TEST BANK for Medical Assisting Administrative And Clinical Competencies Update 8th Edition by Miche by ACADEMIAMILL

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant Medical Assisting Administrative And Clinical Competencies Update 8th Edition Blesi Test Bank 1. Medical assisting is probably not for you if you: a have an interest in health and medicine . b. are good at multi-tasking c. do not like variety in your job d. are interested in a career in an expanding field ANSWER:

2. Which category of skills include those that keep medical assistants practicing within their scope of practice? a. communication b. legal and ethical concepts c. instruction d. operational functions ANSWER: b 3. Which of these is an example of an administrative skill? a. collecting specimens b. performing vital signs c. administering medications d. medical record preparation ANSWER:

4. Which of these is an example of a clinical skill? a performing patient screenings . b. c. d. ANSWER:

performing bookkeeping and collection procedures scheduling appointments preparing submittal (“clean”) insurance forms

5. Medical assistants are generally allowed to: a perform examinations . b. diagnose illnesses c. prescribe treatment d. assist in the administration of treatment ANSWER: 6. The majority of medical assistants work in which type of environment? a. surgical b. insurance company c. ambulatory care

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant d.

laboratory

ANSWER:

7. The expenses involved in running a business have made which of the following rare today? a. solo practices b. partnerships c. multi-provider clinics d. hospitals ANSWER:

8. Urgent care centers: a originated about 10 years ago . b. c. d. ANSWER:

are usually open only on weekends typically require patients to make an appointment take care of patients with acute illness or injury d

9. The Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is a team-based model of care led by: a a surgeon . b. the patient c. a personal provider d. a health insurance company representative ANSWER:

10. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, employment of medical assistants is expected to 2022. a. grow 118 percent b. grow 29 percent c. remain about the same d. shrink 17 percent ANSWER: 11. For good grooming, it is recommended that you brush and floss your teeth at least a. once b. twice c. three times d. five times ANSWER: 12. To be more efficient with your time, it is recommended that you do not: a focus on your most important tasks each day

from 2012 to

a day.

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant b. learn to say no to low-priority requests c. stay away from bad habits that rob you of your time d. be a perfectionist for tasks that don’t require your best effort ANSWER:

13. Which of these tasks is typically the lowest priority? a working on pending files that have tasks . b. performing procedures and dismissing patients c. rooming patients d. assisting the provider with emergencies and procedures ANSWER:

14. The American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) traces its roots back to: a. 1935 b. 1955 c. 1975 d. 1995 ANSWER:

15. Candidates for the CMA (AAMA) Certification Exam are allowed a ------- day period in which to take the exam. a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 ANSWER: c 16. Which organization offers the Registered Medical Assistant certification? a American Medical Technologists (AMT) . b. c. d. ANSWER:

American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC) a

17. Which organization offers certification examinations for the National Certified Medical Assistant and National Certified Medical Office Assistant? a American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC) . b. c.

National Healthcareer Association (NHA) American Medical Technologists (AMT)

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant d. ANSWER:

National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) d

18. Candidate certification from the NCCT is valid for a period of each candidate’s certificate. a.2 b.5 c.7 d. 10 ANSWER:

years, from the date of certification indicated on

19. A requirement for maintaining NCCT certification is the accrual of year. a. 14 b. 10 c. 22 d. 34 ANSWER:

b clock hours of continuing education each

20. To qualify to sit for an NHA certification exam, you must graduate from an NHA-approved health care training program or have at least: a 6 months of full-time job experience and a high school diploma or GED b. 6 months of full-time job experience and an associate’s degree c. 1 year of full-time job experience and a high school diploma or GED d. 1 year of full-time job experience and an associate’s degree ANSWER: c 21. AACP offers several types of certifications. Which of the following is not an AAPC certification? a Certified Professional Coder (CPC) (Outpatient Physician Office Credential) b. Certified Professional Coder (CPC-OP) (Outpatient Clinic) c. Certified Professional Coder-Hospital Outpatient (CPC-H) (Outpatient Hospital/Facility Credential) d. Certified Professional Coder-Payer (CPC-P) (Payer Coding Credential) ANSWER:

22. Which of the following is the AAPC certification for physician practice? a. CPC-P® b. CMAA c. CPC-H® d.

CPC®

ANSWER: Match each term with its definition. a. American Medical Technologists (AMT)

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n.

professionalism advocate multi-provider clinic programmatic accreditation institutional accreditation generalist perfume jewelry partnership National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT) occupational analysis American Academy of Professional Coders (AAPC) National Healthcareer Association

23. Identifies three broad areas of practice for medical assistants certified through the AAMA ANSWER:

24. Person who looks out for patients ANSWER:

25. Medical assistant who performs both clinical and administrative duties ANSWER:

26. Type of medical practice made up of at least two physicians ANSWER: 27. Type of medical practice made up of at least three physicians ANSWER:

28. Behaviors such as displaying tact, diplomacy, courtesy, respect, and dignity are the utmost important skills

of a medical assistant, demonstrating responsibility in all aspects of the job and promoting integrity and honesty ANSWER:

29. This not only looks out of place in a medical setting, it is also a great collector of microorganisms ANSWER:

30. Something that may be offensive to patients, especially if they have allergies or are suffering from nausea ANSWER: h 31. Type of accreditation offered by the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education Schools (ABHES) ANSWER: 32. Type of accreditation offered by the Accrediting Commission of Career Schools and Colleges (ACCSC) ANSWER:

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant 33. Organization, founded in 1939, that serves as a certification and membership society for several allied health professionals, including medical assistants, phlebotomists, and medical lab assistants ANSWER: a 34. Organization that offers certification examinations for National Certified Medical Assistant (NCMA) and National Certified Medical Office Assistant (NCMOA) ANSWER: k 35. Organization that produces publications including Healthcare Business Magazine, Healthcare Business Tips & Resources, and ICD-10 Tips and Resources ANSWER: m 36. Organization, established in 1989 as a certification agency, that offers eight certification exams for several allied health care areas, including the CCMA and CMAA ANSWER: n Match each professional trait with its definition. a. courteous b. initiative c. dependable d. punctual e. accurate f. respectful g. patient h. honest i. confidential 37. Being detail-oriented and ensuring that information is correct ANSWER:

38. Being polite and well-mannered ANSWER:

39. Being prudent and conscious, especially in regard to speech ANSWER:

40. Being reliable and responsible ANSWER:

41. Being trustworthy and truthful ANSWER:

42. Showing ambition ANSWER:

43. Acting calm when things don’t necessarily go as planned

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant ANSWER:

44. Being in exact agreement with time ANSWER:

45. Showing regard for others even if you disagree with their message ANSWER:

Match each professionalism trait with its definition. a. tactful b. team player c. empathetic d. adaptable 46. The ability to adjust ANSWER:

47. Be able to perceive a situation and know the right thing to say or do ANSWER:

48. Put yourself in another person’s shoes; think about what is best for the patient ANSWER:

49. Work cooperatively with a group of people ANSWER:

50. Which of the following defines the principles of self-boundaries? a not examining, diagnosing, or prescribing treatment . b. knowing when to back off in a confrontation c. understanding the sender-receiver feedback philosophy d. all of the above ANSWER:

51. Which of the following describes the role of the patient navigator prior to the patient seeing the provider? a Conduct a preplanning visit with the patient prior to the office visit to assist with the visit agenda. b. Obtain a basic history including medication use. c. Perform any needed tests that are due. d. All of the above ANSWER: 52. Which of the following describes the role of the patient navigator during the patient with the provider?

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant a documenting the provider’s remarks or findings in the medical record, filling out documents, and

ordering laboratory tests and radiograph studies b. assisting with referrals, queuing electronic prescriptions for the provider to approve and send to the pharmacy c. assisting with procedures d. all of the above ANSWER:

Match the following description of how to project a professional appearance to the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. cleanliness b. posture c. hand care d. hair e. proper attire f. jewelry g. fragrances h. cosmetics 53. Should be tasteful and skillfully applied ANSWER:

54. Looks out of place and it is a great collector of microorganisms ANSWER:

55. Can be offensive to some patients, especially if they have allergies or are suffering from nausea ANSWER:

56. Take a daily bath or shower and use a deodorant or antiperspirant ANSWER:

57. Some facilities have policies that prohibit any use at all ANSWER:

58. Shampoo your hair often ANSWER:

59. Affects not only your appearance but also the amount of fatigue you experience ANSWER:

60. Novelty piercings, such as nose rings and tongue studs, are not appropriate for professional grooming and

may not be allowed by the facility ANSWER:

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant 61. Keep your fingernails manicured and cut well below the fingertips ANSWER:

62. Start each day with an aseptic hand wash, paying close attention to nails ANSWER:

63. Brush and floss your teeth at least twice a day; use mouthwash or breath mints when necessary ANSWER:

64. The ease with which you move around reflects your poise and confidence ANSWER:

65. Keep it clean and away from your face; if it is long, it should be worn up or fastened back ANSWER:

66. When uniforms are required, they should be clean and free of wrinkles and fit well ANSWER:

67. Follow institutional guidelines in relation to artificial nails and polishes (most facilities prohibit artificial

nails, colored nail polish, and art) ANSWER:

68. Uniform shoes should be kept clean and have clean shoestrings; hose must not have runs ANSWER:

69. Pay attention to the undergarments you wear beneath the uniform so that they do not show through the fabric

of your uniform and that t-shirts or other long-sleeved shirts look professional ANSWER:

70. Wear watch or wedding ring only ANSWER: 71. Which of the following is not considered a positive personal trait? a sharing information on social networking sites . b. friendly attitude c. genuine smile d. perception as a professional ANSWER: 72. Which of the following will not assist you in being more efficient with your time? a Be a perfectionist for tasks that don’t require your best effort. b. Make a daily list of tasks and projects that must be completed. c. Learn to say no to low-priority requests—especially those that are optional.

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant d. Stay away from bad habits that rob you of your time such as surfing the Internet or using the phone

for extended lengths of time. ANSWER:

The clinical side of medical assisting has a natural progression. Match what takes priority when working in a clinical capacity with the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b. c. d.

first priority second priority third priority fourth priority

73. Performing procedures and dismissing patients ANSWER:

74. When a room becomes vacant, clean and prepare it for the next patient ANSWER:

75. Assisting the provider with emergencies and procedures ANSWER:

76. Working on pending files that have tasks ANSWER:

77. Learning to anticipate when a patient might need a special procedure performed is a good skill to cultivate ANSWER: a 78. Calling back patients with test results, calling in prescriptions per the provider’s order, and so on ANSWER: d 79. Try to stay one to two rooms ahead of the provider; the provider should never have to wait for the medical

assistant to room a patient ANSWER:

80. Retrieve the patient from the reception area, document the patient’s chief complaint, and perform vital signs ANSWER: b 81. The medical assistant can save time by preparing items necessary for the procedure ahead of time, but do not

open any supplies until a direct order is given to perform the procedure ANSWER:

There are three main areas of medical assisting: general, administrative, and clinical. Match the term to its description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. general skills b. administrative skills c. clinical skills

Chapter 01: The Medical Assistant 82. Help manage the business affairs of the practice ANSWER:

83. Psychology, communication, professionalism ANSWER:

84. Establishing patient medical records, scheduling appointments and practice finances ANSWER:

85. Anatomy and physiology, infection control, patient intake, and documentation of care ANSWER:

86. Medical law/regulatory guidelines, medical ethics, risk management ANSWER:

87. Patient preparation and assisting the provider ANSWER:

88. Medical reception, patient navigator/advocate, medical business practices ANSWER:

89. Quality assurance and safety, and medical terminology ANSWER:

90. Nutrition, collecting and processing specimens, diagnostic testing ANSWER:

91. Pharmacology and emergency management/basic first aid ANSWER:

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present 1. The term health care provider does not apply to a: a. physician b. hospital c. medical assistant d. clinic ANSWER: 2. A physician must spend

years in medical school. a.2 b.4 c.6 d.8

ANSWER:

3. Physicians may lose their license to practice medicine if they: a are accused of a crime such as tax evasion . b. c. d. ANSWER:

refuse to betray patient-physician confidence use any amount of alcohol commit fraud when applying for the medical license d

4. Which type of physician specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the skin? a. dermatologist b. endocrinologist c. anesthesiologist d. hospitalist ANSWER: 5. A(n)

ANSWER:

diagnoses and treats disorders of the internal organs. a. nephrologist b. hematologist c. internist d. oncologist c

6. Which type of physician specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases, disorders, and problems associated with aging? a. gynecologist b. radiologist c. urologist d. gerontologist ANSWER: d Page 1

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present 7. Which of these people would be treated by a pediatrician? a an adolescent with a bacterial infection . b. a pregnant woman c. an older male with prostate enlargement d. an adult woman with cancer ANSWER:

8. Which of these is considered a non-physician specialty? a. psychiatry b. dentistry c. plastic surgery d. obstetrics ANSWER:

9. The ancient

introduced the practice of using leeches for medicinal blood removal. a. Egyptians b. Hindus c. Chinese d. Romans

ANSWER:

10. Who is considered the founder of scientific medicine? a. Asklepios b. Claudius Galen c. Hippocrates d. Socrates ANSWER:

11. The primary contribution of the Romans to medicine was their: a. scientific approach to dissection b. development of the first vaccine c. focus on sanitation d. discovery of aspirin ANSWER:

12. In ancient Greece, patients slept while a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

licked their wounds and Asklepios applied salves. frogs snakes dogs cats Page 2

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present 13. The medical school at Salerno, Italy, founded around 850 CE was: a created by a group of four Italian scholars . b. c. d. ANSWER:

open only to men open only to Italians known for teaching medicine using a sound basis d

14. The major contribution of to medicine was distinguishing smallpox from measles. a. Rhazes b. Aristotle c. Trotula Platearius d. Alcmaeon ANSWER:

15. The founder of modern nursing was: a. Rene Laennec b. Trotula Platearius c. Florence Nightingale d. Marie Curie ANSWER:

16. Who was the chemist who discovered microorganisms could be destroyed by heating? a. Louis Pasteur b. Joseph Lister c. Walter Reed d. Elizabeth Blackwell ANSWER:

17. Who pioneered open-heart surgery, and with two electronic engineers, perfected a pacemaker? a. Charles Hufnagel b. Jonas Salk c. C. Walton Lillehei d. Ake Senning ANSWER:

18. Which legislation is intended to limit health administration costs, provide for patient information privacy, and prevent fraud and abuse? a HIPAA—Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act b. American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Page 3

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present d. Controlled Substances Act ANSWER:

19. Which of the following focuses on three types of energies present in all things: vata, pitta, and kapha? a. biofeedback b. homeopathy c. ayurvedic medicine d. acupuncture ANSWER:

20. Magnet therapy is primarily promoted as a treatment for: a. nasal and sinus congestion b. nausea c. insomnia d. pain ANSWER:

21. The term

refers to what you see in your mind’s eye. a. imagery b. visualization c. qi d. reflexology

ANSWER:

Match each occupational title with its corresponding description. a. sonographer b. audiologist c. surgical technologist d. medical coder e. physical therapist f. medical biller g. dietitian h. pharmacy technician i. emergency medical technician (EMT) j. respiratory therapist 22. Works with patients who have hearing and balance disorders ANSWER:

23. Assists a surgeon and surgical team before, during, and after a procedure ANSWER:

24. Evaluates, diagnoses, and treats movement disorders in patients with musculoskeletal injuries and illness Page 4

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present ANSWER:

25. Creates images of structures within the body using sound waves instead of X-rays ANSWER:

26. Creates a billing statement listing all charges a patient has incurred for services rendered and sends the bill to the patient, insurance company, or attorney ANSWER: f 27. Assists licensed pharmacists in preparing medications for patients and, in certain cases, administering the medicine ANSWER: h 28. Uses an alphanumeric coding system for diagnoses and procedures in a manner that results in the maximum reimbursement for the provider and fewer fees billed to the patient ANSWER: d 29. Assists patients in regulating their diets ANSWER:

30. Performs procedures of treatment that maintain or improve the ventilatory function of the respiratory tract in patients ANSWER: j 31. Administers specialized emergency care to victims of acute illness or injury and transportation to medical facility ANSWER: i Match each specialty with its primary focus. a. neurology b. endocrinology c. nuclear medicine d. gynecology e. physical medicine f. otorhinolaryngology g. psychiatry h. psychology i. allergy j. ophthalmology 32. Diagnosing and treating diseases and malfunctions of the glands of internal secretion ANSWER:

33. Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the female reproductive tract ANSWER:

34. Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the eye ANSWER:

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present 35. Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders with physical agents ANSWER:

36. Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the nervous system ANSWER:

37. Diagnosing and treating diseases with the use of radionuclides ANSWER:

38. Diagnosing and treating pronounced manifestations of emotional problems or mental illness that may have an organic causative factor ANSWER: g 39. Diagnosing and treating conditions of altered immunologic reactivity ANSWER:

40. Diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders of the ear, nose, and throat ANSWER: 41. Evaluating and treating emotional problems through counseling of individuals, families, and groups ANSWER:

42. Prior to receiving a medical license, physicians must pass all sections of the: a American Medical Association Examination . b. c. d. ANSWER:

American Health Association Examination

United States Medical Licensing Examination United States Physician Licensure Examination c

43. Licensure requirements will vary by state, but in general, physicians applying for licensure must: a be of legal age and of good moral character b. have graduated from an approved medical school and completed an approved residency program or

its equivalent c. be a resident of the state in which the physician is practicing and submit proof of successful completion of the licensure exam d. all of the above ANSWER:

44. Which of the following health care team members require certification to perform their job? a. nurse anesthetist b. nurse midwife c. emergency medical technician Page 6

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present d.

all of the above

ANSWER:

45. Health care providers who are able to examine patients, order diagnostic tests, and prescribe certain types of

medications, usually directed or dictated by a supervising physician, are referred to as: a. b. c. d.

midlevel practitioners medical assistants physical therapists occupational therapists

ANSWER:

Match the description with the type of nurse. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. nurse practitioner b. registered nurse c. nurse anesthetist d. nurse midwife e. licensed practical nurse 46. They are able to examine patients, order diagnostic tests, and prescribe certain types of medications ANSWER: a 47. Sometimes referred to as licensed vocational nurses (LVNs) ANSWER:

48. Are trained in basic nursing techniques and direct patient care ANSWER:

49. A professional RN who has had extensive training and experience in labor and delivery ANSWER:

50. Activities for these midlevel practitioners are usually directed or dictated by a supervising physician ANSWER: a 51. They practice under the direct supervision of an RN or a provider and are employed in hospitals,

convalescent centers, nursing homes, and home health care ANSWER:

52. They are not considered providers ANSWER:

53. Assists the birthing mother throughout her pregnancy, the delivery of her infant at home or in a medical

facility, and the postpartum period ANSWER:

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present 54. Someone who is certified to administer anesthesia ANSWER:

55. Defined as a professional nurse who has completed a course of study at a state-approved school of nursing

and passed the National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX-RN) ANSWER:

56. Manages normal pregnancies and deliveries that potentially have no risks of developing complications ANSWER: d Match the different types of complementary or alternative therapies with its description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. acupuncture b. aromatherapy c. ayurvedic medicine d. biofeedback e. faith f. hand reflexology g. homeopathy h. humor i. hypnosis j. magnet therapy k. massage l. naturopathy m. Tai Chi n. visualization and guided imagery o. yoga 57. A form of traditional Chinese medicine that is also practiced by the Japanese, Koreans, and French ANSWER: a 58. A treatment that uses essential oils extracted from plants for a therapeutic effect ANSWER:

59. A method that enables a person, usually with the help of electronic equipment, to learn to control otherwise

involuntary bodily functions ANSWER:

60. Consists of using extremely thin, sterilized needles, sometimes electrified with low voltage, that are inserted

on points along the network of 12 body meridians (channels) to connect the levels from the organs to the skin ANSWER:

61. Numerous clinical studies have concluded that patients who receive prayer, in addition to treatment, respond

more favorably than those who don’t Page 8

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present ANSWER:

62. Different oils are used for specific conditions, such as lavender for first aid of burns, neroli for anxiety, and

tea tree for antibacterial and antifungal action ANSWER:

63. This practice claims there is a map on the hands that matches a corresponding body part ANSWER: 64. Oils can also be used as a compress, in wound care, or as a mouth rinse ANSWER:

65. It is known that laughter increases NK cell activity, lymphocyte proliferation, monocyte migration, and the

production of IL-2 and IgA, which are positive effects in the immune system ANSWER:

66. Addresses mental and spiritual well-being and physical health; identifies three types of energies that are

present in all things: vata, pitta, and kapha ANSWER:

67. Provides acute or chronic pain relief; for stress management; to control certain phobias; for postamputation

phantom limb pain, nausea, and hypertension; in irritable bowel syndrome; and for other conditions ANSWER:

68. Therapy is based on the theory that each cell possesses an electromagnetic field and that disease occurs as a

result of an electromagnetic imbalance ANSWER:

69. The traditional healing system of India and perhaps the oldest formal medical system in the world ANSWER: c 70. The second most popular related therapy in the United States and can be covered by insurance ANSWER:

71. A 200-year-old system of medicine based on the Law of Similars: If a dose of a substance can cause a

symptom, that same substance in minuscule amounts can cure the symptom ANSWER:

72. Stimulating these points on the hand sends impulses to help the muscles in the corresponding body part relax

and blood vessels open to increase circulation, therefore allowing more oxygen and nutrients to enter and promote healing ANSWER:

73. Is a highly controversial form of medicine and lacks any scientific explanation of why it might work Page 9

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present ANSWER:

74. It encompasses a wide range of approaches, using hands to manipulate muscles and soft tissue ANSWER:

75. It has been practiced for thousands of years; places great emphasis on mental and physical fitness. It

increases strength; balance; flexibility; and, some claim, energy and calmness. ANSWER:

76. A multidisciplinary approach to health care based on the belief that the body has power to heal itself ANSWER:

77. This is a Chinese movement discipline that improves strength, flexibility, and sense of balance ANSWER: m 78. Treatment is based on assessment of the correct diet, rest, relaxation, exercise, fresh air, clean water, and

sunlight the patient is receiving ANSWER:

79. This is a discipline of breath control, meditation, and stretching and strengthening exercises that is thought

to promote mental, physical, and spiritual well-being ANSWER:

80. An example might be a patient with cancer visualizing immune cells attacking the malignant cells and

destroying them ANSWER:

Match the organization with the description of legislation affecting health care. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. Food and Drug Administration b. National Institutes of Health c. Hill-Burton Act d. World Health Organization e. Medicaid f. Medicare g. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments h. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act i. Occupational Safety and Health Administration j. Controlled Substances Act k. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act l. Medicare D m. Affordable Care Act 81. Intended to expand access to health insurance, provide additional consumer protections, and reduce costs of Page 10

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present health care ANSWER:

82. Legislation that gave status to Public Health Service and the Food and Drug Administration ANSWER:

83. Providers must apply for registration and receive a DEA number to administer, prescribe, or dispense drugs ANSWER: j 84. Intended to limit health administration costs, provide for patient information privacy, and prevent fraud and

abuse ANSWER:

85. The regulations deal with many areas, such as electronic transmission of data, release of personal

information, security of records, establishing individuals as compliance officers, and so on ANSWER:

86. A title under the Social Security amendments that provides government funding to the states to help pay for

the medical care of indigents ANSWER:

87. They support biomedical research in the cause and prevention of disease at the institutes and at universities

and hospitals ANSWER:

88. Had its beginnings in 1887 as a laboratory, researching the causes of cholera and tuberculosis ANSWER:

89. States establish criteria for qualification and set fee schedules to reimburse providers who perform services ANSWER: e 90. Established guidelines for operating laboratories ANSWER:

91. Provided for the improvement and construction of hospitals ANSWER:

92. National health insurance for persons over 65 or those who are blind, disabled, or have certain kidney

conditions ANSWER:

93. Allows living individuals to indicate their desire for their body or organs to be gifted to research, transplant

services, or a tissue and organ bank at the time of their death ANSWER:

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Chapter 02: The Health Care Team and the Medical Environment, Past and Present 94. A specialized agency of the United Nations that cooperates to control and eradicate disease worldwide ANSWER: d 95. Everyone who receives Medicare is eligible to join a prescription drug plan to assist in payment of

medication costs ANSWER:

96. Originally an act to reduce the incidence of injury, illness, and deaths in the workplace ANSWER:

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues 1. The U.S.

creates federal law by passing legislation. a. Congress b. Supreme Court c. president d. attorney general

ANSWER:

2. Who sets the licensing rules for physicians who practice in Scranton, Pennsylvania? a. Scranton city council b. U.S. Congress c. Pennsylvania governor d. Pennsylvania legislature ANSWER:

3. Who prosecutes a criminal case? a. police b. district attorney c. attorney for the plaintiff d. jury ANSWER:

4. Which of these is an example of a misdemeanor? a. burglary b. manslaughter c. public intoxication d. robbery ANSWER:

5. Involuntary manslaughter most commonly involves a death arising from a: a nonvehicular incident caused by negligence (such as an accidental fire) b. premeditated attack c. spontaneous physical altercation between two people d. motor vehicle accident ANSWER:

6. The unlawful taking of money or goods of another from his or her person or in his or her immediate presence by force or intimidation is called: a. robbery b. burglary c. petty larceny d. grand larceny ANSWER: a Page 1

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues 7. Which of the following is an intentional tort? a baseball hit through a neighbor’s window . b. c. d. ANSWER:

rock flying from a lawn mower and hitting a passerby trespass automobile collision c

8. The physician-patient relationship is created when the: a patient requests care from a physician b. physician offers care to a patient c. patient needs care, regardless of whether that care if offered d. physician offers care to a patient, and the offer is accepted ANSWER:

9. If the statute of limitations for a particular tort is two years, it means: a the patient must bring a suit within two years of the injury b. the patient must wait two years after the injury to bring a suit c. the physician has up to two years to respond to the patient’s suit d. the physician can be imprisoned for up to two years if found guilty ANSWER:

10. When a patient explicitly accepts a physician’s offer of treatment, a(n) a. implied b. express c. formal d. technical ANSWER:

contract is created.

11. In most cases involving health care providers, the contracts regarding the provision of care are: a oral . b. c. d. ANSWER:

written subject to interpretation only under statutory law subject to interpretation only under common law a

12. Who “owns” a patient’s medical record in a private practice? a the patient . b.

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues c. d. ANSWER:

the medical assistant who initially created the record the provider d

13. What is the primary advantage of using computer databases for medical records? a They require no special equipment or training. b. Patient data can easily be transferred from one provider to another. c. They guarantee the complete privacy of the patient’s information. d. They guarantee 100% accuracy in diagnosis and treatment. ANSWER:

14. A medical record should be changed: a every time the patient comes into the medical office . b. c. d. ANSWER:

only when the patient’s medical condition changes only when necessary to make to make it more accurate only upon request of the patient c

15. A provider would be required to report to the local health department that a patient had which of the following medical conditions? a. syphilis b. cancer c. emphysema d. diabetes ANSWER: a 16. OSHA is an agency of which federal department? a. Education b. Interior c. Health and Human Services d. Labor ANSWER:

17. Which part of HIPAA establishes national standards for health care data exchange? a. Title I b. Title II c. Title III d. Title IV ANSWER:

18. The FDA requires health care providers to report adverse events resulting from the use of: Page 3

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

prescription drugs medical devices both prescription drugs and medical devices neither prescription drugs nor medical devices a

19. Health care providers most often interact with which office within the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)? a. Office of Training b. Office of Resource Management c. Office of Diversion Control d. Office of Strategic Intelligence ANSWER: c Match each term with its definition. a. libel b. defensive medicine c. Good Samaritan Act d. living will e. OSHA f. HIPAA Privacy Rule g. durable power of attorney h. capacity i. FDA j. DEA 20. Practice of ordering additional tests that serve only a marginal clinical purpose but will serve to protect the provider in the event of a malpractice allegation ANSWER: b 21. Instruction from a patient to all who may need to know that the patient has empowered a representative to make health care decisions ANSWER: g 22. Document prepared by patients as a statement of their medical wishes ANSWER:

23. Regulates the pharmaceutical and medical device industries ANSWER: 24. Form of defamation of character ANSWER:

25. Party’s ability to legally enter into a contract Page 4

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues ANSWER:

26. Requires employers to maintain safe working conditions and use methods that are appropriate to protect workers ANSWER: e 27. Has broad enforcement power over the distribution of narcotics and other drugs, both legal and illicit ANSWER:

28. Protects any person who provides emergency care in good faith without remuneration or expectation of remuneration ANSWER: c 29. Permits the disclosure of personal health information needed for patient care and other important purposes ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. defendant b. plaintiff c. felony d. law e. beyond a reasonable doubt f. standard of care g. Supremacy Clause h. misdemeanor i. case law j. preponderance of the evidence 30. Underlying principle used to establish whether an injured party can collect for damages in a case centered on negligence ANSWER: f 31. Party against whom charges are brought ANSWER:

32. System of rules, usually enforced through a collection of institutions commonly recognized as having the authority to do so ANSWER: d 33. The party bringing charges ANSWER: 34. Standard of proof in a civil case ANSWER:

35. Person found guilty of this type of crime can be imprisoned in state prison for more than 1 year, and in some cases, punishable by death Page 5

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues ANSWER:

36. Person found guilty of this type of crime can be imprisoned in jail for no more than 1 year ANSWER:

37. Standard of proof in a criminal case ANSWER:

38. Type of law created by courts ANSWER: 39. States that laws created by Congress apply to everyone in the United States ANSWER:

40. Scope of practice refers to: a performing delegated clinical and administrative duties, working under a physician’s direct supervision, consistent with your education, training, and experience b. the otoscope used to look in a patient’s ears c. using your experience to the best of your ability d. none of the above ANSWER: a 41. Professional liability refers to the liability that arises from a failure to use due care and expected from a person in a particular profession (in this case a health care provider). a. the scope of practice b. consent c. the standard of care d. capacity ANSWER:

42. The relationship between doctor and patient is in the nature of a contract. From that point on, the provider

has an affirmative duty to care for the patient to the professional standards associated with a doctor of similar training and experience, which is referred to as: a. b. c. d.

an express contract an implied contract an informed consent an expected standard of care

ANSWER:

43. A medical assistant owes the duty of

, meaning he or she must take appropriate steps to check the type and dosage of medication before administering it to the patient and must take appropriate steps to ensure that the paperwork regarding charts and follow-up appointments is completed accurately. a. b.

standard of care reasonable care Page 6

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues c. d.

standard practice scope of practice

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. criminal law b. civil law 44. Exclusively statutory ANSWER:

45. Collection of rules that govern the conduct and affairs of people (their rights) ANSWER:

46. Deals with one who has performed an act prohibited by law ANSWER:

47. Misdemeanors ANSWER:

48. A medical assistant has knowledge of, and participates in, a scheme where a provider knowingly billing Medicare for tests and procedures not actually performed ANSWER: a 49. Demonstrates by a preponderance of the evidence, the standard of proof required ANSWER:

50. Deals with one who has failed to perform an act required by law ANSWER:

51. Felonies ANSWER:

Match the following with its definition. a. negligence b. malpractice c. statute of limitations d. Good Samaritan Act(s) e. Uniform Anatomical Gift Act f. living will / advanced directives g. medical durable power of attorney h. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) i. risk management 52. A document prepared by the patient as a statement of his or her medical wishes; it does not designate anyone Page 7

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues else to make decisions but rather outlines what the patient wants or doesn’t want regarding lifesaving or lifesustaining measures ANSWER:

53. Tells all who would file a lawsuit that they have a limited period of time in which to bring their claim ANSWER: c 54. Not planned or contrived in advance in any way ANSWER:

55. An instruction from the patient to all who might need to know that the patient has empowered a

representative to make health care decisions and the discontinuation of life support ANSWER:

56. Means “bad practice”; it defines any medical treatment that falls short of normal levels of skill, care or

established medical procedure ANSWER:

57. Governs organ donations for (1) organ transplantation and (2) the transfer of anatomical gifts of one’s

deceased body for use in the study of medicine ANSWER:

58. The identification of all exposure to financial loss of a business and includes the selection of techniques to

manage those exposures ANSWER:

59. Providing assistance to one in need; the nature of these laws is to protect individuals who decide to provide

help and serve those who are injured ANSWER:

60. Requires any health care provider accepting Medicare or Medicaid to inform the patient (1) of his or her

right to accept or refuse treatment, (2) of his or her rights regarding advance directives under state law, and (3) of any hospital or provider policies regarding withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining equipment ANSWER:

Match the following medical legal term with its definition. a. informed consent b. implied consent c. expressed consent d. patient incompetence e. emancipated minor f. mature minor g. subpoena duces tecum h. respondeat superior Page 8

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues i. j. k. l. m. n. o. p.

res ipsa loquitur locum tenens defendant plaintiff deposition arbitration mediation Good Samaritan law

61. Allows health care providers to treat youth as adults based upon an assessment and documentation of the

young person’s maturity; enables the provider to ask questions of the young person in order to determine whether or not the patient can consent for his or her own treatment ANSWER:

62. A “writ commanding a person to produce in court certain designated documents or evidence” ANSWER:

63. Latin, meaning “let the master answer” ANSWER:

64. The law assumes that an unconscious patient would consent to emergency care if the patient were conscious

and able to consent ANSWER:

65. A private, judicial determination of a dispute and is an alternative to court action (litigation), and generally,

just as final and binding ANSWER:

66. When the patient directly communicates their consent to the doctor, usually done in writing by signing

papers and can also be supported through oral or verbal communication with the doctor ANSWER:

67. The party who initiates a lawsuit by filing a complaint with the clerk of the court against the defendant(s) demanding damages, performance and/or court determination of rights ANSWER: l 68. A rule of evidence important in many malpractice suits, not a rule of substantive law ANSWER:

69. Agreement to do something or to allow something to happen only after all the relevant facts are known ANSWER:

70. Involves a live person being questioned under oath by an attorney involved in the proceeding and takes place

prior to the case going before the judge (and jury) ANSWER:

m Page 9

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues 71. The party sued in a civil lawsuit or the party charged with a crime in a criminal prosecution ANSWER:

72. A type of dispute resolution where the parties to a lawsuit meet with a neutral third-party in an effort to

settle the case ANSWER:

73. Is a Latin phrase that means “to hold the place of, to substitute for”; in health care, it means a physician who

substitutes temporarily for another ANSWER:

74. Is a legal status, not a medical condition ANSWER:

75. To protect individuals who decide to provide help and serve those who are injured ANSWER:

76. A person who is not legally an adult (18 years of age) and may not require parental permission for medical

or surgical care ANSWER:

77. Which act prohibits discrimination in group health plan coverage based on genetic information? a. ADAAA b. PSDA c. HIPAA d. GINA ANSWER:

Match the following with its definition. a. abuse b. neglect c. exploitation d. wounds of violence 78. The failure or refusal of a caregiver or other responsible person to provide for an elder’s basic physical,

emotional, or social needs, or failure to protect the elder from harm ANSWER:

79. A physical injury due to a firearm or assaultive or abusive conduct ANSWER:

80. Any abuse and neglect of person(s) by a caregiver or another person in a relationship involving an

expectation of trust; the use of physical force that may result in bodily injury, physical pain, or impairment ANSWER:

a Page 10

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues 81. The unauthorized or improper use of the resources of an elder for monetary or personal benefit, profit, or

gain ANSWER:

82. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 is referred to as civil rights legislation designed to prohibit

discrimination against individuals based on disability. The act defined “disability” as “a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity” (42 U.S.C. sec. 12112, 1990). On September 25, 2008, President Bush signed the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act (ADAAA) of 2008. The act became effective January 1, 2009. The act emphasizes that the definition of disability should: a make it easier for an individual seeking protection under the ADA to establish that he or she has a disability within the meaning of the ADA b. be construed in favor of broad coverage of individuals to the maximum extent permitted by the terms of the ADA and generally will not require extensive analysis c. change to the definition of the term disability by rejecting the holdings in several Supreme Court decisions and portions of EEOC’s ADA regulations d. all of the above ANSWER:

83. Which of the following are types of insurance in a medical practice? a. medical malpractice b. liability c. personal injury d. all of the above ANSWER:

84. Physician self-referral is the practice of a physician referring a patient to a medical facility in which he or she has a financial interest, be it ownership, investment, or a structured compensation arrangement, which critics claim: a. is a conflict of interest b. is an unsafe activity c. results in errors in patient care d. requires an incident report ANSWER: a 85. The medical assistant must perform compliance reporting based on public health statutes. Reporting requirements for communicable diseases are regulated and enforced by: a. the CDC b. state public health departments c. local public health departments d. all of the above ANSWER: d 86. A provider is required to report the following to the local health department: Page 11

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Chapter 03: Legal Issues a all infectious diseases, such as measles b. communicable diseases; sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), such as herpes, HIV, and syphilis c. certain crimes (rape, domestic abuse, elder abuse, child abuse, neglect, exploitation, wounds of violence, assault, physical injury due to a firearm) d. all of the above ANSWER: d 87. A medical assistant who has knowledge of falsely billing Medicare for tests or procedures not actually performed: a can also be guilty of criminal conduct . b. can also be exposed to a civil lawsuit c. cannot be held liable, civilly or criminally d. can be guilty of tort ANSWER: a

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues 1. Discussions of bioethics typically focus on the ethics of a. billing b. cultural c. communication d. life-and-death ANSWER:

matters.

2. The artificial termination of a pregnancy is called a(n): a. abortion b. miscarriage c. ectopic pregnancy d. stillbirth ANSWER:

3. Which of these terms refers to improving genetic qualities by means of selective breeding? a. cloning b. transplantation c. eugenics d. cryonics ANSWER:

4. The process of creating a genetically identical copy of a human is known as: a. cloning b. transplantation c. eugenics d. cryonics ANSWER:

5. The act of killing oneself is called: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

patricide suicide fratricide matricide

6. A person who perceives abortion as an issue of happens to her body. a. beneficence b. distributive justice c. autonomy d. social justice ANSWER:

is likely to believe that the woman has a right to determine what

c Page 1

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues 7. In Roe v. Wade, the Supreme Court ruled from which two perspectives? a. distributive justice and autonomy b. autonomy and beneficence c. beneficence and distributive justice d. egalitarian and libertarian ANSWER:

8. The point of paying providers using diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) and capitated rates is to: a eliminate the need for health insurance b. prevent patients from obtaining quality health care c. ensure that physicians are paid generously for their services d. hold down unnecessary costs ANSWER:

9. The has a comprehensive Code of Medical Ethics that speaks to a wide range of matters arising in the professional conduct of a doctor. a American Heart Association (AHA) . b. c. d. ANSWER:

American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) American Medical Association (AMA) American Medical Technologists (AMT)

10. A(n)

issue is one that arises from societal norms “found” as a part of common law or enacted into statute. a. legal b. moral c. ethical d. medical a

ANSWER:

11. If you discover that another medical assistant in your practice is disclosing information about a celebrity patient to a blogger, you should: a. confront the nurse yourself b. inform the supervisor of the office c. stay out of the matter d. contact the police ANSWER: b 12. The term

refers to the values by which an organization conducts its business. a. company policies b. collaborative efforts c. organizational ethics Page 2

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues d.

corporate morals

ANSWER: 13. An end-of-year bonus is an example of a(n) a. extrinsic b. intrinsic c. unethical d. nonmonetary ANSWER:

c reward.

14. Which of the following is not one of the four characteristics in an organization that encourage ethical behavior? a training for officers, managers, and employees in the subject of ethics b. a policy of public reporting c. a written code of standards d. availability of advice for employees confronting ethical issues ANSWER: b 15. Multiple studies have shown that is the single most admired characteristic in a leader. a. friendliness b. dependability c. consistency d. honesty ANSWER:

Match each principle with its corresponding description. a. autonomy b. beneficence c. distributive justice 16. Patients have a right to make determinations for themselves ANSWER:

17. Principle by which the health care community decides to allocate resources that are in scarce supply ANSWER:

18. Requires people to do what is in the best interests of others ANSWER:

Match each distributive justice approach with its definition. a. egalitarian b. earned c. libertarian d. social justice Page 3

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues 19. Allocation should be made to maximize the number of people helped ANSWER:

20. Those who deserve more get more ANSWER:

21. Everyone gets an equal share ANSWER:

22. Each gets what he or she can legitimately get ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. artificial insemination b. assisted suicide c. contraception d. cryonics e. euthanasia f. gene therapy g. genetically modified food h. human enhancement i. life extension j. psychosurgery k. sex reassignment therapy l. surrogacy m. vaccination n. xenotransplantation 23. Process wherein the body of a seriously ill or a deceased individual is frozen to stop the decomposition of tissues ANSWER: d 24. Surgical procedure in which tissue or a whole organ is transferred from one species to another ANSWER:

25. Helping a terminally ill person to commit suicide ANSWER:

26. Process of replacing defective genes with normal or genetically altered genes ANSWER:

27. Medical procedures pertaining to sex reassignment of both transgender and intersexual individuals ANSWER:

28. Overcoming the limitations of body by artificial means ANSWER:

h Page 4

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues 29. Process wherein a woman agrees to carry and deliver a child for a contracted party ANSWER:

30. Brain surgery carried out to ease the complications associated with mental or behavioral problems ANSWER:

31. Killing an individual without letting him or her suffer from pain ANSWER:

32. Birth control by using various contraceptive measures ANSWER:

33. Introduction of semen into the oviduct or uterus by artificial means ANSWER:

34. Dispute over the morality, ethics, effectiveness, and safety of the vaccination process ANSWER:

35. Attempts to either slow down or reverse the processes of aging to maximize life span ANSWER: 36. Consumption of food derived from genetically modified organisms ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. trimester test b. diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) c. capitated payment d. creed 37. Brief set of fundamental beliefs ANSWER:

38. Limits the amount a hospital can be paid based on the diagnosis, irrespective of any complications that may develop ANSWER: b 39. Set number of dollars per patient per month ANSWER:

40. Used by the Supreme Court when deciding Roe v. Wade ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition. a. ethics b. morals Page 5

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues 41. Responsibility to care for all people equally without regard to race, creed, or color ANSWER:

42. One of those intangible elements of life we deal with on a daily basis ANSWER:

43. The principle of right and wrong in conduct ANSWER:

44. Dilemma: where two moral principles are in conflict, such as when there is no clear-cut right or wrong on

any matter ANSWER:

45. Pertaining to the distinction of “right” and “wrong” ANSWER:

46. Standards of conduct and moral judgment ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition. a. personal ethics b. professional ethics 47. Regardless of your ethical view, you are expected to demonstrate the appropriate response(s) ANSWER:

48. Whatever your personal perspective might be regarding matters, you must adapt your views to be in

complete alignment with the standards of your profession in which you are employed ANSWER:

49. Ethical issues that arise from “a set of standards and rules promulgated by various professions and enforced

against its members” ANSWER:

50. The AMT requires its members to “strive to increase technical knowledge” ANSWER:

51. Prescribes behavior for professionals ANSWER:

52. The AAMA requires members to “seek to continually improve knowledge and skills.” ANSWER:

53. The American Medical Association (AMA) has a comprehensive Code of Medical Ethics that speaks to a Page 6

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues wide range of matters arising in the conduct of a doctor ANSWER:

54. Addresses conduct in interprofessional relations, hospital relations, confidentiality, fees, records, and rights,

among others ANSWER:

Match the term with the description. a. personal morals b. professional judgment 55. Your obligation to report what that you saw a coworker removing sample drugs and placing them in her

purse ANSWER:

56. Stem from a belief system in which one makes judgments about right and wrong ANSWER:

57. If you are inclined to be very social, you will need to be very aware of this tendency when dealing with the

private health information of a patient ANSWER:

58. A married woman successfully obtains an abortion from her OB/GYN provider. She has not told her

husband for reasons known only to her. The medical assistant in the office believes that abortion is wrong. ANSWER:

59. Which is one of the four characteristics of an organization (not in the leader) that encourages ethical

behavior? a availability of advice for employees confronting ethical issues b. a system (or systems) for confidential reporting c. a written code of standards d. all of the above ANSWER:

60. An ethical dilemma is: a where two moral principles are in conflict . b. c. d. ANSWER:

there is no clear-cut right or wrong when right behavior leads to the wrong outcome all of the above d

61. Withholding judgment, showing respect and empathy, recognizing your own cultural biases, and tolerating ambiguity Page 7

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Chapter 04: Ethical Issues are examples of: a good intercultural communication skills . b. body language c. cultural context d. social values and customs ANSWER:

Match the definition to the following terms of cultural context communication. a. high context b. low context 62. People rely heavily on verbal communication rather than nonverbal communication or environmental cues ANSWER: b 63. People rely less on verbal communication and more on nonverbal and environmental cues ANSWER:

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications 1. In the model of the communication process presented in this chapter, the receiver decodes the message based on his or her: a. intuition b. conceptualization c. reference points d. scruples ANSWER: c 2. The majority of the population are a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

learners. auditory visual kinesthetic verbal

3. About 5 percent of the population is made up of a. auditory b. visual c. kinesthetic d. verbal ANSWER:

b learners.

4. Participating in conversation with another person by repeating words and phrases or by giving approving or disapproving nods is: a. articulation b. intuition c. distortion d. active listening ANSWER: d 5. In the context of communication, may be considered as the awareness of one’s own feelings and the feelings of others. a. perception b. incongruity c. empiricism d. conceptualization ANSWER: a 6. When communicating with patients, you should always: a. avoid eye contact b. display positive body language c. try to remain expressionless d. avoid using gestures of any kind Page 1

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications ANSWER:

7. The most common example of a positive, happy facial expression is a: a. smile b. furrowed brow c. raised eyebrow d. squint ANSWER:

8. If you have eye contact with a person during conversation, it probably means that he or she is: a. not interested in what you are saying b. not listening to you c. paying attention to you d. tuning you out ANSWER:

9. Which of the following is commonly considered a positive gesture? a. rolling of the eyes b. tapping of the foot c. crossed arms d. giving the thumbs-up ANSWER:

10. During a personal conversation, it would be most appropriate to stand a. less than 1 foot b. 2 feet c. 5 feet d. 7 feet ANSWER:

from the person you are speaking with.

11. A would be most appropriate to provide positive reinforcement to a patient who has followed the prescribed treatment and lost weight. a. pat on the back b. handshake c. hug d. stroke of the face ANSWER: a 12. It is recommended that you ask which of the following questions when a patient presents for a follow-up visit? a How are we feeling? . b.

How have you been doing since you were here last? Page 2

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications c. d. ANSWER:

What’s wrong with you? Are you feeling ill?

13. Statements that begin with “ about how they are. a. b.I c. d. ANSWER:

b ” can open up a conversation and give patients a positive impression that you care The doctor You Never b

14. Which of the following is not a deficit need? a. safety b. esteem c. self-actualization d. belongingness and love ANSWER:

15. Everyone is motivated by: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

needs money compassion authority

16. What is the most commonly used defense mechanism? a. rationalization b. displacement c. repression d. intellectualization ANSWER:

17. Watching TV and reading excessively to avoid dealing with an issue are common types of: a. daydreaming b. regression c. problem solving d. temporary withdrawal ANSWER:

18. Meditation and prayer are forms of which coping skill? a. humor b. spirituality Page 3

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications c. d.

positive affirmations planning

ANSWER:

19. Which of these is a nonadaptive coping skill? a. drinking b. sleeping c. creating boundaries d. journaling ANSWER:

20. The two main types of boundaries are: a. economic and personal b. political and social c. physical and emotional d. chronological and ecological ANSWER:

Match each component of the Standard Communication Model with its definition. a. sender b. encoder c. message d. medium e. decoder f. receiver 21. Takes an encoded message and converts it to a form that the receiver understands, such as a phone system with voice or Internet (electronic) message ANSWER: e 22. Means by which a message is converted into a form that can be transmitted to the receiver ANSWER:

23. What or who is trying to send a message to the receiver ANSWER:

24. Intended target (or user) of a message ANSWER:

25. Information being transmitted ANSWER:

26. Method used to transmit or send a message ANSWER:

d Page 4

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications Match each term with its definition. a. compensation b. denial c. displacement d. intellectualization e. malingering f. projection g. rationalization h. repression i. sublimation j. suppression k. communication barrier l. regression m. procrastination n. acceptance 27. Becoming purposely involved in a project on purpose so that a painful situation can be avoided ANSWER:

28. Final stage in the process of dealing with grief ANSWER:

29. Justifying behavior with socially acceptable reasons and tending to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior ANSWER: g 30. Holding feelings inside or forcing unacceptable or painful ideas, feelings, and impulses into the unconscious mind ANSWER: h 31. Transfer of emotions about one person or situation to another ANSWER: 32. Always putting off until tomorrow what you could do today ANSWER:

33. Deliberately pretending to be sick to avoid dealing with situations that are unpleasant or that cause anxiety ANSWER: e 34. Refusal to admit or acknowledge something so that you do not have to deal with a problem or situation ANSWER:

35. Used unconsciously to express socially unacceptable instinctive drives or impulses in approved and acceptable ways ANSWER: i 36. Blaming another person for your own inadequacies ANSWER:

f Page 5

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications 37. Using reasoning to avoid confronting emotional conflicts and stressful situations ANSWER:

38. Behaving in ways that are typically characteristic of an earlier developmental level ANSWER:

39. Using a talent or an attribute to the fullest to compensate for a realized personal shortcoming ANSWER:

40. Anything that gets in the way of communicating a message that is interpreted correctly ANSWER:

Match the communication style to the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. visual b. auditory c. kinesthetic 41. Learn by hearing ANSWER:

42. Visual people need to see pictures or see it in writing ANSWER:

43. These people think in terms of sensations or feeling, often move their hands when talking, and respond

physically as well as verbally ANSWER:

44. These learners learn effectively through touch and movement and space and learn skills by imitation and

practice ANSWER:

45. These learners make up about 65 percent of the population ANSWER:

46. These learners make up about 30 percent of the population ANSWER:

47. This type of learner tends to listen to a lecture and then take notes afterward or rely on printed notes ANSWER: b 48. This type of learner will most likely take notes, even if written information is presented ANSWER:

49. Make up only 5 percent of the population Page 6

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications ANSWER:

When you recognize your patient’s learning style, you need to make adjustments. Match the example of adjustment to the communication style. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b. c.

visual auditory kinesthetic

50. Make adjustments for space, therapeutic touch, and reflective (mirror) feedback ANSWER:

51. Provide written material ANSWER:

52. Provide clear instructions and information and provide an opportunity for the patient to ask questions to

reinforce information ANSWER:

53. Be sure there is opportunity for the patient to make notes ANSWER:

54. Provide time for note-taking after the session ANSWER:

55. Which of the following describes a type(s) of verbal communication? a. the spoken word b. eye contact c. personal touch d. all of the above ANSWER:

Match the type of nonverbal communication with its description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. appearance b. facial expression c. eye contact d. gestures e. distance f. silence g. therapeutic touch and relationships 56. Body movements that enhance what is being said ANSWER:

57. The image you project is of utmost importance—the one chance to make a first impression Page 7

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications ANSWER:

58. One of the most powerful body language skills ANSWER:

59. Examples are a thumbs-up, okay, high five, applause, winking, and a handshake ANSWER:

60. Appropriate dress, uniform, or businesslike attire that is clean and wrinkle free should be worn ANSWER:

61. Tends to be worn like a billboard; so it is important to convey relaxed and pleasant expression ANSWER:

62. When engaged in a personal conversation, the generally acceptable space between two people is from 1.5 to

4 feet ANSWER:

63. It tells the patient that you are interested in giving and receiving messages of mutual concern and interest ANSWER: c 64. The least threatening place to touch someone is on the arm between the elbow and the wrist ANSWER:

65. Examples include a hug, handshake, and patting someone on the back ANSWER:

66. Can be frustrating for the person to whom it is directed ANSWER:

67. If someone is moving away from you while you are speaking, he or she may be doing so to create more

space or because you are too close for comfort ANSWER:

Match the type of communication barrier to its description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. physical disabilities b. psychological attitudes and prejudice c. cultural diversity d. external or environmental distractions e. internal distractions 68. Pain, hunger, and anger ANSWER:

69. Deafness, loss of sight, or other physical problems Page 8

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications ANSWER:

70. Not all patients speak, read, write, or understand English ANSWER:

71. Noise such as when others are talking and phones are ringing as well as phone conversations of coworkers

can be sources of interference ANSWER:

72. This refers to personal opinions formed, for example, about alternative lifestyle individuals or certain ethnic

or religious groups ANSWER:

Match the communication barrier with the method to overcome. a. physical disabilities b. psychological attitudes and prejudice c. cultural diversity d. patients with special needs e. external or environmental distractions 73. It is best to speak one-on-one with the patient in an area where there are not likely to be any distractions or

interference ANSWER:

74. Overcome this barrier by using interpreter services for the patient and family member; have printed

materials available in multiple languages ANSWER:

75. Requires extra understanding; often a family member, friend, or caregiver will accompany the patient,

thereby helping with your task of transmitting necessary information for correct interpretation ANSWER:

76. Overcome this barrier by avoiding touching or eye contact if a cultural or religious barrier warrants this;

always have a family member with patient in exam room ANSWER:

77. Overcome this barrier by adjusting your volume of speech, using an interpreter, offering Braille or large-

print materials, and so on ANSWER:

78. Communication is the interchange of information through thoughts, feelings, messages, or perceptions as by speech, gestures, writing, or behavior. The elements of the sender-receiver process include: a Message originates with the sender and is picked up by the receiver. b. The sender conceptualizes the process that is not understood by the receiver. Page 9

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications c. The receiver’s reference points are incorporated in the decoder. d. Responding to a communication is a different process due to interpretation. ANSWER:

Identify whether the description provided is considered an adaptive coping skill or nonadaptive coping skill. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. adaptive coping skill b. nonadaptive coping skill 79. “Yes, but . . .” ANSWER:

80. Change thoughts ANSWER:

81. Over- or under-eating ANSWER:

82. Journaling ANSWER:

83. Planning ANSWER:

84. Humor ANSWER:

85. Inappropriate boundaries ANSWER:

86. Hanging onto anger ANSWER:

87. Isolation ANSWER:

88. Spirituality ANSWER:

Match the author with the theory. a. Maslow b. Erickson c. Kübler-Ross 89. The grief model was developed initially as a model for helping dying patients cope with death and Page 10

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Chapter 05: Verbal and Nonverbal Communications bereavement; however, it has been expanded to include the concept of and provide insight and guidance for coming to terms with personal trauma and change and for helping others make emotional adjustments and cope, whatever the cause. ANSWER:

90. He was a German-born American developmental psychologist known for his theory on psychosocial

development of human beings. This theory portrays psychosocial development in stages or phases and as being delineated by age and characterized by a struggle or crisis that must be overcome throughout the life cycle in order to adapt and continue to develop. ANSWER:

91. This model consists of five stages of needs. The first four are grouped together as “deficit needs,” meaning if

something is missing in any of the first four categories. At the fifth stage, you tend to be a problem solver and place a great deal of emphasis on family and long-term relationships. ANSWER:

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills 1. When talking with a patient, you should not: look away while the patient is speaking b. ask open-ended questions c. comment on something the patient is wearing or a common interest d. take an active interest in what the patient is saying ANSWER:

2. Which of the following is not one of the four E’s used to engage a child in health care matters? a. encouragement b. education c. enlistment d. evidence ANSWER:

3. When working with a pediatric patient, instead of saying deformity, it is recommended that you say: a. disfigurement b. opportunity c. appearance d. problem ANSWER:

4. When working with older patients, you should: a always provide physical assistance regardless of the patient’s condition b. greet them warmly and by name c. seat them in a location that offers significant stimulation d. avoid all forms of therapeutic touch ANSWER:

5. Who typically discusses abnormal results or serious health conditions with patients and their families? a. clinical medical assistant b. administrative medical assistant c. provider d. nurse ANSWER:

6. When providing patient education, your first task is to: a assess the patient’s ability to comprehend the instructions b. discuss the instructions with any family members accompanying the patient c. prepare a summary of the session for documentation in the patient’s chart d. answer any questions the patient has about the instructions ANSWER:

7. Documenting patient education: Page 1

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

eliminates the need for maintaining the patient’s chart

promotes inconsistency in care decreases efficiency minimizes professional liability d

8. All communications between members of the health care team should be: a. aggressive and authoritative b. professional and respectful c. rapid and precise d. vague and misleading ANSWER:

9. Which of the following is not one of the Four Essential Truths of Human Interaction? a Different people have different working styles. b. Be aware of your coworkers’ sensitivities and tailor your communications. c. You can’t judge a book by its cover. d. All people appeal to you equally. ANSWER:

10. When communicating with others, you should be: a. aggressive b. assertive c. passive d. inactive ANSWER:

11. When should an organizational chart be updated? a only when there are personnel changes . b. at the start or end of each workday c. at the start or end of each workweek d. every few months ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is a recommended phrase to help resolve a conflict between coworkers? a You have no right to be upset. . b. You’re not making any sense. c. I know this is really frustrating for you. d. I don’t understand why you’d feel that way. Page 2

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills ANSWER:

13. A large medical group might have a department to handle personnel management and payroll. a. laboratory b. human resources c. collections d. clinical ANSWER:

14. Which of the following is an example of a petty difference? a taking issue with a coworker’s theft from petty cash b. taking issue with a coworker’s violation of OSHA safety standards c. disagreement on one’s choice of clothing d. disagreement on the ideal method of treatment for a patient ANSWER:

15. It is almost always best to take which of the following issues to the office manager? a a disagreement about a coworker’s hairstyle b. a patient’s complaint about a long wait time on a busy day c. a personal dislike of a coworker d. a coworker’s habitual tardiness that affects the practice ANSWER:

16. A bulletin board used for posting intra-office notices is most likely to be located in the: a. staff room b. examination room c. waiting area d. office laboratory ANSWER:

17. Staff meetings are usually held a in the medical office during patient care hours . b. c. d. ANSWER:

in the medical office before or after patient care hours at an off-site location before or after patient care hours at the home of the physician during patient care hours

18. In most employment situations, an evaluation of work performance is made on a(n) a. weekly b. monthly c. annual

b basis.

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills d.

biannual

ANSWER:

19. Which of the following is not a recommended personal performance goal? a. working completely independently b. soliciting suggestions c. planning effectively d. communicating openly and honestly ANSWER:

20. Demonstrating a. b. c. d.

will help you advance in your career. instability dependence inefficiency resourcefulness

ANSWER:

Identify the correct order of the basic steps of critical thinking when problem solving. a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 21. Prioritize your decisions and begin testing them one by one until results are satisfactory to you and others concerned ANSWER: d 22. Gather facts and ideas to help you decide what to do about the problem ANSWER:

23. Determine just what the problem is and write it down ANSWER:

24. List possible decisions and what you think each outcome will be ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. patient advocate b. performance goals c. cultural competencies d. evaluation form e. assertive communication f. office manager g. aggressive communication h. managing provider Page 4

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills i. j. k.

reflective communication patient education in-service training

25. Communication that affords opportunities to examine behaviors and interactions, acts as a verbal “mirror,” and restates what a patient has said for clarification by all parties ANSWER: i 26. Social groups influencing a person’s culture and self-identity ANSWER:

27. Promotes and protects the rights of patients ANSWER:

28. Type of communication born of high self-esteem ANSWER:

29. Provider in a medical group who assumes the management role for all of the providers in the group ANSWER:

30. Person sometimes referred to as the practice manager ANSWER: 31. Examples of this include classes on CPR, sterile techniques, and using computer software ANSWER:

32. Outlines the most important qualities and abilities that are needed for a job, and includes a section where strengths and weaknesses can be listed ANSWER: d 33. Communication style in which individuals express their feelings and opinions and advocate for their needs in a way that violates the rights of others ANSWER: g 34. When you provide this, you may use verbal instructions, printed materials, or electronic formats ANSWER: 35. Creating these gives you ownership of your aspirations, achievements, and objectives ANSWER:

Identify the correct order of the steps involved in communicating with a difficult or uncooperative patient. a. Step 1 b. Step 2 c. Step 3 d. Step 4 e. Step 5 Page 5

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills 36. Let the patient vent ANSWER:

37. Begin problem solving ANSWER:

38. Express empathy to the patient ANSWER:

39. Follow up ANSWER:

40. Mutually agree on the solution ANSWER:

41. Define coaching a patient as it relates to health maintenance. a providing information to patients in regard to the steps to prepare for an inpatient procedure b. discussing payment options with patients prior to a procedure c. enhancing the patient’s understanding and learning experience when educating patient regarding

topics on health maintenance, disease prevention, and treatment plans as directed by the provider d. all of the above ANSWER:

42. Which of the following would not be a step in coaching patients regarding disease prevention? a Develop a plan of action on how to coach the patient based on information ordered by the provider. b. Greet the patient and any other person present in the room by name. c. Provider a written copy of the instructions and review steps verbally with the patient. d. All of the above ANSWER:

43. Which of the following is key to coaching a patient regarding compliance with a treatment plan? a Provide a written copy of the instructions and review them one by one verbally with the patient,

using language the patient can understand. b. Ask the patient to repeat the instructions (act as a verbal mirror) and restate what is said for clarification by all parties. c. Applying active listening skills and use body language and other nonverbal skills in communicating with patients, family, and staff. d. All of the above ANSWER:

44. Communicating with culturally diverse, pediatric, geriatric, and difficult or uncooperative patients involves

the use of resources and: Page 6

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills a .

reflective communication

adaptations based on individual needs

c. d. ANSWER:

patient advocacy using a step-by-step approach to verbalizing needs a

Match the behavior to the description of the communication. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. assertive b. aggressive c. passive 45. Using this type of communication may indicate that the message you’re sending is that your thoughts and

feelings aren’t as important as those of other people ANSWER:

46. These type of communicators are verbally and/or physically abusive ANSWER:

47. This type of communication is a style in which individuals express their feelings and opinions and advocate for

their needs in a way that violates the rights of others ANSWER:

48. People using this type of communication value themselves; their time; and their emotional, spiritual, and

physical needs ANSWER:

49. People using this type of communication are strong advocates for themselves and others while being very

respectful ANSWER:

50. Using this type of communication may give others permission to disregard your wants and needs ANSWER:

51. With this form of communication the individual may come across as being shy or very easygoing ANSWER: c Match the example of diversity with the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. cultural b. social c. ethnic 52. A diverse or multilingual workforce ANSWER:

a Page 7

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills 53. Pertaining to or characteristic of a people, especially a group sharing a common and distinctive culture, religion, language, or the like ANSWER: c 54. A group influencing a person’s culture and self-identity, [which] include not only race, ethnicity, and

religion but also gender, sexual orientation, age, disability, and socioeconomic status ANSWER:

55. Forms an important part of a patient’s identity ANSWER:

56. The diverse factors surrounding our society such as race, culture, religion, age, and disabilities ANSWER:

57. An approach to handling interpersonal problems and concerns is to use critical thinking (or problem-solving)

skills. Critical thinking involves: a observing available information and determining what the main issue is b. forming beliefs (developing arguments using supportive evidence) c. coming to a conclusion (deciding which view is most reasonable) d. all of the above ANSWER: 58. Having an understanding of the

influences on behavior is beneficial when working with

culturally diverse patients. a . b.

ethnic, social, and cultural

c. d.

hereditary, social, and environmental social, cultural, and environmental

hereditary, cultural, and environmental

ANSWER:

Match the words and phrases to use when working with pediatric patients. Instead of saying: a. deformity b. worry c. perform an X-ray d. problem 59. Say “finding” instead ANSWER:

60. Say “appearance” instead ANSWER:

a Page 8

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills 61. Say “wonder” instead ANSWER:

62. Say “take a picture” instead ANSWER:

63. This skill can be a great stride toward eliminating procrastination. a. Critical thinking (problem-solving) b. Effective communication c. Cultural awareness d. Expressing empathy ANSWER:

An effective communicator knows the “Do’s” and “Don’ts” of communication. Match whether the description/scenario given is a “do” or “don’t”. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. Communication “Do” b. Communication “Don’t” 64. Listen and take an active interest in what the patient is saying. ANSWER:

65. Talk too much about yourself ANSWER:

66. Let patients talk about themselves ANSWER:

67. Maintain eye contact and use a warm and friendly greeting such as: “Good morning, Mrs. Jones, it’s nice to

see you today.” ANSWER:

68. Forget to use common courtesy and don’t look away while others are speaking. ANSWER:

69. Ask open-ended questions ANSWER:

70. Use questions that require only a yes or no answer ANSWER:

71. Ask political or religious discussions ANSWER:

72. Be overconfident Page 9

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Chapter 06: Applying Communication Skills ANSWER:

73. Comment on something the patient is wearing ANSWER:

74. Hang back in the conversation ANSWER:

75. Comment on a common interest or current event ANSWER:

76. Avoid eye contact with all patients ANSWER:

77. Be careful to respect the patient’s privacy when discussing health care issues with family members because

of the legal aspect of complying with the patient’s communication wishes, which should be documented on the patient’s: a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

Protected Health Information (PHI) Personal Health Document (PHD) Patient Portal Confidential Communication Preference (CCP) d

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology 1. The majority of medical terms have either a. French or Spanish b. Latin or Greek c. Gaelic or Roman d. Russian or Arabic ANSWER:

foundations.

2. The prefix ante- means: a. b. c. d.

with without after before

ANSWER: 3. The

d is the component that goes at the beginning of a word and modifies its meaning. a. word root b. suffix c. prefix d. combining form

ANSWER:

4. The prefix iso- means: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

large same insufficient outside b

5. The prefix dia- means: a. b. c. d.

through against inferior in front of

ANSWER:

6. The prefix intra- means: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

above between same within d

7. The prefix ultra- means: Page 1

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology a. b. c. d.

single scanty beyond backward

ANSWER:

8. Suffixes do not commonly indicate a: a. location b. procedure c. condition d. disease ANSWER:

9. When dissecting a medical term, you should identify the word parts in which order (first to last)? a suffix, prefix, word root or combining form . b. prefix, word root or combining form, suffix c. prefix, suffix, word root or combining form d. word root or combining form, prefix, suffix ANSWER:

10. The suffix -dynia means: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

before after pertaining to pain

11. Which suffix means “discharge”? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

-rraphy -rrhea -rrhagia -rrhaphy

12. Which suffix means “breath” or “breathing”? a. -phrenia b. -rrhexis c. -pnea d. -plegia ANSWER:

13. The suffix -stomy means: Page 2

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology a. b. c. d.

opening formation surgical repair abnormal

ANSWER: 14. Which suffix means “disease”? a. b. c. d. ANSWER: 15. The combining form colp/o means: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

-oma -phasia -trophic -pathy d

breast ovary vagina tube c

16. The combining form cyan/o means: a. blue b. cell c. mental illness d. white ANSWER:

17. The combining form gastr/o means: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

mouth colon nerve stomach

18. When building a medical term, which part of the word do you identify first? a. suffix b. prefix c. word root d. combining form ANSWER:

19. When changing a singular word with the ending of -nx to a plural word you would change it to: a. -es Page 3

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology b. c. d.

-nges -ices -ix

ANSWER:

20. When changing a singular word with the ending of -a to a plural word, you change it to: a. -as b. -ices c. -ae d. -aes ANSWER:

Match each prefix with its meaning. a. endob. polyc. bid. megaloe. tachyf. quadrag. subh. circumi. panj. epi21. Abnormally fast ANSWER:

22. Around ANSWER:

23. Upon, over ANSWER: 24. Within ANSWER:

25. Four ANSWER: 26. Large ANSWER: 27. All ANSWER:

i Page 4

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology 28. Excessive ANSWER:

29. Below ANSWER:

30. Two ANSWER:

Match each suffix with its meaning. a. -ory b. -cidal c. -crine d. -ase e. -ectasis f. -ad g. -edema h. -iasis i. -gen j. -blast 31. To secrete ANSWER:

32. Stretching, dilating ANSWER:

33. Condition, abnormal condition ANSWER:

34. Killing, destroying ANSWER:

35. Baby, immature ANSWER:

36. Swelling, fluid accumulation ANSWER:

37. Enzyme ANSWER:

38. Pertaining to, condition (of) ANSWER:

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology 39. Toward ANSWER:

40. Producing ANSWER:

Identify the term as having a singular or plural ending with the example provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. singular b. plural 41. Vertebra ANSWER:

42. Apex ANSWER:

43. Diagnoses ANSWER:

44. Phalanges ANSWER:

45. Atria ANSWER:

46. Bacilli ANSWER:

47. Appendix ANSWER:

48. Vertebrae ANSWER:

Identify and match the word root with the term or meaning provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. cardiomyopathy b. blue c. musculoskeletal d. neurological e. nephrology f. gastrologist g. urine h. osteoarthritis i. leukemia Page 6

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology j.

colonoscopy

49. Neur ANSWER:

50. Muscul ANSWER:

51. Oste ANSWER:

52. Ur ANSWER:

53. Cyan ANSWER:

54. Colon ANSWER:

55. Leuk ANSWER:

56. Gastr ANSWER:

57. Cardi ANSWER:

58. Nephr ANSWER:

59. Build the correct medical term for “An inflammation of the muscle of the heart.” a. myocardioitis b. myocarditis c. mycardiopathy d. endocarditis ANSWER:

Match the following term with the definition/example provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. prefix b. suffix c. word root d. combining forms 60. Most often describes part of the body and sometimes denotes color Page 7

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology ANSWER:

61. Word roots that have a vowel added to the end of it ANSWER:

62. A word part added to the end of a word to complete that term ANSWER:

63. Most often, the vowel is an o; the other two most common vowels seen in this are a and i ANSWER:

64. A word part always found at the beginning of a medical term that changes or modifies the word root in the

medical term ANSWER:

65. Often indicates a location, presence or absence, quantity, size, frequency, or position ANSWER:

66. Usually indicates a procedure, condition, disorder, or disease ANSWER:

67. Can change a medical term to an adjective as well ANSWER:

68. The difference between the word root and the combining form is: a that a vowel is added to the word root when necessary to make the terms easier to pronounce and

more logical b. that a vowel is removed from the word when necessary to make the terms easier to pronounce and more logical c. word root defines whether singular or plural and combining form changes the definition d. all of the above ANSWER: a 69. Usually, prefixes are not altered when added to a combining form or word root; however, there are a few exceptions to this. Which of the following is an exception? a A basic rule is that if the combining form or word root begins with a consonant, you would select

the most appropriate prefix that is applicable that ends in a vowel. b. A basic rule is that if the combining form or word root begins with a -ante, you would select the most appropriate prefix that is applicable that ends in -ology. c. A basic rule is that if the combining form or word root begins with a vowel, you would select the most appropriate prefix that is applicable that ends in a consonant. d. None of the above ANSWER:

c Page 8

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Chapter 07: Introduction to Medical Terminology Match the suffix to the meaning provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. -ac b. -globin c. -ad d. -asthenia e. -cele f. -ectomy g. -emesis h. -emia 70. Toward ANSWER:

71. Hernia, abnormal protrusion ANSWER:

72. Surgical removal ANSWER:

73. Pertaining to; condition of ANSWER:

74. Vomiting ANSWER:

75. Protein ANSWER:

76. Weakness ANSWER:

77. Blood ANSWER:

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems 1. Cells organize to become: a. b. c. d. ANSWER: 2. The

organs tissues organ systems molecules b

system is the most external and visualized organ in the human body. a. circulatory b. respiratory c. integumentary d. endocrine

ANSWER:

3. The “true” skin is the: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

dermis epidermis hypodermis microdermis a

4. The term xanthoderma refers to skin that has a a. reddish b. yellowish c. bluish d. grayish ANSWER: 5. The

appearance.

system forms the structural support that allows a person to stand upright. a. lymphatic b. digestive c. nervous d. musculoskeletal

ANSWER: 6. The combining form chondr/o means: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

cartilage skull digit blood a

7. The term osteitis refers to inflammation of a: Page 1

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems a. b. c. d.

gland joint bone muscle

ANSWER:

8. The heart is composed of

layers of muscle. a. two b. three c. four d. six

ANSWER: 9. The

b valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle in the heart. a. tricuspid b. bicuspid c. mitral d. vena cava

ANSWER: 10. Erythrocytes are: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

white blood cells red blood cells platelets lymph nodes

11. Thrombophlebitis is caused by a(n): a. viral infection b. bacterial infection c. injury d. blood clot ANSWER:

12. What are the microscopic air sacs that exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide through the processes of inspiration and expiration? a. larynx b. trachea c. alveoli d. pharynx ANSWER: c 13. Rhinitis refers to inflammation in the: Page 2

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems a. b. c. d.

eyes nose throat lungs

ANSWER:

14. The suffix -ptysis means to: a. b. c. d.

bleed cough heal spit

ANSWER:

15. The alimentary canal is part of the system. a. circulatory b. integumentary c. digestive d. endocrine ANSWER:

16. Most of digestion occurs within the: a. small intestine b. large intestine c. stomach d. mouth ANSWER:

17. The combining form bucc/o refers to the: a. gallbladder b. cheek c. liver d. teeth ANSWER:

18. Sialolithectomy is the surgical removal of: a. the sigmoid b. the jejunum c. salivary stones d. teeth ANSWER:

19. Uremia is: a.

urine in the blood Page 3

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems b. c. d.

an infection of the urethra the loss of a kidney an inability to urinate

ANSWER:

20. Which combining form refers to the bladder? a. lith/o b. cyst/o c. noct/o d. ureter/o ANSWER:

21. Viral encephalitis is an inflammation of the by a virus. a. heart b. pancreas c. brain d. liver ANSWER:

22. The combining form gluc/o refers to: a. the parathyroid glands b. the thyroid gland c. poison d. sugar ANSWER:

23. Thermoreceptors differentiate between: a. pain and pleasure b. heat and cold c. sweet and sour d. soft and sharp ANSWER:

24. A tympanic thermometer is designed to be inserted into the a. ear b. mouth c. rectum d. nose ANSWER: 25. The suffix -cusis refers to: a. b.

to measure temperature.

sight smell Page 4

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems c. d.

touch hearing

ANSWER:

26. The primary structure in the male reproductive system is the: a. vas deferens b. prostate gland c. testis d. ovary ANSWER:

27. A colposcopy is an examination of the a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

with a lighted instrument. ear vagina throat rectum

28. Which combining form refers to an egg? a. prostat/o b. oophor/o c. men/o d. ov/o ANSWER: 29. The abbreviation

refers to a stroke. a. b. c. d.

FBS GU CVA AF

ANSWER: 30. Which abbreviation means urinalysis? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

UA UGI URI UTI a

Match each combining form with its meaning. a. xer/o b. femor/o c. phalang/o Page 5

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

hem/o pneum/o aden/o hepat/o neur/o toxic/o olfact/o

31. Liver ANSWER:

32. Blood ANSWER:

33. Nerve ANSWER:

34. Femur (thighbone) ANSWER:

35. Lung, air ANSWER:

36. Smell ANSWER:

37. Gland ANSWER: 38. Dry ANSWER:

39. Poison, toxin ANSWER: 40. Fingers or toes ANSWER:

Match each medical term with its definition. a. salpingitis b. presbyopia c. pyuria d. metrorrhagia e. choledolithotomy f. nephrolithiasis Page 6

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems g. h. i. j.

atherosclerosis electroencephalogram oropharyngeal hypoxia

41. Inflammation of the fallopian tube that may impede pregnancy ANSWER:

42. Condition of below-normal oxygen levels ANSWER:

43. Recording of the electrical impulses transmitted by the brain ANSWER:

44. Process of removing stones from the common bile duct ANSWER:

45. Diminished vision associated with the aging process ANSWER:

46. Uterine bleeding at a time other than the monthly cycle ANSWER:

47. Condition of having kidney stones ANSWER: 48. Abnormal condition of pus in the urine ANSWER:

49. Pertaining to the mouth and the throat ANSWER: 50. Hardening of the arteries due to deposits of yellow, fatty plaque ANSWER:

Match the example/definition to the body system. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. integumentary system b. musculoskeletal system c. cardiovascular system d. respiratory system e. gastrointestinal system f. urinary system g. nervous system h. endocrine system i. special senses Page 7

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems j.

reproductive system

51. Prostate ANSWER:

52. If there is an interruption in cerebellar nerve impulses, voluntary movements of the body become difficult ANSWER: g 53. Sialolithiasis is a condition of having stones in a salivary (gland) ANSWER:

54. Blepharoptosis is a sagging (drooping) eyelid ANSWER:

55. Prolactin is a hormone secreted by the pituitary gland so a mother can nurse her baby by producing milk ANSWER: j 56. Older patients frequently complain of nocturia, a condition of having to get up during the night to void ANSWER: f 57. Malignant melanoma is a black tumor of the skin ANSWER:

58. A laminectomy, removing a portion of the vertebra, may be performed by a surgeon to relieve back pain ANSWER: b 59. A laryngectomy is the surgical removal of the larynx, usually due to cancer ANSWER:

60. Tendonitis is inflammation of a tendon ANSWER:

61. Glucosuria and glycosuria both mean “sugar in the urine” ANSWER:

62. A lipoma is a benign, fatty tumor ANSWER:

63. Neuralgia is a generalized term meaning pain in a nerve ANSWER:

64. An aortic aneurysm is a ballooning out of this major vessel and is frequently life-threatening ANSWER:

65. Thyroid gland, shield Page 8

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems ANSWER:

66. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot ANSWER:

67. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a disease that affects the lungs and the oxygen levels ANSWER: d 68. Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the mucous membrane lining of the eye, commonly referred to as

pinkeye ANSWER: 69. Cholecystolithiasis is the condition most commonly referred to as gallstones ANSWER:

70. Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation of the glomerulus of the nephrons ANSWER:

Match the common medical abbreviation with its meaning. a. ASHD b. CA, ca c. CVA d. EGD e. FBS f. GERD g. GYN h. MI i. TKR j. URI 71. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy ANSWER:

72. Cancer, carcinoma ANSWER:

73. Gastroesophageal reflux disease ANSWER:

74. Total knee replacement ANSWER:

75. Upper respiratory infection ANSWER:

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Chapter 08: Understanding and Building Medical Terms of Body Systems 76. Myocardial infarction ANSWER:

77. Cerebrovascular accident (stroke) ANSWER:

78. Gynecology ANSWER:

79. Arteriosclerotic heart disease ANSWER:

80. Fasting blood sugar ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 1. The science of the function of cells, tissues, and organs of the body is called: a. cytology b. histology c. gross anatomy d. physiology ANSWER: 2. The

divides the anterior cavity into an upper thoracic cavity and a lower abdominopelvic cavity. a. diaphragm b. aorta c. peritoneum d. umbilicus

ANSWER:

3. When the abdomen is divided into nine regions, which of the following is one of the three central areas? a. lumbar b. iliac c. epigastric d. hypochondriac ANSWER:

4. The cell membrane consists of molecules. a. protein and fat b. protein and sugar c. carbohydrates and salts d. lipids and water ANSWER:

5. The are two cylinder-shaped organelles near the nucleus that separate and form spindle fibers that attach to the chromosomes during mitosis. a. lysosomes b. centrioles c. mitochondria d. pinocytic vesicles ANSWER: b 6. Which of these processes is also known as cell eating? a. active transport b. filtration c. phagocytosis d. pinocytosis ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 7. Which of the following pH values indicates an acidic solution? a. 10.0 b. 9.5 c. 7.0 d. 4.5 ANSWER:

8. Which of these statements is correct? a Neurons are cells of muscle tissue. b. Some neurons cannot be regenerated if damaged or destroyed. c. Neurons increase in number after birth. d. Neurons are not formed until after birth. ANSWER:

9. The incidence of Down syndrome in North America is about age. a.1 b.7 c. 12 d. 19 ANSWER:

in every 1000 live births, depending on the mother’s

10. Which of the following is not a common cause of dwarfism? a. endocrine dysfunction b. deficiency disease c. bacterial meningitis d. renal insufficiency ANSWER:

11. Patients with galactosemia cannot digest: a. pectin b. milk c. carbohydrates d. fats ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is not a common symptom of Klinefelter’s syndrome? a abnormally heavy body hair . b. failure of the penis and testicles to mature fully c. mental retardation d. breast enlargement ANSWER:

a Page 2

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 13. Turner’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, webbing of the neck, a low hairline, and: a. early onset of menses b. closely spaced nipples c. breast enlargement d. underdevelopment of the genitalia ANSWER:

14. Using genetic engineering, the disease status can currently be determined for a fetus with: a. type I diabetes b. Grave’s disease c. Huntington’s disease d. Down syndrome ANSWER:

15. Edema causes the affected tissues to: a. appear inflamed b. appear puffy c. dehydrate d. shrink ANSWER:

16. Which type of tissues specialize to provide specific secretions for the body? a. epithelial b. connective c. nerve d. muscle ANSWER:

17. Which of the following is not one of the three categories of connective tissue? a. connective tissue proper b. supportive connective tissue c. fluid connective tissue d. myelinic connective tissue ANSWER:

18. Which of the following is not a component of lymph? a. water b. glucose c. protein d. salt ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 19. Cartilage is found in all of the following parts of the body except: a. the wrist b. between the bones of the spine c. the voice box d. the ear ANSWER:

20. Nerves outside the brain and spinal cord are called a. osseous b. peripheral c. asymptomatic d. symptomatic ANSWER:

nerves.

Match each term with its definition. a. pathophysiology b. medial c. lateral d. anterior e. posterior f. abdominal g. pelvic h. DNA i. endocytosis j. exocytosis 21. Located away from the midline ANSWER:

22. Material within the chromosome that encodes the genes which are located at specific sites on the chromosome ANSWER: h 23. Located toward the midline ANSWER:

24. Lower portion of the abdominopelvic cavity ANSWER:

25. Process through which substances are moved from the inside of a cell to the outside ANSWER: 26. Front side of the body ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 27. Study of mechanisms by which disease occurs, the responses of the body to the disease process, and the effects of both on normal function ANSWER: a 28. Upper portion of the abdominopelvic cavity ANSWER:

29. Process through which large molecules are absorbed into a cell ANSWER: 30. Back side of the body ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. homeostasis b. dominant gene c. recessive gene d. cleft palate e. cystic fibrosis f. spina bifida g. genetic map h. system i. organs j. tissues 31. Group of cells of the same type that join together for a common purpose ANSWER:

32. Diagram that describes how thousands of known marker sequences in the chromosomes separate and recombine ANSWER: g 33. Type of gene that can produce a trait without regard to the nature of its pair member ANSWER:

34. Group of body organs that perform similar functions ANSWER:

35. Presence of a structural defect in the roof of the mouth ANSWER:

36. Condition that exists when the internal environment is functioning properly and all the organs and tissues of the body are performing their appropriate tasks ANSWER: a 37. Structural malformation of the spine in which the posterior portion of the spinal tissues fails to close during the first 3 months of pregnancy Page 5

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure ANSWER:

38. Two or more types of tissue that work together to perform a specific body function ANSWER:

39. Type of gene that does not result in a recognizable trait unless both members of the gene pair are of a similar mutation ANSWER: c 40. Generalized dysfunction of the exocrine glands, affecting multiple organ systems ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. BRCA analysis b. polymerase chain reaction c. DNA fingerprinting d. genetic counseling e. gene therapy f. genetic engineering g. embryonic stem cells h. striated i. smooth j. cardiac 41. Type of muscle tissue found connected to the bones of the body ANSWER:

42. Insertion of a perfect gene into the cells of a person with a congenital disorder caused by a defective gene ANSWER:

43. Technique used to isolate, characterize, and produce large quantities of specific pieces of DNA from very small amounts of starting material ANSWER: b 44. Type of muscle tissue found within the walls of all the organs of the body except the heart ANSWER:

45. Information provided to a couple regarding their risks of having a child with a genetic disorder ANSWER:

46. Method of screening for breast and ovarian cancer ANSWER:

47. Used in the prenatal diagnosis of inherited diseases ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 48. Type of involuntary muscle tissue found only in the heart ANSWER:

49. Detection and identification method used in criminal investigations ANSWER:

50. These have the potential to develop into all or nearly all of the tissues of the body ANSWER:

Match the cell organelle to its function. a. cell membrane b. cytoplasm c. nucleus d. nuclear membrane e. nucleoplasm f. nucleolus g. ribosomes h. endoplasmic reticulum i. mitochondria j. Golgi apparatus k. lysosomes l. pinocytic vesicles m. centrosome n. centrioles 51. Provides an organized watery environment in which life functions take place by the activities of the

organelles contained in the cytoplasm ANSWER:

52. Serve as sites for protein synthesis ANSWER:

53. Transport large particles into a cell ANSWER:

54. Provide spindle fibers for attaching chromosomes during cellular division ANSWER:

55. Provides passages through which transport of substances occurs in cytoplasm ANSWER:

56. Functions as a site for RNA synthesis ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 57. Serves as the “brain” for the control of the cell’s metabolic activities and cell division; has DNA and genes ANSWER: c 58. Regulates transport of substances into and out of the cell ANSWER: 59. Contains two centrioles that are functional during animal cell division ANSWER:

60. Serve as centers of cellular digestion ANSWER:

61. A clear, semifluid medium that fills the spaces around the chromatin and the nucleoli ANSWER:

62. Manufactures carbohydrates and packages secretions for discharge from the cell ANSWER:

63. Serve as sites of cellular respiration and energy production; the “powerhouse” of the cell ANSWER:

64. Regulates transport of substances into and out of the nucleus ANSWER:

Match the name or base of common acid with where it is found or used. a. acetic acid b. ammonium hydroxide c. boric acid d. magnesium hydroxide e. carbonic acid f. potassium hydroxide g. hydrochloric acid h. sodium hydroxide i. nitric acid j. sulfuric acid 65. Milk of magnesia ANSWER:

66. Household liquid cleaners ANSWER:

67. Stomach ANSWER:

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 68. Industrial oxidizing acid ANSWER:

69. Weak eyewash ANSWER:

70. Lye ANSWER:

71. Carbonated beverages ANSWER:

72. Vinegar ANSWER:

73. Batteries and industrial mineral acid ANSWER:

74. Caustic potash ANSWER:

Match the disease with the system(s) involved and the pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. cystic fibrosis b. hemochromatosis 75. Sweat gland dysfunction ANSWER:

76. Circulatory system ANSWER:

77. Endocrine system ANSWER:

78. Musculoskeletal system ANSWER:

79. Integumentary system ANSWER:

80. Excess iron in the blood, congestive heart failure ANSWER:

81. Digestive system ANSWER:

a Page 9

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Chapter 09: Anatomic Descriptors and Fundamental Body Structure 82. Calcium deposits in cartilage and iron deposits in synovial fluid ANSWER:

83. Respiratory system ANSWER:

84. Reproductive system ANSWER:

85. Difficulty breathing, wheezing, acute pulmonary infections ANSWER:

86. Excessive appetite but poor weight gain, foul-smelling stools ANSWER:

87. Skin pigmentation, iron deposits ANSWER:

88. Male testicular atrophy ANSWER:

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System 1. What are the two main divisions of the nervous system? a. sympathetic and parasympathetic b. central and peripheral c. dorsal and ventral d. dendrite and axon ANSWER:

2. Which of the following is not found in all nerve cells? a. b. c. d.

cytoplasm nucleus mitochondrion cell membrane

ANSWER:

3. Nerve impulses normally travel about a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

miles per hour. 200 2000 800 8000

4. What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system? a. central and peripheral b. sympathetic and parasympathetic c. dendrite and axon d. dorsal and ventral ANSWER: 5. The

lobe is associated with vision. a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal

ANSWER:

6. Which part of the brain is the reflex center for chewing, tasting, and secreting saliva? a. sulci b. corpus callosum c. dura mater d. pons ANSWER:

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System 7. The pia mater, arachnoid, and dura mater make up the: a. foramens b. meninges c. ventricles d. cerebellum ANSWER:

8. Which of these conditions is the most common form of dementia? a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Reye’s syndrome ANSWER:

9. Encephalitis: a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

causes nerve cell destruction is a mild form of spinal inflammation appears slowly over time has no known symptoms

10. Which of these is not associated with essential tremor? a head movements in a yes-yes motion . b. head movement in a no-no motion c. hands shaking when trying to make movements d. hands shaking when at rest ANSWER:

11. Migraines are a form of headache. a. muscle contraction b. tension c. vascular d. traction inflammatory ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is not a form of meningitis? a. fungal b. viral c. bacterial d. parasitic ANSWER:

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System 13. When is multiple sclerosis (MS) usually first diagnosed? a. infancy b. early adolescence c. between the ages of 20 and 40 d. between the ages of 40 and 60 ANSWER:

14. Paralyses are divided into what two general groups? a. spastic and flaccid b. chronic and incidental c. congenital and bacterial d. progressive and regressive ANSWER:

15. Damage to the right side of the brain causes paralysis in the a. upper half b. lower half c. right side d. left side ANSWER:

of the body.

16. Paraplegia is usually caused by: a. bacterial infection b. trauma c. a congenital condition d. extensive use of illicit drugs ANSWER:

17. Which of these statements is correct? a Quadriplegia is a permanent form of paralysis. b. Quadriplegia commonly produces high blood pressure. c. Patients with quadriplegia commonly experience elevated body temperature. d. Quadriplegia is caused by injury to the brain. ANSWER:

18. The main symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are: a fatty infiltration of the liver and increased intracranial pressure b. tremor of the head and arms c. muscle rigidity and tremor of the hand d. progressive stiffening of the muscles and paralysis ANSWER:

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System 19. Sciatica is most common in: a. infants of both sexes b. adolescents of both sexes c. older females d. middle-aged males ANSWER:

20. What is the most common first symptom of Tourette syndrome? a facial tic . b. vocalization of socially unacceptable words c. barking noises and tongue clicking d. echoing things just heard ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. internuncial neurons b. membrane excitability c. serotonin d. interneurons e. autonomic system f. brain g. ventricles h. cerebrospinal fluid i. arteriography j. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) k. electromyography (EMG) l. lumbar puncture 21. Acts as a watery cushion or shock absorber to provide additional protection for the delicate tissues of the central nervous system ANSWER: h 22. Connecting nerve cells ANSWER:

23. Diagnostic test in which a catheter is threaded up to the carotid artery in the neck, and a dye is injected to show the cerebral blood vessels when X-rays are taken ANSWER: i 24. White matter in the spinal cord that is mainly comprised of axons of these ANSWER:

25. Process by which nerves create electric charges to carry impulses Page 4

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System ANSWER:

26. Large mass of nerve tissue with about 100 billion neurons ANSWER:

27. Procedure, indicated when meningitis is suspected, that involves inserting a spinal needle into the subarachnoid space to remove cerebrospinal fluid for examination ANSWER: l 28. Spaces or cavities found within the brain ANSWER:

29. Demonstrates the electrical activity of the peripheral muscles at rest and when activated ANSWER:

30. Frequently called the “flight-fright mechanism” because it accelerates our body functions to permit escaping or otherwise dealing with danger ANSWER: e 31. Assessment tool used to describe the level of consciousness ANSWER: 32. Research has indicated that depressed people have less of this than people who are not depressed ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. nonresectable tumor b. resectable tumor c. subarachnoid hemorrhage d. trigeminal neuralgia e. Alzheimer’s disease f. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) g. shingles h. meningitis i. neuralgia j. paralysis k. paraplegia l. Reye’s syndrome m. Tourette syndrome 33. Type of tumor that is removed ANSWER:

34. Loss of motor or sensory function in the lower extremities, with or without involvement of the abdominal and back muscles Page 5

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System ANSWER:

35. Term used to describe the temporary or permanent loss of voluntary function in a portion of the body ANSWER:

36. Positive diagnosis of this condition is not possible until after death, when the brain can be examined ANSWER:

37. Disorder of the fifth cranial nerve, usually on one side of the face ANSWER:

38. Condition caused by the same herpes virus that causes chicken pox ANSWER:

39. Condition that causes severe pain along the course of the involved nerve or nerves ANSWER:

40. Condition that almost always follows within 1 to 3 days of an acute viral infection, such as upper respiratory infection or type B influenza ANSWER: l 41. Condition usually caused by the spontaneous rupture of a weakened blood vessel ANSWER:

42. Inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord ANSWER:

43. Type of tumor that is debulked if possible ANSWER:

44. Progressive, fatal neurologic disease that causes degeneration of motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord ANSWER: 45. Neurologic disorder characterized by tics ANSWER:

Match the disease with the system involved and the pathology (disease condition). Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. cerebral palsy b. spina bifida c. both cerebral palsy and spina bifida 46. Body degeneration, loss of bone density due to lack of weight bearing ANSWER:

47. Skeletal system Page 6

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System ANSWER:

48. Difficulty eating, swallowing ANSWER:

49. Muscular system ANSWER:

50. Muscle wasting from sedentary lifestyle, contractures ANSWER:

51. Pressure ulcers ANSWER:

52. Integumentary system ANSWER:

53. Digestive system ANSWER:

54. Skin breakdown if loss of bladder and bowel control ANSWER:

55. Loss of bone density ANSWER:

56. Muscle wasting if paralysis ANSWER:

Match the reflex action to the description as simple or complex. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. simple reflex action b. complex reflex action 57. No interpretation or decision are required ANSWER:

58. A reaction when the body coming into contact with something harmful ANSWER:

59. The sensory impulse is relayed through nerve cells to the spinal cord and up to the brain ANSWER:

60. The impulse is interpreted, and the motor neurons carry the message back down the spinal cord and out the

appropriate motor nerves to the muscles and the legs move the body away ANSWER:

b Page 7

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System 61. Illustrated by the knee-jerk test often used by physicians ANSWER:

62. A(n)

is the minute space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron across which an impulse must travel a. b. c. d.

synapse syncope ganglion ALS reaction

ANSWER:

63. All nerve cells have a nucleus, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane. Scattered throughout the cytoplasm are little

microscopic granular “dots” called: a. b. c. d.

foreign bodies fibrous bodies Nissl bodies axon bodies

ANSWER:

64. When a neuron is stimulated, ions move across the membrane, creating a current that, if large enough, will

briefly change the area inside of the neuron to be more positive than the outside area. This state is known as: a. b. c. d.

action potential active positron actively charged none of the above

ANSWER:

results from the effects of the bacterium Clostridium tetani on the

65. A disease condition called

nervous and muscular systems. a. b. c. d.

tinnitus clostridium venlafaxine desvenlafaxine tetanus

ANSWER:

66. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes

of cranial nerves that connect the brain directly to the sense organs (eye, ear, tongue, nose, and skin), the heart, the lungs, and other internal organs

ANSWER:

a. b.

2 pairs 12 pairs

c. d.

12 single types 2 single types b Page 8

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System 67. The peripheral system also includes a.

pairs of spinal nerves.

b. c. d.

31 12 21 13

ANSWER:

In an area between the cerebrum and the midbrain are two major structures, the thalamus and the hypothalamus. Match the term to its definition or description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b.

thalamus hypothalamus

68. Controls the autonomic nervous system ANSWER:

69. Acts as a relay station for impulses going to and from the brain ANSWER:

70. Acts as a relay station for those impulses from the cerebellum and other parts of the brain ANSWER:

71. Maintains body temperature ANSWER:

72. Assists in the regulation of appetite ANSWER:

73. Plays a role in emotions such as fear and pleasure ANSWER:

74. Helps maintain wakefulness when it is necessary ANSWER:

75. Increases secretions and motility in the intestinal tract ANSWER:

76. Which form of imaging has been most useful with evaluating and staging malignancies? a. The PET scan b. The CT scan c. The MRI scan d. Ultrasound imaging ANSWER:

a Page 9

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Chapter 10: The Nervous System

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Chapter 11: The Senses 1. Which muscle of the eye does not move the eyeball but is attached to and moves the eyelid ? a. inferior oblique b. levator palpebrae superioris c. superior oblique d. medial rectus ANSWER:

2. In the eye, when the ciliary body contracts, the lens becomes: a. rounder b. narrower c. thinner d. engorged ANSWER:

3. The aqueous humor: a. is a thick, jellylike substance b. maintains the shape of the eyeball c. assists in the refraction process d. is produced by the retina ANSWER:

4. The area where the optic nerves exit the retina contains neither rods nor cones and is referred to as the: a. optic disc b. conjunctiva line c. lacrimal spot d. accommodation zone ANSWER:

5. Approximately 11 million Americans have some loss of vision from with an advanced from of the disease. a. arcus senilis b. age-related macular degeneration c. amblyopia d. cataracts ANSWER:

6. What are the two forms of age-related macular degeneration? a. red and black b. infantile and senile c. long and short d. wet and dry ANSWER:

and more than 2 million are living

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Chapter 11: The Senses 7. There is no cure for age-related macular degeneration; however, recent studies have shown that modification of risk factors and interventional measures may slow the advance of the disease. Which of the following is not one of the recommended modifications or treatments as described in the textbook? a vitamin B and D supplements . b. c. d. ANSWER:

medication to increase blood pressure sunglasses that provide protection from UV light saline eyedrops d

8. Which of the following is not a symptom of blepharitis? a. itching and burning sensations b. blurred vision c. sticky, crusted eyelids d. loss of eyelashes ANSWER:

9. Treatment of amblyopia depends on the: a. cause b. duration c. age of the patient d. gender of the patient ANSWER:

10. The symptoms of open-angle glaucoma: a are insidious b. typically affect only one eye c. are very painful d. are commonly recognized before the disease progresses significantly ANSWER:

11. Which of the following is not a symptom of diabetic retinopathy? a. blurred vision b. floaters c. decreased peripheral vision d. itching and burning sensations ANSWER:

12. Glaucoma causes severe: a. ocular discharge b. itching and burning sensations c. visual impairment Page 2

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Chapter 11: The Senses d.

swelling

ANSWER:

13. What is the most common type of glaucoma? a. closed-angle b. open-angle c. wet d. dry ANSWER:

14. With closed-angle glaucoma, unless the pressure in the eye is relieved quickly, blindness may occur within: a. a few hours b. 24 hours c. 2 to 3 days d. 5 to 7 days ANSWER: b 15. The primary cause of myopia is associated with the a. shape b. size c. age d. location ANSWER:

of the eye.

16. Myopia is most commonly treated with: a. antibiotic eyedrops b. surgery c. hydrating eyedrops d. glasses or contact lenses ANSWER:

17. The organ of Corti is located in the: a. outer ear b. inner ear c. middle ear d. nasal cavity ANSWER:

18. The

are responsible for maintaining equilibrium. a. Eustachian tubes b. tympanic membranes c. semicircular canals d. external auditory canals Page 3

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Chapter 11: The Senses ANSWER:

19. A tympanostomy is used to treat: a. otitis media b. presbycusis c. otosclerosis d. otitis externa ANSWER:

20. What is the treatment of choice for nasal polyps? a. antibiotics b. decongestant spray c. surgical removal d. steroids ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. receptors b. sclera c. choroid d. astigmatism e. conjunctiva f. myopia g. hyperopia h. cataract i. conjunctivitis j. corneal abrasion k. corneal ulcer l. iritis m. ptosis n. esotropia o. exotropia 21. Mucous membrane that lines the inner surfaces of the eyelids and covers the anterior sclera surface of the eye ANSWER: e 22. Peripheral nerve endings of sensory nerves that respond to stimuli ANSWER: 23. Drooping of the upper eyelid ANSWER:

24. Gradually developing opacity of the lens Page 4

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Chapter 11: The Senses ANSWER:

25. Abnormally outward gaze ANSWER:

26. Scratch or trauma to the cornea ANSWER: 27. Collection of blood vessels that form the blood supply to the outer portions of the retina ANSWER:

28. Nearsightedness ANSWER:

29. Abnormally inward gaze ANSWER:

30. Blurred vision caused by an abnormally shaped cornea ANSWER:

31. Acute disease caused by an infectious infiltration into the cornea ANSWER:

32. Farsightedness ANSWER:

33. Condition commonly known as pinkeye ANSWER:

34. Inflammation of the iris ANSWER:

35. Tough, white fibrous tissue that helps maintain the shape of the eyeball ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. pinna b. tympanic membrane c. sensorineural d. presbycusis e. tinnitus f. epistaxis g. candidiasis h. malleus i. incus Page 5

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Chapter 11: The Senses j.

stapes

36. Fungal infection of the mucous membranes of the mouth and throat ANSWER:

37. Stirrup ANSWER: 38. Eardrum ANSWER:

39. Anvil ANSWER: 40. Auricle ANSWER:

41. Medical term for a nosebleed ANSWER:

42. Hammer ANSWER:

43. Hearing loss that results from nerve transmission failure within the inner ear or the auditory nerve ANSWER:

44. Ringing in the ears ANSWER:

45. Gradual loss of hearing that occurs normally as part of the aging process ANSWER:

Match to the disease of diabetic retinopathy whether the description is a system involved or pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. system involved b. pathology present 46. Circulatory ANSWER:

47. Blurred vision ANSWER:

48. Floaters ANSWER:

49. Endocrine Page 6

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Chapter 11: The Senses ANSWER:

50. Hyperglycemia ANSWER:

51. Retinal blood vessel changes ANSWER:

52. Nervous (senses) ANSWER:

53. Neuropathy ANSWER:

54. Decreased peripheral vision ANSWER:

55. Edema ANSWER:

56. The

evaluates balance. a. b. c.

presbycusis otosclerosis videonystagmograph

audiograph

ANSWER:

57. The nose has the a. b. c. d.

organ, which is the sense of smell. olfactory Corti thermoreceptors aqueous humor

ANSWER:

58. Diseases of the mouth include all except: a. rhinitis b. candidiasis c. glossitis d. oral cancer ANSWER:

59. Which of the following is not a nasal disease? a. glossitis b. epistaxis Page 7

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Chapter 11: The Senses c. d.

polyps rhinitis

ANSWER: 60. The skin has

different receptors to perceive the environment. a. b. c. d.

two twelve six seven

ANSWER:

Looking at retinal detachment as an example, match the following to its description/definition. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. description b. signs and symptoms c. etiology d. treatment 61. Patient’s complaints of seeing floating spots, flashes of light, and a gradual vision loss ANSWER:

62. Can happen due to normal aging ANSWER:

63. If a hole or tear is found when the detachment is very small, a coagulation laser beam can be used to seal or

“spotweld” the retina to prevent progression of the detachment ANSWER:

64. Folds, tears, and a ballooning inward of the retina may be seen ANSWER:

65. This disorder is characterized by the separation of the retina from its underlying support layers ANSWER:

66. There are three main types of retinal detachment (RD): rhegmatogenous, exudative, and traction ANSWER:

67. Can occur due to buildup of fluids underneath the retina ANSWER:

68. If significant detachment is already present, then surgical therapy is necessary to reattach the retina ANSWER: d 69. Laser (heat) and cryotherapy (cold) are used to create a sterile inflammatory response that scars the retinal Page 8

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Chapter 11: The Senses tissues back together ANSWER:

70. The most common cause is severe diabetic retinopathy ANSWER:

71. The condition known as

is characterized by severe vertigo (dizziness) and tinnitus (ringing in the ears). Violent attacks may last from 10 minutes to hours and cause severe nausea, vomiting, and perspiration a. b.

labyrinthectomy

c. d.

motion sickness otitis externa

Ménière’s disease

ANSWER:

Match the following description to the inner, middle, or outer ear. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. inner ear b. middle ear c. outer ear 72. The auricle ANSWER:

73. Carries sound waves to the malleus, incus, and stapes ANSWER:

74. Continues the vibrations through the cochlea and the organ of Corti to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum ANSWER: a 75. The auditory canal ANSWER:

76. The tympanic membrane ANSWER:

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System 1. The skin makes up about

percent of total body weight. a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35

ANSWER:

2. Which of the following is not one of the five important functions of the skin? a. temperature control b. absorption c. perception d. ingestion ANSWER:

3. Vitamin

is lipid-soluble and can pass through the skin. a. b. c. d.

E B C G

ANSWER:

4. As people age: a elastic fibers shrink and collagen degenerates b. elastic fibers increase in size and collagen degenerates c. elastic fibers shrink and collagen grows stronger d. elastic fibers increase in size and collagen grows stronger ANSWER:

5. Oil glands are located in or near hair follicles over the entire skin surface, except for the: a. face and neck b. elbows and knees c. palms and soles d. wrists and ankles ANSWER:

6. Which of the following is not a common treatment for acne vulgaris? a. systemic antibiotics b. oral contraceptives c. topical antibacterial product d. change in diet ANSWER:

7. A scrape or burn is an example of a(n): Page 1

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System bulla excoriation tumor papule

a. b. c. d.

ANSWER:

8. The lesions caused by chicken pox are: a. b. c. d.

wheals nodules vesicles macules

ANSWER:

9. Physiologic nonscarring alopecia typically occurs in: a females after childbirth . b. males after age 30 c. males and females during times of stress d. children when they pull their hair out ANSWER:

10. Superficial basal cell carcinomas commonly occur on the: a. face and neck b. chest and back c. arms and legs d. stomach and thighs ANSWER:

11. An asymmetrical melanoma: a is symmetrical . b. has sharply defined borders c. is generally less than 6 mm in diameter d. may have shades of red, white, or blue ANSWER:

12. The acute diffuse or spreading inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue is known as: a. cellulitis b. dermatitis c. folliculitis d. impetigo ANSWER:

a Page 2

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System 13. Eczema is characterized by a. b. c. d.

skin. oily swollen scaly numb

ANSWER:

14. Which of the following is not a common cause of furuncles? a. injury b. irritation c. pressure d. friction ANSWER:

15. Carbuncles are: a characterized by small red, irritated spots . b. treated with systemic antibiotics c. usually caused by the herpes virus d. relatively painless ANSWER:

16. Herpes simplex I is most often associated with lesions: a. around the lips and eyelids b. on the forearms c. in the oral and nasal areas d. on the neck and shoulders ANSWER:

17. Herpes zoster is commonly known as: a. strep throat b. Lyme disease c. moles d. shingles ANSWER:

18. Lyme disease is carried by which insect? a. tick b. mosquito c. itch mite d. flea ANSWER:

a Page 3

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System 19. What is the recommended method for disposing of the insect that causes Lyme disease? a burning it . b. c. d. ANSWER:

crushing it dropping it in 70 percent alcohol or diluted bleach drowning it in water c

20. Rosacea affects which part of the body? a. face b. hands c. calves d. upper back ANSWER:

21. Scabies is caused by the: a. b. c. d.

tick itch mite flea mosquito

ANSWER:

22. If a patient has verrucae, he or she has: a. chicken pox b. hives c. shingles d. warts ANSWER:

23. Which wrinkle treatment involves the controlled scraping of the top layers of the skin? a. dermabrasion b. chemical peel c. laser resurfacing d. plastic surgery ANSWER:

24. A(n)

ANSWER:

peel affects surface and some underlying cells. a. light b. medium c. deep d. extreme b Page 4

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System 25. The effects of a thread lift are anticipated to last about: a. 18 months b. 2 years c. 5 years d. 8 years ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. integumentary b. dilate c. constrict d. transdermal e. dermis f. epidermis g. subcutaneous h. melanin i. carotene j. erythema k. crust l. fissure m. pustule n. ulcer o. wheal 26. Deep loss of skin surface, which may extend into the dermis, that can bleed periodically and scar ANSWER:

27. Collection of dried serum and debris ANSWER:

28. When surface vessels do this, heat from the blood can escape through the skin’s surface, cooling the body ANSWER: b 29. Deepest (or bottom) layer of the skin ANSWER:

30. Refers to the administration of a drug through the skin ANSWER:

31. Linear crack from epidermis to dermis ANSWER:

32. Itchy, temporarily elevated area with an irregular shape formed as a result of localized skin edema Page 5

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System ANSWER:

33. Brown-black pigment ANSWER:

34. When the surface blood vessels do this, it reduces the loss of heat through the skin ANSWER:

35. Outer (or top) layer of the skin ANSWER:

36. Condition commonly known as sunburn ANSWER: 37. Discrete, pus-filled raised area ANSWER:

38. Refers to an external covering or skin ANSWER:

39. Middle layer of the skin ANSWER:

40. Yellow pigment ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. basal cell carcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. malignant melanoma d. dermatitis e. folliculitis f. hirsutism g. keloid h. pediculosis capitis i. pediculosis pubis j. psoriasis 41. Slow-growing, locally destructive skin tumor ANSWER:

42. Infection of the hair follicle with the formation of a pustule ANSWER:

43. Condition commonly known as crabs Page 6

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System ANSWER:

44. Neoplasm that develops from the pigment-producing melanocytes ANSWER:

45. Scar that developed excess dense tissue as it progressed through the healing process ANSWER:

46. Invasive tumor with metastatic potential ANSWER:

47. Chronic inflammatory condition that is recurrent, with alternating periods of remission or increased severity ANSWER: 48. Inflammation of the skin ANSWER:

49. Condition, found primarily among children, that is spread through shared combs, brushes, clothing, and hats ANSWER: h 50. Disorder that usually appears in women and children in which excessive body hair develops in an adult male pattern of growth ANSWER: f Match the disease to the systems involved and the pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. Lyme disease b. hirsutism c. both Lyme disease and hirsutism 51. Integumentary ANSWER:

52. Circulatory ANSWER:

53. Muscular ANSWER:

54. Reproductive ANSWER:

55. Excessive growth of body hair ANSWER:

56. Skeletal and muscular ANSWER:

a Page 7

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System 57. Numbness ANSWER:

58. Nervous ANSWER:

59. Arthritis ANSWER:

60. Bell’s palsy ANSWER:

61. Reduced breast size ANSWER:

62. Increase muscle mass ANSWER:

Match the characteristics to an ordinary mole or melanoma. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. ordinary mole b. melanoma 63. Once developed, remains the same size, shape, and color ANSWER:

64. Shape is symmetrical, round, or oval ANSWER:

65. The surface of a mole may change to be scaly, oozing, or bleeding ANSWER:

66. Usually greater than 6 mm in diameter ANSWER:

67. Border is sharply defined ANSWER:

68. Asymmetrical—one side does not match the other ANSWER:

69. Edges are irregular ragged, notched, or blurred ANSWER:

70. Evenly colored brown, tan, or black ANSWER:

a Page 8

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Chapter 12: The Integumentary System 71. Color varies from one area to another; shades of brown, tan, and black. May also have shades of red, white,

or blue ANSWER:

72. The diameter is generally less than 6 mm ANSWER:

Match the type of skin lesion to the characteristics, size, and example provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. bulla b. macule c. tumor 73. A round, flat area usually distinguished from its surrounding skin by its change in color ANSWER:

74. Solid mass of cells that may extend deep through cutaneous tissue ANSWER:

75. Fluid-filled area ANSWER:

76. Smaller than 1 cm ANSWER:

77. Larger than 1–2 cm ANSWER:

78. Greater than 5 mm across in size ANSWER:

79. Lipoma ANSWER:

80. A large blister ANSWER:

81. An easy reference to remember the signs of melanoma is the ABCDE rules. Identify the correct ABCDE set of rules. a Atypical, Border irregularity, Color, Diameter, and Evolving b. Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color, Diameter, and Evolving c. Asymmetry, Border regularity, Color, Diameter, and Evidenced d. Atypical, Border regularity, Constant, Documented, and Evolving ANSWER: b

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System 1. The

is the tough membrane that covers the surface of the bone. a. collagen b. marrow c. sacrum d. periosteum

ANSWER:

2. The adult skeleton has how many bones? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

187 206 270 317 b

3. Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton? a temperature control . b. c. d. ANSWER:

protection of the organs serving as points of attachment for skeletal muscles formation of blood cells a

4. The winglike side projections of a typical vertebra are called the: a. bodies b. foramen c. transverse processes d. spinous processes ANSWER: 5. The cranium is a fusion of

cranial bones. a.4 b.8 c. d.

12 16

ANSWER:

6. The small bone at the knee is known as the: a. tibia b. radius c. patella d. fibula ANSWER:

c Page 1

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System 7. The phalanges are the: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

fingers and toes wrists and ankles bones of the face forearms and calves a

8. An immovable joint is called synarthrosis or: a. amphiarthrosis b. fibrous c. diarthrosis d. cartilaginous ANSWER:

9. The bones of children are much more a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

than those of an adult. brittle dense rigid flexible

10. Phantom limb is often described by patients as a a. tingling b. burning c. cold d. painful ANSWER:

sensation.

11. Which diagnostic procedure permits direct visual inspection of a joint? a. CT scan b. X-ray c. arthroscopy d. bone scan ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is a frequently used test that evaluates the conditions of bones in cases such as dislocations, sprains, and fractures? a. bone scan b. CT scan c. arthroscopy d. X-ray ANSWER: d Page 2

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System 13. Which of the following is not a symptom of osteoarthritis? a. joint pain b. bone atrophy c. stiffness d. fluid around the joint ANSWER:

14. Which of the following conditions results from a fault in the immune system that causes it to attack the joint membranes? a. rheumatoid arthritis b. gout c. bursitis d. hallux valgus ANSWER: a 15. Which of the following conditions is caused by the compression of the median nerve at the wrist? a. lumbar myositis b. kyphosis c. lordosis d. carpal tunnel syndrome ANSWER:

16. A “duck waddle” walk is a sign of: a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. subluxation c. congenital hip dysplasia d. a dislocated bone ANSWER:

17. Dislocation is least likely to occur in which of the following joint locations? a. toe b. finger c. knee d. shoulder ANSWER:

18. A patient with epicondylitis experiences pain at the: a. knee b. elbow c. shoulder d. jaw ANSWER:

b Page 3

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System 19. What are the two types of kyphosis? a. spinal and cranial b. chronic and acute c. adolescent and adult d. seasonal and environmental ANSWER:

20. The cause of primary osteoporosis is believed to be a combination of all but which of the following? a aging . b. c. d. ANSWER:

faulty metabolism because of estrogen deficiency sedentary lifestyle prolonged inadequate dietary intake of vitamin D d

Match each term with its definition. a. axial skeleton b. appendicular skeleton c. intervertebral cartilage disks d. foraminae e. sternum f. true ribs g. false ribs h. clavicle i. scapula j. embolus 21. Collar bone ANSWER:

22. Breast bone ANSWER:

23. Made up of the spinal column, skull, and rib cage ANSWER:

24. Mass of foreign material circulating within the blood vessels ANSWER: 25. Openings between the vertebrae ANSWER:

26. First seven pairs of ribs in the rib cage Page 4

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System ANSWER: 27. Made up of the bones of the arms, hands, legs, feet, shoulders, and pelvis ANSWER:

28. Shoulder blade ANSWER:

29. Last five pairs of ribs in the rib cage ANSWER:

30. These separate the bones of the spinal column ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. articulation b. ligament c. impacted d. comminuted e. depressed f. spiral g. gout h. bursitis i. dislocation j. kyphosis k. lordosis l. osteoporosis m. scoliosis n. sprain o. subluxation 31. The obvious visual symptom of this condition is the excessive inward curvature of the lumbar portion of the back ANSWER: k 32. Place where two or more bony parts join together ANSWER:

33. Displacement of bones at a joint so that the regularly articulating surfaces are no longer in contact ANSWER:

34. Type of fracture in which there is more than one fracture line and several bone fragments ANSWER:

35. Complete or incomplete tear in the supporting ligaments of a joint ANSWER:

n Page 5

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System 36. Type of fracture in which there has been a severe twisting action that causes the break to wind around the bone ANSWER: f 37. Partial or incomplete dislocation of the articulating surfaces at the joints ANSWER:

38. Strong, flexible band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a joint ANSWER:

39. Painful inflammation of the sac located around a joint containing lubricating fluids that allow muscles and tendons to move freely over bony surfaces ANSWER: h 40. Type of fracture in which a broken piece of skull is driven inward ANSWER:

41. Bowing of the back, usually at the thoracic level, resulting from improper vertebral alignment ANSWER:

42. Lateral curvature of the spine, usually in the thoracic region, associated with rotation of the spinal column ANSWER: m 43. Type of fracture in which the broken ends of the bone are jammed into one another ANSWER:

44. Metabolic disease that results in severe joint pain, especially at night, and is often associated with another disease, such as leukemia ANSWER: g 45. Metabolic bone disorder characterized by acceleration of the rate of bone resorption while the rate of bone formation slows down ANSWER: l Match the disease with the system involved and the pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. rheumatoid arthritis b. osteoporosis c. both rheumatoid arthritis 46. Skeletal system ANSWER:

47. Swelling and deformity of joints ANSWER:

48. Kyphosis, loss of height Page 6

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System ANSWER:

49. Immune system ANSWER:

50. Circulatory system ANSWER:

51. Inadequate calcium intake ANSWER:

52. Digestive system ANSWER:

53. Reproductive system ANSWER:

54. Inflammation ANSWER:

55. Destruction of joint membranes ANSWER:

56. Inadequate estrogen ANSWER:

57. Thoracic vertebrae serve as the posterior attachment points for a.2 b. 12 c. 21 d. 22 ANSWER: 58. The longest bone in any species is the: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

pairs of ribs.

femur sternum spine patella

59. A common injury among children is the

fracture that involves the breaking of the distal end of the

radius, causing a characteristic bulge at the wrist. a. b.

simple compound Page 7

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System c.

Colles’

depressed

ANSWER:

60. Before the broken bone can be set, traction (pulling)—either manually or by a system of ropes and pulleys—

must be used to stretch the muscles and pull the bone pieces back into alignment. This procedure is known as the fracture. a. b. c. d.

setting pressure setting compound setting reducing

ANSWER:

61. With involved fractures, such as compound or comminuted, surgical procedure is often necessary either to repair the skin and surrounding tissues or to place all the small bone fragments in position. This procedure is called: a. a closed reduction b. an open reduction c. a closed alignment d. an open alignment ANSWER: b 62. When the amputated stump has healed sufficiently, a a. prosthesis b. phantom limb c. callus d. none of the above ANSWER:

(artificial part) may be fitted.

Match the type of diagnostic examination with the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. arthroscopy b. bone scan c. computed tomography (CT) scan d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) e. X-ray 63. A frequently used test that evaluates the condition of bones in cases such as dislocations, sprains, and

fractures ANSWER:

64. A computer takes the information and reconstructs a cross-sectional (axial) “slice” of the patient ANSWER:

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System 65. This process uses strong magnets that cause all of the protons in the field to “line up” ANSWER:

66. This is a precise nuclear medicine procedure using small amounts of a radioactive substance that are injected

into a vein to help diagnose the presence of disease based on structural appearance ANSWER:

67. Usually, the procedure is done in two parts. The injection is given first, and the medium is carried in the

blood to the skeleton and distributed throughout the bones ANSWER:

68. Images can be constructed in any plane (not just axial) ANSWER:

69. This endoscopic procedure permits direct visual inspection of a joint, most often the knee ANSWER:

70. Multiple slices are taken that allow the provider to determine the anatomy in three dimensions ANSWER:

71. A surgeon makes a small incision in the patient’s skin and then inserts pencil-sized instruments that contain

small lenses and lighting systems to magnify and illuminate the structures inside the joint ANSWER:

72. Useful in detecting arthritis, torn meniscus, cysts, or loose pieces of tissue ANSWER:

73. The pelvic girdle is joined anteriorly at the a. ligaments / bursa b. symphysis pubis / sacrum c. d.

and posteriorly at the

axial / appendicular lumbar vertebrae / coccyx

ANSWER: 74. The spinal column has

cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae plus the sacrum and coccyx. a. b. c. d.

24 12 22 16

ANSWER: 75. What percentage of bone structure is water? a.5 b.

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Chapter 13: The Skeletal System c. d. ANSWER:

12 20 d

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System 1. During strenuous activity, a great number of motor units are called on to contract, a process known as: a. abduction b. adduction c. muscle recruitment d. muscle realignment ANSWER:

2. When muscles function, they change stored glycogen to a. sucrose b. glucose c. lactose d. fructose ANSWER:

as their source of energy.

3. Which of the following is not a function of the muscles? a providing heat . b. providing the body with the ability to move c. holding the body upright d. storing calcium ANSWER:

4. As people age, the amount of: a connective tissue increases and elastic fibers decrease . b. c. d. ANSWER:

connective tissue decreases and elastic fibers increase both connective tissue and elastic fibers increase both connective tissue and elastic fibers decrease

5. When muscles contract, they become: a. longer and thicker b. shorter and thicker c. longer and thinner d. shorter and thinner ANSWER:

6. The extensor muscle that straightens the elbow is the: a. triceps b. biceps c. trapezius d. flexor carpi ulnaris Page 1

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System ANSWER:

7. The constant state of contraction that allows the body to maintain its erect position is known as: a. muscular rigidity b. muscular spasm c. muscle recruitment d. muscle tone ANSWER:

8. What is the thickest and longest tendon in the human body? a. patellar tendon b. Achilles tendon c. peroneus brevis tendon d. hamstring tendon ANSWER:

9. The most common bursae are located at the: a. elbow, wrist, and neck b. hip, knee, and ankle c. elbow, knee, and shoulder d. wrist, hip, and shoulder ANSWER:

10. The

muscles lie beneath the pectoralis major, between the ribs. a. gastrocnemius b. sphincter c. cartilage d. intercostal

ANSWER:

11. The shoulders are protected by a triangle of muscle called the: a. infraspinatus b. deltoid c. sternocleidomastoid d. teres major ANSWER:

12. The

ANSWER:

muscles support much of the body’s weight and enable us to stand erect. a. gluteus maximus b. sartorius c. anconeus d. serratus anterior a Page 2

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System 13. Which of the following is not part of the quadriceps femoris? a. vastus lateralis b. tibialis anterior c. rectus femoris d. vastus intermedius ANSWER:

14. Which of the following is not part of the hamstring group? a. semimembranosus b. a portion of the adductor magnus c. biceps femoris d. teres major ANSWER:

15. What is the main muscle in the calf of the leg? a. soleus b. gluteus medius c. gastrocnemius d. plantaris ANSWER:

16. The contracting and relaxing of muscles that works food through the body in a wavelike action is called: a. dystrophy b. controlled spasms c. hiccoughing d. peristalsis ANSWER:

17. Tendonitis is most often caused by a: a. sports-related activity b. bacterial infection c. phosphorus deficiency d. genetic factor ANSWER:

18. Which of the following is not a common treatment for epicondylitis? a injection of a mixture of corticosteroid and a local anesthetic b. immobilization c. cold therapy d. manipulation of the tendon attachment ANSWER:

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System 19. Diagnosis of fibromyalgia syndrome is considered positive when a.8 b. 11 c. 15 d. 18 ANSWER:

of the 18 trigger points are painful.

20. Which condition makes up about half of all cases of muscular dystrophy? a. Duchenne’s dystrophy b. Erb’s dystrophy c. juvenile muscular dystrophy d. torticollis ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. motor unit b. tetanus c. skeletal muscle tissue d. smooth muscle tissue e. myocarial muscle tissue f. flexor g. extensor h. contracture i. abduction j. adduction 21. Type of muscle tissue found only in the heart ANSWER:

22. Movement of extremities toward the center of the body ANSWER:

23. Movement of extremities away from the body’s center ANSWER:

24. Skeletal muscle that straightens a joint ANSWER:

25. Type of muscle tissue attached to bones that permits movement ANSWER:

26. Skeletal muscle that bends a joint ANSWER:

f Page 4

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System 27. Muscular condition in which certain muscles become shorter, permanently bending the joints ANSWER:

28. Group of muscle cells and a motor neuron that function together to cause movement ANSWER:

29. State of maintained muscle contraction ANSWER:

30. Type of muscle tissue made of small, delicate muscle cells that is found throughout most of the internal organs of the body ANSWER: d Match each term with its definition. a. tendon b. origin c. insertion d. diaphragm e. orbicularis oris f. orbicularis oculi g. strain h. sphincter i. fibromyalgia j. torticollis 31. End of a muscle furthest from the center of the body ANSWER:

32. Strong fibrous structure attached to rough surfaces on a bone ANSWER:

33. Smooth, donut-shaped muscle that pinches shut intermittently to control the flow of food, liquid, or blood ANSWER: h 34. End of a muscle nearest to the center of the body ANSWER:

35. Commonly results from the application of too much stress to skeletal muscles while exercising or participating in athletic activities ANSWER: g 36. Chronic musculoskeletal condition characterized by widespread pain ANSWER:

37. Muscle that allows humans to whistle, kiss, smile, grin, grimace with pain, or pout Page 5

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System ANSWER:

38. Neck deformity that bends the head to the affected side and rotates the chin toward the opposite side ANSWER: 39. Most important muscle in breathing ANSWER:

40. Muscle that enables us to squint or wink ANSWER:

Identify and match the definition provided as a system involved or pathology present to the disease fibromyalgia. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. system involved b. pathology present 41. Muscle stiffness ANSWER:

42. Pain, numbness tingling, trigger points, headache ANSWER:

43. Muscular ANSWER:

44. Nervous ANSWER:

45. Urinary frequency ANSWER:

46. Digestive ANSWER:

47. Irritable bowel syndrome ANSWER:

48. Urinary ANSWER:

49. The body has

muscles. a. b. c. d.

ANSWER:

3 30 60 600 d Page 6

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System 50. Muscle groups are separated by membranes called: a. sheaths b. tissue c. extensors d. sphincters ANSWER: 51. With prolonged lack of use, muscles will

, which is a progressive wasting away of the muscle

tissue. a. b. c. d.

contract flex atrophy all of the above

ANSWER:

52. Another form of muscular attachment is by

, a sheet-like, tough membrane that forms sheaths to

cover and protect the muscle tissue. a. b. c. d.

tendon fascia tissue all of the above

ANSWER:

functions as a watery cushion to minimize pressure and friction over bony prominences and

53. The

under tendons. a. b. c. d.

bursa tendon tissue cartilage

ANSWER:

54. The

not only supports the head but also extends down the back and shoulders, giving us the ability to raise and throw back the shoulders. a. b. c. d.

sternocleidomastoid diaphragm pectoralis major trapezius

ANSWER:

55. The muscle of the

is the site of choice for intramuscular injections, especially for large amounts of a slowly absorbing material. a.

buttocks Page 7

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System b. c. d.

deltoid sartorium quadriceps femoris

ANSWER:

56. The back is covered by a large muscle called the

. Its main function is to extend and adduct

the arm, as when swimming. a. b. c. d.

latissimus dorsi latissimus dorsal deltoid pectoralis major

ANSWER:

57. The structure that connects the mouth with the stomach is known as the: a. sphincter b. esophagus c. peristalsis d. bursa ANSWER:

58. When light is focused on the eye, the

muscles of the iris that surround the pupil contract, making the pupil smaller, thereby limiting the amount of light striking the retina. a. b. c. d.

peristalsis hamstring sartorius circular sphincter

ANSWER:

are weakness of the upper arm and pelvic muscles. Other symptoms include winging of the scapulae, lordosis with protruding abdomen, waddling gait, poor balance, and the inability to raise the arms. 59. The signs and symptoms of

Erb’s (or juvenile) torticollis (wryneck) Duchenne’s none of the above

a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

60. This type of muscular dystrophy has increased in infants since they are now placed on their backs to prevent

SIDS. The sternocleidomastoid muscle shortens due to the position. a. torticollis b. c.

Duchenne’s Erb’s Page 8

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System d.

juvenile

ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition. a. abduction b. anchor c. aponeurosis d. biceps e. cramp f. deltoid g. dystrophy h. gastrocnemius i. gluteus medius j. hamstring k. hiccough l. intercostal m. musculoskeletal n. pectoralis major o. peristalsis 61. When this muscle contracts, being firmly anchored at the shoulder, it pulls upon the insertion location on the

forearm, and the arm flexes (bends) ANSWER:

62. Caused by a muscle that has contracted but cannot relax ANSWER:

63. The main muscle in the calf of the leg ANSWER:

64. These muscles lie beneath the pectoralis major, between the ribs ANSWER:

65. The main upper chest muscle ANSWER: 66. Pertaining to the muscular and skeletal systems ANSWER:

67. This muscle is located at the back of the iliac crest and stretches downward toward the greater trochanter of

the femur, with the lower third of the muscle being partially covered by the gluteus maximus ANSWER:

68. When skeletal muscles join bones that meet at joints, one of the bones becomes this, which is where Page 9

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Chapter 14: The Muscular System the muscle has its origin ANSWER:

69. Spasmodic contractions of the diaphragm, followed by spasmodic closure of the space between the vocal

cords ANSWER:

70. Congenital disorders result in progressive wasting away of skeletal muscles ANSWER:

71. Alternating action of both smooth layers, contracting and relaxing, works the food through the body in a

wavelike action ANSWER:

72. Designates either a fascia or a flat tendon type of muscle attachment ANSWER:

73. The shoulders are protected by a triangle of muscle called this, which abducts the arm ANSWER:

74. The posterior thigh is the site of the this group, which includes the biceps femoris, semitendinosus,

semimembranosus, and a portion of the adductor magnus ANSWER: 75. When muscles contract to move extremities away from the body’s center line ANSWER:

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System 1. An adult human being carries a supply of oxygen in the blood, lungs, and tissues adequate to sustain life for about minute(s). a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 ANSWER: c 2. After air is filtered, warmed, and moistened in the nose, it enters the: a. epiglottis b. larynx c. Eustachian tube d. pharynx ANSWER: 3. The

the vocal cords, the higher the pitch of one’s voice. a. tighter and longer b. tighter and shorter c. looser and longer d. looser and shorter

ANSWER:

4. Which of the following is commonly called the windpipe? a. larynx b. trachea c. bronchi d. epiglottis ANSWER:

5. The trachea is held open by a series of ------ shaped cartilage structures. a. C b. X c. O d. I ANSWER:

6. A CT-guided needle biopsy is performed by a: a. cardiologist b. medical assistant c. neurologist d. radiologist ANSWER:

d Page 1

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System 7. A is a radiologic examination of pulmonary circulation following the injection of a radiopaque iodine material into the pulmonary artery. a PET scan . b. chest X-ray c. pulmonary angiography/arteriography d. pulmonary function test ANSWER: c 8. Which of the following is a chronic disorder characterized by swelling, inflammation, and constriction of the bronchi and bronchioles? a asthma . b. atelectasis c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. emphysema ANSWER: a 9. What is the most common chronic lung disease? a emphysema . b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. bronchitis d. asthma ANSWER:

10. Which of the following is not a symptom of emphysema? a. chronic cough b. cyanosis c. weight gain d. barrel chest ANSWER:

11. Type

influenza occurs every 4–6 years, resulting in epidemics. a. A b. B c. C d. D

ANSWER:

12. The earliest symptom of internal disease of the larynx is: a pain . Page 2

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System b. c. d. ANSWER:

burning when drinking hot liquids or citrus juices persistent hoarseness coughing up blood c

13. Which of the following were not considered a high-risk group for contracting H1N1 at the start of the pandemic? a children between the ages of 4 and 12 . b. adults 65 years of age or older c. pregnant women d. health care providers ANSWER: a 14. Legionnaires’ disease usually occurs in: a. late spring or early summer b. late summer or early fall c. late fall or early winter d. late winter or early spring ANSWER:

15. The symptoms of squamous and small cell carcinomas include smoker’s cough, sneezing, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and: a. fever b. weakness c. weight loss d. chest pain ANSWER: d 16. Which of the following is not a typical component of lung cancer treatment? a. thoracentesis b. chemotherapy c. surgical excision (when appropriate) d. radiation ANSWER:

17. Which of the following is a primary symptom of pneumothorax? a. chronic dull pain b. shortness of breath c. productive cough d. rales ANSWER:

18. People between the ages of are at the highest risk for developing respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). a. 40 and 50 years Page 3

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System b. c. d.

12 and 20 years birth and 8 months 12 and 18 months

ANSWER: 19. About

c percent of adults are habitual snorers. a. b. c. d.

10 25 40 55

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. conchae b. mucus streaming c. intubation d. tracheotomy e. alveoli f. internal respiration g. cardiac notch h. hiccoughs i. yawning j. pandemic 20. Caused by a spasm of the diaphragm and a spasmodic closure of the glottis ANSWER:

21. Propulsion of particles inhaled into the trachea and bronchi upward past the epiglottis ANSWER:

22. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the cellular level ANSWER:

23. Deep prolonged breath that fills the lungs ANSWER:

24. Passing a tube through the mouth and larynx and into the trachea ANSWER:

25. Grapelike cluster of microscopic air sacs found at the ends of the bronchioles ANSWER:

26. Three scroll-like bones located on each side of the nasal cavity, covered with mucus-producing epithelium ANSWER: a Page 4

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System 27. Space in which the heart lies ANSWER:

28. Making an external opening into the trachea ANSWER:

29. Exists when an infection is epidemic in different parts of the world at the same time ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. lung perfusion scan b. lung ventilation scan c. chronic bronchitis d. acute bronchitis e. primary acute histoplasmosis f. progressive disseminated histoplasmosis g. chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis h. pleurisy i. hypoxia j. silicosis k. asbestosis l. coal worker’s or black lung disease m. pulmonary fibrosis n. tuberculosis o. upper respiratory infection (URI) 30. Lack of oxygen ANSWER:

31. Condition in which excessive mucus is secreted in the bronchi during several months a year for several years in a row ANSWER: c 32. Condition characterized by scarring of the lung tissue, making the lungs stiff and small ANSWER: 33. Inflammation of the visceral and parietal pleura in the thoracic cavity ANSWER:

34. Examination of the lung following intravenous injection of a radioactive contrast medium to provide a visual image of pulmonary blood flow ANSWER: a 35. Condition, associated with an infection, that occurs abruptly and lasts several days or weeks ANSWER:

d Page 5

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System 36. Most commonly affects people who work in occupations such as sand blaster, foundry worker, and miners who work in gold, lead, zinc, and iron mines ANSWER: j 37. Examination that follows the inhalation of a mixture of air and radioactive gas from a mask and bag ANSWER:

38. Acute or chronic, highly contagious infection causing nodular lesions and patchy infiltration of the lung tissue ANSWER: n 39. Form of histoplasmosis that resembles tuberculosis, causing a productive cough, dyspnea, weakness, hemoptysis, fever, and cyanosis ANSWER: g 40. Progressive nodular type of pneumonoconiosis ANSWER:

41. Form of histoplasmosis that involves the liver, spleen, and lymph glands, and may cause inflammation of the heart muscle, the pericardium, and the meninges of the brain and spinal cord ANSWER: f 42. Condition that may be caused by several different viruses and can be transmitted by respiratory droplets, contaminated objects, or hands ANSWER: o 43. Form of histoplasmosis that resembles a severe cold ANSWER:

44. Condition most prevalent in the construction, fireproofing, and textile industries, and in brake and automotive occupations dealing with clutch linings ANSWER: k Match the system involved or pathology present to the disease of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. system involved b. pathology present 45. Productive cough, dyspnea ANSWER:

46. Respiratory ANSWER:

47. Frequent infection, wheezing ANSWER:

48. Hypoxia Page 6

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System ANSWER:

49. Circulatory ANSWER:

50. Poor appetite, weight loss ANSWER:

51. Difficulty eating ANSWER:

52. Digestive ANSWER:

53. Barrel chest ANSWER:

54. Muscular ANSWER:

Match the symptom(s) to the common cold, influenza, or allergy. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. common cold b. influenza c. allergy 55. No fever ANSWER:

56. Rare headache ANSWER:

57. Uncommon—slight fever ANSWER:

58. Headache—common ANSWER:

59. Headache—prominent ANSWER:

60. Slight muscle aches ANSWER:

61. No muscle aches ANSWER:

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System 62. Prominent—high fever; sudden onset, lasts 2–4 days ANSWER:

63. Prominent, often severe muscle aches ANSWER:

64. Sometimes, mild to moderate cough ANSWER:

65. Common, often severe cough ANSWER:

66. Occasional cough ANSWER:

67. Red, itchy eyes common ANSWER:

68. Red, itchy eyes rare ANSWER:

69. Red, itchy eyes uncommon ANSWER:

70. Nasal discharge uncommon ANSWER:

71. Thick and clear to yellowish green nasal discharge ANSWER:

72. Water and clear nasal discharge ANSWER:

73. Mild fatigue and weakness ANSWER:

74. Extreme, sudden onset fatigue and weakness that may last several weeks ANSWER:

75. No fatigue or weakness involved ANSWER:

76. Prior to birth and breathing, the lung is solid and will sink in water. At birth, the lungs begin to fill with air,

inflating the alveoli. The degree of inflation depends on the presence of respiratory membrane. a.

, a fatty molecule on the

alveoli Page 8

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Chapter 15: The Respiratory System b. c. d. ANSWER:

hyaline membrane visceral pleura surfactant d

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System 1. The tricuspid valve is located between the: a. right atrium and ventricle b. left atrium and ventricle c. right atrium and left ventricle d. left atrium and right ventricle ANSWER:

2. Blood flows out from the a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

3. The

and into the aorta. left atrium left ventricle right atrium right ventricle

walls are thin, one-cell structures. a. arterial b. venous c. capillary d. lymph vessel

ANSWER:

4. Lymph does not: a fill the spaces between the cells b. get pumped through the lymph vessels by a muscular organ c. act as the “bridge” between cells and capillaries d. contain blood plasma ANSWER:

5. When adenitis occurs, the and become tender. a walls of the blood vessels thicken . b. walls of the blood vessels become thinner c. lymph nodes become swollen d. lymph nodes shrink ANSWER:

6. The spleen is located: a to the left of the cardiac notch . b. to the right of the cardiac notch c. just beneath the right side of the diaphragm d. just beneath the left side of the diaphragm ANSWER:

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System 7. What is the role of serum globulin in blood plasma? a It assists in the formation of antibodies. b. It is a necessary component to clot blood. c. It aids in maintaining blood pressure. d. It regulates the exchange of water between the cells and the blood. ANSWER:

8. Which type of cardiovascular test uses sound waves to help identify deep vein thrombosis? a. cardiac catheterization b. dobutamine stress test c. Doppler ultrasonography d. echocardiogram ANSWER:

9. Which type of cardiovascular test measures the passage of blood through the coronary arteries to the myocardium? a. venogram b. myocardial perfusion imaging c. carotid artery ultrasound d. MUGA scan ANSWER: b 10. Which type of anemia results from injury or destruction of blood cell formation by the bone marrow? a. aplastic anemia b. blood loss anemia c. iron deficiency anemia d. cerebral anemia ANSWER:

11. Which type of aneurysm is detectable on palpation as a pulsating mass in an area around the umbilicus? a. cerebral aneurysm b. femoral aneurysm c. thoracic aortic aneurysm d. abdominal aortic aneurysm ANSWER:

12. The term

ANSWER:

is used to identify any abnormal changes in the heart rhythm. a. aneurysm b. carditis c. arrhythmia d. cardiac arrest c Page 2

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System 13. With congestive heart failure (CHF), the myocardium of the a. left ventricle b. left atrium c. right ventricle d. right atrium ANSWER:

is most commonly affected.

14. Which of the following is a condition in which the heart pumps too weakly to supply the body with blood? a. embolism b. heart failure c. cerebrovascular accident (CVA) d. coronary artery disease ANSWER: b 15. A patient is considered to have hypertension if the blood pressure is consistently elevated above: a. 110/40 b. 130/70 c. 140/90 d. 160/100 ANSWER:

16. What is the foremost contributing factor to stroke and kidney damage? a. hypertension b. hypotension c. vitamin C deficiency d. respiratory disease ANSWER:

17. Which of the following is a disease in which the walls of the ventricles of the heart are markedly thickened? a. leukemia b. myocardial infarction c. embolism d. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ANSWER: d 18. Which of the following is not a common cause of hypotension? a. poor diet b. shock c. heart failure d. acute blood loss ANSWER:

19. Which of the following conditions involves the localized inflammation of a vein? Page 3

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System a. b. c. d.

varicosities phlebitis thrombophlebitis sickle cell anemia

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a systole . b. diastole c. premature atrial contractions (PACs) d. premature junctional contractions (PJCs) e. premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) f. defibrillator g. tachycardia h. bradycardia i. low-density lipoprotein j. high-density lipoprotein 20. Consistently slow heart rate ANSWER:

21. These have the ectopic pacemaker focused at the junction of the AV node and the bundle of His ANSWER:

22. Contraction phase of a heartbeat ANSWER:

23. Device used to discharge a strong electrical current into a patient’s heart through electrode paddles held against the bare chest wall ANSWER: f 24. Cause the atria to contract ahead of the anticipated time ANSWER:

25. “Bad” cholesterol ANSWER: 26. Consistently rapid heart rate ANSWER: 27. “Good” cholesterol ANSWER:

28. Relaxation phase of a heartbeat Page 4

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System ANSWER:

29. Originate in the ventricle and cause contraction ahead of the next anticipated beat ANSWER:

Match each major vein with its location in the body. a. jugular b. tibial c. pulmonary d. cephalic e. saphenous f. brachial g. inferior vena cava h. superior vena cava i. femoral j. common iliac 30. From the lungs to the left atrium of the heart ANSWER:

31. In the thigh from the knee into the pelvis ANSWER:

32. From the arm to the brachiocephalic ANSWER:

33. From the head and neck ANSWER:

34. From the arm to the brachiocephalic ANSWER:

35. From the saphenous and femoral to the inferior vena cava ANSWER:

36. All upper-body veins to the right atrium of the heart ANSWER:

37. From the feet to the thigh ANSWER:

38. In the thigh from the knee into the pelvis ANSWER:

39. All lower-body veins to the right atrium of the heart Page 5

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. transient ischemic attack b. hemorrhagic stroke c. stent d. infarction e. regurgitate f. benign g. malignant h. stenotic i. sickle cell anemia j. stasis 40. Form of hypertension in which blood pressure rises rapidly and severely and may not respond to treatment ANSWER: g 41. Small, temporary interruption of blood flow, also known as a warning stroke ANSWER:

42. Backward flow of blood into the left atrium ANSWER:

43. Refers to a “leaking” valve ANSWER:

44. Stroke in which a blood vessel ruptures, and the escaping blood damages brain tissue either by pressure against it or from lack of circulation through the tissue ANSWER: b 45. Stagnation of blood ANSWER: 46. Interference with circulation ANSWER:

47. Form of hypertension in which the blood pressure rises moderately over a fairly long period ANSWER: 48. Stainless steel mesh tube commonly used with a balloon catheter to prop open a coronary artery ANSWER: 49. Inherited condition due to an autosomal recessive trait ANSWER:

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System Match the system(s) involved to the pathology present for congestive heart failure and leukemia. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a congestive heart failure . b. leukemia c. both congestive heart failure and leukemia 50. Cool, clammy skin, dependent edema, stasis ulcers ANSWER:

51. Circulatory ANSWER:

52. Respiratory ANSWER:

53. Decreased cardiac output, rapid pulse, cyanosis, circulatory congestion, enlarged spleen, ascites ANSWER:

54. Digestive ANSWER:

55. Enlarged liver ANSWER:

56. Infections ANSWER:

57. Integumentary ANSWER:

58. Huge areas of bruising ANSWER:

59. Pallor ANSWER:

60. Skeletal ANSWER:

61. Immune ANSWER:

62. Pain due to swelling within from excess WBCs ANSWER:

b Page 7

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System 63. Pulmonary edema, cough, shortness of breath, can’t breathe lying down, pink frothy sputum ANSWER:

Match the description to the warning signs, symptoms, or contributing factors to stroke and heart disease. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. heart disease b. stroke 64. High levels of cholesterol ANSWER:

65. Development of difficulty in speaking or in understanding simple statements ANSWER:

66. Sudden blurred or decreased vision ANSWER:

67. High triglyceride levels ANSWER:

68. Loss of consciousness or severe drowsiness ANSWER:

69. A sudden, severe headache ANSWER:

70. Obesity ANSWER:

71. Numbness, weakness, or paralysis of face, arm, or leg—especially on one side of the body ANSWER:

72. Loss of balance or coordination when combined with another warning sign ANSWER:

73. This device consists of a small battery-powered pulse generator with electrode catheters. The electrodes are

inserted into a vein and threaded through the vena cava, one to the right atrium, the other into the right ventricle at the apex. a. b. c. d.

artificial pacemaker stent angioplasty defibrillator

ANSWER: 74. When blood enters the vast network of capillaries, called a(n)

, it is so dispersed that the rate Page 8

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Chapter 16: The Circulatory System of flow is reduced to a slow trickle, permitting time for O2 and nutrients to enter the tissue cells in exchange for CO2 and waste products. a.

capillary bed

b. c. d.

vena cava arteriole branch infarction

ANSWER:

75. Platelets and injured tissues release thromboplastin, which triggers the a. bleeding b. agglutinate c. clotting d. ANSWER:

process to begin.

circulation c

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Chapter 17: The Immune System 1. The lymph tissue in the intercepts antigens invading the upper respiratory tract. a. spleen and bone marrow b. appendix and small intestine c. tonsils and adenoids d. Peyer’s patches ANSWER:

2. Which type of T lymphocytes produce lymphokines, which assist other lymphocytes and phagocytes in performing their functions? a. suppressor T cells b. helper T cells c. killer T cells d. memory T cells ANSWER: b 3. B lymphocytes represent about

percent of the total lymphocytes. a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80

ANSWER: 4. Which type of antibodies are the most plentiful? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

IgA IgD IgG IgM c

5. The release of histamine into the blood vessels does not typically result in localized: a. numbness b. warmth c. redness d. swelling ANSWER:

6. The AIDS epidemic is greatest in which part of the world? a. northern Europe b. Central America c. sub-Saharan Africa d. Indian subcontinent ANSWER:

c Page 1

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Chapter 17: The Immune System 7. In the United States, you are least likely to contract HIV through: a. childbirth and breast feeding b. unprotected sex c. sharing drug needles d. a blood transfusion ANSWER:

8. About a month or two after infection with HIV, people may exhibit which of the following symptoms? a purplish blotches on the skin . b. headache, fever, and fatigue c. yeast infection in the mouth and esophagus d. rashes and dry skin ANSWER:

9. Which of the following is not used to diagnose HIV infection? a enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) . b. Western blot c. biopsy d. a fourth-generation algorithm ANSWER:

10. Benign tumors usually: a. are slow growing b. invade other tissues c. cause significant health problems d. spread to other parts of the body ANSWER:

11. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumor of the: a. smooth muscle b. cartilage c. nerve sheath d. melanocytes ANSWER:

12. What does the T in the TNM system refer to? a presence or absence of regional lymph node metastasis . b. c.

extent of regional lymph node metastasis presence or absence of distant metastasis Page 2

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Chapter 17: The Immune System d. ANSWER:

size or extent of local spread of the primary tumor d

13. The chemical carcinogen benzene has been linked to which type of cancer? a. leukemia b. liver cancer c. melanoma d. bladder cancer ANSWER:

14. Human papilloma virus is found in at least 70 percent of cases of: a. lung cancer b. liver cancer c. cervical cancer d. nasopharyngeal cancer ANSWER:

15. Which type of biopsy involves removing a portion of the tumor for testing? a. sentinel lymph node b. needle c. excisional d. incisional ANSWER:

16. Which type of cancer treatment involves the use of medications to alter cell growth and division? a. radiation therapy b. biologic response modifiers (BRM) c. chemotherapy d. brachytherapy ANSWER:

17. What is the most common cancer treatment? a. radiation therapy b. surgery c. chemotherapy d. gene therapy ANSWER:

18. Which of these is not an example of alternative therapy for cancer patients? a. biofeedback b. shark cartilage c. megadoses of vitamins d. herbal supplements Page 3

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Chapter 17: The Immune System ANSWER:

19. The first FDA-approved cancer vaccine occurred in 2010 with Sipuleucel-T (Provenge) for which type of cancer? a. cervical cancer b. prostate cancer c. bone cancer d. lung cancer ANSWER: b 20. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)? a low-grade fever . b. forgetfulness, irritability, and confusion c. unexplainable muscle weakness or pain d. pain in joints with swelling ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a monocytes . b. phagocytosis c. antigens d. major histocompatibility complex (MHC) e. serum protein electrophoresis f. interferons g. antibody-mediated immune response h. cell-mediated immune response i. Kaposi’s sarcoma j. candidiasis k. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) l. non-nucleoside reverse transcription inhibitors (NNRTIs) m. fusion inhibitors n. cancer o. cortisol 21. Branch of the immune response system that results from T cell activity ANSWER:

22. Drugs that are incorporated into the DNA of HIV and stop the building process, slowing the spread of HIV ANSWER: k 23. Ability to engulf and destroy antigens ANSWER:

b Page 4

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Chapter 17: The Immune System 24. Group of diseases characterized by uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells ANSWER:

25. Immature cells that have little ability to fight infection ANSWER:

26. Blood test used to measure the presence of the different classes of immunoglobulins ANSWER:

27. Branch of the immune response system that results from B cell activity ANSWER:

28. Lymphocyte destroyer ANSWER:

29. Group of genes that encode molecules found in all body cells, creating a biochemical “fingerprint” that serves as the “ID” for cells so that they are marked as “self” ANSWER: d 30. Yeast infection that is sometimes present in the mouth, esophagus, and vagina ANSWER:

31. Drugs that prevent HIV replication by inhibiting a viral protein ANSWER:

32. Substances that announce their foreignness by carrying different kinds of characteristic shapes called epitopes, which stick out from the surface ANSWER: c 33. Family of proteins that can fight viruses ANSWER:

34. Form of cancer that appears as purplish blotches on the skin ANSWER: 35. Newer type of drug used to prevent HIV from entering healthy T cells ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. carcinoma b. sarcoma c. leukemia d. lymphoma e. P53 f. tumor marker g. endoscopy Page 5

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Chapter 17: The Immune System h. i. j. k. l. m. n. o.

positron emission tomography (PET) scan adjunct therapy colony-stimulating factor (CSF) interleukin leukapheresis lupus steroid rheumatoid factor

36. Condition in which the usually protective antibodies are produced in large quantities but react against the person’s own normal tissue ANSWER: m 37. Computerized image of the metabolic activity of the body tissues created by measuring glucose uptake ANSWER:

38. Cancer of the blood and blood-forming organs ANSWER:

39. Autoantibody that locks on to the body’s own IgG molecule as if it were an antigen ANSWER:

40. Tumor suppresser gene ANSWER:

41. Collection process in which white blood cells are withdrawn from a patient’s blood ANSWER:

42. Treatment that follows surgical removal of a cancer to reduce the recurrence rate ANSWER:

43. Cancer of the connective tissue ANSWER:

44. Type of drug commonly used to suppress inflammation ANSWER:

45. Cancer of the lymph tissue ANSWER:

46. Cytokine that regulates hematopoiesis, the growth and maturation of blood cells ANSWER: 47. Protein, antigen, gene, hormone, or enzyme produced by a tumor and released into the blood ANSWER:

f Page 6

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Chapter 17: The Immune System 48. Cancer arising from epithelial tissue ANSWER:

49. Used to visualize the interior of hollow organs ANSWER:

50. Means “messengers between leukocytes” ANSWER:

Match the antibody class with its function. a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM 51. Found in the bloodstream and very effective in killing bacteria. It is responsible for initial formation of

antibodies once exposed to an antigen ANSWER:

52. Located on B cell membranes. Believed to regulate B cell activity ANSWER:

53. Very effective against parasites but also involved in allergic responses, such as hay fever, asthma, and

urticarial ANSWER:

54. Concentrated in body fluids, such as tears, saliva, and respiratory and gastrointestinal secretions, to guard the

entrances of the body ANSWER:

55. The most plentiful antibody. It coats microorganisms in the tissues to speed up the uptake by other immune

system cells. It carries out both antibacterial and antiviral activity. It can cross the placenta barrier ANSWER:

Match the disease to the system(s) involved and the pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. lupus b. AIDS c. rheumatoid arthritis d. lupus and rheumatoid arthritis e. lupus, AIDS, and rheumatoid arthritis f. lupus and AIDS 56. Nervous ANSWER:

e Page 7

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Chapter 17: The Immune System 57. Arthritis in joints ANSWER:

58. Skeletal ANSWER:

59. Circulatory ANSWER:

60. Rashes, dry skin, herpes simplex ANSWER:

61. Butterfly rash, baldness, sensitivity to sunlight, Raynaud’s phenomenon ANSWER:

62. Digestive ANSWER:

63. Integumentary ANSWER: 64. Persistent diarrhea, yeast infection in mouth and esophagus ANSWER:

65. Swelling and inflammation of the outer lining of the heart (pericarditis) and of the heart muscle

(myocarditis), which can lead to congestive heart failure ANSWER:

66. Mobility problems, memory loss ANSWER:

67. Cough, breathing difficulty ANSWER:

68. Pneumonia ANSWER:

69. Damage to lung tissue and inflammation to the blood vessels, which can lead to skin, nerve, heart, and brain

problems ANSWER:

Match the type of carcinogen to the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. chemical carcinogen b. viral carcinogen Page 8

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Chapter 17: The Immune System c. d.

physical carcinogen familial carcinogenesis

70. Hepatitis B virus ANSWER:

71. Arsenic ANSWER:

72. Asbestos ANSWER:

73. Fanconi’s anemia ANSWER:

74. Smokeless tobacco ANSWER:

75. Ultraviolet radiation ANSWER:

76. Merkel cell polyomavirus ANSWER:

77. Smoking cigarettes ANSWER:

78. Gardner’s syndrome ANSWER:

79. Xeroderma pigmentosum ANSWER:

80. Currently there are four staging classifications of cancer. Which is not one of the staging classifications? a pathologic based on metastatic markers b. clinical based on acquired evidence from exams and studies c. autopsy based on pathology after death d. retreatment based on disease-free interval with planned new treatment ANSWER:

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System 1. The correct order of the phases of the digestive process, from start to finish, is: a absorption, ingestion, digestion, and elimination . b. c. d. ANSWER:

absorption, digestion, ingestion, and elimination ingestion, absorption, digestion, and elimination ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination

2. The

or cuspids are pointed to puncture and tear. a. molars b. bicuspids c. canines d. incisors

ANSWER:

3. The stomach is: a constructed of three layers of strong muscle tissue . b. c. d. ANSWER:

about 14 inches long C-shaped located just above the diaphragm a

4. Which of the following is digested first? a. proteins b. fats c. fibers d. carbohydrates ANSWER:

5. The liver secretes a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

of bile a day. less than an ounce several ounces over a pint about a gallon

6. The liver does not: a process proteins from amino acids b. receive blood for its own support and preservation from the portal vein c. manufacture fibrinogen and prothrombin Page 1

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System d. render many toxins harmless ANSWER: 7. The

serves as a collecting area for the remains of digestion. a. anal canal b. sigmoid c. rectum d. cecum

ANSWER:

8. When a colonoscopy is performed: a the patient is awake and alert b. it is possible to obtain tissue samples through the scope c. the patient is positioned on the right side d. saline is inserted to distend the walls of the intestine to facilitate passage ANSWER:

9. The American Cancer Society recommends a colonoscopy every a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 3 years d. year ANSWER:

, beginning at age 50.

10. An upper GI series: a is painful b. requires a 2- to 3-day diet of high-residue foods c. requires the patient to stop all oral intake 2 hours prior to the procedure d. requires the patient to ingest barium ANSWER:

11. The only effective treatment for appendicitis is: a. the application of abdominal heat b. surgical removal c. the administration of enemas d. the administration of laxatives ANSWER:

12. The early symptoms of colorectal cancer with right side colon involvement may include: a. vomiting b. dyspnea c. anemia d. anorexia Page 2

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System ANSWER:

13. Crohn’s disease is most common in the: a. duodenum b. jejunum c. rectum d. terminal ileum ANSWER:

14. Bulging pouches in the wall of the GI tract where the lining has pushed into the surrounding muscle is characteristic of: a. diverticulosis b. esophageal varices c. gastroenteritis d. hiatal hernia ANSWER: a 15. A crack or tear in the lining of the anus is called a(n): a. sentinel pile b. rectal excision c. anal fissure d. digital dilation ANSWER:

16. Which of the following is not a symptom of gastroenteritis? a. fever b. constipation c. abdominal cramping d. vomiting ANSWER:

17. Hepatitis is an inflammation and infection of the: a. liver b. kidney c. stomach d. spleen ANSWER:

18. The hepatitis A and B vaccines require: a. three shots over a 6-month period b. two shots over a 4-month period c. monthly shots for 12 months d. annual shots for 3 years Page 3

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System ANSWER:

19. Patients with irritable bowel syndrome commonly have stools that are: a. small and dry b. large and contain mucus c. large and dry d. small and contain mucus ANSWER:

20. Paralytic ileus usually occurs in the: a. liver b. stomach c. small intestine d. esophagus ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. carbohydrates b. proteins c. vitamins d. mastication e. palate f. rugae g. laparoscope h. exocrine gland i. endocrine gland j. lacteal k. hepatic flexure l. splenic flexure m. cathartic n. CT scan o. colostomy 21. Tiny telescope instrument inserted into the abdomen during gallbladder surgery ANSWER:

22. Computerized axial tomography study ANSWER:

23. Folds found in the inner lining of the stomach ANSWER:

24. Gland that secretes directly into the bloodstream Page 4

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System ANSWER:

25. Bend in the colon at the liver ANSWER:

26. These are obtained primarily from plant and animal sources, but are not stored by the body ANSWER:

27. Bend in the colon at the spleen ANSWER:

28. Roof of the mouth ANSWER:

29. Regulating chemicals needed for growth and control of body activities ANSWER:

30. Gland that secretes through ducts ANSWER:

31. Strong laxative ANSWER:

32. These supply about two-thirds of the energy calories needed each day ANSWER:

33. Artificial opening of the colon, allowing fecal material to be excreted from the body through the abdominal wall ANSWER: o 34. Chewing ANSWER: 35. Intestinal lymphatic capillary ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. constipation b. diarrhea c. hemorrhoid d. preicteric e. hernia f. truss g. pancreatitis h. polyp i. pruritus ani Page 5

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System j.

toxemia

36. Blood poisoning that can be caused by a perforation of the colon resulting from severe colitis ANSWER:

37. Protrusion of an internal organ through a natural opening in the body wall ANSWER:

38. Condition of sluggish bowel action ANSWER:

39. Device that exerts pressure directly over a herniated opening, to hold the protruding mass inside the cavity ANSWER:

40. Mass of tissue that results from an overgrowth of upper epithelial cells of the mucosal membrane of the GI tract ANSWER: h 41. Condition of repeated passage of unformed wastes ANSWER:

42. Inflammation of the pancreas ANSWER:

43. Before jaundice ANSWER:

44. Itching of the area surrounding the anus, often associated with irritation and burning ANSWER:

45. Dilated vein in the mucosa of the folds of the anal canal or lower portion of the rectum ANSWER:

Match the disease to the system(s) involved and pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. GERD b. hepatitis c. both GERD and hepatitis 46. Digestive ANSWER:

47. Respiratory ANSWER:

48. Circulatory ANSWER:

49. Integumentary Page 6

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System ANSWER:

50. Senses ANSWER:

51. Heartburn, esophageal spasms, fluid regurgitation ANSWER:

52. Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, liver enlargement and tenderness ANSWER:

53. Coughing, wheezing, bronchitis, asthma ANSWER:

54. Lymph node enlargement, cellular damage, presence of antigens or antibodies in the blood ANSWER:

55. Jaundice of eyes, sensitivity to light ANSWER:

56. Jaundice of skin ANSWER:

is the activity performed by the organs of the digestive system, and it is defined as the process by which food is broken down, mechanically and chemically, in the GI tract and converted into an absorbable form that can be used by the cells of the body. 57.

a. b. c. d.

Digestion Mesentery Stenosis None of the above

ANSWER:

58. The

is a muscle and can alter its shape to reach all areas of the mouth. The surface of it contains the taste buds, located within the papillae projections. a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

palate chyme fistula tongue d

Match the term to its definition. a. alimentary canal b. bolus c. cholecystectomy Page 7

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n. o. p. q.

cholelithiasis chyme cirrhosis colitis diverticulosis duodenum esophagus flatus ileostomy incontinent jaundice peptic proctoscope sigmoidoscopy

59. When the partially digested food in the stomach is changed into a semiliquid state ANSWER:

60. The presence of bulging pouches in the wall of the GI tract where the lining has pushed into the surrounding

muscle ANSWER:

61. Gas ANSWER:

62. A three-inch-long instrument used to examine the lower rectum and anal canal ANSWER:

63. Chronic disease of the liver causes destruction of the liver cells ANSWER:

64. Surgical opening of the ileum that allows the chyme of the small intestine to empty through the abdominal

wall ANSWER:

65. The first of three sections of the colon; a C-shaped segment about nine inches long ANSWER:

66. The surgical removal of the gallbladder ANSWER:

67. Also referred to a gastric (stomach) ulcer ANSWER:

o Page 8

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Chapter 18: The Digestive System 68. Used to perform an examination to view the lower portion of the sigmoid and rectum through a 10- to 12-inch

sigmoidoscope ANSWER:

69. Has two layers of involuntary muscles; the inner layer forms circles around it, whereas the outer layer runs

longitudinally along its approximately 10-inch length ANSWER:

70. Gallstones ANSWER:

71. Inflammation of the colon that causes tenderness and discomfort ANSWER:

72. The connecting chain of organs of the gastrointestinal tract ANSWER:

73. The combination of mashed food substances and saliva ANSWER:

74. The bile is absorbed into the bloodstream, producing the yellow discoloration of the sclera, mucosa, and skin ANSWER: n 75. A patient’s condition interferes with the ability to control the anus, as in a stroke with paralysis, and the

rectum empties whenever the nerve impulse is triggered ANSWER:

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System 1. Urine is produced through: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

secretion excretion elimination digestion a

2. The major work of the urinary system is performed by the: a. bladder b. ureters c. kidneys d. liver ANSWER:

3. Which kidney is displaced by the liver? a. left b. right c. both left and right d. neither left nor right ANSWER:

4. In the male, the urethra is about

inches long. a. b.3 c. d.8

1½ 6½

ANSWER:

5. The involuntary loss of drops of urine is called: a. dribbling b. frequency c. hesitancy d. urgency ANSWER:

6. The artificial veins used in patients undergoing dialysis after the natural veins fail usually last: a. 6–8 months b. 1–3 years c. 3–5 years d. the remainder of the patient’s life ANSWER:

7. With nocturnal intermittent peritoneal dialysis (NIPD), there are

overnight exchanges. Page 1

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System a. b. c. d.

no more than two at least two no more than five at least six

ANSWER:

8. Which of the following is considered an invasive procedure? a. urinalysis b. catheterization c. X-ray of the abdomen d. intake-output measurement ANSWER:

9. Before performing an intravenous pyelography (IVP), it is extremely important to determine if the patient has an allergic response to: a. penicillin b. barium c. sodium d. iodine ANSWER: d 10. Which of the following is not possible during cystoscopy? a. kidney transplantation b. catheterization of the kidneys c. biopsy of a tumor d. removal of calculi in the bladder ANSWER:

11. Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder usually caused by an ascending organism introduced through the: a. navel b. meatus c. mouth or nose d. anus ANSWER: b 12. Women who have had cystitis a few times can identify the characteristic symptoms and will start to drink water and: a. orange juice b. tomato juice c. cranberry juice d. club soda ANSWER: c 13. Which of the following is not a symptom of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)? Page 2

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System a. b. c. d.

anemia protein in the urine moderate edema fatigue

ANSWER:

14. Transobturator tape (TOT) is used to: a seal an exterior ulcer in the bladder . b. c. d. ANSWER:

hold the ureters in place after surgery support the bladder and urethra in their proper position hold a surgical incision closed (in place of stitches) c

15. The most common underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is: a. sickle cell anemia b. renal vein thrombosis c. diabetes d. glomerulonephritis ANSWER:

16. The treatment for pyelonephritis consists primarily of: a. over-the-counter painkillers b. antibiotics c. warm moist compresses d. surgical correction ANSWER:

17. Which of the following people is most likely to have kidney stones? a. a male infant b. a female teenager c. a male in his 30s d. a female in her 60s ANSWER:

18. To qualify for extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy (ESWL), a patient’s kidney stone must be a. no more than 4 cm b. at least 4 cm c. no more than 6 cm d. at least 6 cm ANSWER:

in diameter.

a Page 3

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System 19. Commonly seen in patients experiencing renal failure, Kussmaul’s respirations: a are fast and deep b. resemble loud groans c. occur at a rate of about five per minute d. are so shallow that it may appear that the patient is not breathing at all ANSWER:

20. Which of the following is not an initial symptom of chronic renal failure? a. hypotension b. listlessness c. dry mouth d. confusion ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. hilum b. cortex c. medulla d. afferent arteriole e. efferent arteriole f. threshold g. catheter h. incontinence i. dialysate j. dwell time 21. Solution that continuously circulates around the membranes in dialysis ANSWER:

22. Notch in the concave border of the kidney through which the renal artery enters and the renal vein and renal pelvis of the ureter exit ANSWER: a 23. Passage through which blood enters the glomerulus ANSWER:

24. Tube inserted into the bladder through the urethra to relieve distension and discomfort ANSWER:

25. Period of time during which dialysis solution remains in the abdomen ANSWER: 26. Outer layer of the kidney ANSWER:

b Page 4

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System 27. Inner layer of the kidney ANSWER:

28. Passage through which blood exists the glomerulus ANSWER:

29. Involuntary emptying of the bladder ANSWER:

30. Term used to describe the limit of sugar reabsorption ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. Permacath b. intake-output measurement c. 24-hour urine test d. routine specimen e. clean catch specimen f. diuretics g. stress incontinence h. overflow incontinence i. urge incontinence j. Kegel exercises 31. Water pills ANSWER:

32. Involves collecting all urinary output from a specified hour one day until the same time the next day in a special container under specific conditions ANSWER: c 33. This is usually used for culture purposes, pregnancy determination, or microscopic examination ANSWER:

34. A record of all fluid, or food that melts to liquid, that is consumed, along with all urine or other fluid loss, be it measured or estimated ANSWER: b 35. Surgically inserted into the jugular or subclavian vein to provide temporary access for hemodialysis treatments ANSWER: a 36. Helpful in easing the symptoms of urge incontinence ANSWER:

37. Preferably the first of the morning, this is simply voided into a clean container Page 5

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System ANSWER:

38. Loss of urine that occurs unexpectedly ANSWER:

39. Loss of urine that occurs when a person coughs, sneezes, or laughs ANSWER:

40. Loss of urine that occurs because the bladder never empties completely and its fullness causes leakage ANSWER:

Match the disease with the system(s) involved and the pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a chronic glomerular nephritis . b. renal failure c. both chronic glomerular nephritis and renal failure 41. Nervous system ANSWER:

42. Elevated urea, nitrogen and creatinine in urine ANSWER:

43. Urinary system ANSWER:

44. Proteinuria, hematuria, uremia, renal failure ANSWER:

45. Hypertension ANSWER:

46. Digestive system ANSWER:

47. Congestive heart failure ANSWER:

48. Circulatory system ANSWER:

49. Anorexia ANSWER:

50. Hematemesis ANSWER:

b Page 6

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System 51. Headache, confusion, convulsion, coma ANSWER:

52. Respiratory system ANSWER:

53. Kussmaul’s respiration, pulmonary edema ANSWER:

54. Nausea, vomiting ANSWER:

55. Anemia ANSWER:

56. The transplantation of body organs is always at risk of recipient rejection; however, the kidney can usually

be successfully transplanted, and the survival of the graft has been markedly improved by the use of the drug . a.

cyclosporine

b. c. d.

potassium ions Levaquin alpha-blocker

ANSWER:

57. Correctly identify the two types of dialysis. a. hemodialysis and dialyzing b. hemodialysis and peritoneal c. peritoneal and dialyzing d. peritoneal and shunt ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition. a. anuria b. calculi c. calyx d. cystitis e. dysuria f. fistula g. graft h. lithotripsy i. nephron j. oliguria Page 7

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System k. l. m. n. o. p. q. r.

peritoneal ptosis residual secretion stricture ureter urethra urinary meatus

58. Urinary output ANSWER:

59. This is created by a vascular surgeon who joins an artery and a vein together and makes an opening between

the two so that blood flows directly from artery to vein, bypassing the capillaries ANSWER:

60. An inflammation of the bladder that usually results from an ascending organism introduced through the

meatus ANSWER:

61. A scanty urinary output ANSWER:

62. Renal stones ANSWER:

63. A narrowing of a passageway that interferes with the movement of substances through its interior ANSWER: o 64. Urine left in the bladder after a patient has voided ANSWER: 65. An alternative to hemodialysis using the patient’s own peritoneal membrane to cleanse the blood ANSWER:

66. The medulla is divided into triangular-shaped wedges called renal pyramids with bases toward the cortex

and “tops,” or renal papillae, emptying into cavities called this ANSWER:

67. Pain or discomfort associated with voiding ANSWER:

68. This function of the nephron moves substances directly from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into the

urine in the distal and collecting tubules Page 8

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Chapter 19: The Urinary System ANSWER:

69. A method of kidney stone removal ANSWER:

70. A dropping of the kidneys that occurs in very thin persons as a result of inadequate fatty cushion ANSWER:

71. Similar to a fistula except it is made with either a synthetic material or a treated, sterilized animal vein ANSWER: g 72. The life-preserving service of the kidney is performed by microscopic units called these ANSWER: 73. A tube leading from the bladder to an exit from the body ANSWER:

74. The opening between the clitoris and the vagina within the folds of the labia minora ANSWER:

75. After the kidneys have performed their functions, the waste material, urine, is carried through these, one for

each kidney, to temporary storage in the bladder ANSWER:

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System 1. The pituitary gland is attached to which organ? a. liver b. pancreas c. brain d. lung ANSWER:

2. Which of the following conditions is characterized by overgrowth of cartilaginous and connective tissue? a. tetany b. acromegaly c. hypothyroidism d. hyperthyroidism ANSWER:

3. Which hormone stimulates contractions during childbirth? a. oxytocin b. vasopressin c. luteinizing hormone d. prolactin ANSWER:

4. Which of the following is a gonadotropic hormone? a thyrotropin . b. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) c. melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) d. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) ANSWER:

5. Where is the thyroid gland located? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

6. Lack of

ANSWER:

pancreas liver larynx brain

causes the thyroid gland to enlarge. a. protein b. vitamin A c. sodium d. iodine d Page 1

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System 7. Patients with hyperthyroidism commonly experience: a. irritability b. significant fatigue c. low blood pressure d. unusual weight gain ANSWER:

8. Tetany is treated by the addition of: a. magnesium b. phosphorus c. calcium d. iron ANSWER:

9. The adrenal glands sit atop the: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

kidneys stomach liver esophagus

10. The principal hormone of the medulla is: a. insulin b. androgen c. aldosterone d. adrenaline ANSWER: 11. The majority of the islets of Langerhans cells are a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. pancreatic polypeptide-containing ANSWER:

d cells.

12. Which hormone develops the primary male sexual characteristics? a. testosterone b. progesterone c. estrogen d. adrenaline ANSWER:

13. A blood sugar test is performed to assess the function of the: Page 2

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System a. b. c. d.

thyroid gland parathyroid glands pancreas pituitary gland

ANSWER:

14. Which hormone is responsible for developing breast tissue and stimulating the secretion of milk from the mammary glands? a. melatonin b. prolactin c. glucagon d. aldosterone ANSWER: b 15. Which hormone regulates the exchange of calcium between the bones and blood and increases blood calcium? a. vasopressin b. oxytocin c. thyroxine d. parathormone ANSWER: d 16. The radioactive iodine uptake test is a test of which gland? a. adrenal gland b. pancreas c. thyroid gland d. pituitary gland ANSWER:

17. The most common cause of adrenal insufficiency is: a autoimmune destruction of the cells producing the hormone b. infections such as tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, and meningococcemia c. hemorrhage into the adrenal glands d. metastasis of malignant tumors ANSWER:

18. When the blood sugar level falls too low, the hormone glucagon is released, causing the glycogen into the blood. a. pancreas b. liver c. duodenum d. stomach ANSWER:

to release stored

b Page 3

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System 19. Which of the following does not influence the amount of insulin a diabetic patient needs? a. vomiting b. pregnancy c. exercise d. weather conditions ANSWER:

20. Myxedema is an endocrine condition associated with: a. too little pituitary hormone b. too much pituitary hormone c. too little thyroid hormone d. too much thyroid hormone ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. hormone b. growth hormone c. thyrotropin d. melanocyte-stimulating hormone e. orbital decompression f. hypothyroidism g. hyperthyroidism h. androgens i. mineralocorticoids j. glucocorticoids 21. Procedure performed to allow the eye to recess into the socket ANSWER:

22. Control electrolyte balances by regulating the reabsorption of sodium in the kidney tubules and the excretion of potassium ANSWER: i 23. Overactive thyroid ANSWER:

24. Affects the length of the long bones and therefore height ANSWER:

25. Hormone that increases skin pigmentation ANSWER:

26. Affect the metabolism of protein, fat, and glucose ANSWER:

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System 27. Thyroid-stimulating hormone ANSWER:

28. Below-normal thyroid activity ANSWER:

29. Sex steroids ANSWER:

30. Complex chemical that influences actions at distant sites and controls body functions ANSWER:

Match each term with its corresponding definition. a. thyroid storm b. pineal body c. finger stick d. type 1 diabetes e. type 2 diabetes f. Addison’s disease g. Cushing’s syndrome h. biguanides i. thiazolidinediones j. antidiabetic drugs 31. Disorder characterized by a group of symptoms that result from the hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex caused by excess ACTH production ANSWER: g 32. Small mass of tissue attached by a slim stalk to the roof of the third ventricle in the brain ANSWER:

33. Patients with this condition have insulin resistance and are usually overweight ANSWER:

34. Series of recently approved drugs that increase the presence of gut hormones that are advantageous for insulin secretion and decrease glucagon levels ANSWER: j 35. Autoimmune disease that eventually results in severe insulin deficiency ANSWER: 36. Reduce insulin resistance by modulating activity of nuclear transcription factors ANSWER:

37. Extreme clinical development of hyperthyroidism Page 5

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System ANSWER:

38. Condition that results from a deficiency of adrenal hormones in the cortex of the adrenal gland ANSWER:

39. Method used by diabetic patients to evaluate their glucose level ANSWER:

40. Work to lower sugar levels by blocking the release of glucose by the liver ANSWER:

Match the disease to the system(s) involved and pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. diabetes b. Graves’ disease c. both diabetes and Graves’ disease 41. Urinary system ANSWER:

42. Endocrine system ANSWER:

43. Circulatory system ANSWER:

44. Palpitations, tachycardia, cardiomegaly ANSWER:

45. Insulin deficiency, destruction of insulin-producing cells of the pancreas ANSWER:

46. Nervous system ANSWER:

47. Retinopathy, lens changes ANSWER:

48. Peripheral neuropathy ANSWER:

49. Senses ANSWER:

50. Glycosuria, polyuria, UTI, kidney disease ANSWER:

a Page 6

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System 51. Muscular system ANSWER:

52. Integumentary system ANSWER:

53. Skin infection, ulcers ANSWER:

54. Thyroid enlargement ANSWER:

55. Weak muscles, fatigue, paralysis ANSWER:

56. Exophthalmos ANSWER:

Match the gland with its location, associated hormone, and principal effects. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. pituitary b. testes c. thyroid d. parathyroid e. adrenal f. pancreas g. thymus h. pineal body i. ovaries 57. Parathormone ANSWER:

58. Lower portion of the anterior neck ANSWER:

59. Behind the stomach ANSWER: 60. Third ventricle in the brain ANSWER: 61. Develops excretory portion of mammary glands; aids in maintaining pregnancy ANSWER:

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Chapter 20: The Endocrine System 62. Sex hormones (androgens) ANSWER:

63. Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) ANSWER:

64. Undersurface of the brain in the sella turcica of the skull ANSWER:

65. Superior surface of each kidney ANSWER:

66. Under the sternum ANSWER:

67. React on lymphoid tissue to produce T lymphocyte cells to regulate immunity ANSWER:

68. Insulin ANSWER:

69. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) ANSWER:

70. Posterior surface of thyroid gland ANSWER:

71. Oxytocin ANSWER:

72. Female pelvis ANSWER:

73. Male scrotum ANSWER:

74. Influences onset of puberty and circadian rhythms ANSWER:

75. Develops primary and secondary sexual characteristics; stimulates maturation of sperm ANSWER:

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System 1. The epididymis is: a. a long, straight structure b. located in the upper abdomen c. about 10 feet in length d. shaped like a half-moon ANSWER:

2. Bulbourethral glands are sometimes called glands. a. Cowper’s b. Duverney’s c. Krause’s d. Sigmund’s ANSWER:

3. Which test is performed to determine if a patient has Klinefelter’s syndrome? a. testicular biopsy b. digital rectal examination c. chromosomal analysis d. semen analysis ANSWER:

4. Which of the following is an initial symptom of prostatic hypertrophy? a hematuria . b. reduced force and size of urinary stream c. infrequent urination d. retention ANSWER:

5. Cryosurgery, an option for treating prostate cancer, is not: a recommended for younger patients . b. c. d. ANSWER:

a good alternative to radiation for many patients less invasive than traditional surgery use liquid nitrogen to kill cancer cells a

6. Ovaries are not: a supported by the ligaments . b. c.

almost perfectly round responsible for producing the sex cell and ovum Page 1

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System d. ANSWER:

responsible for secreting hormones b

7. The large pad of fat that overlies the symphysis pubis is known as the: a. hymen b. vulva c. perineum d. mons pubis ANSWER: 8. The

is a rounded mass composed of two small columns of erectile tissue. a. labia b. urethral orifice c. clitoris d. vestibule

ANSWER:

9. What is the first phase of menstruation? a. follicular phase b. ovulation c. luteal phase d. menstruation ANSWER:

10. Following fertilization, a zygote begins the journey to the well-prepared uterus, arriving about a. 12 hours b. 36 hours c. 3 days d. 6 days ANSWER: 11. After 8 weeks, an embryo is called a(n): a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

after ovulation.

infant zygote fetus ovum c

12. Which of the following is not an early sign of pregnancy? a edema of the hands, face, feet, and legs . b. morning sickness c. a missed menstrual period Page 2

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System d.

breast tenderness

ANSWER:

13. According to Nagele’s rule, if the first day of a woman’s last menstrual period was April 7, her expected date of delivery would be: a. January 7 b. January 14 c. December 28 d. January 28 ANSWER: b 14. The cervix must dilate to about

centimeters in diameter before the baby can be delivered. a.5 b.8 c. 10 d. 12

ANSWER: 15. A woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 27.5 should gain about a. 28–40 b. 25–35 c. 15–25 d. 11–20 ANSWER:

c pounds during her pregnancy.

16. Which infertility treatment involves injecting sperm into the uterus through a catheter in the cervix? a zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) . b. in vitro fertilization c. intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) d. artificial insemination ANSWER:

17. Which of the following methods of contraception is typically most effective? a. withdrawal b. condom c. rhythm d. spermicide ANSWER:

18. The primary symptoms of are bleeding easily to the touch during examination and intermenstrual bleeding. a. cervical erosion b. cervicitis Page 3

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System c. d.

cystic breast disease cystocele

ANSWER:

19. What is the most common type of vaginal infection that causes irritation symptoms? a. bacterial vaginitis b. vaginal mucosa atrophy c. vaginosis d. candidiasis ANSWER:

20. Which of the following is a predisposing factor for breast cancer? a. first pregnancy before age 30 b. short menstrual cycles c. drinking alcoholic beverages d. anorexia ANSWER:

21. Risk factors for ovarian cancer peak when a woman is in her: a. 40s b. 80s c. 60s d. 20s ANSWER:

22. What is the most common gynecological malignancy? a. uterine cancer b. vaginal cancer c. ovarian cancer d. vulva cancer ANSWER:

23. Which of the following is not a symptom of gonorrhea in men? a burning, itching, or pain on urination b. inflammation with a greenish-yellow discharge from the penis c. sore throat with gland involvement d. discharge from the anus ANSWER:

24. How long can pubic lice survive without a host? a. a few hours b. about a day c. up to a week Page 4

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System d.

indefinitely

ANSWER:

25. What is the treatment of choice for syphilis? a. analgesics and bed rest b. antiviral drugs c. surgery d. penicillin ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. cryptorchidism b. seminiferous tubules c. smegma d. vasectomy e. orchitis f. ectopic g. endometrium h. serous membrane i. myometrium j. pessary k. hyaluronidase l. Apgar scoring system m. afterbirth n. fibroid o. rectocele 26. Refers to an abnormal location ANSWER: 27. Outer layer of the uterus ANSWER:

28. Enzyme released by sperm during the fertilization process to gradually break down the ovum’s protection ANSWER: k 29. Bulging of the posterior vaginal wall, by the rectum, into the vagina ANSWER:

30. Microscopic tubes in the testes ANSWER:

31. Device inserted into the vagina to support a prolapsed uterus ANSWER:

j Page 5

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System 32. The middle layer of the uterus ANSWER:

33. Used to help assess a newborn’s condition ANSWER:

34. Undescended testicle ANSWER:

35. Surgical procedure to prohibit the ejaculation of sperm and effect sterilization of the male ANSWER:

36. Placenta and its membranes ANSWER:

37. Common, benign, smooth tumor formed of muscle cells ANSWER:

38. Innermost layer of the uterus ANSWER:

39. Circumcisions are often performed on male infants to prevent the accumulation of this, which can lead to infections later in life ANSWER: c 40. Inflammation of the testicle ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. alpha-fetoprotein screening (AFP) b. colposcopy c. ovarian cyst d. Pap test e. chlamydia f. type I herpes g. type II herpes h. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU, NSU) i. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) j. chancre 41. Its symptoms in women include a vaginal discharge mimicking gonorrhea and frequent painful urination associated with urinary tract infections ANSWER: e 42. Group of infections with similar manifestations that are not linked to a single organism Page 6

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System ANSWER:

43. Examination and biopsy of the cervix done to rule out cancer when there are abnormal Pap smear results ANSWER:

44. Any acute or chronic infection of the reproductive tract ANSWER:

45. Disease form that appears as a typical cold sore on the lip or at the edge of the nose ANSWER:

46. Simple procedure involving a sampling of cells from the cervix that are easily obtained and examined under a microscope ANSWER: d 47. Blood test taken at about the 15th to 20th week of pregnancy to aid in the detection of birth defects ANSWER:

48. Lesion that appears at the point of entrance and is associated with syphilis ANSWER:

49. Sac of fluid or semisolid material on an ovary ANSWER:

50. Disease form that appears on the external genitalia, mouth, or anus ANSWER:

Match the reproductive condition with the system involved and pathology present. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a pregnancy . b. premenstrual syndrome c. both pregnancy and premenstrual syndrome 51. Urinary system ANSWER:

52. Acne ANSWER:

53. Palpitations ANSWER:

54. Frequency ANSWER:

55. Reproductive system Page 7

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System ANSWER:

56. Digestive system ANSWER:

57. Circulatory system ANSWER:

58. Gastrointestinal system ANSWER:

59. Enlarged uterus, breasts, cessation of menstruation ANSWER:

60. Constipation, diarrhea, bloating ANSWER:

61. Headache, numbness of extremities, fainting ANSWER:

62. Nervous system ANSWER:

63. Integumentary system ANSWER:

64. Respiratory system ANSWER:

65. Edema of hands, face, feet, legs, hypertension ANSWER:

Match the trimester of pregnancy with the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester 66. Movement can be felt and the heartbeat is detectable with a fetoscope ANSWER:

67. It can hear sounds from inside the uterus ANSWER:

68. The sex can be determined, and the fetus is about four inches long and weighs about two-thirds of an ounce ANSWER: a Page 8

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Chapter 21: The Reproductive System 69. The fetus adds greatly to its size ANSWER:

70. Weight reaches 5 pounds ANSWER:

71. The fetus opens its eyes ANSWER:

72. All systems are completed, even to nails on the fingers ANSWER:

73. Many of the organs begin limited function ANSWER:

74. The fetus has assumed a head-down position ANSWER:

75. There are periods of sleep and wakefulness ANSWER:

76. Average weight being 7½ pounds and a length of 20 inches ANSWER:

77. To decrease the risk of neural tube defects, it is recommended that three months prior to conception and through pregnancy the woman takes: a. 1 mg folic acid daily b. 1 mcg folic acid daily c. frequent naps d. additional exercise ANSWER: a

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications 1. When answering a telephone call, you should not: a remain expressionless . b. c. d. ANSWER:

identify yourself repeat back to the caller any information you record let the caller know when they may expect a response

2. A phone screening manual is sometimes called a(n) a. priority b. authorization c. triage d. employee ANSWER:

a manual.

3. When a patient calls with a medical question, you should: a treat the question lightly if you feel the patient’s concern is unfounded b. guess at the answer if you are not sure c. ask the patient to call back at a later time when the doctor is not busy d. document the patient’s information and relay it to the doctor for review ANSWER:

4. If you are speaking to a patient face-to-face at the office and the phone rings, you should: a let it go unanswered b. say, “excuse me for a moment, please,” and answer the call c. answer the call while you continue talking with the patient in the office d. pick up the phone and say, “please hold,” then go back to your conversation ANSWER:

5. If a caller is requesting information, you should ask if you can call him or her back if it will take you longer than to retrieve it. a. 30 seconds b. one minute c. three minutes d. five minutes ANSWER: b 6. When documenting a telephone call, you should: a include your own name or initials b. only record the patient’s reason for calling c. always mark the message “URGENT” d. never attach anything to the message before you pass it on to the physician Page 1

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications ANSWER:

7. It is most appropriate to use an answering machine: a only when all lines are busy b. anytime the office is closed c. during the office lunch break d. when you are too busy with other work to answer the phone ANSWER:

8. When obtaining a telephone message from a recording device or outside answering service, you should not: a use active listening skills b. also check the fax machine and patient portal for additional messages c. list all patients who leave messages so you can pull their charts (or access their EHR) d. prioritize messages according to the order in which they were received ANSWER: d 9. When scheduling appointments, you must do all but which of the following? a use at least three identifiers of the patient . b. c. d. ANSWER:

confirm the last appointment date assess the type of appointment needed note the type of appointment needed in the schedule

10. Which of the following is the most appropriate question to ask when scheduling an appointment? a Are you a patient here? . b. What do you think is wrong with you? c. What is the reason for the visit? d. When would you like to come in? ANSWER:

11. You do not need to include which of the following types of information when transmitting a prescription refill request to a pharmacy? a. dosage information b. date the prescription was first filled c. number of refills d. name of the medication ANSWER: b 12. If a person claiming to be a patient’s attorney calls to request information from the patient’s medical record, you should: a provide it promptly Page 2

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications b. refuse to provide it c. verify that the attorney is authorized to receive it and provide it promptly d. verify that the attorney is authorized to receive it and offer to call them back ANSWER:

13. If a caller makes threats, you should: a hang up immediately b. hand the phone over to your supervisor c. document the information about the caller and the threat and end the call d. try to calm the caller or wait until he or she hangs up ANSWER:

14. Phone menus are designed to: a increase efficiency b. route all calls to a central operator c. disconnect the caller if none of the menu options apply to the call d. keep the caller on hold ANSWER:

15. Which calling feature allows several people in various locations to converse at the same time? a. voicemail b. caller ID c. call waiting d. conference calling ANSWER:

Match each “phone tone” with the message it sends to a listener. a monotone, flat voice . b. slow speed and low pitch c. high-pitched, empathetic voice d. abrupt speed and loud tone e. high pitch combined with drawn-out speed 16. I’m angry and not open to input ANSWER:

17. I’m bored and have absolutely no interest in what you’re talking about ANSWER:

18. I don’t believe what I’m hearing ANSWER:

19. I’m enthusiastic about this subject! Page 3

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications ANSWER:

20. I’m depressed and want to be left alone ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. Health Insurance Portability and Accessibility Act (HIPAA) b. Confidential Communication Preference (CCP) c. interpreter service d. electronic message template e. answering service f. patient portal g. time zone map h. Unusual Occurrence Report (UOR) i. teleconferencing j. search engines 21. Used for reference when placing long-distance phone calls ANSWER:

22. Prevents you from disclosing patient information over the telephone to unauthorized parties ANSWER:

23. Authorizes access to a patient’s personal information ANSWER:

24. May be used to allow patients to request prescription refills ANSWER:

25. System designed to address patients’ language needs ANSWER:

26. Takes patient calls during non-office hours and relays messages to the office or on-call doctor ANSWER:

27. Can be used to help compile contact information for community resources ANSWER: 28. Often allows you to select a priority level, depending on the time sensitivity of the message ANSWER: 29. Allows participants in different locations to hear and see each other at the same time ANSWER:

30. Should be filled out when a threatening call is received Page 4

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition (note some answers may be used more than once). a. electronic health record (EHR) b. electronic medical record (EMR) c. practice management (PM) d. hybrid e. patient portal 31. patients can create their own electronic health records; communicate with their provider electronically;

request lab results, referrals, and appointments ANSWER:

32. A combination of practice management and electronic medical records ANSWER:

33. Patient records in a digital format ANSWER:

34. A combination of electronic, wireless, or paper records ANSWER:

35. Software provides the medical office the electronic component to deal with day-to-day financial and

administrative operations of a medical practice; software allows information to be pulled from the patient’s record and populated in the financial components of the patient account. ANSWER:

36. Refers to the interoperability of electronic medical records, or the ability to share medical records with other health care facilities ANSWER: a 37. On average, it takes a person how long to pick up on your attitude from listening to the tone of your voice? a. 10 seconds b. 30 seconds c. one minute d. three minutes ANSWER: a The HEAT technique is one way to keep your attitude in check. Match each letter to the definition of the acronym. a. H b. E c. A d. T 38. Hear them out Page 5

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications ANSWER:

39. Take action ANSWER:

40. Apologize ANSWER:

41. Be empathetic ANSWER:

The THINK technique is one way to keep your attitude in check. Match each letter to the definition of the acronym. a. T b. H c. I d. N e. K 42. Is it true? ANSWER:

43. Is it necessary? ANSWER:

44. Is it inspiring? ANSWER:

45. Is it helpful? ANSWER:

46. Is it kind? ANSWER:

47. When a patient calls and asks to speak directly with the provider, never respond by saying: a The doctor is with a patient now. b. May I take a message and we will reply as soon as possible? c. Is there anything I can help you with? d. The doctor is busy. ANSWER:

48. When responding to a nonemergency phone call and the person needs additional information, it is appropriate to respond: a Excuse yourself from the phone call by saying, “May I put you on hold for a moment?” b. “May I call you back with that information?” Page 6

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications c. Confirm the patient’s phone number before hanging up because it might have changed since the

patient’s last appointment. d. All of the above ANSWER:

49. Before you transfer a patient’s call to another department or office: a Give the caller the phone number, extension, and name of person to whom you are transferring to. b. Signal (or page) the person in the department you are transferring to and when the person answers,

explain who is waiting to speak to him or her and give a brief summary of the issue. c. Pull the chart for the provider if the patient is calling for information, and have the pertinent data readily available (e.g., labs, test result, consult, chart notes). d. All of the above ANSWER:

Identify “Yes” or “No” whether the action described is considered a key element when recording a phone message to the patient’s chart. a. Yes b. No 50. If requesting prescription, include name and phone number of pharmacy, drug name, dosage, last refill date ANSWER: a 51. A detailed and accurate message indicating nature of the call ANSWER:

52. Date, time of call, initials of person receiving call ANSWER:

53. The tone and inflection perceived from the message ANSWER:

54. Caller’s full name, spelled correctly, date of birth, M/F ANSWER:

55. Report the call on the UOR form ANSWER:

56. If requesting lab or test information (results), attach report to message ANSWER:

57. Your coworkers’ comments about the patient ANSWER:

58. Negative comments about the patient’s attitude Page 7

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications ANSWER:

59. Action required (attach to message or chart if available; if not available, state so) ANSWER:

60. Threats received ANSWER:

61. Phone number of caller—including the area code if appropriate—and if okay to leave message (verify with

CCP) ANSWER:

62. Your provider has a scheduling template that has three time slots held for same day or urgent visits, two in the morning, and one in the afternoon. When booking a same-day or urgent visit, you should: a book same-day appointments for patients requiring more immediate attention b. fill your morning appointments first c. fill your afternoon appointment first d. both a and b ANSWER:

Some helpful tips when scheduling appointments includes a general list of “Do’s” and “Don’ts.” Identify each phrase as a “Do” or “Don’t.” a. Do b. Don’t 63. Do you prefer mornings or afternoons? ANSWER:

64. When were you last seen by the doctor? ANSWER:

65. When would you like to come in? ANSWER:

66. What is the problem? ANSWER:

67. What is the reason for the visit? ANSWER:

68. Are you a patient here? ANSWER:

69. Electronic prescription refill requests is commonly referred to as: Page 8

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications a. b. c. d.

patient portal minute prescriptions medication management e-prescribing

ANSWER:

70. The use of mobile devices (smartphone, cellular phone, tablet, etc.) in health care settings is rapidly increasing. Which of the following is not considered a concern when using mobile devices? a. HIPAA b. privacy c. convenience and connectivity d. source of contamination ANSWER: c 71. When it comes to your personal mobile device, it would be considered best practice to: a put the phone away during office hours b. use the phone to take pictures of any suspicious injuries to a patient c. accept or return personal calls during work time d. keep your phone on vibrate while taking vital signs ANSWER:

It is a good idea to keep an up-to-date index of your most frequently called numbers by the telephone, as well as resources for patients and emergency preparedness. Match the type of list with the descriptions. a . b. c.

frequently called numbers community resources for patient health care needs community resources for emergency preparedness

72. Fire department ANSWER:

73. CDC (including vaccine information, travel advisories, etc.) ANSWER:

74. Police department ANSWER:

75. 911 ANSWER:

76. Referrals and authorizations department ANSWER:

77. Lab services and locations Page 9

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Chapter 22: Telephone Communications ANSWER:

78. OSHA ANSWER:

79. Home health services ANSWER:

80. IT department ANSWER:

81. Pharmacies ANSWER:

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Chapter 23: Written Communications 1. Which of the following would be sent to a licensing board? a. informal note b. personal letter c. professional letter d. interoffice communication ANSWER:

2. A form letter would not be appropriate for: a outlining an accident victim’s injuries . b. office visit verifications c. athletic participation approvals d. delinquent account reminders ANSWER:

3. Which of these are used to provide specific written instructions regarding the examinations and diagnostic tests performed in your office? a. email b. informal notes c. interoffice memos d. information sheets ANSWER: d 4. Which of these is a disadvantage of using email? a You can only communicate with one person at a time. b. It is not as secure, private, and confidential as people think. c. Patients must be available to receive your message. d. It makes tracing the history of a conversation very difficult. ANSWER:

5. Which of these statements is true? a Emails can be sent or forwarded without your knowledge or permission. b. Once deleted, emails can never be recovered by anyone. c. Abbreviations and emoticons should be used liberally in professional emails. d. Internal emails are owned by the individual sender, not the employer. ANSWER:

6. A release would be required to give information about a patient to: a request a consultation from a specialist b. provide results to the referring physician from a specialist c. life insurance questionaire d. the patient’s insurance company for payment of services ANSWER:

c Page 1

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Chapter 23: Written Communications 7. Adverbs commonly end in: a. b. c. d. ANSWER: 8. A

-s or -es -ly ’t -ing b

sentence contains two or more independent clauses, separated by a comma. a. compound b. simple c. complex d. compound-complex

ANSWER:

9. Which of these words should be capitalized? a. aspirin b. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen d. tylenol ANSWER:

10. When using the three-read system of proofreading, which of the following do you check for first? a. errors in composition b. spelling errors c. punctuation errors d. errors in grammar ANSWER:

11. The characteristic feature of the letter style is that the dateline, complimentary close, and typed signature begin a bit right of center. a full block . b. modified block c. modified block with indented paragraphs d. half block ANSWER: b 12. How many sheets of paper are in a ream? a. b. c. d.

100 500 1000 2000 Page 2

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Chapter 23: Written Communications ANSWER:

13. The first step in composing a letter is to: a compose a rough draft . b. c. d. ANSWER:

select the type of font and size determine what information needs to be included select the style for the letter c

14. When typing a business letter, the sender’s name is entered a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4 ANSWER:

space(s) below the closing.

15. If you receive a letter or package that you suspect is contaminated, you should: a shake it to see if you can determine its contents . b. c. d. ANSWER:

wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water place it on the physician’s desk, unopened bring it to the local police station b

16. When you annotate the incoming mail, you: a identify for the physician important points to be noticed b. separate it into different categories c. discard all junk mail d. maintain a list of every piece of mail that comes into the office ANSWER:

17. When addressing a letter, it is recommended that you use a(n) a. handwriting b. executive c. script d. standard ANSWER:

type font to help expedite delivery.

18. Which of these zip codes is written correctly? a. 748202772 b. 74820:2772 Page 3

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Chapter 23: Written Communications c. d.

74820-2772 74820+2772

ANSWER:

19. Which mail service is used to ensure that mail is delivered only to a specific addressee or an authorized agent of the addressee? a. return receipt b. COD c. restricted delivery d. certified mail ANSWER: c Match each part of speech with its definition. a. noun b. pronoun c. verb d. adjective e. adverb f. preposition g. conjunction h. interjection 20. Word or word group that expresses action or a state of being ANSWER:

21. Word that connects words, phrases, and clauses ANSWER:

22. Substitute for a noun ANSWER:

23. Word that modifies a verb, adjective, or adverb ANSWER:

24. Word that shows the relationship of an object to some other word in the sentence ANSWER:

25. Name of anything, such as a person, a place, an object, an occurrence, or a state ANSWER:

26. Word that describes, limits, or restricts a noun or pronoun ANSWER:

27. Word used to express strong feeling or emotion ANSWER:

h Page 4

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Chapter 23: Written Communications Match each punctuation mark with its usage. a. apostrophe b. colon c. comma d. ellipsis e. exclamation mark f. parenthesis g. period h. semicolon i. question mark j. quotation marks 28. Used to enclose a direct quote ANSWER:

29. Used to formally introduce a word, a list, a statement or question, a series of statements, or a long quotation ANSWER: b 30. Used between two clauses of a compound sentence when they are not joined by a conjunction, unless they are very short and are used informally ANSWER: h 31. Used after words, expressions, or sentences to show strong feelings ANSWER:

32. Used to enclose matter apart from the main thought ANSWER:

33. Used when omitting a word, phrase, line, paragraph, or more from a quoted passage ANSWER:

34. Used to separate two adjectives when the word can be inserted between them ANSWER:

35. Placed at the end of a statement ANSWER:

36. Placed after every direct question ANSWER: 37. Used in contractions to signify that one or more letters have been left out ANSWER:

Match each component of a business letter with its definition. Page 5

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Chapter 23: Written Communications a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l.

letterhead dateline inside address salutation reference body complimentary closing sender’s signature title reference initials enclosures cc

38. Any identified materials to be sent with the letter ANSWER:

39. Writer’s title, if appropriate ANSWER: 40. Preprinted name, complete address, and phone number (optional) ANSWER:

41. Content of the letter ANSWER:

42. Initials of the letter’s typist ANSWER:

43. Used to identify what or about whom the letter is concerning ANSWER:

44. Address of the person to whom the letter is being sent ANSWER:

45. Signature of the writer ANSWER:

46. Date that a letter is dictated or composed (if not dictated) ANSWER:

47. Identifies another person or persons to whom a copy of the letter is sent ANSWER: 48. Expressing the closing of the letter ANSWER:

g Page 6

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Chapter 23: Written Communications 49. Greeting to the recipient ANSWER:

50. There are three letter styles. Which of the following is not considered a letter style? a partial block letter . b. full block letter c. modified block letter d. modified block letter with indented paragraphs ANSWER:

Match the type of correspondence in the medical office with the example provided. Note: an answer may be used more than once. a. interoffice communication b. personal letters c. professional letters d. form letters and templates e. information sheets (patient education) f. email g. informal notes 51. Noncompliance, missed appointments, and dismissal from practice ANSWER:

52. A powerful tool, enabling us to communicate at times without picking up the phone or, worse, getting on a

plane; provides round-the-clock convenience and service, reducing costs, and increasing productivity at work ANSWER: 53. An informal, memo-style communication that is usually specific to one concern ANSWER:

54. Referrals, consultations, annual examination reminders, collection letters, school and work releases,

suppliers of equipment and materials, and other correspondence necessary to the office operation ANSWER:

55. Usually are personal and informal in nature ANSWER:

56. Correspondence with travel agencies, mail-order catalogs, uniform or clothing suppliers, and specialty shops ANSWER: b 57. An effective way of being certain that everyone is aware of some event, policy, concern, and other internal

communication, circulated electronically (email) or by copy of a memo Page 7

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Chapter 23: Written Communications ANSWER:

58. Provide specific written instructions regarding the examinations and diagnostic tests performed in your

office ANSWER:

59. Return-to-work or school approvals (following surgery or illness) ANSWER:

60. Professional associations, licensing boards, and other physicians regarding some issue or concern affecting

personal medical activities or their professional practice ANSWER:

61. Allows for the almost instant exchange of information ANSWER: 62. Used for thank-you, congratulations, or similar expressions ANSWER:

63. Annual diagnostic examination reminders (e.g., CPE, eye examination, Pap test, mammogram,

sigmoidoscopy) ANSWER:

64. Often written on a first-name basis ANSWER:

There are pros and cons associated with using email. Match the description to a “Pro” or “Con” of using email. a. Pro b. Con 65. Far more likely to be misinterpreted than if you were to have those same communications face-to-face ANSWER: b 66. Leaves a trail, so the history of a conversation can be traced ANSWER:

67. Enables communication with many people by sending the same email to multiple recipients simultaneously ANSWER: a 68. Provides an easy reference to past communications ANSWER:

69. The volume of emails received can result in information overload ANSWER:

b Page 8

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Chapter 23: Written Communications 70. Not the best medium for communicating certain emotional or highly charged issues ANSWER:

71. Does not require customers (patients) to be available to send them a message ANSWER:

72. Often overused as a substitute for phone and in-person communication ANSWER:

73. Not as secure, private, and confidential as people think ANSWER:

74. A virus can be transmitted through email ANSWER:

75. Reduces the amount of paper used, costs, and energy required to deliver mail ANSWER:

76. Enables you to attach pertinent files without the delay of other mail delivery systems ANSWER:

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 1. A bit is either: a. b. c. d.

a or b 0 or 1 hardware or software x or y

ANSWER:

2. Which of the following is an example of software? a. application program b. printer c. monitor d. keyboard ANSWER:

3. How many times can data be recorded onto a DVD-R disk? a none . b. c. d. ANSWER:

once as many times as you want until the disk is full as many times as you want until the disk wears out b

4. When using a computer, you should not keep your: a shoulders and upper arms in line with your torso b. wrists and hands straight (not bent up, down, or sideways) c. feet flat on the floor or supported by a stable footrest d. thighs perpendicular to the floor and the lower legs parallel to the floor ANSWER:

5. Which of the following is not a common feature of practice management software? a. claims processing b. financial report generation c. word processing d. appointment scheduling ANSWER:

6. When using practice management software, charge entries are typically done on the a. patient demographics b. transactions entry c. utility menu d. file maintenance ANSWER:

screen.

b Page 1

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 7. When using EHR software, the electronic superbill: a can be done in conjunction with charting b. requires fees to be manually entered individually for each procedure for each patient c. can only exist as a single version d. must be created using separate billing software ANSWER:

8. EHR software allows you to do all but which of the following? a obtain information and alerts about specific drugs b. submit prescriptions electronically to a patient’s pharmacy c. determine the best drug for a patient without consulting the provider d. track ineffective, discontinued, and negative reactions to specific drugs ANSWER:

9. When using EHR software, the Provider’s Home Page feature does not: a provide a snapshot view of daily schedules b. automatically post lab results into the patient’s record c. offer an intra-office messaging system d. identify health maintenance items that require immediate attention ANSWER:

10. Encoder software is not used to: a. improve coding accuracy b. improve billing performance c. reduce rejected claims d. replace EHR software ANSWER:

11. Which statement about the Internet is correct? a Some type of web browser is required to access web sites on the Internet. b. All Internet content is reviewed by the Department of Information for accuracy. c. It is not possible to perform business transactions over the Internet. d. Patients should be encouraged to use the Internet for medical advice. ANSWER:

12. If a medical office has a computer network, passwords should be used on: a the server and its software applications only . b. the terminals only c. the terminals and all software applications d. all computers and all software applications ANSWER:

d Page 2

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 13. Hardware and software devices that protect an organization’s network from intruders are called: a. lockboxes b. security logs c. firewalls d. antivirals ANSWER:

14. It is recommended that all central computer data be backed up: a. daily b. weekly c. biweekly d. monthly ANSWER:

15. Modern copy machines: a produce copies at a much higher cost than a printer b. can be programmed to perform functions such as resizing and stapling c. require no routine maintenance d. use liquid ink instead of toner cartridges ANSWER:

16. When using a fax machine, you should not: a remove paper clips and staples from material to be scanned b. use typed words for numbers to avoid problems with interpretation c. transmit material without a cover page d. resend a message if noise on the line resulted in an unclear transmission ANSWER:

17. Dragon Naturally Speaking® is an example of a. operating system b. EHR c. practice management d. speech recognition ANSWER:

18. Compared to inkjet printers, laser printers: a have lower ink costs over time . b. are less expensive to purchase initially c. offer lower print quality d. are less popular in office environments ANSWER:

software.

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 19. Daily equipment maintenance includes all but which of the following? a. cleaning b. ordering replacement parts c. checking consumables d. troubleshooting ANSWER:

Match each computer term with its definition. a. attachment b. back up c. boot d. CPU e. domain f. file g. hardware h. input i. interface j. memory k. modem l. output m. peripheral n. prompt o. server p. software 20. Electronic, magnetic, and electromechanical equipment of a computer system ANSWER:

21. File such as a letter or document that you send along with an email message ANSWER:

22. Group of computers and devices on a network that are administered as a unit with common rules or procedures ANSWER: e 23. Messages issued to a user requesting information necessary to continue processing ANSWER:

24. Computer or device on a network that manages network resources ANSWER:

25. Data or commands entered into the computer ANSWER:

h Page 4

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 26. “Brain” of the computer system ANSWER:

27. Duplicate of data files made to protect information ANSWER:

28. Device or program that enables a computer to transmit data over telephone or cable lines ANSWER:

29. Single, stored unit of information that is given a name by which it can be accessed from storage ANSWER:

30. Internal storage areas on the computer ANSWER: 31. Anything you plug into a computer ANSWER:

32. Start up a computer ANSWER:

33. Computer programs necessary to direct the hardware of a computer system to perform specific tasks ANSWER:

34. What the computer produces after recorded information is processed, revised, and printed out ANSWER:

35. Hardware and software that enable individual computers and components to interact ANSWER:

36. A safe environment begins at the front door. The reception room requires a safety check every morning to

ensure that it presents no hazards for patients and visitors. Which of the following is not part of evaluating the reception area? a Check the temperature. b. Observe the physical environment and the room’s appearance. c. Place charts for check-in. d. Display the smoking policy. ANSWER:

37. Which is not considered part of preparing the front desk at the beginning of the day? a Check the reading material, toys, and books. b. Turn on computers, scanners, printers (and other electronic equipment). c. Retrieve telephone messages, faxes, and printed lab and hospital reports. d. Prepare sign-in sheet and cash balance forms. ANSWER:

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 38. At the beginning of the day, visually inspect all exam rooms and lab areas. What items should you inspect

and tasks should you perform? a Replace examining paper and empty waste receptacles. b. Observe temperature and plug in any disconnected electrical equipment; check the water level in the autoclave and turn it on. c. Restock supplies and maintain inventory. d. All of the above. ANSWER:

39. Chemicals kept in the office for laboratory work: a. can be used past their expiration date b. pose no risk c. must be properly labeled and stored d. are always considered volatile ANSWER:

40. Why is careful monitoring of inventory vital in a medical practice and what is considered best practice? a You do not want to run out of supplies. b. You do not want to over-order items. c. Time-sensitive (date expirations) should be stored in order of expiration, with the first to expire in front. d. All of the above ANSWER: d Specific steps and care must be taken when closing the office. Match “Yes” or “No” to each step in closing the office or the rationale in the description. a. Yes b. No 41. Each examination room should be restocked and cleaned ANSWER:

42. Leave discarded material for cleaning staff ANSWER:

43. Unplug electrical appliances, except the autoclave ANSWER:

44. Always turn your computer off ANSWER:

45. Leave co-pays and receipts in the reception desk ANSWER:

46. Pull and prep charts (or view electronic schedule) for the next day Page 6

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment ANSWER:

47. Activate answering system ANSWER:

48. Lock all doors except the emergency door ANSWER:

49. Activate alarm system ANSWER:

50. Try to leave with a coworker rather than leave alone ANSWER:

51. Name the rule that generally requires covered entities to take reasonable steps to limit the use or disclosure of, and requests for, protected health information (PHI) a HIPAA—Title II . b. c. d. ANSWER:

HIPAA—Title I The Patient’s Bill of Rights

The HIPAA “Minimum Necessary” Privacy Rule d

Match the terms “Hardware” and “Software” to the description. a. hardware b. software 52. Hard disk drive ANSWER:

53. CPU ANSWER:

54. Application programs ANSWER:

55. Monitor ANSWER:

56. Keyboard ANSWER:

Match the types and capacities of computer storage devices. a. CD-R b. CD-RW Page 7

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment c. d. e.

DVD+R and DVD-R External hard drive USB flash drive

57. A peripheral hard drive that can be connected to a computer through a USB port or Firewire ANSWER:

58. A small, portable memory card (sometimes called thumb drive) that plugs into a computer’s port and

functions as a portable hard drive ANSWER:

59. Data can be saved (burned) onto this disk by using a computer burner. After the CD is burned, data can be

retrieved, but no additional data can be added to it. ANSWER:

60. A disk that can record data only once, and then the data becomes permanent on the disc ANSWER:

61. This type of disk enables you to write onto it in multiple sessions ANSWER:

62. To avoid alignment or repetitive injuries while working, use: a. proper ergonomics b. proper light c. standard chair d. wall-mounted computer screen ANSWER:

63. Which of the following working postures is not considered proper ergonomics? a Upper arms and elbow extended outward. b. Head, neck, and truck are faced forward, not twisted. c. Forearms, wrists, and hands are straight and in line, forearm at about 90 degrees to the upper arm. d. Shoulders and upper arms are in line with the torso, generally about perpendicular to the floor and

relaxed, not elevated or stretched forward. ANSWER:

64. Which of the following would not be considered proper seating ergonomics? a Backrest provides support for your lower back (lumbar area). b. Seat front that presses against the back of your knees and lower legs. c. Armrests, if used, support both forearms while you perform computer tasks and they do not interfere

with movement. d. Seat has cushioning and is rounded with a “waterfall” front (no sharp edge). ANSWER:

b Page 8

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment 65. The Institute of Medicine published a report titled Key Capabilities of an Electronic Health Record System

(2003) that identified a set of core care delivery functions that electronic health records systems should be capable of performing in order to promote greater safety, quality, and efficiency in health care delivery. a. b. c. d.

10 four 12 eight

ANSWER:

The capabilities of an EHR seem endless. Match the capability to the function/description. Note: an answer may be used more than once. a. documenting patient care b. prescribing medications c. lab orders and results d. document management e. health reminders f. patient portals 66. Assist the practice and provider to ensure that continuity of care protocols are followed and that patients who

need to be seen based on their medical condition are alerted as such to the practice and provider when followups are due ANSWER:

67. The provider can route reports with attached notes for others to review, review diagnoses from previous

encounters, select outside providers to be copied on results, produce Medicare waivers for tests that might not be covered, and create charts and graphs ANSWER:

68. Patients may be given rights (as set by office policy) to input or update demographic information, request

appointments and prescription refills, check lab test results, or review billing statements ANSWER:

69. Allow patients to communicate with the practice and providers, using a secure username and password ANSWER: f 70. A drug formulary allows the provider to make selections based on the patient’s insurance coverage, and a

favorites list can be developed ANSWER:

71. Images (patient photos, insurance cards, other scans) can be embedded in the patient’s chart and easily

accessed ANSWER:

72. E/M coding capability helps the provider ensure accurate coding based on documentation Page 9

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Chapter 24: The Office Environment, Computers, and Equipment ANSWER:

73. Generate alerts for appointment recall, prescription refills, and laboratory orders ANSWER:

74. Using voice and handwriting recognition, providers can dictate or make notes directly into the patient’s

electronic record for quick input of the progress note and encounter information ANSWER:

75. Faxes can be automatically routed to an email inbox and ultimately posted directly into the patient chart,

eliminating the need to gather paper faxes and scan them ANSWER:

76. Capabilities include providing information and alerts on dosages, allergies, and possible interactions with

other procedure sections ANSWER:

79. Meanings of terms within ICD-10-PCS should be the same regardless of whether they have multiple

meanings in everyday usage ANSWER:

80. There is a unique code for all substantially different procedures ANSWER:

81. The structure of this new system allows for expansion of the codes as new procedures are introduced and

performed ANSWER:

82. Anyone knowingly submitting a false claim or creating a false record or statement to receive payment from

the federal government: a will be fined a civil penalty of not less than $5500 and not more than $11,000 per false claim submitted b. could be imprisoned and face other penalties c. could be guilty of violations of the Federal False Claims Act d. all of the above ANSWER:

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Chapter 28A (ICD-10 update): Procedural and Diagnostic Coding 1. What codes are always performed in addition to the primary procedure or service in CPT? a. add-on codes b. revised codes c. new codes d. Modifier -51 exempt ANSWER:

2. CPT code 51040 (Cystostomy, cystostomy with drainage) would be found in what Surgery Section/System of the CPT code book? a. Digestive System b. Endocrine System c. Urinary System d. Female Genital System ANSWER: c 3. Where would you find the HCPCS Level II code for an IV pole? a B4034-B9999 (Enteral and Parenteral Therapy) . b. C1713-C9899 (Outpatient PPS) c. E0100-E8002 (Durable Medical Equipment) d. M0075-M0301 (Medical Services) ANSWER:

4. In what HCPCS Level II code range would you find contact lens? a. C1713-C9899 b. E0100-E8002 c. M0075-M0301 d. V2020-V2799 ANSWER:

5. Which of the following statements is true regarding ICD-10-CM code structure? a The first three characters designate the etiology . b. Characters four through six indicate the category c. Codes are all numeric d. Codes vary from three to seven characters ANSWER:

6. What letter is used as a "placeholder" for empty character spaces in ICD-10-CM? a. A b. D c. S d.X Page 1

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Chapter 28A (ICD-10 update): Procedural and Diagnostic Coding ANSWER:

7. The main term entries in the Alphabetic Index and all codes and descriptions in the Tabular List of ICD-10 are typeset in ? a. Boldface b. Brackets [ ] c. Parenthesis ( ) d. All of the above ANSWER: a 8. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for in ICD-10-CM? a. not elsewhere classified b. not otherwise specified c. not elsewhere coded d. no entry coded ANSWER:

9. What "General Note" in ICD-10-CM appears immediately under certain categories to further define, clarify, or give examples of the content of the code category? a. Inclusion Notes b. Inclusion Terms c. Note d. Default Codes ANSWER: a 10. A combination code in ICD-10-CM is a single code used to classify a three or more diagnoses . b. two diagnoses c. a diagnosis without an associated complication d. none of the above ANSWER: 11. What chapter of ICD-10-CM contains codes regarding HIV and Sepsis? a. Chapter 1 (A00-B99) b. Chapter 3 (D50-D89) c. Chapter 9: (I10-I99) d. The E/M chapter ANSWER:

12. Scenario:The patient's H&P notes indicates cannabis dependence; however the progress note says cannabis abuse. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code to assign? a. F12.20 b. A41.50 Page 2

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Chapter 28A (ICD-10 update): Procedural and Diagnostic Coding c. d.

R06.02 E11.321

ANSWER:

Match the ICD-10-CM General Note with the description. a. Inclusion Notes b. Inclusion Terms c. Excludes 1 d. Excludes 2 13. This note is considered "pure"; means "not coded here"; indicates mutually exclusive codes: two conditions that cannot be reported together. ANSWER: c 14. Appears immediately under certain categories to further define, clarify, or give examples of the content of the code category. ANSWER: a 15. Means "not included here". ANSWER:

16. Included under certain codes; Indicate some of the conditions for which that code number may be used. ANSWER:

Match the ICD-10-CM General Note to the description. a Default codes . b. Syndromes c. Instructional Notes Used in the Tabular List d. Code First/Use additional code e. Code Also 17. Follow the Alphabetic Index guidance. In the absence of guidance, assign codes for the documented manifestation. ANSWER: b 18. This note alerts the coder that more than one code may be required to fully describe the condition. ANSWER:

19. In the Tabular section, the following notes appear in red type for emphasis. ANSWER:

20. In the Index; the code listed next to the main term and represents the condition most commonly associated with the main term. ANSWER: a 21. These notes provide sequencing instruction and signal the coder than additional code should be reported to provide a Page 3

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Chapter 28A (ICD-10 update): Procedural and Diagnostic Coding more complete picture of the diagnosis. ANSWER:

22. Which part of the ICD-10-CM manual contains a sequential, alphanumeric list of codes divided into chapters based on the body system or condition? a. Alphabetic Index b. Official Conventions and Guidelines c. Introduction d. Tabular List ANSWER: d Identify whether the following descriptions are related to ICD-10-CM or ICD-10-PCS. a. ICD-10-CM b. ICD-10-PCS c. Both ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS 23. Consists of more than 68,000 codes ANSWER:

24. Used for inpatient (hospital) facility settings ANSWER:

25. Consists of more than 87,000 codes ANSWER:

26. Contains three to seven characters ANSWER:

27. Each character can be alpha or numeric ANSWER:

28. No decimal is used ANSWER:

29. The first character is alpha ANSWER:

30. Use of decimal after three characters ANSWER:

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts 1. One of the duties of this job title may include preparing payroll checks and paying the quarterly amounts due to government agencies for taxes withheld. a. bookkeeper b. accountant c. provider d. clinical medical assistant ANSWER: b 2. The process of transferring information from one record to another is called: a. posting b. journalizing c. conferring d. balancing ANSWER:

3. A professional courtesy discount is an example of a(n): a. deposit b. overpayment c. balance d. adjustment ANSWER:

4. On computerized systems, credit balances are typically highlighted in: a. red b. yellow c. green d. blue ANSWER:

5. In the past, the

system was exclusively used to record financial transactions. a. checking b. computerized c. pegboard d. investment

ANSWER: 6. A(n)

ANSWER:

c form lists the procedures performed in a medical office and their respective codes. a. credit b. coding c. confidentiality d. encounter d Page 1

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts 7. When using a manual method, all charges and payments made to an individual patient’s account are posted on a(n): a. encounter form b. superbill c. patient ledger card d. charge slip ANSWER: c 8. Computerized practice management software does not: a increase efficiency b. require a substantial amount of time to post procedures to patient accounts c. decrease errors d. allow instant access to up-to-date financial information ANSWER:

9. When using practice management software, the procedures indicated on a patient’s encounter form should be coded: a. at the end of each day b. at the end of each week c. as soon as possible d. no more than once a month ANSWER: c 10. When using the pegboard system, the day sheet does not: a hold all of the daily entries b. act as a list of patients seen c. act as a complete financial record of charges made and payments received d. identify the procedures performed on a patient during previous office visits ANSWER:

11. Patients should be given a receipt: a when they pay by check . b. when they charge the bill to a credit card c. only when they pay in cash d. when they make payment in any form ANSWER:

12. When an entry is made on the day sheet, it is called: a. crediting b. ordering c. journalizing d. balancing ANSWER:

c Page 2

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts 13. Most financial accounting is based on the a. single-entry b. double-entry c. debt balance d. credit balance ANSWER:

method of bookkeeping.

14. Computerized accounting systems: a offer more room for errors b. typically offer only two types of reporting options c. automatically update records as information is entered into the system d. are more expensive for the practice than manual systems in the long run ANSWER:

15. Discounts must generally be authorized by the: a. provider b. clinical medical assistant c. administrative medical assistant d. patient ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. bookkeeper b. accountant c. account d. day sheet e. accounts receivable f. debit g. credit h. balance i. debit balance j. credit balance k. Business Associate Agreement (BAA) l. charge slip 16. Indicates that the amount paid is less than the total due ANSWER: 17. Difference between the debits and credits ANSWER:

18. Person who records the financial transactions of a business, keeping a record of accounts receivable and payable ANSWER: a Page 3

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts 19. All patient charges and receipts are recorded here each day ANSWER:

20. Establishes guidelines regarding what will occur if an inappropriate disclosure of protected health information (PHI) takes place ANSWER: k 21. All of the amounts due to the office ANSWER:

22. Record for each patient that shows charges, payments, and balance due ANSWER:

23. A payment subtracted from the existing balance ANSWER:

24. Another name for an encounter form ANSWER:

25. Person who analyzes the financial transactions of a business and prepares reports that tell the present status of accounts receivable and payable ANSWER: b 26. Indicates that the amount paid is greater than was due or that the account is being paid in advance of service provided ANSWER: j 27. A charge added to an existing balance ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. electronic health records software b. pegboard system c. cash control sheet d. trial balance e. assets f. single-entry bookkeeping system g. double-entry bookkeeping system h. fully integrated ledger system i. garbage in, garbage out j. cost estimate sheet k. office policy l. professional discount 28. Allows providers to enter precoded encounter data directly in the practice management software while

working in the patient’s electronic medical record in the exam room, by a simple point and click on each Page 4

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts procedure and diagnosis ANSWER:

29. Dictates the types of payment plans that may be offered to patients ANSWER:

30. Process of running a total of balances on all the active patient ledger records ANSWER:

31. With this system, when a business transaction is input into a computer, it is recorded or linked to a number of different accounting records at the same time ANSWER: h 32. Utilizes an actual board to which the day sheet, ledger, and encounter form are attached ANSWER:

33. This system, in its most basic form, is similar to a checkbook register ANSWER:

34. Used by some providers to give patients an idea of the cost for surgery or long-term treatment ANSWER:

35. Discount authorized by a provider for another medical professional, such as a nurse, medical assistant, or other health care provider ANSWER: l 36. Refers to the need to validate the data being input into a computerized accounting system for accuracy and completeness ANSWER:

37. Anything that holds value that is owned by a business ANSWER:

38. This system involves recording each transaction in two accounts, each of which has two columns ANSWER:

39. Total amount of cash and checks should be recorded on this when using a manual method of bookkeeping ANSWER:

Match the following bookkeeping terms with its definition. a. charges b. payments c. accounts payable d. adjustments 40. Money paid by the patient or insurance carrier Page 5

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts ANSWER:

41. A fee for services rendered ANSWER:

42. The total accounts owed by the practice to suppliers and other service providers for regular business operating expenses ANSWER: c 43. Professional courtesy discounts, write-offs, or amounts not paid by insurance ANSWER:

44. Which of the following are types of information contained in the patient’s billing record (account or ledger)? a. charges b. payments c. balance due d. all of the above ANSWER: d 45. Which of the following demonstrates why it is important to explain patient financial obligations for services

rendered? a It assists the patient in planning a reasonable payment schedule. b. It presents an opportunity to explain why the charges are as stated. c. It allows the patient to concentrate on getting well. d. All of the above ANSWER:

46. The total amount of cash and checks, including credit and debit card payments, should be manually recorded

on a? a. b. c. d.

cash control sheet debit sheet credit sheet none of the above

ANSWER:

Identify whether the feature of a computerized method of bookkeeping would be considered an advantage or disadvantage. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. advantage b. disadvantage 47. Power failure, computer viruses, and hackers are possible problems when using computerized systems ANSWER: b 48. Formatted screens and built-in databases of patient accounts and vendors allow actions to be performed Page 6

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts faster ANSWER:

49. Many types of useful reports can be produced, which helps management monitor and control the business by

making wise decisions based on financial gains and losses ANSWER:

50. Garbage in, garbage out: After data has been entered in the system, the output is automatically obtained ANSWER: b 51. Fast and accurate generation of accounting documents such as invoices, credit notes, statements of accounts,

purchase orders, and even payroll documents can all be done automatically ANSWER:

52. Proper levels of control and security, both internal and external, must be instituted to prevent dangerous

instances of HIPAA violations ANSWER:

53. The accounting program must be properly set up to meet the requirements of the business; poorly

programmed or inappropriate software or hardware or personnel problems can cause more problems ANSWER:

54. Better use is made of resources and time; cash flow should improve through better debt collection and

inventory control ANSWER:

55. Reduces staff time in preparing accounts and audit expenses because records are neat, accurate, and up-to-

date ANSWER:

56. Programs come with a computerized ledger system, which is fully integrated, so when a business transaction

is entered, it is recorded or linked to a number of accounting records at the same time ANSWER:

57. Account calculations are performed automatically for greater accuracy ANSWER:

58. Information may be accessed almost instantly and made available to different users in different locations at

the same time ANSWER:

59. The data input on a screen displays legible printed data and prevents errors that might be caused by poorly

written numbers and documentation ANSWER:

a Page 7

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts 60. As information is entered in the system, the accounting records are automatically updated; therefore, account

balances of patient or vendor accounts remain up to date ANSWER:

Identify whether the following description is an advantage of the double-entry bookkeeping system over the single-entry system. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a advantage of double-entry system over the single-entry system b. characteristic of the single-entry system 61. Is the most basic form of bookkeeping and is similar to a checkbook register ANSWER:

62. Accurate calculation of profit and loss in complex businesses ANSWER:

63. Inclusion of assets and liabilities in bookkeeping accounts ANSWER:

64. Only the revenues and expenses are totaled, not individual values of each one ANSWER:

65. No direct linkage between income and the balance sheet ANSWER:

66. Ability to prepare financial statements directly from the accounts ANSWER:

67. Detection of errors and fraud are more visible ANSWER:

68. Undetected errors can occur and might be discovered only through bank statement reconciliation ANSWER:

69. In the double-entry bookkeeping system, the two entries allow for balance in the accounting equation: a Owner’s Equity = Assets + Liabilities . b. Liability = Assets + Owner’s Equity c. Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s Equity d. None of the above ANSWER: c 70. For many patients and staff members, discussing the subject of money owed is touchy and uncomfortable. Which of the following statements would not be considered a professional way to discuss collections? a “Co-payment is expected at the time of service” or “Your office visit will be approximately $ . For your convenience we accept cash, checks, and credit card.” Page 8

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Chapter 29: Patient Accounts b. For the patient checking in at the front desk: “You have not paid your prior balance. Your account will be sent to collections if not paid in full today.” c. For patients checking out: “Your charges for today’s office visit are $ . Would you like to pay by cash, check, or credit card?” or “I see your deductible has been met and/or insurance pays 80%. Your portion of the bill comes to $ . Would you like to pay by cash, check, or credit card?” d. For a patient procedure: “I have an estimate of your costs for your procedure scheduled next week.

Co-payment is expected at the time of service. May I help in making payment arrangements?” ANSWER:

71. As outlined in the Medicare Desk Reference for Physicians, the routine waiver of Medicare deductibles and copayments is unlawful for the following reason: a It results in false claims. b. It violates the anti-kickback statute. c. It results in excessive utilization of Medicare items and services. d. All of the above ANSWER: d

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments 1. The phrase a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

was coined to indicate payment of services rendered by someone other than the patient. health care provider health maintenance organization third-party reimbursement two-party system c

2. Since 2005, providers have been urged to: a require patients to pay the full balance before leaving the office b. bill patients directly, requiring them to seek reimbursement on their own c. send claims manually d. send claims electronically ANSWER:

3. The CMS-1500 form is accepted by: a. Medicare b. Medicaid c. both Medicare and Medicaid d. neither Medicare nor Medicaid ANSWER:

4. When a third-party payer identifies an error on the claim form, the claim is: a rejected with a request to resubmit the form with corrections b. rejected and barred from resubmission c. paid, with a penalty fee subtracted for the error d. held indefinitely until the medical office calls to inquire about its status ANSWER:

5. How many digits are in a National Provider Identifier (NPI) number? a. 18 b. 10 c. 9 d. 5 ANSWER:

6. What is the first step in completing a claim form? a Check to see if the patient’s signature is on file for release of information. b. Write the provider’s federal tax ID number in the appropriate space. c. Correctly complete boxes 1–3 on the form. d. Check for a photocopy of the patient’s insurance card. ANSWER:

7. Electronically processing claim forms to insurance carriers: Page 1

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments a lengthens the turnaround time b. reduces the amount of preparation time for the claims processor c. is discouraged because of the danger of violating HIPAA d. is more expensive than traditional manual claims processing ANSWER:

8. Which form is also known as the UB-04 form? a. CMS-1450 b. CMS-1500 c. Explanation of Benefits (EOB) form d. FCC Form 159-C ANSWER:

9. Which of the following is not a fee usually charged by a clearinghouse? a. start-up fee b. flat monthly fee c. customer service fee d. per-claim transaction fee ANSWER:

10. Which of the following is not an advantage of using an Electronic Claims Tracking (ECT) system? a Claims can be tracked online. b. All claims are guaranteed to be paid if the forms are filled out correctly. c. Far fewer phone calls need to be made to track unpaid claims. d. The use of 24-hour rolling claims problem alerts reduces lost time. ANSWER:

11. Manual claims tracking: a frequently causes payment delays . b. c. d. ANSWER:

requires minimal effort on the part of office staff is both inexpensive and efficient is commonly used in most practices today

12. When following up on a delinquent claim, if the carrier tells you that it is still in process, you should: a resubmit the claim by mail . b. resubmit the claim by fax c. send the patient a statement d. request an anticipated date of payment ANSWER:

d Page 2

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments 13. When applying an insurance adjustment to a patient’s account, you are not typically required to post the: a name of the insurance company making the adjustment b. name of the secondary insurance company that might be billed later c. amount of the adjustment d. date of the adjustment ANSWER:

Match each type of information found on an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) form with its definition. a. patient b. insured ID number c. claim number d. type of service e. date of service f. charge g. not allowed amount h. coinsurance co-payment amount 14. Number that identifies or refers to the claim that either the patient or the health provider submitted to the insurance company ANSWER: c 15. Beginning and end dates of the health-related service a patient received from a provider ANSWER:

16. Amount of money that a patient’s insurance company did not pay the provider ANSWER:

17. Amount of money a patient owes as a share of the bill ANSWER:

18. Amount a provider billed the patient’s insurance company for a service ANSWER:

19. Number assigned to a patient by the insurance company, which should match the number on the patient’s insurance card ANSWER: b 20. Code and brief description of the health-related service a patient received from a provider ANSWER:

21. Name of the person who received the service ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. Page 3

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments a . b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n. o. p. q.

bartered goods claim form third-party reimbursers CMS-1500 CMS-1450 Explanation of Benefits (EOB) form Standard Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) Enrollment form Remittance Advice form manual insurance log signature on file assignment of benefits clause Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) transactions Administrative Simplification Compliance Act (ASCA) clearinghouse Electronic Claims Tracking (ECT) systems credit column secondary insurance

22. Authorizes benefits to be paid directly from a third-party payer to a provider ANSWER:

23. Standard claim form used for billing in medical offices ANSWER:

24. Book in which a list of insurance claims is kept ANSWER:

25. Type of payment used for centuries in the past ANSWER:

26. This must be completed before submitting electronic media claims to Medicare ANSWER:

27. In many instances, this will pay most, if not all, of the balance left over from the primary insurance to your physician and will leave little out-of-pocket expenses for the patient ANSWER: q 28. Patient’s signature on a form that permits the release of his or her information, allowing the claim to be filed on his or her behalf ANSWER: j 29. Use of these allows a medical facility or provider’s office to submit transactions faster and be paid sooner ANSWER:

l Page 4

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments 30. Form or document that may be sent to the patient by their insurance company after they have had a health care service that was paid by the insurance company (may take up to several months to receive) ANSWER: f 31. Developed to report the health care provided to the source of payment when third-party reimbursement was created ANSWER: b 32. Private or public company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups, payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers ANSWER: n 33. This amount is posted from the insurance payment or insurance adjustment ANSWER:

34. Paper claim form that may be submitted by an institutional provider that meets certain requirements ANSWER:

35. Sets forth the very specific requirements a provider must meet in order to submit paper claim forms and receive CMS payment ANSWER: m 36. The most common of these are federal and state agencies, insurance companies, and workers’ compensation ANSWER: c 37. Similar to the EOB but is the document provided by the pater to the provider ANSWER:

38. These give you immediate access to the status of a claim or group of claims ANSWER:

39. Information required to file a third-party claim on the CMS-1500 form includes all but: a access to a photocopy of the patient’s insurance card . b. the co-pay receipt given to patient at time of visit c. the insured’s name, full address, and telephone number d. the relationship to the insured ANSWER:

40. The steps to file a third-party claim and accurately complete the CMS-1500 form include: a check the appropriate box regarding patient’s condition related to employment, auto accident, other accident, and claim codes b. the insured’s policy for FECA number c. the patient’s or authorized person’s signature d. all of the above Page 5

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments ANSWER:

Match the definition/scenario to differentiate between fraud and abuse relating to Medicare claims. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b.

fraud abuse

41. When providers seek Medicare payment they do not deserve but have not knowingly or intentionally done

so ANSWER:

42. When a person or company knowingly deceives Medicare as an intentional act to receive inappropriate

payment from the program ANSWER:

43. With intent ANSWER:

44. Without intent ANSWER:

45. Billing for services, supplies, or equipment that were not medically necessary or not provided ANSWER:

46. Which of the following is not considered a true statement regarding the history of claims? a Third-party claims developed to indicate payment of services rendered by someone other than the patient. b. Providers have never been paid using an exchange of services or bartering of goods. c. Since 2005 providers have been urged to send claims electronically. d. All of the above ANSWER: b 47. Which of the following is not a common claim error? a use of correct ICD codes or ICD codes that support the CPT codes b. the patient’s—not the policy holder’s—Social Security number or identification number used as the

insurance plan ID number c. use of an incorrect national provider identifier (NPI) d. the Coordination of Benefits section not completed ANSWER:

48. A private or public company that often serves as the middleman between providers and billing groups,

payers, and other health care partners for the transmission and translation of electronic claims information into the specific format required by payers is known as: a. b.

UB-04 clearinghouse Page 6

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments c. d.

CMS-1500 crossover claim

ANSWER:

Match the following definition of claims tracking to “Manual” or “Electronic.” Note: answers may be used more than once. a. manual claims tracking b. electronic claims tracking 49. Have a “claim scrubber” program that will scrub the claim before it is sent to payers ANSWER:

50. A time-consuming process that frequently causes payment delays ANSWER:

51. Payers typically do not inform providers of the status of their claims ANSWER:

52. Requires office collection staff to perform the extra task of making phone calls to key payers to determine

whether claims are being processed ANSWER:

53. Payment is quicker, claims usually received by a payer within 24 hours ANSWER:

54. Office cost is reduced by eliminating the need for stamps, forms, and excess office staff labor ANSWER:

55. Claims can be entered from anywhere with Internet access with real-time response ANSWER:

56. Results can be viewed easily on a computer screen and information printed as needed ANSWER:

57. Which of the following is not one of the necessary pieces of information to have before calling to follow up on a

delinquent insurance claim? a the amount of copay received from the patient b. your practice’s tax identification number c. the patient’s name, identification number, and group name or number d. if the patient is not the insured, the insured’s (e.g., spouse’s) name ANSWER:

58. The process of billing a secondary insurance company involves which of the following? Page 7

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments a After payment is received from the primary insurance, you must create a new bill with the secondary

insurance information, or perform the electronic task of submitting the claim to the secondary insurer. b. Click the unprinted paper claims link. c. Check the set to bill link. d. Billing at the same time you bill the initial claim to the primary insurance. ANSWER:

Match the type of insurance to its description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. IPA b. HMO c. PPO 59. A group insurance that entitles members to services provided by participating hospitals, clinics, and

providers ANSWER:

60. All of the providers in the network are required to file a claim to get paid ANSWER:

61. Patients do not have to file a claim, and the provider may not charge a patient directly or send a bill ANSWER: b 62. A type of insurance in which contracted services are provided by providers who maintain their own offices ANSWER: a 63. A network of providers and hospitals that are joined together to contract with insurance companies,

employers, or other organizations to provide health care to subscribers and their families for a discounted fee ANSWER:

64. If a patient receives health care from a network provider, he or she would usually not need to file a claim ANSWER: c 65. If the patient receives out-of-network services, he may have to pay the provider in full and then file a claim

with the insurance to get reimbursed ANSWER:

66. Patients are responsible for any part of the provider’s fee that the insurance does not pay ANSWER:

means that the doctor, provider, or supplier agrees (or is required by law) to accept the Medicare-approved amount as full payment for covered services. 67.

a. b.

Adjudication Scrubbing Page 8

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Chapter 30: Preparing Insurance Claims and Posting Insurance Payments c. d.

Ambulatory payment classification Assignment

ANSWER:

68. Ambulatory payment classifications (APCs) are: a the government’s method of paying for facility outpatient services for Medicare b. when physicians are reimbursed via other methodologies, such as CPT c. is the unit of payment under the outpatient prospective payment system (OPPS) d. all of the above ANSWER:

69. When claim form errors are identified by the third-party payers, the claim is then rejected. Which of the

following is not considered an error? a the correct place of service code b. the sex of the patient is missing c. a patient’s nickname is used instead of his or her legal name (i.e., Bob instead of Robert) d. incorrect patient birth date ANSWER:

70. When a patient’s health insurance plan supports the ability to check electronically the amount of copayment a

patient will be responsible for and the amount of payment the insurance company will make; this is known as: a. b. c. d.

real-time assessment electronic eligibility real-time adjudication electronic funds transfer

ANSWER:

71. Information required to post on the patient account includes all of the following except: a the date the claim was submitted b. the check number of the payment c. the name of the insurance company sending the payment d. the date of the insurance payment or adjustment ANSWER:

72. The primary insurance information will be placed in a. Block 9 b. the [Reserved for NUCC use] block c. the FECA number block d. the resubmission code block ANSWER:

of the CMS-1500 form for secondary billing.

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 1. The account statement does not typically include which type of information? a. diagnosis information b. deductibles c. aging information d. account number ANSWER:

2. An outsourced billing service does not a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

statements. print mail create sort

3. It is recommended that a practice which uses monthly billing set aside a. an hour a day b. a few hours a month c. 1–2 days a month d. 4–5 days a month ANSWER:

for processing and mailing statements.

4. The easiest and fastest method of searching for an account in practice management (PM) software is a(n) a. chronologic b. omega c. numeric d. alpha ANSWER:

search.

5. An adjustment code would be used for which of the following? a. canceled account balance b. co-pay due at the time of service c. payment made with a money order d. payment made with a credit card ANSWER:

6. The patient’s appreciation for the services received is highest: a during the month following the service . b. during the week following the service c. at the time of service d. prior to arrival at the medical office ANSWER:

c Page 1

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 7. When posting a payment to a patient’s account, you must enter all but which of the following into the system? a. date of the payment b. previous balance c. payment amount d. form of payment ANSWER: b 8. If a patient’s check is returned to the office by the bank and is marked “NSF,” it means: a The check cleared and the funds were deposited into the office’s account. b. The patient forgot to sign the check. c. The numerical amount on the check does not match the written amount. d. There is not enough money in the patient’s account to cover the check. ANSWER:

9. When processing a credit balance, if a refund is due to a patient, you must: a apply the funds as a credit toward future services b. verify that you have the patient’s current address c. deduct a small processing fee (usually no more than 5 percent) d. send the check to the patient’s insurance company ANSWER:

10. The best collection opportunity after face-to-face contact is by: a. telephone b. email c. mailing a statement d. mailing a collection letter ANSWER:

11. Where do aging dates usually appear on a patient statement? a. alongside the amount due b. alongside the description of services c. at the top or bottom d. in the letterhead ANSWER:

12. The Truth in Lending Act (TILA) requires the disclosure of finance charges if allowing a patient to pay in more than installments. a. two b. four c. six d. eight ANSWER: b Page 2

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 13. A signed disclosure of finance charges form must be kept on file for: a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 2 years ANSWER:

14. The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) does not cover which type of debts? a. business b. personal c. family d. household ANSWER:

15. If a statute of limitations is 2 years, and the last date on the patient account was September 2016, it could be collected through: a. September 2016 b. October 2016 c. September 2018 d. October 2018 ANSWER: c 16. If you make collection calls before or after the legal hours in your state, you can be liable for: a. stalking b. harassment c. assault d. filing false charges ANSWER:

17. How often should you run the report that reflects accounts with delinquent balances? a. weekly b. biweekly c. monthly d. bimonthly ANSWER:

18. It is recommended that you use which of the following words when composing collection letters? a. neglected b. ignored c. failed d. overlooked ANSWER:

d Page 3

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 19. Collection agencies may charge for their services. a. $50 b. a percentage of the bill c. 50 percent d. $35 ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a patient account statements . b. outsourcing c. monthly billing d. cycle billing e. practice management (PM) software system f. electronic medical record (EMR) system g. account history h. alpha search i. patient payments j. aging of accounts 20. The easiest and fastest method of finding an account in a PM system ANSWER:

21. The PM software is often integrated with this system that allows information to be pulled from it and

populated in the financial components of the patient account ANSWER:

22. A way to identify accounts according to the length of time they have been delinquent ANSWER:

23. Type of billing that is typically more efficient in smaller medical practices ANSWER:

24. These must be accurate in every detail for proper patient billing ANSWER:

25. Statements or itemized bills are most often generated using this ANSWER:

26. Contracting out a specific business function to another company, rather than having your own company manage that specific work ANSWER: b 27. Computer terminology for a patient ledger ANSWER:

g Page 4

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 28. These are vital for the financial health of a medical facility ANSWER: 29. Type of billing commonly used in large medical practices ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a third-party check . b. postal money order c. Federal Trade Commission (FTC) d. Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) e. Truth in Lending Act (TILA) f. validation notice g. collection agencies h. statute of limitations i. skip j. bankruptcy 30. Should not be accepted if it has more than one endorsement ANSWER:

31. Petition to a court by an individual who is stating that he or she cannot pay any debt incurred ANSWER:

32. Person who has disappeared or moved to avoid payment of bills ANSWER:

33. The nation’s consumer protection agency ANSWER:

34. Explains to a patient how much money he or she owes to a medical facility ANSWER:

35. In written contracts, this starts from the date due ANSWER:

36. Check made out to a patient by another unknown party ANSWER:

37. Prohibits debt collectors from using abusive, unfair, or deceptive practices to collect from a patient or customer ANSWER: d 38. Generally come into play when a bill is delinquent for more than 6 months. Page 5

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees ANSWER:

39. Requires a medical practice to provide disclosure of finance charges when it offers an installment payment plan of a certain duration to a patient ANSWER: e 40. Money due to the practice is known as: a. accounts payable b. accounts receivable c. account aging d. year-to-date reports ANSWER:

Match the type of adjustment made to a patient’s account with its definition. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. nonsufficient funds check b. collection agency transaction c. credit balance d. third party 41. Most offices avoid this if at all possible because they are a costly service to the provider or medical facility ANSWER: b 42. Meaning the patient does not have enough money in the bank account to cover the amount of the check ANSWER: a 43. Deduct the amount of the check from the medical office’s checking account balance ANSWER:

44. Send no further statements, and refer any patient calls regarding the account to them ANSWER:

45. Exists when an account is overpaid, and a refund must be made back to the patient or a health insurance

company by the medical facility ANSWER:

46. In the patient’s account, add the amount of the check back into the account by entering the amount in

parentheses in the paid column ANSWER:

47. It is your responsibility to identify this and issue a refund check to the patient or the insurance company ANSWER: c 48. A check made out to the patient by an unknown party ANSWER:

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 49. Special circumstances exist for the medical assistant concerning collections. These circumstances include all

but: a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

patients whose accounts are less than 30 days old

skip patients patients under bankruptcy situations deceased patients a

50. There are a number of exceptions to the usual billing and collection procedures. Which of the following would not be considered an exception? a A person who has disappeared or moved to avoid payment of bills (the patient is a skip). b. Some providers complete physical examinations for individuals applying for insurance coverage; the

bill is sent to the insurance company. c. Providers who specialize in sports medicine and examine athletes might be paid by the school or team referring the patient. d. The provider might examine a patient in consultation in a legal claim, and, in this case, the person or agency requesting the consultation is responsible for the charges. ANSWER:

51. Which of the following statements is not true when making a collection call? a Call between the hours of 7:00 a.m. and 10:00 p.m. b. Ask for the patient by full name when placing your call. c. When you are certain you are speaking with the correct person, identify yourself and where you are

calling from. d. Get right to the point of your call. ANSWER:

Match the method of billing with its characteristics. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. monthly billing b. cycle billing c. computerized billing 52. Commonly used in large medical practices with a large number of statements sent out each month ANSWER: b 53. Allows information to be pulled from the EMR and populated in the financial components of the patient

account ANSWER:

54. Typically is more efficient in smaller medical practices ANSWER:

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees 55. Allows office staff to handle the accounts in a more efficient manner and with more flexibility ANSWER:

56. One to two days should be set aside for processing and mailing the statements ANSWER:

57. Accounts are divided into groups to correspond to the number of times you will be billing ANSWER:

58. Statements or itemized bills are most often generated through practice management (PM) software ANSWER: c 59. The same cycle is maintained each month so that patients learn when to expect your statement ANSWER:

60. It is important for statements to be mailed in a timely manner so patients receive them by the first of each

month ANSWER:

61. There are certain circumstances that warrant a statement be withheld (not generated / not sent to the patient). Which of the following is not considered one of the “certain circumstances”? a relatives of the provider . b. c. d. ANSWER:

workers’ compensation claims accounts of government-assisted patients families of patients who have recently passed away a

62. The computer-generated statement is considered to be an efficient collection method for the office because it

not only shows an itemized account of all transactions but the age of the account. The statement will show the portion of the amount due that is: a. b. c. d.

current over 30 days over 60 days all of the above

ANSWER: 63. Accounts are considered current if within a. b. c. d.

days of the billing date. 30 60 90 120 Page 8

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees ANSWER:

64. The specific provisions of the Truth in Lending Act that explains in great detail who and what is covered by

the regulation and gives specific disclosure and other requirements that have to be met for open-end and closedend credit transactions are implemented through: a . b. c. d.

the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act the practice and compliance department the quality department Regulation Z

ANSWER:

65. Credit transactions over $25,000 are exempt from the TILA unless: a the patient has signed a promissory note b. the provider/practice has waived the fee c. there is a security interest taken in real property or a mobile home d. there is no way to collect from the patient or his/her family ANSWER:

66. The first step in the collections process is to: a use a certified collection agency b. withhold statements for patients with accounts exceeding 90 days past due c. firmly demand payment in person and on the telephone d. advise patients of the office policy regarding payment when they call to schedule an appointment ANSWER: d 67. If the patient balance is $450 and the patient agrees to pay $45 a month on the twelfth of each month with no

interest being charged, it will take a. b. c. d.

to pay the bill in full. 10 months 12 months 45 days 450 days

ANSWER:

68. When composing collection letters, avoid words that tend to antagonize, such as: a. ignored b. missed c. overlooked d. forgotten ANSWER:

69. Which of the following would be considered a step(s) to locate a skip? a Place a telephone call to see whether the old phone number was transferred to a new address. Page 9

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Chapter 31: Patient Billing, Posting Patient Payments, and Collecting Fees b. Call referring individuals to try to obtain a new address for the patient, although you must not

indicate your reason for needing the new address other than that you need to verify it. c. Use the Internet as a tool to locate a skip patient. d. All of the above ANSWER:

70. When it is necessary to collect a bill owed by a deceased patient, the statement is sent to the estate of the deceased in care of any known next of kin at the patient’s last known address. In this circumstance, which of the following statements is true? a Do not address the statement to a relative unless you have a signed agreement that that person will

be responsible for the bills. b. Do not contact the probate court to obtain the name of the administrator of the estate if the patient expired in a nursing home and had no known next of kin. c. Send only to the next of kin as the responsible party for the bill. d. All of the above ANSWER:

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures 1. The process of performing banking transactions with a smartphone or personal digital assistant (PDA) is known as banking. a. mail b. online c. mobile d. telephone ANSWER: c 2. An overdraft is when: a a check is more than the amount in the bank account. . b. c. d. ANSWER:

you open a savings account. do not use a personal check. earned interest is waived. a

3. The use of checks became common: a. in the 14th century b. in the 18th century c. after World War II d. in the 1980s ANSWER:

4. As soon as cash money is received in the office, it should be: a stored in an envelope on the reception desk . b. placed out of sight in a secure location c. deposited in a savings account d. deposited in a checking account ANSWER:

5. A(n)

check is a check paid directly from a checking account via the Internet. a. limited b. cashier’s c. certified d. electronic

ANSWER: 6. A

d check is a check presented too long after it was written to be honored by the bank. a. stale b. traveler’s c. postdated Page 1

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures d.

voucher

ANSWER:

7. Traveler’s checks are listed as on a deposit slip. a. cash b. checks c. electronic transfers d. gift cards ANSWER:

8. A check must include some form of which phrase to be negotiable? a. security features included b. for deposit only c. pay to the order of d. In God We Trust ANSWER:

9. The

is the amount in numbers that the check is written for. a. numeric amount b. written amount c. negotiable amount d. drawee

ANSWER:

10. The check routing symbol is commonly a. written as a fraction b. written as a percentage c. italicized and underlined d. hyphenated ANSWER:

on a personal check.

11. The MICR numbers are numbers and symbols and contain the nine-digit a. routing b. account c. check d. FDIC ANSWER: 12. A

d number.

endorsement states, “PAY TO THE ORDER OF (name of bank where the check is to be deposited).” a. restrictive b. blank c. formal d. protective Page 2

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures ANSWER:

13. A check will be instantly returned by the bank if: a it was written more than 30 days ago . b. c. d. ANSWER:

a mistake is corrected with a single line and is initialed the signature is missing the written amount is the same as the numeric amount c

14. You should not accept a check that is: a marked “paid in full” and pays the account in full b. a third-party check from an authorized insurance company c. uncorrected and includes the seven components that make a check valid d. written for more than the amount due so the patient can have some cash in hand ANSWER:

15. When writing a check, the date: a. must be written b. must be numeric c. can be written or numerical d. must be preprinted on the check ANSWER:

16. What is the correct way to write the numerical amount $5.62 as a written amount? a. Five and 62/100 b. Five sixty-two c. Five and sixty-two d. Five .62 ANSWER:

17. When completing a stub or register, you should: a use green or blue ink b. include only dates, check numbers, and amounts c. list checks but not deposits d. bring forward the balance from the previous stub or entry ANSWER:

18. If a mistake is made in writing a check, it is necessary to write “ a. ERROR b. OMIT c. VOID

” across the check and stub and write a new one.

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures d.

DO NOT USE

ANSWER:

19. When sorting currency, bills should be stacked: a portrait side up, in order from lowest to highest denomination b. portrait side up, in order from highest to lowest denomination c. portrait side down, in order from lowest to highest denomination d. portrait side down, in order from highest to lowest denomination ANSWER:

20. When preparing a deposit slip, if there are more checks than can be listed on the front of the slip, you should: a use the back, total the amount, and bring it forward to the correct line b. add the amounts on a calculator and write the total without listing the checks c. break the deposit up into a series of smaller deposits d. ask the teller at the bank for an extra-long corporate deposit slip ANSWER: a 21. Deposits should be always be delivered to the bank: a at the same time of day . b. on the same day every week c. on the same day at the same time every week d. at different times and days of the week ANSWER: 22. When depositing checks by mail, they should be endorsed by a. blank b. restrictive c. stamped d. personal ANSWER:

d endorsement only.

23. If a stop payment is placed on a check, the bank will: a require the payee to pay a fee to cash the check b. contact the payer for permission before transferring cash to the payee c. refuse to honor the check d. freeze the account of the payee ANSWER: 24. A bank statement obtained through an ATM usually contains the last a.5 b. 10 c. 15

c transactions made on an account.

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures d.

ANSWER:

25. The process of verifying that the amounts on the bank statement are consistent with the amounts in the check register is known as: a. reconciling b. capitalizing c. transferring d. itemizing ANSWER: a Match each term with its definition. a. ABA number b. agent c. ATM d. bank statement e. cashier’s check f. certified check g. check register h. checking account i. currency j. deposit 26. Person authorized to act for another person ANSWER:

27. Type of check in which the purchaser pays the bank the full amount of the check ANSWER:

28. Record showing the check number, person to whom check is paid, amount of check, date, and balance ANSWER:

29. Bank account into which money may be deposited and checks may be written against ANSWER:

30. Money produced by the Federal Reserve in the form of paper bills and coins ANSWER:

31. Money put into a bank account, increasing the balance ANSWER:

32. Code number found in the upper-right corner of a printed check ANSWER:

33. Banking machine operated by inserting a debit, credit, or bank card and entering a personal identification number code Page 5

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures ANSWER:

34. Record of checking account activity sent to a customer, usually on a monthly basis ANSWER:

35. Guaranteed check that is always acceptable when a personal check is not ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. deposit record b. deposit slip c. electronic funds transfer system d. endorsement e. endorser f. third-party check g. limited check h. maker i. MICR numbers j. money order 36. Method of crediting and debiting accounts by computer without checks or deposit slips ANSWER:

37. Itemized list of cash and checks deposited in a checking account ANSWER:

38. Record of a deposit given to a customer at the time of the deposit ANSWER:

39. Payee on a check ANSWER:

40. Payee’s signature on the back of a check ANSWER:

41. Check made out to the patient by someone unknown to you ANSWER:

42. Payer of the check ANSWER:

43. Check that will be marked void if written over a certain amount ANSWER:

44. Numbers printed on the check in magnetic ink that contain the routing (ABA) number Page 6

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures ANSWER:

45. Negotiable instrument often used by individuals who do not have checking accounts or to meet the requirement for purchasing an item or service ANSWER: j

There are pros and cons of accepting credit and debit cards for payment in the medical practice. Match the description to either a “pro” or “con.” Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. pro b. con 46. Businesses see small processing fees for each credit card transaction ANSWER:

47. Easy to use and makes paying bills or making store purchases hassle free for customers ANSWER:

48. Adds another layer of detail to your business’s bookkeeping practices ANSWER:

49. Requires the minor, but additional, step of adding a pin pad to a credit card terminal ANSWER:

50. A business that accepts credit cards gives customers another payment option ANSWER:

51. Payments generally have a faster approval time, which means faster access to revenue ANSWER:

52. Because the debit process is similar to a cash transaction, the fees that a business pays on debit transaction

are smaller than credit card or check fees ANSWER:

53. Precautions must be taken when determining the banking procedures within a practice. Which of the following is an example of banking concerns? a. possible loss of funds b. identity of patients c. potential HIPAA violations d. all of the above ANSWER: d 54. Which of the following is not a type of savings account? a. personal checking b. money market Page 7

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures c. d.

custodial account regular/passbook

ANSWER:

55. A check paid directly from a checking account through the Internet is known as a(n): a. limited check b. electronic check c. certified check d. cashier’s check ANSWER:

56. This kind of check is often used by insurance companies a. limited b. cryptonic c. voucher d. certified ANSWER:

57.

is a digital or virtual currency that uses cryptography for security, making it difficult to

counterfeit. a. b. c. d.

Internet check Electronic check Virtual voucher

Cryptocurrency

ANSWER:

Match the type of security features on a check with its description. a. warning bank b. MP logo c. padlock icon d. security screen e. toner adhesion f. chemical reactive paper g. prismatic multicolored background h. secure document check face i. colored pantograph j. foil hologram k. visible or invisible fibers l. thermochromic heat-sensitive icon 58. Inside the border that indicates at least two security features are included on the check ANSWER:

c Page 8

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures 59. Ensures that toner from your printer cannot be removed from the paper without damage ANSWER:

60. If the unique colored background is not present, the check is not authentic ANSWER:

61. A three-dimensional graphic foil embedded in the check to provide additional protection against duplication ANSWER: j 62. In the signature line of laser checks and in the border on manual checks repeats the words “original document” ANSWER: b 63. A face that makes replication difficult ANSWER:

64. Includes subtle gradations that makes copying and reproduction difficult ANSWER:

65. A uniquely treated paper that will show visible signs of chemical tampering ANSWER: 66. In the border of the check indicating the document contains security features ANSWER:

67. Printed on the back of each check that reads “original document” with a list of the security features and will

not photocopy clearly ANSWER:

68. Visible fibers of various lengths and color complicate copying, and invisible fibers can be viewed from either

side of the paper using black (UV) light ANSWER:

69. The ink cannot be applied by conventional photocopiers, ensuring authenticity of the document ANSWER:

70. All checks received in the office, whether in person or through the mail, should be protected by

endorsement: a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

with a date and time stamp by making a photocopy for audit purposes immediately at the time received all of the above c Page 9

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Chapter 32: Banking Procedures There are precautions to be observed when accepting checks. Match whether the following statements are

considered a best practice (good policy) or not a best practice (not good policy). Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b.

best practice (good policy) not a best practice (not a good policy)

71. Accept a third-party check ANSWER:

72. Accept a check written for more than the amount due so patient can receive cash back ANSWER:

73. Stamp it with the deposit endorsement ANSWER:

74. Accept a check that has no corrections made ANSWER:

75. Accept a check marked “paid in full” unless it does pay the full balance ANSWER:

76. Accept a postal money order with only one endorsement ANSWER:

77. Accept a check that has seven components that make it valid ANSWER:

78. Accept a postal money order with more than one endorsement ANSWER:

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures 1. A medical assistant working in accounts payable should: a have an accounting degree . b. c. d. ANSWER:

pay bills on time only when it is convenient to do so be highly organized have a great deal of medical training c

2. When a statement is received from a supplier, you should: a verify that everything on the invoice was received before making payment b. promptly mail a check for the full amount due if funds are available c. refrain from sending payment until a second notice is sent d. mail a check for no more than 50 percent of the amount due if funds are available ANSWER:

3. When invoices are held for payment, they are typically filed: a in chronological order . b. in reverse chronological order c. alphabetically by industry d. alphabetically by the supplier’s name ANSWER:

4. Which of the following is not included in the company details on an invoice? a. invoice number b. company address c. company name d. company email address ANSWER:

5. The date by which payment should be made is called the: a. payment date b. invoice date c. due date d. date of receipt ANSWER:

6. When your medical office receives an invoice from a supplier, in which section does the name of the medical practice appear? a. company details b. client details c. payment terms Page 1

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures d.

fees

ANSWER:

7. The petty cash fund is established by writing a check payable to “petty cash” or: a the name of the person who manages the petty cash fund b. the name of the bank from which the money will be drawn c. “cash” d. “recipient” ANSWER:

8. If the petty cash fund was originally $50, and it has been depleted down to $3, a new petty cash check should be written for: a. $50 b. $53 c. $100 d. $47 ANSWER: d 9. The study and analysis of financial data as it applies to operational issues within a company is called a. operational b. managerial c. supplication d. economic ANSWER: 10. The

accounting.

demonstrates the value of a business. a. net worth b. assets c. liabilities d. accounts payable

ANSWER:

11. If your receipts for 4 months add up to $200,000, what is your average monthly gross production? a. $800,000 b. $160,000 c. $50,000 d. $200,000 ANSWER:

12. The A/R ratio has a goal of: a. 2 months or more b. 2 months or less c. 1 month or more Page 2

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures d.

1 month or less

ANSWER:

13. To convert the gross collection ratio to a percentage, you: a. double it b. triple it c. divide it by 100 d. multiply it by 100 ANSWER:

14. Which of the following is the best gross collection ratio? a. 0.0 b. 0.5 c. 0.75 d. 1.0 ANSWER:

15. The

ratio is also known as the adjusted collection ratio. a. gross collection b. net collection c. write-off d. write-up

ANSWER: 16. The

b formula demonstrates a cost of a specific procedure or service. a. cost-benefit analysis b. gross collection ratio c. cost ratio d. net collection ratio

ANSWER:

17. Cost-benefit analysis is not: a part of good budgeting and accounting practices b. an advanced, complex type of cost analysis c. used to help determine the true cost of providing services d. commonly determined with the help of accounting software ANSWER:

18. It is typically the responsibility of the to produce the values used in cost-benefit analysis. a. accountant b. bookkeeper c. medical assistant d. office manager Page 3

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures ANSWER:

19. Which of the following is not commonly considered an overhead expense? a. office supplies b. postage c. occupancy insurance d. payroll ANSWER:

20. A(n)

is also known as a statement of financial position. a. liabilities statement b. balance sheet c. equity form d. income statement

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. accounts payable b. expenditure c. invoice d. PDF e. fees f. petty cash g. accounting h. bookkeeping i. operating information j. managerial accounting information 21. Total amounts owed by a practice to suppliers and other service providers for regular business operating expenses ANSWER: a 22. Recording of financial transactions of a business ANSWER:

23. Acquired material, property, and/or labor in exchange for money ANSWER:

24. Description of the services provided and the total amount due printed on an invoice ANSWER:

25. Information that is needed on a day-to-day basis in order for a company to conduct business ANSWER:

26. System of recording and summarizing business and financial transactions and analyzing, verifying, and reporting the Page 4

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures results ANSWER:

27. Document that includes itemization of goods and purchases or services provided together with the charges and terms of the agreement ANSWER: c 28. File format used when mailing invoices to prevent alteration of the invoice ANSWER:

29. Information used to help managers make informed business decisions when it comes to salary adjustments, benefits, office purchases, and so on ANSWER: j 30. Fund used when small payments are required ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. accounting formula b. accounts receivable ratio formula c. gross collection ratio formula d. net collection ratio formula e. cost ratio formula f. assets g. write-offs h. liabilities i. accounts receivable j. income statement 31. Charges deemed uncollectible by any business ANSWER:

32. Current A/R Balance ÷ Average Monthly Gross Production ANSWER:

33. Total Expenses ÷ Total Number of Procedures for One Month ANSWER:

34. All the outstanding amounts still due from a patient or customer to a doctor ANSWER:

35. Total Payments for the Specific Period ÷ Total Charges (with the write-offs deducted from the total charges) ANSWER: d 36. Debts or accounts payable owed by the business Page 5

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures ANSWER:

37. Total Payments for the Specific Period ÷ Total Charges (without considering write-offs) ANSWER:

38. Money and items of value in a business ANSWER:

39. Demonstrates the profit and expenses for a given month and also includes year-to-date information for a given year ANSWER: j 40. Assets − Liabilities = Net Worth ANSWER:

Match the accounting terminology with its definition and example. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. accounts payable b. assets c. corporation d. cost e. economic entity assumption f. liabilities g. market value h. monetary unit assumption i. note payable j. (paid-in) capital k. partnership l. proprietorship m. retained earnings n. stockholders’ equity 41. Creditors, mortgage, etc. ANSWER: 42. Money borrowed to purchase merchandise on credit ANSWER:

43. One of two main assumptions in GAAP, requiring that transaction data can only be expressed in terms of

money ANSWER: 44. Money borrowed (loans) to purchase major assets ANSWER:

45. Building, equipment, cash Page 6

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures ANSWER:

46. The quality of service provided, the age and health of the owner, and employee morale are not included

because they cannot be quantified in terms of money ANSWER:

47. The value determined by the market for similar buildings/properties at the time of sale ANSWER:

48. Resources owned by a business ANSWER:

49. The medical office purchases office supplies, medications, utilities, and so on ANSWER:

50. A business owned by one person, who is often the manager/operator of the business; the owner’s net worth

or equity (which consists of the amount by which the fair market value of all assets exceed liabilities) ANSWER: 51. If an office building is bought for $700,000, this is what the amount you pay for it is called ANSWER:

52. Cash or other assets from stockholders in exchange for capital stock ANSWER:

53. Total amount paid in by stockholders ANSWER:

54. Business organized under state law as a separate legal entity, with ownership divided into transferable shares

of stock. ANSWER:

55. Personal living expenses are kept separate from the expenses of the business ANSWER:

56. Most large companies: Wal-Mart, General Motors, General Electric, Intel, Apple, etc. ANSWER:

57. Business owned by two or more persons; each person is generally personally liable for the debts of this

entity ANSWER:

58. Law firms, medical practices, CPAs ANSWER:

k Page 7

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures 59. The ownership claim on total assets ANSWER:

60. The section of the balance sheet is determined by three items: revenues, expenses, and dividends ANSWER: m 61. Although not as commonplace today, the

bookkeeping systems have been used effectively for many years, are relatively inexpensive, provide hard copies for account balances, and are easy to use. a. b. c. d.

pegboard practice management cost-ratio analysis cost-benefit analysis

ANSWER:

62. Components of the pegboard system include: a. physician’s day sheet b. transaction slip c. patient ledger card d. all of the above ANSWER:

63. An example of a bad debt

would be if a patient owes the office $200 and the patient dies unexpectedly, leaving the remaining balance of $200 uncollectible. a. b. c. d.

write-down write-off non-collection forgiveness

ANSWER:

64. Accounting systems include all but which of the following? a. practice manager b. pegboard c. single-entry d. double-entry ANSWER:

65. Daily

is an integral function of financial responsibilities in the practice. a. b. c. d.

ANSWER:

claims scrubbing visit capture balancing claims management c Page 8

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Chapter 33: Accounts Payable and Accounting Procedures

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis 1. Which of the following is recommended for treating chicken pox? a. antiretroviral drugs b. increased fluid intake c. topical antipruritics d. antibiotics ANSWER:

2. The incubation period for viral conjunctivitis is approximately: a. 24 hours to days b. 72 hours c. 7 days d. 14 days ANSWER:

3. Painful blisters on the lips is a symptom of: a. meningitis b. herpes simplex virus c. scabies d. mumps ANSWER:

4. Bed rest, increased fluid intake, and antipyretics are recommended for patients with: a. influenza b. impetigo c. pinworms d. rubella ANSWER:

5. The primary symptom of and full of pus. a H1N1 (swine flu) . b. c. d. ANSWER:

is skin infections that may look like pimples or boils and can be red, swollen, painful,

measles scarlet fever methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) d

6. Which disease is commonly known as whooping cough? a. rubeola b. varicella zoster virus c. pertussis d. pediculosis Page 1

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis ANSWER:

7. Strawberry tongue is a symptom of: a. strep throat b. scarlet fever c. German measles d. scabies ANSWER:

8. Which of the following is not one of the five classifications of infectious microorganisms? a. viruses b. parasites c. chloroplasts d. rickettsiae ANSWER:

9. Which of the following are simple parasitic plants that depend on other life forms for a nutritional source? a. bacteria b. fungi c. rickettsiae d. lysosomes ANSWER:

10. The place where conditions are ripe for pathogens to replicate is called the: a. source b. transmission zone c. portal d. reservoir ANSWER:

11. When a person with a cold coughs or sneezes, the vapor containing the microorganism causing the illness can travel up to feet. a.2 b.3 c.8 d. 15 ANSWER: b 12. A disease reaches its highest point of development in which stage of the infectious disease process? a. incubation b. prodromal c. acute d. declining Page 2

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis ANSWER:

13. To help prevent the spread of disease, it is recommended that you: a refrain from direct patient care if you have an exudative skin condition b. wear gloves instead of washing your hands c. clean up spilled blood with soap and hot water d. break needles off after each use to prevent accidental reuse ANSWER:

14. Which of the following is not a blood-borne pathogen? a hepatitis A virus (HAV) . b. hepatitis B virus (HBV) c. hepatitis C virus (HCV) d. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ANSWER:

15. Which component of an exposure control plan includes devices that isolate or remove the blood-borne pathogen hazard from the workplace? a work practice controls . b. c. d. ANSWER:

documented employee medical and training records postexposure follow-up engineering controls d

16. The CDC recommends that you if a person’s blood gets in your eyes. a scrub the eyes with soap and water . b. irrigate the eyes with clean water or saline c. put a few drops of rubbing alcohol in each eye d. avoid blinking and try to keep your eyes dry ANSWER:

17. Needles should be after they have been used. a. recapped b. broken off c. placed in a puncture-proof container d. removed from the disposable syringe ANSWER:

18. If you are putting latex gloves on after hand washing, it is important to avoid using lotions that contain: a. mineral oil Page 3

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis b. c. d.

water vitamin E an emollient

ANSWER:

19. When washing your hands, it is recommended that you distribute soap using circular motions constantly and vigorously for seconds. a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 90 ANSWER: a 20. Disinfectants do not always kill: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

viruses fungi bacteria spores d

21. Which of the following is considered a low-level disinfectant? a. ethyl alcohol b. glutaraldehyde-based formulas c. household bleach d. sterile water ANSWER:

22. An autoclave is used for: a sanitization . b. sterilization c. disinfection d. sanitization, disinfection, and sterilization ANSWER:

23. You should not use any sterile package if it is more than a. 15 days b. 30 days c. 6 months d. 12 months ANSWER:

from the time it was sterilized.

24. An autoclave exerts approximately 15–30 pounds of steam pressure per square inch at a temperature between Page 4

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis degrees Fahrenheit. a. b. c. d.

120 and 150 180 and 230 250 and 270 300 and 340

ANSWER:

25. Sterilization with a dry heat oven typically takes about: a. 20–30 minutes b. 30–60 minutes c. 1–2 hours d. 4–6 hours ANSWER:

Match each disease with its means of transmission (also referred to as modes of transmission). a. b. c. d. e. f. g.

AIDS conjunctivitis hepatitis A impetigo MRSA pinworms scabies

26. Direct transfer of eggs from anus to mouth; indirect contact with eggs in clothing or bedding ANSWER:

27. Direct contact or by fecal-contaminated food or water ANSWER:

28. Direct or indirect contact with infested clothing or bedding ANSWER:

29. Direct or indirect contact with discharge from the eyes or upper respiratory tract of an infected person ANSWER:

30. Direct contact with draining sores ANSWER:

31. Skin-to-skin contact or from shared items, such as towels, razors, and bandages ANSWER:

32. Sexual, anal, or vaginal intercourse; sharing IV drug needles; childbirth; blood-to-blood contact; and blood transfusions ANSWER: a Page 5

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis Match each term with its definition. a. pathogens b. virulence c. normal flora d. aerobes e. anaerobes f. protozoa g. ectoparasites h. obligate parasites 33. Microorganism’s power to produce a disease ANSWER:

34. Parasites that depend completely on their host for survival ANSWER:

35. Single-celled internal parasites that have a true nucleus and survive on living matter ANSWER: 36. Microorganisms that cause disease ANSWER:

37. Cohabitation of microorganisms that live in or within an organism to provide a natural immunity against certain infections ANSWER: c 38. Multicellular parasites that live on the surface of a host and include scabies and lice ANSWER:

39. Microorganisms that need oxygen to grow ANSWER:

40. Microorganisms that grow best in the absence of oxygen ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. vector transmission b. susceptible host c. universal precautions d. incineration e. medical asepsis f. personal protective equipment (PPE) g. sanitization h. disinfection Page 6

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis i. j.

sterilization biological indicators

41. Process by which disease-producing microorganisms, or pathogens, are killed ANSWER:

42. Transmission via a disease-carrying insect, such as a mosquito or tick ANSWER:

43. Set of measures designed to prevent transmission of HIV, hepatitis B virus, and other blood-borne pathogens when providing first aid or health care ANSWER: c 44. Process that destroys all forms of living organisms ANSWER:

45. Type of infection control used to decrease the risk of spreading infection by decreasing the number of pathogenic microorganisms and their spread after they leave the body ANSWER: e 46. Used as a quality control method to validate that sterilization has been achieved ANSWER:

47. Host that is capable of being infected by the pathogen ANSWER:

48. Process of washing and scrubbing to remove materials such as body tissue, blood, or other body fluids ANSWER:

49. Method for completely destroying disposable items by flame ANSWER:

50. Required by OSHA to keep health care employees from coming in contact with blood, body fluids, and other potentially infected material ANSWER: f Match the communicable disease with the means of transmission (also known as modes of transmission), incubation, symptoms, and treatment. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. chicken pox b. common cold c. head lice d. hepatitis B e. herpes simplex virus f. H1N1 g. meningitis (bacterial) h. meningitis (viral) Page 7

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis i. j. k. l.

mumps pneumonia rubella vancomycin-resistant enterococci

51. Painful blisters on lips, which turn pustular and then form crusted scabs ANSWER:

52. Incubation 2–3 weeks, usually 13–17 days ANSWER:

53. Topical use of 1% lindane shampoo, lotion, or cream (7–10 days); ANSWER:

54. For a urinary tract infection (UTI), possible back pain; a burning sensation when urinating or a need to

urinate more often; possible diarrhea, fever, chills; weakness or sick feeling ANSWER:

55. For a skin infection, area may be red and tender ANSWER:

56. 1–7 days ANSWER:

57. 12–72 hours (some viruses 2–7 days), usually 24 hours ANSWER:

58. Crops of pruritic vesicular eruptions on the skin, slight fever and headache, malaise ANSWER:

59. Sudden onset of fever, intense headache, nausea, vomiting, sometimes petechial rash, irritability, sluggishness (possible seizures or coma) ANSWER: g 60. 60–150 days, avg. 120 days ANSWER:

61. Itching of scalp; presence of small, light-gray lice and nits (eggs) at the base of hairs ANSWER:

62. Rest, decongestant, mild analgesics, increased fluid intake ANSWER:

63. Direct contact, fecal-oral route, and respiratory secretions ANSWER:

h Page 8

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis 64. Can range from an upper respiratory infection to an acute, life-threatening illness ANSWER: 65. Rash and fever for 2–3 days ANSWER:

66. 12–25 days ANSWER:

67. High fever, shaking, chills, productive cough ANSWER:

68. Fever, headache, muscle aches, tiredness, loss of appetite, swollen and tender salivary glands under the ears

on one or both sides ANSWER:

69. The CDC recommends the following steps to be taken immediately following an exposure to blood except: a Immediately wipe up the spill and dispose of materials in the trash can. b. Wash needlesticks and cuts with soap and water. c. Flush splashes to the nose, mouth, or skin with water. d. Irrigate eyes with clean water, saline, or sterile irrigation. ANSWER:

70. Which of the following is a required reporting requirement? a Medical and training records must be maintained for each employee. b. Employer must maintain a log of occupational injuries and illnesses. c. Sharps Injury Log. d. All of the above ANSWER:

Match whether the description provided is considered a general guideline for disease prevention and safety or not. a a general guideline for disease prevention and safety . b.

not a general guideline for disease prevention and safety

71. Place hands or fingers to the mouth (including nail-biting); place any item in your mouth (such as a pen or pencil) is considered acceptable ANSWER: b 72. Bandage all scratches, paper cuts, or any breaks in the skin after hand washing and before gloving for self-

protection against possible contamination ANSWER:

a Page 9

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Chapter 34: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis 73. Apply PPE only if you are cleaning up a spill ANSWER:

74. Always recap or close bottles, jars, and tubes immediately after desired amounts are obtained to avoid spills,

waste, and accidents ANSWER:

75. Work in a dark area to prevent strain on eyes ANSWER:

76. When you are working, never eat, drink, chew gum, smoke ANSWER:

77. Not necessary to make any safety precaution adjustments if pregnant ANSWER:

78. Place reusable metal instruments in a disinfectant solution after rinsing in cold water in preparation for

proper cleaning and sterilization ANSWER:

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening 1. The process of obtaining information from patients to determine who will be the most beneficial to handle their needs is called: a. reviewing b. screening c. interrogating d. diagnosing ANSWER: b 2. The screening and interview commonly take place in the: a. reception area b. office laboratory c. practice manager’s office d. examination room ANSWER:

3. Your goals during the in-person screening include identifying all but which of the following? a Why the patient is seeking health care. b. What the patient sees as the main problem. c. The types of medication the patient should take to treat his or her condition. d. Any secondary concerns that the patient may have. ANSWER:

4. The purpose of the screening is to help patients focus on their: a. chief complaint b. financial concerns c. family health history d. past medication use ANSWER:

5. When patients return for follow-up visits, the face-to-face screening should focus on determining: a how they have felt since the last office visit . b. the status of any outstanding balances on their accounts c. the cause of their symptoms d. when they should return for another follow-up ANSWER:

6. Which of the following practices helps to establish a nonthreatening, relaxed atmosphere for a screening? a greeting the patient by a pet name b. identifying yourself only by your position c. demanding that the patient share personal information about symptoms d. explaining what you would like to do Page 1

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening ANSWER:

7. During the screening, you should: a do most of the talking yourself b. watch the patient’s body language c. allow the conversation to go off course if it is pleasant to do so d. ask questions that require only yes or no answers ANSWER:

8. The

decides what is done by the medical assistant during the in-person screening. a. practice manager b. patient c. provider d. medical assistant

ANSWER:

9. When taking down a patient’s chief complaint, you should: a include as much medical terminology as possible b. record it in the patient’s own words c. record it in your own words d. include your opinion of the diagnosis in the medical record ANSWER:

10. Which of these statements about pain is correct? a. Pain is objective. b. Pain is observable. c. Pain is subjective. d. Pain has only physical causes. ANSWER:

11. When performing an in-person screening, you should: a. sit face-to-face with the patient b. stand while the patient sits c. sit while the patient stands d. both stand ANSWER:

12. When performing in-person screenings, you should ask patients if they are taking: a prescription medications . b. c.

over-the-counter (OTC) medication herbal remedies Page 2

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening d. ANSWER:

any type of medication, prescribed or otherwise d

13. When patients do not complete the health history form, you should: a tactfully ask if they would like assistance filling out the form b. tell them that the provider cannot treat them unless they complete the form c. do nothing and let the provider handle it d. try to fill out the form on your own, based on what you know about the patient ANSWER: 14. A

provides a pictorial breakdown of a patient’s family health history. a. tonometer b. genogram c. familiosphere d. radiograph

ANSWER:

15. After the health history, baseline measurements, and vital signs are done, you should do all but which of the following? a Thank the patient for his or her cooperation. . b. Indicate to the patient what will happen next. c. Ask if the patient has any questions. d. Perform the review of systems. ANSWER: d Match each term with its definition. a. phone screening b. in-person screening c. emergent d. triage e. chief complaint (CC) f. complete health history g. patient approval h. biases i. open-ended j. summary 16. Patient’s main health concern ANSWER:

17. More intense form of screening that developed during wartime and involved the sorting and assessment of soldiers’ injuries ANSWER: d Page 3

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening 18. Beliefs and behaviors that tend to influence how we view others ANSWER:

19. Great aid in diagnosing a patient’s condition ANSWER: 20. First step taken between medical assistants and patients to make their experience at the office beneficial ANSWER:

21. Screening portion of the interview should end with this ANSWER: 22. Occurs in some form every time a patient calls the medical facility ANSWER:

23. Type of question that demands more than a yes or no answer ANSWER: 24. Patients with these types of conditions should be given first priority ANSWER:

25. Must be obtained before involving another person in the discussion of a patient’s private health information ANSWER: g Match each aspect of a patient’s chief complaint with its description. a. location b. radiation c. quality d. severity e. associated symptoms f. aggravating factors g. alleviating factors h. setting and timing 26. Describes what makes symptoms worse ANSWER:

27. Describes the area the symptom covers ANSWER:

28. Describes when the symptoms started and what the patient was doing at the time ANSWER:

29. Describes the characteristic of the symptom ANSWER:

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening 30. Describes other minor symptoms in addition to the chief complaint ANSWER:

31. Describes where the symptom is found ANSWER:

32. Describes what makes the symptoms better ANSWER:

33. Describes the pain associated with the symptom ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. pain assessment b. documentation c. physical exam d. misdiagnosis e. patient portal f. kiosk g. SOAP 34. Generally performed before extensive care is provided to new patients ANSWER:

35. Allows a patient to complete a health history form on a computer before coming into the office ANSWER:

36. Identifies the person responsible for providing the screening ANSWER:

37. Method for recording data regarding a patient’s office visit ANSWER:

38. This can be challenging due to the fact that patients may experience a comparable condition or surgical procedure, but their response may vary considerably ANSWER: a 39. Allows a patient to complete a health history form on a computer in the medical office ANSWER: 40. Absence of pertinent information in a patient’s health history could result in this ANSWER:

41. A review of symptoms (ROS) is an orderly and systematic check of each of the body systems is recorded and is

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening a. b. c. d.

the medical assistant the provider the practice manager completing a health history form

ANSWER:

Match the following terms to its definition/description. a. biases b. clinical diagnosis c. objective d. over-the-counter e. patronizing f. prioritizing g. remedies h. symptoms 42. Information or symptoms that can be observed (that are perceptible to other people), such as swelling,

bruising, vital signs, and physical examination findings ANSWER:

43. Calling patients by pet names or terms of endearment (e.g., Honey, Hon, and Dear) may be interpreted as

this ANSWER:

44. Using the information obtained from the health history, physical exam, ROS, and any laboratory tests completed can help the provider determine this ANSWER: b 45. Anything that relieves or cures a disease ANSWER:

46. For example, a work-in patient whose chief complaint is severe muscle spasms of the back may also express

concern because of occasional irregular heartbeats and an increasing need to take antacids for indigestion ANSWER:

47. The injured were separated into groups according to the seriousness of their needs ANSWER:

48. All patients must be treated with respect without the influence of how we treat others; evaluating them based

on their race, religion, sexual orientation, cultural or ethnic origin, or socioeconomic or educational status ANSWER:

49. Medications, vitamins and herbal supplements, or home remedies ANSWER:

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening 50. When performing the skill of patient screening, it is so important that you have a good knowledge base of: a. medical terminology b. anatomy and physiology c. medication d. all of the above ANSWER: d Match the feedback techniques to obtain patient information to its description. a. reflection b. restatement c. clarification 51. Briefly repeat the exact information ANSWER:

52. Stating back to the speaker the essential meaning, as understood by you ANSWER:

53. Paraphrasing and restating both the feelings and words ANSWER:

54. To follow HIPAA privacy standards, be sure to get the patient’s approval to involve another person in the discussion of his or her private health information. Which of the following statements is true regarding permission? a Asking the patient’s communication preferences will suffice for permission granted. b. The patient’s daughter tells you she is authorized to receive PHI regarding her mother. c. The provider asks you to contact the patient’s daughter to discuss a procedure her mother should have. d. Document the permission; without documentation, it is considered “not permitted.” ANSWER:

Match the question to the type: open-ended or closed-ended. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. open-ended question b. closed-ended question 55. “Do you have pain now?” ANSWER:

56. “Would you like to have a blanket to keep warm?” ANSWER:

57. “When did the symptoms begin and how long have you had them?” ANSWER:

58. “How would you describe your pain?” Page 7

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening ANSWER:

59. “Have you had your flu shot this year?” ANSWER:

60. “What questions do you have for the doctor concerning your symptoms?” ANSWER:

61. “What type of reaction did you have to the medication?” ANSWER:

62. “Would you like to discuss that with the doctor?” ANSWER:

Because pain is subjective, it is whatever the experiencing person says it is and exists whenever the experiencing person says it does. Match the type of pain with its description. a. b. c.

acute chronic malignant chronic nonmalignant

63. Sudden onset ANSWER:

64. Lasting longer than 6 months, but the cause is unidentifiable ANSWER:

65. Lasting longer than 6 months ANSWER:

66. The medical assistant is often involved in patient education, which can include supplying information about: a diseases and disorders . b. explaining diagnostic tests c. providing instruction in health care procedures d. all of the above ANSWER: d 67. Never give a patient information that is: a used as a referral for community resources b. beyond your scope of practice c. published by the CDC d. provided by a patient education outside source, such as Krames StayWell ANSWER:

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Chapter 35: The Medical History and Patient Screening 68. Always question the patient about any allergies to drugs, including OTC and herbal supplements, food, or

environmental factors because true allergic reactions can be very serious, even life threatening. If the patient indicates he or she does not have any allergies: a skip this portion of the form b. document in the patient demographics section c. enter “No known drug allergies” (NKDA) on the form d. do an allergy screening in the EHR tab ANSWER:

69. A patient’s lifestyle can have a huge impact on the prevention or creation of certain diseases or conditions. Which of the following will appear in the social history tab? a. use of illegal drugs b. alcohol usage c. smoking status (tobacco usage) d. all of the above ANSWER: d 70. Why is it important to obtain a work history for the patient? a Certain occupations may contribute to industrial diseases by exposure to harmful chemicals such as

asbestos, coal, and pesticides. b. Noise level from certain factories can also be problematic. c. Questioning the patient about the hazardous occupation and how long he or she was employed in that occupation can help in determining illnesses that may have been associated from this or could result in the future. d. All of the above ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 1. The accurate measurement of height and weight is best done on a a. spring b. digital c. strain gauge d. balance beam ANSWER:

scale.

2. A patient should while being weighed. a hold on to the scale . b. move slowly from side to side on the scale c. stand still in the middle of the scale platform d. stand as far forward on the scale as possible ANSWER:

3. The body mass index (BMI) of a patient who weighs 250 pounds and is 72 inches tall is approximately: a. 18 b. 34 c. 202 d. 2441 ANSWER:

4. Vital signs do not indicate the: a body’s ability to control heat . b. rate and quality of breathing c. concentration of white blood cells in the blood d. rate, volume, and rhythm of the heart ANSWER:

5. A person with a temperature above normal is said to be: a. febrile b. afebrile c. aerobic d. anaerobic ANSWER:

6. What is the normal oral temperature range? a. 96.6–98.6°F b. 98.6–100.6°F c. 97.6–99.6°F d. 96.6–100.6°F ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 7. A fever of 103°F is considered: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

dangerous slight moderate severe d

8. An advantage of a temporal artery thermometer is that it: a is inexpensive . b. is as accurate as a rectal thermometer c. requires no cleaning d. does not require environmental acclimation ANSWER:

9. What color is the oral probe used with an electronic thermometer? a. red b. green c. yellow d. blue ANSWER:

10. Which type of thermometer is also known as an aural thermometer? a. temporal artery b. electronic probe c. instantaneous tympanic membrane d. plastic disposable ANSWER:

11. When taking a patient’s temperature orally, the patient: a must not have had anything hot or cold by mouth for at least 15 minutes b. should move the thermometer from side to side with his or her tongue c. may place the thermometer in any part of the mouth where it feels comfortable d. should bite down on the thermometer ANSWER:

12. When taking an adult’s temperature rectally, the patient should be positioned on his or her: a. stomach b. right side c. left side d. back ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 13. Which of the following is not an advantage of measuring temperature with a temporal artery thermometer (TAT)? a. proven highly accurate b. unaffected by perspiration c. appropriate for all ages d. easily sanitized ANSWER: b 14. What is the average body temperature in Celsius? a. 37° b. 63° c. 100° d. 121° ANSWER: 15. It is the

pulse that is palpated during CPR. a. femoral b. brachial c. radial d. carotid

ANSWER: 16. The average pulse rate of patients in their 30s and 40s is a. 50–65 b. 60–100 c. 70–120 d. 100–160 ANSWER:

d beats per minute.

17. Compared to the pulse rate of a male, a female’s pulse rate is approximately: a. 10 beats per minute slower b. 10 beats per minute faster c. 15 beats per minute slower d. the same ANSWER:

18. The force or strength of the pulse is referred to as its: a. rhythm b. thread c. volume d. tone ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 19. You should never use your a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

to measure pulse rate. thumb index finger middle finger ring finger a

20. Difficult or labored breathing is called: a. rales b. apnea c. dyspnea d. Cheyne-Stokes ANSWER:

21. A faster than normal rate of respiration is known as: a. bradypnea b. tachypnea c. apnea d. dyspnea ANSWER:

22. The relaxation phase of blood pressure is known as: a. anastole b. peristole c. systole d. diastole ANSWER:

23. Blood pressure readings persistently in the range of old. a. (100–119)/(70–79) b. (120–139)/(90–99) c. (140–159)/(90–99) d. (160 or higher)/100 or higher) ANSWER:

indicate controlled blood pressure in adults up to 60 years

24. A blood pressure cuff should be the proper size. The recommended bladder length is circumference, and the ideal width is at least percent. a 20 / 80 b. 50 / 50 c. 80 / 20 d. Both should be any size that feels comfortable for the patient. ANSWER:

a percent of the patient’s arm

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 25. When taking a patient’s blood pressure: a the cuff should be inflated rapidly to 30 mm Hg above the palpatory reading b. the cuff should be partially inflated when applied c. the manometer must be viewed directly from a distance of not more than 6 feet d. a minimum of 5 seconds should elapse between inflations ANSWER:

Match each pulse site with its location on the body. a. radial b. brachial c. carotid d. femoral e. dorsalis pedis 26. Midway in the groin ANSWER:

27. Thumb side of the inner surface of the wrist ANSWER:

28. Inner medial surface of the elbow ANSWER:

29. Instep of the foot ANSWER:

30. Either side of the trachea ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. mensuration b. calibrating c. body mass index (BMI) d. vital signs e. pyrogens f. subnormal g. scanning h. palpating i. auscultating j. apex 31. Process of measuring ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 32. Used by health care personnel to identify the measurement of body functions that are essential to life ANSWER:

33. Listening for a pulse ANSWER: 34. Numerical correlation between a patient’s height and weight ANSWER:

35. Temperatures below normal ANSWER:

36. Feeling for a pulse ANSWER:

37. Gently sliding a temporal artery thermometer across a patient’s forehead ANSWER:

38. Toxins from bacteria or a by-product of degenerating tissues ANSWER:

39. Involves setting both of the weights on a balance beam scale at zero and making sure that the pointer floats in the middle of the rectangle at the end of the frame ANSWER: b 40. Bottom or lower edge of the heart ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. tachycardia b. bradycardia c. arrhythmia d. inspiration e. expiration f. blood pressure g. idiopathic hypertension h. orthostatic hypotension i. pulse pressure j. auscultatory gap 41. Breathing out ANSWER: 42. Silent interval between systolic and diastolic pressure ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 43. Consistent heart rate below 60 beats per minute ANSWER:

44. Elevated blood pressure without apparent cause ANSWER:

45. Pulse that lacks a regular rhythm ANSWER:

46. Fluctuating pressure that the blood exerts against the arterial walls as the heart alternately contracts and relaxes ANSWER: f 47. Consistent heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute ANSWER:

48. Refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic reading ANSWER:

49. Breathing in ANSWER:

50. Drop in blood pressure that occurs when a patient changes from sitting to a standing position ANSWER:

Match the temperature variations that are considered normal. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. oral b. axillary c. rectal 51. Average 98.6°F ANSWER:

52. Average 97.6°F ANSWER:

53. Average 99.6°F ANSWER:

54. Normal 36.5°C ANSWER:

55. Normal 37°C ANSWER:

56. Normal 37.5°C ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 57. Range 36–37°C ANSWER:

58. Range 97.6–99.6°F ANSWER:

59. Range 98.6–100.6°F ANSWER:

Match the temperature conversion and comparison (Celsius vs. Fahrenheit). Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. freezing b. body temperature c. pasteurization d. boiling e. sterilizing (autoclave) 60. 63°C ANSWER:

61. 0°C ANSWER:

62. 145°F ANSWER:

63. 100°C ANSWER:

64. 98.6°F ANSWER:

65. 37°C ANSWER:

66. 121°C ANSWER:

67. 32°F ANSWER:

68. 250°F ANSWER:

69. 212°F ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 70. The temperature-regulating center in the body is located in the a. circulatory system b. heart/lung region c. autonomic nervous system d. hypothalamus of the brain ANSWER:

Match the classification of fevers. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. slight b. moderate c. severe d. dangerous e. fatal 71. 41.1°C ANSWER:

72. 99.6°–101.0°F ANSWER:

73. 104.0°–105.0°F ANSWER:

74. 101.0°–102.0°F ANSWER:

75. 38.3°–38.8°C ANSWER:

76. 37.5°–38.3°C ANSWER:

77. 102.0°–104.0°F ANSWER:

78. 38.8°–40.0°C ANSWER:

79. Hypertension can result from all but which of the following? a. active lifestyle b. obesity c. high salt intake d. stress ANSWER:

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Chapter 36: Body Measurements and Vital Signs 80. Physical conditions that cause hypertension include: a. thyroid dysfunction b. atherosclerosis c. arteriosclerosis d. all of the above ANSWER:

Match the term used to identify hypertension with the description provided. a. primary b. secondary c. malignant 81. Severe,difficult, or impossible to control ANSWER:

82. Without another identifiable cause ANSWER:

83. Results form renal disease or another identifiable cause ANSWER:

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations 1. Before every patient enters the examination room, you must ensure that the room is all but which of the following? a. sterilized b. well-organized c. clean d. at a comfortable temperature ANSWER: a 2. The table pillow should be covered with: a. nothing b. a reusable plastic cover c. a disposable towel d. a standard pillowcase ANSWER:

3. Paper towels and biohazard bags are commonly kept: a in a separate storage area . b. in the examination cabinet drawers c. in a supply cabinet in the examination room d. under the examination table ANSWER:

4. Which of the following is not part of the standard supplies and equipment kept in a typical examination room? a. tongue blades b. scalpel c. gauze squares d. applicators ANSWER: b 5. What is the last thing you should do before removing your gloves when preparing the examination room? a Check the supplies in the cabinet and replace them as needed. b. Disinfect the examination table. c. Set up the table paper. d. Make a visual check of the room. ANSWER: 6. The

ANSWER:

will probably be the main person with whom a patient interacts prior to the examination. a. physician b. office manager c. medical assistant d. receptionist c Page 1

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations 7. Patients should be instructed to empty their bladder: a before the initial screening and vitals are taken . b. after the initial screening and vitals are taken c. after the initial screening but before the vitals are taken d. before the initial screening and after the vitals are taken ANSWER:

8. To prevent diseases of the respiratory system and other contagious diseases, patients should be encouraged to: a smoke cigarettes rather than use chewing tobacco b. share utensils to help build up their natural immunities c. read labels for contents of the products they buy d. use enemas at least once a month whether or not prescribed ANSWER: c 9. When preparing to move a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table, you should not: a. fold the foot rests forward b. lock the wheels c. position the chair correctly d. ask for assistance if needed ANSWER:

10. When using a gait belt to assist a patient in standing from a sitting position, you should not grasp it from the: a. left side b. right side c. back d. none of the above ANSWER: c 11. When a patient has been moved from a wheelchair to the examination table and then needs to remove clothing, you should: a. get someone to help you b. let the provider undress the patient c. leave the patient alone to undress d. undress the patient by yourself ANSWER: a 12. The term recumbent means: a. sitting upright b. squatting c. lying down d. bending the knees Page 2

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations ANSWER:

13. The prone position is used to examine the: a. trunk of the body b. abdominal area c. rectal area d. spine and structures of the back ANSWER:

14. If a proctologic table is not available, a patient should assume the a. Sims’ b. knee-chest c. Fowler’s d. lithotomy ANSWER: 15. A patient in the a. b. c. d.

position for a sigmoidoscopy.

position is supine with the feet elevated slightly. Trendelenburg jackknife prone dorsal recumbent

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. disinfectant b. table paper c. fasting process d. NPO e. specimen container f. patient gown g. foot stool h. helmet i. goggles j. earplugs k. fenestrated drape l. gait belt 16. When a patient’s instructions include this notation, it means that the patient should not eat or drink anything ANSWER: d 17. Supplied in a roll that is inserted on a dowel under the head of the table ANSWER:

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations 18. Should be worn by a person when riding a motorcycle or playing football ANSWER:

19. Should be provided if the examination table is too high for the patient to get on it comfortably ANSWER:

20. Usually begins at midnight the night before the exam ANSWER:

21. Wide strap used to make it easier to assist the patient in a wheelchair to stand or walk ANSWER:

22. Should be worn for sports such as football and hockey to prevent possible eye injuries ANSWER:

23. These are made of cloth or disposable paper ANSWER:

24. Should be worn by people working around loud machinery ANSWER:

25. All surfaces within the examination room that may be potentially contaminated should be cleaned with this between patient examinations ANSWER: a 26. This has a special opening to provide access to the area being examined ANSWER:

27. Provided to patients if a urine sample is needed ANSWER:

Match each examination position with its corresponding description. a. anatomical position b. sitting position c. supine position d. dorsal recumbent position e. prone position f. Sims’ position g. knee-chest position h. Fowler’s position i. semi-Fowler’s position j. lithotomy position k. Trendelenburg position l. Kraske position Page 4

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations 28. Position used most frequently in a critical care facility ANSWER:

29. Position used in the examination and treatment of the rectal area and for enemas, rectal temperature, and instilling rectal medications ANSWER: f 30. Standing erect, arms at sides, palms pointed forward ANSWER:

31. Position in which the knees are bent, allowing for the relaxation of the abdominal muscles ANSWER:

32. Position used for vaginal or rectal examination, which can also be used for examination of the male genital area and for catheterization of a female patient ANSWER: j 33. Position that requires a special table, and is also known as the jackknife position ANSWER: 34. Sitting at the end of the examination table, with the legs hanging down ANSWER:

35. Position in which a patient rests against the back of the table, which is lowered to a 45-degree angle ANSWER:

36. Patient is turned over so the dorsal surface may be examined ANSWER:

37. Position in which the chest and knees are placed flat against the table with the knees separated, with the arms crossed under the head or flexed to each side, and the head turned to the side ANSWER: g 38. Position used for examination and treatment of the anterior portion of the body, including the breasts and abdominal organs ANSWER: c 39. Position in which the patient’s upper body is at a 90-degree angle to the table ANSWER:

40. List at least eight types of supplies that are commonly used for patient examinations.

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations ANSWER:

Any eight of the following: Stethoscope Penlight Gloves Otoscope Drapes Ophthalmoscope Tongue depressor Lubricant Percussion hammer Basin Tuning fork Fecal occult blood test Various specimen collection kits or containers Tape measure

41. If you are a female medical assistant, you may be asked to remain in the room when a female patient is being examined by a male provider (and vice versa). Which of the following is the rationale for this policy? a Patient should feel more relaxed. b. Protect the provider from lawsuits that could result from patients claiming the provider acted improperly during the examination. c. If the patient is anxious, your presence could calm the patient and provide an opportunity to answer any questions. d. All of the above ANSWER: d Match the type of patient education to the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a to prevent injuries of the face and head b. to protect the skin c. to prevent diseases of the respiratory system and other contagious diseases 42. Keep skin clean and soft by using mild soap and water for bathing and a moisturizing lotion as necessary ANSWER: b 43. Wash hands of (chemical) irritants immediately to prevent caustic burns ANSWER:

44. Do not use tanning beds ANSWER:

45. Discourage patients from using laxatives and enemas unless specifically ordered by the provider ANSWER:

46. Discourage smoking or tobacco use of any kind. (Post antismoking pamphlets or meetings for patients to

read.) ANSWER:

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations 47. Wear protective face mask or goggles for sports such as football, hockey, and lacrosse to prevent possible

eye injuries ANSWER:

48. Discourage sun worship ANSWER:

49. In work and recreational environments, wear protective headgear: hard hat at work (construction sites),

helmet for sports (motorcycle riding, football) ANSWER:

50. Remind patients to use seat belts ANSWER:

51. Use earplugs to protect ears from exposure to loud noises (machinery, band concerts) that can lead to

possible damage to auditory nerves resulting in hearing loss ANSWER:

52. Encourage remaining covered in the sun or the use of a sun blocker to prevent damage from ultraviolet rays

if one must be in the sun for prolonged periods ANSWER:

53. Remind patients about immunizations and encourage compliance ANSWER:

54. Encourage exercise and physical fitness programs with the advice of the provider ANSWER:

55. Discourage sharing utensils or drinking out of another person’s glass to keep from transmitting viruses and

diseases ANSWER:

56. All surfaces within the room that might be potentially contaminated should be cleaned with a disinfectant

between patient examinations. This would include cabinet and table surfaces where used supplies and instruments may be discarded and the examination table that can have soiled table paper. This is referred to as standard precautions and . a. universal precautions b. common sense c. medical asepsis d. all of the above ANSWER:

57. Which of the following is not an example of proper body mechanics when moving a patient from a wheelchair to an Page 7

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Chapter 37: Preparing for Examinations examination table? a Bend your knees. b. Have the patient place his or her hands on your shoulders. c. Lock the wheels on the wheelchair before assisting the patient. d. Place your hands under the gait belt and assist patient to a standing position. ANSWER:

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam 1. How does a provider judge a patient’s speech during the general appearance component of the physical examination? Instruct the patient to read a few sentences printed on a card. b. Ask the patient whether he or she has any speech problems. c. Ask the patient a few questions. d. Closely examine the patient’s mouth and throat. ANSWER: c 2. A provider will not use a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

when examining a patient’s neck. percussion palpation auscultation manipulation a

3. When examining a patient’s chest, the provider will use: a. auscultation and manipulation b. inspection and manipulation c. palpation and auscultation d. inspection and palpation ANSWER:

4. When examining a patient’s abdomen, auscultation should be done: a. after palpation and percussion b. before palpation and percussion c. after palpation and before percussion d. after percussion and before palpation ANSWER:

5. It is recommended that men begin routine testicular self-examination at around what age? a. as a teenager or young adult b. 35 c. 50 d. 65 ANSWER:

6. Which part of the body is most frequently measured in the medical office? a. skull b. upper extremities c. lower extremities d. trunk ANSWER:

7. The physician does not commonly check the

reflex during a physical examination. Page 1

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam a. b. c. d.

Achilles glabellar plantar biceps

ANSWER:

8. Annual fecal occult blood tests typically begin around the age of: a. 20 b. 40 c. 50 d. 65 ANSWER:

9. Which of these tests is typically performed only as needed on high-risk patients? a. urinalysis b. sigmoidoscopy c. digital rectal exam d. pulmonary function test ANSWER:

10. Males should perform the testicular self-exam: a. monthly b. weekly c. every few months d. every time they shower ANSWER:

11. The Pap test and pelvic exam should begin no later than age: a. 18 b. 21 c. 25 d. 30 ANSWER:

Match each examination technique with its description. a. inspection b. palpation c. percussion d. auscultation e. mensuration f. manipulation 12. Means of producing sounds by tapping various parts of the body Page 2

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam ANSWER:

13. Evaluation by the use of sight ANSWER:

14. Passive movement of a joint to determine the range of extension and flexion ANSWER:

15. Evaluation using the sense of touch ANSWER:

16. Listening to sounds made by the patient’s body ANSWER:

17. Measurement ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. scribe b. otoscope c. stethoscope d. spirometer e. guaiac test paper f. ophthalmoscope g. Romberg balance test h. alternating motion i. tuning fork j. heel-to-shin k. heel-to-toe l. assessment 18. Instrument used to measure one’s hearing ANSWER:

19. Instrument used to listen to the lungs ANSWER:

20. Part of the occult blood test kit ANSWER:

21. Instrument used when examining the ears ANSWER:

22. Test of coordination having the patient touch the right heel to the left great toe and then the left heel to the

right great toe Page 3

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam ANSWER:

23. Test that may involve tapping the foot or clapping ANSWER:

24. Medical assistant who writes down what the provider dictates during the exam ANSWER:

25. Performed while the patient is lying in the supine position to test for coordination ANSWER:

26. Provider’s decision about a patient’s condition based on the health history, symptoms, examination findings, and any other procedures and laboratory tests thought necessary to confirm the decision ANSWER: l 27. Instrument used to measure lung capacity ANSWER:

28. Used to test air, nerve conduction in hearing ANSWER:

29. Instrument used to examine the internal structures of the eye ANSWER: 30. Which part of the physical examination would address visual acuity? a. neck b. HEENT c. chest d. heart ANSWER:

Match the physical exam frequency of the procedure to the age. Note: Answers may be used more than once and the answers are meant to serve as a guide because medical needs of patient’s will vary, as will physician’s recommendations. a begin at 40, then annually b. begin at 50, then annually c. starting at 50, every 10 years or as directed by provider d. as needed for high-risk patients (COPD and smokers) e. as needed for symptoms; baseline for females at menopause, then every two years f. baseline at 40, every 1–2 years, then annually at 50 g. begin no later than age 21; at least every 1–3 years for sexually active women h. monthly self-performed, 18–39, at least every 3 years; 40+ annually (by provider) i. annually 65 years+, or as necessitated by symptoms j. tonometry or funduscopy at 40, then every 4 years Page 4

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam 31. Hearing ANSWER: 32. Males: Digital rectal exam (DRE) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) ANSWER:

33. Vision ANSWER:

34. Sigmoidoscopy (flexible fiber-optic) ANSWER:

35. Thyroid testing ANSWER:

36. Skin for melanoma ANSWER:

37. Females: mammogram ANSWER:

38. Urinalysis ANSWER:

39. Pulmonary function tests ANSWER:

40. Fecal occult blood test ANSWER:

41. Colonoscopy ANSWER:

42. Breast self-exam ANSWER:

43. Vision ANSWER:

44. The primary reason for performing a complete physical examination (CPE) is to determine the general state

of health and well-being of the patient. The CPE can be performed for various reasons, such as: a an insurance examination before issuing a policy b. as a requirement with a patient’s employment c. as a request by a patient, or to assess a patient’s state of health d. all of the above Page 5

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam ANSWER:

45. The medical assistant has many responsibilities in preparing for examinations, including setting up the room

and supplies as well as preparing the patient for the exam. During the CPE, you will: a position the patient b. hand examination instruments and supplies to the provider c. provide comfort to the patient as needed d. all of the above ANSWER:

46. Palpation is evaluation using the sense of touch. The body can be felt using one hand or two hands. Using

two (both) hands as in vaginal and rectal examinations is referred to as: a. b. c. d.

bimanual bi-mammogram bi-digital exam dual palpation

ANSWER:

47. Blockage of the artery causes a sound known as a: a. murmur b. rale c. bruit d. rhythm ANSWER:

48. What type of providers evaluate range of motion following surgical procedures such as knee and hip

replacements? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

orthostatics ophthalmologists orthopedics osteopathics c

During the physical exam, the provider may ask the patient to stand in front of him in the anatomical position

while he observes the patient’s general appearance. Match what the provider would be assessing with the description provided. a. b. c. d. e. f.

appearance awareness gait speech hearing breath Page 6

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam 49. Manner of walking: shuffle, limp, balance, evidence of stiffness or pain ANSWER:

50. Response to sound, volume of speech ANSWER:

51. To person, place, and time; confused; distressed ANSWER:

52. Odors: sweet and fruity with diabetes, acetone with acidosis, oral hygiene ANSWER:

53. Grooming, state of health, body stature, nourished, appears stated age ANSWER:

54. Slurring, stutter, loss of voice, impediment ANSWER:

During the physical examination, the provider will inspect anterior and posterior skin surfaces while the patient stands in front of him or her, and as he or she progresses through the examination. Match what the provider is assessing to the description provided. a. color b. condition c. blemishes d. lumps e. nails 55. Cuticles, groomed, brittle, peeling, grooved, spooning, clubbing, white lines ANSWER:

56. Moles, warts, scars, acne, rashes ANSWER:

57. Dry, flaky, soft, calloused fingers or hands, skin cracks, turgor (measured by pinching back of hand and

observing the length of time for return to normal; provides estimate of hydration) ANSWER:

58. Palpable masses under the skin ANSWER:

59. Redness, bruising, birthmarks, darker areas ANSWER:

60. Pupils (in darkened room with light source) are checked for reaction to light and accommodation (L and A);

if equal, it is recorded as: Page 7

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam a. b. c. d.

ELA PERRLA PELA ELPPA

ANSWER:

61. This is side vision while looking straight forward. a. sclera b. musculature c. L and A d. peripheral ANSWER:

62. The tongue is depressed and the patient says “ah” to view: a. the posterior pharynx and tonsils b. the tonsils and septum c. the anterior pharynx and tonsils d. the auditory canal ANSWER:

63. Breasts should be examined on a specific day every month,

following the beginning of a period

for women who still menstruate. a. b. c. d.

3–7 days 10–14 days 7–10 days the day

ANSWER:

64. What is the examination performed to detect any muscle abnormality where the patient stands with feet

together and eyes open; if the balance seems all right, the examiner asks the patient to close the eyes? a. b. c. d.

Romberg balance test heel-to-shin test heel-to-toe test alternating motion test

ANSWER:

65. The provider’s plan includes all measures for management of the care of the patient that are listed, including

diet, exercise, physical therapy, medication, surgery, and any others. If the provider has used the abbreviation R/O, what is he referring to? a. b. c.

record of observation research observation rule out Page 8

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Chapter 38: The Physical Exam d.

rule oriented

ANSWER:

66. The provider uses six examination methods while performing a physical examination. Which of the following is not one of the methods? a. menstruation b. inspection c. palpation d. percussion ANSWER: a 67. In 2014, the Eighth Joint National Committee (JNC 8) recommendations were released to replace the JNC 7

guidelines on blood pressure management. Prior classifications of prehypertension and hypertension, which were defined by stages, were replaced with simplified blood pressure control goals. What are the new guidelines for considering blood pressure controlled up to the age of 60 years? a. b. c. d.

130/90 140/85 140/90 125/85

ANSWER:

68. When the Eighth Joint National Committee (JNC 8) recommendations were released in 2014 to replace the

JNC 7 guidelines on blood pressure management, what was the new guideline for goals for patients over 60 years old? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

130/90 140/85 140/90 150/90 d

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 1. Which of these tests is typically performed only as needed on high-risk patients? a. urinalysis b. sigmoidoscopy c. digital rectal exam d. pulmonary function test ANSWER:

2. Which of the following is an indication that a patient is experiencing hearing loss? a frequently complaining that people are speaking too loudly b. overpronouncing words c. talking in an unusually low voice d. not responding when spoken to if out of sight range ANSWER:

3. If a patient gets something in the left eye, he or she should be instructed to: a lie on the left side with the face turned to the right . b. c. d. ANSWER:

lie on the right side with the face turned to the right lie on the left side with the face turned to the left lie on the left side with the face turned to the right c

4. A patient is considered legally blind if visual acuity is a. 20/200 b. 20/100 c. 200/20 d. 100/20 ANSWER:

or less in the better eye with corrective lenses.

5. The rarest form of color blindness is , which means that the person cannot distinguish the color blue. a. protanopia b. deuteranopia c. tritanopia d. achromatic vision ANSWER: 6. Patients with

ANSWER:

conditions should be routinely screened for color vision acuity during scheduled visits. a. pituitary b. thyroid c. heart d. pineal b Page 1

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 7. The CSV-1000 is a screening method for: a. visual acuity b. respiratory difficulty c. hearing loss d. contrast sensitivity ANSWER:

8. When scheduling patients for vital capacity tests, it is important to advise them to: a take their normal medications before coming to the office b. refrain from smoking for at least 2 hours c. refrain from routine treatment d. eat a heavy meal ANSWER:

9. During a proctologic examination, the permit(s) removing a tissue sample for examination. a. biopsy forceps b. rectal speculum c. snare d. sigmoidoscope ANSWER:

10. Patients over age 40 should be instructed to routinely test their stool for blood every the colon. a. 5 years b. 2 years c. year d. month ANSWER:

for detection of cancer of

Match each term with its definition. a. irrigation b. otoscope c. Rinne test d. spirometer e. audiometer f. Weber test 11. Instrument used to measure one’s hearing ANSWER:

12. Test in which the examiner strikes a tuning fork and holds the shank against a patient’s mastoid bone until the patient no longer hears the sound ANSWER: c Page 2

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 13. Test in which a vibrating tuning fork is held against the vertex or the midline of the skull or forehead ANSWER:

14. Instrument used when examining the ears ANSWER:

15. Instrument that tests the capacity of the lungs ANSWER:

16. To remove excessive ear wax ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. cerumen b. Snellen chart c. Jaeger chart d. occluder e. color deficient f. achromatic vision g. protanopia h. vital capacity i. peak flow testing j. obturator k. tympanometry l. proctoscope 17. Tool with a solid, rounded end ANSWER: 18. Inability to perceive colors of the spectrum distinctly ANSWER:

19. Greatest amount of air that can be expelled during a complete, slow, unforced expiration following a maximum inspiration ANSWER: h 20. Total color blindness ANSWER:

21. Most common screening device for distance vision ANSWER:

22. Used to cover one of the patient’s eyes during a vision test ANSWER:

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 23. Common method of screening for near vision acuity ANSWER:

24. Used to measure a patient’s ability to exhale ANSWER: 25. Earwax ANSWER:

26. Allows for viewing of the anal canal and lower rectal areas when sigmoidoscopy is not necessary ANSWER:

27. Procedure used to determine the ability of the middle ear to transmit sound waves ANSWER:

28. Partial color blindness ANSWER:

29. Occasionally, the eye may need to be irrigated. Which of the following would not be associated with the

need to irrigate the eye? a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

checking visual acuity

a foreign particle in the eye chemical contamination inflammation or secretions in the eye due to infection a

30. Occasionally, the ear may need to be irrigated. Which of the following would be associated with the need to

irrigate the ear? a b. c. d. ANSWER:

to remove excess wax to perform a hearing assessment test to look for and treat an ear infection to remove a foreign object lodged deeply in the ear canal a

Match the vision screening test with its description or purpose. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. Snellen chart b. Jaeger system c. Ishihara method 31. To measure the distant visual acuity of a patient ANSWER:

a Page 4

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 32. To determine color vision acuity of a patient ANSWER:

33. To determine near distance visual acuity of a patient ANSWER:

34. Screens patients for defects in distinguishing color vision acuity ANSWER:

35. The chart used for this procedure is a card held by the patient between 14 and 16 inches from the eye

(measure with a yardstick, a meterstick, or a tape measure for accuracy) ANSWER:

36. Shows at what distance the chart can be read by the patient ANSWER:

37. The regular chart has letters arranged in rows from largest to smallest ANSWER:

38. A person with normal color vision acuity can see a pink-red number 8 against a blue-green background and a

blue-green number 5 against a pink-red background ANSWER:

39. A simple, noninvasive test that measures the patient’s pulse rate and oxygen saturation (SAT) level in the

blood is: a. b. c. d.

vital function pulse oximetry peak flow none of the above

ANSWER:

40. A pulse oximetry reading of a. b. c. d.

percent or higher is considered normal. 50 80 95 99

ANSWER:

41. The diagnostic examination that is a useful aid in the diagnosis of ulcerations, polyps, tumors, bleeding,

cancer of the colon, and other lower intestinal disorders is the: a. b. c.

proctoscope flexible sigmoidoscopy endoscoopy Page 5

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures d.

lower endoscopy

ANSWER:

42. What test is used to evaluate patients suspected of having pulmonary insufficiency? a. spirometry testing b. lung deficiency test c. pulmonary efficacy testing d. pulse oximetry ANSWER:

43. Which of the following statements is true regarding peak flow testing? a Measures a patient’s ability to exhale. b. May be used if a patient had an inconclusive or normal spirometry test but is still presenting with

asthma symptoms. c. Can be performed to monitor the effectiveness of medications or to determine whether another form of treatment should be tried. d. All of the above ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition or description. a. acuity b. cerumen c. decibel d. enema e. evacuant f. fecal g. flexible sigmoidoscope h. funduscopy i. heartburn j. Ishihara 44. The instillation of fluid into the rectum and colon ANSWER:

45. Examination of the fundus of the eye ANSWER:

46. A medication that promotes emptying of the bowels ANSWER:

47. Refers to the sharpness or clearness of vision or hearing ANSWER:

a Page 6

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 48. Refers to an eye test to determine color vision ANSWER: 49. A unit of measure to express the degree of loudness of sound ANSWER:

50. A burning sensation beneath the breastbone, usually associated with indigestion ANSWER:

51. Pertaining to feces ANSWER: 52. Waxlike brown secretion found in the external auditory canal ANSWER:

53. A scope used for a flexible sigmoidoscopy exam to evaluate the lower part of the large intestine (colon) ANSWER: g Match the term to its definition/description. a. lavage b. laxative c. lumen d. mucosa e. polyps f. pulse oximetry g. Snellen chart h. tonometry i. vertex 54. The washing out of a cavity ANSWER:

55. The chart of alphabetic letters used to evaluate distant vision ANSWER:

56. Pertaining to mucous membrane ANSWER:

57. The top of the head, the crown ANSWER: 58. A substance that induces the bowels to empty ANSWER:

b Page 7

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 59. Measuring tension or pressure and especially intraocular pressure ANSWER:

60. Measuring the oxygen saturation of arterial blood in a subject by utilizing a sensor attached typically to a

finger, toe, or ear to determine the percentage of oxyhemoglobin in blood pulsating through a network of capillaries and that typically sounds an alarm if the blood saturation becomes less than optimal ANSWER:

61. A tumor with a pedicle, especially on mucous membranes, such as in the nose, rectum, or intestines ANSWER: e 62. The space within an artery, vein, or capillary; the space within a tube ANSWER:

63. Patients may often try to compensate for the hearing loss. Which of the following is not a form of

compensation? a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

talking in a soft voice learning to read lips turning the best ear toward the sound source standing very close during the conversation a

Match the description provided to the sign or symptom related to hearing loss. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a common behavior of patients that indicates the loss of hearing ability b. complaints that suggest hearing loss or auditory nerve damage c. ways a patient may try to compensate for hearing loss 64. Bleeding or discharge from the ear(s) ANSWER:

65. Any unusual noise or feeling inside the ears ANSWER:

66. Talking in an inappropriately loud voice ANSWER:

67. Not pronouncing words well ANSWER:

68. Ringing in the ears ANSWER:

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Chapter 39: Specialty Exams and Other Procedures 69. Pretending that he or she heard ANSWER:

70. Increasingly turning up the volume on audio equipment ANSWER:

71. Sometimes withdrawing ANSWER:

72. Infection or injury to the ear ANSWER:

73. Responding only when you speak very loudly ANSWER:

Providers use several audiometric assessment procedures to determine the cause of the patient’s hearing loss. Match the assessment procedure to the description provided. a. audiometry b. tympanometry c. two-pronged metal tuning fork 74. A procedure that measures one’s hearing ANSWER:

75. Its frequency varies with the size of the instrument; tests nerve or conduction deafness ANSWER:

76. A procedure that determines the ability of the middle ear to transmit sound waves; commonly performed on

children to diagnose middle ear infections ANSWER:

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations 1. Female patients can typically get a Pap test from: a. a gynecologist b. an obstetrician c. a general/family practitioner d. all of the above e. A and B only f. A and C only ANSWER:

2. The Papanicolaou (Pap) technique is a cytologic screening test that detects: a. cancer b. diabetes c. pregnancy d. diverticulitis ANSWER:

3. When a Pap smear is performed, samples are taken from all but which of the following parts of the body? a. vagina b. uterus c. cervix d. endocervix ANSWER:

4. AutoCyte, a new liquid-based form of Pap testing, involves collecting the sample with a: a. plastic broom b. rubber aspirator c. wooden tongue depressor d. tiny steel cylinder ANSWER:

5. When using AutoCyte, the collection device is swished how many times in the preservative solution? a.1 b.5 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER:

6. The American Cancer Society recommends offering women older than plus the HPV test. a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 70

the option of Pap screening every 5 years,

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations ANSWER: 7. A patient preparing for a Pap test should be instructed not to douche for a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48 ANSWER:

b hours prior to the test.

8. A Pap test should be scheduled the menstrual period. a. on the first day of b. on the last day of c. at least 5 days after d. at least 5 days before ANSWER:

9. Which of the following types of information is not typically obtained when taking a complete GYN history, that may be required on a cytology request form? a date of the patient’s first mammogram . b. number of abortions the patient has had c. regularity and duration of the patient’s cycles d. method of contraception the patient uses ANSWER: a 10. Female patients should be instructed to perform breast self-examinations: a every time they shower b. each month, just before the start of their menstrual period c. each month, during their menstrual period d. each month, following their menstrual period ANSWER:

11. Breast lumps are most often discovered by the: a. patient b. primary provider c. gynecologist d. medical assistant ANSWER:

12. When conducting a gynecological examination, a provider usually performs which of the following first? a. mammogram b. brief general check of the patient c. bimanual examination Page 2

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations d.

Pap test

ANSWER:

13. When you assist a patient into the stirrups during a gynecological exam, you are helping her get into the position. a. Fowler’s b. prone c. Sims d. lithotomy ANSWER:

14. Female patients should be instructed to: a douche regularly b. use condoms only if they are in a committed, monogamous relationship c. schedule a routine mammography if they are over age 40 d. use perfumed soaps and sprays for vaginal cleaning ANSWER:

15. The system most widely used to describe Pap test findings is known as the: a. cytology system b. Bethesda system c. Naegele’s rule d. epithelial review ANSWER:

16. During a patient’s first prenatal visit, a complete blood count will be performed to check her infection. a. iron b. calcium c. phosphorus d. magnesium ANSWER:

level and screen for

17. Using Naegele’s rule, if the first day of a pregnant woman’s last menstrual period was October 14, her expected date of delivery is: a. June 21 b. July 14 c. July 21 d. August 14 ANSWER: c 18. A normal pregnancy can range from a.

weeks. 34 to 38 Page 3

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations b. c. d.

37 to 41 36 to 45 40 to 50

ANSWER:

19. On subsequent prenatal visits, the medical assistant does not typically a. obtain a blood sample if needed b. obtain a urine specimen c. weigh the patient d. measure the height of the fundus ANSWER: 20. A(n)

before the patient is seen by the provider.

is a special stethoscope used to determine the heart rate of a developing fetus. a. gastroscope b. fetoscope c. anoscope d. otoscope

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. obstetrics b. gynecology c. ThinPrep d. human papillomavirus (HPV) e. total hysterectomy f. gravida g. para h. breast exam i. cervical j. hypertension 21. Removal of the cervix and uterus ANSWER:

22. Typically included during the patient’s annual appointment for the Pap test and pelvic exam ANSWER:

23. Type of practice that focuses on pregnancy and childbirth ANSWER:

24. Number of live births a patient has had ANSWER:

25. Can indicate complications in a pregnant patient Page 4

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations ANSWER:

26. Type of practice that addresses diseases and disorders of the female reproductive system ANSWER:

27. Known risk factor for developing cervical cancer ANSWER:

28. Number of pregnancies a patient has had ANSWER:

29. Referring to the entrance to the uterus ANSWER: 30. Liquid-based Pap test ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy . b. epithelial cell abnormalities c. other malignant neoplasms d. Lamaze e. estimated date of confinement (EDC) f. Neagele’s rule g. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) h. glucose tolerance test i. trimester j. ultrasonography 31. Screening test performed to check for neural tube defects ANSWER:

32. Period of three months ANSWER: 33. Type of classes that teach patients about the childbirth process ANSWER:

34. Pap test result that means the cells of the lining layer of the cervix show changes that might be cancer or a precancerous condition ANSWER: b 35. Screening test performed to check for gestational diabetes ANSWER:

h Page 5

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations 36. Pap test result that means an invasive squamous cell cancer is likely ANSWER:

37. Method of determining a pregnant patient’s estimated date of delivery ANSWER:

38. Pap test result that means there are no signs of cancer or precancerous changes ANSWER:

39. Approximate date of delivery ANSWER:

40. May be performed to confirm pregnancy and to monitor its progress ANSWER:

Match the common pregnancy test/procedure with its description and how it is done. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. amniocentesis b. biophysical profile c. chorionic villus d. first trimester screen 41. Involves an ultrasound exam along with a nonstress test ANSWER:

42. A test done at 10–13 weeks to diagnose certain birth defects, including down syndrome and cystic fibrosis ANSWER: c 43. Can reveal multiple births ANSWER:

44. This test is used in the third trimester to monitor the overall health of the baby and to help decide if the baby should be delivered early ANSWER: b 45. May be suggested for couples at higher risk for genetic disorders ANSWER:

46. Performed at 14–20 weeks; can detect certain birth defects including down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and spina bifida ANSWER: a 47. Provides DNA for paternity testing ANSWER:

48. It may be suggested for couples at higher risk for genetic disorders ANSWER:

a Page 6

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations 49. A screening test done at 11–14 weeks to detect higher risk of down syndrome, trisomy 18, and heart defects ANSWER: d 50. Provides DNA for paternity testing ANSWER:

51. Looks at the baby’s breathing, movement, muscle tone, heart rate, and the amount of amniotic fluid ANSWER:

52. A thin needle is used to draw out a small amount of amniotic fluid and cells from the sac surrounding the fetus; the sample is sent to a lab for testing ANSWER: a 53. A needle removes a small sample of cells from the placenta to be tested ANSWER:

54. The blood test that measures the levels of certain substances in the mother’s blood and the ultrasound exam that measures the thickness at the back of the baby’s neck ANSWER: d 55. This test involves both a blood test and an ultrasound exam called nuchal translucency screening ANSWER:

Match the common pregnancy test/procedure with its description and how it is done. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. glucose challenge screening b. glucose tolerance test c. Group B streptococcus d. maternal serum screen e. nonstress test f. ultrasound exam g. urine test 56. This test is done at 36–37 weeks to look for bacteria that can cause pneumonia or serious infection in newborn ANSWER: c 57. Blood is drawn to measure the levels of certain substances in the mother’s blood ANSWER: 58. Can be performed at any point during the pregnancy; the exams are not routine ANSWER:

59. This test is performed after 28 weeks to monitor the baby’s health. It can show signs of fetal distress, such as the baby not getting enough oxygen ANSWER: e Page 7

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations 60. A screening test done at 26–28 weeks to determine the mother’s risk of gestational diabetes ANSWER:

61. A belt is placed around the mother’s belly to measure the baby’s heart rate in response to its own movements ANSWER: e 62. The patient will consume a special sugary drink given by your doctor. A blood sample is taken one hour later to look for high blood sugar levels ANSWER: a 63. Looks for signs of health problems such as UTI, diabetes, and preeclampsia ANSWER:

64. Collects a small sample of clean, midstream sample in a sterile plastic cup ANSWER:

65. Uses sound waves to create a “picture” of the baby on a monitor ANSWER:

66. The doctor will tell the patient what to eat a few days before the test. Then the patient cannot eat or drink anything but sips of water for 14 hours before the test ANSWER: b 67. A screening test done at 15–20 weeks to detect higher risk of down syndrome, trisomy 18, and spina bifida ANSWER: d 68. A swab is used to take cells from the vagina and rectum to be tested ANSWER:

69. This test is done at 26–28 weeks to diagnose gestational diabetes ANSWER:

70. Testing strips that look for certain substances are dipped in the sample ANSWER:

71. A gel is spread on the patient’s abdomen; a special tool is moved over the abdomen, which allows the doctor and patient to view the baby on a monitor ANSWER: f 72. Blood is drawn to test the patient’s fasting blood glucose level ANSWER:

73. A standard exam performed between 18 and 20 weeks to look for signs of problems with the baby’s organs and body Page 8

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Chapter 40: OB/GYN Examinations systems and confirm the age of the fetus and proper growth ANSWER: 74. The blood will be tested every hour for three hours to see how well the body processes sugar ANSWER:

75. Most providers prefer the medical assistant (or nurse) to accompany them into the exam room, not only to

assist with the procedure, but also to verify: a .

the results of the test

b. c.

their use of the proper type test their behavior in case of patient accusations

d. ANSWER:

the identity of the patient matches to the sample c

76. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration recently approved the first FDA-approved HPV DNA test for

women 25 and older known as the test that can be used alone to help the health care provider assess the need for a woman to undergo additional diagnostic testing for cervical cancer as well as provide information about the patient’s risk for developing cervical cancer in the future. a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

FDA/HPV test Pap II test cobas HPV test Guard All II c

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations 1. An Apgar score

requires immediate intervention and continued evaluation. a. higher than 8 b. higher than 80 c. below 7 d. below 40

ANSWER:

2. Infants typically begin their journey through the pediatrician’s office: a. immediately after birth b. at 1–2 weeks c. at 4–6 weeks d. at 2–3 months ANSWER:

3. After beginning the immunization schedule, infants are typically examined: a every 2–3 months for the first 18 months . b. every 2–3 months for the first 5 years c. every 5–6 months for the first 18 months d. every 5–6 months for the first 5 years ANSWER:

4. Medicaid’s comprehensive and preventive child health program does not include which of the following services? a. laboratory tests b. dental services c. cosmetic surgery d. lead toxicity screening ANSWER: c 5. At what age can an infant first role from the back to the side? a. 1 month b. 2–4 months c. 4–6 months d. 6–8 months ANSWER:

6. At 5 months, a typical infant can: a hold a bottle . b. bang two objects together c. transfer objects from one hand to the other d. use a thumb–finger grasp ANSWER:

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations 7. At 12–15 months, a child typically cannot yet: a. walk alone well b. crawl up stairs c. put raisins into a bottle d. jump in place ANSWER:

8. At age 18 months, a child can typically: a. babble b. speak gibberish c. say four to six words d. say 10 or more words ANSWER:

9. At 24 months, a child can typically: a. ride a tricycle b. jump with both feet c. throw a ball d. stand on one foot for a few minutes ANSWER:

10. Which of the following is not a measurement commonly obtained at well-child visits? a. height or recumbent length b. weight c. circumference of the abdomen d. circumference of the head and chest ANSWER:

11. It is customary to weigh infants: a unclothed . b. wearing only a diaper c. wearing a diaper and clothes, but not shoes d. wearing a diaper, clothes, and shoes ANSWER:

12. When measuring a child’s chest circumference, the measuring tape should be placed: a just below the nipples . b. just above the nipples c. directly over the nipples d. exactly halfway between the navel and nipples Page 2

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations ANSWER:

13. When measuring a child’s head circumference, the measurement should be read to the nearest: a. 1/8 inch b. 1/4 inch c. 1/12 inch d. inch ANSWER:

14. Growth graphs aid in the diagnosis of growth abnormalities, nutritional disorders, and diseases of children from birth to age: a.5 b. 13 c. 18 d. 20 ANSWER: d 15. Toys in the play area of the reception area should: a. have many parts b. have tiny parts c. be washable d. be disposable ANSWER:

16. Which of the following is a symptom of neglect? a apparent malnutrition . b. suspicious story about an injury c. frequent injuries requiring medical attention d. discoloration/bruises on the back or buttocks ANSWER:

17. Which of the following is a sign of abuse? a developmental delay . b. inadequate clothing for season or size c. obvious lack of dental care d. frequent injuries requiring medical attention ANSWER:

18. How often does the CDC release Recommended Childhood and Adolescent Immunization Schedules for children in the United States? a every month . Page 3

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations b. c. d. ANSWER:

every year every 3 years only when circumstances require an update b

19. Which of the following is not a sign of a vision deficiency in a child? a holding books an arm’s length away when reading . b. c. d. ANSWER:

tilting the head forward to see well looking cross-eyed excessive blinking

20. When using a Snellen chart, the child: a states which color seems brightest b. points to the color that seems brightest c. indicates verbally which way the big “E” is facing d. indicates with the fingers which way the big “E” is facing ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a pediatrics b. Apgar scoring system c. Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment (EPSDT) program d. growth e. development f. 6–8 months g. 8–10 months h. 10–12 months i. percentile j. growth chart 21. Used almost immediately after birth to obtain an indication of the newborn’s well-being ANSWER:

22. Age at which imitation of speech sounds typically begins ANSWER:

23. Providers use this to compare a child’s measurements in relation to those of other same-age children ANSWER: 24. A medical specialty that cares for children from birth until essentially adulthood ANSWER:

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations 25. Aids in the diagnosis of growth abnormalities, nutritional disorders, and diseases of children, and becomes a permanent record of a child’s development ANSWER:

26. Age at which an infant typically learns to respond to verbal commands ANSWER:

27. Medicaid’s comprehensive and preventive child health program ANSWER:

28. An infant’s ability to control his or her body and use verbal and mental skills ANSWER:

29. Changes in height and weight that can be measured as an infant begins to mature ANSWER:

30. Age at which an infant typically speaks gibberish ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. heredity b. failure to thrive (FTT) c. attachment d. separate reception area e. disposable emesis basin f. neglect g. abuse h. gait i. vaccination information statement (VIS) j. hearing 31. Item that may be kept near the front desk in case a child becomes sick in the reception area and vomits ANSWER:

32. Observed by watching a child from behind as he or she walks to the caregiver ANSWER:

33. Establishment of a positive parent-child relationship through examining, touching, cuddling, and expressions of love ANSWER: c 34. Lack or withholding of care ANSWER:

35. Significantly influences growth patterns, making it important to have a complete family health history in the medical record Page 5

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations ANSWER:

36. Helps to keep sick children isolated from well children while they wait to see the provider ANSWER:

37. Occurs when an infant or young child is below the third percentile on standardized growth charts ANSWER:

38. Observed by watching a child’s reaction to surrounding sounds ANSWER: 39. Inflicting emotional, physical, or sexual injury ANSWER:

40. Documents the possible side effects of an immunization ANSWER:

Match the description provided to the symptoms of abuse or neglect. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. neglect b. abuse 41. Evidence of burns in unusual places ANSWER:

42. Inadequate clothing for season or size; unclean ANSWER:

43. Dislocation of joints, such as shoulder and wrist ANSWER:

44. Immunizations neglected or incomplete ANSWER:

45. Poor personal hygiene ANSWER:

46. An X-ray of current injury showing evidence of untreated previous fractures ANSWER:

47. Parental comments indicating lack of concern or not wanting child ANSWER:

48. Suspicious story about the injury; difference between description by child and parent or caregiver ANSWER: b

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations 49. Reports by the child of sexual or physical abuse ANSWER:

50. Excessive length of time before seeking medical attention for illness or injury ANSWER:

51. Discoloration or bruises on the back, buttocks, or any other area ANSWER:

52. Internal abdominal pain ANSWER:

Match the growth and development from newborn to 30 months (age) with the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. birth to 1 month b. 2–4 months c. 4–6 months d. 6–8 months e. 8–10 months f. 10–12 months g. 12–15 months h. 18 months i. 24 months j. 30 months 53. Responds by looking and smiling ANSWER:

54. Binocular vision developed ANSWER:

55. Holds hands in fist ANSWER:

56. Has good hand-mouth coordination ANSWER:

57. Runs, falling often ANSWER:

58. Visual acuity 20/40 ANSWER:

59. Walks around room holding onto objects Page 7

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations ANSWER:

60. Crawls on all fours or uses arms to pull body along floor ANSWER:

61. Can raise head and shoulders when prone to 45–90 degrees ANSWER:

62. Assumes tonic neck posture ANSWER:

63. Bounces when held in a standing position ANSWER:

64. Can feed self with cup and spoon ANSWER:

65. Approximately 300-word vocabulary ANSWER: 66. Turns from stomach to back and then back to stomach ANSWER:

67. Knows first and last name ANSWER:

68. Can build a tower of eight blocks ANSWER:

69. Can kick a ball ANSWER:

70. Watches a falling object ANSWER:

71. Understands “no” and other simple commands ANSWER:

72. Vocalizes when talked to; coos, babbles ANSWER:

73. Draws arms and legs to body ANSWER:

74. Can hold bottle Page 8

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Chapter 41: Pediatric Examinations ANSWER:

75. Follows objects 180 degrees ANSWER:

76. Learns to use scissors ANSWER:

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory 1. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) regulate all laboratory testing performed on humans except for: a. standard blood tests b. clinical trials c. urine tests d. biopsies ANSWER: b 2. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) of 1988 are administered by the: a Department of Labor (DOL) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ANSWER:

3. The waived status for diagnostic testing is granted according to the: a difficulty in performing the test b. importance of the results of the test c. expense of the test d. amount of preparation required on the part of the patient for the test ANSWER:

4. Which agency provides the application for a certificate of waiver? a. DOL b. FDA c. CMS d. OSHA ANSWER:

5. Laboratory tests on a certificate of waiver may be billed to: a. Medicare but not Medicaid b. Medicaid but not Medicare c. Medicare and Medicaid d. neither Medicare nor Medicaid ANSWER:

6. For moderately complex tests, CLIA mandates that there be a clinical consultant with a minimum of a(n) a. bachelor’s b. doctoral c. master’s d. associate’s ANSWER:

degree.

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory 7. Which of the following is not a purpose of a quality assurance program? a to ensure positive test results . b. c. d. ANSWER:

to evaluate the quality and effectiveness of health care to ensure accuracy in testing procedures to ensure validity in testing procedures a

8. A quality control program does not monitor: a instruments used in testing . b. personnel technique in performing tests c. reagents used in testing d. patient reactions to tests ANSWER:

9. Operating a well-managed and efficient physician’s office laboratory (POL) includes all but which of the following? a recapping used syringes before placing them in a biohazard sharps container b. maintaining all SDS in a notebook that is readily accessible to all employees c. recording all lab work in a log d. keeping long hair tied back securely ANSWER: a 10. When a microscope is not in use, its cord should be: a. allowed to dangle b. kept tightly wrapped c. kept loosely wrapped d. left plugged in ANSWER:

11. How many eyepieces does a monocular microscope have? a.0 b.1 c.2 d.3 ANSWER:

12. The high-power field (hpf) objective magnifies an object approximately a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50

times.

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory ANSWER: 13. You should wipe the eyepieces of the microscope with a. water b. a dry paper towel c. straight bleach d. a disinfectant ANSWER:

c after each use to avoid the transmission of diseases.

14. The ocular lens of a microscope should be cleaned with: a. lens tissue paper b. a damp paper towel c. a dry paper towel d. compressed air ANSWER:

15. When using the oil-immersion lens objective, how much oil should be used? a. none at all b. a very sparingly c. a moderate amount d. an ample amount ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. provisional certificate b. certificate of waiver c. quality assurance (QA) d. quality control (QC) e. control f. chemical hygiene plan g. biohazard safety 16. Process that validates final test results and determines any variations ANSWER:

17. In the health care field, this refers to all evaluative services and results compared with accepted standards. ANSWER:

18. Allows only those tests to be performed in a POL that are on the list of waived tests ANSWER:

19. Sample with a known value range to be tested along with the patient specimen ANSWER:

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory 20. Section of a biohazard communications manual that includes universal precaution techniques that conform to OSHA and CLIA regulations ANSWER: g 21. Allows a laboratory to operate until the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) inspects the facility ANSWER: a 22. Employer’s plan to prevent employees from being exposed to dangerous chemicals ANSWER:

Match each part of a microscope with its description. a. arm b. ocular lens c. objectives d. fine-focus dial e. stage f. substage g. shutter or diaphragm h. oil immersion i. slide 23. Brings a specimen into good definition when using a microscope ANSWER:

24. Part of a microscope that supports the eyepiece ANSWER:

25. Oil should be used sparingly when this is used ANSWER:

26. Upper part of the tube of a microscope ANSWER:

27. When using a microscope, you must watch carefully as you raise the substage so that it does not come into direct contact with this ANSWER: i 28. Part of a microscope that has two clips to hold the specimen slide ANSWER:

29. Controls the amount of light desired when using a microscope ANSWER:

30. Small lenses attached to the revolving nosepiece on a microscope ANSWER:

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory 31. Part of a microscope that holds a condenser to regulate the amount of light directed on the magnified specimen ANSWER: f 32. As of June 1, 2015, the HCS requires all labels to have pictograms on them, alerting all users of the chemical hazards they are being exposed to. Which of the following is not a hazard requiring label and/or pictogram? a. an unexploded bomb b. corrosion c. skull and crossbones d. flame over circle ANSWER: a 33. Your responsibilities will include the ability to evaluate the lab and medical environment to identify safe

versus unsafe working conditions. Some examples of evaluating the environment can include: a Using a checklist, perform a safety inspection at intervals according to institution policy and preparing a report on the findings. b. Verifying that needlestick prevention devices (safety needles) are used and proper disposal is performed. c. Identifying safety techniques that can be used in responding to accidental exposure to blood, other body fluids, and chemicals. d. All of the above ANSWER:

Match the terminology of the PASS method when correctly operating a fire extinguisher. Correctly complete the sentence. a. Pull b. Aim c. Squeeze d. Sweep 34. ANSWER:

the handle slowly.

35. ANSWER:

from side to side until the fire is completely out.

36. ANSWER:

at the base of the fire (not at the flames).

37. ANSWER:

the pin at the top of the extinguisher.

38. The purpose of safety data sheets (SDSs) in a health care setting is: a to import chemicals properly b. to transport chemicals between practices Page 5

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory c. to provide information about working with or handling a particular chemical substance d. all of the above ANSWER:

39. Which of the following would not be considered a protocol for disposal of biological chemical materials? a Use the PASS method to properly dispose of chemical materials. b. All universal (standard) precautions are followed and contaminated materials are properly disposed

of. c. You must wear gloves, face shield, protective eyewear. d. You must wear aprons, gowns, and hair and shoe coverings. ANSWER:

40. Which of the following is not one of the three laboratory classifications under the Clinical Laboratory

Improvement Amendments of (CLIA) 1988? a mandatory b. waived c. moderately complex, including the subcategory of provider-performed microscopy procedures

(PPMP) d. highly complex ANSWER:

41. Other bodies that provide regulation inspections of a POL are: a COLA (an independent accreditor) b. OSHA (the Occupational Safety and Health Administration) c. CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) d. All of the above ANSWER:

42. When collecting specimens from patients, the basic recommended PPE includes: a. gloves b. face shields c. respirators for airborne pathogens d. all of the above ANSWER:

43. If you write in the patient’s chart with the contaminated gloves still on: a you will avoid contaminating everything you touch b. you will not be exposing others to biohazardous residue c. you will be contaminating everything you touch and possibly exposing others to biohazardous

residue d. adhering to standard precautions ANSWER:

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory Appropriate attire and safety consideration is a necessity as a medical assistant at all times. Jewelry, hairstyles, and immunizations are discussed safety reasons. Match the type of safety issue with the description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. jewelry b. hair c. immunizations 44. Must keep it worn back and secured ANSWER:

45. Cleaned periodically to reduce the possibility of disease transmission ANSWER:

46. Could get caught on a piece of equipment or harbor pathogens in the crevices of the metal ANSWER:

47. Babies can be tempted to pull and break ANSWER:

48. You should receive the series of three HBV (hepatitis B virus) injections ANSWER:

49. For those who have respiratory conditions, having protection against pneumonia and influenza is also

generally recommended ANSWER:

50. Pathogens that are on it could be transmitted to you or the child ANSWER:

51. You could transmit the microorganisms from one patient to another ANSWER:

52. Which standard states employers must develop, implement, and maintain at the workplace a written,

comprehensive program that includes provisions for container labeling, collection and availability of safety data sheets, and an employee training program? a . b. c. d. ANSWER: 53. The

Hazard Communication Standard Blood-borne Pathogen Standard Clinical Laboratory Improvement Standards Personal Protection Standards a

is a new, single unified system for standardizing and harmonizing the classification and Page 7

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory labeling of chemicals, making it more effective, consistent, and easier to understand. a. b. c. d.

Global Communication Standard Hazard Communication System Global Harmonized System Biohazardous Global Standard

ANSWER:

54. Refrigerators used to store reagents, test kits, or biological specimens are labeled with a biohazard symbol

and bear the legend: b. c. d. ANSWER:

Only for Storage of Food and Medications Not for Storage of Food or Medications Only for Reagents, Test Kits, and Biological Specimens Keep at 32 degrees F or below b

55. Biohazard waste receptacles bear the biohazard symbol and: are lined with red plastic bags a . b. are not to be used in the critical care unit c. are only to be used in the critical care unit d. can be used for any type of waste ANSWER:

56. The agency that established guidelines concerning contact with blood and body fluids, referred to as

universal precautions, is: a. b. c. d.

the CDC OSHA HHS CLIA

ANSWER:

57. After you clean a spill involves bodily fluids such as blood or urine, the area must be thoroughly cleaned with

an effective disinfectant or: a an industrial biohazard chemical b. pads placed on the affected area and left for at least 20 minutes c. a 10 percent solution of household bleach d. a 10-second steam solution ANSWER:

58. Which of the following statements is true regarding sharps containers? a Must be easily accessible to employees. b. Must be located as close as feasible to the immediate area where sharps are used. Page 8

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory c. Must be closed using the locking mechanism in the container when the sharps reach the full line indicated on the container. d. All of the above. ANSWER: d 59. Which of the following is an important step in using eyewash equipment? a Locate the eyewash covers and verify functionality. b. Check that the flow of water is working properly by pushing on or pressing the

faucet handle. c. Check that the bowl is free of rust/trash and that water drains from the bowl. d. All of the above. ANSWER:

60. Only three elements need to be present for a fire to start. Which of the following is not one of the noted elements? a. Wood b. Heat c. Fuel d. Oxygen ANSWER: a Match the steps in reporting an unsafe condition or error in patient care to the instruction or rationale. Note: Not all steps are included. a Report the incident immediately to a supervisor for documentation. b. Assemble form or supplies. c. Fill in the demographic information about the patient. d. Fill in the location of the event. e. Complete the section regarding information about the patient factors prior to the event. f. Fill in the categories of event section. g. In the space provided, give a written description of the event. h. Add any additional persons involved. i. Complete the review section. j. Complete the corrective action section. k. Add any additional information that may be warranted and obtain signatures, titles, and dates. 61. Name and signature of the person who prepared the document as well as the signature of the supervisor

and/or manager and dates must be obtained ANSWER:

62. This includes the condition and state of the patient (check all boxes that apply) ANSWER:

63. Describe how the incident occurred. Examples: “Incorrect medication was administered to the patient”; Page 9

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Chapter 42: The Physician's Office Laboratory “Patient given incorrect time to come back for a follow-up.” ANSWER:

64. This helps determine whether an incident that does not meet safety standards or the standard of care, or

routine operations of a provider that deviate from regular operations or established procedures occurred, and the proper protocol according to your facility can be followed ANSWER:

65. Obtain the UOR form and a pen ANSWER:

66. Indicate if the medical record reflects the event accurately including the patient’s status both pre and post

event and the effect or outcome of the event ANSWER:

67. Check all boxes that apply ANSWER:

68. This includes the name of the practice or hospital name, or other if it occurred elsewhere ANSWER:

69. Include their full name, address, and telephone number ANSWER:

70. This includes the full name, gender, address, diagnosis, date of birth, attending physician, primary care

provider, and insurance information ANSWER: 71. Attach a copy of the policy and procedure affected ANSWER:

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing 1. If a urine specimen cannot be tested within an hour, it must be: a disposed of and replaced with a new specimen . b. c. d. ANSWER:

reheated to body temperature on a warmer or stove reheated to body temperature in a microwave refrigerated

2. For a midstream clean-catch specimen, patients should be instructed to cleanse the genital area antiseptic wipe. a from back to front in a single motion . b. from front to back in a single motion c. several times from side to side d. back and forth several times from front to back ANSWER: 3. Catheterization is usually performed by a: a. urologist b. medical assistant c. patient d. general practitioner ANSWER:

d using an

4. When collecting a specimen for substance abuse analysis the of a urine specimen is immediately checked for following collection and is recorded with the patient observing you. a. pH b. volume c. temperature d. color ANSWER: c 5. When checking the clarity of a urine specimen, which of these descriptions is considered worst? a. cloudy b. turbid c. hazy d. clear ANSWER:

6. If you notice that a urine specimen has a very strong ammonia-like smell, it probably indicates that the patient has: a. low blood sugar b. high blood sugar c. phenylketonuria Page 1

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing d.

a urinary tract infection

ANSWER:

7. Specific gravity is defined as the weight of substances dissolved in a specimen as compared with those found in: a. distilled water b. pure alcohol c. mineral water d. iodine ANSWER: a 8. Reagent strips are: a. b. c. d.

expensive unreliable convenient slow acting

ANSWER:

9. Unless the manufacturer’s instructions state otherwise, proper handling of reagent strips includes all but which of the following? a keeping them refrigerated . b. c. d. ANSWER:

protecting them from light capping them tightly once a strip has been removed protecting them from exposure to moisture a

10. Urine should be: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

very alkaline slightly alkaline very acidic slightly acidic

11. What color is bilirubin? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

red to orange blue to purple yellow to orange green to blue

12. A urine sample from a patient with hepatitis will have a a. white

c foam if shaken.

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing b. c. d.

green orange yellow

ANSWER: 13. When using the Ictotest, if the mat shows a a. yellowish to orange b. bluish to green c. reddish to orange d. bluish to purple ANSWER:

b color, the urine sample contains bilirubin.

14. Urine specimens that have a high number of bacteria will have a characteristic smell of: a. ammonia b. bleach c. sulfur d. vinegar ANSWER:

15. During microscopic examination of a urine sample, bacteria and epithelial cells may be quantified as: a. enlarged b. few c. clear d. heavy ANSWER:

16. What is the normal value of mucus in a urine sample? a. heavy b. much c. slight d. moderate ANSWER:

17. Occult blood specimens from stools are common screening tools for early detection of: a. colon cancer b. leukemia c. liver disease d. stomach cancer ANSWER:

18. It is recommended that a patient collect specimen(s) for occult blood specimen testing. a. no more than one b. at least three Page 3

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing c. d.

at least five no more than five

ANSWER:

19. When collecting a throat swab from a patient for the rapid test or routine culture, you swab: a the lips, cheeks, gums, teeth, tongue, and peritonsillar area b. the cheeks, gums, and peritonsillar area c. only the cheeks and peritonsillar area d. only the peritonsillar area ANSWER:

20. When performing Gram staining, if the microorganisms on the slide are identified as Gram positive, they will appear: a. bright red to maroon b. bright yellow to dark orange c. dark green to light blue d. dark blue to violet ANSWER: d Match each term with its definition. a. catheterization b. chain-of-custody c. pregnancy test d. sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) test e. ketonuria f. urobilinogen g. hematuria h. nitrite i. esterase j. glycosuria k. diabetes insipidus l. sputum specimens m. Papanicolaou n. exudate o. culturette 21. Cancer is detected in the sputum specimen through the use of this stain ANSWER:

22. Introduction of a sterile plastic tube into the bladder ANSWER:

23. Present in urine samples that have increased numbers of microorganisms, namely bacteria ANSWER:

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing 24. Precipitates albumin in a measurable visual state for reporting purposes ANSWER:

25. Indicated for diagnostic analysis when a patient has an unresolved cough with mucus production ANSWER:

26. Presence of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the urine ANSWER:

27. Condition in which large amounts of very dilute urine are excreted by the body ANSWER:

28. Measures the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood or urine ANSWER:

29. Drainage ANSWER:

30. Enzyme released by white blood cells when significant numbers of these cells are present in a fluid ANSWER:

31. Sterile swab with a soft tip that is brushed against the infected area and replaced in the sleeve of the collection device ANSWER: o 32. Once signed, this form releases you to collect a patient’s urine specimen for substance abuse testing, prepare it for transport to a testing facility, and release the results to the agency requesting the testing ANSWER: b 33. Indicates that the fat has been broken down and metabolized in the digestive tract ANSWER:

34. Condition that occurs when the glucose level in the blood is greater than what the nephrons can reabsorb, causing the glucose to “spill over” into the urine ANSWER: j 35. Normal by-product of hemoglobin degradation that occurs in the intestines by normal intestinal flora ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) b. primary media c. selective media d. Gram negative e. Thayer-Martin plate f. Lowenstein-Jensen (L-J) slant Page 5

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing g. h. i. j.

primary dye decolorizer safranin acid-fast stain

36. Used to isolate gonorrhea from vaginal or penile excretions ANSWER:

37. Agar that discourages the growth of certain organisms ANSWER:

38. Stain used when a patient is suspected of having tuberculosis ANSWER:

39. The crystal violet that is applied first when using the staining technique ANSWER:

40. Media that encourages the growth of all microorganisms ANSWER:

41. Red stain ANSWER:

42. Organism found in the intestinal tract that is commonly a source of infection in the urinary tract due to improper wiping of the anus ANSWER: d 43. Specialized test, performed only in a microbiology lab, that identifies the most appropriate antibiotic to be used as well as the lowest dose that is effective in combating an infection ANSWER: a 44. The ethanol or acetone used with the staining technique ANSWER: 45. Sea-green media used in culturing for tuberculosis ANSWER:

Each laboratory has its own reporting system. Match the guidelines for normal values to the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. WBCs b. RBCs c. spermatozoa d. yeast e. crystals f. casts Page 6

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing 46. Indicative of pathologic state in men ANSWER:

47. Females, 5 to 10/hpf (unless on menstrual period) ANSWER:

48. Indicates the disease includes cholesterol, tyrosine, cystine, leukocine, and sulfa ANSWER:

49. Calcium oxalate crystals might appear in individuals with high caffeine intake ANSWER:

50. Reported as finely granular, coarsely granular, WBC casts, RBC casts, mixed cell casts, waxy, or fatty casts;

indicative of a serious kidney (renal) problem and require immediate attention by the health care provider ANSWER:

51. Presence of this budding indicates infection with Candida albicans ANSWER:

52. Females, 10 to 20/hpf ANSWER:

53. Males 0 ANSWER:

54. Males, 0 to 10/hpf ANSWER:

55. Should not be reported in females except in rape cases and then only under legal authority because it could

be perceived as an invasion of privacy ANSWER:

Match the staining characteristics of certain bacteria and the diseases they cause. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. Gram-positive reaction (+) b. Gram-negative reaction (−) c. Gram-variable reaction 56. Causes whooping cough ANSWER:

57. Bordetella pertussis ANSWER:

b Page 7

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing 58. Causes tetanus (lockjaw) ANSWER:

59. Causes leprosy ANSWER:

60. Meningitis, pneumonia ANSWER:

61. Causes anthrax ANSWER:

62. Mycobacterium leprae ANSWER:

63. Bacillus anthracis ANSWER:

64. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ANSWER:

65. Causes tuberculosis ANSWER:

66. Haemophilus influenzae ANSWER:

67. Clostridium tetani ANSWER:

68. Which is not one of the major areas of testing in the examination of the urine? a. analytical b. physical c. chemical d. microscopic ANSWER:

69. A brown color when describing urine is usually associated with: a. blood b. old blood c. Pyridium d. jaundice ANSWER:

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing The most accurate way to describe color and clarity is to decant (pour) the specimen into a clear tube so that the opaqueness of the collection container does not adversely affect your analysis of these properties. Match the clarity with the description provided. a. clear b. slightly hazy c. hazy d. cloudy or turbid 70. You cannot see the print at all ANSWER:

71. A few particles floating around in the specimen ANSWER:

72. You can easily read print through the tube containing the specimen ANSWER:

73. The print is fuzzy ANSWER:

74. Generally a sufficient amount of urine for testing would fill a

test tube with enough left over to wet

the chemical test strip and be used for culture if ordered. a.

10 mL

b. c. d.

10 mg 10 mcd .01 mL

ANSWER:

75. When documenting in the patient’s chart and on the log books, the initials

would be used in the case of not having enough urine to perform the ordered testing, unless otherwise specified per laboratory protocol. a “CMA” (indicating the MAs credentialing and ability to perform the procedure) b. “NSQ” (non-sufficient quantity) c. “QNS” (quantity not sufficient) d. any of the above ANSWER:

76. Analyzing health care results as reported in

and also be a part of your duties. Each practice will have their own protocols on how to handle and distribute lab reports to the providers. a. b. c. d.

tables and specimen samples graphs and tables specimen samples and graphs normal and abnormal values Page 9

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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection and Processing ANSWER:

77. Identify CLIA-waived test(s) associated with the purpose of detecting pH, glucose, ketones, blood, bilirubin, urobilinogen, leukocytes, and specific gravity. a. glucose b. urinalysis c. hemoglobin A1c d. all of the above ANSWER: b

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 1. Which of the following sites is commonly used to collect a capillary blood sample? a. great finger b. thumb c. upper arm d. upper thigh ANSWER:

2. It is generally appropriate to collect a capillary blood sample from a site that is: a. bruised b. calloused c. pale d. injured ANSWER:

3. Before performing a capillary puncture, you must wipe the desired site with a prep pad soaked with: a. iodine b. alcohol c. witch hazel d. water ANSWER:

4. When performing a capillary puncture, the lancet should penetrate about a.1 b.2 c.3 d.5 ANSWER:

mm into the site.

5. Venipuncture is also known as: a. arteriography b. cardiology c. cannulation d. phlebotomy ANSWER:

6. The most popular and economical tourniquets are made of: a. disposable latex-free b. cotton c. plastic d. polyester ANSWER:

7. A standard Velcro-type tourniquet used in venipuncture is available in widths of

inches. Page 1

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection a. b. c. d.

½–1½ 1–2 ½–3 2–3

ANSWER: 8. When it is very difficult to draw blood from a patient, it is recommended that you try using a(n) a. ACE bandage b. stethoscope cord c. oversized rubber band d. blood pressure cuff ANSWER: 9. When performing a venipuncture, you should ask the patient to clench the fist: a. always b. never c. only if the vein stands out d. only if the vein does not stand out ANSWER:

b as a tourniquet.

10. When using the needle and syringe method of venipuncture, a ------- mL syringe is usually used for drawing several tubes. a. 1–5 b. 5–10 c. 10–20 d. 20–30 ANSWER: c 11. If a patient sitting in a chair faints during the venipuncture procedure, you should first: a remove the tourniquet . b. hold a bandage over the puncture site c. withdraw the needle d. help the patient carefully to the floor ANSWER:

12. If blood leaks out of the vein into the body during a venipuncture, it may cause: a. itchy, dry skin b. discoloration and swelling c. drowsiness and vertigo d. loss of sensation and nausea ANSWER:

b Page 2

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 13. Blood collection tubes with a(n) generally called CBC tubes. a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

stopper contain ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid additive (EDTA) and are orange green lavender gray c

14. Light-blue-stoppered tubes must be completely full because of the large amount of: a. nitrate b. citrate c. heparin d. oxalate ANSWER:

15. Light-blue-stoppered tubes are most often the 5-mL size and are used for: a. coagulation testing b. testing blood glucose levels c. testing several chemical constituents d. serum levels testing ANSWER:

16. Tests drawn in the light-blue-stoppered tubes should be performed within: a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 2 hours ANSWER:

17. When several blood specimens are ordered, they should be drawn into the color-coded stoppered tubes in what order? a after the special tubes, red or red/black, green, lavender, yellow, blue, gray b. after the special tubes, light-blue, red/gray, gold, green, lavender, gray c. gray, yellow, blue, green, red or red/black, lavender, then special tubes d. lavender, green, gray, yellow, blue, red or red/black, then special tubes ANSWER: b 18. Which of the following may not be kept in the specimen log book unless the test is being performed in-house? a. test results b. test requested c. date collected d. patient’s full name ANSWER: a Page 3

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 19. When performing a venipuncture with a needle and syringe, forcing blood into the tube will cause: a. hematoma b. anemia c. hemolysis d. hemophilia ANSWER:

20. When obtaining venous blood with a vacuum tube, the tip of the needle should be inserted into the vein at a degree angle. a. 90–95 b. 75–80 c. 45–50 d. 15–20 ANSWER: d

Match each term with its definition. a. finger stick b. lancet c. sharps container d. adhesive e. venipuncture f. phlebotomist g. antecubital h. tourniquet i. elasticity j. clotting 21. Veins will give somewhat when depressed because they have this ANSWER:

22. Equipment that can cut, prick, stab, or scrape the skin should be disposed of in this item ANSWER:

23. Common term for a capillary puncture ANSWER:

24. Surgical puncture of a vein ANSWER:

25. Used to promote better palpation and sometimes visual position of the veins ANSWER:

26. You should ask if a patient has an allergy to this before applying a bandage to a puncture site ANSWER:

d Page 4

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 27. Veins found in the inner arm at the bend of the elbow ANSWER:

28. Sharp item used for simple blood tests that require capillary blood ANSWER:

29. Occurs when blood in a red-stoppered tube is allowed to stand vertically and undisturbed for 45–60 minutes ANSWER:

30. Person trained to perform a surgical puncture of a vein ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. butterfly needle b. spirits of ammonia c. hematoma d. hemolysis e. serum f. centrifuge g. plasma h. plunger i. vacuum tube j. blood smear 31. Breakdown of blood cells ANSWER:

32. Inhalant used to help revive a patient who has fainted ANSWER:

33. This fills easily because the vacuum draws in blood ANSWER:

34. When blood is allowed to clot in a blood collection tube, this can be drawn off by centrifugation ANSWER:

35. Part of the syringe that is pushed in all the way to release any air from the barrel ANSWER:

36. Instrument that rotates at variable rates of speed to separate components of the blood ANSWER: 37. Method used when it is necessary to draw a blood sample from a vein on the back of a patient’s hand ANSWER:

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 38. Obtained by turning the blood collection tube upside down and gently pressing it down to release a drop of blood onto a glass slide ANSWER: j 39. Collection of blood just under the skin ANSWER:

40. Type of specimen that results when an anticoagulant is present in the vacuum tube ANSWER:

41. Which of the following is a reason for performing capillary blood collection in the medical office? a Capillary blood is an ideal sample for many screening tests that require a very small amount of

blood. b. Capillary blood is a large enough sample to conduct many technical screening tests. c. Capillary blood is too small of a sample for many screening tests that require a very small amount of blood. d. Capillary blood is too thick of a sample for many screening tests that require a very small amount of blood. ANSWER:

42. After you wipe the desired site with an alcohol-prep pad: a. blow on the skin to dry b. let it air dry c. wash your hands d. inspect the patient’s fingers ANSWER:

43. When more than a few drops of blood are required to perform tests, a

collection of blood is

performed. a. b. c. d.

capillary needlestick foot stick venous

ANSWER:

44. Blood should not be obtained from an arm that has: a a patient that has had a mastectomy with lymph node dissection on that side b. never had an intravenous line inserted c. obvious veins protruding d. all of the above ANSWER:

45. When drawing blood, in the case of a patient who has had a double mastectomy with lymph node dissection, Page 6

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection you should: a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

use a vein in the upper thigh send the patient to the nearest hospital or lab have the provider draw the blood consult with the provider d

46. If an accidental arterial puncture occurs during the venipuncture procedure: a discontinue the venipuncture immediately . b.

remove the needle

apply direct forceful pressure to the puncture site

all of the above

ANSWER:

47. If an accidental arterial puncture occurs during the venipuncture procedure: a apply direct forceful pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle for a minimum of five

minutes until active bleeding has ceased b. notify the provider c. document the incident according to facility policy d. all of the above ANSWER:

48. Another method to encourage blood flow in patients whose blood is difficult to draw is

on the antecubital area for a few minutes before you begin the procedure to help make the veins stand out to the touch if not to the sight. a . b.

to use presaturated cotton ball

c. d.

to pump the fist for at least three minutes all of the above

to place a warm compress

ANSWER:

There are several methods of performing the venipuncture procedure. Match the method with the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. needle and syringe method b. vacuum method c. butterfly needle method 49. The most popular because it is so convenient ANSWER:

b Page 7

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 50. Used because some patients are extremely difficult to obtain blood from, such as infants and small children,

the elderly, or patients who have small veins ANSWER:

51. Blood specimens enter directly into the tubes for the desired tests rather than having to be transferred ANSWER: b 52. Often used when very small veins are involved because it is less damaging to the tissues ANSWER:

53. Can be used with a syringe or a Vacutainer holder and specimen tubes ANSWER:

54. Usually, a 10- to 20-mL syringe is used when drawing several tubes, each 5–10 mL ANSWER:

55. Specimens can be collected from the same veins as a regular phlebotomy draw or from a vein on the back of

the hand using a smaller-gauge needle ANSWER:

56. As a safety consideration, patients who say they feel faint: a should put their head down between their knees . b. c. d. ANSWER:

should be asked to stand up should place on ice pack on the puncture site all of the above a

57. The law regarding who performs venipuncture: a. is a national standard b. varies by region c. varies from state to state d. is regulated by CLIA ANSWER:

58. Identify the safety device on a needle to protect users from accidental needle injury. a. sterile lancet b. intravenous puncture needle c. BD Eclipse Blood Collection needle d. none of the above ANSWER:

59. Blood in specimen tubes that contain an anticoagulant must be inverted immediately

times. Gentle Page 8

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection inversion prevents hemolysis. a. b. c. d.

eight 10 at least five 8–10

ANSWER:

60. The tubes that contain SST gel tubes must stand for a. 45 b. 30 c. d. ANSWER:

minutes.

60 8–10 b

Match the colors of the tubes by what additives are contained in the tubes and any special directions. Note:

Answers may be used more than once. a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i.

special clear (discarded tubes) light blue red red/gray gold (SST) green lavender gray

61. No additive ANSWER:

62. Clot activator, gel separator ANSWER:

63. Heparin ANSWER:

64. Sodium citrate ANSWER:

65. Do not invert glass ANSWER:

66. Culture media ANSWER:

a Page 9

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Chapter 44: Blood Specimen Collection 67. Gel separator, clot activator ANSWER:

68. Must draw first using sterile technique ANSWER:

69. EDTA ANSWER:

70. Invert plastic 5 times ANSWER:

71. Potassium oxalate and sodium flouride ANSWER:

72. Invert 3–4 times ANSWER:

73. No anticoagulant (glass); Silicon coating (plastic) ANSWER:

74. Do not cleanse site with alcohol ANSWER:

75. Invert 8–10 times ANSWER:

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing 1. The primary function of the is delivering oxygen to the cells and picking up carbon dioxide to be exhaled. a. red blood cells b. white blood cells c. platelets d. lymph cells ANSWER: a 2. The normal range of hemoglobin for females is g/dL. a. 5–9 b. 8–12 c. 12–16 d. 14–18 ANSWER:

3. When a patient experiences polycythemia, the bone marrow is producing: a an insufficient amount of white blood cells . b. too many white blood cells c. an insufficient amount of red blood cells d. too many red blood cells ANSWER:

4. Which type of blood may be used for a hematocrit? a. arterial or venous b. capillary or venous c. arterial or capillary d. arterial, capillary, or venous ANSWER:

5. The normal hematocrit range for adult males is a. 4–10 b. 16–25 c. 37–47 d. 42–52 ANSWER:

percent.

6. A decrease in the total number of red blood cells constitutes a type of: a. anemia b. HIV infection c. hemophilia d. leukemia ANSWER:

a Page 1

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing 7. The normal ESR rate value for a female is mm/hr. a. 50–100 b. 25–50 c. 0–20 d. 0–10 ANSWER:

8. What is the average glucose tolerance range for a fasting specimen? a. 35–86 mg/dL b. 70–100 mg/dL c. 85–136 mg/dL d. 110–132 mg/dL ANSWER:

9. Infectious mononucleosis is an illness caused by the a. Epstein Barr b. bovine mammillitis c. mucosal disease d. Sena Madureira ANSWER:

virus.

10. A life-threatening allergic reaction must be counteracted with an injection of: a. antibiotics b. insulin c. adrenaline d. testosterone ANSWER: 11. Following an allergy immunotherapy injection, the patient must be observed for a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 60 ANSWER:

c minutes for a possible reaction.

12. The extracts of substances used in allergy immunotherapy: a may vary in strength from one company to another . b. c. d. ANSWER:

should never be refrigerated are manufactured as transdermal patches should never be applied to a patient’s skin a Page 2

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing 13. When performing an allergy scratch test, the scratches should be a. ½–1 inch b. 1–2 inches c. 1–1½ inches d. 1½–2 inches ANSWER:

apart.

14. On which part of the body is a patch test typically performed? a. back b. leg c. arm d. chest ANSWER: 15. When a nasal smear is performed, the secretions are examined to determine the a. eosinophil b. platelet c. bacteria d. erythrocyte ANSWER:

c count.

16. Which of the following is not a symptom commonly observed in the first stages of HIV infection? a. fatigue b. vomiting c. weight loss d. lymph node swelling ANSWER:

17. When HDL cholesterol levels are mg/dL after fasting, the patient is more apt to have deposits of plaque in the arteries. a. between 8 and 20 b. between 50 and 100 c. less than 45 d. greater than 100 ANSWER: c Match each term with its definition. a. anemia b. panic value c. morphology d. Wright’s stain e. neutrophils Page 3

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing f. g. h. i. j. k.

B lymphocytes monocytes rouleaux pattern fasting glucose tolerance test (GTT) glycohemoglobin

18. Usually ordered when a patient has a consistently high fasting blood sugar (FBS) ANSWER:

19. Abnormalities of the red blood cells such as size and shape ANSWER:

20. Modified form of hemoglobin that is elevated when the blood glucose remains high ANSWER:

21. Their functions include phagocytosis of microorganisms and cell debris and cooperation in immune response ANSWER: g 22. Medical name for when a patient’s circulating erythrocytes are deficient ANSWER:

23. Cannot be formed by the red blood cells of a patient with sickle cell anemia ANSWER:

24. Their functions include phagocytosis, killing of bacteria, and releasing a pyrogen that produces fever ANSWER:

25. Always requires immediate intervention by a health care provider ANSWER:

26. Laboratories commonly use this prior to reviewing a slide under the oil immersion lens of a microscope when performing a WBC differential ANSWER: d 27. Their functions include humoral immunity and the production of specific antibodies against viruses, bacteria, and other proteins ANSWER: f 28. Having nothing to eat or drink for at least 12 hours prior to a test ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. plaque b. immunoassays c. radioallergosorbent test (RAST) Page 4

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing d. e. f. g. h. i. j.

histamine epinephrine phenylketonuria (PKU) liver panel kidney function test creatine kinase (CK) prothrombin time (PT)

29. Should be administered about an inch above the site by order of the provider if severe reaction occurs during intradermal allergy testing ANSWER: e 30. Enzyme found in muscles that is released if a muscle is damaged ANSWER:

31. Screening test done with capillary blood from an infant’s heel ANSWER:

32. Diagnostic tests that use techniques for measuring the amount of antigens and antibodies present relative to a specific illness ANSWER: b 33. Coagulation test commonly used to assess the therapeutic range of warfarin therapy ANSWER:

34. Test that determines the presence of immunoglobulins that are present in greater amounts in those with allergies ANSWER: c 35. This might include electrolytes, BUN, and creatinine ANSWER:

36. Naturally produced by the body to attach itself to certain cells to cause dilation of blood vessels and contraction of smooth muscles ANSWER: d 37. Substance that can build up on the inside of the arteries if cholesterol levels stay elevated for an extended period of time ANSWER: a 38. This would include enzymes and chemistries related to liver function and dysfunction ANSWER:

39. During the allergy patient’s visit, especially if he or she is recently diagnosed as such, advice concerning the

condition and the prevention of further problems is well received. Which of the following suggestions for discussion would not be appropriate with patients who have allergies? a Advise them to monitor consumption of what they are allergic to. Page 5

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing b. Instruct patients to read all labels carefully (household products, clothing, consumable products,

etc.) to identify possible allergens. c. If patients have a known severe reaction to a particular substance, remind them to carry their EpiPen kit with them at all times. d. Advise them to take only prescribed medication and to avoid OTC medications unless advised by the provider. ANSWER:

40. Phenylketonuria is a congenital disease caused by a defect in the metabolism of the phenylalanine amino

acid. This unmetabolized protein accumulates in the bloodstream and can prevent the brain from developing normally. If this condition goes undetected and untreated, the result is: a. b. c. d.

congenital abnormality mental retardation cleft palate dwarfism

ANSWER:

Match the chemistry to the normal range and the indication if abnormal. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. total cholesterol b. HDL cholesterol c. LDL cholesterol d. triglycerides e. creatinine f. uric acid g. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) h. sodium (Na) i. potassium (K) j. CK (creatinine kinase) k. prothrombin time (PT) 41. 40–150 mg/dL (fasting) ANSWER:

42. Essential for proper muscle functioning, particularly for the heart muscle ANSWER:

43. 0.7–1.4 mg/dL ANSWER:

44. Atherosclerosis, arteriosclerosis ANSWER:

45. <100 mg/dL (fasting) Page 6

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing ANSWER:

46. The responsible agent for gouty arthritis when levels exceed 7.5 mg/dL ANSWER: 47. This is a lipid but is not as structurally complex as cholesterol molecules ANSWER:

48. 3.5–5.2 mEq/L ANSWER: 49. 130–200 mg/dL (fasting) ANSWER:

50. 3.5–7.5 mg/dL ANSWER:

51. This is the bad cholesterol ANSWER:

52. >45 mg/dL (fasting) ANSWER:

53. When levels become elevated, it can indicate a problem with renal function ANSWER:

54. This is the good cholesterol ANSWER:

55. Primarily responsible for depositing plaque on the interior of arterial walls ANSWER:

56. The function of this type of cholesterol is to transport the bad cholesterol out of the vessels and to the liver ANSWER: b 57. Levels are above 145 mEq/L indicates a level of dehydration ANSWER:

58. One of the waste products found in urine ANSWER:

59. 132–145 mEq/L ANSWER:

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing 60. 8–20 mg/dL ANSWER:

61. Normal 10–13 seconds; International normalized ratio (INR): 1.0–1.4 ANSWER:

62. This enzyme is especially helpful in diagnosing a myocardial infarction (MI) in patients with chest pain. ANSWER: j Match the type of white blood cell with the percent in a normal WBC and its function. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. eosinophils b. basophils c. T lymphocytes d. monocytes 63. 0.3  1 ANSWER:

64. 4  3 ANSWER:

65. Cell-mediated immunity, including delayed hypersensitivity and graft rejection ANSWER:

66. Phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes; killing of parasites ANSWER:

67. Phagocytosis of microorganisms and cell debris ANSWER:

68. Regulation of immune response ANSWER:

69. Release of chemical mediators of immediate hypersensitivity ANSWER:

70. 2.7  2 ANSWER:

71. Cooperation in immune response ANSWER:

72. If you have to open a new bottle of reagent strips or a new test kit during the day, you might need to: Page 8

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Chapter 45: Diagnostic Testing a b. c. d. ANSWER:

calibrate the instrument change the code to agree with what is printed on the bottle repeat the quality controls all of the above d

73. With strict regulations regarding quality control and quality assurance, you are required to keep a log book to record all specimens and the results of the tests performed. The log should include all but which the following? a patient’s date of birth b. tests performed c. any kit, reagent strip, or reagent lot numbers and expiration dates d. patient’s name ANSWER: a 74. The chief function of the white blood cells is: a to deliver oxygen to the cells b. to pick up carbon dioxide to be exhaled c. to protect the body against invaders such as bacteria and viruses d. stop bleeding when an injury occurs ANSWER:

75. When a patient’s hemoglobin falls below 10 g/dL, the patient can experience: a shortness of breath and tiredness and have a pale appearance to his or her skin b. pale appearance to his or her skin and a rapid heart beat c. rapid heartbeat and shortness of breath d. irregular heartbeat ANSWER:

76. Medical assistants are not trained to perform WBC counts, but it is useful for you to have an idea of what

such a report entails. This knowledge is useful in as reported in graphs and tables to ensure the results are being delivered to providers for evaluation in a timely manner. a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

reporting to the FDA and OSHA updating the patient portal analyzing the specific content analyzing health care results d

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures 1. The first part of the cardiac cycle is called: a. atrial repolarization b. ventricular repolarization c. atrial depolarization d. ventricular depolarization ANSWER:

2. ECGs are most often performed along with the routine annual physical examination every: a. year b. 3–5 years c. 5–10 years d. 7–12 years ANSWER:

3. The ECG tracing is generated in about on a single 8 × 10 sheet of ECG paper. a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 3 minutes d. 5 minutes ANSWER:

4. Who interprets an ECG? a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

provider medical assistant patient cardiologist

5. ECG paper for single-channel machines comes in which form? a. roll b. single sheets c. pad d. wire-bound notebook ANSWER:

6. The paper moves through an ECG machine at a rate of a.5 b. c. d. ANSWER:

7. The distance across

mm per second. 10 15 25

large square(s) on ECG paper represents 1.0 second. Page 1

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures a. b. c. d.

one five 10 25

ANSWER:

8. The bipolar leads are attached to which parts of the body? a upper left and right sides of the chest . b. upper outer thighs and inner lower forearms c. upper outer arms and inner lower calves d. upper inner arms and outer lower calves ANSWER:

9. Which ECG lead records the voltage difference between the left arm and the left leg? a. lead I b. lead II c. lead III d. lead IV ANSWER:

10. The records the heart’s voltage difference between the left leg electrode and a central point between the right arm and left arm. a. aVG b. aVR c. aVL d. aVF ANSWER: d 11. Cardiac patients should be instructed to: a take their prescribed medication regularly and report any problems immediately b. eat a low-fat, high-sodium diet c. drink at least one alcoholic beverage a day d. practice stress-inducing behaviors ANSWER:

12. If the ECG tracing is too large, the sensitivity dial should be turned down to ½ to produce a standardization mark: a. 10 mm high and 2 mm wide b. 5 mm high and 2 mm wide c. 15 mm high and 4 mm wide d. 20 mm high and 4 mm wide ANSWER: b Page 2

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures 13. If the ECG cycles are too close together, the speed can be changed to a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 ANSWER:

mm per second.

14. When placing the ECG electrodes on a patient’s lower leg, the connectors should point: a. up b. down c. to the patient’s left d. to the patient’s right ANSWER:

15. Atrial fibrillation: a is seen only in patients with cardiac disease b. is caused only by hypertension c. produces a heart rate that ranges from 400 to 500 BPM d. is indicated by a cardiac cycle that occurs before the next cycle is due ANSWER:

16. Premature ventricular contractions are not commonly seen in patients with: a. hypertension b. coronary artery disease c. lung disease d. leukemia ANSWER:

17. Ventricular fibrillation is seen in patients with: a. lung disease b. cardiac disease c. liver disease d. colon cancer ANSWER:

18. When using a Holter monitor, the ECG electrodes are attached to a patient’s: a. shoulders b. lower back c. upper arms d. chest wall ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. Page 3

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l.

electrocardiogram sinoatrial (SA) node Purkinje fibers repolarization obesity electrodes amplifier galvanometer stylus dot matrix paper augmented interference

19. Placed on the patient’s limbs and chest for an ECG ANSWER:

20. Makes tracings easy to read and copy because they are clear and legible and standardized, creating a universal reading process for all providers ANSWER: j 21. Procedure frequently used in the diagnosis of heart disease and dysfunction ANSWER:

22. Pacemaker of the heart ANSWER:

23. To become larger ANSWER:

24. Ventricular action that is represented by the T wave on the ECG paper ANSWER:

25. Part of the ECG machine that enlarges the electrical impulses ANSWER:

26. Any movement of the patient during the ECG may cause this on the tracing ANSWER:

27. Cause the muscles of the ventricles to contract and produce the QRS complex of waves on the ECG paper ANSWER:

28. Part of the ECG machine that transforms electrical impulses into mechanical motion ANSWER:

29. Usually accompanies a sedentary lifestyle Page 4

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures ANSWER:

30. Heated pen-like instrument that produces a printed representation on the ECG paper ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. somatic tremor b. AC interference c. interrupted baseline d. arrhythmia e. sinus bradycardia f. tachycardia g. Holter monitor h. ECG stress test i. echocardiography j. defibrillator 31. Device used to perform a “24-hour ECG” on patients who have normal routine ECGs but still have intermittent or irregular chest pain or discomfort ANSWER: g 32. Heart rate of less than 60 BPM ANSWER:

33. Caused by an electrode becoming separated from the wire or by a broken lead wire ANSWER:

34. Device designed to provide a countershock to convert an irregular heart rhythm to a regular sinus rhythm ANSWER: 35. Caused by electrical activity ANSWER:

36. Noninvasive diagnostic tool that tests the structure and function of the heart through the use of sound waves ANSWER: 37. An irregularity in the heart’s rhythm ANSWER:

38. Heart rate of above 100 BPM ANSWER: 39. Performed on patients who are at high risk for developing heart disease ANSWER:

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures 40. Shivering from nervousness or cold or a neurological condition ANSWER:

Match the lead with the anatomical position of the chest or precordial leads. a. V1 b.

41. Fifth intercostal space on left midclavicular line ANSWER:

42. Horizontal to V4 at midaxillary line ANSWER:

43. Horizontal to V4 at left anterior axillary line ANSWER:

44. Fourth intercostal space at left margin of sternum ANSWER:

45. Fourth intercostal space at right margin of sternum ANSWER:

46. Midway between V2 and V4 ANSWER:

Match each term to its definition. a. artifacts b. atrial depolarization c. cardiology d. countershock e. current f. echoes g. impulse h. intermittent i. interpretive j. interval k. limbs l. mechanical Page 6

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures m. n. o. p. q. r. s. t. u.

multichannel precordial reliable sedentary segment simultaneous standardization trace voltage

47. A high-intensity, short-duration electric shock applied to the area of the heart, resulting in total cardiac

depolarization ANSWER:

48. A charge transmitted through certain tissues, especially nerve fibers and muscles, resulting in physiologic

activity ANSWER:

49. The heart’s electrical activity as waveforms moving through the heart ANSWER:

50. Time between events; space; on an ECG, the period that includes one segment and one or more waves i.e.,

P-R interval ANSWER:

51. Dependable, can be relied upon ANSWER:

52. The portion of ECG between two waves ANSWER:

53. Something extraneous to what is being looked for; activity that causes interference on ECG’s ANSWER:

54. Reflections of sound ANSWER:

55. Occurring at the same time ANSWER:

56. A measure of electromotive force ANSWER:

57. Refers to the arms and legs Page 7

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures ANSWER:

58. Process of bringing into conformity with a standard; pertaining to ECG, a mark made at the beginning of

each lead to establish a standard of reference ANSWER:

59. Pertaining to machinery ANSWER:

60. The study of the heart and its diseases ANSWER:

61. Computerized analysis of ECG tracings ANSWER:

62. Pertaining to that area of the chest wall over the heart for the placement of ECG chest leads ANSWER:

63. The production of a sketch by means of a stylus passing over the paper, as in electrocardiography ANSWER: 64. Pertaining to sitting; inactivity ANSWER: 65. Refers to the capability of ECG equipment of processing impulses from multiple leads ANSWER:

66. Stopping and starting again at intervals ANSWER:

67. The first part of the cardiac cycle ANSWER:

Match the lead arrangement with the electrodes connected for an ECG with the description provided. a. lead I b. lead II c. lead III d. aVR e. aVL f. aVF 68. RA and (LA-LL) ANSWER:

69. LA and RA Page 8

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Chapter 46: Cardiology Procedures ANSWER:

70. LA and (RA-LL) ANSWER:

71. LL and RA ANSWER:

72. LL and (RA-LA) ANSWER: 73. LL and LA ANSWER:

Match the color code of the ECG electrode (body and insert). a. RL b. LL c. RA d. LA 74. body green / insert green ANSWER:

75. body white / insert gray ANSWER:

76. body red / insert red ANSWER:

77. body black / insert gray ANSWER:

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures 1. During screening, you should always ask female patients for the: date of the last day of menstrual flow of their last menstrual period b. date of the first day of menstrual flow of their last menstrual period c. estimated date of the last day of menstrual flow of their next menstrual period d. estimated date of the first day of menstrual flow of their next menstrual period ANSWER:

2. The X-ray was discovered in 1895 by: a. Wilhelm Konrad Roentgen b. Xavier Raymond Kord c. Thomas Alva Edison d. Marie Sklodowska Curie ANSWER:

3. Which type of radiation therapy allows deep penetration for deep tumors and is performed on an outpatient basis? a. transduction b. brachytherapy c. sonography d. teletherapy ANSWER: d 4. Which type of radiation therapy involves placing radioactive implants close to or into cancerous tissue? a. transduction b. brachytherapy c. sonography d. teletherapy ANSWER:

5. In preparation for a cholecystogram, the patient should: a drink several carbonated beverages the day before the test b. eat a low-fat meal the evening before the test c. refrain from taking any regularly prescribed medications d. eat a high-fat meal the morning of the test ANSWER:

6. The contrast medium for a cholecystogram is usually in a. patch b. liquid c. pill d. powder ANSWER:

form.

7. Which technique has replaced the cholecystogram? Page 1

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures a. b. c. d.

abdominal ultrasound abdominal X-ray CT scan magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

ANSWER:

8. During an upper GI series, the radiologist observes the flow of the contrast medium directly by means of a(n): a. radioscope b. fluoroscope c. cystoscope d. otoscope ANSWER: b 9. In preparation for an upper GI series, the patient should be instructed to drink: a. anything they want b. only water and carbonated beverages c. only milk and water d. only clear liquids ANSWER:

10. After ingesting barium, a patient’s stool may appear: a. lighter in color than usual b. darker than usual c. more loose than usual d. a bright red or blue color ANSWER:

11. During a barium enema, patients should be told to: a breathe through the nose slowly and deeply . b. breathe through the mouth slowly and deeply c. hold their breath d. take short, shallow breaths ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is used as the contrast medium for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)? a. red dye b. calcium c. barium d. iodine ANSWER:

13. A retrograde pyelogram is usually done in conjunction with which procedure? Page 2

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures a. b. c. d.

upper GI series lower GI series cystoscopy colonoscopy

ANSWER:

14. The KUB (kidneys, ureters, bladder) X-ray is not used to: a diagnose urinary system diseases and disorders b. confirm that a patient is pregnant c. help determine the position of an intrauterine device (IUD) d. locate foreign bodies in the digestive tract ANSWER:

15. After age 40, women are urged to have a mammography every a. 1–2 b. 3–5 c. 5–10 d. 8–12 ANSWER:

years.

16. The breasts are compressed during a mammography because doing so: a breaks apart any small tumors that may be present . b. c. d. ANSWER:

is more comfortable for the patient requires less radiation to be used eliminates the need to use radiation c

17. If the breasts become discolored after a mammogram: a it is the result of dyes used during the procedure b. the patient should immediately be transported to the hospital c. it means the breast tissue has been damaged d. the patient should not be alarmed ANSWER:

18. When scheduling patients for an abdominal ultrasound, you should tell them to: a. avoid eating foods that produce gas b. refrain from drinking fluids c. void after drinking fluids d. eat and drink anything they want ANSWER:

a Page 3

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures 19. An MRI: a is an invasive procedure b. requires that the patient stand alone in a special padded room c. can last from 30 to 60 minutes d. requires extensive patient preparation ANSWER:

20. Female patients should refrain from wearing a. plastic jewelry b. mascara c. loose clothing d. contact lenses ANSWER:

during an MRI.

Match each term with its definition. a. dosimeter b. lead shield c. roentgen rays d. therapeutic radiation e. contrast agent f. oral cholecystogram g. sonography h. upper GI series i. lower GI series j. double contrast 21. Radiation therapy used in the treatment of cancer to prevent cellular reproduction ANSWER:

22. Using sound waves with a frequency of over 20,000 vibrations per second to produce images of the internal structures of the body ANSWER: g 23. Radiation exposure badge ANSWER:

24. Also known as a gallbladder series ANSWER:

25. Another name for a barium enema ANSWER: 26. Worn as protection any time you may be exposed to radiation ANSWER:

b Page 4

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures 27. Also known as a barium swallow ANSWER:

28. Added during a radiologic procedure to improve visualization by changing the density of the structure being assessed ANSWER: e 29. Using a combination of crystals with a small amount of water to add air to the stomach during a barium enema ANSWER: j 30. High-energy electromagnetic radiation produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an X-ray tube ANSWER: c Match each term with its definition. a. retrograde pyelogram b. KUB (kidneys, ureters, bladder) c. mammography d. mild analgesic e. computed tomography (CT) f. nuclear medicine g. uptake study h. ultrasonography i. invasive ultrasound j. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 31. Use of a vaginal probe during a pelvic ultrasound to aid in visualizing internal structures ANSWER:

32. Study of the urinary tract done by inserting a sterile catheter into the urinary meatus, through the bladder, and up into the ureters ANSWER: a 33. Taken to relieve discomfort or aching a patient may experience after a mammogram ANSWER:

34. Branch of medicine that uses radionuclides in the diagnosis and treatment of disease ANSWER:

35. Procedure that allows providers to examine a particular area of the body without exposing patients to X-rays or surgery ANSWER: j 36. Aids in the diagnosis of breast masses ANSWER:

37. Method of radiology involving the rapid scanning of single-tissue planes by a process that generates images of the Page 5

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures tissue in “slices” about 1 cm thick ANSWER:

38. Used in the examination of the abdominopelvic cavity to locate aneurysms of the aorta and other blood vessel abnormalities ANSWER: h 39. X-ray of a patient’s abdomen; sometimes termed flat plate of abdomen ANSWER:

40. Procedure in which a patient ingests a radioactive substance under careful supervision and returns within 24 hours to have the amount of radioactive substance in a particular organ measured ANSWER: g Match the type of ultrasound with the preparation required for the procedure. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. abdominal ultrasound b. pelvic or fetal ultrasound 41. Drink 24–30 ounces of fluid one hour before examination ANSWER:

42. No breakfast on the morning of the examination ANSWER:

43. Take nothing by mouth after midnight ANSWER:

44. Do not urinate after drinking the liquid ANSWER:

45. Which of the following is not a contraindication for an MRI procedure? a patients who are allergic to iodine . b. c. d. ANSWER:

patients who have pacemakers patients who have metallic implants patients who are severely claustrophobic or are obese a

Match the following term with its definition or description. a. brachytherapy b. claustrophobia c. compression d. conjunction Page 6

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n.

cystoscopy diagnostic distends electromagnetic electromagnetic radiation electron enema evacuants fluoroscope implants

46. Referring to measures that assist in the recognition of diseases and disorders of the body ANSWER:

47. A minute particle of matter charged with the smallest known amount of negative electricity; opposite of

proton ANSWER:

48. To exert force against, press ANSWER:

49. A medication that promotes emptying of the bowels ANSWER:

50. A specialized field of radiology that involves the use of both electrical and magnetic fields for diagnosis of

disease processes ANSWER:

51. A situation in which two or more things happen at the same time or in the same place ANSWER:

52. A device consisting of a fluorescent screen in conjunction with an X-ray tube to make visible shadows of

objects interposed between the screen and the tube ANSWER:

53. An abnormal fear of being in enclosed or confined places ANSWER:

54. To become inflated, to stretch out ANSWER:

55. Something implanted into tissue; a graft; artificial part ANSWER:

n Page 7

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures 56. A diagnostic procedure performed with a cystoscope that allows a provider to look at the inside of the

bladder and urethra, collect urine samples, and examine the prostate gland; it also enables biopsies to be taken or small stones to be removed by way of a hollow channel ANSWER:

57. A type of radiation therapy that places radioactive isotopes in or near the tumor ANSWER:

58. Rays produced by the collision of a beam of electrons with a metal target in an X-ray tube ANSWER: 59. Introduces the contrast medium into the colon via a tube ANSWER:

Match the term to its description or definition. a. iodine b. lesion c. maturity d. planes e. positron emission tomography f. radioactive g. radiograph h. radiologist i. radiopaque j. residual barium k. teletherapy l. transducer 60. A record produced on a photographic plate, film, or paper by the action of X-ray or radium ANSWER:

61. A flat or relatively smooth surface; points of reference by which positions or parts of the body are indicated ANSWER: d 62. Impenetrable to the X-ray or other forms of radiation ANSWER:

63. A contrast medium; patients may have an allergy to this substance and a different preparation must be used ANSWER: a 64. Barium remaining in the intestinal tract following evacuation at the completion of X-ray studies ANSWER:

65. A device that transforms power from one system to another in the same or different form Page 8

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures ANSWER:

66. A form of imaging permitting visualizing the physiologic function of the body ANSWER:

67. An injury or wound; a circumscribed area of pathologically altered tissue ANSWER:

68. Capable of emitting radiant energy ANSWER: 69. A state of full development ANSWER:

70. Radiation therapy administered by a machine that is positioned at some distance from the patient ANSWER: k 71. One who diagnoses and treats disease by the use of radiant energy ANSWER:

72. In an all-liquid diet, the patient may have all of the following, except: a. milk b. coffee or tea c. clear gelatin desserts d. strained fruit juice ANSWER:

73. Which of the following is the patient encouraged to do in preparation for a mammogram? a. Apply deodorant. b. Apply perfume or scented lotion. c. Wash the chest and underarms. d. Use powder to keep dry. ANSWER:

74. Which of the following is the preparation for intravenous pyelogram (IVP)? a All-liquid diet. b. Day prior to the examination, take three Dulcolax 5 mg tablets from 2 to 4 p.m. c. Drink only one glass of liquid on the morning of the exam. d. All of the above ANSWER:

75. Because a mammogram is often very uncomfortable and even sometimes painful for many women, which of

the following suggestion(s) might be helpful in reducing discomfort? Page 9

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Chapter 47: Radiology Procedures a At the advice of the provider, a mild analgesic may be taken to relieve any discomfort or aching the

patient might experience. b. Advise patients to continue with normal caffeine use for at least 7–10 days prior to this examination to reduce the possible effects of swelling and soreness. c. After the procedure, some areas of the breasts might become temporarily discolored; alert the provider and/or technician immediately as this may be a cause for concern. d. Schedule the mammography during the last week of the patient’s menstrual cycle. ANSWER:

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery 1. On the day of surgery, a patient should not wear: a clothing that is easy to put on and take off . b. c. d. ANSWER:

clothing appropriate for the anatomical area of surgery restrictive clothing loose-fitting clothing c

2. Which of these statements is false? a A surgical instrument’s function can often be determined by visual inspection. b. Surgical instruments typically have numerous functions. c. The surgical instruments used in a medical office are very costly. d. All surgical instruments must be properly labeled and sterilized. ANSWER:

3. Surgical instruments should be soaked in a use. a. boiling b. warm c. room-temperature d. chilled ANSWER:

solution containing a detergent and a solvent immediately after each

4. Surgical instruments should be placed in a container made of edges. a. plastic b. stainless steel c. copper d. wood ANSWER:

to prevent damage to their points and cutting

5. Operating scissors are used to cut: a. dressings and tissue b. dressings and tape c. tape and sutures d. tissue ANSWER:

6. Which type of forceps are used to grasp towels and dressings and hold drape towels in place? a. Brown b. Backhaus c. Thumb Page 1

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery d.

Judd-Allis

ANSWER: 7. A

b needle holder is used to grasp suture needles. a. Jones b. Mosquito c. Spencer d. Olsen Hegar

ANSWER:

8. Adson forceps are used to: a. pick up delicate tissue b. remove splinters c. close skin d. grasp delicate tissue ANSWER:

9. Autoclaved items remain sterile if they have been properly processed and protected from moisture for a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 45 ANSWER: 10. The process of maintaining sterility throughout a surgical procedure is called a. aseptic b. anesthetic c. antimicrobial d. hemostatic ANSWER:

days.

technique.

11. Which of the following terms is defined as the process of destroying all disease-causing microorganisms? a. sanitizing b. disinfection c. cleansing d. sterilization ANSWER: d 12. Sterilization can occur via all but which of the following methods? a. autoclave b. soap and hot water c. dry heat d. gas Page 2

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery ANSWER:

13. Which of the following is not a chemical agent commonly used to sterilize certain surgical instruments? a. dihydrogen monoxide b. glutaraldehyde c. chlorine dioxide d. sodium hypochlorite ANSWER:

14. A routine hand washing for medical asepsis should take a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

seconds. 10 15 30 60

15. Which of the following is not a common surgical position? a. prone b. Fowler’s c. Trendelenburg d. lithotomy ANSWER:

16. Prior to surgery, a patient’s skin should be prepped with: a. soap and water b. a mild bleach solution c. ammonia d. an antiseptic ANSWER:

Match each instrument component with its description or purpose. a. ring handle b. thumb handle c. ratchet d. serrations e. teeth 17. Locking mechanism designed to close in varying degrees to hold the instrument closed ANSWER:

18. Designed to allow the thumb and finger to be inserted into the rings ANSWER:

19. Very sharp projections designed to hold the tissue when grasping Page 3

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery ANSWER:

20. Similar to the handle of a tweezer that is squeezed between the thumb and finger ANSWER:

21. Little fissures engraved into the surface of the blades of hemostats and forceps designed to prevent slippage ANSWER: d Match each surgical instrument with its use. (Answers may be used more than once.) a. cutting b. clamping or grasping c. dilating/probing 22. Scopes ANSWER:

23. Scissors ANSWER:

24. Forceps ANSWER:

25. Hemostats ANSWER:

26. Probes ANSWER:

27. Scalpels ANSWER:

28. Needle holders ANSWER:

29. Retractors ANSWER:

30. Specula ANSWER:

31. Clamps ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. fasting b. soaking solution Page 4

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n.

Mayo stand sterile drape medical asepsis surgical asepsis hand antiseptics dry heat jewelry sterile gown consent form strikethrough antiseptic acupuncture

32. Drapes are designed to prevent the spread of bacteria and this ANSWER:

33. Aims to reduce the number of microbes associated with diseases ANSWER:

34. This should not be worn during a surgical procedure because it harbors microbes ANSWER:

35. This should contain a special protein that breaks down blood and body fluids on the surface of surgical instruments ANSWER: b 36. Must be completed when the patient arrives for surgery ANSWER:

37. Process in which sterilization is accomplished by raising the temperature of surgical instruments to the designated temperature that renders them sterile ANSWER: h 38. Reaching over this will contaminate it ANSWER:

39. When assisting with this type of procedure, preparation of the skin is simply to apply a product such as alcohol ANSWER: n 40. Total removal of all microbes associated with diseases ANSWER: 41. Often recommended prior to surgery to lessen the possibility of nausea and vomiting ANSWER:

42. Applied to a patient’s skin prior to surgery to reduce microbial growth Page 5

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery ANSWER:

43. Something that must be worn by anyone assisting in surgery ANSWER:

44. A stainless steel removable instrument tray set on a movable stand that is positioned over or adjacent to a surgical site; it provides a place for sterile instruments and supplies used during surgery ANSWER: c 45. Designed to inhibit and kill bacteria but should not take the place of proper hand washing ANSWER:

Match the following terms to its description or definition. a. anesthetic b. aseptic technique c. contamination d. fenestrated e. forceps f. hemostat g. microbial h. microorganism i. needle holder j. postoperative (postop) 46. An instrument used to grasp tissue and to clamp blood vessels ANSWER:

47. Instrument used to hold a suture needle during the suturing process ANSWER:

48. Related to microbes ANSWER:

49. The process of maintaining sterility throughout a surgical procedure ANSWER:

50. After or following a surgical procedure ANSWER: 51. An agent that produces insensibility to pain or touch, either generally or locally ANSWER: 52. A type of forceps ANSWER:

f Page 6

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery 53. Having a window or opening ANSWER:

54. A microscopic living body not perceivable by the naked eye ANSWER:

55. Placed in contact with microorganisms ANSWER:

Match the following terms to its description or definition. a. preoperative (preop) b. ratchet c. retractor d. scrub e. serrations f. speculum g. surgical asepsis 56. Specific and thorough hand washing procedure performed for six minutes before taking part in any sterile

surgical procedure ANSWER:

57. Instrument used to hold back tissue, making the operative site easier to visualize ANSWER:

58. An instrument that permits viewing inside a body cavity ANSWER:

59. Locking mechanism of an instrument ANSWER:

60. Techniques used to destroy all pathogenic organisms before they can enter the body ANSWER:

61. The preparatory period preceding surgery ANSWER:

62. Etchings located on the blades of an instrument to keep it from slipping ANSWER:

Be sure to cover all points when scheduling a patient for a minor surgical procedure. Match the information provided to the patient to whether it is given at the time of scheduling the appointment or when the patient arrives for the appointment. Note: Answers may be used more than once. Page 7

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery a . b.

when scheduling the appointment when the patient arrives for the appointment

63. Answer any questions concerning procedure ANSWER:

64. Advise the patient of the arrangements necessary for someone to accompany the patient and drive him or her

home if necessary ANSWER:

65. Advise patient of the surgical procedure by providing printed education materials ANSWER:

66. Advise patient of the appropriate clothing to wear ANSWER:

67. Ascertain whether the patient has any allergies to any medications, including topical preparations, latex

products, and adhesive tapes ANSWER:

68. Provide written instructions regarding the surgical procedure and follow-up care ANSWER:

69. Advise patient of the amount of time to fast as instructed by provider if applicable ANSWER:

70. Advise patient the approximate length of time for procedure ANSWER:

71. Ensure that the patient has signed a surgical consent form ANSWER:

72. Advise the patient of the anticipated time off work or arranging for home care ANSWER:

73. Which of the following statements is not true as a general rule to follow when cleaning and caring for

instruments? a Blood, tissue, and other body fluids must be allowed to dry on an instrument. b. The detergent in the soaking solution should be of a neutral pH, which will help prevent corrosion of the surfaces of the instrument. c. Separate sharp instruments from others when cleaning and storing. d. Damaged instruments should not be used and should be either repaired or replaced. ANSWER:

a Page 8

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Chapter 48: Preparing for Surgery 74. Which of the following instruments is not used for dilating, probing, and visualizing? a. Olsen Hegar needle holder b. U.S. Army retractor c. Van Buren urethral sound d. Richardson retractor ANSWER:

75. How long should you perform hand washing for surgical asepsis or surgical scrub? a –two to six minutes . b. at least 15 seconds c. the length of time recommended by the facility d. –one to three minutes ANSWER:

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery 1. Compared to traditional surgery, when patients undergo laparoscopic surgery: a the required time for many surgeries has decreased . b. c. d. ANSWER:

larger incisions are required the recovery time is much longer there is a greater risk of postsurgery infection a

2. When assisting in surgery, what should you use to mop excessive blood? a. paper towels b. a sterile cloth c. cotton balls d. gauze sponges ANSWER:

3. Local anesthesia is administered by the: a. patient b. provider c. clinical medical assistant d. administrative medical assistant ANSWER:

4. The most common local anesthetic agents are: a. benzocaine and novocaine b. Xylocaine and proparacaine c. Xylocaine and novocaine d. benzocaine and proparacaine ANSWER:

5. When taking a patient’s medical history prior to a surgical procedure, if the patient discloses a family history of hemophilia, you should: a bring the information to the provider immediately and clearly document on the patient’s chart b. explain that the physician will be unable to perform the surgical procedure c. administer a coagulant prior to surgery d. make no mention of it to the physician ANSWER: a 6. The laboratory provides a a. b. c. d.

solution container for preservation of tissue specimens for biopsy. bleach bilirubin formalin alcohol Page 1

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery ANSWER:

7. Which of the following substances is commonly used in cryosurgery to destroy tissue? a. liquid nitrogen b. solid oxygen c. supercooled hydrogen d. liquid helium ANSWER:

8. Cryosurgery is sometimes referred to as: a. dry heat sterilization b. using extremely cold temperatures c. necrotization d. subzero targeting ANSWER:

9. Catgut is made from the intestines of: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

goats cats mice sheep

10. When assisting with suturing a laceration, after bandaging the site you should remove your gloves and: a dispose of them in a biohazardous waste bag . b. c. d. ANSWER:

place them in a storage container to be sterilized later wash them with soap and water dispose of them in the trash

11. Patients usually go to a (n) for suture removal. a. emergency room b. urgent care center c. pharmacy d. general practitioner ANSWER:

12. Sutures that are not removed can: a become thinner . b. be dissolved quickly and safely by the body Page 2

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery c. d. ANSWER:

become infected be absorbed into the digestive system c

13. Staples are removed with a device known as: a. forceps b. a staple extractor c. a flat-head screwdriver d. aseptic pliers ANSWER: 14. After removing staples from a patient, the emergency center’s report should be checked for a a. tetanus b. influenza c. hepatitis d. shingles ANSWER: 15. Sutureless closures are: a rarely used with children b. more time-consuming to apply than traditional methods of suturing c. a type of adhesive material d. used primarily on large lacerations ANSWER:

b booster.

16. Before removing sutures, you should do all of the following except: a check the report for a tetanus booster b. check the number of days the provider who put them in recommended as time to wait before removal c. ask the provider to inspect the healing wound d. check the report for a hepatitis B booster ANSWER: d 17. After removing sutures and bandaging the site, you should instruct the patient to keep the bandage clean and dry for hours. a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72 ANSWER: b 18. After removing sutures, you should record all but which of the following in the progress notes in the patient’s chart? a. condition of the site b. type of antiseptic applied Page 3

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery c. d.

cause of the incision type of bandage applied

ANSWER:

19. Patients should be instructed not to take a shower or bath without the provider’s approval when they have a wound on the: a. hand b. trunk c. arm d. leg ANSWER: b 20. To collect a specimen from an infected wound, you insert a. the tip of a sterile swab b. a wad of cotton gauze c. a single cotton ball d. the tip of a tongue depressor ANSWER:

into the center of the infected area of the wound.

Match each minor surgical procedure with its definition. a. laceration repair b. sebaceous cyst removal c. biopsy d. needle biopsy e. cryosurgery f. electrosurgery g. chemical destruction h. laser surgery 21. Removal of benign skin lesions by use of electric current ANSWER: 22. Excision of a small, painless sac containing a buildup of sebum, the secretion from a sebaceous gland ANSWER:

23. Closing a wound or laceration by placing sutures, stitches, or staples in the skin to hold the edges of the wound together for proper healing ANSWER: a 24. Destruction of tissue and skin lesions using extremely cold temperatures ANSWER:

25. Using a concentrated laser beam to destroy a target area without harming the surrounding tissue ANSWER:

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery 26. Excision of a small amount of tissue for microscopic examination ANSWER:

27. Destruction of tissue by applying silver nitrate ANSWER:

28. Aspiration of fluid or tissue cells into a syringe for microscopic examination ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. sterile technique b. electrocautery c. local anesthesia d. epinephrine e. hemophilia f. electrocoagulation g. suture h. vital signs i. hypoallergenic tape j. support skin closure k. sutureless l. medical record 29. These can be altered if a patient has lost a considerable amount of blood ANSWER:

30. Substance that is sometimes added to a local anesthetic to help constrict blood vessels in the area, prolonging the effect of the anesthetic ANSWER: d 31. This must be documented thoroughly and should be completed after an episode of care ANSWER: 32. Serious disease in which there is an absence of one of the necessary clotting factors for blood to coagulate ANSWER:

33. Alternative for patients who are allergic to adhesive ANSWER:

34. A break in this can result in an infection for the patient ANSWER:

35. Causes a loss of sensation in a specific area of the body ANSWER:

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery 36. Often used to control bleeding of the surgical site ANSWER:

37. Applied to small laceration; uses an adhesive material to close small lacerations ANSWER:

38. Used to control bleeding during a procedure ANSWER:

39. Type of thread that is used to join skin of a wound together ANSWER:

40. May be necessary to keep the skin together after sutures have been removed, until a wound is completely healed ANSWER: j Match the in-office minor surgical procedure to the general description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a incision and drainage (I&D) . b. biopsy c. electrocautery d. loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) e. vasectomy f. circumcision g. debridement 41. Removal of benign skin lesions, such as warts and skin tags, by use of electric current ANSWER:

42. The vas deferens is cut, separated, and then sealed by electrocautery or clamping ANSWER:

43. Specimen must be preserved in a solution of 10% formalin until transported to the laboratory and prepared

for examination ANSWER:

44. A thin, low-voltage, electrified wire loop removes abnormal cervical tissue ANSWER:

45. A vinegar (acetic acid) or iodine solution can be applied to the cervix prior to the procedure to help make

abnormal cells more visible ANSWER:

46. This prevents sperm from entering the semen, thus making a man sterile ANSWER:

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery 47. Incision into a localized infection, such as an abscess, to drain the exudate from the area ANSWER:

48. Excision of lacerated, dead, or contaminated tissue and removal of foreign matter from a wound ANSWER: g 49. The removal of some or all the foreskin (the skin that covers the tip of the penis) from the penis ANSWER:

Match the tray setup for laceration repair as to whether the item is to be placed directly on sterile field or placed off to the side. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. item placed directly on sterile field b. item placed off to the side 50. Sterile drapes ANSWER:

51. Sterile gloves ANSWER:

52. Bandage scissors ANSWER:

53. Bandage material (gauze, tape) ANSWER:

54. Antiseptic solution ANSWER:

55. Appropriate suture material ANSWER:

56. Needle holder ANSWER:

57. Sterile water or saline ANSWER:

58. Anesthetic ANSWER:

59. Sterile gauze pads ANSWER:

60. PPE Page 7

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery ANSWER:

61. Tissue forceps ANSWER:

62. Antibiotic ointment ANSWER:

63. Sterile cups/basins ANSWER:

64. Surgical scissors ANSWER:

65. Needle/syringe ANSWER:

Like all procedures, surgical procedures are to be documented in the medical record thoroughly and completed immediately. Match the medical record entry with the description or rationale provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. patient identifier b. informed consent c. the date and time d. the reason e. the procedure f. specimen g. postoperative instructions 66. The medical assistant labels this container with the patient’s name and other patient-identifying information

(name, date of birth) ANSWER:

67. The provider should record in the patient chart why there was a need for the surgical procedure ANSWER:

68. You can use the name or ID number ANSWER:

69. The medical assistant documents what the sample is and its source ANSWER: 70. The provider or the medical assistant should record what was to be done ANSWER:

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Chapter 49: Assisting with Minor Surgery 71. Should be obtained from the patient before the procedure ANSWER:

72. The medical assistant is responsible for ensuring that the patient or his or her caregiver understands these

instructions ANSWER:

73. Record when the procedure was performed ANSWER:

74. The provider might also request that you record when he or she made the incision and when the procedure was completed ANSWER: c

occurs when your body overreacts to certain triggers, such as the sight of blood or extreme emotional distress. 75. One of the most common causes of fainting, a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

nausea/vomiting vertigo vasovagal syncope hemophilia c

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals 1. Narcotics do not: interfere with the central nervous system’s recognition of pain impulses b. cause hyperactivity c. sometimes cause respiratory depression d. provide a greater level of pain relief than analgesics ANSWER:

2. Antihypertensives control blood pressure by: a speeding up the heart rate b. opening calcium channels c. inhibiting conversion of angiotensin 1 into angiotensin 2 d. causing arterial smooth muscle to contract ANSWER:

3. The medical assistant’s list of commonly prescribed medications should include all but which of the following? a usual dosage . b. possible side effects c. contraindications d. conditions for which each is prescribed ANSWER: d 4. Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs interferes with potassium channels to prolong the period in which the next heartbeat can occur? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV ANSWER: c 5. Tegretol, Dilantin, and Zarontin are: a. anticonvulsants b. antidepressants c. antidiarrheals d. anticoagulants ANSWER:

6. Which type of drug counteracts poisons and their effects selectively by binding with the toxin to inhibit further absorption? a. expectorant b. antibiotic c. antidote d. hypnotic Page 1

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals ANSWER:

7. Antihypertensives do not prevent or control high blood pressure by: a decreasing heart rate b. dilating blood vessels c. reducing circulating fluid volume d. causing contraction of the smooth muscles that line the walls of blood vessels ANSWER:

8. Which type of drug stops the development, maturation, or spread of a cancer cell? a. hemostatic b. antineoplastic c. vasopressor d. sedative ANSWER:

9. Antipyretics reduce fever by acting on which part of the brain? a. hypothalamus b. midbrain c. pons d. pituitary gland ANSWER:

10. Patients with which of the following conditions should not take OTC decongestants without first consulting with their doctor? a. hepatitis b. heart disease c. diabetes d. low blood pressure ANSWER: b 11. Which of the following drugs are also known as clot busters? a. diuretics b. anticholinergics c. fibrinolytics d. analgesics ANSWER:

12. Vasodilators do not: a cause the inner diameter of the vessel walls to narrow b. relax the smooth muscle inside the vessel walls c. lower blood pressure d. allow for increased circulation to the area supplied by the vessel Page 2

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals ANSWER:

13. The effects of a drug are categorized as if they are generalized throughout the body. a. local b. remote c. myopic d. systemic ANSWER:

14. Medications given a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

reach the bloodstream more rapidly than other routes. transdermally by injection sublingually orally

15. Which of the following consist of medication bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids? a. powders b. inhalants c. tablets d. suppositories ANSWER: c 16. The trade name of a drug: a must be approved by CMS b. is usually more difficult to remember than the generic name c. is never capitalized d. is assigned by the drug manufacturer for marketing ANSWER:

17. A Schedule IV controlled substance may be refilled: a. never b. no more than once c. up to two times in one month d. up to five times in six months ANSWER:

18. Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance? a heroin . b. c.

morphine phenobarbital Page 3

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals d. ANSWER:

small amounts of codeine in cough preparations

19. A

controlled substance has a high potential for psychological dependence. a. Schedule III b. Schedule IV c. Schedule I d. Schedule V

ANSWER:

20. The purpose of the is to provide accurate, reliable, and current information about most prescribed medications and related products. a Physician’s Desk Reference for Nonprescription Drugs b. product inserts provided by the manufacturer with a medication c. Physician’s Desk Reference (PDR) d. nursing drug handbook ANSWER: c 21. Which section of the PDR lists the page number of each product by both brand and generic names? a. Section 1 b. Section 2 c. Section 3 d. Section 4 ANSWER:

22. Which of the following types of drug information appear last in the Product Information section of the PDR? a. brand names b. warnings c. how supplied d. adverse reactions ANSWER: c 23. Medications in the storage cabinet or closet should be organized: a according to their expiration date or classification b. by date of arrival in the office or according to their expiration date c. by date of arrival in the office or alphabetically d. alphabetically or according to their classification ANSWER:

24. In most states, the disposal of controlled substances requires witness of destruction by all but which of the following? a physicians . b. licensed pharmacists Page 4

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals c. d. ANSWER:

nurses law enforcement personnel (in some cases) a

Match each of the following drugs with its classification. a. Tylenol b. Novocaine c. Mylanta d. Librium e. Duracillin f. Coumadin g. Kaopectate h. Benadryl i. lithium j. Plavix k. Proventil l. Sudafed m. Glucophage n. Metamucil 25. Decongestant ANSWER: 26. Hypoglycemic, oral ANSWER: 27. Antidiarrheal ANSWER:

28. Antiplatelets ANSWER:

29. Analgesic ANSWER:

30. Anesthetic ANSWER:

31. Bronchodilator ANSWER:

32. Antianxiety ANSWER:

33. Anticoagulant Page 5

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals ANSWER:

34. Antihistamine ANSWER:

35. Laxative ANSWER:

36. Antacid ANSWER:

37. Antimanic ANSWER: 38. Antibiotic ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. chemotherapeutic b. pharmacodynamic c. agonist d. antagonist e. synergistic f. orphan drug g. prescription drug h. controlled substance i. Pyxis j. over-the-counter (OTC) drug k. Pillbox 39. Drug that is the only available, approved treatment for a given indication ANSWER: 40. Prevents an action or effect on a receptor site ANSWER:

41. Drug considered safe and effective for use by the general population without requiring a prescription ANSWER:

42. Any drug that has the potential for abuse or addiction ANSWER:

43. Stimulates a particular action ANSWER:

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals 44. When a drug has an additive effect, or enhances or multiplies the effects of another drug ANSWER:

45. Group that includes drugs that are used to cure a disease caused by an infectious organism or cancer ANSWER:

46. Electronic drug-dispensing system ANSWER:

47. Drug that may only be purchased or given to patients with written instructions from a licensed health care provider ANSWER: g 48. Application on the NIH website that helps health care providers identify a pill using its physical characteristics ANSWER: k 49. Type of drug that is used to treat noninfectious processes by acting on different systems in the body to suppress chemicals or hormones being released by the body in excess or augment chemicals or hormones that are being produced in insufficient amounts ANSWER: b Match the drug form with the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. capsules b. drops c. inhalants d. liquids e. powders f. skin preparations g. suppositories h. tablets i. transdermal patches 50. Medications prepared to be delivered in either a fixed or nonfixed dose to be breathed in through the nose or

the mouth ANSWER:

51. Fine particles intended to be dissolved in liquids or foods just prior to being taken ANSWER:

52. May be oxygen delivery, sprays, or aerosolized medications ANSWER:

53. Medication suspended in alcohol or water ANSWER:

54. Bullet-shaped tablets that melt easily at body temperature for administration through the vagina, urethra, or Page 7

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals rectum ANSWER:

55. Medication that is bound together by substances that dissolve in stomach acids ANSWER:

56. An implantable device may provide a constant and consistent delivery of a specific dose of medication.

Examples of implantable drug delivery include pain medication and insulin pumps ANSWER:

57. Cylinder-shaped enclosure for medication of either a gelatin-coated or time-released coating ANSWER:

58. Ointments, creams, or lotions that can be applied directly to the skin ANSWER:

59. Sterile solution that contains medication intended to be delivered directly into the area to be treated, for

example, eyes, ears, or nose ANSWER:

60. This form has adhesive with a time-released dose of medication to be worn for a specified period of time ANSWER: i Match the drug classification to the category, action, and examples to the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. antiarrhythmic

anticholinergic antidepressant antiemetic anti-inflammatory antitussive contraceptive diuretic expectorant hemostatic

k. l. m. n. o.

hypnotic insulin muscle relaxant sedative/tranquilizer vasopressor

b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i.

61. Blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses to slow stomach and intestinal tract activity Page 8

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals ANSWER:

62. Increases the production of urine and decreases circulating fluid volume by increasing renal blood flow to

improve filtration and by decreasing sodium reabsorption ANSWER:

63. Acts on brain receptors to induce a sense of calm and reduce tension and anxiety ANSWER:

64. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors: isocarboxazid (Marplan) ANSWER:

65. Encourages the formation of a blood clot to control or stop bleeding ANSWER:

66. Treats pain and swelling with drugs such as naproxen, aspirin, and ibuprofen ANSWER:

67. Prevents or relieves nausea and vomiting by blocking the effects of dopamine, serotonin, or histamine

release ANSWER:

68. Cardiac electrical rhythm is maintained through a balance of chemical activity ANSWER:

69. Examples include: Enovid-E 21; Ortho-Novum 10/11–21, 10/11–28; Triphasil-21 ANSWER:

70. Examples include: Robaxin, Norflex, Paraflex, Skelaxin, Valium ANSWER: 71. Decreases the cough reflex by acting on the central and peripheral nervous systems ANSWER:

72. Thins mucus, making it easier to cough it up and clear the airway of secretions ANSWER:

73. Given on a routine schedule based on mealtimes to help the body use sugars ANSWER:

74. Causes contraction of the smooth muscles that line the walls of blood vessels to increase blood pressure ANSWER: o 75. They work by suppressing activity in the central nervous system Page 9

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Chapter 50: Pharmacology Fundamentals ANSWER:

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations 1. Which of the following is the metric unit that measures length? a. liter b. gram c. foot d. meter ANSWER:

2. Which of the following is an example of a household measurement? a. gram b. teaspoon c. minim d. inch ANSWER:

3. One cup is the equivalent of

fluid ounces. a.4 b.8 c. d.

12 16

ANSWER:

4. How many cups are in a quart? a.4 b.8 c. d.

12 16

ANSWER: 5. The first system of medication measurement was the a. metric b. household c. apothecary d. English ANSWER:

a system.

6. Which of the following is an apothecary unit of measurement? a. gram b. dram c. pound d. liter ANSWER:

7. When adding the numbers 4326 and 1598, which two numerals should you add first? Page 1

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations a. b. c. d.

4 and 1 3 and 5 2 and 9 6 and 8

ANSWER:

8. Solve this equation: 840 − 492 = a. b. c. d.

452 348 458 352

ANSWER:

9. Solve this equation: 574 × 15 = a. b. c. d. ANSWER: 10. In a division problem, the divisor goes a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

8610 590 2870 3444 a the bracket. above below inside outside d

11. When adding decimals, you add columns from: a. right to left b. left to right c. top to bottom d. bottom to top ANSWER: 12. You may need to use “borrowing” when a. multiplying b. dividing c. subtracting d. adding ANSWER:

a decimals.

13. When multiplying 3.25 by 8.725, you disregard the decimal points, multiply 325 by 8725, and then move the decimal point over places. Page 2

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations a.3 b.5 c.2 d.7 ANSWER: 14. A(n)

b fraction includes both a whole number and a fraction. a. mixed b. improper c. numerical d. proper

ANSWER:

15. When adding or subtracting fractions, you must first: a make sure each fraction has the same numerator . b. c. d. ANSWER:

add the denominators change any mixed fractions to improper fractions change any improper fractions to mixed fractions c

16. When multiplying fractions, you: a add the numerators and multiply the denominators b. add the denominators and multiply the numerators c. multiply each numerator by the opposite denominator d. multiply the numerators straight across and the denominators straight across ANSWER:

17. When dividing fractions, you reverse the numerator and denominator of the second fraction and then: a multiply the numerators and denominators straight across b. multiply the numerators and add the denominators c. add the numerators and multiply the denominators d. divide the numerators and denominators straight across ANSWER:

18. A

ANSWER:

expresses a value that is a part of 100. a. fraction b. ratio c. percentage d. proportion c Page 3

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations 19. A person who weighs 125 pounds weighs approximately a. 250 b. 275 c. 56.82 d. 27.5 ANSWER:

kilograms.

20. If the provider prescribes 1500 mg of Benadryl elixir and the supply available is 500 mg per 25 mL, how much elixir should you give the patient? a. 25 mL b. 50 mL c. 75 mL d. 100 mL ANSWER: c Match each measurement with its abbreviation. a. gram b. liter c. drop d. teaspoon e. tablespoon f. pint g. quart h. ounce (weight) i. ounce (fluid) j. pound k. grain 21. oz ANSWER:

22. gr ANSWER:

23. g ANSWER:

24. lb ANSWER: 25. pt ANSWER:

26. L Page 4

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations ANSWER:

27. qt ANSWER:

28. t or tsp ANSWER:

29. fl oz ANSWER:

30. gtt ANSWER:

31. T or tbs ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. microb. decic. kilod. numerator e. denominator f. ratio g. proportion h. means i. extremes 32. 1/1,000,000 of a unit ANSWER:

33. This expresses a relationship between two components ANSWER:

34. Two outer numbers in a proportion ANSWER:

35. 1000 units ANSWER:

36. Bottom number of a fraction ANSWER:

37. This expresses the relationship between two ratios ANSWER:

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations 38. 1/10 of a unit ANSWER:

39. Numbers directly to the left and right of the equal sign in a proportion ANSWER:

40. Top number of a fraction ANSWER:

Match the metric system prefix with its unit value or decimal value. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. millib. centic. decid. dekae. hectorf. kilo41. 1/100 of a unit ANSWER:

42. 0.1 ANSWER:

43. 100 units ANSWER:

44. 10 units ANSWER:

45. 0.01 ANSWER:

46. 1000 ANSWER:

47. 1/1000 of a unit ANSWER:

48. 100 ANSWER:

49. 0.001 ANSWER:

50. 10 Page 6

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations ANSWER:

Patients at home typically use household measurements. Match the household equivalents. a. b. c. d. e.

60 gtt 3 t or tsp 2 T or tbs 1 pt 1 lb

51. 16 oz ANSWER:

52. 1 T or tbs ANSWER:

53. 1 fl oz ANSWER:

54. 2 cups ANSWER:

55. 1 t or tsp ANSWER:

Match the term to its description or definition. a. decimal b. dividend c. divisor d. fraction e. improper fraction f. metric system g. mixed fraction h. percentage i. product 56. A fraction where the numerator (the top number) is greater than or equal to the denominator (the bottom

number) ANSWER:

57. Rate or proportion of each hundred ANSWER:

58. The result of dividing one number by another ANSWER:

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations 59. The result of multiplying two numbers together ANSWER:

60. A system of measurements that uses the base function of ten ANSWER:

61. The number used to divide into another number ANSWER:

62. Numbers that are expressed as a fraction of a part using 10 as its base number; it also refers to the period

used to separate a whole number from a fraction, as in 10.2, otherwise read as “ten and two-tenths” ANSWER:

63. A whole number and a fraction combined into one “mixed” number ANSWER:

64. A numerical expression of the number of portions of a whole by using the number of portion over the

designated whole number, as in 1/8 or “one-eighth” ANSWER:

65. Which of the following metric units measures volume? a. gram (g) b. meter (m) c. liter (L) d. all of the above ANSWER:

66. The metric system adds prefixes to the basic units to indicate the value (multiple or submultiple) of the unit.

For example, when the prefix kilo- is added to the unit meter, it becomes kilometer, which has a value of meters. a. 1000 b. 100 c. 10 d ............................ 010 ANSWER:

Match the type of fraction to the description and example(s) provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. fraction b. improper fraction c. mixed fraction 67. Indicates that the numerator is larger than the denominator ANSWER:

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Chapter 51: Measurement Systems, Basic Mathematics, and Dosage Calculations 68. 1/2, 5/6, or 12/100 ANSWER:

69. Includes both a whole number and a fraction ANSWER:

70. 12/8 or 141/13 ANSWER:

71. Like a decimal, indicates part of a whole number ANSWER:

72. 3-1/2, 24-3/8 ANSWER:

73. Percent means a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

and a

expresses a value that is part of 100.

percentage / per hundred ratio of / percentage per hundred / percentage per hundred / ratio

74. When the word of is used in conjunction with percent, it means to: a. add b. subtract c. multiply d. divide ANSWER:

75. Calculating dosages follows a three-step process: a. convert, construct, and calculate b. c. d. ANSWER:

decimal, divide, and fraction percentage, product, and proportion add, subtract, and multiply a

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications 1. If a provider marks a prescription “DAW” it means: only the specific medication prescribed may be given to the patient b. a trade or generic medication may be substituted c. the patient should only take the medication with meals d. the pharmacist must mix ingredients together to create the medication ANSWER:

2. A supplementary label on a prescription container indicates: a the name of the prescribing provider . b. c. d. ANSWER:

the name of the pharmacist who filled the prescription the name and strength of the drug special instructions or warnings d

3. When preparing a prescription, you first obtain the order from the chart and then: a fill in the prescription fields b. compare patient identifiers c. obtain the prescriber’s signature d. document the prescription correctly in the patient’s chart ANSWER:

4. When taking , the patient must remain upright for at least one hour following administration. a an osteoporosis medication such as Boniva . b. Valium c. Coumadin d. any cholesterol-lowering drug ANSWER:

5. Which of the following is not one of the Seven Rights of medication administration? a. right dose b. right provider c. right documentation d. right route ANSWER:

6. To ensure the right medication, you must check the medication order and verify the medication at least to administration. a. two b. three c. four

times prior

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications d.

six

ANSWER:

7. Which of the Seven Rights refers to how the medication is administered? a. right patient b. right time c. right medication d. right technique ANSWER:

8. The last step that always follows the administration of medications is verifying the right: a. medication b. provider c. documentation d. technique ANSWER:

9. The benefits of an immunization registry include all but which of the following? a ensuring that new immunizations are provided as they become available b. eliminating all potentially harmful side effects of immunizations c. preventing under-immunization of children d. preventing over-immunization of children ANSWER:

10. When verifying the patient’s identity to record a medication entry in the patient’s chart, you should not: a ask the patient yes or no questions b. use at least two identifiers c. confirm that the medication is being given to the right patient d. ask open-ended questions ANSWER:

11. The route of administration of a given drug is chosen based on all but which of the following? a. rate of absorption desired b. distribution c. expense d. biotransformation ANSWER:

12. By which of the following routes would the medical assistant not administer medications? a. intravenous b. rectal c. injectable d. oral Page 2

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications ANSWER:

13. Prescriptions are most often provided for medications. a. topical b. injectable c. inhalable d. oral ANSWER:

14. The

method of administering medication involves placing the medication under the tongue. a. transdermal b. sublingual c. parenteral d. topical

ANSWER:

15. When medication is administered by the buccal method, it is: a inserted into the vagina or urethra b. injected into one of the large muscles of the body c. placed or sprayed in the mouth between the gum and the cheek d. adhered to the outer upper arm in patch form ANSWER:

16. If you are administering drops to a patient’s right eye, the patient’s head should be: a tilted slightly to the right . b. c. d. ANSWER:

tilted slightly to the left facing forward leaning all the way back, not tilting to either side

17. Topical medications do not come in which form? a. ointment b. salve c. spray d. injectable ANSWER:

18. A(n) is a conical or ovoid-shaped solid compressed amount of medication designed to melt when inserted into the vagina or rectum. a. salve b. enema Page 3

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications c. d.

suppository paint

ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. sublingual b. inhalation c. intramuscular d. intranasal e. intrathecal f. intravenous g. otic h. subcutaneous i. topical j. transdermal k. off-label use l. medication order 19. Injected into muscular tissue for delayed absorption ANSWER:

20. Injection just below the cutaneous layer of the skin ANSWER:

21. Direct and complete instructions composed by a provider or other licensed practitioner for administering medications to a patient while he or she is in the facility or office ANSWER: l 22. Breathed in through the nose or mouth ANSWER:

23. Refers to the fact that controlled clinical trials have not been done to determine if a drug is safe or effective for the indication for which the medication is being prescribed ANSWER: k 24. Delivered into the spinal canal by injection or infusion ANSWER:

25. Delivered into the ear canal ANSWER:

26. Adhesive patch placed on the skin containing time-released medication ANSWER:

27. Placed under the tongue for fast absorption Page 4

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications ANSWER:

28. Given through the nares ANSWER:

29. Applied directly to the skin ANSWER:

30. Delivered into a vein or by injection or infusion ANSWER:

Match each abbreviation commonly used in administering medications with its meaning. a. ac b. noc c. bid d. Sig e. STAT f. pc g. po h. prn i. qh j. qs k. sol l. tid m. tinc 31. Night ANSWER:

32. Quantity sufficient ANSWER: 33. Tincture ANSWER:

34. Directions ANSWER:

35. By mouth ANSWER:

36. Solution ANSWER:

37. Before meals Page 5

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications ANSWER:

38. After meals ANSWER:

39. Twice daily ANSWER:

40. Three times daily ANSWER:

41. As needed ANSWER:

42. Immediately ANSWER:

43. Every hour ANSWER:

Match the following term to its definition or description. a. enema b. Joint Commission c. narcotic d. ointment e. parenteral f. prescription g. right documentation h. salve i. Seven Rights j. suppository 44. A salve; a fatty, soft substance having antiseptic or healing properties ANSWER:

45. An ointment ANSWER:

46. A drug capable of producing sleep and relieving pain or inducing unconsciousness and even death,

depending upon the dosage ANSWER: 47. A medicated conical- or cylindrical-shaped material that is inserted into the rectum or vagina ANSWER:

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications 48. All the information regarding the Seven Rights should be documented in complete detail in the patient’s

record along with any adverse events and instructions provided to the patient regarding being alert for reactions and what steps to take if a reaction occurs ANSWER:

49. Refers to seven elements that must be considered when administering medication, which are right patient,

right medication, right dose (amount), right route (method), right technique, right time (schedule), and right documentation ANSWER:

50. Other than by mouth ANSWER:

51. The instillation of fluid into the rectum and colon ANSWER:

52. A written direction for the preparation of a medicine ANSWER:

53. Refers to the agency that has oversight for hospitals adhering to regulations that allow them to bill for

Medicare reimbursement for medical services provided ANSWER:

Match the commonly used abbreviation with its meaning. a mcg . b. mL c. NPO, npo d. BSA e. contra f. QAM g. DC, DISC, disc, d/c h. i.

EENT

QID, qid

Q or q followed by a number (2, 3, etc.)

54. Body surface area ANSWER:

55. Discontinue ANSWER: 56. Milliliter ANSWER:

b Page 7

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications 57. Eye, ear, nose, throat ANSWER:

58. Against ANSWER:

59. Every 2, 3, etc. hours ANSWER:

60. Microgram ANSWER:

61. Four times daily ANSWER:

62. Nothing by mouth ANSWER:

63. Every morning ANSWER:

Many factors must be included in recording medication information on the patient’s chart. Match the details that should be included in recording medications. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. who b. what c. when d. where e. why 64. Include the provider’s printed name and be sure the patient’s name is correctly spelled in the chart ANSWER: a 65. Be sure to check the expiration date of the medication before administering it ANSWER:

66. The medication name should be recorded accurately and legibly; how much, meaning the strength and dose

of the substance, should also be recorded ANSWER:

67. The provider is required by the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act (NCVIA) of 1986 to provide written

information regarding information to the patient or parent of a minor patient prior to immunizations ANSWER:

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Chapter 52: Administering Oral and Non-Injectable Medications 68. Offer information regarding the reason the medication is being given to the patient verbally and provide

printed patient information as necessary ANSWER:

69. What medication was administered ANSWER:

70. Refers to the route of administration of the medication: oral, sublingual, topical, or parenteral, including site

and appearance of the site following injection ANSWER:

71. Who ordered the medication and who should take it ANSWER:

72. Provide an opportunity for the patient to ask questions before and after the medication has been given ANSWER: e 73. The date and time the medication is administered should be recorded ANSWER:

74. For immunizations, record the name of the medication, lot number, and: a name of the manufacturing pharmaceutical company b.

serial number (if applicable)

container’s expiration date

d. all of the above ANSWER:

75. Companies that produce immunizations are required to assign lot numbers to each batch of the product.

These lot numbers are used to track and report (and then): a any adverse events experienced by one or more patients b. the manufacturer can then conduct an evaluation to find the cause of the patient’s problem c. the manufacturer might need to file a report with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. all of the above ANSWER:

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations 1. When are medical assistants permitted to change an IV bag? a when it contains only fluids . b. when it contains only medications c. when it contains either fluids or medications d. never ANSWER: 2. Each small line on a 3-mL syringe represents a.

mL. 1

/10

ANSWER:

3. Before withdrawing medication from a vial, you must clean the top of the vial with: a. a cotton ball soaked with iodine b. soap and hot water c. an alcohol wipe d. a dry gauze pad ANSWER:

4. Intradermal (ID) injections are used in and tuberculin testing. a. pregnancy b. allergy c. hepatitis d. cancer ANSWER:

5. When administering an intradermal injection, you should insert the needle at a a. 10–15 b. 30–45 c. 45–60 d. 60–90 ANSWER:

-degree angle.

6. Subcutaneous injections are not commonly given at which part of the body? a. upper outer part of the arm b. abdominal area c. upper thigh d. upper buttock ANSWER:

d Page 1

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations 7. When administering a subcutaneous injection, if blood appears in the syringe, you should: a pull the needle out opposite to the angle of entry b. pull the needle out at the angle of entry c. continue with the injection because it is normal this to occur d. push the needle in further to move past the blood vessel ANSWER:

8. How long is the needle used to administer intramuscular (IM) injections? a. smaller than one inch b. no longer than two inches c. one to three inches or longer d. five to seven inches or longer ANSWER:

9. When administering an IM injection by the Z-track method, after expelling the medication you should remove the needle quickly and: a massage the area b. squeeze the injection site gently c. hold your bare finger over the injection site to encourage clotting d. let go of the skin quickly ANSWER: d 10. The

is the preferred injection site for infants and young children. a. vastus medialis b. vastus lateralis c. vastus intermedius d. rectus femoris

ANSWER:

11. Which of the following is an example of a killed pathogen vaccine? a. rabies b. varicella c. diphtheria d. tetanus ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is not a symptom of influenza? a. chills b. sore throat c. muscle aches d. nausea ANSWER:

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations 13. Which complication of Hemophilus influenza type B could cause a child to choke to death if immediate treatment is not given? a. meningitis b. arthritis c. epiglottitis d. tendonitis ANSWER: c 14. What is the incubation period for rubeola measles? a. 2–3 days b. 5–10 days c. 7–18 days d. 14–28 days ANSWER:

15. Rubella is also known as: a. mumps b. German measles c. scarlet fever d. whooping cough ANSWER:

16. Diphtheria diagnosis is confirmed by: a. throat culture b. blood testing c. urinalysis d. a breathing test ANSWER:

17. Which of the following are human symptoms of rabies? a blurred vision, joint pain, and hunger . b. irrational behavior and foaming at the mouth c. vomiting, headache, and convulsions d. fever, aggressive behavior, and hallucinations ANSWER:

18. Varicella zoster is better known as: a. whooping cough b. chicken pox c. German measles d. smoker’s cough Page 3

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations ANSWER:

19. The Varivax vaccine is given by injection to children between the ages of: a. 4 and 8 months b. 12 and 15 months c. 3 and 5 years d. 7 and 10 years ANSWER:

20. Cervarix and Gardasil are vaccines for: a. hepatitis A b. hepatitis B c. human papillomavirus d. human immunodeficiency virus ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. intradermal (ID) injections b. subcutaneous injections c. intramuscular (IM) injections d. anaphylactic reaction e. wheal f. natural immunity g. artificial immunity h. vaccine i. pneumonia j. Hemophilus 21. Term that is generally interchangeable with immunization ANSWER:

22. Medication should only be given to patients when a provider is available nearby in the event the patient should exhibit this ANSWER: d 23. Type of injection given at a shallow angle just under the dermis of the skin ANSWER:

24. Antibodies generated after recovery from exposure to certain illnesses that protect the body from developing the same disease again ANSWER: f 25. Disease caused by a small, Gram-negative, nonmotile parasitic bacterium that leads to severe destructive inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi Page 4

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations ANSWER:

26. Small “lump” that should develop at the site of injection to give evidence that the medication is in the dermal layer of the skin ANSWER: e 27. Used to insert medication into muscular tissue for delayed absorption ANSWER:

28. Acute inflammation of the lungs ANSWER: 29. Used to insert liquid medication just below the cutaneous skin layer ANSWER:

30. Produced by administering immunizations made from dead or weakened infectious agents that trigger an immune response in the body, which stimulates the production of antibodies ANSWER: g Match each term with its definition. a. rubeola b. Koplik’s spots c. mumps d. pertussis e. catarrhal stage f. paroxysmal stage g. decline stage h. rabies i. hepatitis A j. hepatitis B 31. Transmission occurs usually when a person ingests fecal matter (even in microscopic amounts), from contaminated food or water (when someone with the virus handles the food you eat without first carefully washing his or her hands after using the toilet) ANSWER: i 32. Acute contagious febrile disease that causes inflammation of the parotid and salivary glands ANSWER:

33. Viral disease found in unvaccinated animals ANSWER:

34. Stage of whooping cough during which symptoms include a decrease in coughing and return of appetite ANSWER:

35. Tiny white spots with bluish-white centers found inside the mouth, followed by a red blotchy rash Page 5

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations ANSWER:

36. Acute infectious disease characterized by respiratory drainage, then a peculiar paroxysmal cough, and finally a whooping inspiration ANSWER: d 37. Usually spread when blood, semen, or another body fluid from a person infected with this virus enters the body of someone who is not infected. This can happen through sexual contact with an infected person or sharing needles, syringes, or other drug-injection equipment ANSWER: j 38. Medical term for measles ANSWER:

39. Stage of whooping cough when symptoms tend to be at their worst ANSWER: 40. Period when whooping cough is highly communicable ANSWER:

Match the following term to its definition or description provided. a. ampule b. diphtheria c. epiglottitis d. epinephrine e. gauge f. immunization g. incubation period h. influenza i. intravenous (IV) j. meningitis 41. A hormone produced by the adrenal medulla ANSWER:

42. A small glass container that can be sealed and its contents sterilized ANSWER:

43. An acute illness characterized by fever, pain, coughing, and general upper respiratory symptoms ANSWER: h 44. Becoming immune or the process of rendering a patient immune ANSWER:

45. Inflammation of the meninges of the brain and/or spinal cord Page 6

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations ANSWER: 46. A cartilaginous lid that closes over the larynx when swallowing ANSWER:

47. An acute infectious disease characterized by the formation of a false membrane on any mucous surface,

usually in the air passages, interfering with breathing ANSWER:

48. To insert into the vein ANSWER:

49. The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom ANSWER:

50. The size of a needle bore; the smaller the number the larger the needle bore ANSWER:

Match the following terms to its definition or description. a. needlesticks b. photosensitivity c. rubella d. sensitivity e. series f. subcutaneous g. varicella h. vial i. Z-track IM 51. Inability to tolerate light due to medication effects or illness ANSWER:

52. Beneath the skin ANSWER:

53. A small glass tube or bottle containing medication or a chemical ANSWER:

54. Abnormal susceptibility to a substance ANSWER:

55. A method of injecting medication intramuscularly ANSWER:

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations 56. Unintentional injury that occurs in the course of handling injection materials used for medication

administration ANSWER:

57. A group; a set of things in the same class coming one after another ANSWER:

58. (German measles) a mild contagious viral disease that may cause severe damage to an unborn child ANSWER: c 59. Also known as chicken pox; a highly contagious disease caused by the varicella zoster virus ANSWER:

60. The parenteral route of administering medication: a is injecting medication through the skin or directly into a vein or artery b. involves increased costs c. involves increased risks d. all of the above ANSWER:

61. Which type of injection is used for a tuberculin skin test or allergy test? a. intradermal b. subcutaneous c. intramuscular d. all of the above ANSWER:

62. Medical assistants are not permitted to administer medications through which of the following route(s)? a. intramuscular b. intrathecal c. intradermal d. subcutaneous ANSWER:

63. You should recap a needle: a after the injection b. before placing in the sharps container c. before the injection while preparing the patient and injection site d. never ANSWER:

64. Which of the following statements is true about needle safety?

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations a Some needle and syringe units have a shield that locks into place over used needles to prevent injury

to the user. b. There are safety devices that activate by the touch of a finger to click a shield over the used needle or retract the needle into a sleeve on the syringe. c. Some have a sheath cover that clicks into place to cover the used needle completely. d. All of the above ANSWER:

Match the site for intramuscular injection to the term provided. a. deltoid b. ventrogluteal c. vastus lateralis d. dorsogluteal 65. Mid-portion of the thigh ANSWER:

66. Lateral outside portion of the hip ANSWER:

67. Upper, outer portion of the hip ANSWER:

68. Upper, outer arm ANSWER:

Proper positioning of patients is important when performing injections. Match the positioning to the site used for the injection. a. b. c. d.

deltoid vastus lateralis ventrogluteal gluteus muscle

69. The patient may be sitting or lying in the horizontal recumbent position ANSWER:

70. The patient should be sitting ANSWER:

71. Ask the patient to lie in prone position on the treatment table with the toes pointed inward or to lean over the

treatment table and stand on the noninjection-site leg to relax the muscle ANSWER:

72. The patient should be asked to lie on his or her side Page 9

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Chapter 53: Administering Injections and Immunizations ANSWER:

73. When administering IM injections, the needle is

in length or longer to penetrate many layers of

tissue. a. b. c.

½–⅝ inch ⅝–1 inch

more than three inches

one to three inches

ANSWER:

74. The preferred injection site for infants and young children is the: a. vastus lateralis c.

ventrogluteal deltoid

dorsogluteal

ANSWER:

75. Which agency publishes an annual recommended childhood and adolescent immunization schedule for the United States? a The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) b. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) d. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) ANSWER:

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community 1. Which of the following is least likely to be included in a medical office emergency kit? a. sterile dressings b. alcohol wipes c. protective eyewear d. oxygen tank ANSWER:

2. A medical office emergency kit is least likely to include which of the following medications? a. epinephrine b. instant glucose c. sodium bicarbonate d. penicillin ANSWER:

3. When a patient expires in the office, who is typically notified to pick up the body for postmortem examination? a. coroner b. mortician c. local hospital d. local fire/rescue service ANSWER: a 4. When an emergency call requires another person in the office to call 911, after relaying the immediate information to EMS, you should not: a hang up once the caller understands that help is coming b. give the caller appropriate specific instructions in relation to the situation c. reassure the caller that EMS is on the way d. try to stay calm and support the caller until EMS arrives ANSWER: a 5. Which of the following organizations does not commonly provide CPR training to the public? a. National Safety Council b. Blue Cross c. American Heart Association d. American Safety and Health Institute ANSWER: 6. When a patient goes into cardiac arrest, each minute of ventricular fibrillation results in an approximate decrease in survival. a.1 b.5 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER:

b percent

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community 7. When a patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR is necessary a. before b. after c. before and after d. before, during, and after ANSWER:

using an AED.

8. An AED should not be used on a patient: a. between the ages of 1 and 8 b. located in water c. with an implanted pacemaker d. with any kind of transdermal patch ANSWER:

9. When performing CPR on an infant, you should: a perform chest compressions only b. assess the infant’s consciousness by pinching the earlobe c. use the carotid artery to check for a return of the pulse d. cover the infant’s mouth and nose with a resuscitation mouthpiece ANSWER:

10. A subtle condition is one that: a is hidden, not apparent, and treacherous . b. c. d. ANSWER:

has a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a short course is long, drawn out, and not acute may cause death

11. When injuries are

a , multiple sites are usually involved and considerable medical attention is required. a. acute b. sudden c. urgent d. severe

ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is a symptom of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperglycemia? a. irritability b. fruity odor on the breath c. headache d. seizures Page 2

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community ANSWER:

13. Which of the following is not a sign that a patient is having a heart attack? a pain radiating down one or both arms . b. tightness of the chest c. slow, strong pulse d. profuse perspiration ANSWER:

14. Many providers recommend that a patient who is having a heart attack take: a. an epinephrine injection b. one regular-size aspirin c. several regular-size aspirin d. an insulin injection ANSWER:

15. When patients experience diaphoresis, they are in danger of losing a large amount of: a. body salt b. blood sugar c. natural oils d. oxygen ANSWER:

16. When patients have heat exhaustion, they: a frequently are unable to perspire b. should try to get up and move around to increase blood flow c. should refrain from drinking cool water d. may experience dizziness and fatigue ANSWER:

17. Which of the following is not one of the body parts most often damaged by excessive cold? a. hands b. trunk c. feet d. ears ANSWER:

18. Bleeding from a vein will produce: a. a steady flow of dark red blood b. a steady flow of bright red blood c. dark red blood in spurts d. bright red blood in spurts Page 3

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community ANSWER:

19. An abdominal thrust is used to relieve an obstructed airway in adults and children over the age of: a. six months b. one year c. five years d. 10 years ANSWER:

20. How should you position an infant with a blocked airway before attempting to clear the airway with back slaps? a body against your chest and the head facing backward over your shoulder b. body against your chest and the head facing forward c. face down on your forearm with the head lower than the body d. face down on your forearm with the head higher than the body ANSWER: c Match each term with its definition. a medical emergency . b. office policy manual c. crash cart d. automated external defibrillator (AED) e. universal emergency medical identification symbol f. first responders g. autopsy h. sudden cardiac arrest i. artificial respiration j. electrodes 21. Trained personnel usually provided by the police and/or fire departments ANSWER:

22. This should include guidelines to follow when dealing with emergencies ANSWER:

23. Total, abrupt, and unexpected loss of heart function ANSWER:

24. Used in addition to CPR if the heart is in arrest ANSWER:

25. Mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing ANSWER:

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community 26. Any situation in which an individual suddenly becomes ill or has an injury or circumstances calling for decided action ANSWER: a 27. Contains the supplies and equipment necessary to handle medical emergencies that may arise in the medical office ANSWER: c 28. Required to establish the cause of death that is recorded on the death certificate if the patient has not been examined by a provider within a fairly recent time frame ANSWER: g 29. Designed by the American Medical Association as a way for individuals with certain medical conditions to alert health care workers of their conditions when they are unable to ANSWER: e 30. Pads placed on a patient’s chest when using an AED ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. syncope b. spirits of ammonia capsules c. myocardial infarction d. atherosclerosis e. nasal cannula f. hypothermia g. hemorrhage h. seizure i. finger sweep j. cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 31. Used when administering oxygen to a patient ANSWER:

32. Excessive, uncontrolled bleeding ANSWER:

33. Performed to remove an object that has been dislodged from a patient’s airway but has not been expelled from the mouth ANSWER: i 34. Medical term for fainting ANSWER:

35. Causes a buildup of plaque in the coronary arteries ANSWER:

36. Result of a ruptured blood vessel in the brain or an occlusion of a blood vessel Page 5

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community ANSWER: 37. Medical term for a heart attack ANSWER:

38. Occurs when your body loses heat faster than it can produce it, resulting in a dangerously low body temperature ANSWER: f 39. Severe, involuntary contraction of muscles that first causes a patient to become rigid and then to have uncontrollable movements ANSWER: h 40. Used to arouse a patient who has fainted ANSWER:

Match the following term with its definition or description. a. acute b. airway c. ammonia d. aspiration e. cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) f. coma g. cessation h. chronic i. compressions j. consciousness 41. Strong-smelling inhalant used to revive a person who has fainted ANSWER:

42. An abnormal deep stupor from which a person cannot be aroused by external stimuli ANSWER:

43. Awareness, full knowledge of what is in one’s own mind ANSWER:

44. To exert force against, press ANSWER:

45. A combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac

arrest ANSWER:

46. Continuing a long time, returning; not acute Page 6

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community ANSWER:

47. Having a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and short course ANSWER:

48. Ceasing or discontinuing ANSWER:

49. The path that air follows to get into and out of the lungs ANSWER:

50. Removal by suction ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition or description. a. diabetic ketoacidosis b. diaphoresis c. emergency d. emergency medical services (EMS) e. emergency preparedness f. exhaustion g. flushed h. frostbite i. heat cramps j. heatstroke k. sudden l. trauma m. urgent 51. Extreme fatigue ANSWER:

52. A group that provides out-of-hospital acute medical care and/or transport to definitive care to patients

experiencing a medical emergency ANSWER:

53. Painful, brief muscle cramps that occur during exercise or work in a hot environment; muscles may spasm or

jerk involuntarily ANSWER: 54. Profuse sweating ANSWER:

55. Severe condition caused by impairment of the body’s temperature-regulating abilities, resulting from Page 7

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community prolonged exposure to excessive heat and characterized by cessation of sweating, severe headache, high fever, hot dry skin, and in serious cases collapse and coma ANSWER:

56. Sudden reddish coloration of the skin ANSWER:

57. An unexpected occurrence or situation demanding immediate action ANSWER:

58. A complication of diabetes that occurs when the body cannot use sugar (glucose) as a fuel source because

the body has no insulin or not enough insulin, and fat is used instead ANSWER:

59. A condition where localized damage is caused to skin and other tissues due to extreme cold ANSWER:

60. Actions taken in anticipation of an emergency to facilitate rapid, effective and appropriate response to the

situation ANSWER:

61. Any injury, physical or mental ANSWER: 62. Requiring immediate attention ANSWER: 63. Happening without warning or in a short space of time ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition or description. a. hyperglycemia b. hypoglycemia c. ingested d. insulin shock e. intubation f. life-threatening g. obstructed h. poison i. postmortem j. prophylactic 64. Increase of blood sugar, as in diabetes ANSWER:

a Page 8

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community 65. Blocked ANSWER:

66. Insertion of a tube into the larynx for entrance of air ANSWER:

67. To eat ANSWER:

68. Preventing disease ANSWER:

69. Pertaining to or occurring during the period after death; common term for autopsy ANSWER:

70. Deficiency of sugar in the blood ANSWER:

71. A substance that, if taken internally or applied externally, is a threat to life ANSWER:

72. Used to describe diseases or conditions where the likelihood of death is high ANSWER: 73. A condition of excess insulin or lack of blood sugar ANSWER:

74. The purpose of CPR is to keep oxygen flowing to the lungs and blood flowing to the brain and other vital

organs until normal heart rhythm can be restored. CPR involves which of the following two elements? a . b. c. d. ANSWER:

chest compression and AED artificial respiration and AED chest compression and artificial respiration any of the above c

75. The CPR procedure is easily remembered by applying the A-B-Cs. Correctly identify the A-B-C in CPR. a. Ambu, bag, chest b. act, breathing, chest c. airway, breathing, chest d. airway, breathing, compressions ANSWER: d Page 9

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community 76. Emergency evacuations can be required for any number of situations. Which of the following would not be

considered an essential principle in emergency evacuations? a The planned route of escape posted in the employee break area. b. Follow all emergency preparedness policies and procedures. c. Address how to evacuate and assist patients with special needs. d. Determine who is responsible for informing emergency response services and other building

occupants if necessary. ANSWER:

77. Emergency evacuations can be required for any number of situations. Which of the following would not be

considered an essential principle in emergency evacuation planning? a Instruct all parties to remain in place prior to the evacuation. b. Inspect facility for all possible evacuation routes. c. For each area of the office, assign a staff member to be responsible for ensuring evacuation of patients, personnel, and visitors. d. After reaching the assembly point, verify that all patients, visitors, and staff are present. ANSWER:

78. The AED is used in connection with CPR to restore cardiac function. Which of the following is not a

function of the AED? a Initiates rescue breathing. b. Analyzes the heart rhythm of a person in fibrillation or arrest. c. Recognizes a shockable rhythm. d. Advises the operator through lights, text, and voice prompts if shock is indicated. ANSWER:

Match the symptom to the medical issue or disease. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. heart attack b. heatstroke c. heat exhaustion d. internal bleeding e. shock f. hyperglycemia g. hypoglycemia 79. Pain in the jaw, neck, shoulder, back, or ear ANSWER:

80. The patient becomes overheated with profuse perspiration, usually after some form of vigorous exercise ANSWER: c 81. Insulin shock; can occur from an excess amount of insulin in the body Page 10

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Chapter 54: Emergencies in the Medical Office and the Community ANSWER:

82. Complaining of severe chest pain or pressure ANSWER:

83. Thirst or very dry mouth; frequent urination; dry or flushed skin; nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain ANSWER: f 84. The pulse is usually rapid and weak ANSWER:

85. The skin will be hot and dry, and the body temperature can be above 40°C/104°F ANSWER:

86. Causes symptoms similar to those of shock; the patient can have a rapid, weak pulse; shallow breathing;

cold, clammy skin; dilated pupils; dizziness; faintness; thirst; restlessness; and a feeling of anxiety ANSWER:

87. The most severe of the heat-related problems ANSWER:

88. High blood glucose levels; high levels of ketones in the urine ANSWER:

89. A condition in which the pulse becomes rapid and weak, the blood pressure drops, and the patient is pale and

clammy ANSWER:

90. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of stroke (CVA)? a chest pain or pressure b. immediate paralysis in the form of sagging muscles on one side of the face c. the inability to use an arm or leg d. unequal size of pupils of the eyes ANSWER:

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 1. If a foreign body is lodged under the upper eyelid, it may be possible for a medical assistant to remove it by: using forceps b. pulling the upper lid down over the lower lid c. rubbing the eye with a cotton ball moistened with alcohol d. irrigating the eye with a witch hazel solution ANSWER: b that becomes lodged in a person’s ear.

2. Water should not be used to try to remove a a. pebble b. marble c. pea d. small piece of plastic ANSWER: 3. Splinters can generally be removed with a. an alcohol swab b. tweezers c. a tongue depressor d. a sterile needle ANSWER:

c and splinter forceps.

4. If a patient sprains an ankle, ice should be applied for the first a. 5–10 b. 12–24 c. 24–48 d. 48–72 ANSWER:

hours, or until the swelling is reduced.

5. A sprained ankle should be: a elevated for two to three days b. elevated for five to seven days c. kept at a position lower than the heart for two to three days d. kept at a position lower than the heart for five to seven days ANSWER:

6. The only first aid measure for a dislocation is to a. ice b. immobilize c. elevate d. apply heat to ANSWER:

the affected area and get to a medical office or hospital.

7. Animal bites are considered dangerous because of the possibility of infection or the transmission of: Page 1

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries a. b. c. d.

HIV Lyme disease rabies hepatitis

ANSWER:

8. With all human bites, a tetanus injection must be administered to patients if they have not received one within years. a. five b. seven c. 12 d. 15 ANSWER: a 9. A(n)

burn is caused by contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of acids or alkalines. a. solar b. thermal c. electrical d. chemical

ANSWER:

10. Which of the following is considered a moderate burn? a third-degree burn covering less than 2 percent of BSA b. third-degree burn covering more than 10 percent of BSA c. second-degree burn covering 20 percent of an adult’s body d. second-degree burn covering 5 percent of a child’s body ANSWER:

11. Ferning markings on a patient’s body are characteristic of burns caused by: a. lightning b. too much exposure to the sun c. heated metal d. an acidic chemical ANSWER:

12. When a provider recommends moist heat, the standard instruction is: a on for 10 minutes and off for 20 minutes . b. on for 20 minutes and off for 10 minutes c. on for 10 minutes and off for 10 minutes d. on for 20 minutes and off for 20 minutes ANSWER:

b Page 2

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 13. When a wound has been bleeding severely, a medical care immediately. a. tourniquet b. moist sponge c. pressure bandage d. clamp ANSWER:

should be applied securely and the patient taken for emergency

14. An injury on the arms or legs will require the dressing to be held in place with a a. figure-eight b. tube gauze c. cravat d. spiral ANSWER: 15. A wound on the palm or back of the hand should be protected with a dressing and a a. spiral b. figure-eight c. tube gauze d. cravat ANSWER:

c bandage.

d bandage.

Match each type of fracture with its definition. a. greenstick b. closed c. transverse d. oblique e. open f. impacted g. comminuted h. spiral i. depressed j. Colles k. Potts 16. Bone partially bent and partially broken; often occurs in children ANSWER:

17. Crushing or splintering of the bone ANSWER:

18. Fragments or portions of the bone pressed down into the skull; can be into the brain and surrounding tissue ANSWER:

i Page 3

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 19. Skin intact over the fracture; the bone is completely broken into two or more pieces ANSWER:

20. Open wound over the ends of the fractured bones; often an end of the bone is visible ANSWER:

21. Fracture of the distal end of the radius bone in the wrist ANSWER: 22. Diagonal fracture of a bone ANSWER:

23. One bone fragment is wedged into another bone fragment ANSWER:

24. Fracture crosses the bone at a 90-degree angle to the bone’s axis ANSWER:

25. Fracture twists around a long bone ANSWER:

26. Fracture of the lower part of the fibula with serious injury of the lower tibial articulation, usually a chipping

off of a portion of the medial malleolus or rupture of the medial ligament ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. foreign body b. forceps c. nipper pliers d. strain e. sprain f. compression g. superficial burn h. partial-thickness burn i. full thickness burn j. abrasion k. avulsion l. incision m. laceration n. puncture wound o. cravat 27. Second-degree burn ANSWER:

h Page 4

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 28. Accomplished with an ACE wrap or ankle brace ANSWER:

29. Wound made with a pointed object, such as an ice pick, knife, or nail ANSWER:

30. Used to cut off the barb when removing a fishhook embedded in a patient’s skin ANSWER:

31. Used to hold a dressing in place on the forehead, eyes, or ears ANSWER:

32. Common after engaging in any strenuous activity that one is not accustomed to doing ANSWER:

33. Third- or fourth-degree burn ANSWER:

34. Wound caused by a sharp object that leaves a clean cut ANSWER:

35. Used to remove objects children put in their noses ANSWER:

36. First-degree burn ANSWER:

37. Scrape of the epidermis with dots of blood and the possible presence of foreign material, such as dirt or gravel ANSWER: j 38. Substance or object that becomes lodged in any part of the human body ANSWER: 39. Tearing of body tissue ANSWER:

40. Usually the result of overuse or trauma from twisting the joint ANSWER:

41. Wound in which the skin is torn off and there is profuse bleeding ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition or description. a. anaphylactic b. chemical c. electrical Page 5

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m.

friction immobilize molten rabies RICE shock splinter superficial thermal wound

42. Resistance of one surface to the motion of another surface rubbing over it ANSWER:

43. A severe and rapid multisystem allergic reaction ANSWER:

44. A thin sharp piece of wood ANSWER: 45. An injury to living tissue, especially an injury involving a cut or break in the skin ANSWER:

46. Abbreviation for rest, ice, compression, elevation, referring to the treatment for sprains and strains ANSWER: h 47. On the surface ANSWER:

48. A type of burn that occurs after contact with faulty electrical wiring, a child chewing on an electrical cord, or

from downed high-voltage power lines ANSWER:

49. Melted ANSWER:

50. A simple or compound substance used in chemical processes; a type of burn from contact with, ingestion,

inhalation, or injection of acids or alkalines ANSWER:

51. Characterized by heat; heat activated; a type of burn caused by residential fires; automobile accidents;

playing with matches; accidents with gasoline, space heaters, or firecrackers; scalding water from the stove or tub; and coming in contact with curling irons, stoves, or clothing irons ANSWER:

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 52. A condition in which the pulse becomes rapid and weak, the blood pressure drops, and the patient is pale and

clammy ANSWER:

53. To keep out of action or circulation; stationary ANSWER:

54. An acute viral disease of the nervous system of warm-blooded animals; usually transmitted by the bite of a

rabid animal ANSWER:

55. Knowing what to do when an accident or injury occurs is very helpful not only in your professional life but

also in your personal life. You can respond quickly and efficiently to sudden incidents without becoming overly anxious or upset when you have a basic understanding of . a. b. c. d.

emergency medical services (EMS) first aid triage a first responder

ANSWER:

56. When screening patients over the phone, you need specific information before you can determine whether

the situation warrants emergency medical care, an office visit, or management at home. Which of the following would be considered vital information to obtain? a A brief history of the victim’s situation. b. The nature of the initial injury or accident; the time the accident occurred or the illness began. c. A description of the victim’s current condition. d. All of the above ANSWER:

Match the type of burn with its cause. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. thermal b. chemical c. electrical 57. Contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of acids ANSWER:

58. Firecrackers ANSWER:

59. From downed high-voltage power lines ANSWER:

c Page 7

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 60. Accidents with gasoline or space heaters ANSWER:

61. Contact with, ingestion, inhalation, or injection of alkalines ANSWER:

62. Overexposure to the sun ANSWER:

63. From a lightning strike ANSWER:

64. Coming in contact with curling irons, stoves, or clothing irons ANSWER:

Match the classification of burn to its description. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. first-degree b. second-degree c. third- or fourth-degree 65. Involve the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous skin layers, including fat and muscle tissue ANSWER:

66. Also called a partial-thickness burn ANSWER:

67. Also called full-thickness burns ANSWER:

68. Involves the epidermis and part of the dermis ANSWER:

69. Also called a superficial burn ANSWER:

70. Involves an injury primarily to the epidermis, resulting in reddening of the skin and moderately severe pain ANSWER: a 71. Sunburn or contact with boiling water or steam can cause this type of burn ANSWER:

72. The leakage of plasma and electrolytes from the capillaries damaged by the burn into the surrounding tissues

raises the epidermis to form blisters and results in mild to moderate edema and pain ANSWER:

b Page 8

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries 73. No blisters appear, but white, leathery tissue and thrombosed vessels are visible ANSWER:

The treatment of burns depends on the classification of the burn, although the first priority is to stop the burning process. Match the classification or type of burn to the treatment. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b. c. d.

first-degree second-degree third- or fourth-degree chemical burn

74. First aid can include treatment for shock, removal of any jewelry because edema might be severe, providing

ample amounts of liquid to drink, and covering the burned area with a sterile dressing ANSWER:

75. Encourage a victim of severe sunburn to soak in a tub of cool water and drink large amounts of fluids ANSWER: a 76. Should receive immediate medical treatment ANSWER:

77. Healing can be facilitated if the blisters are opened by the provider under aseptic conditions and the area

covered with a sterile dressing ANSWER:

78. Treat with cold water and a dressing to protect the area ANSWER:

79. The only first aid that is appropriate is to cover the burned area with sterile dressings and treat the patient for

shock ANSWER:

80. Following the flooding of water, like all other burns, should be covered with a sterile dressing ANSWER:

81. Treated by removing any clothing from the burn area and then immediately flooding the area with water for

at least 15 minutes ANSWER:

82. You will instruct the patient how to care for bandages and to watch for signs of circulation impairment and

infection. Which of the following is a care instruction to be given? a Watch for redness. . b.

Watch for swelling.

Watch for sensation of pain or fever. Page 9

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Chapter 55: First Aid for Accidents and Injuries d.

All of the above

ANSWER:

83. With animal and human bites: a the wounds must be thoroughly cleansed with an antiseptic soap and rinsed well with water b. the area should be bandaged and immobilized c. the patient should be examined by a provider as soon as possible to determine further treatment d. all of the above ANSWER:

84. Which of the following is not a symptom of a severe allergy to a sting? a Painful swelling with redness and itching. b. The patient might become restless, complain of headache, have shortness of breath, or have mottled

blueness of the skin. c. When shortness of breath is not apparent, the victim might appear to be in shock and have severe nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea. d. If anaphylactic shock is evident, epinephrine should be given as a lifesaving measure. ANSWER:

85. Burns are classified by three methods. Which of the following is not one of the three methods? a the partial- or full-thickness evaluation b. the percentage of body surface area (BSA) involved in the burn c. the Rule of Nines d. the Lund and Browder chart ANSWER:

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation 1. When standing, it is recommended that you point your feet a. outward b. inward c. straight d. in any comfortable direction ANSWER:

and about shoulder width apart.

2. To prevent a back injury when moving heavy objects, you should: a use your body’s weight to push or pull them . b. c. d. ANSWER:

try to lift them by yourself before asking for help hold them away from your body twist your entire body instead of pivoting a

3. When transferring a patient from a wheelchair to an exam table, you should: a unlock the brakes of the wheelchair b. make sure the transfer takes place on the patient’s weaker side c. take advantage of any assistance the patient can provide in lifting and moving d. raise the table so it is at a significantly higher level than the wheelchair ANSWER:

4. When moving patients, you should: have them put their arms around your neck or shoulders b. use a gait belt c. lift them by their arms d. lift them under their armpits ANSWER:

5. If patients suddenly become too weak to stand while you are helping them walk across the room, you should: a ease them to the floor b. try to hold them up until they regain their strength c. lift them and carry them to the closest chair d. support the upper half of their body and drag them to a chair ANSWER: a 6. When supporting a weakened patient, you should keep your back straight, bend from the knees, and use your muscles to handle the weight. a. back b. abdominal c. thigh d. upper arm Page 1

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation ANSWER:

7. Which of the following people are not commonly trained to fit people for and instruct them in how to use various pieces of mobility equipment? a. therapy aides b. medical supply representatives c. physical therapists d. pharmaceutical sales representatives ANSWER: d 8. Which of the following practices is recommended to help maintain a safe home environment for a patient using an ambulatory aid? a Replace wall-to-wall carpeting with throw rugs. b. Have the patient wear shoes with smooth, low-resistance soles. c. Keep floors free of spills and clutter. d. Wax wood floors regularly to prevent “sticking.” ANSWER: c 9. The standard adult sling is about 55 inches across the base and a. 24–30 b. 36–40 c. 46–50 d. 55–60 ANSWER:

inches along the sides.

10. When applying an arm sling, a patient’s hand should be: a elevated to avoid swelling . b. c. d. ANSWER:

lowered to reduce circulation completely immobilized with an additional bandage positioned perpendicular to the body

11. When applying an arm sling, you should position the arm into a like opening of the sling. a. 45 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 ANSWER:

a -degree angle, and then slide it into the pouch-

12. When applying an arm sling, the patient’s fingers should: a be completely covered by the sling Page 2

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation b. extend slightly beyond the edge of the sling c. extend as far beyond the edge of the sling as possible d. be positioned in any manner that is comfortable for the patient ANSWER:

13. A cane should fit comfortably in a patient’s hand with the arm hanging naturally at the side and the elbow flexed at about a -degree angle. a. 10–15 b. 15–20 c. 20–25 d. 25–30 ANSWER: d 14. When the patient walks with a cane, the cane should swing forward: a. with the injured extremity b. with the uninjured extremity c. before either extremity d. after both extremities ANSWER:

15. When using a cane, patients should be instructed to take a. small, rapid b. small, slow c. large, rapid d. large, slow ANSWER:

steps.

16. When using crutches, patients should place them approximately four to five inches in front and of their heels. a. one to two b. three to four c. four to five d. five to six ANSWER: 17. When using a walker, a patient should: a move the walker forward and then step into it while leaning slightly forward b. move the walker forward and then step into it while leaning slightly back c. step forward and move the walker simultaneously d. allow the walker to drag across the floor while taking normal steps ANSWER:

inches to the side

18. Which of the following is not a commonly available feature of walkers? Page 3

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation a. b. c. d.

wheels hand brakes seat runners

ANSWER:

19. The height of a walker should be adjusted so that the handles are at hip level, and the bend of the patient’s elbows is at a -degree angle. a. 15–20 b. 25–30 c. 30–45 d. 60–90 ANSWER: b 20. People who have followed a regular exercise routine report that they: a. feel depressed b. tire easily c. feel healthier d. have less energy ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. body mechanics b. gait belt c. supporting device d. sling e. quad-base cane f. crutches g. axilla h. walker i. nonskid shoes j. wheelchair k. Lofstrand/Canadian l. nursing aide m. exercise n. ROM o. physical therapist 21. Commonly used to give a foot, ankle, knee, or leg injury or surgery an opportunity to heal ANSWER: 22. Often used to support an arm after a fracture or injury to the shoulder or arm ANSWER:

d Page 4

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation 23. Type of exercise consisting of any body action that involves muscles, joints, and natural directional movements ANSWER: n 24. Patients must wear these when you instruct them on how to use a walker ANSWER:

25. Crutches should be adjusted so that the underarm pad is about two inches below this ANSWER:

26. Patients are frequently referred to this person for treatment and instruction in range-of-motion exercises ANSWER:

27. This has four “feet” that provide a stable base that gives a patient better support ANSWER:

28. Patients who are residents of retirement facilities often arrive by wheelchair and may be accompanied by this person ANSWER: l 29. Practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body positioning to reduce the risk of injury to both patient and caregiver ANSWER: a 30. Participation in a regular program of this can improve a patient’s strength and flexibility ANSWER:

31. Some form of this is often needed to allow a person to have as much mobility as possible after a serious illness or accident ANSWER: c 32. Type of crutch that is commonly referred to as a forearm crutch ANSWER:

33. This should always be used when transferring a patient to or from a wheelchair ANSWER:

34. Used to enable a person who would otherwise be immobile to get around ANSWER: 35. This is useful for patients who, because of age or physical condition, cannot safely use crutches ANSWER:

Match each gait with its definition. a. two-point gait b. three-point gait c. four-point gait Page 5

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation d. e.

swing-to gait swing-through gait

36. Positions both crutches and the left foot forward and then brings up the right foot ANSWER:

37. Matches the crutch to the opposite foot, moving them together ANSWER:

38. Crutches are moved forward simultaneously and the weight is transferred forward, then both feet are swung forward together up to the crutches ANSWER: d 39. Crutches are moved forward, weight is transferred, and both feet are swung through the crutches, stopping slightly in front ANSWER: e 40. Right crutch is positioned first, followed by moving the left foot, and then the left crutch is moved forward, followed by the right foot ANSWER: c Match the ROM exercise movement with its description. a. abduction b. adduction c. dorsiflexion d. extension e. flexion f. hyperextension g. inversion h. plantar flexion i. pronation j. rotation k. supination 41. Extension of the entire foot superiorly, as if taking one’s foot off an automobile pedal ANSWER:

42. A rotation of the forearm that moves the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position

or palm facing down ANSWER:

43. Bending movement that decreases the angle between two parts. Bending the elbow or clenching a hand into

a fist are examples of flexion ANSWER:

e Page 6

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation 44. A motion that pulls a structure or part toward the midline of the body or toward the midline of a limb ANSWER: b 45. A motion that pulls a structure or part away from the midline of the body (or, in the case of fingers and toes,

spreading the digits apart) ANSWER:

46. Flexion of the entire foot inferiorly as if pressing an automobile pedal ANSWER:

47. The opposite of pronation; the rotation of the forearm so that the palm is anterior facing or palm facing up ANSWER: k 48. A motion that turns a part on its axis (the head rotates on the neck) ANSWER:

49. A position of maximum extension or extending a body part beyond its normal limits ANSWER:

50. The opposite of flexion; a straightening movement that increases the angle between body parts ANSWER:

51. The movement of the sole toward the median plane (same as when an ankle is twisted) ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition or description. a. ambulate b. angle c. axilla d. body mechanics e. crutches f. flexibility g. gait h. mobility i. quad-base j. range of motion (ROM) k. sling l. stabilize m. support n. walker o. wheelchair 52. The use of appropriate body positioning when moving and lifting objects to avoid injury Page 7

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation ANSWER:

53. Manner of walking ANSWER:

54. To make steady; firmly fixed; constant ANSWER:

55. The inclination of two straight lines that meet in a point ANSWER:

56. Easily bent, compliant, yielding to persuasion ANSWER:

57. A type of mobility device, useful for patients who cannot safely use crutches or a cane ANSWER:

58. Refers to a cane with four “feet” ANSWER:

59. The underarm area, armpit ANSWER:

60. To walk, not be confined to bed ANSWER:

61. To hold up; to bear part of the weight of ANSWER:

62. Staffs with a cross-piece at the top to place under the arms of a lame person ANSWER:

63. A chair fitted with wheels by which a person can propel oneself ANSWER:

64. Refers to the degree of movement of the body’s joints and extremities ANSWER:

65. Quality of being mobile; easy to move ANSWER:

66. A hanging support for an injured arm ANSWER:

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation 67. Ergonomics covers a large scope and is often discussed in the front office with employees who are working

with computers or spending a lot of time sitting at a desk. Which of the following relates to assessing those work-related factors that can pose a risk of musculoskeletal disorders? a repetitive, forceful, or prolonged exertions of the hands b. frequent or heavy lifting, pushing, pulling, or carrying heavy objects c. prolonged awkward postures d. all of the above ANSWER:

68. What is the practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body

positioning to reduce the risk for injury to both patient and caregiver known as? a. b. c. d.

body mechanics proper ergonomics proper alignment body principles

ANSWER:

69. Which of the following would not be considered a way to help patients and their families identify techniques to

maintain a safe home environment for persons using ambulatory aids? a Place a throw rug on the floor beside the bed. b. Keep floors free of spills and clutter. c. Avoid any bare floor-care product, such as floor wax, that might cause the floor to be slippery. d. Appropriate footwear is worn; it should be well fitting and have a nonslip walking surface. ANSWER:

70. Practicing good body mechanics starts with: a good posture . b. keeping your shoulders rounded c. keeping your feet at a slight angle d. keeping your weight balanced on your left leg ANSWER:

71. A tip for good body mechanics when sitting is: a Get up and stretch often, and take short walks if you can. b. Place one foot up on a small stool or other similar object. c. Place a pillow under your knees. d. All of the above ANSWER:

72. A tip for good body mechanics when standing is: Page 9

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Chapter 56: Rehabilitation Get up and stretch often, and take short walks if you can. b. Place one foot up on a small stool or other similar object. c. Place a pillow under your knees. a

d. All of the above ANSWER:

73. Before beginning any patient transfer, observe certain precautions. Which of the following is not an accurate

description of necessary precautions? a Have patients put their arms around your neck or your shoulders. b. Lock the brakes of a wheelchair and make sure the exam table or other surface will not move during the transfer. c. If the patient is stronger on one side, make sure that is the side on which the transfer will take place. d. Thoroughly explain to the patient what you intend to do and make sure the patient understands what to expect during the transfer. ANSWER:

is the practice of using certain key muscle groups together with good body alignment and proper body positioning to reduce the risk for injury to both patient and caregiver. 74.

a. b.

Anterior-posterior positioning

c. d.

Range of motion All of the above

Body mechanics

ANSWER:

75. Why should you instruct the patient to take small, slow steps when using a cane? a To assist the patient when sitting down. b. Because it aids in maintaining balance. c. When the cane is too low the patient has to bend forward. d. All of the above ANSWER:

76. To reduce the risk for injury to both patient and caregiver when caring for patients or lifting equipment and supplies, the medical assistant must: a practice ergonomics . b. use proper body mechanics c. always ask for assistance from a coworker d. all of the above ANSWER: b

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living 1. The body does not get energy from: a. proteins b. fats c. carbohydrates d. minerals ANSWER:

2. A single portion of which of the following foods contains only a trace of carbohydrates? a. apple b. green beans c. butter d. pecan pie ANSWER:

3. Vitamins are called: a. b. c. d. ANSWER:

micronutrients macronutrients antinutrients enzymatic nutrients

4. Scurvy is the result of a deficiency of: a. vitamin B b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. thiamine ANSWER:

5. Which of the following minerals are most often found to be lacking from the diet? a. calcium, iron, and iodine b. magnesium, iron, and fluorine c. zinc, cobalt, and calcium d. magnesium, zinc, and potassium ANSWER:

6. A vitamin A deficiency can cause: a. rickets b. anemia c. night blindness d. tetany ANSWER:

7. What is the main dietary source of vitamin D? Page 1

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living a. b. c. d.

fish liver oil liver egg yolk fortified milk

ANSWER:

8. A deficiency of which of the following can cause dermatosis? a. essential fatty acids b. vitamin K c. niacin d. vitamin E ANSWER:

9. Which of the following is not a primary source of thiamine? a. dried yeast b. leafy vegetables c. nuts d. potatoes ANSWER:

10. A

deficiency can lead to convulsions in infants. a. folic acid b. riboflavin c. vitamin B6 d. sodium

ANSWER:

11. Which of the following is a function of vitamin B12? a. nitrogen metabolism b. maturation of red blood cells c. peripheral nerve cell function d. collagen formation ANSWER:

12. Which of the following foods is a good source of phosphorus? a. poultry b. bananas c. raisins d. dried yeast ANSWER:

13. Fluorine is important for proper: Page 2

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living a. b. c. d.

muscle activity hemoglobin formation blood coagulation bone and tooth formation

ANSWER:

14. A copper deficiency can cause: a. cirrhosis b. renal failure c. anemia in malnourished children d. paralysis ANSWER:

15. The MyPlate program: a is intended to encourage Americans to make healthier food choices b. is a one-size-fits-all system c. uses “servings” numbers instead of household measures d. focuses solely on food ANSWER:

16. Some food labels include the designation “Exchange” to assist patients with category. a. hepatitis b. diabetes c. cancer d. asthma ANSWER:

to select food within a particular

17. Labels on dietary supplements should contain all but which of the following? a. list of ingredients b. suggested dosage c. an FDA endorsement d. any warning to their use ANSWER:

18. European studies suggest that which dietary supplement may slow the progress of Alzheimer’s disease? a. gingko biloba b. ginseng c. echinacea d. black cohosh ANSWER:

19. A clear liquid diet for adults includes all but which of the following? Page 3

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living a. b. c. d.

Gatorade no-caffeine soda flavored gelatin flavored frozen juice bars

ANSWER: 20. Eating no more than a total of

ANSWER:

c percent of calories from fat each day is recommended for a healthy heart. a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 b

21. Tea is the beverage of choice in which cultural diet? a. Catholic b. Hindu c. Islamic d. Chinese ANSWER:

22. Kosher meals are an important component of which cultural diet? a. Jewish b. Italian c. Mexican d. Seventh-Day Adventist ANSWER:

23. When patients tell you they have not been getting any sleep at night, you should ask: a how long and where they sleep b. how long and when they sleep c. when and where they sleep d. what they do to help themselves stay awake after a poor night of sleep ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. health b. nutrition c. exercise d. vitamins e. minerals f. hyponatremia g. hypokalemia Page 4

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living h. i. j. k. l.

hypocalcemia hypomagnesemia chemical additives anorexia nervosa bulimia

24. Condition in which a person refuses to eat over a period of time ANSWER:

25. Caused by a magnesium deficiency ANSWER:

26. State of complete physical, mental, and social well-being ANSWER:

27. Naturally occurring, inorganic, homogeneous, solid substances ANSWER:

28. Caused by a calcium deficiency ANSWER:

29. All the processes involved in the taking in and utilization of food substances by which growth, repair, and maintenance of activities in the body as a whole or in any of its parts are accomplished ANSWER: b 30. Caused by a potassium deficiency ANSWER:

31. Organic substances found in foods that are essential to good health and growth ANSWER:

32. Condition in which a person eats a very large quantity of food at one time, but uses purging to rid the body of the calories ANSWER: l 33. Burns calories and makes us more flexible, strong, and healthy ANSWER: 34. Caused by a sodium deficiency ANSWER: 35. Enhance the taste or color of food or prolong the shelf life of a product ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. spinach Page 5

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n.

ginger garlic melatonin willow bark echinacea saw palmetto glucosamine sulfate ginseng therapeutic diets stretching positive outlook sleep insomnia

36. Natural way for the body to restore itself ANSWER: 37. Used to relieve pain for more than 2400 years ANSWER:

38. This is considered most helpful in coping with life in general ANSWER: 39. Food that seems to have some ability to lower cholesterol and blood pressure ANSWER:

40. Used in the treatment of patients with a specific disease or disorder ANSWER:

41. An herb reported to stimulate the immune system to help prevent developing a cold or the flu ANSWER:

42. Term used to describe not being able to sleep ANSWER:

43. Food that contains a lot of folate and vitamin C ANSWER:

44. Chemical, produced naturally in the human body as well as in nature, that is promoted as a product to relieve the pain of osteoarthritis ANSWER: h 45. Hormone, produced naturally in the pineal gland within the brain, that plays a part in regulating sleep patterns ANSWER: d Page 6

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living 46. Recommended before any type of exercise to prevent injury ANSWER:

47. Food that can settle the stomach in certain instances ANSWER:

48. Plant that produces berries containing phytosterol compounds that scientists think might slow down the production of male testosterone ANSWER: g 49. Root of a shrub native to China and Korea used to support overall health, boost the immune system, and treat erectile dysfunction, hepatitis C, and menopausal symptoms ANSWER: i Match the term to its definition or description. a. additive b. amenorrhea c. anorexic d. beriberi e. binge f. calorie g. carbohydrate h. deprivation i. dietitian j. emaciation 50. A spree; to overindulge, such as with alcohol or food ANSWER:

51. To be deprived; without; having to do without or unable to use ANSWER:

52. Absence of menses; without menstruation ANSWER:

53. One suffering from anorexia ANSWER:

54. To become abnormally thin; the loss of too much weight ANSWER: 55. An organic combination of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen as a sugar, a starch, or cellulose ANSWER:

56. One who is trained in dietetics, which includes nutrition, and in charge of the diet of an institution Page 7

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living ANSWER:

57. A unit for measuring the heat value of food ANSWER:

58. A substance deliberately added to a material to fulfill some specific purpose such as enhancing taste or color

or prolonging shelf life ANSWER:

59. A disease resulting from lack of vitamin B, thiamine ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition or description. a. infirmity b. malnutrition c. NREM (non-rapid eye movement) d. obesity e. protein f. purge g. REM (rapid eye movement) h. rickets i. scurvy j. sleep apnea k. tactile l. water 60. Illness, disease ANSWER:

61. A stage of sleep in which the sleeper experiences rapid eye movement; in a healthy young adult, accounts

for 10–25 percent of sleep time ANSWER:

62. Lack of necessary or proper food substances in the body ANSWER:

63. A disease caused by lack of fresh fruits, vegetables, and vitamin C in the diet ANSWER: 64. Relating to the sense of touch ANSWER:

65. (Albumin); a normal substance found in serum but when found in urine means the presence of an excess of

serum proteins excreted in the urine rather than reabsorbed by the renal tubules; a nutrient found in foods such Page 8

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living as eggs, meat, fish, legumes, and soy products that provides energy to the body ANSWER:

66. Brief episodes of the cessation of breathing during sleep ANSWER:

67. Weighing more than 30 percent above your ideal body weight ANSWER:

68. A disease of the bones primarily due to the deficiency of vitamin D ANSWER:

69. To empty; to cleanse of impurities; clear ANSWER:

70. A stage of sleep in which the sleeper does not experience rapid eye movement; in a healthy young adult,

usually accounts for 75–90 percent of sleep time ANSWER:

71. The odorless and tasteless liquid that descends from the clouds as rain, forms streams, lakes, and seas, and is a major constituent of all living matter ANSWER: l 72. Several servings of

foods (fruits, vegetables, peas and beans, whole grain cereals) should be included in the daily diet to promote a healthy digestive tract and prevent constipation. a. b. c. d.

fiber-rich high carbohydrate low-density lipid nutrient-rich

ANSWER:

73. Which of the following has been suggested to reduce the incidence of cancer? a most alliums (garlic, onions, leeks, and shallots) . b. c. d. ANSWER:

whole grains fruits and vegetables all of the above d

74. Which of the following would be considered a dietary need or consideration for patients with lactose sensitivity? a Patients must be advised to carefully read food labels as many products contain lactose. b. Consume only lactose-free and lactose-reduced milk and milk products. c. Include foods with calcium and vitamin D. Page 9

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living d. All of the above ANSWER:

75. Which of the following would not be considered a dietary need or consideration for patients with gluten sensitivity? a Include garbanzo beans, soy beans, buckwheat and rice flour, fruits and vegetables, fresh eggs, meat,

fish, poultry, and most dairy products. b. Need to eliminate gluten and proteins found in wheat, barley, rye, and triticale in all food and beverages. c. Include foods with calcium and vitamin D. d. Prepare as many meals as possible from scratch. ANSWER:

76. When patients have food allergies, they will follow an allergy avoidance or elimination diet. Depending on the

severity and type of symptoms, an elimination diet may range from: a minimally to moderately restrictive in the amounts of foods allowed b. moderately to severely restrictive in the amounts of foods allowed c. minimally to severely restrictive in the amounts of foods allowed d. all of the above ANSWER:

Match the description provided to a “Do” or Don’t” as indicated in the Guidelines for Good Health Table. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. Do b. Don’t 77. Use drugs or medications unless prescribed for a specific purpose ANSWER:

78. Smoke or use tobacco (including chew and snuff) ANSWER:

79. Exercise regularly ANSWER:

80. Expose skin to sun for prolonged periods ANSWER:

81. Eat a sensible, well-balanced diet including high-fiber, low-fat cereal and grain foods ANSWER:

82. Overeat or gain too much weight ANSWER:

83. Use sunscreen with SPF 15+ as needed Page 10

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living ANSWER:

84. Practice health and safety rules at home and work ANSWER:

85. Get adequate rest and recreation ANSWER:

86. Nurture your spirit daily ANSWER:

87. Drink alcohol in excess ANSWER:

88. Expose yourself to unnecessary X-rays ANSWER:

Match the muscle (area of body) to the description of the stretching exercise. a. neck muscles b. calf muscles c. thigh muscles (quadriceps) d. outer thigh muscles e. hip muscles (hip flexor) f. groin muscles g. back and side muscles h. lower back i. hamstrings j. lumbar muscles (lower back) 89. Lean into the wall with your left hand, and pull your right ankle up gently with your right hand for 15–25

seconds. Repeat for the left ankle ANSWER:

90. Keep shoulders down while you tilt your head to the right. Place your right hand on the left side of your

head, and pull gently toward your right shoulder for about 15–25 seconds. Repeat for the left side ANSWER:

91. Sit up straight on the floor with both legs straight out. Bring the left leg up with your knee bent and place

your foot on the floor to the right of the right knee. Then place your right elbow on the upper part of your left knee. Your left hand should be in back of you to help you look over your left shoulder. Take in a deep breath before you begin to twist your upper body and exhale slowly while you hold this posture for 10–25 seconds. Repeat for the right leg ANSWER:

g Page 11

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Chapter 57: Nutrition, Exercise, and Healthy Living 92. Place feet flat on the floor, two to three feet away from a wall. Lean your forearms flat against the wall, then

step toward the wall with the left foot, bending the knee while keeping the heel of the right foot flat on the floor for about 15–25 seconds. Repeat with the right leg ANSWER:

93. Get into a kneeling position with your right foot flat on the floor and bend the right knee up to touch your

chest. Keep your left leg on the floor behind you (arms at your sides) and stretch and hold for 15–25 seconds. Repeat; bring the left knee to your chest; keep your right leg on the floor behind you ANSWER:

94. Lie on your back with your knees bent up to your chest. Place your hands behind your knees, press into your

chest, and hold for 10–25 seconds; relax and repeat several times ANSWER:

95. While sitting on the floor, bring your heels together, and hold them with your hands. Gently push your legs

down with your elbows (or ask someone to do it for you), and hold for 5–10 seconds; use resistance to feel stretching (avoid straining) and then relax. Repeat 5–10 times. This is often called the butterfly stretch ANSWER:

96. Lie flat on your back and bend your knees, placing both feet flat on the floor. Raise your right leg up so that

your heel is toward the ceiling. Hold your right leg behind the knee with both hands and pull into your chest. Relax your foot and keep straightening your leg until it becomes uncomfortable, and then hold the position for 10–20 seconds. Repeat for the left leg ANSWER:

97. Stand next to and press your left hand against the wall as you place your right hand on your right hip. Bend

the right knee slightly, rest the left foot on its side, and hold for 15–25 seconds. Repeat for the left leg ANSWER:

98. Lie flat on your back and bring your left knee up. Cross it over to your right hip (keep your arms stretched

out to your sides). Keep your shoulders against the floor, turn your head to the left, and then press your left thigh with your right hand to the floor and hold for 10–25 seconds. Repeat for the right leg ANSWER:

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search 1. At a practicum, the student: a replaces a paid employee . b. is paid a salary c. assumes an employee’s job responsibilities d. is intended to have a learning experience ANSWER:

2. A list of performance objectives for a practicum are compiled by the: a school coordinator b. student c. student’s immediate supervisor d. physician or head of the practice where the practicum takes place ANSWER:

3. Which of the following is an example of a quality? a. time management b. positive attitude c. critical thinking skills d. interpersonal skills ANSWER:

4. A résumé should not: a contain information about your age b. demonstrate your qualifications to a prospective employer c. be complete, accurate, and neatly organized d. describe your previous work experience ANSWER:

5. On a résumé, your contact information should be emphasized by: a. highlighting b. circling c. printing it in bright colors d. bolding ANSWER:

6. It is recommended that you convert your résumé into which format for emailing and uploading purposes? a. doc b. txt c. pdf d. jpg ANSWER:

c Page 1

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search 7. Your list of references should include nonfamily persons who know you well and can recommend you to an employer. a. one to two b. three to four c. five to seven d. seven to ten ANSWER: b 8. Which style of résumé works best when there are no long periods of unemployment between jobs? a. functional b. targeted c. skills d. chronological ANSWER:

9. When listing experience on a functional style résumé, you should enter the a. job title b. dates of employment c. name of employer d. list of job responsibilities ANSWER:

first.

10. Which style of résumé usually has a position statement such as “Professional Goal” or “Career Objective”? a. skills b. targeted c. chronological d. functional ANSWER: b 11. When preparing your résumé, you should not reduce the margins beyond: a. ½ inch b. ¾ inch c. 1 inch d. 1½ inches ANSWER:

12. A cover letter should be addressed to: a “Hiring Manager” b. “To whom it may concern” c. the person who decides who is interviewed and hired d. the person in charge of the entire company or organization ANSWER:

c Page 2

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search 13. When preparing a cover letter, you should not: a ensure that it is error-free . b. c. d. ANSWER:

request an interview make it clear when and how you can be reached make it long and involved d

14. In the second paragraph of your cover letter you should: a make it clear when and how you can be reached . b. c. d. ANSWER:

express your skills and qualifications explain why you are writing the letter introduce yourself a

15. The fee for a private employment agency is usually based on: a the amount of experience the job candidate has b. a flat rate for all types of employees c. a percentage of the first year’s wages of an employee d. a percentage of the company’s profits during the employee’s first year ANSWER:

16. Federal law requires employers to obtain a completed I-9 form that: a devotes a percentage of their profits to language lessons for immigrant employees b. asks for documents to prove that you are eligible to work in the United States c. assigns a Social Security number to any employee without one d. contacts INS if any noncitizen applies for a job ANSWER:

17. Employers in the medical field are not commonly concerned with a prospective employee’s: a. history of personal relationships b. credit rating c. police record d. history of drug use or abuse ANSWER:

18. When interviewing for a job, you should not: a. arrive 10–15 minutes early b. use courtesy and respect c. show interest and enthusiasm Page 3

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search d.

act overconfident

ANSWER:

19. During an interview, it is recommended that you: a give the interviewer your strongest possible handshake b. sit up straight and lean in a little toward your interviewer c. avoid making eye contact with the interviewer d. talk with your hands ANSWER:

20. The primary means of obtaining current information in your field is to: a watch television b. attend conferences c. read d. ask sales representative questions about new pharmaceutical products ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. performance objectives b. personal characteristics c. résumé d. chronological e. functional f. targeted g. skills h. cover letter i. job description j. fee paid 21. These can be determined by asking questions such as whether you are usually on time, whether you can work with very little direction, and what you prefer to do in your spare time ANSWER: b 22. States why you should be hired for a desired position ANSWER:

23. Style of résumé that arranges information to focus on a specific job opportunity by highlighting the work experience and job skills requested by the employer ANSWER: f 24. Most common and more traditional résumé format ANSWER:

25. Detailed outline of the duties required of an employment position Page 4

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search ANSWER: 26. Type of résumé that works well for people who have had practicum or cooperative work experience ANSWER:

27. These specify a list of administrative, clinical, and general competencies that should be experienced during a practicum ANSWER: a 28. Type of résumé that is best for highlighting experiences in a number of unrelated jobs and courses ANSWER:

29. Potential job through a private employment agency for which the agency is paid by the employer rather than the job candidate ANSWER: j 30. Outlined summary of your abilities and experiences ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. Internet job search b. classified advertisement c. master application d. rushing e. fidgeting f. follow-up letter g. cost-of-living raise h. merit raise i. continuing education units (CEUs) j. career laddering 31. Given to employees who deserve recognition and praise for a job well done ANSWER:

32. Pathway of job positions in which you may progress based on your interest, training, and experience ANSWER: 33. Doing this when preparing for an interview usually detracts from your appearance and demeanor ANSWER:

34. Something that allows you to find employment opportunities without traveling miles and spending lots of time and money in the process; many job postings are online directly with the health care facility, or on a separate site such as Monster.com or CareerBuilder.com ANSWER: a 35. Offered by professional organizations such as the AAMA and AMT as a way to keep your certification status current Page 5

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search ANSWER:

36. Request for qualified applicants to send information about themselves to a prospective employer ANSWER:

37. Something to be avoided during an interview because it can distract the interviewer ANSWER:

38. Given to keep up with the economy ANSWER:

39. Something to prepare ahead of time and have with you as you complete specific employers’ application forms ANSWER: c 40. This should be composed shortly after an interview has taken place ANSWER:

Match the following term with its definition. a. externship b. practicum c. transcript 41. A supervised employment experience in a qualified health care facility as part of the educational curriculum;

also known as an externship ANSWER:

42. A copy made directly from an original record, especially an official copy of a student’s educational record ANSWER: c 43. A supervised employment experience in a qualified health care facility as part of the educational curriculum;

also known as a practicum ANSWER:

44. When you review your application, checking for missed or incorrectly entered information, checking for

accuracy of spelling and general appearance, and making any necessary edits is a knowledge-based skill known as: a demonstrating effective communication skills b. recognizing and using elements of fundamental writing skills c. completing an application form d. preparing a letter of introduction ANSWER:

Match the description provided to a desirable skill or desirable personal quality in an employee. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. skill Page 6

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search b.

quality

45. Computer proficiency ANSWER:

46. Critical thinking/problem solving ANSWER:

47. Positive attitude ANSWER:

48. Strong work ethic (hard-working) ANSWER:

49. Dependability (reliable, responsible) ANSWER:

50. Collaboration/teamwork ANSWER:

51. Professionalism ANSWER:

52. Honesty and integrity ANSWER:

53. Time management ANSWER:

54. Prioritization ANSWER:

55. Punctuality ANSWER:

56. Planning/organization ANSWER:

57. Adaptability/flexibility ANSWER:

58. Motivated (takes initiative) ANSWER:

Match the following description to a “Do” or “Don’t” when interviewing or applying for a job. Note: Answers may be Page 7

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search used more than once. a. Do b. Don’t 59. Arrive 10–15 minutes early ANSWER:

60. Leave your children in the waiting room ANSWER:

61. Display an overconfident attitude ANSWER:

62. Tell the interviewer about a former supervisor who practiced discrimination ANSWER:

63. Dress in business attire ANSWER:

64. Be enthusiastic ANSWER:

65. Ask questions about the job and the medical practice ANSWER:

66. Tell the interviewer there was a traffic jam which is why you are late ANSWER:

67. Discard chewing gum before entering the facility ANSWER:

68. Spray perfume to cover cigarette smell ANSWER:

69. Display a positive attitude ANSWER:

70. Leave your cell phone on in case of emergency ANSWER:

71. Read an urgent text message ANSWER:

72. Why is continuing education important in the medical field? a Because the medical field in general is always changing and improving in health care technology. b. It is necessary if you want to reach peak performance at your job. Page 8

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Chapter 58: Practicum and the Job Search c. Keeping up with the latest in managed health care, new medications, and other newsworthy items is

admirable and will be noticed by your employer. d. All of the above ANSWER:

73. The health care field is always changing and improving in technology, and it is important to keep up with these changes to provide the best patient care as well as to advance in employment. Which of the following would not be considered a way to demonstrate your commitment to your employer and profession? a using only paper charting and faxing in lieu of electronic health records when available and in use b. obtaining credentialing c. attending seminars and workshops d. participating in continuing education ANSWER:

74. Today, using social media as a resource for job hunting can be quite effective. Which of the following would

not be considered a key tip to keep the use of social media in your job search professional? a Post to your friends your frustration that you were late for work three times this week because your baby has been sick and the sitter was late. b. Set your personal profiles to private. c. Make sure all comments (from you and any friends) are professional. Remove any unprofessional or offensive comments. d. Photos: Consider using a professional picture, and remove any pictures that would not represent how you want to appear to a prospective employer. ANSWER:

75. Because the job application will probably reach the personnel manager’s office before you do, it must speak well for you; it must make a good first impression on the person who reads it. Which of the following steps would result in not making a good first impression? a If the printed instructions on the form say to print all information in black ink, you can use black or

blue ink. b. The application must be complete, neat, and legible, and contain proper grammar and accurate spelling. c. Taking the time to read the instructions and follow them precisely when completing an employment application form. d. Transcribe dates and all other information correctly, completely, and accurately on to the application form. ANSWER:

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office 1. Which of the following responsibilities is the practice manager most likely to carry out in coordination with providers? training new employees b. creating and enforcing work schedules c. conducting staff meetings d. interviewing, hiring, disciplining, and terminating employees ANSWER: d 2. The office policy manual is least likely to cover which of the following topics? a. prescription refills b. budget development practices c. infection control d. expected performance ANSWER:

3. In regard to HIPAA, what does PHI stand for? a. protected health information b. public health institution c. private health indicia d. personal handling instructions ANSWER:

4. Documentation requirements and directions for opening and closing an office are found in the: a. office policy manual b. employee handbook c. office procedure manual d. Material Safety Data Sheets ANSWER:

5. When should the office manager address the various office manuals with employees? a during the annual employee reviews . b. while interviewing them for the job c. during their orientation d. only when they violate one of the office rules ANSWER:

6. The policy manual is typically updated: a annually . b. every few years c. every few months d. only when a major policy change is required ANSWER:

a Page 1

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office 7. An employee would need to fill out a new withholding allowance certificate if he or she: a was promoted . b. c. d. ANSWER:

got a raise switched from part-time to full-time, or vice versa got married or divorced

8. Employees who do not fill out an Employment Eligibility Verification form: a will not have any deductions taken from their salary b. cannot legally be paid to work at the office c. must take their payment in the form of a check rather than direct deposit d. will not have any payroll exemptions ANSWER:

9. Jan lives in Bedford, works in Capital City, and does all of her banking in Otisville. To which city would local taxes typically be paid? a. Capital City b. Bedford c. Otisville d. Capital City, Bedford, and Otisville ANSWER: a 10. An Employer Identification Number (EIN) is obtained from the: a Department of Labor . b. Department of Health and Human Services c. State Department d. Internal Revenue Service ANSWER:

11. Which of the following does not appear in the heading of an employee’s payroll record? a. Social Security number b. gross salary c. date of employment d. employee’s name ANSWER:

12. Which of the following is not a factor when determining the amount of tax withheld from an employee’s paycheck? a. amount earned b. marital status c. duration of employment Page 2

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office d.

number of exemptions claimed

ANSWER:

13. Which of the following is not a fringe benefit that might be offered by an employer? a. paid time off b. salary c. health insurance d. life insurance ANSWER:

14. Employers commonly offer employees an average of full-time employment. a. two b. one c. four d. three ANSWER:

15. The limit on personal time is usually not more than a. three b. five c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER:

weeks of vacation time with pay after completing a year of

days per year.

16. The usual cause for an employee termination initiated by the employer is: a theft b. untimely requests for an increase in salary c. violence against a coworker d. failure of the employee to satisfactorily perform job responsibilities ANSWER:

17. When relocating a medical facility, patients should be informed of the move: a as soon as the date of the move is known . b. one month before the move c. two weeks before the move d. after the move is complete ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. HIPAA compliance officer b. security officer Page 3

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. m. n. o.

privacy officer W-2 form W-4 form Form I-9 salary Federal Fair Labor Standards Act gross pay net pay auditing bereavement time profit sharing liability insurance gripe session

18. Regulates the minimum wage ANSWER:

19. Keeps track of who has access to protected patient information ANSWER:

20. Paycheck amount after deductions ANSWER: 21. Form of pension plan for employees who meet certain requirements ANSWER:

22. Responsible for the security of patients’ records ANSWER:

23. Summary of all earnings for the year and all deductions withheld for federal, state, and local taxes ANSWER:

24. Fixed amount paid on a regular basis for a prescribed period of time ANSWER:

25. Method used to ensure compliance in all HIPAA-related areas ANSWER:

26. Used to verify that an employee is eligible to legally work in the United States ANSWER: 27. Time that an employee can take off when a family member dies ANSWER:

28. Paycheck amount before deductions Page 4

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office ANSWER:

29. Something a staff meeting should never be allowed to turn into ANSWER:

30. Coordinates and oversees compliance with the rules ANSWER:

31. If this is not offered by the practice, medical assistants should purchase their own policy to protect their personal assets ANSWER: n 32. Indicates the number of exemptions an employee is claiming ANSWER:

Match each term with its definition. a. sign-in sheet b. evaluation c. letter of resignation d. termination e. longevity f. benefits g. accountant h. reimbursement i. building inspection j. reduced schedule 33. To pay back or compensate for money spent, or losses or damages incurred; payment for provider services

(from insurance company) ANSWER:

34. Often recommended on the day of a move when relocating a medical practice ANSWER:

35. One who keeps, audits, and inspects the financial records of individuals or businesses; one who analyzes

these transactions and prepares reports that not only tell the present status of accounts receivable and payable but compare current reports with other years or periods of time ANSWER:

36. Used at staff meetings to verify attendance ANSWER:

37. Examples include paid time off, bereavement time, disability insurance, health insurance, retirement plan ANSWER:

f Page 5

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office 38. Formal notice that an employee will be leaving his or her job ANSWER:

39. Meaning long duration of life; lasting a long time ANSWER:

40. Normally required prior to occupying a new facility ANSWER:

41. Periodic review of an employee’s work performance ANSWER:

42. Cessation of employment initiated by the employer ANSWER:

Match the question or question type to a legal or illegal interview question. Note: Answer may be used more than once. a. legal b. illegal 43. To ask if a woman is Miss, Mrs., or Ms. ANSWER:

44. To ask whether the applicant’s work records are under another name ANSWER:

45. Require proof of age by birth certificate after hiring ANSWER:

46. Inquire for the purpose of determining applicant’s capability to perform the job ANSWER:

47. To request birth certificate or baptismal record before hiring ANSWER:

48. To request applicant to give maiden name or any previous name s/he has used ANSWER:

49. To ask the number and age of children, who cares for them, and if applicant plans to have more children ANSWER: b 50. To ask marital status before hiring ANSWER:

51. Exclude handicapped applicants as a class on the basis of their type of handicap ANSWER:

b Page 6

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office 52. Ask for number and ages of dependents and age of spouse after hiring for insurance and tax purposes ANSWER: a

Managers must navigate through many issues and maintain a balance to ensure a profitable business along with satisfied patients, providers, and staff. One step is to identify your personality “hazards.” Match the potential hazard and corrective action to the description provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a Do you check email and EHR messages first thing in the morning? b. Do you offer advice, counsel, or analysis in social situations more than is asked for? c. Do you have a need to assign duties to, and evaluate, people outside your managerial capacity? d. Could any of your behaviors cause trouble? e. Can you separate your management behaviors from your interpersonal behaviors? 53. Be a good listener and offer advice when asked for or when appropriate given the situation ANSWER:

54. Listen and be objective to the situation; Do not react quickly to a situation ANSWER:

55. Make rounds in the office to see that exam and waiting rooms are in order; greet providers and staff; address

any urgent needs or requests first ANSWER:

56. Coordinate and rely on advice from the providers and human resources department and act only within your scope of practice and duties as assigned ANSWER: c 57. Be professional in your interactions with employees, including social networking ANSWER:

Match the term to its definition. a. accommodating b. accountability c. A-E-I-O-U Model d. avoiding e. collaborating f. competence g. competing h. complimentary i. compromising j. conflict k. deductions l. disability Page 7

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office 58. A conflict management style using formal authority or other power that you possess to satisfy your concerns

without regard to the concerns of the party that you are in conflict with ANSWER:

59. A conflict management style where you are not paying attention to the conflict and not taking any action to

resolve it ANSWER:

60. Generally associated with such concepts as responsibility, liability, and other terms related to the expectation

of account giving; the acknowledgment and assumption of responsibility for one’s actions ANSWER:

61. Defined as the quality of being competent; adequacy; possession of required skill, knowledge, qualification,

or capacity ANSWER:

62. [Insurance] a benefit that covers a percentage of the salary if the employee is unable to work because of a

disabling condition ANSWER: 63. A conflict management style allowing the other party to satisfy their concerns while neglecting your own ANSWER:

64. Defined as a disagreement or disharmony that occurs in groups when differences regarding ideas, methods,

and members are expressed ANSWER:

65. Federal income tax, Social Security tax, state tax, local tax, insurance, and other deductions (perhaps

uniforms) withheld or taken from gross salary ANSWER:

66. A conflict management style where you cooperate with the other party to understand their concerns and

expressing your own concerns in an effort to find a mutually and completely satisfactory solution (win-win) ANSWER:

67. Medical care that is offered to employees; prohibited by some practices due to potential conflicts ANSWER: h 68. A conflict resolution style where you assume the other members mean well; allow for expression of feelings; identify what you want to happen; the outcomes you expect are made clear; there is an understanding on a mutual basis is

achieved ANSWER:

69. A conflict management style where you attempt to resolve a conflict by identifying a solution that is partially

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office ANSWER:

70. Every aspect of the medical assistant’s job requires training and can be used as a catalyst for change. Which

would not be considered one of the simple steps that will improve outcomes of training? a .

involving only a few select employees

looking at different types and methods of training preparing your staff for training following up after training

c. d. ANSWER:

71. One of the biggest challenges to an administrator or manager is keeping employees motivated. Which of the

following is a proven way to “motivate” employees? a Recognize an employee for accomplishing goals within an organization, team, and where management encourages innovative and experimental ideas. b. Foster pride in “ownership” of the job or assignment; make the employee feels invested in the position. c. Use Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-oriented, and Time-bound guidelines to reward an employee with cash or time credit bonuses. d. All of the above ANSWER:

72. A great deal is learned from mistakes. If mistakes are not tolerated and go unreported, they are bound to be

repeated. In a blameless culture, bringing mistakes to the forefront affords the best opportunity to find the root cause. This type of work environment is known as: a. b. c. d.

nonpunitive unpunitive punitive blameless

ANSWER:

73. A probationary period is defined as: a a period when a student is evaluated for competencies b. the period during which an employer tests how suitable an applicant is for a job c. a period during which the student must sit for the AAMA or RMA certification d. all of the above ANSWER:

74. The probationary period should be used to identify, correct, and coach new employees. Which of the

following is not considered a good coaching tip? a Use the word “you” more frequently than “I.”

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Chapter 59: Managing the Office b. Start the conversation with open-ended questions. c. Sincerely interject small bits of criticism between large pieces of praise. d. Mutually agree on action items; recap the meeting and items to prevent any misunderstandings. ANSWER:

As manager, you will be responsible for the prevention of harassment and compliance with the law as defined by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. Both the organization and the manager can be held liable for damages in a sexual harassment or hostile work environment claim. Match the type of harassment (sexual or hostile work environment) to the example(s) provided. Note: Answers may be used more than once. a. b.

sexual harassment hostile work environment

75. The provider needed to give an injection, and she did not have the correct size and threw the needle at the MA telling him she needed a different size ANSWER: b 76. The provider would yell at his medical assistant (MA) each time a patient was late arriving for an

appointment. The MA tried to ignore the behavior, hoping it would stop ANSWER:

77. The provider would say that he could not give proper medical care because the MA did not have the patient roomed on time and with vitals recorded. The MA tried to ignore the behavior, hoping it would stop ANSWER: b 78. A drug representative who frequented the office supplying samples and educational materials made lewd

comments to a medical assistant ANSWER:

79. The manager berates and/or belittles the medical assistant in front of coworkers and patients ANSWER:

80. “Dirty” jokes ANSWER:

81. Which of the following is an organization that may perform an inspection of the office/clinic? a Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) . b. Fire Department

ANSWER:

Insurance companies

All of the above d

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