Coronary sinus d. Pulmonary trunk ANS: A

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The right and left atria are the superior chambers, and are separated by an interatrial septum. They receive blood – the right atrium receives oxygenated-depleted blood from the superior and inferior vena; the left atrium receives oxygen-rich blood from the pulmonary veins. 21. Which structure is an inferior heart chamber? a. Atrium b. Ventricle c. Coronary sinus d. Pulmonary trunk ANS: B

The heart is divided into four chambers. The right atrium, the left atrium, the right ventricle and the left ventricle. The right and left atria are the superior chambers. The right and left ventricles are separated by an interventricular septum, and have trabeculae carneae located within their walls to help them pump blood out of the heart more efficiently. 22. Which structures regulate the flow of blood through the heart? a. Valves b. Atria c. Carotid sinuses d. Atrioventricular septa ANS: A

Valves open and shut to regulate the flow of blood through the heart and keep it on its unidirectional course. 23. The right atrioventricular valve is also known as which valve? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: C

The atrioventricular (AV) valves are located between the atria and the ventricles, and have pointed flaps called cusps. The tricuspid valve has three cusps and it is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle; the tricuspid valve is also called the right AV valve. 24. The bicuspid valve is also known as which valve? a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: A

The bicuspid valve has two cusps and it is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle; the bicuspid valve is also called the left AV value or the mitral valve because it is shaped like a mitre or bishop’s hat. 25. Which valve is located between the aorta and the left ventricle? a. Mitral b. Aortic

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c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: B

The aortic valve or left SL valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta. 26. Which valve is located between the pulmonary trunk and the right ventricle? a. Mitral b. Aortic c. Tricuspid d. Pulmonary ANS: D

The pulmonary valve or right SL valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk. 27. Which factor creates the sounds of a beating heart? a. Closure of the valves b. Closure of the ventricles c. Nerve impulses along the conduction system d. Superior vena cava and pulmonary veins emptying into the atria ANS: A

Closures of the heart valves produce the “lubb-dubb” sounds characteristic of the heartbeat. The “lubb” is the low-pitched sound generated by blood turbulence from closure of both AV valves. The “dubb” is the second higher pitched sound caused by blood turbulence from closure of both the SL valves.

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28. Which term refers to the sequence of events from the beginning of one heartbeat to the

beginning of the next called? a. Pulse b. Cardiac cycle c. Conduction system d. Bradycardia ANS: B

The cardiac cycle is the sequence of events from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next heartbeat. 29. Which term means the number of cardiac cycles that occur in 1 minute? a. Heart rate b. Heart murmur c. Blood pressure d. Conduction system ANS: A

Heart rate is the number of cardiac cycles that occur in 1 minute. 30. Tachycardia is a heart rate of how many beats per minute? a. Fewer than 50 b. 72 to 80 c. 60 to 70

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d. More than 100 ANS: D

Heartbeats over 100 per minute is called tachycardia. 31. Bradycardia is heart rate of how many beats per minute? a. Fewer than 50 b. 72 to 80 c. 60 to 70 d. More than 100 ANS: A

Heartbeats lower than 50 per minute is called bradycardia. 32. Which part of the heart’s conduction generates the heartbeat and sets the pace? a. SA node b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Purkinje fibers ANS: A

The SA node generates the impulse for the heartbeat and sets the pace of the heart rate. Because of this action, the SA node is also called the pacemaker. 33. Which part of the heart’s conduction system is located in the interventricular septum? a. SA node b. AV node c. Bundle of His TESTBANKSELLER.COM d. Purkinje fibers ANS: C

The AV nodes synapses with the bundle of His, and the impulse travels through the interventricular septum to the Purkinje fibers. 34. Which term means the space within blood vessels? a. Fossa b. Cavity c. Lumen d. Sinus ANS: C

The space within the vessels is the lumen. 35. Which term means enlarging or widening of the lumen of a blood vessel? a. Pulse b. Vasodilation c. Cardiac cycle d. Vasoconstriction ANS: B

Vasodilation occurs when the lumen enlarges or widens. 36. Which term means narrowing of the lumen of a blood vessel?

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a. b. c. d.

Pulse Vasodilation Cardiac cycle Vasoconstriction

ANS: D

Vasoconstriction occurs when the lumen becomes smaller or narrows. 37. Which term means an increase in local blood flow? a. Pulse b. Ischemia c. Hyperemia d. Vasoconstriction ANS: C

Increased local blood flow is called hyperemia, which may cause the skin to become reddened and feel warm. 38. Which term means a decrease in local blood flow? a. Pulse b. Ischemia c. Hyperemia d. Vasoconstriction ANS: B

Decreased local blood flow is called ischemia, which may cause the skin to become pale and feel cool.

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39. Which blood vessel is the only artery that transports oxygen-depleted blood? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Pulmonary ANS: D

Blood within most arteries is oxygen-rich; the exception is the pulmonary arteries that transport oxygen-depleted blood from the heart to the lungs. 40. Which term refers to the expansion in arteries that occurs as the heart beats? a. Pulse b. Ischemia c. Hyperemia d. Cardiac output ANS: A

As the heart beats and ejects blood, the arterial walls expand and recoil. This arterial expansion is called a pulse and can be felt in the arteries that lie near the surface of the body or where they lie over bone. 41. Which term means the amount of force exerted by the blood on vessel walls as the heart

beats? a. Cardiac cycle

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b. Stroke volume c. Blood pressure d. Blood volume ANS: C

Blood pressure is the amount of pressure exerted by the blood on vessel walls as the heart beats. 42. Which term means refers to the maximum pressure within an artery during the cardiac cycle? a. Pulse b. Systole c. Diastole d. Vasomodilation ANS: B

Blood pressure readings are expressed as two numbers: a higher number over a lower number as seen in a fraction. The higher number represents systole or systolic pressure. The lower number represents diastole or diastolic pressure. 43. Normal blood pressure reading for an average adult is how many mm Hg? a. 60/90 b. 120/80 c. 145/110 d. 150/120 ANS: B

The normal blood pressure reading for an average adult is about 120/80 mm Hg.

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44. Which structures are the site of exchange between the blood and tissue cells? a. Ventricles b. Veins c. Arteries d. Capillaries ANS: D

Capillaries are the functional unit of the cardiovascular system because this is where the exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes occurs between the blood and tissue cells. 45. Which blood vessel is the only vein that transports oxygen-rich blood? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Pulmonary ANS: D

The blood within most veins is oxygen-depleted, the exception is the pulmonary veins that transport oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart. 46. Which term refers to the rate at which blood flows back to the heart? a. Venous stasis b. Venous return c. Cardiac insufficiency

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d. Cardiac output ANS: B

Venous return is the rate at which blood flows back to the heart. Having a good rate of venous return is important because cardiac output is dependent on cardiac input. 47. Which term means the degree of muscle contraction present within venous walls? a. Venous stasis b. Venomotor tone c. Venous insufficiency d. Venous portal system ANS: B

Changes in the tone of the smooth muscle of venous walls is called venomotor tone, and can affect blood flow and blood pressure. 48. Which pathway replenishes the oxygen supply of the blood and eliminates gaseous wastes? a. Venous portal b. Hepatic portal c. Systemic circuit d. Pulmonary circuit ANS: D

The pulmonary circuit replenishes the blood’s oxygen supply and eliminates gaseous wastes. 49. Which pathway consists of two capillary beds connected through a system of veins? a. Portal system b. Vascular system TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Cardiac circuit d. Pulmonary circuit ANS: A

Venous portal systems are found within the systemic circuit and consist of two capillary beds connected through a system of veins. This way, blood products from one area can be transported directly to another area in relatively high concentrations without going through the heart, which would cause the blood products to become widely distributed. 50. Which artery is the largest in diameter? a. Aorta b. Carotid c. Coronary d. Pulmonary ANS: A

All systemic arteries branch from one major artery, the aorta, which is the largest artery in diameter. 51. Which condition is a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells or their hemoglobin? a. Anemia b. Phlebitis c. Hypertension d. Atherosclerosis

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ANS: A

Anemia is a reduction in the quantity of either RBCs or their hemoglobin, which impairs the blood’s ability to carry oxygen to cells. 52. Which condition is characterized by chest pain from a temporary reduction of blood flow to

the heart? a. Anemia b. Angina pectoris c. Raynaud disease d. Deep vein thrombosis ANS: B

Angina pectoris, or angina, is chest pain from a temporary reduction of blood flow to the heart, usually from narrowed coronary arteries. 53. Which condition is the inability of the heart to pump blood to meet the body’s demands? a. Anemia b. Aneurysm c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Congestive heart failure ANS: D

The term congestive heart failure (CHF) refers to the inability of the heart to pump blood to meet the body’s demands. CHF, also known as heart failure, is not a single disease; it is rather a syndrome or complication associated with other diseases, such as hypertension, CAD, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or previous myocardial infarction or MI.

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54. Which condition involves the presence of atherosclerotic plaque within arteries of the heart? a. Hypertension b. Raynaud disease c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Coronary artery disease ANS: D

Coronary artery disease (CAD) is the presence of atherosclerotic plaque within coronary arteries; these arteries supply the myocardium of the heart. Narrowed arteries reduce blood flow and create ischemia, sometimes leading to myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack. 55. Which condition is inflammation of a vein and blood clot formation? a. Anemia b. Angina pectoris c. Deep vein thrombosis d. Congestive heart failure ANS: C

Inflammation of a deep vein with thrombus or blood clot formation is called deep vein thrombosis (DVT). 56. Which condition is a disorder of intermittent or sustained elevated blood pressure? a. Anemia

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b. Hypertension c. Raynaud disease d. Peripheral vascular disease ANS: B

Hypertension, or high blood pressure (HBP), is a disorder of intermittent or sustained elevated blood pressure. Hypertension is the most prevalent cardiovascular disorder in the United States. 57. Which term means a heart attack, and is characterized by disruption of blood flow to the

heart? a. Raynaud disease b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Myocardial infarction d. Congestive heart failure ANS: C

A myocardial infarction (MI), or heart attack, is a sudden disruption of blood flow to the heart muscle or myocardium caused by an occluded blood vessel or hemorrhage from a broken blood vessel. 58. Which condition is inflammation of the veins? a. Anemia b. Phlebitis c. Hypertension d. Angina pectoris ANS: B

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Phlebitis is an inflammation of the veins. It generally affects the extremities, but any veins, including cranial veins, can be affected. 59. Which condition is characterized by periodic episodes of vasospasm in the fingers and toes? a. Raynaud disease b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Myocardial infarction d. Congestive heart failure ANS: A

Raynaud disease is periodic episodes of vasospasms in the fingers and toes. It also can affect the tip of the nose, parts of the ears, parts of the cheeks, and the tongue. If the condition is primary without an underlying disease, it is called Raynaud disease. If it is a secondary to another disease, such as scleroderma or systemic lupus erythematosus, it is called Raynaud syndrome. 60. Which condition involves dilated veins caused by incompetent valves? a. Anemia b. Hypertension c. Varicose veins d. Angina pectoris ANS: C

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Varicose veins, also called varicosities, are dilated veins. They develop because of a weakness in the vessel wall or by incompetent valves. Once they are dilated, they tend to remain so.

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Chapter 27: Lymphatic System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which functions does the lymphatic system perform? a. Digestion, absorption, and elimination of ingested substances b. Production of heat, maintenance of posture, and production of movement c. Regulation of reproductive processes and helping the body adapt during stress d. Protection of the body through defense mechanisms and transportation of fats ANS: D

The lymphatic system removes excess interstitial fluid, transports fats and fat-soluble vitamins, and protects the body through defense mechanisms. 2. From which fluid is lymph derived? a. Plasma b. Interstitial fluid c. Synovial fluid d. Cytosol ANS: B

Lymph, or lymphatic fluid, is the nearly colorless watery fluid circulating through lymphatic vessels. Lymph is derived from interstitial fluid that is collected by lymphatic capillaries. 3. What do lymph capillaries merge to form? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Lymph ducts b. Lymph nodes c. Lymphatic vessels d. Lymphatic ducts ANS: C

Lymph capillaries merge to form lymphatic vessels. These vessels contain more valves compared with veins and, like venous valves, open in only one direction, permitting lymph to flow toward the center of the body. 4. Which regions does the right lymphatic duct drain lymph from? a. Right lower extremity and foot b. Right arm, left arm, and entire trunk c. Right abdomen, left side of the head, and right arm d. Right arm, right side of the head, and right half of the thorax ANS: D

The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and neck, the right upper extremity, and the right half of the upper trunk, and delivers the lymph to the right subclavian vein. 5. Where does the thoracic duct deliver lymph? a. Left jugular vein b. Abdominal aorta c. Left subclavian vein

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d. Right subclavian vein ANS: C

The thoracic duct drains the rest of the body and delivers the lymph to the left subclavian vein. The thoracic duct begins at the cisterna chyli, a lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2, and lies anterior to the vertebral column. 6. What is the name of lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2? a. Tonsil b. Appendix c. Peyer patch d. Cisterna chyli ANS: D

The cisterna chyli is a lymphatic sac located between the abdominal aorta and L2, and anterior to the vertebral column. 7. Which term is used to describe the movement of lymph through the body? a. Active transport b. Peristalsis c. Lymphokinesis d. Lymph drainage ANS: C

Lymphokinesis is the movement of lymph through the body. 8. Which factor promotes the flow of lymphatic fluid? a. Skeletal muscle movements TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Digestive movements c. Lack of valves in the vessels d. Release from compression by bandages ANS: A

Lymph moves by the milking action of the skeletal muscles, pressure differentials in the thoracic and abdominal cavities created by the movement of the diaphragm and chest during respiration, the contraction and relaxation of smooth muscles within the walls of the vessels, and presence of valves to prevent backflow. Lymph can also move by compressive forces such as massage, clothing, bandages, and even hydrostatic pressure from water. 9. Which structures are the primary lymphatic organs? a. Skin and receptors b. Brain and spinal cord c. Heart and blood vessels d. Red bone marrow and thymus ANS: D

Primary lymphatic organs are involved with the production and maturation of lymphocytes. Primary lymphatic organs include red bone marrow located in spongy bone and the thymus located behind the sternum. 10. What percentage of the total white blood count is represented by lymphocytes? a. 10%

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b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% ANS: B

Along with other types of blood cells, all lymphocytes originate in red bone marrow and comprise approximately 25% of the total WBC count. 11. Where do B cells mature? a. Brainstem b. Thymus c. Thyroid d. Bone marrow ANS: D

Some lymphocytes mature in bone marrow; they are called B lymphocytes or B cells (B = bone marrow). Once mature, they enter the bloodstream where they facilitate defense mechanisms against intruders. 12. Where do T cells mature? a. Brainstem b. Thymus c. Thyroid d. Bone marrow ANS: B

Some lymphocytes are carried in the blood from the bone marrow to the thymus, where they mature in the thymus and become T Ocells TESTBTAlymphocytes NKSELLERor.C M (T = thymus). Once matured, T-cells enter the bloodstream and go to other lymphatic organs where they also provide defense mechanisms. 13. Which structure is bean-shaped and located along the lymphatic chain? a. Thymus b. Spleen c. Lymph node d. Lymphatic duct ANS: C

Lymph nodes are bean-shaped structures that are widely distributed throughout the body along the lymphatic chain. 14. Where are the inguinal lymph nodes located? a. Neck b. Groin c. Axilla d. Intestines ANS: B

Several regions located on each side of the body contain clusters of superficial nodes. These include the cervical region located in neck, the axillary region located in the armpit, and the inguinal region located in the groin.

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15. Where is lymph filtered? a. Thymus b. Lymph node c. Lymphatic duct d. Spleen ANS: B

Lymph nodes filter lymph before returning it to the blood. In fact, lymph nodes are the only structures that filter lymph. 16. Which structure is the largest lymphatic organ? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Appendix ANS: B

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ and is located in the left upper quadrant. 17. Which organ stores lymphocytes and serves as a reservoir for blood? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thymus d. Appendix ANS: B

Lymphocytes in the spleen react to pathogens in the blood and attempt to destroy or inactive them. Macrophages engulfTdebris, other ESTBdamaged ANKSELcells, LERand .CO M microorganisms. The spleen releases lymphocytes when needed to assist in defense mechanisms. The spleen stores blood and can release small amounts into the bloodstream during blood loss. 18. Which term means small groups of lymphatic tissue located along the respiratory and

digestive tracts? a. Lymphatic system b. Thoracic duct system c. Lymphatic vessel chain d. Mucosa-associated lymph tissue ANS: D

Mucosa-associated lymph tissue (MALT) is a collective term to describe small groups of lymphatic tissue located along the respiratory and digestive tracts. These tissues help protect the body from swallowed or inhaled pathogens and invaders. 19. Which type of lymphatic tissue is located in the oral cavity and pharynx? a. Tonsil b. Thymus c. Peyer patch d. Lymph node ANS: A

Tonsils are located in the oral cavity and pharynx.

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20. Which type of lymphatic tissue is located in portions of the small intestine? a. Tonsil b. Thymus c. Lymph node d. Peyer patch ANS: D

Peyer patches are located in portions of the small intestine and are also called intestinal tonsils. 21. Which structure is attached to the cecum of the large intestine? a. Tonsil b. Thymus c. Peyer patch d. Vermiform appendix ANS: D

The vermiform appendix is attached to the cecum which is the first region of the large intestine. Lymphatic tissue is found inside the appendix. 22. Which term refers to defense mechanisms that are directed against all pathogens and foreign

agents and include barriers, cellular responses, and inflammation? a. Specific b. Artificial c. Adaptive d. Nonspecific ANS: D

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Nonspecific defense mechanisms are directed against all pathogens and foreign agents and include barriers, cellular responses, and inflammation. 23. Which term refers to a protective response to tissue damage that is designed to eliminate

pathogens, remove damaged tissues, and create an environment to maximize tissue repair? a. Anabolism b. Inflammation c. Hypersensitivity d. T cell maturation ANS: B

Inflammation is a protective response to tissue damage resulting from a variety of causes, including infection and trauma. The purpose of inflammation is to eliminate pathogens and foreign agents, remove damaged tissues, and create an environment that maximizes tissue repair. 24. Which sign is a part of inflammation? a. Heat b. Pallor c. Cyanosis d. Numbness ANS: A

Heat is a sign of inflammation.

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25. What does the S in the acronym SHARP stands for? a. Spleen b. Sensory c. Swelling d. Subjective ANS: C

The S in SHARP stands for swelling. 26. Which term means the body’s ability to recognize and respond to pathogens and foreign

agents? a. Filtration b. Immunity c. Lymphokinesis d. Hypersensitivity ANS: B

Immunity is the body’s ability to recognize and respond to pathogens and foreign agents. Once exposed to a particular pathogen or foreign agent, the body “remembers” it and launches a quicker attack if the agent enters the body again. 27. Which factor is part of specific immunity? a. Complementary proteins b. Mucous membrane c. Lymphocytes d. Inflammation ANS: C

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Specific defense mechanisms are selective and directed against particular pathogens, provide immunity, and involve lymphocytes. Types of lymphocytes include B cells, which mature in bone marrow, and T cells, which mature in the thymus. 28. Which type of cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity? a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages c. T-cells d. B-cells ANS: C

T-cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity and they directly attack the invading pathogen or foreign agent. 29. What do B cells produce when they encounter a foreign agent? a. Macrophages b. Antibodies c. Lymphocytes d. Neutrophils ANS: B

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B cells provide surveillance, and when they encounter a foreign agent, produce antibodies. The antibodies attack the foreign agent or direct other immune cells to attack it. This type of response is called antibody-mediated immunity. 30. Which condition is a viral infection characterized by progressive impairment of the immune

response and increased susceptibility to infections and cancerous tumors? a. Allergies b. Chronic fatigue syndrome c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ANS: D

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) results from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and is characterized by progressive impairment of the immune response and increased susceptibility to infections and cancerous tumors. 31. Which condition involves altered immunologic responses to otherwise harmless substances? a. Allergies b. Chronic fatigue syndrome c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ANS: A

Allergies are altered immunologic responses to otherwise harmless substances. 32. Which condition is characterized by prolonged, severe, and disabling tiredness that is

unrelieved by rest and may worsen with activity? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Allergy b. Chronic fatigue syndrome c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ANS: B

Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS), also called immune dysfunction syndrome, is characterized by prolonged and severe tiredness and disabling fatigue. This feeling is not relieved by rest and may worsen with physical or mental activity. 33. Which condition is characterized by abnormal accumulation of fluids within interstitial spaces

due to damaged or missing vessels or nodes? a. Edema b. Lymphedema c. Chronic fatigue syndrome d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ANS: B

Lymphedema is swelling caused by abnormal accumulation of fluids within interstitial spaces because lymphatic vessels or nodes are malformed, damaged, or have been surgically removed. 34. Which condition is characterized by an imbalance in the distribution of body fluids but vessels

are still intact?

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a. b. c. d.

Edema Lymphedema Chronic fatigue syndrome Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

ANS: A

Edema is swelling caused by an imbalance in the distribution of body fluids but, unlike in lymphedema, lymphatic vessels are still intact. 35. Which condition is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body’s connective

tissues? a. Allergies b. Chronic fatigue syndrome c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome ANS: C

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease of the body’s connective tissues. It leads to the overproduction of circulating autoantibodies. It commonly affects skin, bones, joints, the nervous system, kidneys, lungs, and other organs.

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Chapter 28: Respiratory System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which functions does the respiratory system perform? a. Digestion, adsorption, and elimination of ingested substances b. Heat production, maintenance of posture, and production of movement c. Gas exchange, olfaction, sound production, and maintenance of homeostasis d. Regulation of the reproductive process and helping the body adapt during stress ANS: C

The respiratory system exchanges gases and is involved with olfaction, sound production, and the maintenance of homeostasis. 2. Which cranial nerve is involved with smell? a. Facial b. Phrenic c. Olfactory d. Trigeminal ANS: C

Scent molecules enter the nose as we inhale. These molecules are forced against the olfactory nerve endings that lie in the superior nasal cavity. Impulses travel from the olfactory nerves to the olfactory bulb and then to the cerebral cortex, which interprets olfactory stimuli.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM 3. Which region contains conchae? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Pharynx d. Nasal cavity ANS: D

The walls of the nasal cavity contain ridged projections called conchae and grooved passageways called meatuses. A meatus lies beneath each conchae. 4. Which region is referred to as the air-conditioning chambers? a. Sinuses b. Trachea c. Bronchia tree d. Nasal cavity ANS: D

The nasal cavity is often referred to as the “air-conditioning chamber.” 5. Which function do the sinuses perform? a. Trigger exhalation b. Improve gas exchange c. Purify the incoming air d. Resonating chamber for sound

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ANS: D

Sinuses lighten the skull, act as resonance chambers for sound, and are named for the bones in which they are located. 6. Which bone has a sinus? a. Maxilla b. Temporal c. Zygomatic d. Mandibula ANS: A

The four paranasal sinuses are the frontal, sphenoidal, ethmoidal, and maxillary sinuses. 7. Which term is synonymous with throat? a. Larynx b. Bronchial tree c. Pharynx d. Nasal cavity ANS: C

The pharynx, or throat, is the muscular tube that extends from the nasal cavity to the larynx. 8. Where are the glottis and vocal cords located? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Bronchial tree d. Nasal cavity ANS: A

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The larynx, or voice box, connects the pharynx to the trachea. The glottis is located within the larynx and contains the vocal cords or vocal folds. Air passed over the vocal cords causing them to vibrate and produce sound. 9. Which structure is referred to as the “guardian of the airways?” a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Pharynx d. Epiglottis ANS: D

The epiglottis also forms a flap over the glottis during swallowing which helps food and water enter into the esophagus. Because of the latter function, the epiglottis is referred to as the “guardian of the airways.” 10. Which structure is the windpipe? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Pharynx d. Epiglottis ANS: B

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The trachea or windpipe is located anterior to the esophagus and connects the larynx with the bronchi. 11. What do the openings in the tracheal rings allow the esophagus to do? a. Compress the trachea during vomiting b. Expand anteriorly into the trachea as food is swallowed c. Conduct food and air, along with the trachea, to the lungs d. Close over the trachea, keeping food from entering the lungs ANS: B

The trachea is approximately 9 inches in length and consists of 16 to 21 C-shaped or semicircular cartilaginous rings located at regular intervals. Openings in the rings allow the esophagus to expand anteriorly into the trachea as food is swallowed. 12. Which structures are the passageways leading from the trachea to each lung? a. Bronchi b. Alveoli c. Sinuses d. Meatuses ANS: A

The right and left primary bronchi lead from the trachea to the right and left lung respectively. 13. Which statement describes the lungs? a. Viral infections are more frequent in the left lung b. Foreign bodies more frequently lodge in the left lung c. Gas exchange occurs more efficiently in the right lung TESTBAlodge NKSEinLthe LEright R.Clung OM d. Foreign objects more frequently ANS: D

The right bronchus is wider and has a steeper downward angle compared to the left. Because of this characteristic, swallowed objects lodge there more often. 14. What are the primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract? a. Alveoli b. Sinuses c. Bronchi d. Lobes ANS: A

Aveoli are air sacs attached to alveolar ducts. Groups of alveoli resemble clusters of grapes called alveolar sacs. Alveoli are the primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract. 15. Which structure is formed by the alveolar membrane, basement membrane, and capillary wall

form? a. Nasal concha b. Vocal cord c. Respiratory membrane d. Bronchial tree ANS: C

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The alveolar epithelium, the basement membrane, and the capillary wall, are collectively referred to as the respiratory membrane. 16. Which substance assists in gas exchange by stabilizing the alveolus and reducing surface

tension? a. Mucus b. Surfactants c. Serous fluid d. Interstitial fluid ANS: B

Alveoli are coated with a fluid containing surfactants. Surfactants assist in gas exchange by stabilizing the alveolus and reducing surface tension. 17. Which structures are the primary organs of respiration? a. Lungs b. Alveoli c. Sinuses d. Bronchi ANS: A

Lungs are the primary organs of respiration. The lungs extend from the clavicles to the diaphragm and lie against the interior ribcage. 18. Which statement describes the lungs? a. The cardiac notch is in the right lung b. Serous fluid reduces friction as the lungs move TEST BAN KSELLER.COM c. Peritoneal cavity surrounds each lung d. Left lung has two lobes, and the right has three ANS: B

The visceral pleura is attached to the lungs and the parietal pleura is attached to the mediastinum and internal chest wall. Between these two membranes is lubricating serous fluid which reduces friction between these layers as the lungs move during breathing. 19. Which term means breathing? a. Biorhythm b. Carbon cycle c. Interval cycle d. Respiratory cycle ANS: D

Breathing, or the respiratory cycle, is the process used to intake air and expel it from the lungs. Breathing consists of two phases, inhalation and exhalation. 20. What is the main muscle of respiration? a. Anterior scalene b. Diaphragm c. Rectus abdominis d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: B

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The diaphragm located between the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the main muscle of respiration. 21. What is the average number of breaths per minute for a resting adult? a. 5–7 b. 9–11 c. 12–16 d. 17–20 ANS: C

At rest, adults breathe approximately 12 to 16 times or cycles a minute; children may breathe up to twice as fast as adults. 22. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm to initiate inhalation? a. Facial b. Phrenic c. Olfactory d. Trigeminal ANS: B

Nerve impulses from the medulla oblongata travel down the phrenic nerve to the diaphragm, causing the diaphragm to contract and initiate inhalation of the respiratory cycle. 23. Which factor determines how long a breath can be held? a. Amount of nitrogen in the blood b. Amount of carbon dioxide in the blood c. Increased nerve impulses to the diaphragm TEtissue STBA KSlungs ELLER.COM d. Increased compliance of inNthe ANS: B

How long individuals can hold their breath is largely determined by elevated levels of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. 24. Which term means the process of taking air into the lungs? a. Inhalation b. Exhalation c. Redolence d. Recruitment ANS: A

Inhalation or inspiration is the process of moving air into the lungs. 25. Which term means the ease with which the thorax and lungs stretch during inhalation? a. Olfaction b. Breathing c. Compliance d. Elastic recoil ANS: C

The ease with which the thorax and lungs are able to stretch during inhalation is called compliance.

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26. Which term means the process of expelling air from the lungs? a. Inhalation b. Exhalation c. Redolence d. Recruitment ANS: B

Exhalation, or expiration, is the process of expelling air from the lungs. 27. Which process involves the tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to their pre-inhalation

size? a. Olfaction b. Breathing c. Compliance d. Elastic recoil ANS: D

The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to their pre-inhalation size is called elastic recoil. 28. Which process is gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in capillaries? a. Tissue respiration b. Internal respiration c. Cellular respiration d. External respiration ANS: D

External respiration is gas T exchange the air.C inOthe ESTBAbetween NKSELL ER M alveoli and the blood in capillaries. Oxygen diffuses from the air in the lungs, crosses the respiratory membrane, and moves into the bloodstream. Oxygen attaches to hemoglobin located in of red blood cells. At the same time, carbon dioxide moves in the opposite direction. 29. Which process is gas exchange between blood in the capillaries and body cells within tissues? a. Internal respiration b. Cellular respiration c. External respiration d. Pulmonary respiration ANS: A

Internal respiration is gas exchange between blood in the capillaries and body cells within tissues. Oxygen crosses the capillary wall and enters the cell. Carbon dioxide diffuses from cells, crosses the capillary wall, and enters the bloodstream. 30. Which statement describes hiccups? a. A very deep inhalation initiated by opening the mouth wide b. Sudden expulsion of air to clear lower respiratory tracts c. Forceful involuntary expulsion of air through the nose and mouth to clear the

upper respiratory tracts d. Spasmodic closure of the vocal cords after forceful contraction of the respiratory muscles ANS: D

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Hiccups, or hiccoughs, is spasmodic closure of the vocal cords after forceful contraction of the respiratory muscles. 31. Which condition involves bronchospasms that cause breathing difficulties in susceptible

people? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Laryngitis d. Emphysema ANS: A

Asthma is bronchospasms that cause breathing difficulties in susceptible people. This condition is usually caused by an allergic reaction or other forms of hypersensitivity. 32. Which condition is inflammation of the mucosa of air passageways with resultant swelling

and mucus hypersecretion? a. Sinusitis b. Bronchitis c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema ANS: B

Inflammation of the bronchial mucosa with resultant swelling and mucus hypersecretion is called bronchitis. The two types of bronchitis are acute and chronic. 33. Which condition is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confined

to the nose and throat? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Hay fever d. Common cold

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ANS: D

A common cold is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confined to the nose and throat, although the larynx can be involved. 34. Which condition is highly contagious? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Hay fever d. Common cold ANS: D

A common cold is acute inflammation of the upper respiratory tract mucosa, usually confined to the nose and throat, although the larynx can be involved. It is highly contagious during the onset of symptoms and then becomes less contagious. 35. Which condition involves permanent enlargement of lower airways accompanied by

destruction of alveolar walls? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis

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c. Laryngitis d. Emphysema ANS: D

Emphysema involves permanent enlargement of lower airways accompanied by destruction of alveolar walls, affecting their elasticity. Obstruction results from changes in lung tissue rather than mucus production and inflammation as seen in asthma and chronic bronchitis. 36. Which general term describes any hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to allergens, usually

plant pollen? a. Asthma b. Hay fever c. Bronchitis d. Common cold ANS: B

Hay fever is a general term used to describe any hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to allergens, usually plant pollen. It occurs annually in approximately 1 in 5 people in the United States. 37. Which condition an acute, highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Influenza d. Emphysema ANS: C

Influenza is an acute, highly TEcontagious STBANKviral SELinfection LER.COofMthe upper respiratory tract, but it can extend into the lower respiratory tract. The various forms of influenza, or “flu,” such as Hong Kong or Beijing, are named for the areas where they were first recognized. 38. Which condition is an infection of the lungs? a. Asthma b. Laryngitis c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema ANS: C

Pneumonia is infection or inflammation of the lungs. According to the CDC, approximately 1 million people in the United States seek care in a hospital due to pneumonia and approximately 50,000 people die from the disease annually. 39. Which condition is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States? a. Asthma b. Bronchitis c. Pneumonia d. Emphysema ANS: C

Pneumonia is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States, affecting older adults, infants, and immunocompromised individuals in particular. Worldwide, pneumonia is a leading cause of death in children.

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40. Which condition is characterized by inflammation of mucosa that line spaces in skull bones? a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Influenza d. Bronchitis ANS: B

Sinusitis is an acute or chronic inflammation of the mucosa that lines the paranasal sinuses. Most cases of sinusitis are acute and resolve in 4 weeks or less.

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Chapter 29: Digestive System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which functions does the digestive system perform? a. Ingestion, absorption, secretion, and defecation b. Production of heat, maintenance of posture, and production of movement c. Gas exchange, olfaction, sound production, and homeostasis d. Regulation of the reproductive process and helping the body adapt during stress ANS: A

The digestive system performs ingestion, digestion, secretion, absorption, and defecation. 2. Which process is mixing and propulsion movements? a. Peristalsis b. Deglutition c. Mastication d. Diaphoresis ANS: A

The muscle layer is composed of circular and longitudinal smooth muscle. This layer is responsible for mixing and propulsion movements called peristalsis, as well as actions of swallowing and defecation. 3. Which term refers to the large flat folded serous membrane within the abdominal cavity? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Perineum b. Periosteum c. Peritoneum d. Pericardium ANS: C

The peritoneum is a large flat folded serous membrane within the abdominal cavity. It secretes serous fluid, which lubricates the viscera and allows peritoneal layers to slide across each other. The peritoneum anchors digestive organs, blood and lymph vessels, and nerves in the abdominal cavity, and helps restrict the spread of infection in the abdominal cavity. 4. Which section of the peritoneum contains significant amounts of fat, and resembles an apron? a. Mesentery b. Mesocolon c. Lesser omentum d. Greater omentum ANS: D

The greater omentum is a double-layered structure, contains significant amounts of fat, and resembles an apron. 5. Which structure is the first portion of the gastrointestinal tract? a. Oral cavity b. Nasal cavity

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c. Pharynx d. Esophagus ANS: A

The oral cavity, or mouth, is the first portion of the GI tract and contains the teeth, tongue, and openings for the salivary glands. 6. Which term means a small round mass of food? a. Villus b. Bolus c. Chyme d. Sphincter ANS: B

As food is chewed, the tongue mixes it with saliva to form a bolus, which is a small round mass of food. 7. Which substance breaks down carbohydrates? a. Pepsin b. Gastrin c. Lingual lipase d. Salivary amylase ANS: D

Salivary amylase, or ptyalin, initiates carbohydrate breakdown. 8. Which substance breaks lipids down into glycerol and fatty acids? a. Pepsin TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Gastrin c. Lingual lipase d. Salivary amylase ANS: C

Lingual lipase breaks lipids down into glycerol and fatty acids. 9. Which term means swallowing? a. Peristalsis b. Deglutition c. Mastication d. Diaphoresis ANS: B

The pharynx, or throat, is involved with swallowing (deglutition). 10. Which structure aids in the transport of food and liquids from the pharynx to the stomach? a. Trachea b. Pharynx c. Esophagus d. Duodenum ANS: C

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The esophagus is located behind the trachea and aids in the transport of food and liquids from the pharynx to the stomach. As it descends toward the stomach, the esophagus pierces the diaphragm at the esophageal hiatus. 11. Which term means a ring of muscle that remains contracted to close or guard an opening? a. Villus b. Bolus c. Chyme d. Sphincter ANS: D

A sphincter is a ring of muscle that remains contracted to close or guard an opening. 12. Which structure is a J-shaped saclike organ located between the esophagus and the small

intestine? a. Pharynx b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder ANS: B

The stomach is a J-shaped saclike organ located between the esophagus and the small intestine. The stomach is essentially an enlargement of the GI tract bound at both ends by sphincters, and serves as an expandable food storage tank. 13. Which term means the semiliquid substance churned by the stomach? a. Bolus TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Saliva c. Chyme d. Sphincter ANS: C

The stomach churns and mixes the food with gastric juice, which is a blend of enzymes and acids, until it becomes a semiliquid substance called chyme. 14. What is the pyloric sphincter located between? a. Esophagus and stomach b. Stomach and small intestine c. Small intestine and large intestine d. Large intestine and the outside of the body ANS: B

The pyloric sphincter is located between the stomach and the small intestine. 15. What do the chief cells in the stomach’s lining secrete? a. Bile b. Pepsin c. Salivary amylase d. Hydrochloric acid ANS: B

Pepsin, an enzyme secreted by chief cells, digests proteins.

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16. What do the parietal cells in the stomach’s lining secrete? a. Bile b. Pepsin c. Salivary amylase and lingual lipase d. Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor ANS: D

Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor are secreted by parietal cells. 17. What is the first section of the small intestine called? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Duodenum ANS: D

The duodenum is the first and shortest portion, and is approximately 10 to 12 inches in length. 18. Where do ducts from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas enter the intestines? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Jejunum d. Duodenum ANS: D

The duodenum is the first and shortest portion, and is approximately 10 to 12 inches in length. It contains ducts from the liver, TESTgallbladder, BANKSELand LEpancreas. R.COM 19. Which term means the fingerlike projections in the lining of the small intestine that house

blood and lymph vessels? a. Villi b. Cilia c. Rugae d. Flagella ANS: A

The walls of the small intestine have circular folds called plicae circulares that are lined with numerous fingerlike projections called villi. Each villus contains a blood capillary and a lymphatic capillary called a lacteal. 20. What percentage of absorption occurs in the length of the small intestine? a. 10% b. 40% c. 60% d. 90% ANS: D

Ninety percent of absorption occurs in the length of the small intestine; the remainder occurs in the stomach and large intestine. 21. Maltase, sucrase and lactase digest which type of nutrient?

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a. b. c. d.

Vitamin Lipid Protein Carbohydrate

ANS: D

Intestinal glands secrete enzymes such as peptidase and enterokinase, which facilitate protein digestion; lipase which facilities fat digestion, and disaccharidases, maltase, sucrase, and lactase, which facilitate carbohydrate digestion. 22. What is the ileocecal sphincter located between? a. Esophagus and stomach b. Stomach and small intestine c. Small intestine and large intestine d. Large intestine and the outside of the body ANS: C

The ileocecal sphincter is located between the ileum of the small intestine and the cecum of the large intestine. 23. What substances does the large intestine absorb? a. Fats and lipids b. Proteins and peptides c. Water and electrolytes d. Carbohydrates and starches ANS: C

The primary functions of the include of water and electrolytes, TElarge STBintestine ANKSEL LER.absorption COM production of certain vitamins such as vitamin K and some B vitamins, formation of feces or stools, and elimination of wastes. 24. Which section of the large intestine is a blind pouch located in the right lower quadrant of the

abdomen? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Rectum d. Haustra ANS: B

The cecum is a blind pouch located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. 25. The vermiform appendix is suspended from the inferior portion of which structure? a. Ileum b. Cecum c. Rectum d. Haustra ANS: B

Suspended from the inferior portion of the cecum is the vermiform appendix which contains lymphatic tissue. 26. Which part of the colon connects to the rectum?

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a. b. c. d.

Transverse Ascending Sigmoid Descending

ANS: C

The S-shaped sigmoid colon continues to the middle of the abdomen, where it joins the rectum. The rectum is the last section of the large intestine and is about 7 to 8 inches in length. 27. Which term refers to the pouches in the large intestine formed by the taeniae coli appearance? a. Villi b. Haustra c. Microvilli d. Plicae circulares ANS: B

Haustra are the pouches in the large intestine that give it a segmented appearance. 28. Which substance does the liver secrete? a. Bile b. Lipase c. Pepsin d. Trypsin ANS: A

The main secretion of the liver that serves digestive functions is bile. Bile is a greenish yellow liquid that emulsifies fat which means dispersing large globules into small droplets. This allows pancreatic lipase, a Tfat-digesting to.work ESTBANKenzyme, SELLER COMmore efficiently. 29. Which structure stores and concentrates bile? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Stomach d. Gallbladder ANS: D

The gallbladder is a hollow, pear-shaped sac that lies on the inferior surface of the liver. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile produced by the liver. 30. Which nutrients do trypsin and chymotrypsin from the pancreas digest? a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Lipids d. Minerals ANS: B

The pancreas secretes enzymes that break down all categories of digestible foods. Trypsin and chymotrypsin facilitate protein digestion. 31. Which condition is a progressive liver disease in which destroyed cells are replaced by scar

tissue? a. Ulcerative colitis

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b. Cirrhosis c. Crohn disease d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: B

Cirrhosis is a progressive disease characterized by degeneration and regeneration of liver tissue. As liver cells are destroyed, they are replaced by fibrous scar tissue, giving the liver a yellow-orange color and a cobbled appearance called a “hobnail liver.” 32. Which term refers to infrequent or difficult passing of stools? a. Ulcer b. Diarrhea c. Colitis d. Constipation ANS: D

Constipation is infrequent or difficult passing of stools. Normal bowel habits range from two to three evacuations daily to three per week and depend on various factors. 33. Which condition is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that most commonly affects the

beginning of the large intestine and end of the small intestine? a. Gallstones b. Crohn disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: B

Crohn disease is an inflammatory TESTBbowel ANKSdisease ELLEthat R.Cmost OM commonly affects the beginning of the large intestine and end of the small intestine, but any part of the GI tract can be affected. The disease can extend through all of the intestine’s layers. Chronic inflammation thickens the walls of the GI tract, giving it a cobblestone appearance. 34. Which term refers to frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools? a. Ulcer b. Diarrhea c. Colitis d. Constipation ANS: B

Frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools is called diarrhea. 35. Where can gallstones become lodged? a. Appendix b. Cystic duct c. Pancreatic duct d. Cecum ANS: B

Masses of solid material or stones called calculi that form in the gallbladder are gallstones. Gallstones may remain undetected or become lodged in the cystic or common bile duct. 36. Which condition involves periodic regurgitation of gastric contents into the esophagus?

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a. b. c. d.

Cirrhosis Crohn disease Ulcerative colitis Gastroesophageal reflux disease

ANS: D

Periodic regurgitation of gastric contents into the esophagus is known as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). GERD is most often caused by one of two scenarios: relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) or increase in intraabdominal pressure. 37. Which condition is characterized by abnormal muscular contractions of the colon? a. Gallstones b. Hepatitis c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: D

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is characterized by abnormal muscular contractions of the colon. 38. Which condition involves damaged areas of the gastrointestinal mucosa that are exposed to

acidic gastric juice? a. Cirrhosis b. Hepatitis c. Crohn disease d. Peptic ulcer disease ANS: D

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Peptic ulcer disease is ulcerations of the mucosal lining in parts of the GI tract exposed to acidic gastric juice. The word peptic refers to the stomach enzyme pepsin, which breaks down proteins. Ulcerations, which can be chronic or acute, can be found in the lower esophagus (esophageal ulcers), in the distal portion of the stomach (gastric ulcers), or in the proximal end of the duodenum (duodenal ulcers). 39. Which condition involves inflammation of the large intestine? a. Cirrhosis b. Hepatitis c. Ulcerative colitis d. Peptic ulcer disease ANS: C

Ulcerative colitis (UC) is an IBD that usually begins in the rectum and then spreads proximally, eventually involving the entire colon. 40. Which term means inflammation of the liver? a. Cystitis b. Hepatitis c. Sarcoidosis d. Crohn disease ANS: B

Hepatitis refers to inflammation of the liver. All types of hepatitis cause damage to liver cells.

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Chapter 30: Urinary System and Pathologies Salvo: Massage Therapy, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means study of kidney function? a. Neurology b. Enterology c. Nephrology d. Urology ANS: C

Urology is the study of the urinary system and nephrology is the study of kidney function. 2. Which function does the urinary system perform? a. Exchange of gases b. Movement of the body c. Regulation of the digestive process d. Regulation of blood volume ANS: D

The urinary system regulates eliminates wastes, regulates chemical composition of blood, regulates blood pH, regulates blood volume and fluid balance, regulates blood pressure, regulates red blood cell production, and helps maintain homeostasis. 3. Which structure is the principal organ of the urinary system? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Lung b. Bladder c. Kidney d. Prostate ANS: C

The kidneys, the two principal organs of the urinary system, are located bilaterally at the spinal level of T11 to L3. 4. Which term refers to the indentation located on the medial side of the kidney? a. Pelvis b. Hilus c. Bladder d. Nephron ANS: B

The medial indentation where structures such as the renal arteries, veins, and ureters enter and exit is called the hilus. 5. If one kidney is removed, the other kidney increases its filtering capacity to what percentage

of that of two normal kidneys? a. 50% b. 60% c. 80%

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d. 100% ANS: C

If one kidney is removed, the other will then increase its filtering capacity up to 80% of the capacity of two normal kidneys. 6. What is the outer region of the kidney called? a. Cortex b. Dermal c. Parietal d. Medulla ANS: A

Each kidney has two main regions. The outer region is the cortex and the inner region is the medulla. 7. What is the filtering unit of the kidneys called? a. Pelvis b. Hilum c. Bladder d. Nephron ANS: D

The kidneys are composed of filtering units called nephrons. Nephrons are specialized tube-shaped structures that filter blood, reabsorb nutrients, and form and excrete urine. 8. Which structures are the two main regions of the nephron? a. Renal artery and renal T vein ESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Renal cortex and renal medulla c. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule d. Renal viscera and renal periphery ANS: C

Each nephron has a vascular component, called the renal corpuscle which is made up of a glomerulus and a Bowman capsule, and a tubular component, called the renal tubule. 9. What are the two main components of the renal corpuscle? a. Cortex and medulla b. Pyramids and columns c. Bowman capsule and glomerulus d. Seminal vesicles and epididymis ANS: C

Each nephron has a vascular component, called the renal corpuscle which is made up of a glomerulus and a Bowman capsule. 10. What are the clusters of capillaries within the renal corpuscles called? a. Pyramid b. Trigone c. Microvilli d. Glomeruli

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ANS: D

Afferent arterioles branch into glomeruli, which are clusters of capillaries surrounded by Bowman capsules. 11. What is the network of blood vessels surrounding the renal tubules called? a. Glomerulus b. Renal capillaries c. Venus portal system d. Peritubular capillaries ANS: D

Blood exits glomeruli and flows into efferent arterioles and then into peritubular capillaries, a network of capillaries surrounding renal tubules. 12. What is the purpose of the juxtaglomerular apparatus? a. Transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder b. Monitor blood pressure c. Filter wastes out of urine d. Reabsorb substances from filtrate back into the blood ANS: B

The juxtaglomerular cells, also called granular cells, within the juxtaglomerular apparatus are mechanoreceptors which monitor blood pressure. 13. Which substance is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells when blood pressure drops in the

afferent arteriole? a. Renin TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Growth hormone c. Aldosterone d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: A

The juxtaglomerular cells release renin to ultimately raise blood pressure. 14. Which structure is a slender, hollow tube that extends from the renal pelvis of the kidneys to

the urinary bladder? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Prostate gland d. Bulbourethral gland ANS: A

The ureters are two slender tubes that extend from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder. 15. Which structure is an expandable sac that stores urine? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Kidney d. Bladder ANS: D

The urinary bladder is an expandable sac that temporarily stores urine.

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16. Which term refers to the folds in the lining of the urinary bladder that permit expansion? a. Villi b. Calyx c. Rugae d. Cortex ANS: C

The interior lining of the bladder contains transitional epithelium and folds called rugae, both which help the bladder expand as it fills with urine. (Rugae are typical of expanding structures such as the stomach, gallbladder, and vagina.) 17. Which structure is a narrow tube located below the bladder that conducts urine out of the

body? a. Ureter b. Urethra c. Gallbladder d. Urinary bladder ANS: B

The urethra is a narrow tube located below the bladder that conducts urine out of the body. In males, the urethra extends through both the prostate and penis; both urine and semen travel down this tube. In females, the path of the urethra is between the vaginal opening and the clitoris and functions only to pass urine. 18. Which process occurs during the first step of filtering blood and manufacturing urine? a. Blood enters the glomerulus TESTBthe ANurethra KSELLER.COM b. Urine leaves the body through c. Substances are reabsorbed back into the blood d. Substances are secreted that increase blood pressure ANS: A

Glomerular filtration is the first step in the process of filtering blood and manufacturing of urine. 19. During tubular reabsorption, approximately what percentage of molecules that were initially

filtered are reabsorbed back into the bloodstream? a. 10% b. 40% c. 75% d. 99% ANS: D

During tubular reabsorption, approximately 99% of the filtrate initially filtered is reabsorbed from the renal tubule back into peritubular blood. 20. Which stage involves the movement of molecules from the peritubular blood into the renal

tubule? a. Filtration b. Diffusion c. Tubular secretion

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d. Tubular reabsorption ANS: C

During tubular secretion, very small amount of selected substances, such as extra wastes and electrolytes, move from peritubular blood into the renal tubule. 21. Which term means urination? a. Voiding b. Ingestion c. Deglutition d. Incontinence ANS: A

Urination is the release of urine from the urinary bladder. Urination is also called voiding or micturition. 22. Which substance stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water? a. Renin b. Calcitriol c. Erythropoietin d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: D

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secreted by the posterior pituitary stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water, which decreases urine output and concentrates urine. 23. Which substance stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water, and excrete potassium? a. Renin TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoeitin d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: B

The hormone aldosterone secreted by the adrenal cortex stimulates the reabsorption of sodium and water, and the excretion of potassium. 24. Which term refers to an abnormal accumulation of body fluids in various compartments? a. Cystitis b. Dehydration c. Edema d. Incontinence ANS: C

Edema is abnormal accumulation of body fluids in various compartments, especially in interstitial spaces. 25. Which condition means the kidneys are unable to adequately perform their physiologic

functions? a. Pyelonephritis b. Renal failure c. Cystitis d. Urinary incontinence

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ANS: B

Kidney failure involves the inability of the kidneys to adequately perform their physiologic functions. Kidney failure is also called renal failure. 26. Which condition is characterized by small, hard masses? a. Kidney stones b. Kidney failure c. Pyelonephritis d. Cystitis ANS: A

Kidney stones are small, hard masses that form inside the kidney. They are created by the union of various substances, especially calcium phosphate, calcium oxalate, uric acid, and cystine, followed by progressive enlargement. 27. Which condition is loss of bladder control? a. Cystitis b. Pyelonephritis c. Urinary retention d. Urinary incontinence ANS: D

Urinary incontinence, or UI, is loss of bladder control. 28. What are the two main types of urinary incontinence? a. Stress and urge b. Acute and chronic TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Complex and tertiary d. Primary and secondary ANS: A

The two main types of urinary incontinence are stress incontinence and urge incontinence. 29. Which condition is an infection of the upper urinary tract and involves the ureters and

kidneys? a. Pyelonephritis b. Cystitis c. Micturition d. Incontinence ANS: A

Pyelonephritis is an infection of the upper urinary tract and involves the ureters and kidneys. 30. Which condition is a bladder infection? a. Cystitis b. Hepatitis c. Pharyngitis d. Bronchitis ANS: A

Urinary tract infection (UTI) is a general term for infection of one or more structures of the urinary system. UTIs are classified according to their location. Cystitis is a bladder infection.

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