Test Bank For Medical Terminology for Healthcare Professionals, 10th Edition by Jane Rice Chapter 1-18 Chapter 1 Introduction to Medical Terminology 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A syllable placed at the end of a word is called a: A) prefix. B) root. C) suffix. D) combining form. Answer: C Explanation: A) A prefix is at the beginning of a word. B) A root is a word element from which other words are formed, which may be preceded by a prefix or followed by a suffix. C) Correct. D) A combining form joins a root to the suffix in some cases. Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) The foundation of a word is the: A) combining vowel. B) combining form. C) root. D) prefix. Answer: C Explanation: A) A combining vowel is used to attach a root to a suffix. B) A combining form is a root with a combining vowel added. C) Correct. D) A prefix comes before and is attached to a root. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 3) The prefix ad- means: A) toward. B) away from. C) beside. D) above. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix ab- means away from. C) The prefix para- means beside. D) The prefixes super-, supra-, and hyper- mean above. 1 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 5 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) The prefix dis- means: A) bad. B) apart. C) through. D) against. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefixes cac- and mal- mean bad. B) Correct. C) The prefix dia- means through. D) The prefix anti- means against. Page Ref: 15 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) In the term antipyretic, the root pyret means: A) against. B) putrefaction. C) fever. D) pertaining to. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix anti- means against. B) The root sept means putrefaction. C) Correct. D) The suffix -ic means pertaining to. Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 6) In the term epidemic, the prefix epi- means: A) around. B) upon. C) before. D) cause. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix peri- means around. B) Correct. C) The prefix pro- means before. D) The root eti means cause. Page Ref: 15 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
7) Which of the following words means one thousandth of a liter? A) Centiliter B) Kiloliter C) Microliter D) Milliliter Answer: D Explanation: A) A centiliter is one-hundredth of a liter. B) A kiloliter is one thousand liters. C) A microliter is one-millionth of a liter. D) Correct. Page Ref: 18 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) In the term necrosis, the root necr means: A) death. B) sick. C) tumor. D) bad kind. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root morbid means sick. C) The root onc means tumor. D) The root malign means bad kind. Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 9) In the word microscope, the suffix -scope means: A) shape B) glass lens C) instrument for examining D) view Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -form means shape. B) There is no suffix meaning glass lens. C) Correct. D) The suffix -opsy means to view. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) The process of being stuck together is: A) excision. B) incision. C) abhesion. D) adhesion. 3 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: D Explanation: A) Excision is the process of cutting out. B) Incision is the process of cutting into. C) This is not a real word. The prefix ab- means away from. D) Correct. Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form eti/o means: A) cause. B) before. C) between. D) within. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix pro- means before. C) The prefix inter- means between. D) The prefix intra- means within. Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 12) In the term radiology, the suffix -logy means: A) knowledge. B) study of. C) condition. D) pertaining to. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -gnosis means knowledge. B) Correct. C) The suffix -osis means condition. D) There are many suffixes that mean pertaining to, such as -al, -ar, and -ic. Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) In the term malignant, the suffix -ant means: A) forming. B) pertaining to. C) condition. D) produce. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) There are many suffixes that means pertaining to, such as -al, -ar, and -ic. C) The suffix -osis means condition. 4 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) The suffix -genic means produce. Page Ref: 17 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) The correct spelling for the suffix that means knowledge is: A) -gosis. B) -gnosis. C) -gnosos. D) -gnoses. Answer: B Explanation: A) -gosis is not a suffix. B) Correct. C) -gnosos is not a suffix. D) -gnoses is not a suffix. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 15) The combining form onc/o means: A) chemical. B) tumor. C) large. D) death. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form chem/o means chemical. B) Correct. C) The combining form macr/o means large. D) The root necr means death. Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) Which of the following is concerned with the use of chemical agents to treat disease? A) Chemotherapy B) Etiology C) Oncology D) Triage Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) This is the study of the causes of disease. C) This is the study of tumors. D) This is a system of classifying patient injuries to determent treatment priority. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
17) The suffix -centesis means: A) surgical puncture. B) surgical incision. C) surgical excision. D) surgical repair. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -tomy means a surgical incision. C) The suffix -ectomy means a surgical excision. D) The suffix -rrhaphy means a surgical repair or suture. Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) What does the prefix dis- mean in the word disinfectant? A) Through B) Upon C) Death D) Apart Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix dia- means through. B) The prefix epi- means upon. C) The root necr means death. D) Correct. Page Ref: 15 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) In the term maximal, the root maxim means: A) large. B) greatest. C) least. D) small. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root macr means large. B) Correct. C) The root minim means least. D) The root micr means small. Page Ref: 17 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) Which of the following combining forms means intestine? A) Eti/o B) Cardi/o C) Gastr/o 6 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) Enter/o Answer: D Explanation: A) This combining form means cause. B) This combining form means heart. C) This combining form means stomach. D) Correct. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Analysis Question Type: Word Building 21) A syllable placed at the beginning of a word is called a: A) root. B) combining form. C) prefix. D) suffix. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root is the word foundation. B) A combining form is a root plus a combining vowel. C) Correct. D) A suffix is placed at the end of a word. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) The study of the cause of disease is called: A) diagnosis. B) etiology. C) prognosis. D) oncology. Answer: B Explanation: A) Diagnosis means a determination of a disease. B) Correct. C) A prognosis is a prediction of a course of disease. D) This is the study of cancer. Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) A relationship of understanding between two individuals, especially between the patient and the physician, is called: A) empathy. B) afferent. C) apathy. D) rapport. Answer: D Explanation: A) This is feeling what another feels. B) Afferent means carrying impulses to a center. 7 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) Apathy is lack of feeling. D) Correct. Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Communication 24) To lead away from the middle is: A) abduct. B) efferent. C) afferent. D) adduct. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Efferent means to send impulses away from the center. C) Afferent means to send impulses toward the center. D) This means to lead toward the middle. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) The term febrile means: A) pertaining to fever. B) forming a disease. C) condition of heat. D) process of becoming ill. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Febrile does not mean forming a disease. C) Febrile does not mean condition of heat. D) Febrile does not mean process of becoming ill. Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) ________ means sudden, sharp, and severe. A) Acute B) Triage C) Chronic D) Abate Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Triage is a system of prioritizing the severity of patients' injuries. C) Chronic refers to an illness that changes little over time. D) Abate means to lessen, decrease, or cease. Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 8 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Word Building 27) A combination of signs and symptoms occurring together that characterizes a specific disease is called a/an: A) prognosis. B) etiology. C) diagnosis. D) syndrome. Answer: D Explanation: A) Prognosis is a prediction of the course of a disease. B) Etiology is the study of the cause of an illness. C) Diagnosis is a determination of the nature and cause of a disease. D) Correct. Page Ref: 20 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) The correct spelling for the medical term for profuse sweating is: A) diphoresis. B) dyphoresis. C) diaphoresis. D) dyaphoresis. Answer: C Explanation: A) This is not the correct spelling. B) This is not the correct spelling. C) Correct. D) This is not the correct spelling. Page Ref: 15 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 29) The process of cutting out is called: A) incision. B) excision. C) biopsy. D) incise. Answer: B Explanation: A) Incision means to cut into. B) Correct. C) Biopsy means to take a sample of tissue. D) Incise means to cut. Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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30) In the term maximal, the suffix -al means: A) pertaining to. B) condition. C) process. D) forming. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -osis, among others, means condition. C) The suffix -ion means process. D) The suffix -ant means forming. Page Ref: 17 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) In the term prophylactic, the root prophylact means: A) people. B) shaping C) guarding. D) rule. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root dem means people. B) The root format means shaping. C) Correct. D) The root norm means rule. Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) The prefix is ________ of a word. A) at the beginning B) the root C) at the end D) the vowel attached to the root Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix is attached to the root. C) A suffix is at the end. D) The vowel makes a combining form. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) What is the purpose of a prefix? A) To combine a root and a suffix B) To be the foundation of the word C) To alter the meaning of a root D) To shorten a lengthy word or phrase Answer: C Explanation: A) The vowel added to a root to combine it with a suffix is the combining form. B) The root is the foundation of a word. C) Correct. D) An abbreviation is a shortened word or phrase. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building 34) The foundation of the word is the: A) combining form. B) root. C) suffix. D) prefix. Answer: B Explanation: A) A combining form is a root plus a vowel. B) Correct. C) This is a modifier that comes after the root. D) This is a modifier that comes before the root. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) The root format means: A) forming. B) examining. C) shaping. D) processing. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -ant means forming. B) The root scop means examining. C) Correct. D) The suffix -ion means process. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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36) In building medical terms, the combining vowel most often used is: A) a. B) e. C) i. D) o. Answer: D Explanation: A) a is not the most often used combining vowel. B) e is not the most often used combining vowel. C) i is occasionally used, but not most often. D) Correct. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) When giving the meaning of the word, you usually begin with the: A) prefix. B) root. C) suffix. D) combining form. Answer: C Explanation: A) You do not usually begin with the prefix when giving the meaning of a word. B) You do not usually begin with the root when giving the meaning of a word. C) Correct. D) You do not usually begin with the combining form when giving the meaning of a word. Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) The suffix -poiesis means: A) spitting. B) prolapse. C) before. D) formation. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -ptysis means spitting. B) The suffix -ptosis means prolapsed or drooping. C) The prefix pre- means before. D) Correct. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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39) The abbreviation Bx means: A) before. B) blood pressure. C) biopsy. D) beside. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix pre- means before. B) The abbreviation BP means blood pressure. C) Correct. D) The prefix para- mean beside. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Abbreviations 40) The prefix in abnormal means: A) condition. B) pertaining to. C) destruction. D) away from. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -osis means condition. B) Many suffixes mean pertaining to, such as -al or -ic. C) The suffix -tripsy means to crush or destroy. D) Correct. Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 41) The medical term antipyretic means an agent that is: A) against cough. B) against disease or pregnancy. C) against fever. D) against sepsis. Answer: C Explanation: A) An antitussive is against cough. B) A prophylactic protects against disease or pregnancy. C) Correct. D) The term antiseptic means against sepsis or infection. Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building
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42) The term cachexia means: A) pertaining to the armpit. B) surgical incision. C) condition of ill health. D) carried through sweat glands. Answer: C Explanation: A) Axillary means pertaining to the armpit. B) The suffix -tomy means the surgical removal of tissue. C) Correct. D) Diaphoresis means carried through sweat glands. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 43) The suffix -hexia means: A) burst forth. B) condition. C) knowledge. D) treatment. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -rrhage means to burst forth. B) Correct. C) The suffix -gnosis means knowledge. D) The suffix -therapy means treatment. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 44) The prefix in diagnosis means: A) around. B) through. C) many. D) alongside. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix peri- means around. B) Correct. C) The prefixes multi- or poly- mean many. D) The prefix para- means alongside. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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45) The prefix in epidemic means: A) above. B) through. C) around. D) upon. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefixes hyper- and super- mean above. B) The prefix dia- means through. C) The prefix peri- means around. D) Correct. Page Ref: 15 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 46) The prefix in heterogeneous means: A) different. B) formation. C) produce. D) pertaining to. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root gene means formation. C) The root gene also means produce. D) Many suffixes mean pertaining to, such as -al or -ar. Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 47) A kilogram is equal to: A) 10 g. B) 100 g. C) 1000 g. D) 10,000 g. Answer: C Explanation: A) A kilogram does not equal 10 g. B) A kilogram does not equal 100 g. C) Correct. D) A kilogram does not equal 10,000 g. Page Ref: 17 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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48) In the terms milligram and milliliter, the prefix milli- means: A) one tenth. B) one hundredth. C) one thousandth. D) one millionth. Answer: C Explanation: A) One tenth is deci-. B) One hundredth is centi-. C) Correct. D) One millionth is micro-. Page Ref: 18 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 49) The definition of pallor is: A) pertaining to fever. B) a lack of color. C) palm of the hand. D) a diseased state. Answer: B Explanation: A) Febrile means pertaining to a fever. B) Correct. C) Palmar means palm of the hand. D) Morbidity is a state of being diseased. Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 50) The medical term that means pertaining to fever is: A) pyrogenic. B) thermometer. C) antipyretic. D) febrile. Answer: D Explanation: A) Pyrogenic means producing fever. B) A thermometer is an instrument to measure temperature. C) An antipyretic is a substance used against a fever. D) Correct. Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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51) Which of the following terms means against a cough? A) Antiseptic B) Antitussive C) Anesthesia D) Antipyretic Answer: B Explanation: A) Antiseptic means against sepsis or infection. B) Correct. C) Anesthesia means lack of feeling. D) Antipyretic means against fever. Page Ref: 13 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 52) The suffix -ic means: A) study of. B) process of. C) treatment of. D) pertaining to. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -logy means study of. B) The suffix -ion means the study of. C) The suffix -therapy means treatment. D) Correct. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 53) The prefix anti- means: A) upon. B) around. C) against. D) through. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix epi- means upon. B) The prefix peri- means around. C) Correct. D) The prefix dia- means through. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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54) In the term mortality, what does the root mortal mean? A) Human B) Sick C) Death D) People Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root morbid means sick. C) The root necr means death. D) The root dem means people. Page Ref: 18 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 55) The part of a SOAP chart note containing the diagnosis is which part of the note record? A) The patient's report of symptoms B) The health professional's observations C) A plan of care D) Assessment Answer: D Explanation: A) This is the subjective part of the SOAP notes. B) This is the objective section of the SOAP notes. C) This is the management and treatment section of the SOAP notes. D) Correct. Page Ref: 27 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical Records 56) In the acronym SOAP, the S stands for: A) suggestion. B) syndrome. C) social history. D) subjective. Answer: D Explanation: A) The S in SOAP does not stand for suggestion. B) The S in SOAP does not stand for syndrome. C) The S in SOAP does not stand for social history. D) Correct. Page Ref: 26 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Records
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57) Objective information includes: A) the patient's description of his or her symptoms. B) signs that can be observed or measured. C) interpretation of subjective findings. D) basic data including date of birth, age, and gender. Answer: B Explanation: A) This is the subjective portion. B) Correct. C) Interpretation of subjective findings is included in the assessment. D) Date of birth, age, and gender are included in the chart under patient data. Page Ref: 20 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical Records 58) Which of the following would most likely be found in the ancillary reports section of a patient's medical record? A) An anesthesiology report B) A laboratory report C) A physical therapy report D) A pathology report Answer: C Explanation: A) Anesthesiology reports have their own section of the medial record. B) Laboratory reports have their own section of the medical record. C) Correct. D) Pathology reports have their own section of the medical record. Page Ref: 25 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Records 59) When building medical words, what should you do when adding a suffix that begins with a vowel to a combining form? A) Drop the vowel in the suffix and keep the vowel in the combining form. B) Keep the vowel in the suffix and drop the vowel in the combining form. C) Keep the vowel in the suffix and keep the vowel in the combining form. D) Drop the vowel in the suffix and drop the vowel in the combining form. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix vowel should be kept rather than the combining form vowel. B) Correct. C) Keeping both vowels would result in words with incorrect double vowels. D) Dropping both vowels would result in words with no combining vowel. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 60) When building medical words, what should you do when adding a suffix that begins with a consonant to a combining form? 19 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) Keep the vowel in the combining form and add the suffix. B) Keep the vowel in the combining form, add an o, then add the suffix. C) Drop the vowel in the combining form, add an o, then add the suffix. D) Drop the vowel in the combining form, drop the consonant in the suffix, and add the suffix. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Keeping the vowel and adding an o would result in words with incorrect double vowels. C) The vowel should be kept in the combining form; no o is necessary. D) Neither the vowel nor the consonant should be dropped. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 61) When building medical words, what should you do when adding two combining forms to a suffix that begins with a consonant? A) Keep the vowel in the first combining form and drop it in the second. B) Drop the vowel in the first combining form and keep it in the second. C) Keep the vowels in both combining forms. D) Drop the vowels from both combining forms. Answer: C Explanation: A) The vowels must be retained in both combining forms. B) The vowels must be retained in both combining forms. C) Correct. D) The vowels must be retained in both combining forms. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 62) The spelling of which of these medical words follows the guideline for adding a suffix that begins with a vowel to a combining form? A) Diagnosis B) Etiology C) Pyrogenic D) Necrosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Diagnosis combines the prefix dia- with the suffix -gnosis. B) Etiology combines the combining form eti/o with the suffix -logy. C) Pyrogenic combines the combining form pyr/o with the suffix -genic. D) Correct. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 63) The spelling of which of these medical words follows the guideline for adding a suffix that begins with a consonant to a combining form? A) Cardiac 20 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Oncology C) Prognosis D) Prophylactic Answer: B Explanation: A) Cardiac drops the o from the combining form cardi/o before adding the suffix ac. B) Correct. C) Prognosis combines the prefix pro- with the suffix -gnosis. D) Prophylactic combines the root prophylact with the suffix -ic. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 64) The spelling of which of these medical words follows the guideline for adding the combining form to a suffix that begins with a consonant? A) Abnormal B) Oncology C) Antitussive D) Epidemic Answer: B Explanation: A) Abnormal combines the prefix ab-, the root norm, and the suffix -al. B) Correct. C) Antitussive combines the prefix anti-, the root tuss, and the suffix -ive. D) Epidemic combines the prefix epi-, the root dem, and the suffix -ic. Page Ref: 6 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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65) Why is correct spelling extremely important in medical terminology? A) SOAP notes are considered incomplete if they contain spelling errors. B) The ICD-10-CM has very strict guidelines related to the proper spelling of medical words. C) The addition or omission of a single letter can change the meaning of a word. D) Many electronic health records will not accept records if they contain misspellings. Answer: C Explanation: A) Spelling errors do not impact the completion of SOAP notes. B) The ICD-10-CM provides diagnosis codes, not spelling guidance. C) Correct. D) Most electronic health records will accept records even if they contain spelling errors. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 66) Gwen needs to use a word that means to lead toward the middle. She writes down abduct. Is this the correct spelling of the word Gwen needed? A) No; Gwen should have used adduct. B) No; Gwen should have used apduct. C) No; Gwen should have used acduct. D) Yes, this is the correct word for Gwen to use. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Apduct is not the correct spelling; it is not a word. C) Acduct is not the correct spelling; it is not a word. D) Abduct is not the correct spelling; it means to lead away from the middle. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 67) Charles needs to use a word to describe inflammation of a joint. He writes down arthritis. Is this the correct spelling of the word Charles needed? A) No; Charles should have used artteritis. B) No; Charles should have used arteritis. C) No; Charles should have used arhritis. D) Yes, this is the correct word for Charles to use. Answer: D Explanation: A) Artteritis is not the correct spelling; it is not a word. B) Arteritis is not the correct spelling; it means inflammation of an artery. C) Arhritis is not the correct spelling; it is not a word. D) Correct. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 68) Quinn needs to use a word to describe a bacterial infection of the lungs. She writes down neumonia. What did Quinn leave out of this word? 22 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) The silent e at the end of the word B) The silent p at the beginning of the word C) The double m in the middle of the word D) She did not leave anything out Answer: B Explanation: A) There is no silent e in this word. B) Correct. C) There is no double m in this word. D) There is a silent p at the beginning of the word. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 69) Which of the following words contains a silent letter that often results in misspelling? A) Phlegm B) Diagnosis C) Abduct D) Etiology Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) There are no silent letters in diagnosis. C) There are no silent letters in abduct. D) There are no silent letters in etiology. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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70) How does an initialism differ from an acronym? A) An initialism is more likely to be misinterpreted than an acronym because it can have more than one meaning. B) The individual letters are pronounced in an initialism rather than being read as a word like an acronym. C) An initialism includes periods between the letters in the abbreviation while an acronym does not include periods. D) Initialisms are frowned upon by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices while acronyms are acceptable to this group. Answer: B Explanation: A) Any abbreviation with more than one potential meaning can be misinterpreted, regardless of type. B) Correct. C) Periods are typically not used in any abbreviation unless that is the accepted norm for that abbreviation. D) The Institute for Safe Medication Practices has a list of all types of abbreviations that it recommends organizations avoid; the list is not limited to a specific type of abbreviation. Page Ref: 8 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 71) Which of the following is an example of an acronym? A) Dx B) DOB C) SOAP D) Derm Answer: C Explanation: A) Dx is the abbreviation for diagnosis and each letter is pronounced. B) DOB is the abbreviation for date of birth and each letter is pronounced. C) Correct. D) Derm is the abbreviation for the word dermatology and is made by shortening the word. Page Ref: 8 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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72) Which of the following is an example of an initialism? A) HIPAA B) TJC C) Neuro D) Wt Answer: B Explanation: A) HIPAA is the acronym for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and is read like a word. B) Correct. C) Neuro is a shortened version of the word neurology. D) Wt is a shortened version of the word weight. Page Ref: 8 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 73) Which of the following abbreviations has more than one potential meaning? A) CDC B) GYN C) g D) PA Answer: D Explanation: A) CDC stands for Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. B) GYN stands for gynecology. C) g stands for gram. D) Correct; it can mean physician assistant, posteroanterior, or pernicious anemia. Page Ref: 7 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 74) What should you do if you believe an abbreviation has the potential to be misinterpreted? A) Use the abbreviation and include a footnote in the document indicating the correct meaning. B) Use a different abbreviation for the word or phrase in question. C) Attach an appendix stating the definition of each abbreviation used in the document. D) Spell out the word or phrase and avoid using the abbreviation. Answer: D Explanation: A) Footnotes are not typically used in this way. B) Many words have only one potential abbreviation. C) Appendices are not typically used in this way. D) Correct Page Ref: 7 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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1.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) a unit of weight B) the study of the cause(s) of disease C) pertaining to the armpit D) profuse sweating E) identification of a disease F) having 100 steps or degrees G) an agent that works against coughing 1) antitussive Page Ref: 13 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) axillary Page Ref: 13 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 3) centigrade Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) diagnosis Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) diaphoresis Page Ref: 15 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 6) gram Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) etiology 26 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 1) G 2) C 3) F 4) E 5) D 6) A 7) B
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Match the following terms. A) an instrument used to measure degree of heat B) a feeling of discomfort or uneasiness C) sudden, sharp, severe D) abnormal condition of tissue death E) a prediction of the course of a disease F) something that is harmful or cancerous G) the prioritizing and classifying of injuries 8) necrosis Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 9) prognosis Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) thermometer Page Ref: 20 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) triage Page Ref: 20 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 12) acute Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) malaise Page Ref: 17 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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14) malignant Page Ref: 17 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 8) D 9) E 10) A 11) G 12) C 13) B 14) F
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Match the word part with its meaning. A) before B) without, not C) beside D) bad E) many, much F) against G) away from H) through I) small 15) aPage Ref: 13 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) abPage Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) antiPage Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) diaPage Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) malPage Ref: 3 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) microPage Ref: 5 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) multi30 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 19 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) paraPage Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) proPage Ref: 6 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 15) B 16) G 17) F 18) H 19) D 20) I 21) E 22) C 23) A
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Match the word part with its meaning. A) one thousandth B) large C) chemical D) together E) armpit F) nature of G) stuck to H) pertaining to I) heat, fire J) process 24) synPage Ref: 20 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) adhes Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) milliPage Ref: 18 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) axill Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) chem/o Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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29) macr/o Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) pyr/o Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) -al Page Ref: 11 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) -ive Page Ref: 13 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -ion Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 24) D 25) G 26) A 27) E 28) C 29) B 30) I 31) H 32) F 33) J 1.3 True/False Questions 1) A combining form is a word root to which a vowel has been added. Answer: TRUE Explanation: The combining form is used when it is followed by another root or combining form or suffix that begins with a consonant. Page Ref: 3 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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2) French is the origin for many medical terms. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Greek and Latin are the origins for many medical terms. Page Ref: 4 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Origins 3) Adduct means to lead away from the middle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Abduct means to lead away from the middle. Page Ref: 5 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) Arteritis is an inflammation of an artery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 5 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) The plural of bursa is bursus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The plural of bursa is bursae. Page Ref: 7 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 6) The singular of appendices is appendix. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 7) The term adhesion means being stuck together. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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8) Centimeter is 100 steps or degrees. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A centimeter is one hundredth of a meter. Page Ref: 14 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 9) Afferent means to carry impulses away from a center. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Afferent means to carry impulses toward a center. Page Ref: 12 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) Etiology is the study of the cause of disease. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Eti/o means cause, and -logy means study of. Page Ref: 16 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 2 Suffixes and Prefixes 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) When a suffix is added to a word, it: A) makes the word plural. B) changes the meaning of the word. C) results in the opposite of the word. D) always makes the word a noun. Answer: B Explanation: A) Only some suffixes make the word plural. B) Correct. C) Suffixes do not result in the opposite of the word. D) Suffixes may make a root a noun or adjective. Page Ref: 34 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building 2) Which group of grammatical suffixes includes suffixes that mean "pertaining to"? A) Adjective suffixes B) Diminutive suffixes C) Noun suffixes D) General suffixes Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Diminutive suffixes mean "small, minute." C) Noun suffixes refer to conditions, treatments, and specialists. D) General suffixes mean many different things, but they do not mean "pertaining to." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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3) Diminutive suffixes are those that mean: A) large. B) many. C) small. D) condition. Answer: C Explanation: A) The word diminutive means small, and diminutive suffixes build words that refer to a smaller version of the object described by the root. B) The word diminutive means small, and diminutive suffixes build words that refer to a smaller version of the object described by the root. C) Correct. D) The word diminutive means small, and diminutive suffixes build words that refer to a smaller version of the object described by the root. Page Ref: 38 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) The suffixes -ician and -ist both mean: A) treatment. B) specialist. C) small version. D) condition. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffixes -iatry and -therapy mean "treatment." B) Correct. C) The suffixes -cle, -ole, -ula, and -ule all mean "a small version." D) The suffixes -esis, -ia, -ism, -osis, and -y all mean "condition." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) The suffixes -al, -ary, -ic, and -ous all mean: A) a small version. B) a treatment. C) pertaining to. D) condition. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffixes -cle, -ole, -ula, and -ule all mean "a small version." B) The suffixes -iatry and -therapy mean "treatment." C) Correct. D) The suffixes -esis, -ia, -ism, -osis, and -y all mean "condition." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 6) In the terms homicide and spermicide, the suffix -cide means: 37 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) to separate. B) to kill. C) action. D) having a particular quality. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -crit means "to separate." B) Correct. C) The suffix -ate means "action." D) The suffix -ide means "having a particular quality." Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) If the suffix -scopy is added to the root cyst (bladder), what does cystoscopy mean? A) To separate the bladder B) To remove the bladder C) To repair the bladder D) To view the bladder Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -crit means "to separate." B) The suffixes -pheresis and -ectomy mean "to remove." C) The suffix -plasty means "surgical repair." D) Correct. Page Ref: 41 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) Integument means a covering. The term integumentary (integument + -ary) means: A) to make a covering. B) pertaining to a covering. C) the process of covering. D) to resemble a covering. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ize means "to make." B) Correct. C) The suffix -ion means "a process." D) The suffix -oid means "to resemble." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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9) If hemi- means "half," then hemiplegia means: A) half expanded. B) separated in half. C) half removed. D) half paralyzed. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -ectasis means "to expand." B) The suffix -crit means "to separate." C) The suffixes -pheresis and -ectomy mean "to remove." D) Correct. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) If the root cardi means "heart," what is cardiomegaly? A) An enlarged heart B) A diseased heart C) A failing heart D) A heart attack Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -pathy means "disease." C) There is no suffix that means "failing." D) There is no suffix that means "heart attack." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) Many people only go to the dentist when they have dentalgia, which is a: A) cavity. B) broken tooth. C) toothache. D) loose tooth. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -algia means "pain or ache." B) The suffix -algia means "pain or ache." C) Correct. D) The suffix -algia means "pain or ache." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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12) Women over 40 should have mammography once every two years. If the root mamm means "breast," what is mammography? A) A physical examination of the breast B) A recording or x-ray of the breast C) A visual examination of the breast D) A biopsy of breast tissue Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -graphy means "recording." B) Correct. C) The suffix -graphy means "recording." D) The suffix -graphy means "recording." Page Ref: 40 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) Many science fiction movies feature androids. If the word root andr means "man," what is the meaning of android? A) Resembling a man B) A small man C) A super man D) An indestructible man Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -oid means "resemble." C) The suffix -oid means "resemble." D) The suffix -oid means "resemble." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) When a person has an organ that grows too large, it is called organ hypertrophy. The suffix trophy means "nourishment or ________." A) growth B) formation C) expansion D) development Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -trophy means "development, nourishment." B) The suffix -trophy means "development, nourishment." C) The suffix -trophy means "development, nourishment." D) Correct. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 15) The root nas means "nose." What does nasal mean? 40 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) Under the nose B) Pertaining to the nose C) Inside the nose D) Blockage of the nose Answer: B Explanation: A) The adjective suffix -al means pertaining to. B) Correct. C) The adjective suffix -al means pertaining to. D) The adjective suffix -al means pertaining to. Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) What is the correct term for a visual examination of the abdomen (lapar/o)? A) Laparoscope B) Laparotomy C) Laparoscopy D) Laparocele Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -scope refers to the instrument used to view or examine. B) The suffix -tomy means "incision." C) Correct. D) The suffix -cele means "tumor or swelling." Page Ref: 41 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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17) When a person has a kidney stone (lith), he may need a lithotripsy. What is the meaning of tripsy? A) Cutting out B) Removing C) Dissolving D) Crushing Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -tripsy means "crush," so the kidney stone is crushed into small pieces that can be eliminated in the urine. B) The suffix -tripsy means "crush," so the kidney stone is crushed into small pieces that can be eliminated in the urine. C) The suffix -tripsy means "crush," so the kidney stone is crushed into small pieces that can be eliminated in the urine. D) Correct. Page Ref: 41 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) In the term muscular, the suffix -ar means: A) pertaining to B) small C) treatment D) large Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffixes -cle, -ole, -ula, and -ule all mean "a small version." C) The suffix -iatry means "treatment." D) The suffix -megaly means "large." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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19) Aspirin and Tylenol® are analgesics. What does the suffix -algesia mean? A) Destroy B) Without C) Condition of pain D) Medication Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -algesia is similar to -algia, and they both refer to pain. B) The suffix -algesia is similar to -algia, and they both refer to pain. C) Correct. D) The suffix -algesia is similar to -algia, and they both refer to pain. Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) Which of the following terms does NOT contain a suffix that means "pertaining to"? A) Decubitus B) Alopecia C) Anterior D) Edematous Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -us means "pertaining to." B) Correct. C) The suffix -ior means "pertaining to." D) The suffix -ous means "pertaining to." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) If the root gynec means "female," what does the term gynecology mean? A) The study of the female B) A physician who specializes in female conditions C) The diseases affecting females D) A normal change in the female body Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -logy means study of, so gynecology is the study of the female. C) The suffix -logy means study of, so gynecology is the study of the female. D) The suffix -logy means study of, so gynecology is the study of the female. Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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22) If the root neur means "nerve," then what is a neurocyte? A) A nerve impulse B) A nerve sac C) A nerve point D) A nerve cell Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -cyte means cell, so a neurocyte is a nerve cell. B) The suffix -cyte means cell, so a neurocyte is a nerve cell. C) The suffix -cyte means cell, so a neurocyte is a nerve cell. D) Correct. Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) Which of the following suffixes means "vomiting"? A) -ectasis B) -emesis C) -staxis D) -ptosis Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ectasis means "dilation or expansion." B) Correct. C) The suffix -staxis means "dripping." D) The suffix -ptosis means "drooping or sagging." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) Bursitis is ________ of a bursa. A) removal B) cancer C) inflammation D) rupture Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." Bursitis means "inflammation of a bursa." B) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." Bursitis means "inflammation of a bursa." C) Correct. D) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." Bursitis means "inflammation of a bursa." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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25) The suffix meaning bladder is: A) -cyst. B) -cyte. C) -blast. D) -betes. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -cyte means cell. C) The suffix -blast means an immature or germ cell. D) The suffix -betes means to go. Page Ref: 27 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) An evaluation of skin turgor is an assessment of the skin's: A) thickness. B) color. C) thinness. D) resiliency. Answer: D Explanation: A) Turgor refers to the resiliency of the skin, which depends upon the amount of fluid in the cells and between the cells. B) Turgor refers to the resiliency of the skin, which depends upon the amount of fluid in the cells and between the cells. C) Turgor refers to the resiliency of the skin, which depends upon the amount of fluid in the cells and between the cells. D) Correct. Page Ref: 55 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) If the combining form cardi/o means heart, what is the best definition for the term cardiograph? A) A recording of the heartbeat B) An instrument for recording the heartbeat C) The technologist who makes a heart recording D) The action of taking a heart recording Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -graph means "instrument for recording." Cardiograph means "instrument for recording the heartbeat." B) Correct. C) The suffix -graph means "instrument for recording." Cardiograph means "instrument for recording the heartbeat." D) The suffix -graph means "instrument for recording." Cardiograph means "instrument for recording the heartbeat." Page Ref: 32 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) If the root pyr means fire, what is the actual definition of pyromania? A) Person starting fires B) Firebug C) Madness for fire D) Lover of fires Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -mania means "madness," or in this case, "a madness or compulsion to watch a fire." B) The suffix -mania means "madness," or in this case, "a madness or compulsion to watch a fire." C) Correct. D) The suffix -mania means "madness," or in this case, "a madness or compulsion to watch a fire." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building
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29) In the term abrasion, what does the suffix -ion mean? A) Process B) Condition C) Statement D) Injury Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -ion means "process." C) The suffix -ion means "process." D) The suffix -ion means "process." Page Ref: 51 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) The suffix -or means "a doer, ________." A) action B) pertaining to C) nature D) one who Answer: D Explanation: A) As in the term doctor, the suffix -or means "a doer, one who." B) As in the term doctor, the suffix -or means "a doer, one who." C) As in the term doctor, the suffix -or means "a doer, one who." D) Correct. Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) Which of the following is the best definition for gynecoid? A) Resembling a male B) Resembling a female C) Resembling a child D) Resembling a twin Answer: B Explanation: A) The root gynec means "female" and the suffix -oid means "resemble." B) Correct. C) The root gynec means "female" and the suffix -oid means "resemble." D) The root gynec means "female" and the suffix -oid means "resemble." Page Ref: 52 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building
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32) Which of the following terms literally means "little belly"? A) Splenectomy B) Ventricle C) Gastric D) Laparoscopy Answer: B Explanation: A) A ventricle is a small cavity or chamber within an organ, and the word literally means "little belly." B) Correct. C) A ventricle is a small cavity or chamber within an organ, and the word literally means "little belly." D) A ventricle is a small cavity or chamber within an organ, and the word literally means "little belly." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building 33) What suffix should be added to the root ster to make a word that means "resembling a solid substance?" A) -oid B) -al C) -ose D) -osis Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The term steroid means "resembling a solid." C) The term steroid means "resembling a solid." D) The term steroid means "resembling a solid." Page Ref: 55 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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34) Which of the following is the correct spelling of the word that means a small lesion of the skin that is filled with pus? A) Pustole B) Pustiole C) Pusteole D) Pustule Answer: D Explanation: A) The correct spelling of the suffix is -ule. It means "small." B) The correct spelling of the suffix is -ule. It means "small." C) The correct spelling of the suffix is -ule. It means "small." D) Correct. Page Ref: 38 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 35) What is the meaning of the suffix -kinesis? A) Kill B) Motion C) Discharge D) Distract Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -cide means "kill." B) Correct. C) The suffix -rrhea means "discharge." D) There is no suffix meaning "distract." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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36) The suffix -lexia means "________, word, or phrase." A) speech B) thought C) diction D) idea Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -lexia refers to written communication and can literally mean "diction, word, or phrase." B) The suffix -lexia refers to written communication and can literally mean "diction, word, or phrase." C) Correct. D) The suffix -lexia refers to written communication and can literally mean "diction, word, or phrase." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) Which of the following words is misspelled? A) Anesthetize B) Arousal C) Asymetrical D) Abrasion Answer: C Explanation: A) The proper spelling is asymmetrical. B) The proper spelling is asymmetrical. C) Correct. The proper spelling is asymmetrical. D) The proper spelling is asymmetrical. Page Ref: 52 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling
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38) The suffix in the term infection means: A) pertaining to. B) condition. C) process. D) resemble. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -ion means "process." In this case, it refers specifically to the process of being infected. B) The suffix -ion means "process." In this case, it refers specifically to the process of being infected. C) Correct. D) The suffix -ion means "process." In this case, it refers specifically to the process of being infected. Page Ref: 52 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) What does the suffix -blast mean? A) Destroy B) Immature cell C) Build D) New Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -blast refers to a cell that is new and must grow to maturity. B) Correct. C) The suffix -blast refers to a cell that is new and must grow to maturity. D) The suffix -blast refers to a cell that is new and must grow to maturity. Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 40) If the root ot means ear, what is otodynia? A) A small ear B) An ear infection C) Swelling of the ear D) An earache Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -dynia is one of several that means "pain." B) The suffix -dynia is one of several that means "pain." C) The suffix -dynia is one of several that means "pain." D) Correct. Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building 41) What does the suffix -rrhea mean? 51 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) Flow, discharge B) Rupture C) Stopping D) Bursting forth Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -rrhexis means "rupture." C) The suffix -stasis means "stop." D) The suffix -rrhage means "bursting forth." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 42) To word palpate means "to ________." A) attract B) produce C) be invaded with microorganisms D) examine by touch or to feel Answer: D Explanation: A) Palpate means "to use the hands or fingers to examine by touch." B) Palpate means "to use the hands or fingers to examine by touch." C) Palpate means "to use the hands or fingers to examine by touch." D) Correct. Page Ref: 54 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 43) What suffix means softening? A) -mnesia B) -malacia C) -plasia D) -rrhexis Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -mnesia means "memory." B) Correct. C) The suffix -plasia means "formation." D) The suffix -rrhexis means "rupture." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 44) When giving the definition of a medical term, which part of the word is typically defined first? A) Prefix B) Suffix C) Combining form 52 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) Root Answer: B Explanation: A) When defining a medical term, begin with the suffix if there is one, then give the definition of the root or combining form. B) Correct. C) When defining a medical term, begin with the suffix if there is one, then give the definition of the root or combining form. D) When defining a medical term, begin with the suffix if there is one, then give the definition of the root or combining form. Page Ref: 34 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 45) What does the suffix -pnea mean? A) Sleep B) Pain C) Breathing D) Fixation Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -pnea means breathing. B) The suffix -pnea means breathing. C) Correct. D) The suffix -pnea means breathing. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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46) The suffix meaning "fear" is: A) -phagia. B) -phasia. C) -phobia. D) -plasia. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -phagia refers to swallowing. B) The suffix -phasia refers to speaking. C) Correct. D) The suffix -plasia refers to formation (usually of tissue). Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 47) The term cystocele means: A) swelling of a cell. B) shrinking of a cell. C) hernia of the bladder. D) bladder injury. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -cele means hernia and the root cyst refers to the bladder, thus a cystocele is a hernia of the bladder. B) The suffix -cele means hernia and the root cyst refers to the bladder, thus a cystocele is a hernia of the bladder. C) Correct. D) The suffix -cele means hernia and the root cyst refers to the bladder, thus a cystocele is a hernia of the bladder. Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 48) Which of the following suffixes does NOT mean "pertaining to"? A) -ic B) -ile C) -ous D) -ion Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -ic means "pertaining to." B) The suffix -ile means "pertaining to." C) The suffix -ous means "pertaining to." D) Correct. Page Ref: 38 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 49) Which of the following suffixes means "condition"? 54 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) -esis B) -us C) -tic D) -ole Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) This is an adjective suffix that means "pertaining to." C) This is an adjective suffix that means "pertaining to." D) This is a diminutive suffix. Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 50) If the root muscul means muscle, what is the literal meaning of muscular? A) Large muscles B) Developed muscles C) Pertaining to muscles D) Tightened muscles Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -ar means pertaining to, so the term muscular means pertaining to the muscle. B) The suffix -ar means pertaining to, so the term muscular means pertaining to the muscle. C) Correct. D) The suffix -ar means pertaining to, so the term muscular means pertaining to the muscle. Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 51) What does the suffix -ectasis mean? A) Dilation B) Constriction C) Formation D) Softening Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -spasm can mean "constriction." C) The suffix -genesis means "formation." D) The suffix -malacia means "softening." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 52) Which of the following suffixes means "paralysis"? A) -rrhea B) -lysis C) -penia 55 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) -plegia Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -rrhea means "flow or discharge." B) The suffix -lysis means "destruction or separation." C) The suffix -penia means "a lack of or deficient number." D) Correct. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 53) The suffix that means "weakness" is: A) -dynia. B) -itis. C) -asthenia. D) -lepsy. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -dynia means "pain or ache." B) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." C) Correct. D) The suffix -lepsy means "seizure." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 54) The term presbycusis refers to a decrease of hearing that occurs with aging. What does the suffix -cusis mean in this word? A) Impairment B) Hearing C) Aging D) Occurs Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -cusis means hearing. B) Correct. C) The suffix -cusis means hearing. D) The suffix -cusis means hearing. Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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55) The suffix -genesis means: A) writing. B) condition. C) formation. D) fixation. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -lexia means "writing." B) The suffix -osis means "condition." C) Correct. D) The suffix -pexy means "fixation." Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 56) What does the suffix -oma mean? A) Resembling B) Inflammation C) Mind D) Tumor Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -oid means "resembling." B) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." C) The suffix -noia means "mind." D) Correct. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 57) The suffix -phasia means: A) formation. B) to eat. C) to speak. D) paralysis. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -plasia means "formation." B) The suffix -phagia means "to eat or swallow." C) Correct. D) The suffix -plegia means "paralysis." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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58) What does the suffix in the term hemoptysis mean? A) Spitting B) Drooping C) Flow D) Tension Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -ptosis means "drooping." C) The suffix -rrhea means "flow." D) The suffix -spasm means "tension." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 59) What is the meaning of the suffix in the term rhinorrhea? A) Burst forth B) Rupture C) Flow D) Resemble Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -rrhage means "burst forth." B) The suffix -rrhexis means "rupture." C) Correct. D) The suffix -oid means "resemble." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 60) What does the suffix in the term osteoclasis mean? A) Surgical puncture B) Removal of C) Incision into D) A break Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -centesis means "puncture." B) The suffix -ectomy means "removal of." C) The suffix -tomy means "incision into." D) Correct. Page Ref: 40 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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61) What is the definition of the suffix -lysis? A) Repair B) Separation, breakdown C) Recording D) Instrument for examining Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -plasty means "surgical repair." B) Correct. C) The suffix -graphy means "recording." D) The suffix -scope means "instrument for examining." Page Ref: 40 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 62) In the term cystotomy, the suffix means: A) remove. B) incision. C) surgical puncture. D) new opening. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ectomy means "remove." B) Correct. C) The suffix -centesis means "surgical puncture." D) The suffix -stomy means "new opening." Page Ref: 41 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 63) What is the meaning of the suffix in the term alcoholism? A) Process B) Inflammation C) Pertaining to D) Condition Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -ion means "process." B) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." C) Many suffixes, such as -ary and -ic, mean "pertaining to." D) Correct. Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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64) In the term cyanotic, the suffix means: A) treatment. B) condition. C) pertaining to. D) inflammation. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffixes -iatry and -therapy mean "treatment." B) The suffixes -ism and -osis mean "condition." C) Correct. D) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." Page Ref: 37 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 65) What does the suffix in the term basophil mean? A) Immature cell B) Deficiency C) Attraction, love D) Produce, create Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -blast means "immature cell." B) The suffix -penia means "deficiency." C) Correct. D) The suffix -genesis means "produce or create." Page Ref: 35 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 66) The suffix in the term bronchiole means: A) small. B) dilated. C) constricted. D) many. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -ectasis means "dilated." C) The suffix -spasm means "constricted." D) The prefixes poly- or multi- "mean many." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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67) What is the definition of the suffix -rrhexis? A) Repair B) Flow C) Rupture D) Paralysis Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -plasty means "surgical repair." B) The suffix -rrhea means "flow." C) Correct. D) The suffix -plegia means "paralysis." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 68) The suffix -penia means: A) large. B) deficient. C) sexual. D) pertaining to. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -megaly means "large." B) Correct. C) There is no prefix meaning "sexual." D) A number of prefixes mean "pertaining to," including -ac, -ic, -and -ile; -penia is not one of these suffixes. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 69) The prefix eu- in the term eupnea means: A) excessive. B) deficient. C) slow. D) good. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "excessive" is hyper-. B) The prefix for "deficient" is hypo-. C) The prefix for "slow" is brady-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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70) The prefix anti- means: A) against. B) different. C) bad. D) outside. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "different" is hetero-. C) The prefix for "bad" is cac-, dys-, or mal-. D) The prefix for "outside" is ec-, ecto-, or extra-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 71) The prefix for "bad, difficult, painful, or abnormal" is: A) pan-. B) pseudo-. C) para-. D) dys-. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix pan- means "all." B) The prefix pseudo- means "false." C) The prefix para- means "beside, alongside, or abnormal." D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 72) In the term anicteric, the prefix an- means: A) apart. B) without. C) separate. D) around. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "apart" is dis-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "separate" is dif- or dis-. D) The prefix for "around" is circum- or peri-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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73) The prefix for "below, under, or deficient" is: A) mega-. B) hypo-. C) sym-. D) an-. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix mega- means "large or great." B) Correct. C) The prefix sym- means "together or with." D) The prefix an- means "no, without, lack of, or apart." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 74) The prefix that means "within or inner" is: A) endo-. B) inter-. C) ex-. D) retro-. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix inter- means "between." C) The prefix ex- means "out or away from." D) The prefix retro- means "backward." Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 75) Which of the following is the prefix for three? A) multiB) decaC) primiD) triAnswer: D Explanation: A) The prefix multi- means "many or much." B) The prefix deca- means "ten." C) The prefix primi- means "first." D) Correct. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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76) What is the meaning of the prefix nulli-? A) Outside B) Bad C) None D) Many Answer: C Explanation: A) A prefix for "outside" is ec-, ecto-, or extra-. B) The prefix for "bad" is cac-, dys-, or mal-. C) Correct. D) A prefix for "many" is multi- or poly-. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 77) The prefix in afebrile means: A) without. B) before. C) normal. D) after. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "before" is ante-, pre-, or pro-. C) The prefix for "normal" is eu-. D) The prefix for "after" is post-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 78) In the term premenstrual, the prefix pre- means: A) short. B) normal. C) before. D) after. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "short" is brachy-. B) The prefix for "normal" is eu-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "after" is post-. Page Ref: 54 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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79) The term polydactyly means "pertaining to ________ fingers or toes." A) lack of B) double C) large D) many Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "lack of" is a- or an-. B) The prefix for "double" is bi- or di-. C) The prefix for "large" is mega-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 80) What is the meaning of the prefix bi- as in the term bilateral? A) In front of B) Two C) Separate D) Between Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "in front of" is pre- or pro-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "separate" is dif- or dis-. D) The prefix for "between" is inter-. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 81) The prefix contra- means: A) against. B) bad. C) false. D) together. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "bad" is cac-, dys-, or mal-. C) The prefix for "false" is pseudo-. D) The prefix for "together" is syn- or sym-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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82) The man was diagnosed with bradypnea, which means his breathing is: A) lacking. B) fast. C) excessive. D) slow. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "lack of" is a- or an-. B) The prefix for "fast or rapid" is tachy-. C) The prefix for "excessive" is hyper-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 83) The medical term epigastric means "pertaining to the region ________ the stomach." A) below B) around C) over D) beside Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "below" is hypo- or sub-. B) The prefix for "around" is circum- or peri-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "beside" is para-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 84) In the term hyperactive, the prefix hyper- means: A) excessive. B) good. C) difficult. D) slow. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "good" is eu-. C) The prefix for "difficult" is dys-. D) The prefix for "slow" is brady-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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85) The term intermuscular means "pertaining to ________ muscles." A) separate B) many C) between D) within Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "separate" is dif- or dis-. B) The prefix for "many" is multi- or poly-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "within" is intra-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 86) Parasternal means "pertaining to ________ the sternum." A) beside B) within C) above D) through Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "within" is intra-. C) The prefix for "above" is ep-, epi-, hyper-, super-, or supra-. D) The prefix for "through" is dia-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 87) In the term pericardial, the prefix peri- means: A) below. B) around. C) within. D) above. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "below" is hypo- or sub-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "within" is end-, endo-, or intra-. D) The prefix for "above" is ep-, epi-, hyper-, super-, or supra-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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88) The prefix super- means "above or ________." A) in front of B) away from C) upper D) large Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "in front of" is pre- or pro-. B) The prefix for "away from" is ab-, ex-, or exo-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "large" is mega-. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 89) The prefix uni- means: A) many. B) much. C) none. D) one. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "many" is multi- or poly-. B) The prefix for "much" is multi- or poly-. C) The prefix for "none" is nulli-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 90) The prefix ad- means "________ or near." A) apart B) toward C) outside D) after Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "apart" is a-, an-, ana-, dif-, or dis-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "outside" is ec-, ecto-, or extra-. D) The prefix for "after" is post-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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91) In the term intrauterine, the prefix intra- means: A) around. B) below. C) through. D) within. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "around" is circum- or peri-. B) The prefix for "below" is hypo- or sub-. C) The prefix for "through" is dia-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 92) The prefix milli- means: A) one hundredth. B) one thousandth. C) one half. D) one. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "one hundredth" is centi-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "one half" is semi- or hemi-. D) The prefix for "one" is mono- or uni-. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 93) The prefix homeo- in the term homeostasis means: A) above. B) below. C) constant. D) different. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "above" is ep-, epi-, hyper-, super-, or supra-. B) The prefix for "below" is hypo- or sub-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "different" is hetero-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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94) The term pseudocyesis refers to a ________ pregnancy. A) water B) small C) scanty D) false Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "water" is hydro-. B) The prefix for "small" is micro-. C) The prefix for "scanty" is oligo-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 95) The prefix hydro-, as in the term hydrotherapy, means: A) good. B) water. C) difficult. D) self. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "good" is eu-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "difficult" is dys-. D) The prefix for "self" is auto-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 96) The prefixes ec- and ecto- both mean "out, ________, or outer." A) outside B) apart C) over D) beyond Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "apart" is a-, an-, ana-, dif-, or dis-. C) The prefix for "over" is ep-, epi-, or meta-. D) The prefix for "beyond" is extra-, hyper-, meta-, or supra-. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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97) Circum- is a prefix that means: A) middle. B) out. C) around. D) backward. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "middle" is meso-. B) The prefix for "out" is ec-, ecto-, ex-, or exo-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "backward" is ana-, re-, or retro-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 98) The prefix semi-, as in the term semilunar, means: A) above. B) under. C) large. D) half. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "above" is ep-, epi-, hyper-, super-, or supra-. B) The prefix for "under" is hypo- or sub-. C) The prefix for "large" is mega-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 99) What does the prefix centi- mean? A) Ten B) One tenth C) One hundredth D) One thousandth Answer: C Explanation: A) Centi- means "one hundredth." B) Centi- means "one hundredth." C) Correct. D) Centi- means "one hundredth." Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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100) The prefixes syn- and sym- both mean "with or ________." A) large B) after C) go D) together Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "large" is mega-. B) The prefix for "after" is post-. C) The prefix for "good" is eu-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 101) The prefix mega- means "________ or great." A) high B) large C) long D) wide Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix mega- doesn't have the same meaning as high. B) Correct. C) The prefix mega- doesn't have the same meaning as long. D) The prefix mega- doesn't have the same meaning as wide. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 102) What does the prefix ambi- mean, as in the term ambilateral? A) Twice B) Double C) Apart D) Both Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix bin- means "twice." B) The prefix bi- or di- means "double." C) The prefix a-, an-, ana-, dif-, or dis- means "apart." D) Correct. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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103) Mono- is the prefix for: A) one. B) four. C) three. D) much. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "four" is quadri-. C) The prefix for "three" is tri-. D) The prefix for "much" is multi- or poly-. Page Ref: 49 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 104) What does the term tachypnea mean? A) Slow breathing B) Rapid breathing C) Difficult breathing D) Irregular breathing Answer: B Explanation: A) Tachypnea doesn't mean "slow breathing." B) Correct. C) Tachypnea doesn't mean "difficult breathing." D) Tachypnea doesn't mean "irregular breathing." Page Ref: 43 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 105) The prefix oligo- means: A) large. B) none. C) difficult. D) scanty. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "large" is mega-. B) The prefix for "none" is nulli-. C) The prefix for "difficult" is dys-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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106) The prefixes cac- and mal- mean: A) large. B) slow. C) bad. D) excessive. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "large" is mega-. B) The prefix for "slow" is brady-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "excessive" is hyper- or poly-. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 107) The prefix ana- means: A) up, apart, backward. B) within, into. C) no, without. D) below, under. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "within or into" is intra-. C) The prefixes for "no or without" are a- and an-. D) The prefixes for "below or under" are hypo- and sub-. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 108) The prefix quadri- means: A) four. B) half. C) many. D) first. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix semi- or hemi- means "five." C) The prefix multi- or poly- means "many." D) The prefix primi- means "first." Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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109) In the term insomnia, the prefix in- means: A) deficient. B) near. C) difficult. D) not. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "deficient" is hypo-. B) The prefix for "near" is ad-. C) The prefix for "difficult" is dys-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 110) The prefix auto- means: A) other. B) self. C) control. D) easy. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix auto- doesn't mean "other." B) Correct. C) The prefix auto- doesn't mean "control." D) The prefix auto- doesn't mean "easy." Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 111) In the term pandemic, which is a type of epidemic, the prefix means: A) upon, above. B) all. C) down, away from. D) without. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "upon or above" is ep- or epi-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "down or away from" is de-. D) The prefix for "without" is -a or -an. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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112) Hypoplasia means "________ of a tissue, organ, or body." A) overdevelopment B) underdevelopment C) inner development D) outer development Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix for "over" is ep-, epi-, or meta-. B) Correct. C) The prefix for "inner" is end- or endo-. D) The prefix for "outer" is ec- or ecto-. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 113) All prefixes: A) have more than one meaning. B) pertain to position. C) pertain to numbers. D) begin a word. Answer: D Explanation: A) Not all prefixes have more than one meaning. B) Not all prefixes pertain to position. C) Not all prefixes pertain to numbers. D) Correct. Page Ref: 43 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 114) The term prefix means "to fix ________ or to fix to the beginning of a word." A) beside B) after C) behind D) before Answer: D Explanation: A) The term prefix doesn't mean "to fix beside." B) The term prefix doesn't mean "to fix after." C) The term prefix doesn't mean "to fix behind." D) Correct. Page Ref: 43 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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115) The prefix for "slow" is: A) brachy-. B) tachy-. C) dys-. D) brady-. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix brachy- means "short." B) The prefix tachy- means "rapid or fast." C) The prefix dys- means "bad, difficult, painful, or abnormal." D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 116) The prefix micro- means: A) scanty. B) many. C) large. D) small. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "scanty" is oligo-. B) The prefix for "many" is multi- or poly-. C) The prefix for "large" is mega-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 117) The prefix dis-, as in the term dislocate, means: A) separate. B) away from. C) above. D) excessive. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "away from" is ab-, ex-, exo-, or de-. C) The prefix for "above" is ep-, epi-, hyper-, super-, or supra. D) The prefix for "excessive" is hyper- or poly-. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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118) The meaning of the prefix meta- is: A) beside. B) large. C) excessive. D) beyond. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix para- means "beside." B) The prefix mega- means "large." C) The prefix hyper- or poly- means "excessive." D) Correct. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 119) The prefix that means "before or forward" is: A) ana-. B) endo-. C) ante-. D) ad-. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix ana- means "up, apart, or backward." B) The prefix endo- means "within or inner." C) Correct. D) The prefix ad- means "toward or near." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 120) The prefix that means "between" is: A) in-. B) inter-. C) extra-. D) intra-. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix in- means "in, into, or not." B) Correct. C) The prefix extra- means "outside or beyond." D) The prefix intra- means "within or into." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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121) The prefix for "one thousandth" is: A) milli-. B) multi-. C) nulli-. D) mono-. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix multi- means "many or much." C) The prefix nulli- means "none." D) The prefix mono- means "one." Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 122) The prefix retro- means: A) forward. B) fast. C) backward. D) slow. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix ante- means "forward." B) The prefix tachy- means "rapid, or fast." C) Correct. D) The prefix brady- means "one." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 123) The term lumen means: A) lying hidden. B) space within a tube. C) state of being closed. D) wide open. Answer: B Explanation: A) The term latent means "lying hidden." B) Correct. C) The term occlusion means "state of being closed." D) The term patent means "wide open." Page Ref: 54 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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124) The term meaning "pertaining to two sides" is: A) bilateral. B) ambilateral. C) unilateral. D) trilateral. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Ambilateral means "pertaining to both sides." C) Unilateral means "pertaining to one side." D) Trilateral means "pertaining to three sides." Page Ref: 52 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 125) The prefix primi- means: A) foremost. B) first. C) one. D) many. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix primi- doesn't mean "foremost." B) Correct. C) The prefix mono- or uni- means "one." D) The prefix multi- or poly- means "many." Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 126) The prefix in the term decompensation means: A) again. B) without. C) down. D) separate. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix re- means "again." B) The prefix a- or an- means "without." C) Correct. D) The prefix dif- or dis- means "separate." Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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127) In a multidisciplinary program, there is/are ________ discipline(s) of study. A) all B) two C) many D) one Answer: C Explanation: A) A multidisciplinary program would not necessarily have all disciplines of study. B) A multidisciplinary program would not have just two disciplines of study. C) Correct. D) A multidisciplinary program would not have just one discipline of study. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 128) A posttest is a test that is given ________ the instruction. A) outside B) before C) during D) after Answer: D Explanation: A) A posttest is not a test given outside instruction. B) A posttest is not a test given before instruction. C) A posttest is not a test given during instruction. D) Correct. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 129) The prefix in unconscious means: A) not. B) outside. C) under. D) with. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix ec-, ecto-, or extra- means "outside." C) The prefix hypo- or sub- means "under." D) The prefix com-, sym-, or syn- means "with." Page Ref: 55 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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130) Underdevelopment of a tissue, organ, or body is termed: A) hypoxia. B) hyperemesis. C) hypoplasia. D) hypernecrosis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hypoxia means "deficient oxygen." B) Hyperemesis means "excessive vomiting." C) Correct. D) Hypernecrosis means "excessive tissue death." Page Ref: 52 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 131) Lying hidden or being quiet or inactive is referred to as: A) exacerbate. B) intermediary. C) latent. D) prevaricate. Answer: C Explanation: A) Exacerbate is not the term for lying hidden or being quiet or inactive. B) Intermediary is not the term for lying hidden or being quiet or inactive. C) Correct. D) Prevaricate is not the term for lying hidden or being quiet or inactive. Page Ref: 53 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 132) Peri- is a prefix that means: A) many. B) before. C) around. D) again. Answer: C Explanation: A) Prefixes that mean "many" are multi- and poly-. B) The prefixes pre-, pro-, and ante- mean "before." C) Correct. D) The prefix re- means "again." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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133) The prefix in catabolism (cata-) means: A) down. B) separate. C) excessive. D) increased. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix for "separate" is dif- or dis-. C) The prefix for "excessive" is hyper- or poly-. D) The prefix cata- does not mean "increased." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 134) The prefix in superinfection means: A) between. B) much. C) above. D) below. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix for "between" is dia-, inter-, or meta-. B) The prefix for "much" is multi- or poly-. C) Correct. D) The prefix for "below" is hypo- or sub-. Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 135) The prefix in abnormal means: A) same. B) near. C) toward. D) away from. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for "same" is homeo-. B) The prefix for "near" is ad-. C) The prefix for "toward" is ad-. D) Correct. Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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2.2 True/False Questions 1) A compound suffix is made up of more than one suffix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A compound suffix is made up of more than one word component of any type. Page Ref: 34 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) The suffix -derma means "skin." Answer: TRUE Explanation: The suffix -derma means "skin." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 3) The suffix meaning "dilation" is -cele. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix for dilation is -ectasis. The suffix -cele means "hernia, tumor, or swelling." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) The suffix -lepsy means "seizure." Answer: TRUE Explanation: The suffix -lepsy means "seizure." Page Ref: 38 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) The suffix meaning "madness" is -mania. Answer: TRUE Explanation: The suffix meaning "madness" is -mania. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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6) The suffix -oid means "mind." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -oid means "similar or resembles." The suffix -noia means "mind." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) The suffix meaning "disease" is -pathy. Answer: TRUE Explanation: The suffix meaning "disease" is -pathy. Page Ref: 31 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) The suffix in the term aphagia means "to speak." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix in aphagia means "to eat or to swallow." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 9) The suffix meaning "a thing formed" is -plasm. Answer: TRUE Explanation: The suffix meaning "a thing formed" is -plasm. Page Ref: 39 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) The suffix meaning "drooping" is -ptysis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -ptysis means "spitting." The suffix -ptosis means "drooping." Page Ref: 39 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) All medical words have a prefix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Not every medical word has a prefix (for example, cardiopathy). Page Ref: 43 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 12) The prefix for "two or double" is bi-. 85 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: TRUE Explanation: The prefix for "two or double" is bi-. Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) Both the prefixes pre- and pro- mean "after, behind." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pre- and pro- mean "before, in front of." Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) The prefix meso- means "off-center." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Meso- means "middle." Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 15) The prefix for "four" is quadri-. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) Insomnia is a condition of sleep. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Insomnia is a condition of no sleep. Page Ref: 53 Objective: 10 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 17) The prefix bin- means "twice." Answer: TRUE Explanation: The prefix bin- means "twice." Page Ref: 48 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) The prefix extra- means "inside or inner." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Extra- means "outside or beyond." 86 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 47 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) The prefix eu- means "good or normal." Answer: TRUE Explanation: The prefix eu- means "good or normal." Page Ref: 44 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) The prefix meta- means "scanty." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Meta- means "beyond, over, between, or change." Page Ref: 45 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 3 Organization of the Body 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) In the term proximal, the root proxim means ________ the point of origin. A) near B) away from C) far from D) medial to Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Distal is the term for away from the point of origin. C) Distal is the term for far from the point of origin. D) Medial is a term meaning nearest the midline or middle. Page Ref: 71 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) The ________ plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions. A) coronal B) midsagittal C) frontal D) transverse Answer: D Explanation: A) The coronal plane divides the body into front and back portions. B) The midsagittal plane divides the body into right and left halves. 87 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) The frontal plane is another name for the coronal plane. D) Correct. Page Ref: 69 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) In the term ambilateral, the prefix ambi- means: A) double. B) two. C) both. D) one. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix di- means double. B) The prefixes bi- or di- mean two. C) Correct. D) The prefixes mono- or uni- mean one. Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) In the term homeostasis, the prefix homeo- means: A) same. B) different. C) unequal. D) equal. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix homeo- does not mean different. C) The prefix homeo- does not mean unequal. D) The prefix homeo- does not mean equal. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) What part of the term somatotrophic is closest in meaning to stimulation of growth? A) Soma B) Somato C) Troph D) -ic Answer: C Explanation: A) Soma is only part of the combining form somat/o, meaning body. B) The combining form somat/o means body. C) Correct. D) The suffix -ic means pertaining to. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical Words
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6) Which part of the word dehydrate distinguishes this word from defenestrate? A) Its prefix B) Its suffix C) Its root D) Its combining form Answer: C Explanation: A) Dehydrate shares a prefix, de-, with defenestrate. B) Dehydrate shares a suffix, -ate, with defenestrate. C) Correct. D) Dehydrate does not have a combining form. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical Words 7) The study of tissue is known as: A) pathology. B) physiology. C) biology. D) histology. Answer: D Explanation: A) Pathology is the study of disease. B) Physiology is the study of the function of living organisms. C) Biology is the study of life. D) Correct. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) A word that means pertaining to fatty tissue throughout the body is: A) ambilateral. B) adipose. C) inguinal. D) organic. Answer: B Explanation: A) Ambilateral means pertaining to both sides. B) Correct. C) Inguinal means pertaining to the groin. D) Organic means pertaining to an organ or organs. Page Ref: 82 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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9) A/An ________ is a slender physical body form. A) endomorph B) mesomorph C) ectomorph D) pseudomorph Answer: C Explanation: A) An endomorph is a round and soft physical body form. B) A mesomorph is a well-proportioned body form. C) Correct. D) There is no body form called a pseudomorph. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) In the term cephalic, the root cephal means: A) skull. B) head. C) temples. D) throat. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root crani means skull. B) Correct. C) The term tempor means temples. D) The root pharyng means throat. Page Ref: 74 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 11) In the term inguinal, the root inguin means: A) side. B) abdomen. C) back. D) groin. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root later means side. B) The root abdomen means abdomen. C) The root poster means back. D) Correct. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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12) The hereditary unit that transmits and determines one's characteristics or hereditary traits is the: A) chromosome. B) phenotype. C) gene. D) genome. Answer: C Explanation: A) A chromosome is a microscopic body that carries genes. B) A phenotype is the physical appearance or makeup of an individual. C) Correct. D) A genome is a complete set of genes and chromosomes. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 13) The ________ cavity is the space in the skull containing the brain. A) cranial B) thoracic C) spinal D) abdominal Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The thoracic cavity is the chest. C) The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord. D) The abdominal cavity contains the intestines and other organs. Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 14) In the term anatomy, the suffix -tomy means: A) resemble. B) incision. C) use. D) process. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -oid means resemble. B) Correct. C) The suffix -ate means use. D) The suffix -ion means process. Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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15) In the term topical, the suffix -al means: A) pertaining to. B) process. C) resemble. D) form or shape. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -ion means process. C) The suffix -oid means resemble. D) The suffix -morph means form or shape. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) In the term android, the suffix -oid means: A) form. B) resemble. C) different. D) male. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -morph means form. B) Correct. C) The prefix hetero- means different. D) The root andr means male. Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) In the term mesomorph, the suffix -morph means: A) form, shape. B) resemble. C) action. D) body. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -oid means resemble. C) The suffix -ate means action. D) The suffix -some means body. Page Ref: 84 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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18) Which term means pertaining to one side? A) Visceral B) Superficial C) Topical D) Unilateral Answer: D Explanation: A) Visceral means pertaining to body organs enclosed within a cavity. B) Superficial means pertaining to the surface. C) Topical means pertaining to a place. D) Correct. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 19) Which term means pertaining to body organs enclosed within a cavity, especially the abdominal organs? A) Visceral B) Inguinal C) Cranial D) Ventral Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Inguinal means pertaining to the groin. C) Cranial means pertaining to the skull. D) Ventral means pertaining to the front side. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 20) In the anatomical position, the palms are to the: A) back. B) front. C) side. D) middle. Answer: B Explanation: A) The palms are not to the back in the anatomical position. B) Correct. C) The palms are not to the side in the anatomical position. D) The palms are not to the middle in the anatomical position. Page Ref: 68 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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21) The ________, or frontal, plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. A) midsagittal B) transverse C) coronal D) horizontal Answer: C Explanation: A) The midsagittal plane divides the body into right and left halves. B) The transverse plane divides the body into superior and inferior sections. C) Correct. D) The horizontal plane is another name for the transverse plane. Page Ref: 69 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 22) The ________ plane vertically divides the body, as it passes through the midline, to form right and left halves. A) midsagittal B) transverse C) coronal D) horizontal Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower sections. C) The coronal plane divides the body into front and back sections. D) The horizontal plane is another name for the transverse plane. Page Ref: 69 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 23) Which term means toward the back? A) Anterior B) Distal C) Ventral D) Posterior Answer: D Explanation: A) Anterior is the front of the body. B) Distal is the section of the body away from the point of origin or attachment. C) Ventral is the front of the body. D) Correct. Page Ref: 70 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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24) Hairlike processes that project from epithelial cells are called: A) centrioles. B) flagellum. C) nucleus. D) cilia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Centrioles are bodies in a cell that play an important role in cell reproduction. B) The flagellum is the tail of a sperm cell. C) The nucleus is the central portion of a cell that contains the chromosomes. D) Correct. Page Ref: 63 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 25) What is the top or highest point called? A) Vertex B) Apex C) Base D) Proton Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The apex is the pointed end of a cone-shaped structure. C) A base is the lower part or foundation of a structure. D) A proton is a positively charged particle. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 26) The combining form for head is: A) cephal/o. B) crani/o. C) carp/o. D) cervic/o. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Crani/o is the combining form for skull. C) Carp/o is the combining form for wrist. D) Cervic/o is the combining form for neck. Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) The combining form for foot is: A) bucc/o. B) pod/o. C) opt/o. D) tars/o. Answer: B Explanation: A) Bucc/o is the combining form for cheek. B) Correct. C) Opt/o is a combining form for eye. D) Tars/o is the combining form for ankle. Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 28) A word part for arm is: A) or/o. B) ot/o. C) brach/i. D) bucc/o. Answer: C Explanation: A) The word part for mouth is or/o. B) A word part for ear is ot/o. C) Correct. D) Bucc/o is the combining form for cheek. Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 29) A/An ________ is a grouping of similar cells that together perform specialized functions. A) system B) organ C) tissue D) organelle Answer: C Explanation: A) A system is a group of organs that function together for a common purpose. B) An organ is a group of different tissues that function together. C) Correct. D) An organelle, or little organ, is a work or storage element of a cell. Page Ref: 65 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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30) A/An ________ is the smallest, most basic chemical unit of an element. A) atom B) molecule C) proton D) neutron Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A molecule is a chemical combination of two or more atoms. C) A proton is part of an atom. D) A neutron is part of an atom. Page Ref: 60 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 31) The most widespread and abundant of the body's tissues is: A) epithelial. B) connective. C) muscle. D) nerve. Answer: B Explanation: A) There is a lot of epithelial tissue in our bodies, but it is not the most abundant. B) Correct. C) Muscle tissue is not the most abundant. D) Nervous tissue is not the most abundant. Page Ref: 67 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 32) Which term means pertaining to the front side of the body, the belly side of the abdomen? A) Distal B) Posterior C) Ventral D) Dorsal Answer: C Explanation: A) Distal means away from the point of attachment or far from the point of origin. B) Posterior means toward the back, the back side of the body. C) Correct. D) Dorsal means toward the back, the back side of the body. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) A/An ________ is a hollow space containing body organs. A) tissue B) organ C) system D) cavity Answer: D Explanation: A) A tissue is a grouping of similar cells that together perform specialized functions. B) An organ is a structure made of different tissues serving a common purpose. C) A system is made of organs functioning with a common purpose. D) Correct. Page Ref: 69 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 34) In the term systemic, the root system means a: A) composite whole. B) group of organs. C) group of tissues. D) group of cells. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The term system is a group of organs. C) An organ is a group of tissues. D) A tissue is a group of like cells. Page Ref: 85 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 35) In the term medial, the root medi means: A) on the side. B) toward the middle. C) to strain through. D) similar. Answer: B Explanation: A) Later means on the side. B) Correct. C) Filtrat means to strain through. D) Homeo means similar. Page Ref: 84 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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36) A state of equilibrium maintained in the body's internal environment is termed: A) homeostasis. B) diffusion. C) karyogenesis. D) perfusion. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Diffusion is the process by which particles in a fluid move from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration. C) Karyogenesis is the formation of a cell's nucleus. D) Perfusion is a passing of fluid through spaces. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) What molecule is the most important constituent of all body fluids? A) Blood B) Mucus C) Water D) Oxygen Answer: C Explanation: A) Blood is not a molecule, which is a chemical combination of two or more atoms that form a specific chemical compound. B) Mucus is not a molecule, which is a chemical combination of two or more atoms that form a specific chemical compound. C) Correct. D) Oxygen is an element, not a molecule, which is a chemical combination of two or more atoms that form a specific chemical compound. Page Ref: 60 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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38) The outermost portion of the cell is known as the: A) nucleus. B) cell membrane. C) cytoplasm. D) Golgi apparatus. Answer: B Explanation: A) The nucleus is in the center of the cell. B) Correct. C) The cytoplasm is the watery interior of the cell. D) The Golgi apparatus is within the cell. Page Ref: 62 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 39) The metabolism of a cell is the responsibility of its: A) membrane. B) cytoplasm. C) chromosomes. D) nucleus. Answer: D Explanation: A) The cell membrane is not responsible for the metabolism of the cell. B) The cytoplasm is not responsible for the metabolism of the cell. C) The chromosomes carry genes that determine hereditary characteristics and are not responsible for the metabolism of the cell. D) Correct. Page Ref: 64 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 40) A general property of stems cells is that they: A) divide and renew themselves only in the short term. B) are specialized. C) use body cells as precursors. D) can give rise to specialized cell types. Answer: D Explanation: A) Stem cells can divide and renew themselves for long periods. B) Stem cells are unspecialized. C) Stem cells are the precursors of body cells. D) Correct. Page Ref: 65 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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41) Which type of tissue consists of three distinct types of tissue? A) Epithelial B) Connective C) Muscle D) Nerve Answer: C Explanation: A) Epithelial tissue does not consist of three distinct types of tissue. B) Connective tissue does not consist of three distinct types of tissue. C) Correct. D) Nerve tissue does not consist of three distinct types of tissue. Page Ref: 67 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 42) Which plane vertically divides the body into right and left sides? A) Transverse B) Coronal C) Sagittal D) Horizontal Answer: C Explanation: A) The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower sections. B) The coronal plane divides the body into front and back sections. C) Correct. D) The horizontal plane is another name for the transverse plane. Page Ref: 69 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) A transverse plane divides the body into sections called: A) anterior and posterior. B) superior and inferior. C) right and left halves. D) lateral and medial. Answer: B Explanation: A) The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior sections. B) Correct. C) The midsagittal plane divides the body into right and left halves. D) Lateral and medial are opposite body directions, away from and toward the middle. Page Ref: 69 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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44) In the thoracic cavity, the space containing the heart is known as the ________ cavity. A) pleural B) abdominal C) ventral D) pericardial Answer: D Explanation: A) The pleural cavities contain the lungs. B) The abdominal cavity contains the intestines and other organs. C) The ventral cavity contains the thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavities. D) Correct. Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 45) The term used to describe being away from the point of attachment is: A) dorsal. B) proximal. C) distal. D) caudal. Answer: C Explanation: A) Dorsal refers to the back. B) Proximal refers to the point closest to the point of attachment. C) Correct. D) Caudal means pertaining to the tail. Page Ref: 71 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) The medical term that describes a person who has a round physical body form is: A) endomorph. B) ectomorph. C) mesomorph. D) somamorph. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) An ectomorph is a slender body shape. C) A mesomorph is a well-proportioned body. D) Somamorph is a false term. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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47) Karyogenesis is a term used to describe: A) a precursor of a body cell. B) the formation of a cell's nucleus. C) a complete set of genes. D) the physical appearance of an individual. Answer: B Explanation: A) A stem cell is a precursor of a body cell. B) Correct. C) A genome is a complete set of genes. D) Karyogenesis does not refer to physical appearance. Page Ref: 84 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 48) Which term is defined as the study of cells? A) Cytology B) Histology C) Pathology D) Physiology Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Histology is the study of tissues. C) Pathology is the study of diseases. D) Physiology is the study of the function of living organisms. Page Ref: 82 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 49) The official name of a drug is: A) the generic name. B) the brand name. C) the trade name. D) the chemical name. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The brand name is the private property of the manufacturer of a drug and registered with the U.S. Patent Office. C) The trade name is the private property of the manufacturer of a drug and registered with the U.S. Patent Office. D) The chemical name is the formula of a drug. Page Ref: 88 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs 50) Three different types of muscle tissue are: A) skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. 104 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) smooth, involuntary, and cardiac. C) striated, cardiac, and involuntary. D) striated, voluntary, and skeletal. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Smooth and involuntary muscle are the same. C) Some muscle tissue is striated, but this isn't one of the types. D) Skeletal and voluntary muscle are the same, and skeletal muscle tissue is striated. Page Ref: 67 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 51) Among the functions of ________ tissue are protection, absorption, secretion, and excretion. A) connective B) nerve C) epithelial D) muscle Answer: C Explanation: A) The function of connective tissue is support. B) The functions of nerve tissue are control and coordination. C) Correct. D) The function of muscle tissue is movement. Page Ref: 66-67 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 52) The upper right region of the abdomen corresponds to the: A) right lumbar. B) right iliac. C) hypogastric. D) right hypochondriac. Answer: D Explanation: A) The right lumbar region is at the waist and corresponds to part of the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. B) The right iliac region is the lowest region on the right. C) The hypogastric is the lowest center region. D) Correct. Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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53) The root in the word dehydrate means: A) cell. B) body. C) water. D) filter. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root for cell is cyt. B) The root for body is somat. C) Correct. D) The root for filter is filtrat. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 54) In the term histology, the combining form means: A) tissue. B) to show. C) cell. D) disease. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The combining form for to show is phen/o. C) The combining form for cell is cyt/o. D) The combining form for disease is path/o. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 55) The suffix in the term homeostasis means: A) resemble. B) process. C) stand still. D) pertaining to. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix for resemble is -oid. B) The suffix for process is -ion. C) Correct. D) Many suffixes such as -ic and -al mean pertaining to. Page Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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56) Which of the following is a root that means behind? A) Proxim B) Proto C) Poster D) Per Answer: C Explanation: A) The root proxim means near the point of origin. B) The root proto means first. C) Correct. D) The prefix per- means through. Page Ref: 74 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 57) The five medical uses for drugs are therapeutic, diagnostic, curative, replacement, and preventive or: A) product testing. B) prophylactic. C) protective. D) proximal. Answer: B Explanation: A) Product testing is not one of the five medical uses for drugs. B) Correct. C) Protective is not one of the five medical uses for drugs. D) Proximal is not one of the five medical uses for drugs. Page Ref: 88 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs 58) An example of a brand name for a drug is: A) 1-dioxide B) amoxicillin C) piroxicam D) Polymox. Answer: D Explanation: A) 1-dioxide is part of the chemical name of a drug. B) Amoxicillin is the generic name for a drug. C) Piroxicam is the generic name for a drug. D) Correct. Page Ref: 88 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs 59) Which system of the body involves glands that produce hormones that provide for communication and control over various parts of the body? A) Endocrine 107 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Muscular C) Nervous D) Skeletal Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The muscular system produces movement and heat and maintains posture. C) The nervous system transmits impulses, responds to change, is responsible for communication, and exercises control over all parts of the body. D) The skeletal system provides support for the body, protection, and a storage place for minerals. Page Ref: 68 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Body Systems 60) A body system involved in transportation and immunity is the: A) cardiovascular system. B) digestive system. C) reproductive system. D) respiratory system. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The digestive system is involved in distribution and elimination. C) The reproductive system is involved in the cycle of life. D) The respiratory system is involved in distribution and elimination. Page Ref: 68 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Body Systems
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3.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) pertaining to the tail B) pertaining to the surface C) the pointed end of a cone-shaped structure D) pertaining to the body as a whole E) nearest the point of attachment F) hairlike processes G) to the side H) pertaining to the front side of the body 1) caudal Page Ref: 71 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) apex Page Ref: 82 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) cilia Page Ref: 63 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) lateral Page Ref: 71 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) proximal Page Ref: 71 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) superficial Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) systemic Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) ventral Page Ref: 85 Objective: 3, 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology Answers: 1) A 2) C 3) F 4) G 5) E 6) B 7) D 8) H
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) dactyl/o B) brach/i; brachi/o C) umbilic/o; omphal/o D) crani/o E) mast/o; mamm/o F) rhin/o; nas/o G) thorac/o 9) skull Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) nose Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) breast Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 12) arm Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) finger Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) navel Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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15) chest Page Ref: 74 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 9) D 10) F 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) G
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) similar; same B) first C) middle D) down; away from E) two F) both G) within H) apart; up I) outside J) color 16) ambiPage Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) anaPage Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) biPage Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) chromoPage Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) dePage Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) ectoPage Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) endoPage Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) homeoPage Ref: 83 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) mesoPage Ref: 84 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) protoPage Ref: 84 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) F 17) H 18) E 19) J 20) D 21) I 22) G 23) A 24) C 25) B
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) one B) study of C) incision D) disease E) tissue F) cell G) resemble H) man I) water J) nature 26) cyt/o Page Ref: 81 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) hist/o Page Ref: 81 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) hydr Page Ref: 81 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) path/o Page Ref: 81 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) physi/o Page Ref: 81 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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31) -logy Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) -oid Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -tomy Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) uniPage Ref: 85 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) andr Page Ref: 82 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 26) F 27) E 28) I 29) D 30) J 31) B 32) G 33) C 34) A 35) H 3.3 True/False Questions 1) The proton is the smallest chemical unit of an element. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An atom is the smallest chemical unit of an element. The proton is part of an atom. Page Ref: 60 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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2) An element is a substance that can be separated into substances different from itself. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An element cannot be broken down into any other substance by chemical means. Page Ref: 60 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) Cytoplasm is the substance between the cell membrane and the nuclear membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 64 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) A single gene makes up each DNA segment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 64 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) An embryonic cell is a specialized cell that may turn itself into any type of tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An embryonic cell is an unspecialized cell that can turn itself into any type of tissue. Page Ref: 65 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) There are three basic types of tissue in the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are four basic types of tissue in the body—epithelial, connective, muscle, and nerve. Page Ref: 65 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The ventral cavity contains the heart and lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) The pelvic cavity is subdivided into the cranial cavity and the pelvic cavity. Answer: FALSE 117 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: The abdominopelvic cavity contains the abdominal and pelvic cavities. Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) The left hypochondriac region is the region over the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The epigastric region is over the stomach. Page Ref: 72 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) The LUQ contains the stomach and spleen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 73 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 11) Movement is made possible through the joints of the skeletal system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 68 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Body Systems Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 4 Integumentary System 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The skin is essentially composed of two layers, the epidermis and: A) subcutaneous. B) papillary. C) dermis. D) reticular. Answer: C Explanation: A) The subcutaneous layer supports, nourishes, insulates, and cushions the skin but is not part of it. B) The papillary layer is only part of the dermis layer. C) Correct. D) The reticular layer is only a part of the dermis layer. Page Ref: 97 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 118 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
2) A pigment that gives color to the skin is called: A) keratin. B) melanin. C) melanoma. D) corneum. Answer: B Explanation: A) Keratin is the basic structural component of hair and nails. B) Correct. C) Melanoma is a black malignant tumor. D) The corneum is the outer layer of the epidermis. Page Ref: 96 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) The absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes is called: A) albinism. B) anhidrosis. C) avulsion. D) alopecia Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Anhidrosis is the absence of sweating. C) Avulsion is tearing off of a body structure. D) Alopecia is a type of baldness. Page Ref: 104 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 4) The medical term for skin tags is: A) callus. B) lentigo. C) acrochordon. D) bulla. Answer: C Explanation: A) A callus is hardened skin. B) A lentigo is a flat, brownish spot on the skin. C) Correct. D) A bulla is a large blister. Page Ref: 103 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 5) Excessive flow of oil from the sebaceous glands is called: A) scabies. B) hidrosis. C) hidradenitis. D) seborrhea. Answer: D Explanation: A) Scabies is a disease caused by the itch mite. B) Hidrosis is sweating. C) Hidradenitis is inflammation of the sweat glands. D) Correct. Page Ref: 121 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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6) A physician may refer to a scar left after the healing of a wound as a: A) cicatrix. B) comedo. C) corn. D) cyst. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A comedo is a blackhead. C) A corn is a thickening of the skin. D) A cyst is a closed, fluid-filled sac. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The medical term for a bedsore is: A) keloid. B) macula. C) papule. D) decubitus. Answer: D Explanation: A) A keloid is an overgrown scar. B) A macula is a reddened spot on the skin. C) A papule is a raised spot on the skin. D) Correct. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 8) The medical term tinea is also known as: A) chickenpox. B) ringworm. C) measles. D) nevus. Answer: B Explanation: A) Chickenpox is a contagious viral disease. B) Correct. C) Measles is a viral communicable disease. D) A nevus is a mole. Page Ref: 124 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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9) In the term avulsion, the root vuls means: A) thick. B) hard. C) dry. D) to pull. Answer: D Explanation: A) Pachy is a root meaning thick. B) Scler/o is a combining form meaning hard. C) Xer/o is a combining form meaning dry. D) Correct. Page Ref: 105 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) Dermomycosis is a skin condition caused by a: A) bacterium. B) virus. C) fungus. D) secretion. Answer: C Explanation: A) Dermomycosis is not caused by a bacterium. B) Dermomycosis is not caused by a virus. C) Correct. D) Dermomycosis is not caused by a secretion. Page Ref: 111 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 11) A cancerous tumor that has black pigmentation is a/an: A) miliaria. B) melanin. C) onychia. D) melanoma. Answer: D Explanation: A) Miliaria is prickly heat. B) Melanin is the pigment in skin. C) Onychia is an inflammation of the nail bed. D) Correct. Page Ref: 115 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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12) A physician who specializes in the study of the skin is a: A) dermatologist. B) dermatology. C) dermatome. D) dermis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Dermatology is the study of the skin, not one who specializes in it. C) A dermatome is a surgical instrument used to produce thin slices of skin. D) The dermis is one of the layers of skin. Page Ref: 110 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) The process of forcibly tearing off a part or structure of the body, such as a finger or toe, is: A) dehiscence. B) purpura. C) avulsion. D) eschar. Answer: C Explanation: A) Dehiscence is a wound bursting open. B) Purpura is a purplish discoloration of the skin. C) Correct. D) Eschar is a scab. Page Ref: 105 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 14) What is an abnormal redness of the skin occurring over widespread areas of the body called? A) Leukoderma B) Erythroderma C) Xeroderma D) Xanthoderma Answer: B Explanation: A) Leukoderma is whitish skin. B) Correct. C) Xeroderma is dry skin. D) Xanthoderma is yellowness of the skin. Page Ref: 112 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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15) Overgrowth of scar tissue due to excessive collagen formation is called a/an: A) scab. B) cicatrix. C) acne. D) keloid. Answer: D Explanation: A) A scab is an eschar. B) A cicatrix is a normal scar. C) Acne is a skin condition of the sebaceous glands. D) Correct. Page Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 16) In the term icteric, the root icter means: A) jaundice. B) skin. C) nail. D) a louse. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The roots cutane, derm, and dermat mean skin. C) The root onych means nail. D) The root pedicul means a louse. Page Ref: 113 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) The medical term subungual means pertaining to ________ the nail. A) above B) below C) within D) beside Answer: B Explanation: A) Subungual does not mean pertaining to above the nail. B) Correct. C) Subungual does not mean pertaining to within the nail. D) Subungual does not mean pertaining to beside the nail. Page Ref: 123 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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18) A fungal condition of the hair is known as: A) alopecia. B) rosacea. C) striae. D) trichomycosis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Alopecia is the absence or loss of hair. B) Rosacea is a chronic disease of the skin of the face marked by varying degrees of papules, pustules, erythema, telangiectasia, and hyperplasia of the soft tissues of the nose. C) Striae are streaks or lines on the breasts, thighs, abdomen, or buttocks caused by weakening of elastic tissue. D) Correct. Page Ref: 125 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 19) In the term anhidrosis, the root hidr means: A) sweat. B) itching. C) scar. D) wrinkle. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root prurit means itching. C) A scar is a cicatrix. D) The combining form rhytid/o means wrinkle. Page Ref: 105 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) The term alopecia means loss of hair or: A) pigment. B) skin. C) fox mange. D) baldness. Answer: D Explanation: A) Alopecia does not refer to pigment. B) Alopecia does not refer to skin. C) Alopecia does not refer to fox mange, although the root, lopec, means fox mange. D) Correct. Page Ref: 104 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 21) The clue that rhytidoplasty is a word referring to a surgical procedure is in its: A) prefix. 125 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) root. C) combining form. D) suffix. Answer: D Explanation: A) Rhytidoplasty does not have a prefix. B) The root of rhytidoplasty, rhytid, refers to wrinkles. C) The combining form of rhytidoplasty, rhytid/o, refers to wrinkles. D) Correct. Page Ref: 118 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Surgery 22) White spots or patches formed on the mucous membrane of the tongue or cheek are called: A) leukoplakia. B) lentigo. C) lupus. D) purpura. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A lentigo is a flat, brownish spot on the skin. C) Lupus is typically used in combination with vulgaris or erythematosus. D) Purpura is a purplish skin discoloration. Page Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 23) Which term is called prickly heat and is commonly seen in newborns and/or infants? A) Impetigo B) Roseola C) Miliaria D) Psoriasis Answer: C Explanation: A) Impetigo is a contagious skin infection caused by strep or staph. B) Roseola is a rash of red spots. C) Correct. D) Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by dry skin patches. Page Ref: 116 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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24) A test done on wound exudate to determine the presence of microorganisms is a: A) sweat test. B) biopsy. C) Tzanck test. D) wound culture. Answer: D Explanation: A) The sweat test measures the amount of chloride in sweat. B) A biopsy is removal of a piece of tissue for microscopic examination. C) The Tzanck test examines tissue from a pustule. D) Correct. Page Ref: 132 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 25) A microscopic examination of a small piece of tissue that has been surgically scraped from a pustule is a: A) Tzanck test. B) sweat test. C) biopsy. D) wound culture. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A sweat test measures the amount of chloride in sweat. C) A biopsy is removal of a piece of tissue for microscopic examination. D) A wound culture examines exudates from a wound. Page Ref: 132 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 26) The ________ test may be used to determine the level of chloride concentration on the skin. A) sweat B) Tzanck C) prick D) Mantoux Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The Tzanck test examines tissue from a pustule. C) A prick test uses an allergen and a sterile lancet to test for allergic reactions to substances. D) This is a test for TB. Page Ref: 132 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures
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27) Pinpoint, purplish hemorrhagic spots on the skin are called: A) acne. B) leukoplakia. C) petechiae. D) comedo. Answer: C Explanation: A) Acne is inflammation of sebaceous glands. B) Leukoplakia is whitish spots on the mucous membrane of the tongue or cheek. C) Correct. D) A comedo is a blackhead. Page Ref: 117 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 28) Which term means severe itching? A) Alopecia B) Cicatrix C) Decubitus D) Pruritus Answer: D Explanation: A) Alopecia is baldness. B) A cicatrix is a scar. C) A decubitus is a pressure ulcer. D) Correct. Page Ref: 117 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 29) The separation or bursting open of a surgical wound is called: A) dehiscence. B) exudate. C) eschar. D) pustule. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Exudate is oozing pus or serum. C) An eschar is a scab. D) A pustule is a raised, pus-filled spot on the skin. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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30) A/An ________ is commonly called a blackhead. A) acne B) telangiectasia C) comedo D) exudate Answer: C Explanation: A) Acne is inflammation of the sebaceous glands. B) Telangiectasia is small dilated blood vessels. C) Correct. D) Exudate is pus or serum that oozes from a wound. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 31) When debridement is performed, what is done? A) Dead tissue is removed. B) Wrinkles are repaired. C) Extreme cold is used to kill cells. D) A biopsy is performed. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Debridement does not involve the repair of wrinkles. C) Debridement does not involve the use of extreme cold to kill cells. D) Debridement does not involve performing a biopsy. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 32) In the term cellulitis, the root cellul means: A) burning. B) skin. C) little cell. D) to lie. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root caus means burn or burning. B) The roots cutane, derm, and dermat mean skin. C) Correct. D) The root cubit means to lie. Page Ref: 108 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) In the term integumentary, the root integument means: A) nails. B) hair. C) sweat. D) a covering. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root onych means nails. B) The root trich means hair. C) The root hidr means sweat. D) Correct. Page Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) In the term jaundice, the root jaund means: A) white. B) black. C) red. D) yellow. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root leuk means white. B) The root melan means black. C) The root erythr means red. D) Correct. Page Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) A ________ is also known as a mole. A) macule B) nevus C) papule D) psoriasis Answer: B Explanation: A) A macule is a discolored spot on the skin. B) Correct. C) A papule is a raised, solid spot on the skin. D) Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by thick, dry scales. Page Ref: 116 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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36) A surface that is pulled or drawn tightly, such as skin, is called: A) eschar. B) intradermal. C) taut. D) striae. Answer: C Explanation: A) An eschar is a scab. B) Intradermal means within the skin. C) Correct. D) Striae are streaks or lines on the skin. Page Ref: 124 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 37) The sweat glands secrete sweat for cooling by: A) anhidrosis. B) evaporation. C) radiation. D) perspiration. Answer: B Explanation: A) Anhidrosis is an abnormal condition in which there is a lack or complete absence of sweating. B) Correct. C) Radiation is cooling by dilation of the blood vessels. D) Perspiration is sweat. Page Ref: 96 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 38) Xanthoderma is defined as: A) thickened skin. B) yellow tumor. C) dry skin. D) yellow skin. Answer: D Explanation: A) A thickening of the skin is called a corn. B) A yellow tumor is a xanthoma. C) Xeroderma is dry skin. D) Correct. Page Ref: 126 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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39) The combining form ang/i in the term telangiectasia means: A) extremity. B) vessel. C) tumor. D) plate. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form acr/o means extremity. B) Correct. C) The combining form kel/o means tumor. D) The combining form plak/o means plate. Page Ref: 124 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 40) Varicella is a/an: A) contagious viral disease. B) skin condition characterized by milk-white patches. C) open lesion. D) abrasion of the epidermis by scratching. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Vitiligo is a skin condition characterized by milk-white patches. C) An ulcer is an open lesion. D) An excoriation is an abrasion of the epidermis by scratching. Page Ref: 125 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 41) Of the five strata of the epidermis, the stratum ________ is the outermost, horny layer. A) granulosum B) lucidum C) basale D) corneum Answer: D Explanation: A) The stratum granulosum is where large amounts of keratin are made. B) The stratum lucidum is present in the thick skin of the palms and soles. C) The stratum basale is the innermost epidermal layer. D) Correct. Page Ref: 96 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) Sebaceous glands produce: A) sweat. B) water. C) oil. D) bacteria. Answer: C Explanation: A) The sebaceous glands do not produce sweat. B) The sebaceous glands do not produce water. C) Correct. D) The sebaceous glands do not produce bacteria. Page Ref: 97 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) A boil can be defined as: A) a pustule in the epidermis. B) a papule in the dermis. C) an infected nodule in the subcutaneous layer. D) an infected sweat gland in the dermis. Answer: C Explanation: A) A boil is not a pustule in the epidermis. B) A boil is not a papule in the dermis. C) Correct. D) A boil is not an infected sweat gland in the dermis. Page Ref: 106 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 44) Taking living tissue from one part of a patient's body and transferring it to another part of that patient's body is called: A) an avulsion. B) an autograft. C) rhytidoplasty. D) cryosurgery. Answer: B Explanation: A) An avulsion is the process of forcibly tearing off a part or structure of the body. B) Correct. C) Rhytidoplasty is plastic surgery for the removal of wrinkles. D) Cryosurgery is using subfreezing temperature to produce well-demarcated areas of cell injury and destruction. Page Ref: 105 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 45) Another term for a bruise is: A) ecchymosis. 133 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) leukoderma. C) keloid. D) petechiae. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Leukoderma is white patches of skin. C) A keloid is an overgrown scar. D) Petechiae are small pinpoint hemorrhagic spots on the skin. Page Ref: 111 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 46) A general term used to describe redness of the skin is: A) excoriation. B) erythroderma. C) erythema. D) eschar. Answer: C Explanation: A) Excoriation is abrasion of the epidermis by scratching, burns, or trauma. B) Erythroderma is abnormal redness over a large area of skin. C) Correct. D) An eschar is a scab. Page Ref: 111 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 47) An abrasion of the skin by scratching, trauma, or chemicals is termed: A) seborrheic keratosis. B) excoriation. C) hidradenitis. D) exudate. Answer: B Explanation: A) Seborrheic keratosis is a condition of localized scaling of the skin in older people. B) Correct. C) Hidradenitis is inflammation of the sweat glands. D) Exudate is pus or serum that ooze from a wound. Page Ref: 112 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 48) Candidiasis is caused by: A) bacteria. B) a virus. C) yeast. D) lice. 134 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: C Explanation: A) Candidiasis is not caused by bacteria. B) Candidiasis is not caused by a virus. C) Correct. D) Candidiasis is not caused by lice. Page Ref: 108 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 49) Medications that are oily in nature are known as: A) topicals. B) keratolytics. C) emollients. D) antifungals. Answer: C Explanation: A) Topicals are medications applied to the skin. B) Keratolytics are agents that destroy horny layers of the skin. C) Correct. D) Antifungals destroy or inhibit the growth of fungi. Page Ref: 130 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs 50) Agents that prevent or relieve itching are ________ agents. A) antifungal B) antibiotic C) antiviral D) antipruritic Answer: D Explanation: A) Antifungal agents destroy or inhibit the growth of fungi. B) Antibiotic agents kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. C) Antiviral agents kill or inhibit the growth of viruses. D) Correct. Page Ref: 130 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs
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51) A chronic skin condition characterized by frequent episodes of redness, itching, and thick, dry scales is: A) eczema. B) contact dermatitis. C) impetigo. D) psoriasis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Eczema is an acute or chronic inflammatory skin disorder that may involve scales among many other signs such as pustules, crusts, or scabs. B) Contact dermatitis is an inflammation of the skin brought on by contact with irritants. C) Impetigo is a skin infection marked by vesicles or bullae. D) Correct. Page Ref: 118 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pathology 52) Removal of damaged or dead tissue is called: A) debridement. B) dermabrasion. C) cryosurgery. D) rhytidoplasty. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Dermabrasion is a skin resurfacing procedure. C) Cryosurgery uses extreme cold to destroy tissue. D) Rhytidoplasty is removal of wrinkles. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 53) A dermatome is used to: A) measure skin thickness. B) produce thin slices of skin. C) remove wrinkles. D) biopsy moles. Answer: B Explanation: A) A dermatome does not measure skin thickness. B) Correct. A dermatome is used to cut thin slices of skin. C) Rhytidoplasty is plastic surgery that removes wrinkles. D) A dermatome does not biopsy moles. Page Ref: 110 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery 54) A ________ is the mark left by the healing process of a wound, sore, or injury. A) scabies 136 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) macule C) scar D) pustule Answer: C Explanation: A) Scabies is a skin infection caused by the itch mite. B) A macule is a discolored spot on the skin. C) Correct. D) A pustule is a small, elevated, circumscribed lesion of the skin that is filled with pus. Page Ref: 121 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 55) The term gangrene literally means: A) deficient blood. B) an eating sore. C) frozen tissue. D) production of pus. Answer: B Explanation: A) The term gangrene does not mean deficient blood. B) Correct. C) The term gangrene does not mean frozen tissue. D) The term gangrene does not mean production of pus. Page Ref: 112 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 56) Sudoriferous glands secrete: A) oil. B) sebum. C) lubricant. D) perspiration. Answer: D Explanation: A) Sebaceous glands secrete oil. B) Sebaceous glands produce sebum, another name for the oil they secrete. C) Sebaceous glands secrete lubricant, or oil. D) Correct. Page Ref: 96 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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57) Onychomycosis can be defined as: A) inflammation of the nail. B) a fungal nail infection. C) an infection of the marginal structures around the nail. D) pertaining to below the nail. Answer: B Explanation: A) Onychia is inflammation of the nail bed. B) Correct. C) Paronychia is an infection of the marginal structures around the nail. D) Subungual means pertaining to below the nail. Page Ref: 116 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 58) Actinic dermatitis is caused by exposure to: A) radiant energy. B) chemicals. C) heat. D) tuberculosis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Exposure to chemicals does not cause actinic dermatitis. C) Exposure to heat does not cause actinic dermatitis. D) Tuberculosis does not cause actinic dermatitis. Page Ref: 104 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 59) The medical term used to describe a large blister is: A) ecchymosis. B) hives. C) bulla. D) boil. Answer: C Explanation: A) An ecchymosis is a bruise. B) Hives are an eruption of itching and burning swellings on the skin. C) Correct. D) A boil is an infected nodule in the subcutaneous tissue of the skin. Page Ref: 107 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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60) A person with an eschar has a/an: A) overgrown scar. B) severe bruise. C) scab. D) open sore. Answer: C Explanation: A) An eschar is not an overgrown scar. B) An eschar is not a severe bruise. C) Correct. D) An ulcer is an open sore. Page Ref: 112 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 61) Another term for chickenpox is: A) vitiligo. B) varicella. C) miliaria. D) impetigo. Answer: B Explanation: A) Vitiligo is a skin condition with milk-white skin patches. B) Correct. C) Miliaria is prickly heat. D) Impetigo is a contagious skin infection caused by strep or staph. Page Ref: 125 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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4.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) study of the skin B) inflammation of the skin C) a condition in which blood seeps into the skin causing discoloration D) a malignant black mole E) pertaining to within the skin F) abrasion of the epidermis G) pertaining to under the skin H) pertaining to the skin 1) cutaneous Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) dermatitis Page Ref: 110 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) dermatology Page Ref: 110 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) ecchymosis Page Ref: 111 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) excoriation Page Ref: 112 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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6) hypodermic Page Ref: 113 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) intradermal Page Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) melanoma Page Ref: 115 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) H 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) F 6) G 7) E 8) D
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Match the following terms. A) loss of hair B) pertaining to below the skin C) icterus D) skin infection marked by vesicles or bullae E) infestation with lice F) an acute or chronic inflammatory skin disease 9) pediculosis Page Ref: 117 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) subcutaneous Page Ref: 123 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) alopecia Page Ref: 104 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) eczema Page Ref: 111 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) impetigo Page Ref: 113 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) jaundice Page Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 9) E 10) B 11) A 12) F 13) D 14) C Match the following word part with its meaning. 142 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) ray B) fungus C) gland D) within E) under F) excessive G) white H) extremity I) burning J) without, lack of K) red L) skin M) self 15) anPage Ref: 124 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 16) autoPage Ref: 105 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 17) hyperPage Ref: 113 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 18) hypoPage Ref: 113 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 19) intraPage Ref: 114 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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20) acr/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 21) actin Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 22) aden/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 23) albin/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 24) myc/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 25) caus/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 26) derm/a Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 27) erythr/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 15) J 16) M 17) F 18) E 19) D 20) H 21) A 22) C 23) G 24) B 25) I 26) L 27) K 144 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Match the following word part with its meaning. A) horn B) extremity C) vessel D) fungus E) hair F) plate G) black H) red I) nail J) jaundice K) to pull L) sweat 28) hidr/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) icter/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) kerat/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) melan/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) myc/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) onych/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 145 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) vuls/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) acr/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) ang/i Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) plak/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) trich/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) erythr/o Page Ref: 102 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 28) L 29) J 30) A 31) G 32) D 33) I 34) K 35) B 36) C 37) F 38) E 39) H
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4.3 True/False Questions 1) The dermis is also known as the true skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 98 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The oil-secreting glands of the skin are called sudoriferous glands. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The oil-secreting glands are the sebaceous glands. Page Ref: 99 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) Pruritus is a term used to describe dryness of the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pruritis is severe itching of the skin. Page Ref: 117 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 4) The root in anhidrosis means sweat. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 105 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) Cicatrix refers to a scar left after the healing of a wound. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) The root in decubitus means down. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The root cubit means to lie. The prefix de- means down. Page Ref: 109 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) The medical term for an inflammation of the nail bed is onychia. Answer: TRUE 147 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 116 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 8) A fungal condition of the hair is known as tinea. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tinea is a fungal infection of the skin, not the hair. Page Ref: 124 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 9) Retin-A is used for the treatment of hair loss. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Retin-A is used to treat acne, not hair loss. Page Ref: 131 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs 10) Contact with poison ivy could produce dermatitis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 5 Skeletal System 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) In the term rheumatoid, the root rheumat means: A) to lead. B) stiffening. C) discharge. D) joint. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root duct means to lead. B) The root ankyl means stiffening. C) Correct. The root rheumat means discharge. D) The root arthr means joint. Page Ref: 167 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) In the term phosphorus, the root phos means: 148 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) foot. B) finger and toe bones. C) carrying. D) light. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root ped means foot. B) The combining form phalang/e means finger and toe bones. C) The root phor means carrying. D) Correct. Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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3) The seven bones in the neck are ________ bones. A) cervical B) lumbar C) thoracic D) sacral Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Lumbar bones are at the waistline. C) Thoracic bones are in the upper and middle back. D) The sacral bones are the lower back. Page Ref: 148 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The process of bending a limb is called: A) extension. B) flexion. C) pronation. D) supination. Answer: B Explanation: A) Extension is straightening a limb. B) Correct. C) Pronation is lying prone or turning over the palm so it faces downward. D) Supination is turning the palm upward or lying on the back. Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The surgical puncture of a joint for removal of fluid is: A) arthrocentesis. B) arthroscopy. C) arthroplasty. D) arthralgia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Arthroscopy is a visual examination of a joint using a lighted instrument. C) Arthroplasty is surgical repair of a joint. D) Arthralgia is joint pain. Page Ref: 157 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery
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6) In the term arthroscope, the suffix -scope means: A) to examine. B) to view. C) instrument for examining. D) joint. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -scopy means to examine. B) The suffix -scopy also means to view. C) Correct. The suffix -scope means instrument for examining. D) The root arthr means joint. Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery 7) A condition that is characterized by a decrease in the density of bones, decreasing their strength and causing fragile bones, is called: A) osteoporosis. B) osteopenia. C) osteomyelitis. D) osteomalacia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Osteopenia is deficiency of bone tissue. C) Osteomyelitis is an inflammation of bone, especially the marrow, caused by a pathogen. D) Osteomalacia is softening of bones. Page Ref: 164 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 8) An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as: A) lordosis. B) kyphosis. C) scoliosis. D) spondylitis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Lordosis is an exaggerated curve of the lumbar vertebrae. B) Kyphosis is humpback or an exaggerated curve of the thoracic vertebrae. C) Correct. D) Spondylitis is inflammation of one or more vertebrae. Page Ref: 168 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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9) The prefix dis- means: A) binding. B) between. C) together. D) apart. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -desis means binding. B) The prefix inter- means between. C) The prefix sym- or syn- means together. D) Correct. Page Ref: 160 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) In the term carpal, the root carp means: A) skull. B) wrist. C) joint. D) bone. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root crani means skull. B) Correct. C) The root arthr means joint. D) The combining form oste/o means bone. Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) In the term chondrocostal, the root cost means: A) cartilage. B) clavicle. C) coccyx. D) rib. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root chondr means cartilage. B) The root clavicul means clavicle, or collar bone. C) The combining form coccyg/e or coccyg/o means coccyx, or tailbone. D) Correct. Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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12) In the term meniscus, the root menisc means: A) formation. B) crescent-shaped. C) repair. D) fastened. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -genesis or -poiesis means formation. B) Correct. C) The suffix -plasty means surgical repair. D) The root fixat means fastened. Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) In the term collagen, the suffix -gen means: A) formation. B) condition. C) together. D) process. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. The suffix -gen means formation or produce. B) The suffix -osis means condition. C) The prefix sym- or syn- means together. D) The suffix -ion means process. Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) All of the following are classified as long bones except: A) vertebrae. B) humerus. C) radius. D) femur. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. Vertebrae are irregular bones. B) The humerus is a long bone. C) The radius is a long bone. D) The femur is a long bone. Page Ref: 143 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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15) All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except: A) hematopoiesis. B) shape and support. C) acid-base balance. D) protection. Answer: C Explanation: A) The skeletal system plays an important role in hematopoiesis, the formation of blood cells. B) The skeletal system provides shape and support. C) Correct. Acid-base balance is not a function of the skeletal system. D) The skeletal system provides protection. Page Ref: 140 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 16) The membrane that forms the covering of bones except at their articular surfaces is called the: A) endosteum. B) periosteum. C) diaphysis. D) epiphysis. Answer: B Explanation: A) The endosteum lines the medullary canal and contains bone marrow. B) Correct. C) The diaphysis is the narrow straight shaft of a bone. D) The epiphysis is the enlarged end of a long bone. Page Ref: 143 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 17) A disease that involves inflammation of the joints is called: A) arthritis. B) bursitis. C) kyphosis. D) osteoporosis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Bursitis is inflammation of a bursa. C) Kyphosis is a humpback condition. D) Osteoporosis is loss of bone density. Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 18) What is the term for the movement of turning the sole of the foot inward? A) Inversion 154 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Eversion C) Rotation D) Dorsiflexion Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Eversion is turning the sole of the foot outward. C) Rotation is moving a body part around an axis, such as turning the head. D) Dorsiflexion is bending a body part backward. Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 19) The medical word for pertaining to the lower jawbone is: A) maxillary. B) maxilla. C) mandibular. D) mandible. Answer: C Explanation: A) Maxillary means pertaining to the upper jawbone. B) Maxilla is the upper jawbone. C) Correct. D) Mandible is the word for lower jawbone. Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 20) A gynecoid pelvis is a: A) normal male pelvis. B) normal female pelvis. C) misshapen female pelvis. D) narrow female pelvis. Answer: B Explanation: A) A gynecoid pelvis is not a normal male pelvis. B) Correct. Gynecoid means resembling a female. C) A gynecoid pelvis is not a misshapen female pelvis. D) A gynecoid pelvis is not a narrow female pelvis. Page Ref: 150 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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21) The medical term for the big toe is: A) genu valgum. B) genu varum. C) bursa. D) hallux. Answer: D Explanation: A) Genu valgum is the term for knock-knee. B) Genu varum is the term for bowleg. C) A bursa is a pad-like sac between muscles or bones. D) Correct. Page Ref: 160 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 22) A/an ________ fracture occurs diagonal to the bone's axis. A) spiral B) oblique C) transverse D) greenstick Answer: B Explanation: A) A spiral fracture twists down the length of a bone. B) Correct. C) A transverse fracture is straight across a bone. D) A greenstick fracture is one that does not break all the way through the bone. Page Ref: 150 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 23) Inflammation of the bone and joint is: A) arthritis. B) osteoarthritis. C) arthrodesis. D) arthroplasty. Answer: B Explanation: A) Arthritis is inflammation of a joint. B) Correct. C) Arthrodesis means surgical fusion of a joint. D) Arthroplasty means surgical repair of a joint. Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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24) The medical term for pertaining to the heel bone is: A) carpal. B) chondral. C) calcaneal. D) coccygeal. Answer: C Explanation: A) Carpal means pertaining to the wrist. B) Chondral means pertaining to cartilage. C) Correct. D) Coccygeal means pertaining to the tailbone. Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 25) The medical term for a fingerprint is: A) dactylic. B) dactylogram. C) acetabulum. D) hallux. Answer: B Explanation: A) Dactylic means pertaining to the finger or toe. B) Correct. C) An acetabulum is a medical term for the socket for the head of the femur. D) A hallux is the medical term for the big toe. Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 26) Which bone is NOT located in the upper body? A) Clavicle B) Humerus C) Radius D) Femur Answer: D Explanation: A) The clavicle is the collar bone. B) The humerus is the upper arm bone. C) The radius is one of the lower arm bones. D) Correct. The femur is the thigh bone. Page Ref: 141 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) The medical term for knock-knee is: A) genu valgum. B) genu varum. C) hallux. D) chondral. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Genu varum is the medical term for bowleg. C) Hallux is the term for the large toe. D) Chondral means pertaining to cartilage. Page Ref: 160 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 28) Abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine is called: A) kyphosis. B) lordosis. C) scoliosis. D) osteoporosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Kyphosis is curvature of the thoracic vertebrae. B) Correct. C) Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. D) Osteoporosis is loss of bone density. Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 29) The ________ is the shaft of a long bone. A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) periosteum D) endosteum Answer: B Explanation: A) An epiphysis is the enlarged end of a long bone. B) Correct. C) The periosteum is the outer covering of a bone. D) The endosteum is the inner lining of the bone marrow canal. Page Ref: 143 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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30) An opening in the bone for blood vessels, ligaments, and nerves is called a: A) fissure. B) sinus. C) foramen. D) tubercle. Answer: C Explanation: A) A fissure is a slitlike opening. B) A sinus is an empty cavity. C) Correct. D) A tubercle is a small rounded process that sticks out from a bone. Page Ref: 145 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 31) Turning the foot outward to the side is: A) abduction. B) flexion. C) extension. D) eversion. Answer: D Explanation: A) Abduction is movement of a limb away from the center of the body. B) Flexion is bending a joint. C) Extension is straightening a joint. D) Correct. Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 32) Turning the palm upward is: A) pronation. B) supination. C) dorsiflexion. D) retraction. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pronation is turning the palm downward. B) Correct. C) Dorsiflexion is bending a part backward. D) Retraction is moving a part backward, like the jaw. Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) An open fracture is called: A) comminuted. B) spiral. C) compound. D) stress. Answer: C Explanation: A) A comminuted fracture is a shattering of bony fragments. B) A spiral fracture is a break that winds around the length of a bone. C) Correct. D) A stress fracture is one caused by small repetitive forces on the bone. Page Ref: 150 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 34) A condition of stiffening of a joint is: A) acetabulum. B) achondroplasia. C) arthralgia. D) ankylosis. Answer: D Explanation: A) The acetabulum is the cup-shaped socket in the pelvis that contains the head of the femur. B) Achondroplasia is a defect of the cartilage at the end of long bones. C) Arthralgia is joint pain. D) Correct. Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 35) The bones of the wrist are called: A) carpals. B) metacarpals. C) tarsals. D) metatarsals. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Metacarpals are hand bones. C) Tarsals are ankle bones. D) Metatarsals are foot bones. Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 36) A diagnostic examination of a joint where air and then a radiopaque contrast medium are injected into the joint space, x-rays are taken, and internal injuries of the meniscus, cartilage, and ligaments may be seen, if present, is: 160 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) arthroscopy. B) goniometry. C) arthrography. D) thermography. Answer: C Explanation: A) Arthroscopy is a visual examination of a joint using a lighted instrument. B) Goniometry is measurement of joint movements. C) Correct. D) Thermography is recording heat patterns on the body's surface. Page Ref: 176 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 37) The process of recording heat patterns of the body's surface is called: A) arthrography. B) arthroscopy. C) goniometry. D) thermography. Answer: D Explanation: A) Arthrography is an x-ray of a joint after injecting air and a contrast medium into the joint space. B) Arthroscopy is a visual examination of a joint using a lighted instrument. C) Goniometry is measurement of a joint's movements. D) Correct. Page Ref: 178 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 38) Which substance is increased in gout, arthritis, multiple myeloma, and rheumatism? A) Calcium B) Phosphorus C) Uric acid D) Alkaline phosphatase Answer: C Explanation: A) Blood levels of calcium can be increased with bone cancer or osteoporosis. B) Blood levels of phosphorus can be increased with osteoporosis and fracture healing. C) Correct. D) Blood levels of alkaline phosphatase can be increased with bone tumors and rickets. Page Ref: 179 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 39) The ________ level in the blood may be increased in osteomalacia and fracture healing. A) calcium B) phosphorus C) uric acid 161 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) alkaline phosphatase Answer: D Explanation: A) Blood levels of calcium can be increased with bone cancer and osteoporosis. B) Blood levels of phosphorus can be increased with osteoporosis. C) Uric acid is increased with gout. D) Correct. Page Ref: 179 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 40) Which substance/s is/are present in a variety of immunologic diseases? A) Alkaline phosphatase B) C-reactive protein C) Antinuclear antibodies D) Uric acid Answer: C Explanation: A) Blood levels of alkaline phosphatase may be increased with bone tumors and osteomalacia. B) C-Reactive protein may be increased with rheumatoid arthritis and inflammation. C) Correct. D) Uric acid is increased with gout. Page Ref: 179 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 41) Swayback is another word for: A) scoliosis. B) kyphosis. C) symphysis. D) lordosis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Scoliosis is a lateral curve in the spine. B) Humpback is another word for kyphosis. C) Symphysis is a joint in which the bones are joined together by cartilage. D) Correct. Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 42) The solid matter in bone is known as: A) cancellous tissue. B) marrow. C) osteoblasts. D) osseous tissue. Answer: D Explanation: A) Cancellous tissue is spongy bone. 162 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) The marrow is soft tissue that produces blood cells. C) Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells. D) Correct. Page Ref: 140 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) Achondroplasia is: A) a surgical puncture into a joint. B) the socket into which the head of the femur fits. C) inflammation of the joints. D) a defect of cartilage formation at the epiphyses of long bones. Answer: D Explanation: A) Arthrocentesis is a surgical puncture into a joint. B) The acetabulum is the socket for the head of the femur. C) Arthritis is inflammation of the joints. D) Correct. Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 44) An articulation refers to a/an: A) force. B) joint. C) type of movement. D) angle. Answer: B Explanation: A) An articulation does not refer to a force. B) Correct. A joint is an articulation or "joining" of two bones. C) An articulation does not refer to a type of movement. D) An articulation does not refer to an angle. Page Ref: 146 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) A rounded projection that enters into the formation of a joint is a: A) fossa. B) trochanter. C) sinus. D) condyle. Answer: D Explanation: A) A fossa is a shallow depression in or on a bone. B) A trochanter is a bony projection below the neck of the femur. C) A sinus is an air cavity in a bone. D) Correct. Page Ref: 145 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) A synarthrosis is a type of joint that: A) permits only slight movement. B) allows movement. C) does not permit movement. D) allows free movement. Answer: C Explanation: A) An amphiarthrosis permits very slight movement. B) An amphiarthrosis and a diarthrosis allow movement. C) Correct. D) A diarthrosis permits free movement in a variety of directions. Page Ref: 146 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 47) Common to every type of joint is: A) a connection of two or more bones. B) freedom of movement. C) movement in a single direction. D) a synovial membrane. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Sinarthrosis joints do not permit movement, and amphiarthrosis joints permit only very slight movement. C) Sinarthrosis joints may not move in any direction, and diarthrosis joints may move in a variety of directions. D) Only diarthrosis joints, also called synovial joints, have a synovial membrane. Page Ref: 146 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 48) The process of moving a body part away from the middle is: A) adduction. 164 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) circumduction. C) rotation. D) abduction. Answer: D Explanation: A) Adduction is moving a body part toward the middle. B) Circumduction is moving a body part in a circular motion. C) Rotation is moving a body part around a central axis, such as turning the head. D) Correct. Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 49) If flexion means bending a limb, then the suffix in flexion most likely means: A) condition. B) pertaining to. C) formation. D) process. Answer: D Explanation: A) There are a number of suffixes that mean condition, such as -ia or -osis. B) There are many suffixes that mean pertaining to, such as -al or -ic. C) The suffix that means formation is -poiesis or -genesis. D) Correct. The suffix -ion means process, and bending a limb is the process of flexing. Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Word Building 50) The cervical curve consists of ________ vertebrae. A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 Answer: B Explanation: A) The cervical curve does not consist of six vertebrae. B) Correct. There are seven cervical vertebrae in the neck. C) The cervical curve does not consist of eight vertebrae. D) The cervical curve does not consist of nine vertebrae. Page Ref: 148 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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51) The location of longitudinal bone growth in children is the: A) diaphysis. B) condyle. C) epiphyseal plate. D) osteoblasts. Answer: C Explanation: A) The diaphysis grows longer because of the epiphyseal plate. B) A condyle is a rounded part of the bone that forms a joint. C) Correct. D) Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells. Page Ref: 145 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 52) The band of tissue that holds bone to bone is a/an: A) cranial suture. B) endosteum. C) ligament. D) tendon. Answer: C Explanation: A) A cranial suture is the irregular line where two skull bones join. B) An endosteum is a tough, connective tissue membrane lining the medullary canal. C) Correct. D) Tendons join muscles to bones. Page Ref: 140 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 53) What is the term for surgery to repair a joint? A) Arthroscopy B) Arthroplasty C) Arthrocentesis D) Ankylosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Arthroscopy is a visual examination of a joint. B) Correct. C) Arthrocentesis is a puncture into a joint to remove fluid. D) Ankylosis is stiffening of a joint. Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery
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54) The term that means pertaining to rib cartilage is: A) chondral. B) chondrocostal. C) costal. D) mandibular. Answer: B Explanation: A) Chondral means pertaining to cartilage. B) Correct. C) Costal means pertaining to the rib. D) Mandibular means pertaining to the lower jawbone. Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 55) The combining form in achondroplasia means: A) without. B) structure. C) cartilage. D) formation. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix a- means without. B) The suffix -us means structure. C) Correct. D) The suffix -plasia means formation. Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 56) What is a specific term for pain in the hip bone? A) Ischialgia B) Lumbodynia C) Arthralgia D) Ischial Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Lumbodynia means pain in the loins. C) Arthralgia is joint pain. D) Ischial means pertaining to the ischium or hip. Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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57) The term for a hand bone is: A) carpal. B) tarsal. C) phalanges. D) metacarpal. Answer: D Explanation: A) A carpal is a wrist bone. B) A tarsal is an ankle bone. C) Phalanges are finger or toe bones. D) Correct. Page Ref: 141 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 58) A term that means humpback is: A) lordosis. B) kyphosis. C) ankylosis. D) scoliosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Lordosis is abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine. B) Correct. C) Ankylosis is stiffening of a joint. D) Scoliosis is abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 59) The suffix in lumbodynia means: A) loin. B) pain. C) pertaining to. D) nature. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form lumb/o means loin. B) Correct. C) Many suffixes mean pertaining to, including -ac and -ary. D) The suffix -ive means nature of. Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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60) The term myelopoiesis means ________ bone marrow. A) inflammation of the B) tumor of the C) formation of D) pathogenic infection of the Answer: C Explanation: A) Myelitis means inflammation of the bone marrow. B) Myeloma means tumor of the bone marrow. C) Correct. D) Osteomyelitis means inflammation of bone, especially the marrow, caused by a pathogenic organism. Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 61) The term used to describe softening of the bones is: A) osteogenesis. B) osteochondritis. C) osteomyelitis. D) osteomalacia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Osteogenesis is formation of bone. B) Osteochondritis is inflammation of bone and cartilage. C) Osteomyelitis is inflammation of bone, especially the marrow, caused by a pathogenic organism. D) Correct. Page Ref: 164 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 62) The combining form in radiograph means: A) instrument for examining. B) radius. C) x-ray. D) inflammation. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix for instrument for examining is -scope, but that is not a combining form. B) The radius is a lower arm bone. C) Correct. D) The suffix -itis means inflammation. Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 63) A steroid substance with potent anti-inflammatory effects is a/an: 169 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) NSAID. B) COX-2 inhibitor. C) anti-inflammatory agent. D) glucocorticoid. Answer: D Explanation: A) NSAID stands for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug. B) A COX-2 inhibitor reduces the production of compounds associated with inflammation and pain. C) An anti-inflammatory agent may be steroidal or nonsteroidal. D) Correct. Page Ref: 174 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pharmacology 64) The term craniotomy means: A) surgical removal of part of the skull. B) surgical repair of a joint. C) surgical incision into the skull. D) surgical excision of a vertebral posterior arch. Answer: C Explanation: A) Surgical removal of part of the skull is a craniectomy. B) Surgical repair of a joint would be an arthroplasty. C) Correct. D) A surgical excision of a vertebral posterior arch would be a laminectomy. Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 65) A ________ fracture commonly occurs in children. A) transverse B) spiral C) complete D) greenstick Answer: D Explanation: A) A transverse fracture breaks the shaft of a bone along its longitudinal axis. B) A spiral fracture winds around a long bone. C) A complete fracture involves the entire width of the bone. D) Correct. Page Ref: 150 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 66) Which fracture involves forcing the two ends of the bone together? A) Impact B) Linear C) Comminuted 170 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) Closed Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A linear fracture occurs parallel to the bone's axis. C) A comminuted fracture is one that fragments the bone. D) In a closed fracture the skin remains intact. Page Ref: 150 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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5.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) inflammation of a bursa B) pain in a joint C) humpback D) pertaining to beneath the ribs E) pertaining to the wrist F) surgical excision of a portion of the skull G) pertaining to between the ribs H) pertaining to the loins 1) arthralgia Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) subcostal Page Ref: 169 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 3) bursitis Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) carpal Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) craniectomy Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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6) intercostal Page Ref: 161 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) kyphosis Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) lumbar Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) E 5) F 6) G 7) C 8) H
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Match the following terms. A) pertaining to the bones of the fingers and the toes B) pertaining to the foot C) resembling a sword D) surgical procedure to correct a fracture E) pertaining to the shoulder blade F) traumatic injury to the tendons, muscles, or ligaments around a joint G) malignant tumor of the bone 9) osteosarcoma Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) pedal Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) phalangeal Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) scapular Page Ref: 168 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) reduction Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) sprain Page Ref: 169 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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15) xiphoid Page Ref: 171 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 9) G 10) B 11) A 12) E 13) D 14) F 15) C
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) pouch B) beyond C) together D) fastened E) under, beneath F) tailbone G) kneecap H) between I) many, much J) wrist K) joint L) cartilage 16) patell Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) interPage Ref: 161 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) metaPage Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) polyPage Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) subPage Ref: 169 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) symPage Ref: 169 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) arthr Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) burs Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) carp Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) chondr/o Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) fixat Page Ref: 160 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) coccyg/o Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) G 17) H 18) B 19) I 20) E 21) C 22) K 23) A 24) J 25) L 26) D 27) F
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) formation B) inflammation C) softening D) rib E) instrument for examining F) skull G) bending, curve H) a hump I) tumor J) instrument to cut K) bone L) surgical repair M) deficiency 28) cost/o Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) crani/o Page Ref: 159 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) kyph Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) lord Page Ref: 162 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) oste/o Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) -tome Page Ref: 166 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -itis Page Ref: 156 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -malacia Page Ref: 164 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -oma Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -penia Page Ref: 164 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -scope Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) -plasty Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 40) -poiesis Page Ref: 163 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 28) D 29) F 30) H 31) G 32) K 33) J 34) B 35) C 36) I 37) M 38) E 39) L 40) A 179 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
5.3 True/False Questions 1) A sinus is an air cavity within certain bones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 145 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) A compound fracture does not involve a break in the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A compound fracture does break the skin. Page Ref: 150 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 3) Subclavicular pertains to beneath the clavicle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 169 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The term used to describe a deficiency of bone tissue is osteoporosis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Osteopenia is a deficiency of bone tissue. Osteoporosis is a decrease in bone density. Page Ref: 164 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases 5) An arthrocentesis is a surgical puncture of a joint for removal of fluid. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 157 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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6) The diaphysis is the center for longitudinal bone growth in children. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone. The center for longitudinal bone growth in children is the epiphyseal plate. Page Ref: 143 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The female pelvis is shaped like a basin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 150 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) A tubercle is a small, rounded bony process. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 145 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) The process of moving a body part backward is protraction. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Retraction is moving a body part backward. Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) The process of bending a body part backward is dorsiflexion. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 147 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 6 Muscular System 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A wide, thin, sheetlike tendon is known as an: A) atrophy. B) atonic. C) aponeurosis. D) antagonist. Answer: C 181 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) Atrophy is wasting away of muscle. B) Atonic means without tone (muscle tone). C) Correct. D) An antagonist is a muscle that counteracts the action of another muscle. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) All of the following are functions of the muscular system except: A) heat production. B) movement. C) posture maintenance. D) hemopoiesis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Heat production is a function of the muscular system. B) Movement is a function of the muscular system. C) Posture maintenance is a function of the muscular system. D) Correct. Hemopoiesis is a function of the skeletal system. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) Smooth muscle is also called: A) visceral muscle. B) striated muscle. C) voluntary muscle. D) cardiac muscle. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Striated muscle is skeletal or cardiac muscle. C) Voluntary muscle is not smooth; it is striated, skeletal muscle. D) Cardiac muscle is striated, not smooth. Page Ref: 191 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The medical term for pain in the arm is: A) brachialgia. B) bradykinesia. C) biceps. D) brachii. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Bradykinesia is slow movement. C) The biceps is an upper arm muscle. D) Brachii means arm. Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 5) A very serious autoimmune disease characterized by muscular weakness is known as: A) dystrophy. B) myasthenia gravis. C) atrophy. D) myalgia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Dystrophy is degeneration of muscles caused by defective nourishment. B) Correct. C) Atrophy is wasting of muscle tissue. D) Myalgia is muscle pain. Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases
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6) Kneading that applies pressure and friction to external body tissues is known as: A) position. B) torsion. C) exercise. D) massage. Answer: D Explanation: A) Position is how the body parts are aligned. B) Torsion is the process of being twisted. C) Exercise is body movement. D) Correct. Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) The point of attachment of a muscle to the part that it moves is called the: A) insertion. B) origin. C) levator. D) prime mover. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The origin is the attachment of a muscle to a stationary point. C) A levator is a muscle that raises or elevates a part. D) A prime mover is the major muscle that moves a body part. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) In the term amputation, the root amputat means: A) remove. B) to cut through. C) excision. D) new opening. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ectomy means to remove. B) Correct. C) The suffix -ectomy means excision. D) The suffix -stomy means a new opening. Page Ref: 196 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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9) The ________ muscle raises and rotates the arm. A) deltoid B) triceps C) biceps D) trapezius Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The triceps extends the forearm. C) The biceps brachii flexes the arm and forearm. D) The trapezius draws the head back and to the side. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) In the term dermatomyositis, the combining form my/o means: A) muscle. B) to cut. C) skin. D) nail. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -tomy means to cut. C) The root dermat means skin. D) The root onych means nail. Page Ref: 199 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) A condition with chronic muscle pain and debilitating fatigue is known as: A) rheumatism. B) fibromyalgia. C) myopathy. D) myoparesis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Rheumatism is inflammation and soreness of muscles and joints. B) Correct. C) Myopathy means disease of the muscle. D) Myoparesis means weakness or slight paralysis of a muscle. Page Ref: 201 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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12) In the term quadriceps, what does the prefix quadri- mean? A) Four B) Two C) Three D) Six Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix bi- means two. C) The prefix tri- means three. D) The prefix sex- means six. Page Ref: 209 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) In the term tenodesis, the suffix -desis means: A) surgical repair. B) excision. C) binding. D) incision. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -plasty means surgical repair. B) The suffix -ectomy means excision. C) Correct. D) The suffix -tomy means incision. Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) In the term intramuscular, the prefix intra- means: A) outside. B) within. C) between. D) together. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix extra- means outside. B) Correct. C) The prefix inter- means between. D) The prefixes syn- or sym- mean together. Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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15) In the term diathermy, the root therm means: A) wet. B) cold. C) through. D) hot, heat. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root therm does not mean wet. B) The root therm does not mean cold. C) The prefix dia- means through. D) Correct. The root therm means hot or heat. Page Ref: 200 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) In the term hydrotherapy, the suffix -therapy means: A) condition. B) treatment. C) process. D) fear. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ia or -osis means condition. B) Correct. C) The suffix -ion means process. D) The suffix -phobia means fear. Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) In the term tenodynia, the suffix -dynia means: A) binding. B) incision. C) suture. D) pain. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -desis means binding. B) The suffix -tomy means incision. C) The suffix -rrhaphy means to suture. D) Correct. Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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18) A muscle having three heads with a single insertion is known as the: A) triceps. B) biceps. C) quadriceps. D) uniceps. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The biceps has two heads (bi-). C) The quadriceps has four heads (quadri-). D) A uniceps muscle would have one head (uni-). Page Ref: 211 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) What is the correct term for the surgical removal of a limb, part, or other appendage? A) Contracture B) Suspension C) Amputation D) Stricture Answer: C Explanation: A) In contracture, a muscle shortens and renders the muscle resistant to the normal stretching process. B) Suspension is not the correct term for the surgical removal of a limb, part, or other appendage. C) Correct. D) Stricture is not the correct term for the surgical removal of a limb, part, or other appendage. Page Ref: 196 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 20) Which of the following medical terms is used to describe a soft and flabby muscle? A) Fatigue B) Flaccid C) Rigor mortis D) Pallor Answer: B Explanation: A) Fatigue refers to tiredness. B) Correct. C) Rigor mortis is the stiffness of skeletal muscles seen in death. D) Pallor does not describe a soft and flabby muscle. Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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21) In the term rheumatism, the root rheumat means: A) weakness. B) fever. C) discharge. D) process. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -asthenia means weakness. B) The root rheumat does not mean fever. C) Correct. D) The suffix -ion means process. Page Ref: 209 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) In the term torsion, the root tors means: A) lack of. B) excessive. C) below. D) twisted. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix a- or an- means lack of. B) The prefix hyper- or supra- means excessive. C) The prefix sub- or hypo- means below. D) Correct. Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) In the term myomalacia, what does the suffix -malacia mean? A) Hardening B) Softening C) Resembling D) Forming Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -sclerosis means hardening. B) Correct. C) The suffix -oid means resembling. D) The suffix -gen means forming. Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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24) The ________ is a partition that separates the chest and abdominal cavities. A) phrenic B) fascia C) diaphragm D) sarcolemma Answer: C Explanation: A) The phrenic nerve innervates the diaphragm. B) Fascia is fibrous membrane that bundles muscle fibers together. C) Correct. D) A sarcolemma is a membrane that goes around each muscle fiber. Page Ref: 199 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 25) A term used to describe the muscles immediately surrounding the shoulder joint is: A) torticollis. B) aponeurosis. C) rotator cuff. D) levator. Answer: C Explanation: A) Torticollis is a stiff neck caused by muscle contractions on one side. B) An aponeurosis is a sheet of tendon material. C) Correct. D) A levator is a muscle that raises a body part. Page Ref: 210 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 26) A protein found in muscle cells is called: A) acetylcholine. B) dystrophin. C) myotrophin. D) lactic dehydrogenase. Answer: B Explanation: A) Acetylcholine is not a protein found in muscle cells. B) Correct. C) Myotrophin is not a protein found in muscle cells. D) Lactic dehydrogenase is an enzyme increased in muscular dystrophy. Page Ref: 200 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) Movement of each joint through its full extent of movement is what type of exercise? A) Active B) Isometric C) Passive D) Range of motion Answer: D Explanation: A) Active movement is that done by the person alone. B) Isometric exercise is tightening a muscle without moving a body part. C) Passive movement is movement of a body part done by another person. D) Correct. Page Ref: 200 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 28) What treatment uses high-frequency current to produce heat and increase blood flow? A) Diathermy B) Massage C) Range of motion D) Hydrotherapy Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Massage does not use high-frequency current. C) Range of motion moves joints as they are able to move. D) Hydrotherapy uses water to relax muscles and reduce resistance. Page Ref: 200 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 29) In the ________ position, the body is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed. A) Fowler B) Sims C) anatomic D) supine Answer: B Explanation: A) In the Fowler position, the head of the bed is raised about 18 inches and the knees are either bent or straight. B) Correct. C) In the anatomic position, the person is standing erect. D) In the supine position, the person is lying on the back. Page Ref: 208 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 30) A band of fibrous connective tissue attaching muscles to bones is a: A) fascia. 191 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) tendon. C) ligament. D) bursa. Answer: B Explanation: A) Fascia is a membrane that wraps around muscle groups. B) Correct. C) A ligament is connective tissue that joins bones to bones. D) A bursa is a filled sac that lies between muscles and bones. Page Ref: 210 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 31) In the term contracture, the root tract means: A) to loosen. B) to draw. C) to turn. D) to move. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root relaxat means to loosen. B) Correct. C) The root rotat means to turn. D) The root tract does not mean to move. Page Ref: 198 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) Muscles make up approximately ________ percent of a person's body weight. A) 25 B) 38 C) 42 D) 55 Answer: C Explanation: A) Muscles do not make up approximately 25 percent of a person's body weight. B) Muscles do not make up approximately 38 percent of a person's body weight. C) Correct. D) Muscles do not make up approximately 55 percent of a person's body weight. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) Excessive, forcible stretching of a muscle is known as a: A) strain. B) sprain. C) fatigue. D) torsion. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A sprain is an injury to a ligament, tendon, or muscle around a joint. C) Fatigue is a state of tiredness in a muscle. D) Torsion is the process of being twisted. Page Ref: 210 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases 34) A test to measure electrical activity across muscle membranes by means of electrodes that are attached to a needle inserted into the muscle is: A) muscle biopsy. B) lactic dehydrogenase. C) creatine phosphokinase. D) electromyography. Answer: D Explanation: A) A biopsy is removal of a sample of tissue. B) Lactic dehydrogenase is a blood test. C) Creatine phosphokinase is a blood test. D) Correct. Page Ref: 216 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 35) A/An ________ is the process in which a small piece of muscle tissue is excised and examined with a microscope. A) muscle biopsy B) electromyography C) bone biopsy D) electrocardiography Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Electromyography tests muscle response. C) A biopsy of bone is not a biopsy of a small piece of muscle. D) Electrocardiography is a test of heart function. Page Ref: 216 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 36) Skeletal muscles are also known as ________ muscles. A) voluntary 193 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) cardiac C) involuntary D) smooth Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Cardiac muscle is involuntary; skeletal muscles are voluntary. C) Cardiac and smooth are involuntary muscle types. D) Smooth muscle is involuntary; skeletal muscles are voluntary. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) Name the muscle that rotates and laterally flexes the neck. A) Trapezius B) Deltoid C) Sternocleidomastoid D) Triceps Answer: C Explanation: A) The trapezius draws the head back and to the side. B) The deltoid raises and rotates the arm. C) Correct. D) The triceps extends the forearm. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 38) The gluteus maximus muscle: A) extends and rotates the thigh. B) plantar flexes the foot. C) flexes the knee. D) flexes and rotates the thigh and leg. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The gastrocnemius plantar flexes the foot. C) Biceps femoris flexes the knee. D) Sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh and leg. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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39) The muscle that adducts, extends, and rotates the arm is the: A) latissimus dorsi. B) pectoralis major. C) biceps brachii. D) trapezius. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The pectoralis major adducts, flexes, and rotates the arm. C) Biceps brachii flexes the arm and forearm. D) The trapezius draws the head back and to the side. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 40) There are ________ skeletal muscles. A) fewer than 400 B) fewer than 500 C) more than 600 D) more than 700 Answer: C Explanation: A) There are not fewer than 400 skeletal muscles. B) There are not fewer than 500 skeletal muscles. C) Correct. D) There are not more than 700 skeletal muscles. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 41) ________ allows muscles to change shape to become shorter and thicker. A) Extensibility B) Excitability C) Contractility D) Elasticity Answer: C Explanation: A) With extensibility, muscle cells can be stretched. B) With excitability, muscles respond to stimulation. C) Correct. D) With elasticity, muscles return to their original shape after being stretched. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) In ________, muscles receive and respond to stimulation. A) extensibility B) contractility C) elasticity D) excitability Answer: D Explanation: A) Extensibility allows muscles to stretch. B) Contractility allows muscles to shorten. C) Elasticity allows muscles to return to their original shape. D) Correct. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) A muscle that acts with another muscle to produce movement is termed a/an: A) synergist. B) prime mover. C) agonist. D) antagonist. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A prime mover is the major muscle responsible for movement. C) An agonist is another name for prime mover. D) An antagonist is a muscle that counteracts the action of another muscle. Page Ref: 191 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) Which of the following is NOT a primary function of muscles? A) Movement B) Posture C) Heat production D) Internal organ protection Answer: D Explanation: A) The muscles cause movement. B) The muscles help to maintain posture. C) The muscles produce heat. D) Correct. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) The term abductor means: A) to lead away from. B) to lead toward. C) to move backward. D) to move forward. Answer: B Explanation: A) The term adductor means to lead toward. B) Correct. C) The term abductor does not mean to move backward. D) The term abductor does not mean to move forward. Page Ref: 196 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 46) The term ataxia means lack of: A) nourishment. B) normal tone. C) muscular coordination. D) movement. Answer: C Explanation: A) Atrophy means lack of nourishment. B) Atonic means lack of normal tone. C) Correct. D) The term akinesia would be lack of movement. Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 47) The suffix -trophy in the term atrophy means nourishment and: A) lack of. B) with. C) movement. D) development. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix a- means lack of. B) The prefix con- means with. C) The suffix -kinesia means movement. D) Correct. Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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48) Brachialgia means pain in the: A) neck. B) arm. C) chest. D) leg. Answer: B Explanation: A) Brachialgia does not mean pain in the neck. B) Correct. C) Brachialgia does not mean pain in the chest. D) Brachialgia does not mean pain in the leg. Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 49) The term dactylospasm is defined as ________ of a finger or toe. A) flaccidity B) binding C) cramp D) extension Answer: C Explanation: A) A dactylospasm is not flaccidity of a finger or toe. B) A dactylospasm is not binding of a finger or toe. C) Correct. The combining form dactyl/o means finger or toe, and -spasm means cramp. D) A dactylospasm is not extension of a finger or toe. Page Ref: 198 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 50) A genetic disease characterized by a progressive muscular weakness is: A) muscular dystrophy. B) atrophy. C) myasthenia gravis. D) paralysis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Atrophy is muscle wasting, usually from disuse. C) Myasthenia gravis is not a genetic disease. D) Paralysis is not genetic. Page Ref: 203 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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51) Myokinesis is defined as: A) muscular motion. B) muscular tone. C) muscular atrophy. D) muscular dystrophy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Myotonic is muscular tone. C) Muscular atrophy is wasting of muscle. D) Muscular dystrophy is a genetic condition of progressive muscular weakness. Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 52) The medical term for softening of muscle tissue is: A) myoma. B) myopathy. C) myosclerosis. D) myomalacia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Myoma is a muscle tumor. B) Myopathy is muscle disease. C) Myosclerosis is hardening of muscle. D) Correct. Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 53) The suffix in myoplasty means: A) disease. B) surgical repair. C) muscle. D) suture. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -pathy means disease. B) Correct. C) The combining form my/o means muscle. D) The suffix -rrhaphy means suture. Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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54) The second root in myosarcoma means: A) flesh. B) bone. C) tumor. D) suture. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root for bone is oste. C) The suffix -oma means tumor. D) The suffix -rrhaphy means suture. Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 55) Inflammation of muscle tissue is termed: A) myospasm. B) polyplegia. C) myositis. D) synovitis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Myospasm is a muscle cramp. B) Polyplegia is multiple muscle paralysis. C) Correct. D) Synovitis is inflammation of a synovial membrane in a joint. Page Ref: 206 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 56) A tumor of striated muscle tissue is known as a: A) sarcoma. B) myoma. C) rhabdomyoma. D) carcinoma. Answer: C Explanation: A) A sarcoma is a tumor of the flesh. B) A myoma is a tumor containing muscle tissue. C) Correct. The term rhabdomyoma indicates a tumor of striated muscle. D) Carcinoma is not a tumor of striated muscle tissue. Page Ref: 209 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases
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57) The combining form cleid/o in sternocleidomastoid means: A) sternum. B) breast. C) clavicle. D) resemble. Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining form stern/o means sternum. B) The roots mast and mamm mean breast. C) Correct. D) The suffix -oid means resemble. Page Ref: 210 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 58) A pain in a tendon is termed: A) tenodynia. B) tendonitis. C) tenodesis. D) tonic. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Tendonitis is inflammation of a tendon. C) Tenodesis is fixation of a tendon. D) Tonic refers to tone of a muscle. Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 59) The position used for patients with dyspnea is: A) Fowler. B) lithotomy. C) orthopneic. D) dorsal recumbent. Answer: C Explanation: A) While Fowler position has the head of the bed raised 18 inches, it is not enough. B) Lithotomy position would make it harder for a patient to breathe. C) Correct. D) Dorsal recumbent does not help. Page Ref: 207 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases
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60) Which position is used as a reference in designating the site or direction of a body structure? A) Anatomic B) Fowler C) Prone D) Supine Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Fowler is a position in which the head and knees of the bed are raised. C) Prone is the position of a body lying on the stomach. D) Supine is the body lying on the back. Page Ref: 206 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 61) What kind of cells produces the stimulation for cardiac muscle contraction without nervous input? A) Fascial cells B) Myocardial cells C) Pacemaker cells D) Fiber cells Answer: C Explanation: A) Fascia is the fibrous sheath that holds together muscle fibers. B) Cardiac muscle is also known as myocardium. C) Correct. D) Muscles are composed of cells known as fibers. Page Ref: 192 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Types of Muscle 62) Which of the following is NOT a quality of skeletal muscle relaxants? A) They are used to treat painful muscle sprains. B) They can be administered orally or by injection. C) They depress the central nervous system (CNS). D) They may be harmful to bone. Answer: D Explanation: A) Skeletal muscle relaxants are used to treat sprains. B) Skeletal muscle relaxants can be administered orally or by injection. C) Centrally acting muscle relaxants depress the CNS. D) Correct. Page Ref: 215 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs Identification
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63) The word analgesic refers to which of the following? A) The surgical binding of a tendon B) A class of drug C) A tumor of striated muscle tissue D) Surgical incision into a muscle Answer: B Explanation: A) Tenodesis is the surgical binding of a tendon. B) Correct. C) Rhabdomyoma is a tumor of striated muscle tissue. D) Myotomy is surgical incision into a muscle. Page Ref: 215 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs Identification
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6.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) a muscle that raises a part B) softening of muscle tissue C) a muscle that counteracts the action of another muscle D) muscle weakness E) slowness of motion F) pertaining to within a muscle G) suture of a muscle wound 1) antagonist Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) bradykinesia Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) intramuscular Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) levator Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) myasthenia Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) myomalacia Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) myorrhaphy 204 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) C 2) E 3) F 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) G
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Match the following terms. A) paralysis affecting many muscles B) a state of tiredness occurring in a muscle as a result of repeated contractions C) certain muscles that work together D) under the control of one's will E) surgical binding of a tendon F) artificial device used to replace an organ or body part G) bodily posture or attitude H) lack of muscle tone 8) polyplegia Page Ref: 206 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) synergism Page Ref: 210 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) tenodesis Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) voluntary Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) flaccid Page Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) prosthesis Page Ref: 209 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) fatigue Page Ref: 201 206 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) position Page Ref: 206 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 8) A 9) C 10) E 11) D 12) H 13) F 14) B 15) G
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Match the following word part with its definition. A) a band B) finger or toe C) three D) with, together E) muscle F) work G) slow H) clavicle I) difficult J) arm K) water L) many 16) hydroPage Ref: 202 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) bradyPage Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) conPage Ref: 198 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) dysPage Ref: 200 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) polyPage Ref: 206 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) triPage Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) brach/i Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) cleid/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) dactyl/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) ergPage Ref: 210 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) fasci/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) my/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) K 17) G 18) D 19) I 20) L 21) C 22) J 23) H 24) B 25) F 26) A 27) E
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) weakness B) process C) suture D) motion E) flesh F) rod G) tension H) sternum I) tendon J) head K) twisted 28) rhabd/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) sarc/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) stern/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) ten/o Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) tort/i Page Ref: 195 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) -asthenia Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -ceps Page Ref: 209 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -kinesia Page Ref: 197 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -spasm Page Ref: 198 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -rrhaphy Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -ure Page Ref: 198 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 28) F 29) E 30) H 31) I 32) K 33) A 34) J 35) D 36) G 37) C 38) B 6.3 True/False Questions 1) Skeletal muscles have one attachment point to the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Skeletal muscles have two or more attachment points. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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2) Through contractility, extensibility, excitability, and elasticity, smooth muscles are responsible for the movement of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Skeletal muscles are responsible for movement of the body. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) Smooth muscles are voluntary muscles, controlled by the conscious part of the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Skeletal muscles are controlled by the conscious part of the brain. Page Ref: 187 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) Ligaments attach muscles to bones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tendons attach muscles to bones. Page Ref: 189 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Dystonia is a condition of impaired muscle tone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 200 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 6) The prone position has the patient lying face up. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prone position has the patient lying face down on the stomach. Page Ref: 207 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) The Gowers maneuver is used to identify leg weakness associated with muscular dystrophy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 204 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases 8) Tenodesis is a surgical binding of a tendon. Answer: TRUE 212 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 211 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 9) An instrument used to cut muscle is a myotome. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 206 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 10) A general term for muscle disease is myopathy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 205 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 11) Centrally acting muscle relaxants can cause insomnia and increased concentration. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Centrally acting muscle relaxants can cause drowsiness. Page Ref: 215 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs Identification 12) An aldolase (ALD) blood test is helpful in the diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy before symptoms appear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 216 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 13) A calcium blood test is used to determine the level of CK, which is increased in necrosis or atrophy of skeletal muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Calcium is essential for muscular contraction, nerve transmission, and blood clotting. Page Ref: 216 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 7 Digestive System 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 213 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
1) All of the following are functions of the digestive system except: A) absorption. B) respiration. C) digestion. D) elimination. Answer: B Explanation: A) Absorption is one of the three main functions of the digestive system. B) Correct. C) Digestion is one of the three main functions of the digestive system. D) Elimination is one of the three main functions of the digestive system. Page Ref: 224 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is: A) a bolus. B) chyme. C) anabolism. D) catabolism. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Chyme is food converted to a semiliquid in the stomach. C) Anabolism is building up of body substance. D) Catabolism is breaking down complex substances into basic elements. Page Ref: 224 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) The ________ is the first portion of the small intestine. A) ileum B) jejunum C) cecum D) duodenum Answer: D Explanation: A) The ileum is the third portion. B) The jejunum is the second portion. C) The cecum forms the beginning of the large intestine. D) Correct. Page Ref: 231 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The ________ is the largest glandular organ in the body. A) pancreas B) gallbladder C) liver D) heart Answer: C Explanation: A) The liver is larger than the pancreas. B) The liver is larger than the gallbladder. C) Correct. D) The heart is smaller than the liver and is not a glandular organ. Page Ref: 233 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) In the term postprandial, the combining form prand/i means: A) rectum. B) meal. C) around. D) throat. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form proct/o means rectum and anus. B) Correct. C) The prefix peri- means around. D) The combining form pharyng/o means throat or pharynx. Page Ref: 255 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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6) The term duodenal refers to what part of the intestine? A) First part of small intestine B) Second part of small intestine C) Third part of small intestine D) Large intestine Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The second part is the jejunum. C) The third part is the ileum. D) The large intestine is the fourth part of the intestine. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) In the term enteritis, the root enter means: A) stomach. B) gallbladder. C) colon. D) small intestine. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root gastr means stomach. B) The root cholecyst means gallbladder. C) The root col means colon. D) Correct. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) In the term amylase, the suffix -ase means: A) pertaining to. B) enzyme. C) condition of. D) starch. Answer: B Explanation: A) There are numerous suffixes that mean pertaining to, such as -ic and -al. B) Correct. C) Several suffixes mean condition of, such as -osis. D) The root amyl means starch. Page Ref: 239 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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9) A chronic autoimmune disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract but most commonly occurs in the ileum is: A) Crohn's disease. B) volvulus. C) cirrhosis. D) diverticulitis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A volvulus is a twisting of the intestine. C) Cirrhosis is a disease of the liver. D) Diverticulitis is inflammation of saclike structures in the colon. Page Ref: 246 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 10) In the term diarrhea, the suffix -rrhea means: A) flow. B) suture. C) orange-yellow. D) bursting forth. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -rrhaphy means to suture. C) The prefix cirrh- means orange-yellow. D) The suffix -rrhage means bursting forth. Page Ref: 246 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) The surgical creation of a new opening in the colon is called: A) colostomy. B) colotomy. C) colorrhaphy. D) colonic. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A colotomy is an incision into the colon. C) Colorrhaphy is a suturing of the colon. D) Colonic means pertaining to the colon. Page Ref: 245 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery
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12) The medical term for a toothache is: A) dentoid. B) denticle. C) dentalgia. D) dentibuccal. Answer: C Explanation: A) Dentoid means resembling a tooth. B) Denticle means small tooth. C) Correct. D) Dentibuccal means pertaining to the teeth and cheeks. Page Ref: 246 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) The medical term for indigestion is: A) dyspepsia. B) dysphagia. C) stomatitis. D) ascites. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing. C) Stomatitis is inflammation of the mouth. D) Ascites is edema or accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) The study of the stomach and the intestines is: A) gastrology. B) enterology. C) gastroenterology. D) enterogastrology. Answer: C Explanation: A) Gastrology is study of the stomach. B) Enterology is study of the intestines. C) Correct. D) Enterogastrology has the roots in the wrong order. Page Ref: 248 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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15) Inflammation of the liver is: A) hepatoma. B) nephritis. C) nephroma. D) hepatitis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Hepatoma is a tumor of the liver. B) Nephritis is inflammation of the kidney. C) Nephroma is a kidney tumor. D) Correct. Page Ref: 250 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 16) A surgical incision into the abdomen is: A) choledochotomy. B) gastrectomy. C) glossectomy. D) laparotomy. Answer: D Explanation: A) A choledochotomy is an incision of the common bile duct. B) A gastrectomy is an excision of part or all of the stomach. C) A glossectomy is an excision of part or all of the tongue. D) Correct. Page Ref: 253 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery 17) Inflammation of the pancreas is: A) pancreasitis. B) pancreatitis. C) pancreatic amylase. D) cholangiopancreatography. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pancreasitis is a common misspelling of pancreatitis. B) Correct. C) Pancreatic amylase is an enzyme. D) Cholangiopancreatography is examination of the biliary and pancreatic ducts. Page Ref: 254 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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18) In the term emesis, the root eme means: A) to vomit. B) to belch. C) to ingest. D) to excrete. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Eructation is the act of belching. C) Ingestion is the act of ingesting. D) Elimination is the act of excreting. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) In the term dysentery, the prefix dys- means: A) through. B) difficult. C) above. D) suture. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix dia- means through. B) Correct. C) The prefix epi- means above. D) The suffix -rrhaphy means suture. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) An accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is: A) melena. B) intussusception. C) eructation. D) ascites. Answer: D Explanation: A) Melena is a black, tarry stool. B) Intussusception is the slipping or telescoping of one part of an intestine into another part just below it. C) Eructation is belching. D) Correct. Page Ref: 240 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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21) There are ________ permanent teeth. A) 20 B) 28 C) 32 D) 34 Answer: C Explanation: A) There are 20 deciduous teeth. B) Normally, there are more than 28 permanent teeth. C) Correct. D) Normally, there are fewer than 34 permanent teeth. Page Ref: 227 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 22) The teeth with sharp cutting edges are: A) molars. B) bicuspids. C) incisors. D) premolars. Answer: C Explanation: A) Molars have large, flat grinding surfaces. B) Bicuspids have flat grinding surfaces. C) Correct. D) Premolars are bicuspids. Page Ref: 227 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 23) The part of the tooth that is seen above the gum is the: A) dentin. B) crown. C) root. D) pulp cavity. Answer: B Explanation: A) The dentin is interior and forms the bulk of the tooth above and below the gumline. B) Correct. C) The root is below the gumline. D) The pulp cavity is inside the tooth above and below the gumline. Page Ref: 227 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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24) What is the term for black, tarry stools? A) Peristalsis B) Ascites C) Melena D) Eructation Answer: C Explanation: A) Peristalsis is wavelike movement of the intestines and esophagus. B) Ascites is fluid accumulated in the peritoneal cavity. C) Correct. D) Eructation is belching. Page Ref: 253 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 25) Peristalsis is defined as: A) intravenous nourishment. B) decreased digestive activity. C) wavelike involuntary contractions. D) increased defecation. Answer: C Explanation: A) Intravenous nourishment is sometimes called hyperalimentation. B) Peristalsis is a normal digestive process, not an indicator of decreased activity. C) Correct. D) Peristalsis is a normal digestive process, not an indicator of increased defecation. Page Ref: 255 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 26) Which term means chewing? A) Melena B) Mastcation C) Mastication D) Eructation Answer: C Explanation: A) Melena is black, tarry stool. B) Mastcation is a misspelling of mastication. C) Correct. D) Eructation is belching. Page Ref: 253 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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27) In the term halitosis, the root halit means: A) mouth. B) sweet. C) saliva. D) breath. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root stomat/o means mouth. B) The root glyc/o means sweet. C) The root sial/o means saliva. D) Correct.. Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 28) In the term ileostomy, the combining form ile/o means: A) paralysis. B) ileum. C) a twisting. D) like. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form paralyt/o means paralysis. B) Correct. C) The combining form volvul/o means twisting. D) The suffix -oid means like. Page Ref: 252 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) A disease that causes inflammation and sores in the lining of the large intestine is called: A) ulcerative colitis. B) paralytic ileus. C) stomatitis. D) volvulus. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Paralytic ileus is an ileum without peristalsis. C) Stomatitis is inflammation of the mouth. D) A volvulus is a twisted intestine. Page Ref: 257 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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30) Which condition occurs when the muscle between the esophagus and the stomach is weak or relaxes inappropriately? A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease B) Inguinal hernia C) Pyloric stenosis D) Anorexia Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) An inguinal hernia occurs in the groin. C) Pyloric stenosis is a vomiting disorder caused by hypertrophied pyloric muscle. D) Anorexia is an eating disorder. Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 31) In the term pilonidal, the combining form pil/o means: A) nest. B) colon. C) gland. D) hair. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root nid means nest. B) The combining form col/o means colon. C) The combining form aden/o means gland. D) Correct. Page Ref: 255 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) The ________ is the hardest and most compact part of a tooth. A) cementum B) enamel C) dentin D) crown Answer: B Explanation: A) The cementum is a thin layer of bone over the dentin. B) Correct. C) Dentin is interior and forms the bulk of the tooth. D) The crown is the part above the gum and is covered by enamel. Page Ref: 228 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) Fluoroscopic examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine is called: A) cholecystography. B) esophagogastroduodenoscopy. C) cholangiography. D) gastrointestinal series. Answer: D Explanation: A) Cholecystography examines the gallbladder. B) Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is not a fluoroscopic exam. C) Cholangiography examines the common bile duct, cystic duct, and hepatic ducts. D) Correct. Page Ref: 265 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 34) An x-ray exam of the common bile duct, cystic duct, and hepatic ducts is: A) cholangiography. B) gastroduodenoesophagoscopy. C) esophagogastroduodenoscopy. D) gastric analysis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) This is not a type of diagnostic test. C) This is a study of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. D) A gastric analysis is a test of stomach fluid. Page Ref: 264 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 35) The x-ray examination of the gallbladder is called: A) cholangiography. B) gallbladder ultrasonography. C) cholecystography. D) colonoscopy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Cholangiography is a test of bile ducts. B) Gallbladder ultrasonography is a test that uses sound waves. C) Correct. D) Colonoscopy is a visual exam of the colon. Page Ref: 264 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures
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36) A GI series uses: A) barium to visualize the stomach and intestines. B) ultrasound to show the size of the colon. C) fiberoptic instrument to see the inside of the stomach. D) a sample of blood to test the function of the stomach. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Ultrasonography shows the size of the colon. C) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy shows the inside of the stomach. D) A GI series is a visual exam, not a chemical exam. Page Ref: 265 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Procedures 37) The direct visual examination of the colon via a flexible, lighted instrument is called: A) cholangiography. B) ultrasonography. C) colonoscopy. D) cholecystography. Answer: C Explanation: A) Cholangiography is a test of bile duct, cystic duct, and hepatic ducts. B) Ultrasonography is not a direct visual examination. C) Correct. D) Cholecystography examines the gallbladder. Page Ref: 264 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 38) What kind of teeth are the largest of the permanent set? A) Bicuspids B) Canines C) Molars D) Incisors Answer: C Explanation: A) Bicuspids are the premolars which are smaller than molars. B) Canines are pointed teeth. C) Correct. D) Incisors are the front teeth. Page Ref: 227 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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39) The middle portion of the pharynx that lies between the palate and the hyoid bone is the: A) oropharynx. B) nasopharynx. C) larynx. D) laryngopharynx. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The nasopharynx is the upper portion of the pharynx. C) The larynx begins in the laryngopharynx. D) The laryngopharynx is the lower portion of the pharynx. Page Ref: 229 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 40) The esophagus leads from the pharynx to the: A) larynx. B) gallbladder. C) stomach. D) intestine. Answer: C Explanation: A) The larynx (voice box) is distinct from the esophagus, but also joins to the pharynx. B) The gallbladder does not connect directly to the pharynx. C) Correct. D) The intestine does not connect directly to the pharynx. Page Ref: 230 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 41) The small intestine has ________ parts. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: C Explanation: A) The small intestine has three parts: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. B) The small intestine has three parts: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. C) Correct. D) The small intestine has three parts: the duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. Page Ref: 231 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) The portion of the small intestine that follows the first twelve inches is the: A) jejunum. B) duodenum. C) ileum. D) cecum. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The duodenum is the first twelve inches of the small intestine. C) The ileum follows the jejunum. D) The cecum comes at the distal end of the ileum. Page Ref: 231 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) The longest portion of the small intestine is the: A) jejunum. B) duodenum. C) ileum. D) cecum. Answer: C Explanation: A) The jejunum is about 8 feet long. B) The duodenum is about 1 foot long. C) Correct. D) The cecum is part of the large intestine, not the small intestine. Page Ref: 231 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) Semiliquid food in the stomach is known as: A) bile. B) waste. C) chyme. D) gastric juice. Answer: C Explanation: A) Bile is produced in the liver. B) Waste accumulates in the colon. C) Correct. D) Gastric juice helps convert food to chyme. Page Ref: 230 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) Which organ detoxifies substances? A) Small intestine B) Gallbladder C) Pancreas D) Liver Answer: D Explanation: A) The small intestine absorbs nutrients into the body. B) The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile that has been produced by the liver. C) The pancreas produces digestive juices. D) Correct. Page Ref: 233 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) Bile is considered: A) essential for blood clotting. B) a detoxifier. C) a digestive juice. D) a product of the gallbladder. Answer: C Explanation: A) Coagulants are essential for blood clotting B) The liver is a detoxifier. C) Correct. D) Bile is a product of the liver. Page Ref: 234 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 47) What is mesentery? A) A peritoneal fold encircling the small intestine B) One of the sections of small intestine C) Feces with blood in it D) A fluoroscopic exam of the small intestine Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The small intestine is composed of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. C) Feces with blood is called melena. D) A GI series is one test of the small intestine. Page Ref: 253 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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48) The process whereby nutrients are taken into the bloodstream is known as: A) anabolism. B) catabolism. C) absorption. D) ascites. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anabolism is production of body substance. B) Catabolism is breakdown of body substance. C) Correct. D) Ascites is fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity. Page Ref: 239 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 49) The suffix in appendectomy means: A) appendix. B) surgical excision. C) surgical opening. D) inflammation. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root append means appendix. B) Correct. C) The suffix -stomy means new opening. D) The suffix -itis means inflammation. Page Ref: 239 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 50) The medical term that means pertaining to the cheek is: A) glossal. B) cheilosis. C) buccal. D) celiac. Answer: C Explanation: A) Glossal means pertaining to the tongue. B) Cheilosis is an abnormal condition of the lip. C) Correct. D) Celiac means pertaining to the abdomen. Page Ref: 241 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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51) The term catabolism means: A) transferring nutrients. B) breaking down complex substances. C) building up of body substance. D) forming dry feces. Answer: B Explanation: A) Absorption is transfer of nutrients from the GI tract to the blood. B) Correct. C) Anabolism is building up of body substance. D) Constipation is the condition of forming infrequent, dry feces. Page Ref: 241 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 52) A surgical excision of the gallbladder is called: A) cholecystectomy. B) catabolism. C) choledochotomy. D) cholecystitis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Catabolism is breaking down complex substances. C) Choledochotomy is incision into the bile duct. D) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. Page Ref: 242 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery 53) It is estimated that ________ percent of ulcers caused by H. pylori can be cured with antibiotics. A) 70 B) 80 C) 90 D) 100 Answer: C Explanation: A) It is estimated that more than 70 percent can be cured with antibiotics. B) An estimated 80 percent of peptic ulcers are associated with H. pylori. C) Correct. D) It is estimated that less than 100 percent can be cured with antibiotics. Page Ref: 254 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 54) When a loop of intestine enters the inguinal canal, a tubular passage through the lower layers of the abdominal wall, it is known as a/an: A) hiatal hernia. 231 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) volvulus. C) paralytic ileus. D) inguinal hernia. Answer: D Explanation: A) A hiatal hernia is movement of the stomach through the diaphragm into the chest. B) A volvulus is a twisting of a portion of the intestine. C) A paralytic ileus is lack of peristalsis (paralysis) in the intestines. D) Correct. Page Ref: 251 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 55) When the stomach's contents back up into the esophagus, it is known as: A) GERD. B) hiatal hernia. C) esophagitis. D) peristalsis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A hiatal hernia may lead to GERD. C) Esophagitis can be the result of GERD. D) Peristalsis is a series of wavelike muscular contractions. Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 56) A test performed on stool to identify protozoa infestation is: A) occult blood. B) O&P. C) stool culture. D) an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy test. Answer: B Explanation: A) Occult blood is blood that cannot be seen. B) Correct. C) A stool culture is done to identify any number of organisms. D) UGI endoscopy examines the gastric mucosa. Page Ref: 265 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 57) Pain is a common symptom of which condition of the intestine? A) Anorexia B) Ascites C) Diverticulitis D) Cirrhosis 232 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: C Explanation: A) Anorexia is an eating disorder associated with a lack of appetite. B) Ascites is fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity. C) Correct. D) Cirrhosis is a condition of the liver and may not result in any pain at all. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pathology 58) The correct spelling of the word meaning an enlargement of the spleen is: A) spleenomegaly. B) splenomegally. C) splenmegaly. D) splenomegaly. Answer: D Explanation: A) This is a misspelling of splenomegaly. B) This is a misspelling of splenomegaly. C) This is a misspelling of splenomegaly. D) Correct. Page Ref: 256 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 59) The prefix in peristalsis means: A) around. B) through. C) after. D) excessive. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix dia- means through. C) The prefix post- means after. D) The prefix hyper- means excessive or above. Page Ref: 255 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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60) Occult blood refers to bleeding that is: A) apparent. B) not visible. C) bright red. D) profuse. Answer: B Explanation: A) Occult blood is not readily apparent. B) Correct. C) Occult blood is typically not bright red. D) Occult blood is not typically the result of profuse bleeding. Page Ref: 265 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 61) A surgical excision of part of the colon is called: A) colonic. B) colectomy. C) colonoscopy. D) colostomy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Colonic means pertaining to the colon. B) Correct. C) A colonoscopy is a visual exam of the colon. D) A colostomy is surgically connecting the colon to an opening in the abdomen to form an artificial anus. Page Ref: 243 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery 62) Sodium bicarbonate is: A) a systemic antacid. B) the generic name of Tums. C) a specific histamine H2-receptor antagonist. D) a specific proton pump inhibitor. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Calcium carbonate is the generic name of Tums C) Sodium bicarbonate acts nonspecifically. D) Sodium bicarbonate acts nonspecifically. Page Ref: 262 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs
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7.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) an enzyme that breaks down starch B) lack of appetite C) difficulty swallowing D) inflammation of the liver E) pertaining to gastric digestion F) vomiting of blood G) surgical excision of the gallbladder H) the creation of a new opening into the colon 1) amylase Page Ref: 239 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) anorexia Page Ref: 239 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) cholecystectomy Page Ref: 242 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) colostomy Page Ref: 245 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) dysphagia Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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6) hematemesis Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) hepatitis Page Ref: 250 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) peptic Page Ref: 223-232, 236 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) G 4) H 5) C 6) F 7) D 8) E
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Match the following terms. A) vomiting B) bad breath C) expelling of gas generated in the stomach or intestines from the anus D) rectum E) to feed liquid or semiliquid food via a tube into the stomach F) pertaining to after a meal G) opening between the stomach and duodenum
9) postprandial Page Ref: 255 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) pyloric sphincter Page Ref: 231 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) gavage Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) emesis Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) flatus Page Ref: 248 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) halitosis Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) rect/o Page Ref: 238 237 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 9) F 10) G 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) D
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) cheek B) stomach C) colon D) gums E) abdomen F) gall, bile G) mouth H) blood I) tooth J) lip K) orange-yellow L) intestine M) starch 16) hemat Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) lapar/o Page Ref: 258 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) amyl Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) cirrhPage Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) cheil Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) bucc Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) chol/e Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) col/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) dent Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) enter/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) stomat Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) gastr/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) gingiv Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) H 17) E 18) M 19) K 20) J 21) A 22) F 23) C 24) I 25) L 26) G 27) B 28) D 240 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Match the following word part with its meaning. A) ileum B) appetite C) contraction D) vomiting E) tongue F) meal G) to digest H) worm I) to eat, swallow J) rectum, anus K) liver 29) gloss/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) hepat/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) ile/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) prand/i Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) proct/o Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) verm/i Page Ref: 238 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 241 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Word Building 35) -emesis Page Ref: 249 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -orexia Page Ref: 239 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -pepsia Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -phagia Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) -stalsis Page Ref: 255 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 29) E 30) K 31) A 32) F 33) J 34) H 35) D 36) B 37) G 38) I 39) C
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7.3 True/False Questions 1) The alimentary canal measures about 20 feet in adults. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The alimentary canal is about 30 feet long. Page Ref: 224 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The tongue is made of smooth muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The tongue is made of skeletal muscle. Page Ref: 226 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 235 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The pharynx is a common passageway for both respiration and digestion. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 229 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Digestion and absorption take place chiefly in the large intestine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Digestion and absorption take place in the small intestine. Page Ref: 231 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) A function of the liver is to absorb nutrients into the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The small intestine absorbs nutrients into the body. Page Ref: 231 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The term cheilosis refers to the abdomen. 243 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cheilosis means an abnormal condition of the lip. Page Ref: 242 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 8) Difficulty swallowing is known as dysphagia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 9) Another term for vomiting is enteric. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Another term for vomiting is emesis. Page Ref: 247 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 8 Cardiovascular System 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which valve sits between the right atrium and the right ventricle? A) Mitral B) Tricuspid C) Pulmonary D) Aortic Answer: B Explanation: A) The mitral or bicuspid valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle. B) Correct. C) The pulmonary valve is between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. D) The aortic valve is between the left ventricle and the aorta. Page Ref: 281 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) A surgical connection between blood vessels or the joining of one hollow or tubular organ to another is a/an: A) claudication. B) bruit. C) aneurysm. D) anastomosis. Answer: D 244 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) Claudication is pain in the leg due to narrowed arteries. B) A bruit is an abnormal heart sound. C) An aneurysm is a ballooned wall of an artery. D) Correct. Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery
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3) All of the following are common pulse points except: A) dorsalis pedis. B) radial. C) brachial. D) carotid. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. The dorsalis pedis can be used as a pulse point but only in special circumstances. It is not one of the most common pulse points. B) The radial artery is a common pulse point. C) The brachial artery is a common pulse point. D) The carotid artery is a common pulse point. Page Ref: 285 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) ________ pressure is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the arteries. A) Pulse B) Artery C) Blood D) Capillary Answer: C Explanation: A) Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic readings. B) An artery transports blood away from the heart to all body parts. C) Correct. D) A capillary is a microscopic blood vessel with single-celled walls that connect arterioles with venules. Page Ref: 287 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Blood is transported from the right and left ventricles of the heart to all body parts by the: A) veins. B) arteries. C) capillaries. D) atria. Answer: B Explanation: A) Veins return blood to the heart. B) Correct. C) Capillaries are the smallest vessels between the arteries and veins. D) The atria are the upper chambers of the heart. Page Ref: 275 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) A condition in which there is lack of a regular rhythm of the heartbeat is: A) murmur. 246 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) palpitation. C) arrhythmia. D) fibrillation. Answer: C Explanation: A) A murmur is an abnormal blowing sound heard when auscultating the heart. B) Palpitation is an abnormal rapid throbbing or fluttering of the heart felt by the patient. C) Correct. D) Fibrillation is a condition in which the heart quivers with a disorganized rhythm. Page Ref: 293 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 7) An abnormally slow heartbeat is called: A) bradycardia. B) tachycardia. C) fibrillation. D) murmur. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat. C) Fibrillation is a condition in which the heart quivers with a disorganized rhythm. D) A murmur is an abnormal blowing sound heard when auscultating the heart. Page Ref: 296 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 8) The medical term for hardening of the arteries is: A) atherosclerosis. B) angiostenosis. C) arteriosclerosis. D) atheroma. Answer: C Explanation: A) Atherosclerosis is hardening of the arteries due to fatty deposits. B) Angiostenosis is abnormal narrowing of a blood vessel. C) Correct. D) An atheroma is an arterial tumor that contains a fatty substance. Page Ref: 294 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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9) A type of medication that increases the tone of the heart is called a: A) vasodilator. B) vasopressor. C) claudication. D) cardiotonic. Answer: D Explanation: A) A vasodilator drug relaxes the blood vessels to lower blood pressure. B) A vasopressor drug narrows blood vessels to raise blood pressure. C) Claudication is a pain in the leg due to narrowed arteries. D) Correct. Page Ref: 298 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drugs 10) A condition in which a blood clot or other substance obstructs a blood vessel is known as: A) thrombosis. B) embolism. C) cyanosis. D) constriction. Answer: B Explanation: A) Thrombosis is a stationary blood clot in within the vascular system. B) Correct. C) Cyanosis is a bluish tinge to the skin due to deficient oxygen. D) Constriction is narrowing of a vessel. Page Ref: 302 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 11) The surgical excision of the inner lining of an artery is called: A) phlebotomy. B) endocarditis. C) embolism. D) endarterectomy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Phlebotomy is the puncture of a vein to withdraw blood for analysis. B) Endocarditis is inflammation of the inner lining of the heart. C) An embolism is the obstruction of a blood vessel by foreign substances or a blood clot. D) Correct. Page Ref: 302 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery
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12) The blood test performed to determine cardiac damage in an acute myocardial infarction is a/an: A) cardiac enzymes test. B) cholesterol test. C) triglyceride test. D) angiography. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A cholesterol test measures the amount of cholesterol in the serum. C) A triglyceride test measures the amount of triglycerides in the blood. D) An angiography is a test that uses x-ray recording of a blood vessel after the injection of a radiopaque substance to determine patency of vessels, organs, or tissue. Page Ref: 324 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 13) A puncture into a vein with a needle to withdraw blood for analysis is known as: A) intravenous. B) phlebotomy. C) phlebitis. D) pericarditis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Intravenous means within the vein. B) Correct. C) Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein. D) Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium. Page Ref: 312 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 14) A fast heartbeat is known as: A) bradycardia. B) myocardial infarction. C) vasoconstriction. D) tachycardia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Bradycardia is an abnormally slow heartbeat. B) A myocardial infarction is a heart attack. C) Vasoconstriction is constriction of blood vessels. D) Correct. Page Ref: 315 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) ________ is used to evaluate the heart for structural defects. A) Electrocardiogram 249 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Cardiac enzyme C) Echocardiography D) Cardiac catheterization Answer: C Explanation: A) An electrocardiogram is a record of electrical activity in the heart. B) Cardiac enzymes are blood tests performed to assess heart damage. C) Correct. D) Cardiac catheterization uses dye and pressure measurements to diagnose blocked arteries. Page Ref: 325 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 16) The ________ is called the pacemaker of the heart. A) sinoatrial node B) bundle of His C) atrioventricular node D) bicuspid Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The bundle of His carries electrical stimuli to the ventricles. C) The atrioventricular node sends the stimuli to the bundle of His from the SA node. D) The bicuspid (mitral valve) allows blood to flow to the left ventricle and closes to prevent its return to the left atrium. Page Ref: 282 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 17) In the term telangiectasis, the suffix -ectasis means: A) hardening. B) dilatation. C) narrowing. D) large. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form scler/o means hardening. B) Correct. C) The word root sten means narrowing. D) The suffix -megaly means large. Page Ref: 315 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) The most common site for taking an adult's pulse in the doctor's office is the ________ artery. A) carotid B) femoral C) brachial 250 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) radial Answer: D Explanation: A) The carotid is frequently used in emergencies. B) The femoral artery may be used to monitor circulation. C) The brachial artery is used to check blood pressure. D) Correct. Page Ref: 285 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 19) Cramping pain in the legs during walking is called: A) shock. B) claudication. C) infarction. D) fibrillation. Answer: B Explanation: A) Shock is a systemic condition with a lowered blood pressure. B) Correct. C) An infarction is a blood vessel that is suddenly obstructed. D) Fibrillation is an extremely rapid and disorganized heartbeat. Page Ref: 298 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 20) In the term angina pectoris, the root angin means: A) vessel. B) artery. C) to choke. D) to hold back. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root angi means vessel. B) The root arteri means artery. C) Correct. D) The root isch means to hold back. Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) In the term sphygmomanometer, the combining form sphygm/o means: A) pulse. B) artery. C) blood. D) thin. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The combining form arteri/o means artery. C) The combining form hem/o means blood. D) The combining form man/o means thin. Page Ref: 314 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) Which of the following tests determines the levels of cholesterol, HDL, and triglycerides? A) Ultrafast CT scan B) Ultrasonography C) Stress test D) Lipid profile test Answer: D Explanation: A) An ultrafast CT scan takes multiple images of the heart within the time of a single heartbeat, providing detail about the heart's function and structures. B) An ultrasonography is used to visualize an organ or tissue by using high-frequency sound waves. C) A stress test is used to test cardiovascular fitness. D) Correct. Page Ref: 326 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 23) In the term ischemia, the suffix -emia means: A) process. B) blood condition. C) condition. D) formation. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ion means process. B) Correct. C) The suffixes -ia and -osis mean condition. D) The suffix -gen means formation. Page Ref: 307 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 24) Which of the following is used in the measurement of arterial blood pressure? A) An electrocardiograph 252 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) A cardiologist C) A sphygmomanometer D) A defibrillator Answer: C Explanation: A) An electrocardiograph records the electrical activity in the heart. B) A cardiologist is a physician who specializes in the study of the heart. C) Correct. D) A defibrillator restores a normal heartbeat. Page Ref: 314 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 25) A venous or arterial noise heard on auscultation is called a: A) bruit. B) flutter. C) murmur. D) lub-dupp. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Flutter is a very fast heartbeat over 200 beats per minute. C) A murmur is an abnormal blowing sound heard when auscultating the heart. D) Lub-dupp is one way to characterize the sound of the heart. Page Ref: 296 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 26) The heart is divided by a partition called the: A) septum. B) ventricle. C) atrium. D) pericardium Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A ventricle is one of the lower chambers of the heart. C) An atrium is one of the upper chambers of the heart. D) The pericardium is the outer membranous sac surrounding the heart. Page Ref: 278 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) Blood is returned to the heart from all body parts by the: A) veins. B) capillaries. C) arteries. D) aorta. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels between the veins and arteries. C) The arteries carry blood away from the heart. D) The aorta carries blood from the left ventricle to all of the body except the lungs. Page Ref: 285 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 28) The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the ________ valve. A) mitral B) aortic C) tricuspid D) pulmonary Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The aortic valve is between the left ventricle and the aorta. C) The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and the right ventricle. D) The pulmonary valve is between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. Page Ref: 281 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 29) Another name for the mitral valve is: A) atrioventricular valve. B) aortic valve. C) semilunar valve. D) bicuspid valve. Answer: D Explanation: A) The atrioventricular valve is also called the tricuspid valve. B) The aortic valve is also called a semilunar valve. C) Both the pulmonary and aortic valves are semilunar valves. D) Correct. Page Ref: 281 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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30) The passage of oxygen and nutrients to the body cells takes place at the: A) capillaries. B) arterioles. C) venules. D) carotids Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Arterioles are small arteries. C) Venules are small veins. D) The carotid arteries are larger arteries in the neck. Page Ref: 287 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 31) The sinoatrial node, the atrioventricular node, and the atrioventricular bundle are specialized ________ tissues of the heart. A) endocardial B) myocardial C) neuromuscular D) pericardial Answer: C Explanation: A) Endocardial tissue lines the chambers of the heart. B) Myocardial tissues are the walls of the chambers. C) Correct. D) Pericardial tissues form the sac around the heart. Page Ref: 282 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 32) The average adult heartbeat is: A) 50-80. B) 60-100. C) 90-110. D) 100-125. Answer: B Explanation: A) A heartbeat as low as 50 can be seen in athletes, but not most adults. B) Correct. C) A heartbeat between 90 and 110 is high for an adult. D) A heartbeat between 100 and 125 is tachycardia. Page Ref: 283 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) An ________ records the electrical activity of the heart. A) ECHO B) EPS C) ECG D) MRI Answer: C Explanation: A) An ECHO analyzes the size, shape, and movement of structures inside the heart. B) An EPS is a cardiac procedure that involves the placement of catheter-guided electrodes within the heart to evaluate and map the electrical conduction of cardiac arrhythmias. C) Correct. D) An MRI is an imaging technique that uses a magnet that sets the nuclei of atoms in the heart cells vibrating. Page Ref: 325 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 34) The most common site for checking blood pressure is at the ________ artery. A) brachial B) temporal C) radial D) femoral Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) It is not possible to easily take a blood pressure of the temporal artery. C) It is possible to take blood pressure at the wrist using the radial artery, but it is not common. D) Blood pressure is not measured using the femoral artery. Page Ref: 285 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 35) A sphygmomanometer is used to: A) measure arterial blood pressure. B) listen to breath sounds. C) check electrical activity of the heart. D) open an artery. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A stethoscope is needed to listen to breath sounds. C) An electrocardiograph is needed to check the electrical activity of the heart. D) A stent is used to open an artery. Page Ref: 287, 314 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 36) A pulse pressure over ________ points and under ________ points is considered abnormal. 256 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) 40, 20 B) 40, 30 C) 50, 30 D) 50, 20 Answer: C Explanation: A) A pulse pressure of 40 is considered normal. B) A pulse pressure of 40 is considered normal. C) Correct. D) A pulse pressure over 50 points and under 30 points, not 20 points, is considered abnormal. Page Ref: 288 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 37) The two processes for removing a blood sample from a vein are called: A) venipuncture and phlebotomy. B) phlebitis and telangiectasis. C) thrombophlebitis and thrombosis. D) valvuloplasty and vasospasm. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, and telangiectasis is vascular lesions formed by the dilatation of a group of small blood vessels. C) Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein associated with the formation of a thrombus, and thrombosis is a blood clot within the vascular system. D) Valvuloplasty is the surgical repair of a cardiac valve, and vasospasm is a spasm of a blood vessel. Page Ref: 312, 317 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures
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38) Chest pain that is caused by restricted blood flow to the heart is: A) angina pectoris. B) angiostenosis. C) cardiac arrest. D) flutter. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Angiostenosis is narrowing of a vessel. C) Cardiac arrest is loss of effective heart function, which results in cessation of functional circulation. D) Flutter is a heart rate over 200 beats per minute. Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 39) Ballooning or widening of a weak portion of an artery is known as: A) hemangioma. B) mitral stenosis. C) aneurysm. D) ischemia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hemangioma is a tumor of blood vessels. B) Mitral stenosis is abnormal narrowing of the mitral valve. C) Correct. D) Ischemia is lack of oxygen due to deficient blood flow. Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 40) The proper spelling for the term describing hardening of the arteries is: A) arteosclerosis. B) arteriosclerosis. C) arterislerosis. D) arteriscerosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) This is not spelled correctly. The correct spelling is arteriosclerosis. B) Correct. C) This is not spelled correctly. The correct spelling is arteriosclerosis. D) This is not spelled correctly. The correct spelling is arteriosclerosis. Page Ref: 294 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling
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41) The term used for any disease of the heart muscle is: A) atherosclerosis. B) cardiomegaly. C) arteriosclerosis. D) cardiomyopathy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Atherosclerosis is hardening of the arteries due to fatty deposits. B) Cardiomegaly is enlargement of the heart. C) Arteriosclerosis is hardening of the arteries. D) Correct. Page Ref: 297 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 42) Another name for left-sided heart failure is: A) pulmonary edema. B) dyspnea. C) congestive heart failure. D) ejection fraction. Answer: C Explanation: A) This is a symptom (fluid in the lungs) but not another name for left-sided heart failure. B) This is a symptom (shortness of breath) of heart failure. C) Correct. D) Ejection fraction is the percentage of blood that is pumped (ejected) out of the ventricles with each contraction of the heart. Page Ref: 304 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 43) The medical term anastomosis means: A) obstruction of a blood vessel by a foreign substance or blood clot. B) surgical connection between blood vessels. C) abnormal widening of an artery due to weakness. D) quivering or spontaneous contraction of individual muscle fibers. Answer: B Explanation: A) An embolism is the obstruction of a blood vessel by a foreign substance or blood clot. B) Correct. C) An aneurysm is an abnormal widening of an artery due to weakness. D) Fibrillation is the quivering or spontaneous contraction of individual muscle fibers. Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Surgery 44) An excessive amount of fatty substances in the blood is termed: 259 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) atherosclerosis. B) hyperlipidemia. C) lipoprotein. D) triglyceride. Answer: B Explanation: A) Atherosclerosis is hardening of the arteries due to fatty deposits. B) Correct. C) Lipoproteins are fat and protein molecules bound together as LDL or HDL. D) Triglycerides are molecules of fatty acids. Page Ref: 306 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 45) Irregularity or loss of rhythm of the heartbeat is called: A) atherosclerosis. B) bradycardia. C) arrhythmia. D) endocarditis Answer: C Explanation: A) Atherosclerosis is hardening of the arteries due to fatty deposits. B) Bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate. C) Correct. D) Endocarditis is inflammation of the lining of the heart. Page Ref: 293 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 46) A heartbeat over ________ beats per minute is termed tachycardia. A) 70 B) 80 C) 90 D) 100 Answer: D Explanation: A) A heartbeat of 70 beats per minute is considered normal. B) A heartbeat of 80 beats per minute is considered normal. C) A heartbeat of 90 beats per minute is considered normal. D) Correct. Page Ref: 315 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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47) Inflammation of the heart muscle is termed: A) arteritis. B) myocarditis. C) endocarditis. D) pericarditis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Arteritis is inflammation of an artery. B) Correct. C) Endocarditis is inflammation of the lining of the heart. D) Pericarditis is inflammation of the sac around the heart. Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 48) Hypertension is commonly called: A) low blood pressure. B) heart disease. C) chest inflammation. D) the silent killer. Answer: D Explanation: A) Hypotension is commonly called low blood pressure. B) Hypertension is not commonly called heart disease. C) Hypertension is not commonly called chest inflammation. D) Correct. Page Ref: 306 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pathology 49) Another term for a heart attack is: A) myocardial infarction. B) cardiomyopathy. C) thrombosis. D) myocarditis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Cardiomyopathy is disease of the heart muscle. C) Thrombosis is formation of a clot. D) Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle. Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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50) The most common symptom of a heart attack is: A) dysrhythmia. B) cardiomyopathy. C) endocarditis. D) angina. Answer: D Explanation: A) Dysrhythmia is abnormality of the rhythm or rate of the heartbeat. B) Cardiomyopathy is disease of the heart muscle. C) Endocarditis is inflammation of the endocardium (inner lining of the heart). D) Correct. Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pathology 51) A waxy, fatty substance found in the bloodstream is called: A) cyanosis. B) cholesterol. C) lipoprotein. D) occlusion. Answer: B Explanation: A) Cyanosis is an abnormal condition of the skin and mucous membranes caused by oxygen deficiency. B) Correct. C) Lipoprotein is a combination of fat with protein. D) An occlusion is a blockage of a vessel. Page Ref: 298 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 52) The buildup of fatty substances on the walls of an artery is called: A) atheroma. B) anastomosis. C) atherosclerosis. D) arteriosclerosis. Answer: C Explanation: A) An atheroma is a fatty tumor. B) Anastomosis is a surgical connection of two tubular vessels. C) Correct. D) Arteriosclerosis is hardening of the arteries. Page Ref: 295 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology
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53) Resting and filling describe which of the following? A) Constriction B) Thrombosis C) Systole D) Diastole Answer: D Explanation: A) Constriction is the narrowing of a vessel. B) Thrombosis is a blood clot within the vascular system. C) Systole is a contractive phase of the heart cycle during which blood is forced into the systemic circulation via the aorta and the pulmonary circulation via the pulmonary artery. D) Correct. Page Ref: 302 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 54) In the term oximetry, the suffix -metry means: A) meter. B) distance. C) place. D) measurement. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -metry does not mean meter. B) The suffix -metry does not mean distance. C) The suffix -metry does not mean place. D) Correct. Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 55) The term diastole is the ________ phase of the heart cycle. A) contraction B) narrowing C) relaxation D) pumping Answer: C Explanation: A) Systole is the contraction phase of the heart cycle. B) Diastole is not the narrowing phase of the heart cycle. C) Correct. D) Systole is the pumping phase of the heart cycle. Page Ref: 302 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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56) In the term extracorporeal, the word root corpor means: A) body. B) circular. C) chest. D) opening. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The word root circulat means circular. C) The word roots pector and steth mean chest. D) The word root anastom means opening. Page Ref: 303 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 57) In the term infarction, the root infarct means: A) process. B) necrosis of an area. C) blood. D) hardening. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ion means process. B) Correct. C) The root hem mean blood. D) The root scler means hardening. Page Ref: 307 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 58) The ________ pulse is located in the antecubital space of the elbow. A) radial B) brachial C) carotid D) femoral Answer: B Explanation: A) The radial pulse is felt at the wrist. B) Correct. C) The carotid pulse is felt at the neck. D) The femoral pulse is felt at the groin. Page Ref: 285 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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59) Which condition occurs when an area of heart muscle dies or is permanently damaged because of an inadequate supply of oxygen to that area? A) Embolism B) Occlusion C) Myocardial infarction D) Shock Answer: C Explanation: A) Embolism is blockage of a vessel due to a clot or other substance. B) Occlusion is a blockage in a vessel, canal, or passage of the body. C) Correct. D) Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body is not getting enough blood flow. Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pathology 60) A device for recording a patient's ECG for 24 hours is called a/an: A) stress test. B) Holter monitor. C) ultrasonograph. D) MRI. Answer: B Explanation: A) A stress test is done on a treadmill. B) Correct. C) An ultrasonograph machine uses sound waves to create an image of internal structures. D) An MRI machine uses magnetism to create images of internal structures. Page Ref: 326 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 61) The x-ray recording of a blood vessel after the injection of a radiopaque substance is: A) electrophysiology. B) a stress test. C) angiography. D) cardiac enzymes. Answer: C Explanation: A) Electrophysiology maps the electrical condition within the heart. B) A stress test uses a treadmill while recording an ECG. C) Correct. D) Cardiac enzymes are blood tests that are performed to determine heart damage. Page Ref: 323 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures 62) Recording the electrical heart activity and blood pressure during exercise on a treadmill is: A) an ultrafast CT scan. 265 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) angiography. C) a stress test. D) cardiac catheterization. Answer: C Explanation: A) An ultrafast CT scan takes multiple images of the heart within the time of a single heartbeat, providing detail about the heart's function and structures. B) Angiography is the x-ray recording of a blood vessel after injection of a radiopaque substance. C) Correct. D) Cardiac catheterization involves inserting a catheter into an artery and moving it into the heart. Page Ref: 327 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures
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8.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) using a stethoscope to listen to the heart or blood vessels B) physician who specializes in the study of the heart C) blockage of a vessel D) low blood pressure E) inflammation of a vein F) fat and proteins that are bound together G) high blood pressure 1) occlusion Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) cardiologist Page Ref: 296 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) auscultation Page Ref: 296 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) hypertension Page Ref: 306 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) hypotension Page Ref: 307 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) phlebitis Page Ref: 311 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) lipoprotein 267 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 308 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) G 5) D 6) E 7) F
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Match the following terms. A) soft blowing sound heard upon auscultation of the heart B) a compound that has three molecules of fatty acids C) the contractive phase of the heart cycle D) the relaxation phase of the heart cycle E) to pierce a vein with a needle F) an instrument used to listen to sounds of the heart and lungs G) a widening of the wall of an artery 8) stethoscope Page Ref: 314 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) triglyceride Page Ref: 316 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) venipuncture Page Ref: 317 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) aneurysm Page Ref: 292 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) diastole Page Ref: 302 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) systole Page Ref: 314 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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14) murmur Page Ref: 308 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 8) F 9) B 10) E 11) G 12) D 13) C 14) A
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) fatty substance B) pulse C) deficient, below D) heart E) vessel F) hardening G) excessive, above H) dark blue I) artery J) vein K) slow 15) bradyPage Ref: 296 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) hyperPage Ref: 306 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) hypoPage Ref: 307 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) angi/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) arteri/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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20) ather/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) cardi/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) cyan/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) phleb/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) scler/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) sphygm/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 15) K 16) G 17) C 18) E 19) I 20) A 21) D 22) H 23) J 24) F 25) B
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) blood condition B) measurement C) body D) instrument for examining E) chest F) dilatation G) surgical repair H) rapid I) disease J) clot 26) steth/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) thromb/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) corpor/o Page Ref: 291 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) tachyPage Ref: 315 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) -emia Page Ref: 306, 307 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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31) -plasty Page Ref: 316 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) -metry Page Ref: 309 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -scope Page Ref: 314 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -ectasis Page Ref: 315 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -pathy Page Ref: 297 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 26) E 27) J 28) C 29) H 30) A 31) G 32) B 33) D 34) F 35) I 8.3 True/False Questions 1) The heart is a four-chambered pump. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 275, 278 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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2) The ventricles receive blood from the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The ventricles receive blood from the atria. Page Ref: 279, 280 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The inner lining of the heart is called the endocardium. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 276 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The cardiac veins supply the heart with blood. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The coronary arteries supply the heart with blood. Page Ref: 282 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The heartbeat is controlled by the cardiovascular system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The heartbeat is controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Page Ref: 282 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 282 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The SA node transmits electrical impulses to the bundle of His. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The SA node transmits electrical impulses to the AV node. Page Ref: 282 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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8) The bundle branches and Purkinje network comprise the ventricular conduction system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 283 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) Mitral valve prolapse allows a backup of blood flow into the left atrium. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 308 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pathology 10) Pericardiocentesis is the removal of the pericardial sac around the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pericardiocentesis is puncture of the pericardium with a needle to remove excess fluid. Page Ref: 311 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Procedures Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 9 Blood and Lymphatic System 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system? A) Transport proteins and fluids. B) Protect the body against pathogens. C) Produce thrombocytes. D) Serve as a pathway for the absorption of fats. Answer: C Explanation: A) The lymphatic system transports proteins and fluids. B) The lymphatic system protects the body against pathogens. C) Correct. The lymphatic system does not produce thrombocytes. D) The lymphatic system serves as a pathway for the absorption of fats. Page Ref: 336 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The life span of an erythrocyte is: A) 70−102 days. B) 80−120 days. C) 90−130 days. D) 120−160 days. Answer: B 276 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) The life span of an erythrocyte is not between 70 and 102 days. B) Correct. The life span is between 80 and 120 days. C) The life span of an erythrocyte is not between 90 and 130 days. D) The life span of an erythrocyte is not between 120 and 160 days. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) In the term lymphedema, the suffix -edema means: A) fluid. B) swelling. C) lymph. D) globe. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -edema does not mean fluid. B) Correct. C) The suffix -edema does not mean lymph. D) The suffix -edema does not mean globe. Page Ref: 361 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) The fluid part of the blood is called: A) serum. B) plasma. C) lymph. D) hemoglobin. Answer: B Explanation: A) Serum is the liquid that remains after blood clots. B) Correct. C) Lymph is not part of the blood. D) Hemoglobin is found in the red blood cells. Page Ref: 340 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) A protein substance that is developed in the body in response to an antigen is called a/an: A) T cell. B) phagocyte. C) platelet. D) antibody. Answer: D Explanation: A) An T cell is a lymphocyte. B) A phagocyte is a white blood cell that eats foreign cells. C) A platelet is a clotting cell, a thrombocyte. D) Correct. Page Ref: 347 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) In the term anaphylaxis, the suffix -phylaxis means: A) fusion. B) protection. C) growth. D) against. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -desis means fusion. B) Correct. C) The suffix -plasia means growth. D) The prefix anti- means against. Page Ref: 354 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) Oxygen binds to what protein in red blood cells? A) Globulin B) Prothrombin C) Hemoglobin D) Corpuscle Answer: C Explanation: A) Globulin is a protein in the plasma. B) Prothrombin is a protein in the plasma. C) Correct. D) A corpuscle is a blood cell. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) Excessive bleeding, a bursting forth of blood, is called: A) hemorrhage. B) hemophilia. C) hemostasis. D) hemolysis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Hemophilia is a hereditary blood disease. C) Hemostasis is control or stopping of bleeding. D) Hemolysis is destruction of red blood cells. Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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9) A pathological condition of excessive amounts of sugar in the blood is called: A) hypoglycemia. B) hypercapnia. C) hypercalcemia. D) hyperglycemia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Hypoglycemia is a below normal amount of sugar in the blood. B) Hypercapnia is an above normal amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. C) Hypercalcemia is an above normal amount of calcium in the blood. D) Correct. Page Ref: 359 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 10) In the term erythropoietin, the root poiet means: A) shape. B) protein. C) formation. D) cell. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root poiet does not mean shape. B) The root poiet does not mean protein. C) Correct. The root poiet means formation. D) The root poiet does not mean cell. Page Ref: 357 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 11) In the term lymphadenitis, the root aden means: A) gland. B) lymph. C) inflammation. D) duct. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root lymph means lymph. C) The suffix -itis means inflammation. D) The root doch means duct. Page Ref: 361 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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12) PrEP is an acronym for pre-exposure: A) pneumonia. B) prophylaxis. C) prothrombin. D) platelet. Answer: B Explanation: A) PrEP does not mean pre-exposure pneumonia. B) Correct. C) PrEP does not mean pre-exposure prothrombin. D) PrEP does not mean pre-exposure platelet. Page Ref: 373 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Abbreviations 13) A medical condition in which there are too many RBCs is: A) anemia. B) leukemia. C) polycythemia. D) septicemia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anemia is a deficient amount of hemoglobin or red blood cells. B) Leukemia is a cancer of the blood. C) Correct. D) Septicemia is a blood infection. Page Ref: 363 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 14) The clear, thin, and sticky fluid that separates from the clot when blood clots is: A) lymph. B) serum. C) plasma. D) thrombin. Answer: B Explanation: A) Lymph is not involved in blood clotting. B) Correct. C) Plasma is the fluid part of blood prior to clotting. D) Thrombin is a blood enzyme. Page Ref: 364 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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15) In the term mononucleosis, the prefix mono- means: A) one. B) many. C) two. D) double. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The prefix multi- means many. C) The prefix bi- means two. D) The prefix diplo- means double. Page Ref: 362 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) In the term leukocytopenia, the combining form leuk/o means: A) yellow. B) blue. C) white. D) red. Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining form cirrh/o means yellow. B) The combining form cyan/o means blue. C) Correct. D) The combining form erythr/o means red. Page Ref: 361 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) In the term plasmapheresis, the suffix -apheresis means: A) removal. B) destruction. C) loosen. D) protein. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -lysis means destruction. C) The suffix -apheresis does not mean loosen. D) The suffix -apheresis does not mean protein. Page Ref: 363 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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18) In the term hemochromatosis, the root chromat means: A) green. B) reddish-yellow. C) color. D) red. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root chromat does not mean green. B) The root chromat does not mean reddish-yellow. C) Correct. D) The combining form erythr/o means red. Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) The medical term for a tumor of the thymus is: A) thymitis. B) thrombocyte. C) thymoma. D) thrombosis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Thymitis is inflammation of the thymus. B) A thrombocyte is a blood clotting cell, a platelet. C) Correct. D) Thrombosis is formation of a blood clot. Page Ref: 366 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 20) A blood enzyme which causes clotting by forming fibrin is: A) thromboplastin. B) globulin. C) heparin. D) thrombin. Answer: D Explanation: A) Thromboplastin is needed to form thrombin. B) Globulin is a plasma protein. C) Heparin is a drug to reduce clotting time. D) Correct. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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21) All of the following are types of leukocytes except: A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) reticulocytes. D) lymphocytes. Answer: C Explanation: A) A neutrophil is a leukocyte. B) An eosinophil is a leukocyte. C) Correct. D) A lymphocyte is a leukocyte. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 22) Which type of blood cell plays an important role in the clotting process? A) Thrombocyte B) Erythrocyte C) Leukocyte D) Lymphocyte Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) An erythrocyte is a red blood cell. C) A leukocyte is a white blood cell. D) A lymphocyte is a cell in the lymphatic system. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 23) An agent that works against the formation of blood clots is an: A) antibody. B) anticoagulant. C) antigen. D) antihemorrhagic. Answer: B Explanation: A) An antibody is produced by the immune system to counteract antigens. B) Correct. C) An antigen is a foreign protein that stimulates the immune response. D) An antihemorrhagic is an agent that reduces or stops bleeding. Page Ref: 356 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology
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24) In the term vasculitis, the root vascul means: A) vein. B) artery. C) small vessel. D) capillary. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root ven means vein. B) The root arter means artery. C) Correct. D) The root capill means capillary. Page Ref: 366 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) ________ is the engulfing and eating of particulate substances. A) Sideropenia B) Phagocytosis C) Thalassemia D) Thrombogenic Answer: B Explanation: A) Sideropenia is a lack of iron in the blood. B) Correct. C) Thalassemia is a type of anemia found near the Mediterranean Sea. D) Thrombogenic means pertaining to forming a blood clot. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 26) Disk-shaped blood cells without nuclei are called: A) leukocytes. B) platelets. C) erythrocytes. D) thrombocytes. Answer: C Explanation: A) Leukocytes are white blood cells that have many shapes. B) Platelets are blood clotting cells that have different shapes. C) Correct. D) Thrombocytes are platelets. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) Cells that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide are: A) RBCs. B) WBCs. C) platelets. D) lymph. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) WBCs do not transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. C) Platelets do not transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. D) Lymph does not transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 28) Platelets are also called: A) erythrocytes. B) leukocytes. C) lymphocytes. D) thrombocytes. Answer: D Explanation: A) Erythrocytes are red blood cells. B) Leukocytes are white blood cells. C) Lymphocytes are lymph cells. D) Correct. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 29) Sphere-shaped cells containing nuclei are called: A) erythrocytes. B) leukocytes. C) antigens. D) thrombocytes. Answer: B Explanation: A) Erythrocytes do not contain nuclei. B) Correct. C) Antigens are foreign proteins that stimulate the immune response. D) Thrombocytes are many different shapes. Page Ref: 339 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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30) As universal donors, patients with type O blood can receive type ________ blood for transfusion. A) A B) B C) O D) AB Answer: C Explanation: A) A person with type O blood can only receive type O blood. B) A person with type O blood can only receive type O blood. C) Correct. D) A person with type O blood can only receive type O blood. Page Ref: 340 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 31) A clot that forms attached to a vein wall is termed a/an: A) embolus. B) embolism. C) thrombus. D) thrombin. Answer: C Explanation: A) An embolus is a moving clot. B) An embolism is a clot that obstructs a vessel, causing deficient oxygen to tissues. C) Correct. D) Thrombin is an enzyme that plays a part in clotting. Page Ref: 365 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 32) The principal component of lymph is: A) protein. B) fluid from plasma. C) serum. D) hemoglobin. Answer: B Explanation: A) The principal component of lymph is not protein. B) Correct. C) The principal component of lymph is not serum. D) The principal component of lymph is not hemoglobin. Page Ref: 343 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) Humoral immunity is a major defense against: A) viral infection. B) bone injury. C) organ damage. D) bacterial infections. Answer: D Explanation: A) Humoral immunity is not a major defense against viral infection. B) Humoral immunity is not a major defense against bone injury. C) Humoral immunity is not a major defense against organ damage. D) Correct. Humoral immunity is a major defense against bacterial infections. Page Ref: 346 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 34) The second phase of the body's immune response to a foreign substance involves ________ of the body's defenses. A) recognition B) attack C) activation D) slowdown Answer: C Explanation: A) Recognition is the first phase. B) Attack is the third phase. C) Correct. D) The fourth phase is the slowdown phase Page Ref: 347 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 35) Transportation of oxygen may be compromised by the decrease of: A) thrombocytes. B) white blood cells. C) hemoglobin. D) plasma. Answer: C Explanation: A) Thrombocytes do not play a part in transport of oxygen. B) White blood cells are not involved in transporting oxygen. C) Correct. D) Plasma carries only a very small amount of oxygen. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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36) The term agglutination is defined as a: A) reduction of red blood cells. B) condition in which erythrocytes are unequal in size. C) process of clumping together. D) potentially fatal infection. Answer: C Explanation: A) Agglutination is not reduction of red blood cells. B) Agglutination is not a condition in which erythrocytes are unequal in size. C) Correct. Incompatible blood cells produce agglutination. D) Agglutination is not a potentially fatal infection. Page Ref: 353 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) A serious allergic reaction to foreign proteins is termed: A) anisocytosis. B) anaphylaxis. C) allergy. D) anemia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Anisocytosis is a condition in which erythrocytes are unequal in size and shape. B) Correct. C) An allergy is a hypersensitivity to a substance that is usually harmless. D) Anemia is a reduction of hemoglobin or red blood cells. Page Ref: 354 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 38) The root in the term anticoagulant means: A) against. B) forming. C) clots. D) body. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix anti- means against. B) The suffix -plasia means forming. C) Correct. D) The root somat means body. Page Ref: 356 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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39) A blood clot that is carried through the bloodstream is termed a/an: A) thrombus. B) red blood cell. C) embolus. D) corpuscle. Answer: C Explanation: A) A thrombus is stationary. B) A red blood cell is not a clot. C) Correct. D) A corpuscle is a blood cell. Page Ref: 356 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 40) The medical term that describes the formation of red blood cells is: A) erythropoiesis. B) erythroblast. C) erythropoietin. D) erythrocyte. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) An erythroblast is an immature red blood cell. C) Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. D) An erythrocyte is a red blood cell. Page Ref: 357 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 41) The suffix in fibrin means: A) formation. B) substance. C) cell. D) fiber. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -poiesis means formation. B) Correct. C) The suffix -cyte means cell. D) The root fibr means fiber. Page Ref: 357 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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42) A genetic disease in which iron accumulates in the body's tissue is called: A) Hodgkin's disease. B) leukemia. C) hemochromatosis. D) hemophilia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hodgkin's disease is a type of lymphoma. B) Leukemia is cancer of the blood. C) Correct. D) Hemophilia is a hereditary blood disorder. Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 43) Excessive calcium in the blood is termed: A) hypocalcemia. B) hypercapnia. C) hypercalcemia. D) hypocapnia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hypocalcemia is a below-normal amount of calcium in the blood. B) Hypercapnia is an above-normal amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. C) Correct. D) Hypocapnia is a below-normal amount of carbon dioxide in the blood. Page Ref: 359 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 44) Leukapheresis is a: A) disease of the blood. B) lack of white blood cells. C) white blood cell. D) separation of white blood cells from the blood. Answer: D Explanation: A) Leukemia is a disease of the blood. B) Leukopenia is a lack or deficiency of white blood cells. C) A leukocyte is a white blood cell. D) Correct. Page Ref: 360 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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45) A condition of many red blood cells is termed: A) erythropoiesis. B) pancytopenia. C) polycythemia. D) erythropoietin. Answer: C Explanation: A) Erythropoiesis is formation of red blood cells. B) Pancytopenia is a deficiency in the number of all blood cells. C) Correct. D) Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red cell production. Page Ref: 363 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 46) A hereditary anemia occurring in populations bordering the Mediterranean Sea and in Southeast Asia is called: A) pernicious anemia. B) thalassemia. C) iron-deficiency anemia. D) septicemia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pernicious anemia is not hereditary. B) Correct. C) Iron-deficiency anemia is caused by lack of iron in the diet. D) Septicemia is a blood infection. Page Ref: 365 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 47) A hematocrit test is done to determine the: A) amount of hemoglobin in the RBCs. B) presence of IgA. C) percentage of RBCs in total blood volume. D) number of erythrocytes present. Answer: C Explanation: A) This is a hemoglobin test. B) This is an immunoglobulin test. C) Correct. D) This is included in a complete blood count. Page Ref: 372 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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48) A test that determines the rate at which red blood cells settle in a long, narrow tube is a/an: A) ESR. B) PTT. C) PT. D) HCT. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) This is a partial thromboplastin time test on blood plasma. C) This is a prothrombin time test on blood plasma. D) Hct is a hematocrit, in which the percentage of RBCs in plasma is determined. Page Ref: 371 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 49) The reaction of the body to foreign substances and the means by which it protects the body is known as an: A) antigen. B) antibody. C) immune response. D) eosinophil. Answer: C Explanation: A) An antigen is the foreign substance. B) An antibody is formed to counteract an antigen. C) Correct. D) An eosinophil is a type of leukocyte that destroys parasitic organisms. Page Ref: 346 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 50) An abnormal accumulation of lymph in the interstitial spaces is: A) lymphangitis. B) lymphedema. C) lymphostasis. D) lymphadenitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Lymphangitis is inflammation of the lymph vessels. B) Correct. C) Lymphostasis is control or stopping of the flow of lymph. D) Lymphadenitis is inflammation of the lymph glands. Page Ref: 361 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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51) Erythropoietin is a hormone that: A) creates lymph fluid. B) regulates the production of white blood cells. C) stimulates the production of red blood cells. D) monitors the lymph nodes. Answer: C Explanation: A) Erythropoietin does not create lymph fluid. B) Erythropoietin does not regulate the production of white blood cells. C) Correct. Erythropoietin stimulates red cell production. D) Erythropoietin does not monitor the lymph nodes. Page Ref: 357 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 52) Immunoglobulin is a blood protein that can act as an: A) antibody. B) embolus. C) allergy. D) antigen. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) An embolus is a blood clot that is moving. C) An allergy is hypersensitivity to a substance that is usually harmless. D) An antigen is a foreign substance that stimulates the immune response. Page Ref: 360 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 53) There are a number of substances in lymph, but by far, the majority of lymph is: A) immunoglobulins. B) lymphocytes. C) water. D) fibrinogen. Answer: C Explanation: A) Water is 95% of lymph. B) Water is 95% of lymph. C) Correct. D) Water is 95% of lymph. Page Ref: 343 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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54) A blood test performed to identify antigen-antibody reactions is: A) sedimentation rate. B) hematocrit. C) immunoglobulins. D) antinuclear antibodies. Answer: D Explanation: A) A sedimentation rate tests the rate at which RBCs settle in a tube. B) Hematocrit tests the percentage of RBCs in a sample of blood. C) The immunoglobulins test determines the presence of specific immunoglobulins. D) Correct. Page Ref: 371 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 55) The blood test that includes a hematocrit, hemoglobin, red and white blood cell count, and differential is: A) blood typing. B) sedimentation rate. C) CBC. D) Hb, Hgb. Answer: C Explanation: A) Blood typing simply determines what blood type and Rh factor are present. B) Sedimentation rate determines the rate at which RBCs settle out of a sample of blood. C) Correct. D) Hb or Hgb tests the amount of hemoglobin in RBCs. Page Ref: 371 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 56) A blood test performed on whole blood to determine the percentage of RBCs in the total blood volume is: A) RBC. B) WBC. C) Hct. D) PTT. Answer: C Explanation: A) RBC is a red blood cell count. B) WBC is a white blood cell count. C) Correct. D) PTT is partial thromboplastin time, a test on plasma. Page Ref: 372 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 57) A blood test to determine the number of leukocytes present is called: A) RBC. 295 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) WBC. C) Hct. D) PTT. Answer: B Explanation: A) RBC is a red blood cell count. B) Correct. C) Hct is hematocrit. D) PTT is partial thromboplastin time. Page Ref: 372 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 58) A test for the amount of HIV in the blood is: A) viral load. B) platelet count. C) prothrombin time. D) PTT. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A platelet count determines the number of thrombocytes in the blood. C) The prothrombin time is done on plasma. D) The PTT test is performed on blood plasma. Page Ref: 372 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 59) A deficient amount of oxygen in the blood, cells, and tissues is known as: A) hypoxia. B) anemia. C) thalassemia. D) sideropenia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Anemia is a deficiency of hemoglobin or red blood cells. C) Thalassemia is a hereditary anemia found in the area of the Mediterranean Sea. D) Sideropenia is a lack of iron in the blood. Page Ref: 360 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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60) The process whereby fluids and/or IV medications escape into surrounding tissue is known as: A) hemochromatosis. B) lymphadenitis. C) extravasation. D) vasculitis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hemochromatosis is a genetic disease. B) Lymphadenitis is inflammation of the lymph glands. C) Correct. D) Vasculitis is inflammation of a blood vessel. Page Ref: 357 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 61) In the term autotransfusion, the prefix trans- means: A) apart. B) across. C) between. D) a span. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix trans- does not mean apart. B) Correct. The prefix trans- means across. C) The prefix trans- does not mean between. D) The prefix trans- does not mean a span. Page Ref: 356 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 62) Cell-mediated immunity involves: A) T lymphocytes. B) mucus. C) antibodies. D) B cells. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Mucus is a body secretion not involved in cell-mediated immunity. C) Antibodies are involved in passive and humoral immunity. D) B cells are involved in antibody-mediated immunity. Page Ref: 345 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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63) Which of the following happens in the first phase of the body's immune response? A) Helper T cells identify the enemy and rush to the spleen and lymph nodes. B) Natural killer T cells kill cells of the body that have been invaded. C) The immune system recognizes the foreign substance or invader. D) Phagocytes eat both antibody and invader. Answer: C Explanation: A) This happens in the second phase. B) This happens in the second phase. C) Correct. D) This happens in the third phase. Page Ref: 347 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 64) Which of the following classes of antibodies crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity for the fetus? A) IgM B) IgA C) IgE D) IgG Answer: D Explanation: A) IgM is the first antibody produced in response to infections. B) IgA protects epithelial surfaces. C) IgE responds to allergic reactions and parasitic infections. D) Correct. Page Ref: 347 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 65) Drugs used to control bleeding are called: A) anticoagulants. B) antianemic agents. C) hemostatic agents. D) EPOs. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anticoagulants inhibit blood clot formation. B) Antianemic agents treat iron deficiency. C) Correct. D) EPO stimulates the production of red blood cells. Page Ref: 370 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology
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66) Antianemic agents are also known as: A) heparin sodium. B) irons. C) vitamin K. D) epoetin alfa. Answer: B Explanation: A) Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant. B) Correct. C) Vitamin K is a hemostatic agent. D) Epoetin alfa is used to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Page Ref: 370 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 67) Cyanocobalamin is used to treat: A) iron-deficiency anemia. B) bleeding. C) excessive blood clot formation. D) vitamin B12 deficiency. Answer: D Explanation: A) Antianemic agents are used to treat iron-deficiency anemia. B) Hemostatic agents are used to control bleeding. C) Anticoagulants are used to treat excessive blood clot formation. D) Correct. Page Ref: 370 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology
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9.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) the destruction of RBCs B) the process of clumping together C) a blood protein capable of acting as an antibody D) a blood clot carried in the bloodstream E) the fluid part of the blood F) individual hypersensitivity to a substance 1) agglutination Page Ref: 353 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) allergy Page Ref: 353 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) embolus Page Ref: 356 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) immunoglobulin Page Ref: 360 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) plasma Page Ref: 340 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) hemolysis Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) B 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) E 6) A 300 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Match the following terms. A) a substance that inhibits blood clotting B) a hormone that stimulates the production of RBCs C) a condition in which pathogenic bacteria are present in the blood D) the control of bleeding E) a condition of deficient amounts of sugar in the blood F) a clear, colorless, alkaline fluid G) a blood cell H) surgical excision of a blood clot 7) septicemia Page Ref: 364 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) hemostasis Page Ref: 359 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) hypoglycemia Page Ref: 360 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) thrombectomy Page Ref: 365 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) corpuscle Page Ref: 356 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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12) heparin Page Ref: 359 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) lymph Page Ref: 343 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) erythropoietin Page Ref: 357 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 7) C 8) D 9) E 10) H 11) G 12) A 13) F 14) B
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) unequal B) eat, engulf C) clots D) blood E) red F) rose-colored G) little grain H) all I) one J) base K) clumping L) white 15) panPage Ref: 363 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) monoPage Ref: 362 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) agglutinat Page Ref: 353 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) anis/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) bas/o Page Ref: 339 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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20) coagul Page Ref: 356 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) eosin/o Page Ref: 339 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) erythr/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) granul/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) hemat/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) leuk/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) phag/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 15) H 16) I 17) K 18) A 19) J 20) C 21) F 22) E 23) G 24) D 25) L 26) B
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Match the word part with its meaning. A) lack of B) protein C) net D) clot E) attraction F) blood condition G) work H) removal I) iron J) bursting forth K) formation L) protection 27) reticul/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) sider/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) -penia Page Ref: 361 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) thromb/o Page Ref: 351 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) -emia Page Ref: 354 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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32) -ergy Page Ref: 353 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -globin Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -apheresis Page Ref: 360 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -phil Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -phylaxis Page Ref: 354 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -poiesis Page Ref: 357 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -rrhage Page Ref: 358 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 27) C 28) I 29) A 30) D 31) F 32) G 33) B 34) H 35) E 36) L 37) K 38) J
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9.3 True/False Questions 1) Antigens are invading foreign substances that induce the formation of antibodies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 346-347 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) Lymphocytes are the body's main defense against the invasion of antigens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lymphocytes are the main defense against pathogens. Page Ref: 337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) Mixing incompatible blood groups leads to agglutination. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 340 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The lymphatic system transports fluids lost by capillary seepage to the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 336 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The function of the thymus is to produce B cells and T cells. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The thymus produces T cells, but not B cells, which are produced by the bone marrow. Page Ref: 336 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) The spleen is the major site of erythrocyte destruction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 344 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The thymus is also considered to be one of the endocrine glands. Answer: TRUE 307 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 344 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) IgG is the first antibody produced in response to bacterial infections. Answer: FALSE Explanation: IgM is the first antibody produced in response to bacterial infections. Page Ref: 347 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) The antibody IgD is active in allergic reactions. Answer: FALSE Explanation: IgE is active in allergic reactions. Page Ref: 347 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) Formed elements constitute about 45% of the total volume of blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 336-337 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 10 Respiratory System 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are organs of the respiratory system except the: A) nose. B) pharynx. C) lungs. D) tongue. Answer: D Explanation: A) The respiratory system consists of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. B) The respiratory system consists of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. C) The respiratory system consists of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. D) Correct. Page Ref: 380 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 308 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
2) In the term tuberculosis, the root tubercul means: A) fiber. B) a little swelling. C) a cyst. D) flesh. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root for fiber is fibr/o. B) Correct. C) The root for sac is cyst. D) The root for flesh is sarc/o. Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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3) The central portion of the thoracic cavity, between the lungs, is a space called the: A) mediastinum. B) septum. C) diaphragm. D) bronchi. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The septum is a dividing wall, such as the nasal septum. C) The diaphragm is a muscle that lies transversely between the thoracic and abdominal cavities. D) The bronchi are the two main branches of the trachea, which provide the passageway for air to the lungs. Page Ref: 387 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The tiny air sacs of the lungs are the: A) cilia. B) pleura. C) alveoli. D) bronchi. Answer: C Explanation: A) The cilia are hairlike structures that line the trachea and nasal cavity. B) The pleura is the serous membrane that lines the walls of the thoracic cavity. C) Correct. D) The bronchi are major passageways for air between the trachea and the lungs. Page Ref: 386 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Breathing food, fluid, or other substances into the nose, throat, or lungs is known as: A) inspiration. B) aspiration. C) respiration. D) expiration. Answer: B Explanation: A) Inspiration is breathing in air. B) Correct. C) Respiration is the process of breathing in and out. D) Expiration is exhaling. Page Ref: 394 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) A disease of the bronchi characterized by wheezing, dyspnea, and a feeling of constriction in the chest is: A) asphyxia. 310 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) phonia. C) apnea. D) asthma. Answer: D Explanation: A) Asphyxia is an emergency condition in which there is a depletion of oxygen in the blood with an increase of carbon dioxide in the blood and tissues. B) The suffix -phonia means voice condition. C) Apnea is a temporary cessation of breathing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 395 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 7) In the term pneumoconiosis, the combining form coni means: A) dust. B) inflammation. C) pain. D) pus. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -itis means inflammation. C) The suffix -dynia means pain. D) The combining form py/o means pus. Page Ref: 405 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) A ________ is an instrument used to examine the bronchi. A) spirometer B) laryngoscope C) bronchoscope D) respirator Answer: C Explanation: A) A spirometer is an instrument used to measure lung volume during inspiration and expiration. B) A laryngoscope is an instrument used to visually examine the larynx. C) Correct. D) A respirator is a medical device used to assist in breathing. Page Ref: 397 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) The medical term for difficulty in breathing is: A) apnea. B) hypoxia. C) eupnea. 311 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) dyspnea. Answer: D Explanation: A) Apnea is lack of breathing. B) Hypoxia is a condition of deficient (low levels) of oxygen. C) Eupnea is normal breathing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 399 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) An inherited disease that affects the entire body but especially the pancreas, respiratory system, and sweat glands is: A) cystic fibrosis. B) croup. C) emphysema. D) bronchiectasis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Croup is an acute childhood respiratory disease. C) Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. D) Bronchiectasis is a chronic dilation of the bronchi. Page Ref: 399 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 11) A chronic pulmonary disease in which it is difficult to exhale air from the lungs is called: A) croup. B) emphysema. C) empyema. D) epistaxis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Croup is an acute childhood respiratory disease. B) Correct. C) Empyema is a collection of pus in the pleural cavity. D) Epistaxis is a nosebleed. Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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12) In the term rhonchus, the root rhonch means: A) wheeze. B) smell. C) cough. D) snore. Answer: D Explanation: A) A wheeze is a high-pitched whistling sound. B) The combining form olfact/o means smell. C) A cough is a sudden, forceful expulsion of air from the lungs. D) Correct. Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) In the term pyothorax, the combining form py/o means: A) pus. B) to spit. C) discharge. D) flow. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -ptysis means to spit. C) The suffix -rrhea means discharge. D) The suffix -rrhea means flow. Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) Surgical repair of the nose is called: A) rhinoscopy. B) rhinorrhea. C) rhinoplasty. D) rhinovirus. Answer: C Explanation: A) Rhinoscopy is a visual examination of the nasal passages. B) Rhinorrhea is discharge from the nose. C) Correct. D) Rhinovirus is a virus that causes the common cold. Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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15) A ________ is an instrument used to measure lung volume. A) laryngoscope B) respirator C) bronchoscope D) spirometer Answer: D Explanation: A) A laryngoscope is an instrument used to visually examine the larynx. B) A respirator is a medical device used to assist in breathing. C) A bronchoscope is an instrument used to visually examine the bronchi. D) Correct. Page Ref: 408 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 16) The medical term for rapid breathing is: A) eupnea. B) tachypnea. C) apnea. D) dyspnea. Answer: B Explanation: A) Eupnea is normal breathing. B) Correct. C) Apnea is a lack of breathing. D) Dyspnea is difficulty in breathing. Page Ref: 408 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 17) The surgical puncture of the chest wall for removal of fluid is: A) thoracopathy. B) thoracotomy. C) thoracoplasty. D) thoracocentesis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Thoracopathy is disease of the chest. B) Thoracotomy is an incision into the chest wall. C) Thoracoplasty is a surgical repair of the chest wall. D) Correct. Page Ref: 408 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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18) An acute, contagious respiratory infection caused by a virus is: A) tuberculosis. B) influenza. C) pertussis. D) epistaxis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by the tubercle bacillus, Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B) Correct. C) Pertussis is an acute, infectious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. D) Epistaxis is a nosebleed. Page Ref: 401 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 19) In the term eupnea, the prefix eu- means: A) lack of. B) difficult. C) imperfect. D) good or normal. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix a- means lack of. B) The prefix dys- means difficult. C) The combining form atel/o means imperfect. D) Correct. Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 20) Pus in a body cavity, especially the pleural cavity, is called: A) empyema. B) emphysema. C) epistaxis. D) rhonchus. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. C) Epistaxis is a nosebleed. D) A rhonchus is a rattling sound in the throat or chest. Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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21) The medical term for whooping cough is: A) pleurisy. B) pertussis. C) croup. D) rale. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pleurisy is an inflammation of the pleura. B) Correct. C) Croup is an acute respiratory disease. D) A rale is an abnormal chest sound. Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 22) What is the definition of vital capacity? A) The maximal volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration B) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration C) The volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inhalation D) The amount of air in a single inspiration and expiration Answer: C Explanation: A) Total lung capacity is the maximal volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration. B) Residual volume is the amount of air in the lungs after a maximal expiration. C) Correct. D) Tidal volume is the amount of air in a single inspiration and expiration. Page Ref: 390 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 23) The musculomembranous wall that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities is called the: A) mediastinum. B) septum. C) diaphragm. D) hilum. Answer: C Explanation: A) The mediastinum is the central portion of the thoracic cavity, between the lungs. B) A septum is a dividing wall, such as the nasal septum. C) Correct. D) The hilum is where the bronchi enter the lungs. Page Ref: 387 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 24) In the term anthracosis, the root anthrac means: 316 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) flesh. B) coal. C) dust. D) pus. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root sarc means cold. B) Correct. C) The root con means dust. D) The root py means pus. Page Ref: 394 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) In the term orthopnea, the combining form orth/o means: A) straight. B) difficult. C) flow. D) imperfect. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -pnea means difficult. C) The suffix -rrhea means flow. D) The combining form atel/o means imperfect. Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) Inflammation of the pleura caused by injury, infection, or a tumor is: A) pleurodynia. B) pleurisy. C) pneumonia. D) stridor. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pleurodynia is pain in the pleura. B) Correct. C) Pneumonia is inflammation of the lung caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or chemical irritants. D) Stridor is a high-pitched sound caused by partial airway obstruction. Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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27) Inflammation of the lung caused by bacteria, viruses, or chemical irritants is: A) croup. B) stridor. C) pertussis. D) pneumonia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Croup is an acute respiratory infection that normally occurs in children. B) Stridor is a high-pitched sound caused by partial airway obstruction. C) Pertussis is whooping cough. D) Correct. Page Ref: 405 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 28) What is the medical word for the process of smelling? A) Olfaction B) Inhalation C) Aspiration D) Hyperventilation Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Inhalation is the process of breathing in air. C) Aspiration is the process of drawing in food, fluid, or other substances. D) Hyperventilation is the process of excessive ventilating. Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 29) What is the substance coughed up from the lungs called? A) Wheeze B) Rhonchus C) Rale D) Sputum Answer: D Explanation: A) A wheeze is a high-pitched whistling sound. B) Rhonchus is a rattling sound in the throat or bronchial tubes. C) Rale is an abnormal sound heard on auscultation of the chest. D) Correct. Page Ref: 408 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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30) A test performed on sputum to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is: A) antistreptolysin O. B) acid-fast bacilli. C) pulmonary function. D) bronchoscopy. Answer: B Explanation: A) The antistreptolysin O test determines the presence of strep bacteria. B) Correct. C) Pulmonary function is a test of breathing volumes. D) Bronchoscopy is a visual exam of the bronchi using a flexible instrument. Page Ref: 415 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 31) The visual examination of the nasal passages is: A) bronchoscopy. B) laryngoscopy. C) rhinoscopy. D) culture. Answer: C Explanation: A) Bronchoscopy is a visual exam of the bronchi. B) Laryngoscopy is a visual exam of the larynx and vocal cords. C) Correct. D) A culture tests for the presence of pathogenic microorganisms. Page Ref: 417 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 32) ________ are important in determining respiratory acidosis and/or alkalosis as well as metabolic acidosis and/or alkalosis. A) Acid-fast bacilli B) Antistreptolysin O C) Arterial blood gases D) Pulmonary function tests Answer: C Explanation: A) Acid-fast bacilli is a test for tuberculosis. B) Antistreptolysin O is a test for the strep bacteria. C) Correct. D) Pulmonary function tests determine breathing capacity. Page Ref: 415 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 33) ________ is a series of tests performed to determine the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membrane in the lungs. A) Acid-fast bacilli 319 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Antistreptolysin O C) Arterial blood gases D) Pulmonary function Answer: D Explanation: A) Acid-fast bacilli is a test for tuberculosis. B) Antistreptolysin O is a test for the strep bacteria. C) Arterial blood gases measure the pH of the blood and levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide. D) Correct. Page Ref: 416 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 34) The visual examination of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi via a flexible scope is called: A) bronchoscopy. B) laryngoscopy. C) rhinopharyngography. D) rhinoscopy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Laryngoscopy is a visual exam of the larynx and vocal cords. C) Rhinopharyngography is a visual exam of the nose and throat. D) Rhinoscopy is a visual exam of only the nose. Page Ref: 416 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 35) A chronic granulomatous condition that may involve almost any organ system of the body is: A) Legionnaires disease. B) cystic fibrosis. C) sarcoidosis. D) respiratory distress syndrome. Answer: C Explanation: A) Legionnaires disease is a severe pulmonary pneumonia. B) Cystic fibrosis is an inherited condition of scarring and cyst formation. C) Correct. D) Respiratory distress syndrome is a breathing condition in a premature infant. Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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36) The ________ acts as a lid to prevent aspiration of food into the trachea. A) glottis B) epiglottis C) cricoid D) hilum Answer: B Explanation: A) The glottis is a narrow slit at the opening between the vocal cords. B) Correct. C) The cricoid is the lowermost cartilage of the larynx. D) The hilum is the depression where a bronchus enters a lung. Page Ref: 385 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) A temporary cessation of breathing is known as: A) apnea. B) dyspnea. C) atelectasis. D) cyanosis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Dyspnea is difficulty breathing. C) Atelectasis is a disease characterized by the collapse of part of or the entire lung. D) Cyanosis is an abnormal condition of the skin and mucous that can cause the skin to appear slightly bluish or grayish. Page Ref: 394 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 38) The inability to breathe unless in an upright position is:. A) apnea. B) eupnea. C) dyspnea. D) orthopnea. Answer: D Explanation: A) Apnea is a temporary cessation of breathing. B) Eupnea is normal breathing. C) Dyspnea is difficulty breathing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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39) The medical term for spitting up blood is: A) hemoptysis. B) pneumothorax. C) epistaxis. D) pertussis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Pneumothorax is a sucking chest wound. C) Epistaxis is a nosebleed. D) Pertussis is whooping cough. Page Ref: 401 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 40) What is the term for imperfect dilation of the lungs or the collapse of part of or the entire lung? A) Asthma B) Aspiration C) Atelectasis D) Asphyxia Answer: C Explanation: A) Asthma is a disease of the bronchi characterized by wheezing, dyspnea and feeling of constriction in the chest. B) Aspiration is the act of drawing in of food, liquid, or other substances. C) Correct. D) Asphyxia is depletion of oxygen in the blood. Page Ref: 397 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 41) The internal portion of the nose is divided by a partition called a/an: A) septum. B) anterior nares. C) nostril. D) inferior conchae. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The anterior nares are the external opening of the nose. C) The nostril is the nasal opening. D) The inferior concha is one of three air passages in the nasal cavities. Page Ref: 381 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 42) The maxillary and palatine bones separate the ________ from the ________. A) soft palate; hard palate 322 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) nose; face C) nasal cavity; mouth cavity D) left nostril; right nostril Answer: C Explanation: A) The soft palate is a posterior extension of the hard palate. B) There is no separation of the nose from the face. C) Correct. D) The septum divides the nostrils. Page Ref: 382 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) The oropharynx is located: A) behind the mouth. B) behind the nose. C) behind the larynx. D) between the vocal folds. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The nasopharynx is located behind the nose. C) The laryngopharynx is located behind the larynx. D) The glottis is a narrow slit at the opening between the vocal folds. Page Ref: 383 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) The larynx is composed of ________ cartilages. A) seven B) eight C) nine D) ten Answer: C Explanation: A) There are nine cartilages in the larynx. B) There are nine cartilages in the larynx. C) Correct. D) There are nine cartilages in the larynx. Page Ref: 384 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) What structure is commonly referred to as the Adam's apple? A) Vocal cords B) Cricoid cartilage C) Thyroid cartilage D) Septum Answer: C Explanation: A) The vocal cords are within the larynx. B) The cricoid cartilage is the lowermost cartilage of the larynx. C) Correct. D) The septum is in the nose. Page Ref: 385 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) A narrow slit at the opening between the true vocal folds is the: A) epiglottis. B) glottis. C) ventricular fold. D) entrance to the glottis. Answer: B Explanation: A) The epiglottis is the cover, or lid, that folds over the larynx when swallowing. B) Correct. C) The ventricular folds (false vocal cords) are found in the cavity of the larynx. D) The entrance to the glottis is one of three regions in the larynx cavity. Page Ref: 384 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 47) The two main branches of the trachea are the: A) bronchioles. B) alveoli. C) cilia. D) bronchi. Answer: D Explanation: A) The bronchioles are small branches of the bronchi. B) The alveoli are the air sacs in the lungs. C) Cilia are hairlike structures in the trachea and bronchi. D) Correct. Page Ref: 386 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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48) What is an incision into the trachea called? A) Tracheostomy B) Tracheotomy C) Laryngectomy D) Laryngotomy Answer: B Explanation: A) A tracheostomy is a new opening into the trachea. B) Correct. C) A laryngectomy is surgical removal of the larynx. D) A laryngotomy is an incision into the larynx. Page Ref: 409 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 49) A thirteen-year-old's respiration rate is about ________ breaths per minute. A) 20-30 B) 30-60 C) 12-20 D) 16-20 Answer: C Explanation: A) A respiration rate of 20-30 breaths per minute is that of a toddler. B) A respiration rate of 30-60 breaths per minute is that of a newborn C) Correct. D) A respiration rate of 16-20 breaths per minute is that of an adult. Page Ref: 389 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 50) Which suffix means condition? A) -us B) -osis C) -ion D) -itis Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -us means pertaining to. B) Correct. C) The suffix -ion means process. D) The suffix -itis means inflammation. Page Ref: 394 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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51) Which root means dark blue? A) Cyan B) Melan C) Leuk D) Erythr Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root melan means black. C) The root leuk means white. D) The root erythr means red. Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 52) The root in the term dysphonia means: A) voice. B) diaphragm. C) breathing. D) difficult. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The diaphragm is the musculomembranous wall that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. C) The root respirat means breathing. D) The prefix dys- means difficult. Page Ref: 399 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 53) An acute respiratory infection characterized by a peculiar barking cough is: A) pneumonia. B) pertussis. C) croup. D) influenza. Answer: C Explanation: A) Pneumonia is an inflammation of the lung with symptoms that include coughing. B) Pertussis is characterized by a "whooping" sound. C) Correct. D) Influenza, an acute, contagious respiratory infection with symptoms that include coughing. Page Ref: 398 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 54) An instrument used to examine the larynx is called a: A) laryngoscopy. 326 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) laryngeal. C) laryngoscope. D) laryngitis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Laryngoscopy is the procedure of doing a visual exam of the larynx. B) Laryngeal means pertaining to the larynx. C) Correct. D) Laryngitis is inflammation of the larynx. Page Ref: 402 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 55) The suffix in nasopharyngitis means: A) pertaining to. B) condition of. C) enlargement. D) inflammation. Answer: D Explanation: A) There are numerous suffixes which mean pertaining to, such as -us, -al, -eal, and -ic. B) Suffixes that mean condition are -osis and -ia. C) The suffix -megaly means enlargement. D) Correct. Page Ref: 403 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 56) A collection of air between the chest wall and lungs that causes the lungs to collapse is known as: A) pneumonitis. B) pneumothorax. C) pneumonia. D) pneumoconiosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pneumonitis is inflammation of the lung. B) Correct. C) Pneumonia is a lung infection. D) Pneumoconiosis is an abnormal condition of the lung caused by the inhalation of dust particles. Page Ref: 406 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 57) A discharge from the nose is called: A) rhinoplasty. B) rhonchus. 327 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) rhinovirus. D) rhinorrhea. Answer: D Explanation: A) Rhinoplasty is surgical repair of the nose, a nose job. B) A rhonchus is a rattling sound in the throat or bronchial tubes. C) A rhinovirus is one of a subgroup of viruses that causes the common cold. D) Correct. Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 58) The suffix in the term thoracoplasty means surgical: A) repair. B) incision. C) puncture. D) excision. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -tomy means surgical incision. C) The suffix -centesis means surgical puncture. D) The suffix -ectomy means surgical excision. Page Ref: 409 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 59) The combining form in tracheotomy means: A) windpipe. B) voice box. C) throat. D) nose. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The combining form laryng/o means larynx or voice box. C) The combining form pharyng/o means pharynx or throat. D) The combining form nas/o means nose. Page Ref: 409 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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60) A whistling sound caused by obstruction of the air passageway associated with asthma is termed: A) Cheyne-Stokes. B) rale. C) stridor. D) wheeze. Answer: D Explanation: A) Cheyne-Stokes is a pattern of a gradual increase in respiration followed by apnea. B) A rale is a crackling or rattling chest sound. C) A stridor is a high-pitched sound. D) Correct. Page Ref: 410 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 61) Benadryl is considered a/an: A) antihistamine. B) decongestant. C) antitussive. D) expectorant. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Benadryl is an antihistamine. C) Benadryl is an antihistamine. D) Benadryl is an antihistamine. Page Ref: 414 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 62) What do bronchodilators do? A) Promote the removal of mucus B) Break chemical bonds in mucus C) Improve pulmonary airflow D) Depress the cough center Answer: C Explanation: A) Expectorants promote the removal of mucus. B) Mucolytics break chemical bonds in mucus. C) Correct. D) Antitussives depress the cough center. Page Ref: 415 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 63) Which term is spelled correctly? A) Hemoptosis 329 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Rall C) Rhinorhea D) Heimlich Answer: D Explanation: A) The correct spelling is hemoptysis. B) The correct spelling is rale. C) The correct spelling is rhinorrhea. D) Correct. Page Ref: 401 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 64) A term used to describe an infectious disease caused by a bacillus that can be diagnosed with a positive sputum culture and a chest x-ray is: A) pneumoconiosis. B) tuberculosis. C) asthma. D) apnea. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease caused by breathing dust. B) Correct. C) Asthma is a disease of the bronchi characterized by a feeling on constriction in the chest. D) Apnea is temporary cessation of breathing. Page Ref: 410 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 65) A rhythmic cycling of breathing with an increase in respirations followed by apnea is: A) asthma. B) Cheyne-Stokes respiration. C) emphysema. D) cystic fibrosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Asthma is a disease of the bronchi characterized by a feeling on constriction in the chest. B) Correct. C) Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. D) Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease with scarring and cyst formation. Page Ref: 398 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. 330 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) the process of breathing air into the lungs B) abnormal deep or rapid breathing C) chronic dilation of the bronchi D) mucous membranes appear bluish or grayish E) low level of oxygen in body tissues F) good or normal breathing G) disease caused by inhalation of coal dust 1) anthracosis Page Ref: 405 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) hypoxia Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) bronchiectasis Page Ref: 397 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) cyanosis Page Ref: 398 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) eupnea Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) hyperpnea Page Ref: 401 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) inhalation Page Ref: 401 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 331 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answers: 1) G 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) F 6) B 7) A
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Match the following terms. A) surgical excision of the lobe of any organ or gland B) a rhythmic cycle of breathing with an increase in respiration followed by apnea C) nosebleed D) discharge from the nose E) surgical repair of the nose F) inflammation of the throat G) incision into the chest wall H) inflammation of the voice box 8) laryngitis Page Ref: 402 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) pharyngitis Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) rhinoplasty Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) rhinorrhea Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) thoracotomy Page Ref: 409 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) lobectomy Page Ref: 403 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) Cheyne-Stokes respiration Page Ref: 398 333 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) epistaxis Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 8) H 9) F 10) E 11) D 12) G 13) A 14) B 15) C
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) lack of B) imperfect C) oxygen D) nose E) throat F) a little swelling G) voice box H) good, normal I) straight J) small, hollow air sac K) bronchus L) dark blue 16) euPage Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) aPage Ref: 394 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) alveol Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) atel Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) bronch/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) laryng/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) cyan/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) nas/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) orth/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) tubercul Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) ox Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) pharyng Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) H 17) A 18) J 19) B 20) K 21) G 22) L 23) D 24) I 25) F 26) C 27) E
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) dripping B) pulse C) air, lung D) nose E) dilation, expansion F) pus G) breathing H) surgical puncture I) voice J) trachea K) chest L) to spit 28) rhin/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) phon Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) pneum/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) sphyx Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) py/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) thorac/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) trache/o Page Ref: 393 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -ectasis Page Ref: 397 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -centesis Page Ref: 408 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -staxis Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -pnea Page Ref: 394 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) -ptysis Page Ref: 401 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 28) D 29) I 30) C 31) B 32) F 33) K 34) J 35) E 36) H 37) A 38) G 39) L
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10.3 True/False Questions 1) The cricoid cartilage is the largest cartilage in the larynx. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The thyroid cartilage is the largest cartilage in the larynx. Page Ref: 385 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the mediastinum. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 387 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration is termed residual volume. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 390 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) Respiratory rate is higher in adults than in toddlers. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The respiratory rate is higher in toddlers. Page Ref: 389 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The term eupnea means difficulty breathing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term eupnea means good or normal breathing. Page Ref: 400 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) Abnormally deep or rapid breathing is also known as hyperpnea. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 401 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) Pneumoconiosis is a malignant tumor of the serous membrane of the pleura. 339 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: FALSE Explanation: Mesothelioma is a malignant tumor of the serous membrane of the pleura. Page Ref: 403 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 8) Olfaction is the process of smelling. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) Orthopnea is a term used to describe difficulty breathing while sitting upright. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Orthopnea is the inability to breathe unless in an upright or straight position. Page Ref: 404 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) A crackling or rattling sound heard in the chest is also known as rale. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 407 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 11 Urinary System 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ transport(s) urine from the kidney to the bladder. A) kidneys B) nephron C) ureters D) urethra Answer: C Explanation: A) The kidneys produce the urine. B) The nephron performs the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine. C) Correct. D) The urethra is the passageway of urine from the bladder to the outside. Page Ref: 425 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 340 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
2) The inner portion of the kidney is called the: A) cortex. B) glomerulus. C) Bowman's capsule. D) medulla. Answer: D Explanation: A) The cortex is the outer portion of the kidney. B) The glomerulus is the part of the kidney that filters blood. C) The Bowman's capsule is part of the nephron. D) Correct. Page Ref: 427 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) A small, triangular area near the base of the bladder is the: A) trigone. B) meatus. C) pelvis. D) hilum. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The meatus is the external urinary opening. C) The pelvis of the kidney is a saclike collecting area where urine gathers. D) The hilum is where the renal artery and vein, nerves, and lymphatic vessels enter and leave the kidney. Page Ref: 430 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) In the term stricture, the root strict means: A) to draw or bind. B) hardening. C) sifted out. D) scanty. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The combining form scler/o means hardening. C) The root excretor means sifted out. D) The prefix olig- means scanty. Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) Which of the following is an abnormal constituent of urine? A) pH of 6 B) Protein negative C) Blood negative D) Glucose positive Answer: D Explanation: A) Urine should have a pH reaction between 4.6 and 8.0, with an average of 6. B) Urine should negative for protein. C) Urine should be negative for blood. D) Correct. Page Ref: 433 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) Urine is secreted and travels through the following organs in which order? A) Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureters B) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra C) Kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra D) Kidneys, bladder, urethra, ureters Answer: B Explanation: A) The correct anatomical order is kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra. B) Correct. C) The correct anatomical order is kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra. D) The correct anatomical order is kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra. Page Ref: 425, 429-430 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The precipitate that settles at the bottom of a liquid is called: A) urochrome. B) urea. C) uric acid. D) sediment. Answer: D Explanation: A) Urochrome is the pigment that gives urine its color. B) Urea is the chief waste product in the urine. C) Uric acid is a waste product in the urine. D) Correct. Page Ref: 449 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) A medication that increases urine production by reducing the amount of fluid retained in the body is called a/an: A) antidiuretic. B) diuretic. C) antibacterial. D) antiseptic. Answer: B Explanation: A) An antidiuretic is a medication that decreases urine production and secretion. B) Correct. C) Antibacterials are the drugs of choice for treating acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infections. D) An antiseptic may inhibit the growth of microorganisms by bactericidal, bacteriostatic, antiinfective, and/or antibacterial action. Page Ref: 454 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 9) In the term lithotripsy, the suffix -tripsy means: 343 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) stone. B) calculus. C) excision. D) crushing. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root for stone is lith. B) A calculus is a stone. C) The suffix for excision is -ectomy. D) Correct. Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) Difficult or painful urination is called: A) anuria. B) dysuria. C) enuresis. D) nocturia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Anuria is the formation of urine. B) Correct. C) Enuresis is bedwetting. D) Nocturia is urination during the night. Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) A chronically irritable and painful inflammation of the bladder wall is known as: A) renal colic. B) nephritis. C) cystitis. D) interstitial cystitis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Renal colic is sharp, severe pain in the lower back caused by an obstructing stone. B) Nephritis is inflammation of the kidney. C) Cystitis is a simple inflammation of the bladder. D) Correct. Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases 12) What is excessive urination during the night called? A) Nocturia B) Oliguria C) Polyuria 344 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) Pyuria Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Oliguria is a scanty, decreased amount of urine. C) Polyuria is frequent urination. D) Pyuria is urine with pus or white blood cells in it. Page Ref: 445 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) Inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis is: A) glomerulonephritis. B) pyelonephritis. C) nephritis. D) pyelitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the kidney involving primarily the glomeruli. B) Correct. C) Nephritis is a simple inflammation of the kidney. D) Pyelitis is an inflammation of the renal pelvis. Page Ref: 448 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 14) Pus in the urine is called: A) pyuria. B) uremia. C) hematuria. D) proteinuria. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Uremia is an excess of waste products in the blood. C) Hematuria is the presence of red blood cells in the urine. D) Proteinuria is protein in the urine. Page Ref: 448 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) An abnormal condition in which the body tissues contain an accumulation of fluid is known as: A) diuresis. B) hydronephrosis. C) stricture. D) edema. Answer: D 345 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) Diuresis is the increased or excessive flow of urine. B) Hydronephrosis is a condition in which urine collects in the renal pelvis because of an obstructed outflow. C) Stricture is a closing or narrowing of a passageway. D) Correct. Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 16) The external opening of the urethra is the: A) medulla. B) meatus. C) cortex. D) trigone. Answer: B Explanation: A) The medulla is the inner layer of the kidney. B) Correct. C) The cortex is the outer layer of the kidney. D) The trigone is a small triangular area at the base of the bladder. Page Ref: 430 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 17) Tofranil is a drug that is used to treat: A) edema. B) frequency of urination. C) a urinary tract infection. D) nocturnal enuresis in children. Answer: D Explanation: A) Edema is a swelling. B) Polyuria is frequent urination. C) Sulfonamides are generally the drugs of choice for treating acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infections. D) Correct. Page Ref: 455 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 18) The abbreviation for specific gravity is: A) sp. gr. B) spec. grav. C) SG. D) sg. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The abbreviation for specific gravity is not spec. grav. 346 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) The abbreviation for specific gravity is not SG. D) The abbreviation for specific gravity is not sg. Page Ref: 457 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Abbreviations and Acronyms 19) The basic structural and functional unit of the kidney that removes waste products from the blood is the: A) trigone. B) nephron. C) meatus. D) capsule. Answer: B Explanation: A) The trigone is a triangular area at the base of the bladder. B) Correct. C) The meatus is the external opening of the urethra. D) The kidney is surrounded by three capsules. Page Ref: 427-428 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 20) All of the following terms refer to the process of emptying the bladder except: A) elimination. B) urochrome. C) void. D) urination. Answer: B Explanation: A) Elimination is the process of excreting waste products from the body, including emptying the bladder. B) Correct. C) Voiding the bladder is the process of urination. D) Urination is the process of emptying the bladder. Page Ref: 450 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 21) The normal color of urine is: A) red. B) orange. C) yellow to amber. D) greenish-yellow. Answer: C Explanation: A) Yellow to amber is the normal color of urine. B) Yellow to amber is the normal color of urine. C) Correct. D) Yellow to amber is the normal color of urine. 347 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 431 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 22) Under chemical examination, the presence of ________ in the urine is an important sign of renal disease and pyelonephritis. A) glucose B) protein C) bilirubin D) ketones Answer: B Explanation: A) Glucose in the urine could indicate diabetes. B) Correct. C) Bilirubin in the urine could indicate liver damage or disease. D) Ketones in the urine could indicate uncontrolled diabetes or starvation. Page Ref: 433 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases 23) In the term oliguria, the prefix olig- means: A) against. B) excessive. C) water. D) scanty. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix anti- means against. B) The prefix hyper- indicates excessive. C) The prefix hydro- indicates water. D) Correct. Page Ref: 446 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 24) The term excretory means: A) making a new opening. B) pertaining to elimination of waste products. C) crushing a kidney stone. D) there is pus in the urine. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -stomy means new opening. B) Correct. C) Lithotripsy is the crushing of a kidney stone. D) Pyuria is the term for pus in the urine. Page Ref: 440 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 348 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Medical Words 25) In the term hemodialysis, the prefix dia- means: A) separate. B) beyond. C) around. D) through. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -lysis means separation. B) The prefix ultra- means beyond. C) The prefixes peri- and circum- mean around. D) Correct. Page Ref: 442 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) The crushing of a kidney stone is called: A) lithotripsy. B) nephrolithiasis. C) cystolith. D) renal colic. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Nephrolithiasis is a kidney stone. C) A cystolith is a bladder stone. D) Renal colic is the pain caused by a stone. Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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27) What structure in men carries both urine and semen? A) Ureter B) Tubule C) Urethra D) Trigone Answer: C Explanation: A) The ureters transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder. B) The urethra carries both urine and semen. C) Correct. D) The trigone is a triangular area near the base of the bladder. Page Ref: 425 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 28) An average daily urinary output is approximately: A) 1200−1600 mL. B) 1000−1500 mL. C) 800−1200 mL. D) 1400−1800 mL. Answer: B Explanation: A) The average daily urinary output is between 1000 and 1500 mL. B) Correct. C) The average daily urinary output is between 1000 and 1500 mL. D) The average daily urinary output is between 1000 and 1500 mL. Page Ref: 431 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 29) Urine that has glucose in a sample may indicate: A) a calculus. B) pyelonephritis. C) dehydration. D) diabetes mellitus. Answer: D Explanation: A) A calculus may cause blood and/or bacteria in the urine. B) Pyelonephritis is usually caused by bacteria in the urine. C) Dehydration may be indicated by a higher than normal acidity. D) Correct. Page Ref: 433 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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30) The normal specific gravity of urine is: A) 1.000−1.020. B) 1.002−1.020. C) 1.003−1.030. D) 1.020−1.040. Answer: C Explanation: A) The normal specific gravity of urine is between 1.003 and 1.030. B) The normal specific gravity of urine is between 1.003 and 1.030. C) Correct. D) The normal specific gravity of urine is between 1.003 and 1.030. Page Ref: 433 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 31) Which medication is potassium sparing? A) Aldactone B) Lasix C) Ditropan XL D) Diamox Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Lasix inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle. C) Ditropan XL relaxes bladder muscles. D) Diamox increases the excretion of bicarbonate ion. Page Ref: 454 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pharmacology 32) Which medication helps control involuntary contractions of the bladder muscle? A) Detrol B) Tofranil C) Bactrim D) Urecholine Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Tofranil is used to treat bedwetting. C) Bactrim is an antibacterial. D) Urecholine helps to improve urinary bladder functions. Page Ref: 455 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pharmacology
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33) Which medication can be used in the treatment of urinary tract infections? A) Diuril B) Septra C) Lasix D) Diamox Answer: B Explanation: A) Diuril is a thiazide diuretic. B) Correct. C) Lasix is a loop diuretic. D) Diamox is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Page Ref: 454 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pharmacology 34) Which drugs are generally the drugs of choice for treating acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infections? A) Analgesics B) Bladder control drugs C) Sulfonamides D) Diuretics Answer: C Explanation: A) Analgesics relieve pain. B) Bladder control drugs relieve muscle contractions in the bladder. C) Correct. D) Diuretics increase the production and excretion of urine by reducing the amount of fluid retained in the body. Page Ref: 454 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Pharmacology 35) In the term dysuria, the prefix dys- means: A) without. B) difficult, painful. C) excessive. D) many. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix an- means without. B) Correct. C) The prefix hyper- means excessive. D) The prefix poly- means excessive. Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) A urine test performed to determine the glomerular filtration rate is: A) BUN. 352 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) serum creatinine. C) creatinine clearance. D) KUB. Answer: C Explanation: A) A BUN test is a blood test that determines the amount of waste, or urea, in the blood. B) A serum creatinine test is a blood test that shows the amount of creatinine, a waste, in the blood. C) Correct. D) KUB is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. Page Ref: 456 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 37) A urine test performed to determine the presence of microorganisms is: A) BUN. B) serum creatinine. C) urine culture. D) KUB. Answer: C Explanation: A) A BUN is a blood test. B) Serum creatinine is a blood test. C) Correct. D) KUB is an x-ray. Page Ref: 456 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 38) A test performed to visualize the kidneys, ureters, and bladder using an injected radiopaque substance is: A) cystoscopy. B) renal biopsy. C) KUB. D) intravenous pyelography. Answer: D Explanation: A) Cystoscopy is a visual exam of the bladder and urethra. B) Renal biopsy is removal of tissue from the kidney. C) KUB is an x-ray using computed tomography. D) Correct. Page Ref: 456 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 39) The use of high-frequency sound waves to visualize the kidneys is: A) retrograde pyelography. B) intravenous pyelography. 353 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) ultrasonography. D) cystoscopy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Retrograde pyelography is an x-ray taken after introduction of a contrast medium backward through a urinary catheter. B) Intravenous pyelography injects a radiopaque substance for x-rays. C) Correct. D) Cystoscopy uses an instrument for a visual exam of the bladder and urethra. Page Ref: 457 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 40) An x-ray of the abdomen to indicate the size and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder that sends information to a computer for interpretation and display on a monitor is called: A) cystoscopy. B) KUB. C) BUN. D) retrograde pyelography. Answer: B Explanation: A) Cystoscopy uses a lighted instrument for a visual exam of the bladder and urethra. B) Correct. C) A BUN is a blood test. D) Retrograde pyelography is an x-ray taken after introduction of a contrast medium backward through a urinary catheter. Page Ref: 455 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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41) The kidney is surrounded by the: A) ureters. B) renal pelvis. C) renal capsule. D) glomerulus. Answer: C Explanation: A) The ureters are narrow, muscular tubes that drain urine from the kidneys to the bladder. B) The ureter enters the kidney through the hilum into a saclike collecting area called the renal pelvis. C) Correct. D) The glomerulus is a network of blood vessels surrounded by the Bowman capsule. Page Ref: 428 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 42) The ureters arise from the renal pelvis located within the: A) calyces. B) renal pyramid. C) hilum. D) medulla. Answer: C Explanation: A) The calyces are dilated areas within the kidney where urine gathers. B) The renal pyramid is where the nephrons are located. C) Correct. D) The medulla is the inner portion of the kidney. Page Ref: 427 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) The medulla contains: A) renal pyramids. B) arteries. C) glomerular capsules. D) veins. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The cortex is composed of arteries, veins, convoluted tubules, and glomerular capsules. C) The cortex is composed of arteries, veins, convoluted tubules, and glomerular capsules. D) The cortex is composed of arteries, veins, convoluted tubules, and glomerular capsules. Page Ref: 427 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) The kidneys: A) transport urine to the bladder. 355 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) produce urine and help regulate body fluids. C) are a reservoir for urine. D) convey urine to the outside of the body. Answer: B Explanation: A) The ureters transport urine to the bladder. B) Correct. C) The bladder is a reservoir for urine. D) The urethra conveys urine to the outside of the body. Page Ref: 425-427 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 45) The nephrons: A) collect urine. B) produce waste products. C) maintain normal fluid balance. D) work through a three-step process. Answer: C Explanation: A) The bladder serves as a reservoir to collect urine. B) The nephrons remove waste products. C) Correct. D) The nephrons work through a two-step process: the glomerulus filters blood, and the renal tubule returns needed substances to blood and removes wastes. Page Ref: 428 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) Approximately ________ mL of blood pass through the kidney per minute. A) 900−1000 B) 900−1200 C) 1000−1200 D) 1000−1300 Answer: C Explanation: A) About 1000−1200 ML of blood pass through the kidney per minute. B) About 1000−1200 ML of blood pass through the kidney per minute. C) Correct. D) About 1000−1200 ML of blood pass through the kidney per minute. Page Ref: 428 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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47) The urinary bladder is located in the ________ of the pelvic cavity. A) neck B) apex C) anterior portion D) fibrous layer Answer: C Explanation: A) The neck is the lower portion of the urinary bladder. B) The apex is the upper portion of the urinary bladder. C) Correct. D) The fibrous layer is part of the bladder wall. Page Ref: 430 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 48) Another name for a (kidney) stone is: A) enuresis. B) nephroma. C) calculus. D) renal colic. Answer: C Explanation: A) Enuresis is bedwetting in children. B) A nephroma is a tumor in the kidney. C) Correct. D) Renal colic is pain due to a stone in the urinary system. Page Ref: 444 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 49) A high acidity in urine can signify: A) starvation. B) hepatic disease. C) fever or dehydration. D) CHF. Answer: C Explanation: A) Urine that is positive for ketones may indicate starvation. B) A higher than normal specific gravity may indicate hepatic disease. C) Correct. D) Urine that is positive for bilirubin may indicate CHF. Page Ref: 433 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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50) A milky appearance of a urine sample can signify ________ in the urine. A) blood B) pus C) protein D) ketones Answer: B Explanation: A) Blood will make the urine orange or red. B) Correct. C) Proteins do not change the appearance of urine. D) Ketones do not change the appearance of urine. Page Ref: 433 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 51) The presence of serum protein in the urine is termed: A) urea. B) albuminuria. C) incontinence. D) bacteriuria. Answer: B Explanation: A) Urea is a waste product of urine. B) Correct. C) Incontinence is the inability to hold or control urination. D) Bacteriuria is bacteria in the urine. Page Ref: 437 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical Words 52) Hernia of the bladder that protrudes into the vagina is termed: A) cystectomy. B) cystocele. C) cystolith. D) cystogram. Answer: B Explanation: A) A cystectomy is surgical excision of the bladder or part of the bladder. B) Correct. C) Cystolith is a bladder stone. D) Cystogram is an x-ray record of the bladder. Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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53) A surgical excision of the bladder is: A) lithotripsy. B) cystoscope. C) cystectomy. D) nephrectomy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Lithotripsy is the crushing of a kidney stone. B) A cystoscope is an instrument for a visual exam of the bladder. C) Correct. D) Nephrectomy is surgical excision of the kidney. Page Ref: 438 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 54) The presence of sugar in the urine is called: A) pyuria. B) hematuria. C) glycosuria. D) hypercalciuria. Answer: C Explanation: A) Pyuria is pus in the urine. B) Hematuria is blood in the urine. C) Correct. D) Hypercalciuria is an excessive level of calcium in the blood. Page Ref: 441 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 55) The root in the term extracorporeal means: A) outside. B) condition. C) body. D) pertaining to. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix extra- means outside. B) There are many suffixes that mean condition, such as -esis, -osis, and -iasis. C) Correct. D) The suffix -eal means pertaining to. Page Ref: 440 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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56) The combining form glomerul/o in glomerulonephritis means: A) kidney. B) little ball. C) inflammation. D) renal pelvis. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root nephr means kidney. B) Correct. C) The suffix -itis means inflammation. D) The root pyel means renal pelvis. Page Ref: 441 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 57) A condition in which an obstructed outflow distends and damages the kidney is: A) hematuria. B) hypercalciuria. C) hydronephrosis. D) nephrolithiasis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hematuria is blood in the urine. B) Hypercalciuria is an above-normal amount of calcium in the urine. C) Correct. D) Nephrolithiasis is a kidney stone. Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 58) An excessive amount of calcium in the urine is termed: A) hypercalciuria. B) polyuria. C) hypoalbuminemia. D) calciuria. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Polyuria is an excessive secretion and discharge of urine. C) Hypoalbuminemia is a below-normal amount of protein in the urine. D) Calciuria is the presence of calcium in the blood. Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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59) Dieting, starvation, or diabetes can result in: A) anuria. B) dysuria. C) ketonuria. D) nocturia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anuria is lack of urine production. B) Dysuria is difficult urination. C) Correct. D) Nocturia is frequent urination at night. Page Ref: 443 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases 60) The process of urination is also known as: A) nephroma. B) voiding the bladder. C) anuria. D) oliguria. Answer: B Explanation: A) Nephroma is a tumor of the kidney. B) Correct. C) Anuria is lack of urine production. D) Oliguria is a scanty amount of urine. Page Ref: 450 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 61) The combining form nephr/o means: A) bladder. B) kidney. C) urine. D) body. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form for bladder is cyst/o. B) Correct. C) The combining forms for urine are ur/o and urinat/o. D) The combining form for body is corpor/o. Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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62) Inflammation of the bladder is termed: A) nephritis. B) cystitis. C) glomerulitis. D) glomerulonephritis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Nephritis is inflammation of the kidney. B) Correct. C) Glomerulitis is inflammation of the renal glomeruli. D) Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the renal kidney involving primarily the glomeruli. Page Ref: 438 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 63) All of the following are true of urinalysis except: A) The specimen must be refrigerated if the urinalysis cannot be performed within 3 hours. B) It is a laboratory test that evaluates the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine. C) It can detect abnormal conditions or diseases. D) A freshly voided urine sample provides the most accurate test results. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Urinalysis is a laboratory test that evaluates the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine. C) It can detect abnormal conditions or diseases. D) A freshly voided urine sample provides the most accurate test results. Page Ref: 432 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 64) The chief nitrogenous constituent of urine is: A) bilirubin. B) albumin. C) urea. D) glycosuria. Answer: C Explanation: A) Bilirubin is an abnormal constituent of urine. B) Albumin should not normally be in urine. C) Correct. D) Glycosuria is sugar in the urine. Page Ref: 428 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 65) Surgical repair of the ureter is termed: A) cystectomy. 362 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) ureteroplasty. C) urethroperineal. D) ureterostomy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Cystectomy is surgical excision of the bladder or part of the bladder. B) Correct. C) Urethroperineal means pertaining to the urethra and perineum. D) Ureterostomy is the surgical creation of a new opening into the ureter. Page Ref: 449 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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11.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) the presence of blood in the urine B) bedwetting C) a condition of increased flow of urine D) an x-ray record of the bladder E) without the formation of urine F) an opening or passage G) inability to hold urination 1) anuria Page Ref: 437 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) cystogram Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) diuresis Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) enuresis Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) hematuria Page Ref: 442 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) incontinence Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) meatus 364 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) E 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) G 7) F
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Match the following terms. A) a state of being free from living microorganisms B) the chief nitrogenous constituent of urine C) the pigment that gives urine its normal color D) a condition of excessive urea in the blood E) frequent urination F) crushing of a kidney stone G) the cessation of proper functioning of the kidney H) a bladder stone 8) polyuria Page Ref: 447 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) uremia Page Ref: 449 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) lithotripsy Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) renal failure Page Ref: 448 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) cystolith Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) sterile Page Ref: 449 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) urea Page Ref: 428 366 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) urochrome Page Ref: 450 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 8) E 9) D 10) F 11) G 12) H 13) A 14) B 15) C
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) ureter B) night C) renal pelvis D) stone E) water F) pus G) scanty H) bladder I) protein J) kidney K) passage L) sugar 16) hydroPage Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) oligPage Ref: 446 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) albumin Page Ref: 437 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) cyst/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) glycos Page Ref: 441 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) lith/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) meat/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) py/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) nephr/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) noct Page Ref: 445 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) pyel/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) ureter/o Page Ref: 436 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) E 17) G 18) I 19) H 20) L 21) D 22) K 23) F 24) J 25) B 26) C 27) A
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) surgical excision B) a record C) crushing D) hernia E) process F) one who specializes G) pertaining to H) incision I) little ball J) urine K) instrument for examining L) condition M) inflammation 28) glomerul Page Ref: 441 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) -tomy Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) -al Page Ref: 447 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) -osis Page Ref: 443 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) -ist Page Ref: 450 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) -ure Page Ref: 450 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -tripsy Page Ref: 440 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -uria Page Ref: 437 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -ectomy Page Ref: 438 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -itis Page Ref: 438 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -scope Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) -gram Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 40) -cele Page Ref: 439 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 28) I 29) H 30) G 31) L 32) F 33) E 34) C 35) J 36) A 37) M 38) K 39) B 40) D 371 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
11.3 True/False Questions 1) The center of the concave border of the kidney opens to a notch called the pelvis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The notch is called the hilum. Page Ref: 427 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The cortex is the inner portion of the kidney. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The medulla is the inner portion of the kidney; the cortex is the outer layer. Page Ref: 427 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The vital function of the nephron is to regulate, control, and then remove the waste products of metabolism from the blood plasma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 428 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The trigone is a small triangular area near the base of the bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 430 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The external urinary opening is the urethra. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The external urinary opening is the meatus. Page Ref: 430 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) One of the functions of the nephron is to reabsorb water and selected electrolytes back into the blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 428 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) Lasix is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lasix is a loop diuretic. Page Ref: 454 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 8) Ditropan XL relaxes the muscles in the bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 455 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 9) The ureter is a tube extending from the bladder to the outside of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The urethra goes from the bladder to the outside. Page Ref: 430 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) Urine is formed by the process of filtration and reabsorption in the nephron. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 428-429 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 12 Endocrine System 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The term ________ refers to a substance that promotes the development of male characteristics. A) gastrin B) glucagon 373 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) androgen D) dopamine Answer: C Explanation: A) Gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion in the stomach. B) Glucagon facilitates the breakdown of glycogen to glucose. C) Correct. D) Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that increases cardiac and urinary output. Page Ref: 475 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) Prolactin is secreted by the: A) posterior lobe of the pituitary. B) pineal gland. C) ovaries. D) anterior lobe of the pituitary. Answer: D Explanation: A) The pituitary gland's posterior lobe secretes antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. B) The pineal gland secretes melatonin and serotonin. C) The ovaries secrete estrogens and progesterone. D) Correct. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) The ________ gland plays a vital role in metabolism and regulates the body's metabolic processes. A) thyroid B) parathyroid C) pineal D) pituitary Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The parathyroid glands help to maintain calcium balance in the blood. C) The pineal gland regulates the body's internal clock. D) The pituitary gland regulates the thyroid and other glands. Page Ref: 470 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) Which substance is necessary for maintenance of a normal level of blood sugar? A) Cortisol B) Insulin C) Parathyroid hormone D) Serotonin Answer: B Explanation: A) Cortisol provides an anti-inflammatory effect. B) Correct. C) Parathyroid hormone helps regulate blood calcium. D) Serotonin is a neurotransmitter. Page Ref: 472 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The principal mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is: A) aldosterone. B) androgen. C) oxytocin. D) dopamine. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) An androgen is a male sex hormone. C) Oxytocin is a hormone that acts on the uterus. D) Dopamine dilates systemic arteries. Page Ref: 474 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) All of the following statements about epinephrine are true except: A) It elevates the systolic blood pressure. B) It decreases the heart rate and cardiac output. C) It dilates the bronchial tubes. D) It dilates the pupils. Answer: B Explanation: A) Epinephrine elevates systolic blood pressure. B) Correct. C) Epinephrine dilates the bronchial tubes and relaxes air passageways. D) Epinephrine dilates pupils. Page Ref: 475 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) A chronic disease characterized by enlargement of the bones of the face, jaw, and extremities is called: A) congenital hypothyroidism. B) dwarfism. C) acromegaly. D) hyperkalemia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Congenital hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by impaired neurological function, stunted growth, and physical deformities. B) Dwarfism is a condition characterized by being abnormally small. C) Correct. D) Hyperkalemia is a condition of excessive amounts of potassium in the blood. Page Ref: 482 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 8) A severe deficiency of thyroid hormone in newborns is called: A) diabetes mellitus. B) hirsutism. C) gigantism. D) congenital hypothyroidism. Answer: D Explanation: A) Diabetes mellitus results from defects in insulin production, insulin secretion, or both. B) Hirsutism is excessive growth of hair. C) Gigantism is growth that is abnormally large. D) Correct. Page Ref: 483 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 9) Which is an abnormal condition of excessive hair growth, especially in women? 376 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) Myxedema B) Thymitis C) Hirsutism D) Hypergonadism Answer: C Explanation: A) Myxedema is severe hypothyroidism in an adult. B) Thymitis is inflammation of the thymus gland. C) Correct. D) Hypergonadism is excessive secretion of the sex glands. Page Ref: 468 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) The medical term for pertaining to drowsiness or sluggishness is: A) polydipsia. B) myxedema. C) virilism. D) lethargic. Answer: D Explanation: A) Polydipsia is excessive thirst. B) Myxedema is severe hypothyroidism in an adult. C) Virilism is when secondary male characteristics are produced in a female. D) Correct. Page Ref: 491 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) The pituitary gland is also known as the: A) pineal. B) hypophysis. C) parathyroid. D) pituitarism. Answer: B Explanation: A) The pineal gland is a small gland near the posterior end of the corpus callosum. B) Correct. C) The parathyroid is a group of four glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. D) Pituitarism is a condition of the pituitary. Page Ref: 469 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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12) What is a condition of premature old age occurring in children called? A) Virilism B) Progesterone C) Progeria D) Vasopressin Answer: C Explanation: A) Virilism is an abnormal condition of secondary male characteristics in a female. B) Progesterone is a hormone secreted by the ovary. C) Correct. D) Vasopressin is a hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary. Page Ref: 493 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 13) The ________ is the primary link between the endocrine and nervous systems. A) pineal gland B) hypothalamus C) hypophysis D) pituitary gland Answer: B Explanation: A) The pineal gland is near the corpus callosum and secretes melatonin and serotonin. B) Correct. C) The hypophysis is the pituitary gland. D) The pituitary gland is controlled by nerve cells in the hypothalamus. Page Ref: 466 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 14) The surgical excision of the thyroid gland is called: A) thyrotoxicosis. B) thyroxine. C) thyroiditis. D) thyroidectomy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Thyrotoxicosis is a pathological condition caused by acute oversecretion of thyroid hormones. B) Thyroxine is one of the hormones produced by the thyroid. C) Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid. D) Correct. Page Ref: 494 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 15) In the term hypergonadism, the root gonad means: A) mucus. 378 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) seed. C) large. D) gland. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root myx means mucus. B) Correct. C) The suffix -megaly means large. D) The root aden means gland. Page Ref: 488 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) In the term hyperkalemia, the root kal means: A) cortex. B) kidney. C) potassium. D) sugar. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root cortic means cortex. B) The root nephr means kidney. C) Correct. D) The root gluc means sugar. Page Ref: 488 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) The ovaries normally produce all of the following except: A) adrenaline. B) estradiol. C) progesterone. D) estrone. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. The adrenal medulla, not the ovaries, normally produces adrenalin. B) The ovaries produce estradiol. C) The ovaries produce progesterone. D) The ovaries produce estrone. Page Ref: 475 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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18) Which substance produces an anti-inflammatory effect? A) Gastrin B) Cortisol C) Thyroxine D) Somatotropin Answer: B Explanation: A) Gastrin stimulates gastric acid secretion. B) Correct. C) Thyroxine maintains and regulates basic metabolic rate. D) Somatotropin stimulates growth. Page Ref: 468 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 19) In the term epinephrine, the prefix epi- means: A) out. B) beside. C) upon. D) before. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix exo- means out. B) The prefix para- means beside. C) Correct. D) The prefix pre- means before. Page Ref: 487 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) Hypersecretion of cortisol may result in: A) Cushing disease. B) Addison disease. C) Diabetes mellitus. D) Graves' disease. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Addison disease can result from hyposecretion of cortisol. C) Diabetes mellitus can result from low levels of insulin. D) Graves' disease can result from hypersecretion of the thyroid hormones. Page Ref: 484 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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21) A substance that elevates the blood pressure is: A) melatonin. B) iodine. C) dopamine. D) cortisone. Answer: C Explanation: A) Melatonin helps regulate the release of gonadotropin and influences the body's clock. B) Iodine aids in the development and functioning of the thyroid gland. C) Correct. D) Cortisone is used as an anti-inflammatory agent. Page Ref: 468 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 22) A deficiency in the secretion of adrenocortical hormones may result in: A) Cushing disease. B) Graves' disease. C) Diabetes mellitus. D) Addison disease. Answer: D Explanation: A) Cushing disease is caused by hypersecretion of adrenal hormones. B) Graves' disease results from hypersecretion of the thyroid hormones. C) Diabetes mellitus can be caused by hyposecretion of insulin by the pancreatic islets. D) Correct. Page Ref: 483 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 23) In the term estrogen, the combining form estr/o means: A) good. B) away from. C) shield. D) female. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix eu- means good. B) The prefix exo- means away from. C) The combining form thyr/o means shield or thyroid. D) Correct. Page Ref: 487 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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24) The suffix that means hormone is: A) -ine. B) -one. C) -ism. D) -gen. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ine means substance. B) Correct. C) The suffix -ism means condition. D) The suffix -gen means formation, produce. Page Ref: 484 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) A mineral that specifically aids in the development and functioning of the thyroid gland is: A) potassium. B) sodium. C) iodine. D) chlorine. Answer: C Explanation: A) Potassium excretion contributes to electrolyte and water balance. B) Sodium contributes to water balance. C) Correct. D) Chlorine contributes to electrolyte balance. Page Ref: 491 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 26) A hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets is called: A) glucagon. B) insulin. C) melatonin. D) calcitonin. Answer: B Explanation: A) Glucagon is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets. B) Correct. C) Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland. D) Calcitonin is produced by the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 472 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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27) A test performed on urine to determine the amount of epinephrine and norepinephrine present is: A) catecholamines. B) corticotropin. C) protein-bound iodine. D) total calcium. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The test for corticotropin uses blood. C) Protein-bound iodine is a test done on serum. D) Total calcium is a blood test. Page Ref: 499 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 28) Which of the following diagnostic tests may indicate diabetes mellitus? A) Thyroid scan B) Total calcium C) Fasting blood sugar D) Protein-bound iodine Answer: C Explanation: A) A thyroid scan may detect tumors of the thyroid gland. B) Total calcium results indicates the level of parathyroid function. C) Correct. D) Protein-bound iodine test results can indicate the level of thyroid function. Page Ref: 499 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 29) A test used to detect tumors of the thyroid gland is: A) thyroxine. B) total calcium. C) thyroid scan. D) protein-bound iodine. Answer: C Explanation: A) Thyroxine levels indicate the level of thyroid function. B) Total calcium results indicate the level of parathyroid function. C) Correct. D) Protein-bound iodine indicates the level of thyroid function. Page Ref: 500 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 30) A blood sugar test that is performed at specified intervals after the patient has taken glucose is: A) fasting blood sugar test. 383 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) glucose tolerance test. C) protein-bound iodine test. D) corticotropin test. Answer: B Explanation: A) Measures the amount of glucose in the blood after fasting. B) Correct. C) Measures the amount of iodine that is attached to serum protein. D) Measures the amount of corticotropin in blood plasma. Page Ref: 499 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 31) A test used in to diagnose adrenal tumors is called a: A) Hb A1C test. B) total calcium test. C) 17-KS test. D) thyroxin test. Answer: C Explanation: A) This test diagnoses diabetes. B) This test diagnoses abnormal levels of parathyroid function. C) Correct. D) This test diagnoses levels of thyroid function. Page Ref: 500 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 32) The posterior portion of the pituitary gland secretes a hormone that: A) regulates skin pigmentation. B) regulates release of gonadotropin. C) stimulates reabsorption of water by the renal tubules. D) plays a vital role in metabolism. Answer: C Explanation: A) The anterior pituitary secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone, which regulates skin pigmentation. B) The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which regulates the release of gonadotropin. C) Correct. D) The thyroid gland secretes hormones that play a vital role in metabolism. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 33) A hormone made by the thyroid gland: A) prepares the uterus for pregnancy. B) controls skin pigmentation. C) stimulates release of milk. D) influences bone and calcium metabolism. 384 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: D Explanation: A) The ovary makes progesterone, which prepares the uterus for pregnancy. B) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone made by the pituitary controls skin pigmentation. C) The pituitary makes prolactin, which stimulates the production of milk. D) Correct. Page Ref: 468 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 34) The endocrine gland that plays a vital role in carbohydrate metabolism is the: A) ovaries B) thymus. C) pancreas. D) testes. Answer: C Explanation: A) The ovaries secrete female sex hormones. B) The thymus is important in the immune response. C) Correct. D) The testes secrete male sex hormones. Page Ref: 472 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 35) The hypothalamus is the primary link between what system and the endocrine system to help maintain homeostasis? A) Muscular B) Integumentary C) Skeletal D) Nervous Answer: D Explanation: A) The hypothalamus is not the primary link between the endocrine and muscular systems. B) The hypothalamus is not the primary link between the endocrine and integumentary systems. C) The hypothalamus is not the primary link between the endocrine and skeletal systems. D) Correct. Page Ref: 466 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 36) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secretes: A) luteinizing hormone. B) antidiuretic hormone. C) thyrotropin-releasing hormone. D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. 385 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) The posterior pituitary secretes antidiuretic hormone. C) The hypothalamus secretes thyrotropin-releasing hormone. D) The hypothalamus secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) Melatonin is secreted by the: A) thyroid gland. B) parathyroid gland. C) pancreas. D) pineal gland. Answer: D Explanation: A) The thyroid gland secretes thyroxine, triiodothyronine, and calcitonin. B) The parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone. C) The pancreas secretes glucagon, insulin, and somatostatin. D) Correct. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 38) The parathyroid gland: A) influences the body's internal clock. B) acts on the mammary glands. C) helps maintain normal serum calcium levels. D) aids in the breakdown of glycogen. Answer: C Explanation: A) Melatonin from the pineal gland influences the body's internal clock. B) Prolactin from the pituitary acts on the mammary glands. C) Correct. D) Glucagon from the pancreas aids in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose. Page Ref: 465 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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39) The pituitary gland is located: A) in the center of the brain. B) away from the hypothalamus. C) at the base of the brain. D) in the lower central part of the brain. Answer: C Explanation: A) The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain. B) The pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum stalk. C) Correct. D) The hypothalamus is located in the lower central part of the brain. Page Ref: 469 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 40) The master gland of the body is the: A) pineal gland. B) pituitary gland. C) hypothalamus. D) gonads. Answer: B Explanation: A) The pineal gland does not directly regulate many other endocrine glands. B) Correct. C) The hypothalamus does not directly regulate many other endocrine glands. D) The gonads do not directly regulate many other endocrine glands. Page Ref: 469 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 41) The adenohypophysis is also known as the: A) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. B) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. C) parathyroid gland. D) pineal gland. Answer: B Explanation: A) The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is the neurohypophysis. B) Correct. C) The parathyroid glands are not the adenohypophysis. D) The pineal gland is not the adenohypophysis. Page Ref: 469 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) Overproduction of growth hormone in adults may result in: A) acromegaly. B) thyrotoxicosis. C) dwarfism. D) endemic goiter. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Thyrotoxicosis is caused by an acute oversecretion of thyroid hormones. C) Dwarfism is not necessarily caused by any specific disease or disorder; it can simply be a naturally occurring consequence of a person's genetic makeup. D) A deficiency of dietary iodine causes endemic goiter. Page Ref: 482 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 43) The adrenal cortex secretes: A) aldosterone. B) parathormone. C) estrone. D) enterogastrone. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Parathyroid glands secrete parathormone. C) The ovaries secrete estrone. D) The gastrointestinal mucosa secretes enterogastrone. Page Ref: 468 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) Antidiuretic hormone is also known as: A) vasopressin. B) epinephrine. C) cortisone. D) adrenocorticotropin hormone. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Epinephrine is also known as adrenaline. C) Cortisone is produced by the adrenal cortex. D) Adrenocorticotropin hormone is produced by the pituitary gland. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) The pineal gland secretes: A) melatonin and serotonin. B) serotonin and cortisol. C) oxytocin and melatonin. D) epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Serotonin is secreted by the pineal gland, but cortisol comes from the adrenal cortex. C) Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland, but oxytocin comes from the posterior pituitary. D) Both epinephrine and norepinephrine come from the adrenal medulla. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) The combining form somat/o in somatotropin means: A) turning. B) substance. C) body. D) solid. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root trop means turning. B) The suffix -in means substance. C) Correct. D) The root ster means solid. Page Ref: 493 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 47) The suffix in acromegaly means: A) pertaining to. B) enlargement. C) gland. D) extremity. Answer: B Explanation: A) Numerous suffixes such as -ic and -ar mean pertaining to. B) Correct. C) The root aden means gland. D) The combining form acr/o means extremity. Page Ref: 482 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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48) Any cancer of a gland is referred to as: A) acidosis. B) adenoma. C) androgen. D) adenectomy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Acidosis is a condition of excessive acidity of body fluids. B) Correct. C) Androgen is a hormone the produces male characteristics. D) Adenectomy means surgical excision of a gland. Page Ref: 483 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 49) The surgical excision of the adrenal gland is termed: A) adenectomy. B) adrenalectomy. C) adenoma. D) acromegaly. Answer: B Explanation: A) Adenectomy is removal of any gland. B) Correct. C) Adenoma is tumor of any gland. D) Acromegaly causes marked enlargement and elongation of the bones of the face, jaw, and extremities. Page Ref: 483 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 50) The function of oxytocin is: A) regulation of skin pigmentation. B) stimulation of uterine contractions. C) prevent dehydration. D) stimulation of development of the corpus luteum. Answer: B Explanation: A) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone regulates skin pigmentation. B) Correct. C) The hormone ADH prevents dehydration. D) Luteinizing hormone stimulates development of the corpus luteum. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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51) The root aden in adenoma means: A) pertaining to. B) gland. C) pine cone. D) giant. Answer: B Explanation: A) Numerous suffixes mean pertaining to such as -ic and -al. B) Correct. C) The root pine in pineal means pine cone. D) The root gigant in gigantism means giant. Page Ref: 483 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 52) A condition of excessive amounts of potassium in the blood is termed: A) hypercalcemia. B) hyperglycemia. C) hyperkalemia. D) hyperinsulinism. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hypercalcemia is above normal calcium in the blood. B) Hyperglycemia is above normal sugar in the blood. C) Correct. D) Hyperinsulinism is above normal insulin in the blood. Page Ref: 488 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 53) A condition of excessive secretion of the sex glands is: A) congenital hypothyroidism. B) virilism. C) hypogonadism. D) hypergonadism. Answer: D Explanation: A) Congenital hypothyroidism is impaired neurological function, stunted growth, and physical deformities caused by a deficiency in thyroid hormones. B) Virilism is secondary male characteristics in a female. C) Hypogonadism is a decreased secretion of the sex glands. D) Correct. Page Ref: 488 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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54) A complication of hypothyroidism can be: A) heart disease. B) Graves' disease. C) Addison disease. D) Cushing disease. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Graves' disease results from hyperthyroidism. C) Addison disease results from hyposecretion of cortisol. D) Cushing disease results from hypersecretion of cortisol. Page Ref: 490 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 55) The most severe form of hypothyroidism is: A) Cushing disease. B) Addison disease. C) myxedema. D) Graves' disease. Answer: C Explanation: A) Cushing disease is a disease of the adrenal cortex. B) Addison disease is a disease of the adrenal cortex. C) Correct. D) Graves' disease is a disease of the thyroid that causes hyperthyroidism. Page Ref: 492 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 56) ________ is a condition in which the fasting blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough for a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. A) Prediabetes B) Diabetes insipidus C) Hypoglycemia D) Hyperglycemia Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Diabetes insipidus can result from insufficient antidiuretic hormone and is characterized by normal levels of blood glucose. C) Hypoglycemia is a reduced amount of blood glucose. D) Hyperglycemia is an increased amount of blood glucose. Page Ref: 493 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 57) An oral hypoglycemic agent of the sulfonylurea class is: A) diazoxide. 392 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) liotrix. C) metformin. D) methimazole. Answer: C Explanation: A) Diazoxide is a hyperglycemic agent. B) Liotrix is a thyroid replacement hormone. C) Correct. D) Methimazole is an antithyroid hormone. Page Ref: 499 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology
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12.2 Matching Questions Match the following word part with its meaning. A) to secrete B) gland C) potassium D) beside E) small F) giant G) before H) hairy I) out, away from J) extremity 1) exPage Ref: 487 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 2) paraPage Ref: 489 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 3) proPage Ref: 493 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 4) acr/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 5) aden/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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6) crin/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 7) dwarf Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 8) gigant/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 9) hirsut/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 10) kal/i Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 1) I 2) D 3) G 4) J 5) B 6) A 7) E 8) F 9) H 10) C
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Match the word part with its meaning. A) growth B) hormone C) masculine D) condition E) thymus F) drowsiness G) thyroid, shield H) mucus I) to go J) formation, produce K) resemble L) pituitary gland 11) lethargic Page Ref: 491 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 12) myx/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 13) pituitar Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) thym/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 15) thyr/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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16) viril/o Page Ref: 481 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) -betes Page Ref: 484 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) -oid Page Ref: 487 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) -osis Page Ref: 495 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) -physis Page Ref: 490 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) -one Page Ref: 493 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) -gen Page Ref: 483 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 11) F 12) H 13) L 14) E 15) G 16) C 17) I 18) K 19) D 20) A 21) B 22) J
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12.3 True/False Questions 1) The thyroid regulates the body's metabolic processes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 465 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The pancreas regulates plasma calcium levels. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The thyroid and parathyroid hormones regulate plasma calcium levels. Page Ref: 465 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The adrenal cortex regulates electrolyte and water balance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 465 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) In the pituitary gland, the posterior lobe produces prolactin hormone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The anterior pituitary produces prolactin. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone regulates skin pigmentation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) The pineal gland produces oxytocin and serotonin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pineal gland produces melatonin and serotonin. Page Ref: 467 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) Cortisol is a principal steroid hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism. 398 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 468, 474 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) The pituitary is also known as the master gland of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 469 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) Graves' disease occurs because of hyposecretion of thyroid hormone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Graves' disease is the most common cause of hypersecretion of the thyroid hormone. Page Ref: 470 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 10) Hirsutism is an abnormal condition characterized by increased size of the extremities. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Acromegaly is characterized by increased size of the extremities. Page Ref: 482 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 13 Nervous System 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The brain and spinal cord constitute the ________ nervous system. A) peripheral B) central C) autonomic D) sympathetic Answer: B Explanation: A) The peripheral nervous system is the network of nerves outside of the central nervous system. B) Correct. C) The autonomic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system. D) The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system. Page Ref: 509 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 399 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) Nerve cells that transmit impulses to the CNS are called: A) sensory. B) motor. C) receptors. D) autonomic. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The motor nerves transmit impulses away from the neural cell body. C) Receptors initiate the nerve impulse. D) The autonomic system controls involuntary bodily functions. Page Ref: 511 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) Which of the following is NOT a membrane that encloses the brain? A) Dura mater B) Arachnoid C) Pia mater D) Oblongata Answer: D Explanation: A) The dura mater is the outer layer of the meninges. B) The arachnoid is the central layer of the meninges. C) The pia mater is the inner layer of the meninges. D) Correct. Page Ref: 513 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The brain's major motor area is located in the ________ lobe. A) parietal B) frontal C) temporal D) occipital Answer: B Explanation: A) The parietal lobe receives sensory input from the body. B) Correct. C) The temporal lobe receives sound and smell impulses. D) The occipital lobe is the primary interpretive processing area for vision. Page Ref: 515 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Which lobe contains centers for auditory and language input? A) Parietal B) Frontal C) Temporal D) Occipital Answer: C Explanation: A) The parietal lobe receives sensory input from the body. B) The frontal lobe is the major motor area. C) Correct. D) The occipital is the primary interpretive processing area for vision. Page Ref: 515 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? A) Acts as a regulator B) Directs bone growth C) Produces neurosecretions D) Produces hormones Answer: B Explanation: A) The hypothalamus is a principal regulator of autonomic nervous activity that is associated with behavior and emotional expression. B) Correct. C) The hypothalamus does produce neurosecretions for control of water balance, sugar and fat metabolism, and other metabolic activities. D) The hypothalamus does produce hormones that are important for the control of certain metabolic activities. Page Ref: 515, 517 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The medulla oblongata regulates and controls all of the following except: A) breathing. B) swallowing. C) vomiting. D) temperature. Answer: D Explanation: A) The medulla oblongata regulates and controls breathing. B) The medulla oblongata regulates and controls swallowing. C) The medulla oblongata regulates and controls vomiting. D) Correct. Page Ref: 515 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) A condition in which there is a loss of memory is called: A) ataxia. B) analgesia. C) amnesia. D) anesthesia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Ataxia is a lack of muscle movement coordination. B) Analgesia is lack of the sensation of pain. C) Correct. D) Anesthesia is administration of medication to lessen or remove pain. Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) The medical term for the loss of the ability to eat is: 402 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) aphasia. B) apraxia. C) asthenia. D) aphagia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Aphasia is lack of speech. B) Apraxia is lack of ability to use objects correctly. C) Asthenia is lack of strength. D) Correct. Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) Inflammation of the brain is known as: A) cephalalgia. B) concussion. C) ataxia. D) encephalitis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Cephalalgia is pain in the head or a headache. B) A concussion is a minor head injury with a transient loss of brain function. C) Ataxia is a lack of coordination of muscle movements. D) Correct. Page Ref: 533 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) The medical term for a headache is: A) chorea. B) cerebral palsy. C) cerebrospinal. D) cephalalgia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Chorea is a dyskinesia. B) Cerebral palsy is a disorder of movement caused by damage to the motor control centers around birth. C) Cerebrospinal means pertaining to the cerebrum and spinal cord. D) Correct. Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) The surgical incision into the skull is: A) craniectomy. B) craniotomy. C) diskectomy. 403 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) hemiplegia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Craniectomy is removal of part of the skull. B) Correct. C) Diskectomy is surgical excision of an intervertebral disk. D) Hemiplegia is paralysis is one-half of the body when it is divided along the median sagittal plane. Page Ref: 531 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 13) Difficulty in reading and writing words is called: A) dysphasia. B) akinesia. C) dementia. D) dyslexia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Dysphasia is difficulty speaking. B) Akinesia is loss of voluntary motion. C) Dementia is a group of symptoms marked by memory loss and loss of other cognitive functions. D) Correct. Page Ref: 532 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 14) Paralysis that affects one side of the body is called: A) apraxia. B) paraplegia. C) hemiplegia. D) quadriplegia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Apraxia is the inability to use objects appropriately. B) Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower part of the body. C) Correct. D) Quadriplegia is paralysis of the four limbs. Page Ref: 535 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 15) An artificially induced trance is known as: A) hypnosis. B) coma. C) stroke. D) somnambulism. Answer: A 404 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) Correct. B) A coma is an unconscious state from which the patient cannot be aroused. C) A stroke is death of brain tissue due to hemorrhage or a clot. D) Somnambulism is sleepwalking. Page Ref: 538 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 16) An outer sheath that envelops a nerve fiber is a: A) neuron. B) neuroblast. C) neurilemma. D) dendrite. Answer: C Explanation: A) A neuron is a nerve cell. B) A neuroblast is a germ (embryonic) nerve cell. C) Correct. D) A dendrite is part of the nerve cell that transmits impulses to the cell body. Page Ref: 512 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 17) The medical term for swelling of the optic disk is: A) pallidotomy. B) papilledema. C) paresis. D) paresthesia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Pallidotomy is surgical destruction of the globus pallidus of the brain. B) Correct. C) Paresis is weakness or slight paralysis. D) Paresthesia is abnormal numbness, prickling, or tingling. Page Ref: 543 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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18) All of the following statements are true of the nervous system except: A) The two divisions are the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). B) The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord. It is enclosed by the bones of the skull and spinal column. C) The nervous system has two principal tissue types: neurons and neuroplagia. D) The PNS consists of the network of nerves and neural tissues branching throughout the body from 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Answer: C Explanation: A) The two divisions are the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). B) The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord. It is enclosed by the bones of the skull and spinal column. C) Correct. The two principal tissue types of the nervous system are neurons and neuroglia, not neuroplagia. D) The PNS consists of the network of nerves and neural tissues branching throughout the body from 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Page Ref: 509 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 19) Temporary loss of brain function caused by a head injury is called: A) coma. B) concussion. C) chorea. D) dysphasia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Coma is an unconscious state from which the person cannot be aroused. B) Correct. C) Chorea is a disorder of involuntary movement. D) Dysphasia is impairment of speech. Page Ref: 530 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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20) The progressive degeneration of brain tissue and the most common form of dementia is called: A) glioma. B) epilepsy. C) Alzheimer disease. D) Guillain-Barré syndrome. Answer: C Explanation: A) Glioma is a tumor composed of neurological tissue. B) Epilepsy is a neurological disorder involving repeated seizures. C) Correct. D) Guillain-Barré syndrome is a condition in which the myelin sheaths covering peripheral nerves are destroyed. Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 21) A cerebrovascular accident may be called all of the following except: A) sundowning. B) stroke. C) CVA. D) brain attack. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A stroke, CVA, and brain attack all refer to a cerebrovascular accident. C) A stroke, CVA, and brain attack all refer to a cerebrovascular accident. D) A stroke, CVA, and brain attack all refer to a cerebrovascular accident. Page Ref: 545 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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22) A disease that is characterized by progressive degeneration of nerve cells that control movement is called: A) Parkinson disease. B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). C) cerebral palsy. D) Alzheimer disease. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) ALS is characterized by muscle weakness, atrophy, with spasticity caused by degeneration of motor neurons of the spinal cord. C) Cerebral palsy is a disorder of movement and posture caused by damage to the motor control centers of the developing brain. D) Alzheimer disease is a progressive degeneration of brain tissues that causes a slow decline in memory, thinking, and reasoning skills. Page Ref: 544 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 23) ________ are chemical substances that act as natural analgesics. A) Acetylcholines B) Neurotransmitters C) Endorphins D) Receptors Answer: C Explanation: A) Acetylcholines are neurotransmitters. B) Neurotransmitters carry an electrical impulse crossing a synapse. C) Correct. D) Receptors initiate a nerve impulse. Page Ref: 533 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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24) Rapid, jerky, involuntary muscular movements of the limbs or face indicate: A) dysphasia. B) chorea. C) narcolepsy. D) palsy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Dysphasia is difficulty speaking. B) Correct. C) Narcolepsy is uncontrollable drowsiness and sleep. D) Palsy is loss of sensation or motor function impairment. Page Ref: 530 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 25) Unilateral seizures can be characterized by: A) electrical disturbances that are localized to the source of the seizure. B) electrical discharge confined predominantly to one of the two hemispheres of the brain. C) widespread electrical discharge in both the right and left hemispheres of the brain. D) no brain disturbance. Answer: B Explanation: A) Partial seizures (focal seizures) are characterized by electrical disturbances localized to areas of the brain near the source or focal point of the seizure. B) Correct. C) Generalized seizures (bilateral, symmetrical) are characterized by widespread electrical discharge that involves both the right and left hemispheres of the brain. D) All seizures are episodes of disturbed brain function. Page Ref: 534 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 26) The ________ nerve provides sensory input for hearing and equilibrium. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) vestibulocochlear Answer: D Explanation: A) The optic nerve facilitates vision. B) The oculomotor nerve serves to move the eyeball. C) The trochlear nerve also helps to move the eyeball. D) Correct. Page Ref: 521 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 27) The ________ cranial nerve controls voice production, slowing of heartbeat, and acceleration of peristalsis. 409 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) glossopharyngeal B) vagus C) accessory D) hypoglossal Answer: B Explanation: A) The glossopharyngeal nerve provides a sense of taste and regulates swallowing. B) Correct. C) The accessory nerve permits movement of the head and shoulders. D) The hypoglossal nerve controls tongue movement. Page Ref: 521 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 28) A loss of the ability to use objects properly is called: A) aphagia. B) aphasia. C) akinesia. D) apraxia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Aphagia is lack of the ability to swallow and eat. B) Aphasia is lack of speech. C) Akinesia is lack of voluntary movement. D) Correct. Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 29) A medical word that means paralysis of both legs and lower body is: A) quadriplegia. B) paraplegia. C) hemiplegia. D) hemiparesis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Quadriplegia is paralysis of four limbs and usually the trunk. B) Correct. C) Hemiplegia is paralysis of half of the body, right or left. D) Hemiparesis is weakness of half of the body, right or left. Page Ref: 543 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 30) In the term narcolepsy, the suffix -lepsy means: A) sleep. B) brain. C) head. D) seizure. 410 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: D Explanation: A) The combining form narc/o means sleep. B) The combining form encephala/o means brain. C) The combining form cephal/o means head. D) Correct. Page Ref: 542 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 31) A diagnostic procedure used to study the structures of the brain is called: A) computed tomography. B) lumbar puncture. C) electroencephalography. D) myelogram. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A lumbar puncture is done to remove the spinal fluid for testing. C) Electroencephalography records the electrical activity of the brain. D) A myelogram is an x-ray of the spinal canal. Page Ref: 554 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 32) The process of using ultrasound to determine the presence of a centrally located mass in the brain is called: A) computed tomography. B) echoencephalography. C) electroencephalography. D) myelogram. Answer: B Explanation: A) Computed tomography produces three-dimensional x-ray images. B) Correct. C) Electroencephalography measures the electrical activity of the brain. D) A myelogram is an x-ray of the spinal canal. Page Ref: 554 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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33) The x-ray of the spinal canal after the injection of a radiopaque dye is called: A) cerebral angiography. B) lumbar puncture. C) myelogram. D) ultrasonography. Answer: C Explanation: A) Cerebral angiography is an x-ray record of the cerebral arterial system. B) A lumbar puncture removes spinal fluid for testing. C) Correct. D) Ultrasonography uses sound waves to produce an image. Page Ref: 554 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 34) A computer-based nuclear imaging procedure that can produce three-dimensional pictures of actual organ functioning is: A) electroencephalography. B) myelogram. C) ultrasonography. D) positron emission tomography. Answer: D Explanation: A) Electroencephalography records the electrical activity of the brain. B) A myelogram is an x-ray of the spinal canal after injecting a radiopaque dye. C) Ultrasonography uses sound waves to produce an image. D) Correct. Page Ref: 555 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 35) The examination of spinal fluid for color, pressure, pH, and more is: A) cerebrospinal fluid analysis. B) myelogram. C) ultrasonography. D) lumbar puncture. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A myelogram is an x-ray of the spinal canal after injecting a radiopaque dye. C) Ultrasonography uses high-frequency sound waves to produce an image on a computer screen. D) A lumbar puncture removes spinal fluid for testing. Page Ref: 554 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 36) The dorsal rami of the spinal nerves: A) carry motor and sensory fibers to the spinal cord. 412 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) carry motor and sensory fibers to the extremities. C) carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and organs of the body. D) carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and skin of the back. Answer: D Explanation: A) The dorsal rami of the spinal nerves carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and skin of the back. B) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and organs of the body, including the extremities. C) The ventral rami of the spinal nerves carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and organs of the body, including the extremities. D) Correct. Page Ref: 519 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) Interneurons are entirely located within the: A) CNS. B) PNS. C) ANS. D) SNS. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Interneurons are entirely located within the CNS. C) Interneurons are entirely located within the CNS. D) Interneurons are entirely located within the CNS. Page Ref: 512 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 38) The sheaths wrapped around nerve fibers of the peripheral nervous system can be: A) myelinated or unmyelinated. B) myelinated or striated. C) striated or unstriated. D) unmyelinated or unstriated. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The PNS has two types of sheaths: myelinated and unmyelinated. C) The PNS has two types of sheaths: myelinated and unmyelinated. D) The PNS has two types of sheaths: myelinated and unmyelinated. Page Ref: 512 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 39) The ________ of the spinal nerves carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and organs of the body, including the extremities. A) ventral rami 413 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) sensory root C) sensory neurons D) dorsal rami Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The sensory root carries impulses to the spinal cord. C) The sensory neurons carry impulses from the sensory receptors to the synaptic endings. D) The dorsal rami of the spinal nerves carry motor and sensory fibers to the muscles and skin of the back. Page Ref: 519 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 40) Stimulation of a sensory nerve occurs at a: A) tract. B) neuroglia. C) receptor. D) synapse. Answer: C Explanation: A) A tract carries impulses to and from the brain. B) The neuroglia are the supporting tissues for the nerve cells. C) Correct. D) A synapse is a knob on the end of an axon. Page Ref: 511 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 41) A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is sometimes referred to as a: A) brain attack. B) stroke. C) ministroke. D) seizure. Answer: C Explanation: A) A brain attack is a term that is used for a stroke (CVA). B) A stroke results in brain tissue death from hemorrhage or a clot. C) Correct. D) A seizure is an episode of disturbed brain function. Page Ref: 545 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 42) A congenital condition in which there is an increase of cerebrospinal fluid is: A) hydrocephalus. B) encephalitis. C) diencephalon. D) mesencephalon. 414 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain. C) The diencephalon is divided into the epithalamus, thalamus, and hypothalamus. D) The mesencephalon is the midbrain. Page Ref: 538 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 43) In the term anesthesiologist, the combining form means: A) feeling. B) hardening. C) condition. D) muscle. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root scler means hardening. C) The suffixes -ia or -osis mean condition. D) The combining form my/o means muscle. Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 44) A loss of the ability to speak is termed: A) aphasia. B) aphagia. C) apraxia. D) asthenia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Aphagia is inability to eat or swallow. C) Apraxia is incorrect use of objects. D) Asthenia is lack of strength. Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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45) The term for an abnormal slowness of motion is spelled: A) bradikinesia. B) bradykinisia. C) bradekinisia. D) bradykinesia. Answer: D Explanation: A) The right spelling is bradykinesia. B) The right spelling is bradykinesia. C) The right spelling is bradykinesia. D) Correct. Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 46) The root in cerebrospinal means: A) spin. B) spine. C) little brain. D) star-shaped. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root spin means spine. B) Correct. C) The combining form cerebell/o means little brain. D) The prefix astro- means star-shaped. Page Ref: 531 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 47) A condition of lack of coordination of muscle movements is: A) ataxia. B) bradykinesia. C) chorea. D) cerebral palsy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Bradykinesia is abnormal slowness of motion. C) Chorea is involuntary muscle movements. D) Cerebral palsy is a congenital disorder of movement due to brain damage. Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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48) A surgical excision of a portion of the skull is known as: A) craniectomy. B) craniotomy. C) diskectomy. D) pallidotomy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Craniotomy is incision into the skull. C) Diskectomy is removal of an intervertebral disk. D) Pallidotomy is surgical destruction of the globus pallidus of the brain. Page Ref: 530 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 49) ________ depress the central nervous system by interfering with the transmission of nerve impulses. A) Narcotics B) Sedatives C) Cholinesterase inhibitors D) Analgesics Answer: B Explanation: A) Narcotics increase the pain threshold and alter pain perception. B) Correct. C) Cholinesterase inhibitors help restore communication between the brain cells. D) Analgesics inhibit ascending pain pathways in the central nervous system. Page Ref: 551 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 50) Dilantin, Depakene, Tegretol, Klonopin, and Mysoline are all examples of: A) analgesics. B) antiparkinsonism drugs. C) anticonvulsants. D) anesthetics. Answer: C Explanation: A) Dilantin, Depakene, Tegretol, Klonopin, and Mysoline are all examples of anticonvulsants. B) Dilantin, Depakene, Tegretol, Klonopin, and Mysoline are all examples of anticonvulsants. C) Correct. D) Dilantin, Depakene, Tegretol, Klonopin, and Mysoline are all examples of anticonvulsants. Page Ref: 552 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 51) An increased amount of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain is termed: A) meningitis. 417 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) meningocele. C) intracranial. D) hydrocephalus. Answer: D Explanation: A) Meningitis is inflammation of the brain coverings. B) Meningocele is a congenital hernia in which the meninges protrude through a spinal defect. C) Intracranial means within the skull. D) Correct. Page Ref: 538 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 52) ________ is a nonbarbiturate sedative. A) Tylenol B) Butorphanol tartrate C) Lorazepam HCl D) Seconal sodium Answer: C Explanation: A) Tylenol is an analgesic-antipyretic. B) Butorphanol tartrate is a non-narcotic analgesic. C) Correct. D) Seconal sodium is a barbiturate sedative. Page Ref: 551 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 53) A tumor of the meninges is known as: A) meningocele. B) meningitis. C) meningioma. D) meningomyelocele. Answer: C Explanation: A) Meningocele is a congenital hernia in which the meninges protrude through a spinal defect. B) Meningitis is inflammation of the meninges. C) Correct. D) Meningomyelocele is a congenital hernia in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a spinal defect. Page Ref: 539 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 54) A neuroblastoma is a: A) nerve cell. B) neuroglia. C) malignant tumor. 418 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) benign tumor. Answer: C Explanation: A) A neuron is a nerve cell. B) The neuroglia is the supporting tissue cells of the nervous system. C) Correct. D) A neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor. Page Ref: 542 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 55) The combining form dendr/o in oligodendroglioma means: A) tree. B) log. C) thorn. D) little. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root log means study. C) The combining form spin/o means thorn or spine. D) The prefix oligo- means little. Page Ref: 543 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 56) Inflammation of the membranes that surround the brain is termed: A) Parkinson disease. B) myelitis. C) epilepsy. D) meningitis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Parkinson disease is a neurological disorder in the part of the brain that controls movement. B) Myelitis is inflammation of the spinal cord. C) Epilepsy is a seizure condition. D) Correct. Page Ref: 539 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 57) This type of drug can be used for palliative relief from major symptoms such as bradykinesia. A) Analgesics B) Barbiturates C) Narcotics D) Antiparkinsonism drugs Answer: D 419 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) Antiparkinsonism drugs may be used for palliative relief from major symptoms such as bradykinesia. B) Antiparkinsonism drugs may be used for palliative relief from major symptoms such as bradykinesia. C) Antiparkinsonism drugs may be used for palliative relief from major symptoms such as bradykinesia. D) Correct. Page Ref: 551 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 58) Edema of the brain and increased intracranial pressure that occurs in children and is related to aspirin intake is a condition called: A) Lou Gehrig disease. B) meningitis. C) Reye syndrome. D) sundowning. Answer: C Explanation: A) Lou Gehrig disease is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. B) Meningitis is inflammation of the meninges. C) Correct. D) Sundowning is agitation in Alzheimer patients at sundown. Page Ref: 544 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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59) Aricept, Exelon, Razadyne, and Namenda can help control behavioral symptoms of: A) Parkinson disease. B) epilepsy. C) multiple sclerosis. D) Alzheimer disease. Answer: D Explanation: A) Aricept, Exelon, Razadyne, and Namenda can help control behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer disease. B) Aricept, Exelon, Razadyne, and Namenda can help control behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer disease. C) Aricept, Exelon, Razadyne, and Namenda can help control behavioral symptoms of Alzheimer disease. D) Correct. Page Ref: 552 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights
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13.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) loss of muscular coordination B) inability to remain still C) abnormal slowness of motion D) excision of a portion of the skull E) an unconscious state F) lack of a sense of pain G) loss of strength 1) analgesia Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) asthenia Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) ataxia Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) bradykinesia Page Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) coma Page Ref: 530 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) akathisia Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) craniectomy 422 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 530 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) F 2) G 3) A 4) C 5) E 6) B 7) D
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Match the following terms. A) an increased amount of fluid within the brain B) natural analgesic C) excision of a vertebral posterior arch D) artificially induced trancelike state E) a tumor composed of neuroglial tissue F) excision of an intervertebral disk 8) diskectomy Page Ref: 532 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) endorphin Page Ref: 533 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) glioma Page Ref: 535 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) hydrocephalus Page Ref: 538 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) laminectomy Page Ref: 538 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) hypnosis Page Ref: 538 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 8) F 9) B 10) E 11) A 12) C 13) D Match the following word part with its meaning. 424 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) star-shaped B) thin plate C) brain D) sleep E) lobe F) half G) cerebrum H) lack of I) memory J) side 14) astroPage Ref: 528 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 15) hemiPage Ref: 535 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) anPage Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) cerebr/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) lamin/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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19) encephal/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) hypn/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) lob/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) later/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) mnes Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 14) A 15) F 16) H 17) G 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) E 22) J 23) I
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) sleep B) spinal cord C) nerve D) feeling E) shaken violently F) membrane G) vertebra H) weakness I) seizure J) gray 24) mening/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) myel/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) neur/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) poli/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) concuss Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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29) narc/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) spondyl/o Page Ref: 526 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) -esthesia Page Ref: 527 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) -lepsy Page Ref: 534 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -paresis Page Ref: 535 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 24) F 25) B 26) C 27) J 28) E 29) A 30) G 31) D 32) I 33) H 13.3 True/False Questions 1) The nervous system has three divisions, one of which is the CNS. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The nervous system has two divisions. Page Ref: 509 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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2) The peripheral nervous system consists of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 509 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The neurons are the structural and functional units of the nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 509 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) Motor neurons transmit impulses toward the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Motor neurons transmit impulses toward the muscle fibers. Page Ref: 510 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Sensory neurons also have true dendrites. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sensory neurons have peripheral processes that resemble axons. Page Ref: 511 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) Sensory neurons are sometimes called afferent nerves. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 511 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) In myelinated fibers, the inner myelin sheath is a thick, fatty substance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 512 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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8) The gray matter in the CNS consists of myelinated nerve fibers. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The gray matter in the CNS is unsheathed cell bodies. Page Ref: 512-513 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) The transmission of an impulse by a nerve fiber is based on the all-or-none principle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 512 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) The largest mass of nervous tissue is found in the medulla oblongata. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The largest mass of nervous tissue is the brain, found in the cerebrum. Page Ref: 513 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 14 Special Senses: The Ear 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The external ear consists of all of the following except: A) cochlea. B) auditory canal. C) auricle. D) external acoustic meatus. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The auditory canal is part of the external ear. C) The auricle, or pinna, is part of the external ear. D) The external acoustic meatus, or auditory canal, is part of the external ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) Which structure of the external ear collects sound waves? A) Cochlea B) Tympanic membrane C) Auricle D) External acoustic meatus Answer: C 430 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) The cochlea is in the inner ear. B) The tympanic membrane transmits, but does not collect, sound waves. C) Correct. D) The auditory canal does not collect sound waves. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) All of the following are ossicles of the middle ear except: A) malleus. B) incus. C) utricle. D) stapes. Answer: C Explanation: A) The malleus is one of the ossicles of the middle ear. B) The incus is one of the ossicles of the middle ear. C) Correct. D) The stapes is one of the ossicles of the middle ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The ________ is a bony structure located between the cochlea and the three semicircular canals. A) auricle B) vestibule C) utricle D) saccule Answer: B Explanation: A) The auricle is an outer ear structure. B) Correct. C) The utricle is a pouch that contains perilymph. D) The saccule is a pouch that contains perilymph. Page Ref: 567 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The auditory nerve is also known as the ________ cranial nerve. A) fifth B) seventh C) ninth D) eighth Answer: D Explanation: A) The auditory nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. B) The auditory nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. C) The auditory nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. D) Correct. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) Located on the basilar membrane are(is) the ________, containing hair cell sensory receptors for the sense of hearing. A) semicircular canals 432 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) cochlear duct C) organ of Corti D) tympanic membrane Answer: C Explanation: A) The semicircular canals are not located on the basilar membrane. B) The cochlear duct is a space between the two scala. C) Correct. D) The tympanic membrane is part of the external ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) One who specializes in disorders of hearing is called a/an: A) audiologist. B) laryngologist. C) otolaryngologist. D) otorhinolaryngologist. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A laryngologist specializes in the voice box. C) The otolaryngologist specializes in the ear and voice box. D) The otorhinolaryngologist specializes in the ear, nose, and voice box. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) What is an instrument used to measure hearing called? A) Otoscope B) Audiology C) Audiometer D) Myringoscope Answer: C Explanation: A) An otoscope is an instrument to visually examine the ear canal. B) Audiology is the study of hearing disorders. C) Correct. D) A myringoscope is an instrument used to examine the tympanic membrane. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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9) The clear fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth of the ear is: A) perilymph. B) cerumen. C) plasma. D) endolymph. Answer: D Explanation: A) Perilymph is contained in the bony vestibule. B) Cerumen is earwax in the auditory canal. C) Plasma is the fluid part of blood. D) Correct. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) Surgical excision of the tympanic membrane is called: A) myringotomy. B) myringoplasty. C) myringectomy. D) myringotome. Answer: C Explanation: A) Myringotomy is an incision into the tympanic membrane. B) Myringoplasty is surgical repair of the eardrum. C) Correct. D) A myringotome is the instrument used for cutting the eardrum. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 11) The medical term for earache is: A) mastoiditis. B) otalgia. C) otic. D) otitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Mastoiditis is inflammation of one of the mastoid bones. B) Correct. C) Otic means pertaining to the ear. D) Otitis is inflammation of the ear. Page Ref: 575 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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12) What is a fungal infection of the ear called? A) Otomycosis B) Otopyorrhea C) Otosclerosis D) Otolith Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Otopyorrhea is discharge of pus from the ear. C) Otosclerosis is hardening of ear structures. D) An otolith is a stone in the ear. Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 13) The ossicle whose Latin name means stirrup is: A) malleus. B) cerumen. C) incus. D) stapes. Answer: D Explanation: A) The word malleus means hammer. B) Cerumen is earwax. C) The word incus means anvil. D) Correct. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 14) A ringing sound in the ear is called: A) vertigo. B) tinnitus. C) presbycusis. D) tympanitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Vertigo is a spinning sensation. B) Correct. C) Presbycusis is hearing difficulty due to older age. D) Tympanitis is inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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15) A state of balance achieved by the ear is known as: A) homeostasis. B) equivalence. C) eupnea. D) equilibrium. Answer: D Explanation: A) Homeostasis refers to a state of equilibrium maintained in the body's internal environment. B) Equivalence means two things are of the same value. C) Eupnea is normal breathing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 16) The ________ is located between the middle ear and the throat and serves to equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum. A) eustachian tube B) tympanic membrane C) auditory canal D) oval window Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The tympanic membrane is located between the outer and middle ear. C) The auditory canal is part of the outer ear. D) The oval window is located between the middle and inner ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 17) In the term perilymph, the prefix peri- means: A) beside. B) through. C) within. D) around. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix para- means beside or alongside. B) The prefix dia- means through. C) The prefixes endo- and intra- mean within. D) Correct. Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) In the term presbycusis, the root presby means: A) hardening. 436 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) softening. C) old. D) fat. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -scler means hardening. B) The suffix -malacia means softening. C) Correct. D) The root steat means fat. Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) In the term presbycusis, the suffix -cusis means: A) voice box. B) hearing. C) sound. D) noise. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form laryng/o means voice box. B) Correct. C) The suffix -cusis means hearing. D) The suffix -cusis means hearing. Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) All of the following terms are spelled correctly except: A) acoustic. B) tympanic. C) labryinthitis. D) otosclerosis. Answer: C Explanation: A) The word should be spelled labyrinthitis. B) The word should be spelled labyrinthitis. C) Correct. D) The word should be spelled labyrinthitis. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling
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21) The medical term ________ means pertaining to the sense of hearing. A) aural B) auditory C) endaural D) audiology Answer: B Explanation: A) The term aural means pertaining to the ear. B) Correct. C) The term endaural means pertaining to within the ear. D) Audiology is the study of hearing disorders. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 22) An instrument used for cutting the eardrum is: A) myringoscope. B) myringoplasty. C) myringotomy. D) myringotome. Answer: D Explanation: A) A myringoscope is an instrument to examine the eardrum. B) Myringoplasty is a surgical repair of the eardrum. C) Myringotomy is an incision into the eardrum. D) Correct. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 23) The term endaural means pertaining to: A) behind the ear. B) within the ear. C) within sound waves. D) within hearing. Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix end- means within. B) Correct. C) The prefix end- means within. D) The prefix end- means within. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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24) The medical term for earwax is: A) cerumen. B) cochlea. C) perilymph. D) endolymph. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The cochlea is part of the inner ear. C) Perilymph is an auditory fluid. D) Endolymph is an auditory fluid. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 25) Complete or partial loss of the ability to hear is: A) blindness. B) aphasia. C) vitiligo. D) deafness. Answer: D Explanation: A) Blindness is the inability to see. B) Aphasia is the inability to speak. C) Vitiligo is a skin condition. D) Correct. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 26) In the term auricle, the suffix -cle means: A) small. B) large. C) hernia. D) sac. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -megaly means large. C) The suffix -cele means hernia. D) The suffix -cyst means sac. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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27) In the term binaural, the prefix bin- means: A) one. B) single. C) triple. D) twice. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefixes uni- and mono- mean one. B) The prefixes uni- and mono- mean single. C) The prefix tri- means three or triple. D) Correct. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) An term ossicle is a: A) long bone. B) small bone. C) small opening. D) cold bone. Answer: B Explanation: A) An ossicle is a small bone. B) Correct. C) An ossicle is a small bone. D) An ossicle is a small bone. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 29) In the term fenestration, the root fenestrat means: A) door. B) footplate. C) tissue. D) window. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root fenestrat means window. B) The root fenestrat means window. C) The root fenestrat means window. D) Correct. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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30) In the term myringotomy, the suffix -tomy means: A) excision. B) incision. C) repair. D) to remove. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ectomy means excision. B) Correct. C) The suffix -plasty means repair. D) The suffix -ectomy means remove. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) In the term monaural, the prefix mon(o)- means: A) two. B) three. C) four. D) one. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefixes bi- or bin- mean two. B) The prefix tri- means three. C) The prefix quadri- means four. D) Correct. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) A disease of the inner ear that presents a group of symptoms that recur and are caused by a change in fluid volume within the labyrinth is: A) otolith. B) otitis media. C) Méniére. D) otopyorrhea. Answer: C Explanation: A) An otolith is an ear stone. B) Otitis media is a middle ear infection. C) Correct. D) Otopyorrhea is a discharge of pus from the ear. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases
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33) Which structure contains the organ of Corti? A) Vestibule B) Semicircular canals C) Utricle D) Cochlea Answer: D Explanation: A) The vestibule is outside the cochlea and organ of Corti. B) The semicircular canals are separate from the organ of Corti. C) The utricle is part of the vestibule. D) Correct. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 34) Which structure separates the external ear from the middle ear? A) Pinna B) Auditory canal C) Tympanic membrane D) Ossicles Answer: C Explanation: A) The pinna is part of the external ear. B) The auditory canal is the ear canal. C) Correct. D) The ossicles are the little ear bones in the middle ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 35) Each of the following is antibiotics except: A) penicillins. B) dimenhydrinate. C) tetracyclines. D) cephalosporins. Answer: B Explanation: A) Penicillins are antibiotics. B) Correct. C) Tetracyclines are antibiotics. D) Cephalosporins are antibiotics. Page Ref: 583 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights
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36) The response to auditory stimuli that can be measured independently of the patient's subjective response is: A) auditory-evoked response. B) pure tone audiometry. C) tuning fork test. D) Rinne test. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Pure tone audiometry is dependent upon the patient's responses. C) The tuning fork test is dependent upon the patient's responses. D) The Rinne test is one of several tuning fork tests. Page Ref: 583 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 37) A recording of eye movement in response to specific stimuli is known as: A) auditory-evoked response. B) electronystagmography. C) tympanometry. D) otoscopy. Answer: B Explanation: A) An auditory-evoked response measures the brain's response to sound. B) Correct. C) Tympanometry measures the movement of the eardrum and pressure in the middle ear. D) Otoscopy provides a visual exam of the auditory canal and eardrum. Page Ref: 583 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 38) A test that compares bone conduction to air conduction of sound is: A) pure tone audiometry. B) tympanometry. C) Rinne test. D) otoscopy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Pure tone audiometry uses tones of various frequencies. B) Tympanometry tests middle ear pressure and movement of the eardrum. C) Correct. D) Otoscopy is a visual exam of the external ear. Page Ref: 585 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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39) The visual examination of the external auditory canal and the tympanic membrane is: A) tuning fork test. B) tympanometry. C) electronystagmography. D) otoscopy. Answer: D Explanation: A) The tuning fork test tests measures hearing by the use of a tuning fork. B) Tympanometry tests middle ear pressure and eardrum movement. C) Electronystagmography studies eye movements in response to sound. D) Correct. Page Ref: 584 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 40) Measurement of the movement of the tympanic membrane and pressure in the middle ear is: A) tuning fork test. B) tympanometry. C) otoscopy. D) Rinne test. Answer: B Explanation: A) The tuning fork test measures hearing by the use of a tuning fork. B) Correct. C) Otoscopy is a visual exam of the outer ear. D) The Rinne test compares bone conduction to air conduction using a tuning fork. Page Ref: 585 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 41) The first middle ear bone, the malleus, is also known as the: A) hammer. B) stirrup. C) pliers. D) anvil. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The stapes is the Latin word for stirrup. C) The malleus is the Latin word for hammer. D) The incus is the Latin word for anvil. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) All of the following drugs can be used to treat vertigo except: A) antibiotics. B) anticholinergics. C) antidopamines. D) antihistamines. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Anticholinergics can be used to treat vertigo. C) Antidopamines can be used to treat vertigo. D) Antihistamines can be used to treat vertigo. Page Ref: 583 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 43) The area of the ear that contains the utricle and saccule is: A) cochlea. B) tympanic membrane. C) vestibule. D) ossicles. Answer: C Explanation: A) The cochlea contains the organ of Corti. B) The tympanic membrane is the eardrum. C) Correct. D) The ossicles are the small bones of the middle ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) The ________ attaches to a thin membrane covering the oval window. A) tympanic membrane B) stapes C) vestibule D) cochlea Answer: B Explanation: A) The tympanic membrane is between the outer and middle ear. B) Correct. C) The vestibule is a bony structure between the cochlea and the semicircular canals. D) The cochlea contains the organ of Corti. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) In the term audiogram, the suffix -gram means: A) study of. B) instrument. C) hearing. D) record. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -logy means study of. B) The suffix -meter means instrument to measure. C) The root acoust means hearing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 46) The suffix in the term acoustic means: A) condition of. B) pertaining to. C) study of. D) tissue. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffixes -ia and -osis mean condition of. B) Correct. C) The suffix -logy means study of. D) The suffix -um means tissue. Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 47) Which of the following drug types can be used to reduce fever? A) Antibiotic B) Analgesic C) Antipyretic D) Anticholinergic Answer: C Explanation: A) Antibiotics are used to treat infectious diseases. B) Analgesics are used to relieve pain without causing loss of consciousness. C) Correct. D) Anticholinergics can be used to treat vertigo. Page Ref: 582 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights
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48) The middle of the three ossicles is called: A) incus. B) malleus. C) cochlea. D) stapes. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The malleus the first ossicle. C) The cochlea is not an ossicle; it is in the inner ear. D) The stapes is the third and last ossicle. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 49) Keflex is an example of an: A) analgesic. B) antipyretic. C) antihistamine. D) antibiotic. Answer: D Explanation: A) Keflex (cephalexin) is a cephalosporin antibiotic. B) Keflex (cephalexin) is a cephalosporin antibiotic. C) Keflex (cephalexin) is a cephalosporin antibiotic. D) Correct. Page Ref: 583 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 50) What is the correct spelling for the tube that goes from the middle ear to the throat? A) Ustashean B) Eustashian C) Eustachean D) Eustachian Answer: D Explanation: A) The tube is spelled eustachian. B) The tube is spelled eustachian. C) The tube is spelled eustachian. D) Correct. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling
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51) A sustained decibel range of over ________ decibels can cause permanent hearing loss. A) 55 B) 70 C) 85 D) 100 Answer: C Explanation: A) Sustained sound over 85 decibels can cause hearing loss. B) Sustained sound over 85 decibels can cause hearing loss. C) Correct. D) Sustained sound over 85 decibels can cause hearing loss. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 52) A tumorlike mass filled with epithelial cells and cholesterol is: A) otolith. B) cerumen. C) endolymph. D) cholesteatoma. Answer: D Explanation: A) An otolith is an ear stone. B) Cerumen is earwax. C) Endolymph is fluid in the labyrinth. D) Correct. Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 53) A cochlear implant has all of the following parts except: A) a microphone. B) a speech processor. C) an otalgia translator. D) a group of electrodes. Answer: C Explanation: A) The cochlear implant includes a microphone to pick up sounds from the environment. B) The cochlear implant includes a speech processor that selects and arranges sounds picked up by the microphone. C) Correct. D) The cochlear implant includes a group of electrodes that collects the impulses from the stimulator and sends them to different regions of the auditory nerve. Page Ref: 566 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 54) A sensation of objects spinning around a person is: 448 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) tinnitus. B) tympanitis. C) vertigo. D) otitis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Tinnitus is ringing in the ears. B) Tympanitis is inflammation of the eardrum. C) Correct. D) Otitis is a generic term for inflammation of the ear. Page Ref: 579 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 55) Progressive deafness of the ear that is caused by a hardening condition is known as: A) fenestration. B) otomycosis. C) Ménière's disease. D) otosclerosis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Fenestration is making a new opening in the labyrinth. B) Otomycosis is a fungal infection of the ear. C) Ménière disease causes a host of symptoms related to the volume of fluid in the labyrinth. D) Correct. Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 56) The substance secreted by the glands in the external auditory canal is: A) endolymph. B) cerumen. C) perilymph. D) otopyorrhea. Answer: B Explanation: A) Endolymph is fluid in the labyrinth. B) Correct. C) Perilymph is fluid in the labyrinth. D) Otopyorrhea is discharge of pus from the ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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57) At what age do the earlobes of the fetus become firm? A) 24 weeks. B) 30 weeks. C) 36 weeks. D) 40 weeks. Answer: D Explanation: A) The earlobes of the fetus become firm at around 40 weeks. B) The earlobes of the fetus become firm at around 40 weeks. C) The earlobes of the fetus become firm at around 40 weeks. D) Correct. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 58) The purpose of the ossicles is to ________ sound waves. A) interpret B) collect C) transmit D) transform Answer: C Explanation: A) The brain interprets sound waves. B) The auricle collects sound waves. C) Correct. D) The organ of Corti transforms sound waves into nerve impulses. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 59) Which portion of the ear transforms sound vibrations to nerve impulses? A) Cochlea B) Tympanic membrane C) Auditory fluids D) Semicircular canals Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The tympanic membrane transmits sound waves to the ossicles. C) Pressure waves in the auditory fluids cause the vibration of the hair cells of the organ of Corti. D) The semicircular canals do not deal with sound waves. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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60) Which procedure is done to remove fluids from the ear? A) Otoplasty B) Stapedectomy C) Myringotomy D) Tympanectomy Answer: C Explanation: A) Otoplasty is a surgical repair of the ear. B) Stapedectomy is removal of the stapes bone. C) Correct. D) Tympanectomy is removal of the eardrum. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 61) An instrument used to visually examine the eardrum is called: A) myringotome. B) audiometer. C) myringoscope. D) tuning fork. Answer: C Explanation: A) A myringotome is used to make an incision into the eardrum. B) An audiometer is used to measure a person's hearing. C) Correct. D) A tuning fork tests a person's hearing. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 62) The root in labyrinthitis means: A) equal. B) window. C) snail. D) maze. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root labyrinth means maze. B) The root fenestrat means window. C) The combining form cochle/o means snail. D) Correct. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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63) The term for the surgical repair of the tympanic membrane is spelled: A) myringectomy. B) myringotomy. C) myrigoplasty. D) myringoplasty. Answer: D Explanation: A) Myringectomy is surgical excision of the eardrum. B) Myringotomy is surgical incision of the eardrum. C) The correct spelling is myringoplasty. D) Correct. Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 64) The procedure for replacing the innermost ossicle with a prosthesis is: A) otoplasty. B) tympanoplasty. C) stapedectomy. D) tympanectomy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Otoplasty is surgical repair of the ear. B) Tympanoplasty is surgical repair of the eardrum. C) Correct. D) Tympanectomy is removal of the eardrum. Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 65) The beginning of the inner ear is marked by the: A) tympanic membrane. B) oval window. C) eustachian tube. D) inner ear. Answer: B Explanation: A) The tympanic membrane separates the external ear from the middle ear. B) Correct. C) The eustachian tube lies between the middle ear and the throat. D) The inner ear is connected at the end of the middle ear. Page Ref: 565 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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14.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) the inner ear B) flow of pus from the ear C) pertaining to the eardrum D) inflammation of the ear E) a physician who specializes in the study of the ear and larynx F) pertaining to one ear G) surgical repair of the tympanic membrane 1) myringoplasty Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) otitis Page Ref: 575 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) otolaryngologist Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) labyrinth Page Ref: 565 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) otopyorrhea Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) monaural Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) tympanic 453 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Page Ref: 579 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) G 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) B 6) F 7) C
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Match the following terms. A) visible portion of the ear B) pertaining to both ears C) the study of the ear, nose, and larynx D) membranous pouch E) the process of making a new opening in the labyrinth F) contains the organ of Corti G) the middle of the three ossicles; the anvil 8) auricle Page Ref: 564 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) binaural Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) cochlea Page Ref: 563 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) fenestration Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) incus Page Ref: 565 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) utricle Page Ref: 563 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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14) otorhinolaryngology Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 8) A 9) B 10) F 11) E 12) G 13) D 14) C
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) old B) maze, inner ear C) ear D) within E) larynx, voice box F) to hear G) shaped like a snail shell H) around I) eardrum, tympanic membrane J) pus K) resemble L) fat 15) endoPage Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) periPage Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) audi/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) cochlea Page Ref: 566 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) labyrinth/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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20) laryng/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) myring/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) ot/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) -oid Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) steat Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) presby Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) py/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 15) D 16) H 17) F 18) G 19) B 20) E 21) I 22) C 23) K 24) L 25) A 26) J
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) incision B) hearing C) clear fluid, serum D) instrument to measure E) stirrup F) flow G) ear H) nose I) eardrum, tympanic membrane J) stone 27) rhin/o Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) stapes Page Ref: 565 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) tympan Page Ref: 579 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) -cusis Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) aur/i Page Ref: 571 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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32) -lith Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -lymph Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -meter Page Ref: 572 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -rrhea Page Ref: 577 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) -tomy Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 27) H 28) E 29) I 30) B 31) G 32) J 33) C 34) D 35) F 36) A 14.3 True/False Questions 1) The external acoustic meatus is also known as the auricle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The external acoustic meatus is the auditory canal. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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2) The glands in the auditory canal secrete cerumen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 563 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) The auricle directs sound waves into the tympanic membrane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 563 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The vestibule contains the organ of Corti. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The cochlea contains the organ of Corti. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) There are four ossicles in the middle ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are three ossicles in the middle ear. Page Ref: 563 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) An antipyretic is an agent that reduces fever. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 582 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 7) Sustained noise over 85 decibels can cause permanent hearing loss. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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8) Thirty percent of teens have some hearing loss. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Two in every 10 teens have some hearing loss. Page Ref: 573 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 9) Ménière disease is a disease of the inner ear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 574 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 10) As part of the stapedectomy procedure, the stapes is removed and replaced with a prosthesis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 578 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 15 Special Senses: The Eye 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The ________ is the anterior transparent portion of the eyeball. A) sclera B) cornea C) retina D) iris Answer: B Explanation: A) The sclera is the white of the eye. B) Correct. C) The retina is the inner layer of the back of the eye. D) The iris is a colored membrane attached to the ciliary body of the eye. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) All of the following make up the external structure of the eye except: A) uvea. B) orbit. C) eyelids. D) conjunctiva. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. The uvea is the middle layer of the eyeball. 462 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) The orbit is an external structure of the eye. C) The eyelids are external structures of the eye. D) The conjunctiva is an external structure of the eye. Page Ref: 597 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) The vision disorder due to a misshapen cornea is: A) nystagmus. B) glaucoma. C) astigmatism. D) myopia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Nystagmus is involuntary movements of the eye. B) Glaucoma is a raised internal eye pressure. C) Correct. D) Myopia is nearsightedness. Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 4) The ________ is the opening in the center of the iris. A) pupil B) retina C) sclera D) cornea Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The retina is the internal lining in the back of the eye. C) The sclera is the white of the eye. D) The cornea is the anterior, transparent part of the eye. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The colored membrane attached to the ciliary body is the: A) cornea. B) pupil. C) iris. D) sclera. Answer: C Explanation: A) The cornea is the transparent, anterior part of the eye. B) The pupil is the hole in the center of the iris. C) Correct. D) The sclera is the white of the eye. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) An involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of the eyeball is called: A) strabismus. B) trichiasis. C) retinitis pigmentosa. D) nystagmus. Answer: D Explanation: A) Strabismus is a disorder in which the optic axes cannot be directed to the same object. B) Trichiasis is in-growing eyelashes. C) Retinitis pigmentosa is degeneration of the retina. D) Correct. Page Ref: 611 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 7) The medical term for dullness of vision is: A) amblyopia. B) diplopia. C) anisocoria. D) aphakia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Diplopia is double vision. C) Anisocoria is unequal pupils. D) Aphakia is absence of the lens. Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 8) Drooping of the upper eyelids is called: A) blepharitis. B) blepharoptosis. C) chalazion. D) conjunctivitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelids. B) Correct. C) A chalazion is a sebaceous gland cyst. D) Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the eyelid lining. Page Ref: 603 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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9) An agent that causes the pupil to contract is called: A) mydriatic. B) miotic. C) esotropia. D) anisocoria. Answer: B Explanation: A) A mydriatic drug causes the pupil to dilate. B) Correct. C) Esotropia is turning the eye inward. D) Anisocoria is unequal pupils. Page Ref: 610 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 10) An instrument used to measure intraocular pressure is a/an: A) gonioscope. B) laser. C) ophthalmoscope. D) tonometer. Answer: D Explanation: A) A gonioscope measures the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye. B) A laser can be used to treat glaucoma. C) An ophthalmoscope examines the interior of the eye. D) Correct. Page Ref: 618 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 11) The medical term for night blindness is: A) myopia. B) hyperopia. C) nyctalopia. D) amblyopia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Myopia is nearsightedness. B) Hyperopia is farsightedness. C) Correct. D) Amblyopia is dull vision or a lazy eye. Page Ref: 611 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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12) A malignant tumor arising from the germ cell of the retina is: A) retinitis. B) retinoblastoma. C) retinopathy. D) retinal. Answer: B Explanation: A) Retinitis is inflammation of the retina. B) Correct. C) Retinopathy is disease of the retina. D) Retinal means pertaining to the retina. Page Ref: 615 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 13) Cloudiness of the crystalline lens is called: A) chalazion. B) glaucoma. C) trichiasis. D) cataract. Answer: D Explanation: A) A chalazion is a cyst of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid. B) Glaucoma is a disease of increased intraocular pressure. C) Trichiasis is in-growing eyelashes. D) Correct. Page Ref: 603 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 14) The medical term for farsightedness is: A) hyperopia. B) diplopia. C) myopia. D) astigmatism. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Diplopia is double vision. C) Myopia is nearsightedness. D) Astigmatism occurs when the cornea is misshapen. Page Ref: 608 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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15) A process of removing an entire part or mass without rupture, such as the eye, is called: A) enucleation. B) entropion. C) exotropia. D) cryosurgery. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Entropion is turning inward of the margin of the lower eyelid. C) Exotropia is the eye turning outward. D) Cryosurgery uses cold to remove a part. Page Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 16) A physician who specializes in the study of the eye is an: A) ophthalmology. B) optometrist. C) optician. D) ophthalmologist. Answer: D Explanation: A) Ophthalmology is study of the eye. B) An optometrist specializes in examining the eyes for refractive errors and providing appropriate corrective lenses. C) An optician makes eyeglasses. D) Correct. Page Ref: 611 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 17) Surgical destruction of the crystalline lens is called: A) phacolysis. B) photocoagulation. C) presbyopia. D) orthoptics. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Photocoagulation is a process that alters proteins in tissue with light energy. C) Presbyopia is farsightedness in older adults. D) Orthoptics is the study and treatment of defective binocular vision resulting from defects in ocular musculature. Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 18) An unusual intolerance to light is known as: A) photophobia. 468 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) photocoagulation. C) strabismus. D) conjunctivitis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Photocoagulation uses a laser beam to treat retinal detachment, bleeding, or tumors. C) Strabismus is a disorder in which the optic axes cannot be directed to the same object. D) Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the lining of the eyelids. Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 19) In the term trichiasis, the root trich means: A) eyelid. B) hair. C) blink. D) dry. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root trich does not mean eyelid. B) Correct. C) The root trich does not mean blink. D) The root trich does not mean dry. Page Ref: 618 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) In the term trichiasis, the suffix -iasis means: A) eye. B) uvea. C) condition. D) three. Answer: C Explanation: A) The root opt means eye. B) The root uve means uvea. C) Correct. D) The prefix tri- means three. Page Ref: 618 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) In the term keratoconjunctivitis, the combining form kerat/o means: A) pupil. B) cornea. C) lens. D) iris. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining forms cor/o and pupill/o mean pupil. B) Correct. C) The combining forms lent/o, phac/o, and phak/o mean lens. D) The combining form irid/o means iris. Page Ref: 609 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) Dryness of the conjunctiva is called: A) xenophthalmia. B) chalazion. C) xerophthalmia. D) sty(e). Answer: C Explanation: A) Xenophthalmia is inflammation of the eye due to foreign material. B) A chalazion is a cyst of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid. C) Correct. D) Sty(e) is inflammation of the sebaceous gland(s) of the eyelid. Page Ref: 618 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 23) An agent that causes the pupil to dilate is called: A) miotic. B) beta blocker. C) cholinergic. D) mydriatic. Answer: D Explanation: A) A miotic agent causes the pupil to contract. B) A beta blocker decreases intraocular fluid. C) A cholinergic agent increases drainage of intraocular fluid. D) Correct. Page Ref: 610 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology
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24) The middle layer of the eyeball is called the: A) iris. B) cornea. C) retina. D) uvea. Answer: D Explanation: A) The iris is a colored membrane attached to the ciliary body of the eye. B) The cornea is the transparent anterior portion of the eye. C) The retina is the lining of the posterior eye. D) Correct. Page Ref: 597 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 25) The medical term for normal vision is: A) hyperopia. B) emmetropia. C) myopia. D) presbyopia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Hyperopia is farsightedness. B) Correct. C) Myopia is nearsightedness. D) Presbyopia is farsightedness due to aging. Page Ref: 605 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 26) The process of using ultrasound to disintegrate a cataract is known as: A) electroretinogram. B) phacoemulsification. C) iridectomy. D) enucleation. Answer: B Explanation: A) An electroretinogram is a record of the retina's response to light. B) Correct. C) An iridectomy is removal of a portion of the iris. D) Enucleation is removal of the entire eyeball. Page Ref: 612 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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27) A surgical procedure that may be performed to correct myopia is known as: A) radial keratotomy. B) photocoagulation. C) phacoemulsification. D) tonography. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Photocoagulation is using a laser beam to treat retina disorders or macular degeneration. C) Phacoemulsification is using ultrasound to destroy a cataract. D) Tonography is the process of recording intraocular pressure. Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 28) In the term mydriatic, the root mydriat means: A) less, small. B) to nod. C) disintegrate. D) dilate, widen. Answer: D Explanation: A) The combining form mi/o means less, small. B) The root mydriat does not mean to nod. C) The root emulsificat means disintegrate. D) Correct. Page Ref: 610 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 29) In the term conjunctivitis, the root conjunctiv means: A) with. B) without. C) turn. D) to join together. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root conjunctiv does not mean with. B) The root conjunctiv does not mean without. C) The combining form trop/o means turn. D) Correct. Page Ref: 604 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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30) In the term cryosurgery, the combining form cry/o means: A) cold. B) to cut. C) hot. D) laser. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The combining form cry/o does not mean to cut. C) The combining form cry/o does not mean hot. D) The combining form cry/o does not mean laser. Page Ref: 605 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) Macular degeneration involves the macular area of the: A) iris. B) sclera. C) lens. D) retina. Answer: D Explanation: A) Macular degeneration involves the macula, which is part of the retina. B) Macular degeneration involves the macula, which is part of the retina. C) Macular degeneration involves the macula, which is part of the retina. D) Correct. Page Ref: 597 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 32) In the term miotic, the combining form mi/o means: A) tears. B) less, small. C) light. D) open. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining forms dacry/o and lacrim/o mean tear. B) Correct. The combining form mi/o means less, small. A miotic agent causes the pupil to contract. C) The combining form phot/o means light. D) The combining form mi/o means less, small. A miotic agent causes the pupil to contract. Page Ref: 610 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) In the term nyctalopia, the root nyctal means: A) night. B) dark. C) to shut. D) to obstruct. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. The root nyctal means night. B) The root nyctal does not mean dark. C) The root nyctal does not mean to shut. D) The root nyctal does not mean to obstruct. Page Ref: 611 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) In the term phacoemulsification, the combining form phac/o means: A) pupil. B) iris. C) lens. D) sclera. Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining forms cor/o and pupill/o mean pupil. B) The combining form irid/o means iris. C) Correct. D) The combining form scler/o means sclera. Page Ref: 612 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) In the term retrolental, the prefix retro- means: A) before. B) retina. C) front. D) behind. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix retro- does not mean before. B) The prefix retro- does not mean retina. C) The prefix retro- does not mean front. D) Correct. The prefix retro- means behind. Page Ref: 616 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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36) Measuring the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye is achieved using a/an: A) gonioscope. B) keratometer. C) exophthalmometer. D) tonometer. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A keratometer is used to measure the cornea. C) An exophthalmometer is used to measure the forward protrusion of the eyeball. D) A tonometer measures the intraocular pressure. Page Ref: 607 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 37) The measurement of the cornea is called: A) gonioscopy. B) keratometry. C) exophthalmometry. D) tonometry. Answer: B Explanation: A) Gonioscopy measures the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye. B) Correct. C) Exophthalmometry measures the forward protrusion of the eyeball. D) Tonometry measures the intraocular pressure. Page Ref: 624 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 38) ________ is used to identify changes in the blood vessels in the eye and to diagnose systemic diseases. A) Exophthalmometry B) Gonioscopy C) Ophthalmoscopy D) Tonometry Answer: C Explanation: A) Exophthalmometry measures the forward protrusion of the eyeball. B) Gonioscopy measures the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye. C) Correct. D) Tonometry measures the intraocular pressure. Page Ref: 624 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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39) The measurement of the intraocular pressure of the eye is: A) exophthalmometry. B) gonioscopy. C) ophthalmoscopy. D) tonometry. Answer: D Explanation: A) Exophthalmometry measures the forward protrusion of the eyeball. B) Gonioscopy examines the anterior chamber of the eye. C) Ophthalmoscopy is used to identify changes in the blood vessels in the eye and to diagnose systemic diseases. D) Correct. Page Ref: 624 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 40) The measurement of the acuteness or sharpness of vision is: A) color vision test. B) ultrasonography. C) tonometry. D) visual acuity. Answer: D Explanation: A) The color vision test determines color blindness. B) Ultrasonography is used to determine the length of the eye. C) Tonometry measures the intraocular pressure. D) Correct. Page Ref: 625 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 41) How many eye muscles control movement of the eye? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six Answer: D Explanation: A) Six eye muscles control eye movement. B) Six eye muscles control eye movement. C) Six eye muscles control eye movement. D) Correct. Page Ref: 594 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) The meibomian glands secrete: A) tears. B) sebum. C) vitreous humor. D) fat. Answer: B Explanation: A) The meibomian glands secrete sebum. B) Correct. C) The meibomian glands secrete sebum. D) The meibomian glands secrete sebum. Page Ref: 595 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) The anterior cavity is filled with: A) vitreous humor. B) sebum. C) conjunctiva. D) aqueous humor. Answer: D Explanation: A) Vitreous humor is in the posterior portion of the eye. B) Sebum is used to keep the eyelashes from sticking together. C) The conjunctiva are the eyelid linings. D) Correct. Page Ref: 597 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 44) The outer white layer of the eyeball is known as the: A) sclera. B) iris. C) uvea. D) pupil. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The iris is a colored membrane attached to the ciliary body of the eye. C) The uvea is the middle layer of tissue of the eyeball. D) The pupil is the hole in the center of the iris. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) The innermost layer of the eye is the: A) macula. B) retina. C) vitreous humor. D) choroid. Answer: B Explanation: A) The macula is a specialized area of the retina. B) Correct. C) Vitreous humor is a gel-like substance that fills the posterior portion of the eye. D) The choroid is the middle layer of the eye. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) The small depression located in the macula lutea is known as the: A) optic disk. B) retina. C) fovea centralis. D) ciliary body. Answer: C Explanation: A) The optic disk is where the optic nerve exits the eye. B) The retina is the lining of the posterior eye. C) Correct. D) The ciliary body attaches the iris to the eye. Page Ref: 597 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 47) The pigment necessary for night vision is: A) rods. B) cones. C) rhodopsin. D) fovea centralis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Rods are used for night vision, but they are not pigment. B) Cones are sensitive to bright light and color vision. C) Correct. D) Fovea centralis is the central focusing point within the eye. Page Ref: 597 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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48) The absence of rods and cones in the area of the optic disk creates: A) macular degeneration. B) cataracts. C) glaucoma. D) a blind spot. Answer: D Explanation: A) Macular degeneration is destruction of the macula. B) Cataracts are cloudy lenses. C) Glaucoma is increased intraocular pressure. D) Correct. Page Ref: 597-598 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 49) In older adults, the leading cause of new cases of vision loss is: A) cataracts. B) glaucoma. C) retinal detachment. D) macular degeneration. Answer: D Explanation: A) Macular degeneration is the leading cause of vision loss in older adults. B) Macular degeneration is the leading cause of vision loss in older adults. C) Macular degeneration is the leading cause of vision loss in older adults. D) Correct. Page Ref: 610 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 50) ________ is the process of the eyes making adjustments for seeing at various distances. A) Nystagmus B) Accommodation C) Astigmatism D) Myopia Answer: B Explanation: A) Nystagmus is involuntary movements of the eyeball. B) Correct. C) Astigmatism is abnormal curvature of the cornea. D) Myopia is nearsightedness. Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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51) Lazy eye is also known as: A) myopia. B) presbyopia. C) amblyopia. D) hyperopia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Myopia is nearsightedness. B) Presbyopia is farsightedness caused by aging. C) Correct. D) Hyperopia is farsightedness. Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 52) A condition in which the pupils are unequal is termed: A) anisocoria. B) blepharitis. C) aphakia. D) hemianopia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Blepharitis is inflammation of the hair follicles and glands along the edges of the eyelids. C) Aphakia is absence of the lens. D) Hemianopia is blindness for half of the visual field. Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 53) The combining form in the term blepharoptosis means: A) iris. B) eye. C) eyelid. D) tear duct. Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining form for iris is irid/o. B) The combining forms for eye are ocul/o, ophthalm/o, and opt/o. C) Correct. D) The combining forms for tear duct are dacry/o and lacrim/o. Page Ref: 603 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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54) A cause of blindness due to increased intraocular pressure is: A) photophobia. B) macular degeneration. C) keratitis. D) glaucoma. Answer: D Explanation: A) Photophobia is unusual intolerance to light. B) Macular degeneration is destruction of the cells of the macula. C) Keratitis is inflammation of the cornea. D) Correct. Page Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 55) Obstruction of tear ducts resulting in a tumor-like swelling is: A) blepharitis. B) blepharoptosis. C) chalazion. D) dacryoma. Answer: D Explanation: A) Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelids. B) Blepharoptosis is drooping of the eyelid. C) A chalazion is a cyst of the eyelid's sebaceous gland. D) Correct. Page Ref: 605 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 56) A vision defect due to age is known as: A) myopia. B) presbyopia. C) retinal detachment. D) strabismus. Answer: B Explanation: A) Myopia is nearsightedness. B) Correct. C) Retinal detachment is a tearing loose of the retina. D) Strabismus is a disorder in which the optic axes cannot be directed to the same object. Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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57) The term used to describe the condition of one or both eyes being turned inward is: A) entropion. B) esotropia. C) enucleation. D) exotropia. Answer: B Explanation: A) Entropion is turning inward of the lower eyelid. B) Correct. C) Enucleation is removal of the entire eyeball. D) Exotropia is one or both eyes turning outward. Page Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 58) Damage to the retinal blood vessels in premature infants due to excessive oxygen therapy is: A) scleritis. B) trichiasis. C) retrolental fibroplasia. D) xerophthalmia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Scleritis is inflammation of the sclera. B) Trichiasis is eyelashes growing inward. C) Correct. D) Xerophthalmia is dry eye. Page Ref: 616 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 59) The roots in orthoptics mean: A) straight and eye. B) curved and eye. C) lens. D) round and dilating. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The roots in orthoptics mean straight and eye. C) The roots in orthoptics mean straight and eye. D) The roots in orthoptics mean straight and eye. Page Ref: 612 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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60) Cycloplegia has what effect? A) Dilates pupils B) Decreases intraocular fluid production C) Paralyzes ciliary muscles D) Contracts pupils Answer: C Explanation: A) Mydriatic drugs dilate the pupil. B) Beta blockers decrease intraocular fluid production. C) Correct. D) Miotics contract the pupil. Page Ref: 605 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 61) Inflammation of the conjunctiva is termed: A) conjunctivitis. B) xenophthalmia. C) xerophthalmia. D) trichiasis. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Xenophthalmia is eye inflammation due to foreign material. C) Xerophthalmia is dry eye. D) Trichiasis is growing inward of the eyelashes. Page Ref: 604 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 62) The suffix in blepharoptosis means: A) inflammation. B) condition. C) pertaining to. D) drooping. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix for inflammation is -itis. B) The suffixes for condition include -ia and -osis. C) Many suffixes mean pertaining to, such as -al and -ic. D) Correct. Page Ref: 603 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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63) Surgical destruction and removal of the lens are termed: A) photocoagulation. B) phacolysis. C) phacoemulsification. D) keratoplasty. Answer: B Explanation: A) Photocoagulation is using a laser to treat retinal detachment and other retinal problems. B) Correct. C) Phacoemulsification is the process of using ultrasound to disintegrate a cataract by inserting a needle through a small incision and aspirating the cataract. D) Keratoplasty is surgical repair of the cornea. Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 64) Using ultrasound to remove a cataract is: A) photocoagulation. B) radial keratotomy. C) phacolysis. D) phacoemulsification. Answer: D Explanation: A) Photocoagulation is using a laser to treat retinal detachment and other retinal problems. B) Radial keratotomy is incision into the cornea. C) Phacolysis is surgical destruction and removal of the lens. D) Correct. Page Ref: 612 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 65) Conjunctivitis is often called: A) sty. B) cross-eye. C) chalazion. D) pinkeye. Answer: D Explanation: A) Conjunctivitis is often called pinkeye. B) Conjunctivitis is often called pinkeye. C) Conjunctivitis is often called pinkeye. D) Correct. Conjunctivitis is often called pinkeye. Page Ref: 604 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 15.2 Matching Questions 484 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Match the following terms. A) crossed eyes B) inflammation of the vascular coat of the eye C) pertaining to the tears D) paralysis of the ciliary muscle E) often called "pinkeye" F) inflammation of the cornea G) inflammation of the edges of the eyelids 1) blepharitis Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) choroiditis Page Ref: 603 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) cycloplegia Page Ref: 605 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) conjunctivitis Page Ref: 604 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) esotropia Page Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) keratitis Page Ref: 608 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) lacrimal Page Ref: 609 485 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) G 2) B 3) D 4) E 5) A 6) F 7) C
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Match the following terms. A) an agent that causes the pupil to contract B) optic axes cannot be directed to the same object C) condition in which the pupils are unequal D) nearsightedness E) a surgical procedure that is performed to correct myopia F) increased intraocular pressure 8) anisocoria Page Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words, Pharmacology 9) glaucoma Page Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words, Pharmacology 10) miotic Page Ref: 610 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words, Pharmacology 11) strabismus Page Ref: 617 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words, Pharmacology 12) radial keratotomy Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words, Pharmacology 13) myopia Page Ref: 611 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words, Pharmacology Answers: 8) C 9) F 10) A 11) B 12) E 13) D Match the following word part with its meaning. 487 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) double B) iris C) cornea D) dull E) two F) tear G) out H) ciliary body I) inward J) in K) eye L) night M) eyelid 14) dipl/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 15) biPage Ref: 602 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) emPage Ref: 605 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) ex(o)Page Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) esoPage Ref: 606 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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19) ambly/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) blephar/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) cycl/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) dacry/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) irid/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) kerat/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) nyctal Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) ophthalm/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 14) A 15) E 16) J 17) G 18) I 19) D 20) M 21) H 22) F 23) B 24) C 25) L 26) K 489 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Match the following word part with its meaning. A) retina B) lens C) destruction D) foreign material E) uvea F) recording G) light H) tone I) dry 27) phac/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) phot/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) retin/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) ton/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) uve/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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32) xen/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) xer/o Page Ref: 601 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) -graphy Page Ref: 617 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) -lysis Page Ref: 614 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 27) B 28) G 29) A 30) H 31) E 32) D 33) I 34) F 35) C 15.3 True/False Questions 1) The circular opening in the center of the iris is called the pupil. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The protective covering for the exposed surface of the eyeball is the sclera. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The protective covering for the exposed surface of the eyeball is the conjunctiva. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) The nasolacrimal duct drains lacrimal fluid into the nasal cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 595 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) Aqueous humor is located in the anterior cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 597 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The anterior transparent portion of the eye's fibrous outer surface is the sclera. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The anterior transparent portion of the eye is the cornea. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 6) The iris is attached to the choroid. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The iris is attached to the ciliary body. Page Ref: 593 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 7) The leading cause of blindness over age 55 is macular degeneration. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 610 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 8) An increased number of tears can be a symptom of conjunctivitis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 604 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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9) Surgery is the only effective treatment for a cataract. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 603 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 10) Beta blockers increase the production of intraocular fluid. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Beta blockers decrease intraocular fluid production. Page Ref: 622 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 16 Female Reproductive System with an Overview of Obstetrics 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are identifiable areas of the uterus except the: A) body. B) isthmus. C) cortex. D) cervix. Answer: C Explanation: A) The uterine body is the larger portion of the uterus. B) The uterine body ends at the constricted central area known as the isthmus. C) Correct. D) The cervix is the lowermost cylindrical portion of the uterus. Page Ref: 634 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The fingerlike processes that work to propel the discharged ovum into the fallopian tube are called: A) flagella. B) fimbriae. C) filum. D) fillet. Answer: B Explanation: A) The fimbriae of the fallopian tubes propel the egg toward the uterus. B) Correct. C) The fimbriae of the fallopian tubes propel the egg toward the uterus. D) The fimbriae of the fallopian tubes propel the egg toward the uterus. Page Ref: 637 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 493 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) The abnormal process of tilting forward of the uterus at its body and neck is called: A) anteflexion. B) retroflexion. C) anteversion. D) retroversion. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anteflexion is the normal position of the uterus. B) Retroflexion is a backward bending. C) Correct. D) Retroversion is a tilting backward. Page Ref: 636 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical Words 4) The external region between the vulva and the anus in the female is the: A) perineum. B) peritoneum. C) puerperium. D) parturition. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The peritoneum is in the abdominal cavity. C) Puerperium is the postpartum period. D) Parturition is childbirth. Page Ref: 641 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) The medical term for a difficult monthly flow is: A) amenorrhea. B) dyspareunia. C) menorrhea. D) dysmenorrhea. Answer: D Explanation: A) Amenorrhea is lack of monthly flow. B) Dyspareunia is difficult or painful sexual intercourse. C) Menorrhea is the monthly flow. D) Correct. Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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6) The study of the female is called: A) gynecologist. B) gynecology. C) genitalia. D) gravida. Answer: B Explanation: A) A gynecologist is a medical specialist in the study of women and female disorders. B) Correct. C) Genitalia are the male or female reproductive organs. D) Gravida means pregnancy. Page Ref: 657 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) The branch of medicine that pertains to the care of women during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period is: A) oncology. B) gynecology. C) obstetrics. D) prenatal. Answer: C Explanation: A) Oncology is the study of cancer. B) Gynecology is the study of the female. C) Correct. D) Prenatal is the time period between conception and the onset of labor. Page Ref: 644 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) The cessation of the monthly flow is called: A) menorrhea. B) menopause. C) menorrhagia. D) oligomenorrhea. Answer: B Explanation: A) Menorrhea is the normal monthly flow. B) Correct. C) Menorrhagia is heavy bleeding during the monthly flow. D) Oligomenorrhea is a scanty monthly flow. Page Ref: 643 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) The male or female reproductive organs are called: A) genial. 496 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) genetics. C) gender. D) genitalia. Answer: D Explanation: A) The reproductive organs are called genitalia. B) The reproductive organs are called genitalia. C) The reproductive organs are called genitalia. D) Correct. Page Ref: 656 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) Surgical excision of the uterus is called: A) hysterotomy. B) hysterectomy. C) hymenectomy. D) hysteroplasty. Answer: B Explanation: A) Hysterotomy is an incision into the uterus. B) Correct. C) Hymenectomy is removal of the hymen over the vagina. D) Hysteroplasty is surgical repair of the uterus. Page Ref: 657 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 11) A surgical procedure to prevent tearing of the perineum and to facilitate delivery of the fetus is called: A) colposcopy. B) culdoscopy. C) episiotomy. D) hysterotomy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Colposcopy is a visual exam of the vagina and cervix. B) Culdoscopy is a visual exam of the viscera of the female pelvis. C) Correct. D) Hysterotomy is an incision into the uterus. Page Ref: 647 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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12) Surgical excision of an ovary is known as: A) oogenesis. B) oophorectomy. C) oophoritis. D) oophorotomy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Oogenesis is formation of an egg. B) Correct. C) Oophoritis is inflammation of an ovary. D) Oophorotomy is an incision into an ovary. Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 13) The surgical excision of a fallopian tube is called: A) salpingectomy. B) salpingotomy. C) salpingitis. D) salpingopexy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Salpingotomy is an incision into a fallopian tube. C) Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tube. D) Salpingopexy is surgical fixation of the fallopian tube. Page Ref: 666 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 14) Embryo refers to the stage of development between weeks: A) 1 and 4. B) 2 and 8. C) 3 and 12. D) 4 and 16. Answer: B Explanation: A) Embryo refers to the stage of development between weeks 2 and 8. B) Correct. C) Embryo refers to the stage of development between weeks 2 and 8. D) Embryo refers to the stage of development between weeks 2 and 8. Page Ref: 637 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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15) The process in which an ovum is discharged from the cortex of the ovary is known as: A) mittelschmerz. B) ovulation. C) menstruation. D) menarche. Answer: B Explanation: A) Mittelschmerz is an abdominal pain that occurs at ovulation. B) Correct. C) Menstruation is a monthly flow cycle. D) Menarche is the first monthly flow. Page Ref: 644, 662 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 16) In the term oogenesis, the suffix -genesis means: A) formation, produce. B) to burst forth. C) beginning. D) flow. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -rrhagia means to burst forth. C) The suffix -arche means beginning. D) The suffix -rrhea means flow. Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) Inflammation of the muscular wall of the uterus is: A) endometriosis. B) myometritis. C) vaginitis. D) cervicitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Endometriosis is a condition in which the endometrial tissue is displaced to various sites in the abdominal or pelvic cavity. B) Correct. C) Vaginitis is inflammation of the vagina. D) Cervicitis is inflammation of the cervix of the uterus. Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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18) The ________ is/are also called the uterine tubes or oviducts. A) ovary B) eustachian tubes C) fallopian tubes D) vagina Answer: C Explanation: A) The ovaries produce ova and hormones. B) The eustachian tube is a narrow tube between the middle ear and the throat. C) Correct. D) The vagina is the female organ of copulation. Page Ref: 636 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 19) All of the following are true of fertilization except: A) Fertilization is the process in which a sperm penetrates an ovum. B) Fertilization cannot take place within the oviducts. C) Fertilization generally occurs within 24 hours following ovulation. D) The fertilized ovum is genetically complete. Answer: B Explanation: A) Fertilization is the process in which a sperm penetrates an ovum. B) Correct. C) Fertilization generally occurs within 24 hours following ovulation. D) The fertilized ovum is genetically complete. Page Ref: 637 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 20) X-ray of the uterus and fallopian tubes after the injection of a radiopaque substance is called: A) hysterosalpingography. B) laparoscopy. C) culdoscopy. D) mammography. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Laparoscopy is a visual exam of the abdominal contents. C) Culdoscopy is a visual exam of the female pelvis. D) Mammography is an x-ray series of the breasts. Page Ref: 674 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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21) A ________ is used to examine the ovaries and fallopian tubes. A) blood test B) colposcope C) laparoscope D) mammogram Answer: C Explanation: A) A blood test cannot examine the ovaries and fallopian tubes. B) A colposcope is used to examine the vagina and cervix. C) Correct. D) A mammogram is a mammography exam, which uses x-rays to examine the breasts. Page Ref: 674 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 22) Provera, norethindrone acetate, and Prometrium are examples of which type of drug? A) Progestogens/progestins. B) Estrogens. C) Contraceptives. D) Intrauterine devices. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Provera, norethindrone acetate, and Prometrium are examples of progestogens. C) Provera, norethindrone acetate, and Prometrium are examples of progestogens. D) Provera, norethindrone acetate, and Prometrium are examples of progestogens. Page Ref: 671 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 23) In which condition does endometrial tissue occur in various sites in the abdominal or pelvic cavity? A) Dysmenorrhea B) Endometriosis C) Menarche D) Eclampsia Answer: B Explanation: A) Dysmenorrhea is difficult or painful menstruation. B) Correct. C) Menarche is the first monthly flow. D) Eclampsia is pregnancy-induced hypertension that involves seizures. Page Ref: 656 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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24) In the term dysmenorrhea, the combining form men/o means: A) month, menses, menstruation. B) condition. C) difficult, painful. D) beginning. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The suffix -ia means condition. C) The prefix dys- means difficult or painful. D) The suffix -arche means beginning. Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 25) A surgery to remove a membrane covering the vaginal opening is called: A) hysteroscopy. B) hymenectomy. C) hysterotomy. D) salpingectomy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Hysterscopy is a visual exam of the uterus to get a biopsy. B) Correct. C) Hysterotomy is an incision into the uterus. D) Salpingectomy is a surgical excision of a fallopian tube. Page Ref: 657 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 26) An example of a transdermal birth control patch is: A) Brevicon. B) Ogen. C) Depo-Provera. D) Ortho Evra. Answer: D Explanation: A) Brevicon is an oral contraceptive. B) Ogen is an estrogen. C) Depo-Provera is an injectable contraceptive. D) Correct. Page Ref: 672 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights
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27) An example of the minipill oral contraceptive is: A) Brevicon. B) Nexplanon. C) Ogen. D) Depo-Provera. Answer: B Explanation: A) Brevicon is an oral contraceptive. B) Correct. C) Ogen is an estrogen. D) Depo-Provera is an injectable contraceptive. Page Ref: 671 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 28) The first six weeks after childbirth is referred to as: A) parturition. B) placental. C) gestation. D) postpartum. Answer: D Explanation: A) Parturition is the period of active childbirth. B) The placental stage is the third stage of labor. C) The gestation period is the length of the pregnancy. D) Correct. Page Ref: 646 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 29) The funnel-shaped end of the fallopian tube is known as the: A) isthmus. B) ostium. C) infundibulum. D) fimbriae. Answer: C Explanation: A) The isthmus is the constricted portion closest to the uterus. B) The ostium is the opening at the end of the tube. C) Correct. D) The fimbriae are the fingerlike extensions. Page Ref: 637 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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30) Doppler ultrasound is used during pregnancy to: A) determine the sex of the fetus. B) monitor uterine contractions. C) determine the position of the fetus. D) monitor the fetal heartbeat. Answer: D Explanation: A) Regular ultrasound may determine the sex of the fetus. B) A different piece of equipment is required to monitor uterine contractions. C) Regular ultrasound can determine the fetal position. D) Correct. Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 31) Each month a/an ________ ruptures on the ovarian cortex. A) ovum B) corpus luteum C) cyst D) graafian follicle Answer: D Explanation: A) The ovum is released when the follicle ruptures. B) The corpus luteum develops after ovulation. C) No, there is no cyst. D) Correct. Page Ref: 639 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 32) Which of the following is an abnormal position of the uterus in which the uterus is bent backward at an angle? A) Anteflexion B) Retroflexion C) Retroversion D) Anteversion Answer: B Explanation: A) Anteflexion is the normal position of the uterus. B) Correct. C) Retroversion is an abnormal position of the uterus in which the uterus is turned backward. D) Anteversion is an abnormal position of the uterus in which the fundus is turned forward. Page Ref: 636 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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33) Menstruation marks the ________ phase. A) follicular B) ovulatory C) luteal D) secretory Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The ovulatory phase is when the egg is released. C) The luteal phase is right after ovulation. D) The secretory phase is another name for the luteal phase. Page Ref: 644 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 34) The luteal phase lasts: A) 12 hours. B) 24 hours. C) 4-5 days. D) 14 days. Answer: D Explanation: A) The luteal phase is about 14 days. B) The luteal phase is about 14 days. C) The luteal phase is about 14 days. D) Correct. Page Ref: 644 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 35) The term gravida refers to: A) number of children delivered. B) number of stillbirths. C) hypertension during pregnancy. D) any pregnancy, regardless of number. Answer: D Explanation: A) The term para refers to the number of children delivered. B) The term para includes stillbirths. C) Hypertension during pregnancy is preeclampsia. D) Correct. Page Ref: 657 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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36) The first breast milk after childbirth is called: A) meconium. B) colostrum. C) menarche. D) mucosa. Answer: B Explanation: A) Meconium is the first bowel movement of the newborn. B) Correct. C) Menarche is the first menstrual period. D) Mucosa is a layer of tissue. Page Ref: 642 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 37) The surgical removal of the breast tissue and the underarm lymph nodes is called: A) hysterectomy. B) mastectomy. C) oophorectomy. D) hymenectomy. Answer: B Explanation: A) A hysterectomy is removal of the uterus. B) Correct. C) An oophorectomy is removal of the ovary. D) A hymenectomy is removal of tissue over the vaginal opening. Page Ref: 659 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 38) A lack of menstruation is termed: A) dysmenorrhea. B) endometriosis. C) menarche. D) amenorrhea. Answer: D Explanation: A) Dysmenorrhea is difficult or painful menstruation. B) Endometriosis is the condition of uterine lining cells in the abdominal cavity. C) Menarche is the first monthly period. D) Correct. Page Ref: 654 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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39) A procedure to examine the vagina and cervix is: A) colposcopy. B) culdoscopy. C) laparoscopy. D) hysteroscopy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Culdoscopy is viewing the pelvic organs through an incision in the vagina. C) Laparoscopy is viewing the abdominal organs using a lighted instrument. D) Hysteroscopy is viewing the inside of the uterus. Page Ref: 674 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 40) The combining form in amenorrhea means: A) painful. B) without. C) flow. D) month. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix for painful is dys-. B) The prefix for without is a-. C) The suffix for flow is -rrhea. D) Correct. Page Ref: 654 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 41) A hernia of the bladder that protrudes into the vagina is: A) rectocele. B) vaginocele. C) cystocele. D) fibroma. Answer: C Explanation: A) A rectocele is a hernia of the rectum. B) A vaginocele is a hernia of the vagina. C) Correct. D) A fibroma is a fibrous tissue tumor. Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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42) The most common benign uterine tumor found in women is: A) breast cancer. B) sarcoma. C) fibroma. D) endometrioma. Answer: C Explanation: A) Breast cancer is not a uterine tumor. B) Sarcoma is a very malignant tumor that is less common. C) Correct. D) An endometrioma is a tumor of the uterine lining. Page Ref: 656 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 43) Surgical procedure required to perform a C-section is: A) hymenotomy. B) hysterectomy. C) hysterotomy. D) hysteroscopy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Hymenotomy is an incision into a layer of tissue over the vaginal opening. B) Hysterectomy is removal of the uterus. C) Correct. D) Hysteroscopy is a visual exam of the inside of the uterus. Page Ref: 658 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 44) Which of the following is an abnormal position of the uterus in which the fundus is turned forward toward the pubis? A) Anteflexion. B) Retroflexion. C) Retroversion. D) Anteversion. Answer: D Explanation: A) Anteflexion is the normal position of the uterus. B) Retroflexion is an abnormal position of the uterus in which the uterus is bent backward. C) Retroversion is an abnormal position of the uterus in which the uterus is turned backward. D) Correct. Page Ref: 636 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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45) A procedure that uses a laser to destroy the uterine lining is laser: A) hysterectomy. B) laparoscopy. C) lumpectomy. D) ablation. Answer: D Explanation: A) A hysterectomy is surgical excision of the uterus. B) A visual examination of the abdominal cavity with a lighted instrument is a laparoscopy. C) A lumpectomy is the surgical removal of a tumor from the breast. D) Correct. Page Ref: 658 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 46) Surgical repair of the breast is termed: A) mammoplasty. B) mastectomy. C) lumpectomy. D) mammopexy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Mastectomy is removal of the breast. C) Lumpectomy is removal of only the tumor in the breast. D) Mammopexy is fixation of the breast. Page Ref: 659 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 47) Menorrhagia is defined as: A) abdominal pain between periods. B) normal bleeding during a period. C) stoppage of menstrual periods. D) excessive bleeding during a period. Answer: D Explanation: A) Mittelschmerz is the abdominal pain between periods, at ovulation. B) Normal bleeding is menstruation or menorrhea. C) Amenorrhea or menopause is stoppage of menstrual periods. D) Correct. Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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48) The dilation stage is the: A) fourth stage of pregnancy. B) first stage of labor and delivery. C) second stage of labor and delivery. D) third stage of labor and delivery. Answer: B Explanation: A) The fourth stage of pregnancy is the postpartum period. B) Correct. C) The second stage of labor and delivery is expulsion or birth. D) The third stage of labor and delivery is delivery of the placenta. Page Ref: 647 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 49) The combining form in salpingo-oophorectomy means: A) fallopian tube. B) ovary. C) excision. D) out. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Oophor is a root that means ovary. C) The suffix -ectomy is removal. D) The prefix ec- means out. Page Ref: 666 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 50) Fibroids are ________ tumors. A) malignant breast B) benign uterine C) malignant uterine D) benign breast milk duct Answer: B Explanation: A) Fibroids are benign uterine tumors. B) Correct. C) Fibroids are benign uterine tumors. D) Fibroids are benign uterine tumors. Page Ref: 667 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Diseases
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51) A Pap smear is a screening technique that specifically examines: A) vaginal mucus. B) epithelial cells. C) cervical cells. D) hymen tissue. Answer: C Explanation: A) The Pap smear examines cervical cells scraped from the cervix. B) The Pap smear examines cervical cells scraped from the cervix. C) Correct. D) The Pap smear examines cervical cells scraped from the cervix. Page Ref: 676 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 52) A urine test that determines menstrual disorders or a possible abortion is known as: A) Pap. B) urinalysis. C) wet prep. D) pregnanediol. Answer: D Explanation: A) A Pap test examines cervical cells. B) A routine urinalysis cannot determine menstrual disorders or abortion. C) A wet prep examines vaginal discharge for bacteria and yeast. D) Correct. Page Ref: 676 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 53) Gestation period is another name for: A) labor and birth. B) one trimester. C) the six-week period after birth. D) the length of the pregnancy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Labor and delivery stages cover labor and birth. B) One trimester is three months. C) Postpartum or puerperium is the six-week period after birth. D) Correct. Page Ref: 644 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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54) "Nesting" is a term that refers to: A) fertilized egg attaching to the uterus. B) fetus dropping into the pelvis. C) energy spurt in woman shortly before labor. D) placenta covering the cervical opening. Answer: C Explanation: A) Implantation is the fertilized egg attaching to the uterus. B) Lightening is the fetus dropping into the pelvis. C) Correct. D) Placenta previa is the placenta covering the cervical opening. Page Ref: 647 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 55) The first and second A in APGAR stand for: A) appearance, anxiety. B) appearance, activity. C) appetite, activity. D) anxiety, appetite. Answer: B Explanation: A) The As stand for appearance (color) and activity (muscle tone). B) Correct. C) The As stand for appearance (color) and activity (muscle tone). D) The As stand for appearance (color) and activity (muscle tone). Page Ref: 649 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 56) In the term eclampsia, the root lamp(s) means: A) life. B) to shine. C) germ cell. D) displaced. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root lamp(s) means to shine. B) Correct. C) The root lamp(s) means to shine. D) The root lamp(s) means to shine. Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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57) The amniotic sac can be surgically punctured to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid. The procedure is called: A) cordocentesis. B) episiotomy. C) amniocentesis. D) chorionic villus sampling. Answer: C Explanation: A) Cordocentesis would be puncture of the umbilical cord. B) Episiotomy is an incision into the vulva to enlarge the vaginal opening. C) Correct. D) Chorionic villus sampling takes a sample of placental tissue, not amniotic fluid. Page Ref: 673 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 58) A woman's vaginal discharge after childbirth is called: A) bloody show. B) lanugo. C) the afterbirth. D) lochia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Bloody show occurs before childbirth. B) Lanugo is the fine downy hair that covers the baby's body. C) The afterbirth is the expelled placenta. D) Correct. Page Ref: 658 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 59) The act of giving birth is known as: A) afterbirth. B) pregnancy. C) parturition. D) preeclampsia. Answer: C Explanation: A) The afterbirth is the expelled placenta. B) Pregnancy is the entire period from conception to the end of the puerperium. C) Correct. D) Preeclampsia is an abnormal condition of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Page Ref: 646 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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60) The normal term of pregnancy is ________ days. A) 180 B) 200 C) 240 D) 280 Answer: D Explanation: A) The normal term of pregnancy is 280 days. B) The normal term of pregnancy is 280 days. C) The normal term of pregnancy is 280 days. D) Correct. Page Ref: 644 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 61) The term placenta previa means: A) the placenta is in normal position. B) the placenta is implanted in the lower uterus. C) the placenta has prematurely separated from the uterus. D) a highly vascular organ that anchors the fetus to the uterus. Answer: B Explanation: A) Placenta previa means the placenta is implanted in the lower uterus. B) Correct. C) Placenta previa means the placenta is implanted in the lower uterus. D) Placenta previa means the placenta is implanted in the lower uterus. Page Ref: 663 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 62) All of the following can be classified as degrees of placenta previa except: A) low-lying placenta. B) partial placenta previa. C) marginal placenta previa. D) high-flying placenta. Answer: D Explanation: A) Low-lying placenta describes a placenta that is implanted in the lower segment, but does not reach the internal os. B) Partial placenta previa indicates that the placenta partially covers the internal os. C) A marginal placenta previa describes a condition in which the edge of the placenta is at the margin of the internal os. D) There is no condition called a high-flying placenta. Page Ref: 663 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 16.2 Matching Questions 514 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Match the following terms. A) abdominal pain at time of ovulation B) normal monthly flow C) hernia of the bladder that protrudes into the vagina D) painful sexual intercourse E) heavy monthly flow F) scanty monthly flow 1) menorrhagia Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) cystocele Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) dyspareunia Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) oligomenorrhea Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) mittelschmerz Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 6) menorrhea Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) E 2) C 3) D 4) F 5) A 6) B Match the following terms. 515 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) study of the female B) cessation of the monthly flow C) removal of a small tumor, usually in the breast D) inflammation of the vagina E) use of x-rays to obtain images of the breast F) beginning of the monthly flow 7) vaginitis Page Ref: 667 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) lumpectomy Page Ref: 659 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 9) mammography Page Ref: 675 Objective: 9 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) menarche Page Ref: 643 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) menopause Page Ref: 643 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) gynecology Page Ref: 657 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 7) D 8) C 9) E 10) F 11) B 12) A Match the following word part with its meaning. A) vagina B) cervix 516 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) within D) breast E) a coming-together F) ovary G) female H) receive I) flow J) uterus K) surgical excision L) surgical puncture 13) -ectomy Page Ref: 657 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 14) -rrhea Page Ref: 654 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 15) oophor/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 16) metr/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) intraPage Ref: 658 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) -centesis Page Ref: 655 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) cept Page Ref: 652 517 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) cervic/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 21) coit/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) colp/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) mast/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) gynec/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 13) K 14) I 15) F 16) J 17) C 18) L 19) H 20) B 21) E 22) A 23) D 24) G
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) resemble B) sexual intercourse C) womb, uterus D) backward E) rectum F) egg G) fallopian tube H) cessation I) month J) around K) formation, produce L) after M) breast 25) hyster/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) mamm/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) men/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 28) retroPage Ref: 666 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) postPage Ref: 664 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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30) rect/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) pause Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) o/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 33) -oid Page Ref: 667 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) salping/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) pareun/o Page Ref: 652 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) periPage Ref: 662 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -genesis Page Ref: 661 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 25) C 26) M 27) I 28) D 29) L 30) E 31) H 32) F 33) A 34) G 35) B 36) J 37) K 520 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
16.3 True/False Questions 1) The normal position of the uterus is known as retroflexion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The normal position of the uterus is anteflexion. Page Ref: 634 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) An intrauterine device has an effectiveness rate of 95%. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An intrauterine device has an effectiveness rate of 99.2-99.9%. Page Ref: 672 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 3) The isthmus is the constricted portion of the fallopian tube nearest the cervix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The isthmus is the constricted part of the uterus above the cervix. Page Ref: 634 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) The ovary is also an endocrine gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 640 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 5) Regular contractions that begin during early pregnancy are termed Braxton Hicks. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular. Page Ref: 646 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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6) Premarin is a common form of progestogen given to women. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Premarin is a common form of estrogen given to women. Page Ref: 671 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 7) The process of fertilization occurs when the ovum becomes impregnated by a spermatozoon while in the fallopian tube. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 637 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 8) The hormone oxytocin stimulates the mammary glands to produce milk after childbirth. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The hormone prolactin stimulates the mammary glands. Page Ref: 641-642 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 9) Delivery of the placenta occurs during the expulsion stage of labor. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Delivery of the placenta occurs during the placental stage of labor. Page Ref: 647 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 10) Expulsion is the third stage of labor. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Expulsion is the second stage of labor. Page Ref: 647 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 17 Male Reproductive System 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The loose skin fold, or foreskin, that covers the penis is called the: A) glans penis. B) prepuce. C) meatus. 522 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) testis. Answer: B Explanation: A) The glans penis is the cone-shaped head of the penis. B) Correct. C) The meatus is the urinary opening at the end of the penis. D) The testis is where sperm develop. Page Ref: 689 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) The site of the development of spermatozoa is the: A) seminal vesicles. B) epididymis. C) vas deferens. D) seminiferous tubules. Answer: D Explanation: A) The seminal vesicles store sperm until ejaculation. B) The epididymis is where sperm mature. C) The vas deferens carries the sperm from the testes. D) Correct. Page Ref: 686 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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3) Enlargement of the prostate that can occur in older men is: A) benign prostatic hyperplasia. B) benign prostate trophy. C) hypertrophy prostatic. D) megaloprostatic. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia, or BPH, is enlargement of the prostate. C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia, or BPH, is enlargement of the prostate. D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia, or BPH, is enlargement of the prostate. Page Ref: 690 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 4) Which of the following can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia? A) Viagra B) Cardura (doxazosin) C) AndroGel D) Androderm Answer: B Explanation: A) Viagra is a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction. B) Correct. C) AndroGel is a drug used as a hormone replacement. D) Androderm is a drug used as a hormone replacement. Page Ref: 711 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 5) A lack of one or both testes is called: A) azoospermia. B) aspermia. C) anorchism. D) anarchism. Answer: C Explanation: A) Azoospermia is a condition in which the semen lacks sperm. B) Aspermia is lack of sperm or failure to ejaculate sperm. C) Correct. D) This is a misspelled word. Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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6) The surgical process of removing the foreskin of the penis is: A) artificial insemination. B) castration. C) circumcision. D) prostatectomy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Artificial insemination places semen into the vagina for pregnancy. B) Castration is removal of the testes. C) Correct. D) Prostatectomy is removal of the prostate gland. Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 7) Failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum is called: A) cryptorchidism. B) anorchism. C) balanitis. D) prostatism. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Anorchism is a lack of testes. C) Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis. D) Prostatism is any prostate condition that interferes with urination. Page Ref: 701 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) A congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the dorsum of the penis is called: A) epididymitis. B) hypospadias. C) epispadias. D) hydrocele. Answer: C Explanation: A) Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis. B) Hypospadias is the defect on the ventral surface of the penis. C) Correct. D) Hydrocele is accumulation of fluid in the scrotum. Page Ref: 702 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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9) A spermatozoon or ovum is called: A) mitosis. B) oligospermia. C) parenchyma. D) a gamete. Answer: D Explanation: A) Mitosis is a stage in reproduction of a cell. B) Oligospermia is a condition in which there is an insufficient amount of spermatozoa in the semen. C) Parenchyma are the functional cells of an organ. D) Correct. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 10) Surgical excision of a testicle is called: A) orchidectomy. B) orchidoplasty. C) orchidotomy. D) orchidopexy. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Orchidoplasty is surgical repair of a testicle. C) Orchidotomy is an incision into a testicle. D) Orchidopexy is surgical fixation of a testicle. Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 11) Surgical excision of the prostate is called: A) prostatalgia. B) orchidectomy. C) prostatitis. D) prostatectomy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Prostatalgia is pain in the prostate. B) Orchidectomy is removal of a testicle. C) Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate. D) Correct. Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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12) Enlargement and twisting of the veins of the spermatic cord is known as: A) vasectomy. B) varicocele. C) vesiculitis. D) varicosity. Answer: B Explanation: A) Vasectomy is removal or cutting of the vas deferens. B) Correct. C) Vesiculitis is inflammation of the seminal vesicle. D) Varicosity is the term for a varicose or dilated vein. Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 13) An agent that kills sperm is a: A) spermatocele. B) spermatid. C) spermicide. D) spermatozoon. Answer: C Explanation: A) Spermatocele is a cystic swelling of the epididymis. B) Spermatid is the sperm germ cell. C) Correct. D) Spermatozoon is the male sex cell. Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) A single male sex cell is called a: A) spermatozoon. B) spermatozoa. C) spermatocele. D) spermicide. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Spermatozoa is plural for the male sex cell. C) Spermatocele is a swelling of the epididymis. D) Spermicide is an agent that kills sperm. Page Ref: 706 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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15) Formation of spermatozoa is known as: A) oligospermia. B) spermatocele. C) spermatogenesis. D) spermatoblast. Answer: C Explanation: A) Oligospermia is a condition in which there are insufficient spermatozoa in the semen. B) Spermatocele is a swelling of the epididymis. C) Correct. D) Spermatoblast is the sperm germ cell. Page Ref: 706 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 16) The surgical tying and cutting of the vas deferens is called: A) vesiculitis. B) varicocele. C) vasotomy. D) vasectomy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Vesiculitis is inflammation of the seminal vesicle. B) Varicocele is dilating and twisting of the veins of the spermatic cord. C) Vasotomy is an incision into the vas deferens. D) Correct. Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 17) Sexual intercourse between a man and a woman is called: A) coitus. B) ejaculation. C) castration. D) artificial insemination. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Ejaculation is the process of expulsion of seminal fluid and sperm from the male urethra. C) Castration is removal of the testicles. D) Artificial insemination is placing semen into the vagina for pregnancy. Page Ref: 700 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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18) Levitra (vardenafil) is a drug used in the treatment of: A) benign prostatic hyperplasia. B) erectile dysfunction. C) chlamydia. D) genital warts. Answer: B Explanation: A) Proscar, Propecia, Cardura, and Flomax can be used in the treatment of BPH. B) Correct. C) Antibiotics are used in the treatment of chlamydia. D) Chemotherapy and cryosurgery can be used in the treatment of genital warts. Page Ref: 711 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 19) All of the following sexually transmitted infections can be treated with antibiotics except: A) chlamydia. B) gonorrhea. C) herpes genitalis. D) syphilis. Answer: C Explanation: A) Chlamydia can be treated with antibiotics. B) Gonorrhea can be treated with antibiotics. C) Correct. D) Syphilis can be treated with antibiotics. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 20) A venereal disease caused by Treponema pallidum is: A) syphilis. B) gonorrhea. C) herpes. D) chlamydia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Gonorrhea is caused by a gonococcus. C) Herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus. D) Chlamydia is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Page Ref: 693 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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21) In the term circumcision, the prefix circum- means: A) upon. B) under. C) around. D) lack of. Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix epi- means upon. B) The prefix sub- means under. C) Correct. D) The prefixes a- and an- mean lack of. Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) In the term cryptorchidism, the root crypt means: A) a rent. B) hidden. C) to pour. D) seed. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root spadias means a rent. B) Correct. C) The root enchyma means to pour. D) The root sperm means seed. Page Ref: 701 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) In the term hydrocele, the suffix -cele means: A) to kill. B) cell. C) hernia. D) condition of. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -cide means to kill. B) The suffix -cyte means cell. C) Correct. D) The suffixes -ia and -osis mean condition of. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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24) Which is the misspelled word? A) Hypospadias B) Orchdotomy C) Spermaturia D) Prostatomegaly Answer: B Explanation: A) Hypospadias is spelled correctly. B) Correct. C) Spermaturia is spelled correctly. D) Prostatomegaly is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 25) Inflammation of the glans penis is known as: A) orchitis. B) prostatitis. C) vesiculitis. D) balanitis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle. B) Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate. C) Vesiculitis is inflammation of the seminal vesicle. D) Correct. Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 26) The human papillomavirus (HPV) causes: A) chlamydia. B) genital warts. C) gonorrhea. D) syphilis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Bacteria cause Chlamydia. B) Correct. C) Bacteria cause gonorrhea. D) Bacteria cause syphilis. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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27) Trichomoniasis is caused by a: A) protozoa. B) bacterium. C) virus. D) fungus. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Trichomoniasis is not caused by a bacterium. C) Trichomoniasis is not caused by a virus. D) Trichomoniasis is not caused by a fungus. Page Ref: 693 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 28) During an acute stage, acyclovir may be used to relieve symptoms of: A) gonorrhea. B) syphilis. C) chlamydia. D) herpes genitalis. Answer: D Explanation: A) Acyclovir is not used to relieve symptoms of gonorrhea. B) Acyclovir is not used to relieve symptoms of syphilis. C) Acyclovir is not used to relieve symptoms of Chlamydia. D) Correct. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 29) The term castrate means to: A) remove the foreskin of the penis. B) cut out the prostate. C) remove the testicles. D) cut then tie or seal the vas deferens. Answer: C Explanation: A) A circumcision is a surgical procedure to remove the foreskin of the penis. B) A prostatectomy is a surgical excision of the prostate. C) Correct. D) A vasectomy is a surgical procedure in which the vas deferens are cut, then tied or sealed. Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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30) In the term ejaculation, the root ejaculat means: A) process. B) to throw up. C) to throw in. D) to throw out. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -ion means process. B) The root ejaculat means to throw out. C) The root ejaculat means to throw out. D) Correct. Page Ref: 701 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) Tests performed on semen can determine all of the following except: A) cancer. B) count. C) morphology. D) motility. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A sperm test can determine sperm count. C) A sperm test can determine morphology to evaluate infertility. D) A sperm test can determine sperm motility. Page Ref: 712 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 32) In the term gonorrhea, the suffix -rrhea means: A) process. B) excessive. C) condition of. D) flow. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -ion means process. B) The prefix hyper- means excessive. C) The suffixes -ia or -osis mean condition of. D) Correct. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) Which type of surgery may be recommended for adult men who desire permanent sterilization? A) Circumcision B) Vasotomy C) Vasectomy D) Prostatectomy Answer: C Explanation: A) Circumcision removes the prepuce or foreskin. B) A vasotomy is an incision into the vas deferens. C) Correct. D) Prostatectomy removes the prostate gland. Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 34) The vaccine Gardasil protects against four ________ types. A) human papillomavirus B) herpes simplex C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Treponema pallidum Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) There is no protection against herpes simplex virus-2 except abstinence or a condom. C) Chlamydia can be treated, but only abstinence or a condom prevents the disease. D) Only abstinence or a condom prevents syphilis. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights 35) In the term circumcision, the word root cis means to: A) fix. B) cut. C) remove. D) repair. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -pexy means to fix. B) Correct. C) The suffix -ectomy means to remove. D) The suffix -plasty means to repair. Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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36) An increased level of ________ indicates prostate disease or possibly prostate cancer. A) fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption B) prostate-specific antigen C) semen D) testosterone Answer: B Explanation: A) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption indicates syphilis. B) Correct. C) Semen is ejaculatory fluid containing sperm. D) Testosterone is the male hormone. Page Ref: 712 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 37) Which test may be used for the male to determine infertility? A) Paternity B) Prostate-specific antigen C) Semen D) Fluorescent treponemal antibody Answer: C Explanation: A) Paternity determines whether a man is the father of a child. B) PSA is used to determine prostate disease or cancer. C) Correct. D) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption indicates syphilis. Page Ref: 712 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 38) Which test, with results showing increased level, may indicate a prostate disease such as benign prostatic hyperplasia? A) Fluorescent treponemal antibody B) Semen C) Prostate-specific antigen D) Venereal disease research laboratory Answer: C Explanation: A) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption tests for syphilis. B) A semen test determines fertility. C) Correct. D) VDRL is used to detect syphilis. Page Ref: 712 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures
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39) A test performed on blood serum to detect syphilis is: A) paternity. B) semen. C) FTA-ABS. D) HSV-2. Answer: C Explanation: A) A paternity test uses DNA. B) A semen test uses semen. C) Correct. D) HSV-2 is the herpes simplex virus. Page Ref: 712 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 40) Which test may be used to determine whether a certain person could be the father of a specific child? A) Paternity B) Semen C) FTA-ABS D) HSV-2 Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A semen test determines fertility. C) FTA-ABS uses blood serum to detect syphilis. D) HSV-2 is the herpes simplex virus. Page Ref: 712 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 41) The pouchlike structure located behind the penis is the: A) testis. B) prostate. C) scrotum. D) anus. Answer: C Explanation: A) The two testes are located in the pouch. B) The prostate is located under the bladder. C) Correct. D) The anus opens to the outside of the body behind the scrotum. Page Ref: 686 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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42) Which of the following is another name for the vas deferens? A) Ductus deferens B) Cowper gland C) Efferent ductule D) Urethra Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The Cowper glands produce a mucous secretion before ejaculation. C) The efferent ductules connect the testes to each epididymis. D) The urethra serves the dual function of transmitting urine and semen out of the body. Page Ref: 689 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 43) A congenital defect in which the urethra opens on the ventral surface of the penis is: A) epispadias. B) hypospadias. C) hydrocele. D) phimosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Epispadias is the defect on the dorsum of the penis. B) Correct. C) Hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid in the scrotum. D) Phimosis is a constriction of the prepuce. Page Ref: 702 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 44) A usually painless cystic swelling of the epididymis that contains spermatozoa is: A) varicocele. B) spermatocele. C) epididymitis. D) vesiculitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Varicocele is dilation and twisting of the veins in the scrotum. B) Correct. C) Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis. D) Vesiculitis is inflammation of the seminal vesicle. Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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45) What goes through the prostate and opens into the prostatic portion of the urethra? A) Ejaculatory duct B) Ductus deferens C) Seminal duct D) Prostatic duct Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The ductus deferens or vas deferens goes from the epididymis to the seminal vesicles. C) The seminal duct carries sperm from the testicles. D) The prostatic duct carries prostate hormones. Page Ref: 690 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 46) The fluid-transporting medium for spermatozoa is: A) prostatic fluid. B) blood. C) semen. D) urine. Answer: C Explanation: A) Prostatic fluid is part of the semen. B) Blood does not transport sperm. C) Correct. D) Some urine may remain in the urethra, but it is not there to transport sperm. Page Ref: 686 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 47) Which option is spelled correctly? A) Clamidya B) Chlamydia C) Clahmydia D) Chlamidya Answer: B Explanation: A) This is not a correct spelling. B) Correct. C) This is not a correct spelling. D) This is not a correct spelling. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling
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48) A condition of a lack of sperm is called: A) spermatid. B) spermicide. C) anorchism. D) aspermia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Spermatid is the sperm germ cell. B) Spermicide is an agent that kills sperm. C) Anorchism is a condition in which there is a lack of one or both testicles. D) Correct. Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 49) A lack of sperm in the semen is termed: A) aspermia. B) anorchism. C) azoospermia. D) epispadias. Answer: C Explanation: A) Aspermia is lack of sperm or failure to ejaculate sperm. B) Anorchism is a lack of one or both testicles. C) Correct. D) Epispadias is a defect in which the urethral opening opens on the dorsum of the penis. Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 50) The root in castrate means to: A) remove. B) crush. C) cut. D) prune. Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix for remove is -ectomy. B) The suffix for crush is -tripsy. C) The root for cut is cis. D) Correct. Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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51) The combining form in gonorrhea means: A) flow. B) genitals. C) discharge. D) venereal. Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -rrhea means flow. B) Correct. C) The suffix -rrhea means discharge. D) The combining form in gonorrhea means genitals. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 52) The root mast in gynecomastia means: A) female. B) condition of. C) breast. D) upon. Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining form gynec/o means female. B) The suffix -ia means condition of. C) Correct. D) The prefix epi- means upon. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 53) The inability to achieve and maintain an erection is called: A) BPH. B) aspermia. C) erectile dysfunction. D) PSA. Answer: C Explanation: A) BPH is benign prostatic hyperplasia. B) Aspermia is lack of sperm production. C) Correct. D) PSA is a blood test that can indicate prostate disease. Page Ref: 702 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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54) The term for excessive development of the mammary glands in the male is spelled: A) gyncomastia. B) gynecmasta. C) gynicomasia. D) gynecomastia. Answer: D Explanation: A) This is not the correct spelling. B) This is not the correct spelling. C) This is not the correct spelling. D) Correct. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 55) An accumulation of fluid in the scrotal sac is termed: A) testitis. B) hydrocele. C) hypospadias. D) balanitis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Testitis is inflammation of the testicles. B) Correct. C) Hypospadias is a defect in which the urethra opens on the ventral surface of the penis. D) Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis. Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 56) A condition of scanty sperm in the semen is known as: A) spermatid. B) azoospermia. C) oligospermia. D) aspermia. Answer: C Explanation: A) Spermatid is the sperm germ cell. B) Azoospermia is lack of sperm in the semen. C) Correct. D) Aspermia is lack of sperm production. Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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57) Vesiculitis is a condition in which there is: A) inflammation of the epididymis. B) enlargement of the veins of the spermatic cord. C) inflammation of a seminal vesicle. D) scrotal swelling. Answer: C Explanation: A) Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis. B) Varicocele is enlargement of the spermatic cord veins. C) Correct. D) Hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid in the scrotum. Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 58) Herpes simplex virus-2 is the cause of: A) cervical cancer. B) genital warts. C) gonorrhea. D) herpes genitalis. Answer: D Explanation: A) HPV has been connected to some cases of cervical cancer. B) HPV is the cause of genital warts. C) Gonococcus is the cause of gonorrhea. D) Correct. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 59) Testosterone is: A) secreted by the epididymis. B) stored in the seminal vesicles. C) the major component of semen. D) the male sex hormone. Answer: D Explanation: A) Testosterone is not secreted by the epididymis. B) Testosterone is not stored in the seminal vesicles. C) Testosterone is not the major component of semen. D) Correct. Page Ref: 686 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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60) The head of the penis is known as the: A) corpus cavernosa. B) glans penis. C) prepuce. D) corpus spongiosum. Answer: B Explanation: A) The corpus cavernosa is erectile tissue in the penis. B) Correct. C) The prepuce is the foreskin. D) The corpus spongiosum is erectile tissue in the penis. Page Ref: 689 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 61) The lubricating fluid secreted by the glands in the foreskin is called: A) semen. B) mucous. C) smegma. D) blood. Answer: C Explanation: A) Semen is the fluid-transporting medium for spermatozoa. B) The bulbourethral glands produce a mucous secretion before ejaculation. C) Correct. D) Blood is not secreted by the glands in the foreskin. Page Ref: 689 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 62) Sperm mature in the: A) seminiferous tubules. B) seminal vesicles. C) epididymis. D) ejaculatory duct. Answer: C Explanation: A) The seminiferous tubules are the site for the development of sperm cells. B) Seminal vesicles add fluid to the semen. C) Correct. D) The ejaculatory duct carries sperm to the urethra. Page Ref: 686 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology
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63) The bulbourethral glands are also called: A) Bartholin's glands. B) Cowper glands. C) hydrocele. D) seminal vesicles. Answer: B Explanation: A) Bartholin's glands are in the female vagina. B) Correct. C) Hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid in the scrotum. D) Seminal vesicles store sperm and add fluid to the semen. Page Ref: 686 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 64) The purpose of the vas deferens is to: A) transport sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. B) mature the sperm cells. C) create male reproductive cells. D) transport sperm from the seminal vesicles to the urethra. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The epididymis provides the environment for sperm cells to mature. C) The testicles create male reproductive cells. D) The ejaculatory duct transports sperm to the urethra. Page Ref: 689 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 65) Artificial insemination is defined as: A) placing semen into the vagina for conception. B) using artificial semen. C) using eggs fertilized in a test tube. D) placing fertilized eggs into a uterus. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) This is not a correct definition. C) This is not a correct definition. D) This is not a correct definition. Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures
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17.2 Matching Questions Match the following terms. A) accumulation of fluid in a saclike cavity B) narrowing of the opening of the prepuce C) incision into a testicle D) sexual intercourse between a man and a woman E) essential cells of a gland F) a wartlike growth G) removal of the testicles H) male organ of copulation and urination 1) hydrocele Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) orchidotomy Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) parenchyma Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) phimosis Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 5) penis Page Ref: 686 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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6) coitus Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) castrate Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 8) condyloma Page Ref: 701 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 1) A 2) C 3) E 4) B 5) H 6) D 7) G 8) F
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Match the following terms. A) inability to produce a viable offspring B) a flexible protective sheath C) pertaining to the same sex D) mature reproductive cell E) a highly contagious venereal disease F) excessive development of the mammary glands in the male G) pertaining to the opposite sex 9) gamete Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 10) condom Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 11) gonorrhea Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 12) gynecomastia Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 13) heterosexual Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 14) homosexual Page Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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15) infertility Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words Answers: 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) F 13) G 14) C 15) A
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) upon B) glans penis C) to cut D) to throw out E) beside F) prostate G) thread H) around I) hidden J) to pour K) scanty L) testis 16) circumPage Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 17) epiPage Ref: 701 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 18) oligoPage Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 19) parPage Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 20) balan/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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21) cis/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 22) crypt/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 23) ejaculat/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 24) didym/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 25) enchyma Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 26) mit/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 27) prostat/o Page Ref: 697 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 16) H 17) A 18) K 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) I 23) D 24) L 25) J 26) G 27) F
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Match the following word part with its meaning. A) twisted vein B) life C) to use D) animal E) vessel F) water G) a rent, an opening H) condition I) to kill J) process K) seminal vesicle L) muzzle M) seed, sperm 28) phim Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) hydroPage Ref: 703 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 30) spadias Page Ref: 702 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 31) spermat/o Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 32) varic/o Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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33) vas Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) vesicul Page Ref: 707 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 35) zo/o Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 36) zoon Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 37) -ate Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) -cide Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) -ion Page Ref: 700 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 40) -ia Page Ref: 698 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building Answers: 28) L 29) F 30) G 31) M 32) A 33) E 34) K 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) I 39) J 40) H 552 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
17.3 True/False Questions 1) Another term for the foreskin is glans penis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Another term for foreskin is prepuce. Page Ref: 689 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 2) Mitosis is abnormal cell division. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Mitosis is normal cell division. Page Ref: 704 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 3) Testosterone is responsible for secondary male characteristics. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 688 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Anatomy & Physiology 4) Enlargement of the prostate is also known as BPH. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 690 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 5) Cryptorchidism is a condition of not having testicles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cryptorchidism is a condition of hidden or undescended testicles. Page Ref: 701 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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6) When the opening of the prepuce is narrowed at birth, this can cause phimosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 704 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 7) The most common type of cancer found in American men is testicular cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The most common cancer in American men is prostate cancer. Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 8) Prostate cancer is the second leading cause of cancer death in men. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 706 Objective: 3 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 9) In males, chlamydia can cause sterility. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases 10) Using antiviral drugs can cure herpes simplex virus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Antiviral drugs can reduce the symptoms but cannot cure herpes simplex virus. Page Ref: 692 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Drug Highlights Medical Terminology for Health Care Professionals, 10e (Rice) Chapter 18 Mental Health 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) An individual who realizes his or her abilities, can cope with stress, and can work productively has: A) bipolar disorder. B) anxiety. C) affective disorder. D) mental health. Answer: D 554 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Explanation: A) Bipolar disorder interferes with an individual's ability to carry out day-to-day tasks. B) Anxiety disorder reduces an individual's ability to cope with stress. C) An affective disorder causes a disturbance in mood and manic or depressive symptoms. D) Correct. Page Ref: 720 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) The official medical association that categorizes types of mental health disorders is the: A) AMA. B) APA. C) DSM. D) TAT. Answer: B Explanation: A) AMA stands for the American Medical Association. The AMA does not categorize types of mental health disorders. B) Correct. C) DSM stands for the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. This is a manual, not a medical association. D) TAT stands for Thematic Apperception Test. This is a test, not a medical association. Page Ref: 722 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Records
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3) A psychologist is educationally prepared to practice after graduating with a: A) medical degree. B) psychiatric medical residency certificate. C) master's or PhD degree. D) psychoanalysis training certificate. Answer: C Explanation: A) A psychologist is not a medical doctor. B) A psychologist requires more than a certificate. C) Correct. D) A psychologist requires more than a certificate. Page Ref: 723 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) Which of the following is an intelligence test used for adults? A) Minnesota Multiphasic B) Rorschach C) Wechsler D) TAT Answer: C Explanation: A) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory—2 is a personality test. B) The Rorschach Inkblot Test uses pictures to help stimulate patients to create stories. C) Correct. D) TAT stands for Thematic Apperception Test, which uses pictures to help stimulate patients to create stories. Page Ref: 723 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 5) A complex psychological disorder in which a person limits food intake, induces vomiting, and abuses laxatives is called: A) dissociation. B) acrophobia. C) kleptomania. D) anorexia nervosa. Answer: D Explanation: A) Dissociation is a defense mechanism in which a group of mental processes become separated from normal consciousness. B) Acrophobia is fear of heights. C) Kleptomania is an impulse control disorder in which the individual cannot resist stealing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 6) When a person has bizarre thoughts that have no basis in reality, the thought process is called: 556 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) a delusion. B) anxiety. C) depression. D) fugue. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Anxiety is a feeling of worry or apprehension. C) Depression is a feeling of sadness and loss of interest in things that are usually pleasurable. D) Fugue is a dissociative disorder in which amnesia is accompanied by physical flight from customary surroundings. Page Ref: 729 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 7) The observable evidence of an individual's emotional reaction associated with an experience is called a/an: A) psychosis. B) hallucination. C) affect. D) apathy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Psychosis occurs when an individual in unable to recognize reality. B) A hallucination is seeing or hearing things that don't exist. C) Correct. D) Apathy is a lack of feelings and emotions. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 8) Electroconvulsive therapy is useful for: A) severe depression. B) posttraumatic stress disorder. C) eating disorders. D) panic disorder. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) ECT is not used for posttraumatic stress disorder. C) ECT is not used for eating disorders. D) ECT is not used for panic disorder. Page Ref: 725 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical & Surgical Procedures 9) Dr. Sigmund Freud developed a type of therapy called: A) hypnosis. B) cognitive-behavioral therapy. 557 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) psychoanalysis. D) art therapy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Although Dr. Freud developed a theory of the unconscious from his work with a hypnotized patient, he did not develop hypnosis. B) Dr. Freud did not develop cognitive-behavioral therapy. C) Correct. D) Dr. Freud did not develop art therapy. Page Ref: 725 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Psychiatric Therapies 10) Persons who suddenly travels from home and cannot recall their past are in a state of: A) anxiety. B) paranoia. C) fugue. D) depression. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anxiety is worry or apprehension. B) Paranoia is a feeling of exaggerated mistrust. C) Correct. D) Depression is sadness and loss of interest in things that are usually pleasurable. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 11) When a physically healthy person habitually seeks medical treatment for conditions that are not real, that person has: A) psychosis. B) affective disorder. C) hypomania. D) factitious disorder. Answer: D Explanation: A) Psychosis is an inability to recognize reality. B) Affective disorder is disturbance of mood accompanied by mania or depression. C) Hypomania is a mild form of mania, or hyperactivity. D) Correct. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 12) Xanax, Valium, and Ativan are all in the ________ drug group. A) monoamine oxidase inhibitors B) neuroleptics C) benzodiazepines D) tricyclic antidepressants 558 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: C Explanation: A) Nardil and Parnate are examples of MOA inhibitors. B) Chlorpromazine is an example of a neuroleptic, given for psychosis. C) Correct. D) Tofranil is an example of a tricyclic antidepressant. Page Ref: 742 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 13) Which of the following is the inkblot test? A) Stanford—Binet B) Rorschach C) TAT D) Minnesota Answer: B Explanation: A) The Stanford—Binet is an intelligence test. B) Correct. C) The Thematic Apperception Test uses pictures to stimulate stories. D) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory—2 uses true-false questions. Page Ref: 723 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 14) What does the abbreviation CBT mean? A) Compulsive behavior therapy B) Counter-blocking therapy C) Complete brain testing D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy Answer: D Explanation: A) CBT does not stand for compulsive behavior therapy. B) CBT does not stand for counter-blocking therapy. C) CBT does not stand for complete brain testing. D) Correct. Page Ref: 744 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Abbreviations 15) A mental disorder in which a person has exaggerated and unwarranted suspiciousness and perhaps delusions of persecution is called: A) mania. B) paranoia. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) egocentrism. Answer: B Explanation: A) Mania is characterized by excessive excitement. B) Correct. 559 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) Generalized anxiety disorder is higher levels of anxiety than normal. D) Egocentrism is being self-centered. Page Ref: 735 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 16) Children who can't focus on a task, act impulsively, are distracted easily, and seem not to listen may have: A) GAD. B) PTSD. C) OCD. D) ADHD. Answer: D Explanation: A) GAD is generalized anxiety disorder. B) PTSD is posttraumatic stress disorder. C) OCD is obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) Correct. Page Ref: 728 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 17) DSM-5 is: A) a diagnostic test. B) a manual of mental disorders. C) an antianxiety drug. D) a psychotic disorder. Answer: B Explanation: A) DSM-5 is not a diagnostic test. B) Correct. C) DSM-5 is not an antianxiety drug. D) DSM-5 is not a psychotic disorder. Page Ref: 722 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Abbreviations 18) Dysthymia is defined as: A) a less-severe type of depression. B) a mild bipolar disorder. C) paranoia. D) an eating disorder. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Hypomania is a mild form of the manic phase. C) Paranoia is an exaggerated suspiciousness. D) Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder. Page Ref: 730 560 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 19) Persons with much higher levels of anxiety than people normally experience day to day may be diagnosed with: A) chronic depression. B) schizophrenia. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) apathy. Answer: C Explanation: A) Persons with chronic depression are not interested in worrying about things. B) Persons with schizophrenia have delusions, hallucinations, and blunted emotional expression. C) Correct. D) Apathy is a disinterest in feelings or events. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Mental Disorders 20) The need to check things over and over or to wash one's hands repeatedly because of a fear of germs is characteristic of which disorder? A) PTSD B) OCD C) SAD D) ADHD Answer: B Explanation: A) PTSD is posttraumatic stress disorder. B) Correct. OCD is obsessive-compulsive disorder. C) SAD is seasonal affective disorder, or sadness in times of less light during the day. D) ADHD is attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Page Ref: 734 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 21) Seeing or hearing things that are not present is called a/an: A) anxiety reaction. B) hallucination. C) obsession. D) manic episode. Answer: B Explanation: A) A person with anxiety does not see or hear things that are not present. B) Correct. C) An obsession is a compulsion to do things repeatedly without a real need to do so. D) A manic episode is a period of extreme hyperactivity. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 561 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Mental Disorders 22) Risk for suicide appears to be highest in people with: A) anxiety. B) paranoia. C) depression. D) psychosis. Answer: C Explanation: A) People with anxiety are not the highest risk for suicide. B) People with paranoia may fear being killed by another. C) Correct. D) A person with psychosis may believe that he/she is supposed to kill another. Page Ref: 738 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 23) A serious mental disorder in which an individual cannot recognize reality and may also have delusions and hallucinations is called: A) psychosis. B) psychopathic disorder. C) impulse control disorder. D) hypomania. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A psychopath dislikes other people and has little conscience. C) An impulse control disorder is not characterized by delusions and hallucinations. D) Hypomania is a mild form of mania or hyperactivity. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 24) When a parent or caregiver deliberately causes a child's illness to get attention, the parent has: A) nyctophobia. B) affective disorder. C) Munchausen syndrome. D) Munchausen-by-proxy syndrome. Answer: D Explanation: A) Nyctophobia is fear of darkness. B) Affective disorder is characterized by a disturbance of mood accompanied by a manic or depressive syndrome. C) Munchausen syndrome is a chronic factitious disorder in which a healthy person habitually seeks medical treatment. D) Correct. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge 562 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Question Type: Mental Disorders 25) Alzheimer disease is a form of: A) psychosis. B) dementia. C) schizophrenia. D) factitious disorder. Answer: B Explanation: A) Alzheimer disease is not a form of psychosis. B) Correct. C) Alzheimer disease is not a form of schizophrenia. D) Alzheimer disease is not a factitious disorder. Page Ref: 754 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Diseases
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26) Abnormal fear of being in public places or in a crowd is called: A) affective disorder. B) somatic symptom disorder. C) paranoia. D) agoraphobia. Answer: D Explanation: A) Affective disorder is a disturbance of mood with mania or depression. B) Somatic symptom disorder is one in which a person experiences physical complaints with no medical basis. C) Paranoia is an exaggerated suspiciousness. D) Correct. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 27) Pyromania is a form of a/an: A) psychopathic disorder. B) impulsive disorder. C) PTSD. D) bipolar disorder. Answer: B Explanation: A) A psychopathic disorder is one in which the person does not like people or society. B) Correct. C) Posttraumatic stress disorder occurs after a major trauma or chronic trauma. D) Bipolar disorder cycles between mania and depression. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 28) In the term autism, the root aut means: A) condition. B) automatic. C) self. D) one. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -ism means condition. B) The root aut does not mean automatic. C) Correct. The root aut means self. D) The root aut does not mean one. Page Ref: 728 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 29) An abnormal fear of high places is called: A) acrophobia. 564 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) hemophobia. C) arachnophobia. D) claustrophobia. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Hemophobia is fear of blood. C) Arachnophobia is fear of spiders. D) Claustrophobia is fear of enclosed places. Page Ref: 735 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 30) A mental disorder in which the individual is self-absorbed is: A) autism. B) apathy. C) agoraphobia. D) mania. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Apathy is lack of interest in feelings or events. C) Agoraphobia is fear of being in public places. D) Mania is hyperactivity. Page Ref: 728 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 31) The medical term that means an interrelationship between the mind and the body is: A) somatic. B) psychosis. C) psychotropic. D) psychosomatic. Answer: D Explanation: A) Somatic means pertaining to the body. B) Psychosis is an inability to distinguish what is real and what is not. C) Psychotropic refers to a drug that affects psychic function, behavior, or experience. D) Correct. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words
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32) A person being self-centered would be called: A) anxious. B) egocentric. C) apathetic. D) bipolar. Answer: B Explanation: A) An anxious person can worry about other people. B) Correct. C) An apathetic person is disinterested in people and events. D) A bipolar person has phases of mania and depression. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 33) In the term agoraphobia, the combining form agor/a means: A) anxiety. B) alone. C) huddled together. D) marketplace. Answer: D Explanation: A) Agor/a does not mean anxiety. B) Agor/a does not mean alone. C) Agor/a does not mean huddled together. D) Correct. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 34) Eg/o means: A) center. B) self. C) mind. D) body. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form centr/o means center. B) Correct. C) The combining forms phren/o and psych/o mean mind. D) The combining form somat/o means body. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building
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35) The abbreviation ADHD stands for: A) anxiety-depression/hypomania disorder. B) attention-disturbance/hypoactive disorder. C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. D) affective-disturbance/hyperactive disorder. Answer: C Explanation: A) The abbreviation ADHD does not stand for anxiety-depression/hypomania disorder. B) The abbreviation ADHD does not stand for attention-disturbance/hypoactive disorder. C) Correct. D) The abbreviation ADHD does not stand for affective-disturbance/hyperactive disorder. Page Ref: 744 Objective: 8 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Abbreviations 36) Which of the following is a state of mental confusion characterized by excitement, restlessness, hallucinations, and incoherent speech? A) Anxiety B) Delirium C) Depression D) Compulsion Answer: B Explanation: A) An anxious person does not have hallucinations. B) Correct. C) A depressed person does not have excitement. D) A person with a compulsion does not have hallucinations. Page Ref: 729 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 37) In the term delusion, the root delus means to: A) cheat. B) deal. C) debate. D) lie. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) The root delus does not mean to deal. C) The root delus does not mean to debate. D) The root delus does not mean tot lie. Page Ref: 729 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 38) In the term paranoia, the suffix -noia means: A) fear. 567 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) madness. C) mind. D) compel. Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -phobia means fear. B) The suffix -mania means madness. C) Correct. D) The root compuls means compel. Page Ref: 735 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 39) The root somat in the term psychosomatic means: A) mind. B) body. C) turning. D) center. Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form psych/o means mind. B) Correct. C) The combining form trop/o means turning. D) The combining form centr/o means center. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 40) In the term schizophrenia, the combining form schiz/o represents what happens in the individual's mind. Schiz/o means: A) circle. B) fear. C) madness. D) to divide. Answer: D Explanation: A) The combining form cycl/o means circle. B) The root phob means fear. C) The suffix -mania means madness. D) Correct. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 41) Suicide is the ________ leading cause of death in the United States for young people 15-24 years of age. A) third B) fifth C) eighth 568 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
D) twelfth Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Suicide is the third leading cause of death in the U.S. for young people 15-24 years of age. C) Suicide is the third leading cause of death in the U.S. for young people 15-24 years of age. D) Suicide is the third leading cause of death in the U.S. for young people 15-24 years of age. Page Ref: 738 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 42) In what disorder do people make uncontrollable sounds and/or display sudden and repeated body movements? A) Mania B) Tic disorder C) ADHD D) Somatic symptom disorder Answer: B Explanation: A) Mania is general, excessive hyperactivity. B) Correct. C) ADHD is difficulty attending to a task. D) Somatic symptom disorder involves physical complaints without a medical basis. Page Ref: 739 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 43) The drug Prozac is what kind of a drug? A) Antianxiety B) Antidepressant C) Antimanic D) Antipsychotic Answer: B Explanation: A) Xanax and Valium are antianxiety medications. B) Correct. C) Carbolith is an antimanic drug. D) Clozaril and Zyprexa are antipsychotic agents. Page Ref: 742 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 44) What classification of drugs is used in the treatment of ADHD? A) Antidepressants B) Antianxiety C) Stimulants D) Antimanic agents Answer: C Explanation: A) Antidepressants treat depression. 569 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
B) Antianxiety drugs relieve anxiety. C) Correct. D) Antimanic agents are used to treat bipolar disorder. Page Ref: 743 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 45) When a person genuinely believes he is having a heart attack or on the verge of death, but there is nothing physically wrong with that person, he is having: A) a manic episode. B) a panic attack. C) an obsession. D) a psychotic episode. Answer: B Explanation: A) A manic episode is one with excessive hyperactivity. B) Correct. C) An obsession is needing to repeat actions without an obvious need. D) A psychotic episode is one in which the person cannot tell reality from unreality. Page Ref: 727 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 46) Posttraumatic stress disorder was first brought to public attention by: A) depressed adolescents. B) post-delivery mothers. C) hyperactive children. D) war veterans. Answer: D Explanation: A) PTSD was not brought to public attention by depressed adolescents. B) PTSD was not brought to public attention by post-delivery mothers. C) PTSD was not brought to public attention by hyperactive children. D) Correct. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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47) What generally causes a dissociative disorder to develop? A) Severe trauma B) Wanting attention C) Chemical brain disorder D) Birth defect Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Wanting attention does not cause dissociative disorder. C) Chemical brain disorder is not linked to dissociative disorder. D) Birth defects do not cause dissociative disorder. Page Ref: 731 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 48) A type of therapy that helps people to change their thinking patterns to overcome their fears is called: A) psychoanalysis. B) art therapy. C) hypnosis. D) cognitive-behavioral therapy. Answer: D Explanation: A) Psychoanalysis lets people talk about their past experiences. B) Art therapy is used to help a person convey feelings through drawings. C) Hypnosis helps a person to recall a traumatic incident. D) Correct. Page Ref: 723 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Psychiatric Therapies
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49) Sigmund Freud developed his theory of the unconscious mind as a result of his experiments with: A) drugs. B) hypnosis. C) play therapy. D) family therapy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Sigmund Freud did not develop his theory of the unconscious mind through experiments with drugs. B) Correct. C) Sigmund Freud did not develop his theory of the unconscious mind through experiments with play therapy. D) Sigmund Freud did not develop his theory of the unconscious mind through experiments with family therapy. Page Ref: 724 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Psychiatric Therapies 50) Which condition has the greatest chance of becoming life threatening? A) Anorexia nervosa B) Apathy C) Autism D) ADHD Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Apathy does not have a high risk of death. C) Autism does not have a high risk of death. D) ADHD does not have a high risk of death. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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51) Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to mental disorders? A) Environment B) Drugs C) Brain chemical changes D) Social withdrawal Answer: D Explanation: A) The environment can contribute to mental disorders. B) Drugs can contribute to mental disorders. C) Brain chemical changes can contribute to mental disorders. D) Correct. Page Ref: 720 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 52) Besides anorexia nervosa, another type of eating disorder is: A) bulimea. B) bulimia. C) bulemia. D) bulemea. Answer: B Explanation: A) This is not the correct spelling for the eating disorder bulimia nervosa. B) Correct. C) This is not the correct spelling for the eating disorder bulimia nervosa. D) This is not the correct spelling for the eating disorder bulimia nervosa. Page Ref: 731 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 53) A syndrome characterized by a disturbance of mood accompanied by mania or depression is known as: A) bipolar disorder. B) psychosis. C) schizophrenia. D) affective disorder. Answer: D Explanation: A) Bipolar is a cycling through mania and depression. B) Psychosis is not telling reality from unreality. C) Schizophrenia is a type of psychosis. D) Correct. Page Ref: 726 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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54) A condition in which one lacks feelings and emotions is termed: A) anxiety disorder. B) manic-depressive. C) apathy. D) boredom. Answer: C Explanation: A) Anxiety disorder is excessive worry and apprehension. B) Manic-depressive is another name for bipolar disorder. C) Correct. D) People who experience boredom do not lack feelings. Page Ref: 727 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 55) The most commonly diagnosed behavioral disorder among children is: A) apperception. B) psychosis. C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. D) manic-depressive illness. Answer: C Explanation: A) Apperception is comprehending an experience colored by one's own experiences. B) Psychosis is more common in adults. C) Correct. D) Manic-depressive illness is more common in adults. Page Ref: 728 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 56) Which condition is also known as manic-depressive illness? A) Autism B) Bipolar disorder C) Anxiety disorder D) Compulsion Answer: B Explanation: A) Autism is not known as manic-depressive illness. B) Correct. C) Anxiety disorder is not known as manic-depressive illness. D) Compulsion is not known as manic-depressive illness. Page Ref: 729 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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57) In the term cyclothymic, the word root means: A) circle. B) cycle. C) mind. D) brain. Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining form cycl/o means circle. B) The combining form cycl/o also means cycle. C) Correct. D) The root encephal means brain. Page Ref: 729 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 58) A problem in the brain that makes it hard for a person to remember, learn, and communicate is: A) an eating disorder. B) dementia. C) delusion. D) compulsion. Answer: B Explanation: A) Persons with eating disorders have no problem remembering or learning. B) Correct. C) A person with a delusion can still learn and communicate. D) A compulsion does not disturb the ability to learn or communicate. Page Ref: 729 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 59) A pyromaniac: A) talks incessantly. B) is fearful of dying. C) steals things. D) starts fires. Answer: D Explanation: A) A manic talks incessantly. B) A person with a panic attack is fearful of dying. C) A kleptomaniac steals things that aren't needed. D) Correct. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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60) Which of the following is NOT a mental disorder that is marked by an altered mood? A) Depression B) Affective disorder C) Anxiety disorder D) Psychotherapy Answer: D Explanation: A) Depression is marked by an altered mood. B) Affective disorder is characterized by a disturbance of mood. C) Anxiety disorders include symptoms of excessive, irrational fear or dread. D) Correct. Page Ref: 723, 726-727, 730 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 61) A morbid fear of a specific object or situation is called: A) fugue. B) phobia. C) mania. D) psychosis. Answer: B Explanation: A) A fugue is a type of amnesia in which the person travels. B) Correct. C) Mania is excessive hyperactivity. D) Psychosis is a state in which the person cannot tell reality from unreality. Page Ref: 735 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 62) Munchausen syndrome can be described as a/an: A) involvement with oneself. B) disorder of not caring about others. C) disorder marked by altered moods. D) chronic factitious disorder. Answer: D Explanation: A) Egocentrism is caring about oneself. B) Psychopathic disorder is not caring about others. C) Bipolar disorder is one disorder marked by altered moods. D) Correct. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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63) A disorder in which a patient might always anticipate disaster is termed: A) schizophrenia. B) psychosis. C) generalized anxiety disorder. D) hallucination. Answer: C Explanation: A) Schizophrenia includes delusions, hallucinations, and blunted emotional expression. B) In psychosis, the individual cannot recognize reality. C) Correct. D) A hallucination occurs when a person experiences sensations that have no source. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 64) An abnormal mood of mild mania characterized by hyperactivity is: A) hypermania. B) affective disorder. C) compulsion. D) hypomania. Answer: D Explanation: A) Hypermania is the extreme of mania. B) Affective disorder is marked by mania and depression. C) Compulsion is an uncontrollable urge to perform an act to relieve fear. D) Correct. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 65) A patient with impulse control disorder might also be diagnosed with: A) pyromania. B) fugue. C) hallucinations. D) seasonal affective disorder. Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) A fugue is a type of amnesia in which the person travels. C) A hallucination occurs when a person experiences sensations that have no source. D) Seasonal affective disorder is a form of depression that is related to fluctuations in exposure to natural light. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Comprehension Question Type: Mental Disorders 66) A mental disorder that is characterized by highly exaggerated or unwarranted mistrust is also known as: 577 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
A) psychosis. B) paranoia. C) obsession. D) bipolar disorder. Answer: B Explanation: A) Psychosis is the inability to tell reality from unreality. B) Correct. C) Obsession is a neurotic state in which a person has recurrent thoughts that are unwanted and distressing. D) Bipolar disorder is a manic-depressive illness that causes unusual shifts in a person's mood, energy, and ability to carry out daily tasks. Page Ref: 735 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 67) When someone has pain in the absence of any physiological cause, that person has: A) bipolar disorder. B) somatic symptom disorder. C) personality disorder. D) an agoraphobic disorder. Answer: B Explanation: A) A person with bipolar disorder does not have pain as part of the disorder. B) Correct. C) A personality disorder does not have pain as part of the disorder. D) An agoraphobic is afraid to be in crowded public places. Page Ref: 738 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 68) The roots in psychiatrist mean: A) mind. B) center. C) treatment. D) both A and C. Answer: D Explanation: A) The root psych means mind, but iatr is also a root. Iatr means treatment. B) The combining form centr/o means center. C) The root iatr means treatment, but psych is also a root. Psych means mind. D) Correct. The root psych means mind and the root iatr means treatment. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 69) A mentally ill individual with an antisocial personality disorder is termed a/an: A) psychotic. B) agoraphobic. 578 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
C) psychopath. D) pyromaniac. Answer: C Explanation: A) A psychotic person cannot tell the difference between reality and unreality. B) An agoraphobic is afraid to be in crowded public places. C) Correct. D) A pyromaniac has an impulsive disorder consisting of a compulsion to set fires or to watch fires. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 70) In the term psychosomatic, the combining form psych/o means: A) body. B) mind. C) center. D) self. Answer: B Explanation: A) The root somat means body. B) Correct. C) The root centr means center. D) The root eg means self. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Word Building 71) The term for a mental disorder characterized by positive and negative symptoms is spelled: A) scitzofrenia. B) schitzophrenia. C) schizophrenia. D) schizofrenia. Answer: C Explanation: A) This is not the correct spelling. B) This is not the correct spelling. C) Correct. D) This is not the correct spelling. Page Ref: 736 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Spelling 72) Which of the following drugs is generally prescribed for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder? A) Stimulant B) Antimanic C) Antipsychotic D) SSRIs 579 Copyright © 2021 Pearson Education, Inc.
Answer: A Explanation: A) Correct. B) Antimanic drugs are prescribed for bipolar disorder. C) Antipsychotic drugs are prescribed for psychotic disorders. D) SSRIs are prescribed for depression. Page Ref: 743 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 73) The Stanford-Binet is a type of: A) story telling test. B) intelligence test. C) personality test. D) depression inventory. Answer: B Explanation: A) The TAT is a story telling test. B) Correct. C) The MMPI-2 is a personality test. D) A depression inventory tests the degree of depression. Page Ref: 723 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Laboratory and Diagnostic Procedures 74) The most common drug prescribed for ADHD is: A) Prozac. B) Librium. C) Xanax. D) Ritalin. Answer: D Explanation: A) Prozac is an antidepressant. B) Librium is an antianxiety drug. C) Xanax is an antianxiety agent. D) Correct. Page Ref: 743 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology
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18.2 True/False Questions 1) WHO defines health solely as the absence of disease or infirmity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: WHO defines health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. Page Ref: 720 Objective: 1 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 2) A mental disorder is an abnormal condition of the brain or mind. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 720 Objective: 2 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 3) A psychologist is also a medical doctor. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A psychologist is not a medical doctor. A psychologist has a master's degree or PhD. Page Ref: 723 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Medical Words 4) Clinical psychologists cannot prescribe medication. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 723 Objective: 4 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 5) Electroconvulsive therapy is used to stimulate muscles and check response time. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Electroconvulsive therapy is used to treat severe depression. Page Ref: 725 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Psychiatric Therapies
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6) Psychotherapy is used to treat mental disorders using psychological techniques instead of physical methods. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 723 Objective: 5 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Psychiatric Therapies 7) The most common psychiatric disorder that appears in childhood is OCD. Answer: FALSE Explanation: ADHD is the most common psychiatric disorder in childhood. Page Ref: 728 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 8) Stimulants are the most widely used drug to treat ADHD. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 743 Objective: 7 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Pharmacology 9) A mild level of mania is called psychosis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A mild level of mania is called hypomania. Page Ref: 732 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders 10) Asperger syndrome is a type of autism. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 728 Objective: 6 Level of Diff.: Knowledge Question Type: Mental Disorders
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