TEST BANK for Medical Terminology A Living Language 7th Edition by Bonnie Fremgen, Frucht by ACADEMIAMILL

Medical Terminology A Living Language 7th Edition Fremgen Test Bank Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 1 Introduction to Medical Terminology 1.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means life is Answer: bi/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means cancer is Answer: carcin/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means heart is Answer: cardi/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means chemical is Answer: chem/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means to cut is Answer: cis/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means skin is Answer: dermat/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means small intestine is Answer: enter/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means stomach is Answer: gastr/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means female is Answer: gynec/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means blood is Answer: hemat/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means immunity is Answer: immun/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means voice box is Answer: laryng/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means kidney is Answer: nephr/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means nerve is Answer: neur/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) A combining form that means eye is Answer: ophthalm/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) The combining form that means ear is Answer: ot/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means disease is Answer: path/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means lung is Answer: pulmon/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means nose is Answer: rhin/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) A prefix that means fast is Answer: tachyPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) A prefix that means against is Answer: antiPage Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A prefix that means self is Answer: autoPage Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A prefix that means slow is Answer: bradyPage Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A prefix that means painful or difficult is Answer: dysPage Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) A prefix that means within or inner is Answer: endoPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) A prefix that means above is Answer: epiPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A prefix that means normal is Answer: euPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) A prefix that means outward is Answer: exPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

29) A prefix that means outside of is Answer: extraPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 30) A prefix that means different is Answer: heteroPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) A prefix that means same is Answer: homoPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

32) A prefix that means between is Answer: interPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

33) A prefix that means within is Answer: intra-; endoPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

34) A prefix that means large is Answer: macroPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) A prefix that means new is Answer: neoPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) A prefix that means after is Answer: postPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

37) A prefix that means false is Answer: pseudoPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

38) A prefix that means across is Answer: transPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

39) A prefix that means two is Answer: biPage Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

40) A prefix that means four is Answer: quadri-; tetraPage Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

41) A prefix that means three is Answer: triPage Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

42) A prefix that means none is Answer: nulliPage Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

43) A prefix that means small is Answer: microPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

44) A prefix that means all is Answer: panPage Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

45) A suffix that means enlarged is Answer: -megaly Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

46) A suffix that means protrusion is Answer: -cele Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

47) A suffix that means pain is Answer: -dynia; -algia Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 48) A suffix that means cell is Answer: -cyte Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 49) A suffix that means dilation is Answer: -ectasis Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

50) A suffix that means inflammation is Answer: -itis Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

51) A suffix that means one who studies is Answer: -logist Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 52) A suffix that means study of is Answer: -logy Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

53) A suffix that means destruction is Answer: -lytic Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

54) A suffix that means abnormal softening is Answer: -malacia Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

55) A suffix that means tumor or mass is Answer: -oma Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 56) A suffix that means disease is Answer: -pathy Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

57) A suffix that means drooping is Answer: -ptosis Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 58) A suffix that means rupture is Answer: -rrhexis Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

59) A suffix that means hardening is Answer: -sclerosis Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

60) A suffix that means narrowing is Answer: -stenosis Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

61) A suffix that means treatment is Answer: -therapy Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

62) A suffix that means puncture to withdraw fluid is Answer: -centesis Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 63) A suffix that means surgical removal is Answer: -ectomy Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

64) A suffix that means surgically create an opening is Answer: -ostomy Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 65) A suffix that means cutting into is Answer: -otomy Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

66) A suffix that means surgical fixation is Answer: -pexy Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

67) A suffix that means surgical repair is Answer: -plasty Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 68) A suffix that means suture is Answer: -rrhaphy Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

69) A suffix that means record or picture is Answer: -gram Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

70) A suffix that means process of recording is Answer: -graphy Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

71) A suffix that means instrument for measuring is Answer: -meter Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 72) A suffix that means process of measuring is Answer: -metry Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

73) A suffix that means instrument for viewing is Answer: -scope Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 74) A suffix that means process of visually examining is Answer: -scopy Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 75) A suffix that means pertaining to visually examining is Answer: -scopic Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

1.2 True/False Questions 1) A combining form consists of a word root and combining vowel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The prefix often indicates the body system or organ being discussed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix often indicates the location of an organ, the number of parts, or the time (frequency). The word root often indicates the body system or organ being discussed. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) Combining vowels make medical terms easier to pronounce. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) Prefixes are placed before a word root. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) All medical terms must have a prefix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Every medical term must have a suffix. It is the only required word part. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 6) Adjective suffixes convert a word root into an adjective. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13

7) Different pronunciations of medical terms are acceptable. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 11 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) Different spellings of medical terms are acceptable. Answer: FALSE Explanation: It is okay to pronounce terms differently, but correct spelling is critical. Page Ref: 11 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 9) Terms ending in -a are pluralized by simply adding an -e to the end of the term. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 12 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 10) Terms ending in -um are pluralized by simply adding an -s to the end of the term. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Terms ending in -um are pluralized by dropping the -um and adding an -a. Page Ref: 12 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 11) Abbreviations are an important part of learning medical terminology. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 12) A History and Physical is written each time a specialist evaluates a patient. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A History and Physical is written by the admitting physician and details the patient's history, results of physician's examination, initial diagnoses, and physician's plan of treatment. A consultation report is written by a specialist. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record

13) Ancillary Reports are written by the anesthesiologist and surgeon. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An ancillary report is a report from various therapies and treatments the patient has received, such as rehabilitation, social services, or respiratory therapy. An anesthesiologist writes an anesthesiologist's report, and a surgeon writes an operative report. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 14) A Pathologist's Report gives the results of the examination of tissue removed from a patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 15) The results from the lab and X-rays are given in a Diagnostic Report. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 16) The Informed Consent must be signed by a patient voluntarily. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 17) A psychiatric hospital is an example of an ambulatory care center. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A psychiatric hospital is an example of a specialty care hospital. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 18) Rehabilitation centers provide supportive care for terminal patients. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hospice provides supportive care for terminal patients. Rehabilitation centers provide intensive physical and occupational therapy. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 15

19) Home health care provides nursing, therapy, and personal care in the patient's home. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 20) Ambulatory care and outpatient clinics both provide services that do not require overnight hospitalization. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 21) The suffix -gram means a record or picture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix -scope means instrument for measuring. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -scope means instrument for viewing; the suffix -meter means instrument for measuring. Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix -tome means instrument to cut. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) The suffix -ectomy means to surgically repair. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -ectomy means to surgically remove; the suffix -plasty means to surgically repair. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) The suffix -pexy means surgical fixation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix -otomy means to surgically remove. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -otomy means to surgically cut into; the suffix -ectomy means to surgically remove. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The suffix -osis means abnormal condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The suffix -trophy means treatment. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -trophy means development; the suffix -therapy means treatment. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The suffix -genic means producing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 30) The suffix -megaly means abnormal softening. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -megaly means enlarged; the suffix -malacia means abnormal softening. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) The prefix mono- means one. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) The prefix multi- means none. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix multi- means many; the prefix nulli- means none. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 33) The prefixes quadri- and tetra- have the same meaning. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 34) The prefix per- means beside. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix per- means through; the prefix para- means beside. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) The prefix pseudo- means above. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix pseudo- means false; the prefix epi- means above. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 36) The suffixes -iasis and -osis have the same meaning. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

37) The suffixes -rrhea and -rrhexis have the same meaning. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -rrhea means discharge; the suffix -rrhexis means rupture. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 38) The prefix eu- means painful or difficult. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix eu- means normal; the prefix dys- means painful or difficult. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 39) The prefixes a- and an- have the same meaning. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 40) The prefix brady- means fast. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix brady- means slow; the prefix tachy- means fast. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 41) The combining form bi/o means life. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 42) The combining form gynec/o means beginning. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form gynec/o means female. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

43) The combining form hemat/o means blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 44) The combining form nephr/o means nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form nephr/o means kidney; the combining form neur/o means nerve. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 45) The combining form cardi/o means heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 46) The combining form carcin/o means disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form carcin/o means cancer; the combining form path/o means disease. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 47) The combining form ot/o means eye. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form ot/o means ear; the combining form ophthalm/o means eye. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 48) The combining form dermat/o means skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20

49) The combining form enter/o means inside. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form enter/o means small intestine. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 50) The combining form gastr/o means stomach. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 51) A drug's brand name is also its proprietary name. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 52) OTC drugs require a prescription. Answer: FALSE Explanation: OTC drugs are over-the-counter drugs, which do not require a prescription. Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 53) The abbreviation tid means three times a day. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 18 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

1.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which is NOT one of the word parts in a medical term? A) combining vowel B) word root C) combining form D) suffix Answer: C Explanation: The combining form is not part of a medical term; it is used to write a word root by itself. Combining vowel, word root, and suffix are all parts of a medical term. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) Which medical terminology word part provides the general meaning of the word? A) combining vowel B) word root C) suffix D) prefix Answer: B Explanation: The word root provides the general meaning of the word. The combining vowel makes it possible to pronounce long medical terms and to combine parts. The suffix is added to the end of a term to add meaning, such as a condition, disease, or procedure. The prefix is added to the beginning of the term and gives us information such as the location of an organ, the number of parts, or the time (frequency). Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) In which situation is a combining vowel never used? A) between two word roots B) between a word root and the suffix when the suffix begins with a consonant C) between a prefix and word root D) all of the above Answer: C Explanation: A combining vowel is never used between a prefix and a word root. A combining vowel is used between two word roots or between a word root and suffix when the suffix begins with a consonant. Page Ref: 3, 4 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) Which of the following is NOT the type of information provided by a prefix? A) procedure B) location of an organ C) number of parts D) time Answer: A Explanation: A suffix provides information such as a procedure. A prefix provides information such as the location of an organ, number of parts, or time. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) Which of the following is the type of information provided by a suffix? A) procedure B) location of an organ C) number of parts D) time Answer: A Explanation: A suffix provides information such as a procedure. Information such as the location of an organ, number of parts, and time are provided by a prefix. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 6) Which of the following statements regarding abbreviations is NOT correct? A) Abbreviations are commonly used. B) Using your personal abbreviations is acceptable if approved by your supervisor. C) Use of abbreviations can be confusing. D) Spell out abbreviations if confusion is a possibility. Answer: B Explanation: Using personal abbreviations is never acceptable. The other answers are correct regarding abbreviations. Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

7) Which of the following healthcare specialists do NOT report information regarding a patient in an Ancillary Report? A) rehabilitation B) social services C) respiratory therapy D) nurses Answer: D Explanation: Nurses report information regarding a patient in the Nurse's Notes. Rehabilitation, social services, and respiratory therapy all use an Ancillary Report. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 8) Which of the following records the patient's care throughout the day? A) Physician's Orders B) Discharge Summary C) Nurse's Notes D) History and Physical Answer: C Explanation: Nurse's Notes are used to record the patient's care throughout the day. The Physician's Orders are a complete list of care, medications, tests, and treatments for the patient. The Discharge Summary is a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay. The History and Physical is written or dictated by the admitting physician and details the patient's history, results of physician's examination, initial diagnoses, and physician's plan of treatment. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 9) A surgeon reports the details of a surgery in a(n): A) Operative Report. B) Anesthesiologist's Report. C) Informed Consent. D) Physician's Orders. Answer: A Explanation: The Operative Report is written by the surgeon giving the details of the surgery. The Anesthesiologist's Report is written by the anesthesiologist and details substances given to the patient, the patient's response to anesthesia, and vital signs during the surgery. The Informed Consent is a document voluntarily signed by the patient or a responsible party that clearly describes the purpose, methods, procedures, benefits, and risks of a diagnostic or treatment procedure. The Physician's Orders are a complete list of care, medications, tests, and treatments for the patient. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 24

10) The is a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay. A) Nurse's Notes B) Discharge Summary C) Consultation Report D) History and Physical Answer: B Explanation: The Discharge Summary is a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay. The Nurse's Notes are a record of the patient's care throughout the day. The Consultation Report is a report given by a specialist who has been asked by the physician to evaluate the patient. The History and Physical is written by the admitting physician and details the patient's history, results of the physician's examination, initial diagnoses, and physician's plan of treatment. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 11) Which healthcare setting provides treatment in a private office setting? A) ambulatory care B) specialty care C) hospice D) physician's office Answer: D Explanation: The physician's office provides treatment in a private office setting. Ambulatory care provides services not requiring overnight hospitalization. Specialty care provides care for very specific types of diseases. Hospice provides supportive treatment for terminally ill patients. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 12) Which healthcare setting provides supportive treatment for terminally ill patients? A) hospice B) rehabilitation center C) health maintenance organization D) specialty care hospital Answer: A Explanation: Hospice provides supportive treatment for terminally ill patients. A rehabilitation center provides intensive physical and occupational therapy. A health maintenance organization provides a wide range of services by a group of primary-care physicians, specialists, and other healthcare professionals in a prepaid system. A specialty care hospital provides care for very specific types of diseases. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings

13) Which healthcare setting provides care for patients who need extra time to recover from an illness or who can no longer care for themselves? A) specialty care hospital B) health maintenance organization C) nursing home D) general hospital Answer: C Explanation: A nursing home provides care for patients who need extra time to recover from an illness or who can no longer care for themselves. A specialty care hospital provides care for a very specific disease. A health maintenance organization provides a wide range of services by a group of primary-care physicians, specialists, and other healthcare professionals in a prepaid system. A general hospital provides services to diagnose (laboratory, diagnostic imaging) and treat (surgery, medications, therapy) diseases for a short period of time; in addition, they usually provide emergency and obstetrical care. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 14) Which healthcare setting provides services in a prepaid system? A) physician's office B) health maintenance organization C) specialty care hospital D) home health care Answer: B Explanation: A health maintenance organization provides services in a prepaid system. A physician's office provides services in a private office setting. A specialty care hospital provides care for a very specific disease. Home health care provides nursing, therapy, personal care, or housekeeping services in a patient's home. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 15) Which combining form means heart? A) cardi/o B) carcin/o C) gastr/o D) cis/o Answer: A Explanation: The combining form cardi/o means heart. Carcin/o means cancer, gastr/o means stomach, and cis/o means to cut. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? A) gastr/o B) carcen/o C) immun/o D) nephr/o Answer: B Explanation: The correct spelling of the combining form meaning cancer is carcin/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 17) Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? A) nuer/o B) bi/o C) rhin/o D) path/o Answer: A Explanation: The correct spelling of the combining form meaning nerve is neur/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 18) Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? A) dermat/o B) hemat/o C) nephr/o D) opthalm/o Answer: D Explanation: The correct spelling of the combining form meaning eye is ophthalm/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

19) Which combining form is spelled incorrectly? A) gynic/o B) carcin/o C) laryng/o D) nephr/o Answer: A Explanation: The correct spelling of the combining form meaning female is gynec/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 20) Which combining form means female? A) gastr/o B) nephr/o C) neur/o D) gynec/o Answer: D Explanation: The combining form meaning female is gynec/o. Gastr/o means stomach, nephr/o means kidney, and neur/o means nerve. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) Which combining form means skin? A) dermat/o B) gynec/o C) immun/o D) rhin/o Answer: A Explanation: The combining form meaning skin is dermat/o. Gynec/o means female, immun/o means immunity, and rhin/o means nose. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) Which combining form means nose? A) pulmon/o B) ot/o C) rhin/o D) laryng/o Answer: C Explanation: The combining form meaning nose is rhin/o. Pulmon/o means lung, ot/o means ear, and laryng/o means voice box. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) Which combining form means to cut? A) enter/o B) path/o C) bi/o D) cis/o Answer: D Explanation: The combining form cis/o means to cut. Enter/o means small intestine, path/o means disease, and bi/o means life. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) Which combining form means stomach? A) cardi/o B) gastr/o C) enter/o D) nephr/o Answer: B Explanation: The combining form meaning stomach is gastr/o. Cardi/o means heart, enter/o means small intestine, and nephr/o means kidney. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) Which prefix means before? A) antiB) preC) retroD) inAnswer: B Explanation: The prefix pre- means before. The prefix anti- means against, retro- means backward or behind, and in- means not or inward. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) Which prefix means outside of? A) homoB) intraC) extraD) hyperAnswer: C Explanation: The prefix extra- means outside of. The prefix homo- means same, intra- means within, and hyper- means excessive. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) Which prefix does NOT stand for a number? A) biB) perC) quadriD) triAnswer: B Explanation: The prefix per- means through. The prefix bi- means two, quadri- means four, and tri- means three. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

28) Which prefix means half? A) monoB) polyC) periD) hemiAnswer: D Explanation: The prefix hemi- means half. The prefix mono- means one, poly- means many, and peri- means around. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) Which prefix means within? A) intraB) extraC) interD) retroAnswer: A Explanation: The prefix intra- means within. The prefix extra- means outside of, inter- means between, and retro- means backward or behind. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 30) Which prefix means normal? A) euB) neoC) anD) dysAnswer: A Explanation: The prefix eu- means normal. The prefix neo- means new, anmeans without, and dys- means difficult or painful. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) Which prefix means many? A) nulliB) unC) polyD) panAnswer: C Explanation: The prefix poly- means many. The prefix nulli- means none, un- means not, and pan- means all. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) Which prefix means fast? A) pseudoB) bradyC) endoD) tachyAnswer: D Explanation: The prefix tachy- means fast. The prefix pseudo- means false, brady- means slow, and endo- means within or inner. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 33) Which prefix means small? A) panB) microC) ultraD) macroAnswer: B Explanation: The prefix micro- means small. The prefix pan- means all, ultra- means beyond, and macro- means large. Page Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

34) Which prefix means none? A) nulliB) neoC) monoD) subAnswer: A Explanation: The prefix nulli- means none. The prefix neo- means new, mono- means one, and sub- means under. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) Which suffix means pain? A) -cele B) -algia C) -ectasis D) -oma Answer: B Explanation: The suffix -algia means pain. The suffix -cele means protrusion, -ectasis means dilation, and -oma means tumor or mass. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 36) Which suffix means hardening? A) -trophy B) -sclerosis C) -plasm D) -ptosis Answer: B Explanation: The suffix -sclerosis means hardening. The suffix -trophy means development, plasm means formation, and -ptosis means drooping. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

37) Which suffix means tumor or mass? A) -itis B) -iasis C) -oma D) -osis Answer: C Explanation: The suffix -oma means tumor or mass. The suffix -itis means inflammation. The suffixes -iasis and -osis mean abnormal condition. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 38) Which suffix means excessive, abnormal flow? A) -rrhea B) -rrhage C) -rrhexis D) -rrhaphy Answer: B Explanation: The suffix -rrhage means excessive, abnormal flow. The suffix -rrhea means discharge, -rrhexis means rupture, and -rrhaphy means suture. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 39) Which of the following suffixes is NOT an adjective suffix? A) -iac B) -ia C) -ory D) -tic Answer: B Explanation: The suffix -ia means state or condition. The suffixes -iac, -ory, and -tic are adjective suffixes. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

40) Which of the following suffixes is NOT an adjective suffix? A) -ac B) -eal C) -iac D) -ism Answer: D Explanation: The suffix -ism means state of. The suffixes -ac, -eal, and -iac are adjective suffixes. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 41) Which of the following suffixes refers to an instrument? A) -gram B) -graphy C) -metry D) -scope Answer: D Explanation: The suffix -scope means instrument for viewing. The suffix -gram means record or picture, -graphy means process of recording, and -metry means process of measuring. Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 42) Which of the following suffixes means process of measuring? A) -graphy B) -scopy C) -metry D) -otomy Answer: C Explanation: The suffix -metry means process of measuring. The suffix -graphy means process of recording, -scopy means process of visually examining, and -otomy means cutting into. Page Ref: 10 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

43) Which of the following suffixes does NOT refer to a surgical procedure? A) -megaly B) -ectomy C) -plasty D) -ostomy Answer: A Explanation: The suffix -megaly means enlarged. The suffixes -ectomy, -plasty, and -ostomy all refer to a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 44) Which of the following suffixes means enlarged? A) -malacia B) -ectasis C) -megaly D) -algia Answer: C Explanation: The suffix -megaly means enlarged. The suffix -malacia means abnormal softening, -ectasis means dilation, and -algia means pain. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 45) Which of the following suffixes means puncture to withdraw fluid? A) -centesis B) -ostomy C) -otomy D) -plasty Answer: A Explanation: The suffix -centesis means puncture to withdraw fluid. The suffix -ostomy means to surgically create an opening, -otomy means cutting into, and -plasty means to surgically repair. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

46) Which of the following suffixes means protrusion? A) -lytic B) -cele C) -cyte D) -gen Answer: B Explanation: The suffix -cele means protrusion. The suffix -lytic means destruction, -cyte means cell, and -gen means that which produces. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 47) Which of the following suffixes means inflammation? A) -ia B) -iasis C) -ism D) -itis Answer: D Explanation: The suffix -itis means inflammation. The suffix -ia means state or condition, -iasis means abnormal condition, and -ism means state of. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 48) Which of the following suffixes means narrowing? A) -sclerosis B) -rrhexis C) -stenosis D) -ptosis Answer: C Explanation: The suffix -stenosis means narrowing. The suffix -sclerosis means hardening, rrhexis means rupture, and -ptosis means drooping. Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

49) Which of the following suffixes means drooping? A) -ptosis B) -plasm C) -pathy D) -trophy Answer: A Explanation: The suffix -ptosis means drooping. The suffix -plasm means formation, -pathy means disease, and -trophy means development. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 50) Which of the following suffixes means destruction? A) -rrhea B) -lytic C) -cyte D) -megaly Answer: B Explanation: The suffix -lytic means destruction. The suffix -rrhea means discharge, -cyte means cell, and -megaly means enlarged. Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 51) Which of the following categories of drugs is another name for a drug's trademark name? A) brand name B) generic name C) chemical name D) nonproprietary name Answer: A Explanation: The brand name is also the trademark name. The generic or nonproprietary name is the official name for a drug. The chemical name describes the chemical formula or molecular structure of the drug. Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

52) Which of the following abbreviations means label as follows? A) top B) OTC C) Sig D) NPO Answer: C Explanation: Sig stands for label as follows; top stands for topical. OTC stands for over the counter; NPO stands for nothing by mouth. Page Ref: 18 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

1.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) lung B) hardening C) connects two word roots D) heart E) used to indicate time F) stomach G) cell H) foundation of a medical term I) report of treatments and therapies J) does not require overnight hospitalization K) backward L) surgical removal M) used to indicate a procedure N) destruction O) provides supportive treatment for terminally ill P) also called a general hospital Q) slow R) written by a surgeon S) written by the admitting physician T) record of a patient's care throughout the day U) after V) word root + combining vowel W) provide physical and occupational therapy X) false Y) kidney 1) combining vowel Page Ref: 3, 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) word root Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) suffix Page Ref: 7, 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 40

4) prefix Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) combining form Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 6) Nurse's Notes Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 7) Ancillary Report Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 8) History and Physical Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 9) Operative Report Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record 10) acute care hospital Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 11) ambulatory care Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 41

12) rehabilitation center Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 13) hospice Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 14) cardi/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) gastr/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) nephr/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) pulmon/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 18) bradyPage Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) pseudoPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 42

20) retroPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) postPage Ref: 6 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) -cyte Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) -sclerosis Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) -lytic Page Ref: 8 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) -ectomy Page Ref: 9 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building Answers: 1) C 2) H 3) M 4) E 5) V 6) T 7) I 8) S 9) R 10) P 11) J 12) W 13) O 14) D 15) F 16) Y 17) A 18) Q 19) X 20) K 21) U 22) G 23) B 24) N 25) L

1.5 Short Answer Questions 1) List and describe the four word parts used to build medical terms. Answer: 1. Word root • foundation of a medical term • often indicates the body system or part of the body that is being discussed 2. Prefix • added to the front of the term • indicates the location of an organ, the number of parts, or the time (frequency) 3. Suffix • added to the end of the term • all medical terms must have a suffix • indicates condition, disease, or procedure 4. Combining vowel • usually an o • connects two word roots • connects word root and suffix if the suffix begins with a consonant Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) Describe the parts of the Medical Record. Answer: • History and Physical—details the patient's history, results of the physician's examination, initial diagnoses, and physician's plan of treatment • Physician's Orders—a complete list of the care, medications, tests, and treatments the physician orders for the patient • Nurse's Notes—record of the patient's care throughout the day • Physician's Progress Notes—the physician's daily record of the patient's condition, results of the physician's examinations, summary of test results, updated assessment and diagnoses, and further plans for the patient's care • Consultation Report—the report given by a specialist whom the physician has asked to evaluate the patient • Ancillary Reports—reports from various treatments and therapies the patient has received • Diagnostic Reports—results of all diagnostic tests performed on the patient • Informed Consent—a document voluntarily signed by the patient or a responsible party that clearly describes the purpose, methods, procedures, benefits, and risks of a diagnostic or treatment procedure • Operative Report—report from the surgeon detailing an operation • Anesthesiologist's Report—relates the details regarding the drugs given to a patient, the patient's response to anesthesia, and vital signs during surgery • Pathologist's Report—the report given by a pathologist who studies tissue removed from the patient • Discharge Summary—a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 2 Body Organization 2.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means abdomen is Answer: abdomin/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means fat is Answer: adip/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means head is Answer: cephal/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means skull is Answer: crani/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means tail is Answer: caud/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means leg is Answer: crur/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means buttock is Answer: glute/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means arm is Answer: brachi/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) A combining form that means tissue is Answer: hist/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means side is Answer: later/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means middle is Answer: medi/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means internal organ is Answer: viscer/o Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means chest is Answer: thorac/o Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means stomach is Answer: gastr/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means spine is Answer: spin/o Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) The combining form that means pelvis is Answer: pelv/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means to secrete is Answer: crin/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means muscle is Answer: muscul/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means peritoneum is Answer: peritone/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) The combining form that means genital region is Answer: pub/o Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) A combining form that means woman is Answer: gynec/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) The combining form that means neck is Answer: cervic/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) The combining form that means cartilage is Answer: chondr/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The combining form that means pleura is Answer: pleur/o Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) The combining form that means vertebra is Answer: vertebr/o Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) A medical term that means pertaining to the abdomen is Answer: abdominal Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

27) A medical term that means pertaining to the front is Answer: anterior Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 28) A medical term that means pertaining to the arm is Answer: brachial Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

29) A medical term that means pertaining to the head is Answer: cephalic Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

30) A medical term that means pertaining to the neck is Answer: cervical Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

31) A medical term that means pertaining to the chest is Answer: thoracic Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions 32) A medical term that means pertaining to the leg is Answer: crural Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

33) A medical term that means pertaining to the buttocks is Answer: gluteal Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

34) A medical term that means pertaining to the side is Answer: lateral Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions

35) A medical term that means pertaining to the middle is Answer: medial Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 36) A medical term that means pertaining to muscle is Answer: muscular Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

37) A medical term that means pertaining to the heart and blood vessels is Answer: cardiovascular Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7

38) A medical term that means pertaining to blood is Answer: hematic Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) A medical term that means pertaining to the pelvis is Answer: pelvic Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

40) A medical term that means pertaining to the skull is Answer: cranial Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

41) A medical term that means pertaining to the pleura is Answer: pleural Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the genital region is Answer: pubic Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions 43) A medical term that means pertaining to lymph is Answer: lymphatic Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

44) A medical term that means pertaining to the spine is Answer: spinal Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45) A medical term that means pertaining to above is Answer: superior Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 46) A medical term that means pertaining to the chest is Answer: thoracic Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions 47) A medical term that means pertaining to the vertebrae is Answer: vertebral Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Regions

48) A medical term that means pertaining to internal organs is Answer: visceral Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 49) A medical term that means pertaining to the epithelium is Answer: epithelial Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 50) A medical term that means pertaining to the belly side of the body is Answer: ventral Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 9

2.2 True/False Questions 1) The correct order for the organization of the body is cell to tissue to organ to system to whole body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) All cells have a cell membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Adipose is a type of connective tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 31 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Nervous tissue is designed to produce body movement. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Muscular tissue is designed to produce body movement; nervous tissue is designed to conduct electrical impulses. Page Ref: 31 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Bone and cartilage are types of nervous tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bone and cartilage are types of connective tissue. Page Ref: 31 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6) The brain is found in the integumentary system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The brain is found in the nervous system. Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) The kidneys are part of the hematic system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The kidneys are part of the urinary system. Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) The pancreas is part of both the digestive and endocrine systems. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 34, 35 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The special senses include the eye and ear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Gynecology is the branch of medicine that treats the male reproductive tract. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Gynecology is the branch of medicine that treats the female reproductive tract. Urology is the branch of medicine that treats the male reproductive tract. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 11) The study of tissues is called cytology. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The study of tissues is called histology. The study of cells is called cytology. Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 11

12) Pulmonology is the branch of medicine that treats the respiratory system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 13) When describing body position, the assumption is always that the person is in the anatomical position. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 14) In the anatomical position, the body is lying on its back. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In the anatomical position, the body is standing erect. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 15) The sagittal plane is also called the coronal plane. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The frontal plane is also called the coronal plane. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 16) The transverse plane is also called the horizontal plane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 17) The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

18) The coronal plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The coronal plane divides the body into front and back portions. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 19) A longitudinal section of the body is produced by a lengthwise slice along the long axis of a structure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 20) The dorsum is found on the posterior side of the trunk. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 21) The lower extremities are the brachial region of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The lower extremities are the crural region of the body. The upper extremities are the brachial region of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 22) The pubic region is the genital area of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 23) The buttocks are part of the crural region of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The buttocks form the gluteal region of the body. The legs are part of the crural region of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 13

24) The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) The mediastinum is located in the center of the abdominal cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The mediastinum is located in the center of the thoracic cavity. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) The pleural cavity contains the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pleural cavity contains the lungs. The pericardial cavity contains the heart. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) The hypochondriac region is located beneath the lower ribs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 28) The umbilical region centers over the navel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 29) The lumbar region is in the groin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The lumbar regions are located on the right and left side of the umbilical region. The inguinal regions are located in the groin. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions

30) The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 31) The left lower quadrant contains the appendix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The right lower quadrant contains the appendix. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 32) The respiratory system obtains oxygen and removes carbon dioxide from the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 33) The female reproductive system produces sperm for reproduction. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The female reproductive system produces ova for reproduction. The male reproductive system produces sperm for reproduction. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) The urinary system filters waste products from the blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) The cardiovascular system protects the body from disease and invasion from pathogens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The lymphatic system protects the body from disease and invasion from pathogens. The cardiovascular system pumps blood throughout the entire body to transport nutrients, oxygen, and wastes. Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15

36) The term superior is interchangeable with cephalic. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 37) The term inferior is interchangeable with dorsal. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term inferior is interchangeable with caudal. The term posterior is interchangeable with dorsal. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 38) The term deep means farther away from the surface of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 39) The term apex refers to the bottom or lower part of an organ. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term apex refers to the tip or summit of an organ. The term base refers to the bottom or lower part of an organ. Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 40) The term prone means lying face downward. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 41) The term medial refers to the side. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term lateral refers to the side. The term medial refers to the middle. Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

42) The directional term anterior means pertaining to the front. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 43) The term cranial means pertaining to the head. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term cranial means pertaining to the skull. The term cephalic means pertaining to the head. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 44) The term gluteal means pertaining to the pubic region. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term gluteal means pertaining to the buttocks. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 45) The term brachial means pertaining to the arm. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 46) The term dermatology means the study of the skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 47) The term visceral means pertaining to the belly side of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term ventral means pertaining to the belly side of the body. The term visceral means pertaining to the viscera. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

48) The term thoracic means pertaining to the chest. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 49) The abbreviation GI stands for the urinary system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation GI stands for the gastrointestinal (digestive) system. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 50) The abbreviation LE stands for the leg. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 48 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 2.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the correct order for the organization of the body? A) cells to tissue to system to organ to whole body B) cells to organ to system to tissue to whole body C) cells to tissue to organ to system to whole body D) tissue to cells to organ to system to whole body Answer: C Explanation: The correct order for the organization of the body is cells to tissue to organ to system to whole body. All other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

2) Organs come together to form: A) systems. B) cells. C) tissue. D) whole body. Answer: A Explanation: Organs come together to form systems. Cells come together to make tissue. Tissue comes together to make organs. The whole body is formed by systems. Page Ref: 31 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Which of the following is NOT a structure that is found in all cells? A) cell membrane B) epithelium C) cytoplasm D) nucleus Answer: B Explanation: All cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus. Epithelium is a type of tissue. Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Which of the following is NOT one of the basic types of tissue found in the body? A) muscular B) connective C) histogenic D) epithelial Answer: C Explanation: Muscular, connective, epithelial, and nervous tissues are the four basic types of tissue found in the body. Histogenic is a medical term meaning tissue producing. Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

5) Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial tissue? A) support body structures B) protective barrier C) absorb substances D) secrete substances Answer: A Explanation: Supporting body structures is a function of connective tissue. The other choices are functions of epithelial tissue. Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Which of the following types of tissue is designed to conduct electrical impulses? A) muscular B) connective C) epithelial D) nervous Answer: D Explanation: Nervous tissue conducts electrical impulses. Muscular tissue produces body movement. Connective tissue supports and protects body structures. Epithelial tissue forms a protective barrier, absorbs and secretes substances, and excretes waste. Page Ref: 31 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Which of the following types of tissue is designed to produce body movement? A) muscle B) connective C) epithelial D) nervous Answer: A Explanation: Muscular tissue is designed to produce body movement. Connective tissue supports and protects body structures. Epithelial tissue forms a protective barrier, absorbs and secretes substances, and excretes waste. Nervous tissue is designed to conduct electrical impulses. Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

8) Which of the following types of muscle tissue is attached to bone? A) smooth B) visceral C) skeletal D) cardiac Answer: C Explanation: Skeletal muscle tissue is attached to bone. Smooth muscle tissue is found in the internal organs. Visceral means pertaining to internal organs. Cardiac muscle tissue is found in the heart. Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Which of the following is NOT an organ found in the digestive system? A) spleen B) stomach C) liver D) colon Answer: A Explanation: The spleen is found in the lymphatic system. The stomach, liver, and colon are found in the digestive system. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The hematic system is commonly called: A) urinary. B) blood. C) lymphatic. D) cardiovascular. Answer: B Explanation: The hematic system is commonly known as blood. The urinary system is sometimes called the genitourinary system. The lymphatic system is sometimes called the immune system. The cardiovascular system is sometimes called the circulatory system. Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

11) The thyroid, thymus, and adrenal glands are found in the: A) muscular system. B) nervous system. C) endocrine system. D) male reproductive system. Answer: C Explanation: The thyroid, thymus, and adrenal glands are found in the endocrine system. The muscular system contains the muscles. The nervous system contains the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. The male reproductive system contains the testes, epididymis, vas deferens, penis, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which of the following branches of medicine treats conditions of the eye? A) obstetrics B) endocrinology C) otorhinolaryngology D) ophthalmology Answer: D Explanation: Ophthalmology is the branch of medicine that treats conditions of the eye. Obstetrics is the branch of medicine dealing with pregnancy and childbirth. Endocrinology treats the endocrine system. Otorhinolaryngology involves treating the ears, nose, and throat. Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 13) A gastroenterologist treats diseases of which of the following organs? A) brain B) stomach C) tonsils D) heart Answer: B Explanation: A gastroenterologist treats diseases of organs located in the digestive system. A neurologist treats diseases of the brain. An otorhinolaryngologist treats diseases of the tonsils. A cardiologist treats diseases of the heart. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

14) Which of the following is NOT part of the anatomical position? A) standing erect B) palms facing backward C) feet together D) fingers extended Answer: B Explanation: Palms facing forward is part of the anatomical position, not palms facing backward. Standing erect, feet together, and fingers extended are all part of the anatomical position. Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 15) Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right portions? A) sagittal B) frontal C) coronal D) transverse Answer: A Explanation: The sagittal plan divides the body into left and right portions. The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into front and back portions. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 16) Which of the following planes divides the body into front and back portions? A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) median Answer: B Explanation: The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into front and back portions. The sagittal or median plane divides the body into left and right portions. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

17) Which of the following planes is the only horizontal plane? A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) median Answer: C Explanation: The transverse plane is the only horizontal plane. The sagittal, frontal, and median planes are all vertical planes. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 18) Which of the following sectional views of the body is produced by a slice perpendicular to the long axis? A) cross-section B) transverse section C) longitudinal section D) sagittal section Answer: A Explanation: A cross-section is a horizontal section of the body and, therefore, perpendicular to the long axis of the body. Transverse, longitudinal, and sagittal sections are vertical sections and are parallel to the long axis. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 19) The neck is the region of the body. A) dorsal B) cervical C) cephalic D) pubic Answer: B Explanation: The neck is the cervical region of the body. The back is the dorsal region of the body. The head is the cephalic region of the body. The genitals are the pubic region of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions

20) The cephalic region of the body is the: A) neck. B) back. C) head. D) buttocks. Answer: C Explanation: The head is the cephalic region of the body. The neck is the cervical region of the body. The back is the dorsal region of the body. The buttocks are the gluteal region of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 21) The crural region of the body is the: A) buttocks. B) arms. C) abdomen. D) legs. Answer: D Explanation: The legs are the crural region of the body. The buttocks are the gluteal region of the body. The arms are the brachial region of the body. The abdomen is the abdominal region of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 22) The arms are the region of the body. A) brachial B) crural C) trunk D) pelvic Answer: A Explanation: The arms are the brachial region of the body. The legs are the crural region of the body. The trunk contains several regions of the body. The pelvis is the pelvic region of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions

23) Which of the following is NOT one of the anterior regions of the trunk? A) abdominal B) dorsum C) pelvic D) pubic Answer: B Explanation: The dorsum is a posterior region of the trunk. The abdominal, pelvic, and pubic regions are all anterior regions of the trunk. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 24) Which of the following body cavities is a dorsal cavity? A) abdominal B) pelvic C) thoracic D) spinal Answer: D Explanation: The spinal cavity is a dorsal cavity. The abdominal, pelvic, and thoracic cavities are all ventral cavities. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) The cranial cavity contains the: A) spinal cord. B) heart. C) brain. D) stomach. Answer: C Explanation: The cranial cavity contains the brain. The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord. The pericardial cavity contains the heart. The abdominal cavity contains the stomach. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) Which of the following structures is NOT located in the mediastinum? A) heart B) thymus gland C) lungs D) aorta Answer: C Explanation: The lungs are contained in the thoracic cavity. The heart, thymus gland, and aorta are all found in the mediastinum. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) Which of the following organs is located inside the pleural cavity? A) heart B) stomach C) urinary bladder D) lungs Answer: D Explanation: The lungs are found in the pleural cavity. The heart is found in the pericardial cavity. The stomach is found in the abdominal cavity. The urinary bladder is found in the pelvic cavity. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) The organs of which of the following systems are NOT found in the abdominopelvic cavity? A) respiratory B) digestive C) excretory D) reproductive Answer: A Explanation: The organs of the respiratory system are found in the thoracic cavity. The organs of the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems are found in the abdominopelvic cavity. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

29) Which of the following cavities is NOT a ventral cavity? A) abdominal B) spinal C) thoracic D) pelvic Answer: B Explanation: The spinal cavity is a dorsal cavity. The abdominal, thoracic, and pelvic cavities are ventral cavities. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) Which of the following cavities contains the heart? A) cranial B) pleural C) pericardial D) pelvic Answer: C Explanation: The pericardial cavity contains the heart. The cranial cavity contains the brain. The pleural cavity contains the lungs. The pelvic cavity contains the urinary bladder, urethra, ureters, the reproductive organs, and portions of the small intestine and colon. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) In the anatomical divisions of the abdomen, the upper row contains which of the following regions? A) umbilical B) epigastric C) inguinal D) lumbar Answer: B Explanation: The upper row in the anatomical divisions contains the epigastric region. The middle row contains the umbilical and lumbar regions. The bottom row contains the inguinal regions. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

32) In the anatomical divisions of the abdomen, the center square of the middle row is the region. A) umbilical B) lumbar C) hypogastric D) inguinal Answer: A Explanation: The center square of the middle row is the umbilical region. The lumbar regions are the left and right squares of the middle row. The hypogastric region is the center square of the bottom row. The inguinal regions are the left and right squares of the bottom row. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 33) The spleen and stomach are located in the quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower Answer: B Explanation: The spleen and stomach are in the left upper quadrant. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 34) The gallbladder and the majority of the liver are located in the quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower Answer: A Explanation: The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder and the majority of the liver. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

35) In the abdominopelvic cavity, which of the following organs is NOT a midline organ? A) urinary bladder B) prostate gland C) uterus D) stomach Answer: D Explanation: In the abdominopelvic cavity, the urinary bladder, prostate gland, and uterus are midline organs. The stomach is more to the left of the midline. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 36) Which of the following body systems forms a protective two-way barrier for the body? A) musculoskeletal B) endocrine C) integumentary D) digestive Answer: C Explanation: The integumentary system keeps pathogens out and fluids in. Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood? A) transporting oxygen B) absorbing nutrients C) controlling bleeding D) protecting against pathogens Answer: B Explanation: The blood transports oxygen, controls bleeding, and protects against pathogens. The digestive system absorbs nutrients. Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

38) Which of the following systems is responsible for regulating the metabolic activities of the body? A) endocrine B) nervous C) reproductive D) urinary Answer: A Explanation: The endocrine system is responsible for regulating metabolic activities of the body. The nervous system conducts electrical impulses. The reproductive system is responsible for creating offspring. The urinary system is responsible for excreting waste. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 39) Which of the following body systems receives sensory information and coordinates the body's response? A) respiratory B) nervous C) special senses D) musculoskeletal Answer: B Explanation: The nervous system receives sensory information and coordinates the body's response. The respiratory system is responsible for providing oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body. The special senses are responsible for vision, hearing, and equilibrium. The musculoskeletal system is responsible for giving the body structure and producing movement. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) Which of the following directional terms means more toward the head or above another structure? A) superior B) medial C) ventral D) caudal Answer: A Explanation: Superior means more toward the head or above another structure. Medial means more toward the midline. Ventral means more toward the front of the body. Caudal means more toward the feet or tail or below another structure. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

41) Which of the following directional terms is interchangeable with inferior? A) cephalic B) caudal C) posterior D) dorsal Answer: B Explanation: Inferior and caudal are interchangeable. Cephalic and superior are interchangeable. Posterior and dorsal are interchangeable. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 42) Which of the following directional terms refers to the tip or summit of an organ? A) medial B) lateral C) base D) apex Answer: D Explanation: Apex refers to the tip or summit of an organ. Medial refers to the middle or near the middle of the body. Lateral refers more to the side. Base refers to the bottom or lower part of the organ. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 43) Which of the following directional terms is the opposite of medial? A) superior B) caudal C) lateral D) distal Answer: C Explanation: Lateral is the opposite of medial. Superior is the opposite of inferior. Caudal is the opposite of cephalic. Distal is the opposite of proximal. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

44) Which of the following directional terms means more to the back side of the body? A) posterior B) ventral C) distal D) deep Answer: A Explanation: Posterior means more to the back side of the body. Ventral means more toward the front side. Distal means farther away from the point of attachment to the body. Deep means farther away from the surface of the body. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 45) Which of the following directional terms means farther away from the point of attachment to the body? A) superficial B) distal C) supine D) proximal Answer: B Explanation: Distal means farther away from the point of attachment to the body. Superficial means more toward the surface of the body. Supine means lying face upward. Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the body. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 46) Which of the following directional terms is the opposite of distal? A) dorsal B) apex C) superficial D) proximal Answer: D Explanation: Proximal is opposite of distal. Dorsal is opposite of ventral. Apex is opposite of base. Superficial is opposite of deep. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

47) Which of the following directional terms means lying face down? A) prone B) proximal C) supine D) ventral Answer: A Explanation: Prone means lying face down. Proximal means closer to the point of attachment to the body. Supine means lying face up. Ventral means more toward the front of the body. Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 48) Which of the following directional terms is the opposite of anterior? A) dorsal B) ventral C) caudal D) cephalic Answer: A Explanation: Dorsal is opposite of anterior. Ventral and anterior are interchangeable. Caudal is the opposite of cephalic. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 49) Which of the following directional terms means toward the surface of the body? A) superior B) distal C) superficial D) deep Answer: C Explanation: Superficial means toward the surface of the body. Superior means toward the head or above another structure. Distal means farther away from the point of attachment to the body. Deep means farther from the surface of the body. Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

50) Which of the following directional terms specifically refers to the belly side of the body? A) dorsal B) caudal C) cephalic D) ventral Answer: D Explanation: Ventral means belly side of the body. Dorsal means back side of the body. Caudal means more toward the tail. Cephalic means more toward the head. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 51) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) bracheal B) cranial C) gluteal D) inferior Answer: A Explanation: The correct spelling is brachial. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 52) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) caudal B) crainial C) epithelial D) lymphatic Answer: B Explanation: The correct spelling is cranial. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 53) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) vertebral B) proximal C) medial D) thorasic Answer: D Explanation: The correct spelling is thoracic. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 35

54) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) muscular B) proximal C) viseral D) cephalic Answer: C Explanation: The correct spelling is visceral. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 55) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) hypogastriac B) lateral C) posterior D) superior Answer: A Explanation: The correct spelling is hypogastric. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 56) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the body system containing the heart? A) GI B) CV C) AP D) ENT Answer: B Explanation: CV is the abbreviation of cardiovascular, which contains the heart. GI is the abbreviation for the gastrointestinal system. AP is the abbreviation for anteroposterior. ENT is the abbreviation for ear, nose, and throat. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

57) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the body system containing the stomach? A) MS B) GI C) UE D) PA Answer: B Explanation: GI is the abbreviation for the gastrointestinal system, which contains the stomach. MS is the abbreviation for the musculoskeletal system. UE is the abbreviation for upper extremity. PA is the abbreviation for posteroanterior. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 58) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the arm? A) OB B) MS C) UE D) GYN Answer: C Explanation: UE is the abbreviation for the upper extremity, which is the arm. OB is the abbreviation for obstetrics. MS is the abbreviation for the musculoskeletal system. GYN is the abbreviation for gynecology. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 59) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the medical specialty that treats conditions of the female reproductive system? A) GI B) CV C) ENT D) GYN Answer: D Explanation: GYN is the abbreviation for gynecology, which is the medical specialty that treats conditions of the female reproductive system. GI is the abbreviation for the gastrointestinal system. CV is the abbreviation for the cardiovascular system. ENT is the abbreviation for the ear, nose, and throat. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

60) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the digestive system? A) GI B) AP C) CV D) ENT Answer: A Explanation: GI stands for the gastrointestinal system. AP stands for anteroposterior. CV stands for cardiovascular system. ENT is the abbreviation for ear, nose, and throat. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 61) Which of the following terms means pertaining to the skull? A) crural B) cranial C) cervical D) cephalic Answer: B Explanation: Cranial means pertaining to the skull. Crural means pertaining to the legs. Cervical means pertaining to the neck. Cephalic means pertaining to the head. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Which of the following terms means pertaining to internal organs? A) cardiac B) peritoneal C) visceral D) caudal Answer: C Explanation: Visceral means pertaining to internal organs. Cardiac means pertaining to the heart. Peritoneal means pertaining to the peritoneum. Caudal means pertaining to the tail. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

63) Which of the following terms means pertaining to the spinal cord side of the body? A) cephalic B) superior C) distal D) dorsal Answer: D Explanation: Dorsal means pertaining to the spinal cord side of the body. Cephalic means pertaining to the head. Superior means more toward the head or above another structure. Distal means farther away from the point of attachment. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 64) The knee is to the hip. A) ventral B) distal C) superior D) proximal Answer: B Explanation: The knee is farther away from the point of attachment to the body than the hip is. Ventral means more toward the belly side of the body. Distal means farther away from the point of attachment. Superior means more toward the head. Proximal means more toward the point of attachment to the body. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 65) Which of the following terms means lying face up? A) prone B) ventral C) supine D) dorsal Answer: C Explanation: Supine means lying face up. Prone means lying face down. Ventral means more toward the belly side of the body. Dorsal means more toward the back of the body. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

66) The fundamental units of all living things are the: A) tissues. B) cells. C) systems. D) organs. Answer: B Explanation: Cells are the fundamental units of all living things. Tissues are made up of cells. Organs are made up of tissues. Systems are made up of organs. Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) Which of the following types of tissue plays a role in absorbing nutrients? A) muscular B) nervous C) epithelial D) connective Answer: C Explanation: Epithelial tissue can absorb nutrients. Muscular tissue produces movement. Nervous tissue conducts electrical impulses. Connective tissue helps support the body. Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) Which of the following organs is found in the urinary system? A) testes B) brain C) stomach D) kidneys Answer: D Explanation: Kidneys are found in the urinary system. Testes are found in the male reproductive system. The brain is found in the nervous system. The stomach is found in the gastrointestinal system. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

69) Which of the following sectional views of the body is produced by a slice along the median plane? A) sagittal B) cross C) longitudinal D) transverse Answer: A Explanation: A sagittal view is produced when there is a slice along the median plane. A crosssection is a section produced by a slice perpendicular to the long axis. A longitudinal section is produced by a slice along the long axis of the body. A transverse section is produced by a slice along the transverse plane. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Positions 70) Another name for the torso is the region of the body. A) vertebral B) dorsum C) trunk D) crural Answer: C Explanation: The torso is the trunk region of the body. The vertebral region refers to the spinal cord area of the body. The dorsum refers to the back. The crural region of the body contains the legs. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 71) In considering the two-layer sac that encases internal organs, the outer layer of this membrane in the thoracic cavity is called the: A) parietal pleura. B) visceral pleura. C) parietal peritoneum. D) visceral peritoneum. Answer: A Explanation: The parietal layer is the outer layer of the membrane lining the thoracic cavity. The visceral pleura is the inner layer of the membrane lining the thoracic cavity. The parietal peritoneum is the outer layer of the peritoneum. The visceral peritoneum is the inner layer of the peritoneum. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

72) A term meaning pertaining to the chest is: A) visceral. B) crural. C) lumbar. D) thoracic. Answer: D Explanation: Thoracic means pertaining to the chest. Visceral means pertaining to the internal organs. Crural means pertaining to the legs. Lumbar means pertaining to the lumbar region. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 73) In which of the following quadrants would you find the colon? A) left lower quadrant B) right lower quadrant C) right and left upper quadrants D) right and left upper and right and left lower quadrants Answer: D Explanation: The colon is found in all four quadrants, as well as the midline area. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 74) A person having repeated bladder infections would see a specialist in: A) gastroenterology. B) urology. C) otorhinolaryngology. D) gynecology. Answer: B Explanation: A person having repeated bladder infections would see a specialist in urology because the bladder is part of the urinary system. Gastroenterology treats disorders of the stomach and small intestines. Otorhinolaryngology treats disorders of the ear, nose, and throat. Gynecology treats disorders of the female reproductive system. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

75) A term that is interchangeable with anterior is: A) dorsal. B) posterior. C) ventral. D) cephalic. Answer: C Explanation: Anterior and ventral are interchangeable. Dorsal and posterior are interchangeable. Cephalic is interchangeable with superior. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions

2.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) aids in temperature regulation B) the back region C) pumps blood throughout the body D) contains digestive organs E) divides body into left and right portions F) study of the eye G) more toward the surface of the body H) interchangeable with cephalic I) tissue that conducts electrical impulses J) interchangeable with ventral K) upper extremity L) the buttocks M) study of the skin N) tissue that produces movement O) organ in the respiratory system P) outermost boundary of a cell Q) study of tissue R) divides body into front and back portions S) lower extremity T) tip or summit of an organ U) organ in the male reproductive system V) contains heart and lungs W) pertaining to the side X) organ in the digestive system Y) lying face up 1) histology Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 2) cell membrane Page Ref: 28 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) muscular Page Ref: 29 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 44

4) nervous Page Ref: 31 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) stomach Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) lungs Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) prostate gland Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) coronal plane Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 9) sagittal plane Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 10) brachial region Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 11) crural region Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 45

12) dorsum Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 13) gluteal region Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Regions 14) thoracic cavity Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) abdominal cavity Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) cardiovascular system Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) integumentary system Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) dermatology Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 19) ophthalmology Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 46

20) apex Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 21) supine Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 22) anterior Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 23) superior Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 24) lateral Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions 25) superficial Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Positions Answers: 1) Q 2) P 3) N 4) I 5) X 6) O 7) U 8) R 9) E 10) K 11) S 12) B 13) L 14) V 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) M 19) F 20) T 21) Y 22) J 23) H 24) W 25) G

2.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the anatomical position and why it is important. Answer: • Standing erect, arms at the sides, palms of hands facing forward, eyes looking straight ahead, legs parallel with the feet, toes pointing forward • Standard position for describing positions and relationships of structures in the human body Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering, Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe the structure and function of the four basic types of tissues. Answer: 1. Muscle tissue • formed from muscle fibers • produces movement in the body • skeletal muscle is attached to bones • cardiac muscle is in the heart • smooth muscle is found in internal organs 2. Epithelial tissue • close-packed cells form covering for and lining of body structures • protective barrier • absorbs substances • secretes substances • excretes waste 3. Connective tissue • supports and protects body structures • many different forms to perform different tasks • bone—structural support • cartilage—shock absorber in joints • adipose—protective padding • tendons—connects skeletal muscle to bones 4. Nervous tissue • composed of neurons • conducts electrical impulses • brain, spinal cord, and nerves Page Ref: 28-31 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 3 Integumentary System 3.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means life is Answer: bi/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means cold is Answer: cry/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means to burn is Answer: cauter/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means profuse sweating is Answer: diaphor/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means electricity is Answer: electr/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means red is Answer: erythr/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means sweat is Answer: hidr/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means scaly, dry is Answer: ichthy/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means hard, horny is Answer: kerat/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means black is Answer: melan/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means fungus is Answer: myc/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means light is Answer: phot/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means pus is Answer: py/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means wrinkle is Answer: rhytid/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means oil is Answer: seb/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) The combining form that means outer layer is Answer: cortic/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means sac is Answer: vesic/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means hair is Answer: trich/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) A combining form that means nail is Answer: ungu/o; onych/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) A combining form that means skin is Answer: cutane/o; derm/o; dermat/o Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) A suffix that means skin condition is Answer: -derma Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) A suffix that means view of is Answer: -opsy Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) A suffix that means instrument to cut is Answer: -tome Page Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) A prefix that means other is Answer: alloPage Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) A prefix that means foreign is Answer: xenoPage Ref: 63 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) A medical term that means pertaining to upon the skin is Answer: epidermal Page Ref: 64 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

27) A medical term that means pertaining to within the skin is Answer: intradermal Page Ref: 64 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

28) A medical term that means inflammation of the skin is Answer: dermatitis Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 29) A medical term that means specialist in the skin is Answer: dermatologist Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

30) A medical term that means skin grafting or transplantation of skin is Answer: dermatoplasty Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

31) A medical term that means abnormal condition of no sweat is Answer: anhidrosis Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

32) A medical term that literally translates to black tumor is Answer: melanoma Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

33) A medical term for the special basal layer cells that produce melanin is Answer: melanocyte Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) A medical term that means abnormal condition of death is Answer: necrosis Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

35) A medical term that means condition of red or flushed skin is Answer: erythroderma Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

36) A medical term that translates to pus skin condition is Answer: pyoderma Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

37) A medical term that means surgical removal of nail is Answer: onychectomy Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

38) A medical term that means abnormal softening of the nails is Answer: onychomalacia Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 39) A medical term that means fatty mass is Answer: lipoma Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

40) A medical term that literally translates to surgical removal of wrinkles is Answer: rhytidectomy Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 41) A medical term that means oily discharge is Answer: seborrhea Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

42) A medical term that means abnormal condition of hair fungus is Answer: trichomycosis Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 43) A medical term that means pertaining to the nails is Answer: ungual Page Ref: 64 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

44) The medical term for a blackhead is Answer: comedo Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

45) A medical term that means pertaining to under the skin is Answer: subcutaneous; hypodermic Page Ref: 64 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

46) A medical term that means condition of scaly and dry skin is Answer: ichthyoderma Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

47) A medical term that literally translates to white skin condition is Answer: leukoderma Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 48) A medical term that literally translates to dry skin condition is Answer: xeroderma Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 49) A medical term that literally translates to hard skin is Answer: scleroderma Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

50) A medical term that means abnormal condition of nail fungus is Answer: onychomycosis Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8

3.2 True/False Questions 1) The skin is also called the cutaneous membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Sebum is a watery secretion that cools the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sweat is a watery secretion that cools the skin. Sebum is an oily discharge that keeps the skin from drying out. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The skin contains sensory receptors for pain, temperature, and touch. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The subcutaneous layer of skin is fibrous, connective tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The subcutaneous layer of skin is fat tissue. The dermis layer of the skin is fibrous, connective tissue. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Melanocytes are found in the basal layer of the epidermis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6) The epidermis is also called the corium. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The dermis is also called the corium. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Hair and nails are composed of keratin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Apocrine sweat glands are the most numerous. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sudoriferous sweat glands are the most numerous. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The arrector pili are muscles that cause the hair shaft to stand up. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The light-colored half-moon area at the base of a nail is called the cuticle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The light-colored half-moon area at the base of a nail is called the lunula. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) A cicatrix is a scar. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

12) In cyanosis, the skin turns black. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In cyanosis, the skin turns blue. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) A comedo is commonly called a blackhead. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) Diaphoresis is a whitening of the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diaphoresis is profuse sweating. Vitiligo is a whitening of the skin. Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) Hyperemia is a reddening of the skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) An ecchymosis is a pinpoint hemorrhage. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Petechiae are pinpoint skin hemorrhages. An ecchymosis is blood collecting under the skin. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) Lesion is a general term for a wound, injury, or abnormality. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

18) Pruritus are skin hemorrhages due to fragile blood vessels. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pruritus is severe itching. Purpura are skin hemorrhages due to fragile blood vessels. Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 19) A keloid is a hypertrophic scar. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) Suppurative indicates the presence of a viral infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Suppurative means containing or producing pus. Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) Eschar is a layer of dead tissue that develops over a deep burn. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) A fissure is a jagged wound. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A fissure is a crack-like lesion or groove on the skin. A laceration is a jagged wound. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) A strawberry hemangioma is present at birth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

24) A cyst is a solid skin lesion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cyst is a fluid-filled sac under the skin. Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) A verruca is commonly called a wart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) A macule is a raised lesion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A macule is a flat, discolored area that is flush with the skin. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) A pustule is a raised spot containing pus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) An ulcer is a flat, discolored lesion on the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A macule is a flat, discolored lesion on the skin. An ulcer is an open sore or lesion in the skin or mucous membrane. Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) A vesicle is commonly called a blister. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

30) An abscess is a collection of clear fluid on the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An abscess is a collection of pus in the skin. A vesicle is a collection of clear fluid on the skin. Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 31) Urticaria is commonly called hives. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Acne rosacea is the common form of acne seen in teenagers. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Acne rosacea is a form of adult acne. Acne vulgaris is the common form of acne seen in teenagers. Page Ref: 70 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) Albinism is a genetic disorder with the lack of melanin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 70 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) Fourth-degree burns are the deepest burns. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Third-degree burns are the deepest burns. Page Ref: 71 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 35) Second-degree burns are characterized by blisters. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 71 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

36) Eczema is caused by caustic chemicals. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Eczema is a superficial dermatitis of unknown cause. Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Decubitus ulcers are commonly called bedsores. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Impetigo is the result of severe skin trauma. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Impetigo is a highly infectious bacterial infection. Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Gangrene is characterized by tissue necrosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Pediculosis is a mite infestation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pediculosis is a lice infestation. Scabies is a mite infestation. Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Malignant melanoma is a dangerous type of skin cancer. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

42) Vitiligo is a reddening of the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Vitiligo is a whitening of the skin. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Tinea is a fungal infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) A furuncle is a bacterial infection of several hair follicles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A furuncle is a bacterial infection of one hair follicle. A carbuncle is a bacterial infection of several hair follicles. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Alopecia is the medical term for baldness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) An allograft comes from the person's own body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An allograft comes from another person. An autograft comes from the person's own body. Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) C&S identifies the type of bacteria causing an infection and which antibiotic will best fight it. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 16

48) A dermatome is an instrument for cutting thin skin transplants. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 49) An antiparasitic treats fungal infections. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An antifungal treats fungal infections. An antiparasitic kills mites or lice. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 50) Dermabrasion is another name for a facelift. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Rhytidectomy is another name for a facelift. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 3.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ to the skin? A) sensory receptors B) hair C) nails D) sweat glands Answer: A Explanation: Sensory receptors are a part of the skin. Hair, nails, and sweat glands are accessory organs to the skin. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

2) Which of the following is the most superficial layer of skin? A) subcutaneous layer B) epidermis C) dermis D) corium Answer: B Explanation: The epidermis is the most superficial layer. The dermis, or corium, is the deeper layer. The subcutaneous layer is underneath the dermis. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A) temperature regulation B) protection against pathogens C) nutrient absorption D) sensory receptors containment Answer: C Explanation: Nutrient absorption is not a function of the skin. Temperature regulation, protection against pathogens, and sensory receptor containment are functions of the skin. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Which of the following statements regarding the epidermis is FALSE? A) It is composed of stratified squamous epithelium. B) The deepest layer is the basal layer. C) As skin cells die, they become filled with a hard protein called keratin. D) Melanocytes produce the protein keratin. Answer: D Explanation: Melanocytes give skin its color; the more melanin someone has, the darker the skin will be. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

5) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) epidermis—thin outer membrane layer B) melanin—gives skin its color C) keratin—innermost layer, containing fatty tissue D) dermis—fibrous, connective tissue layer Answer: C Explanation: Keratin is a hard protein. The subcutaneous layer is the innermost layer containing fatty tissue. All other choices are correct. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Which of the following statements regarding melanin is FALSE? A) Melanin causes the formation of wrinkles. B) Melanin gives skin its color. C) Melanin protects against ultraviolet rays. D) Melanin protects against skin cancer. Answer: A Explanation: Melanin helps protect against wrinkles. Wrinkles are caused by the drying of the skin and ultraviolet damage. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is FALSE? A) The dermis is also called the corium. B) The dermis is composed of fibrous connective tissue. C) The dermis contains a large amount of fat tissue. D) The dermis houses sensory receptors. Answer: C Explanation: The subcutaneous layer contains a large amount of fat tissue. All other choices regarding the dermis are true. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

8) Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is FALSE? A) The dermis has a good blood supply. B) The dermis is between the hypodermis and subcutaneous layer. C) The term dermis means true skin. D) The dermis houses sweat glands. Answer: B Explanation: The dermis is between the epidermis and subcutaneous layer. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Which of the following structures is NOT housed in the dermis? A) nails B) hair follicles C) sebaceous glands D) nerve fibers Answer: A Explanation: Nails cover the ends of the fingers and toes. Hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and nerve fibers are all found in the dermis. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Which of the following statements regarding the subcutaneous layer is FALSE? A) This layer is also called the hypodermis. B) This layer is composed primarily of lipocytes. C) This layer acts as insulation against cold. D) This layer houses sensory receptors. Answer: D Explanation: The dermis houses sensory receptors. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

11) Hair fibers are composed of: A) melanin. B) keratin. C) collagen. D) lipocytes. Answer: B Explanation: Hair fibers are made up of keratin. Melanin, collagen, and lipocytes are incorrect. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which of the following layers of the skin contains collagen fibers? A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous layer D) hypodermis Answer: B Explanation: Collagen fibers are found in the dermis. The epidermis is made of stratified squamous epithelium. The subcutaneous layer is made of fat tissue. Hypodermis is another name for the subcutaneous layer. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) Hair grows toward the surface within the: A) hair shaft. B) hair root. C) hair follicle. D) hair cuticle. Answer: C Explanation: The hair shaft grows from the hair root toward the surface within the hair follicle. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

14) Which of the following glands are associated with hair follicles? A) sebaceous glands B) fat glands C) sweat glands D) apocrine glands Answer: A Explanation: Sebaceous glands secrete sebum into the hair follicle. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly? A) hair—composed of keratin B) nails—grow longer from the root C) sweat glands—secrete sebum to cool the skin D) sebaceous glands—secrete into hair follicle Answer: C Explanation: Sweat glands secrete sweat to cool the skin. Sebaceous glands secrete sebum to keep the skin moisturized. All other pairs are correct. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Nails are connected to the tissue underneath by the: A) nail body. B) nail bed. C) nail root. D) cuticle. Answer: B Explanation: Nails are connected to the tissue underneath by the nail bed. The nail body is the flat plate of keratin. Nails grow longer from the nail root, which is protected by the cuticle. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

17) The is the portion of the nail that is clipped when it grows too long. A) nail root B) cuticle C) free edge D) nail bed Answer: C Explanation: The free edge is the portion of the nail that is clipped when it grows too long. The nail grows longer from the nail root, which is protected by the cuticle. Nails are connected to the tissue underneath by the nail bed. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Which of the following statements regarding sebaceous glands is FALSE? A) These glands are found in the dermis. B) These glands secrete oil into a duct. C) These glands secrete less oil as we age. D) These glands play a role in adolescent acne. Answer: B Explanation: Sebaceous glands secrete oil into a hair follicle. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which of the following statements regarding sweat glands is FALSE? A) These glands secrete sweat into a duct. B) Sweat contains a small amount of waste products. C) Perspiration cools the body. D) These glands play a role in adolescent acne. Answer: D Explanation: Sebaceous glands play a role in adolescent acne. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

20) Where are apocrine sweat glands located? A) underarm area B) palms and soles C) around the lips D) arms and legs Answer: A Explanation: Apocrine sweat glands are located in the underarm area and pubic area. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Which of the following terms means pertaining to within the skin? A) epidermal B) hypodermal C) intradermal D) dermal Answer: C Explanation: Intra- means within, derm/o means skin, and -al means pertaining to; hence, intradermal means pertaining to within the skin. Epi- means above or upon, derm/o means skin, al means pertaining to; thus, epidermal means pertaining to upon the skin. Hypo- means under, derm/o means skin, and -al means pertaining to; therefore, hypodermal means pertaining to under the skin. Derm/o means skin and -al means pertaining to, so dermal means pertaining to the skin. Page Ref: 64 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Which of the following terms specifically means abnormal condition of the skin? A) dermatome B) dermatosis C) dermatoplasty D) dermatitis Answer: B Explanation: Dermat/o means skin and -osis means abnormal condition; therefore, dermatosis means abnormal condition of the skin. Derm/o means skin and -tome means instrument to cut; thus, dermatome means instrument to cut skin. Dermat/o means skin and -plasty means surgical repair; hence, dermatoplasty means surgical repair of the skin. Dermat/o means skin and -itis means inflammation, so dermatitis means skin inflammation. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

23) Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of excessive sweat? A) hyperhidrosis B) ahidrosis C) anhidrosis D) hypohidrosis Answer: A Explanation: Hyper- means excessive, hidr/o means sweat, and -osis means abnormal condition; therefore, hyperhidrosis means abnormal condition of excessive sweat. Ahidrosis is spelled incorrectly. An- means without, hidr/o means sweat, and -osis means abnormal condition; thus, anhidrosis means abnormal condition of no sweat. Hypo- means below or insufficient, hidr/o means sweat, and -osis means abnormal condition; hence, hypohidrosis means abnormal condition of insufficient sweat. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 24) Which of the following terms means fatty mass? A) lipectomy B) adiposis C) adipopathy D) lipoma Answer: D Explanation: Lip/o means fat and -oma means a mass; hence, lipoma means fatty mass. Lip/o means fat and -ectomy means surgical removal; therefore, lipectomy means surgical removal of fat. Adip/o means fat and -osis means abnormal condition; thus, adiposis means abnormal condition of fat. Adip/o means fat and -pathy means disease, so adipopathy means fat disease. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 25) Which of the following terms means abnormal softening of the nails? A) onychomycosis B) onychomalacia C) onychosclerosis D) onychostenosis Answer: B Explanation: Onych/o means nail and -malacia means abnormal softening; therefore, onychomalacia means abnormal softening of the nails. Onych/o means nail, myc/o means fungus, and -osis means abnormal condition; thus, onychomycosis means abnormal condition of nail fungus. Onych/o means nail and -sclerosis means hardening; hence, onychosclerosis means nail hardening. Onych/o means nail and -stenosis means narrowing, so onychostenosis means nail narrowing. Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 25

26) Which of the following terms means surgical removal of wrinkles? A) rhytidotomy B) rhytidoplasty C) rhytidectomy D) rhytidostomy Answer: C Explanation: Rhytid/o means wrinkles and -ectomy means surgical removal; hence, rhytidectomy means surgical removal of wrinkles. Rhytid/o means wrinkles and -otomy means to cut into; thus, rhytidotomy would be to surgically cut into a wrinkle. Rhytid/o means wrinkles and -plasty means surgical repair; therefore, rhytidoplasty means surgical repair of wrinkles. Rhytid/o means wrinkles and -ostomy means to surgically create an opening, so rhytidostomy would be to surgically create an opening in a wrinkle. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 27) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) onychomycosis B) rhytidoplasty C) hyperhydrosis D) subcutaneous Answer: C Explanation: Hyperhydrosis should be spelled hyperhidrosis. All other terms are correctly spelled. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 28) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) dermatologist B) melenocyte C) lipectomy D) ungual Answer: B Explanation: Melenocyte should be spelled melanocyte. All other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

29) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) luekoderma B) erythroderma C) scleroderma D) xeroderma Answer: A Explanation: Luekoderma should be spelled leukoderma. All other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 30) Which of the following terms means hard skin condition? A) erythroderma B) xeroderma C) ichthyoderma D) scleroderma Answer: D Explanation: Scler/o means hard and -derma means skin condition; thus, scleroderma means hard skin condition. Erythr/o means red and -derma means skin condition, so erythroderma means red skin condition. Xer/o means dry and -derma means skin condition; therefor xeroderma means dry skin condition. Ichthy/o means scaly and -derma means skin condition; hence, ichthyoderma means condition of scaly skin. Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 31) Which of the following terms means red skin condition? A) cyanoderma B) erythroderma C) melanoderma D) leukoderma Answer: B Explanation: Erythr/o means red and -derma means skin condition; thus, erythroderma means red skin condition. Cyan/o means blue; therefore, cyanoderma means blue skin condition. Melan/o means black; hence, melanoderma means black skin condition. Leuk/o means white, so leukoderma means white skin condition. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

32) Which of the following terms means a scraping away of the skin surface by friction? A) cicatrix B) contusion C) abrasion D) keratosis Answer: C Explanation: Abrasion is a scraping away of the skin surface by friction. A cicatrix is a scar. A contusion is a collection of blood under the skin with pain and swelling. Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) The term for a regular scar (not hypertrophic) is: A) cicatrix. B) eschar. C) comedo. D) keloid. Answer: A Explanation: Cicatrix is the term for a regular scar. Eschar is a thick layer of dead tissue and tissue fluid. A comedo is a blackhead. A keloid is a hypertrophic scar. Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) The term for profuse sweating is: A) anhidrosis. B) contusion. C) diaphoresis. D) keratosis. Answer: C Explanation: The term for profuse sweating is diaphoresis. Anhidrosis is an abnormal condition of no sweat. A contusion is a collection of blood under the skin with pain and swelling. Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

35) The term for excessive hair growth over the body is: A) hyperemia. B) nevus. C) hyperhidrosis. D) hirsutism. Answer: D Explanation: Hirsutism is excessive hair growth over the body. Hyperemia is a flushing of the skin. Hyperhidrosis is an abnormal condition of excessive sweat. A nevus is a birthmark. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) Which of the following terms does NOT refer to an abnormal skin color? A) cyanosis B) erythema C) pallor D) keratosis Answer: D Explanation: Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Cyanosis, erythema, and pallor all refer to abnormal skin colors. Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Which of the following terms refers to a bruise caused by blunt trauma to the skin? A) ecchymosis B) petechiae C) vitiligo D) purpura Answer: A Explanation: Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by blunt trauma to the skin. Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages. Vitiligo refers to whitening of the skin. Purpura are hemorrhages in the skin due to fragile blood vessels. Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

38) A pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole is called a: A) keloid. B) nevus. C) ecchymosis. D) eschar. Answer: B Explanation: A nevus is a pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole. A keloid is a hypertrophic scar. An ecchymosis is a collection of blood under the skin. Eschar is a thick layer of dead tissue and tissue fluid. Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Which of the following conditions is also called hives? A) purulent B) pruritus C) urticaria D) verruca Answer: C Explanation: Urticaria is also called hives. Purulent refers to pus drainage. Pruritus is severe itching. Verruca is commonly called warts. Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following conditions is commonly called warts? A) nevus B) keratosis C) purpura D) verruca Answer: D Explanation: Verruca is commonly called warts. Nevus is a birthmark or mole. Keratosis is an abnormal condition of hard (skin). Purpura are hemorrhages in the skin due to fragile blood vessels. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

41) Which of the following surface lesions is a torn or jagged wound? A) laceration B) macule C) fissure D) ulcer Answer: A Explanation: A laceration is a torn or jagged wound. A macule is a flat, discolored lesion. A fissure is a crack-like lesion. An ulcer is an open lesion or wound. Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) Which of the following surface lesions is a flat, discolored area that is flush with the skin surface? A) papule B) wheal C) macule D) vesicle Answer: C Explanation: A macule is a flat, discolored area flush with the skin surface. A papule is a small, circular, raised spot on the skin. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area. A vesicle is a raised, fluid-filled sac on the skin. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which of the following surface lesions is a small, round, swollen area, typically an allergic reaction? A) vesicle B) wheal C) pustule D) papule Answer: B Explanation: A wheal is a small, round, swollen area, typically an allergic reaction. A vesicle is a raised, fluid-filled sac on the skin. A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. A papule is a small, circular, raised spot on the skin. Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

44) Which of the following surface lesions is a small, solid, circular, raised spot? A) papule B) pustule C) cyst D) macule Answer: A Explanation: A papule is a small, solid, circular, raised spot. A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. A cyst is a fluid-filled sac under the skin. A macule is a small discolored lesion flush with the skin. Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Which of the following surface lesions is a blister? A) pustule B) vesicle C) papule D) wheal Answer: B Explanation: A vesicle is also known as a blister. A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. A papule is a small, solid, circular, raised spot. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area. Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) Which of the following lesions does NOT have pus? A) pustule B) abscess C) furuncle D) papule Answer: D Explanation: A papule is a small, solid, circular, raised spot on the skin. All other choices contain pus. Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

47) Acne is the common form of acne seen in teenagers. A) rosacea B) verruca C) vulgaris D) impetigo Answer: C Explanation: Acne vulgaris is the common form of acne seen in teenagers. Acne rosacea is the acne seen in adults. Verruca is commonly called warts. Impetigo is a highly infectious bacterial infection. Page Ref: 70 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) This condition is frequently called a bedsore or pressure sore. A) decubitus ulcer B) cellulitis C) ichthyosis D) gangrene Answer: A Explanation: A decubitus ulcer is commonly called a bedsore or pressure sore. Cellulitis is a diffuse, acute infection and inflammation of the connective tissue of the skin. Ichthyosis is a condition in which the skin becomes dry, scaly, and keratinized. Gangrene is tissue necrosis usually due to deficient blood supply. Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Which of the following is a genetic condition in which the body is unable to make melanin? A) carbuncle B) vitiligo C) eczema D) albinism Answer: D Explanation: Albinism is a genetic condition in which the body is unable to make melanin. A carbuncle is several infected hair follicles. Vitiligo is the disappearance of pigment from the skin in patches. Eczema is a superficial dermatitis of unknown cause. Page Ref: 70 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

50) Which of the following cancerous lesions is frequently seen in immunodeficient patients? A) malignant melanoma B) Kaposi's sarcoma C) basal cell carcinoma D) squamous cell carcinoma Answer: B Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancerous lesion frequently seen in immunodeficient patients; it is an opportunistic infection. The other choices are cancerous lesions seen in all patients. Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 51) Which of the following conditions is a lice infestation? A) scabies B) ichthyosis C) pediculosis D) varicella Answer: C Explanation: Pediculosis is a lice infestation. Scabies is a mite infestation. Ichthyosis is a condition in which the skin becomes dry, scaly, and keratinized. Varicella is commonly known as chickenpox. Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) This infection is commonly called chickenpox. A) varicella B) rubella C) vitiligo D) tinea Answer: A Explanation: Varicella is commonly called chickenpox. Rubella is commonly called German measles. Vitiligo is a condition in which pigment disappears in patches. Tinea is a fungal infection. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

53) This is an ischemic condition that has developed a secondary pus-producing infection. A) psoriasis B) wet gangrene C) furuncle D) dry gangrene Answer: B Explanation: Wet gangrene is when gangrene has developed a secondary pus-producing infection. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory condition consisting of papules forming "silvery scale" patches with circular borders. Furuncle is an infected hair follicle. Dry gangrene is the late stages of gangrene characterized by the affected area becoming dried, blackened, and shriveled; it is referred to as mummified. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 54) Which of the following conditions is commonly called athlete's foot? A) rubella B) tinea capitis C) scabies D) tinea pedis Answer: D Explanation: Tinea pedis is commonly called athlete's foot. Rubella is commonly called German measles. Tinea capitis is commonly called ringworm. Scabies is a mite infestation. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) Which of the following terms means baldness? A) onychia B) impetigo C) alopecia D) vitiligo Answer: C Explanation: Alopecia means baldness. Onychia is an infected nail bed. Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection. Vitiligo is a condition in which pigment disappears in patches. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

56) Which of the following conditions is caused by a mite infestation? A) pediculosis B) wheal C) impetigo D) scabies Answer: D Explanation: Scabies is caused by a mite infestation. Pediculosis is a lice infestation. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area on the skin. Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 57) An infection of the skin fold around the nail is called: A) paronychia. B) onychia. C) onychophagia. D) perionychitis. Answer: A Explanation: Paronychia is an infection of the skin fold around the nail. Onychia is an infection of the nail bed. Onychophagia is commonly known as nail-biting. Perionychitis is not a properly built medical term. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 58) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines a piece of tissue under a microscope? A) cytology B) curettage C) biopsy D) debridement Answer: C Explanation: A biopsy examines a piece of tissue under a microscope. Cytology is the study of cells. Curettage is the removal of superficial skin lesions with a curette (surgical instrument shaped like a spoon) or scraper. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

59) A culture and sensitivity (C&S) will detect: A) cancer. B) a bacterial infection. C) a viral infection. D) a lice infection. Answer: B Explanation: A culture and sensitivity will detect a bacterial infection. Other diagnostic procedures are used to detect cancer, viral infections, and lice infestations. Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 60) In exfoliative cytology, the cells for examination are obtained by: A) incision. B) syringe. C) needle. D) scraping. Answer: D Explanation: In exfoliative cytology, the cells are obtained by scraping the skin. A biopsy is obtained by incision, needle, or syringe. Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 61) Which of the following diagnostic procedures gives a rapid examination of a tissue sample? A) frozen section B) cryosurgery C) fungal scraping D) exfoliative cytology Answer: A Explanation: A frozen section allows for rapid examination of a tissue sample. Cryosurgery is removal of a lesion using cold. A fungal scraping is a scraping taken from a lesion. Exfoliative cytology is the scraping of the skin. Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

62) Which of the following skin graft procedures uses skin from another species? A) allograft B) homograft C) xenograft D) autograft Answer: C Explanation: A xenograft, also known as a heterograft, is a skin graft using skin from another species. An allograft is skin from another person or cadaver. Allografts are also referred to as homografts. An autograft is skin from a person's own body. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 63) Which of the following surgical procedures is the removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound? A) debridement B) electrocautery C) cauterization D) cryosurgery Answer: A Explanation: Debridement is the surgical procedure that removes dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Electrocautery is a surgical procedure that removes tissue with an electric current. Cauterization is the destruction of tissue by using caustic chemicals, electric currents, heat, or by freezing. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which of the following surgical procedures is used to remove acne scars and tattoos? A) cauterization B) dermabrasion C) cryosurgery D) dermatoplasty Answer: B Explanation: Dermabrasion is the surgical procedure used to remove acne scars and tattoos. Cauterization is the destruction of tissue by using caustic chemicals, electric currents, heat, or by freezing. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Dermatoplasty is the surgical repair of skin. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

65) Which of the following procedures is commonly referred to as a chemical peel? A) curettage B) liposuction C) dermabrasion D) chemabrasion Answer: D Explanation: A chemabrasion is commonly referred to as a chemical peel. Curettage is the removal of superficial skin lesions with a curette or scraper. Liposuction is the removal of fat beneath the skin by means of suction. Dermabrasion is abrasion or rubbing using wire brushes or sandpaper to remove acne scars, tattoos, and scar tissue. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 66) Which of the following surgical procedures removes superficial skin lesions with scraping? A) curettage B) cryosurgery C) debridement D) cauterization Answer: A Explanation: Curettage is a surgical procedure that removes superficial skin lesions with scraping. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Cauterization is the destruction of tissue by using caustic chemicals, electric currents, heat, or by freezing. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which of the following procedures removes fat from under the skin? A) dermabrasion B) laser therapy C) cryosurgery D) liposuction Answer: D Explanation: Liposuction is the removal of fat beneath the skin by means of suction. Laser therapy is the removal of skin lesions and birthmarks using a laser beam that emits intense heat and power at a close range. Cryosurgery is the use of extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

68) Which of the following medications is used to deaden pain? A) anesthetic B) antipruritic C) corticosteroid D) antiseptic Answer: A Explanation: An anesthetic is a medication used to deaden pain. An antipruritic is used to reduce severe itching. A corticosteroid is an anti-inflammatory. An antiseptic is used to kill bacteria. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 69) Which of the following medications is used to reduce inflammation? A) antipruritic B) antibiotic C) antiseptic D) corticosteroid Answer: D Explanation: A corticosteroid is used to reduce inflammation. An antipruritic is used to reduce severe itching. An antibiotic is used to kill bacteria. An antiseptic is used to kill bacteria. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 70) Which of the following medications is used to kill mites or lice? A) antibiotic B) antifungal C) antiparasitic D) antipruritic Answer: C Explanation: An antiparasitic is used to kill mites or lice. An antibiotic is used to kill bacteria. An antifungal is used to kill fungi. An antipruritic is used to reduce severe itching. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

71) Which of the following abbreviations is a surgical procedure? A) I&D B) ID C) MM D) SLE Answer: A Explanation: I&D is the abbreviation for incision and drainage, which is a surgical procedure. ID is the abbreviation for intradermal. MM is the abbreviation for malignant melanoma, a cancerous tumor. SLE is the abbreviation for systemic lupus erythematosus, which is an autoimmune disease. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 72) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a cancerous tumor? A) UV B) MM C) ID D) SLE Answer: B Explanation: MM is the abbreviation for malignant melanoma, a cancerous tumor. UV is the abbreviation for ultraviolet. ID is the abbreviation for intradermal. SLE is the abbreviation for systemic lupus erythematosus, an autoimmune disease. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a diagnostic test? A) Bx B) FS C) C&S D) SG Answer: D Explanation: SG is the abbreviation for skin graft, a surgical procedure. Bx is the abbreviation for biopsy. FS is the abbreviation for frozen section. C&S is the abbreviation for culture and sensitivity. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

74) Which of the following surgical procedures uses cold? A) cryosurgery B) curettage C) debridement D) electrocautery Answer: A Explanation: Cryosurgery uses extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Curettage is the removal of superficial skin lesions by scraping. Debridement is the removal of foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Electrocautery is the use of electric current to destroy tissue. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 75) Which of the following lesions is a fluid-filled sac under the skin? A) nodule B) wheal C) cyst D) papule Answer: C Explanation: A cyst is a fluid-filled sac under the skin. A nodule is a firm, solid mass in the skin. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area on the skin. A papule is a small, solid, circular, raised spot on the surface of the skin. Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

3.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) uses a scraper B) ringworm C) middle layer of skin D) baldness E) hives F) a blister G) infected nail bed H) pigmented skin blemish I) primarily composed of fat tissue J) skin hemorrhages due to fragile blood vessels K) pressure sore L) abnormal paleness of the skin M) mite infestation N) deepest layer of the epidermis O) nail biting P) German measles Q) flat, discolored area R) hypertrophic scar S) lice infestation T) crack-like lesion U) containing pus V) oil that lubricates the skin W) profuse sweating X) scaly skin Y) hard protein found in hair and nails 1) dermis Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) basal layer Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) keratin Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) subcutaneous layer Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) sebum Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) ichthyoderma Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 7) onychophagia Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 8) keloid Page Ref: 73 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 9) pallor Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) nevus Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 11) diaphoresis Page Ref: 65 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44

12) purpura Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) urticaria Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) macule Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) purulent Page Ref: 68 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) fissure Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) vesicle Page Ref: 69 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) decubitus ulcer Page Ref: 72 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 19) scabies Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45

20) pediculosis Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) rubella Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) tinea capitis Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) alopecia Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 24) onychia Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) curettage Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures Answers: 1) C 2) N 3) Y 4) I 5) V 6) X 7) O 8) R 9) L 10) H 11) W 12) J 13) E 14) Q 15) U 16) T 17) F 18) K 19) M 20) S 21) P 22) B 23) D 24) G 25) A

3.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the three depths of burn. Answer: 1. First degree: damages epidermis; redness and pain; no blisters 2. Second degree: damages epidermis and dermis; blisters appear 3. Third degree: destroys epidermis and dermis; damages subcutaneous layer; eschar develops Page Ref: 71 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 2) Describe the different types of skin grafts. Answer: 1. Allograft: skin graft comes from another person, not the patient; usually a cadaver 2. Autograft: skin graft comes from another part of the patient's body 3. Heterograft: skin graft comes from an animal of another species, usually a pig; also called xenograft Page Ref: 77, 78 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 4 Musculoskeletal System 4.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means movement is Answer: kinesi/o Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) A combining form that means tendon is Answer: ten/o; tend/o; tendin/o Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) A combining form that means muscle is Answer: my/o; myos/o; muscul/o Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) A combining form that means joint is Answer: arthr/o; articul/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means cartilage is Answer: chondr/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means stiff joint is Answer: ankyl/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means hump is Answer: kyph/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means bent backward is Answer: lord/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means bone marrow is Answer: myel/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means straight is Answer: orth/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means bone is Answer: oste/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means child or foot is Answer: ped/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means crooked is Answer: scoli/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) A combining form that means vertebra is Answer: vertebr/o; spondyl/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) A combining form that means synovial membrane is Answer: synov/o; synovi/o Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means fibers is Answer: fibr/o Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means sole of foot is Answer: plant/o Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) A suffix that means movement is Answer: -kinesia Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) A suffix that means tone is Answer: -tonia Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) A suffix that means weakness is Answer: -asthenia Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) A suffix that means to surgically break is Answer: -clasia Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A suffix that means to fuse is Answer: -desis Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) A suffix that means slipping is Answer: -listhesis Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) A suffix that means porous is Answer: -porosis Page Ref: 90, 104 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) A prefix that means toward is Answer: adPage Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) A medical term that means study of movement is Answer: kinesiology Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

27) A medical term that means muscle weakness is Answer: myasthenia Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

28) A medical term that means record of muscle electricity is Answer: electromyogram Page Ref: 132 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

29) A medical term that means surgical repair of a tendon is Answer: tenoplasty; tendoplasty Page Ref: 133 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

30) A medical term that means slow movement is Answer: bradykinesia Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

31) A medical term that means abnormal muscle tone is Answer: dystonia Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 32) A medical term that means joint pain is Answer: arthralgia Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

33) A medical term that means lack of muscle tone is Answer: atonia Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

34) A medical term that means excessive movement is Answer: hyperkinesia Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

35) A medical term that means surgically break a joint is Answer: arthroclasia Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 36) A medical term that means fusion of a joint is Answer: arthrodesis Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

37) A medical term that means instrument to view inside a joint is Answer: arthroscope Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 6

38) A medical term that means cartilage softening is Answer: chondromalacia Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

39) A medical term that means pertaining to within the skull is Answer: intracranial Page Ref: 105 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

40) A medical term that means process of viewing inside a joint is Answer: arthroscopy Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 41) A medical term that means cutting into a bone is Answer: osteotomy Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

42) A medical term that means inflammation of bone and bone marrow is Answer: osteomyelitis Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

43) A medical term that means surgical removal of synovial membrane is Answer: synovectomy Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

44) A medical term that means pertaining to between vertebrae is Answer: intervertebral Page Ref: 105 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45) A medical term that means surgically break bone is Answer: osteoclasia Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

46) A medical term that means bone and cartilage tumor is Answer: osteochondroma Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

47) A medical term that means cutting into a joint is Answer: arthrotomy Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

48) A medical term that means puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint is Answer: arthrocentesis Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 49) A medical term that means suture a muscle is Answer: myorrhaphy Page Ref: 133 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

50) A medical term that means inflammation of many muscles is Answer: polymyositis Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8

4.2 True/False Questions 1) The point at which a motor neuron contacts a skeletal muscle is called the myoneural junction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Cardiac muscle is an example of a voluntary muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cardiac muscle is a type of involuntary muscle. Skeletal muscle is a type of voluntary muscle. Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The bone from which a skeletal muscle begins is called its origin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 124 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The opposite action from depression is eversion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The opposite action from depression is elevation. The opposite action from inversion is eversion. Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Bending a joint is flexion. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6) The femur is an example of a flat bone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The femur is an example of a long bone. The sternum is an example of a flat bone. Page Ref: 92, 93 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Another name for bone is osseous tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) The end of a long bone is called the diaphysis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The end of a long bone is called the epiphysis. The shaft of the long bone is called the diaphysis. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Yellow bone marrow manufactures most of the blood cells. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Yellow bone marrow is mainly fat cells. Red bone marrow manufactures most of the blood cells. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Cancellous bone is also called compact bone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cancellous bone is also called spongy bone. Cortical bone is also called compact bone. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) An exostosis is a bone spur. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10

12) Any artificial body part is called a prosthesis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 13) A Colles' fracture is a fracture of the ankle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A Colles' fracture is a common type of wrist fracture. Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) Stress fractures are caused by repetitive low-impact forces. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) Lordosis is commonly called humpback. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lordosis is commonly called swayback. Kyphosis is commonly called humpback. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) A callus is a sign of a bone healing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) Osteoarthritis is considered an autoimmune disease affecting the joints. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Osteoarthritis is an arthritis resulting in degeneration of the bones and joints, especially those bearing weight. Rheumatoid arthritis is considered an autoimmune disease affecting the joints. Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 11

18) Talipes is commonly called clubfoot. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 19) A sprain is a dislocation of a joint. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A sprain is damage to the ligaments surrounding a joint due to overstretching, but no dislocation of the joint or fracture of the bone. Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) Systemic lupus erythematosus causes joint pain and arthritis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) Lordosis is an excessive curvature of the thoracic spine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) A bunion is the inflammation of the bursa at the base of the big toe. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) Myelography is the process of recording the bone marrow. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting opaque contrast material. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 12

24) Spinal stenosis means the narrowing of the spinal canal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) The complete or partial removal of a limb is called amputation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 26) The abbreviation UE stands for the leg. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation UE stands for upper extremity, the arm. The abbreviation LE stands for lower extremity, the leg. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 15 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 27) NSAIDs are not steroid medications. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pharmacology 28) THA stands for knee replacement surgery. Answer: FALSE Explanation: THA stands for total hip arthroplasty, hip replacement surgery. TKA stands for total knee arthroplasty, knee replacement surgery. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 15 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 29) The abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, tendons, or fascia is called a contracture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

30) A sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction is called an adhesion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction is called a spasm. An adhesion is scar tissue forming in the fascia surrounding the muscle, making it difficult to stretch the muscle. Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 31) Torticollis is commonly called a crick in the neck. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of muscular dystrophy. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of a repetitive motion disorder. Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) Lateral epicondylitis is commonly referred to as tennis elbow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) There are 12 lumbar vertebrae. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are five lumbar vertebrae. There are 12 thoracic vertebrae. Page Ref: 98 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

36) The patella is the lower jaw. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The patella is the kneecap. The mandible is the lower jaw. Page Ref: 101 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) Plantar flexion is pointing the toes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 38) The upper jaw bone is the maxilla. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 97 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 39) The adjective form for the wrist is carpal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 104 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) The adjective form for the upper arm bone is humerus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The upper arm bone is the humerus. The adjective form is humeral. Page Ref: 105 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) Chiropractors diagnose and treat malalignment conditions, especially of the spine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

42) Podiatrists specialize in treating conditions of the hands. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Podiatrists specialize in treating conditions of the feet and lower legs. Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 43) A cast may be used to stabilize a dislocation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) In a compound fracture, the bone is shattered into fragments. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a compound fracture, the skin has been broken. In a comminuted fracture, the bone is shattered into fragments. Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) A simple fracture is the same thing as a closed fracture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) In chondromalacia, the bone has become softened. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In osteomalacia, the bone has become softened. Chondromalacia is the softening of cartilage. Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 47) Synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 102 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

48) Carpus means ankle bone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carpus means wrist bone. Tarsus means ankle bone. Page Ref: 100 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 49) The function of a bursa is to reduce friction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 102 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 50) The small bone at the end of the vertebral column is the os coxae. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pelvic girdle is called the os coxae. The coccyx is at the end of the vertebral column. Page Ref: 98 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of muscles found in the body? A) skeletal B) motor C) smooth D) cardiac Answer: B Explanation: Motor is not a type of muscle tissue; it is a type of neuron. Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac are types of muscle tissue. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

2) Which of the following is a voluntary muscle? A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) motor Answer: A Explanation: Skeletal muscle is a muscle. Cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary. Motor is not a type of muscle. Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The fibrous connective tissue that wraps muscle is called: A) ligaments. B) adipose. C) fascia. D) tendons. Answer: C Explanation: Fascia is the fibrous connective tissue that wraps muscle. Ligaments are connected to bones in the joint. Adipose is fat tissue. Tendons attach muscle to bone. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by: A) tendons. B) ligaments. C) bursa. D) synovial joints. Answer: A Explanation: Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by tendons. Ligaments attach bone to bone in the joints. Bursas are found in some synovial joints. Synovial joints are articulations of the bones, not attachment points for muscle. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

5) Which of the following types of muscle is also called visceral muscle? A) cardiac B) skeletal C) smooth D) voluntary Answer: C Explanation: Smooth muscle is sometimes called visceral muscle because it is found in the internal organs. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart. Skeletal muscle is attached to bone. Voluntary muscles are under conscious control, where visceral muscle is involuntary. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Where would you NOT find smooth muscle? A) respiratory airways B) blood vessels C) stomach D) heart Answer: D Explanation: Smooth muscle is found in the respiratory airways, blood vessels, and stomach. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Skeletal muscles may be named for all the following EXCEPT: A) location. B) size. C) depth. D) action. Answer: C Explanation: Skeletal muscles are named for their location, size, action, origin and insertion, fiber direction, or number of attachment points. They are not named for their depth. Page Ref: 124 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

8) The external oblique muscle is named due to its: A) number of attachment points. B) fiber direction. C) action. D) location. Answer: B Explanation: The external oblique is named due to its fiber direction, because its fibers run at an oblique angle. Page Ref: 124 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) When a skeletal muscle is attached to two bones, the more movable of the bones is located where the muscle ends and is called the: A) insertion. B) action. C) origin. D) tendon. Answer: A Explanation: The insertion is where the muscle ends. The origin is where the muscle begins. The action is the type of movement the muscle produces. The tendon attaches muscle to bone. Page Ref: 124, 125 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The type of movement that a skeletal muscle produces is called its: A) myoneural junction. B) tendon. C) origin. D) action. Answer: D Explanation: The type of movement the skeletal muscle produces is called its action. The myoneural junction is where the motor nerve contacts muscle fiber. The tendon attaches muscle to bone. The origin is at the starting point of the muscle and is the less movable of the two bones to which the muscle is attached. Page Ref: 124 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

11) Movement away from the midline of the body is called: A) adduction. B) flexion. C) abduction. D) circumduction. Answer: C Explanation: Movement away from the midline of the body is called abduction. Movement toward the midline of the body is called adduction. Flexion is the act of bending or being bent. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Page Ref: 125 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) The opposite action from flexion is: A) plantar flexion. B) extension. C) inversion. D) elevation. Answer: B Explanation: The opposite action from flexion is extension. The opposite action from plantar flexion is dorsiflexion. The opposite action from inversion is eversion. The opposite action from elevation is depression. Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) Pointing the toes downward is called: A) plantar flexion. B) extension. C) depression. D) dorsiflexion. Answer: A Explanation: Pointing toes downward is plantar flexion. Extension is movement that brings a limb into or toward a straight condition. Depression is a downward movement. Dorsiflexion is backward bending of the hand or foot. Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

14) Which of the following motions occurs at the thumb? A) opposition B) circumduction C) eversion D) rotation Answer: A Explanation: Opposition occurs at the thumb and is moving the thumb away from the palm. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Eversion is turning outward. Rotation is moving around a circular axis. Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Turning the palm upward is called: A) pronation. B) supination. C) rotation. D) circumduction. Answer: B Explanation: Turning the palm upward is called supination. Turning the palm downward is called pronation. Rotation is movement around a central axis. Circumduction is movement in a circular direction from a central point. Page Ref: 126 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Two bones are held together in a joint by: A) cartilage. B) tendons. C) ligaments. D) muscles. Answer: C Explanation: Ligaments hold two bones together in a joint. Tendons attach muscle to bone. Cartilage is a flexible tissue. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

17) Which type of bones are roughly as long as they are wide? A) long B) short C) irregular D) flat Answer: B Explanation: Short bones are roughly as long as they are wide. Long bones are longer than they are wide. Irregular bones are very irregularly shaped. Flat bones are usually plate-shaped bones. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Vertebrae are an example of what type of bone? A) long B) short C) irregular D) flat Answer: C Explanation: Vertebrae are an example of an irregular bone. The femur is an example of a long bone. An example of a short bone is a carpal. An example of a flat bone is the sternum. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) The shaft of a long bone is called the: A) periosteum. B) epiphysis. C) epiphyseal line. D) diaphysis. Answer: D Explanation: The shaft of the long bones is the diaphysis. The epiphysis is the end. The epiphyseal line is where growth in length occurs. The periosteum is the outer covering of the bone. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

20) The end of a long bone is covered by: A) articular cartilage. B) spongy bone. C) periosteum. D) red bone marrow. Answer: A Explanation: The ends of a long bone are covered by articular cartilage. The inside of the bone is spongy bone. The periosteum is the outer covering of the bone. Red bone marrow is found in spongy bone. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) The dense and hard exterior surface bone is called bone. A) compact B) articular C) cancellous D) spongy Answer: A Explanation: The exterior surface bone is compact bone. Articular describes the cartilage lining the end of the bone. Cancellous or spongy bone is found inside the bone. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Which of the following bony projections is smooth to articulate with another bone? A) tubercle B) tuberosity C) condyle D) trochanter Answer: C Explanation: A condyle is the smooth, rounded portion at the end of a bone. A tubercle is a small, rough process that provides the attachment point for tendons and muscles. A tuberosity is a large, rough process that provides the attachment point for tendons and muscles. A trochanter is the large rough process that provides for the attachment of a muscle. Page Ref: 94 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

23) A hollow cavity within a bone is called a: A) fissure. B) fossa. C) foramen. D) sinus. Answer: D Explanation: A sinus is a hollow cavity within a bone. A fissure is a slit-type opening. A fossa is a shallow cavity or depression on the surface of a bone. A foramen is a smooth, round opening for nerves and blood vessels. Page Ref: 94 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? A) ribs B) femur C) sternum D) skull Answer: B Explanation: The femur is part of the appendicular skeleton. The ribs, sternum, and skull are part of the axial skeleton. Page Ref: 95 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? A) patella B) ischium C) clavicle D) vertebrae Answer: D Explanation: The vertebrae are part of the axial skeleton. The patella, ischium, and clavicle are part of the appendicular skeleton. Page Ref: 96 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the skull? A) temporal B) sphenoid C) hyoid D) nasal Answer: C Explanation: The hyoid is suspended in the neck between the mandible and larynx. The temporal, sphenoid, and nasal bones are parts of the skull. Page Ref: 97 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) The tibia is commonly referred to as the: A) shin bone. B) ankle bone. C) hip bone. D) kneecap. Answer: A Explanation: The tibia is commonly called the shin bone. The tarsus is the ankle bone. The hip bones are the os coxae. The kneecap is known as the patella. Page Ref: 101 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) The ilium is part of the: A) pectoral girdle. B) lower extremity. C) upper extremity. D) pelvic girdle. Answer: D Explanation: The ilium is part of the pelvic girdle. The pectoral girdle contains the clavicles and scapulae. The lower extremity is the bones of the leg. The upper extremity is the bones of the arm. Page Ref: 101 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

29) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton? A) femur B) humerus C) clavicle D) sternum Answer: D Explanation: The sternum is part of the axial skeleton. The femur, humerus, and clavicle are part of the appendicular skeleton. Page Ref: 99 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) The clavicle is commonly referred to as the: A) shoulder blade. B) breast bone. C) collar bone. D) wrist. Answer: C Explanation: The shoulder blade is the scapula. The collar bone is the clavicle. The breast bone is the sternum. The bones of the wrist are the carpals. Page Ref: 100 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) The anatomical name of the kneecap is the: A) fibula. B) patella. C) phalanx. D) tarsus. Answer: B Explanation: The common name for the patella is the kneecap. A phalanx is a finger. The tarsus is the ankle bone. The fibula is the bone on the lateral side of the lower leg. Page Ref: 101 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

32) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the os coxae? A) coccyx B) ischium C) ilium D) pubis Answer: A Explanation: The coccyx is part of the vertebrae. The ischium, ilium, and pubis make up the os coxae or the innominate bone or hipbone. Page Ref: 100 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 33) Which of the following is the name for freely moving joints? A) osseous B) cartilaginous C) synovial D) fibrous Answer: C Explanation: Synovial joints are freely moving joints. Osseous describes bone. Cartilaginous joints allow for slight movement. Fibrous joints allow almost no movement. Page Ref: 102 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) An example of a fibrous joint is the: A) pubic symphysis. B) skull sutures. C) shoulder joint. D) jaw joint. Answer: B Explanation: Skull sutures are fibrous joints. The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. The shoulder joint and jaw joint are synovial joints. Page Ref: 102 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

35) Synovial joints are enclosed by an elastic: A) synovial membrane. B) ligament. C) cartilage. D) joint capsule. Answer: D Explanation: The synovial joints are enclosed in a joint capsule. The joint capsule is lined with a synovial membrane. Ligaments hold bones together in a joint. Cartilage is a flexible tissue. Page Ref: 102 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 36) The noise produced by bones or cartilage rubbing together is called: A) crepitation. B) callus. C) orthotic. D) fracture. Answer: A Explanation: Crepitation is the noise produced by bones or cartilage rubbing together. A callus is the mass of bone tissue that forms at a fracture site during its healing. An orthotic is a brace or splint used to prevent or correct deformities. A fracture is a broken bone. Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Braces or splints used to prevent or correct deformities are called: A) prosthetics. B) orthotics. C) orthopedics. D) podiatrics. Answer: B Explanation: Orthotics are braces or splints used to correct deformities. Prosthetics is the healthcare profession specializing in making artificial body parts. Orthopedics is a branch of medicine specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions of the musculoskeletal system. Podiatry, not podiatrics, is the healthcare profession specializing in diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the feet and lower legs. Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

38) The medical term for humpback is: A) exostosis. B) scoliosis. C) kyphosis. D) lordosis. Answer: C Explanation: Kyphosis is the medical term for humpback. Lordosis is the medical term for swayback. Exostosis is the medical term for a bone spur. Scoliosis is the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Which of the following terms means that the fracture is protruding through an open skin wound? A) simple fracture B) compression fracture C) pathologic fracture D) compound fracture Answer: D Explanation: A compound fracture means the skin is open. A simple fracture means the skin is closed. A compression fracture involves a loss of height of a vertebral body. A pathologic fracture is a fracture caused by diseased or weakened bone. Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following types of fracture is commonly seen in children? A) greenstick fracture B) comminuted fracture C) simple fracture D) stress fracture Answer: A Explanation: A greenstick fracture is commonly seen in children. This type of fracture is an incomplete break; one side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent. It is commonly found in children due to their softer and more pliable bone structure. Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

41) Which of the following types of fracture occurs because the bone is diseased or weakened? A) stress fracture B) pathologic fracture C) spiral fracture D) oblique fracture Answer: B Explanation: A pathologic fracture occurs when the bone is diseased or weakened. A stress fracture is caused by repetitive low-impact forces. A spiral fracture is caused by a twisting injury. An oblique fracture is at an angle. Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) In which of the following types of fracture is the bone shattered? A) greenstick fracture B) Colles' fracture C) comminuted fracture D) pathologic fracture Answer: C Explanation: A comminuted fracture is a fracture in which the bone is shattered, splintered, or crushed into many small pieces or fragments. A greenstick fracture is a fracture in which there is an incomplete break. A Colles' fracture is a common type of wrist fracture. A pathologic fracture occurs from diseased or weakened bone. Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which of the following diseases is caused by a calcium and vitamin D deficiency? A) osteoporosis B) greenstick fracture C) Paget's disease D) rickets Answer: D Explanation: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in calcium and vitamin D in early childhood that results in bone deformities. Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone, commonly seen as people age. A greenstick fracture is a broken bone commonly seen in children. Paget's disease is a metabolic disease. Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

44) is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone. A) Osteomalacia B) Exostosis C) Osteoporosis D) Paget's disease Answer: C Explanation: Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone. Osteomalacia is bone softening. Exostosis is a bone spur. Paget's disease is a metabolic disease. Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Which of the following conditions is commonly called a ruptured disk? A) herniated nucleus pulposus B) ankylosing spondylitis C) spina bifida D) spondylolisthesis Answer: A Explanation: The common name for a herniated nucleus pulposus is a ruptured disk. Ankylosing spondylitis is an inflammatory spinal condition. Spina bifida is a birth defect. Spondylolisthesis is the forward sliding of a lumbar vertebra over the vertebra below it. Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called: A) lordosis. B) exostosis. C) scoliosis. D) kyphosis. Answer: C Explanation: Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine. Exostosis is a bone spur. Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

47) Spina bifida is a congenital anomaly that affects which bone? A) femur B) hip C) skull D) vertebrae Answer: D Explanation: Spina bifida is a congenital anomaly that occurs when a vertebra fails to fully form around the spinal cord. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) is the forward sliding of a lumbar vertebra over the vertebra below it. A) Spina bifida B) Spondylolisthesis C) Spondylosis D) Talipes Answer: B Explanation: Spondylolisthesis is the forward sliding of a lumbar vertebra over the vertebra below it. Spina bifida is a congenital anomaly that occurs when a vertebra fails to fully form around the spinal cord. Spondylosis specifically refers to ankylosing of the spine. Talipes is clubfoot. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to detect osteoporosis? A) dual-energy absorptiometry B) myelography C) bone scan D) arthrography Answer: A Explanation: A dual-energy absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose x-ray for the purpose of detecting osteoporosis. Myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting opaque contrast material; it is particularly useful in identifying a ruptured disk pinching a spinal nerve. A bone scan is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying stress fractures, observing progress of treatment for osteomyelitis, and locating cancer metastases to the bone. An arthrography is a visualization of a joint by radiographic study after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

50) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus? A) dual-energy absorptiometry B) myelography C) bone scan D) arthrography Answer: B Explanation: Myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting opaque contrast material; it is particularly useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus disk pinching a spinal nerve. A dual-energy absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose X-ray for the purpose of detecting osteoporosis. A bone scan is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying stress fractures, observing progress of treatment for osteomyelitis, and locating cancer metastases to the bone. An arthrography is a visualization of a joint by radiographic study after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 51) Which of the following surgical procedures relieves pressure on a compressed spinal nerve? A) bunionectomy B) arthroplasty C) laminectomy D) osteotomy Answer: C Explanation: A laminectomy is the removal of the vertebral posterior arch to correct severe back problems and pain caused by compression of a spinal nerve. A bunionectomy is the removal of the bursa at the joint of the great toe. An arthroplasty is the surgical repair of a joint. An osteotomy is an incision into a bone. Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 52) Which of the following procedures examines the inside of a joint? A) arthroplasty B) arthrotomy C) arthrocentesis D) arthroscopy Answer: D Explanation: Arthroscopy examines the inside of a joint. Arthroplasty is the surgical repair of a joint. Arthrotomy is an incision into a joint. Arthrocentesis is a puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 34

53) Surgery performed to realign bone fragments is called a(n): A) open reduction. B) external fixation. C) traction. D) internal fixation. Answer: A Explanation: An open reduction is a surgery to realign bone fragments. External fixation includes casts, splints, and pins inserted through the skin. Traction is applying a pulling force on a fractured or dislocated limb or the vertebral column to restore normal alignment. Internal fixation includes pins, plates, rods, screws, and wires applied during an open reduction. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 54) Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform an amputation? A) uncontrollable infection B) crushing injury C) tumor D) adhesions Answer: D Explanation: Adhesions are treated using arthroclasia, not amputation. Uncontrollable infection, crushing injury, and tumor are all reasons for performing an amputation. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 55) Which of the following conditions is commonly treated by bone reabsorption inhibitors? A) Paget's disease B) rheumatoid arthritis C) osteoarthritis D) Colles' fracture Answer: A Explanation: Paget's disease is treated by bone reabsorption inhibitors. Rheumatoid arthritis is treated with corticosteroids. Osteoarthritis is treated with NSAIDs. Colles' fracture is treated with external fixation and analgesics. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

56) Strong anti-inflammatory drugs like corticosteroids are used to treat which condition? A) osteoarthritis B) fractures C) rheumatoid arthritis D) osteoporosis Answer: C Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is treated with corticosteroids. Osteoarthritis is treated with NSAIDs. Fractures are treated with analgesics. Osteoporosis is treated with bone reabsorption inhibitors. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 57) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? A) TKA B) LE C) RA D) FX Answer: A Explanation: TKA stands for total knee arthroplasty, which is a surgical procedure. LE stands for lower extremity, the leg. RA stands for rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease. FX stands for a fracture. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 15 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 58) Muscle wasting is the common term for: A) adhesion. B) atrophy. C) spasm. D) dystonia. Answer: B Explanation: Atrophy is commonly referred to as muscle wasting. Adhesion is scar tissue in the fascia. Spasm is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction. Dystonia is abnormal muscle tone. Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

59) Which of the following is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction? A) hyperkinesia B) myopathy C) dyskinesia D) spasm Answer: D Explanation: A spasm is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction. Hyperkinesia is excessive movement. Myopathy is muscle disease. Dyskinesia is difficult or abnormal movement. Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 60) Intermittent claudication is: A) severe neck spasms. B) wasting muscles. C) severe leg pain when walking very short distances. D) a type of muscular dystrophy. Answer: C Explanation: Intermittent claudication is severe leg pain when walking very short distances. Torticollis is severe neck spasms. Atrophy is wasting muscles. Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a type of muscular dystrophy. Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 61) Which of the following conditions is caused by overuse or overstretching? A) strain B) muscular dystrophy C) ganglion cyst D) fibromyalgia Answer: A Explanation: A strain is caused by overuse or overstretching. Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease. A ganglion cyst is a cyst that forms on a tendon sheath. Fibromyalgia is a condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue. Page Ref: 131 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

62) Which of the following abbreviations is a pathological condition? A) IM B) MD C) CPK D) LLE Answer: B Explanation: MD stands for muscular dystrophy, a pathological condition. IM stands for intramuscular. CPK stands for creatine phosphokinase, a lab test. LLE stands for left lower extremity, the left leg. Page Ref: 134 Learning Obj.: 15 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 63) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic test? A) IM B) MD C) DXA D) JRA Answer: C Explanation: DXA is dual-energy absorptiometry, a diagnostic test. IM stands for intramuscular. MD stands for muscular dystrophy, an inherited disease. JRA stands for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 15 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 64) Which of the following bones are the fingers? A) tarsus B) scapulae C) metacarpus D) phalanges Answer: D Explanation: The phalanges are the bones of the fingers. The tarsus is an ankle bone. The scapulae are the shoulder blades. Metacarpus refers to the hand bones. Page Ref: 100 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

65) Which of the following bones is the shoulder blade? A) scapula B) carpus C) clavicle D) fibula Answer: A Explanation: The scapula is the shoulder blade. A carpus is a wrist bone. The clavicle is the collar bone. The fibula is a leg bone. Page Ref: 100 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 66) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) mandibuler B) humeral C) femoral D) clavicular Answer: A Explanation: Mandibuler should be spelled mandibular. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 105 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 67) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) maxillary B) coccygeal C) metacarpel D) thoracic Answer: C Explanation: Metacarpel should be spelled metacarpal. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 105 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

68) Which of the following involves obtaining fluid from a joint in order to examine it to make a diagnosis? A) arthroscopy B) arthroclasia C) arthrotomy D) arthrocentesis Answer: D Explanation: An arthrocentesis is withdrawing fluid from a joint. An arthroscopy is visually examining the inside of a joint. Arthroclasia is surgically breaking a joint. An arthrotomy is an incision into a joint. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 69) Which of the following terms means abnormal muscle tone? A) atonia B) dystonia C) hypotonia D) myotonia Answer: B Explanation: Dys- means difficult or abnormal and -tonia means tone; therefore, dystonia means abnormal tone. A- means without; hence, atonia means lack of tone. Hypo- means insufficient; thus, hypotonia means insufficient tone. My/o means muscle; myotonia means muscle tone. Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 70) Which of the following terms means an increase in muscle bulk? A) hypertrophy B) atrophy C) hyperkinesia D) myopathy Answer: A Explanation: Hyper- means excessive and -trophy means development; therefore, hypertrophy means excessive development. It is understood that when referring to the musculoskeletal system this means an increase in muscle bulk. Atrophy means muscle wasting. Hyperkinesia means excessive movement. Myopathy is a general term for muscle disease. Page Ref: 129 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

71) Widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue is called: A) carpal tunnel syndrome. B) fibromyalgia. C) repetitive motion disorder. D) polymyositis. Answer: B Explanation: Fibromyalgia is widespread aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue. Carpal tunnel syndrome is pain in the wrist and hand. Repetitive motion disorder is a disorder of the tendon, muscle, and joint. Polymyositis is an inflammation of multiple muscles. Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 72) Which of the following abbreviations is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions? A) ORIF B) DTR C) EEG D) EMG Answer: D Explanation: EMG stands for electromyogram, which is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions. ORIF stands for open reduction and internal fixation, a surgical procedure to realign bone fragments. DTR stands for deep tendon reflexes. EEG stands for electroencephalography, recording electrical activity of the brain. Page Ref: 132 Learning Obj.: 15 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which of the following types of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs? A) skeletal B) voluntary C) visceral D) cardiac Answer: C Explanation: Visceral muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs. Skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle and is attached to bones. Cardiac muscle is found in the heart. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

74) Applying a pulling force on a fracture to restore normal alignment is called: A) traction. B) fixation. C) fusion. D) arthroplasty. Answer: A Explanation: Traction is applying a pulling force on a fracture. Fixation is a procedure to stabilize a fractured bone while it heals. A fusion is immobilizing adjacent bones. An arthroplasty is a surgical repair of a joint. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 75) Which of the following diagnostic imaging procedures uses a radioactive dye to produce an image? A) myelography B) bone scan C) arthroscopy D) absorptiometry Answer: B Explanation: A bone scan uses a radioactive dye to produce an image. A myelography is the study of the spinal column after injecting an opaque contrast material. An arthroscopy is the visualization of the inside of a joint. An (dual-energy) absorptiometry is a measurement of bone density using a low-dose X-ray. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

4.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) thigh bone B) clubfoot C) slit-like crack in a bone D) voluntary and striated tissue E) bone is shattered F) test of muscle response to a stretch G) muscle enzyme H) immature bone cells I) the movement a muscle produces J) membrane that covers bones K) fibrous connective tissue L) strong anti-inflammatory drugs M) a large process N) another name is spongy O) autoimmune disease attacking the joints P) a type of muscular dystrophy Q) bone transplanted to correct a defect R) lower jaw S) realigning of bone fragments T) damaged muscle, tendon, or ligament U) surgical procedure to stabilize a joint V) bone spur W) instrument to view inside a joint X) gradual fusion of the vertebrae Y) bone cancer 1) osteoblasts Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) cancellous bone Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) periosteum Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) trochanter Page Ref: 94 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) fissure Page Ref: 94 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) mandible Page Ref: 97 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) femur Page Ref: 101 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) arthroscope Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 9) exostosis Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) comminuted fracture Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) osteogenic sarcoma Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12) ankylosing spondylitis Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) talipes Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) rheumatoid arthritis Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) bone graft Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 16) reduction Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17) corticosteroids Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 18) skeletal muscle Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45

19) fascia Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) action Page Ref: 124 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Duchenne's Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) strain Page Ref: 131 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) deep tendon reflexes Page Ref: 132 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 24) creatine phosphokinase Page Ref: 130 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 25) tenodesis Page Ref: 133 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures Answers: 1) H 2) N 3) J 4) M 5) C 6) R 7) A 8) W 9) V 10) E 11) Y 12) X 13) B 14) O 15) Q 16) S 17) L 18) D 19) K 20) I 21) P 22) T 23) F 24) G 25) U

4.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the axial and appendicular skeletons. Answer: 1. Axial • forms the central axis for the whole body and protects many of the internal organs • skull, vertebrae, rib cage, sternum, sacrum, coccyx, hyoid bone 2. Appendicular • bones of the limbs and the girdle (bones that attach the limb to the axial skeleton) • pectoral girdle—clavicle, scapula • upper extremity—humerus, radius, ulna, carpus, metacarpus, phalanges • pelvic girdle—ischium, ilium, pubis • lower extremity—femur, tibia, fibula, tarsus, metatarsus, phalanges, patella Page Ref: 95—101 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Differentiate between the three types of muscles. Answer: 1. Skeletal • also called striated • attached directly or indirectly to the skeleton by tendons • voluntary 2. Smooth • also called visceral • not striated • involuntary • forms walls of hollow and tube-shaped organs 3. Cardiac • only in the heart • striated • involuntary Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 5 Cardiovascular System 5.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) A combining form that means vein is Answer: ven/o; phleb/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means ventricle is Answer: ventricul/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) A combining form that means vessel is Answer: angi/o; vas/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means aorta is Answer: aort/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means artery is Answer: arteri/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means fatty substance is Answer: ather/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means atrium is Answer: atri/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) A combining form that means heart is Answer: cardi/o; coron/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means blood vessel is Answer: vascul/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means pulse is Answer: sphygm/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) A combining form that means valve is Answer: valv/o; valvul/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means clot is Answer: thromb/o Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) A combining form that means chest is Answer: steth/o; pector/o Page Ref: 146, 160 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) A suffix that means instrument to measure pressure is Answer: -manometer Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) A suffix that means small is Answer: -ule; -ole Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A suffix that means pressure is Answer: -tension Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) A medical term that means record of a vessel is Answer: angiogram Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

18) A medical term that means inflammation of a vessel is Answer: angiitis Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

19) A medical term that means narrowing of a vessel is Answer: angiostenosis Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

20) A medical term that means involuntary muscle contraction of a vessel is Answer: angiospasm Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 21) A medical term that means pertaining to an artery is Answer: arterial Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

22) A medical term that refers to the smallest of the arteries is Answer: arteriole Page Ref: 156 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) A medical term that means ruptured artery is Answer: arteriorrhexis Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

24) A medical term that means surgical removal of fatty substance is Answer: atherectomy Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 4

25) A medical term that means pertaining to the atrium is Answer: atrial Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) A medical term that means pertaining to between the atria is Answer: interatrial Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

27) A medical term that means condition of slow heart is Answer: bradycardia Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 28) A medical term that means enlarged heart is Answer: cardiomegaly Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

29) A medical term that means decrease in blood pressure is Answer: hypotension Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 30) A medical term that means condition of fast heart is Answer: tachycardia Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

31) A medical term that means inflammation of a vein is Answer: phlebitis Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

32) A medical term that means pertaining to the heart is Answer: cardiac; coronary Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

33) A medical term that means surgical repair of a valve is Answer: valvoplasty Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 34) A medical term that means inflammation of a valve is Answer: valvulitis Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

35) A medical term that means pertaining to the atrium and ventricle is Answer: atrioventricular Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 36) A medical term that means fatty substance tumor/mass is Answer: atheroma Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 37) A medical term that means pertaining to heart muscle is Answer: myocardial Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6

38) A medical term that means record of heart electricity is Answer: electrocardiogram Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

39) A medical term that means pertaining to a valve is Answer: valvular Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) A medical term that means pertaining to a vein is Answer: venous Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

41) A medical term that means pertaining to a venule is Answer: venular Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the aorta is Answer: aortic Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

43) A medical term that means pertaining to a ventricle is Answer: ventricular Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

44) A medical term that means pertaining to between ventricles is Answer: interventricular Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45) A medical term that means study of the heart is Answer: cardiology Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

46) A medical term that means instrument to measure pressure of the pulse is Answer: sphygmomanometer Page Ref: 168 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) A medical term that means heart muscle disease is Answer: cardiomyopathy Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

48) A medical term that means inflammation of inner heart is Answer: endocarditis Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 49) A medical term that means hardening of an artery is Answer: arteriosclerosis Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 50) A medical term that means surgical repair of a vessel is Answer: angioplasty Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 8

5.2 True/False Questions 1) The tip of the heart at the lower edge is called the apex. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 149 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) The endocardium is the outer layer of the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The endocardium is the inner layer of the heart. The epicardium is the outer layer of the heart. Page Ref: 150 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Heart valves control the direction of blood flow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 151 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The ventricles are the upper, pumping chambers of the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The ventricles are the lower, pumping chambers of the heart. The atria are the upper, receiving chambers of the heart. Page Ref: 151 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) The leaflets that compose the flaps of valves are called cusps. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6) The pulmonary valve is an atrioventricular valve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pulmonary valve is a semilunar valve. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) The superior vena cava carries blood away from the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The vena cavae carry blood to the heart. The aorta carries blood away from the heart. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Diastole is the contraction phase of the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diastole is the resting phase of the heart. Systole is the contraction phase of the heart. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Blood flows through the lumen of a blood vessel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) An infarct is a fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An infarct is an area of tissue within an organ or body part that undergoes necrosis following the loss of its blood supply. Plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10

12) A sphygmomanometer is commonly called a blood pressure cuff. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 168 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 13) Orthostatic hypotension is the sudden rise in blood pressure when a person stands up. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Orthostatic hypotension is the sudden drop in blood pressure when a person stands up. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) A stethoscope is used for auscultation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 168 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 15) An infarct is an abnormal heart sound. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An infarct is an area of tissue within an organ or body part that undergoes necrosis following a loss of its blood supply. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) In an infarct, an area of tissue in an organ undergoes necrosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) A temporary deficiency of blood supply is called infarct. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A temporary deficiency of blood supply is called ischemia. Tissue death due to a loss of blood supply is an infarct. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 11

18) A murmur may or may not indicate a heart abnormality. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 19) A sphygmomanometer is used for auscultation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A stethoscope is used for auscultation. A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used for measuring blood pressure. Page Ref: 168 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 20) Regurgitation means to flow backward. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) Bradycardia means fast heartbeat. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bradycardia means slow heartbeat. Tachycardia means fast heartbeat. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 22) Ligation and stripping is a surgical treatment for varicose veins. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 23) An aneurysm is a ballooning (localized widening) of a vein. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An aneurysm is a ballooning or localized widening of an artery. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12

24) Antilipidemic medication lowers cholesterol levels in the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 173 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 25) An embolus is a stationary clot forming inside a blood vessel. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A thrombus is a stationary clot forming inside a blood vessel. An embolus is a blood clot that has broken off from a thrombus somewhere else in the body and traveled to the point of obstruction. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) A bundle branch block is a pathology occurring in the conduction system of the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) Intraventricular means between the ventricles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Intra- means within and -ventricular means pertaining to the ventricles; thus, intraventricular means pertaining to within the ventricles. Inter- means between; thus, interventricular means pertaining to between the ventricles. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) A catheter is a flexible tube inserted into the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

29) The highest blood pressure reading occurs during diastole. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The highest blood pressure reading occurs during systole. The lowest blood pressure reading occurs during diastole. Page Ref: 159 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) Angina pectoris may be a symptom of a heart attack. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 31) In congenital septal defect, the electrical impulse is blocked from traveling down the septum. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In congenital septal defect, there is a hole in the septum of the heart. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Cardiomyopathy may be caused by alcohol abuse, parasites, or viral infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) Congenital septal defects always affect the atria. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Congenital septal defects can affect the atria or the ventricles. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) Myocardial infarction is a heart attack. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

35) Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of three congenital anomalies. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four congenital anomalies: pulmonary stenosis, an interventricular septal defect, improper placement of the aorta, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) A thrombus is a blood clot forming within a blood vessel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Myocarditis is inflammation of the sac around the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Myocarditis is inflammation of the muscle layer of the heart wall. Pericarditis is inflammation of the sac around the heart. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Hemorrhoids occur in the anal veins. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Hypertension means low blood pressure. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hypertension means high blood pressure. Hypotension means low blood pressure. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) An increase in the blood levels of cardiac biomarkers may indicate damage to the heart muscle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 15

41) Cardiac catheterization is used to record the electrical activity of the heart muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cardiac catheterization is the passage of a thin-tube catheter through a blood vessel leading to the heart to detect abnormalities, to collect cardiac blood samples, and to determine the blood pressure within the heart. Electrocardiography is used to record the electrical activity of the heart muscle. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) Doppler ultrasonography is used to measure blood pressure. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Doppler ultrasonography is a measurement of the velocity of blood moving through blood vessels. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 43) CPR is a combination of chest compressions and artificial respiration. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 170 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty uses a balloon to enlarge the lumen of a blocked artery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 45) An embolectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove an aneurysm. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An aneurysmectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the sac of an aneurysm. An embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove an embolus. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

46) A pacemaker substitutes for the natural pacemaker of the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) An antilipidemic medication prevents cardiac arrhythmias. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An antilipidemic medication reduces the amount of cholesterol and lipids in the bloodstream. An antiarrhythmic reduces or prevents cardiac arrhythmias. Page Ref: 173 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 48) A thrombolytic medication dissolves clots. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 49) An EMG is a record of the electrical activity of the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: ECG is the abbreviation for electrocardiogram, a record of the electrical activity of the heart. EMG is the abbreviation for electromyogram, a record of the electrical activity of the muscles. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 50) The abbreviation PDA stands for a congenital heart anomaly in which the connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery fails to close at birth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

5.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following organs is NOT part of the cardiovascular system? A) artery B) spleen C) vein D) capillary Answer: B Explanation: The spleen is part of the lymphatic system. An artery, vein, and capillary are all part of the cardiovascular system. Page Ref: 148 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding pulmonary circulation? A) It carries oxygenated blood away from the heart. B) It carries deoxygenated blood to the body. C) It carries oxygenated blood away from the lungs. D) It carries deoxygenated blood toward the heart. Answer: C Explanation: Pulmonary circulation carries oxygenated blood away from the lungs and to the heart. Systemic circulation carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to the body. Deoxygenated blood comes back to the heart in systemic circulation. Page Ref: 148 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The aorta carries: A) oxygenated blood to the body. B) oxygenated blood to the lungs. C) deoxygenated blood to the heart. D) deoxygenated blood to the lungs. Answer: A Explanation: The aorta carries oxygenated blood to the body. The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The vena cavae carry deoxygenated blood to the heart. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

4) The circulatory system transports waste to all the following organs EXCEPT the: A) kidney. B) lung. C) liver. D) rectum. Answer: D Explanation: Waste is transported to the rectum by the colon. The circulatory system transports waste to the kidneys, lungs, and liver. Page Ref: 149 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Which of the following statements regarding the heart is FALSE? A) The heart has four chambers. B) The heart is located in the mediastinum of the chest. C) The heart is composed of smooth muscle fibers. D) The heart is a muscular pump. Answer: C Explanation: The heart is composed of cardiac muscle fibers, not smooth. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 149 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) The inner layer of the lining of the heart is called the: A) endocardium. B) epicardium. C) pericardium. D) myocardium. Answer: A Explanation: The inner layer of the lining of the heart is the endocardium. The epicardium is the outer layer of the heart. The pericardium is the sac in which the heart is enclosed. The myocardium is the muscle layer of the heart. Page Ref: 150 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

7) Which layer of the heart is responsible for contracting to pump blood? A) endocardium B) epicardium C) pericardium D) myocardium Answer: D Explanation: The myocardium is the muscle layer of the heart and is responsible for contracting to pump blood. The endocardium is the inner layer of the heart. The epicardium is the outer layer of the heart. The pericardium is the sac in which the heart is enclosed. Page Ref: 150 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Which of the following statements regarding the atria is FALSE? A) Atria are the upper chambers. B) The two atria are separated by a septum. C) Atria pump blood out of the heart. D) Atria receive blood into the heart. Answer: C Explanation: The ventricles, not the atria, pump blood out of the heart. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 151 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Which of the following statements regarding the ventricles is FALSE? A) Ventricles are the pumping chambers. B) Ventricles receive blood directly from the veins, returning blood to the heart. C) Ventricles have a thick muscular wall. D) Ventricles pump blood into the great arteries. Answer: B Explanation: The atria, not the ventricles, receive blood directly from the veins, returning blood to the heart. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 151 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

10) The mitral valve is also called the valve. A) bicuspid B) aortic C) pulmonary D) tricuspid Answer: A Explanation: The mitral valve is also called the bicuspid valve because it has two cusps. The aortic and pulmonary valves are semilunar valves. The tricuspid valve is an atrioventricular valve and has three cusps. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Which of the following statements regarding heart valves is FALSE? A) Atrioventricular valves are between an atrium and ventricle. B) The tricuspid valve is an atrioventricular valve. C) Semilunar valves are between a ventricle and an artery. D) The mitral valve is a semilunar valve. Answer: D Explanation: The mitral valve is an atrioventricular valve, not a semilunar valve. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which heart valve has two cusps? A) mitral B) aortic C) tricuspid D) pulmonary Answer: A Explanation: The mitral valve has two cusps. The tricuspid has three cusps. The aortic and pulmonary valves are semilunar valves. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) Blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the: A) aorta. B) vena cavae. C) pulmonary vein. D) pulmonary artery. Answer: B Explanation: Blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the vena cavae. The aorta carries blood away from the left side of the heart. Pulmonary arteries carry blood away from the right side of the heart. The pulmonary veins return blood to the left side of the heart. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Blood exits the left side of the heart into the: A) aorta. B) vena cavae. C) pulmonary vein. D) pulmonary artery. Answer: A Explanation: Blood exits the left side of the heart into the aorta. Blood enters the right side of the heart from the vena cavae. Blood is returned to the left side of the heart by the pulmonary veins. Blood exits the right side of the heart into the pulmonary arteries. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) The pulmonary artery: A) carries blood away from the heart. B) carries blood away from the lungs. C) carries blood to the body. D) carries blood to the ventricles. Answer: A Explanation: The pulmonary artery carries blood away from the heart. The pulmonary veins carry blood away from the lungs. The aorta carries blood to the body. The atria pump blood into the ventricles. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

16) The largest artery in the body is the: A) vena cava. B) pulmonary artery. C) aorta. D) carotid artery. Answer: C Explanation: The aorta is the largest artery in the body. The vena cava is the largest vein in the body. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) Which of the following statements regarding blood flow through the heart is FALSE? A) The relaxation phase is called diastole. B) The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C) The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium. D) The left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. Answer: D Explanation: The right ventricle, not the left, pumps blood to the lungs. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Which of the following is also known as the pacemaker of the heart? A) atrioventricular node B) Purkinje fibers C) atrioventricular bundle D) sinoatrial node Answer: D Explanation: The sinoatrial node is known as the pacemaker of the heart. It is the beginning of the heart's electrical conduction system. The impulse travels down the internodal pathway to the atrioventricular node, to the atrioventricular bundle, to the bundle branches, and into the Purkinje fibers. Page Ref: 153 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Which of the following statements regarding the conduction system of the heart is FALSE? A) The atrioventricular (AV) node stimulates the sinoatrial (SA) node. B) The conduction system stimulates the different chambers of the heart in the correct order. C) Purkinje fibers in the ventricular myocardium are stimulated. D) The heart rate is regulated by the autonomic nervous system. Answer: A Explanation: The SA node stimulates the AV node, not the other way around. All other choices are true. Page Ref: 153 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) Which structure of the conduction system was formerly called the bundle of His? A) bundle branches B) atrioventricular bundle C) atrioventricular node D) atrioventricular septum Answer: B Explanation: The atrioventricular bundle was once known as the bundle of His. Page Ref: 153 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) The narrowest blood vessels are called: A) arterioles. B) veins. C) capillaries. D) venules. Answer: C Explanation: The narrowest blood vessels are capillaries. Venules are the smallest veins. Arterioles are the smallest arteries. Neither veins nor arteries are as narrow as capillaries. Page Ref: 156 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

22) The smallest arteries are called: A) arteriules. B) capillaries. C) arteriums. D) arterioles. Answer: D Explanation: Arterioles are the smallest arteries. Arteriules is misspelled. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels. Arteriums are not arteries. Page Ref: 156 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) The heart receives its blood supply from the: A) coronary arteries. B) coronary sinus. C) aorta. D) ventricles. Answer: A Explanation: The heart receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries. The aorta carries blood from the heart to the body. The ventricles are the pumping chambers of the heart. Coronary sinus is incorrect. Page Ref: 156 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) Which blood vessels have the thickest smooth muscle wall? A) capillaries B) arteries C) veins D) venules Answer: B Explanation: Arteries have the thickest smooth muscle wall. Veins have the next, then venules. Capillaries do not have smooth muscle. Page Ref: 155, 156 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

25) Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs? A) systemic B) aortic C) pulmonary D) vena cavae Answer: C Explanation: The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The systemic arteries provide circulation to the body. The aortic valve is a heart valve. The vena cavae carry deoxygenated blood to the heart. Page Ref: 148, 155 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) The diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues occurs in the: A) heart. B) aorta. C) lungs. D) capillary beds. Answer: D Explanation: The diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues occurs in the capillary beds. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 156 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) Which of the following statements regarding blood pressure is FALSE? A) Blood pressure is highest when the heart is relaxed. B) Blood pressure is the measurement of the force exerted by blood against the wall of a blood vessel. C) The diastolic pressure is the lowest point. D) Blood pressure is affected by the diameter of the blood vessels. Answer: A Explanation: Blood pressure is lowest, not highest, when the heart is relaxed. The other choices are true. Page Ref: 159 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

28) Which of the following combining forms means chest? A) angi/o B) steth/o C) phleb/o D) sphygm/o Answer: B Explanation: Steth/o means chest. Angi/o means vessel. Phleb/o means vein. Sphygm/o means pulse. Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) Which of the following terms means pertaining to between the atria? A) intra-atrial B) interarterial C) interatrial D) transatrial Answer: C Explanation: Inter- means between, atri/o means atrium, and -al means pertaining to; thus, interatrial means pertaining to between the atria. Intra- means within; therefore, intra-atrial means pertaining to within the atria. Arteri/o means artery; hence, interarterial means pertaining to between the arteries. Trans- means across; therefore, transatrial means across the atria. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) Which of the following terms means hardening artery? A) arteriosclerosis B) arteriostenosis C) angiosclerosis D) atherosclerosis Answer: A Explanation: Arteri/o means artery and -sclerosis means hardening; thus, arteriosclerosis means hardening artery. -stenosis means narrowing; therefore, arteriostenosis means narrowing artery. Angi/o means vessel; hence, angiosclerosis means hardening vessel. Ather/o means fatty substance; thus, atherosclerosis means hardening fatty substance. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

31) Which of the following terms means enlarged heart? A) cardiorrhexis B) cardiostenosis C) cardiosclerosis D) cardiomegaly Answer: D Explanation: Cardi/o means heart and -megaly means enlarged; thus, cardiomegaly means enlarged heart. -stenosis means narrowing, so cardiostenosis means narrowing heart. -sclerosis means hardening; therefore, cardiosclerosis means hardening heart. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 32) Which of the following combining forms refers to a structure not found inside the heart? A) atri/o B) phleb/o C) valvul/o D) ventricul/o Answer: B Explanation: Phleb/o is for vein, which is not inside the heart. Atri/o is for atrium, valvul/o for valve, and ventricul/o for ventricle; all are found inside the heart. Page Ref: 146 Learning Obj.: 1, 4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A heart specialist is be called a: A) cardiologist. B) phlebotomist. C) coronologist. D) hemangiologist. Answer: A Explanation: A cardiologist is a heart specialist. A phlebotomist is someone who draws blood. Coronologist and hemangiologist are not specialists. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

34) Which of the following terms means high pressure? A) hypermanometer B) hypotension C) hypertension D) supratension Answer: C Explanation: Hyper- means excessive and -tension means pressure, so hypertension means high pressure. -manometer means instrument to measure pressure; hypermanometer is not a medical term. Hypo- means insufficient, so hypotension means low pressure. Supra- means above; supratension is not a medical term. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 35) Which of the following terms means process of recording a vessel? A) angiogram B) arteriography C) hemangiography D) angiography Answer: D Explanation: Angi/o means vessel and -graphy means process of recording; thus, angiography means process of recording a vessel. An angiogram is the result of this process. Arteri/o means artery, so arteriography would mean process of recording an artery. Hemangi/o means blood vessel; therefore, hemangiography would mean process of recording a blood vessel, but this is not a diagnostic term. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 36) Which of the following terms means listening to the sounds within the body? A) stethoscope B) auscultation C) palpitations D) murmur Answer: B Explanation: Auscultation means listening to the sounds within the body. You listen using a stethoscope. Palpitations are racing heartbeats. A murmur is a sound arising from blood flowing through the heart. Page Ref: 168 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

37) Which of the following terms means pounding, racing heartbeat? A) palpitation B) angiospasm C) murmur D) plaque Answer: A Explanation: Palpitations are pounding, racing heartbeats. An angiospasm is an involuntary muscle contraction of a vessel. A murmur is a heart sound. Plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Which of the following terms means a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery? A) arterioma B) ischemia C) plaque D) stent Answer: C Explanation: Plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. An arterioma is an artery growth. Ischemia is a temporary deficiency of blood supply. A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel or a duct to widen the lumen. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Which of the following terms means to flow backward? A) infarct B) regurgitation C) stent D) palpitation Answer: B Explanation: Regurgitation means to flow backward. An infarct is an area of tissue within an organ or part that undergoes necrosis following the loss of its blood supply. A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel or duct to widen the lumen. A palpitation is a pounding, racing heartbeat. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

40) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) angiplasty B) arteriorrhexis C) bradycardia D) valvulitis Answer: A Explanation: Angiplasty should be spelled angioplasty. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 41) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) atherosclerosis B) myocardial C) phleboitis D) interventricular Answer: C Explanation: Phleboitis should be spelled phlebitis. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 42) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) plaque B) palpitation C) stethoscope D) murmer Answer: D Explanation: Murmer should be spelled murmur. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 43) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) infarction B) fribillation C) coarctation D) hemorrhoid Answer: B Explanation: Fribillation should be spelled fibrillation. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 31

44) Which of the following abbreviations indicates an arrhythmia? A) MR B) ECC C) V fib D) MI Answer: C Explanation: V fib stands for ventricular fibrillation, an arrhythmia. MR stands for mitral regurgitation, a pathology. MI stands for myocardial infarction, a heart attack. ECC stands for extracorporeal circulation, a therapeutic procedure. Page Ref: 175 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 45) Which of the following abbreviations stands for high blood pressure? A) CSD B) bpm C) BP D) HTN Answer: D Explanation: HTN stands for hypertension, which is high blood pressure. CSD stands for congenital septal defect; bpm stands for beats per minute; BP stands for blood pressure. Page Ref: 174 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 46) Which of the following terms means fast heartbeat? A) fibrillation B) tachycardia C) hypercardia D) bradycardia Answer: B Explanation: Tachycardia is a fast heartbeat. Fibrillation is an extremely serious arrhythmia. Hypercardia is not a medical term. Bradycardia is a slow heartbeat. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

47) Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are used for: A) hypertension. B) defibrillation. C) open heart surgery. D) thrombolytic therapy. Answer: D Explanation: Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are used for thrombolytic therapy. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 48) What is the name of the steel tube placed within a blood vessel? A) Holter monitor B) stent C) plaque D) cardioverter Answer: B Explanation: A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel to widen the lumen. A Holter monitor is a portable device worn to assess the heart. Plaque is a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. A cardioverter is used to shock the heart into rhythm. Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 49) The complete stopping of heart activity is called: A) cardiac arrest. B) fibrillation. C) bundle branch block. D) angina pectoris. Answer: A Explanation: Cardiac arrest is the complete stopping of heart activity. Fibrillation is an extremely serious arrhythmia. A bundle branch block is where the electrical impulse is blocked from traveling down the atrioventricular bundle or bundle branches, causing the ventricles to beat at a different rate from the atria. Angina pectoris is chest pain. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

50) Which of the following conditions involves severe chest pain caused by a deficiency of oxygen to the heart muscle? A) congestive heart failure B) myocardial infarction C) angina pectoris D) coronary artery disease Answer: C Explanation: Angina pectoris is severe chest pain caused by a deficiency of oxygen to the heart muscle. Congestive heart failure is a pathological condition of the heart in which the heart is too weak to efficiently pump blood. Myocardial infarction is a heart attack. Coronary artery disease is insufficient blood supply to the heart muscle due to an obstruction of one or more coronary arteries. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 51) In which of the following conditions is the heart muscle too weak to pump efficiently? A) heart valve prolapse B) congestive heart failure C) myocarditis D) endocarditis Answer: B Explanation: Congestive heart failure is a condition in which the heart muscle is too weak to pump efficiently. Heart valve prolapse occurs when the cusps or flaps are too loose. Myocarditis is inflammation of the muscle layer of the heart wall. Endocarditis is inflammation of the inner layer of the heart. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) In bacterial endocarditis, the mass of bacteria that forms is referred to as: A) bacterioma. B) a thrombus. C) pyoma. D) vegetation. Answer: D Explanation: The mass of bacteria in bacterial endocarditis is referred to as vegetation. Bacterioma is not a correctly built medical term. A thrombus is a blood clot within a blood vessel. Pyoma would be a pus tumor. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

53) The term fibrillation means that: A) the heartbeat is dangerously irregular. B) the heart is beating too fast. C) the heart has stopped beating. D) the heart has suffered a heart attack. Answer: A Explanation: Fibrillation is a dangerously irregular heartbeat. Tachycardia is the heart beating too fast. Cardiac arrest means that the heart has stopped beating. If someone has had a myocardial infarction, they have suffered a heart attack. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 54) In which of the following conditions is a heart valve too loose? A) valvoplasty B) valve prolapse C) valvulitis D) valve stenosis Answer: B Explanation: Valve prolapse means a valve is too loose. Valvoplasty is a surgical procedure to repair a heart valve. Valvulitis means an inflamed valve. Valve stenosis means valve narrowing. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) The term heart valve stenosis refers to a valve that is: A) too large. B) too loose. C) too small. D) too stiff. Answer: D Explanation: In heart valve stenosis, the valve is too stiff. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

56) The most common form of arteriosclerosis is: A) polyarteritis. B) pericarditis. C) atherosclerosis. D) atheroma. Answer: C Explanation: The most common form of arteriosclerosis is atherosclerosis. Polyarteritis is an inflammation of multiple arteries. Pericarditis is inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart. Atheroma is a fatty substance growth. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 57) Which of the following is a floating clot that has broken off of a clot somewhere else in the body? A) embolus B) thrombophlebitis C) hemorrhoids D) thrombus Answer: A Explanation: An embolus is a floating clot that has broken off a clot somewhere else in the body. Thrombophlebitis is a clot in a superficial vein. Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the anal region. A thrombus is a clot. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 58) Which of the following conditions is NOT a congenital anomaly? A) coarctation of the aorta B) patent ductus arteriosus C) aneurysm D) tetralogy of Fallot Answer: C Explanation: An aneurysm is a ballooning of an artery and is not a congenital anomaly. The other choices are congenital anomalies. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

59) A weakened and ballooned artery is called a(n): A) arteriosclerosis. B) aneurysm. C) phlebitis. D) atherosclerosis. Answer: B Explanation: An aneurysm is a weakened and ballooned artery. Arteriosclerosis is a hardening artery. Phlebitis is an inflamed vein. Atherosclerosis is a deposit of fatty yellow lipids in an artery. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 60) Varicose veins in the anal region are called: A) hemorrhoids. B) phlebomegaly. C) phleboma. D) aneurysm. Answer: A Explanation: Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the anal region. Phlebomegaly and phleboma are not medical terms. Aneurysm is a weakened and ballooned artery. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 61) Which of the following conditions is caused by an inflamed vein causing the formation of blood clots within the vein? A) angioma B) varicose veins C) polyarteritis D) thrombophlebitis Answer: D Explanation: Thrombophlebitis is an inflamed vein with clot formation. An angioma is a vessel growth. Varicose veins are enlarged veins. Polyarteritis is inflammation of many arteries. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

62) Which of the following conditions involves periodic ischemic attacks affecting the extremities of the body? A) Raynaud's phenomenon B) patent ductus arteriosus C) thromboses D) varicose veins Answer: A Explanation: Raynaud's phenomenon is a condition in which periodic ischemic attacks affect the body's extremities. A patent ductus arteriosus is when the ductus arteriosus fails to close at birth. Thromboses refer to more than one thrombosis. Varicose veins are enlarged veins. Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 63) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a blood test? A) Holter monitor B) cardiac biomarkers C) cardiac scan D) Doppler ultrasound Answer: B Explanation: Cardiac biomarkers are part of a blood test. A Holter monitor, cardiac scan, and Doppler ultrasound all use electronic equipment. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures cardiac fitness? A) cardiac biomarkers B) serum lipoprotein test C) stress test D) angiography Answer: C Explanation: A stress test measures cardiac fitness. Cardiac biomarkers are a blood test to check for a heart attack. A serum lipoprotein test is a blood test for lipids. Angiography is an X-ray of blood vessels after injecting dye. Page Ref: 170 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

65) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is able to visualize internal cardiac structures? A) cardiac scan B) angiography C) electrocardiography D) echocardiography Answer: D Explanation: Echocardiography uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures. Cardiac scan uses nuclear medicine to scan the heart. Angiography is visualization of the vessels after injection of an opaque dye. Electrocardiography is the process of recording the heart's electrical activity. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 66) Which of the following surgical procedures uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body? A) coronary artery bypass graft B) arterial anastomosis C) aneurysmectomy D) intracoronary artery stent Answer: A Explanation: A coronary artery bypass graft uses a blood vessel from another part of the body to bypass a blocked coronary artery. Arterial anastomosis is reconnecting two ends of an artery. Aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm. An intracoronary artery stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a coronary artery. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which of the following procedures uses a heart-lung machine? A) cardiopulmonary resuscitation B) Holter monitor C) extracorporeal circulation D) stress testing Answer: C Explanation: Extracorporeal circulation is the use of a heart-lung machine. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation involves chest compressions and artificial breathing. A Holter monitor is a mobile telemetry monitor. Stress testing tests cardiac fitness. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

68) Which of the following therapeutic devices is used to treat ventricular fibrillation? A) endarterectomy B) implantable cardioverter-defibrillator C) extracorporeal circulation D) pacemaker Answer: B Explanation: An implantable cardioverter-defibrillator is used to treat ventricular fibrillation. Endarterectomy is the removal of the diseased or damaged inner lining of an artery. Extracorporeal circulation involves a heart-lung machine. A pacemaker is used to set the heart rate when the sinoatrial node is not functioning properly. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 69) Which of the following surgical procedures removes the damaged inner lining of an artery? A) endarterectomy B) arterial anastomosis C) ligation and stripping D) embolectomy Answer: A Explanation: An endarterectomy removes the damaged inner lining of an artery. Arterial anastomosis is the surgical joining of two arteries. Ligation and stripping is a surgical treatment for varicose veins. Embolectomy is the surgical removal of an embolus. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 70) Which of the following surgical procedures is used to treat varicose veins? A) stent placement B) embolectomy C) ligation and stripping D) aneurysmectomy Answer: C Explanation: Ligation and stripping is used to treat varicose veins. A stent placement is used to treat coronary artery disease. Embolectomy is the surgical removal of an embolus. An aneurysmectomy is the surgical removal of an aneurysm. Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

71) Which of the following surgical procedures would be used to join together two arteries? A) bypass graft B) arterial anastomosis C) endarterectomy D) arterial stent Answer: B Explanation: An arterial anastomosis is used to join together two arteries. A bypass graft is used to bypass a blocked artery. An endarterectomy is used to remove the damaged inner lining of an artery. An arterial stent is a stent placed in an artery. Page Ref: 171 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 72) Which of the following medications increases the force of cardiac muscle contractions? A) diuretics B) antiarrhythmics C) beta-blocker drugs D) cardiotonic Answer: D Explanation: A cardiotonic is used to increase the force of cardiac muscle contractions. Diuretics are used to increase urine production. Antiarrhythmics reduce or prevent cardiac arrhythmias. Beta-blocker drugs treat hypertension and angina pectoris by lowering the heart rate. Page Ref: 173 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 73) Which of the following medications does NOT treat hypertension? A) ACE inhibitors B) calcium channel blockers C) vasopressors D) beta-blockers Answer: C Explanation: Vasopressors raise blood pressure, not lower it. ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, and beta-blockers all treat hypertension. Page Ref: 173 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

74) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack? A) HTN B) MI C) CAD D) MR Answer: B Explanation: MI stands for myocardial infarction, a heart attack. HTN stands for hypertension, high blood pressure. CAD stands for coronary artery disease. MR stands for mitral regurgitation, a mitral valve problem. Page Ref: 174 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? A) CABG B) MI C) CHF D) HTN Answer: A Explanation: CABG stands for coronary artery bypass graft, a surgical procedure. MI stands for myocardial infarction, a pathological condition. CHF stands for congestive heart failure, a pathological condition. HTN stands for hypertension, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 174 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

5.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) a stationary blood clot B) uses radioactive thallium C) stopping of heart activity D) heart muscle E) uses ultrasound F) receiving heart chamber G) prevents blood clot formation H) a type of varicose vein I) chest pain J) pacemaker of the heart K) thin, flexible tube placed in the body L) heart attack M) pumping heart chamber N) loss of blood supply O) carry blood toward the left atrium P) a floating blood clot Q) area of dead tissue R) carries blood away from the right ventricle S) assesses cardiac fitness T) increases force of heart contraction U) high blood pressure V) inflammation of several arteries W) carries blood away from the left ventricle X) also called mitral Y) restores normal heartbeat 1) atrium Page Ref: 151 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) ventricle Page Ref: 151 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) myocardium Page Ref: 150 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) SA node Page Ref: 153 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) bicuspid valve Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) pulmonary veins Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) aorta Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) pulmonary artery Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) infarct Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) ischemia Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) catheter Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 12) angina pectoris Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) cardiac arrest Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) myocardial infarction Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) hypertension Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) hemorrhoid Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) polyarteritis Page Ref: 167 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) thrombus Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45

19) embolus Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) cardiac scan Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 21) echocardiography Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) stress testing Page Ref: 170 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 23) defibrillation Page Ref: 170 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 24) anticoagulant Page Ref: 173 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 25) cardiotonic Page Ref: 173 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology Answers: 1) F 2) M 3) D 4) J 5) X 6) O 7) W 8) R 9) Q 10) N 11) K 12) I 13) C 14) L 15) U 16) H 17) V 18) A 19) P 20) B 21) E 22) S 23) Y 24) G 25) T

5.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the path of blood flow through the heart. Answer: Vena cavae → right atrium → through tricuspid valve → right ventricle → through pulmonary valve → pulmonary artery → to lungs → from lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium → through mitral valve → left ventricle → aorta → to body → from body → vena cavae Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe the three layers of the heart wall. Answer: 1. Endocardium—inner layer; smooth to reduce friction 2. Myocardium—middle layer; cardiac muscle; contracts to pump blood 3. Epicardium—outer layer; part of pericardial sac around the heart Page Ref: 150 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 6 Blood and the Lymphatic and Immune Systems 6.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means clumping is Answer: agglutin/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means base is Answer: bas/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means color is Answer: chrom/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means clotting is Answer: coagul/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means rosy red is Answer: eosin/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means red is Answer: erythr/o Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means fibers is Answer: fibrin/o Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means granules is Answer: granul/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) A combining form that means blood is Answer: hem/o; hemat/o; sanguin/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means white is Answer: leuk/o Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means shape is Answer: morph/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means neutral is Answer: neutr/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means eat or swallow is Answer: phag/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means clot is Answer: thromb/o Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means adenoids is Answer: adenoid/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) The combining form that means protection is Answer: immun/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means lymph is Answer: lymph/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means lymph node is Answer: lymphaden/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means lymph vessel is Answer: lymphangi/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The combining form that means spleen is Answer: splen/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) The combining form that means thymus is Answer: thym/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) The combining form that means tonsils is Answer: tonsill/o Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) The suffix that means pertaining to poison is Answer: -toxic Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) A suffix that means protein is Answer: -globulin; -globin Page Ref: 186, 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) A suffix that means removal or carry away is Answer: -apheresis Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) A suffix that means more than the normal number of cells is Answer: -cytosis Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A suffix that means blood condition is Answer: -emia Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

28) A suffix that means abnormal decrease or too few is Answer: -penia Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) A suffix that means attracted to is Answer: -phil Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 30) A suffix that means formation is Answer: -poiesis; -plastin Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) A suffix that means standing still is Answer: -stasis Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

32) A medical term that means pertaining to fibers is Answer: fibrinous Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

33) A medical term that means blood flowing out of a blood vessel is Answer: hemorrhage Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 34) The combining form that means infection is Answer: septic/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

35) The combining form that means pouring is Answer: fus/o Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means white blood cell is Answer: leukocyte Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) A medical term that means red blood cell is Answer: erythrocyte Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

38) A medical term that means condition of having too many platelets is Answer: thrombocytosis Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 39) A medical term that means having too few of all cells is Answer: pancytopenia Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 40) The suffix that means swelling is Answer: -edema Page Ref: 200 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

41) A medical term that means pertaining to tonsils is Answer: tonsillar Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

42) A medical term that means surgical removal of thymus is Answer: thymectomy Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 43) A medical term that means study of protection is Answer: immunology Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

44) A medical term that means lymph gland disease is Answer: lymphadenopathy Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

45) A medical term that means lymph vessel tumor is Answer: lymphangioma Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

46) A medical term that means enlarged spleen is Answer: splenomegaly Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

47) A medical term that means pertaining to the spleen is Answer: splenic Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 48) A medical term that means nongranular cell is Answer: agranulocyte Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

49) A medical term that means pertaining to lymph is Answer: lymphatic Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 50) A medical term that means clotting cell is Answer: thrombocyte Page Ref: 189, 191 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6.2 True/False Questions 1) Enucleated means having no nucleus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Platelets are the watery part of blood. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Plasma is the watery part of blood. Platelets are the clotting cells. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Hemoglobin is the protein inside erythrocytes that picks up and transports oxygen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Leukocytes are also called platelets. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Leukocytes are also called white blood cells. Platelets are also known as thrombocytes. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Platelets are actually fragments broken off from a larger cell. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 189, 190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Platelets agglutinate or clump together whenever blood is damaged. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Platelets agglutinate or clump together whenever a blood vessel is damaged. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) The blood clotting process is called hemostasis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Blood typing is a test to determine how many of each type of leukocyte a person has. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Blood typing is a test to determine the antigens or markers on the surface of erythrocytes. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 9) A person with Rh+ blood has the Rh factor on his or her red blood cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Lymph is pinkish in color. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lymph has a very pale, clear yellow color. Page Ref: 202 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) The fluid inside a lymphatic vessel is called lymph. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 202 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Lymph nodes and lymph glands are not the same thing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The terms lymph node and lymph gland are interchangeable. Page Ref: 203 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) The immune system will destroy the body's own cells if they have become diseased. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 202 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) The lingual tonsils are also called the adenoids. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pharyngeal tonsils are also called the adenoids. Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) The macrophages in the spleen are phagocytic. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Immunizations cause the person to have a mild case of the disease so that they won't have a severe case later in life. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Immunizations expose the person to a weakened pathogen that is still capable of stimulating the immune response but not actually causing the disease. Page Ref: 206 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17) Natural immunity is also called innate immunity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Cytotoxic cells produce antibodies. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cytotoxic cells physically attack and destroy pathogenic cells. B lymphocytes produce antibodies. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 11

19) A hematoma is commonly called a bruise. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) Plasma and serum are interchangeable words. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Plasma is sometimes called serum, but these terms are not interchangeable. Serum is plasma, but with the fibrinogen removed or inactivated. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Hemostasis means the process of blood clotting. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Leukemia is an inherited condition in which blood fails to clot. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemophilia is an inherited condition in which blood fails to clot. Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cell-forming red bone marrow that results in a large number of abnormal and immature white blood cells circulating in the blood. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) Excessive cholesterol in the bloodstream is called hyperlipidemia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 24) Hemolytic anemia occurs when there is insufficient hemoglobin in the erythrocytes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemolytic anemia is an anemia that develops as the result of the destruction of erythrocytes. Hypochromic anemia results from insufficient hemoglobin in the erythrocytes. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12

25) Hemolytic reaction occurs when a blood transfusion reacts with the patient's own blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) Iron-deficiency anemia occurs when there is a loss of functioning red bone marrow. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Iron-deficiency anemia occurs when there is insufficient iron to manufacture hemoglobin. Aplastic anemia occurs when there is a loss of functioning red bone marrow. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) Sickle cell anemia is named for the abnormal shape of the red blood cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) Leukemia causes an excessive number of immature red blood cells circulating in the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Leukemia causes an excessive number of abnormal and immature white blood cells, not red blood cells, circulating in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) An erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a blood test that determines whether there is an inflammatory process occurring in the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

30) A pro-time indicates how many days circulating red blood cells survive before they are removed by the spleen. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A pro-time is a measure of the blood's coagulation abilities; "pro-time" is an abbreviation of the test name prothrombin time. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 31) A type and cross-match double-checks the blood type of both the donor's and recipient's blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 32) A decrease in red blood cells may indicate anemia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 33) A culture and sensitivity will determine the best antibiotic to use for an infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 34) Antiplatelet medications are commonly called blood thinners. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Anticoagulant medications, not antiplatelet medications, are commonly called blood thinners. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 35) Bone marrow aspiration can be used to look for leukemia or aplastic anemia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 14

36) Hives have the appearance of skin ulcers as part of an allergic reaction. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hives have the appearance of wheals, not skin ulcers, as part of an allergic reaction. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Prior to a bone marrow transplant, the patient's own bone marrow is destroyed using radiation or chemicals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 38) Immunoglobulins are antibodies secreted by platelets. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Immunoglobulins are antibodies secreted by the B lymphocytes, not the platelets. Page Ref: 206 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 39) An allergy is a hypersensitivity to a common substance in the environment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Opportunistic infections affect patients with anemia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Opportunistic infections affect patients who are immunocompromised. Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Inflammation is characterized by redness, pain, swelling, and feeling hot to the touch. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15

42) Mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Hodgkin's disease is a type of lymphoma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) Host versus graft disease is a complication of a bone marrow transplant. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Graft versus host, not host versus graft, disease is a complication of a bone marrow transplant. Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Pneumocystis pneumonia is commonly seen in patients with AIDS. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) A phlebotomy removes blood from an artery and is also called venipuncture. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A phlebotomy removes blood from a vein, not an artery, and is also called venipuncture. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) Sarcoidosis is a disease of unknown cause that forms fibrous lesions in lymph nodes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

48) A white blood cell differential measures the difference between the number of red blood cells and white blood cells. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A white blood cell differential determines the number of each variety of leukocytes in a volume of blood. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 49) A hematinic medication increases the number of erythrocytes in the blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 198 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 50) Reverse transcriptase drugs inhibit bacteria from successfully reproducing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Reverse transcriptase drugs inhibit viruses, not bacteria, from successfully reproducing. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 6.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following terms means disease producing? A) pathological B) diseasopathy C) pathogenic D) pathology Answer: C Explanation: Path/o means disease and -genic means producing; thus, pathogenic means disease producing. Pathological means pertaining to the study of disease. Diseasopathy is not a medical term. -logy means study of, so pathology means study of disease. Page Ref: 206 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

2) Which of the following terms means too few white blood cells? A) leukopenia B) hematopoiesis C) erythropenia D) thrombopoiesis Answer: A Explanation: Leuk/o means white and -penia means too few, so leukopenia means too few white blood cells. Hemat/o means blood, -poiesis means formation; thus hematopoiesis means blood formation. Erythr/o means red, so erythropenia means too few red blood cells. Thromb/o means clotting; therefore, thrombopoiesis means clotting cell formation. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 3) Which of the following terms means blood destruction? A) hemolytic B) erythrocytosis C) homolytic D) hematology Answer: A Explanation: Hemolytic means blood destruction. Erythrocytosis means too many red blood cells. Homolytic is not the correct term. Hemat/o means blood and -logy means study of, so hematology means study of blood. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 4) Which of the following terms means pertaining to a clot? A) sanguineous B) basophilic C) hematologic D) thrombotic Answer: D Explanation: Thrombotic means pertaining to a clot. Sanguineous means pertaining to blood. Basophilic means pertaining to a leukocyte that attracts a basic pH stain. Hematologic means pertaining to the study of blood. Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

5) Which of the following terms means pertaining to fibers? A) erythrocytic B) fibrinogen C) fibrinous D) hematic Answer: C Explanation: Fibrin/o means fibers and -ous means pertaining to, so fibrinous means pertaining to fibers. -gen means that which produces; therefore, fibrinogen means that which produces fibers. Erythr/o means red and -cytic means pertaining to cells; thus, erythrocytic means pertaining to red cells. Hemat/o means blood and -tic means pertaining to; thus, hematic means pertaining to blood. Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Which of the following terms means clotting cell? A) erythrocyte B) leukocyte C) granulocyte D) thrombocyte Answer: D Explanation: Thromb/o means clot and -cyte means cell, so thrombocyte means clotting cell. Erythr/o means red; therefore, erythrocyte means red cell. Leuk/o means white; hence, leukocyte means white cell. Granul/o means granules; thus, granulocyte means granular cell. Page Ref: 189, 191 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Which of the following terms means too many white cells? A) pancytopenia B) leukocytosis C) hematocytosis D) leukocytopenia Answer: B Explanation: Leuk/o means white and -cytosis means more than the normal number of cells; therefore, leukocytosis means too many white cells. Pan- means all, cyt/o means cell, and -penia means too few; thus, pancytopenia means too few of all cells. Hematocytosis is not a medical term, but would mean too many blood cells. Leukocytopenia means too few white cells. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

8) Which of the following terms means too few red (cells)? A) leukocytosis B) erythrocytosis C) hematocytosis D) erythropenia Answer: D Explanation: Erythr/o means red and -penia means too few; therefore, erythropenia means too few red (cells). Leuk/o means white and -cytosis means more than the normal number of cells; thus, leukocytosis means too many white cells. Erythrocytosis means too many red cells. Hematocytosis is not a medical term; if it were, it would mean too many blood cells. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 9) Which of the following terms means lymph gland inflammation? A) lymphangiitis B) lymphadenopathy C) lymphadenitis D) lympangiogram Answer: C Explanation: Lymphaden/o means lymph gland and -itis means inflammation; therefore, lymphadenitis means lymph gland inflammation. Lymphangi/o means lymph vessel, so lymphangiitis means lymph vessel inflammation. -pathy means disease; thus, lymphadenopathy means lymph gland disease. Lympangiogram is misspelled; a lymphangiogram when spelled correctly refers to an X-ray record of lymphatic vessels. Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 10) Which of the following terms means to cut into the spleen? A) splenotomy B) splenectomy C) splenomegaly D) splenic Answer: A Explanation: Splen/o means spleen and -otomy means to cut into, so splenotomy means to cut into the spleen. -ectomy means surgical removal, so splenectomy means surgical removal of the spleen. -megaly means enlarged, so splenomegaly means an enlarged spleen. -ic means pertaining to, so splenic means pertaining the spleen. Page Ref: 191, 200 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

11) Which of the following is NOT one of the formed elements of the blood? A) red cells B) platelets C) white cells D) plasma Answer: D Explanation: Plasma is the watery part of the blood. Red cells, platelets, and white cells are the formed elements of the blood. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) The watery part of blood is called: A) red cells. B) plasma. C) white cells. D) platelets. Answer: B Explanation: Plasma is the watery part of the blood. Red cells, white cells, and platelets are the formed elements of the blood. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) Blood cells are produced in the: A) spleen. B) thymus gland. C) red bone marrow. D) liver. Answer: C Explanation: Blood cells are produced in the red bone marrow. They are broken down in the spleen, and iron is stored in the liver. The thymus gland is part of the immune system. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

14) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) red cells—transport substances B) leukocytes—protect the body from invasion C) plasma—repairs tissue D) platelets—control bleeding Answer: C Explanation: Plasma contains plasma proteins that carry fatty substances, act as antibodies, and clot blood. The other choices are correctly matched. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Which of the following substances is NOT transported by plasma? A) oxygen B) glucose C) calcium D) amino acids Answer: A Explanation: Oxygen is transported by red blood cells. Glucose, calcium, and amino acids are transported by plasma. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein? A) albumin B) sodium C) globulins D) fibrinogen Answer: B Explanation: Sodium is a substance dissolved in the plasma for transport. Albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen are all plasma proteins. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

17) Red blood cells appear red because: A) of the size of their nucleus. B) they contain hemoglobin. C) they contain bilirubin. D) they transport oxygen. Answer: B Explanation: Hemoglobin gives red blood cells their color. The other choices are not correct. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Which of the following statements regarding erythrocytes is FALSE? A) Hemoglobin is an iron-containing molecule inside erythrocytes. B) Erythrocytes live an average of 120 days. C) Bilirubin from worn out erythrocytes is recycled by the liver. D) Worn out erythrocytes are removed by the spleen. Answer: C Explanation: Bilirubin from worn out red blood cells is broken down by the liver, not recycled. All the other statements are true. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which of the following is NOT a pathogen? A) foreign material B) bacteria C) viruses D) leukocytes Answer: D Explanation: Leukocytes protect the body against pathogens. Foreign material, bacteria, and viruses are all pathogens. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

20) Which of the following statements regarding the different types of leukocytes is FALSE? A) Monocytes release histamine. B) Eosinophils destroy parasites. C) Neutrophils are phagocytic. D) Lymphocytes play several roles in the immune response. Answer: A Explanation: Monocytes are important for phagocytosis; basophils release histamine. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Which of the following statements regarding leukocytes is FALSE? A) A leukocyte has a large nucleus. B) Agranulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm. C) Leukocytes protect the body against pathogens. D) There are five different types of leukocytes. Answer: B Explanation: Agranulocytes do not have granules in their cytoplasm; granulocytes do. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Which of the following statements regarding hemostasis is FALSE? A) Platelets release thromboplastin. B) Thromboplastin reacts with prothrombin to form thrombin. C) Thrombin works to convert fibrinogen to fibrin. D) Fibrin converts platelets into a clot. Answer: D Explanation: Fibrin eventually becomes the mesh-like blood clot; it does not convert platelets. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

23) Which of the following statements regarding blood types is FALSE? A) Type A blood makes antibodies against Type B blood. B) Type O blood does not make antibodies. C) Type B blood makes antibodies against Type A blood. D) Type AB blood does not make antibodies. Answer: B Explanation: Type O blood makes antibodies against all other blood types. All other statements are true. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) Which blood type is called the universal donor? A) type A B) type B C) type O D) type AB Answer: C Explanation: Type O blood does not have any markers, so it will not react with anti-A or anti-B antibodies, which makes persons with type O blood universal donors. Persons with type A or type B blood types are not universal donors. Persons with type AB blood are known as universal recipients because AB blood does not have antibodies against the other types. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) Which blood type is called the universal recipient? A) type A B) type B C) type O D) type AB Answer: D Explanation: Type AB is the universal recipient because it has no antibodies against other blood types. Persons with type A or type B blood types are not universal recipients. Type O blood does not have any markers, so it will not react with anti-A or anti-B antibodies, which makes persons with type O blood universal donors. Persons with type A or type B blood types are not universal donors. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system? A) liver B) spleen C) lymph nodes D) lymphatic vessels Answer: A Explanation: The liver is part of the digestive system. The spleen, lymph nodes, and lymphatic vessels are part of the lymphatic system. Page Ref: 202 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune systems? A) Transport fats absorbed by the digestive system. B) Form the primary defense against the invasion of pathogens. C) Assist in the blood-clotting process. D) Collect excess tissue fluid and return it to the circulatory system. Answer: C Explanation: The hematic system is responsible for the clotting process. All other choices are functions of the lymphatic and immune systems. Page Ref: 202 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) Which of the following statements regarding lymphatic vessels is FALSE? A) The smallest lymphatic vessels are called lymphatic capillaries. B) The thoracic duct drains the right arm and right side of the neck and chest. C) Lymphatic vessels have valves to ensure forward movement of lymph. D) There are only two large lymphatic ducts, the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. Answer: B Explanation: The thoracic duct drains lymph from everywhere except the right arm and the right side of the neck and chest. The other statements regarding lymphatic vessels are true. Page Ref: 202, 203 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

29) Which lymph glands are found in the groin region? A) axillary B) mediastinal C) cervical D) inguinal Answer: D Explanation: The inguinal lymph glands are found in the groin. The axillary lymph glands are found in the armpits. The mediastinal lymph glands are found in the mediastinum. The cervical lymph nodes are found in the neck. Page Ref: 203 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) Which of the following statements regarding lymph nodes is FALSE? A) They house lymphocytes and antibodies. B) They remove pathogens and cell debris from lymph. C) Lymph nodes are found only in a certain few areas of the body, like the neck. D) They trap and destroy cancerous cells. Answer: C Explanation: Lymph nodes are found all over the body, not just in a few areas, although they are particularly concentrated in several regions including the neck. The other statements regarding lymph nodes are true. Page Ref: 203 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) Which of the following statements regarding the tonsils is FALSE? A) The palatine tonsils are located in the nasal cavity. B) The tonsils are composed of lymphatic tissue. C) The tonsils remove pathogens for the digestive and respiratory systems. D) Sometimes the tonsils have to be removed if they become chronically infected. Answer: A Explanation: The palatine tonsils are located at the back of the palate, and all tonsils are located in the pharynx, or throat. The other statements regarding the tonsils are true. Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

32) Which of the following is NOT true of the spleen? A) The spleen contains a large population of macrophages. B) The spleen produces new erythrocytes. C) The spleen is not a vital organ; a person can live without a spleen. D) The spleen consists of slow-moving blood sinuses. Answer: B Explanation: The spleen does not produce new erythrocytes; it filters out and destroys old red blood cells, recycles the iron, and stores some of the blood supply for the body. The other statements regarding the spleen are true. Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 33) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland is FALSE? A) The thymus is located in the mediastinum of the chest. B) The thymus secretes thymosin. C) The thymus is important for the proper development of the immune system. D) The thymus increases in size throughout life. Answer: D Explanation: The thymus decreases in size after adolescence, not increases. The other statements regarding the thymus gland are true. Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) Which of the following statements regarding natural immunity is FALSE? A) Natural immunity includes receiving antibodies from the mother through the placenta. B) Natural immunity does not require prior exposure to the pathogen. C) A good example of natural immunity is the macrophage. D) Natural immunity mechanisms are not specific to any particular pathogen. Answer: A Explanation: Receiving antibodies from the mother through the placenta is passive acquired immunity, not natural immunity. Natural immunity is innate immunity, is not specific to a particular disease, and does not require prior exposure to a pathogenic agent Page Ref: 205, 206 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

35) Which of the following is NOT an example of acquired immunity? A) antibodies crossing the placenta from the baby to the mother B) antibodies formed during direct exposure to a pathogen C) immunizations D) an antitoxin injection Answer: A Explanation: Antibodies cross from the mother to the baby, not the baby to the mother. The other examples are of acquired immunity. Page Ref: 206 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) Which of the following is NOT part of the immune response? A) exposure to a pathogen B) production of antibodies by A lymphocytes C) phagocytosis of infectious agents D) stimulation of natural killer cells to destroy pathogens Answer: B Explanation: Antibodies are produced by B lymphocytes, not A lymphocytes. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 206, 207 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Which of the following statements regarding antigens is FALSE? A) Antigens are foreign proteins. B) Antigens are marked for phagocytosis by an antibody. C) Antigens stimulate the immune response. D) Antigens hide a pathogen from lymphocytes. Answer: D Explanation: Antigens mark a pathogen for lymphocytes, not hide it. The other statements regarding antigens are true. Page Ref: 206, 207 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

38) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) nosocomial infection—acquired outside the hospital B) reinfection—repeat infection by the same pathogen C) cross-infection—infection acquired directly from another person D) self-inoculation—infection spreads from one part of a person's body to a different area Answer: A Explanation: A nosocomial infection is acquired in the hospital, not outside the hospital. The other pairs are correctly matched. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Which of the following is the most important standard precaution? A) Wash your hands. B) Wear gloves. C) Wear a nonpermeable gown or apron. D) Wear a mask and protective eyewear. Answer: A Explanation: Washing your hands is the most important standard precaution that one can take, and it is done anytime there is patient contact. The others are done when exposure to fluids and mucous membranes are a possibility. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following terms means to convert a liquid to a gel or solid? A) coagulate B) clot C) hemostasis D) hematopoiesis Answer: A Explanation: Coagulate means to convert a liquid to a gel or solid. A clot is to stop bleeding. Hemostasis is the stopping of blood. Hematopoiesis is blood producing. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

41) Which of the following conditions results in thick blood as a result of having too many red blood cells? A) hemophilia B) polycythemia vera C) hyperlipidemia D) thalassemia Answer: B Explanation: Polycythemia vera is a condition of thick blood because of too many red blood cells. Hemophilia is a clotting disorder. Hyperlipidemia is too many lipids in the blood. Thalassemia is a type of anemia. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) Which of the following types of anemia results from the excessive loss of erythrocytes? A) pernicious anemia B) iron-deficiency anemia C) hemolytic anemia D) thalassemia Answer: C Explanation: Hemolytic anemia results from an excessive loss of erythrocytes. Pernicious anemia is a result of a lack of vitamin B12. Iron-deficiency anemia is a result of insufficient iron. Thalassemia is a genetic disorder where the body doesn't make enough hemoglobin, resulting in anemia. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which of the following types of anemia results from the loss of functioning bone marrow? A) aplastic anemia B) hemolytic anemia C) hypochromic anemia D) sickle cell anemia Answer: A Explanation: Aplastic anemia is caused by loss of functioning bone marrow. Hemolytic anemia is a result of a loss of red blood cells. Hypochromic anemia is a result of insufficient hemoglobin in the red blood cells. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder in which the red blood cells become "sickle" shaped. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

44) Which of the following types of anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency? A) aplastic anemia B) hemolytic anemia C) hypochromic anemia D) pernicious anemia Answer: D Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency. Aplastic anemia is caused by a loss of functioning bone marrow. Hemolytic anemia is caused by an excessive loss of red blood cells. Hypochromic anemia is caused by insufficient hemoglobin in the erythrocytes. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Which of the following conditions is a blood infection? A) thalassemia B) septicemia C) leukemia D) hemophilia Answer: B Explanation: Septicemia is a blood infection. Thalassemia is a type of anemia. Leukemia is a cancer of the white blood cell—forming red bone marrow. Hemophilia is a clotting disorder. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) Which of the following conditions is a cancer? A) polycythemia vera B) septicemia C) leukemia D) pernicious anemia Answer: C Explanation: Leukemia is a cancer. Polycythemia vera is a production of too many red blood cells. Septicemia is a blood infection. Pernicious anemia is a result of a vitamin B12 deficiency. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

47) Which of the following is NOT an inherited condition? A) leukemia B) sickle cell anemia C) thalassemia D) hemophilia Answer: A Explanation: Leukemia is a cancer. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, and hemophilia are genetic disorders. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) The mixture of plasma and blood cells is called: A) packed blood. B) serum. C) transfusion. D) whole blood. Answer: D Explanation: Whole blood is the mixture of plasma and blood cells. Packed blood is blood without the plasma. Serum is plasma with the fibrinogen inactivated or removed. A transfusion is the artificial transfer of blood into the bloodstream. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 49) Which of the following is a general term meaning a blood disease? A) hematoma B) hematology C) dyscrasia D) hemostasis Answer: C Explanation: Dyscrasia is a general term meaning a blood disease. Hematoma means a bruise. Hematology is the study of blood. Hemostasis means blood stopping. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

50) Which of the following is a term meaning a substance that causes an allergic reaction? A) allogen B) allergen C) allergy D) allergist Answer: B Explanation: An allergen is a substance that causes an allergic reaction. Allogen is a made-up term. An allergy is a sensitivity to a substance. An allergist is someone who specializes in the treatment of allergies. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 51) Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow? A) lymphedema B) lymphangioma C) lymphadenitis D) lymphangiography Answer: A Explanation: Lymphedema is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow. Lymphangioma is a lymph vessel tumor. Lymphadenitis is lymph gland inflammation. Lymphangiography is an Xray of the lymph vessels. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) Which is the severe itching associated with hives? A) anaphylactic B) dyscrasia C) lymphedema D) urticaria Answer: D Explanation: Urticaria is the severe itching associated with hives. Anaphylactic is something that causes a severe allergic reaction. Dyscrasia is a general term for blood disease. Lymphedema is swelling caused by the blockage of lymph flow. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

53) Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction? A) elephantiasis B) sarcoidosis C) anaphylactic shock D) AIDS-related complex Answer: C Explanation: Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening allergic reaction. Elephantiasis is an inflammation, obstruction, and destruction of the lymph vessels, resulting in enlarged tissues due to edema. Sarcoidosis is a disease of unknown cause that forms fibrous lesions. AIDS-related complex is an early stage of AIDS. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 54) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease? A) Kaposi's sarcoma B) rheumatoid arthritis C) elephantiasis D) mononucleosis Answer: B Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder. Kaposi's sarcoma is an opportunistic infection. Elephantiasis is an inflammation. Mononucleosis is caused by a virus. Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) Which of the following conditions is cancerous? A) Hodgkin's disease B) lymphadenitis C) AIDs-related complex D) sarcoidosis Answer: A Explanation: Hodgkin's disease is cancerous. Lymphadenitis is an inflammatory disease. AIDSrelated complex is due to a virus. Sarcoidosis is a disease of unknown cause that forms fibrous lesions. Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

56) Which of the following blood tests is NOT part of a complete blood count? A) red count B) hemoglobin C) clotting time D) hematocrit Answer: C Explanation: Clotting time is not a part of a complete blood count. A red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit are all part of a complete blood count. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 57) Which blood test examines the shape of red blood cells? A) red blood cell morphology B) red blood cell count C) hemoglobin D) complete blood count Answer: A Explanation: Red blood cell morphology is an examination of the shape of red blood cells. Red blood cell count is done to determine the number of erythrocytes in a volume of blood. A hemoglobin test measures the amount of hemoglobin present in a given volume of blood. A complete blood count is a combination of blood tests, including red blood cell count, white blood cell count, hemoglobin, hematocrit, white blood cell differential, and platelet count. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 58) Which of the following blood tests measures how long it takes for a clot to form? A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) culture and sensitivity C) hematocrit D) pro-time Answer: D Explanation: A pro-time measures how long it takes for a clot to form. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate determines the rate at which mature red blood cells settle out of the blood after the addition of an anticoagulant. A culture and sensitivity test checks for bacteria and, if present, which antibiotics will work on it. A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

59) Which of the following blood tests measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood? A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) culture and sensitivity C) hematocrit D) pro-time Answer: C Explanation: A hematocrit measures the volume of erythrocytes within the total volume of blood. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate determines the rate at which mature red blood cells settle out of the blood after the addition of an anticoagulant. A culture and sensitivity test is to check for bacteria and, if present, what antibiotics they are sensitive to. A pro-time measures how long it takes blood to clot. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 60) Which of the following blood tests is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory disease? A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) culture and sensitivity C) hematocrit D) pro-time Answer: A Explanation: An erythrocyte sedimentation rate is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory disease. A culture and sensitivity test checks for the presence of bacteria. A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood. A pro-time measures clotting time. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 61) Which of the following blood tests checks for bacterial growth? A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) culture and sensitivity C) hematocrit D) pro-time Answer: B Explanation: A culture and sensitivity checks for bacterial growth. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate is an indicator of inflammation. A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood. A pro-time checks clotting time. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

62) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) monospot—test for Hodgkin's disease B) erythrocyte sedimentation rate—indicates inflammatory disease C) lymphangiography—X-ray showing the lymph vessels D) antinuclear antibody (ANA) test—Blood test to assist in diagnosis of autoimmune diseases Answer: A Explanation: Monospot tests for mononucleosis, not Hodgkin's disease. The other pairs are matched correctly. Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 63) Which of the following consists of removing plasma from the body and replacing it with donor plasma? A) autologous transfusion B) phlebotomy C) plasmapheresis D) homologous transfusion Answer: C Explanation: Plasmapheresis removes plasma from the body and replaces it with donor plasma. Autologous transfusion is storing a patient's own blood until it's needed. Phlebotomy is also called venipuncture. Homologous transfusion is replacement of blood by transfusion of blood received from another person. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) A(n) transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body. A) analogous B) autologous C) self D) homologous Answer: B Explanation: An autologous transfusion consists of blood stored from the patient's own body. A homologous transfusion is replacement of blood with blood received from another person. There is not a self or analogous transfusion. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

65) Which of the following gives a patient an injection of antibodies to treat a disease? A) immunization B) monospot C) vaccination D) immunotherapy Answer: D Explanation: Immunotherapy is an injection of antibodies to treat a disease. Immunization, or vaccination, is exposing a person to a weakened pathogen. Monospot is a test for mononucleosis. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 66) Which of the following abbreviations refers to a nosocomial infection? A) GVHD B) KS C) HAI D) PCP Answer: C Explanation: HAI stands for healthcare-associated infection, which is a nosocomial infection. GVHD stands for graft versus host disease, a serious complication of a bone marrow transplant. KS is Kaposi's sarcoma, a form of skin cancer seen in AIDS patients. PCP stands for pneumocystis pneumonia, an opportunistic infection seen in AIDS patients. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 67) Which of the following abbreviations is a test to assist in the diagnosis of autoimmune diseases? A) RBC B) ANA C) PA D) HGB Answer: B Explanation: ANA stands for the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test, which assists in the diagnosis of autoimmune diseases. RBC stands for red blood cell count, a blood test. PA stands for pernicious anemia, a blood disorder. HGB stands for hemoglobin, a blood test. Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

68) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a blood test? A) BMT B) HCT C) PT D) CBC Answer: A Explanation: BMT is a bone marrow transplant, a therapeutic procedure. HCT stands for hematocrit, a blood test. PT stands for prothrombin time, a blood test. CBC stands for complete blood count, a blood test. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 69) Which of the following medications dissolves an existing clot? A) hematinic B) anticoagulant C) antiplatelet D) fibrinolytic Answer: D Explanation: A fibrinolytic dissolves an existing clot. A hematinic increases the number of erythrocytes or the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. An anticoagulant prevents blood clot formation. An antiplatelet agent interferes with the action of platelets. Page Ref: 198 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 70) Which of the following medications does NOT prolong bleeding time? A) hematinic B) anticoagulant C) antiplatelet D) fibrinolytic Answer: A Explanation: A hematinic increases erythrocytes or hemoglobin in the blood. An anticoagulant, antiplatelet, and fibrinolytic all prolong bleeding time. Page Ref: 198 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

71) Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation? A) hematinic B) anticoagulant C) antihemorrhagic D) fibrinolytic Answer: B Explanation: An anticoagulant prevents blood clot formation. A hematinic increases erythrocytes or hemoglobin in the blood. An antihemorrhagic prevents or stops hemorrhaging. A fibrinolytic dissolves an existing clot. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 72) Which of the following medications keeps a virus from successfully reproducing? A) antihistamine B) corticosteroid C) protease inhibitor D) immunosuppressant Answer: C Explanation: A protease inhibitor keeps a virus from successfully reproducing by inhibiting protease, a protein the virus needs to reproduce. An antihistamine blocks the effects of histamine released during an allergic reaction. A corticosteroid is a very strong anti-inflammatory. An immunosuppressant blocks certain actions of the immune system. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 73) Which of the following medications is required to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ? A) antihistamine B) corticosteroid C) protease inhibitor D) immunosuppressant Answer: D Explanation: An immunosuppressant is used to prevent transplant rejection. An antihistamine is used to block histamine released during an allergic reaction. A corticosteroid is used in autoimmune diseases. A protease inhibitor is used to treat HIV. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

74) Which of the following medications is useful for treating autoimmune diseases? A) antihistamine B) corticosteroid C) protease inhibitor D) immunosuppressant Answer: B Explanation: A corticosteroid is useful in treating autoimmune diseases. An antihistamine is used during an allergic reaction. A protease inhibitor is used to treat HIV. An immunosuppressant is used to prevent transplant rejection. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 75) Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction? A) antihistamine B) corticosteroid C) protease inhibitor D) immunosuppressant Answer: A Explanation: An antihistamine is used in an allergic reaction to block the effects of histamine released by the body. A corticosteroid is used for autoimmune diseases. A protease inhibitor is used for HIV. An immunosuppressant is used to prevent transplant rejection. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

6.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) prevents virus from successfully multiplying B) intense itching C) high cholesterol in the blood D) condition of having too many red blood cells E) determines bacterial infection F) measures volume of erythrocytes in whole blood G) part of determining blood type H) fight pathogens I) watery part of blood J) removes pathogens and cell debris from lymph K) phagocytic cell L) removes damaged erythrocytes M) cancer of the bone marrow N) caused by Epstein-Barr virus O) transport oxygen P) wheals Q) unable to respond properly to pathogens R) removes plasma from the body S) venipuncture T) clotting time is prolonged U) life-threatening allergic reaction V) general term for blood disorder W) inherited condition of nonfunctioning immune system X) results from actual exposure to a pathogen Y) play a role in hemostasis 1) erythrocytes Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) plasma Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) leukocytes Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) platelets Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) spleen Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) lymph node Page Ref: 203 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) dyscrasia Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 8) hyperlipidemia Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 9) polycythemia vera Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) leukemia Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 11) hemophilia Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44

12) culture and sensitivity Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 13) hematocrit Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 14) phlebotomy Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 15) plasmapheresis Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 16) Rh factor Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17) active acquired immunity Page Ref: 206 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) macrophage Page Ref: 205 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) immunocompromised Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45

20) hives Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) urticaria Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) anaphylactic shock Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) mononucleosis Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 24) SCIDS Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology Answers: 1) O 2) I 3) H 4) Y 5) L 6) J 7) V 8) C 9) D 10) M 11) T 12) E 13) F 14) S 15) R 16) G 17) X 18) K 19) Q 20) P 21) B 22) U 23) N 24) W 25) A

6.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the components of blood. Answer: 1. Plasma—Watery portion of blood; 55% of whole blood; primarily water; transports dissolved substances 2. Erythrocytes—Red blood cells; enucleated biconcave disk; contain hemoglobin, a protein that transports oxygen 3. Leukocytes—White blood cells; remove bacteria, viruses, and cell debris; five types: eosinophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, basophil, neutrophil 4. Platelets—Also called thrombocytes; trigger blood clotting process Page Ref: 188-190 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe the difference between natural and acquired immunity. Answer: 1. Natural immunity—Also called innate immunity. It is not specific at attacking a particular pathogen and it requires no previous exposure to an antigen; an example is the macrophage. 2. Acquired immunity—Response to a specific antigen/pathogen; passive acquired immunity occurs when a person receives a protective substance produced by another human or animal such as antibodies traveling from a mother to a fetus. Active acquired immunity develops following direct exposure to the pathogenic agent such as having the chickenpox or receiving a vaccination. Page Ref: 205, 206 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 7 Respiratory System 7.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means air sac or alveolus is Answer: alveol/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means coal is Answer: anthrac/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means incomplete is Answer: atel/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) A combining form that means bronchus is Answer: bronch/o; bronchi/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means bronchiole is Answer: bronchiol/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 6) The combining form that means dust is Answer: coni/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means epiglottis is Answer: epiglott/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means larynx is Answer: laryng/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means lobe is Answer: lob/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) A combining form that means nose is Answer: nas/o; rhin/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means straight is Answer: orth/o Page Ref: 238 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) A combining form that means oxygen is Answer: ox/o; ox/i Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means pharynx is Answer: pharyng/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means pleura is Answer: pleur/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) A combining form that means lung or air is Answer: pneum/o; pneumon/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form aer/o means Answer: air Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means sinus is Answer: sinus/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means breathing is Answer: spir/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means trachea is Answer: trache/o Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) The suffix that means carbon dioxide is Answer: -capnia Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) The suffix that means paralysis is Answer: -plegia Page Ref: 238 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) The suffix that means smell is Answer: -osmia Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) The suffix that means voice is Answer: -phonia Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means breathing is Answer: -pnea Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) The suffix that means spitting is Answer: -ptysis Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means chest is Answer: -thorax Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

27) A medical term that means instrument to view inside a bronchus is Answer: bronchoscope Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

28) A medical term that means surgical repair of the voice box is Answer: laryngoplasty Page Ref: 252 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 29) A medical term that means instrument to measure oxygen is Answer: oximeter Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 30) A medical term that means insufficient oxygen is Answer: hypoxia Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

31) A medical term that means puncture pleura to withdraw fluid is Answer: pleurocentesis Page Ref: 252 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

32) A medical term that means inflammation of the pharynx is Answer: pharyngitis Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the lung is Answer: pulmonary Page Ref: 239 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

34) A medical term that means pertaining to the pharynx is Answer: pharyngeal Page Ref: 239 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the larynx is Answer: laryngeal Page Ref: 239 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the bronchus is Answer: bronchial Page Ref: 239 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) A medical term that means abnormal condition of nose fungus is Answer: rhinomycosis Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 6

38) A medical term that means inflammation of all the sinuses is Answer: pansinusitis Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 39) A medical term that means pertaining to the chest is Answer: thoracic Page Ref: 239 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

40) A medical term that means pertaining to within the trachea is Answer: endotracheal Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 41) A medical term that means without voice is Answer: aphonia Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

42) A medical term that means excessive carbon dioxide is Answer: hypercapnia Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 43) A medical term that means lack of (sense of) smell is Answer: anosmia Page Ref: 240 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

44) A medical term that means slow breathing is Answer: bradypnea Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

45) A medical term that means difficult breathing is Answer: dyspnea Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

46) A medical term that means pus in the chest is Answer: pyothorax Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 47) A medical term that means chest pain is Answer: thoracalgia Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

48) A medical term that means normal breathing is Answer: eupnea Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

49) A medical term that means surgical repair of the bronchus is Answer: bronchoplasty Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 50) A medical term that means not breathing is Answer: apnea Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

7.2 True/False Questions 1) Ventilation is the flow of air between the outside environment and the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Air flows into the lungs during exhalation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Air flows into the lungs during inhalation and out of the lungs during exhalation. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Internal respiration supplies oxygen to the cells of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The larynx is commonly called the throat. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pharynx, not the larynx, is commonly called the throat. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Many of the structures of the respiratory system are covered by mucous membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) The eustachian tube connects the pharynx to the inner ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The eustachian tube connects the pharynx to the middle, not the inner ear. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) The epiglottis closes to prevent food from entering the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Each lung is surrounded by a peritoneal cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Each lung is surrounded by a pleural cavity, not a peritoneal cavity. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The vocal cords are folds of membranous tissue that vibrate to produce sound. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The epiglottis forms what is known as the Adam's apple. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The thyroid cartilage, not the epiglottis, forms the Adam's apple. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Pulmonary function tests are conducted by respiratory therapists. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 12) Aspiration is commonly called suffocation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Asphyxiation, not aspiration, is commonly called suffocation. Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

13) Cheyne-Stokes respiration alternates between long periods of apnea followed by deeper, more rapid breathing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) Hemoptysis is commonly called a nosebleed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Epistaxis, not hemoptysis, is commonly called a nosebleed. Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) Breathing too fast and too deep is hyperventilation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) Phlegm is called sputum when it is excreted through the nose. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sputum is coughed-up phlegm. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) A nasal cannula is a two-pronged plastic device for delivering oxygen into the nose. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 18) Orthopnea is breathing made worse by sitting upright. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Orthopnea is dyspnea that is eased by sitting upright and made worse by lying flat. Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

19) An ENT is an ear, nose, and throat doctor. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 240 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 20) Rhonchi are an abnormal crackling sound made during inhalation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Rhonchi are a somewhat musical sound made during expiration. Rales are an abnormal crackling sound made during inhalation. Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) Patent is a term that means open. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Pleural effusion is the grating sound made when the two layers of the pleura rub together. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pleural rub, not effusion, is the grating sound made when the two layers of the pleura rub together. A pleural effusion is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity preventing the lungs from fully expanding. Page Ref: 248 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) Clubbing is seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions or circulatory problems. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Clubbing is the abnormal widening and thickening of the ends of the fingers and toes associated with chronic oxygen deficiency. Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

24) Diphtheria is also called whooping cough. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pertussis, not diphtheria, is also called whooping cough. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) Croup is an acute condition found in children that is characterized by a barking type of cough. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) Silicosis is commonly called black lung disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Silicosis is a type of pneumoconiosis that develops from the inhalation of silica dust. Anthracosis, not silicosis, is commonly called black lung disease and develops from the inhalation of coal dust in the lung. Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) Bronchiectasis is the abnormal enlargement or dilation of bronchi. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) Cystic fibrosis occurs when fibrous scar tissue forms in the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary condition causing the exocrine glands to malfunction. Pulmonary fibrosis, not cystic fibrosis, occurs when fibrous scar tissue forms in the lungs. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

29) Atelectasis is a condition in which the air sacs or alveoli in a portion of the lung collapse. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 245 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 30) Pneumoconiosis is commonly called walking pneumonia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Mycoplasma pneumonia is commonly called walking pneumonia. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 31) Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) In pneumoconiosis, the air sacs fill up with fluid. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In pneumonia, not pneumoconiosis, the air sacs fill up with fluid. Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) A pulmonary embolism may cause an infarct in the lung tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) C&S is a blood test that determines oxygen content in the blood. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A C&S checks for bacterial growth and the antibiotics to which the bacteria are sensitive. Arterial blood gases is a test that determines oxygen content in the blood. Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

35) Empyema is also called pyothorax. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) Bronchoscopy is a procedure to examine inside the voice box with a scope. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A laryngoscopy is a procedure to examine inside the voice box with a scope. A bronchoscopy allows visualization of the bronchi with a scope. Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 37) Pulmonary angiography injects dye into a blood vessel to view the arteries and veins of the lungs on an X-ray. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 38) The sweat test determines whether the patient has tuberculosis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A sweat test is used to determine whether a patient has cystic fibrosis. A tuberculin skin test is used to determine whether a patient has tuberculosis. Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 39) Spirometry measures lung capacity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 40) Thoracostomy is the surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A thoracostomy is an insertion of a tube into the chest for the purpose of draining off fluid or air. A thoracentesis is a surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid. Page Ref: 252 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 15

41) Aerosol therapy delivers medication in a mist that can be inhaled. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) CPR is a technique for removing a foreign body from the trachea or pharynx. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The Heimlich maneuver, not CPR, is a technique for removing a foreign body from the trachea or pharynx. CPR provides oxygen to the brain, heart, and other vital organs when the heart and respirations stop. Page Ref: 253 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 43) Tracheotomy is a procedure that makes it easier for the patient to breathe. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 253 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) Antihistamines can be used to treat coughs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Antitussives can be used to treat coughs. Antihistamines block the effects of histamine that has been released by the body during an allergy attack. Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 45) A mucolytic medication liquefies mucus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 46) The abbreviation RUL stands for right upper lung. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation RUL stands for right upper lobe, not lung. Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 16

47) CXR is the abbreviation for chest X-ray. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 48) A polysomnography test evaluates a person while he or she is working out. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A polysomnography test evaluates a person while he or she is sleeping. Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 49) TB is the abbreviation for tuberculosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 50) Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test for pneumonia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sputum cytology examines sputum for malignant cells. Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 7.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers to the cells of the body. A) oxygen B) nutrients C) carbon dioxide D) sodium Answer: A Explanation: The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, delivers oxygen to the cells of the body. The respiratory system, in conjunction with the cardiovascular system, removes carbon dioxide from the cells of the body. The cardiovascular system is responsible for delivering nutrients and sodium to the cells of the body. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17

2) Which of the following is NOT a part of the process of respiration? A) external respiration B) thoracic respiration C) ventilation D) internal respiration Answer: B Explanation: Thoracic respiration is not a respiratory vocabulary term. External respiration, ventilation, and internal respiration are a part of the process of respiration. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) External respiration refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the: A) alveoli and bloodstream. B) outside air and cells of the body. C) bloodstream and cells. D) lungs and heart. Answer: A Explanation: External respiration occurs between the alveoli and bloodstream. Internal respiration occurs between the bloodstream and cells. Respiration does not occur between the outside air and cells of the body or the lungs and heart. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Which of the following statements regarding respiration is FALSE? A) Oxygen is needed for the body cells' metabolism. B) Carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the cells. C) Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the bloodstream. D) Carbon dioxide is the by-product of metabolism. Answer: B Explanation: Carbon dioxide moves from the cells into the blood to be carried back to the lungs for removal from the body. All other statements are true. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

5) The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the: A) palate. B) sinuses. C) nasal septum. D) nares. Answer: C Explanation: The nasal septum divides the nasal cavity down the middle. The palate is the roof of the mouth. The sinuses are in the skull. The nares are the nostrils. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal cavity? A) warms inhaled air B) humidifies inhaled air C) removes dirt and dust from inhaled air D) removes oxygen from inhaled air Answer: D Explanation: Oxygen is removed from inhaled air in the alveoli. The nasal cavity warms, humidifies, and removes dirt and dust from inhaled air. Page Ref: 230, 231 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) The upper section of the pharynx is called the: A) oropharynx. B) nasopharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) hypopharynx. Answer: B Explanation: The upper section of the pharynx is called the nasopharynx, the middle is the oropharynx, and the lower is the laryngopharynx. Hypopharynx is not part of the pharyngeal anatomy. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

8) The tonsils in the throat are considered part of the: A) digestive system. B) respiratory system. C) endocrine system. D) lymphatic system. Answer: D Explanation: The tonsils in the throat are considered to be part of the lymphatic system. The other options are not correct. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The opening through the vocal cords is called the: A) glottis. B) adenoids. C) epiglottis. D) thyroid cartilage. Answer: A Explanation: The opening through the vocal cords is called the glottis. The epiglottis sits above the glottis and prevents food and liquid being inhaled into the lungs. The adenoids are the pharyngeal tonsils. Thyroid cartilage is commonly called the Adam's apple. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) trachea—windpipe B) larynx—voice box C) pharynx—throat D) bronchioles—air sacs Answer: D Explanation: Alveoli are the air sacs, not bronchioles. Bronchioles are the narrowest branches of the bronchi that terminate in alveoli. The other pairs of terms are correct. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

11) The respiratory membrane consists of: A) the walls of the alveoli and mucous membrane. B) the walls of the alveoli and capillaries. C) pulmonary capillary beds. D) walls of bronchioles and alveoli. Answer: B Explanation: The respiratory membrane consists of the walls of the alveoli and capillaries. The other options are incorrect. Page Ref: 233, 234 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which of the following statements regarding bronchial tubes is FALSE? A) Each bronchus is surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. B) Gas exchange occurs across the respiratory membrane. C) The trachea splits into a left and right main bronchus. D) Alveoli are located at the tips of bronchioles. Answer: A Explanation: Each alveolus, not bronchus, is surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) Which of the following does NOT make up part of the lungs? A) alveoli B) bronchioles C) trachea D) bronchi Answer: C Explanation: The trachea is the passageway for air into the lungs. Alveoli, bronchioles, and bronchi are all parts of the lungs. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) apex—tip of lung B) base—bottom section of lung C) hilum—area where trachea enters the lungs D) pleura—sac around lungs Answer: C Explanation: The hilum is where the bronchi, pulmonary blood vessels, and nerves enter into each lung, not the trachea. The other pairs are correct. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Which of the following lung volumes is the amount of air that enters or exits the lungs during a single quiet breath? A) tidal volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) residual volume D) expiratory reserve volume Answer: A Explanation: Tidal volume is the amount of air that enters or exits the lungs during a single quiet breath. The inspiratory reserve volume is the air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal respiration. The residual volume is the air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation. Expiratory reserve volume is the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal quiet respiration. Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Which of the following lung capacities is the total volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation? A) inspiratory capacity B) functional residual capacity C) vital capacity D) total lung capacity Answer: C Explanation: Vital capacity is the total volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. Inspiratory capacity is the volume of air inhaled after a normal exhale. Functional residual capacity is the air that remains in the lungs after a normal exhalation has taken place. Total lung capacity is the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation. Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

17) Which of the following is NOT one of the vital signs? A) heart rate B) respiratory rate C) urine volume D) temperature Answer: C Explanation: Vital signs consist of heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature, and blood pressure. Urine volume can be useful to know, but is not a vital sign. Page Ref: 236 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Which of the following is NOT an organ of the respiratory system? A) lungs B) esophagus C) trachea D) nasal cavity Answer: B Explanation: The esophagus is part of the digestive system. The lungs, trachea, and nasal cavity are organs of the respiratory system. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which organ of the respiratory system is used by both the respiratory and digestive systems? A) pharynx B) stomach C) trachea D) nasal cavity Answer: A Explanation: The pharynx is used for both air and food to pass through. The stomach is used only in the digestive system. The trachea and nasal cavity are used only by the respiratory system. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

20) The respiratory system works in conjunction with the system to deliver oxygen to the cells of the body. A) digestive B) endocrine C) nervous D) cardiovascular Answer: D Explanation: The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to deliver oxygen to the cells of the body. The other choices are not correct. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Inhalation brings in fresh and exhalation removes . A) carbon dioxide, oxygen B) oxygen, nitrogen C) oxygen, carbon dioxide D) nitrogen, carbon dioxide Answer: C Explanation: Inhalation brings in fresh oxygen and exhalation removes carbon dioxide. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) The paranasal sinuses are located within the: A) nasal cavity. B) facial bones. C) nasopharynx. D) inner ear. Answer: B Explanation: The paranasal sinuses are located within the facial bones. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

23) The is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity. A) septum B) nares C) palate D) sinuses Answer: C Explanation: The palate is the roof of the mouth and the floor of the nasal cavity. The septum separates the nasal cavity. The nares are the two external openings into the nasal cavity. The sinuses are found in the facial bones. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) The two external openings into the nasal cavity are called the: A) nares. B) cilia. C) sinuses. D) nasal septum. Answer: A Explanation: The nares are the two external openings into the nasal cavity. The cilia are the very small hairs that line the opening into the nasal cavity. The sinuses are depressions in the facial bones. The nasal septum divides the nasal cavity in half. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) The small hairs that line the opening to the nose and the airways are called: A) sinuses. B) nares. C) septa. D) cilia. Answer: D Explanation: The cilia are the very small hairs that line the opening into the nasal cavity. The sinuses are depressions in the facial bones. The nares are the two external openings into the nasal cavity. The nasal septum, not septa, divides the nasal cavity in half. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) The section of the pharynx that is associated with the mouth is the: A) nasopharynx. B) laryngopharynx. C) oropharynx. D) hypopharynx. Answer: C Explanation: The oropharynx is the section of the pharynx associated with the mouth. The nasopharynx is the section in the nose. The laryngopharynx is the section in the throat. There is no hypopharynx. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) The palatine and lingual tonsils are located in the: A) oropharynx. B) laryngopharynx. C) nasopharynx. D) hypopharynx. Answer: A Explanation: The palatine and lingual tonsils are located in the oropharynx, behind the mouth. The pharyngeal tonsils are found in the nasopharynx. There are no tonsils in the laryngopharynx. There is no hypopharynx. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) Air is carried between the pharynx and bronchial tubes in the: A) epiglottis. B) trachea. C) nasal cavity. D) esophagus. Answer: B Explanation: Air is carried in the trachea, which extends from the pharynx and larynx down to the main bronchi. The epiglottis sits above the glottis and provides protection against food and liquid being inhaled into the lungs. The nasal cavity is where inhaled air is humidified, warmed, and cleansed. The esophagus is where food is transported to the stomach. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

29) Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order? A) larynx, trachea, pharynx, bronchial tubes B) bronchial tubes, trachea, pharynx, larynx C) pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchial tubes D) pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tubes Answer: D Explanation: The correct order is pharynx, larynx, trachea, and then bronchial tubes. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 231-233 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) The pulmonary capillaries tightly encase the: A) bronchioles. B) main bronchi. C) apex. D) alveoli. Answer: D Explanation: The pulmonary capillaries surround the alveoli. The other choices are not correct. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) Which of the following statements regarding the lungs is FALSE? A) The lungs are divided into lobes. B) Serous fluid is located between the two layers of the pleura. C) The lungs are located within the pleural cavity. D) The mediastinum of the thoracic cavity is located between the lungs and diaphragm. Answer: D Explanation: The mediastinum is located between the right and left lung. The other choices are correct. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

32) Which of following statements about the process of respiration is FALSE? A) When the diaphragm contracts, it moves downward. B) The intercostal muscles assist inhalation by raising the rib cage. C) Air flows into the lungs with exhalation. D) A quiet, unforced exhalation is a passive process because it does not require any muscle contraction. Answer: C Explanation: Air flows into the lungs with inhalation, not exhalation. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 235, 236 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 33) Which of the following statements regarding respiratory rate is FALSE? A) When carbon dioxide levels rise, we breathe more rapidly to expel the excess. B) Respiratory rate is regulated by the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. C) When carbon dioxide levels fall, we breathe more rapidly to bring in more. D) Medical conditions like pneumonia or brain injury will affect respiratory rate. Answer: C Explanation: When carbon dioxide levels fall, we breathe more slowly, not more quickly. This happens to retain carbon dioxide and raise blood levels. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 236, 237 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) Which of the following terms is also called suffocation? A) asphyxia B) Cheyne-Stokes respiration C) aspiration D) hypoventilation Answer: A Explanation: Suffocation and asphyxia are interchangeable terms. Cheyne-Stokes respiration is an abnormal breathing pattern in which long periods of apnea alternate with periods of deeper, more rapid breathing. Aspiration is withdrawing fluid from a body cavity using suction or inhaling food, fluid, or a foreign object into the airways. Hypoventilation is breathing both too slow and too shallow. Page Ref: 241 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

35) Which of the following terms means nosebleed? A) stridor B) epistaxis C) orthopnea D) hemoptysis Answer: B Explanation: Epistaxis is known as a nosebleed. Stridor is an abnormal lung sound. Orthopnea is difficulty breathing when lying flat. Hemoptysis is coughing up bloody sputum. Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) Which of the following terms means a high-pitched breathing sound? A) rhonchi B) epistaxis C) stridor D) rales Answer: C Explanation: Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched breathing sound made when there is an obstruction of the bronchus or larynx. Rhonchi is a musical sound. Epistaxis is a nosebleed. Rales make a crackling sound. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract is called: A) phlegm. B) stridor. C) hemoptysis. D) sputum. Answer: D Explanation: Mucus coughed up is sputum. Phlegm is mucus in the respiratory tract. Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound. Hemoptysis is blood-tinged sputum. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

38) Which of the following terms means open or unblocked? A) patent B) percussion C) asphyxia D) stridor Answer: A Explanation: Patent means open or unblocked. Percussion is using the fingertips to tap on a surface to determine the condition beneath the surface. Asphyxia is a lack of oxygen. Stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound. Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 39) Which of the following conditions is commonly called walking pneumonia? A) histoplasmosis pneumonia B) Mycoplasma pneumonia C) pulmonary edema pneumonia D) influenza Answer: B Explanation: Mycoplasma pneumonia is known as walking pneumonia. Histoplasmosis is a pulmonary infection caused by the fungus found in dust and the droppings of pigeons and chickens. Pulmonary edema is a condition in which lung tissue retains an excessive amount of fluid. Influenza is a viral infection of the respiratory system. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following conditions is a bacterial upper respiratory infection characterized by the formation of a thick membranous film across the throat? A) diphtheria B) pertussis C) croup D) asthma Answer: A Explanation: Diphtheria is a bacterial upper respiratory infection characterized by the formation of a thick membranous film across the throat and a high mortality rate. Pertussis is commonly called whooping cough. Croup is an acute respiratory condition with a barking cough. Asthma is a disease in which there is constriction of the bronchial airways, dyspnea, coughing, and wheezing. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

41) Which of the following conditions causes constriction of the bronchial airways? A) bronchiectasis B) asthma C) anthracosis D) adult respiratory distress syndrome Answer: B Explanation: Asthma causes constriction of the bronchial airways. Bronchiectasis is enlargement of the bronchi. Anthracosis is known as black lung. Adult respiratory distress syndrome is acute respiratory failure in adults. Page Ref: 245 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) Which of the following conditions is NOT a type of pneumoconiosis? A) anthracosis B) silicosis C) cyanosis D) asbestosis Answer: C Explanation: Cyanosis refers to the bluish tint of skin that is receiving an insufficient amount of oxygen or circulation; it is a sign or symptom, not a condition. Anthracosis, silicosis, and asbestosis are all types of pneumoconiosis. Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which of the following is an inherited condition? A) emphysema B) atelectasis C) histoplasmosis D) cystic fibrosis Answer: D Explanation: Cystic fibrosis is an inherited condition. Emphysema, atelectasis, and histoplasmosis are acquired. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

44) Which of the following conditions is a fungal infection? A) histoplasmosis B) adult respiratory distress syndrome C) diphtheria D) Mycoplasma pneumonia Answer: A Explanation: Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum found in dust and the droppings of pigeons and chickens. Adult respiratory distress syndrome is acute respiratory failure. Diphtheria is a bacterial upper respiratory infection. Mycoplasma pneumonia is caused by the bacteria Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Which of the following conditions may cause an infarct in the lungs? A) pulmonary fibrosis B) pulmonary emboli C) pulmonary edema D) pneumonia Answer: B Explanation: Pulmonary emboli are clots that have broken away from a clot somewhere else in the body and are causing an obstruction. If it is cutting off blood supply, then an infarct may occur. The other three lung conditions do not result in infarcts. Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) Which of the following serious lung infections cause the alveoli to fill up with fluid? A) tuberculosis B) pneumoconiosis C) pneumonia D) pulmonary fibrosis Answer: C Explanation: Pneumonia causes the alveoli and air spaces to fill up with fluid. Tuberculosis causes inflammation. Pneumoconiosis and pulmonary fibrosis are constrictive diseases. Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

47) Which of the following conditions may result in a collapsed lung? A) pulmonary embolism B) tuberculosis C) pleural effusion D) pneumothorax Answer: D Explanation: A pneumothorax is air trapped in the pleural cavity, which can result in the collapse of a lung. The other three lung conditions do not result in a collapsed lung. Page Ref: 248 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) Which of the following conditions is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli resulting in over expanded air sacs? A) emphysema B) histoplasmosis C) pneumoconiosis D) empyema Answer: A Explanation: Emphysema is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli, resulting in over expanded air sacs. Histoplasmosis is a pulmonary infection. Pneumoconiosis is a pulmonary infection. Empyema is pus in the pleural space. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis? A) sweat test B) spirometry C) pulmonary angiography D) sputum cytology Answer: A Explanation: A sweat test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis. Spirometry is used to measure lung capacity, commonly used to test lung function. Pulmonary angiography is used to examine pulmonary arteries and veins. Sputum cytology is looking for malignant cells. Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

50) Which of the following diagnostic tests is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying pulmonary emboli? A) spirometry B) polysomnography C) pulmonary function test D) ventilation-perfusion scan Answer: D Explanation: A ventilation-perfusion scan is a nuclear medicine procedure useful in identifying pulmonary emboli. Spirometry and the pulmonary function test are used to determine overall lung function. Polysomnography is useful in identifying sleep apnea. Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 51) Which of the following diagnostic procedures monitors a patient while sleeping to identify sleep apnea? A) pulmonary function test B) ventilation-perfusion scan C) polysomnography D) bronchoscopy Answer: C Explanation: Polysomnography is performed while a patient is sleeping to identify sleep apnea. The pulmonary function test gives information regarding air flow in and out of the lungs, lung volumes, and gas exchange between the lungs and bloodstream. A ventilation-perfusion scan is a nuclear medicine test useful in identifying pulmonary emboli. Bronchoscopy is done to visualize the inside of the bronchi. Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 52) Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures the oxygen level in the blood? A) ventilation-perfusion scan B) oximetry C) bronchography D) polysomnography Answer: B Explanation: Oximetry measures the oxygen level in the blood. A ventilation-perfusion scan is a nuclear medicine test useful in identifying pulmonary emboli. Bronchography is an X-ray of the lung. Polysomnography is done to detect sleep apnea. Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

53) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test for malignant cells? A) sputum cytology B) sputum culture and sensitivity C) pulmonary function test D) arterial blood gases Answer: A Explanation: Sputum cytology tests for malignant cells. Sputum culture and sensitivity tests for bacterial growth and, if present, the antibiotics to which it is sensitive. The pulmonary function test is a group of diagnostic tests that give information regarding air flow in and out of the lungs, lung volumes, and gas exchange between the lungs and the bloodstream. Arterial blood gases test for the gases present in the blood. Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 54) Which of the following is a machine that breathes for a patient who is unable to breathe on his or her own? A) postural drainage B) endotracheal intubation C) aerosol therapy D) ventilator Answer: D Explanation: A ventilator is a lung machine that breathes for a patient who cannot breathe on his or her own. Postural drainage places the patient in a position so that gravity can help facilitate drainage of fluids. Endotracheal intubation is the placing of a tube through the mouth, through the glottis, and into the trachea to create a patent airway. Aerosol therapy is medication suspended in a mist that is intended to be inhaled into the lungs. Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

55) Which of the following is an emergency treatment given to patients when their breathing and heart stop? A) Heimlich maneuver B) thoracentesis C) cardiopulmonary resuscitation D) intermittent positive pressure breathing Answer: C Explanation: Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is given to patients when their breathing and heart stop; it is commonly referred to by the abbreviation CPR. The Heimlich maneuver is done when a patient has an obstruction in their trachea or pharynx. Thoracentesis is a puncture in the chest wall for removal of fluids. Intermittent positive pressure breathing is a method for assisting patients in breathing using a mask that is connected to a machine that produces increased positive thoracic pressure. Page Ref: 253 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 56) Which of the following therapeutic procedures uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi? A) postural drainage B) intermittent positive pressure breathing C) thoracentesis D) Heimlich maneuver Answer: A Explanation: Postural drainage uses gravity to encourage drainage of secretions from the bronchi. Intermittent positive pressure breathing is a method for assisting patients in breathing using a mask that is connected to a machine that produces increased positive thoracic pressure. Thoracentesis is a puncture in the chest wall to remove fluids. The Heimlich maneuver is performed when a patient has an obstruction in his or her trachea or pharynx. Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 57) Which kind of medication is suspended in a mist to be inhaled? A) endotracheal medications B) aerosol therapy C) pulmonary medications D) postural drainage Answer: B Explanation: Medications suspended in mist to be inhaled are called aerosol therapy. Endotracheal medications and pulmonary medications are not necessarily aerosol. Postural drainage is a therapeutic procedure. Page Ref: 251 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 36

58) Which of the following medications treats an allergy attack? A) expectorant B) bronchodilator C) antitussive D) antihistamine Answer: D Explanation: An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 59) Which of the following medications relieves the urge to cough? A) expectorant B) bronchodilator C) antitussive D) antihistamine Answer: C Explanation: An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 60) Which of the following medications relaxes muscle spasms in the bronchial tube? A) expectorant B) bronchodilator C) antitussive D) antihistamine Answer: B Explanation: A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

61) Which of the following medications improves the ability to cough up mucus? A) expectorant B) bronchodilator C) antitussive D) antihistamine Answer: A Explanation: An expectorant is used to improve the ability to cough up mucus from the respiratory tract. A bronchodilator is used to relax bronchospasms. An antitussive is used to relieve the urge to cough. An antihistamine blocks the histamines released during an allergy attack. Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 62) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic laboratory test? A) CPR B) ENT C) ARDS D) ABGs Answer: D Explanation: ABGs stands for arterial blood gases, which is a diagnostic laboratory test. CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation, which is a therapeutic procedure. ENT stands for ear, nose, and throat. ARDS stands for adult respiratory distress syndrome, which is a respiratory system pathology. Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 63) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a life-threatening condition in babies? A) TB B) SARS C) SIDS D) COPD Answer: C Explanation: SIDS stands for sudden infant death syndrome, a life-threatening condition in babies. TB stands for tuberculosis, a bacterial infection. SARS stands for severe acute respiratory syndrome, an acute viral respiratory infection. COPD stands for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, a group of progressive, chronic, and usually irreversible conditions. Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

64) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic test? A) TB B) PFT C) SOB D) URI Answer: B Explanation: PFT stands for pulmonary function test, a diagnostic test. TB stands for tuberculosis, a bacterial disease. SOB stands for shortness of breath, a symptom. URI stands for upper respiratory infection. Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 65) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition? A) SARS B) PFT C) C&S D) ENT Answer: A Explanation: SARS stands for severe acute respiratory syndrome, a pathological condition. PFT stands for pulmonary function test, a diagnostic test. C&S stands for culture and sensitivity, a diagnostic test. ENT stands for ear, nose, and throat, usually a reference to that type of specialist. Page Ref: 255 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 66) Which of the following term means pleural pain? A) pleurodynia B) thoracalgia C) pleuritis D) pleurectomy Answer: A Explanation: Pleur/o means pleura and -dynia means pain; therefore, pleurodynia means pleural pain. Thorac/o means thorax or chest and -algia means pain; thus, thoracalgia means chest pain. -itis means inflammation, so pleuritis means inflammation of the pleura. -ectomy means surgical removal; hence, pleurectomy means surgical removal of the pleura. Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

67) Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of blue? A) cyanotic B) cyanitis C) cyaniosis D) cyanosis Answer: D Explanation: Cyan/o means blue and -osis means abnormal condition, so cyanosis means abnormal condition of blue. Cyanotic means pertaining to abnormal condition of blue. -itis means inflammation, so cyanitis would be inflammation of blue, which is not a medical term. Cyaniosis is misspelled. Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 68) Which of the following terms means study of the ear, nose, and voice box? A) otonasolaryngology B) otorhinolaryngology C) otonasopharyngology D) otorhinolaryngologist Answer: B Explanation: Ot/o means ear, rhin/o means nose, laryng/o means voice box, and -logy means study of; hence, otorhinolaryngology means study of the ear, nose, and voice box. Nas/o does mean nose, but otonasolaryngology is not the term commonly known for the study of the ear, nose, and voice box. Pharyng/o means pharynx, so otonasopharyngology would mean study of the ear, nose, and pharynx. Otorhinolaryngologist is a specialist in the study of the ear, nose, and voice box. Page Ref: 240 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 69) Which of the following terms means abnormal condition of lung dust? A) pneumoconiosis B) pulmoconiosis C) pneumoanthracosis D) anthracosis Answer: A Explanation: Pneum/o means lung, coni/o means dust, and -osis means abnormal condition, so pneumoconiosis means abnormal condition of lung dust. Pulm/o is not a combining form, so pulmoconiosis is not a medical term. Anthrac/o means coal, so pneumoanthracosis would be abnormal condition of coal lung. Anthracosis is a type of pneumoconiosis that develops from the collection of coal dust in the lung. Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 40

70) Which of the following terms means inflammation of the nose and throat? A) rhinolaryngitis B) nasolaryngitis C) nasopharyngitis D) rhinopharyngitis Answer: C Explanation: Nas/o means nose, pharyng/o means pharynx or throat, and -itis means inflammation, so nasopharyngitis means inflammation of the nose and throat. Rhin/o means nose and laryng/o means larynx or voice box, so nasolaryngitis means inflammation of the nose and voice box. Rhinopharyngitis does mean inflammation of the nose and throat, but it is not the term most commonly used. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 71) Which of the following terms means nose discharge? A) rhinorrhea B) rhinoplasty C) rhinorrhagia D) rhinitis Answer: A Explanation: Rhin/o means nose and -rrhea means discharge; thus, rhinorrhea means nose discharge. -plasty means surgical repair, so rhinoplasty means surgical repair of the nose. rrhagia means abnormal flow condition, so rhinorrhagia commonly means a rapid flow (of blood) from the nose. -itis means inflammation, so rhinitis would mean inflammation of the nose. Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 72) Which of the following terms means narrowing of the trachea? A) tracheostomy B) tracheoectasis C) tracheosclerosis D) tracheostenosis Answer: D Explanation: Trache/o means trachea and -stenosis means narrowing, so tracheostenosis means narrowing of the trachea. -ostomy means to surgically create an opening, so tracheostomy would be creating an opening into the trachea. -ectasis means dilation, so tracheoectasis would mean dilation of the trachea. -sclerosis means hardening; therefore, tracheosclerosis would mean tracheal hardening. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 41

73) Which of the following terms means excessive (deep) breathing? A) hypopnea B) tachypnea C) hyperpnea D) orthopnea Answer: C Explanation: Hyper- means excessive and -pnea means breathing; therefore, hyperpnea means excessive breathing. Hypo- means insufficient, so hypopnea would be insufficient breathing. Tachy- means fast or rapid; hence, tachypnea would be rapid breathing. Orth/o means straight, so orthopnea means the person cannot lie flat and breathe well. Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 74) Which of the following terms means normal breathing? A) apnea B) eupnea C) orthopnea D) dyspnea Answer: B Explanation: Eu- means normal and -pnea means breathing, so eupnea means normal breathing. A- means without; therefore, apnea means not breathing. Orthopnea refers to the fact that the person cannot breathe well when lying flat. Dys- means difficult, so dyspnea would be difficult breathing. Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 75) Which of the following terms means air in the chest? A) pneumothorax B) hemothorax C) pyothorax D) pulmothorax Answer: A Explanation: Pneum/o means air and -thorax means chest; therefore, pneumothorax means air in the chest. Hem/o means blood; thus, hemothorax means blood in the chest. Py/o means pus; hence, pyothorax means pus in the chest. Pulm/o is not a combining form, so pulmothorax is not a medical term. Page Ref: 248 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

7.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) black lung B) exchange of gases between alveoli and blood C) medication to reduce stuffiness D) tapping on the surface of the body E) muscle for inhalation F) musical breath sound during exhalation G) excessive fluid is retained in the lung tissue H) voice box I) air moves into the lungs J) center region of the thoracic cavity K) condition in which patient produces thick mucus L) exchange of gases between blood and tissues M) one of the lung capacities N) throat O) visual exam of the bronchi P) bradypnea and hypopnea Q) a TB test R) blue tint to the skin S) anti-inflammatory medication T) condition that destroys walls of the alveoli U) air moves out of the lungs V) also called pyothorax W) whooping cough X) associated with exposure to quarrying and glasswork Y) lung X-ray after inserting radiopaque dye 1) external respiration Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) internal respiration Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) inhalation Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) exhalation Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) pharynx Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) larynx Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) mediastinum Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) diaphragm Page Ref: 235, 236 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) cyanosis Page Ref: 242 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) hypoventilation Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) percussion Page Ref: 253 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 12) rhonchi Page Ref: 243 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) pertussis Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) anthracosis Page Ref: 245 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) emphysema Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) CF Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 17) pulmonary edema Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) silicosis Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45

19) empyema Page Ref: 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) bronchoscopy Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 21) bronchography Page Ref: 249 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) Mantoux test Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 23) corticosteroid Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 24) decongestant Page Ref: 254 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 25) VC Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 4, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology Answers: 1) B 2) L 3) I 4) U 5) N 6) H 7) J 8) E 9) R 10) P 11) D 12) F 13) W 14) A 15) T 16) K 17) G 18) X 19) V 20) O 21) Y 22) Q 23) S 24) C 25) M

7.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the three distinct parts of the respiration process. Answer: 1. Ventilation • flow of air between the outside environment and the lungs • inhalation is the flow of air into the lungs; brings in fresh oxygen • exhalation is the flow of air out of the lungs; removes carbon dioxide 2. External respiration • exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide in the lungs • oxygen moves out of the air sacs and into the bloodstream • carbon dioxide moves out of the bloodstream and into the air sacs 3. Internal respiration • exchange of oxygen for carbon dioxide at the tissue level • oxygen leaves the bloodstream and enters the tissue • carbon dioxide leaves the tissue and enters the bloodstream Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe what pneumoconiosis is and the three types presented in the pathology table. Answer: Pneumoconiosis is a condition that develops as the result of inhaling environmental particles that become toxic. • Anthracosis—inhaling coal dust; also called black lung or miner's lung • Silicosis—inhaling silica (quartz) dust found in quarries, glasswork, sandblasting, and ceramics • Asbestosis—develops from inhaling asbestos fibers; may lead to the development of lung cancer Page Ref: 245, 247 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 8 Digestive System 8.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means anus is Answer: an/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) A combining form that means appendix is Answer: append/o; appendic/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means cheek is Answer: bucc/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means cecum is Answer: cec/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means gallbladder is Answer: cholecyst/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means common bile duct is Answer: choledoch/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form that means colon is Answer: col/o; colon/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) A combining form that means tooth is Answer: dent/o; odont/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means duodenum is Answer: duoden/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means small intestine is Answer: enter/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means esophagus is Answer: esophag/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2

12) The combining form that means stomach is Answer: gastr/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means gums is Answer: gingiv/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) A combining form that means tongue is Answer: gloss/o; lingu/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means liver is Answer: hepat/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) The combining form that means lip is Answer: labi/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means abdomen is Answer: lapar/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means mouth is Answer: or/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means pancreas is Answer: pancreat/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) The combining form that means anus and rectum is Answer: proct/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) The combining form that means pylorus is Answer: pylor/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) The combining form that means rectum is Answer: rect/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) The combining form that means salivary gland is Answer: sialaden/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The combining form that means sigmoid colon is Answer: sigmoid/o Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) The suffix that means vomit is Answer: -emesis Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) The suffix that means condition of stones is Answer: -lithiasis Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The suffix that means appetite is Answer: -orexia Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The suffix that means digestion is Answer: -pepsia Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

29) The suffix that means pertaining to a meal is Answer: -prandial Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 30) The suffix that means surgical crushing is Answer: -tripsy Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) A medical term that means pertaining to the anus is Answer: anal Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

32) A medical term that means pertaining to cheeks is Answer: buccal Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

33) A medical term that means pertaining to the colon and rectum is Answer: colorectal Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) A medical term that means pertaining to teeth is Answer: dental Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

35) A medical term that means pertaining to the duodenum is Answer: duodenal Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the small intestine is Answer: enteric Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) A medical term that means pertaining to the esophagus is Answer: esophageal Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6

38) A medical term that means pertaining to the stomach is Answer: gastric Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) A medical term that means pertaining to under the tongue is Answer: sublingual; hypoglossal Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) A medical term that means pertaining to the liver is Answer: hepatic Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 41) A medical term that means pertaining to the mouth is Answer: oral Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the pancreas is Answer: pancreatic Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43) A medical term that means pertaining to the throat is Answer: pharyngeal Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

44) A medical term that means pertaining to the pylorus is Answer: pyloric Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

45) A medical term that means pertaining to the sigmoid colon is Answer: sigmoidal Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 46) A medical term that means vomiting blood is Answer: hematemesis Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

47) A medical term that means absence of an appetite is Answer: anorexia Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

48) A medical term that means painful or difficult digestion is Answer: dyspepsia Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 49) A medical term that means unable to swallow (eat) is Answer: aphagia Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 50) A medical term that means after a meal is Answer: postprandial Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

8.2 True/False Questions 1) The gallbladder is an accessory organ of the digestive system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Nutrients from digested food are mainly absorbed in the large intestine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Nutrients from digested food are absorbed in the small intestine. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Accessory organs of the digestive system are connected to the gut by a duct. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The palate forms the floor of the oral cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The palate forms the roof of the oral cavity. Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Cementum helps to anchor teeth in their sockets. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Dentin in the teeth is the hardest substance in the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Enamel on the teeth is the hardest substance in the body. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) Air and food share sections of the pharynx. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) The pyloric sphincter is also called the cardiac sphincter. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The lower esophageal, not the pyloric, sphincter is also called the cardiac sphincter. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Peristalsis is a wave-like muscular contraction that propels food through the digestive system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The jejunum receives food from the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The duodenum, not the jejunum, receives food from the stomach. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) The evacuation of feces from the rectum is called defecation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Saliva mixes with food in the mouth to form chyme, which is swallowed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Saliva mixes with food in the mouth to form a bolus, not chyme, which is swallowed. Chyme is when food mixes with the gastric juices. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) The liver is located primarily in the right upper quadrant. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Ascites is the collection of fluid in the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ascites is the collection of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, not the stomach. Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) Pyrosis is another term for heartburn. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) Incontinence is the inability to control grinding your teeth. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Incontinence is the inability to control defecation. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) Emesis means to vomit. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) The crown of a tooth is below the gum line. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The crown of a tooth is above the gum line; the root is below the gum line. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Periodontics is a branch of dentistry that treats gum disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 20) Hematochezia means the passage of a dark and tarry stool. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hematochezia is the passage of bright red blood in the stool. Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) An implant is a device for anchoring a false tooth or dentures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) A diverticulum is a small growth attached to a mucous membrane by a stem. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A diverticulum is a pouch off the intestine. A polyp is a small growth attached to a mucous membrane by a stem. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) The third molar is the wisdom tooth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) In GERD, acid splashes from the stomach into the trachea. Answer: FALSE Explanation: GERD is gastroesophageal reflux disease. In this pathological condition, acid splashes from the stomach into the esophagus. Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 12

25) Herpes labialis causes fever blisters. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) Dental caries may lead to tooth loss. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) Esophageal varices may rupture and cause serious bleeding. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) Hepatitis is usually caused by a bacterial infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hepatitis is usually caused by a viral, not bacterial, infection. Page Ref: 291 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) Ileus is a problem resulting from an intestinal blockage. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 30) In an inguinal hernia, the intestine protrudes through the diaphragm. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In an inguinal hernia the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal. In a hiatal hernia the intestine protrudes through the diaphragm. Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

31) In volvulus, the intestine twists on itself, cutting off blood flow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 290 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Intussusception is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Intussusception is the correct spelling. Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 33) Irritable bowel syndrome is also called spastic colon. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) An elevated serum bilirubin indicates stomach disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An elevated serum bilirubin indicates liver, not stomach, disease. Page Ref: 293 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 35) A bitewing X-ray is of the teeth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 293 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 36) O&P is also called stool guaiac. Answer: FALSE Explanation: O&P stands for ova and parasites, a test for parasites or their eggs. A fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is also called a stool guaiac. Page Ref: 292 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

37) A stool culture is used to diagnose a bacterial infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 293 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 38) An UGI series examines the sigmoid colon. Answer: FALSE Explanation: UGI stands for upper gastrointestinal, which would be the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. A lower gastrointestinal series would examine the colon and rectum. Page Ref: 294 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 39) A laparoscopy examines inside the abdominal cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 294 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 40) Extraction means removing feces from the colon. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Extraction means removing a tooth. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 41) A root canal removes the pulp cavity in the root of a tooth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) An anal fistula is a crack-like split in the rectum or anal canal. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A fistula is an abnormal tube-like passage from the surface around the anal opening directly into the rectum. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

43) Gavage means to give a patient food through an NG tube. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) Gastric stapling is used to treat PUD. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Gastric stapling is used to treat obesity, not PUD. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 45) A cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 46) Proton pump inhibitors prevent the pancreas from secreting digestive enzymes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Proton pump inhibitors block the stomach's ability to secrete acid. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 47) A laxative is used to treat constipation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 48) An emetic prevents vomiting. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An emetic induces vomiting. An antiemetic treats nausea, vomiting, and motion sickness. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

49) A BE is the same as a lower GI series. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 293 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 50) Ascites is a parasitic infection of the intestines and colon. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ascites is fluid in the peritoneal cavity. Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 8.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which medical term means inflammation of appendix? A) appendicitis B) appenditis C) appendicopathy D) appendicosis Answer: A Explanation: Appendic/o means appendix and -itis means inflammation; therefore, appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix. Append/o does mean appendix, but appenditis is not the medical term we use. -pathy means disease, so appendicopathy means appendix disease. -osis means abnormal condition; thus, appendicosis would mean abnormal condition of the appendix. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 2) Which medical term means removal of gallbladder? A) choledochectomy B) cholecystectomy C) cholelithectomy D) cholelithiasis Answer: B Explanation: Cholecyst/o means gallbladder and -ectomy means surgical removal; therefore, cholecystectomy means surgical removal of the gallbladder. Choledoch/o means common bile duct, so choledochectomy means removal of the common bile duct. Cholelithectomy refers to gallstone removal. -lithiasis means condition of stones, so cholelithiasis is condition of gallstones. Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17

3) Which medical term means process of viewing colon? A) colostomy B) colonoscope C) colonoscopy D) coloscopy Answer: C Explanation: Colon/o means colon and -scopy means process of viewing; thus, colonoscopy means process of viewing the colon. Col/o means colon and -ostomy means surgically create an opening; therefore, colostomy is creating an opening into the colon. -scope means instrument to view; hence, colonoscope means instrument to view the colon. Coloscopy is not the medical term we use. Page Ref: 294 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 4) Which medical term means stomach pain? A) duodenalgia B) gingivalgia C) enteralgia D) gastralgia Answer: D Explanation: Gastr/o means stomach and -algia means pain; therefore, gastralgia means stomach pain. Duoden/o means duodenum, so duodenalgia means duodenal pain. Gingiv/o means gums, so gingivalgia means gum pain. Enter/o means small intestine, so enteralgia means small intestine pain. Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 5) Which medical term means surgical removal of stomach? A) gastroplasty B) gastrotomy C) gastrectomy D) gastrostomy Answer: C Explanation: Gastr/o means stomach and -ectomy means surgical removal; thus, gastrectomy means surgical removal of the stomach. -plasty means surgical repair, so gastroplasty means surgical repair of the stomach. -otomy means incision into; therefore, gastrotomy means incision into the stomach. -ostomy means surgically create an opening; hence, gastrostomy means create an opening into the stomach. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

6) Which medical term means pertaining to the third section of the small intestine? A) duodenal B) ileal C) cecal D) jejunal Answer: B Explanation: Ile/o means ileum and -al means pertaining to, so ileal means pertaining to the ileum, which is the third section of the small intestine. Duoden/o means duodenum, so duodenal means pertaining to the duodenum, which is the first section of the small intestine. Cec/o means cecum, so cecal means pertaining to the cecum, the first section of the colon. Jejun/o means jejunum, so jejunal means pertaining to the jejunum, the second portion of the small intestine. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 6, 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Which medical term means drooping of the rectum and anus? A) proctitis B) anocele C) proctoptosis D) anoptosis Answer: C Explanation: Proct/o means rectum and anus and -ptosis means drooping; therefore, proctoptosis means drooping of the rectum and anus. -itis means inflammation, so proctitis means inflammation of the rectum and anus. An/o means anus and -cele means protrusion, so anocele means protrusion of the anus. Anoptosis means drooping anus. Page Ref: 290 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8) Which medical term means slow digestion? A) tachypepsia B) dyspepsia C) apepsia D) bradypepsia Answer: D Explanation: Brady- means slow and -pepsia means digestion, so bradypepsia means slow digestion. Tachy- means fast, so tachypepsia means fast digestion. Dys- means difficult or painful, so dyspepsia would mean difficult or painful digestion. A- means without, so apepsia means without digestion. Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

9) Which medical term means excessive eating? A) polyphagia B) tachyphagia C) dysphagia D) polypepsia Answer: A Explanation: Poly- means excessive and -phagia means eat or swallow; therefore, polyphagia means excessive eating. Tachy- means fast, so tachyphagia would be fast eating. Dys- means difficult, so dysphagia would be difficulty eating (or swallowing). -pepsia means digestion, so polypepsia would be excessive digestion. Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 10) Which medical term means abnormal appetite? A) dyspepsia B) dysorexia C) dysphagia D) dysprandial Answer: B Explanation: Dys- means difficult or abnormal and -orexia means appetite, so dysorexia would be abnormal appetite. -pepsia means digestion, so dyspepsia would be difficult digestion. phagia means eat or swallow, so dysphagia means difficulty eating or swallowing. -prandial means meal, so if dysprandial were a medical term, it would mean difficult meal. Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 11) A is a small tumor on a stem attachment. A) polyp B) pyrosis C) melena D) denture Answer: A Explanation: A polyp is a small tumor on a stem attachment. Pyrosis is heartburn. Melena is the passage of a dark, tarry stool. A denture is false teeth. Page Ref: 290 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

12) The medical term for frequent, watery bowel movements is: A) cachexia. B) diarrhea. C) emesis. D) hematochezia. Answer: B Explanation: Diarrhea is the medical term for frequent, watery bowel movements. Cachexia is loss of weight and generalized wasting that occurs during a chronic disease. Emesis is the medical term for vomiting. Hematochezia is the passage of a bright, red blood in the stool. Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) The medical term for vomiting is: A) ascites. B) cachexia. C) emesis. D) melena. Answer: C Explanation: Emesis is the medical term for vomiting. Ascites is the medical term for an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. Cachexia is loss of weight and generalized wasting that occurs during a chronic disease. Melena is the passage of a dark, tarry stool. Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) A partial or complete set of artificial teeth is called a(n): A) bridge. B) crown. C) implant. D) denture. Answer: D Explanation: A denture is a partial or complete set of artificial teeth. A bridge is a dental appliance that is attached to adjacent teeth for support to replace missing teeth. A crown is an artificial covering for a tooth to replace the original crown. An implant is a prosthetic device placed in the jaw to which a tooth or denture may be anchored. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

15) The yellow cast to the skin that may indicate liver disease is called: A) jaundice. B) cachexia. C) melena. D) hematochezia. Answer: A Explanation: Jaundice is the yellow cast to the skin that may indicate liver disease. Cachexia is the loss of weight and generalized wasting that occurs during a chronic disease. Melena is the passage of a dark, tarry stool. Hematochezia is the passing of a bright, red blood in the stool. Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) An inguinal hernia is found in the: A) navel. B) groin. C) liver. D) stomach. Answer: B Explanation: An inguinal hernia is found in the groin. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) Which of the following terms is NOT spelled correctly? A) alimentary B) gut C) pancraes D) gastrointestinal Answer: C Explanation: The pancreas, not the pancraes, is one of the accessory organs of the digestive system. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

18) Which is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system? A) liver B) pancreas C) salivary gland D) anus Answer: D Explanation: The liver, pancreas, and salivary gland are all accessory organs of the digestive system, but the anus is not. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which is NOT a function of the digestive system? A) Distribute nutrients. B) Digest food. C) Absorb nutrients. D) Eliminate waste. Answer: A Explanation: Distributing nutrients is the job of the blood. Digesting food, absorbing nutrients, and eliminating waste are all functions of the digestive system. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) Approximately how long is the gastrointestinal tract? A) 10 feet B) 30 feet C) 18 feet D) 50 feet Answer: B Explanation: The gastrointestinal tract is approximately 30 feet long and stretches from the mouth to the anus. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

21) Saliva contains digestive enzymes to begin digesting: A) fats. B) cholesterol. C) carbohydrates. D) protein. Answer: C Explanation: Saliva contains digestive enzymes to begin digesting carbohydrates. Fats, cholesterol, and protein are not digested by saliva. Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Taste buds are located on the: A) uvula. B) palate. C) gums. D) tongue. Answer: D Explanation: Taste buds are found on the tongue. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) The gag reflex is located on the: A) uvula. B) palate. C) gums. D) tongue. Answer: A Explanation: The gag reflex is found on the uvula. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

24) Which of the following is NOT a grinding tooth? A) molars B) cuspids C) premolars D) bicuspids Answer: B Explanation: Cuspids are cutting teeth. Molars, premolars, and bicuspids all grind. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) The crown of a tooth is covered by: A) cementum. B) gingiva. C) enamel. D) dentin. Answer: C Explanation: The crown of the tooth is covered by enamel, the hardest substance in the body. The cementum anchors the tooth into the gum. Gingiva are the gums. Dentin is the substance that makes up the main bulk of the tooth. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) The portion of a tooth that is located below the gum line is the: A) dentin. B) crown. C) enamel. D) root. Answer: D Explanation: The portion of the tooth below the gum line is the root. Dentin is the substance that makes up the bulk of the tooth. The crown is the part of the tooth above the gum line. Enamel is the substance covering the crown. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

27) The proper name for the baby teeth is the teeth. A) deciduous B) permanent C) incisor D) molar Answer: A Explanation: Deciduous teeth are also known as baby teeth. Permanent teeth are the adult teeth. Incisors are cutting teeth, and molars are grinding teeth. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) The section of the pharynx associated with the mouth is the: A) laryngopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) hypopharynx. D) nasopharynx. Answer: B Explanation: The oropharynx is the part of the pharynx associated with the mouth. The laryngopharynx is the part associated with the larynx. Hypopharynx is not a part of the pharynx. The nasopharynx is the part of the pharynx associated with the nose. Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 29) The epiglottis shunts food into the: A) trachea. B) larynx. C) esophagus. D) pharynx. Answer: C Explanation: The epiglottis shunts food into the esophagus and away from the trachea. This occurs in the pharynx. Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

30) The folds in the lining of the stomach are called: A) chyme. B) rugae. C) fundus. D) sphincters. Answer: B Explanation: Rugae are the folds in the lining of the stomach. Chyme is digested food and gastric liquids mixed together. The fundus is the top part of the stomach. Sphincters keep food and gastric juices from regurgitating. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) The section of the stomach tapers off into the pyloric sphincter. A) body B) rugae C) antrum D) fundus Answer: C Explanation: The antrum section of the stomach tapers off into the pyloric sphincter. The body of the stomach is the main part of the stomach. Rugae are the folds in the lining of the stomach. The fundus is the top section of the stomach. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 32) The stomach secretes: A) saliva. B) sulfuric acid. C) water. D) hydrochloric acid. Answer: D Explanation: The stomach secretes hydrochloric acid. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

33) The partially digested liquid mixture in the stomach is called: A) chyme. B) rugae. C) ascites. D) antrum. Answer: A Explanation: The partially digested liquid mixture in the stomach is chyme. Rugae are the folds in the lining of the stomach. Ascites is an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. The antrum is the lower region of the stomach. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) The correct order of the three sections of the small intestine is: A) jejunum, duodenum, ileum. B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum. C) duodenum, ileum, jejunum. D) ileum, jejunum, duodenum. Answer: B Explanation: The correct order of the three sections of the small intestine is duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The other choices are incorrectly ordered. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) Food exits the stomach by passing through the: A) cardiac sphincter. B) lower esophageal sphincter. C) pyloric sphincter. D) hepatic sphincter. Answer: C Explanation: Food exits the stomach through the pyloric sphincter. Food enters the stomach through the lower esophageal, or cardiac, sphincter. There is not a hepatic sphincter on the stomach. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

36) The of the small intestine receives food from the stomach. A) cecum B) jejunum C) ileum D) duodenum Answer: D Explanation: The duodenum receives food from the stomach. The jejunum is the second section of the small intestine. The ileum is the third section of the small intestine. The cecum is the first part of the colon. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) Food leaving the small intestine first enters the of the colon. A) cecum B) sigmoid colon C) appendix D) ascending colon Answer: A Explanation: When food leaves the small intestine, it enters the cecum. The appendix is a pouch off of the cecum. The ascending colon is the next section of colon. The sigmoid colon is just before the rectum. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 38) The appendix is a small structure off the end of the: A) ileum. B) cecum. C) sigmoid colon. D) duodenum. Answer: B Explanation: The appendix is off the end of the cecum. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) Feces is stored in the prior to defecation. A) sigmoid colon B) anus C) rectum D) cecum Answer: C Explanation: The rectum is where feces are stored prior to passage through the anus. The sigmoid colon is the last section of colon before the rectum. The cecum is the first part of the colon. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) Which of the following is NOT a salivary gland? A) submandibular B) sublingual C) parotid D) buccal Answer: D Explanation: There is not a buccal salivary gland. Submandibular, sublingual, and parotid are all salivary glands. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 41) The liver produces to aid in digestion. A) bile B) amylase C) chyme D) buffers Answer: A Explanation: The liver produces bile. The salivary glands produce amylase. Chyme is the partially digested liquid mixture that leaves the stomach. Buffers are released by the pancreas. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

42) Emulsification breaks up into smaller particles. A) protein B) fat C) carbohydrates D) glucose Answer: B Explanation: Emulsification is the process of breaking fat into smaller particles. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43) The function of the gallbladder is to store: A) buffers. B) amylase. C) bile. D) glucose. Answer: C Explanation: The gallbladder stores bile that has been produced by the liver. Buffers are released by the pancreas. Amylase is released by the salivary glands. Glucose is regulated by the pancreas. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 44) The common bile duct empties into the: A) stomach. B) liver. C) gallbladder. D) duodenum. Answer: D Explanation: The common bile duct empties into the duodenum. The common bile duct comes from the liver and gallbladder. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

45) The pancreas secretes and buffers. A) enzymes B) bile C) chyme D) amylase. Answer: A Explanation: The pancreas secretes enzymes and buffers. The liver secretes bile. Chyme is a liquid mixture that forms in the stomach. Amylase is a digestive enzyme contained in saliva. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 46) Pancreatic enzymes do NOT digest: A) fat. B) protein. C) carbohydrates. D) acid. Answer: D Explanation: Pancreatic enzymes digest fat, protein, and carbohydrates. Buffers neutralize acidic chyme that has just left the stomach. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 47) Aphthous ulcers are found: A) on the lip. B) in the mouth. C) in the colon. D) in the stomach. Answer: B Explanation: Aphthous ulcers are found in the mouth. Fever blisters are found on the lip. Ulcerative colitis occurs in the colon. Gastric ulcers are found in the stomach. Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

48) Which of the following conditions is a congenital anomaly? A) appendicitis B) anal fistula C) cleft lip D) inguinal hernia Answer: C Explanation: Cleft lip is a congenital anomaly. The others are not. Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Peptic ulcer disease does NOT occur in the: A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) colon D) esophagus. Answer: C Explanation: Peptic ulcer disease occurs in the esophagus, stomach, and and/or duodenum. Ulcerative colitis occurs in the colon. Page Ref: 287 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 50) The Helicobacter pylori bacteria cause which of the following conditions? A) peptic ulcer disease B) ulcerative colitis C) aphthous ulcers D) hemorrhoids Answer: A Explanation: H. pylori bacteria cause peptic ulcer disease. The cause of ulcerative colitis is unknown. The cause of aphthous ulcers is unknown. Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the rectum and anus. Page Ref: 287 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

51) The twisting of the colon on itself is called: A) intussusception. B) volvulus. C) hemorrhoids. D) hiatal hernia. Answer: B Explanation: Volvulus is the twisting of the colon on itself. Intussusception is one part of the intestine slipping into another section of the intestine just below it. Hemorrhoids are varicose veins around the anus. Hiatal hernia is the protrusion of the stomach through the diaphragm. Page Ref: 290 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) Crohn's disease affects the: A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) ileum. D) common bile duct. Answer: C Explanation: Crohn's disease affects the ileum and/or colon. The stomach and duodenum are affected by peptic ulcer disease. The common bile duct can be blocked by gallstones. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 53) An outpouching off the gut is called a(n): A) hemorrhoid. B) ileus. C) anal fistula. D) diverticulum. Answer: D Explanation: A diverticulum is an outpouching off the gut. A hemorrhoid is a varicose vein around the anus. An ileus is the result of an intestinal blockage. An anal fistula is an abnormal tube-like passage from the surface around the anal opening directly into the rectum. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

54) A diaphragmatocele is also called a(n): A) polyp. B) hiatal hernia. C) inguinal hernia. D) esophageal varices. Answer: B Explanation: A diaphragmatocele is also known as a hiatal hernia, a protrusion of the stomach through the diaphragm. A polyp is a small tumor on an attachment on a mucous membrane. An inguinal hernia is protrusion of intestines into the groin. Esophageal varices are varicose veins in the esophagus. Page Ref: 287 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) Cirrhosis is a general name for chronic disease of the: A) colon. B) pancreas. C) liver. D) gallbladder. Answer: C Explanation: Cirrhosis is a general name for chronic disease of the liver. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 291 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 56) Which of the following conditions is characterized by diarrhea, often with blood and mucus? A) diverticulitis B) volvulus C) Crohn's disease D) dysentery Answer: D Explanation: Dysentery is characterized by diarrhea, often with mucus and blood. Diverticulitis is an inflamed colon. A volvulus is where the colon twists on itself. Crohn's disease is chronic and results in scarring and thickening of the gut wall. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

57) An abnormal tube-like passage is called a: A) fistula. B) fissure. C) diverticulum. D) polyp. Answer: A Explanation: An abnormal tube-like passage is called a fistula. A fissure would be a crack. A diverticulum is an outpouching. A polyp is a tumor on a stem. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 58) An elevated alanine transaminase level indicates A) liver B) stomach C) colon D) pancreas Answer: A Explanation: Alanine transaminase is a liver enzyme. Page Ref: 292 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

disease.

59) Which X-ray would be used to visualize the gallbladder? A) intravenous cholecystography B) upper GI series C) cholangiography D) lower GI series Answer: A Explanation: An intravenous cholecystography is an X-ray of the gallbladder after intravenous dye is administered. An upper GI series looks at the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. A cholangiography examines the hepatic duct, common bile duct, and pancreatic duct. A lower GI series examines the colon and rectum. Page Ref: 293 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

60) Which of the following endoscopic exams would be used to view inside a section of the colon? A) gastroscopy B) sigmoidoscopy C) laparoscopy D) esophagoscopy Answer: B Explanation: A sigmoidoscopy examines the inside of the sigmoid colon. A gastroscopy examines the inside of the stomach. A laparoscopy examines the inside of the abdomen. An esophagoscopy would examine the inside of the esophagus. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 61) Which of the following procedures provides the patient with intravenous nutrition? A) total parenteral nutrition B) gavage C) nasogastric intubation D) lavage Answer: A Explanation: Total parenteral nutrition provides the patient with intravenous nutrition. Gavage provides feedings through a tube into the stomach. Nasogastric intubation is the passage of a tube through the nose into the stomach for many reasons, including gavage and lavage. Lavage is washing out the stomach. Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 62) Which procedure uses a nasogastric tube to wash out the stomach? A) gastroscopy B) lavage C) gavage D) total parenteral nutrition Answer: B Explanation: Lavage washes out the stomach. Gastroscopy is a visualization of the inside of the stomach. Gavage is placing liquid nourishment directly into the stomach. Total parental nutrition is providing 100% of a patient's nutrition intravenously. Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

63) Which of the following surgical procedures would treat stones in the digestive system? A) hernioplasty B) exploratory laparotomy C) diverticulectomy D) choledocholithotripsy Answer: D Explanation: A choledocholithotripsy is the surgical crushing of gallstones in the common bile duct. A hernioplasty would be a hernia repair. An exploratory laparotomy is an incision into the abdomen for the purpose of examining it. A diverticulectomy removes a diverticulum. Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which of the following surgical procedures would remove an abnormal passageway? A) diverticulectomy B) hemorrhoidectomy C) colectomy D) fistulectomy Answer: D Explanation: A fistulectomy removes a fistula, an abnormal passageway. A diverticulectomy removes a diverticulum, an outpouching. A hemorrhoidectomy removes a hemorrhoid, a varicose vein. A colectomy removes the colon. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 65) Which of the following surgical procedures would treat obesity? A) gastric stapling B) anastomosis C) laparoscopic cholecystectomy D) hernioplasty Answer: A Explanation: Gastric stapling treats obesity. An anastomosis connects two structures. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy removes the gallbladder. A hernioplasty repairs a hernia. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

66) Which surgical term means to surgically create a connection between two structures? A) colostomy B) anastomosis C) extraction D) proctoplasty Answer: B Explanation: An anastomosis connects two structures. A colostomy is the creation of an opening into the colon. An extraction is the removal of a tooth. A proctoplasty is the surgical repair of the rectum and anus. Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which medication is used to treat constipation? A) antiemetic B) antacid C) laxative D) anorexiant Answer: C Explanation: A laxative treats constipation. An antiemetic treats nausea and vomiting. An antacid treats heartburn. An anorexiant suppresses the appetite. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 68) Which medication is used to treat nausea and vomiting? A) antiemetic B) antacid C) laxative D) anorexiant Answer: A Explanation: An antiemetic treats nausea and vomiting. An antacid treats heartburn. A laxative treats constipation. An anorexiant suppresses the appetite. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

69) Which medication is used to treat obesity? A) antiemetic B) antacid C) laxative D) anorexiant Answer: D Explanation: An anorexiant suppresses the appetite. An antiemetic treats nausea and vomiting. An antacid treats heartburn. A laxative treats constipation. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 70) Which medication is used to neutralize stomach acid? A) antiemetic B) antacid C) laxative D) anorexiant Answer: B Explanation: An antacid neutralizes stomach acid. An antiemetic treats nausea and vomiting. A laxative treats constipation. An anorexiant suppresses appetite. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 71) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition? A) GERD B) FOBT C) NG D) O&P Answer: A Explanation: GERD stands for gastroesophageal reflux disease, a pathological condition. FOBT stands for fecal occult blood test, a diagnostic test. NG stands for nasogastric. O&P stands for ova and parasites, a diagnostic test. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11, 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

72) Which abbreviation stands for a lab test? A) n&v B) IBS C) UGI D) O&P Answer: D Explanation: O&P stands for ova and parasites, a lab test. n&v stands for nausea and vomiting. IBS stands for irritable bowel syndrome, a pathological condition. UGI stands for upper gastrointestinal series, a diagnostic test. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which abbreviation stands for after meals? A) FOBT B) UGI C) pc D) NG Answer: C Explanation: pc is the abbreviation for after meals. FOBT stands for fecal occult blood test. UGI stands for upper gastrointestinal series. NG stands for nasogastric. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 74) Which abbreviation stands for nothing by mouth? A) IBS B) NPO C) NG D) n&v Answer: B Explanation: NPO stands for nothing by mouth. IBS stands for irritable bowel syndrome. NG stands for nasogastric. n&v stands for nausea and vomiting. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

75) Which abbreviation stands for an X-ray? A) UGI B) NPO C) NG D) PO Answer: A Explanation: UGI stands for upper gastrointestinal series, an X-ray. NPO stands for nothing by mouth. NG stands for nasogastric. PO stands for by mouth. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

8.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) dark, tarry stool B) by mouth C) washing out the stomach with an NG tube D) spastic colon E) outpouching off the colon F) a diagnostic X-ray G) folds in the stomach H) diaphragmatocele I) gallstones J) lab test for blood in the stool K) gums L) upper section of stomach M) before meals N) cutting tooth O) enzyme to digest carbohydrates P) set of artificial teeth Q) cold sore R) varicose veins S) dental cavities T) loss of appetite U) lab test for parasitic infection V) a liver enzyme W) bright red blood in the stool X) heartburn Y) after a meal 1) incisor Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) rugae Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) amylase Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) gingiva Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) fundus Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) anorexia Page Ref: 284 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 7) pyrosis Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 8) hematochezia Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 9) melena Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) caries Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) denture Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 12) herpes labialis Page Ref: 286 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) UGI Page Ref: 294 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 14) hemorrhoid Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) diverticulum Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) hiatal hernia Page Ref: 287 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) irritable bowel syndrome Page Ref: 289 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) cholelithiasis Page Ref: 291 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45

19) FOBT Page Ref: 292 Learning Obj.: 11, 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 20) O&P Page Ref: 293 Learning Obj.: 11, 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 21) aspartate transaminase Page Ref: 292 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) postprandial Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) lavage Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 24) PO Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 25) ac Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 1) N 2) G 3) O 4) K 5) L 6) T 7) X 8) W 9) A 10) S 11) P 12) Q 13) F 14) R 15) E 16) H 17) D 18) I 19) J 20) U 21) V 22) Y 23) C 24) B 25) M

8.5 Short Answer Questions 1) What is the definition of an accessory organ of the digestive system? List them and describe the function of each. Answer: Accessory organs of the digestive system are not physically part of the continuous alimentary canal that stretches from the mouth to the anus. They are attached to the gut by a duct. The accessory organs are the salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. • Salivary glands contain water, lubricants, and amylase to soften food. They make it easier to swallow and to begin carbohydrate digestion. • The liver secretes bile to emulsify fats. • The gallbladder stores bile for the liver. • The pancreas secretes buffers that neutralize acidic chyme leaving the stomach and digestive enzymes that digest carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Page Ref: 278-280 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) What are endoscopic procedures? Why is the digestive system especially good for using these procedures? Give examples. Answer: Endoscopic procedures use a fiberoptic light and camera to visually examine inside hollow or tubular organs using an instrument called a scope. Because the digestive system is a hollow tube that stretches from the mouth to the anus, it is possible to examine much of the insides. Commonly performed endoscopic procedures include gastroscopy, sigmoidoscopy, laparoscopy, esophagogastroduodenoscopy, and colonoscopy. It is also possible to perform some surgical procedures using endoscopic instruments. An example is a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Page Ref: 294, 295 Learning Obj.: 8, 3 Taxonomy: Applying Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 9 Urinary System 9.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means nitrogenous waste is Answer: azot/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means bacteria is Answer: bacteri/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means urinary bladder is Answer: cyst/o Page Ref: 312, 313 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means glomerulus is Answer: glomerul/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) A combining form that means sugar or glucose is Answer: glycos/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means ketones is Answer: keton/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means stone is Answer: lith/o Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means meatus is Answer: meat/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) A combining form that means kidney is Answer: nephr/o; ren/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means night is Answer: noct/i Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means scanty is Answer: olig/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means renal pelvis is Answer: pyel/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means urine is Answer: ur/o; urin/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means ureter is Answer: ureter/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means urethra is Answer: urethr/o Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The suffix that means stone is Answer: -lith Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The suffix that means condition of stones is Answer: -lithiasis Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The suffix that means drooping is Answer: -ptosis Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The suffix that means surgical crushing is Answer: -tripsy Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) The suffix that means urine condition is Answer: -uria Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) A medical term that means bladder pain is Answer: cystalgia Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

22) A medical term that means surgical removal of the bladder is Answer: cystectomy Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 23) A medical term that means bladder inflammation is Answer: cystitis Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

24) A medical term that means surgically create an opening into the bladder is Answer: cystostomy Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 4

25) A medical term that means surgical repair of the bladder is Answer: cystoplasty Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

26) A medical term that means surgical crushing of a stone is Answer: lithotripsy Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

27) A medical term that means X-ray record of the kidney is Answer: nephrogram Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

28) A medical term that means an abnormally soft kidney is Answer: nephromalacia Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

29) A medical term that means drooping kidney is Answer: nephroptosis Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 30) A medical term that means cutting into a kidney is Answer: nephrotomy Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

31) A medical term that means kidney disease is Answer: nephropathy Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

32) A medical term that means surgical fixation of the kidney is Answer: nephropexy Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

33) A medical term that means condition of kidney stones is Answer: nephrolithiasis Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

34) A medical term that means X-ray record of the renal pelvis is Answer: pyelogram Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

35) A medical term that means surgical repair of the renal pelvis is Answer: pyeloplasty Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 36) A medical term that means pertaining to the kidney is Answer: renal Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) A medical term that means study of the urinary system is Answer: urology Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 6

38) A medical term that means pertaining to the ureter is Answer: ureteral Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) A medical term that means ureter dilation is Answer: ureterectasis Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

40) A medical term that means narrowing of a ureter is Answer: ureterostenosis Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

41) A medical term that means pertaining to the urethra is Answer: urethral Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 42) A medical term that means urethral pain is Answer: urethralgia Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

43) A medical term that means instrument to visually examine the urethra is Answer: urethroscope Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

44) A medical term that means narrowing of the urethra is Answer: urethrostenosis Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 45) A medical term that means pertaining to urine is Answer: urinary Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

46) A medical term that means condition of no urine is Answer: anuria Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

47) A medical term that means condition of difficult or painful urination is Answer: dysuria Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 48) A medical term that means condition of blood in the urine is Answer: hematuria Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

49) A medical term that means condition of scanty amount of urine is Answer: oliguria Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 50) A medical term that means condition of pus in the urine is Answer: pyuria Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8

9.2 True/False Questions 1) Another name for the urinary system is the genitourinary system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) The main function of the urinary system is to maintain the proper body pH. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The main function of the urinary system is to remove waste from the blood. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The ureters carry urine from the kidney to the bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The ureters carry urine to the outside of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The urethra carries urine to the outside of the body. The ureters carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) The kidneys are in the retroperitoneal location. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Another name for glomerular capsule is nephron capsule. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Another name for glomerular capsule is Bowman's capsule. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) The plural of calyx is calyces. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 8) Afferent is a term that means away from. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Afferent means toward; efferent means away from. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The passageways of the urinary system are lined with mucous membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 317 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The internal bladder sphincter is under voluntary control. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The external, not internal, sphincter is under voluntary control. Page Ref: 316 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Rugae are folds that allow the bladder to stretch. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 316 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) The renal corpuscle consists of the glomerulus and loop of Henle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The renal corpuscle is made of the Bowman's capsule, which encases the glomerulus. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) The peritubular capillaries surround the renal tubules. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Urine collecting in the bladder is sterile. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Urine is 95% water. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) There are two urethras and one ureter. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are two ureters and one urethra. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) A urinalysis is the physical and chemical analysis of urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Under normal circumstances, urine has a slightly basic pH. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Under normal circumstances, urine has a slightly acidic, not basic, pH. Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Concentrated urine has a higher specific gravity than more dilute urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) The external opening of the ureter is the meatus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The external opening of the urethra, not ureter, is the meatus. Page Ref: 317 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) The functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) The outer portion of the kidney is called the renal medulla. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The outer portion of the kidney is called the cortex. The inner portion of the kidney is the medulla. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) Each renal papilla empties urine into a calyx. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) The urethra is longer in women than in men. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The urethra is longer in men than in women. Page Ref: 317 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

25) Another name for the loop of Henle is the nephron loop. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) Diuresis is an involuntary discharge of urine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Incontinence is the involuntary discharge of urine. Diuresis is the increased formation and secretion of urine. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) Calculus is another term for a stone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) Acute tubular necrosis is caused by a kidney infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Acute tubular necrosis is caused by toxins in the urine or ischemia. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) A flexible tube inserted into the body is a catheter. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 30) Urinary retention is the complete suppression of urine formation by the kidneys. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Urinary retention is the inability to fully empty the bladder. Anuria is the complete suppression of urine formation by the kidneys and a complete lack of urine excretion. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

31) Voiding is another term for micturition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 316 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 32) Hydronephrosis is caused by an accumulation of calculi in the kidney. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hydronephrosis is caused by an accumulation of urine in the kidney, often caused by an obstruction of a ureter. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) Diabetic nephropathy results from damage to the glomerulus capillaries due to chronic high blood sugars. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) Nephroptosis results in the formation of multiple cysts within the kidney tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Nephroptosis is a downward displacement of the kidney. Polycystic kidneys have multiple cysts within kidney tissue. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 35) Wilms' tumor most often occurs in children. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) A cystocele is the bulging of the vagina into the urinary bladder, causing it to collapse. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cystocele is the bulging of the urinary bladder into the vagina. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14

37) A common cause of a bladder neck obstruction in males is an enlarged prostate gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Urinary incontinence is a decrease in the force of the urine stream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hesitancy is a decrease in the force of the urine stream. Urinary incontinence is the involuntary release of urine. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) UTIs usually begin in the bladder and may ascend the ureters to the kidneys. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) A clean catch specimen collects urine that is NOT contaminated by coming into contact with the meatus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A catheter specimen collects urine that is not contaminated by coming into contact with the meatus. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 41) A neurogenic bladder may be caused by a spinal cord injury. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) In a retrograde pyelography, the dye is injected into the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a retrograde pyelography, the dye is inserted through the urethra. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 15

43) A flat-plate abdomen is another name for an X-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) Cystoscopy is a visual examination of the kidney. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cystoscopy is a visual examination of the urinary bladder. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 45) A catheterization inserts a flexible tube through the urethra and into the urinary bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 46) A meatotomy is a surgical procedure to enlarge the opening of the ureter. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A meatotomy is an incision into the meatus to enlarge the opening of the urethra. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) Antispasmodic medication is used to treat bladder spasms. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 333 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 48) Diuretic medication is used to treat urinary incontinence. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diuretic medication increases the volume of urine produced by the kidneys. Page Ref: 333 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

49) The abbreviation K+ stands for potassium. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 334 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 50) The abbreviation KUB stands for kidneys, urethra, bladder. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation KUB stands for kidneys, ureters, bladder, not urethra. Page Ref: 334 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 9.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The name of the condition when waste products are allowed to build up in the blood is: A) anuria. B) uremia. C) pyuria. D) hematuria. Answer: B Explanation: Uremia is the condition in which waste products are allowed to build up in the blood. Anuria is the condition where there is a complete suppression of urine formed by the kidneys and a complete lack of urine excretion. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Hematuria is blood in the urine. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 2) Urine production takes place in the: A) nephrons. B) bladder. C) ureter. D) renal pelvis. Answer: A Explanation: Urine production takes place in the nephrons. It is collected in the renal pelvis, emptied into the ureter, and then into the bladder. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

3) Which of the following is NOT an organ of the urinary system? A) kidney B) bladder C) urethra D) liver Answer: D Explanation: The liver is part of the digestive system. The kidney, bladder, and urethra are part of the urinary system. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The renal blood vessels enter and leave the kidney at the: A) cortex. B) renal papilla. C) medulla. D) hilum. Answer: D Explanation: The renal blood vessels enter and leave the kidney at the hilum. The cortex is the outer portion of the kidney. The renal papilla is the tip of the renal pyramids. The medulla is the inner area of the kidney. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) The renal papilla empties urine into the: A) renal pelvis. B) calyx. C) nephron. D) ureter. Answer: B Explanation: The renal papilla empties urine into the calyx. The calyx empties urine into the renal pelvis, which empties urine into the ureter. The nephron is where urine is produced. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

6) The correct order for the renal tubules is: A) proximal convoluted tubule, collecting duct, distal convoluted tubule, and loop of Henle. B) distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct. C) proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct. D) collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule. Answer: C Explanation: The correct order for the renal tubules is proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting duct. The other choices are not ordered correctly. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) In homeostasis, the kidneys regulate all of following EXCEPT the: A) level of electrolytes. B) amount of water in the body. C) pH. D) volume of blood in the body. Answer: D Explanation: In homeostasis, the kidneys regulate the level of electrolytes, amount of water in the body, and pH. The kidneys are not involved in determining the body's blood volume. Page Ref: 317 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Which stage of urine production involves the removal of substances from the bloodstream? A) reabsorption B) excretion C) filtration D) secretion Answer: C Explanation: Filtration removes substances from the bloodstream. Reabsorption is where water and nutrients are reabsorbed to be put back into the bloodstream. Excretion is not a stage of urine production. Secretion is when ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances are secreted directly into the renal tubule. Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

9) Which stage of urine production involves returning water, nutrients, and electrolytes to the bloodstream? A) filtration B) excretion C) secretion D) reabsorption Answer: D Explanation: Reabsorption is when water, nutrients, and electrolytes are returned to the bloodstream. Filtration removes substances from the bloodstream. Secretion is when ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances are added directly to the renal tubule. Excretion is not a stage of urine production. Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Which stage of urine production involves adding ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances directly into the renal tubule? A) reabsorption B) filtration C) secretion D) excretion Answer: C Explanation: Secretion is when ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances are secreted directly into the renal tubule. Reabsorption is when water, nutrients, and electrolytes are returned to the bloodstream. Filtration removes substances from the bloodstream. Excretion is not a stage of urine production. Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Under normal circumstances, which of the following substances should be found in urine? A) glucose B) blood C) albumin D) nitrogenous wastes Answer: D Explanation: Under normal circumstances, only nitrogenous wastes should be found in the urine. Glucose, blood, and albumin should not be found in urine. Page Ref: 319, 320 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

12) Which of the following findings would you expect in a normal urinalysis? A) trace amounts of protein B) cloudy appearance C) trace levels of ketones D) a few red blood cells Answer: A Explanation: Trace amounts of protein may be found in a normal urinalysis. Cloudy appearance, trace level of ketones, and a few red blood cells should not be found. Page Ref: 319, 320 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 13) The presence of ketones in the urine may indicate: A) diabetes. B) kidney infection. C) anemia. D) renal failure. Answer: A Explanation: The presence of ketones in the urine may indicate poorly controlled diabetes. Bacteria or glucose may indicate infection. Blood may indicate anemia. Page Ref: 319, 320 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) A pregnant woman with preeclampsia may have in her urine. A) glucose B) bacteria C) protein D) blood Answer: C Explanation: Protein may be found in the urine of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia. Page Ref: 320 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

15) Which of the following terms does NOT refer to the release of urine from the body? A) micturition B) voiding C) urination D) reabsorption Answer: D Explanation: Reabsorption refers to the second stage in the production of urine. Micturition, voiding, and urination all mean releasing urine from the body. Page Ref: 318, 319 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Which of the following combining forms is misspelled? A) glomeral/o B) glycos/o C) meat/o D) pyel/o Answer: A Explanation: Glomeral/o should be spelled glomerul/o. The other combining forms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 312 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 17) Which of the following suffixes is misspelled? A) -lithiasis B) -urea C) -tripsy D) -ptosis Answer: B Explanation: -urea should be spelled -uria. The other suffixes are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

18) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) uretheral B) ureteral C) cystorrhagia D) urinometer Answer: A Explanation: Uretheral should be spelled urethral. The other terms are correctly spelled. Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 19) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) nephroma B) lithotomy C) cystopexy D) nephrolitheasis Answer: D Explanation: Nephrolitheasis should be spelled nephrolithiasis. The other terms are correctly spelled. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 20) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) pyelitis B) nephroectomy C) nephrosis D) cystectomy Answer: B Explanation: Nephroectomy should be spelled nephrectomy. The other terms are correctly spelled. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

21) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) anuria B) glycosuria C) oligouria D) proteinuria Answer: C Explanation: Oligouria should be spelled oliguria. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 22) Which of the following kidney structures empties into the ureter? A) renal pelvis B) calyx C) renal papilla D) renal pyramid Answer: A Explanation: The renal pelvis empties into the ureter. The renal pyramid's tip is the renal papilla, which opens into the calyx. The calyx is continuous with the renal pelvis. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) Which of the following structures is part of the renal corpuscle? A) glomerulus B) loop of Henle C) nephron loop D) proximal convoluted tubule Answer: A Explanation: The glomerulus is part of the renal corpuscle. The loop of Henle, the nephron loop, and the proximal convoluted tubule are all parts of the renal tubule. Page Ref: 315 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

24) Which of the following molecules is NOT an electrolyte? A) Na+ B) K+ C) ClD) H2O Answer: D Explanation: H2O is water, which is not an electrolyte. Na+ is sodium, K+ is potassium, and Clis chloride; these are all electrolytes. Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) Specific gravity indicates: A) the amount of blood in the urine. B) the amount of water in the urine. C) the amount of dissolved substances in the urine. D) the amount of acid in the urine. Answer: C Explanation: Specific gravity is the amount of dissolved substances in the urine. Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) Which of the following terms means kidney stone? A) nephrogram B) nephrolith C) nephroma D) nephrotomy Answer: B Explanation: Nephr/o means kidney and -lith means stone; therefore, nephrolith means kidney stone. -gram means record, so nephrogram means record of kidney. -oma means tumor, so nephroma means kidney tumor. -otomy means incision into, so nephrotomy is incision into kidney. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

27) Which of the following terms means surgical repair of the bladder? A) cystostomy B) cystopexy C) cystoplasty D) cystoscope Answer: C Explanation: Cyst/o means bladder and -plasty means surgical repair; therefore, cystoplasty means surgical repair of the bladder. -ostomy means surgically create an opening, so cystostomy is creating an opening into the bladder. -pexy means surgical fixation; thus, cystopexy means surgical fixation of the bladder. -scope means instrument to visually examine, so cystoscope means instrument to visually examine the bladder. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 28) Which of the following terms means drooping kidney? A) nephroptosis B) nephrosis C) nephrostomy D) nephromegaly Answer: A Explanation: Nephr/o means kidney and -ptosis means drooping. -osis means abnormal condition, so nephrosis means abnormal kidney condition. -ostomy means surgically create an opening, so nephrostomy means to create an opening into the kidney. -megaly means enlarged, so nephromegaly means enlarged kidney. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 29) Which of the following terms means abnormal kidney softening? A) nephritis B) nephrosclerosis C) nephroptosis D) nephromalacia Answer: D Explanation: Nephr/o means kidney and -malacia means abnormal softening, so nephromalacia means abnormal kidney softening. -itis means inflammation, so nephritis means kidney inflammation. -sclerosis means hardening, so nephrosclerosis means kidney hardening. -ptosis means drooping, so nephroptosis means kidney drooping. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

30) Which of the following terms means pain in the urethra? A) urethralgia B) urethritis C) ureterectasis D) ureteralgia Answer: A Explanation: Urethr/o means urethra and -algia means pain; thus, urethralgia means pain in the urethra. -itis means inflammation, so urethritis means inflammation in the urethra. Ureter/o means ureter and -ectasis means dilation, so ureterectasis means ureter dilation. -algia means pain, so ureteralgia means ureter pain. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 31) Which of the following terms means renal pelvis inflammation? A) renitis B) pyeloplasty C) pyelitis D) pyelogram Answer: C Explanation: Pyel/o means renal pelvis and -itis means inflammation; thus, pyelitis means renal pelvis inflammation. Ren/o means kidney, so renitis would be kidney inflammation. -plasty means surgical repair; therefore, pyeloplasty means surgical repair of the renal pelvis. -gram means record, so pyelogram means record of the renal pelvis. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 32) Which of the following terms means condition of blood in the urine? A) hematuria B) pyuria C) glycosuria D) dysuria Answer: A Explanation: Hemat/o means blood and -uria means urine condition; therefore, hematuria means condition of blood in the urine. Py/o means pus, so pyuria would be condition of pus in the urine. Glycos/o means sugar; thus, glycosuria is the condition of sugar in the urine. Dys- means difficult or painful, so dysuria means condition of difficult or painful urination. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

33) Which of the following terms means condition of difficult urination? A) polyuria B) ketonuria C) anuria D) dysuria Answer: D Explanation: Dys- means difficult and -uria means urine condition, so dysuria means condition of difficult urination. Poly- means excessive, so polyuria would be condition of excessive urination. Keton/o means ketones, so ketonuria would be condition of ketones in the urine. Anmeans without, so anuria would mean condition of no urine. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 34) Which of the following terms means condition of scanty amount of urine? A) polyuria B) nocturia C) oliguria D) dysuria Answer: C Explanation: Olig/o means scanty and -uria means condition of urine, so oliguria is condition of scanty urine. Poly- means excessive; thus, polyuria is condition of excessive urination. Noct/i means night, so nocturia is condition of nighttime urination. Dys- means difficult; therefore, dysuria means condition of difficult urination. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 35) is the accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the bloodstream. A) Azotemia B) Calculus C) Micturition D) Renal colic Answer: A Explanation: Azotemia is the accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the bloodstream. Calculus is a stone. Micturition is another name for urination. Renal colic is the pain associated with a kidney stone. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

36) is a greater than normal occurrence of the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total daily volume of urine. A) Hesitancy B) Frequency C) Enuresis D) Diuresis Answer: B Explanation: Frequency is a greater than normal occurrence of the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total volume of urine. Hesitancy is a decrease in the force of the urine stream, often with difficulty initiating the flow. Enuresis is the involuntary discharge of urine after the age by which bladder control should have been established. Diuresis is increased formation and excretion of urine. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) is feeling the need to urinate immediately. A) Micturition B) Frequency C) Urgency D) Stricture Answer: C Explanation: Urgency is feeling the need to urinate immediately. Micturition is another term for urination. Frequency is a greater than normal occurrence of the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total volume of urine. Stricture is a narrowing of a passageway. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) is the pain associated with a kidney stone. A) Stricture B) Micturition C) Uremia D) Renal colic Answer: D Explanation: Renal colic is the pain associated with a kidney stone. A stricture is a narrowing of a passageway. Micturition is another term for urination. Uremia is the accumulation of waste products in the blood. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

39) A is the narrowing of a passageway in the urinary system. A) stricture B) catheter C) nephrolith D) calculus Answer: A Explanation: A stricture is the narrowing of a passageway. A catheter is a flexible tube inserted into the body. Nephrolith is a kidney stone. A calculus is a stone formed within an organ by an accumulation of mineral salts. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following conditions allows red blood cells and protein to enter the filtrate? A) nephrolithiasis B) glomerulonephritis C) nephroptosis D) polycystic kidneys Answer: B Explanation: Glomerulonephritis is a condition that allows red blood cells and protein to enter the filtrate. Nephrolithiasis is a condition of kidney stones. Nephroptosis is a drooping kidney. Polycystic kidneys create a condition in which multiple cysts form within the kidney tissue. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Which of the following conditions is commonly called a floating kidney? A) nephromegaly B) nephrolithiasis C) nephroptosis D) nephrotic syndrome Answer: C Explanation: Nephroptosis is commonly called a floating kidney. Nephromegaly is an enlarged kidney. Nephrolithiasis is the condition of having kidney stones. Nephrotic syndrome is damage to the glomerulus resulting in protein appearing in the urine, proteinuria, and the corresponding decrease in protein in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

42) Renal cell carcinoma occurs in which kidney cells? A) glomerular cells B) cortex cells C) renal pelvis cells D) tubule cells Answer: D Explanation: Renal cell carcinoma arises in the tubule cells. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) A neurogenic bladder results in: A) urinary retention. B) urinary incontinence. C) anuria. D) protein in the urine. Answer: A Explanation: A neurogenic bladder is loss of nervous control that leads to retention. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) Hematuria may be a symptom of: A) urinary retention. B) bladder cancer. C) enuresis. D) renal failure. Answer: B Explanation: Hematuria is a major sign of bladder cancer. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) In a cystocele, the bladder bulges into the: A) colon. B) urethra. C) vagina. D) kidney. Answer: C Explanation: A cystocele occurs when the bladder bulges into the vaginal wall. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 31

46) Which of the following conditions affects the renal pelvis? A) glomerulonephritis B) nephrolithiasis C) renal cell carcinoma D) pyelonephritis Answer: D Explanation: Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis. Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the kidney primarily in the glomerulus. Nephrolithiasis is having kidney stones. Renal cell carcinoma arises from kidney tubule cells. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 47) A patient with nephrolithiasis is suffering from: A) stones. B) an infection. C) cancer. D) renal failure. Answer: A Explanation: Nephrolithiasis is the condition of having kidney stones. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) Which of the following conditions is a kidney infection? A) interstitial cystitis B) glomerulonephritis C) meatitis D) urethritis Answer: B Explanation: Glomerulonephritis affects the kidneys. Interstitial cystitis affects the bladder. Meatitis affects the meatus. Urethritis affects the urethra. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

49) Which of the following terms refers to frequent nighttime urination? A) azotemia B) urgency C) nocturia D) diuresis Answer: C Explanation: Nocturia is frequent nighttime urination. Azotemia is nitrogenous waste in the bloodstream. Urgency is feeling the need to urinate immediately. Diuresis is an increase in the formation and excretion of urine. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 50) Which of the following terms refers to an unusually large volume of urine? A) oliguria B) anuria C) dysuria D) polyuria Answer: D Explanation: Polyuria refers to an unusually large volume of urine. Oliguria refers to a scanty amount of urine. Anuria refers to no urine. Dysuria refers to difficulty urinating. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 51) Which of the following clinical laboratory tests measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood? A) blood urea nitrogen B) creatinine clearance C) urinalysis D) culture and sensitivity Answer: A Explanation: Blood urea nitrogen measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood. Creatinine clearance tests kidney function. Urinalysis is the physical and chemical examination of urine. Culture and sensitivity tests for bacterial growth and, if present, the antibiotics to which it is sensitive. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

52) Which of the following clinical laboratory tests requires the collection of urine for 24 hours? A) clean catch specimen B) creatinine clearance C) blood urea nitrogen D) culture and sensitivity Answer: B Explanation: Creatinine clearance requires the collection of urine over 24 hours. A clean catch specimen and culture and sensitivity can be done from one void. Blood urea nitrogen requires one venipuncture. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 53) Which of the following clinical laboratory tests can identify an infection? A) blood urea nitrogen B) culture and sensitivity C) creatinine clearance D) clean catch specimen Answer: B Explanation: A culture and sensitivity can identify an infection. Blood urea nitrogen is testing for the amount of nitrogenous waste in the bloodstream. Creatinine clearance is testing for the amount of creatinine in the urine. Clean catch specimen is a urine sample collected in a way that minimizes contamination. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 54) involves taking X-rays to trace the action of the kidney as it expels a dye injected into the bloodstream. A) Cystography B) Retrograde pyelogram C) Excretory urography D) Renography Answer: C Explanation: Excretory urography involves injecting dye into the bloodstream and then taking X-rays to trace the action of the kidney as it excretes the dye. Cystography is the process of placing dye in the bladder by catheter and taking an X-ray. Retrograde pyelogram is a diagnostic X-ray in which dye is inserted through the urethra to outline the bladder, ureters, and renal pelvis. Renography is not a diagnostic procedure listed. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

55) visualizes the bladder with X-rays after instilling dye directly into the bladder. A) Cystography B) Intravenous pyelogram C) Cystoscopy D) Excretory urography Answer: A Explanation: A cystography visualizes the bladder with X-rays after instilling dye directly into the bladder. An intravenous pyelogram involves injecting contrast medium intravenously and then taking an X-ray to visualize the renal pelvis. A cystoscopy is a visual examination of the bladder. Excretory urography is injecting dye into the bloodstream and taking an X-ray to trace the action of the kidney as it excretes the dye. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 56) Which of the following X-rays visualizes the renal pelvis with dye? A) BUN B) EU C) IVP D) KUB Answer: C Explanation: An IVP stands for intravenous pyelogram, an X-ray that visualizes the renal pelvis. A BUN stands for blood urea nitrogen, a blood test. EU stands for excretory urography, an X-ray to trace the action of the kidney as it excretes the dye. KUB stands for kidneys, ureters, bladder, an X-ray of said organs. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 57) Which of the following X-rays involves injecting a dye into the bladder? A) cystography B) intravenous pyelogram C) excretory urography D) nephrogram Answer: A Explanation: A cystography involves injecting a dye directly into the bladder. An intravenous pyelogram and excretory urography involve injecting a dye into the bloodstream. A nephrogram does not involve the use of dye. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

58) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy uses to treat kidney stones. A) X-rays B) ultrasound C) radio waves D) surgery Answer: B Explanation: Ultrasound waves are used to break up stones in extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 59) Which of the following therapeutic measures uses an artificial kidney machine? A) catheterization B) lithotripsy C) hemodialysis D) peritoneal dialysis Answer: C Explanation: Hemodialysis uses an artificial kidney machine to filter waste products from the blood. Peritoneal dialysis is used to treat renal failure without a kidney machine. A catheterization is used to withdraw urine or insert dye. Lithotripsy is used to treat kidney stones. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 60) Which of the following therapeutic measures is used to treat renal failure? A) catheterization B) extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy C) culture and sensitivity D) peritoneal dialysis Answer: D Explanation: Peritoneal dialysis is used to treat renal failure. A catheterization is used to withdraw urine or insert dye. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy is used to treat kidney stones. A culture and sensitivity is used to identify a bacterial infection and what antibiotics can treat it. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

61) Which of the following terms means surgical crushing of a stone? A) lithotripsy B) lithotomy C) lithomegaly D) lithomalacia Answer: A Explanation: Lith/o means stone and -tripsy means surgical crushing; thus, lithotripsy means surgical crushing of a stone. -otomy means cutting into, so lithotomy means cutting into an organ to remove a stone. -megaly means enlargement; therefore, lithomegaly means enlarged stone. malacia means abnormal softening; hence, lithomalacia means stone softening. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 62) Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of the bladder? A) cystotomy B) cystoplasty C) cystectomy D) cystopexy Answer: D Explanation: Cyst/o means bladder and -pexy means surgical fixation; therefore, cystopexy means surgical fixation of the bladder. -otomy means cutting into; hence, cystotomy means cutting into the bladder. -plasty means surgical repair, so cystoplasty means surgical repair of the bladder. -ectomy means surgical removal; thus, cystectomy means surgical removal of the bladder. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 63) Which of the following terms means enlarged kidney? A) nephromalacia B) nephromegaly C) nephrostenosis D) nephrosclerosis Answer: B Explanation: Nephr/o means kidney and -megaly means enlarged; therefore, nephromegaly means enlarged kidney. -malacia means abnormal softening, so nephromalacia means an abnormally soft kidney. -stenosis means narrowing; thus, nephrostenosis means kidney narrowing. -sclerosis means hardening; thus, nephrosclerosis means kidney hardening. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

64) Which of the following terms means kidney tumor? A) nephrosis B) nephropathy C) nephroma D) nephromegaly Answer: C Explanation: Nephr/o means kidney and -oma means tumor, so nephroma means kidney tumor. osis means abnormal condition; therefore, nephrosis means abnormal condition of the kidney. pathy means disease; thus, nephropathy means kidney disease. -megaly means enlarged; hence, nephromegaly means enlarged kidney. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 65) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) ureterral B) pyelitis C) nephrolithiasis D) hemodialysis Answer: A Explanation: Ureterral should be spelled ureteral. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 66) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) enuresis B) diuresis C) urethrrhagia D) incontinence Answer: C Explanation: Urethrrhagia should be spelled urethrorrhagia. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

67) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) glomerulonephritis B) nephroptosis C) cystoscopy D) urinalosis Answer: D Explanation: Urinalosis should be spelled urinalysis. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 68) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) hemidialysis B) azotemia C) micturition D) retention Answer: A Explanation: Hemidialysis should be spelled hemodialysis. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 69) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) urologist B) nephroectomy C) cystorrhagia D) glycosuria Answer: B Explanation: Nephroectomy should be spelled nephrectomy. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

70) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT an electrolyte? A) K+ B) HCO3C) Na+ D) NS Answer: D Explanation: NS stands for nephrotic syndrome, a pathological condition. K+ stands for potassium, HCO3- stands for bicarbonate, and Na+ stands for sodium, and they are all electrolytes. Page Ref: 334 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 71) Which of the following abbreviations is a blood test? A) BUN B) ATN C) KUB D) UTI Answer: A Explanation: BUN stands for blood urea nitrogen, a blood test. ATN stands for acute tubular necrosis, a pathological condition. KUB stands for kidneys, ureters, bladder, an X-ray. UTI stands for urinary tract infection, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 333 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 72) Which of the following abbreviations is an X-ray? A) GU B) KUB C) CRF D) C&S Answer: B Explanation: KUB stands for kidneys, ureters, bladder, an X-ray. GU stands for genitourinary. CRF stands for chronic renal failure, a pathological condition. C&S stands for culture and sensitivity, a diagnostic test. Page Ref: 334 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

73) Which of the following abbreviations is a lab test? A) HD B) I&O C) UA D) NS Answer: C Explanation: UA stands for urinalysis, a lab test. HD stands for hemodialysis, a therapeutic procedure. I&O stands for intake and output. NS stands for nephrotic syndrome, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 334 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 74) Which of the following abbreviations is an X-ray of the renal pelvis? A) ESRD B) KUB C) BNO D) IVP Answer: D Explanation: IVP stands for intravenous pyelogram, an X-ray of the renal pelvis. ESRD stands for end-stage renal disease, a pathological condition. KUB stands for kidneys, ureters, bladder, an X-ray of said organs. BNO stands for bladder neck obstruction, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 334 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Which of the following abbreviations is a treatment for kidney stones? A) ESWL B) ARF C) BUN D) UTI Answer: A Explanation: ESWL stands for extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy, a treatment for kidney stones. ARF stands for acute renal failure, a pathological condition. BUN stands for blood urea nitrogen, a blood test. UTI stands for urinary tract infection, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 333 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

9.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) chemical and physical examination of urine B) narrow passageway C) a kidney X-ray D) waste accumulates in the blood E) urination F) inner portion of the kidney G) pain caused by a kidney stone H) maintaining balance in the body I) one stage of urine production J) incontinence K) a stone L) caused by high blood sugar M) functional unit of the kidney N) a flexible tube O) blood test of kidney function P) decrease in force of urine stream Q) tip of a renal pyramid R) carries urine away from the kidney S) by-product of muscle metabolism T) an infection U) a bleeding condition V) no urine formed W) increased formation of urine X) a tumor Y) floating kidney 1) nephron Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) medulla Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) secretion Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 42

4) nitrogenous waste Page Ref: 319 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) diuresis Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 6) calculus Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 7) micturition Page Ref: 316 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) anuria Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 9) renal colic Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) uremia Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) enuresis Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12) hesitancy Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) nephroptosis Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) diabetic nephropathy Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) stricture Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) papilla Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) ureter Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) homeostasis Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 44

19) cystorrhagia Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) nephroma Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) catheter Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) UA Page Ref: 328, 334 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 23) BUN Page Ref: 328, 333 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 24) UTI Page Ref: 327, 334 Learning Obj.: 9, 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) IVP Page Ref: 329, 334 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures Answers: 1) M 2) F 3) I 4) S 5) W 6) K 7) E 8) V 9) G 10) D 11) J 12) P 13) Y 14) L 15) B 16) Q 17) R 18) H 19) U 20) X 21) N 22) A 23) O 24) T 25) C

9.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the three stages of urine production. Be sure to include how each stage relates to the structure of the nephron and why the composition of urine reveals information regarding the health of the body. Answer: 1. Filtration • First stage is the filtering of the blood • Occurs in the renal corpuscle • Removes water, sugar, amino acids, electrolytes, and other materials from the blood by moving the fluid out of the glomerulus and into Bowman's capsule 2. Reabsorption • Begins after filtration when the filtrate passes through the four sections of the tubule • Most of the water and some of the desirable substances, such as glucose and amino acids, are reabsorbed into the bloodstream 3. Secretion • Final stage of urine production • Occurs in the renal tubules • Ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances are added to the filtrate from the bloodstream Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe calculi. Include what they are, where they can be found, at least two ways they can be diagnosed, and two ways they can be treated. Answer: • Calculus is a stone formed from the accumulation of mineral salts. • Forms in either the kidney or bladder, but may also become lodged in the ureter or urethra when a person tries to pass them. • Diagnosed by any of the X-rays of the urinary organs, such as an IVP or retrograde pyelogram, or by cystoscopy. • Treated by surgery (nephrolithotomy) or by extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy. Page Ref: 323, 326 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 10 Reproductive System 10.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means amnion is Answer: amni/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means cervix is Answer: cervic/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means chorion is Answer: chori/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) A combining form that means vagina is Answer: colp/o; vagin/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means cul-de-sac is Answer: culd/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means embryo is Answer: embry/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) A combining form that means vulva is Answer: episi/o; vulv/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means fetus is Answer: fet/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) A combining form that means female is Answer: estr/o; gynec/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means hymen is Answer: hymen/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) A combining form that means uterus is Answer: uter/o; hyster/o; metr/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means milk is Answer: lact/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) A combining form that means breast is Answer: mamm/o; mast/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means menses is Answer: men/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means birth is Answer: nat/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) A combining form that means ovary is Answer: oophor/o; ovari/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means egg is Answer: o/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means perineum is Answer: perine/o Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means male is Answer: andr/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) The combining form that means glans penis is Answer: balan/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) The combining form that means hidden is Answer: crypt/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) The combining form that means epididymis is Answer: epididym/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A combining form that means testes is Answer: orch/o; orchi/o; orchid/o; testicul/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) The combining form that means prostate is Answer: prostat/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) The combining form that means sperm is Answer: spermat/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) The combining form that means penis is Answer: pen/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

27) The combining form that means vas deferens is Answer: vas/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

28) The combining form that means seminal vesicle is Answer: vesicul/o Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

29) The suffix that means condition of sperm is Answer: -spermia Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) The suffix that means state of pregnancy is Answer: -cyesis Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) The suffix that means pregnant woman is Answer: -gravida Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

32) The suffix that means to bear (offspring) is Answer: -para Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

33) The suffix that means resembling is Answer: -oid Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

34) The suffix that means uterine tube is Answer: -salpinx Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) A suffix that means childbirth is Answer: -partum; -tocia Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the amnion is Answer: amniotic Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) A medical term that means pertaining to the cervix is Answer: cervical Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6

38) A medical term that means pertaining to the chorion is Answer: chorionic Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) A medical term that means pertaining to the fetus is Answer: fetal Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) A medical term that means pertaining to milk is Answer: lactic Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

41) A medical term that means pertaining to the embryo is Answer: embryonic Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the breast is Answer: mammary Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

43) A medical term that means pertaining to the ovary is Answer: ovarian Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

44) A medical term that means pertaining to the uterus is Answer: uterine Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

45) A medical term that means pertaining to the vagina is Answer: vaginal Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

46) A medical term that means pertaining to the epididymis is Answer: epididymal Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

47) A medical term that means pertaining to the prostate is Answer: prostatic Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 48) A medical term that means pertaining to sperm is Answer: spermatic Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

49) A medical term that means pertaining to the testes is Answer: testicular Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 50) A medical term that means pertaining to the seminal vesicle is Answer: vesicular Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8

10.2 True/False Questions 1) Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland stimulate ovulation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 348, 349 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) The breasts provide nourishing milk for the embryo. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The breasts provide nourishing milk for the newborn, not the embryo. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The plural of ovum is ova. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 4) The finger-like projections off the ovary are called fimbriae. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The fimbriae are finger-like projections off the uterine tube, not the ovary. Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Menopause marks the end of the childbearing years. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) When the uterus is bent slightly forward it is called retroflexion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: When the uterus is bent slightly forward it is called anteflexion, not retroflexion. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) Bartholin's glands secrete mucus as a lubricant for intercourse. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Crowning is when the buttocks of the baby appear first in the birth canal. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Crowning is when the head, not the buttocks, of the baby appear first in the birth canal. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The milk glands in the breast are called lactiferous glands. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The last stage of labor and delivery is the expulsion stage. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The placental stage is the last stage of labor and delivery. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) The male reproductive system can also be referred to as the genitourinary system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) The perineum in the male stretches from the urethral meatus to the anus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The perineum in the male stretches from the scrotum to the anus. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) Ejaculation releases sperm from the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) The prostate gland is also known as Cowper's gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The bulbourethral glands, not the prostate gland, are also known as Cowper's glands. Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Identical twins develop from a single fertilized ovum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Gynecology is the branch of medicine specializing in pregnancy and childbirth. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Obstetrics, not gynecology, is the branch of medicine specializing in pregnancy and childbirth. Page Ref: 359 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 17) Multigravida refers to a woman who has had two or more pregnancies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 359 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) A cystocele occurs when the uterus protrudes into the urethra. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cystocele occurs when the bladder protrudes into the vagina. Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 11

19) A condom is an example of barrier contraception. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 20) Pelvic inflammatory disease is an overwhelming staphylococcus infection associated with wearing super-absorbent tampons. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Toxic shock syndrome, not pelvic inflammatory disease, is an overwhelming staphylococcus infection associated with wearing super-absorbent tampons. Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) Candidiasis is a yeast infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) An abortifacient is a medication used to prevent a spontaneous abortion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An abortifacient is a medication that terminates a pregnancy. Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 23) A D&C dilates the cervix to scrape the inside of the uterus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 24) The abbreviation GI means first delivery. Answer: FALSE Explanation: GI stands for first pregnancy, not delivery. Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 12

25) A radical mastectomy removes breast tissue, chest muscles, and the axillary lymph nodes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 26) Postpartum is a term that means before birth. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Postpartum means after birth. Antepartum means before birth. Page Ref: 359 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) Infertility is generally defined as no pregnancy after properly timed intercourse for one year. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 363 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) A fibroid tumor is a cancerous tumor of the uterus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A fibroid tumor is a tumor that is a benign growth. Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) The term metrorrhagia can be used to refer to bleeding that occurs between menstrual periods. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 360 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 30) If placenta previa occurs, the placenta tears away from the uterine wall. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Abruptio placentae is when the placenta tears away from the uterine wall. Page Ref: 362 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

31) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is also called erythroblastosis fetalis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 363 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) A Pap smear is able to detect a pregnancy during the first few weeks. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A Pap smear is a test for the early detection of cancer of the cervix. Page Ref: 365 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 33) Fetal monitoring checks the fetal heart rate during labor. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 366 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 34) Tubal ligation is the common phrase for a vasectomy. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tubal ligation is surgical tying-off of the uterine tubes, resulting in sterilization. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 35) An orchidopexy procedure may be required to permanently correct cryptorchidism. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 36) A hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid that presses on and may collapse the vagina. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid around the testes or the spermatic cord. Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

37) A severe case of phimosis may require circumcision as a treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 38) HIV is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection affecting the immune system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: HIV is the abbreviation for human immunodeficiency virus, a sexually transmitted virus, not bacteria, which affects the immune system. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 39) The former common name for STDs is venereal disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 40) PSA is a blood test for testicular cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, a blood test for prostate, not testicular, cancer. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 41) A digital rectal exam involves palpating the prostate gland through the rectal wall. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) The glans penis is commonly called the foreskin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prepuce, not the glans penis, is commonly called the foreskin. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

43) A TURP removes portions of the prostate gland through the urethra. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) Antiprostatic agents are medications used to treat early stages of prostate cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Antiprostatic agents are medications used to treat early cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia, not prostate cancer. Page Ref: 382 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 45) Circumcision is the surgical removal of the prepuce. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 46) Ovarian cysts are precancerous. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ovarian cysts are cysts that develop within the ovary that may rupture, causing pain and bleeding. Page Ref: 360 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 47) Hysterorrhexis is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 48) Perimetrioitis is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Perimetrioitis should be spelled perimetritis. Page Ref: 362 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

49) Cryptorchidism is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 50) Salpingosighesis is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Salpingosighesis should be spelled salpingocyesis. Page Ref: 364 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 10.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which medical term means amnion flow? A) amniorrhea B) amniocentesis C) amniotomy D) amniorrhagia Answer: A Explanation: Amni/o means amnion and -rrhea means flow; therefore, amniorrhea means amnion flow. -centesis means puncture to withdraw fluid; thus, amniocentesis means puncture to withdraw fluid from the amnion. -otomy means cutting into; hence, amniotomy means cutting into the amnion. -rrhagia means abnormal flow condition, so amniorrhagia means abnormal flow from the amnion. Page Ref: 359 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 2) Which medical term means instrument to view inside vagina? A) culdoscope B) colposcope C) culdoscopy D) cervicoscope Answer: B Explanation: Colp/o means vagina and -scope means instrument for viewing, so colposcope means instrument for viewing inside the vagina. Culd/o means cul-de-sac, so culdoscope means instrument for viewing the cul-de-sac. -scopy means process of viewing, so culdoscopy means process of viewing the cul-de-sac. Cervic/o means cervix, so cervicoscope means instrument for viewing the cervix. Page Ref: 365 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17

3) Which medical term means suture the vulva? A) episisectomy B) episiorrhea C) episiorrhaphy D) episiotomy Answer: C Explanation: Episi/o means vulva and -rrhaphy means suture; therefore, episiorrhaphy means suture the vulva. Episisectomy is not a correctly spelled medical term. -rrhea means discharge; hence, episiorrhea means discharge from the vulva. -otomy means cutting into, so episiotomy means cutting into the vulva. Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 4) Which medical term means surgical fixation of uterus? A) uteroplasty B) uterostomy C) hysterectomy D) hysteropexy Answer: D Explanation: Hyster/o means uterus and -pexy means surgical fixation, so hysteropexy means surgical fixation of uterus. Uter/o means uterus and -plasty means surgical repair; therefore, uteroplasty means surgical repair of uterus. -ostomy means surgically create an opening; thus, uterostomy means surgically create an opening into uterus. -ectomy means surgical removal; hence, hysterectomy means surgical removal of the uterus. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 5) Which medical term means record of the breast? A) mammogram B) mastalgia C) mastitis D) mammoplasty Answer: A Explanation: Mamm/o means breast and -gram means record; therefore, mammogram means record of the breast. Mast/o means breast and -algia means pain, so mastalgia means breast pain. -itis is inflammation; thus, mastitis means inflammation of the breast. -plasty means surgical repair, so mammoplasty means surgical repair of the breast. Page Ref: 365 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

6) Which medical term means scanty menstrual flow? A) dysmenorrhea B) oligomenorrhea C) amenorrhea D) bradymenorrhea Answer: B Explanation: Olig/o means scanty, men/o means menstruation, and -rrhea means flow; therefore, oligomenorrhea means scanty menstrual flow. Dys- means painful, so dysmenorrhea means painful menstrual flow. A- means without, so amenorrhea means without menstrual flow. Brady- means slow, so bradymenorrhea would mean slow menstrual flow. Page Ref: 360 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 7) Which medical term means pus in the uterine tube? A) fallopyogenic B) dysosalpinx C) pyosalpinx D) hematosalpinx Answer: C Explanation: Py/o means pus and -salpinx means uterine tube, so pyosalpinx means pus in the uterine tube. Fallopyogenic is not a medical term. Dysosalpinx is not a medical term. Hemat/o means blood, so hematosalpinx means blood in the uterine tube. Page Ref: 360 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8) Which medical term means first birth? A) primigravida B) nullipara C) multigravida D) primipara Answer: D Explanation: Primi- means first and -para means to bear, so primipara means first birth. gravida means pregnant woman, so primigravida means first pregnancy. Nulli- means none, so nullipara would be no births. Multi- means more than one, so multigravida would mean more than one pregnancy. Page Ref: 359 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

9) Which medical term means surgical fixation of testes? A) orchidopexy B) orchioplasty C) orchiotomy D) orchidectomy Answer: A Explanation: Orchid/o means testes and -pexy means surgical fixation, so orchidopexy means surgical fixation of testes. Orchi/o means testes and -plasty means surgical repair, so orchioplasty means surgical repair of testes. -otomy means cutting into; thus, orchiotomy means cutting into testes. -ectomy means surgical removal, so orchidectomy means surgical removal of testes. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 10) Which medical term means condition of no sperm? A) spermatolytic B) aspermia C) oligospermia D) spermatogenic Answer: B Explanation: A- means without and -spermia means condition of sperm, so aspermia means condition of having no sperm. Spermat/o means sperm and -lytic means destruction; therefore, spermatolytic means destruction of sperm. Olig/o means scanty; thus, oligospermia means scanty amount of sperm. -genic means producing; hence, spermatogenic means producing sperm. Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 11) The female external genitalia are collectively referred to as the: A) vulva. B) vagina. C) clitoris. D) cervix. Answer: A Explanation: The female external genitalia are collectively referred to as the vulva. The clitoris is part of the external genitalia. The cervix and vagina are part of the internal genitalia. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

12) Which is NOT a function of the female reproductive system? A) produce ova B) location for fertilization C) nourish newborn D) store the sperm for maturation Answer: D Explanation: Storing sperm for maturation is a function of the male reproductive system. Producing ova, location for fertilization, and nourishing the newborn are all functions of the female reproductive system. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the ovary? A) follicle-stimulating hormone B) estrogen C) luteinizing hormone D) fundus Answer: B Explanation: Estrogen is secreted by the ovary. Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are secreted by the anterior pituitary and act on the ovary. The fundus is not a hormone; it is the upper portion of the uterus between the uterine tubes. Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Uterine tubes connect the: A) uterus and cervix. B) uterus and vagina. C) ovaries and uterus. D) ovaries and cervix. Answer: C Explanation: Uterine tubes connect the ovaries and uterus. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

15) The first menstrual period is called: A) menopause. B) primimenorrhea. C) menstruation. D) menarche. Answer: D Explanation: Menarche is the first menstrual period. Menopause is the end of menstrual activity. Primimenorrhea is not a medical term. Menstruation refers to the menstrual period. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) The middle layer of the uterus is called the: A) myometrium. B) perimetrium. C) endometrium. D) mesometrium. Answer: A Explanation: Myometrium is the middle layer of the uterus. Perimetrium is the outer layer of the uterus. Endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus. Mesometrium is not a layer of the uterus. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) The upper portion of the uterus is called the: A) cervix. B) fundus. C) body. D) fimbriae. Answer: B Explanation: The fundus is the upper part of the uterus. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus. The body is the middle portion of the uterus. Fimbriae are the fingerlike projections at the end of the uterine tube by the ovary. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

18) The thin membrane that covers the external vaginal opening of some females is called the: A) urethra. B) labium majora. C) hymen. D) clitoris. Answer: C Explanation: The thin membrane over the vaginal opening of some females is the hymen. The urethra is the internal tube leading from the bladder to the meatus. The labium majora is part of the external genitalia. The clitoris is part of the external genitalia and is the erectile tissue in women. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which of the following statements regarding the vagina is NOT true? A) serves as the birth canal B) receives the penis during intercourse C) outlet for menstrual flow D) branches into the urethra Answer: D Explanation: The vagina does not branch into the urethra. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) Which of the following statements regarding the vulva is NOT true? A) The perineum extends from the clitoris to the anus. B) Urinary meatus is protected by the labia majora. C) The clitoris is erectile tissue. D) The labia minora is a fold of skin. Answer: A Explanation: The perineum does not extend from the clitoris to the anus; it extends from the vagina to the anus. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

21) The pigmented area around the nipple of the breast is called the: A) lactiferous duct. B) lactiferous gland. C) areola. D) mammary gland. Answer: C Explanation: The areola is the pigmented area around the nipple. The lactiferous duct is inside the breast. The lactiferous, or mammary, gland is inside the breast. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) The length of typical human gestation is: A) 42 weeks. B) 30 weeks. C) 36 weeks. D) 40 weeks. Answer: D Explanation: The length of typical human gestation is 40 weeks. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) A premature infant is born prior to the completion of weeks of gestation. A) 37 B) 25 C) 38 D) 40 Answer: A Explanation: An infant is considered premature if it is born before the end of 37 weeks' gestation. At 38 weeks, an infant is considered term. Forty weeks is the typical length of human gestation. An infant born before completion of 25 weeks may not be viable outside the uterus. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

24) Until the end of the eighth week of gestation, the infant is called a(n): A) neonate. B) embryo. C) zygote. D) fetus. Answer: B Explanation: From the time of implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus to the end of the eighth week of gestation, the unborn child is called an embryo. From fertilization to implantation, the unborn child is called a zygote. After the eighth week until birth, the unborn child is called a fetus. A neonate is a newborn. Page Ref: 353, 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) Which of the following is the longest period of gestation in which organs grow and mature? A) umbilical B) uterine C) fetal D) embryonic Answer: C Explanation: The fetal period is the longest period of gestation. The embryonic period is approximately 8 weeks. Umbilical and uterine are not gestational periods. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the: A) amnion. B) chorion. C) endometrium. D) placenta. Answer: D Explanation: The umbilical cord connects the fetus to the placenta. The amnion and chorion are the membranes of the placenta. The placenta is attached to the endometrium. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

27) The is the inner membranous sac surrounding the fetus. A) amnion B) placenta C) endometrium D) chorion Answer: A Explanation: The amnion is the inner membranous sac surrounding the fetus. The placenta is the organ that forms next to the fetus and provides nourishment to it. The chorion is the outer membranous sac surrounding the fetus and is on the placenta side. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) The first stage of labor and delivery is called the stage. A) expulsion B) dilation C) effacement D) placental Answer: B Explanation: The first stage of labor and delivery is called the dilation stage, the second stage is the expulsion stage, and the third stage is the placental stage. There is not an effacement stage of labor and delivery. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 29) The expulsion stage of labor and delivery ends with: A) delivery of placenta. B) full dilation of cervix. C) delivery of infant. D) effacement. Answer: C Explanation: The expulsion stage ends with delivery of the infant. During the dilation stage, dilation and effacement of the cervix occurs, and this stage ends with full dilation of the cervix. The placental stage ends with delivery of the placenta. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

30) A common time for congenital anomalies to occur is: A) immediately following childbirth. B) in the last trimester of pregnancy. C) in early childhood. D) during the embryo stage. Answer: D Explanation: Congenital anomalies, or birth defects, often occur during the embryo stage when organs and organ systems are forming. The other choices are not correct. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) The male reproductive system and the urinary system share which organ? A) urethra B) ureter C) bladder D) prostate gland Answer: A Explanation: The male reproductive system uses the urethra for sperm to travel through. The urinary system uses the urethra for urine to travel through. The ureter and bladder are only used in the urinary system, and the prostate gland is only used in the male reproductive system. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 32) The male reproductive system has pairs of the following organs EXCEPT the: A) vas deferens. B) prostate gland. C) epididymis. D) seminal vesicle. Answer: B Explanation: The male reproductive system has one prostate gland. The vas deferens, epididymis, and seminal vesicles come in pairs. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

33) Spermatogenesis occurs in the: A) seminal vesicle. B) prostate gland. C) seminiferous tubules. D) epididymis. Answer: C Explanation: Spermatogenesis, the production of sperm, occurs in the seminiferous tubules. The seminal vesicles secrete a glucose-rich fluid that nourishes sperm. The prostate gland secretes an alkaline fluid that assists in keeping the sperm alive by neutralizing the pH of the urethra and vagina. The epididymis serves as the location for sperm maturation and storage until they are ready to be released into the vas deferens. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) The testes are located in the scrotum: A) for proper alignment of the spermatic cord. B) for proper testosterone production. C) for protection. D) because spermatogenesis requires a lower temperature. Answer: D Explanation: Sperm production requires a lower temperature than that of the body, which is why the testes are located in the scrotum. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) After spermatogenesis, sperm are stored in the: A) epididymis. B) vas deferens. C) urethra. D) seminal vesicle. Answer: A Explanation: After sperm production, sperm is stored in the epididymis for maturation. The vas deferens carries sperm from the epididymis into the pelvic cavity. Sperm travels through the urethra to exit the body. The seminal vesicle secretes a glucose-rich fluid that nourishes sperm. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

36) The tip of the penis is called the: A) prepuce. B) glans penis. C) shaft of the penis. D) penile gland. Answer: B Explanation: The tip of the penis is the glans penis. The prepuce is the foreskin. The shaft of the penis is the penis itself. There is not a structure called the penile gland. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) Which structure is NOT part of the spermatic cord? A) nerves B) arteries C) urethra D) vas deferens Answer: C Explanation: The urethra is not part of the spermatic cord. The spermatic cord is made up of the vas deferens, nerves, arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels running between the pelvic cavity and the testes. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 38) Which of the following is NOT one of the male reproductive glands? A) bulbourethral B) prostate C) seminal vesicle D) cystic Answer: D Explanation: Cystic means pertaining to a cyst. The bulbourethral, prostate, and seminal vesicle are all male reproductive glands. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) Which of the following choices would NOT be a function of the secretions of the male reproductive glands? A) activate sperm B) nourish sperm C) neutralize acidic pH D) lubrication Answer: A Explanation: Activating sperm is not a function of the secretions of the male reproductive glands. Nourishing sperm, neutralizing acidic pH, and lubrication are all functions of the secretions of the male reproductive glands. Page Ref: 374, 375 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) The vas deferens connects: A) epididymis to bladder. B) epididymis to urethra. C) testes to penis. D) testes to urethra. Answer: B Explanation: The vas deferens connects the epididymis to the urethra. The vas deferens goes over the top of the bladder; it doesn't connect to it. The epididymis lies on top of the testes in the scrotum, and the urethra is inside the penis. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 41) BPH is enlargement of the: A) prostate gland. B) breast. C) penis. D) prepuce. Answer: A Explanation: BPH stands for benign prostatic hyperplasia, which is enlargement of the prostate gland. It does not involve enlargement of the breast, penis, or prepuce. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

42) A varicocele occurs in the veins. A) testicular B) spermatic cord C) penile D) urethral Answer: B Explanation: A varicocele is an enlargement of the veins of the spermatic cord. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) A persistent and painful erection is called: A) erectile dysfunction. B) balanitis. C) priapism. D) phimosis. Answer: C Explanation: A priapism is a persistent and painful erection. Erectile dysfunction is the inability to engage in sexual intercourse due to the inability to maintain an erection. Balanitis is an inflammation of the glans penis. Phimosis is a narrowing of the foreskin over the glans penis. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) A constriction of the prepuce is called: A) priapism. B) cryptorchidism. C) epispadias. D) phimosis. Answer: D Explanation: A phimosis is a constriction of the prepuce. A priapism is a painful and persistent erection. Cryptorchidism is a failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac before birth. Epispadias is the congenital opening of the urethra on the dorsal surface of the penis. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

45) A congenital condition in which the urethra opens on the top side of the penis is called: A) epispadias. B) hydrocele. C) cystocele. D) hypospadias. Answer: A Explanation: Epispadias is the congenital condition in which the urethra opens on the top side, or dorsal surface, of the penis. A hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid around the testes or along the spermatic cord. A cystocele is the protrusion of the bladder into the vagina. Hypospadias is the congenital opening of the urethra on the underside of the penis. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) Which of the following is NOT an STD? A) chlamydia B) gonorrhea C) eclampsia D) trichomoniasis Answer: C Explanation: Eclampsia is a life-threatening condition of pregnancy. Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis are all sexually transmitted diseases. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 47) The thin, watery fluid first secreted by the breast after birth is called: A) colostrum. B) meconium. C) amniotic fluid. D) postpartum. Answer: A Explanation: Colostrum is the thin, watery fluid first secreted by the breast after birth. Meconium is the newborn's first bowel movement. Amniotic fluid is the fluid in which the fetus floats. Postpartum refers to after birth. Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

48) The first bowel movement of a newborn is called: A) candidiasis. B) meconium. C) placenta. D) colostrum. Answer: B Explanation: Meconium is the first bowel movement of a newborn. Candidiasis is a yeast infection. The placenta is how the fetus receives nourishment. Colostrum is the thin, watery fluid first secreted by the breast after birth. Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 49) An intrauterine device is used to: A) treat cancer. B) stimulate ovulation. C) prevent pregnancy. D) reduce heaviness of menstrual flow. Answer: C Explanation: An intrauterine device is used to prevent pregnancy. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 50) Which organ does NOT frequently develop cancerous tumors? A) ovary B) cervix C) endometrium D) uterine tube Answer: D Explanation: The uterine tube does not frequently develop cancerous tumors. The ovary, cervix, and endometrium do develop cancerous tumors. Page Ref: 360 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

51) Which of the following is a benign uterine growth? A) fibroid B) eclampsia C) genital warts D) candidiasis Answer: A Explanation: A fibroid is a benign uterine growth. Eclampsia is a life-threatening condition of pregnancy. Genital warts are a sexually transmitted disease. Candidiasis is a yeast infection. Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) A collapsed uterus is called: A) anteflexion. B) prolapsed. C) stenotic. D) sclerotic. Answer: B Explanation: A prolapsed uterus is a collapsed uterus. Anteflexion is the position in which the uterus normally lies. Stenotic means pertaining to narrowed, and sclerotic means pertaining to hardened. Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 53) Uterine tissue found throughout the pelvic cavity is the hallmark of which condition? A) pelvic inflammatory disease B) fibroid C) endometriosis D) candidiasis Answer: C Explanation: Uterine tissue found throughout the pelvic cavity is the hallmark of endometriosis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by pain and fever and is a bacterial infection. A fibroid is a benign uterine growth. Candidiasis is a yeast infection characterized by itching and burning. Page Ref: 362 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

54) is a condition of pregnancy characterized by convulsive seizures and coma. A) Cystocele B) Pseudocyesis C) Endometriosis D) Eclampsia Answer: D Explanation: Eclampsia is a life-threatening condition characterized by convulsive seizures and coma. Cystocele is the protrusion of the bladder into the vagina. Pseudocyesis is a false pregnancy. Endometriosis is uterine tissue outside of the uterus. Page Ref: 362 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) Which of the following conditions occurs when the placenta forms over the mouth of the cervix, blocking the birth canal? A) placenta previa B) abruptio placentae C) pseudocyesis D) eclampsia Answer: A Explanation: Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta forms over the mouth of the cervix, blocking the birth canal. Abruptio placentae is a sudden tearing away of the placenta from the uterine wall prior to delivery. Pseudocyesis is a false pregnancy. Eclampsia is a lifethreatening condition of pregnancy characterized by convulsive seizures and coma. Page Ref: 363 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 56) Which procedure evaluates a newborn's adjustment to the outside world? A) Apgar score B) chorionic villus sampling C) pelvimetry D) amniocentesis Answer: A Explanation: An Apgar score evaluates the newborn's adjustment to the outside world by observing color, heart rate, muscle tone, respiratory rate, and response to stimulus. Chorionic villus sampling is removing a small piece of the chorion for genetic analysis. Pelvimetry is measuring the dimensions of the pelvis. Amniocentesis involves removing amniotic fluid for analysis. Page Ref: 366 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

57) Which diagnostic procedure could be used to determine whether the uterus and uterine tubes are open to a dye? A) culdoscopy B) hysterosalpingography C) pelvic ultrasonography D) laparoscopy Answer: B Explanation: A hysterosalpingography takes an X-ray after injecting dye into the uterus and uterine tubes. A culdoscopy is a visual examination of the female pelvic cavity. Pelvic ultrasonography uses ultrasound waves to produce an image or photograph of an organ. A laparoscopy is a visual examination of the peritoneal cavity. Page Ref: 365 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 58) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the uterine lining for abnormalities? A) cervical biopsy B) Pap smear C) endometrial biopsy D) chorionic villus sampling Answer: C Explanation: An endometrial biopsy examines the uterine lining for abnormalities by taking a sample from the lining of the uterus. A cervical biopsy takes a sample of tissue from the cervix to examine for cancer cells. A Pap smear scrapes cells from the cervix to be examined for abnormalities. Chorionic villus sampling is a removal of a small piece of the chorion for genetic analysis. Page Ref: 366 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 59) Which of the following is a blood test for prostate cancer? A) digital rectal exam B) Pap smear C) transurethral resection D) prostate-specific antigen Answer: D Explanation: Prostate-specific antigen is a blood test to screen for prostate cancer. A digital rectal exam is a manual examination for an enlarged prostate gland. A Pap smear scrapes cells from the cervix to be examined for abnormalities. A transurethral resection of the prostate is the surgical removal of part of the prostate gland by inserting a device through the urethra and removing prostate tissue. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 36

60) Which surgical procedure reverses a vasectomy? A) vasoplasty B) orchidopexy C) orchidoplasty D) vasovasostomy Answer: D Explanation: A vasovasostomy reconnects the vas deferens to reverse a vasectomy. A vasoplasty is a surgical repair of the vas deferens. Orchidopexy is surgical fixation of the testes. An orchidoplasty is surgical repair of the testes. Page Ref: 381 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 61) Which surgical procedure removes the prepuce? A) circumcision B) sterilization C) castration D) TURP Answer: A Explanation: A circumcision removes the prepuce, or foreskin, of the penis. Sterilization is cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being able to exit the penis. Castration is the surgical removal of the testicles in the male or ovaries in the female. TURP is removal of prostate tissue through the urethra. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 62) Which surgical procedure is used to treat cryptorchidism? A) circumcision B) orchidopexy C) vasectomy D) TURP Answer: B Explanation: Orchidopexy is a surgical procedure used to fix the testes into the scrotum to treat conditions such as cryptorchidism. A circumcision is done to remove the prepuce. A vasectomy is a removal of a segment or all of the vas deferens to prevent sperm from leaving the male body. TURP is removal of prostate tissue through the urethra. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

63) Which surgical procedure delivers a baby through an abdominal incision? A) dilation and curettage B) episiotomy C) cesarean section D) conization Answer: C Explanation: A cesarean section is a surgical delivery of a baby through an incision into the abdominal and uterine walls. A dilation and curettage is a surgical procedure in which the opening of the cervix is dilated and the uterus is scraped of its lining or tissue. An episiotomy is a surgical incision into the perineum to facilitate the delivery process. A conization is a surgical removal of a core of cervical tissue. Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which treatment procedure removes a core of cervical tissue? A) lumpectomy B) dilation and curettage C) conization D) episiotomy Answer: C Explanation: A conization is a surgical procedure to remove a core of cervical tissue. A lumpectomy is a surgical removal of a breast tumor and the tissue immediately surrounding it. A dilation and curettage is a surgical procedure in which the opening of the cervix is dilated and the uterus is scraped of its lining or tissue. An episiotomy is a surgical incision into the perineum to facilitate the delivery process. Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 65) Which type of abortion is done for a medical reason? A) therapeutic abortion B) medical abortion C) spontaneous abortion D) elective abortion Answer: A Explanation: A therapeutic abortion is termination of a pregnancy for the health of the mother or another medical reason. There is not an abortion called a medical abortion. A spontaneous abortion is a miscarriage. An elective abortion is a legal termination of a pregnancy for nonmedical reasons. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

66) Which mastectomy removes only the breast tissue? A) radical mastectomy B) simple mastectomy C) modified radical mastectomy D) lumpectomy Answer: B Explanation: A simple mastectomy removes only the breast tissue. A radical mastectomy removes the breast tissue plus chest muscles and axillary lymph nodes. A modified radical mastectomy is the surgical removal of the breast tissue, the pectoris minor, and some of the adjacent lymph nodes; it leaves the pectoris major intact. A lumpectomy is the removal of a breast tumor and the tissue immediately surrounding it. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which organ is NOT removed during a TAH-BSO? A) uterus B) uterine tubes C) vagina D) ovaries Answer: C Explanation: A TAH-BSO is a total abdominal hysterectomy—bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. This procedure removes the entire uterus, cervix, both ovaries, and both uterine tubes. The vagina is not removed. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 68) Which of the following abbreviations is a surgical procedure? A) BPH B) PSA C) TURP D) STI Answer: C Explanation: TURP stands for transurethral resection of the prostate, a surgical procedure. BPH stands for benign prostatic hyperplasia, a pathological condition. PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, a blood test. STI stands for sexually transmitted infection. Page Ref: 382 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

69) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic lab test? A) STD B) BPH C) TURP D) PSA Answer: D Explanation: PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, a blood test. STD stands for sexually transmitted disease, a pathological condition. BPH stands for benign prostatic hyperplasia, a pathological condition. TURP stands for transurethral resection of the prostate, a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 382 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 70) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a medical specialty? A) LMP B) OB C) TSS D) PID Answer: B Explanation: OB stands for obstetrics, a medical specialty. LMP stands for last menstrual period. TSS stands for toxic shock syndrome, a pathological condition. PID stands for pelvic inflammatory disease, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 6, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 71) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? A) D&C B) GYN C) Pap D) HDN Answer: A Explanation: D&C stands for dilation and curettage, a surgical procedure. GYN stands for gynecology, a medical specialty. Pap stands for Papanicolaou test, a diagnostic procedure. HDN stands for hemolytic disease of the newborn, a pathological condition. Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

72) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic test? A) IUD B) OB C) Pap D) GYN Answer: C Explanation: Pap stands for Papanicolaou test, a diagnostic test. IUD stands for intrauterine device, a device to prevent conception. OB stands for obstetrics, a medical specialty. GYN stands for gynecology, a medical specialty. Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which of the following medications is a hormone that improves uterine contractions? A) androgen therapy B) spermatocide C) hormone replacement therapy D) oxytocin Answer: D Explanation: Oxytocin is a natural hormone that begins or improves uterine contractions during labor and delivery. Androgen therapy is the replacement of male hormones to treat patients who produce insufficient hormone naturally. A spermatocide destroys sperm. Hormone replacement therapy is replacement of hormones that the body is no longer producing naturally. Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 74) Which of the following medications is used to treat impotence? A) erectile dysfunction agents B) oxytocin C) androgen therapy D) fertility drugs Answer: A Explanation: Erectile dysfunction agents treat impotence. Oxytocin is used to improve uterine contractions. Androgen therapy replaces male hormones. Fertility drugs are used to treat infertility. Page Ref: 382 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

75) Which of the following is the primary male sex hormone? A) oxytocin B) luteinizing hormone C) progesterone D) testosterone Answer: D Explanation: Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone. Oxytocin causes contractions. Luteinizing hormone stimulates maturation of the ova. Progesterone is required to maintain pregnancy. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

10.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) removal of prepuce B) congenital anomaly of penis C) external genitalia D) used to screen for genetic abnormalities E) first bowel movement of a newborn F) fertilization G) viral STD H) removes core of cervical tissue for testing I) the foreskin J) test for cervical cancer K) undescended testicle L) erythroblastosis fetalis M) male sterilization procedure N) oviducts O) first menstrual period P) infectious nonsyphilitic venereal ulcer Q) metabolic disease of pregnancy R) impotence S) benign breast tumors T) intrauterine death of a viable-aged fetus U) twisted spermatic cord V) spontaneous abortion W) outer fetal membrane X) composed of erectile tissue Y) noncancerous enlarged prostate gland 1) vulva Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) conception Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) uterine tubes Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) menarche Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) chorion Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) circumcision Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 7) meconium Page Ref: 358 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) hemolytic disease of the newborn Page Ref: 363 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 9) conization Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 10) fibrocystic breast disease Page Ref: 362 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) stillbirth Page Ref: 364 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12) miscarriage Page Ref: 364 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) preeclampsia Page Ref: 363 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) amniocentesis Page Ref: 366 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 15) Pap smear Page Ref: 365 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 16) prepuce Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) penis Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) ED Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 45

19) testicular torsion Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) BPH Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 21) cryptorchidism Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) hypospadias Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) genital herpes Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 24) chancroid Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) vasectomy Page Ref: 381 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures Answers: 1) C 2) F 3) N 4) O 5) W 6) A 7) E 8) L 9) H 10) S 11) T 12) V 13) Q 14) D 15) J 16) I 17) X 18) R 19) U 20) Y 21) K 22) B 23) G 24) P 25) M

10.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the events of labor and delivery. Answer: Labor and delivery of an infant can be divided into three stages. 1. Dilation stage—Uterine muscles are strongly contracting and pressing the baby against the cervix. Causes the cervix to dilate and become thinner (which is called effacement). 2. Expulsion stage—When the cervix is dilated to 10 cm this stage begins. Uterine contractions now are pushing baby through the birth canal. This stage ends with the birth of the baby. 3. Placental stage—After the baby has been delivered, uterine contractions continue until the placenta (afterbirth) is delivered. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe a semen analysis. Answer: A semen analysis is a lab test for male sterility due to problems with the sperm. It can also be used to confirm that a vasectomy has been successful. Semen is collected by the patient after abstaining from sexual intercourse for a period of 3 to 5 days. The sperm are analyzed for: • Number • Swimming strength • Shape Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 11 Endocrine System 11.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means extremities is Answer: acr/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) A combining form that means adrenal glands is Answer: adren/o; adrenal/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means body is Answer: somat/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means calcium is Answer: calc/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means to secrete is Answer: crin/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) A combining form that means female (besides gynec/o) is Answer: estr/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form that means sugar is Answer: glyc/o; glycos/o Page Ref: 394, 405 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means sex glands is Answer: gonad/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means sameness is Answer: home/o Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means potassium is Answer: kal/i Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means sodium is Answer: natr/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) A combining form that means eye (besides ocul/o, opt/o, and optic/o) is Answer: ophthalm/o Page Ref: 405 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The combining form that means pancreas is Answer: pancreat/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means parathyroid gland is Answer: parathyroid/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means pineal gland is Answer: pineal/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means pituitary gland is Answer: pituitar/o; pituit/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) A medical term that means state of excessive thyroid (hormones) is Answer: hyperthyroidism Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

18) The combining form that means thymus gland is Answer: thym/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) A combining form that means thyroid gland is Answer: thyr/o; thyroid/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) A combining form that means poison is Answer: toxic/o Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) The suffix that means blood condition is Answer: -emia Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means thirst is Answer: -dipsia Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) The suffix that means pertaining to a meal is Answer: -prandial Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 24) The suffix that means to stimulate is Answer: -tropin Page Ref: 394 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) A medical term that means pertaining to the adrenal glands is Answer: adrenal Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) A medical term that means pertaining to the parathyroid gland is Answer: parathyroidal Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) A medical term that means pertaining to the pancreas is Answer: pancreatic Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

28) A medical term that means pertaining to the pituitary gland is Answer: pituitary Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

29) A medical term that means pertaining to the thymus gland is Answer: thymic Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

30) A medical term that means pertaining to the thyroid gland is Answer: thyroidal Page Ref: 406 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

31) A medical term that means many (excessive) thirst is Answer: polydipsia Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

32) A medical term that means condition of (too) much urine is Answer: polyuria Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 33) A medical term that means sugar in the urine is Answer: glycosuria Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

34) A medical term that means surgical removal of adrenal gland is Answer: adrenalectomy Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 35) A medical term that means enlarged adrenal gland is Answer: adrenomegaly Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 36) A medical term that means study of the endocrine system is Answer: endocrinology Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

37) A medical term that means state of excessive parathyroid (hormone) is Answer: hyperparathyroidism Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 6

38) A medical term that means state of insufficient pituitary (hormones) is Answer: hypopituitarism Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 39) A medical term that means surgical removal of thymus is Answer: thymectomy Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

40) A medical term that means endocrine system disease is Answer: endocrinopathy Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

41) A medical term that means surgical removal of parathyroid gland is Answer: parathyroidectomy Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) A medical term that means thymus inflammation is Answer: thymitis Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 43) A medical term that means thymus tumor is Answer: thymoma Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

44) A constructed term that means enlarged thyroid is Answer: thyromegaly Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

45) A medical term that means surgical removal of the thyroid is Answer: thyroidectomy Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 46) A medical term that means enlarged extremities is Answer: acromegaly Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

47) A medical term that means abnormal condition of thyroid poisoning is Answer: thyrotoxicosis Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 48) A medical term that means relating to after a meal is Answer: postprandial Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means retina disease is Answer: retinopathy Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

50) A medical term that means adrenal gland disease is Answer: adrenopathy Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8

11.2 True/False Questions 1) The term pheochromocytoma is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 2) The term hypopituitarinism is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term is spelled hypopituitarism. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 3) The term hyponatremia is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 4) The term adrenallectomy is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term should be spelled adrenalectomy. Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 5) The endocrine system glands are instrumental in maintaining homeostasis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the bloodstream, not ducts. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) The adrenal glands are divided into an outer cortex and inner medulla. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 398, 399 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Epinephrine is one of the adrenal cortex hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Epinephrine is an adrenal medulla hormone, not an adrenal cortex hormone. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The adrenal cortex of both men and women secretes steroid sex hormones such as androgen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The ovary is the female gamete and it produces ova, the female gonad. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The ovary is the female gonad, and it produces ova, the female gamete. Page Ref: 399 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Progesterone helps maintain the uterine lining for pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 399 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) The islets of Langerhans are the exocrine sections of the pancreas. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The islets of Langerhans are the endocrine sections of the pancreas, not the exocrine sections. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) The pancreas is a unique organ because it is both an exocrine and endocrine gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 399, 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Insulin raises the blood sugar level and glucagon lowers the blood sugar level. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Insulin lowers the blood sugar level and glucagon raises the blood sugar level. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) The circadian rhythm is the body's 24-hour clock. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Parathyroid hormone is important for regulating blood levels of sodium. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Parathyroid hormone is important for regulating blood levels of calcium, not sodium. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) The pituitary gland is sometimes referred to as the master gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 402 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Prolactin stimulates cells to grow larger and divide more rapidly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Prolactin stimulates milk production in the breast. Page Ref: 402 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are called gonadotropins. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 402 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) The thymus gland uses iodine in the production of its hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The thyroid gland, not the thymus gland, uses iodine in the production of its hormones. Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Thymosin is essential to the growth and development of T cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 403 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Gynecomastia is the bulging eyeballs associated with Graves' disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Exophthalmos is the bulging eyeballs associated with Graves' disease. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) The thyroid hormones adjust the body's metabolic rate. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) Hirsutism is a term for the condition of having insufficient hair. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hirsutism is a condition of having an excessive amount of hair. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

25) Excessive hormone production is called hypersecretion. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) Adrenal virilism occurs when the adrenal cortex of a man produces too much androgen. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Adrenal virilism occurs when the adrenal cortex of a woman, not a man, produces too much androgen. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that present a clinical picture of a disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 28) Pheochromocytoma is usually a cancerous tumor of the adrenal medulla. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pheochromocytoma is usually a benign tumor, not a cancerous tumor, of the adrenal medulla. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) Ketoacidosis may result in death of a diabetic patient. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 30) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is also called non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Type 2, not Type 1, diabetes mellitus is also called non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13

31) Peripheral neuropathy is damage to the nerves of the hands and lower legs as a result of diabetes mellitus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Tetany is nerve irritability and painful muscle cramps resulting from too much calcium in the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tetany is nerve irritability and painful muscle cramps resulting from too little, not too much, calcium in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) Insulinoma is a pancreas tumor that secretes excessive amounts of insulin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) Acromegaly is a condition that affects children, causing enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Acromegaly is a condition that affects adults, not children, causing enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 35) Diabetic retinopathy affects the blood vessels of the retina in diabetic patients. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

36) Diabetes insipidus results when there is not enough insulin secreted to control blood sugar levels. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diabetes insipidus occurs when there is not enough antidiuretic hormone secreted. Diabetes mellitus occurs when there is not enough insulin secreted to control blood sugar levels. Page Ref: 409, 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Panhypopituitarism is a deficiency in all the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Dwarfism is a congenital lack of thyroid hormones and may result in arrested physical and mental development. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Dwarfism is a condition of being abnormally short in height and may be the result of a hereditary condition or a lack of growth hormone. Congenital hypothyroidism (previously called cretinism) is a congenital condition in which a lack of thyroid hormones may result in arrested physical and mental development. Page Ref: 410, 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune form of thyroiditis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Thyrotoxicosis results from a marked underproduction of thyroid hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Thyrotoxicosis results from a marked overproduction, not underproduction, of thyroid hormones. Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

41) A fasting blood sugar is a blood test that measures the amount of sugar in the bloodstream after a 12-hour fast. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) A radioimmunoassay test is used to measure the levels of radioactive substances in the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A radioimmunoassay test is used to measure the levels of hormones in the plasma of the blood. Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 43) A protein-bound iodine test is used to measure thyroid function. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 44) A thyroid scan uses ultrasound to visualize the thyroid gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A thyroid echography, not scan, uses ultrasound to visualize the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 45) Two-hour postprandial means that the test is performed 2 hours after eating. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 46) Aquaretics are powerful anti-inflammatory medications. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Aquaretics increase water excretion by the kidney without increasing sodium excretion. Corticosteroids are powerful anti-inflammatory medications. Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 16

47) A chemical thyroidectomy is a nonsurgical procedure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 48) Corticosteroids are used to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Insulin is used to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 49) TSH is the abbreviation for one of the pituitary gland hormones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 397, 415 Learning Obj.: 4, 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 50) PTH is the abbreviation for one of the thyroid gland hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: PTH is the abbreviation for parathyroid hormone. Page Ref: 397, 415 Learning Obj.: 4, 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 11.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following terms means excessive calcium in the blood? A) hypercalcemia B) hyponatremia C) hyperkalemia D) hypoglycemia Answer: A Explanation: Hyper- means excessive, calc/o means calcium, and -emia means blood condition; therefore, hypercalcemia means excessive calcium in the blood. Hypo- means insufficient and natr/o means sodium, so hyponatremia means insufficient sodium in the blood. Kal/i means potassium; thus, hyperkalemia means excessive potassium in the blood. Glyc/o means sugar; hence, hypoglycemia means insufficient sugar in the blood. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 17

2) Which of the following terms means insufficient sodium in the blood? A) hypercalcemia B) hyponatremia C) hyperkalemia D) hypoglycemia Answer: B Explanation: Hypo- means insufficient, natr/o means sodium, and -emia means blood condition; therefore, hyponatremia means insufficient sodium in the blood. Hyper- means excessive and calc/o means calcium; hence, hypercalcemia means excessive calcium in the blood. Kal/i means potassium, so hyperkalemia means excessive potassium in the blood. Glyc/o means sugar; thus, hypoglycemia means insufficient sugar in the blood. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 3) Which of the following terms means excessive potassium in the blood? A) hypercalcemia B) hyponatremia C) hyperkalemia D) hypoglycemia Answer: C Explanation: Hyper- means excessive, kal/i means potassium, and -emia means blood condition; therefore, hyperkalemia means excessive potassium in the blood. Calc/o means calcium, so hypercalcemia means excessive calcium in the blood. Hypo- means insufficient and natr/o means sodium, so hyponatremia means insufficient sodium in the blood. Glyc/o means sugar; hence, hypoglycemia means insufficient sugar in the blood. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 4) Which of the following terms means insufficient sugar in the blood? A) hypercalcemia B) hyponatremia C) hyperkalemia D) hypoglycemia Answer: D Explanation: Hypo- means insufficient, glyc/o means sugar, and -emia means blood condition; therefore, hypoglycemia means insufficient sugar in the blood. Hyper- means excessive and calc/o means calcium; thus, hypercalcemia means excessive calcium in the blood. Natr/o means sodium; hence, hyponatremia means insufficient sodium in the blood. Kal/i means potassium, so hyperkalemia means excessive potassium in the blood. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 18

5) Which of the following statements regarding endocrine glands is NOT true? A) The endocrine system is instrumental in maintaining homeostasis. B) The endocrine system is a collection of glands. C) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into ducts. D) Hormones are chemicals that act on their target organs. Answer: C Explanation: Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream, not ducts. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Which of the following statements regarding glands is NOT true? A) Exocrine glands release their secretions into a duct to the outside of the body. B) Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream. C) Sweat glands are an example of exocrine glands. D) Exocrine glands are also referred to as ductless glands. Answer: D Explanation: Endocrine, not exocrine, glands are also referred to as ductless glands. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland? A) lymph gland B) pituitary gland C) thyroid gland D) pineal gland Answer: A Explanation: A lymph gland is part of the lymphatic system and is not an endocrine gland. The pituitary gland, thyroid gland, and pineal gland are all endocrine glands. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

8) The adrenal gland is divided into: A) a medulla and cortex. B) anterior and posterior lobes. C) inferior and superior sections. D) right and left lobes. Answer: A Explanation: The adrenal gland is divided into a medulla and cortex. The pituitary gland is divided into anterior and posterior lobes. The thymus and thyroid gland are divided into right and left lobes. None of the exocrine glands have inferior and superior sections. Page Ref: 398 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Which of the following terms is NOT one of the families of hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex? A) mineralocorticoids B) epinephrine C) glucocorticoids D) steroid sex hormones Answer: B Explanation: Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla. Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and steroid sex hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Which of the following statements regarding mineralocorticoid hormones is NOT true? A) Mineralocorticoid hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex. B) Aldosterone is an example of a mineralocorticoid. C) Aldosterone regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. D) Mineralocorticoids regulate carbohydrate metabolism in the body. Answer: D Explanation: Glucocorticoids, not mineralocorticoids, regulate carbohydrate metabolism in the body. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 398, 399 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) cortisol—regulates carbohydrate metabolism B) aldosterone—regulates sodium levels C) androgens—female sex hormones D) epinephrine—critical during emergency situations Answer: C Explanation: Androgens are male sex hormones. The other pairs are correct. Page Ref: 396, 399 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating carbohydrate metabolism in the body? A) cortisol B) aldosterone C) epinephrine D) thyroxine Answer: A Explanation: Cortisol is responsible for regulating carbohydrate metabolism in the body. Aldosterone regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. Epinephrine is critical during emergency situations. Thyroxine helps regulate the production of energy and heat in the body to adjust the body's metabolic rate. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the adrenal medulla? A) cortisol B) aldosterone C) epinephrine D) thyroxine Answer: C Explanation: Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla. Cortisol and aldosterone are secreted by the adrenal cortex. Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

14) Which of the following hormones is critical in emergency situations? A) cortisol B) aldosterone C) epinephrine D) thyroxine Answer: C Explanation: Epinephrine is critical in emergency situations. Cortisol regulates carbohydrate metabolism. Aldosterone regulates sodium and potassium in the body. Thyroxine helps regulate the production of energy and heat in the body to adjust the body's metabolic rate. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Which of the following endocrine glands is the female gonad? A) ovaries B) pancreas C) thymus D) pineal Answer: A Explanation: Ovaries are the female gonads. The pancreas, thymus, and pineal gland play other roles in the body. Page Ref: 399 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the ovaries? A) estrogen B) melatonin C) glucagon D) insulin Answer: A Explanation: Ovaries secrete both estrogen and progesterone. Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland. Glucagon and insulin are secreted by the pancreas. Page Ref: 396 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

17) Which of the following hormones is responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle? A) thyroxine B) estrogen C) progesterone D) growth hormone Answer: B Explanation: Estrogen is responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that helps regulate metabolism. Progesterone is necessary in maintaining pregnancy. Growth hormone stimulates growth of the body. Page Ref: 396, 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Which of the following glands is an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A) pineal B) thymus C) pancreas D) thyroid Answer: C Explanation: The pancreas has endocrine and exocrine functions. The other choices are endocrine only. Page Ref: 399, 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which of the following statements regarding the pancreas is NOT true? A) The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. B) The islets of Langerhans are the exocrine portion of the pancreas. C) The pancreas releases digestive enzymes into the duodenum. D) The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon. Answer: B Explanation: The islets of Langerhans are the endocrine, not exocrine, portion of the pancreas. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 399, 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

20) Which of the following statements regarding insulin is NOT true? A) Insulin reduces blood sugar levels. B) Insulin stimulates the cells of the body to take in glucose from the bloodstream. C) Insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas. D) Insulin is most active after you have eaten a meal. Answer: C Explanation: Insulin is secreted by the beta, not alpha, cells of the pancreas. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is NOT true? A) Glucagon is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas. B) Glucagon has an effect opposite that of insulin on blood sugar level. C) Glucagon is released when the body needs more sugar. D) Glucagon works through the liver to lower blood glucose level. Answer: D Explanation: Glucagon works through the liver to raise, not lower, blood glucose level. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Which of the following statements regarding the parathyroid glands is NOT true? A) There are four parathyroid glands located on the dorsal surface of the thyroid gland. B) The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone. C) Parathyroid hormone stimulates bone to absorb more calcium from the bloodstream. D) Parathyroid hormone regulates the blood level of calcium. Answer: C Explanation: The parathyroid hormone stimulates bone to release, not absorb, more calcium into the bloodstream. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

23) Which of the following statements regarding the pineal gland or its hormone is NOT true? A) The pineal gland is found in the hypothalamus region of the brain. B) The pineal gland secretes melatonin. C) Melatonin regulates the body's circadian rhythm. D) The body's circadian rhythm is its 24-hour clock. Answer: A Explanation: The pineal gland is found in the thalamus, not hypothalamus, region of the brain. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary? A) growth hormone B) oxytocin C) thyroid-stimulating hormone D) prolactin Answer: B Explanation: Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary. Growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, and prolactin are all secreted by the anterior pituitary. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary? A) oxytocin B) follicle-stimulating hormone C) somatotropin D) adrenocorticotropic hormone Answer: A Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are secreted by the posterior pituitary. Folliclestimulating hormone, somatotropin (also called growth hormone), and adrenocorticotropic hormone are all secreted by the anterior pituitary. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

26) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) follicle-stimulating hormone—targets gonads B) prolactin—targets breasts C) thyroid-stimulating hormone—targets thyroid D) adrenocorticotropic hormone—targets adrenal medulla Answer: D Explanation: Adrenocorticotropic hormone targets the adrenal cortex, not medulla. The other pairs are correctly matched. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) Which anterior pituitary hormone is also called somatotropin? A) prolactin B) growth hormone C) luteinizing hormone D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone Answer: B Explanation: Growth hormone is sometimes called somatotropin. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 402 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) Which of the following hormones is a gonadotropin? A) prolactin B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) follicle-stimulating hormone D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone Answer: C Explanation: Follicle-stimulating hormone is a gonadotropin, because it works on the ovaries and testes. The other choices are not correct. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

29) Which of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating the development of ova and sperm? A) follicle-stimulating hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) growth hormone D) luteinizing hormone Answer: A Explanation: Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the development of ova and sperm. Thyroid-stimulating hormone regulates the thyroid gland function. Growth hormone is responsible for growth of the body. Luteinizing hormone stimulates secretion of sex hormones in males and females and plays a role in releasing ova in females. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) Which of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating the cells of the body to rapidly divide? A) follicle-stimulating hormone B) growth hormone C) thyroid-stimulating hormone D) luteinizing hormone Answer: B Explanation: Growth hormone is responsible for the growth of the body by stimulating the cells of the body to rapidly divide. Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the development of ova and sperm. Thyroid-stimulating hormone regulates the thyroid gland function. Luteinizing hormone stimulates secretion of sex hormones in males and females and plays a role in releasing ova in females. Page Ref: 402 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) Which hormone promotes the kidneys to reabsorb water? A) oxytocin B) luteinizing hormone C) antidiuretic hormone D) prolactin Answer: C Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone promotes reabsorption of water in the kidneys. Oxytocin stimulates contractions. Luteinizing hormone stimulates secretion of sex hormones in males and females and plays a role in releasing ova in females. Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the breasts. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27

32) Which of the following statements regarding the testes or its hormone is NOT true? A) Testes are the male gamete. B) Testes are responsible for sperm production. C) Testes secrete testosterone. D) Testosterone produces the male secondary sexual characteristics. Answer: A Explanation: Testes are the male gonads, not gamete. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 403 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 33) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland or its hormone is NOT true? A) The thymus secretes thymosin. B) Thymosin is important for proper development of the immune system. C) At puberty, the thymus gland begins to shrink. D) The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum just below the heart. Answer: D Explanation: The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum anterior and superior to the heart, not below the heart. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 403 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 34) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the thyroid gland? A) triiodothyronine B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxine D) calcitonin Answer: B Explanation: Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Triiodothyronine, thyroxine, and calcitonin are secreted by the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

35) Which of the following elements does the thyroid gland use to make its hormones? A) calcium B) potassium C) iodine D) sodium Answer: C Explanation: Iodine is necessary for the thyroid to make its hormones. The thyroid does not use calcium, potassium, or sodium to make its hormones. Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 36) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine work to: A) regulate calcium levels in the body. B) regulate glucose levels in the body. C) regulate sodium levels in the body. D) regulate the body's metabolic rate. Answer: D Explanation: Thyroxine and triiodothyronine work to regulate the body's metabolic rate. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone regulate calcium levels in the body. Glucagon and insulin regulate glucose levels in the body. Aldosterone is responsible for regulating sodium levels in the body. Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 37) Calcitonin works to: A) regulate calcium levels in the body. B) regulate glucose levels in the body. C) regulate sodium levels in the body. D) regulate the body's metabolic rate. Answer: A Explanation: Calcitonin works to regulate calcium levels in the body. Insulin works to regulate glucose levels in the body. Aldosterone regulates sodium levels in the body. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine regulate the body's metabolic rate. Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

38) Which of the following terms refers to the condition in which the body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid? A) edema B) exophthalmos C) gynecomastia D) hirsutism Answer: A Explanation: Edema is the condition in which the body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid. Exophthalmos refers to bulging eyes. Gynecomastia is overgrowth of breast tissue in males. Hirsutism refers to excessive hair growth. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Which of the following terms refers to bulging eyeballs? A) edema B) exophthalmos C) gynecomastia D) hirsutism Answer: B Explanation: Exophthalmos refers to bulging eyeballs. Edema refers to the condition in which the body tissues contain an excessive amount of fluid. Gynecomastia is overgrowth of breast tissue in males. Hirsutism refers to excessive hair growth. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following terms is a symptom of adrenal feminization? A) edema B) exophthalmos C) gynecomastia D) hirsutism Answer: C Explanation: Gynecomastia, excessive breast tissue in males, is a symptom of adrenal feminization. Edema is a symptom of Cushing's syndrome. Exophthalmos is a symptom of Graves' disease. Hirsutism is a symptom of adrenal virilism. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

41) Which of the following terms refers to having an excessive amount of hair? A) edema B) exophthalmos C) gynecomastia D) hirsutism Answer: D Explanation: Hirsutism refers to having an excessive amount of hair. Edema refers to the condition in which the body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid. Exophthalmos refers to bulging eyes. Gynecomastia refers to excess breast tissue in males. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) Addison's disease is caused by: A) hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. B) hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. C) hyposecretion of the thyroid gland. D) hypersecretion of the thyroid gland. Answer: B Explanation: Addison's disease is caused by an insufficient amount of adrenal cortex hormones. Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex hormones causes Cushing's syndrome. Hyposecretion of the thyroid gland causes hypothyroidism, and hypersecretion of the thyroid gland causes hyperthyroidism. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which of the following conditions occurs when there is an increase in estrogen secretion by the adrenal cortex of men? A) pheochromocytoma B) adrenal feminization C) Addison's disease D) adrenal virilism Answer: B Explanation: Adrenal feminization occurs when there is an increase in estrogen secretion by the adrenal cortex of men. Pheochromocytoma is caused by a tumor of the adrenal medulla. Addison's disease is caused by a deficiency of adrenocortical hormones. Adrenal virilism is caused by increased androgen secretion in females. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

44) Gynecomastia is the: A) development of an excessive amount of hair. B) production of excessive urine. C) development of breast tissue in a male. D) excessive growth of the body. Answer: C Explanation: Gynecomastia is the development of breast tissue in a male. Hirsutism is an excessive amount of hair. Polyuria is the production of excessive urine. Gigantism is excessive growth of the body. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Cushing's syndrome is caused by: A) hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. B) hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. C) hyposecretion of the thyroid gland. D) hypersecretion of the thyroid gland. Answer: B Explanation: Cushing's syndrome is caused by an excessive amount of cortisol, which is secreted by the adrenal cortex. Addison's disease is caused by a hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. Hyposecretion of the thyroid gland causes hypothyroidism, and hypersecretion causes hyperthyroidism. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) Gynecomastia may be a symptom of: A) Addison's disease. B) adrenal feminization. C) Cushing's syndrome. D) pheochromocytoma. Answer: B Explanation: Gynecomastia may be a symptom of adrenal feminization. Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, and pheochromocytoma do not generally cause gynecomastia. Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

47) Which of the following statements regarding insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) It generally develops early in life. B) It is also called Type 2 diabetes mellitus. C) The pancreas does not produce insulin. D) The patient must take insulin injections. Answer: B Explanation: Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is called Type 1, not Type 2, diabetes mellitus. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of diabetes mellitus? A) peripheral neuropathy B) ketoacidosis C) hirsutism D) retinopathy Answer: C Explanation: Hirsutism is a symptom of adrenal virilism. Peripheral neuropathy, ketoacidosis, and retinopathy are potential complications of diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) Diabetics experience hyperglycemia. B) Ketoacidosis is a potentially fatal condition that affects diabetics. C) Diabetics experience glycosuria. D) Hypoparathyroidism may cause diabetes mellitus. Answer: D Explanation: Hypoparathyroidism may result in hypocalcemia and tetany, not diabetes mellitus. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

50) The nerve irritability and muscle cramps that develop as a result of hypoparathyroidism are called: A) tetany. B) acromegaly. C) congenital hypothyroidism. D) myxedema. Answer: A Explanation: Tetany is the nerve irritability and muscle cramps that develop as a result of hypoparathyroidism. Acromegaly develops as a result of an excessive amount of growth hormone in an adult. Congenital hypothyroidism develops as a result of a lack of thyroid hormones at birth. Myxedema develops as a result of hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in an adult. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 51) Which of the following conditions is caused by hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone? A) Graves' disease B) Recklinghausen disease C) Addison's disease D) Hashimoto's disease Answer: B Explanation: Recklinghausen disease is caused by hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone. Graves' disease is caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. Addison's disease is caused by hyposecretion of adrenocortical hormones. Hashimoto's disease is a chronic autoimmune form of thyroiditis, resulting in hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) Which of the following conditions is characterized by an enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities? A) dwarfism B) congenital hypothyroidism C) acromegaly D) gigantism Answer: C Explanation: Acromegaly is an enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities after the growth plates have closed. Dwarfism is an abnormally short height. Congenital hypothyroidism is a lack of thyroid hormones that may result in arrested physical and mental development. Gigantism is excessive development of the body in a child or adolescent. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34

53) Which of the following conditions is characterized by being abnormally short in height? A) dwarfism B) congenital hypothyroidism C) acromegaly D) gigantism Answer: A Explanation: Dwarfism is characterized by being abnormally short in height. Congenital hypothyroidism is a lack of thyroid hormones that may result in arrested physical and mental development. Acromegaly is an enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities. Gigantism is being abnormally tall. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 54) Which of the following conditions is characterized by arrested physical and mental development? A) dwarfism B) congenital hypothyroidism C) acromegaly D) gigantism Answer: B Explanation: Congenital hypothyroidism is characterized by arrested physical and mental development. Dwarfism is being abnormally short in height. Acromegaly is an enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities. Gigantism is being abnormally tall. Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) Diabetes insipidus is caused by: A) excessive antidiuretic hormone. B) insufficient antidiuretic hormone. C) excessive thyroid hormone. D) insufficient thyroid hormone. Answer: B Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone. Excessive antidiuretic hormone would cause generalized edema. Graves' disease is caused by excessive thyroid hormone. Myxedema is caused by insufficient thyroid hormone. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

56) Which of the following conditions develops from an overproduction of growth hormone in a child? A) dwarfism B) congenital hypothyroidism C) acromegaly D) gigantism Answer: D Explanation: Gigantism develops from an overproduction of growth hormone in a child. Dwarfism may be a result of underproduction of growth hormone. Congenital hypothyroidism is from a lack of thyroid hormones. Acromegaly is caused by excessive growth hormone after the growth plates have closed. Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 57) Which of the following glands is NOT regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone? A) adrenal cortex B) thyroid C) pineal D) gonads Answer: C Explanation: The pineal gland is not regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone. The adrenal cortex, thyroid, and gonads are regulated by anterior pituitary hormones. Page Ref: 397 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) Graves' disease is caused by: A) hypersecretion of the thyroid. B) hyposecretion of the thyroid. C) hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. D) hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. Answer: A Explanation: Graves' disease is caused by hypersecretion of the thyroid hormones. Myxedema is caused by a hyposecretion of the thyroid. Cushing's syndrome is caused by a hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. Addison's disease is caused by a hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

59) An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called: A) insulinoma. B) goiter. C) adenocarcinoma. D) myxedema. Answer: B Explanation: A goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. Insulinoma is a tumor of the islets of Langerhans. Adenocarcinoma is a cancerous tumor that secretes hormones. Myxedema is a condition resulting from the hyposecretion of the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 60) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease? A) Graves' disease B) Recklinghausen disease C) Addison's disease D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis Answer: D Explanation: Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease. Graves' disease, Recklinghausen disease, and Addison's disease are not autoimmune diseases. Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 61) Which of the following conditions results from hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in an adult? A) myxedema B) ketoacidosis C) tetany D) pheochromocytoma Answer: A Explanation: Myxedema is caused by hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in an adult. Ketoacidosis is a result of insufficient insulin. Tetany is caused by hyposecretion of the parathyroid gland. Pheochromocytoma will cause a hypersecretion of the adrenal medulla. Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

62) Which of the following conditions is a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine? A) adenocarcinoma B) goiter C) pheochromocytoma D) insulinoma Answer: C Explanation: Pheochromocytoma is a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine. Adenocarcinoma is a tumor on a gland. Goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. Insulinoma is a tumor of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 63) Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses ultrasound? A) radioimmunoassay B) thyroid echography C) thyroid function test D) thyroid scan Answer: B Explanation: A thyroid echography is an ultrasound of the thyroid. A radioimmunoassay is a blood test. A thyroid function test is a blood test. A thyroid scan uses radioactive iodine. Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is NOT a test of thyroid function? A) thyroid function test B) protein-bound iodine test C) total calcium D) thyroid scan Answer: C Explanation: Total calcium is a test of parathyroid function. Thyroid function test, proteinbound iodine test, and thyroid scan all test thyroid function. Page Ref: 412, 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

65) Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses radioactive iodine as part of the test? A) thyroid scan B) thyroid echography C) two-hour postprandial D) thyroid function test Answer: A Explanation: A thyroid scan uses radioactive iodine. Thyroid echography uses an ultrasound. A two-hour postprandial tests blood sugar 2 hours after a meal. A thyroid function test is a blood test. Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 66) Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood? A) fasting blood sugar B) protein-bound iodine test C) radioimmunoassay D) total calcium Answer: C Explanation: A radioimmunoassay can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood. A fasting blood sugar tests blood sugar levels. A protein-bound iodine test is a test of thyroid function. Total calcium is a test of parathyroid function. Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is NOT a test for blood sugar levels? A) fasting blood sugar B) two-hour postprandial C) glucose tolerance test D) radioimmunoassay Answer: D Explanation: A fasting blood sugar, a two-hour postprandial, and a glucose tolerance test all test for blood sugar levels. The radioimmunoassay test uses radioactively tagged hormones and antibodies to measure the quantity of hormone in plasma. Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

68) Which of the following treatment procedures is NOT a surgical procedure? A) lobectomy B) laparoscopic adrenalectomy C) parathyroidectomy D) chemical thyroidectomy Answer: D Explanation: A chemical thyroidectomy uses a large dose of radioactive iodine and is given to kill thyroid gland cells without having to do surgery. A lobectomy, laparoscopic adrenalectomy, and parathyroidectomy are all surgical procedures. Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 69) Which of the following medications is used to treat type 2 diabetes? A) corticosteroids B) aquaretics C) oral hypoglycemic agents D) thyroid replacement hormone Answer: C Explanation: Oral hypoglycemic agents are taken to decrease blood sugar in type 2 diabetes. Corticosteroids are used to treat Addison's disease. Aquaretics are used to treat hyponatremia. Thyroid replacement hormone is used to treat hyposecretion of the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 70) Which of the following medications has strong anti-inflammatory properties? A) corticosteroids B) insulin C) aquaretics D) thyroid replacement hormone Answer: A Explanation: Corticosteroids have strong anti-inflammatory properties. Insulin lowers blood glucose levels. Aquaretics treat hyponatremia. Thyroid replacement hormone replaces thyroid hormones. Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

71) Which of the following medications is used to treat hyperglycemia? A) corticosteroids B) insulin C) aquaretics D) thyroid replacement hormone Answer: B Explanation: Insulin is used to lower blood sugar levels. Corticosteroids treat Addison's disease. Aquaretics treat hyponatremia. Thyroid replacement hormone replaces thyroid hormones in hyposecretion disorders of the thyroid. Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 72) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition? A) ACTH B) TSH C) FSH D) DM Answer: D Explanation: DM stands for diabetes mellitus, a pathological condition. ACTH stands for adrenocorticotropic hormone. TSH stands for thyroid-stimulating hormone. FSH stands for follicle-stimulating hormone. Page Ref: 415 Learning Obj.: 10, 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic lab test? A) TSH B) DM C) FBS D) FSH Answer: C Explanation: FBS stands for fasting blood sugar, a diagnostic lab test. TSH stands for thyroidstimulating hormone. DM stands for diabetes mellitus, a pathological condition. FSH stands for follicle-stimulating hormone. Page Ref: 415 Learning Obj.: 10, 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

74) Which of the following abbreviations does NOT stand for a pituitary hormone? A) TSH B) T3 C) ACTH D) FSH Answer: B Explanation: T3 is a thyroid hormone. TSH, ACTH, and FSH are pituitary hormones. Page Ref: 397, 415 Learning Obj.: 10, 4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Which of the following abbreviations does NOT stand for a hormone? A) DM B) TSH C) ACTH D) PTH Answer: A Explanation: DM stands for diabetes mellitus, a pathological condition. TSH stands for thyroidstimulating hormone. ACTH stands for adrenocorticotropic hormone. PTH stands for parathyroid hormone. Page Ref: 415 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations

11.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) excessive body fluids B) measures amount of sugar in the bloodstream C) enlarged head and extremities D) diagnostic image made using radioactive iodine E) cancerous tumor of a gland F) measures levels of hormones in the bloodstream G) stimulates growth of skeleton H) insufficient sodium in the blood I) secretes growth hormone J) caused by excessive growth hormone K) caused by hyposecretion of insulin by the pancreas L) breast development in a male M) enlarged thyroid gland N) abnormally short in height O) secretes thyroxine P) secretes thymosin Q) secrete aldosterone R) secretes melatonin S) lowers blood sugar level T) arrested physical and mental development U) sodium V) caused by excessive level of cortisol W) secretes insulin X) excessive potassium in the blood Y) potassium 1) hyperkalemia Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 2) hyponatremia Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 3) adrenal glands Page Ref: 398 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) pancreas Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) pineal gland Page Ref: 400 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) pituitary gland Page Ref: 402 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) thymus gland Page Ref: 403 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) thyroid gland Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) gynecomastia Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) edema Page Ref: 407 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) Cushing's syndrome Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12) Type 1 diabetes mellitus Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) acromegaly Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) dwarfism Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) congenital hypothyroidism Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) goiter Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) gigantism Page Ref: 410 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) adenocarcinoma Page Ref: 411 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45

19) FBS Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7, 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 20) RIA Page Ref: 412 Learning Obj.: 7, 10 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 21) thyroid scan Page Ref: 413 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) human growth hormone therapy Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 23) oral hypoglycemic agent Page Ref: 414 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 24) K+ Page Ref: 415 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 25) Na+ Page Ref: 415 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 1) X 2) H 3) Q 4) W 5) R 6) I 7) P 8) O 9) L 10) A 11) V 12) K 13) C 14) N 15) T 16) M 17) J 18) E 19) B 20) F 21) D 22) G 23) S 24) Y 25) U

11.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Explain why the pituitary gland is sometimes referred to as the master gland. Answer: The pituitary gland secretes hormones that are responsible for regulating the activity of other endocrine glands. • Thyroid-stimulating hormone regulates the thyroid gland. • Adrenocorticotropic hormone regulates the adrenal cortex. • Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone (the gonadotropins) regulate the gonads (ovaries and testes). Page Ref: 401, 402 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Explain the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus: • Also called insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus • Develops early in life • Pancreas stops producing insulin • Patients must take daily insulin injections Type 2 diabetes mellitus: • Also called non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus • Develops later in life • Pancreas produces normal to high levels of insulin, but cells fail to respond to it • Take oral hypoglycemic agents to reduce blood sugar levels • Do not take insulin injections (unless cannot control blood sugar otherwise) Page Ref: 409 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 12 Nervous System and Mental Health 12.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means head is Answer: cephal/o Page Ref: 436 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

2) The combining form that means cerebrum is Answer: cerebr/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means cerebellum is Answer: cerebell/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means brain is Answer: encephal/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means glue is Answer: gli/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means medulla oblongata is Answer: medull/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form that means meninges is Answer: mening/o; meningi/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

8) The combining form that means spinal cord is Answer: myel/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means nerve is Answer: neur/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means star is Answer: astr/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) The combining form that means gray matter is Answer: poli/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2

12) The combining form that means pons is Answer: pont/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

13) The combining form that means nerve root is Answer: radicul/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means thalamus is Answer: thalam/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means sheath (meninges) is Answer: thec/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means ventricle is Answer: ventricul/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means sense of pain is Answer: alges/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means feeling or sensation is Answer: esthesi/o Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The suffix that means weakness is Answer: -paresis Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means speech is Answer: -phasia Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means paralysis is Answer: -plegia Page Ref: 436 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

22) The suffix that means muscle coordination is Answer: -taxia Page Ref: 426 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

23) A medical term that means pertaining to the cerebellum is Answer: cerebellar Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) A medical term that means pertaining to the cerebrum is Answer: cerebral Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4

25) A medical term that means pertaining to the cerebrum and spine is Answer: cerebrospinal Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) A medical term that means pertaining to the meninges is Answer: meningeal Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

27) A medical term that means pertaining to nerves is Answer: neural Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) A medical term that means specialist in nerves is Answer: neurologist Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 29) A medical term that means pertaining to the pons is Answer: pontine Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) A medical term that means pertaining to the thalamus is Answer: thalamic Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

31) A medical term that means pertaining to within the meninges is Answer: intrathecal Page Ref: 437 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 32) A medical term that means absence of pain is Answer: analgesia Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

33) A medical term that means lack of feeling or sensation is Answer: anesthesia Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 34) A medical term that means lack of speech is Answer: aphasia Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

35) A medical term that means lack of muscle coordination is Answer: ataxia Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 36) A medical term that means head pain is Answer: cephalalgia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

37) A medical term that means inflammation of the cerebellum is Answer: cerebellitis Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 6

38) A medical term that means record of brain's electricity is Answer: electroencephalogram Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 39) A medical term that means nerve pain is Answer: neuralgia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

40) A medical term that means record of the spinal cord is Answer: myelogram Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

41) A medical term that means nerve root inflammation is Answer: radiculitis Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

42) A medical term that means nerve root disease is Answer: radiculopathy Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 43) A medical term that means paralysis of four (limbs) is Answer: quadriplegia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

44) A medical term that means weakness of one (limb) is Answer: monoparesis Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 45) A medical term that means difficult speech is Answer: dysphasia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

46) A medical term that means inflammation of the brain is Answer: encephalitis Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 47) A medical term that means meninges tumor is Answer: meningioma Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

48) A medical term that means spinal cord inflammation is Answer: myelitis Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 49) A medical term that means excessive sensation is Answer: hyperesthesia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 50) A medical term that means inflammation of many nerves is Answer: polyneuritis Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8

51) The combining form that means fear or worry is Answer: anxi/o Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 52) A combining form that means mind is Answer: ment/o; phren/o; psych/o Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

53) The combining form that means split is Answer: schiz/o Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

54) The combining form that means body is Answer: somat/o Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

55) The combining form that means sleep is Answer: somn/o Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

56) A suffix that means treatment is Answer: -therapy Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

57) The suffix that means physician is Answer: -iatrist Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 58) The suffix that means frenzy is Answer: -mania Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

59) The suffix that means pertaining to being attracted to is Answer: -philic Page Ref: 452 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 60) A medical term that means medical treatment of the mind is Answer: psychiatry Page Ref: 453 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

12.2 True/False Questions 1) Cranial nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Sensory nerves carry commands to muscles and glands. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sensory nerves send the sensory receptor information to the brain, and motor neurons carry motor commands to skeletal muscles and glands. Page Ref: 434 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

3) Electrical impulses require a neurotransmitter to cross the synaptic cleft. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) Myelin is a lipid molecule that insulates dendrites. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Myelin is a fatty substance that acts as insulation for axons, not dendrites. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) White matter is composed of myelinated nerve fibers. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 429 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Bundles of nerve fibers interconnecting different parts of the central nervous system are called ganglia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bundles of nerve fibers interconnecting different parts of the central nervous system are called tracts, not ganglia. Page Ref: 429 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) The largest section of the brain is the cerebrum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 429 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) The inner layer of the cerebrum is the cerebral cortex. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The outer, not inner, layer of the cerebrum is the cerebral cortex. Page Ref: 429 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

9) The brain contains four interconnected cavities called ventricles. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 431 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) There are 12 pairs of spinal nerves and 31 pairs of cranial nerves. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) The nerve root is the point where a nerve is attached to the central nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 434 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) The parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system stimulates the body in times of stress and crisis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The sympathetic branch, not the parasympathetic branch, of the autonomic nervous system stimulates the body in times of stress and crisis. Page Ref: 434 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) The term myelogram means a record of the spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 14) The term neurorrhaphy means ruptured nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term neurorrhexis means ruptured nerve. The term neurorrhaphy means suture a nerve. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 12

15) The term aphasia means unable to speak. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 16) The term anesthesia means the absence of pain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term analgesia means the absence of pain. The term anesthesia means lack of sensation. Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 17) An absence seizure is also called a petit mal seizure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) Delirium is the impairment of intellectual functioning. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Dementia is the impairment of intellectual functioning. Delirium is an abnormal state characterized by confusion, disorientation, and agitation. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 19) A convulsion is the alternation between involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) Hemiparesis is paralysis of one side of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body. Hemiplegia is paralysis of one side of the body. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13

21) A coma is profound unconsciousness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) Syncope means dizziness. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Syncope means fainting. Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) An aura is an unusual sensation that occurs before a seizure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 24) Paresthesia is the loss of the ability to control muscle movement. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. Palsy is the loss of ability to control muscle movement. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) An anesthesiologist is also trained in pain management. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 26) Paraplegia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. Paraplegia is paralysis of two limbs. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

27) A CVA is a stroke. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: 11, 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 28) A concussion is inflammation of the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain. Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) Epilepsy is a disturbance in the electrical activity of the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 30) A cerebral aneurysm is a dilated and enlarged vein in the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cerebral aneurysm is a dilated and enlarged artery, not vein, in the brain. Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 31) Symptoms of a migraine include severe head pain, nausea, and sensitivity to light. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Reye's syndrome develops in children following a viral infection, especially if the child is given aspirin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

33) Poliomyelitis is an infection of the spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) Myasthenia gravis is caused by a loss of the myelin sheath around a nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Multiple sclerosis is caused by a loss of the myelin sheath around a nerve. Myasthenia gravis is caused by insufficient neurotransmitters at a synapse. Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 35) Bell's palsy is facial paralysis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) Guillain-Barré syndrome occurs when there are not enough neurotransmitters at the synapse between two nerves. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Guillain-Barré syndrome occurs when there is a loss of myelin covering. Myasthenia gravis occurs when there are not enough neurotransmitters at the synapse between two nerves. Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) An astrocytoma is a tumor of the brain or spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

38) A meningocele means that the spinal cord and meninges are protruding through a gap in the vertebral column. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A myelomeningocele means that the spinal cord and meninges are protruding through a gap in the vertebral column. A meningocele means the meninges protrude through a gap in the vertebral column. Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) A subdural hematoma is bleeding within the meninges after they are torn by trauma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 446 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Shingles consists of painful blisters along the spinal cord. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Shingles consist of painful blisters on the body along a nerve path. Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Cerebral angiography is a diagnostic image of the blood vessels of the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) Myelography is a diagnostic image produced using ultrasound. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Myelography is an X-ray of the spinal cord after injection of dye into the spinal canal. Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 43) A nerve conduction velocity test can pinpoint an area of nerve damage. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 448 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17

44) A tractotomy is a surgical procedure used to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid from the brain and shunt it toward the abdominal cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A tractotomy is a surgical interruption of a nerve tract in the spinal cord. A cerebrospinal fluid shunt is a surgical procedure used to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid from the brain and shunt it toward the abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 45) An anticonvulsant is a medication used to treat seizures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 46) A laminectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove an obstruction from the carotid artery, which carries blood to the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove an obstruction from the carotid artery, which carries blood to the brain. A laminectomy is a removal of a portion of a vertebra to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) Narcotic analgesics are medications used to treat severe pain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 48) A hypnotic medication is used to treat Parkinson's disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A hypnotic medication is used to treat insomnia. Dopaminergic drugs are used to treat Parkinson's disease. Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

49) The abbreviation EEG stands for a diagnostic test. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 451 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 50) The abbreviation CVA is a diagnostic test for a stroke. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation CVA stands for cerebrovascular accident, commonly called a stroke, which is a pathological condition. Page Ref: 451 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 51) Abnormal psychology studies behaviors that are detrimental to society. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 453 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 52) A psychologist is a physician specializing in treating mental disorders. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A psychiatrist, not a psychologist, is a physician specializing in treating mental disorders. Page Ref: 453 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 53) Phobias and panic disorder are examples of anxiety disorders. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 453 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 54) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder means having deficits in social interaction and communication skills. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Autism means having deficits in social interaction and communication skills. Page Ref: 455 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 19

55) Narcolepsy is an inability to stop gambling. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Narcolepsy involves recurring episodes of sleeping during the daytime. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 56) Antisocial personality disorder includes exaggerated feelings of persecution. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Paranoid personality disorder includes exaggerated feelings of persecution. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 57) A person with explosive disorder is prone to extreme rages. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 454 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 58) Kleptomania means an uncontrollable impulse to steal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 454 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 59) Local anesthesia can be administered via the subcutaneous route. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

12.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following terms means surgical repair of a nerve? A) neuroplasty B) neuropexy C) neurorrhaphy D) neuropathy Answer: A Explanation: Neur/o means nerve and -plasty means surgical repair, so neuroplasty means surgical repair of a nerve. -pexy means surgical fixation, so neuropexy means surgical fixation of a nerve. -rrhaphy means suture, so neurorrhaphy means suture a nerve. -pathy means disease, so neuropathy means nerve disease. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 2) Which of the following is one of the two main components of the central nervous system? A) cranial nerves B) spinal cord C) motor neurons D) ganglion Answer: B Explanation: The central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is made up of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) Which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is NOT true? A) The nervous system coordinates all the activity of the body. B) The nervous system receives information from sensory receptors. C) The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. D) The nervous system adjusts the activity of muscles and glands. Answer: C Explanation: The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the peripheral, not autonomic, nervous system. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

4) Which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is NOT true? A) All portions of the nervous system are composed of nervous tissue. B) Motor nerves carry commands to muscles and glands. C) Cranial and spinal nerves are part of the central nervous system. D) Sensory nerves carry information to the central nervous system. Answer: C Explanation: Cranial and spinal nerves are part of the peripheral, not central, nervous system. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 3, 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dendrite—highly branched B) nerve cell body—contains nucleus and other organelles C) axon—receives impulse from previous cell D) synapse—junction between two neurons Answer: C Explanation: The dendrite, not axon, receives the impulse from the previous cell. The other pairs are matched correctly. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Which of the following statements regarding neuroglial cells is NOT true? A) Neuroglial cells conduct electrical impulses. B) Some neuroglial cells produce myelin. C) There is a variety of types of neuroglial cells. D) Neuroglial cells provide support for the neurons. Answer: A Explanation: Neurons, not neuroglial cells, conduct electrical impulses. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

7) Which of the following is NOT part of the brain? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) nerve root D) brainstem Answer: C Explanation: A nerve root is the point where a nerve is attached to the central nervous system. The cerebrum, diencephalon, and brainstem are all parts of the brain. Page Ref: 429, 434 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) frontal lobe—most anterior portion of the cerebrum B) parietal lobe—controls vision C) occipital lobe—most posterior portion of the cerebrum D) temporal lobe—controls hearing and smell Answer: B Explanation: The parietal lobe interprets language, not vision. The other pairs are matched correctly. Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Which part of the brain is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: B Explanation: The cerebrum is the part of the brain responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. The hypothalamus controls body temperature, appetite, sleep, sexual desire, and emotions. The cerebellum aids in coordinating voluntary body movements and maintaining balance and equilibrium. The thalamus serves as a center for relaying impulses from the eyes, ears, and skin to the cerebrum. Page Ref: 429 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

10) Which part of the brain serves as a center for relaying impulses from the eyes, ears, and skin to the cerebrum? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) pons D) thalamus Answer: D Explanation: The thalamus serves as a center for relaying impulses from the eyes, ears, and skin to the cerebrum. The hypothalamus controls body temperature, appetite, sleep, sexual desire, and emotions. The cerebrum is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. The pons connects the cerebellum to the rest of the brain. Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Which part of the brain controls body temperature, appetite, sleep, sexual desire, and emotions? A) hypothalamus B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus Answer: A Explanation: The hypothalamus controls body temperature, appetite, sleep, sexual desire, and emotions. The cerebrum is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. The cerebellum aids in coordinating voluntary body movements and maintaining balance and equilibrium. The thalamus serves as a center for relaying impulses from the eyes, ears, and skin to the cerebrum. Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which part of the brain consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus? A) pons B) cerebrum C) diencephalon D) medulla oblongata Answer: C Explanation: The diencephalon is made up of the thalamus and hypothalamus. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) Which part of the brain coordinates voluntary body movements and maintains balance? A) pons B) cerebrum C) diencephalon D) cerebellum Answer: D Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary body movements and maintains balance. The pons is the bridge between the cerebellum and the rest of the brain. The cerebrum is the area that processes thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. The diencephalon contains the thalamus and hypothalamus. Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem? A) hypothalamus B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) midbrain Answer: A Explanation: The hypothalamus is part of the diencephalon. The brainstem is made up of the pons, medulla oblongata, and the midbrain. Page Ref: 431 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Which of the following statements regarding the spinal cord is NOT true? A) Ascending tracts carry sensory information up to the brain. B) Cerebrospinal fluid is found within the central canal of the spinal cord. C) Descending tracts carry motor commands from the brain to a peripheral nerve. D) The spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongata down to the sacrum. Answer: D Explanation: The spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongata to the level of the second lumbar vertebra, not the sacrum. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 432, 433 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

16) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dura mater—tough, fibrous outer sac B) subdural space—space containing cerebrospinal fluid C) pia mater—innermost layer, lies directly on the brain D) arachnoid layer—attached to the pia mater by weblike filaments Answer: B Explanation: The subarachnoid space, not subdural, contains cerebrospinal fluid. The other pairs are correct. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) Which layer of the meninges forms the tough and fibrous outer sac? A) dura mater B) pia mater C) subdural layer D) arachnoid layer Answer: A Explanation: The dura mater is the tough and fibrous outer sac of the meninges. The pia mater is the innermost membrane layer that is applied directly to the brain and spinal cord. The subdural space is the actual space between the dura mater and arachnoid layers. The arachnoid layer is a thin, delicate layer attached to the pia mater by weblike filaments. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) Which layer of the meninges is applied directly to the surface of the brain? A) dura mater B) pia mater C) subdural space D) arachnoid layer Answer: B Explanation: The pia mater is applied directly to the surface of the brain. The dura mater is the tough and fibrous outer layer. The subdural space is the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer. The arachnoid layer is a thin, delicate layer attached to the pia mater by weblike filaments. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Which layer of the meninges forms weblike filaments? A) dura mater B) pia mater C) subdural space D) arachnoid layer Answer: D Explanation: The arachnoid layer is made up of weblike filaments. The dura mater is the tough and fibrous outer layer of the meninges. The pia mater is applied directly to the brain. The subdural space is the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) Which of the following is the part of a neuron that receives the impulse? A) dendrite B) nerve cell body C) axon D) myelin Answer: A Explanation: The dendrite is the part of the neuron that receives the impulse. The nerve cell body contains the nucleus and many of the other organelles of the cell. The axon conducts the electrical impulse toward its destination. Myelin is a fatty substance that acts as insulation for an axon. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Which of the following is the part of a neuron that conducts the electrical impulse toward its destination? A) dendrite B) nerve cell body C) axon D) myelin Answer: C Explanation: The axon conducts the electrical impulse toward its destination. The dendrite is the part of the neuron that receives the electrical impulse. The nerve cell body contains the nucleus and many of the organelles of the cell. Myelin is the fatty substance that acts as insulation for an axon. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

22) Which of the following is the insulating material found around a neuron? A) dendrite B) nerve cell body C) axon D) myelin Answer: D Explanation: Myelin is the insulating material found around a neuron. The dendrite is the part of the neuron that receives the electrical impulse. The nerve cell body contains the nucleus and many of the organelles of the cell. The axon conducts the electrical impulse toward its destination. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) Which of the following is the location of the nucleus of a neuron? A) dendrite B) nerve cell body C) axon D) myelin Answer: B Explanation: The nerve cell body contains the nucleus and many of the organelles of the cell. The dendrite is the part of the neuron that receives the electrical impulse. The axon is the part of the neuron that conducts the electrical impulse toward its destination. Myelin is the insulating material found around the axon. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24) Which of the following terms describes the elevated portions, or convolutions, on the surface of the cerebrum? A) gyri B) ventricles C) synapse D) sulci Answer: A Explanation: Gyri are the elevated portions of the cerebrum. Ventricles are cavities containing cerebrospinal fluid. The synapse is the point at which the axon of one neuron meets the dendrite of the next neuron. The sulci are the valleys separating the gyri. Page Ref: 429, 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

25) Which of the following terms describes the valleys separating the convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum? A) gyri B) ventricles C) synapse D) sulci Answer: D Explanation: Sulci are the valleys separating the convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum. The gyri are the elevations on the surface of the cerebrum. The ventricles are cavities containing cerebrospinal fluid. The synapse is the point at which the axon of one neuron meets the dendrite of the next neuron. Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) Which of the following is a CSF-containing cavity inside the brain tissue itself? A) gyri B) ventricle C) synapse D) sulci Answer: B Explanation: A ventricle is a cavity within the brain tissue that contains cerebrospinal fluid. Gyri are the convolutions on the surface of the brain. A synapse is the point at which the axon of one neuron meets the dendrite of the next neuron. The sulci are the valleys separating the gyri. Page Ref: 431 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) Which of the following is the point at which two neurons meet? A) gyri B) ventricles C) synapse D) sulci Answer: C Explanation: The synapse is the point at which the axon of one neuron meets the dendrite of the next neuron. The gyri are the elevated convolutions on the surface of the brain. The ventricles are cavities within the brain tissue containing cerebrospinal fluid. The sulci are the valleys between the gyri. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

28) A nerve is a bundle of carrying messages between the central nervous system and various parts of the body. A) ganglia B) sulci C) dendrites D) axons Answer: D Explanation: A bundle of axons carrying messages between the central nervous system and various parts of the body is a nerve. Ganglia is the plural of ganglion; a ganglion is the nerve cell bodies of the neurons forming a nerve grouped together in a knot-like mass outside of the central nervous system. Sulci are the valleys between the gyri. Dendrites are the end of the neuron that receives the electrical impulse from the axon of the previous neuron. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 29) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) sensory neuron—afferent neuron B) ganglion—knot-like mass of nerve cell bodies C) motor neuron—efferent neuron D) somatic nerves—serve the eyes and ears Answer: D Explanation: Somatic nerves serve different areas of the body, not the eyes and ears. The other pairs are correct. Page Ref: 434 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 30) Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous system is NOT true? A) The parasympathetic branch slows down the heart rate. B) The sympathetic branch dilates airways. C) The parasympathetic branch inhibits digestion. D) The sympathetic branch raises blood pressure. Answer: C Explanation: The sympathetic, not the parasympathetic, branch inhibits digestion. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 434 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

31) Which type of seizure is also called a petit mal seizure? A) absence seizure B) focal seizure C) tonic-clonic seizure D) grand mal seizure Answer: A Explanation: An absence seizure is also known as a petit mal seizure. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 32) Which type of seizure is also called a grand mal seizure? A) absence seizure B) focal seizure C) tonic-clonic seizure D) petit mal seizure Answer: C Explanation: A tonic-clonic seizure is also known as a grand mal seizure. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 33) Which type of seizure is localized, affecting a single limb? A) absence seizure B) focal seizure C) tonic-clonic seizure D) grand mal seizure Answer: B Explanation: A focal seizure is localized, affecting a single limb. An absence seizure is a loss of awareness and an absence of activity. A tonic-clonic seizure, also known as a grand mal seizure, alternates between strong continuous muscle spasms and rhythmic muscle contraction and relaxation. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

34) The sensation that occurs prior to an epileptic seizure is called: A) a hallucination. B) dementia. C) an aura. D) delirium. Answer: C Explanation: The sensation occurring prior to an epileptic seizure is called an aura. A hallucination is seeing, hearing, feeling, smelling, or tasting something that isn't there. Dementia is a progressive impairment of intellectual function. Delirium is the abnormal state characterized by confusion, disorientation, and agitation. Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 35) Paralysis on one side of the body is called: A) hemiplegia. B) dysphagia. C) palsy. D) hemiparesis. Answer: A Explanation: Hemiplegia is paralysis on one side of the body. Dysphagia is difficulty communicating. Palsy is temporary or permanent loss of function or voluntary movement. Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36) The abnormal mental state characterized by confusion, disorientation, and agitation is called: A) dementia. B) a convulsion. C) palsy. D) delirium. Answer: D Explanation: Delirium is characterized by confusion, disorientation, and agitation. Dementia is characterized by loss of memory. Convulsions are characterized by severe involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations. Palsy is characterized by loss of function or voluntary movement. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

37) Involuntary, repetitive, alternating movement of a body part is called: A) paresthesia. B) syncope. C) tremor. D) palsy. Answer: C Explanation: A tremor is an involuntary, repetitive, alternating movement of a body part. Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. Syncope is fainting. Palsy is the temporary or permanent loss of ability to control movement. Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) The medical term for fainting is: A) coma. B) syncope. C) seizure. D) aura. Answer: B Explanation: Syncope is the medical term for fainting. Coma is the medical term for profound unconsciousness. Seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms. An aura is the sensation experienced prior to a seizure or migraine. Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) Paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs is called: A) paraplegia. B) biplegia. C) paresthesia. D) hemiparesis. Answer: A Explanation: Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs. Biplegia is not a classification of paralysis. Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

40) The medical term for an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling is: A) tremor. B) paresthesia. C) seizure. D) syncope. Answer: B Explanation: A paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as burning or tingling. A tremor is involuntary repetitive movement of a body part. A seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms. Syncope is the medical term for fainting. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Anesthesia is used for the following cases EXCEPT: A) surgical procedures. B) resuscitation measures. C) pain management. D) identifying nerve damage areas. Answer: D Explanation: Anesthesia is used for surgical procedures, resuscitation measures, and the management of acute and chronic pain. It is not used to identify nerve damage areas. A nerve conduction velocity test measures how fast an impulse travels along a nerve, identifying areas of nerve damage. Page Ref: 438 Learning Obj.: 7, 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 42) The progressive impairment of intellectual function is called: A) coma. B) delirium. C) palsy. D) dementia. Answer: D Explanation: Dementia is the progressive impairment of intellectual function. A coma is a profound state of unconsciousness. Delirium is an abnormal mental state characterized by confusion, disorientation, and agitation. Palsy is the temporary or permanent loss of function or voluntary movement. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

43) A profound state of unconsciousness associated with an illness or injury is called: A) dementia. B) a coma. C) a convulsion. D) a focal seizure. Answer: B Explanation: A coma is a profound state of unconsciousness associated with an illness or injury. Dementia is a progressive impairment of intellectual functioning that interferes with the ability to perform activities of daily living. A convulsion is severe involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations. A focal seizure is a localized seizure often affecting one limb. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) The condition of being awake and alert to one's surroundings is called: A) conscious. B) dementia. C) aura. D) unconscious. Answer: A Explanation: The condition of being awake and alert to one's surroundings is called conscious. Dementia is progressive impairment of intellectual function that interferes with performing activities of daily living. An aura is the sensation experienced prior to a seizure or migraine. The condition or state of being unaware of surroundings, with the inability to respond to stimuli, is called unconscious. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 45) Which of the following pathological conditions might develop into a full-blown stroke? A) cerebral palsy B) transient ischemic attack C) cerebral contusion D) migraine Answer: B Explanation: A transient ischemic attack is a temporary interference with blood supply to the brain that may eventually lead to a full-blown stroke. Cerebral palsy is brain damage resulting from a defect, trauma, infection, or oxygen deprivation before, during, or shortly after birth. A cerebral contusion is a bruising of the brain from a blow or impact. A migraine is a specific type of headache characterized by severe head pain, sensitivity to light, dizziness, and nausea. Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

46) Which of the following pathological conditions occurs when there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain? A) Reye's syndrome B) cerebral palsy C) hydrocephalus D) cerebral contusion Answer: C Explanation: Hydrocephalus is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain ventricles. Reye's syndrome is encephalopathy associated with aspirin use in children. Cerebral palsy is brain damage resulting from a defect, trauma, or oxygen deprivation before, during, or shortly after birth. Cerebral contusion is bruising of the brain from a blow or impact. Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 47) Which of the following conditions is a collection of blood within the meninges? A) meningocele B) subdural hematoma C) meningioma D) astrocytoma Answer: B Explanation: A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood within the meninges. A meningocele is a congenital condition in which the meninges protrude through an opening in the vertebral column. A meningioma is a tumor in the meninges. An astrocytoma is a tumor of the brain or spinal cord that is composed of astrocytes. Page Ref: 446 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 48) Which of the following conditions is characterized by progressive dementia, disorientation, and loss of memory? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Reye's syndrome C) Bell's palsy D) Parkinson's disease Answer: A Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is characterized by progressive dementia, disorientation, and loss of memory. Reye's syndrome is a combination of symptoms that includes acute encephalopathy and damage to various organs, especially the liver. Bell's palsy is one-sided facial paralysis due to inflammation of the facial nerve. Parkinson's disease is a chronic disorder of the nervous system with fine tremors, muscular weakness, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 36

49) Which of the following conditions is characterized by encephalopathy and organ damage and is associated with aspirin use in children? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Reye's syndrome C) Bell's palsy D) Parkinson's disease Answer: B Explanation: Reye's syndrome is characterized by encephalopathy and organ damage and is associated with aspirin use in children. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by progressive disorientation, apathy, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory. Bell's palsy is characterized by one-sided facial paralysis due to inflammation of the facial nerve. Parkinson's disease is characterized by fine tremors, muscular weakness, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 50) Which of the following conditions is characterized by one-sided facial paralysis? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Reye's syndrome C) Bell's palsy D) Parkinson's disease Answer: C Explanation: Bell's palsy is characterized by one-sided facial paralysis. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by progressive disorientation, apathy, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory. Reye's syndrome is characterized by encephalopathy and organ damage and is associated with aspirin use in children. Parkinson's disease is characterized by fine tremors, muscular weakness, rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

51) Which of the following conditions is characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Reye's syndrome C) Bell's palsy D) Parkinson's disease Answer: D Explanation: Parkinson's disease is characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by progressive disorientation, apathy, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory. Reye's syndrome is characterized by encephalopathy and organ damage and is associated with aspirin use in children. Bell's palsy is characterized by one-sided facial paralysis. Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) What is the common name for a CVA? A) stroke B) Lou Gehrig's disease C) concussion D) seizure Answer: A Explanation: CVA stands for cerebrovascular accident, which is commonly known as a stroke. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 53) Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a cerebrovascular accident? A) cerebral hemorrhage B) embolus C) compression D) accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid Answer: D Explanation: A cerebral hemorrhage, an embolus, and compression are all potential causes of a cerebrovascular accident. The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid causes hydrocephalus. Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

54) The protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges through an opening in the vertebral column is called: A) multiple sclerosis. B) a meningocele. C) a myelomeningocele. D) myelitis. Answer: C Explanation: A myelomeningocele is a protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges through an opening in the vertebral column. Multiple sclerosis is an inflammatory disease of the CNS. A meningocele is a congenital condition in which the meninges protrude through an opening in the vertebral column. Myelitis is inflammation of the spinal cord. Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 55) A viral inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord is: A) spina bifida. B) poliomyelitis. C) hydrocephalus. D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Answer: B Explanation: A viral inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord is poliomyelitis. Spina bifida is a congenital defect in the walls of the spinal canal in which the laminae of the vertebra do not meet or close. Hydrocephalus is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a disease characterized by muscular weakness and atrophy due to degeneration of motor neurons of the spinal cord. Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

56) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition in which there is a loss of the myelin sheath around nerves? A) MS B) CVA C) TIA D) SCI Answer: A Explanation: MS stands for multiple sclerosis, a pathological condition in which there is a loss of the myelin sheath around nerves. CVA stands for cerebrovascular accident, a pathological condition in which there is a development of an infarct due to loss in the blood supply to an area of the brain. TIA stands for transient ischemic attack, a pathological condition in which there is a temporary interference with blood supply to the brain. SCI stands for spinal cord injury, damage to the spinal cord as a result of trauma. Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 57) Which of the following conditions results from a Herpes zoster virus infection of the nerve root? A) Guillain-Barré syndrome B) multiple sclerosis C) myasthenia gravis D) shingles Answer: D Explanation: Shingles is a Herpes zoster virus infection of the nerve root. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a disease of the nervous system that may be an autoimmune reaction. Multiple sclerosis is an inflammatory disease. Myasthenia gravis is a condition where there is an insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse. Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

58) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to an insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse? A) Guillain-Barré syndrome B) multiple sclerosis C) myasthenia gravis D) shingles Answer: C Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is due to an insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse. GuillainBarré syndrome is a loss of myelin covering of the nerves. Multiple sclerosis is a loss of myelin insulation around the nerves. Shingles is an eruption of painful blisters along a nerve path. Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 59) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to the loss of myelin insulation around the nerves? A) radiculopathy B) multiple sclerosis C) myasthenia gravis D) shingles Answer: B Explanation: Multiple sclerosis is due to the loss of myelin insulation around the nerves. Radiculopathy is pressure on a nerve root. Myasthenia gravis is due to an insufficient neurotransmitter at a synapse. Shingles is an eruption of painful blisters along a nerve path. Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 60) Which of the following diagnostic tests examines the blood vessels of the brain after the injection of a dye? A) nerve conduction velocity B) lumbar puncture C) positron emission tomography D) cerebral angiography Answer: D Explanation: Cerebral angiography is an X-ray of the blood vessels of the brain after an injection of radiopaque dye. A nerve conduction velocity test measures how fast an impulse travels along a nerve. A lumbar puncture is a puncture with a needle into the lumbar area to withdraw fluid for examination and for the injection of anesthesia. Positron emission tomography uses positively charged isotopes to image the brain's metabolically active tissue. Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 61) Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses positively charged isotopes to image the 41

brain's metabolically active tissues? A) nerve conduction velocity B) lumbar puncture C) positron emission tomography D) cerebral angiography Answer: C Explanation: Positron emission tomography uses positively charged isotopes to obtain an image of the brain. A nerve conduction velocity test measures how fast an impulse travels along a nerve. A lumbar puncture is a puncture with a needle into the lumbar area to withdraw fluid for examination and for the injection of anesthesia. Cerebral angiography is an X-ray of the blood vessels of the brain after the injection of radiopaque dye. Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 62) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis? A) nerve conduction velocity B) lumbar puncture C) positron emission tomography D) cerebral angiography Answer: B Explanation: A lumbar puncture is a puncture with a needle into the lumbar area to withdraw fluid for examination and for the injection of anesthesia. A nerve conduction velocity test measures how fast an impulse travels along a nerve. Positron emission tomography uses positively charged isotopes to obtain an image of the brain. Cerebral angiography is an X-ray of the blood vessels of the brain after the injection of radiopaque dye. Page Ref: 448 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

63) Which of the following diagnostic tests measures how fast an impulse travels along a nerve? A) nerve conduction velocity B) lumbar puncture C) positron emission tomography D) cerebral angiography Answer: A Explanation: A nerve conduction velocity test measures how fast an impulse travels along a nerve. A lumbar puncture is a puncture with a needle into the lumbar area to withdraw fluid for examination and for the injection of anesthesia. Positron emission tomography uses positively charged isotopes to obtain an image of the brain. Cerebral angiography is an X-ray of the blood vessels of the brain after the injection of radiopaque dye. Page Ref: 448 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which of the following surgical procedures treats hydrocephalus? A) cerebrospinal fluid shunt B) laminectomy C) carotid endarterectomy D) nerve block Answer: A Explanation: A cerebrospinal fluid shunt treats hydrocephalus. A laminectomy treats compression on a spinal nerve. A carotid endarterectomy clears blockages from the carotids. A nerve block is used to stop the passage of sensory or pain impulses along a nerve path. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 65) Which of the following procedures is a method of administering regional anesthetic? A) cerebrospinal fluid shunt B) laminectomy C) carotid endarterectomy D) nerve block Answer: D Explanation: A nerve block is a method of administering regional anesthetic. None of the other choices are anesthetics. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

66) Which of the following surgical procedures removes an obstruction from one of the major arteries of the neck? A) cerebrospinal fluid shunt B) laminectomy C) carotid endarterectomy D) nerve block Answer: C Explanation: A carotid endarterectomy removes an obstruction from one of the major arteries of the neck. A cerebrospinal fluid shunt treats hydrocephalus. A laminectomy treats pressure on the spinal nerve. A nerve block is a regional anesthetic. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which surgical procedure removes part of a vertebra to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve? A) cerebrospinal fluid shunt B) laminectomy C) carotid endarterectomy D) nerve block Answer: B Explanation: A laminectomy removes part of a vertebra to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve. A cerebrospinal fluid shunt creates a bypass to drain cerebrospinal fluid. A carotid endarterectomy removes an obstruction in the carotid. A nerve block is a regional anesthetic. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 68) Which of the following medications promotes sleep? A) anesthetic B) analgesic C) dopaminergic drugs D) hypnotic Answer: D Explanation: A hypnotic promotes sleep. An anesthetic produces a loss of sensation or a loss of consciousness. An analgesic treats minor to moderate pain. Dopaminergic drugs treat Parkinson's disease. Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

69) Which of the following medications is used to treat Parkinson's disease? A) anesthetic B) analgesic C) dopaminergic drugs D) hypnotic Answer: C Explanation: Dopaminergic drugs treat Parkinson's disease. An anesthetic produces a loss of sensation or a loss of consciousness. An analgesic treats minor to moderate pain. A hypnotic promotes sleep. Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 70) Which of the following medications is used to treat minor pain? A) anesthetic B) analgesic C) dopaminergic drugs D) hypnotic Answer: B Explanation: An analgesic is used to treat minor pain. An anesthetic produces a loss of sensation or a loss of consciousness. Dopaminergic drugs are used to treat Parkinson's disease. A hypnotic promotes sleep. Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 71) Which of the following medications produces a loss of consciousness? A) anesthetic B) analgesic C) dopaminergic drugs D) hypnotic Answer: A Explanation: An anesthetic produces a loss of sensation or a loss of consciousness. An analgesic is used to treat minor pain. Dopaminergic drugs are used to treat Parkinson's disease. A hypnotic promotes sleep. Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

72) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a stroke? A) CP B) EEG C) CSF D) CVA Answer: D Explanation: CVA stands for cerebrovascular accident, more commonly called a stroke. CP stands for cerebral palsy. EEG stands for an electroencephalogram. CSF stands for cerebrospinal fluid. Page Ref: 451 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic test? A) CP B) EEG C) MS D) ANS Answer: B Explanation: EEG stands for electroencephalogram, a diagnostic test. CP stands for cerebral palsy, a pathological condition. MS stands for multiple sclerosis, a pathological condition. ANS stands for autonomic nervous system. Page Ref: 451 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 74) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic image? A) CP B) CVD C) PET D) ANS Answer: C Explanation: PET stands for positron emission tomography, a diagnostic image. CP stands for cerebral palsy, a pathological condition. CVD stands for cerebrovascular disease. ANS stands for autonomic nervous system. Page Ref: 451 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

75) Which of the following abbreviations is a pathological condition? A) CP B) EEG C) PET D) ANS Answer: A Explanation: CP stands for cerebral palsy, a pathological condition. EEG stands for electroencephalogram, a diagnostic test. PET stands for positron emission tomography, a diagnostic test. ANS stands for autonomic nervous system. Page Ref: 451 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 76) Which of the following is an example of an anxiety disorder? A) phobias B) dissociative amnesia C) pyromania D) delusional disorder Answer: A Explanation: Phobias are an example of an anxiety disorder. Dissociative amnesia is an example of a dissociative disorder. Pyromania is an example of an impulse control disorder. Delusional disorder is an example of a psychotic disorder. Page Ref: 453 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 77) Which of the following is an example of a neurodevelopmental disorder? A) dementia B) anorexia nervosa C) encopresis D) autism spectrum disorder Answer: D Explanation: Autism is classified as a neurodevelopmental disorder. Dementia is an example of a neurocognitive disorder. Anorexia nervosa is a feeding and eating disorder. Encopresis is an example of an elimination disorder. Page Ref: 455 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

78) Which of the following is an example of an impulse control disorder? A) phobias B) dissociative amnesia C) pyromania D) anorexia nervosa Answer: C Explanation: Pyromania is an example of an impulse control disorder. Phobias are an example of an anxiety disorder. Dissociative amnesia is an example of a dissociative disorder. Anorexia nervosa is a feeding and eating disorder. Page Ref: 512 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 79) Which of the following disorders includes aberrant sexual activity? A) conversion disorder B) sleep-wake disorders C) psychotic disorders D) paraphilic disorders Answer: D Explanation: Paraphilic disorders include aberrant sexual activity. Conversion disorder transforms anxiety into physical symptoms. Sleep-wake disorders include insomnia and narcolepsy. Psychotic disorders include delusions and hallucinations. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 80) Psychoanalysis is an example of which type of mental health treatment procedure? A) electroconvulsive therapy B) psychopharmacology C) psychotherapy D) humanistic psychotherapy Answer: C Explanation: Psychoanalysis is an example of psychotherapy. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 458 Learning Obj.: 14 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

81) Dementia is an example of what category of mental disorder? A) neurocognitive disorders B) eating disorders C) personality disorders D) depressive disorders Answer: A Explanation: Dementia is an example of a neurocognitive disorder. Examples of eating disorders are anorexia nervosa and bulimia. Examples of personality disorders are paranoid personality disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, and antisocial personality disorder. Examples of depressive disorders are major depressive disorder and mania. Page Ref: 455 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 82) Anorexia nervosa is an example of what category of mental disorder? A) neurocognitive disorders B) feeding and eating disorders C) anxiety disorders D) obsessive-compulsive and related disorders Answer: B Explanation: Anorexia nervosa is a feeding and eating disorder. An example of a neurocognitive disorder is dementia. An example of an anxiety disorder is panic disorder or a phobia. An example of an obsessive-compulsive disorder is OCD. Page Ref: 454, 455 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 83) A patient diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder would have an abnormal sense of: A) body weight. B) helplessness. C) self-importance. D) time and space. Answer: C Explanation: Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an abnormal sense of selfimportance. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

84) An individual who alternates between periods of deep depression and mania may have which of the following disorders? A) delusional disorder B) antisocial personality disorder C) dissociative identity disorder D) bipolar disorder Answer: D Explanation: Bipolar disorder is characterized by periods of deep depression and mania. One with delusional disorder has a false belief even in the face of contrary evidence. One with an antisocial personality disorder is characterized by behaviors that go against legal or social norms. Someone with a dissociative identity disorder is characterized by severe emotional conflict and repression, which can result in a split in the personality. Page Ref: 454 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 85) Which of the following disorders is characterized by exaggerated feelings of persecution? A) paranoid personality B) narcissistic personality C) antisocial personality D) posttraumatic stress Answer: A Explanation: Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by exaggerated feelings of persecution. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an abnormal sense of selfimportance. Antisocial personality disorder is characterized by behaviors that are against legal or social norms. Posttraumatic stress disorder results from exposure to actual or implied death, serious injury, or sexual violence. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: 13 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

86) Which category of mental disorders pertains to patients who have physical symptoms for which no physical disease can be determined? A) schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders B) sleep-wake disorders C) somatic symptom and related disorders D) neurocognitive disorders Answer: C Explanation: Somatic symptom disorders are characterized by patients who have physical symptoms for which no physical disease can be determined. Schizophrenia is characterized by delusions and hallucinations. Sleep disorders are characterized by difficulties in the sleep-wake cycle. Neurocognitive disorders are characterized by deterioration of mental functions. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: 12 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 87) Which type of anesthesia is also known as a nerve block? A) intravenous B) regional C) topical D) local Answer: B Explanation: A nerve block is a regional anesthetic. Intravenous (IV) refers to the route for administering general anesthesia. Topical is a method of applying a local anesthesia. Local anesthesia produces a loss of sensation in one localized part of the body. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 88) Intravenous and inhalation are examples of: A) general anesthesia. B) topical anesthesia. C) regional anesthesia. D) local anesthesia. Answer: A Explanation: General anesthesia is administered intravenously or by inhalation. Topical is a method of applying a local anesthesia. Local anesthesia produces a loss of sensation in one localized part of the body. A regional anesthesia is injected near the nerve. Page Ref: 448 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

12.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) a type of regional anesthesia B) a stroke C) eruption of painful blisters along a nerve path D) fatty substance that insulates many neurons E) part of neuron that receives electrical impulses F) connects brain to spinal cord G) taking an X-ray of the spinal cord H) part of neuron that conducts electrical impulses I) neuroglial cell tumor J) paralysis of the lower part of the body K) accumulation of CSF in the ventricles of the brain L) image of brain using radioactive isotopes M) facial paralysis N) fluid found circulating within the brain O) contains thalamus and hypothalamus P) a type of spina bifida Q) impaired intellectual function R) contains pons and medulla oblongata S) loss of myelin sheath around neurons T) grand mal seizure U) profound unconsciousness V) coordinates voluntary body movements W) brain damage that occurs around time of birth X) recording the electrical activity of the brain Y) a calming medication 1) axon Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) dendrite Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) astrocytoma Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52

4) myelin Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) diencephalon Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) brainstem Page Ref: 431 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) cerebellum Page Ref: 430 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) medulla oblongata Page Ref: 431 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) paraplegia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) tonic-clonic Page Ref: 440 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

11) coma Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12) dementia Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) cerebral palsy Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) meningocele Page Ref: 443 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) hydrocephalus Page Ref: 442 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) Bell's palsy Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) multiple sclerosis Page Ref: 444 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) shingles Page Ref: 445 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 54

19) brain scan Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 20) myelography Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 21) EEG Page Ref: 447 Learning Obj.: 8, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 22) CSF Page Ref: 424 Learning Obj.: 3, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) nerve block Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 24) sedative Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 25) CVA Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology Answers: 1) H 2) E 3) I 4) D 5) O 6) R 7) V 8) F 9) J 10) T 11) U 12) Q 13) W 14) P 15) K 16) M 17) S 18) C 19) L 20) G 21) X 22) N 23) A 24) Y 25) B

12.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe what a cerebrovascular accident is and the different causes for one. Answer: A cerebrovascular accident (or a stroke) occurs when the blood supply is cut off to the brain. An infarct or dead area develops. Causes: • Hemorrhagic—ruptured blood vessel • Embolus—a floating clot lodges in a cerebral vessel • Thrombus—a stationary clot forms within a cerebral blood vessel • Compression—a space-occupying lesion (like a tumor) pinches off an adjacent blood vessel Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 2) Describe the difference between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. Answer: 1. Central nervous system • Consists of the brain and spinal cord • Covered by meninges 2. Peripheral nervous system • Consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves • Attached to central nervous system by a nerve root • Also includes the autonomic nervous system • Sympathetic branch increases organ activity to support increased body activity • Parasympathetic branch is the opposite of the sympathetic branch and returns body to resting status Page Ref: 428-435 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Chapter 13 Special Senses: The Eye and Ear 13.1 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, a combining form meaning heart is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning cell is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning two is bi-. Do not capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will not recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means dull or dim is Answer: ambly/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means color is Answer: chromat/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

3) The combining form that means eyelid is Answer: blephar/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

4) The combining form that means conjunctiva is Answer: conjunctiv/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

5) The combining form that means pupil is Answer: pupill/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) A combining form that means cornea is Answer: corne/o; kerat/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

7) The combining form that means ciliary body is Answer: cycl/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) A combining form that means tears is Answer: dacry/o; lacrim/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

9) The combining form that means double is Answer: dipl/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

10) The combining form that means gray is Answer: glauc/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

11) A combining form that means iris is Answer: ir/o; irid/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) A combining form that means eye is . Answer: ocul/o; ophthalm/o; optic/o; opt/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means vision is Answer: opt/o; optic/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

14) The combining form that means night is Answer: nyctal/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

15) The combining form that means optic disk is Answer: papill/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

16) The combining form that means lens is Answer: phac/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

17) The combining form that means light is Answer: phot/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means old age is Answer: presby/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

19) The combining form that means retina is Answer: retin/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

20) The combining form that means sclera is Answer: scler/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

21) A combining form that means water (besides hydr/o) is Answer: aque/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The combining form that means choroid is Answer: uve/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

23) The combining form that means glassy is Answer: vitre/o Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A combining form that means hearing is Answer: acous/o; audi/o; audit/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

25) A combining form that means ear is Answer: aur/o; auricul/o; ot/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

26) The combining form that means cerumen is Answer: cerumin/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

27) The combining form that means cochlea is Answer: cochle/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

28) The combining form that means labyrinth is Answer: labyrinth/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

29) A combining form that means eardrum (tympanic membrane) is Answer: myring/o; tympan/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 30) The combining form that means auditory tube is Answer: salping/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

31) The combining form that means stapes is Answer: staped/o Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) The suffix that means hearing is Answer: -cusis Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

33) The suffix that means ear condition is Answer: -otia Page Ref: 492 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

34) The suffix that means specialist in measuring is Answer: -metrist Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) A suffix that means vision condition is Answer: -opia; -opsia Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) The suffix that means turned condition is Answer: -tropia Page Ref: 472 Learning Obj.: 1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

37) A medical term that means pertaining to the cornea is Answer: corneal Page Ref: 480 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6

38) A medical term that means pertaining to tears is Answer: lacrimal Page Ref: 480 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

39) A medical term that means pertaining to within the eye is Answer: intraocular Page Ref: 480 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) A medical term that means study of the eye is Answer: ophthalmology Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

41) A medical term that means specialist in measuring vision is Answer: optometrist Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 42) A medical term that means pertaining to the pupil is Answer: pupillary Page Ref: 480 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43) A medical term that means pertaining to the retina is Answer: retinal Page Ref: 480 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

44) A medical term that means pertaining to the sclera is Answer: scleral Page Ref: 480 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

45) A medical term that means pertaining to hearing is Answer: acoustic; auditory Page Ref: 498 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 46) A medical term that means study of hearing is Answer: audiology Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

47) A medical term that means pertaining to the cochlea is Answer: cochlear Page Ref: 498 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

48) A medical term that means pertaining to the eardrum (tympanic membrane) is Answer: tympanic Page Ref: 498 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 49) A medical term that means ear pain is Answer: otalgia Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology

50) A medical term that means pus discharge from the ear is Answer: otopyorrhea Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 8

13.2 True/False Questions 1) The optic nerve carries images to the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 474 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) The retina is the middle layer of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The retina is the innermost, not middle, layer of the eyeball. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) The sclera is the white of the eye. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 474 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 4) The iris is responsible for refracting light rays. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The cornea, not the iris, is responsible for refracting (bending) light rays. Page Ref: 474 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) The ciliary body changes the shape of the lens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) The macula lutea is the center of the fovea centralis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The fovea centralis is the center of the macula lutea. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9

7) The aqueous humor is a watery substance in the front region of the eyeball. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) Cerumen is produced by oil glands in the middle ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cerumen is produced by oil glands in the auditory canal, not the middle ear. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) The pupil is responsible for admitting the correct amount of light into the eyeball. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) The utricle and saccule are sensory organs for hearing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The utricle and saccule are sensory organs for equilibrium, not hearing. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) The auricle is also called the pinna. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 494 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Conductive hearing loss may be caused by damage to the cochlear nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sensorineural, not conductive, hearing loss may be caused by damage to the cochlear nerve. Page Ref: 496 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

13) Emmetropia is a term meaning normal vision. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) An optician is a specialist in testing visual acuity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An optometrist, not an optician, is a specialist in testing visual acuity. Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 15) Nyctalopia is night blindness due to damaged rods. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) Papilledema is swelling of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Papilledema is swelling of the optic disk, not the eyeball. Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 17) Photophobia is a strong sensitivity to bright light. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 18) Presbyopia means night blindness. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Nyctalopia means night blindness. Presbyopia is visual loss due to old age. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

19) Xerophthalmia means dry eyes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) Myopia is caused by an abnormal curvature of the lens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Astigmatism, not myopia, is caused by an abnormal curvature of the lens. Page Ref: 484 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 21) Amblyopia occurs when a person loses vision not as a result of actual eye pathology. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) Glaucoma is the result of a cloudy or opaque lens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cataract, not glaucoma, is the result of a cloudy or opaque lens. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) Glaucoma develops in response to an increase in intraocular pressure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 24) Macular degeneration is a condition affecting the choroid layer of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Macular degeneration is a condition affecting the retina, not the choroid layer. Page Ref: 483 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

25) Retinoblastoma is a cancerous eye tumor that occurs in children. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 484 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 26) Exotropia is the inward turning of the eye, also called cross-eyed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Esotropia, not exotropia, is the inward turning of the eye, also called cross-eyed. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 27) A Snellen chart is used to evaluate distance vision. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 487 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 28) Tonometry measures the movement of the eardrum. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tympanometry, not tonometry, measures the movement of the eardrum. Page Ref: 502 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 29) Radial keratotomy uses spoke-like incisions in the cornea to correct myopia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 489 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 30) Strabotomy is the surgical procedure used to fix a detached retina. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Retinopexy, not strabotomy, is the surgical procedure used to fix a detached retina. Page Ref: 489 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

31) The ear is responsible for two senses: hearing and balance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 494 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 32) The tympanic membrane divides the middle ear from the outer ear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 33) LASIK is a procedure to correct myopia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 34) XT is the abbreviation for xerophthalmia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: XT is the abbreviation for exotropia. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 35) ASL is a nonverbal method of communication using the hands and fingers. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 503 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 36) Hertz measures the intensity or loudness of a sound. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hertz measures the frequency or pitch of sound. Decibel measures the intensity or loudness of a sound. Page Ref: 501 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

37) Presbycusis refers to the loss of hearing as part of the normal aging process. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Tinnitus is a term meaning dizziness. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tinnitus means ringing in the ears; vertigo means dizziness. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 39) A ceruminosis is the excessive accumulation of earwax. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Otitis media is also called swimmer's ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Otitis externa, not media, is also called swimmer's ear. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Otosclerosis affects the stapes bone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 42) An acoustic neuroma is a cancerous tumor of the sheath around the eighth cranial nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An acoustic neuroma is a benign, not cancerous, tumor of the sheath around the eighth cranial nerve. Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

43) Another term for labyrinthitis is inner ear infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) A cochlear implant is a device to improve bone conduction hearing loss. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cochlear implant is a device to improve sensorineural, not bone conduction, hearing loss. Page Ref: 503 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 45) Audiometry is a test of hearing ability. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 501 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 46) Phacoemulsification is a treatment procedure for astigmatism. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Phacoemulsification is a treatment procedure for cataracts. Page Ref: 489 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 47) A mydriatic drop is a medication to dilate the pupil of the eye. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 490 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 48) Hyperopia means nearsighted. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hyperopia means farsighted; myopia means nearsighted. Page Ref: 483 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

49) Nystagmus may be an indicator of brain damage. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 50) Emmetropia is an example of strabismus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Esotropia and exotropia are examples of strabismus. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13.3 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which medical term does NOT mean pertaining to the eye? A) otic B) ocular C) ophthalmic D) optic Answer: A Explanation: Otic means pertaining to the ear. Ocular, ophthalmic, and optic mean pertaining to the eye. Page Ref: 498 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Which medical term does NOT mean pertaining to the ear? A) otic B) acoustic C) aural D) auricular Answer: B Explanation: Acoustic means pertaining to hearing. Otic, aural, and auricular mean pertaining to the ear. Page Ref: 498 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

3) Which term means double vision? A) hemianopia B) nyctalopia C) diplopia D) exotropia Answer: C Explanation: Dipl/o means double and -opia means vision condition, so diplopia means condition of double vision. Hemi- means half and anmeans without; thus, hemianopia means lack of vision in half the visual field. Nyctal/o means night; therefore, nyctalopia means night blindness. Exo- means outward and -tropia means turned condition; hence, exotropia is outward turning of the eye. Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 4) Which term means instrument to view inside the eye? A) optoscopy B) pupilloscope C) intraocular D) ophthalmoscope Answer: D Explanation: Ophthalm/o means eye and -scope means instrument for viewing; therefore, ophthalmoscope means instrument for viewing inside the eye. Optoscopy is not a medical term. Pupilloscope is not a medical term. Intra- means within, ocul/o means eye, and -ar means pertaining to, so intraocular means pertaining to within the eye. Page Ref: 487 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 5) Which term means surgical repair of the eyelid? A) blepharoplasty B) conjunctivoplasty C) retinoplasty D) lacrimoplasty Answer: A Explanation: Blephar/o means eyelid and -plasty means surgical repair; therefore, blepharoplasty means surgical repair of the eyelid. Conjunctiv/o means conjunctiva, so conjunctivoplasty means surgical repair of the conjunctiva. Retin/o means retina; thus, retinoplasty means surgical repair of the retina. Lacrimoplasty is not a medical term. Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

6) Which term means softening of the sclera? A) scleromegaly B) scleromalacia C) scleropathy D) sclerotomy Answer: B Explanation: Scler/o means sclera and -malacia means abnormal softening; therefore, scleromalacia means abnormal softening of the sclera. -megaly means enlarged, so scleromegaly means enlarged sclera. -pathy means disease, so scleropathy means disease of the sclera. -otomy means cutting into, so sclerotomy means cutting into the sclera. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Pathology 7) Which term means record of hearing? A) otogram B) auriculogram C) audiogram D) keratometry Answer: C Explanation: Audi/o means hearing and -gram means record; therefore, audiogram means record of hearing. Otogram and auriculogram would mean record of ear. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Page Ref: 501 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 8) Which term means cutting into the eardrum (tympanic membrane)? A) tympanectomy B) myringoplasty C) tympanopathy D) myringotomy Answer: D Explanation: Myring/o means eardrum and -otomy means cutting into; therefore, myringotomy means cutting into the eardrum. Tympan/o means eardrum and -ectomy means surgical removal; thus, tympanectomy means surgical removal of the eardrum. -plasty means surgical repair, so myringoplasty means surgical repair of the eardrum. -pathy means disease, so tympanopathy means disease of the eardrum. Page Ref: 504 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

9) Tears are produced by the: A) lacrimal apparatus. B) conjunctiva. C) eyeball. D) lens. Answer: A Explanation: The lacrimal apparatus produces tears. The conjunctiva serves as protection for the eyeball. The eyeball is the organ of sight. The lens focuses incoming light rays onto the retina. Page Ref: 477 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10) Which of the following is NOT a layer of the eyeball? A) sclera B) lens C) retina D) choroid Answer: B Explanation: The lens is attached to the muscular ciliary body. The sclera, retina, and choroid are layers of the eyeball. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) The anterior portion of the sclera is the: A) pupil. B) iris. C) cornea. D) lens. Answer: C Explanation: The cornea is the anterior portion of the sclera. The pupil and iris are the anterior portion of the choroid. The lens is attached to this layer by the ciliary body. Page Ref: 474 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

12) Which of the following structures is responsible for refracting light rays? A) pupil B) lens C) iris D) cornea Answer: D Explanation: The cornea bends, or refracts, the light rays. The pupil admits the proper amount of light. The lens focuses incoming light onto the retina. The iris controls the size of the pupil. Page Ref: 474 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 13) The opening in the center of the iris is the: A) pupil. B) retina. C) lens. D) conjunctiva. Answer: A Explanation: The opening in the center of the iris is the pupil. The retina is the innermost layer of the eyeball. The lens is behind the iris. The conjunctiva lines the eyelids. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 14) Which of the following structures focuses incoming light rays onto the retina? A) iris B) lens C) pupil D) ciliary body Answer: B Explanation: The lens focuses light rays onto the retina. The iris controls the size of the pupil. The pupil allows light in. The ciliary body attaches the lens to the choroid layer. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

15) Which of the following structures are the sensory receptor cells active in dim light? A) cones B) lens C) rods D) optic disk Answer: C Explanation: Rods are active in dim light. Cones are active in bright light. The lens focuses light rays onto the retina. The optic disk is where the retinal blood vessels enter and exit the eyeball and where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 16) Which of the following structures are the sensory receptor cells that see color? A) cones B) lens C) rods D) optic disk Answer: A Explanation: Cones see color. The lens focuses light rays on the retina. Rods are active in dim light. The optic disk is where the retinal blood vessels enter and exit the eyeball and where the optic nerve exits the eyeball. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 17) Which of the following statements regarding the retina is NOT true? A) Light strikes the retina at the macula lutea. B) The center of the macula lutea is the fovea centralis. C) The point of sharpest vision is the optic disk. D) Rods and cones are found in the retina. Answer: C Explanation: The optic disk is the blind spot of the eye. The point of clearest vision is the fovea centralis. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

18) Which of the following statements regarding the eye muscles is NOT true? A) Rectus muscles pull in a straight line. B) Strabismus occurs when there is a weakness in one of the eye muscles. C) Oblique muscles pull on an angle. D) There are four eye muscles for each eye. Answer: D Explanation: There are six muscles for each eye. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 476 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 19) Which of the following statements regarding the eye is NOT true? A) Eyelashes are also called cilia. B) The colored portion of the eye is the pupil. C) There are sebaceous glands in the eyelid. D) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane covering the anterior surface of the eyeball. Answer: B Explanation: The iris is the colored portion of the eye. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) Which layer of the eye is responsible for supplying blood to the eye? A) retina B) choroid C) sclera D) lens Answer: B Explanation: The choroid layer is responsible for supplying blood to the eye. The retina contains the sensory receptors that respond to light rays. The sclera provides the tough protective outer coating, and the cornea refracts the light rays coming into the eyeball. The lens is not a layer. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

21) Which layer of the eye contains the sensory receptors for sight? A) retina B) choroid C) sclera D) lens Answer: A Explanation: The retina contains the sensory receptors for sight. The choroid supplies the blood to the eye. The sclera protects the eye. The lens is not a layer. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22) Which of the following statements regarding the mechanisms necessary for proper vision is inaccurate? A) Eye muscles are correctly coordinated so that both eyes move together. B) The correct amount of light is admitted by the ciliary body. C) Light is correctly focused onto the retina by the lens. D) The optic nerve transmits sensory images to the brain. Answer: B Explanation: The pupil admits the correct amount of light, not the ciliary body. The other statements are accurate. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23) Which cranial nerve carries hearing and equilibrium sensory information to the brain? A) vestibulocochlear B) facial C) trigeminal D) auditory Answer: A Explanation: The vestibulocochlear nerve carries hearing and equilibrium information to the brain. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 494 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

24) Which of the following structures is NOT part of the external ear? A) auricle B) malleus C) auditory canal D) tympanic membrane Answer: B Explanation: The malleus is part of the middle ear. The auricle, auditory canal, and tympanic membrane are part of the external ear. Page Ref: 494 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 25) The opening to the outer ear is the: A) oval window. B) elongated window. C) external auditory meatus. D) tympanic membrane. Answer: C Explanation: The external auditory meatus is the opening to the outer ear. The oval window covers the opening into the inner ear. There isn't an elongated window. The tympanic membrane separates the external ear from the middle ear. Page Ref: 494 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) Which of the following is NOT one of the ossicles? A) malleus B) incus C) stapes D) cochlea Answer: D Explanation: The cochlea is not an ossicle. The malleus, incus, and stapes are ossicles. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

27) The ossicles are located in which cavity of the ear? A) external B) middle C) inner D) cerumen Answer: B Explanation: The ossicles are located in the middle ear. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 28) The connects the nasopharynx and the middle ear. A) auditory canal B) cochlea C) auditory tube D) ossicles Answer: C Explanation: The auditory (eustachian) tube connects the middle ear and nasopharynx. Sound moves along the auditory canal to the tympanic membrane. The cochlea is the organ for hearing. The ossicles vibrate to the sound waves to transmit them to the inner ear. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 29) The inner ear is located within the bone. A) parietal B) frontal C) occipital D) temporal Answer: D Explanation: The inner ear is found in the temporal bone. The other choices are incorrect. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

30) Which of the following statements regarding the inner ear is NOT true? A) The fluid-filled cavity of the inner ear is called the labyrinth. B) The hearing and equilibrium sensory organs are in the labyrinth. C) The semicircular canals are the sensory organs for hearing. D) The sensory organs in the inner ear contain hair cells. Answer: C Explanation: The semicircular canals are for equilibrium. The other statements are true. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 31) Which of the following sensory organs is NOT for balance? A) cochlea B) semicircular canal C) utricle D) saccule Answer: A Explanation: The cochlea is for hearing. The semicircular canal, utricle, and saccule are for balance. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 32) Which of the following statements regarding hearing is NOT true? A) Conductive hearing loss is the result of an abnormality in the outer or middle ear. B) Fluid vibrations in the cochlea strike hair cells, which stimulate the nerve ending. C) Sensorineural hearing loss is the result of damage to the inner ear or cochlear nerve. D) The ossicles conduct vibrations across the inner ear. Answer: D Explanation: The ossicles conduct vibrations across the middle ear, from the eardrum to the oval window. The other choices are true. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

33) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) otomicosis B) labyrinthectomy C) salpingotomy D) tympanorrhexis Answer: A Explanation: The term should be spelled otomycosis. The other terms are spelled correctly. Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 34) Which of the following terms refers to both ears? A) binaural B) presbycusis C) tinnitus D) vertigo Answer: A Explanation: Binaural refers to both ears. Presbycusis refers to normal hearing loss associated with aging. Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Vertigo refers to dizziness. Page Ref: 498 Learning Obj.: 6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) Which of the following terms refers to the normal loss of hearing associated with aging? A) binaural B) presbycusis C) tinnitus D) vertigo Answer: B Explanation: Presbycusis refers to the normal hearing loss associated with aging. Binaural refers to both ears. Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Vertigo refers to dizziness. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

36) Which of the following terms refers to ringing in the ears? A) binaural B) presbycusis C) tinnitus D) vertigo Answer: C Explanation: Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Binaural refers to both ears. Presbycusis is the normal loss of hearing associated with aging. Vertigo refers to dizziness. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 37) Which of the following terms refers to dizziness? A) binaural B) presbycusis C) tinnitus D) vertigo Answer: D Explanation: Vertigo refers to dizziness. Binaural refers to both ears. Presbycusis refers to normal hearing loss associated with aging. Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ears. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 38) Which of the following pathological conditions is the total absence of hearing? A) anacusis B) otitis media C) otosclerosis D) labyrinthitis Answer: A Explanation: Anacusis is the total absence of hearing. Otitis media is inflammation of the middle ear. Otosclerosis is the loss of mobility of the stapes bone. Labyrinthitis is also referred to as an inner ear infection. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

39) Which of the following pathological conditions is an ear infection commonly seen in children? A) anacusis B) otitis media C) otosclerosis D) labyrinthitis Answer: B Explanation: Otitis media is commonly seen in children because their eustachian tube is shorter than an adult's. Anacusis is a total absence of hearing. Otosclerosis is loss of mobility of the stapes bone. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear infection. Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 40) Which of the following pathological conditions is the loss of mobility of the stapes? A) anacusis B) otitis media C) otosclerosis D) labyrinthitis Answer: C Explanation: Otosclerosis is the loss of the mobility of the stapes. Anacusis is the total absence of hearing. Otitis media is a middle ear infection. Labyrinthitis is an inner ear infection. Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 41) Which of the following pathological conditions is an inner ear infection? A) anacusis B) otitis media C) otosclerosis D) labyrinthitis Answer: D Explanation: Labyrinthitis is an inner ear infection. Anacusis is a total absence of hearing. Otitis media is a middle ear infection. Otosclerosis is the loss of mobility of the stapes. Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

42) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to abnormal curvature of the cornea? A) astigmatism B) cataract C) glaucoma D) strabismus Answer: A Explanation: Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. A cataract is damage to the lens. Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to an opaque or cloudy lens? A) astigmatism B) cataract C) glaucoma D) strabismus Answer: B Explanation: A cataract is damage to the lens causing it to become opaque or cloudy. Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 44) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to increased intraocular pressure? A) astigmatism B) cataract C) glaucoma D) strabismus Answer: C Explanation: Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure. Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. A cataract is an opaque or cloudy lens. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

45) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to weakened eye muscles? A) astigmatism B) cataract C) glaucoma D) strabismus Answer: D Explanation: Strabismus is caused by eye muscle weakness. Astigmatism is caused by an abnormal curvature of the cornea. A cataract is an opaque or cloudy lens. Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 46) Which of the following pathological conditions is characterized by jerky involuntary eye movements? A) nystagmus B) photophobia C) hemianopia D) strabismus Answer: A Explanation: Nystagmus is jerky involuntary eye movements. Photophobia is sensitivity to light. Hemianopia is loss of vision in half of the visual field. Strabismus is weakened eye muscles. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 47) Which of the following pathological conditions is the loss of half the visual field, often due to a stroke? A) nystagmus B) photophobia C) hemianopia D) strabismus Answer: C Explanation: Hemianopia is loss of half the visual field. Nystagmus is jerky involuntary eye movements. Photophobia is sensitivity to light. Strabismus is weakened eye muscles. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

48) Which of the following pathological conditions is a purulent infection of a sebaceous gland on the eyelid? A) oculomycosis B) hordeolum C) esotropia D) pterygium Answer: B Explanation: A hordeolum, or stye, is a purulent infection of a sebaceous gland on the eyelid. Oculomycosis is an abnormal condition of eye fungus. Esotropia is being cross-eyed. Pterygium is hypertrophied conjunctival tissue in the inner corner of the eye. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Which of the following pathological conditions is commonly called pinkeye? A) conjunctivitis B) hordeolum C) blepharitis D) pterygium Answer: A Explanation: Conjunctivitis is commonly called pinkeye. A hordeolum is commonly called a stye. The terms blepharitis and pterygium do not have common names. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 50) Which of the following pathological conditions is complete color blindness? A) monochromatism B) astigmatism C) achromatopsia D) retinitis pigmentosa Answer: C Explanation: Achromatopsia is complete color blindness. Monochromatism is the inability to perceive one color. Astigmatism is an abnormal curvature of the cornea. Retinitis pigmentosa is a progressive disease of the eye resulting in the retina becoming hard, pigmented, and atrophied. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

51) Which of the following pathological conditions is also called nearsightedness? A) esotropia B) presbyopia C) hyperopia D) myopia Answer: D Explanation: Myopia is nearsightedness. Hyperopia is farsightedness. Esotropia is cross-eyed. Presbyopia is normal visual loss due to aging. Page Ref: 484 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 52) Which of the following pathological conditions affects part of the retina? A) macular degeneration B) cataract C) amblyopia D) strabismus Answer: A Explanation: Macular degeneration affects the macular area of the retina. A cataract affects the lens. Amblyopia can occur if strabismus is not corrected. Strabismus is eye muscle weakness. Page Ref: 483 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 53) Which of the following pathological conditions is an example of strabismus? A) nystagmus B) exotropia C) hordeolum D) photophobia Answer: B Explanation: Exotropia is an example of strabismus. The term nystagmus refers to jerkyappearing involuntary eye movements. A hordeolum is a stye. Photophobia is a strong sensitivity to light. Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

54) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to identify corneal abrasions or ulcers? A) tonometry B) ophthalmoscopy C) fluorescein staining D) keratometry Answer: C Explanation: Fluorescein staining identifies corneal abrasions or ulcers. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Ophthalmoscopy looks into the eye. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Page Ref: 486 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 55) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the interior of the eye? A) fluorescein staining B) ophthalmoscopy C) tonometry D) keratometry Answer: B Explanation: Ophthalmoscopy views the inside of the eye. Fluorescein staining identifies corneal abrasions or ulcers. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Page Ref: 487 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 56) Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures intraocular pressure? A) fluorescein staining B) ophthalmoscopy C) keratometry D) tonometry Answer: D Explanation: Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Fluorescein staining identifies corneal ulcers or abrasions. Ophthalmoscopy views inside the eye. Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Page Ref: 487 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

57) Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures the curvature of the cornea? A) fluorescein staining B) ophthalmoscopy C) tonometry D) keratometry Answer: D Explanation: Keratometry measures the curvature of the cornea. Fluorescein staining identifies corneal abrasions or ulcers. Ophthalmoscopy views inside the eye. Tonometry measures intraocular pressure. Page Ref: 487 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 58) Which of the following diagnostic procedures would identify achromatopsia? A) color vision test B) fluorescein angiography C) slit lamp microscopy D) visual acuity Answer: A Explanation: A color vision test would identify achromatopsia, color blindness. Fluorescein angiography is used to identify retinal detachment. Slit lamp microscopy examines the posterior surface of the cornea. Visual acuity tests the sharpness of vision. Page Ref: 486 Learning Obj.: 7, 8 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 59) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test of hearing ability? A) falling test B) Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test C) otoscopy D) audiometry Answer: D Explanation: Audiometry tests hearing ability. The falling test checks balance. The Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test assesses bone and nerve conduction of sound. Otoscopy views inside the ear. Page Ref: 501 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

60) Which of the following diagnostic procedures assesses both nerve and bone conduction of sound? A) audiometry B) Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test C) otoscopy D) falling test Answer: B Explanation: The Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test assesses nerve and bone conduction of sound. Audiometry tests hearing ability. Otoscopy views inside the ear. A falling test checks balance. Page Ref: 502 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 61) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the auditory canal? A) otoscopy B) Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test C) audiometry D) falling test Answer: A Explanation: Otoscopy examines the auditory canal. The Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test assesses nerve and bone conduction of sound. Audiometry tests hearing ability. The falling test checks balance. Page Ref: 502 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 62) Which of the following diagnostic procedures evaluates balance and equilibrium? A) audiometry B) Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test C) otoscopy D) falling test Answer: D Explanation: The falling test evaluates balance and equilibrium. Audiometry tests hearing ability. The Rinne and Weber tuning-fork test assesses nerve and bone conduction of sound. Otoscopy looks inside the ear. Page Ref: 502 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

63) Which of the following surgical procedures means to remove the eyeball? A) photorefractive keratectomy B) laser photocoagulation C) enucleation D) scleral buckling Answer: C Explanation: Enucleation removes the eyeball. Photorefractive keratectomy corrects errors of refraction. Laser photocoagulation destroys a piece of the retina. Scleral buckling stabilizes a detaching retina. Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 64) Which of the following surgical procedures means to destroy a small precise area of the retina? A) enucleation B) scleral buckling C) photorefractive keratectomy D) laser photocoagulation Answer: D Explanation: Laser photocoagulation destroys a small precise area of the retina. Enucleation removes the eyeball. Scleral buckling stabilizes a detaching retina. Photorefractive keratectomy reshapes the cornea. Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 65) Which of the following surgical procedures reshapes the cornea? A) enucleation B) laser photocoagulation C) photorefractive keratectomy D) scleral buckling Answer: C Explanation: Photorefractive keratectomy reshapes the cornea. Enucleation removes the eyeball. Laser photocoagulation destroys a small piece of the retina. Scleral buckling stabilizes a detaching retina. Page Ref: 489 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

66) Which of the following surgical procedures stabilizes a detaching retina? A) scleral buckling B) laser photocoagulation C) photorefractive keratectomy D) enucleation Answer: A Explanation: Scleral buckling stabilizes a detaching retina. Laser photocoagulation destroys a piece of the retina. Photorefractive keratectomy reshapes the cornea. Enucleation involves the surgical removal of the eyeball. Page Ref: 489 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 67) Which of the following surgical procedures corrects myopia? A) LASIK B) phacoemulsification C) cryoretinopexy D) strabotomy Answer: A Explanation: LASIK stands for laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis, a surgical procedure to correct myopia. Phacoemulsification treats cataracts. Cryoretinopexy treats retinal detachment. Strabotomy treats strabismus. Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 68) Which of the following surgical procedures is the treatment for otosclerosis? A) myringotomy B) stapedectomy C) cochlear implant D) otoscopy Answer: B Explanation: A stapedectomy treats otosclerosis. A myringotomy treats chronic ear infections. A cochlear implant treats sensorineural hearing loss. Otoscopy views inside the ear. Page Ref: 504 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

69) Which of the following surgical procedures is the treatment for profound sensorineural hearing loss? A) myringotomy B) stapedectomy C) cochlear implant D) otoscopy Answer: C Explanation: A cochlear implant treats sensorineural hearing loss. A myringotomy treats chronic ear infections. A stapedectomy treats otosclerosis. Otoscopy views inside the ear. Page Ref: 503 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 70) Which abbreviation refers to something that is increased in cases of glaucoma? A) IOP B) c.gl. C) s.gl. D) EOM Answer: A Explanation: Glaucoma is an increase in intraocular pressure, or IOP. Correction with glasses is abbreviated c.gl., without correction or glasses is abbreviated s.gl., and extraocular movement is abbreviated EOM. Page Ref: 482, 491 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 71) Which abbreviation stands for a surgical procedure? A) VA B) PRK C) XT D) Ophth Answer: B Explanation: PRK stands for photorefractive keratectomy, a surgical procedure. VA stands for visual acuity, a diagnostic test. XT stands for exotropia, a pathological condition. Ophth stands for ophthalmology. Page Ref: 489, 491 Learning Obj.: 9, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

72) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition of the eye muscles? A) VA B) PRK C) XT D) EM Answer: C Explanation: XT stands for exotropia, a pathological condition. VA stands for visual acuity, a diagnostic test. PRK stands for photorefractive keratectomy, a surgical procedure. EM stands for emmetropia, or normal vision. Page Ref: 485, 491 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition of the ear? A) dB B) ENT C) ASL D) OM Answer: D Explanation: OM stands for otitis media, a pathological condition. dB stands for decibel. ENT stands for ear, nose, and throat. ASL stands for American Sign Language. Page Ref: 500, 505 Learning Obj.: 7, 11 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 74) Which medication treats the nausea associated with an inner ear infection? A) antiemetic B) miotic C) emulsifier D) mydriatic Answer: A Explanation: Antiemetics treat nausea. A miotic drop makes the pupil constrict. An emulsifier softens earwax. A mydriatic drop dilates the pupil. Page Ref: 505 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

75) Which medication causes the pupil to constrict? A) antiemetic B) miotic C) emulsifier D) mydriatic Answer: B Explanation: A miotic drop causes the pupil to constrict. An antiemetic treats nausea. An emulsifier softens earwax. A mydriatic drop dilates the pupil. Page Ref: 490 Learning Obj.: 10 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

13.4 Matching Questions Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. A) swimmer's ear B) a mucous membrane C) paralysis of the ciliary body D) jerky involuntary eye movements E) old-age vision F) symptoms include vertigo and tinnitus G) white of the eye H) total deafness I) dilates and constricts to control light into eye J) produces tears K) an ossicle L) color blindness M) measures pitch of sound N) night blindness O) grinds corrective lenses P) contains rods and cones Q) visual acuity of 20/200 R) ringing in the ears S) removal of the eyeball T) sensory organ for hearing U) otorhinolaryngology V) pinna W) hypertrophied conjunctiva X) point of sharpest vision Y) normal vision 1) sclera Page Ref: 474 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) retina Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 3) fovea centralis Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 43

4) pupil Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 5) conjunctiva Page Ref: 477 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) lacrimal apparatus Page Ref: 477 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 7) cycloplegia Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 8) emmetropia Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) legally blind Page Ref: 483 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 10) optician Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists

11) nyctalopia Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 12) presbyopia Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 13) achromatopsia Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) pterygium Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 15) nystagmus Page Ref: 485 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 16) enucleation Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: 9 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 17) auricle Page Ref: 494 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) malleus Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45

19) cochlea Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: 3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20) ENT Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 11 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Specialties and Specialists 21) tinnitus Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 22) anacusis Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 23) hertz Page Ref: 501 Learning Obj.: 8 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures 24) otitis externa Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 25) Ménière's disease Page Ref: 500 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology Answers: 1) G 2) P 3) X 4) I 5) B 6) J 7) C 8) Y 9) Q 10) O 11) N 12) E 13) L 14) W 15) D 16) S 17) V 18) K 19) T 20) U 21) R 22) H 23) M 24) A 25) F

13.5 Short Answer Questions 1) Describe the path of light through the eye. Answer: Light striking the retina to produce an image passes through the: • Cornea • Pupil • Aqueous humor • Lens • Vitreous humor • Retina In order to see properly, the following must be in place: • Coordination between external eye muscles so that both eyes move together • Correct amount of light admitted by the pupil • Correct focus of light on the retina by the lens • Optic nerve transmits sensory images to the brain Page Ref: 477 Learning Obj.: 4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2) Describe the difference between conductive hearing loss and sensorineural hearing loss. Answer: Conductive hearing loss: • Result of disease or malformation of the outer or middle ear • All sound is weaker and muffled because it is not conducted correctly to the inner ear Sensorineural hearing loss: • Result of damage or malformation of the inner ear (cochlea) or the cochlear nerve • Some sounds are distorted and heard incorrectly Page Ref: 496 Learning Obj.: 7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

Medical Terminology: A Living Language, 7e (Fremgen/Frucht) Final Exam Multiple Choice Questions 1) A combining form consists of a word root and a: A) vowel. B) prefix. C) suffix. D) second word root. Answer: A Explanation: Correct. A combining form consists of a word root and a vowel, usually o. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.1: Discuss the four parts of medical terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) Which word part frequently gives the location of an organ? A) suffix B) word root C) combining vowel D) prefix Answer: D Explanation: Correct. A prefix gives information about the location of an organ, the number of parts, or time (frequency). The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.1: Discuss the four parts of medical terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) What portion of a Medical Record contains reports from various treatments and therapies? A) History and Physical B) Consultation Report C) Ancillary Report D) Discharge Summary Answer: C Explanation: Correct. An Ancillary Report contains results of treatments and therapies. A History and Panel detailed the patient's history. A Consultation Report is given by specialists whom the physician has asked to evaluation the patient. A Discharge Summary is a comprehensive outline of the patient's entire hospital stay. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.8: Recognize the documents found in a medical record. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Record

4) Which healthcare setting provides services in a prepaid system? A) health maintenance organization B) hospices C) nursing homes D) home health care Answer: A Explanation: Correct. A health maintenance organization provides services in a prepaid system. A hospice is a supportive treatment for terminally ill patients and their families. A nursing home provides long-term care for patients needing extra time to recover from illness or injury before returning home. Home health care provides nursing, therapy, personal care, or housekeeping services in a patient's own home. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.9: Recognize the different healthcare settings. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Healthcare Settings 5) Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions? A) frontal plane B) sagittal plane C) transverse plane D) median plane Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The frontal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. The sagittal plane is a vertical plane running lengthwise front to back that divides the body into right and left portions. The transverse plane is the horizontal plane. The median plane occurs when the sagittal plane passes through the middle of the body to create equal right and left halves. Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.8: Define the body planes. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 6) Skin belongs to which organ system? A) gastrointestinal B) endocrine C) cardiovascular D) integumentary Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The integumentary system contains the skin and its accessory organs. The gastrointestinal system involves the stomach and digestion. The endocrine system regulates metabolic activities. The cardiovascular system pumps blood through the body to transport nutrients, oxygen, and wastes. Page Ref: 32 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.6: List the major organs found in the 12 organ systems and their related medical specialties. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 2

7) Which of the following phrases does NOT describe the anatomical position? A) palms facing the side of the body B) feet and toes pointing forward C) arms at the sides D) standing erect Answer: A Explanation: In the anatomical position, the palms face forward. The feet and toes also point forward, the arms are at the sides, and the body is standing erect. Page Ref: 36, 37 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.7: Describe the anatomical position. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 8) The knee joint is to the ankle joint. A) proximal B) lateral C) distal D) inferior Answer: A Explanation: Correct. The knee is closer to the beginning of the leg than the ankle. The knee is not lateral to the ankle joint because it is not to the side, it is not distal because it is not further away than the ankle joint from the point of attachment to the body, and it is not inferior to the ankle joint because it is not more toward the feet or below that structure. Page Ref: 44 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.12: Define directional terms. Taxonomy: Applying Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 9) Which anatomical division of the abdomen is in the center of the upper row? A) umbilical B) epigastric C) hypochondriac D) hypogastric Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The epigastric region is in the center of the upper row. The umbilical region is in the center of the middle row over the navel. The hypochondriac regions are on the right or left lateral regions of the upper row. The hypogastric region is the middle region of the lower row beneath the navel. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.11: Locate and describe the nine anatomical and four clinical divisions of the abdomen. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

10) Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs? A) thoracic cavity B) spinal cavity C) pelvic cavity D) abdominal cavity Answer: A Explanation: Correct. The thoracic cavity contains the heart and lungs. The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord. The pelvic cavity contains various organs of the digestive, reproductive, and urinary systems. The abdominal cavity contains various organs of the digestive system. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.10: List the body cavities and their contents. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11) Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the skin? A) sebaceous gland B) fat C) nails D) hair Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Fat makes up the tissue in the subcutaneous layer. The sebaceous glands, nails, and hair are accessory organs of the skin. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: Chapter 3.5: List and describe the accessory organs of the skin. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12) Which common skin lesion is a crack-like groove on the skin? A) macule B) wheal C) fissure D) papule Answer: C Explanation: Correct. A fissure is a crack-like groove on the skin. A macule is a flat, discolored area flush with the skin surface. A wheal is a small, round, swollen area on the skin. A papule is a small, solid, circular, raised spot on the skin. Page Ref: 66 Learning Obj.: Chapter 3.7: Identify and define selected integumentary system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

13) Which of the following neoplasms is benign? A) basal cell carcinoma B) malignant melanoma C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) nevus Answer: D Explanation: Correct. A nevus is usually benign. The other three answers are neoplasms that are malignant. Page Ref: 67 Learning Obj.: Chapter 3.7: Identify and define selected integumentary system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 14) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) dermis—also called the corium B) epidermis—contains basal cell layer C) dermis—contains nerves D) epidermis—contains blood vessels Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The epidermis depends on the dermis for its blood supply. The dermis is also called the corium and contains nerve fibers, and the deepest layer of the epidermis is the basal layer. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: Chapter 3.4: Describe the layers of the skin and the subcutaneous layer and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 15) Which of the following terms means to scrape away superficial skin layers? A) liposuction B) cryosurgery C) debridement D) curettage Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Curettage means to use a surgical instrument to scrape the skin. Liposuction removes fat beneath skin. Cryosurgery uses extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Debridement removes foreign material and dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: Chapter 3.9: Identify and define selected integumentary system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures

16) Which of the following medications is used to kill bacteria in skin cuts and wounds? A) antifungal B) antiseptic C) corticosteroid cream D) anesthetic Answer: B Explanation: Correct. An antiseptic is used to kill bacteria in skin cuts and wounds. Antifungals kill fungi. Corticosteroid cream has anti-inflammatory properties. Anesthetic deadens pain when applied to skin. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: Chapter 3.10: Identify and define selected medications relating to the integumentary system. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 17) Which of the following is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton? A) cranium B) metacarpus C) scapula D) femur Answer: A Explanation: Correct. The cranium is part of the axial skeleton. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 95 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.4: Correctly place bones in either the axial or the appendicular skeleton. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 18) What is the common name for the clavicle? A) shoulder blade B) kneecap C) upper arm bone D) collar bone Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The collar bone is the clavicle. The shoulder blade is the scapula. The kneecap is the patella. The upper arm bone is the humerus. Page Ref: 100 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the musculoskeletal system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

19) Which term describes a fracture in which the bone is shattered? A) comminuted B) closed C) compound D) greenstick Answer: A Explanation: Correct. In a comminuted fracture, the bone is shattered, splintered, or crushed. A closed fracture does not break the skin. A compound fracture does break the skin. A greenstick fracture involves an incomplete break in the bone. Page Ref: 108 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.11: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 20) What type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, like the stomach? A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) striated muscle Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs, tube-shaped organs, and blood vessels. Cardiac muscle makes up the wall of the heart. Skeletal muscle is attached to a bone and produces voluntary movement of the skeleton. Striated muscle is a type of skeletal muscle. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.8: Describe the characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21) Which term means movement away from the midline of the body? A) adduction B) eversion C) pronation D) abduction Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Abduction means movement away from the midline of the body. Adduction is movement toward the midline of the body. Eversion is turning outward. Pronation is to turn downward or backward as with the hand or foot. Page Ref: 125 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.9: Use movement terminology correctly. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

22) Which term refers to the surgical fusion of a joint to provide stability? A) arthroclasia B) arthrotomy C) arthrocentesis D) arthrodesis Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Arthrodesis means surgical fusion of a joint. Arthroclasia means to forcibly break loose a fused joint. Arthrotomy is a surgical procedure that cuts into a joint capsule. Arthrocentesis is inserting a needle into a joint cavity to aspirate fluid. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.13: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures 23) Which abbreviation stands for a surgical procedure? A) ORIF B) LE C) RA D) BDT Answer: A Explanation: Correct. ORIF stands for "open reduction—internal fixation." LE is "lower extremity," RA is "rheumatoid arthritis," and BDT is "bone density testing." Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.15: Define selected abbreviations associated with the musculoskeletal system. Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 24) Which diagnostic procedure provides an X-ray of a joint after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space? A) arthroscopy B) myelography C) dual-energy absorptiometry D) arthrography Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Arthrography provides an X-ray of a joint after injection of a contrast medium into the joint space. Myelography is the study of the spinal column after injection of opaque contrast material. Dual-energy absorptiometry is measurement of bone density using low-dose X-ray. Arthroscopy is examination of the interior of a joint. Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.12: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system diagnostic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

25) are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart. A) Veins B) Capillaries C) Vena cavae D) Arteries Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Arteries like the aorta carry blood away from the heart and to the body's tissues. Veins carry blood back to the heart. Capillaries allow the diffusion of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into body tissue. Deoxygenated blood from the tissues of the body enters the vena cavae. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: Chapter 5.7: List and describe the characteristics of the three types of blood vessels. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26) Which of the choices below is NOT a heart valve? A) semilunar B) mitral C) tricuspid D) perilunar Answer: D Explanation: Correct. There is no perilunar valve. All of the other answers are heart valves. Page Ref: 152 Learning Obj.: Chapter 5.4: Describe the anatomy of the heart. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 27) The is the pacemaker of the heart. A) atrioventricular node B) sinoatrial node C) atrioventricular bundle D) autonomic nervous system Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The sinoatrial node initiates a heartbeat. The atrioventricular node receives stimulation from the SA node and transfers the stimulation wave to the atrioventricular bundle. The heart rate is regulated by the autonomous nervous system, part of which is the conduction system of the heart. Page Ref: 153 Learning Obj.: Chapter 5.6: Explain how the electrical conduction system controls the heartbeat. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

28) Which of the following terms describes severe chest pain? A) myocardial infarction B) aneurysm C) angina pectoris D) endocarditis Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Angina pectoris is severe chest pain from oxygen deficiency to the heart muscle. Angina pectoris is a symptom of myocardial infarction, or heart attack. Aneurysm is a weakness in the wall of an artery resulting in localized widening of the artery. Endocarditis is inflammation of the lining membranes of the heart. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: Chapter 5.10: Identify and define selected cardiovascular system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 29) Which of the following terms is used to indicate a surgical procedure to dilate a vessel using a balloon? A) endarterectomy B) defibrillation C) arterial anastomosis D) angioplasty Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Balloon angioplasty inflates a balloon inside a vessel to dilate it and increase blood flow. Endarterectomy is the removal of the diseased or damaged inner lining of an artery. Defibrillation is a procedure that converts serious irregular heartbeats. Arterial anastomosis is a surgical joining of two arteries. Page Ref: 172 Learning Obj.: Chapter 5.12: Identify and define selected cardiovascular system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Treatments and Procedures

30) Which of the following terms describes the use of ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures? A) echocardiography B) Holter monitor C) electrocardiogram D) stress testing Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Echocardiography utilizes ultrasound to obtain an image of inside the heart. A Holter monitor is a portable ECG. An electrocardiogram is the hardcopy record produced by an electrocardiography. A stress test is a method for evaluating cardiovascular fitness. Page Ref: 169 Learning Obj.: Chapter 5.11: Identify and define selected cardiovascular system diagnostic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures 31) Which type of blood transfusion uses a patient's own blood? A) homologous B) plasmapheresis C) autologous D) venipuncture Answer: C Explanation: Correct. An autologous transfusion returns a patient's own blood to him or her. A homologous blood transfusion is received from another person. Plasmapheresis and venipuncture are not blood transfusions. Page Ref: 197 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.9: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures 32) Which abbreviation is NOT a blood test? A) KS B) ESR C) HCT D) CBC Answer: A Explanation: Correct. KS stands for "Kaposi's sarcoma," a type of cancer. ESR is "erythrocyte sedimentation rate," HCT is "hematocrit," and CBC "complete blood count." Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.11: Define selected abbreviations associated with blood and the lymphatic and immune systems. Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

33) Which term is a condition in which the body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid? A) lymphadenitis B) mononucleosis C) adenoiditis D) lymphedema Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Lymphedema occurs when excessive fluid accumulates in the tissues. Lymphadenitis is inflammation of lymph nodes, mononucleosis is an acute infectious disease with a large number of abnormal mononuclear lymphocytes, and adenoiditis is inflammation of adenoids. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.7: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 34) Which of the following is NOT one of the formed elements of blood? A) erythrocytes B) plasma C) platelets D) leukocytes Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Plasma is the liquid portion of blood. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets are formed elements of blood. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.3: List the major components, structures, and organs of the blood and lymphatic and immune systems and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 35) Which of the following tests measures the volume of erythrocytes within the total volume of blood? A) prothrombin time B) monospot C) differential D) hematocrit Answer: D Explanation: Correct. A hematocrit measures the volume of erythrocytes within the total volume of blood. Prothrombin time is a measure of clotting time. A monospot is a blood test for infectious mononucleosis. A differential determines the number of each variety of leukocytes in a volume of blood. Page Ref: 196 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.8: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system diagnostic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

36) Which medication is used to dissolve existing blood clots? A) anticoagulant B) hematinic C) fibrinolytic D) antihemorrhagic Answer: C Explanation: Correct. A fibrinolytic is a drug used to dissolve existing blood clots. An anticoagulant prevents blood clot formation. A hematinic increases the number of erythrocytes or amount of hemoglobin in blood. An antihemorrhagic prevents or stops hemorrhaging. Page Ref: 198 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.10: Identify and define selected medications associated with blood and the lymphatic and immune systems. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 37) A fetus receiving antibodies from its mother across the placenta is an example of immunity. A) passive acquired B) natural C) innate D) active acquired Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Antibodies crossing the placenta is an example of passive acquired immunity. Natural or innate immunity is not specific to a particular disease and does not come from previous exposure to a pathogen. Active acquired immunity develops following direct exposure to a pathogenic agent. Page Ref: 206 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.5: Discuss immunity, the immune response, and standard precautions. Taxonomy: Applying Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 38) Which of the following conditions is a hereditary disease with a prolonged blood clotting time? A) polycythemia vera B) hemophilia C) sarcoidosis D) hematoma Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Hemophilia is a genetic disease that results in prolonged and uncontrolled bleeding. Polycythemia vera is the production of too many red blood cells by bone marrow. Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease that forms fibrous lesions. A hematoma is a bruise. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: Chapter 6.7: Identify and define selected blood and lymphatic and immune system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

39) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) trachea—windpipe B) larynx—bronchi C) alveoli—air sacs D) pharynx—throat Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The larynx is commonly known as the voice box. The trachea is the windpipe, the alveoli are air sacs, and the pharynx is the throat. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: Chapter 7.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the respiratory system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 40) The collections of lymphatic tissue found in the throat are known as the: A) epistaxis. B) epiglottis. C) cilia. D) tonsils. Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Tonsils are collections of lymphatic tissues to fight bacteria in the throat. Epistaxis is a nosebleed. The epiglottis sits above the glottis. Cilia are very small hairs. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: Chapter 7.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the respiratory system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 41) An instrument used to measure lung capacity is the: A) oximeter. B) bronchoscope. C) intubation. D) spirometer. Answer: D Explanation: Correct. A spirometer is an instrument used to measure the air capacity of the lungs. An oximeter measures the amount of oxygen in the bloodstream. A bronchoscope is used to view inside the bronchus. Intubation is placing a tube in the trachea to create a patent airway. Page Ref: 250 Learning Obj.: Chapter 7.8: Identify and define selected respiratory system diagnostic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

42) Which of the following conditions is commonly known as whooping cough? A) asphyxia B) atelectasis C) cystic fibrosis D) pertussis Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Pertussis is an infectious lung disease known as whooping cough. Asphyxia is a lack of oxygen that must be corrected immediately. Atelectasis is the collapse of the alveoli in a portion of the lung. Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary condition that causes the exocrine glands to malfunction. Page Ref: 244 Learning Obj.: Chapter 7.7: Identify and define selected respiratory system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 43) Which procedure is a surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid? A) pleurocentesis B) thoracostomy C) thoracentesis D) bronchoplasty Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Thoracentesis is a surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid. Pleurocentesis is insertion of a needle into the pleural space to withdraw fluid. Thoracostomy is insertion of a tube into the chest cavity to drain off fluid or air. Bronchoplasty is surgical repair of a bronchus. Page Ref: 252 Learning Obj.: Chapter 7.9: Identify and define selected respiratory system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures 44) Which of the following pathologies is caused by a fungal infection? A) empyema B) histoplasmosis C) pneumothorax D) silicosis Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Histoplasmosis is caused by a fungus carried in bird droppings. Empyema is usually associated with bacterial infection. Pneumothorax is the collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity. Silicosis develops from inhalation of silica dust. Page Ref: 246 Learning Obj.: Chapter 7.7: Identify and define selected respiratory system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

45) Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system? A) digest food B) eliminate waste C) absorb nutrients D) metabolic activity Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The endocrine system regulates metabolic activities. The other answers are functions of the digestive system. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the digestive system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 46) Which choice below has the structures of the alimentary canal in proper order? A) stomach—jejunum—sigmoid colon B) rectum—duodenum—cecum C) stomach—ascending colon—ileum D) cecum—sigmoid colon—ascending colon Answer: A Explanation: Correct. These structures are in the correct order. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the digestive system and their functions. Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 47) Which of the teeth listed below are for tearing and cutting food? A) molars B) bicuspids C) incisors D) premolars Answer: C Explanation: Correct. The incisors are for tearing and cutting food. The molars and bicuspids (or premolars) are for grinding and crushing food. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.4: Identify the shape and function of each type of tooth. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

48) Which of the following terms refers to indigestion? A) gastralgia B) dyspepsia C) emesis D) polyphagia Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Dyspepsia means indigestion. Gastralgia is stomach pain. Emesis is vomiting. Polyphagia is excessive eating. Page Ref: 285 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.7: Identify and define selected digestive system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 49) Which of the following terms means having gallstones? A) cholecystitis B) cirrhosis C) cholelithiasis D) choledocholithotripsy Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Cholelithiasis means the condition of having gallstones. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. Cirrhosis is a chronic disease of the liver. Choledocholithotripsy is the crushing of a gallstone in the common bile duct. Page Ref: 291 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.7: Identify and define selected digestive system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 50) Which of the following terms means inflammation of an outpouching off the intestines? A) enteritis B) diverticulitis C) ulcerative colitis D) diverticulosis Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Diverticulitis means inflammation of an outpouching off the intestines. Diverticulosis is the condition of having diverticula. Enteritis is inflammation of the small intestine. Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory condition resulting in numerous ulcers forming on the mucous membrane lining of the colon. Page Ref: 288 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.7: Identify and define selected digestive system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

51) Which medication is used to treat nausea? A) anorexiant B) laxative C) antiemetic D) antacid Answer: C Explanation: Correct. An antiemetic is used to treat nausea. A laxative treats constipation. An anorexiant treats obesity. An antacid neutralizes stomach acid. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.10: Identify and define selected medications relating to the digestive system. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 52) Which abbreviation is NOT a pathological condition? A) PUD B) IBS C) GERD D) CBD Answer: D Explanation: Correct. CBD stands for "common bile duct." The other answers are pathological conditions: peptic ulcer disease, irritable bowel syndrome, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: Chapter 8.11: Define selected abbreviations associated with the digestive system. Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 53) Name the structure that leads from the bladder to the outside of the body. A) renal pelvis B) ureters C) urethra D) meatus Answer: C Explanation: Correct. The urethra carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 314 Learning Obj.: Chapter 9.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the urinary system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) Which abbreviation stands for a blood test to measure kidney function? A) CRF B) ESWL C) BUN D) HD Answer: C Explanation: Correct. BUN stands for "blood urea nitrogen," a blood test that measures the level of nitrogenous waste that is in the blood. CRF is chronic renal failure, ESWL is extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy, and HD is hemodialysis, none of which are tests. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: Chapter 9.11: Define selected abbreviations associated with the urinary system. Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 55) Name the first stage of urine production. A) secretion B) micturition C) filtration D) reabsorption Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Filtration is the first stage of urine production. Reabsorption is the second and secretion is the third. Micturition is another word for urination. Page Ref: 318 Learning Obj.: Chapter 9.4: Describe the nephron and the mechanisms of urine production. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Which of the following terms means an abnormal excretion of large amounts of urine? A) diuresis B) hesitancy C) enuresis D) urgency Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Diuresis is the increased formation and excretion of urine. Hesitancy is a decrease in the force of the urine stream. Enuresis is the involuntary discharge of urine after the age by which bladder control should have been established. A diuretic is a substance that increases the amount of urine excreted. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: Chapter 9.7: Identify and define selected urinary system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

57) The term calculus means: A) a spasm in a tubular organ. B) a stone. C) a bacterial infection. D) a blood test. Answer: B Explanation: Correct. A calculus is another term for stone. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: Chapter 9.7: Identify and define selected urinary system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 58) Which procedure uses ultrasound to break up stones? A) peritoneal dialysis B) catheterization C) nephrolithotomy D) extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy uses ultrasound waves to break up stones. Peritoneal dialysis is filtering wastes out of the blood across the peritoneum. Catheterization is insertion of a tube through the urethra and into the urinary bladder for the purpose of withdrawing urine or inserting dye. Nephrolithotomy is cutting into the kidney to remove stones. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: Chapter 9.9: Identify and define selected urinary system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures 59) A child born before completing at least 37 weeks of gestation is: A) a spontaneous abortion. B) a stillbirth. C) gravida. D) premature. Answer: D Explanation: Correct. A child born before completing 37 weeks of gestation is premature. A spontaneous abortion is unplanned loss of a pregnancy due to the death of the embryo or fetus before it is viable. Stillbirth is a birth in which a viable-aged fetus dies shortly before or at the time of delivery. -gravida is a suffix meaning "pregnant woman." Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.4: Use medical terms to describe circumstances relating to pregnancy. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) Which organ is NOT one of the female internal organs of reproduction? A) uterine tubes B) clitoris C) ovaries D) vagina Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The clitoris is a small organ containing erectile tissue found on the outside of the body. The other answers female internal organs of reproduction. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the reproductive systems and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) Which medication is used to treat impotence? A) erectile dysfunction agents B) oxytocin C) androgen therapy D) fertility drugs Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Erectile dysfunction agents are used to treat impotence. Androgen therapy replaces male hormones to treat patients who produce insufficient hormone naturally. Oxytocin is a natural hormone that begins or improves uterine contractions during labor and delivery. Fertility drugs trigger ovulation. Page Ref: 382 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.10: Identify and define selected medications relating to the reproductive system. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 62) Which of the following terms means painful cramping associated with menstruation? A) amenorrhea B) eclampsia C) menorrhagia D) dysmenorrhea Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Dysmenorrhea combines the combining form for menstruation with the prefix for painful and the suffix for flow. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 359 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.6: Identify and define selected reproductive system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

63) Which treatment procedure removes a core of cervical tissue? A) episiotomy B) conization C) lumpectomy D) dilation and curettage Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Conization removes a core of cervical tissue. Episiotomy is surgical incision of the perineum to facilitate the delivery process. A lumpectomy is removal of a breast tumor and the tissue immediately surrounding it. Dilation and curettage is a surgical procedure in which the opening of the cervix is dilated and the uterus is scraped or suctioned of its lining or tissue. Page Ref: 367 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.9: Identify and define selected reproductive system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures 64) Which male reproductive organ contains the seminiferous tubules? A) bas deferens B) epididymis C) seminal vesicles D) testes Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The sperm are produced in the testes within the seminiferous tubules. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the reproductive systems and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) Which of the following terms means the failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac before birth? A) cryptorchidism B) hypospadias C) anorchism D) phimosis Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Cryptorchidism means hidden testes. Hypospadias is the congenital opening of the male urethra on the underside of the penis. Anorchism is the absence of testes. Phimosis is narrowing of the foreskin over the glans penis. Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.6: Identify and define selected reproductive system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

66) Which of the following is a yeast infection of the skin and mucous membranes? A) syphilis B) chlamydia C) candidiasis D) gonorrhea Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Candidiasis is caused by a yeast organism. It can result in white plaques on the tongue and vagina. Syphilis is an infectious, chronic, bacterial sexually transmitted infection that can involve any organ. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection causing genital inflammation. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted bacterial infection of the mucous membranes. Page Ref: 361 Learning Obj.: Chapter 10.7: Identify the symptoms and origin of sexually transmitted diseases. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 67) Which endocrine gland is found above the kidneys? A) adrenal glands B) thyroid gland C) pituitary gland D) thymus gland Answer: A Explanation: Correct. The adrenal glands sit above each kidney. The other glands are not located above the kidneys. Page Ref: 398 Learning Obj.: Chapter 11.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the endocrine system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) Which endocrine gland secretes hormones that adjust the body's metabolic rate? A) parathyroid glands B) thyroid gland C) testes D) pancreas Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The thyroid gland's hormones play a role in maintaining metabolism. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 404 Learning Obj.: Chapter 11.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the endocrine system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

69) Which of the following statements regarding the pituitary gland is NOT true? A) The pituitary gland is divided into an anterior lobe and a posterior lobe. B) The pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland. C) The pituitary gland is divided into a cortex and a medulla. D) The posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. Answer: C Explanation: Correct. This is a false statement. The adrenal glands, not the pituitary gland, are divided into a cortex and medulla. The other answers are true. Page Ref: 398, 401, 402 Learning Obj.: Chapter 11.3: Locate and describe the major organs of the endocrine system and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) Which endocrine gland is NOT correctly matched with one of its pathological conditions? A) adrenal glands—Addison's disease B) pancreas—tetany C) pituitary gland—gigantism D) thyroid gland—goiter Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The pancreas is associated with diabetes mellitus. The other answers match. Page Ref: 408-411 Learning Obj.: Chapter 11.6: Identify and define selected endocrine system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 71) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) Exophthalmos is a symptom of diabetes mellitus. B) Diabetics have hyperglycemia. C) Retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes mellitus. D) In Type II diabetes, the cells fail to respond to insulin. Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Exophthalmos is a symptom of Graves' disease, a thyroid gland condition. The other answers are true statement about diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 409, 411 Learning Obj.: Chapter 11.6: Identify and define selected endocrine system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

72) Which of the following terms is incorrectly defined? A) polydipsia—excessive urination B) ketoacidosis—accumulation of ketone bodies (waste products) in the body C) acromegaly—enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities D) hirsutism—excessive amount of hair Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Polydipsia means excessive thirst, not excessive urination. Polyuria means producing an excessive amount of urine. The other terms are correctly defined. Page Ref: 408 Learning Obj.: Chapter 11.6: Identify and define selected endocrine system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 73) Which surgical procedure is used to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve? A) neurorrhaphy B) tractotomy C) neuroplasty D) laminectomy Answer: D Explanation: Correct. A laminectomy removes part of a vertebra to relieve pressure on a spinal nerve. Neurorrhaphy is suture of a nerve. Tractotomy is precision cutting of a nerve tract in the spinal cord. Neuroplasty is surgical repair of a nerve. Page Ref: 449 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.9: Identify and define selected nervous system therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Therapeutic Procedures 74) Which part of the neuron receives impulses? A) dendrites B) nerve cell body C) ganglion D) axon Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Dendrites are branched nerve processes that receive impulses and carry them toward the nerve cell body. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 428 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.4: Describe the components of a neuron. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

75) Which layer of the meninges has thin weblike filaments? A) dura mater B) subdural space C) pia mater D) arachnoid layer Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The arachnoid layer is a thin, delicate layer attached to the pia mater by weblike filaments. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 433 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.5: Distinguish between the central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, and autonomic nervous system. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 76) Which medication is used to treat minor to moderate pain? A) analgesic B) sedative C) anesthetic D) hypnotic Answer: A Explanation: Correct. An analgesic is used to treat minor to moderate pain. A sedative has a relaxing or calming effect. An anesthetic produces loss of sensation or loss of consciousness. A hypnotic promotes sleep. Page Ref: 450 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.10: Identify and define selected medications relating to the nervous system. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 77) Which term means paralysis on only one side of the body? A) quadriplegia B) hemiplegia C) paraplegia D) hemiparesis Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Hemiplegia means paralysis on only one side of the body. Quadriplegia is paralysis of all four limbs. Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs. Hemiparesis is weakness or loss of motion on one side of the body. Page Ref: 439 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.7: Identify and define selected nervous system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology

78) What is the medical term for stroke? A) epilepsy B) concussion C) astrocytoma D) cerebrovascular accident Answer: D Explanation: Correct. The term cerebrovascular accident means stroke, the development of an infarct due to loss of blood supply to an area of the brain. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 441 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.7: Identify and define selected nervous system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 79) Which inner eye structure is responsible for the blind spot? A) macula lutea B) fovea centralis C) optic disk D) ciliary body Answer: C Explanation: Correct. The optic disk is the point where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball, and there are no sensory receptor cells there. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.3: Locate and describe the major structures of the eye and ear and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 80) The middle layer of the eyeball is the: A) choroid. B) retina. C) cornea. D) sclera. Answer: A Explanation: Correct. The choroid is the middle layer of the eyeball and provides the blood supply for the eye. The retina is the third and innermost layer of the eyeball. The sclera is the outer layer. The cornea is the anterior portion of the sclera. Page Ref: 475 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.3: Locate and describe the major structures of the eye and ear and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

81) Which healthcare professional treats conditions and diseases of the eye? A) optician B) ophthalmologist C) exophthalmos D) optometrist Answer: B Explanation: Correct. An ophthalmologist is a physician specialized in treating conditions and diseases of the eye. An optician is a vision specialist trained in grinding and fitting corrective lenses. An optometrist is a doctor of optometry, the medical profession specializing in examining the eyes, testing visual acuity, and prescribing corrective lenses. Exophthalmos is a bulging of the eyes, not a healthcare professional. Page Ref: 481 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.7: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 82) Which disease is due to increased intraocular pressure that may result in blindness? A) cataract B) glaucoma C) esotropia D) nystagmus Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Glaucoma results in an increase in intraocular pressure and leads to the atrophy of the optic nerve. Cataract is the development of an opaque or cloudy lens. Esotropia is inward turning of the eye. Nystagmus is jerky-appearing involuntary eye movements. Page Ref: 482 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.7: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 83) Which of the following terms is NOT an ossicle? A) stapes B) cerumen C) malleus D) incus Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Cerumen is the term for earwax. The other answers are all ossicles. Page Ref: 495 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.3: Locate and describe the major structures of the eye and ear and their functions. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

84) Which of the following terms means a fungal infection of the ear? A) vertigo B) tinnitus C) otomycosis D) tympanoplasty Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Otomycosis means a fungal infection of the ear. Vertigo is dizziness caused by a sensation that the room is spinning. Tinnitus is ringing in the ears. Tympanoplasty is surgical repair of the tympanic membrane. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.7: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 85) Which of the following terms means the hearing changes that occur as a result of the aging process? A) presbycusis B) Ménière's disease C) acoustic neuroma D) anacusis Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Presbycusis describes the deterioration in hearing due to the normal aging process. The other answers are incorrect. Ménière's disease is an abnormal condition within the labyrinth of the inner ear that can lead to progressive loss of hearing. Acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the eighth cranial nerve sheath. Anacusis is the total absence of hearing. Page Ref: 499 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.7: Identify and define selected eye and ear pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pathology 86) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure of the eye? A) REM B) LASIK C) ASL D) OM Answer: B Explanation: Correct. LASIK stands for "laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis." REM is "rapid eye movement," ASL is "American Sign Language," and OM is "otitis media." Page Ref: 488 Learning Obj.: Chapter 13.11: Define selected abbreviations associated with the eye and ear. Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

87) When a company manufactures a drug for sale, it must choose a unique name for the drug. A) generic B) nonproprietary C) brand D) chemical Answer: C Explanation: Correct. The brand name is the company's trademark for the drug. The generic name is nonproprietary and recognized as the official name for the drug. The chemical name describes the chemical formula or molecular structure of a particular drug. Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.11: Describe how drugs are named and classified. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 88) Which of the following choices is NOT a parenteral method of drug administration? A) intracavitary B) intramuscular C) intravenous D) inhalation Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Inhalation is not a parenteral method. It involves inhaling a drug directly into the nose or mouth and does not require the skin to be punctured by a needle, which the intracavitary, intramuscular, and intravenous routes all do. Page Ref: 46 Learning Obj.: Chapter 2.14: Describe the routes used to introduce drugs into the body. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology 89) Which of the following abbreviations means "by mouth"? A) OU B) po C) TO D) NPO Answer: B Explanation: Correct. The abbreviation po means "by mouth." The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 18 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.12: Read and understand all abbreviations and notations in a written prescription. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pharmacology

90) Which of the following abbreviations means "three times a day"? A) tid B) Sig C) disp D) #30 Answer: A Explanation: Correct. The abbreviation tid means "three times a day." Sig means "say," disp means "dispense," and #30 refers to the number of tablets of a drug. Page Ref: 18 Learning Obj.: Chapter 1.12: Read and understand all abbreviations and notations in a written prescription. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 91) Which mental disorder is NOT correctly matched to its example? A) eating disorder—bulimia B) neurocognitive disorder—Alzheimer's disease C) conduct disorder—pyromania D) anxiety disorder—amnesia Answer: D Explanation: Correct. An example of an anxiety disorder is panic attacks. Amnesia is a type of dissociative disorder. The other mental disorders are correctly matched to their examples. Page Ref: 453, 454 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.13: Describe examples of each classification of mental disorders. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Mental Health 92) Which type of mental disorder is characterized by delusions and hallucinations? A) impulse control disorders B) bipolar disorder C) schizophrenia D) phobias Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Schizophrenia is characterized by delusions and hallucinations. The other answers are incorrect. Page Ref: 456 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.12: Define the classifications of mental disorders as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Mental Health

93) Which type of mental disorder is characterized by persistent worry and apprehension? A) bipolar disorder B) anxiety disorders C) depressive disorders D) conduct disorders Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Anxiety disorders are characterized by persistent worry and apprehension. Bipolar disorder is alternation between periods of deep depression and mania. Depressive disorders are characterized by instability in mood. Conduct disorders are an inability to resist the impulse to perform some act that is harmful to the self or others. Page Ref: 453 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.12: Define the classifications of mental disorders as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Diagnostic Imaging 94) Violent rages, or explosive disorder, are an example of: A) elimination disorders. B) dissociative disorders. C) depressive disorders. D) disruptive disorders. Answer: D Explanation: Correct. Violent rages, or explosive disorder, are an example of disruptive disorders, also called impulse control or conduct disorders. Page Ref: 454 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.13: Describe examples of each classification of mental disorders. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Diagnostic Imaging 95) An example of a depressive disorder is: A) mania. B) kleptomania. C) pyromania. D) general anxiety disorder. Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Mania is an example of a depressive disorder. Kleptomania and pyromania are impulse control disorders. General anxiety disorder is an anxiety disorder. Page Ref: 454 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.13: Describe examples of each classification of mental disorders. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Rehabilitation Services

96) Which of the following terms refers to the use of equipment, such as braces, to correct musculoskeletal deformities? A) orthotics B) prosthetics C) ergonomics D) body mechanics Answer: A Explanation: Correct. Orthotics is the use of equipment to support a paralyzed muscle, promote a specific motion, or correct musculoskeletal deformities. Prosthetics is a healthcare profession specializing in making artificial body parts. The other answers are not correct. Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: Chapter 4.11: Identify and define selected musculoskeletal system pathology terms. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Rehabilitation Services 97) Antidepressant drugs alter the patient's mood by: A) depressing the central nervous system. B) affecting levels of neurotransmitters in the brain. C) producing perception-altering effects. D) creating a short-term euphoric effect. Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Antidepressant drugs alter the patient's mood by affecting levels of neurotransmitters in the brain. They do not depress the central nervous system, alter the patient's perceptions, or produce short-term euphoria. Page Ref: 458 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.14: Identify and define selected mental health therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Oncology 98) A method of obtaining a detailed account of past and present emotional and mental experiences from the patient to determine the source of the patient's problem and eliminate its effects is: A) family psychotherapy. B) humanistic psychotherapy. C) psychoanalysis. D) group psychotherapy. Answer: C Explanation: Correct. Psychoanalysis is a method of obtaining a detailed account of past and present emotional and mental experiences from the patient to determine the source of the patient's problem and eliminate its effects. The various forms of psychotherapy place little to no emphasis on the patient's past history. Page Ref: 458 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.14: Identify and define selected mental health therapeutic procedures. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Oncology

99) Which abbreviation is for a type of neurocognitive disorder? A) ADHD B) AD C) OCD D) SSD Answer: B Explanation: Correct. Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a neurocognitive disorder. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder. Obsessivecompulsive disorder (OCD) and somatic symptom disorder (SSD) are not neurocognitive disorders. Page Ref: 455 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.15: Define selected abbreviations associated with mental health. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Surgery 100) Which abbreviation refers to a mental health therapeutic procedure? A) ECT B) BPD C) MA D) SAD Answer: A Explanation: Correct. ECT stands for "electroconvulsive therapy." BPD stands for "bipolar disorder," MA stands for "mental age," and SAD stands for "seasonal affective disorder." Page Ref: 458 Learning Obj.: Chapter 12.15: Define selected abbreviations associated with mental health. Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Surgery